Agricultural Engineering Comprehensive Board Exam Reviewer: Agricultural Processing, Structures, and Allied Subjects

AGRICULTURAL
ENGINEERING
COMPREHENSIVE
BOARD EXAM
REVIEWER
Volume II
Agricultural Processing,
Structures, and Allied
Subjects
UNIVERSITY PRESS Department of Agricultural

Central Philippine University Engineering
Iloilo City, Philippines
College of Agriculture
1. A dryer in which the material being dried moves
through the drying chamber is substantially in 5. It is the ratio of the total heat utilized to vaporize
continuous stream without being recirculated. moisture in the material being dried to the
a. Recirculating-type dryer amount of heat added to the drying air.
b. Continuous-flow type dryer a. Dryer efficiency
c. Concurrent flow dryer b. Thermal efficiency
d. None of the above c. Heat of vaporization efficiency
d. All of the above
2. A continuous-flow dryer in which the product
being dried moves in the same direction as the 6. A fraction of grain with its length equal to or
drying air. greater than three-forth of the average.
a. Cross-flow type dryer a. Large broken grain
b. Counter-flow type dryer b. Small broken grains
c. Concurrent-flow type dryer c. Head grain
d. All of the above d. None of the above
3. A continuous-flow type dryer in which the drying 7. An air moving device to force heated air through
bin is a columnar type with louvers causing the mass of grain at a desired air-flow rate and
mixing to occur as the grain flows through the pressure.
system. a. Blower
a. Mixing type b. Aspirator
b. Non-mixing type c. Fanning mill
c. Recirculating type d. None of the above
d. None of the above
8. A mechanical grain dryer wherein grain is passed
4. A dryer in which the product of combustion intermittently in cycles or stages through a drying
comes into contact with the product being dried. chamber either by mechanical means or by
a. Indirect fired dryer gravity with subsequent cooling and tempering
b. Direct fired dryer until the grain reaches the desired moisture
c. Combustion fired dryer content.
d. All of the above a. Batch-in-bin dryer
b. Flat-bed dryer
c. Multipass dryer
d. All of the above
b. 12 months
9. A chamber wherein air pressure forms uniform c. One year
distribution of heated air through the grain mass. d. Two of the above
a. Plenum
b. Bin 14. It is the ratio of the heat released by the fuel to
c. Duct the theoretical heat available from the fuel.
d. All of the above a. Burner efficiency
b. Thermal efficiency
10. The minimum requirement for drying efficiency c. Combustion efficiency
based on the standard performance criteria for a d. None of the above
mechanical dryer.
a. 90% 15. It is the percentage of grain free from foreign
b. 75% matter.
c. 50% a. Percentage foreign matter
d. None of the above b. Percentage Cleanliness
c. Purity
11. The minimum requirement for heating efficiency d. None of the above
of direct-fired biomass-fueled grain dryer.
a. 75% 16. Pressure build up in the plenum chamber to
b. 65% maintain uniform distribution of air flow through
c. 50% the grain mass.
d. None of the above a. Velocity pressure
b. Static pressure
12. The minimum requirement for heat utilization c. Dynamic pressure
efficiency based on the standard performance d. Two of the above
criteria of direct-fired petroleum-based fuel for
mechanical dryers. 17. It is the temporary holding of grains between
a. 90% drying passes to allow the moisture in the center
b. 80% of the grain equalize with that on its surface.
c. 70% a. Tempering
d. None of the above b. Static drying
c. Dryaeration
13. Warranty period requirement for mechanical d. None of the above
grain dryers.
a. 6 months
18. It is the amount of moisture in the grain b. Resistance type meter
expressed as percentage of the total weight of the c. Infrared moisture meter
samples. d. All of the above
a. Moisture content dry basis
b. Moisture content wet basis 23. Moisture that can be found at the surface of the
c. Moisture content material.
d. All of the above a. Unbound water
b. Bound water
19. It is the amount of moisture in the grain c. Free moisture
expressed as percentage of the weight of dry d. All of the above
matter.
a. Moisture content dry basis 24. The blending of ingredients or materials in
b. Moisture content wet basis agricultural processing operation.
c. Moisture content a. Sorting
d. None of the above b. Molding
c. Mixing
20. Screen cleaners that employ an air blast to assist d. All of the above
in cleaning.
a. Screen separator 25. It is a burr or plate mill.
b. Fanning mill a. Micro mill
c. Blower b. Attrition mill
d. None of the above c. Roller mill
d. All of the above
21. It is a part of a belt conveyor that is used to
discharge materials over the end of the belt by a 26. A process of reducing the size of materials by
diagonal scraper. applying force to the product in excess of its
a. Scraper strength.
b. Tripper a. Shearing
c. Head pulley b. Crushing
d. None of the above c. Milling
22. A moisture meter that determines the moisture
content of the product based on the ability of 27. A process of reducing the size of materials by
current to pass through the material. pushing or forcing a thin sharp knife into it.
a. Capacitance type moisture meter a. Shearing
b. Crushing a. Stripping
c. Cutting b. Reaping
d. All of the above a. Harvesting
b. All of the above
28. It indicates the uniformity of grind in the
resultant product. 33. If 20 kg of water is to be removed from 110kg of
a. Uniformity sex paddy, what is the percentage moisture content of
b. Particle size paddy in wet basis?
c. Fineness modulus a. 1.8%
d. All of the above b. 18%
c. 22%
29. A process of reducing materials by a combination d. None of the above
of cutting and crushing actions.
a. Milling 34. What is the percentage moisture content of paddy
b. Grinding above when expressed in dry basis?
c. Shearing a. 22%
d. None of the above b. 30%
c. 12%
30. If the amount of water in a product is determined d. None of the above
based on its dry matter content, the moisture
content is expressed in ________. 35. What is the amount of moisture to be removed
a. wet basis from a material whose moisture content is 14.5%
b. dry basis with dry matter weight of 76 kg?
c. semi wet basis a. 12.9kg
d. None of the above b. 24.1kg
c. 14.5kg
31. A method of measuring the moisture content of d. None of the above
the product by direct extraction of water.
a. Primary method 36. If a product has a percentage moisture content of
b. Secondary method 12% wet basis, the equivalent percentage
c. Tertiary method moisture content in dry basis is ______.
d. None of the above a. 13.6%
b. 16.3%
32. The process of detaching or separating rice grains c. 13.4%
from the panicle by combing action. d. None of the above
c. up to 24 inches
37. A product expressed in dry basis has a percentage d. All of the above
moisture content of 25%, what is the percentage
moisture content of the product in wet basis? 42. Recommended clearance for disk huller to
a. 20% achieve higher brown rice recovery with less
b. 22% breakage.
c. 26% a. ¼ of the length of paddy grain
d. None of the above b. ½ of the thickness of paddy grain
c. ¾ of the length of paddy grain
38. If 9 ton of a product is to be dried from 24% to d. None of the above
14%, the final weight of the product would be
_________. 43. Manufacturers’ prescribed peripheral velocity of
a. 7,953.4 kg a disk huller is ___________.
b. 8,837.3 kg a. 10m/s
c. 9,741.4 kg b. 14m/s
d. None of the above c. 18m/s
39. What is the moisture loss of the product in item
above? 44. Manufacturers’ recommendation for the speed of
a. 1046.5 kg cone in a vertical abrasive whitening cone should
b. 2285.6 kg. not exceed ________.
c. 2634.4 kg a. 13m/s
d. None of the above b. 14m/s
c. 15m/s
40. It is the measure of the power output of fan in d. None of the above
relation to its power input.
a. Fan thermal efficiency 45. Manufacturers’ recommendation for the speed of
b. Fan performance index a horizontal abrasive whitener.
c. Fan efficiency a. 800 rpm
d. All of the above b. 1000rpm
c. 1200 rpm
41. The recommended depth of grain in a shallow d. All of the above
bed dryer is:
a. up to 12 inches 46. The process in which air moves through stored
b. up to 18 inches grains at a low rate to maintain its quality.
a. Cooling a. 2592 bags
b. Aeration b. 2952 bags
e. Fanning c. 2295 bags
f. None of the above d. None of the above
47. Maximum allowable safe height of sack pile in 52. If 5000 bags of paddy is to be piled 20-bag high,
bag storage. how many square meters of floor space is
a. 12-16 sacks required?
b. 18-25 sacks a. 111sq.m.
c. 28-30 sacks b. 121sq.m.
d. None of the above c. 211sq.m.
48. Recommended stacking density per cubic meter
of space for paddy. 53. A storage method wherein the gas concentration
a. 5 bags in storage atmosphere is changed.
b. 10 bags a. Sealed storage
c. 15 bags b. Modified atmosphere
d. None of the above c. Controlled atmosphere
d. All of the above
of space for corn. 54. A process of separating lower density materials
a. 12 bags from grains.
b. 14 bags a. Aspiration
c. 16 bags b. Cleaning
d. None of the above c. Fanning
d. All of the above
of space for milled rice. 55. A primary cleaner which separates larger
a. 10 bags particles or performs rough cleaning of grains.
b. 15 bags a. Rotary sieve
c. 20 bags b. Scalper
d. None of the above g. Vibrating screen
h. All of the above
51. If a pile of rice is 8-m long, 6-m wide, and 3.6-m
high, how many bags of rice are safe to be piled?
56. Recommended size of scalper for paddy is b. Drying
_______. c. Water treatment
a. 0.2-0.25 m2 per ton d. None of the above
b. 0.3-0.35 m2 per ton
c. 0.4-0.45 m2 per ton 61. In a disk huller, the stationary disk is located at
d. None of the above the _________.
a. top of the huller
57. What is the theoretical rpm of a bucket elevator b. bottom of the huller
whose head pulley diameter is 0.2 m and the c. side of the huller
bucket projection is 0.1m.? d. None of the above
a. 77 rpm
b. 120 rpm 62. The capacity of a compartment type separator is
c. 160 rpm ________.
d. None of the above a. 20-30kg. brown rice per hour
b. 40-60kg. brown rice per hour
58. If the operational efficiency of the bucket c. 70-80kg. brown rice per hour
elevator above is 85% of the theoretical speed, d. None of the above
what is the operation speed of the elevator?
a. 65 rpm 63. The amount of foreign materials in a sample of
b. 102 rpm grains.
c. 136 rpm a. Impurities
d. None of the above b. Chalky grain
c. Dockage
59. What is the theoretical horsepower requirement d. None of the above
of a bucket elevator whose capacity is 545kg/min
and lift of 10.7m. The elevator is loaded down 64. A storage practice in which grains are stored in
side. loose form in a large container.
a. 2.19 hp a. Bag storage
b. 1.92 hp b. Bunker storage
c. 2.91 hp c. Bulk storage
d. None of the above d. All of the above
60. A hydrothermal treatment of paddy before 65. A small metal probe for taking samples of paddy.
milling. a. Sampling tube
a. Parboiling b. Trier
c. Sampler c. 70%
d. None of the above d. None of the above
66. Wooden frame used in staking bags of rice. 71. What is the hulling coefficient of the huller in
a. Dunnage item above?
b. Loading platform a. 0.79
c. Bag holder b. 0.89
d. All of the above c. 0.99
67. A warehouse used for storing paddy or rice either
in bulk or in bags. 72. If the head rice recovery of paddy in item above
a. Silo is equal to 85%, what is the amount of broken
b. Godown grains?
c. Farmstead a. 487.50 kg
d. None of the above b. 478.50 kg
c. 475.85 kg
68. Rough cleaning of paddy to remove most foreign d. None of the above
materials prior to drying and storage.
a. Aspiration 73. What is the amount of rice hull produced during
b. Scalping milling in item above?
c. Sieving a. 1000 kg
d. All of the above b. 1050 kg
c. 1100 kg
69. A drying temperature of 45 C is equal to d. None of the above
__________.
a. 113 F 74. The optimum relative humidity for storing fruits
b. 131 F and vegetables is
c. 121 F a. 60-70%
d. None of the above b. 80-90%
c. 90-100%
70. Five tons of paddy milled in 6 hours produces d. All of the above
3950 kg brown rice and 3250kg. of milled rice,
what is the milling recovery? 75. A two-ton mechanical dryer dries paddy from
a. 60% 24% to 14% in 8 hours. What is the final weight
b. 65% of the product after drying?
a. 1767.4 kg 80. Amount of heat required to raise one gram of
b. 1677.4 kg water one degree centigrade.
c. 1776.4 kg a. One BTU
d. None of the above b. One Calorie
c. One Joule
76. What is the drying capacity of the dryer in the d. All of the above
item above?
a. 200 kg/hr 81. What is the peak storage capacity of a 5-m
b. 250 kg/hr diameter grain storage bin with an average height
c. 125 kg/hr and a minimum angle of fill of 6 m and 28 deg,
d. None of the above respectively?
a. 126.5m³
77. What is the moisture reduction per hour in the b. 162.5m³
item above? c. 156.2m³
a. 29.07 kg/hr d. None of the above
b. 27.09 kg/hr
c. 20.97 kg/hr 82. The angle whose tangent equals the coefficient of
d. None of the above friction between surfaces of the stored materials.
a. Angle of contact
78. The coefficient of friction of rice to a steel b. Angle of friction
material is 0.41. What is the minimum angle of c. Angle of repose
hopper required for the system? d. All for the above
a. 22 deg
b. 30 deg 83. Expression of moisture content commonly used
c. 50 deg in commercial scale.
d. None of the above a. Moisture wet basis
b. Moisture content dry basis
79. The divisional layer between the dried and the c. Moisture content
undried products in a drying system. d. All of the above
a. Drying layer
b. Drying zone 84. A solar dryers is used to reduce the moisture
c. Drying front content of four tons of paddy from 25% to 15%
d. All of the above wet basis. The amount of moisture removed is
about ___________.
a. 471 kilos
b. 417 kilos 89. An air chamber maintained under pressure
c. 714 kilos usually connected to one or more distribution
d. None of the above duct in a drying system.
a. Drying bin
85. A device that remove excess moisture generally b. Plenum chamber
by forced ventilation with or without addition of c. Air duct
heat. d. None of the above
a. Fryer
b. Dehydrator 90. A machine that converts paddy to milled rice.
c. Dryer a. Paddy husker
d. None of the above b. Rice whitener
c. Rice mill
86. A batch-type dryer with vertical holding bin and d. All of the above
is used for shallow-bed drying. 19
a. Recirculating dryer 91. An example of rice husker.
b. Vertical bin dryer a. Rubber roll huller
c. Batch-type dryer b. Disk huller
d. None of the above c. Steel-huller
d. All of the above
87. A batch-type dryer equipped to circulate or mix
grain during drying operation. 92. One ton of coconut will produce approximately
a. Vertical-bin dryer ______ of oil.
b. Recirculating dryer a. 400 kg
c. Flat-bed dryer b. 500 kg
d. None of the above c. 600 kg
88. A batch dryer with horizontal grain holding bin is
passed continuously through a drying chamber 93. A machine used to remove bran .
utilizing agitator until the grain reaches the a. Polisher
specified moisture content reduction per pass. b. Husker
a. Batch dryer c. Whitener
b. Continuous flow dryer d. All of the above
c. Recirculating dryer
94. It is a part of a belt conveyor that is used to c. 25 %
discharge materials over the end of the belt by a d. None of the above
diagonal scraper.
a. Idler pulley 99. The maximum percentage of milling recovery
b. Tripper that can obtained from a rice mill is ______.
c. Head pulley a. 69 %
d. None of the above b. 75 %
c. 80 %
95. It is the ratio of the quantity of light on the d. None of the above
working place to the quantity of light output from
the source. 100. Recommended clearance of disk huller to achieve
a. Room index higher brown rice recovery with less breakage.
b. Coefficient of utilization a. ¼ of the thickness of paddy grain
c. Light intensity b. ½ of the thickness of paddy grain
d. None of the above c. ¾ of the thickness of paddy grain
96. A log has a smallest diameter of 24 inches and a
length of 18 inches. What is the net total number 101. A vertical-axis hammer mill is more
of board foot that can be obtained from the log? advantageous than the horizontal-axis hammer
a. 450 bd ft mill for the reason that __________.
b. 500 bd ft a. it is more effective in grinding grains with
c. 550 bd ft higher moisture content of up to 25%.
d. None of the above b. the power requirement of the vertical-axis
hammer mill is much lower than the
97. A dryer component that converts velocity horizontal-axis hammer mill
pressure of the fan to static pressure. c. less broken grains can be derived from
a. Drying bin vertical-axis hammer mill
b. Plenum chamber d. None of the above
c. Manometer
d. None of the above 102. A grain milling machine consisting of two cast
iron disk plate with teeth or serration on one or
98. The percentage speed difference between rubber both faces.
rollers. a. Hammer mill
a. 15 % b. Attrition mill
b. 20 % c. Roller mill
d. All of the above b. horizontal feed mixer has high power
requirement
103. A grain milling machine suitable for grinding c. horizontal feed mixer has lesser life span
grains with moisture content of up to 30%. d. None of the above
a. Hammer mill
b. Attrition mill 108. A type of bearing used for tightening bucket
c. Roller mill elevator belts.
d. All of the above a. Pillow block bearing
b. Flange bearing
104. A type of mill used for crushing grains by c. Take-up units
allowing it to pass through a two rotating cylinder d. None of the above
steel one of which is smaller than the other.
a. Hammer mill 109. When a bucket elevator is to be fed at the
b. Roller mill downside section instead of the upside section of
c. Plate mill the elevator booth, its power requirement will
d. All of the above _________.
a. decrease
105. The density of pig and poultry feed is b. increase
approximately _______. c. the same
a. 250 kg/m3 d. None of the above
b. 450 kg/m3
c. 650 kg/m3 110. A type of a conveyor feeder used for feeding
d. None of the above birds in cages on a poultry farm.
a. Flat chain feeder
106. The auger that is centrally located at the vertical b. Auger feeders
feed mixer usually rotates at a speed of _______. c. Round chain feeders
a. 100-250 rpm d. All of the above
b. 250-400 rpm
c. 400-650 rpm 111. An electrically-operated device commonly used
d. None of the above for automatic bagging of grains or feeds.
a. Solinoid switch
107. Horizontal feed mixer is not advantageous for b. Transducer
feed mixing as compared with vertical feed mixer c. Load cell
for the reason that _________. d. None of the above
a. horizontal feed mixer has lower capacity
112. Manufacturers’ prescribed peripheral velocity of d. All of the above
disc for disc-type huller.
a. 10 m/s 117. Recommended size of scalper for paddy cleaning.
b. 14 m/s a. 0.2-0.25m2/ton
c. 18 m/s b. 0.3-0.35m2/ton
d. None of the above c. 0.4-0.45m2/ton
113. Recommended peripheral speed of rubber roller
for hulling operation. 118. What is the theoretical rpm of a bucket elevator
a. 10 m/s whose head pulley diameter is 0.2 m and the
b. 14 m/s bucket projection is 0.1 m.
c. 18 m/s a. 77 rpm
d. none of the above b. 120 rpm
c. 160 rpm
114. Manufacturers’ recommendation for maximum d. None of the above
speed cone on a vertical abrasive whitening
machine. 119. If the operational speed of the bucket elevator in
a. 13 m/s item above is 85 % of the theoretical speed, what
b. 14 m/s is the operational speed of the elevator?
c. 18 m/s a. 65 rpm
d. none of the above b. 102 rpm
c. 136 rpm
115. An element used primarily to support axial d. None of the above
compressive load and with a height of at least three
times its least lateral dimension. 120. What is the theoretical horsepower requirement
a. Pier of a bucket elevator with a capacity of 545
b. Column kg/min and lift of 10.7 m and the elevator is
c. Beams loaded down side.
d. None of the above a. 2.19 hp
b. 1.92 hp
116. A primary cleaner which separates larger c. 2.91 hp
particles or rough cleaning of rough rice. d. None of the above
a. Rotary sieve
b. Scalper 121. A rice mill huller which produces high milling
c. Vibrating screen recovery.
a. Steel huller b. to drive at horizontal
b. Rubber huller c. to drive vertical
c. Stone disk d. All of the above
d. All of the above
127. A conveyor with high power requirement per unit
122. On the disk huller, the stationary disk is located capacity.
on ________. a. Bucket
a. top of the huller b. Belt
b. bottom of the huller c. Pneumatic
c. outside of the huller d. All of the above
d. none of the above
128. An air moving device suitable for grain cleaning.
123. An air moving device which produces high a. Axial fan
airflow but low head. b. Propeller fan
a. Fans c. Cross flow fan
b. Blower d. All of the above
c. Compressor
d. All of the above 129. If the diameter of a blower is increased, the
pressure will ______.
124. A device that is used to move oil. a. increase
a. Blower b. decrease
b. Pump c. the same
c. Compressor d. None of the above
d. All of the above
130. A machine which separates paddy from brown
125. If mixing is needed to carryout during conveying, rice.
the suitable conveyor is _________. a. Screen sifter
a. Bucket b. Paddy separator
b. Screw c. Paddy husker
c. Belt d. None of the above
d. All of the above
126. The horsepower requirement of belt conveyors 131. A machine that smoothen milled rice.
includes power ______. a. Whitener
a. to drive empty b. Polisher
c. Sifter b. 25 %
d. All of the above c. 30 %
d. none of the above
132. Recommended for conveying product with less
damage. 137. A machine that is used to remove the bran from
a. Bucket elevator the brown rice.
b. Screw conveyor a. Polisher
c. Belt conveyor b. Grader
d. All of the above c. Whitener
133. An air moving device commonly used for drying
which produces high pressure but low airflow. 138. A machine that is used to make milled rice shiny
a. Blower after removing the bran layer.
b. Fan a. Polisher
c. Compressor b. Grader
d. None of the above c. Whitener
134. Recommended to remove metallic element
during conveying. 139. A machine that is used to segregate various
a. Screen separator fractions/sizes of milled rice.
b. Magnetic separator a. Whitener
c. Pneumatic separator b. Grader
d. None of the above c. Whitener
135. A machine that separates brown rice from paddy. 140. A type of whitener consisting of a fluted roller
a. Scalper rotating inside the hexagonal chamber with slot-
b. Paddy separator type perforations.
c. Rice whitener a. Abrasive-type whitener
d. Paddy husker b. Frictional-type whitener
e. None of the above c. All of the above
136. The speed of fixed rubber roll from the adjustable 141. Commonly used material handling equipment.
roller on a rubber roll huller is slower by a. Bucket elevator
________. b. Screw conveyor
a. 20 % c. Belt conveyor
d. All of the above 146. It is the method of determining grain moisture by
directly extracting the moisture from the product.
142. A conveyor which is essentially made of an a. Primary method
endless belt operating between two or more b. Secondary method
pulleys with its load supported by idlers. c. Tertiary method
a. Bucket elevator d. None of the above
b. Screw conveyor
c. Pneumatic conveyor 147. An example of moisture determination using
d. None of the above primary method.
a. Resistance type meter
143. A conveyor used for fine materials and is made b. Capacitance type meter
of a helical plate which rotates on a trough and c. Oven
moves the product by dragging. d. All of the above
a. Chain conveyor
b. Pneumatic conveyor 148. It is a method of determining moisture from the
c. Screw conveyor product which is based on the electrical
d. None of the above properties of the product.
a. Primary method
144. A material handling equipment which consists of b. Secondary method
cups attached to a chain or belt that revolves c. Tertiary method
around a bottom-and-top pulley where the cups d. None of the above
are discharged.
a. Chain conveyor 149. A device used in oven-drying to prevent
b. Belt conveyor dehydrated samples to re-adsorb moisture while
c. Bucket elevator undergoing cooling process.
d. None of the above a. Distilling flask
b. Glass jar
145. A conveyor which utilizes high terminal velocity c. Dessicator
air to move the product. d. All of the above
a. Vibratory conveyor
b. Screw conveyor
c. Pneumatic conveyor 150. It is the ability of the machine to remove hulls
d. None of the above from the grains.
a. Coefficient of hulling
b. Hulling percentage
c. Husking efficiency b. Portable auger
d. All of the above c. Distributing auger
151. Outer layer of brown rice consisting of aleurone
cells covering the endosperm of the rice grain. 156. An auger which releases conveyed materials
a. Hull essentially uniformly along a substantial portion
b. Embryo of its length.
c. Bran a. Feeding auger
d. All of the above b. Portable auger
c. Distributing auger
152. The ASAE standard agricultural pallet bin for d. None of the above
square shape bin.
a. 100 cm x 100 cm 157. An auger whose accessories include a suitable
b. 120 cm x 120 cm support system which provides mobility.
c. 150 cm x 150 cm a. Feeding auger
d. None of the above b. Portable auger
c. Distributing auger
153. The ASAE standard agricultural pallet bin for d. None of the above
rectangular shape bin.
a. 120 cm x 100 cm 158. Auger size refers to _________.
b. 150 cm x 120 cm a. the diameter of the auger.
c. 150 cm x 100 cm b. the inside diameter of the auger tube.
d. None of the above c. the outside diameter of the auger tube.
154. Overall height of agricultural pallet bin as
recommended by ASAE. 159. Hammer mills are designed purposely to
a. 72 or 133 cm ________.
b. 62 or 122 cm a. chop forage materials.
c. 52 or 112 cm b. reduce the sizes of granular products.
d. None of the above c. compact powered product.
160. The husking ratio of rubber roll huller is about
155. An auger capable of discharging materials to one ________.
or more locations. a. 60-70 %
a. Feeding auger b. 80-90 %
c. 95-98 % c. Brown rice
161. A rice thresher that is fed at one end and 166. Measures the ability of the machine to remove
discharges threshed product at the other end is hulls with minimum breakage.
________. a. Coefficient of hulling
a. radial-type thresher b. Coefficient of breakage
b. hold on type thresher c. Coefficient of wholeness
c. axial-flow thresher d. All of the above
167. It is the extent by which the bran layer of brown
162. Commonly used threshing units for throw-in type rice is removed as a result of whitening.
thresher. a. Milling degree
a. Peg-tooth b. Degree of whitening
b. Wire loop c. Milling recovery
c. Rasp bar d. All of the above
168. A multi-pass rice mill is determined by
163. Part of rice thresher that causes the movement of ___________.
panicles from one end to the other end of the a. having two or three separate hullers in the
threshing cylinder. system
a. Louvers b. having a series of two or three whitening
b. Concave machines
c. Pegs c. paddy is loaded several times in the rice mill
169. It is the ratio of the weight of milled rice to the
164. The recommended rpm of rice thresher cylinder. weight of paddy multiplied by one hundred.
a. 400-600 rpm a. Percentage head rice recovery
b. 800-1200 rpm b. Percentage milling recovery
b. 2000-3000 rpm c. Percentage milling capacity
c. None of the above d. None of the abov
165. It is a dehulled paddy but the bran layer remains 170. It is an unhulled grain of Oryza sativa.
intact. a. Palay
a. Rough rice b. Paddy
b. Milled rice c. Rough rice
d. All of the above c. Attrition mill
d. All of the above
171. An auxillary device of a rice mil which receives
the remaining small bran particles of milled rice 176. A kind of cleaner that uses air to separate lower
and gives a glossy appearance to the product. density material from corn kernel/corn grits such
a. Whitener as floured corn, germ, and bran.
b. Grader a. Aspirator
c. Polisher b. Oscillating screen
d. All of the above c. Cleaner
d. Cyclone separator
172. An example of rice huller. e. All of the above
a. Steel-fluted
b. Rubber roll 177. A kind of rice mill that employs only one
c. Disk whitening machine.
d. Centrifugal a. “Kiskisan” rice mill
e. All of the above b. Single pass rice mill
c. Rubber roll rice mill
173. A process of reducing the corn kernel into pieces d. None of the above
of grits, germ, and pericarp with or without
conditioning. 178. Minimum hulling efficiency requirement for rice
a. Dry milling mill based on the standard performance criterion.
b. Hammer milling a. 90%
c. Attrition milling b. 80%
d. None of the above c. 70%
174. A machine used to remove the germ and pericarp
from the corn kernel.
a. Conditioner
b. De-germinator
c. Corn mill
175. A major component of a corn mill used to reduce 179. It is the process of rewetting of dried corn kernels
corn kernel into grits. to about 18 to 22% moisture content and
a. Roller mill tempered to make the pericarp and the germ more
b. Ball mill
pliable and easier to remove during de- c. Grain Production Enhancement Program
germination process. d. All of the above
a. Tempering
b. Conditioning 184. Areas of concern of Philippine Postharvest
c. Drying Industry.
d. None of the a. Research and development
b. Training, extension, and commercialization
180. A storage system for holding buffer stocks c. Postharvest facility assistance
usually located at shipping receiving terminals. d. Government support to the private sector
a. Village level storage system e. All of the above
b. Commercial level storage system f. None of the above
c. Centralized storage system
d. All of the above 185. It is the fibrous layer of paddy when hull is
removed and is frequently known as the silver
181. It is a storage structure made of pre-fabricated skin of brown rice.
reinforcement concrete of pre-fabricated metal a. Lemma and Palea
siding, which is either a hopper bottom or a flat b. Pericarp
bottom. c. Bran layer
a. Warehouse d. None of the above
b. Silo
c. Bulk container 186. The free space between the husk of rough rice
d. All of the above and the brown rice kernel greatly affects milling
in the sense that ________.
182. Size of wire mesh used in storage to protect a. the larger the free space increases the amount
stored product from insects and rodents. of broken grains
a. ¼ inch mesh b. the smaller the free space the lesser its
b. ½ inch mesh abrasive effect to the rubber roll huller
c. ¾ inch mesh c. the larger the free space, the smaller the
d. All of the above breakage and losses
d. All of the above
187. Slender type paddy has a length to width ratio of

183. GPEP stands for __________. _________.
a. Grain Productivity Enhancement Project a. less than 2.0
b. Grain Productivity enhancement Program b. between 2 to 3
c. more than 3.0 b. harvesting paddy above 80% will produce
d. None of the above more empty grains
c. harvesting paddy above 80% will produce
188. The uneven expansion and contraction of the more shattered and broken grains
inner and outer layers of the grains that cause d. All of the above
fissuring is a factor of __________.
a. mechanical stress 192. It is the manual method of harvesting paddy
b. thermal stress using “yatab”.
c. physical stress a. Sickle harvesting
d. All of the above b. Panicle harvesting
e. None of the above c. Stripper harvesting
d. All of the above
189. Broken rice is a quality deterioration index
during ________. 193. Shelled corn initially at 24% is to be dried to
a. drying 14%. If the initial weight of corn is 1000 kilos,
b. threshing what is its final weight?
c. milling a. 782 kg
d. None of the above b. 827 kg
c. 872 kg
190. Changes in texture, odor, flavor, and nutritive d. None of the above
value of grains during prolonged storage, even in
the absence of insects and microorganisms, are 192. What is the moisture loss of corn grains above?
due to _______. a. 128 kg
a. moisture and temperature b. 173 kg
b. vapor pressure and temperature c. 218 kg
c. vapor pressure and moisture d. None of the above
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
191. It is recommended that paddy should be 193. It is a plot representing the equilibrium moisture
harvested when 80% of the panicle are fully ripe content of grains at different relative humidity
for the reason that __________. but with constant temperature.
a. harvesting paddy below 80% will produce a. Isothermal graph
more broken grains b. Sorption isotherms
c. Isothermal humidity
d. None of the above 198. What is the relative humidity of air if the
psychrometer measures 40 C for both dry bulb
194. Factors that cause migration of moisture during and wet bulb temperatures?
storage. a. 40%
a. Variation of ambient temperature within the b. 80%
grain mass c. 100%
b. Moisture gradient within the grain mass d. All of the above
c. All of the above
d. None of the above 199. If the point is moved horizontally to the left of
e. the psychrometric chart, the process is
195. It is the process of diffusion from region of high __________.
concentration to region of low concentration. a. heating
a. Energy transfer b. cooling
b. Mass transfer c. drying
c. Heat transfer d. None of the above
200. If the end-product in milling is brown rice, the
196. In grain drying theory, drying will occur if grain has just passed through a ________.
___________. a. paddy cleaner
a. the vapor pressure of grains is higher than the b. rubber roll huller
vapor pressure of air c. whitener
b. the vapor pressure of grains is lower than the d. sifter
vapor pressure of air e. None of the above
c. the vapor pressure of grains is equal with the
vapor pressure of air 201. What machine is usually used before brown rice
d. None of the above will undergo whitening process?
a. Husker
b. Aspirator
197. The usual depth of grain in deep bed batch dryer c. Paddy separator
is __________. d. Rice polisher
a. 18 inches e. None of the above
b. 2 to 8 ft
c. 8 to 10 ft 202. Adjustment clearance for rubber brakes in
d. None of the above vertical abrasive whitening cone.
a. 1 to 2 mm from cone coating
b. 2 to 3 mm from cone coating 207. It is the process of compressing mash feeds with
c. 3 to 4 mm from cone coating the aid of live steam to produce small chunks or
d. None of the above cylinders of feed.
a. Mixing
203. Maximum speed requirement of vertical abrasive b. Crumbling
whitening cone machine. c. Pelleting
a. 13 m/s d. All of the above
b. 14 m/s
c. 15 m/s 208. It is the process of grinding pellets into coarse
d. All of the above granular form.
a. Coarse pelleting
204. Normal setting speed of horizontal abrasive b. Crumbling
whitener. c. Milling
a. 800 rpm d. None of the above
b. 1000 rpm
c. 1200 rpm 209. A feed mixer which have an auger that elevates
d. None of the above the feed on top of the mixing bin and spread
evenly in the bin by gravity for another mixing
205. Recommended clearance setting between stones cycle.
of a disk huller. a. Horizontal mixer
a. ¼ of the length of paddy b. Vertical mixer
b. ½ of the length of paddy c. Inclined mixer
c. ¾ of the length of paddy d. All of the above
d. All of the above
210. A mixer which consist of a U shaped bin which

206. If the rubber roll huller becomes worn-out, the contains a central mixing blade or ribbon
peripheral speed of the roller will _________. mounted on a rotating shaft.
a. decrease a. Horizontal mixers
b. increase b. Inclined mixer
c. be the same c. Vertical mixer
211. Feed mixers that is characterized by high
capacity, short mixing time, and high power 215. Grinding feeds basically will ____
requirement. a. make the feed attractive to the animals.
a. Horizontal mixer b. improve digestability of feeds materials.
b. Inclined mixer c. improved storage period of the feeds.
c. Vertical mixer d. None of the above
d. All of the above
216. Average velocity of hammer tip of a hammer
212. Feed mixer that is characterized by low capacity. mill.
longer mixing time, and low power requirement. a. 50 m/s
a. Horizontal mixer b. 100 m/s
b. Inclined mixer c. 150 m/s
c. Vertical mixer d. None of the above
d. All of the above
45 217. It is used to control the flow of materials in a feed
213. It is the assembling and measuring out of the milling plant to ensure that it will enters in the
required qualities of solid raw feed materials into full width of the mill chamber and at the same
a batch of the desired composition. time optimum capacity is obtained while the
a. Mixing motor is overloaded.
b. Blending a. Discharge chute
c. Pelleting b. Feeder
d. All of the above c. Auger
218. Optimum mixing time of vertical-type feed

214. Feed materials are mixed purposely to _______ mixer.
a. obtain homogenous feed to ensure that a. 5 minutes
animals are given the same proportions of b. 10 minutes
nutrient c. 15 minutes
b. reduce the density of the feed material so that d. None of the above
it can be easily transported.
c. improve the digestability of feeds. 219. Approximate speed of horizontal type feed mixer.
d. None of the above a. 10 rpm
b. 15 rpm b. Corn grit # 14
c. 25 rpm c. Corn grit # 16
d. None of the above d. Corn grit # 18
e. All of the above
220. Required mixing time for horizontal feed mixer.
a. 5 minutes 225. It is a by-product after pressing copra when oil having
b. 10 minutes light color and very low fatty acids has been
c. 15 minutes removed.
d. None of the above a. Copra meal
b. Copra meat
221. It is a coarse powder from outer covering of the c. Copra cake
corn kernel removed during milling process. d. None of the above
a. Corn cob
b. Grit 226. It is the process of rewetting of dried corn kernels
c. Bran to about 18 to 22% moisture content and
d. Pericarp tempered to make the pericarp and the germ more
e. None of the above pliable and easier to remove during
47 degermination process.
222. By-product in corm milling refers to _____. a. Wet milling
a. corn grit # 20 and # 24 b. Degermination process
b. corn grit # 16 and #18 c. Conditioning
c. corn grit # 12 and #14 d. None of the above
d. All of the above
223. It is a milled corn kernel with particle size

between 1.5 mm to 1.7 mm.
a. Corn grit # 12 227. The main product of corn milling.
b. Corn grit # 14 a. Corn grit # 10
c. Corn grit # 16 b. Corn grit # 12
d. Corn grit # 18 c. Corn grit # 14
e. All of the above d. Corn grit # 16
e. All of the above
224. It is a milled corn kernel with particle size
between 1.10mm to 1.19 mm.
a. Corn grit # 12
228. It is the milled corn kernel where the outer
covering and germs have been removed and with 233. It is the ratio of the weight of corn kernel input to
particle size of not less than 0.86 mm.. the total operating time.
a. Broken corn kernel a. Input capacity
b. Cracked corn kernel b. Output capacity
c. Corn grits c. Milling capacity
229. It is the ratio of the weight of corn grits to the 234. It is the minimum by-product recovery required
total weight of corn kernel input expressed in in the performance criteria for corn mill.
percent. a. 21 %
a. % input capacity b. 31%
b. % main product recovery c. 41%
c. % milling recovery d. None of the above
d. All of the above
235. A rice processing plant operates at 5 tons per
230. It is the major component of a corn mill that hour. The milling and head rice recoveries of the
reduce corn kernel into grits. rice mill are 69% and 95%, respectively. What is
a. Burr mill the input capacity of the rice mill?
b. Hammer mill a. 7.24 tons per hour
c. Steel roller mill b. 3.45 tons per hour
d. All of the above c. 4.75 tons per hour
231. It is the minimum main product recovery required d. None of the above
in the performance criteria for corn mill.
a. 44%
b. 54%
c. 64 %
236. What is the throughput rate of the rice mill in kg
232. Shelled corn kernels where the germ and pericarp broken grains per hour?
have been removed. a. 0.172 ton per hour
a. Milled corn kernel b. 0.250 ton per hour
b. Degerminated corn kernel c. 0.350 ton per hour
c. Polished corn kernel e. None of the above
237. If the machine rice huller has a hulling coefficient 241. It is the process of removing solid particles from
of 0.90 and wholeness coefficient of 0.80, what is liquid such as wine, fruit juices, vinegar, and
the output in kg of brown rice per hour of the rice vegetable oil.
huller in problem above? a. Screening
a. 6.52 tons per hour b. Filtration
b. 4.50 tons per hour c. Leaching
c. 4.00 tons per hour d. None of the above
242. A process of segregating alcohol, sugar, and
238. It is the process of preserving food materials in some soluble materials with the use of water.
hermetically-sealed container which has been a. Leaching
sterilized with the use of heat. b. Hydrolysis
a. Drying c. Water adsorption
b. Canning d. None of the above
c. Steaming
d. None of the above 243. A process of separating volatile compound from
less volatile materials.
239. It is the process of subjecting food product to a a. Distilling
temperature of about 65 C for 30 min which b. Leaching
causes the death of many but not all of the c. Diffusing
organism present. c. None of the above
a. Dehydration
b. Sterilization 244. One ton nuts is equivalent to _______.
c. Pasteurization a. 4000 pieces of nuts
d. None of the above b. 5000 pieces of nuts
c. 6000 pieces of nuts
240. It is the termination of entire organism in the d. None of the above
product using heat at a temperature of about 50 to
100 C. 245. The process of separating coarse from fine
a. Pasteurization materials.
b. Heat sterilization a. Sifting
c. Dehydration b. Cleaning
d. None of the above c. Sorting
246. It is a device that separates materials such as oil 250. It is the weight of animal minus 3 percent of its
from water, and crystals from mother liquor by total weight to account for the content of the
means of whirling action. digestive tract.
a. Liquid separator a. Slaughter weight
b. Centrifuge b. Live weight
c. Crystalizer c. Dead weight
247. A process which is used to clean fruits and 251. It is the weight of carcass or meat and bones
vegetables to soften the dirt and other foreign together with the fat and first-and second-class
materials adhering to the skin thus making the by-product of an animal.
washing by spray more efficient. a. Slaughter weight
a. Water soaking b. Dead weight
b. Water agitation c. Live weight
c. Scalding d. None of the above
252. It is a facility where the primary processing of
248. A term given to the process of heating fruits and animal yielding meat carcasses, raw fat, internal
vegetables in live steam or in water before organ, and hides are carried out.
canning to clean, to reduce volume, to eliminate a. Slaughter house
undesirable flavor or odor, and to remove slime b. Dressing Plant
forming-materials. c. Animal Butchering Plant
a. Scalding d. All of the above
b. Blanching
c. Sterilizing
249. It is an instrument that is used to determine the 253. Pump commonly used in food processing
salt content of brine. industry.
a. Hydrometer a. Piston displacement pump
b. pH meter b. Rotary displacement pump
c. Manometer c. Centrifugal pump
254. A type of pump used in food industry that is b. Mixing
characterized by pulsating or periodic output. c. Feeding
a. Piston displacement pump d. None of the above
b. Rotary displacement pump
c. Centrifugal pump 259. Basically, the purpose of mixing is ________.
d. All of the above a. To promote the transfer of heat between hot
or cold product
255. Drying temperature of copra is _______. b. To obtain good contact between materials
a. less than 50 C being mixed
b. between 50 to 95 C c. To promote reactions between reactants
c. above 95 C d. All of the above
d. None of the above e. Two of the above
256. A spiral kind of positive displacement pump used 260. A type of mixer suitable for free flowing or non-
in food industry wherein the product comes into free flowing materials.
contact with a flexible kind of materials instead a. Rotating mixer without stirrers
of steel and in which air is utilized as a displacing b. Rotating mixer with stirrers
medium. c. All of the above
a. Peristaltic pump d. Two of the above
b. Jet pump
c. Diaphragm pump 261. A machine used for mixing solids and liquids in
d. All of the above such a ratio that very viscous mixture is formed
such as paste and doughs.
257. An equipment used in food industry for feeding a. Kneader
solid/liquid mixture into a screw press or b. Roller
wringers in the form of sheets, rods, or other c. Mixer
shapes. d. None of the above
a. Extruder
b. Screw press 262. An equipment used for heating and cooling of
c. Screw feeder flowing products.
d. All of the above a. Condenser
b. Evaporator
258. A process of combining different materials until a c. Heat exchanger
certain degree of homogeneity is achieved. d. All of the above
a. Milling
263. An example of Newtonian fluids of low viscosity.
a. Soup 268. A drying technology which has the ability to
b. Chocolate maintain the original appearance of the product
c. Juices with no shrinkage, retain shape and structure.
d. All of the above a. Heated air drying
b. Conduction drying
264. An example of Non-Newtonian fluid with high c. Freeze drying
viscosity. d. All of the above
a. Juices
b. Drinks 269. It is the complete destruction of all forms of life
c. Mashed vegetables in the product being processed.
d. All of the above a. Cooking
b. Sterilization
265. It is the prevention or the protection of products c. Pasteurization
against spoilage. d. None of the above
a. Preservation
b. Drying 270. It is the process of heating the product nearly at
c. Dehydration boiling point to render it stable against spoilage
d. None of the above by microorganism.
a. Cooking
266. A process of preservation by means of heating b. Sterilization
the product at a temperature below 100 C to kill c. Pasteurization
pathogenic bacteria. d. None of the above
a. Drying
b. Dehydration 271. It is the indicator of the quality of food which
c. Pasteurization determines whether or not it is acceptable to the
d. All of the above consumers.
a. Taste
267. A type of dryer commonly used in food industry b. Flavor
where dried materials are injected in the dryer in c. Palatability
automized form to produce powdered product. d. None of the above
a. Spray dryer
b. Drum dryer 272. It is the process applied in the manufacture of
c. Pneumatic dryer chocolate and similar products to produce a very
d. All of the above marked effect on appearance and flavor through
the elimination of moisture, harshness, and 276. A process usually applied to nuts and beans of
acidity. various sorts in order to bring about a desired
a. Conching flavor rather than to effect on sterilization.
b. Roasting a. Drying
c. Frying b. Blanching
d. None of the above c. Roasting
d. Pasteurization
273. A process of pumping product against a steel e. None of the above
plate through a very small opening of 0.0001
diameter at a pressure of about 3500 psi to reduce 277. A processing used in canning in which there is
the size of fat globule such as those in milk, rigid regulation of the cooking temperature in
mayonnaise, and others to a point that fats have such a manner that packages are not misshapen or
no tendency to rise. broken by too rapid cooling
a. Homogenizing a. Tempering
b. Conching b. Freezing
c. Pressing c. Refrigeration
274. It is the process often used in heating of can and 278. Brown spots on dried vegetables is caused by
its content under vacuum condition to remove air ______.
and other entrapped gases before sealing. a. too high drying temperature used
a. Exhausting b. low drying temperature used
b. Sterilizing c. optimum drying temperature used
c. Heating d. None of the above
d. All of the above
279. A pretreatment method used for vegetables to
275. A process used for many food products by giving destroy enzymes that can cause undesirable
deaeration treatment to improve the color, flavor, changes in color and flavor during drying and
aroma retention, or reduce the volume of the storage.
product. a. Cleaning
a. Degassing b. Blanching
b. Blending c. Drying
c. Exhausting d. None of the above
d. All of the above
280. A pretreatment method for fruits and vegetables a. stop enzymatic activity which results in color,
to retard spoilage and darkening of fruits. flavor, and nutrient losses or changes
a. Blanching b. stop ripening and spoilage
b. Sulfuring c. hasten drying rate and improve storageability
c. Sterilizing of the product
281. Roasting temperature for pumpkin seeds, 285. Another term used for citric acid.
sunflower seeds, and peanuts. a. Table salt
a. 200-250 F b. Lemon salt
b. 250-300 F c. Acid salt
c. 300-350 F d. All of the above
286. Requirements for a good dehydrator.
282. Pre-drying temperature requirement for a. Some form of temperature control
mushroom. b. A fan to circulate air and remove moisture
a. 80-90 F c. Easily removable and washable trays
b. 120-125 F d. All of the above
c. 250-300 F
d. None of the above 287. Rotating trays or exchanging trays on a
e. All of the above dehydrator when drying fruits and vegetables is
recommended for the purpose of ______.
283. A “case” formed like a leathery material over the a. reducing drying time
outside of very high sugar food such as fruit b. increasing the efficiency of the dryer
which doesn’t allow water to pass through during c. promoting even drying of product
drying is a factor of _________. d. None of the above
a. slow drying 288. Conditioning dried fruits after drying basically is
b. rapid drying done to _______.
c. normal drying a. allow moisture to equalize through all the
d. None of the above food so that there will no damp spots where
mold will grow
284. Pretreatment of fruits and vegetables are b. increase the quality of dried fruit prior to
recommended to _______. packaging
c. improve the color and taste of fruit
289. Sulfured food are recommended for storage using
_______. 293. An example of chemicals used as sulfite dips.
a. metal can container a. Sodium bisulfite
b. plastic container b. Sodium sulfite
c. bottle with can cover container c. Sodium metabisulfite
e. All of the above
290. Recommended temperature for drying
vegetables. 294. Pasteurizing is recommended for foods that had
a. 125 F been contaminated or used as second treatment
b. 150 F for vegetables held in storage if the vegetables do
c. 175 F not have any mold on them ___________.
e. 200 F a. before drying
f. All of the above b. before and during storage
c. after storage
291. Which of the following statement is true? d. All of the above
a. Different foods requiring similar drying times e. None of the above
and temperature can be dried together
b. Vegetables with strong odors or flavor should 295. Commonly methods used for pasteurizing foods.
be dried separately a. Freezing and oven drying
c. Don’t dry strong-smelling vegetables outside b. Steaming and Blanching
in an electric dehydrator because dehydrators c. Boiling and drying
are not screened and insect may invade the d. All of the above
food e. None of the above
d. All of the above
e. None of the above 296. Recommended storage time for dried food.
a. 2 – 4 months
292. Sulfur treatment on fruits and vegetables can be b. 4 – 12 months
replaced by _____. c. 12 – 24 months
a. aulfite dips d. All of the above
b. ateam blanching
c. water blanching 297. Fruits rolls that is characterized by tasty chewy
d. All of the above dried fruit made by pouring pursed fruit into a flat
surface for drying.
a. Fruit rolls consistency, without retaining the shape of the
b. Dried fruit fruit.
c. Fruit leathers a. Jams
d. All of the above b. Jellies
c. Marmalades
298. Drying time requirement for solid yellow or d. All of the above
slightly brown-flecked bananas in a dehydrator.
a. 4-8 hours 303. It is a product prepared by extracting the juice
b. 8-10 hours from boiled fruits, and then boiled with sugar and
c. 10- 16 hours cooked to such consistency that gelatinization
d. All of the above takes place when cooled.
a. Jams
299. It is the process of decomposition of b. Jellies
carbohydrates by microorganism or enzyme. c. Marmalades
a. Fermentation d. All of the above
b. Spoilage
c. Preservation 304. It is a clear jelly which contains evenly
d. None of the above suspended slices of fruits or peel.
a. Jam
300. It is the preservation of food in brine or vinegar b. Jellies
with or without bacterial fermentation. c. Marmalades
a. Pickling d. All of the above
b. Salting 305. It is the aseptic practice in the preparation,
c. Blanching processing, and packaging of food products.
d. None of the above a. Cleaning
b. Sanitation
301. A pre-treatment procedure to keep the color and c. Housekeeping
quality of vegetable before drying. d. None of the above
a. Trimming
b. Blanching 306. Substances used to prevent food by retarding
c. Salting deterioration, rancidity, or discoloration due to
d. None of the above oxidation.
a. Additives
302. It is the process of boiling whole fruits or pieces b. Antioxidants
of fruit pulp with sugar to a moderate thick c. Emulsifiers
d. None of the above 311. Canning temperature for low-acid vegetables,
meat and poultry in pressure canner.
307. Substances that modify surface tension in the a. 115 deg C
component phase of an emulsion to establish a b. 100 deg C
uniform dispersion. c. 74 deg C
a. Additives d. None of the above
b. Antioxidants
c. Emulsifiers 312. Cooking temperature that destroys most bacteria
d. None of the above in foods.
a. 115 deg C
308. Any substance including a food additive used as a b. 100 deg C
component in the manufacture or preparation of a c. 74 deg C
food and present in the final product. d. None of the above
a. Nutrients
b. Microelement 313. It is the process of removing heat from a
c. Ingredients substance or a space at a lower temperature.
d. None of the above a. Sublimation
b. Heat of fusion
309. Any tag, brand, mark, pictorial, or other c. Refrigeration
descriptive matter, written, printed, marked, d. All of the above
embossed or impressed on, or attached to a
container of food. 314. Heat moves from a substance naturally to another
a. Nutrition facts substance _____.
b. Label a. at a higher temperature to lower temperature
c. Trademark b. at lower temperature to higher temperature
d. None of the above c. at either temperature
310. Canning temperature for fruits, tomatoes, and 315. It is the intensity of the molecular movement of
pickles in water bath canner. matter.
a. 115 deg C a. Energy
b. 100 deg C b. Heat
c. 74 deg C c. Work
316. A substance is cold if _________.

a. heat is present a. Thermometer
b. heat is absent b. Temperature
c. heat is higher c. Calorimeter
d. All of the above d. All of the above
317. The quantity of heat in the substance is described 322. Which of the following statement is true?
in terms of _____. a. The freezing point of water is 0 F
a. BTU b. The boiling point of water is 212 C
b. Calories c. That 32 F and 0 C is the same temperature
c. Pascal level
318. Ten BTU is equivalent to _______. 323. It is the quantity of heat required to raise the
a. 2520 calories temperature of a substance one degree scale.
b. 2250 calories a. Sensible heat
c. 2045 calories b. Specific heat
d. None of the above c. Latent heat
319. One-hundred calories is equivalent to
__________. 324. The specific heat of water is _________.
a. 418.7 Joules a. 1 BTU/lb-F
b. 481.7 Joules b. 1 kcal/kg-C
c. 471.8 Joules c. 1 cal/g-C
320. An instrument used to measure heat is ________. 325. It is the amount of heat added or removed from a
a. thermometer substance with the change in temperature.
b. Watt meter a. Sensible heat
c. Calorimeter b Latent heat
d. None of the above c. Specific heat
d. All of the above
321. It is the measurement of the heat level of a
substance.
326. It is the heat added or removed from a substance a. Latent heat of fusion
causing a change in its state without changing its b. Latent heat of vaporization
temperature. c. Latent heat of sublimation
a. Sensible heat d. None of the above
b. Latent heat
c. Specific heat 331. The latent heat of fusion of water is ________.
d. All of the above a. 336 kJ/kg
b. 144 BTU/lb
327. It is the quantity of heat required to change a unit c. All of the above
mass of a liquid into gaseous state without d. None of the above
change in temperature.
a. Latent heat of vaporization 332. At a higher elevation, ________.
b. Latent heat of fusion a. water will boil at 100 C
c. Latent heat condensation b. water will boil above 100 C
d. None of the above c. water will boil below 100 C
c. Water will not boil
328. It is the quantity of heat required to change a unit d. None of the above
mass of solid to liquid state without change in
temperature. 333. The amount of heat transmitted to a wall is a
a. Latent heat of vaporization factor of ______.
b. Latent heat of fusion a. wall thickness
c. Latent heat of sublimation b. temperature difference
d. All of the above c. resistance of heat flow of the wall materials
d. All of the above
329. It is the quantity of heat required to change a unit
mass of gas to liquid state without change in 334. A material with high emissivity _________.
temperature. a. will collect more heat
a. Latent heat of vaporization b. will not collect heat
b. Latent heat of condensation c. will transmit heat
c. Latent heat of fusion d. None of the above
d. All of the above
335. The basic uses of insulating materials for
330. It is the quantity of heat required to change a unit refrigeration system are:
mass of solid to gas without change in a. To retard heat flow
temperature. b. To prevent surface condensation
c. To control noise and vibration d. All of the above
d. All of the above
341. It is the part of a refrigeration system that causes
336. Which of the following insulating materials for the circulation of a refrigerant.
refrigeration system is efficient and least a. Condenser
expensive? b. Expansion valve
a. Asbestos c. Compressor
b. Styrofoam d. None of the above
c. Aluminum foil
d. All of the above 342. A part of a refrigeration system that causes the
reduction of pressure of the refrigerant.
337. It is the amount or quantity of current flowing in a. Evaporator
a circuit b. Compressor
a. Voltage c. Expansion valve
b. Amperage d. All of the above
c. Ohms
d. None of the above 343. It is a fluid that easily boils at a lower
temperature.
338. It is the electrical pressure of a circuit a. Water
a. Voltage b. Oil
b. Amperage c. Refrigerant
c. Ohms d. All of the above
d. None of the above 344. One ton refrigeration is the amount of heat
required to melt one ton of ice in ________.
339. It is the cooling coil of a refrigeration system a. 12 hours
a. Condenser b. 24 minutes
b. Evaporator c. one day
c. Compressor d. None of the above
d. None of the above 345. One ton refrigeration is equal to _______.
a. 288,000 BTU/day
340. It is the basic part of a refrigeration system which b. 12,000 BTU/hr
is characterized by a high pressure side. c. 200 BTU/min
a. Condenser d. All of the above
b. Evaporator
c. Expansion valve 346. An example of refrigerant.
a. Ammonia d. None of the above
b. Carbon monoxide
c. Methyl bromide 351. A refrigeration system which can be used either
d. All of the above to cool or to heat a given space, normally by
exchanging the functions of the evaporator and
347. Commonly used refrigerant in ice plants. the condenser.
a. Ammonia a. Heat pump
b. Carbon dioxide b. Humidifier
c. Methyl chloride c. Dehumidifier
348. A refrigeration appliance that operates at a higher 352. Air that is flowing into a space through gaps
temperature. around doors, windows, and others.
a. No-frost refrigerator a. Air intake
b. Air-conditioner b. Air changes
c. Domestic freezer c. Infiltration
349. The introduction of fresh ambient air to an air- 353. The difference between dry bulb and wet bulb
conditioned or refrigerated space. temperatures
a. Cooling a. Wet bulb depression
b. Air changes b. Relative humidity
c. Air filtration c. Dew point temperature
354. The temperature at which a liquid is converted to

350. It is the removal of accumulated ice from the solid state upon the removal of its latent heat of
surfaces of cooling coils which operate below fusion.
freezing point. a. Cooling point
a. Dehumidification b. Solid point
b. Defrosting c. Freezing point
c. Ice melting d. None of the above
b. below 5 C
355. To reduce the relative humidity of air, it is c. below 0 C
recommended to use a _______. d. All of the above
a. humidifier
b. dehumidifier 360. When a product is termed as frozen storage, it is
c. psychrometer ________.
d. None of the above a. chilled and stored above freezing point
b. the product is stored between -10 F to 10 F
356. In a domestic refrigerator, the condenser can be c. the product is stored at 10 F to 50 F
found _______. d. All of the above
a. inside the refrigerator cabinet
b. outside the refrigerator cabinet 361. Another important factors in cold storage of
c. beneath the freezer perishable products are ________.
d. None of the above a. energy and power requirement inside the
storage room
357. Freezers in refrigerator compartment are b. temperature and heat loss in the storage room
normally found at the upper section of the cabinet c. humidity and air motion inside the storage
for the reason that _______. room
a. it is easy to load product to the freezer d. None of the above
b. it is easy to install the freezer in the cabinet
c. heat will efficiently be distributed to the 362. The use of plastic polyethylene sheet as
refrigerator compartment packaging material for cold storage is ________.
e. None of the above a. to provide heat insulating effect on the
product
358. Chilling injury of banana will occur at a b. to make the product attractive to the customer
temperature c. to prevent moisture loss in the product
a. Below 27 C d. None of the above
b. Below 14 C
c. Below 5 C 363. The purpose of refrigeration in storing perishable
d. All of the above product is _____.
a. to improve the quality of the product
359. Lowest temperature that is safe for storage of b. to arrest or retard the natural process of
banana is ________. deterioration
a. below 14 C
c. to hasten ripening or maturity of product such d. None of the above
as fruits and vegetables
d. All of the above 368. Most favorable cold storage temperature for eggs.
a. 29 – 30 C
364. It is the process of exposing freshly-harvested b. 29 – 30 F
product and carefully-prepared food to subzero c. 28 F
temperatures and holding them at 32 C during d. None of the above
storage period to maintain the quality of the
products. 369. Freezing temperature for eggs.
a. Cold storage a. 29 – 30 C
b. Quick freezing b. 29 – 30 F
c. Sharp freezing c. 28 F
365. If vegetables are stored at a temperature between 370. Factors that change during cold storage of fish
0 C to 30 C, the product is under _________. due to oxidation of fish oils and pigments
a. frozen storage particularly in more fatty species of fish.
b. refrigerated storage a. Color and flavor
c. All of the above b. Color and texture
d. None of the above c. Flavor and texture
d. All of the above
366. Important factor that contributes in proper 371. A process of retarding moisture and oxidation
refrigeration of perishable crops is ______. loss from the product during cold storage by
a. constant temperature providing a continuous film or coating that will
b. free air circulation adhere to the surface of the product.
c. control of relative humidity a. Blaching
d. All of the above b. Thawing
c. Glazing
367. It is the process of heating vegetables in steam or d. None of the above
in boiling water to inactivate enzymes and
reduce microbial population thereby prolonging 372. A freezer that operates at an air temperature of
storage at subfreezing temperature. -30 F and below and a velocity of 500 to 100
a. Dehydration fpm.
b. Blanching a. Sharp freezer
c. Drying
b. Air-blast freezer f.
c. Contact plate freezer 377. A 3 hp engine is to be replace with electric
d. All of the above motor. Recommend for the size of the motor for
the drive.
373. A freezer used for fish product wherein the a. 1 hp
products are placed in shelves or in aluminum b. 2 hp
pans or plates covered by pipe coils or c. 5 hp
evaporators at a temperature of –20 to - 29 C. d. None of the above
a. Sharp freezer
b. Air-blast freezer 78. Frozen poultry product gave only good for a
c. Contact plate freezer period of ________.
d. All of the above a. 1 to 6 months
b. 6 to 12 months
374. Freezing point of milk. c. 1 to 2 years
a. - 0.545 C d. All of the above
b. - 0.545 F
c. 0. 545 C 379. Term used for the internal organs of poultry
d. None of the above suitable for cold storage.
a. Carcass
375. A frozen product made of a pasturized mixture of b. Giblets
sugar, solid milk, stabilizer, food acid, and c. Gills
flavorings such as fruits, fruit juices or extract, d. None of the above
and water.
a. Ice cream 380. In order to minimize darkening of carcass of
b. Sherbet poultry meat, it is recommended that before cold
c. Frozen milk storage poultry meat should be ______.
d. All of the above a. slowly be frozen and undergo scalding
process
376. Which of the following are used for packaging b. frozen rapidly
frozen poultry products? c. undergo scalding process
a. Plastic d. None of the above
b. Edible coating 381. Tenderness of poultry meat can be maintained
c. Aluminum foil during cold storage by __________.
d. Waxed cardboard a. storing it in aluminum foil
e. All of the above b. storing it in plastic net
c. storing it unpacked c. Veal
382. Changes in the flavor of meat, fish, or poultry

during freezing is due to the ______.
a. change in temperature of the product 387. It is the meat of sheep that is less than one year
b. microorganisms that were killed during old.
storage a. Lamb
c. oxidation of fats b. Muttons
d. None of the above c. Chevon
383. It is a method of freezing the surface of poultry
meat using mist of liquid prior to storage in an air 388. It is the meat from rabbit.
blast freezer or cold storage room. a. Lapan
a. Liquid immersion freezing b. Venison
b. Liquid spray freezing c. Chevon
c. Conveyor tunnel freezing d. None of the above
d. All of the above
389. It is the meat from goat.
384. If a poultry product is stored at a temperature of a. Chevon
35-40 F, the product quality can be maintained b. Venison
within ______. c. Mutton
a. 1 to 2 months d. All of the above
b. 1 to 2 days
c. 1 to 2 hours 390. It is the method used in preserving meat.
d. None of the above a. Smoking process
385. It is a flesh obtained from domesticated animals. b. Refrigeration
a. Carcass c. Freeze drying
b. Meat d. Irradiation
c. Giblets e. None of the above
d. None of the above f. All of the above
386. It is the meat obtained from hogs. 391. It is a meat of less than one-year old cattle.
a. Beef a. Beef
b. Pork b. Veal
c. Carabeef b. Freezing meat and its subsequent frozen
d. All of the above storage improves the quality of meat products.
c. Proper handling of meat prior to freezing
392. Which of the following is true? reduces the quality of frozen products.
a. When beef is stored at lower temperature it d. None of the above
will have longer storage life than when cold
stored at higher temperature 396. Freezer burn in meat product is a result of
b. Storing beef at lower temperature will reduce ______.
its storage life a. storing meat product in a freezer with plastic
c. Storing beef at higher temperature will sheet to prevent moisture loss
increase its storage life b. storing meat product without plastic sheet at
d. All of the above high relative humidity
c. storing meat product without plastic sheet at
393. Myoglobin content in meat is responsible for low relative humidity
_______. d. None of the above
a. odor of meat after cold storage
b. appearance of meat 397. The recommended time for storing beef cuts at –
c. color of meat 18 C is ___.
d. All of the above a. 6 to 12 months
e. Two of the above b. 3 to 4 months
f. None of the above c. 1 to 2 months
394. It is the process of allowing meat to hang at
temperature of 0 to 3 C to create tenderizing 398. Ground beef can be stored at –18 C within a
effect before freezing. period of ________.
a. Aging a. 6 to 12 months
b. Freezing b. 3 to 4 months
c. Tempering c. 1 to 2 months
395. Which of the following is true in cold storage of 399. It is a method of freezing shrimp into an agitated
meat? cold brine solution of a fixed concentration and
a. Extreme temperature fluctuation during temperature.
defrosting contributes to short storage life of a. Blast freezing
the meat. b. Immersion freezing
c. Tunnel freezing b. R- 22 (Monochlorodiflouromethane)
d. None of the above c. R-502
d. All of the above
400. At – 18 C scallop meat have a frozen storage life
of ________. 405. It is the most popular refrigerant for air-
a. 1- 2 months conditioning.
b. 3 - 6 months a. R-12 (Dichlordifluoromethane)
c. 7 - 12 months b. R-22 (Monochlorodiflouromethane)
d. None of the above c. R-502 (mixture of R-22 and R115)
d. All of the above
401. ASHRAE is the acronym for __________.
a. Association of Heat, Refrigeration, and Air 406. A popular refrigerant for low temperature
Conditioning Engineers refrigeration systems.
b. American Society of Heating, Refrigerating, a. R-12 (Dichlordifluoromethane)
and Air Conditioning Engineers b. R-22 (Monochlorodiflouromethane)
c. Association of Sensible Heating, c. R-502 (mixture of R-22 and R115)
Refrigeration, and Air Cooling Engineers d. All of the above
407. It is the process by which air is cooled, cleaned,
402. An equipment that is used to clean, cool, heat, and circulated.
humidify, or dehumidify air. a. Air conditioner
a. Air heat exchanger b. Air conditioning
b. Air conditioner c. Air cooling and cleaning
c. Air-cooled condenser d. All of the above
d. All of the above
408. Air conditioning system wherein the condenser is
403. The process of removing moisture from air. located separately from the evaporator and uses
a. Dehydration an interconnecting refrigerant lines.
b. Air suction a. Split-system air conditioning system
c. Dehumidify b. Package equipment air conditioning system
d. All of the above c. All of the above
404. It is the most popular refrigerant used for
refrigeration system. 409. It is the cooling equipment of air conditioner.
a. R-12 (Dichlordifluoromethane) a. Condenser
b. Evaporator a. The motor and compressor of a refrigeration
c. Compressor system is separately installed.
d. Expansion valve b. The motor and compressor of a refrigeration
system is housed in the same compartment.
410. Condenser efficiency of an air conditioner can be c. The compressor and the motor of a
increased by _____. refrigeration system is non-hermetic type?
a. reducing the condenser surface area d. None of the above.
b. increasing the condenser surface area
c. increasing the amount of refrigerant flowing 415. The highest pressure in the refrigeration system
in the condenser can be found at ____.
d. None of the above a. the capillary tube
b. the entrance of the evaporator coil
411. Operating temperature of evaporator in an air- c. the entrance of the condenser tube
conditioning system. d. the evaporator coil immediately before the
a. 20 F compressor
b. 40 F e. None of the above
c. 60 F
d. All of the above 416. A refrigeration system component after the
condenser.
412. Refrigerated-air conditioning is used in a. Capillary tube
________. b. Filter
a. hot temperature with high humidity c. Compressor
b. hot temperature with low humidity d. None of the above
c. hot temperature with high or low humidity
d. None of the above 417. A refrigeration system component after the
capillary tube.
413. A refrigerated system that cleans, dehydrates, and a. Evaporator
cools a compartment. b. Compressor
a. No frost refrigerator c. Condenser
b. Chiller d. None of the above
c. Freezer
d. Air conditioner 418. A refrigeration system component before the
e. None of the above condenser.
a. Filter
414. Which of the following statement is true: b. Evaporator
c. Capillary tube b. Sweating
d. Compressor c. Supercharging
e. None of the above d. None of the above
419. Lowest temperature zone in refrigeration system. 424. It is a mixture of ½ vapor and ½ liquid.
a. Condenser a. Saturated gas
b. Capillary tube b. Saturated liquid
c. Evaporator c. Superheated gas
420. State of refrigerant at the condenser side 425. It is a mixture of ½ liquid and ½ gas.
immediately after leaving the compressor. a. Saturated gas
a. Superheated gas b. Saturated liquid
b. Lukewarm liquid c. Superheated gas
c. Saturated gas d. None of the above
426. Charging pressure for refrigerator and freezer
421. Sate of refrigerant at the evaporator side using R-12 refrigerant.
immediately before the compressor. a. 19 psi
a. Superheated gas b. 65 psi
b. Lukewarm liquid c. 75 psi
c. Saturated gas d. None of the above
427. Larger floor area for the same height of wall use
422. A newly discovered refrigerant that is not light _____ .
harmful for ozone layer or referred to as “ozone a. more efficiently than rooms with smaller floorarea
friendly gas.” b. more inefficiently than rooms with smaller
a. R12 floor area
b. Ammonia c. the same with smaller rooms
c. Suva Mp 52 (R-134a) d. None of the above
d. All of the above 428. Charging pressure for air conditioning unit using
R-12 refrigerant.
423. It is a term used for the overcharging of a. 19 - 45 psi
refrigerant. b. 65 - 75 psi
a. Back frost c. 80 - 90 psi
d. None of the above c. R-22
429. A dry ice is _____.
a.. Solid H2O 434. Known as Monochlorodifluoromethane used a
c. Solid CO2 primary refrigerant for aircon systems.
d. Solid O2 a. R-11
e. None of the above b. R-12
c. R-22
430. A device used mostly in larger cooling units to d. None of the above
cool the water that absorbs the heat from the
condenser. 435. The transfer of heat from one part of a solid body to
a. Cold storage room the other under the influence of temperature gradient.
b. Cooling Tower a. Convection
c. Heat Exchanger b. Conduction
d. None of the above c. Radiation
d. All of the above
431. When a condenser of a refrigeration system is
cooling, what is the common trouble? 436. The transfer of heat by mixing one parcel of fluid
a. Too much refrigerant with another.
b. Lacks refrigerant a. Convection
c. No refrigerant b. Conduction
d. None of the above c. Radiation
d. All of the above
432. It is the passage of from the outside of a leaky
room caused by cracks in windows, doors, and 437. Shape factor for heat by conduction is expressed
other possible sources. as ________.
a. Heat loss a. A/dx
b. Air infiltration b. K A/dx
c. Air gap c. dt/dx
433. Known as Dichlorodifluoromethane used as 438. It is the amount of heat transferred per unit
primary refrigerant for refrigerator. temperature per unit length.
a. R-11 a. Emmissivity
b. R-12 b. Thermal conductivity
c. Heat transfer coefficient d. All of the above
444. If the temperature surrounding the material is
439. When heat is transmitted through molecular decreased, the thermal conductivity also
waves, it is transmitted by _______. __________.
a. convection a. changes in decreasing manner
b. conduction b. changes in increasing manner
c. radiation c. does not change
440. The amount of heat required to raise one pound 445. Fluids with low molecular weight have
of water one degree farenheight. ________.
a. Thermal capacity a. high thermal conductivity
b. Specific heat b. low thermal conductivity
c. British Thermal Unit c. no thermal conductivity
441. It is a proportionality factor that represents the 446. Heat basically transfers from ________.
property of material through heat conduction. a. lower temperature to high temperature
a. Thermal resistivity b. high temperature to lower temperature
b. Thermal conductivity c. lower pressure to high pressure
c. Thermal coefficient d. None of the above
447. If more heat is to be transmitted from one side to
442. Cooling meat, fruits and vegetables are examples the other side of a solid body, what would you
of heat transmission by _________. recommend as an Engineer?
a. unsteady state conduction a. Increase the thickness of material
b. steady state conduction b. Decrease the thickness of material
c. free convection c. Maintain the thickness of material
443. Factors influencing thermal conductivity. 448. The shape factor for conduction heating on a
a. Chemical composition of materials cylindrical wall is ______.
b. Temperature of materials a. 6.3 L/ln r2/r1
c. Surrounding pressure b. 3.14 L/ln r2/r1
c. 3.14 kL/ln2/r1 d. None of the above
454. In sundrying, heat is released from a body by
449. The amount of heat transmitted per unit time and _____.
temperature for a given surface area by a fluid . a. radiation
a. Heat coefficient b. force convection
b. Specific heat c. natural convection
c. Heat transfer coefficient d. None of the above
455. The amount of heat required to raise a kilogram
450. If a boiling water is pumped from a boiler to a of water one degree centigrade.
heat exchanger, heat is transmitted by ________. a. Kilo calories
a. natural convection b. Joules
b. forced convection c. Watts
c. radiation d. None of the above
456. Dimensionless numbers used in determining heat
451. Heat transfer coefficient is lower for _______. transfer coefficient by natural convection.
a. liquids a. Nusselt/Grashof/Prantdl
b. gases b. Nusselt/Reynolds/Prantdl
c. boiling water c. Prantdl/Reynolds/Grashof
d. condensing vapors d. None of the above
457. The unit of energy in SI system is ________.
452. An example of heat conductor. a. Newton-meter
a. silica brick b. Joules
b. refractory cement c. W-sec.
c. asbestos fiber d. All of the above
458. It is the insulating ability of a material or the
453. In a vacuum condition, heat transfer by resistance of material to the flow of heat.
conduction moves ____. a. Thermal resistance
a. faster b. Thermal conductivity
b. slower c. Thermal insulator
c. at constant rate d. All of the above
insulation at 100 C, what is the heat loss per foot
459. The ability of a body to give up or to receive length of the tube?
heat. a. 600 w/m
a. Heat b. 680 w/m
b. Temperature c. 720 w/m
c. Energy d. None of the above
d. All of the above
464. Which of the following has the highest heat
460. Temperature of surrounding air. transfer coefficient?
a. Dry bulb temperature a. Gases
b. Wet bulb temperature b. Liquids
c. Ambient temperature c. Boiling water
461. It is the form of energy that provides difference in 465. The heat transfer coefficient of liquid in kcal/m²-
temperature of molecular materials. hr-C is at the ranged of ________.
a. Heat a. 3 to 20
b. Temperature b. 100 to 600
c. Thermal resistance c. 1000 to 2000
462. Nusselt number is a function of _______. 466. Which of the following is true?
a. convection coefficient, pipe diameter, and a. The thermal conductivity of aluminum is
thermal conductivity higher than silver.
b. thermal conductivity, viscosity, and diameter b. Silver is faster to transmit heat than
of pipe aluminum.
c. convection coefficient, velocity of fluid, c. Aluminum and silver transfer heat at the same
diameter of pipe rate.
463. A thick wall tube of stainless steel (k = 19w/m- 467. What is the total board foot of 5 pieces of 2 in x
C) with 2 cm. ID and 4 cm. OD) is covered with 6 in. x 14 feet wood?
3 cm. layer of asbestos insulation (k = 0.2 w/m- a. 50 bd ft
C). If the inside wall temperature of the pipe is b. 60 bd ft
maintained at 600 C and the outside of the c. 70 bd ft
d. None of the above b. laminar condition
c. eddies
468. What is the heat loss per ft² of a brick kiln wall 9- d. All of the above
inches thick is made of a material with thermal
conductivity of 0.18 BTU/hr-ft-F? The outside 472. Heat transfer coefficient by force convection is
and inside temperature is 1500 F and 400 F, determined by what dimensionless numbers?
respectively. a. Nusselt, Prantdl, Reynolds
a. 224 BTU/hr-ft² b. Nusselt, Prantdl, Grashof
b. 264 BTU/hr-ft² c. Reynolds, Grashof, Prantdl
c. 246 BTU/hr-ft² d. None of the above
473. One British thermal unit is equal to _______.
469. What is the heat transfer loss per foot of 2 inches a. 1055 J
nominal pipe (OD=2.37 in.) covered with 1-in. b. 1505 J
thick of an insulating material having an average c. 1550 J
thermal conductivity of 0.037 BTU/hr-ft-F. The d. None of the above
inner and outer temperatures of the insulation are
380 and 80 F, respectively. 474. If the heated pipe is changed with to a higher pipe
a. 161 BTU/hr-ft schedule, the heat transfer will ________.
b. 111 BTU/hr-ft a. increase
c. 125 BTU/hr-ft b. decrease
d. None of the above c. remains the same
d. All of the above
470. The Prantdl number is a function of ________.
a. viscosity, specific heat, and thermal 475. Basically, the thermal conductivity of a material
conductivity will increase if the __________.
b. specific heat, heat transfer coefficient, and a. thickness is increased
thermal conductivity b. temperature is increased
c. viscosity, diameter of pipe, thermal c. temperature is decreased
conductivity d. All of the above
476. Which of the following statement is true?
471. If the flow of fluid is on streamline a. Heat transfer rate is higher on edges of boxes.
characteristics, the fluid is at _________. b. Heat transfer rate is higher on corners of
a. turbulent condition boxes.
c. Heat transfer rate is lower on the walls of a. Building brick
boxes. b. Asbestos
d. None of the above c. Firebrick
d. Concrete
477. Which of the following statement is true? e. None of the above
a. Layers produce more manure per day than
broilers. 482. Insulators used for steam lines are classified into
b. Broiler produces more manure per day than _______.
layers. a. low temperature range insulator
c. Both produce the same amount of manure per b. medium temperature range insulator
day. c. high temperature range insulator
478. A good insulator for kiln dryer. 483. A good example of a dual temperature insulator.
a. Rice husk a. Expanded silica
b. Brick b. Cellular glass
c. Concrete c. Vermiculite
479. A material which is poor conductor of heat or 484. Form of insulants used in industrial insulation
has low thermal conductivity. practice.
a. Conductor a. Flexible strips
b. Insulator b. Foil
c. Resistor c. Flexible pipe section and mattresses
480. An example of a good insulating material at high 485. Which of the following statement is true?
temperature. a. In insulation, heat gain is more costly than
a. Iron heat loss.
b. Wood b. The cost of extracting heat from refrigerated
c. Asbestos space is the same with the cost of heat losses
d. All of the above from a high temperature system
c. The cost of insulating high temperature
481. Which of the following has low thermal system is the same with that of low
conductivity? temperature system
d. All of the above 490. It is essentially a ceramic material designed to be
resist amount to high temperature of 1000 to
486. Moisture in low-temperature insulation material 1800 C.
may cause _______. a. Refractory
a. reduction in the insulating value of the b. Asbestos
material c. Fiber glass
b. improvement in the insulating value of the d. None of the above
materials
c. to decrease the cost of the insulating materials 491. Factor that need to be considered in selecting
d. All of the above insulants _______.
a. operating temperature
487. A process of heating copra to facilitate the b. maintenance cost
removal of oil during pressing. c. ability to resist mechanical and heat damage
a. Drying d. All of the above
b. Steaming
c. Conditioning 492. To protect insulant from mechanical damage, the
d. None of the above insulant must be provided with __________.
a. metal sheet cladding
488. One thousand nuts at 800 grams per nut will b. nets and asbestos cement
produce _______ kg of copra. c. wire net and bituminous compound
a. 220 kg d. All of the above
b. 320 kg 493. The Stefan – Boltzmann constant is equal to
c. 420 kg __________.
d. None of the above a. 0.147 x 10-8 BTU/hr-ft2-F4
b. 0.174 x 10-8 BTU/hr-ft2-F4
489. It is an extruded foam used for low temperature c. 0.174 x 10-8 BTU/hr-ft2-F3
systems such as refrigeration, building, and sub- d. None of the above
zero insulation. 494. The equation for heat transfer by radiation for
a. Polystyrene foam gray bodies is ______.
b. PVC foam a. Qr = λAT4
c. Plastic foam b. Qr = ελAT4
d. All of the above c. Qr = ε AT4
495. It is a device used for transferring heat.

a. Insulator 499. Configuration factor for parallel planes in
b. Heat absorber calculating the heat radiated is.
c. Heat exchanger a. higher than perpendicular planes
d. All of the above b. lower for perpendicular planes
c. equal to perpendicular planes
496. The overall heat transfer coefficient includes d. None of the above
_______.
a. thermal conductivity and heat transfer 500. It is a mixture of cement, gravel, sand and water
coefficient of the materials to harden in forms of the shape and dimension of
b. heat transfer coefficient and emmissivity of the desired structure.
the materials a. Bricks
c. thermal conductivity and emmessivity of the b. Masonry
materials c. Concrete
497. Which of the following statement is true? 501. It is a project study of determining the quality,
a. When radiant energy falls on a body, part may quantity, and cost of every materials used in a
be reflected, absorbed and the remainder work of in every finished work.
transmitted. a. Feasibility study
b. When radiant energy fall on a body, part may b. Project planning
be reflected and absorbed. c. Estimate
c. When radiant fall on a body, all of the energy d. None of the above
are absorbed.
d. None of the above 502. It is a slow hardening kind of concrete.
a. Portland blast furnace concrete
b. Low heat portland concrete
c. Portland pozzoland concrete
498. When two fluids in a heat exchanger move in d. All of the above
opposite direction, the device is classified as.
a. Parallel flow HE 503. Which of the following materials has the highest
b. Cross flow HE percentage composition in cement.
c. Constant flow HE a. Lime
d. None of the above b. Silica
c. Alumina
504. It is considered as refractory material. 509. A structure made by laying bricks, stones blocks,
a. Lime and other stone like materials.
b. Alumina a. Masonry
c. Silica b. Mortar
d. All of the above c. Concrete
d. All of the above
505. Class AA concrete has a mixing proportion of
________. 510. Approximate numbers of concrete hallow blocks
a. 1 : 2 : 4 that can be produced per bag of cement.
b. 1 : 2.5 : 5 a. 55 to 60 pieces
c. 1 : 3 : 6 b. 30 to 35 pieces
d. None of the above c. 25 to 30 pieces
506. Mixing proportion for class A concrete.
a. 1 : 2 : 4 511. Two bags of cement is equal to.
b. 1 : 2.5 : 5 a. 2 cubic feet in volume
c. 1 : 3 : 6 b. 2 cubic meters in volume
d. None of the above c. 200 kilos in weight
507. Recommended mixing proportion for machine 512. Although it is a non-homogenous natural product
foundation. requiring judgment and critical appraisal, it
a. 1 : 2 : 4 continues to be the primary structural materials
b 1:3:6 for farm building.
c. 1 : 2 : 3 a. Concrete
d. None of the above b. Wood
c. Masonry
d. Metals
513. By classification, they come from broad leaf
508. Recommended mixing proportion for floor slabs deciduous trees.
4 in. thick. a. Manufactured wood
a. 1 : 2 : 4 b. Plywood
b. 1 : 3 : 6 c. Softwood
c. 1 : 2 : 3 d. Hardwood
d. None of the above e. None of the above
d. Motor pool
514. A class of softwood lumber used for farm e. None of the above
building construction, with sub-classes, entitled
finish, common boards and common dimensions. 518. A barrel of cement consist of ______.
a. Yard lumber a. 3 bags
b. Structural lumber b. 2 bags
c. Factory lumber c. 5 bags
d. Lumber grade d. 4 bags
e. Manufactured lumber e. None of the above
f. None of the above
519. One half the horizontal distance of the truss.
515. A mixture of cement and water only, mixed to the a. Run
consistency of very thick cream used for coating b. Rise
surfaces of concrete to improve their appearance. c. Span
a. Grout d. Rafter
b. Mortar e. None of the above
c. Plastic
d. Solution 520. Volume of cement that can be contained in 4 in. x
e. Cement 8 in. x 16 in. concrete hallow block.
516. The term generally applied to stonework of the a. 0.001 m3
simpliest kind when little or no tool work is done b. 0.003 m3
on the stones other than to break them with c. 0.004 m3
hammer and roughly dress them. f. None of the above
a. Flagg
b. Mortar
c. Plastic
d. Rubble
521. Mixing proportion of cement/sand for class a
517. A farm structure used to store and protect the mortar.
animal fodder so that it is preserved in an ideal a. 1 : 1
condition for the farm animals. b. 1 : 2
a. Silo c. 1 : 3
b. Warehouse d. 1 : 4
c. Farm shop e. None of the above
527. It is an undressed lumber.
522. A planed lumber having at least one side smooth. a. Surface lumber
a. Dressed lumber b. Rough lumber
b. Rough lumber c. Planed Lumber
c. Lumber yard d. None of the above
d. All of the above
528. Approximate number of pieces per kilo of GI
523. A piece of lumber having a minimum smallest roofing nails.
dimension of 5 inches or 13 cm. a. 100 pieces
a. Timber b. 120 pieces
b. Plank c. 150 pieces
c. Board d. 200 pieces
d. All of the above e. All of the above
524. A piece of lumber less than 4 cm thick with at 529. It is the height of a flight of stairs from landing to
least 10 cm wide. landing or the height between successive treads
a. Timber or stairs.
b. Plank a. Run
c. Board b. Rise
d. All of the above c. Pitch
525. A wide piece of lumber from 4 to 13 cm thick.
a. Timber 530. One gallon of paint in first coating can cover an
b. Plank area of _____.
c. Board a. 15 sq. m.
d. None of the above b. 20 sq. m.
c. 25 sq. m.
d. All of the abov
526. A dressed lumber having four sides are 531. The rough estimate for the number of kilos of
smoothen. need needed per 1000 bd.ft. of lumber.
a. S4S a. 15 kg
b. 4SS b. 20 kg
c. SS4 c. 25 kg
532. The rough estimate number of bags of cement 537. A wood which comes from needle-leaved cone
required per cubic meter of concrete. bearing trees.
a. 10 bags a. Hardwood
b. 15 bags b. Soft wood
c. 20 bags c. Medium-hard wood
533. Dwelling place for workers in the farm. 538. Lumber used for mill work such as window
a. Farmstead casing and sash, and cabinets.
b. Farm house a. Factory lumber
c. Granaries b. Yard lumber
d. None of the above c. Structural timber
d. All of the above
534. It is the characteristics of materials that retain
their strength and other properties over a 539. Material less than 5 in. thick and is used for
considerable period of time. general building purposes.
a. Reliability a. Factory lumber
b. Hardness b. Yard lumber
c. Durability c. Structural timber
535. Most widely used preservative treatment for 540. It includes joist and plank, beams and stringers,
wood. and post.
a. Asphalt a. Factory lumber
b. Black enamel paint b. Yard lumber
c. Creosote c. Structural timber
536. It is the capacity of material to resist fracture 541. A lumber that comes from a saw, unfinished and
under impact load. full dimension.
a. Hardness a. Planed lumber
b. Toughness b. Rough lumber
c. Elasticity c. Factory lumber
542. A lumber finished smooth on two edges 547. A screw used commonly in roof construction.
designated and one side and full dimension. a. Cap screw
a. S2E1S b. Tex screw
b. SE2S1 c. Self-tapping screw
c. S2ES1 d. None of the above
d. All of the above
548. The saw recommended for cutting plywood is
543. A jointed frame that is used to support load over ___________.
a relatively large span. a. cross cut saw
a. Beam b. rip saw
b. Post c. coping saw
c. Truss d. None of the above
d. All of the above
549. Sizes of saw are given in number of teeth, the
544. The standard dimension of plywood is ______. more the saw teeth number, _____.
a. 4’ x 8’ a. the courser the cut
b. 4’ x 6’ b. the finer the cut
c. 4’ x 12’ c. smaller the cut
545. The largest area in a piece of wood is the 550. One board foot is equivalent to ________.
_______. a. l in x l in x 1 ft/144
a. edge b. l in x l in x l in/144
b. face c. l in x l in x l in/12
c. end d. None of the above
546. Nails are bought in the hardware in terms of 551. It is the method of reducing the moisture of
______. timber using artificial heat on a heated chamber.
a. pieces a. Air drying
b. kilo b. Kiln drying
c. volume c. Wood dehydration
552. Sawing is the process of cutting wood and is 557. Lattice molding are bought in terms of ________.
classified as _______. a. board foot
a. Shearing method b. linear footage
b. Chip-forming method c. square footage
c. Chemical method d. All of the above
558. If a wood is specified as S4S this mean that
553. A fastener used to properly fixed materials to a _______.
concrete. a. 4 edges of wood are smooth
a. Tex screw b. all surfaces are smooth
b. Tox c. four sides of wood are smooth
c. Adhesives d. All of the above
559. A saw used for cutting across a piece of wood.
554. Nail used for making furniture or for flooring a. Band saw
purposes. b. Rip saw
a. Common nail c. Cross-cut saw
b. Box nail d. All of the above
c. Finishing nail
d. None of the above 560. Materials used in supporting concrete structure.
a. Round bar
555. It is a tool used to make the surface of wood level b. Square bar
and smooth. c. Corrugated round bar
a. Hammer d. None of the above
b. Drill
c. Jack plane
d. All of the above
556. A saw for making small round openings on 561. Paint recommended for wood.
plywood. a. Latex paint
a. Coping saw b. Enamel paint
b. Hole saw c. Acrylic paint
c. Circular saw d. None of the above
d. All of the above
562. Wood is applied with paint for ________.
a. surface protection 567. A class A concrete has a mixing proportion of
b. decoration ______.
c. moisture protection a. 1:2:3
d. All of the above b. 1:2:4
c. 1:3:6
563. Which of the following does not composed of d. None of the above
cement?
a. Lime 568. Mixing proportion for machinery foundation.
b. Silica a. 1: 2:3
c. Alummina b. 1:2:4
d. None of the above c. 1:3:6
564. Which of the following is a refractory material?
a. Lime 569. Mixing proportions for walls and footings.
b. Silica a. 1:2:4
c. Alummina b. 1:2.5:5
d. None of the above c. 1:3:6
565. Cement mixture used for beams, slabs, and for all
members subjected to bending stress. 570. Approximate time limit before the removal of
a. 1:2:3 forms and support for walls.
b. 1:2:4 a. 14 to 21 days
c. 1:3:6 b. 3 to 10 days
d. None of the above c. 7 to 14 days
566. Ten lumen distributed to an area of 10 square foot

is equal to _______ . 571. One barrel is equal to ______ of 96 lbs Portland
a. 1 foot-candle cement.
b. 10 foot-candle a. 2 bags
c. 100 foot-candle b. 3 bags
d. None of the above c. 4 bags
572. One bag of cement is equal to ______.
a. One cubic foot 577. It is the act of separating the pigs and the sow.
b. Two cubic foot a. Farrowing
c. Three cubic foot b. Gestating
d. All of the above c. Weaning
573. There are _______ concrete hollow blocks per
square meter of wall area. 578. An unbred female pig at least 8 months old.
a. 10 CHB a. Boar
b. 13 CHB b. Gilt
c. 15 CHB c. Sow
574. The volume of cement for concrete hollow blocks 579. A device in which a sow is confined during
with dimension of 4 in. x 8 in. x 16 in. is farrowing and lactation periods and which
_________ cubic meter. prevents sow from turning around.
a. 0.001 a. Farrowing pen
b. 0.003 b. Farrowing stall
c. 0.004 c. Farrowing house
575. A male breeding pig which is at least 8 months 580. Period of time between conception and
old. farrowing.
a. Gilt a. Gestation
b. Boar b. Lactation
c. Sow c. Farrowing
576. An area in which a sow is confined during 581. The process of milk secretion.
farrowing and lactation period and are freely to a. Gestation
turn around. b. Lactation
a. Farrowing stall c. Weaning
b. Farrowing pen d. None of the above
c. Factating stall
d. All of the above
582. It is the production of a litter of one or more live 587. Floor thickness for pig housing.
or dead pigs on or after 110 day of pregnancy. a. 40 to 50 mm thick
a. Gestation b. 70 to 80 mm thick
b. Lactation c. 90 to 100 mm thick
c. Farrowing d. None of the above
588. Recommended concrete mixture for pig housing
583. Recommended orientation of swine house. floor.
a. North-south direction a. 1:2:3
b. East-west direction b. 1:2.25: 3
c. North west direction c. 1:2.5:3
d. South east direction d. All of the above
e. All of the above
589. Materials used as floor slats in swine housing.
584. Minimum recommended space requirement for a. Wood slats
boar pens. b. Concrete slats
a. 0.85 sq.m. per animal c. Steel slats
b. 2.50 sq.m. per animal d. Plastic slats
c. 7.5 sq.m. per animal e. All of the above
590. Recommended door dimension for pig pens.
585. Minimum recommended space requirement for a. 40 cm wide x 50 cm high
adult pigs in group. b. 60 cm wide x 100 cm high
a. 1.0 sq.m. per animal c. 80 cm wide x 120 cm high
b. 2.5 sq.m. per animal d. None of the above
c. 7.5 sq.m. per animal
586. Minimum slope for pig housing floor. 591. Recommended ceiling height for pig housing.
a. 2 to 4 % a. 2 to 2.5 m
b. 5 to 7 % b. 2.5 to 3 m
c. 8 to 10 % c. 3 m to 3.5 m
592. Minimum ventilation rate for farrowing unit and
breeding and gestating units. 597. Recommended floor height for poultry house.
a. 2.8 CFM a. 1.0 m above ground
b. 4.2 CFM b. 1.4 m above ground
c. 9.8 CFM c. 1.8 m above ground
593. Daily water requirement of boar and sow at 598. Recommended dimension for entrance door for
normal ambient temperature. poultry building.
a. 1-5 liters per day-animal a. 90 cm wide x 150 cm high
b. 5-10 liters per day-animal b. 90 cm wide x 200 cm high
c. 10-30 liters per day-animal c. 90 cm wide x 250 cm high
594. Recommended orientation of poultry building to 599. Minimum height for ceiling in poultry building.
obtain proper sunlight, wind flow and a. 2.0 m
temperature. b. 2.2 m
a. North-east direction c. 2.4 m
b. East-west direction d. none of the above
c. North-south direction
d. None of the above 600. Recommended brooding temperature for 7 day
old chick.
595. Floor space requirement for 4-week old broilers a. 27-29 deg C
in cages. b. 29-32 deg C
a. 22 birds per m2 c. 32-35 deg C
b. 43 birds per m2 d. All of the above
c. 54 birds per m2
d. All of the above
596. Floor space requirement for broilers in cages 601. Fourteen day old chicks requires _______
more than 4 weeks old. brooding temperature than 7 day old chicks.
a. 22 birds per m2 a. higher
b. 43 birds per m2 b. lower
c. 54 birds per m2 c. the same
602. The recommended distance of air inlets from fans 607. Minimum height of hover required during
in poultry building should not be within brooding operation.
________. a. 50-80 mm above the back of the birds
a. 1.0 m and below b. 80-120 mm above the back of the birds
b. 2.5 m and below c. 120-160 mm above the back of the birds
c. 3.5 m and below d. None of the above
608. Waterer space requirement for linear-type waterer
603. Artificial light requirement of chicks during the for chicks below 4 weeks old.
first 48 hours at 2.4 m above the floor. a. 2.5 cm per bird
a. 15 watts per m2 b. 5.0 cm per bird
b. 25 watts per m2 c. 7.5 cm per bird
c. 35 watts per m2 d. All of the above
d. all of the above
609. Number of bird required per unit round waterer
604. Artificial light requirement of chicks after the for chicks above 4 weeks of age.
first 48 hours at floor level. a. 50 birds
a. 10 watts per m2 b. 75 birds
b. 20 watts per m2 c. 100 birds
c. 30 watts per m2 d. None of the above
d. All of the above 610. A wooden frame used on concrete floors for
stacking bags to prevent direct contact between
605. Linear feeder space requirement for broiler 4 the grains and the floor.
weeks and below. a. Dunnage
a. 4 cm per bird b. Pallet
a. 8 cm per bird c. “Tarima”
b. 12 cm per bird d. All of the above
c. None of the above e. None of the above
606. Number of pieces of 305 mm diameter round 610. A building used for storing paddy or rice in bulk
feeder for chicks above 4 weeks old. or in bag form.
a. 2 pieces a. Warehouse
b. 5 pieces b. Silo
c. 8 pieces c. Grain Complex
d. All of the above
611. The recommended dimension for warehouse with
10,000 cavans capacity. 616. The recommended size of entrance for normal
a. 10 m x 30m temperature warehouse.
b. 10 m x 40 m a. 6 meters wide x 4 meters high
c. 10 m x 60 m b. 4 meters wide x 6 meters high
d. All of the above c. 5 meters wide x 5 meters high
612. The recommended dimension for warehouse with
500,000 cavans capacity. 617. The minimum requirement for illumination of a
a. 75 m x 142 m warehouse.
b. 75 m x 152 m a. 3 watts per square meter
c. 75 m x 162 m b. 4 watts per square meter
d. None of the above c. 5 watts per square meter
613. Recommended dimension for warehouse with
50,000 cavans capacity. 618. Recommended thickness of hallow blocks used
a. 20 m x 48 m for walls of warehouse.
b. 20 m x 58 m a. 100 mm
c. 20 m x 68 m b. 125 mm
d. None of the above c. 150 mm
d. All of the above
614. Recommended dimension for warehouse with
100,000 cavans capacity. 619. Recommended size of reinforcing bars for
a. 25 m x 78 m warehouse walls.
b. 25 m x 88 m a. 8 mm  RSB
c. 25 m x 98 m b. 10 mm  RSB
d. None of the above c. 12 mm  RSB
615. The minimum height of the interior between the 620. Recommended thickness of concrete slabs for
beams and the floor for normal temperature warehouse permitted for loading and unloading
warehouse. with trucks.
a. 4 meters a. 100 mm
b. 5 meters b. 120 mm
c. 6 meters c. 150 mm
626. Dimension for maximum piling of stacks to
621. Recommended width of concrete strips to be laid conform with the fumigating sheets in situations
around warehouse to prevent rain from eroding where warehouses cannot be made airtight.
the base of the walls below the damp course. a. 7.3 m x 21.9 m x 4.5 m
a. 0.75 m b. 6.3 m x 20.9 m x 4.5 m
b. 1.00 m c. 5.3 m x 19.8 m x 4.5 m
c. 1.50 m d. None of the above
627. Recommended stack height for warehouse should
622. Minimum dimension of roof truss span for not exceed the height of the walls and a space of
warehouse. at least ______ between the tops of the stacks and
a. 14.5 meters the roof frame.
b. 15.5 meters a. 1 meter
c. 16.5 meters b. 1.5 meters
d. None of the above c. 2.0 meters
623. Recommended spacing between the stacks and
wall of warehouse. 628. It is the system of piling grains that provides
a. 0.5 meter wide ventilation space between bags and allows
b. 1.0 meter wide circulation of convective air current that provides
c. 1.5 meter wide a medium for heat dissipation.
d. None of the above a. Chinese Method
624. Maximum height of stacks for warehouse using b. Japanese Method
jute sacks. c. Philippine Method
a. 3 meters d. None of the above
b. 6 meters
c. 9 meters
d. None of the above 629. Any building or place used for killing of animals
625. Maximum height of stacks for warehouse when where the flesh is intended for human
using woven polypropylene bags. consumption.
a. 3 meters a. Butcher house
b. 6 meters b. Slaughter house
c. 9 meters c. Large animal pen
c. 57 liters per day per animal
630. A slaughter hose with required facilities and d. None of the above
operational procedures to serve any market.
a. “A” slaughter house 635. Water requirement of a slaughter house for
b. “AA” slaughter house swine.
c. “AAA” slaughter house a. 227 liters per day per animal
d. None of the above b. 114 liters per day per animal
c. 57 liters per day per animal
631. A slaughter hose with required facilities and d. None of the above
operational procedures to serve local market
within the country. 636. Minimum distance required of slaughter house
a. “A” slaughter house when they are to be located near river, streams,
b. “AA” slaughter house or lakes.
c. “AAA” slaughter house a. 10 meters from the bank
d. None of the above b. 20 meters from the bank
c. 30 meters from the bank
632. A type of electrical load distribution center where the d. None of the above
meter and the disconnect switch are located at the
electric-load center of the farmstead. 637. Minimum distance required for slaughter house
a. Indoor-type from buildings used for human habitation,
b. Outdoor-type factory, public road and places.
c. Pole-type a. 50 meters
d. None of the above b. 100 meters
c. 150 meters
633. Water requirement of a slaughter house for large d. None of the above
animals.
a. 227 liters per day per animal 638. Minimum pipeline pressure for water supply
b. 114 liters per day per animal system in slaughter houses.
c. 57 liters per day per animal a. 20 psi
d. None of the above b. 30 psi
c. 40 psi
634. Water requirement of a slaughter house for small d. None of the above
animals.
a. 227 liters per day per animal
b. 114 liters per day per animal
639. Meat which is unfit for human consumption as
declared by a veterinary inspector after veterinary 644. It renders the animal insensible before it is killed.
examination. a. Stunning
a. Spoiled meat b. Pithing
b. Detained meat c. Sticking
c. Condemned meat d. None of the above
645. It is the insertion of a rod or coiled wire through
640. Meat requiring further examination as declared the hole in the skull of cattle made by captive blot
by a veterinary inspector after veterinary to destroy the brain and spinal cord to prevent
examination. reflex muscular action and possible injury to
a. Spoiled meat operatives.
b. Detained meat a. Stunning
c. Condemned meat b. Pithing
d. None of the above c. Sticking
641. Lowering of animal into a steam to prepare skin
for dehairing. 646. It is the severance of the major blood vessels in
a. Flaying the neck or immediately anterior to the heart by
b. Scalding means of a knife.
c. Gambrelling a. Stunning
d. None of the above b. Pithing
c. Sticking
642. It is the removal of hide of the carcass. d. None of the above
a. Flaying
b. Scalding
c. Gambrelling
647. Site for slaughter houses should be elevated
643. It is the process or suspending the carcass for ______ above the adjacent ground.
particular operation. a. 400 mm
a. Flaying b. 500 mm
b. Scalding c. 600 mm
c. Gambrelling d. None of the above
648. Recommended dimension for slaughter house for 653. Minimum width of doorways for slaughter
large animal with throughput rate of 30 animals houses.
per day is ____. a. 1.0 meter wide
a. 6 m x 5.8 m b. 1.2 meters wide
b. 2.5 m x 6.4 m c. 1.5 meters wide
c. 23.3 m x 15 m d. None of the above
654. Numbers of drain inlets provided in slaughter
649. Recommended slopes for wall tops of slaughter houses pr 40 m2 space.
houses. a. 1 inlet
a. 30 deg b. 2 inlets
b. 45 deg c. 3 inlets
c. 60 deg d. None of the above
655. Two hundred twenty (220) volt line with current
650. Recommended thickness of concrete slabs for flowing at 10 ampere is equal to ________.
slaughter houses. a. 2.2 kw
a. 100 mm b. 2.2 volt-ampere
b. 120 mm c. 2200 watts
c. 150 mm d. None of the above
651. Size of reinforcement bar for concrete slabs in

slaughter houses.
a. 8 mm  RSB
b. 10 mm  RSB
c. 12 mm  RSB
d. None of the above 656. A 10 ampere ventilation fan with a power factor
652. Recommended height of windows for slaughter of 0.85 was connected to a 220 volt convenience
houses. outlet. What is the current and power in the
a. 1 meters above the floor circuit?
b. 1.2 meters above the floor a. 1,870 watts
c. 1.5 meters above the floor b. 1,870 volt-ampere
d. None of the above c. 2,200 watts
e. All of the above a. volts x ampere
b. volts x ampere x power factor
657. An electric motor has an rated horsepower of 2 c. volt x ampere x efficiency
hp, a rated voltage of 240 volts, and a current of d. None of the above
15 amperes. What is the horsepower rating of the
motor in watts? Assume a motor efficiency of 662. Advantage of 240 volt over to 120 volt.
85%. a. Economical
a. 1492 watts b. Lower power loss
b. 1942 watts c. Smaller power drop
c. 1249 watts d. All of the above
663. Ampere capacity of AWG no. 12 wire.
658. What is the input power of the motor above? a. 15 amperes
a. 1557 watts b. 20 amperes
b. 1755 watts c. 30 amperes
c. 1575 watts d. None of the above
664. When AWG # 12 wire is replace with AWG no.
659. What is the power factor of the motor above? 14, the ampere capacity of the will ______.
a. 0.4875 a. increase
b. 0.4785 b. decrease
c. 0.4587 c. remains the same
665. Electrical conductors which are 8 mm2 (AWG#8)

660. The power output of DC line in wattage is equal or smaller in size.
to ______. a. Wire
a. volts x ampere b. Cables
b. volts x ampere x power factor c. Cord
c. volt x ampere x efficiency d. All of the above
666. Electrical conductors larger than 8 mm2.
661. The power output of AC line in wattage is equal a. Wire
to ______. b. Cables
c. Cord 671. It is a fabricated assembly of insulated conductors
d. All of the above enclosed flexible metal sheet primarily used for
both exposed and concealed work.
667. Consist of a group of wires twisted to form a a. Metal clad cable
metallic string. b. Armored cable
a. Stranded wire c. Mineral Insulated cable
b. Cord d. None of the above
c. Co-axial wire
d. All of the above 672. It is a factory assembly of one or more
conductors each individually insulated and
668. A water heater draws 10 amperes at 240 volt enclosed in a metallic sheet of interlocking tape
current supply. What is the heat resistance of a smooth or corrugated tube and are usually
delivered by heater? used for service feeders, branch circuits and for
a. 2.4 ohms indoor or outdoor work.
b. 24 ohms a. Metal clad cable
c. 2400 ohms b. Armored cable
d. None of the above c. Mineral insulated cable
669. Determine the monthly consumption of a farm
residence having the following loads: one-1200 673. It is a wiring accessories or channels designed for
watts electric iron in 2 hours, one-1000 watt holding wires, cables, or busbars which are either
water heater in 3 hours, and one-1300 watt toaster made of metal, plastic, or any insulating
in 30 minutes. materials.
a. 4.05 kw-hour a. Wire shield
b. 5.05 kw-hour b. Armor pipe
c. 6.05 kw-hour c. Raceways
670. What is the size in circular mill of a cable with 674. It is a device which by insertion establishes
rating 250 MCM? connection between the conductor of the flexible
a. 250 circular mill cord and the conductors connected permanently
b. 25, 000 circular mill to the receptacle.
c. 250,000 circular mill a. Convenience outlet
d. All of the above b. Junction box
c. Receptacles
d. None of the above a. Voltage drop
b. Power loss
675. A contact device installed at the outlet for the c. Ampacity
connection of a single attachment plug. d. None of the above
a. Convenience outlet
b. Junction box 680. National Electrification Code provides that the
c. Receptacles ampacity of the connected load shall not exceed
d. None of the above _____ of the amperage capacity of the conductor
and the fuse.
676. These are free standing assembly of switches, a. 60%
fuses, and circuit breakers which provides b. 70%
switching and feeder protection to a number of c. 80%
circuits connected to a main source. d. All of the above
a. Panel board
b. Switchboard 681. Allowable space between the tops of the stocks
c. Circuit breaker and the roof truss of warehouse.
d. All of the above a. 1.0 meter
677. Electrical system that is adopted in buildings b. 1.5 meters
where the load exceeds 50 KVA or where it is c. 2.0 meters
required for bigger load such as motors and d. None of the above
machineries.
a. Single phase system
b. Dual phase system
c. Three phase system
d. All of the above 682. Optimum recommended stock height for paddy
678. The maximum load in watts for each household stored in the warehouse.
lighting outlet based on the National a. 16 layers
Electrification Code. b. 18 layers
a. 50 watts c. 20 layers
b. 100 watts d. All of the above
c. 150 watts
d. All of the above 683. Optimum recommended stock height for maize
stored in the warehouse.
679. It is the ability of the wire or conductor to carry a. 16 layers
the current without overheating. b. 18 layers
c. 20 layers c. 1.2 m
684. In storing paddy, which of the following 688. Minimum side space requirement between the
statement is true? edge of the pile and the wall of the warehouse.
a. More paddy can be stored in a warehouse a. 0.5 m
when placed in jute sacks. b. 1.0 m
b. More paddy can be stored in a warehouse c. 1.5 m
when placed in woven polypropylene bags. d. None of the above
c. The same volume of paddy can be stored in a
warehouse whether they are stored in jute 689. Minimum recommended height of the interior
sacks or woven polypropylene bags. between the beam and the floor of warehouse.
d. None of the above a. 15 feet
b. 20 feet
685. Maximum stock height for grains stored in jute c. 25 feet
bags. d. All of the above
a. ½ the wall height
b. ¾ the wall height 690. Preferred lighting fixtures for warehouse
c. Wall height building.
d. All of the above a. Incandescent lamp
b. Fluorescent lamp
c. Ultraviolet lamp
686. Maximum stock height for grains stored in 691. Minimum requirement for illumination of
woven polypropylene bags. warehouse.
a. ½ the wall height a. 3 watts per square meter
c. ¾ the wall height b. 6 watts per square meter
c. Wall height c. 9 watts per square meter
687. Allowable space between piles of bags in 692. Recommended size of concrete hallow blocks for
warehouse. warehouse wall.
a. 0.6 m a. 4 in. x 8 in. x 16 in.
b. 1.0 m b. 6 in. x 8 in. x 16 in.
c. 8 in. x 8 in. x 16 in. 697. Recommended height of floor if trucks are
d. None of the above permitted to load and unload inside the
warehouse.
693. Recommended size of reinforcement bar for a. 0.30 m above the ground
warehouse. b. 0.40 m above the ground
a. 10 mm diameter c. 0.50 m above the ground
b. 12 mm diameter d. None of the above
c. 14 mm diameter
d. None of the above 698. Which of the following facilities are required for
warehouse?
694. Recommended spacing of reinforcement bar for a. Quality control laboratories
warehouse wall. b. Toilet and washing facilities
a. 500 mm vertical and horizontal c. Poisonous chemical store
b. 600 mm vertical and 500 horizontal d. All of the above
c. 600 mm vertical and horizontal e. None of the above
699. Construction of canopy for warehouse should be
695. To prevent rain from eroding the warehouse wall, done ______ to allow continuous loading and
it is recommended that ______ unloading even when raining.
a one meter concrete strips should be provided a. in all walls
around the warehouse. b. in every entry door
b. one meter metal strips should be provided on c. in one edge of the outside wall
the outside wall of the warehouse. d. None of the above
c. suitable drainage system should be provided
around the warehouse. 700. Locations of vents for warehouse.
d. None of the above a. Near the floor level
b. Top of the wall near grid line
696. Recommended height of floor for warehouse to c. Top of the roof and the ridge
permit easy loading and unloading by trucks at d. All of the above
the sides of the warehouse.
a. 0.5 meter above the ground 701. Factors that contribute to the increasing amount
b. 1.0 meter above the ground of waste.
c. 1.5 meters above the ground a. Over population
d. None of the above b. Utilization of chemicals in Agriculture
c. Natural catastrophes and droughts
702. A treatment process which reduces the amount of 707. In flocculation process, it is necessary that the
substances that cause unpleasant odor and water being treated must be ___________.
discoloration of water. a. agitated
a. Filtration b. stagnant
b. Aeration c. heated
c. Disinfection d. All of the above
708. A water treatment process aimed to destroy
703. In an open aerator, the addition of air in water is microorganisms that cause infectious disease .
achieved by a. Ozonation
a. Placing the water in an open tank b. Disinfection
b. Providing opening to a water container c. Irradiation
c. Spraying the water d. None of the above
709. Lesser amount of chorine is needed for water
704. In sedimentation, processed water is allowed to being treated if the turbidity of water is ________
pass through a settling chamber at __________. .
a. low velocity a. high
b. high velocity b. low
c. zero velocity c. zero
710. It is the commonly practiced method of
705. In coagulation and flocculation processes, water disinfecting water by households.
is mixed with coagulants to _______. a. chlorination
a. disperse colloidal particles b. ozonation
b. allow the formation of settable particles c. boiling
c. mechanically screen colloidal matters d. None of the above
711. A good material used for water filter.
706. Sources of coagulants include ______. a. Chlorine
a. earth from termite hills b. Activated carbon
b. aluminum and iron salts c. Filter paper
c. potato starch d. None of the above
716. When a material goes with air, the velocity of air
712. A mixture in air of irregular shape mineral that will cause it to pick-up the materials is
particles in the size ranged from 1 to 200 _______.
micrometer formed by crushing, chipping, a. terminal velocity
grinding or by natural disintegration of solid b. superfluous velocity
substances. c. laminar velocity
a. Fumes d. None of the above
b. Sulfurous smog
c. Dusts 717. The efficiency of cyclone increases for
d. All of the above ________.
a. small particle
713. If air is mixed with one or more constituents not b. medium particle
normally present in the atmosphere it is c. large particle
considered as _______. d. None of the above
a. polluted air
b. turbid air 718. Cyclone efficiency decreases with a _________.
c. air pollution a. decrease in the amount of dust
d. None of the above b. reduction in length of cyclone body
c. decrease in the number of gas rotation inside
714. It is the simplest method of separating solid the cyclone
particles from air by allowing air to pass through d. All of the above
a large chamber to cause the solid material to fall
due to its weight. 719. A gas filter that is suitable for high temperature
a. Momentum separation condition.
b. Gravity separation a. Wool
c. Settling chamber b. Asbestos
d. None of the above c. Filter glass
d. All of the above
715. Much efficient method of separating particles
from air. 720. A method of separating fine dust by allowing it to
a. Cyclone separator pass through a mist of water.
b. Gravity separator a. Water purifier
c. Momentum separator b. Water scrubber
d. None of the above c. Water spraying
d. All of the above
a. Activated sludge process
721. A partially lined or unlined underground pit into b. Agitation process
which raw animal or household waste water is c. Anaerobic digestion process
discharged. d. None of the above
a. Cistern
b. Cesspool 726. Waste water flowing into a reservoir or treatment
c. Septic tank plant.
d. None of the above a. Slurry
b. Influent
722. It is the breakdown of organic matter in a water c. Intake
solution or suspension into a simpler or more d. None of the above
biologically-stable compounds.
a. Digestion 727. It is the ordinary killing of all living
b. Ammonification microorganisms with the use of heat and pressure
c. Adsorption or with the use of some chemicals.
d. None of the above a. Disinfection
b. Sterilization
723. Wastewater, which is treated or untreated, that is c. Fumigation
being discharged from reservoir, basin, or d. None of the above
treatment plant.
a. Effluent
b. Influent 728. It is the biological decomposition of nitrogenous
c. Turbid water organic matter with the production of foul-
d. None of the above smelling products associated with anaerobic
degradation of proteins.
724. A dark carbonaceous residue resulting from a. Anaerobic digestion
aerobic decomposition of organic matter. b. Putrefaction
a. Night soil c. Liquefaction
b. Slurry d. None of the above
c. Humus
d. None of the above 729. A portion of the total solids driven off by a
combustible gases at 500-600 C for at least one
725. It is a biological waste water treatment process in hour.
which the mixture of waste water and biological a. Total solids
solids is agitated and aerated. b. Volatile solids
c. Suspended solids 734. A film produced during slow filtration
d. None of the above responsible for the bacteriological- purification
effect on water.
730. It is an earthen facility for biological treatment of a. Filter skin
wastewater. b. Scum
a. Lagoon c. Bacteriological film
b. Detention pond d. None of the above
c. Cesspool
d. None of the above 735. It is the method of cleaning on a rapid filter by
reversing the direction of flow of water.
731. Biological degradation of organic solids under a. Back splashing
aerobic conditions to a relatively stable humus- b. Back washing
like material. c. Reverse cleaning
a. Digestion d. None of the above
b. Composting
c. Manure production 736. Chemical reaction of disinfectant is speed up by
d. None of the above using _____.
a. cold water
b. raw water
c. hot water
d. All of the abov
732. Particles that ultimately settle after the 737. Sedimentation and filtration are performed
wastewater losses velocity. preceding chlorination to _________.
a. Sediments a. enhance disinfection effect
b. Colloids b. reduce chlorination time
c. Flocs c. reduce treatment time
733. The precipitate or settled solids from treatment, 738. The water-carried waste from households or
coagulation, or sedimentation of wastewater. industry.
a. Sludge a. turbid water
b. Colloids b. sewage
c. Sediments c. slurry
739. The average time wherein waste is subjected to 744. Which of the following is not a greenhouse?
stabilization process or held in storage. a. Glasshouse
a. Detention time b. Plastic house
b. Retention time c. Screen house
c. Digestion time d. None of the above
745. Recommended orientation for the installation of
740. The rapid oxidation of solids in a specially- greenhouse.
designed combustion chamber. a. North to South
a. Solid burning b. West to East
b. Incineration c. North-West to South East
c. Thermal activation d. None of the above
746. Maximum recommended length for greenhouse.
741. A type of biogas plant where the digester is a. 50 meters
separated from the gas chamber. b. 100 meters
a. Integrated plant c. 150 meters
b. Multi-digester plant d. None of the above
c. Split-type plant
d. All of the above
747. Maximum recommended width for gutter
742. Maximum ventilation rate requirement for connected greenhouse.
greenhouse. a. 50 meters
a. 0.10 to 0.75 air change per minute b. 100 meters
b. 0.75 to 1.00 air change per minute c. 150 meters
c. 1.00 to 1.75 air change per minute d. None of the above
743. A structure that provide a reliable enclosure 748. C/N ratio requirement of organic materials for
within which an environment favorable to plant proper biogas digestion.
growth can be attained. a. 1:10 to 1:20
a. Farm building b. 1:20 to 1:30
b. Warehouse c. 1:30 to 1:40
c. Greenhouse d. None of the above
749. One pound per square inch is equal to ________.
a. 27.6 inches of water d. None of the above
b. 26.7 inches of water
c. 76. 2 inches of water 754. It is the internal resistance per unit area that
d. None of the above results from external force.
a. Ultimate strength
750. A process of gradually supplying moisture and b. Unit stress
maintaining proper temperature so as to have c. Shearing stress
favorable conditions for hydration of the cement d. None of the above
particularly during the early hardening period.
a. Re-wetting 755. Stresses tending to cause two contiguous parts of
b. Tempering a body to slide, relative to each other in a
c. Curing direction parallel to the plane of contact.
d. None of the above a. Ultimate strength
b. Unit stress
751. A unit of deformation as a result of change in the c. Shearing stress
form produced by stress. d. None of the above
a. Fatigue strength
b. Shear force
c. Strain
d. None of the above 756. Cutting metal sheet using a tin snip is a good
example of material subject to________ .
752. An algebraic sum of all the external forces acting a. tensile stress
parallel to cross-section of one side of the section b. compressive stress
tending to cause failure by sliding movement. c. shear stress
a. Fatigue strength d. All of the above
b. Deflection
c. Shear force 757. Ratio of the ultimate strength to the working
d. None of the above stress.
a. Allowable stress
753. It is the amount of stress that produce failure by b. Elastic limit
increasing the unit stress until breakage or c. Factor of safety
rupture occurs. d. None of the above
a. Ultimate strength
b. Unit stress
c. Shearing stress

Agricultural Engineering Comprehensive Board Exam Reviewer: Agricultural Processing, Structures, and Allied Subjects

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AGRICULTURAL

UNIVERSITY PRESS Department of Agricultural

187. Slender type paddy has a length to width ratio of

210. A mixer which consist of a U shaped bin which

218. Optimum mixing time of vertical-type feed

223. It is a milled corn kernel with particle size

316. A substance is cold if _________.

354. The temperature at which a liquid is converted to

382. Changes in the flavor of meat, fish, or poultry

495. It is a device used for transferring heat.

566. Ten lumen distributed to an area of 10 square foot

651. Size of reinforcement bar for concrete slabs in

665. Electrical conductors which are 8 mm2 (AWG#8)

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