AERODYNAMICS - 1

1 QUESTION For aircraft performance, the most important factor is:

A Ambient pressure
B Density of air
C Ambient temperature
D Quality of fuel
ANSWER Density of air

2 QUESTION TAS is a function of

A Static pressure and density
B Dynamic pressure and viscosity
C Dynamic pressure and density
D Static pressure and viscosity
ANSWER Dynamic pressure and density

3 QUESTION TAS is equal to _________.

A EAS/sq root of rho
B EAS x sq root of rho
C EAS/rho
D None of the above(where rho=density)
ANSWER EAS/sq root of rho

4 QUESTION Two ac flying at FL 100 and 200. For a given Mach no.
A Higher ac will have higher TAS
B Higher ac will have higher IAS
C Lower ac will have lower TAS
D None
ANSWER None

5 QUESTION Forces acting on an ac structure in flight are:-

A Aerodynamic
B Inertial
C Elastic
D All the above
ANSWER All the above

6 QUESTION Reynolds number is a ratio of:-

A Centripetal forces to centrifugal forces
B Inertial forces to gravitational forces
C Inertial forces to viscous forces
D Viscous forces to inertial forces
ANSWER Inertial forces to viscous forces

7 QUESTION A turbulent boundary layer as compared to a laminar one:

A Has lesser energy
B Has the same energy
 C Has higher energy
D (a) and (b)
ANSWER Has higher energy

8 QUESTION Boundary layer has a profound effect on the lift produced at:
A High A of A
B Low A of A
C At all A of A
D None of the above
ANSWER High A of A

9 QUESTION Boundary layer separation takes place due to:-

A Rough surface
B Jerky Flying
C Adverse Pressure gradient
D Inherent properties of airflow
ANSWER Adverse Pressure gradient

A straight line joining the leading edge and trailing edge of an aerofoil
10 QUESTION
is called:-
A Mean camber line
B Chord
C Chord line
D Zero lift chord
ANSWER Chord line

Aerodynamic centre is that fixed point on the aerofoil around which

11 QUESTION
the coefficient of pitching moment is
A constant but changes with change in angle of attack
B constant and does not change with changes in angle of attack
C semi-constant and does not change with changes in angle of attack
D not constant and changes with change in angle of attack
ANSWER constant and does not change with changes in angle of attack

12 QUESTION Airflow pattern and therefore lift depends upon :

A AOA
B Shape of aerofoil
C RN
D All these
ANSWER All these

13 QUESTION For tip vortices to form :

A Wing should produce lift
B Wing should have twd vel
C Wing should produce some drag
D All these
ANSWER Wing should produce lift
14 QUESTION The greatest contribution to overall lift comes from the
A lower surface of the aerofoil
B upper surface of the aerofoil
C both surface of the aerofoil equally
D
ANSWER upper surface of the aerofoil

15 QUESTION To make the ac more agile the aerodynamics specialist would:-

A Move the C of P rearwards closer to the C of G
B Move the aerodynamic centre rearwards closer to the C of G
C Provide anhedral wings
D Provide dihedral wings
ANSWER Provide anhedral wings

16 QUESTION With increase in AOA, the movement of C of P is:-

A Forward and stable
B Forward and unstable
C Rearward and stable
D It does not move
ANSWER Forward and unstable

17 QUESTION A SU-30 in a vertical climb is producing:-

A Max lift
B No lift
C No drag
D None of the above
ANSWER No lift

18 QUESTION In the expression L = CL ½ S V2S, V represents:

A TAS
B EAS
C IAS
D RAS
ANSWER TAS

19 QUESTION With increase in Aspect Ratio, CL Max theoritically

A Remains constant
B Increases
C Decreases
D
ANSWER Remains constant

20 QUESTION At a given speed, the induced drag varies as:

A Cube of weight
B First power of weight
C Square of weight
D Under root of weight
ANSWER Square of weight
 In a MiG-21 ac, while maneuvering with Alpha lights ON, the
21 QUESTION
predominant component of drag is:-
A Induced Drag
B Skin friction Drag
C Wave Drag
D None of these
ANSWER Induced Drag

22 QUESTION Induced drag in a straight infinite wing is:

A Only in subsonic region
B Zero
C 50% of total drag
D Very small
ANSWER Zero

23 QUESTION Induced drag varies with CL as:

A _/CL
B CL
C CL2
D 1/CL
ANSWER CL2

24 QUESTION Trim drag can be reduced by:-

A Rearward movement of CG
B Rearward movement of CP
C Forward movement of CG
D Forward movement of CP
ANSWER Rearward movement of CG

With a bank angle of 60°, the induced drag will increase _________
25 QUESTION
times.
A 4
B 1.4
C 2
D None
ANSWER 4

26 QUESTION With change in weight of an ac the induced drag varies as :-

A W2
B ÖW
C W
D 1/W
ANSWER W2

27 QUESTION Zero lift drag comprises of :

A induced drag
B Increase in interferce drag
 C Increase in form drag
D None
ANSWER None

28 QUESTION Zero lift drag increases with increase in lift because of

A the forward movement of the transition point
B the forward movement of the separation point
C the forward movement of both the transition and separation points
D none of the above because the points move backward
ANSWER the forward movement of both the transition and separation points

29 QUESTION At the point of stall, the nose drops due to :-

A Centre of pressure moves forward
B Centre of pressure move backward
C Aerodynamic centre moves backward
D Tailplane life reduces
ANSWER Centre of pressure move backward

The effect on stalling angle of attack of an increase m Reynolds

30 QUESTION
number is:-
A No effect
B Reduces
C Increases
D Initially increases then reduces
ANSWER Increases

When a MiG-27 sweeps its wings to 72 deg sweep back, its stalling
31 QUESTION
speed when compared to sweep 16 deg:-
A Increases
B Decreases
C Remain same
D
ANSWER Increases

32 QUESTION In a steady and errect spin, the slip indicator will show:
A A skid
B A slip
C No steady indication
D
ANSWER A skid

33 QUESTION Tip stalling can be prevented by:

A Washout, polish, elevons
B Washin, spoilers, slats and slots
C Washout, spoiler, slats and slot
D Washout, spoilers, Elevons
ANSWER Washin, spoilers, slats and slots
34 QUESTION Wing tip stalling can be prevented by:-
A Wash-in
B Spoilers on wing tips
C Wash out
D Wing tip stalling is desirable. There is no need to prevent it
ANSWER Wash out

35 QUESTION A Canard would:-

A Increase trim drag
B Reduce trim drag
C Do not effect trim drag
D Increase long stability
ANSWER Reduce trim drag

36 QUESTION A change in wing planform/sweep is called: -

A Mission Adaptive wing
B Polymorphism
C Wing flexure
D Sweep stake
ANSWER Polymorphism

37 QUESTION A crescent wing is a planform with: -

Lower sweep, max thickness at the root and higher sweep, min
A
thickness at the tip.
B Uniform thickness with progressively reducing sweep towards the tip.
Lower sweep, min thickness at the tip and higher sweep, max thickness
C
at the root
D None of the above
Lower sweep, min thickness at the tip and higher sweep, max
ANSWER
thickness at the root

38 QUESTION Compared to straight wings, swept back wings stall at a:-

A Higher AOA
B Lower AOA
C No Change
D
ANSWER Higher AOA

39 QUESTION Delta wings in comparison to swept back wings have:

A More structural rigidity
B Reduced tip stalling tendency
C Lower wing loading
D All the above
ANSWER All the above

For a given value of span2/area, the minimum induced drag will be

40 QUESTION
produced by:-
 A Rectangular wing
B Elliptical wing
C Delta wing
D Crescent wing
ANSWER Elliptical wing

41 QUESTION Reflex camber is used to reduce the:

A Profile drag
B Induced drag
C Trim drag
D None of the above
ANSWER Trim drag

Some ac have a downward inclination of the wings, which is called

42 QUESTION
____ and it increases ____.
A Wash in, lateral stability
B Anhedral, lateral stability
C Dihedral, Rate of roll
D Anhedral, Rate of roll
ANSWER Anhedral, Rate of roll

Stalling characteristics where a wing stalls with following progressive

43 QUESTION
characteristics is more desirable:
A Tip to root
B Root to tip
C All at once
D None of the above
ANSWER Root to tip

The cause of pitch-up on swept wing as well as low AR straight wing

44 QUESTION
ac are as follows:
A Washout due to flexure
B Formation of large wing tip vortices
C Change of down wash over tail plane
D All the above
ANSWER Formation of large wing tip vortices

45 QUESTION The most efficient planform is

A Sweeback
B Straight wings
C Elliptical
D
ANSWER Elliptical

46 QUESTION The stalling angle with leading edge flaps selected is:-
A increased
B reduced
C remains the same
 D
ANSWER increased

47 QUESTION Thrust augmentation can be achieved by:

A Water injection
B Reheat/Afterburner
C Water methanol injection
D All the above
ANSWER All the above

48 QUESTION Use of flaps always affects the:

A reduces L/D ratio
B increases the L/D ratio
C can increase or reduce L/D ratio
D has no effect on L/D ratio
ANSWER reduces L/D ratio

49 QUESTION Control effectiveness depends upon:-

A Distance of CP from CG
B Distance of CP of control surface to C of G
C EAS2
D TAS2
ANSWER Distance of CP of control surface to C of G

If speed is increased in level flights, the rate of roll for a given

50 QUESTION
aileron/spoiler deflection:-
A Decreases
B Remains same
C Increases
D Will not change
ANSWER Increases

Modern fighters use a slab or all moving tailplane for better control
51 QUESTION
effectiveness
A at high mach nos
B At low mach nos
C At low IAS
D
ANSWER at high mach nos

52 QUESTION The spoilers in an ac:

A is a lift dumper and causes proverse yaw
B is a lift dumper and causes adverse yaw
C is a lift dumper and causes no yaw
D is not a lift dumper and causes no yaw
ANSWER is a lift dumper and causes proverse yaw

53 QUESTION A greater CG margin indicates :-

 A Lesser degree of stability
B Greater degree of stability
C Greater degree of instability
D Greater maneuverability
ANSWER Greater degree of stability

An ac that has high lateral stability and poor direction stability at high
54 QUESTION
AOAs is prone to:-
A Spiral instability
B Dutch rolling
C Inertia coupling
D All of them
ANSWER Dutch rolling

55 QUESTION It is not possible to have a condition when a body is:

A Static, stable and dynamic unstable
B Static, unstable and dynamic stable
C Static stable and dynamic stable
D Static, unstable and dynamic unstable
ANSWER Static, unstable and dynamic stable

56 QUESTION Sweep back causes the lateral stability to:-

A Increase
B Decrease
C Does not affect it
D
ANSWER Increase

The factor that affects the longitudinal stability of an aircraft the

57 QUESTION
most is:-
A Stabiliser size
B Distance between CG and AC
C EAS at which the aircraft is flying
D Fly by wire controls
ANSWER Distance between CG and AC

58 QUESTION The most desirable stability for an ac is:-

A Neutral Static
B Neutral dynamic
C Positive dynamic
D Positive Static
ANSWER Positive Static

59 QUESTION The upper limits of stability of an ac is set by:-

A Lower limits of controllability
B Upper limits of controllability
C Lower limits of desired stability
D Mass of the ac
 ANSWER Lower limits of controllability

60 QUESTION The ventral fin in Mig-21 aircraft:

A Increase lateral stability
B Decrease lateral stability
C Increase directional stability
D (b) & (c) are correct
ANSWER (b) & (c) are correct

61 QUESTION With increase in altitude manoeuvre stability :-

A Increases
B Decreases
C Remains unchanged
D Decreases
ANSWER Remains unchanged

An ac at AUW of 20,000 lbs in a steady climb of 30° will have a lift of

62 QUESTION
approximately:-
A 20,000 lbs
B 17300 lbs
C 10,000 lbs
D 11550 lbs
ANSWER 17300 lbs

63 QUESTION At service ceiling a jet aircraft is ___________.

A Climbing with ROC 300 ft/min
B Level
C Climbing with ROC 500 ft/min
D Climbing with ROC 100 m/sec
ANSWER Climbing with ROC 500 ft/min

64 QUESTION At the service ceiling of an ac, the ROC is:-

A 100`/min
B 500`/min
C 1000`/min
D zero
ANSWER 100`/min

During valley flying, you are unexpectedly required to clear an

65 QUESTION
obstruction ahead. You will now climb at :-
A Endurance speed
B 20-25 pitch on AGD/HUD
C Speed for max reserve of thrust
D Speed for max reserve of power
ANSWER Endurance speed

For an aeroplane in a given condition, if the angle of glide or climb is

66 QUESTION
the same, the lift requirement in case of
 A The climb is greater
B The glide is greater
C Same in both cases
D
ANSWER Same in both cases

67 QUESTION For jet engined ac, with increase in altitude:-

A Minimum speed in level flight would increase
B Angle of climb would reduce
C Maximum speed in level flight would increase
D Minimum speed in level flight would decrease
ANSWER Minimum speed in level flight would increase

68 QUESTION If gliding at constant IAS, the ROD at higher altitudes will be:-
A Less due to higher TAS
B More due to reduced atmospheric friction
C More due to higher TAS
D Same at all altitudes
ANSWER More due to higher TAS

69 QUESTION On a jet ac the best speed to be maintained for a climb cruise is :

A 1.19 VMD
B 1.32VMP
C VMD
D None of these
ANSWER 1.19 VMD

70 QUESTION The ratio of best ROC to forward speed gives:-

A Min drag
B Best ROC
C Best climb angle
D Best range
ANSWER Best climb angle

71 QUESTION With Flaps down the power off glide characteristics of an aircraft:-
A Deteriorate
B Improve
C Remain same
D It cannot be said definitely as it varies from design to design
ANSWER Deteriorate

72 QUESTION A manoeuvre envelope has: -

A Load factor on Y axis
B EAS on Y axis
C Altitude on Y axis
D IAS on Y axis
ANSWER Load factor on Y axis
73 QUESTION ROA is max when :
A Nil winds exist
B Head wind > Tail wind
C Headwind < Tail wind
D None of these
ANSWER Nil winds exist

74 QUESTION The radius of turn when flying at 860 kmph TAS and 6.5 g will be:
A 907 m
B 895 m
C 585 m
D 1125 m
ANSWER 907 m

When imposing `g` limitation on a fighter ac, the margin on factor of

75 QUESTION
safety allowed is normally:-
A 1.5
B 2
C 5
D 2.5
ANSWER 1.5

76 QUESTION With high wing loading:

A Min radius turn is increased
B Min radius of turn reduces
C Min radius of turn remains same
D
ANSWER Min radius turn is increased

77 QUESTION At the AOA for best L/D, a jet has:-

A Maximum climb angle
B Best endurance
C Max power off glide range
D All of the above
ANSWER All of the above

78 QUESTION For a jet ac:

A Best angle of climb speed > best endurance speed = best L/D speed
B Best angle of climb speed > best endurance speed < best L/D speed
C Best angle of climb speed = best endurance speed = best L/D speed
D Best angle of climb speed < best endurance speed = best L/D speed
ANSWER Best angle of climb speed = best endurance speed = best L/D speed

79 QUESTION The distance flown for unit fuel consumed is called as:
A SAR
B PAR
C DAR
D Max Range
 ANSWER SAR

When flying for max range in headwinds, the speed as compared to

80 QUESTION
nil winds will be:-
A More
B Less
C The same
D
ANSWER More

81 QUESTION Behind a normal shockwave, the flow is:

A Always subsonic
B Always supersonic
Can be subsonic or supersonic depending on the velicity ahead of the
C
shockwave
Can be subsonic or supersonic depending on the thickness of the
D
shockwave
ANSWER Always subsonic

82 QUESTION M crit is an important parameter because:-

A Above M crit, the wing may suffer structural damage
B Parameters above M crit are not easily predictable in a wind tunnel
At the M crit, airflow reaches a local mach no of unity for the first time
C
any where over the aerofoil
D At the M crit, airflow is supersonic over the full aerofoil
At the M crit, airflow reaches a local mach no of unity for the first
ANSWER
time any where over the aerofoil

83 QUESTION M det is that mach no. at which:

A Bow shock wave movement is large
B Bow shock wave movement is least
C Transonic regime ends
D
ANSWER Bow shock wave movement is least

84 QUESTION The most significant drag during supersonic flight is:-

A Induced Drag
B Wave Drag
C Lift dependant Drag
D None of the above
ANSWER Wave Drag

85 QUESTION With increase in sweepback in transonic region the cD curve

A Shifts right and increases in value
B Shifts right and decreases in value
C Shifts left and increases in value
D Shifts left and decreases in value
ANSWER Shifts right and decreases in value
86 QUESTION Important designs for high-speed ac are
A Low MCDR
B Low drag coeff. at supersonic speeds
C Unstable platform for weapon release
D None of the above
ANSWER Low drag coeff. at supersonic speeds

87 QUESTION Sweep back is used by designers of high speed aircraft due to:-
A Higher values of MCRIT and MCDR
B Lower values of MCRIT and MCDR
C Better stability
Flat upper surface leading to low acceleration of airflow and hence
D
lower drag
ANSWER Higher values of MCRIT and MCDR

88 QUESTION The propeller is given a helical twist because:-

A It keeps EMP constant
It keeps interference between the propeller and the aircraft to a
B
minimum
C It ensures optimum angle of attack all along its length
D It looks good that way
ANSWER It ensures optimum angle of attack all along its length

The propulsive efficiency of jet and Propeller driven ac is equal at a

89 QUESTION
speed of :
A 300 kts
B 450kts
C 600 kmph
D None
ANSWER 450kts

90 QUESTION An aircraft leaving "ground effect" will experience:

A Reduction in induced drag, reduction of lift, decrease in IAS
B Increase in induced drag, increase of lift, decrease in IAS
C Increase in induced drag, reduction of lift, decrease in IAS
D Increase in induced drag, reduction of lift, increase in IAS
ANSWER Increase in induced drag, reduction of lift, increase in IAS

91 QUESTION Aquaplaning can be prevented by:

A Ensuring a kisser landing
B High pressure tyres
C Landing at higher speeds
D All of the above
ANSWER High pressure tyres

92 QUESTION Aquaplanning speed of an ac depends upon:-

A Weight of the ac
 B Tyre pressure
C Amount of water on R/W
D All of the above
ANSWER Tyre pressure

For an ac to posses better gust ride qualities, the wing loading should
93 QUESTION
be:-
A High
B Low
C Does not affect it
D
ANSWER High

Tail wind of 10% of the T/O speed will cause the T/O distance to
94 QUESTION
increase by :
A 0.05
B 0.11
C 0.09
D None of these
ANSWER None of these

95 QUESTION When flying into ground effect, the induced drag will:-
A Reduce
B Increase
C Not change
D
ANSWER Reduce

When landing on an unsloping r/w the pilot is likely to make a

96 QUESTION
__________ approach.
A Steep
B Shallow
C Overshooting
D Undershooting
ANSWER Shallow

97 QUESTION When landing, it is preferable to land on runway with:-

A Upslope & tailwind
B Downslope & headwind
C Downslope & tailwind
D Slope & winds have no effect
ANSWER Downslope & headwind

When one engine fails the correct technique for asymmetric flying is
98 QUESTION
to:-
Apply rudder on the side of the dead engine and hold off bank towards
A
the live engine
 Apply rudder on the side of the live engine and hold off bank towards
B
the dead engine
Apply bank towards the live engine and hold off rudder towards the
C
dead engine
Apply bank towards the dead engine and hold off rudder towards the
D
live engine
Apply rudder on the side of the live engine and hold off bank towards
ANSWER
the dead engine

99 QUESTION Compressibility error in the ASI is always

A Positive and reduces with increase in altitude
B Positive and increases with increase in altitude
C Negative and increases with increase in altitude
D Negative and reduces with increase in altitude
ANSWER Positive and increases with increase in altitude

100 QUESTION In a climb and in a glide:

A Lift is less than weight in both the cases.
B Lift is more than weight in climb and less during glide.
C Lift is less than weight in climb and more during glide.
D Lift is more than weight in both the cases.
ANSWER Lift is less than weight in both the cases.

The CP movement over an aerofoil is governed by camber,

101 QUESTION
__________ and _____________.
A Section lift co-efficient and AOA
B Thickness and AOA
C AOA and speed
D speed and surface condition
ANSWER Section lift co-efficient and AOA

On a flat plate when the angle of attack increases the CP moves

102 QUESTION
_________.
A nowhere
B back
C forward
D depending on speed
ANSWER back

The movement of the CP over an aerfoil can be reduced by reflexing

103 QUESTION
the trailing edge resulting in__________
A Improved lift characteristics
B Increased lift and reduced drag
C reduced lift and increased drag
D Increased lift and drag as well
ANSWER reduced lift and increased drag
 Aerodynamic Center (AC) is a point along the chord where
104 QUESTION
___________.
A the changes in AOA is offset by the change in CL
the changes in CL with AOA is offset by the change in distance between
B
CP and CG
C the aerofoil has maximum thickness
the changes in AOA with CL is offset by the change in distance between
D
CP and AC
the changes in CL with AOA is offset by the change in distance
ANSWER
between CP and CG

This kind of drag which is a major contributor to total drag can be

105 QUESTION reduced by reducing the curvature and increasing finess ratio by
streamlining.
A Surface Friction Drag
B Form Drag
C Interference Drag
D Induced Drag
ANSWER Form Drag

On a MiG 21 class of ac, lowering of undercarriage and flaps results in

106 QUESTION increasing the frontal area presented to the airflow. This results in
________
A Increase in Form Drag
B Reduction in Form Drag
C Increase in Form and Interference Drag
D Reduction in Form and Interference Drag
ANSWER Increase in Form and Interference Drag

Zero Lift Drag (ZLD) is affected by the dynamic pressure and is directly
107 QUESTION
proportional to ___________
A Lift and EAS
B Square of EAS
C Square of TAS
D Lift and Square of TAS
ANSWER Square of EAS

An IL-76 flying at 40000 feet will have ________ as compared to the

108 QUESTION
one flying at 10000 feet with same TAS and configuration.
A Same Induced Drag
B Reduced Zero Lift Drag
C Same Zero Lift Drag
D Increased Zero Lift Drag
ANSWER Reduced Zero Lift Drag

109 QUESTION An increase in ac weight will result in:

A Decrease in VIMD as well as the total drag.
B Increase in VIMD as well as total drag due to increase in Zero Lift Drag.
 Decrease in VIMD, but increase in total drag due to increase in Lift
C
Dependent Drag.
Increase in VIMD as well as total drag due to increase in Lift
D
dependent Drag.
Increase in VIMD as well as total drag due to increase in Lift
ANSWER
dependent Drag.

110 QUESTION The use of Spoilers and Flaps on appraoch will result in :
A Spoilers helps in reducing VIMD but Flaps have no effect on VIMD.
Spoilers and Flaps both contribute in reducing VIMD, but an increse in
B
landing speed(IAS).
Spoilers and Flaps both contribute in reducing VIMD, and also
C
reduction in landing speed(IAS).
D Flaps help in reducing VIMD but Spoilers have no effect on VIMD.
Spoilers and Flaps both contribute in reducing VIMD, and reduction in
ANSWER
landing speed(IAS).

111 QUESTION At high AOA, the drag is primarily:

A Induced Drag.
B 50% Induced Drag and 50 % Zero Lift Drag.
C Induced Drag mainly but also increase in Zero Lift Drag.
D Mainly increments of Zero Lift Drag
ANSWER Induced Drag mainly but also increase in Zero Lift Drag.

112 QUESTION An ideal aerofoil should have:

Low value of CD Min, low value of CL 3/2/CD and small and stable movt
A
of CP.
Low value of CD Min, High value of CL 3/2/CD and CP between 50%-70
B
%.
High value of CD Min, High value of CL 3/2/CD and small and stable
C
movt of CP.
Low value of CD Min, High value of CL 3/2/CD and small and stable
D
movt of CP.
Low value of CD Min, High value of CL 3/2/CD and small and stable
ANSWER
movt of CP.

113 QUESTION At high AOA, the drag is primarily:

A Induced Drag.
B 50% Induced Drag and 50 % Zero Lift Drag.
C Induced Drag mainly but also increase in Zero Lift Drag.
D Mainly increments of Zero Lift Drag
ANSWER Induced Drag mainly but also increase in Zero Lift Drag.

114 QUESTION An increase in ac weight will result in:

A Decrease in VIMD as well as the total drag.
B Increase in VIMD as well as total drag due to increase in Zero Lift Drag.
Decrease in VIMD, but increase in total drag due to increase in Lift
C
Dependent Drag.
 Increase in VIMD as well as total drag due to increase in Lift
D
dependent Drag.
Increase in VIMD as well as total drag due to increase in Lift
ANSWER
dependent Drag.

115 QUESTION The use of Spoilers and Flaps on appraoch will result in :
A Spoilers helps in reducing VIMD but Flaps have no effect on VIMD.
Spoilers and Flaps both contribute in reducing VIMD, but an increse in
B
landing speed(IAS).
Spoilers and Flaps both contribute in reducing VIMD, and also
C
reduction in landing speed(IAS).
D Flaps help in reducing VIMD but Spoilers have no effect on VIMD.
Spoilers and Flaps both contribute in reducing VIMD, and reduction in
ANSWER
landing speed(IAS).

116 QUESTION An ideal aerofoil should have:

Low value of CD Min, low value of CL 3/2/CD and small and stable movt
A
of CP.
Low value of CD Min, High value of CL 3/2/CD and CP between 50%-70
B
%.
High value of CD Min, High value of CL 3/2/CD and small and stable
C
movt of CP.
Low value of CD Min, High value of CL 3/2/CD and small and stable
D
movt of CP.
Low value of CD Min, High value of CL 3/2/CD and small and stable
ANSWER
movt of CP.
 AEROENGINES JET - 1

1 QUESTION Aero-engine fuels are basically hydro-carbons and consist

A 85% Hydrogen & 15 % Carbon
B 85% Carbon & 15% Hydrogen
C 80% Carbon & 20% Hydrogen
D 80% Hydrogen & 20% Carbon
ANSWER 85% Carbon & 15% Hydrogen

2 QUESTION Combustion efficiency is the ratio of:

A Mechanical energy input/Heat energy out put
B Temperature of fuel before combustion/Temperature of fuel after combustion
C Calorific value of fuel before combustion/Pressure energy produced after combustion
D Actual temperature rise during combustion/Theoritical temperature rise possible
ANSWER Actual temperature rise during combustion/Theoritical temperature rise possible

3 QUESTION If the thrust produced by a jet is 10 KN the thrust in kgf is approx:

A 1000
B 1500
C 9810
D None of these
ANSWER 1000

4 QUESTION In a jet engine, the proportionate employment of energy produced is:

A 40% for driving compressor, 60% as high speed jet
B 20% for driving compressor, 80% as high speed jet
C 60% for driving compressor, 40% as high speed jet
D 50% each for driving compressor and as high speed jet
ANSWER 60% for driving compressor, 40% as high speed jet

5 QUESTION In a turbojet engine, with increase in forward velocity:-

A Thrust increases
B Propulsive efficiency decreases
C Thrust decreases, but propulsive efficiency increases.
D None of the above
ANSWER Thrust decreases, but propulsive efficiency increases.

6 QUESTION The thrust of a jet engine increases with speed due to:
A Increase in velocity of inlet air
B Increase in velocity of exhaust gases
C Ram effect causes greater mass flow
D Increase in thrust is applicable only for afterburner
ANSWER Ram effect causes greater mass flow

7 QUESTION When the propulsive efficiency is 100%, the thrust of a jet engine is:-
A 1
B zero
C Max
D
ANSWER zero
8 QUESTION At low supersonic speeds, the type of intake duct required is:-
A Diverging
B Converging
C Converging-diverging
D Diverging-converging
ANSWER Converging

9 QUESTION In order to eliminate spillage drag, the shock wave must impinge:-
A Ahead of the intake lip
B Inside the intake lip
C On the intake lip
D Well ahead of the intake lip
ANSWER On the intake lip

10 QUESTION When the shock wave impinges on the air intake lip, it is called:-
A Critical operation
B Sub-critical operation
C Super critical operation
D
ANSWER Critical operation

11 QUESTION A diffuser converts:

A Pressure energy to Kinetic energy.
B Kinetic energy to pressure energy.
C Thermal energy to pressure energy
D Kinetic energy to thermal energy.
ANSWER Kinetic energy to pressure energy.

As compared to axial flow compressors, centrifugal compressors are ________________

12 QUESTION
prone to compressor stall:-
A Less
B More
C Equally
D Can be more of less depending upon the type
ANSWER Less

In a jet engine thrust reduces with increases in altitude. In a twin spool engine the rate of
13 QUESTION
decrease of thrust is:-
A Same as single spool ones
B More than single spool ones
C Less than single spool ones
D
ANSWER Less than single spool ones

14 QUESTION In a jet engine, compared to the air at compressor entry, air leaves the compressor at:
A Higher temp, pressure and velocity.
B Higher pressure and temperature but lower velocity.
C Higher pressure and velocity but lower temperature.
D None of the above
ANSWER Higher temp, pressure and velocity.
15 QUESTION On a surgeline plot the `Running (Normal operation) Line` is positioned:-
A Above surgeline
B On surgeline
C Below surgeline
D Position has no relevance
ANSWER Below surgeline

The characteristics of a centrifugal compressor as compared to axial flow one are such
16 QUESTION
that:
A it has greater flexibility of operation over large REM ranges
B It has lower SFC
C It has lesser frontal area
D None of the above
ANSWER it has greater flexibility of operation over large REM ranges

The cross-sectional area of a compressor from front to rear is progressively reduced to

17 QUESTION
keep:-
A Velocity constant
B Density constent
C Pressure constent
D Both (a) & (b)
ANSWER Velocity constant

18 QUESTION The principle factors affecting the performance of a jet compressor are :
A Inlet speed of air
B Formation of shock wave
C Size of rain drops
D None
ANSWER None

The rate of decrease in thrust with increase in altitude in a twin spool engine as
19 QUESTION
compared to a single spool engine as compared to a single spool engine is:
A Less
B More
C Same
D Depends on altitude band
ANSWER Less

20 QUESTION The velocity of the air at compressor inlet should be

A 0.9 M
B 0.75M
C 0.6M
D 0.4 M
ANSWER 0.4 M

21 QUESTION A cannular combustion chamber

A Consists of a single flame tube surrounding the main body of the engine.
B Consists of series of individual flame tubes within the main annular combustion chamber
C Neither
D Either
ANSWER Consists of series of individual flame tubes within the main annular combustion chamber
22 QUESTION Air - Fuel ratio required for a jet engine is approximately _________.
A 10:1 by weight
B 15:1 by weight
C 15:1 by volume
D 10:1 by volume
ANSWER 15:1 by weight

23 QUESTION Combustion losses are due to:

A Skin friction
B Radiation
C Lack of turbulent airflow
D All the above
ANSWER Skin friction

24 QUESTION Flame extinction in an engine may take place due to:

A Weak mixture
B Rich mixture
C (a) or (b)
D None of the above
ANSWER (a) or (b)

25 QUESTION The most important factors controlling the primary stages of combustion are :
A Vaporisation
B Temp of vaporised fuel
C Igniton lag
D None
ANSWER Vaporisation

26 QUESTION In a jet engine, max velocity change takes place in:-

A Jet pipe
B Combustion chamber
C Turbine
D Compressor
ANSWER Turbine

Jet engine turbines experience thermal stresses and the material used must have max
27 QUESTION
resistance to :
A Flutter
B Tensile loads
C Creep
D Torsion
ANSWER Creep

One of the method of improving the efficiency and vibration characteristics in turbine is
28 QUESTION
by having :
A Shrouded turbines
B Firstree fitment
C Hollow blade construction
D None of these
ANSWER Shrouded turbines
29 QUESTION The most severe stresses in a turbine are experienced:-
A At the tips
B At the centre of the disc
C Half way point
D
ANSWER At the centre of the disc

30 QUESTION The passage between rotor blades of a reaction turbine are:-

A Constant area
B Decreasing area
C Increasing area
D Any of the above
ANSWER Decreasing area

31 QUESTION A large area jet nozzle is optimum for the following conditions:
A When max thrust is required
B For case of starting and low IAS
C For ease of starting and high IAS
D none of the above
ANSWER For case of starting and low IAS

To achieve the maximum efficiency from the accelerated gases after reheat thrust
32 QUESTION
augmentation is used, the best jet nozzle will be :-
A Fixed Geometry Nozzle
B Convergent Divergent Nozzle
C Variable Geometry convergent Divergent Nozzle
D
ANSWER Variable Geometry convergent Divergent Nozzle

33 QUESTION When maximum thrust is required, the best result is given by a jet nozzle which has:-

A Reduced area
B Large area
C Constant area
D Area has no effect
ANSWER Reduced area

34 QUESTION At very high altitude operation of Reheat may cause :-

A Reheat to take longer to light up
B Uneven combustion may occur leading to flame out
C Engine may catch fire
D Ram air effect would improve the efficiency
ANSWER Uneven combustion may occur leading to flame out

35 QUESTION Efficiency while using reheat increases with:-

A Increase in height at constant TAS
B Reduction in TAS
C Increase in TAS
D At low OAT
ANSWER Increase in TAS
 To obtain the maximum efficiency from the accelerated gases after reheat thrust
36 QUESTION
augmentation a ____ should be used:-
A Variable Geometry Nozzle
B Variable Geometry Convergent Divergent Nozzle
C Convergent Divergent Nozzle
D None of the above
ANSWER Variable Geometry Convergent Divergent Nozzle

37 QUESTION Acceleration control unit in a jet engine is used to: -

A Accelerate the engine faster
B Avoid excessive JPT due to over fuelling
C Accelerate the ac faster
D None of the above
ANSWER None of the above

38 QUESTION AFCU in a fuel system prevents the possibility of :

A Rich cut with increase in altitude
B Compressor surge
C Burner pressure falling below a particular figure
D None of these
ANSWER Compressor surge

39 QUESTION Air Fuel Ratio control unit in the jet engine fuel systems prevent:
A Leaning of the mixture
B Possibility of compressor stall / surge during acceleration
C Flame out
D Overspeeding at RPM
ANSWER Possibility of compressor stall / surge during acceleration

40 QUESTION HP cocks are used to stop the engine by cutting off fuel supply to the:-
A HP compressor
B HP turbine
C Combustion chamber
D Burners
ANSWER Burners

41 QUESTION In HP fuel pumps, the pump out put is varied by varying the
A Cam plate angle
B RPM of the pump
C By electrical means
D None of the above
ANSWER Cam plate angle

The component which varies the flow to the burners by sensing or compensating for
42 QUESTION
changes in the ac speed and altitude is
A Barostat
B BPCU
C ACU
D
ANSWER BPCU
43 QUESTION The purpose of booster pumps is to:-
A Deliver excess fuel to the engine at high RPM only.
B Ensure un-interrupted flow in negative `E` conditions.
Maintain fuel pressure higher than atmospheric pressure and thus prevent vapour and air
C
locks.
D None of the above
Maintain fuel pressure higher than atmospheric pressure and thus prevent vapour and
ANSWER
air locks.

The surge free accelerations during rapid throttle openings in jet engines is ensured by
44 QUESTION
the
A Acceleration Control Unit
B Barometric Pressure Control Unit
C Over speed Governor
D None of the above
ANSWER Acceleration Control Unit

45 QUESTION Rotational stress on the rotor of jet engine varies as:-

A Speed of rotor
B (speed of rotor)2
C (speed of rotor)3
D none of them
ANSWER (speed of rotor)2

46 QUESTION Jet engines do not require warming up time as in piston engines because:-
A They are too hot to start with
B Better materials are used in the moving assemblies.
C There is no reciprocating motion, and combustion is a continuous process.
D None of the above
ANSWER There is no reciprocating motion, and combustion is a continuous process.

47 QUESTION Part of the engine, which is subjected to maximum stress

A First stage of compressor blades
B Final stage of compressor blades
C Turbine guide vanes
D Turbine blades
ANSWER Turbine blades

48 QUESTION In a turbo propeller engine the jet thrust is _____________ of total thrust output:-
A 40-50%
B 25-40%
C 15-25%
D 0.7
ANSWER 15-25%

49 QUESTION A Bypass engine :

A Improves propulsive efficiency but reduces SFC of the engine.
B Improves propulsive efficiency and also increases SFC of the engine.
C Reduces propulsive efficiency and also improves SFC of the engine.
D Reduces propulsive efficiency but improves SFC of the engine.
ANSWER Improves propulsive efficiency but reduces SFC of the engine.
50 QUESTION Jet engines are preferable over piston engines because:-
A The take off performance is better
B Efficient operation at low attitudes
C Power to weight ratio is better
D None of the above
ANSWER Power to weight ratio is better
 AEROENGINES PISTON - 1

For a piston engine ac, a chemically correct mixture comprises fuel and air by
1 QUESTION
the ratio:
A 15:1 by wt
B 10:1 by vol.
C 15:1 by vol.
D 25:1 by vol.
ANSWER 15:1 by wt

In a piston engine, the distance covered by the piston while it moves from TDC
2 QUESTION
to BDC or vice versa called:
A Swept Volume
B Bore
C Clearance Volume
D Stroke
ANSWER Swept Volume

3 QUESTION The purpose of valve overlap in a piston engine is to provide:-

A Better volumetric efficiency
B Less wear and tear on valves
C Reducing leaks past valve seats.
D None of the above
ANSWER Better volumetric efficiency

4 QUESTION With increase in rotational speed of a piston engine the valve lead and lag:-

A Decrease
B Increase
C Remain same
D None of the above
ANSWER Increase

5 QUESTION A condenser is used in an ignition system to:

A step up the voltage in the secondary
B guard against failure of the magneto
C break the primary coil circuit clearly.
D None of the above
ANSWER break the primary coil circuit clearly.

6 QUESTION Pre-ignition is caused because of: -

A Lean Mixture
B Rich mixture
C Hot spots
D All of the above
ANSWER Hot spots
7 QUESTION With increase in RPM Piston Engines, detonation Tends to: -
A Increases
B Decreases
C Remains same
D None of the above
ANSWER Increases

8 QUESTION Propeller slip is minimum when the propeller is moving at:-

A EMP
B GMP
C Fine pitch for best L/D ratio
D none of the above
ANSWER EMP

9 QUESTION The ratio of blade chords at a certain radius the circumference at that radius is
A EMP
B GMP
C Solidity
D Helix ratio
ANSWER Solidity

10 QUESTION To start a propeller driven ac it is preferable to face the ac:-

A Into winds
B Down wind
C In any direction
D None of the above
ANSWER Into winds

11 QUESTION Water- Methanol injection

A Increases thrust by increasing combustion value
B Increases thrust by increasing mass flow
C Increases thrust by lowering temp of exhaust gases
D Increases thrust by increasing exhaust velocity
ANSWER Increases thrust by increasing mass flow
 AIRFRAME - 1

1 QUESTION Inclination of ac axes relative to the horizon is called: -

A Attitude
B Angle of inclination
C Rigging angle
D Angle of attack
ANSWER Attitude

2 QUESTION The word monocoque means a typee of aircraft structure is which

A The load is shared by the structure and the skin
B The load is taken by the skin only.
C None of the above
D None of the above
ANSWER The load is taken by the skin only.

3 QUESTION Bulkhead separates :

A Fuselage and wing
B Fin and Tail Plane
C Engine and cockpit
D Compressor and turbine.
ANSWER Engine and cockpit

4 QUESTION A frame is a part of:

A Fuselage structure supporting longerons.
B Fuselage structure designed to carry compressions and shear loads.
C Wing structure-supporting spar
D None
ANSWER Fuselage structure supporting longerons.

5 QUESTION A type of structure in which the skin takes the entire load is called:-
A Semi-monocoque
B Semi-Ogive
C Honey-comb
D Monocoque
ANSWER Monocoque

6 QUESTION The egg is an ideal example of a ______ construction.

A Monocoque
B Semi-monocoque
C Elliptical
D Honey comb
ANSWER Monocoque

The longitudinal members of the fuselage which run from the front to the rear
7 QUESTION
are called
A Longerons
B Stringers
C Ribs
D Frames
ANSWER Longerons
8 QUESTION The principle longitudinal member of the ac or control surface is called :
A Longeron
B Spar
C Strut
D Former
ANSWER Spar

The principle span wise structural wing member, designed to carry out the
9 QUESTION
stresses distributed throughout the whole area of the wing is called: -
A Longerons
B Wing spar
C Bulkhead
D None of the above
ANSWER Wing spar

10 QUESTION The type of aircraft structure in which the skin also shares a part of the load is:
A Monocoque
B Semi-monocoque
C Non-structural
D Fail safe
ANSWER Semi-monocoque

11 QUESTION Transverse structural members of the fuselage supporting longerons are called:
A Forms
B Ribs
C Frames
D Struts
ANSWER Frames

12 QUESTION Type of airframe construction in which the skin takes part of the load is called :
A stressed skin
B Monocoque
C Semi-monocoque
D Either (a) or (c)
ANSWER Either (a) or (c)

A double layered glass window provided to a pressurised vessel is an example

13 QUESTION
of:
A Safe life structure
B Fail safe structure
C None of these
D None of the above
ANSWER Fail safe structure

14 QUESTION A rapid unstable oscillation due to alternating forces is called:-

A Tension
B Torsion
C Flutter
D None of the above
ANSWER Flutter
15 QUESTION Air loads on the airframe depends on the following :
A Dynamic pressure
B Density of air and TAS
C Moment arm of controls
D Both (a) and (c)
ANSWER Dynamic pressure

16 QUESTION For G limitations the safety margin is generally

A 0.1
B 0.2
C 0.25
D 0.5
ANSWER 0.5

17 QUESTION Forces acting on an ac structure in flight are :

A Aerodynamic
B Inertial
C Elastic
D All the above.
ANSWER All the above.

18 QUESTION Rigidity is the ratio of :-

A stress to strain
B attitudes
C Strain to stress
D None of these.
ANSWER stress to strain

19 QUESTION Tensile load tends to:

A Compress the member
B Tear the skin
C Twist the member
D None
ANSWER None

20 QUESTION The load that tends to shorten the member is known as: -
A Shear load
B Tensile load
C Bending load
D Compressive load
ANSWER Compressive load

21 QUESTION Weight of an aircraft equipped to the minimum scale is known as:-

A Tare weight
B Basic weight
C Operational weight
D Take off weight
ANSWER Tare weight
22 QUESTION A compressible fluid when brought to rest generates:
A lesser pressure than an incompressible fluid
B greater pressure than an incompressible fluid
C same pressure as an incompressible fluid
D
ANSWER greater pressure than an incompressible fluid

A hydraulic system gives instantaneous action and has the following advantages
23 QUESTION
over a pneumatic systems
A High power handling capacity
B Non inflammable working fluid
C Lesser working pressure
D All of the above
ANSWER High power handling capacity

24 QUESTION In an ac Hydraulic system, the Hydraulic pumps are usually: -

A Electrically driven
B Pneumatically driven
C Hand driven
D Engine driven
ANSWER Engine driven

25 QUESTION In the constant delivery hydraulic system, the pressure is regulated by :-

A Varying the pump out put
B By cut in cut out valves
C By varying the angle of swash plate
D None of the above
ANSWER By cut in cut out valves

26 QUESTION Return pipelines are not necessary for ______ system.

A Hydraulic system.
B Pneumatic system.
C Both (a) and (b)
D none of the above
ANSWER Pneumatic system.

27 QUESTION The power of a hydraulic system is:

A inversely proportional cross section of pipe lines
B directly proportional to flow rate
C directly proportional to force per unit area
D all the above
ANSWER directly proportional to flow rate

28 QUESTION The major advantage of the pneumatic sys over hyd sys is :
A Air is incompressible
B No chance of leak
C Instaneous action
D No return line required and system is lighter and clean
ANSWER No return line required and system is lighter and clean
29 QUESTION If a power controlled ac is found to roll to left, then adjust :
A Port aileron tab `up`
B Port aileron tab `Dn`
C Adjust control rods
D None of these
ANSWER Adjust control rods

30 QUESTION Irreversible controls refer to:-

A Power assisted controls
B Fly by wire controls
C Powered controls
D All the above
ANSWER Powered controls

The artificial feel unit which takes into account the increase in forces with
31 QUESTION
increase in speed is :-
A Spring feel
B Q feel
C G feel
D none of the above
ANSWER Q feel

32 QUESTION The most commonly used artificial feel unit in aircraft is ______________ type.
A Spring feel
B Q-feel
C G-feel
D Constant feel
ANSWER Q-feel

33 QUESTION The oleo legs absorb the landing shock by restricting:-

A Flow of air after compression
B Passage of oil during the rebound.
C Using spring to restrain the oleo
D None of the above
ANSWER Passage of oil during the rebound.

34 QUESTION An ac has old and worn out tyres:

A It is less prone to aquaplaning
B It is more prone to aquaplaning
C State of tyre has no effect on aquaplaning
D None of the above
ANSWER It is more prone to aquaplaning

35 QUESTION Aquaplaning occurs when:-

A Hydrodynamic lift pressure equals tyre pressure
B Hydrodynamic lift pressure equals aircraft weight
C Aircraft weight equals spin up torque to friction
D None of the above
ANSWER Hydrodynamic lift pressure equals tyre pressure
36 QUESTION Knowing tyre pressure `P` in Kg/cm2, acquaplanning speed in kmph can be
found out by the formula:
A 9_/P
B 8.6_/P
C 39_/P
D 60_/P
ANSWER 60_/P

37 QUESTION The tyre condition which makes it more prone to aquaplaning is:-
A A worn out tyre
B A new tyre
C Tyre condition has no effect
D
ANSWER A worn out tyre

38 QUESTION In fighter aircraft, generally the cabin altitude is limited to :-

A Ground level
B 8000 feet
C 25000 feet
D 33000 feet
ANSWER 25000 feet

39 QUESTION The rate of engine icing increases with

A Increase in RPM and TAS above 250 Kts
B Decrease in RPM and decrease in TAS
C Increase in RPM and decrease in TAX below 250 Kts
D None of the above
ANSWER Increase in RPM and TAS above 250 Kts

40 QUESTION Aileron reversal can be Alleviated by:

A Restricting the maximum speed of ac
B Use of tapered wings
C Use of short span wings
D All these
ANSWER All these

41 QUESTION Aileron reversal is caused by a lack of:-

A Stiffness in the aileron control linkage
B Torsional rigidity of the wing.
C Mass balancing of the aileron.
D None of the above
ANSWER Torsional rigidity of the wing.

42 QUESTION Aileron reversal occurs due to:

A Incorrect fitment of ailerons
B Adverse yaw caused by roil
C Wing twist at high speeds
D Poor control harmony
ANSWER Wing twist at high speeds
43 QUESTION Divergence cannot occur at any speed if the elastic axis of the wing is:-
A Behind the aerodynamic axis
B Ahead of the aerodynamic axis
C On the aerodynamic axis
D
ANSWER Behind the aerodynamic axis

44 QUESTION Flexural aileron flutter can be prevented by:-

A Moving the CP ahead of CG
B Moving hinge line ahead of CG
C Mass balancing
D None of the above
ANSWER Mass balancing

Violent vibrations of the aerofoil surfaces caused by the interaction of their

45 QUESTION
mass and aerodynamic loads is called:-
A Flexure
B Resonance leading to divergence
C Flutter
D Control reversal
ANSWER Flutter
 AVIONICS

1 QUESTION A frequency of 10 MHz can be expressed as:

A 1 Tetra Hz
B 103GHz
C 106 MHz
D None
ANSWER 1 Tetra Hz

2 QUESTION If the wavelength is 1.5 m the freq would be_____________.

A 200 MHz
B 2000 MHz
C 20GHz
D 2000KHz
ANSWER 200 MHz

3 QUESTION If the wavelength is 8mm, the radio frequency is:-

A 37.5 GHz
B 375 GHz
C 35 MHz
D 37.5 MHz
ANSWER 37.5 GHz

If your local radio frequency is on a wavelength of 800m, the corresponding frequency

4 QUESTION
will be:-
A 375 KHz
B 3.75 KHz
C 3750 KHz
D 37.5 KHz
ANSWER 375 KHz

5 QUESTION One amp current is said to exist when _____ No of electron pass per sec.
A 6.26 x 1018
B 3 x 108
C 3 x 1018
D Non e of these
ANSWER 3 x 1018

6 QUESTION One of the disadvantages of low frequency is:-

A Static is very severe at the upper end of the band
B The signals do not bend
C Power requirements are very low due to (b)
D Efficiency of aerials is very low
ANSWER Efficiency of aerials is very low

7 QUESTION The wave length is 3 mts then the frequency is:-

A 100 KHz
B 100 MHz
C 1 GHz
D None
ANSWER 100 MHz
8 QUESTION VHF band corresponds to:-
A 30 KHz to 300 KHz
B 300 KHz to 3 MHz
C 3 MHz to 30 MHz
D 30 MHz to 300 MHz
ANSWER 30 MHz to 300 MHz

9 QUESTION Wave length of Ultra High Frequencies (UHF) falls within the range of:
A 10-1 m
B 100-10 m
C 10-1cm
D
ANSWER 100-10 m

10 QUESTION When a wave is said to be amplitude modulated, it means:-

A Amplitude of the cw is varied keeping frequency constant
B Amplitude is kept constant and frequency is varied
C Amplitude of the modulating wave is varied, keeping frequency constant
D Both Amplitude and wavelength are varied
ANSWER Amplitude of the cw is varied keeping frequency constant

11 QUESTION A horizontally polarlsed signal would be best received by :-

A Horizontal aerial
B Vertical aerial
C Circular aerial
D Quadrantal aerial.
ANSWER Horizontal aerial

12 QUESTION Circular polarisation is when:

A The polar diagram of the antenna is a circle
B The electric vector of the em wave spins about its own axis
C The electric vector of the em Wave is made to spin around the antenna to reduce clutter
D None of the above
ANSWER The electric vector of the em wave spins about its own axis

13 QUESTION Dead space is the area between the:

A Transmitter and the point on the surface where the first sky return arrive
B Transmitter and the point on the surface where first space wave return arrive
C Limit of the surface wave and the point of reception of the space wave
D Limit of the surface wave and the point of reception of the sky wave
ANSWER Limit of the surface wave and the point of reception of the sky wave

14 QUESTION Direct waves and ground reflected waves are collectively called:-
A Ground waves
B Surface waves
C Sky waves
D directed waves
ANSWER Ground waves

15 QUESTION During day time ______ layer may exist in two layers :-
 A E
B F
C D
D All these
ANSWER F

16 QUESTION Fading is a phenomenon that is present in reception using:

A Surface waves
B Sky waves
C Ground waves (partly)
D None
ANSWER Sky waves

17 QUESTION Fields in a radio wave and their orientation is :

A Electric and magnetic fields which are concentric.
B Electric and magnetic fields which are perpendicular to each other.
C Electric and gravitational fields which are parallel.
D Magnetic and gravitational fields which are perpendicular to each other.
ANSWER Electric and magnetic fields which are perpendicular to each other.

18 QUESTION Frequency Modulation requires:-

A Smaller bandwidth than amplitude modulation
B Larger bandwidth than amplitude modulation
C There is no hard and fast rule
D FM bandwidth can only be compared with pulse modulation
ANSWER Larger bandwidth than amplitude modulation

19 QUESTION Ground attenuation is least in the case of:-

A VLF
B LF
C MF
D HF
ANSWER VLF

20 QUESTION Ground wave attenuation:

A Increases with increase in frequency
B Decreases with increase in frequency
C Does not depend on frequency
D None of the above
ANSWER Increases with increase in frequency

21 QUESTION Polar diagram of a vertical omnidirectional aerial is :

A cardiod
B oval
C circle
D figure of eight
ANSWER circle

22 QUESTION Radar horizon is the line along which the direct waves are :
A received before the visualhorizon
B Diffracted
 C Tangential to earth surface
D None
ANSWER Tangential to earth surface

23 QUESTION Radio waves are reflected by objects whose ___________ are commensurate with radar:
A Pulse width
B Amplitude
C Phase
D None
ANSWER None

24 QUESTION Range of surface waves vary as the ______________ of its power:-

A Square
B Square root
C Four time
D Cube root
ANSWER Square root

25 QUESTION Sky waves are signal which are received after being reflected from__________.
A earth
B obstructions on ground
C illuminated object
D None (Ionospheric)
ANSWER illuminated object

The angle between the vertical at the place of transmission and the wave that gives the
26 QUESTION
first sky return is called :-
A Critical angle
B Angle of incidence
C Sky wave angle
D Space angle
ANSWER Critical angle

27 QUESTION The average height of D layer in the atmosphere is:

A 75 Km
B 125 Km
C 225 Km
D 150-350 Km
ANSWER 75 Km

The distance between the transmitter and the point on the surface where the first sky
28 QUESTION
wave return arrives is called :-
A Dead space
B Interval space
C Sky wave quotient
D Skip distance.
ANSWER Skip distance.

The distance between the Tx and the point on the surface where the first sky return
29 QUESTION
arrives is called :
A multi hop range
 B skip distance
C Dead space
D None
ANSWER skip distance

30 QUESTION The line at which the direct waves are tangential to the earth`s surface is called:
A Radar Horizon
B Critical Line
C Line of sight
D
ANSWER Radar Horizon

31 QUESTION In the_______ band, the radio waves are reflected back from the ionosphere
A LF-VF
B VHF-UHF
C UHF-SHF
D MF-HF
ANSWER MF-HF

32 QUESTION The surface waves curve along the surface of the earth due to:-
A Bending due to diffraction and attenuation
B Tilting due to diffraction and attenuation
C Bending due to attenuation and tilting due to diffraction
D Bending due to diffraction and tilting due to attenuation
ANSWER Bending due to diffraction and tilting due to attenuation

33 QUESTION The two meteorological requirement for duct propagation are:

A Low temp, high humidity
B Inversion layer, high humidity
C Inversion layer and rapid reduction in humidity with height
D None of these
ANSWER Inversion layer and rapid reduction in humidity with height

34 QUESTION Two Met requirements for duet propagation are :-

A Low temperature and high humidity with increase in height.
B Inversion layer high humidity with increase in height.
C Inversion layer and rapid reduction in humidity with height.
D None of the above.
ANSWER Inversion layer and rapid reduction in humidity with height.

35 QUESTION A radio aid that works in the MF band is:-

A NDB
B VOR
C ILS
D SRE
ANSWER NDB

36 QUESTION A radio aid which works in the UHF/SHF band is:-

A ILS localiser
B SRE
C NDB
 D OMEGA
ANSWER SRE

37 QUESTION A wave length of 2 Km corresponds to a frequency of:-

A 150 KHz
B 1.5MHz
C 1500 KHz
D 0.015MHz
ANSWER 150 KHz

An ac flying at 9000 ft AMSL could be expected to receive VHF communication from an

38 QUESTION
airfield 1600 ft AMSL atamax range of
A 98 nm
B 138 nm
C 208 nm
D None
ANSWER None

39 QUESTION At night, the HF frequencies to be used are:

A More
B Less
C Same
D
ANSWER Less

40 QUESTION Band of frequencies for VHF operations is :

A 118-132 KHz
B 100-136 KHz
C 108-117.95MHz
D None of these
ANSWER None of these

41 QUESTION Duct propagation causes

A VHF range to increase.
B HF range to increase.
C VHF range to reduce.
D HF range to reduce.
ANSWER VHF range to increase.

42 QUESTION Field strength of radiated energy varies as _______________ of the radiational power:
A Square
B Cube
C Square root
D None of these
ANSWER Square root

43 QUESTION Higher the frequency:

A Larger is the size of the aerial
B Smaller is the size of the aerial
C Frequency has no effect on aerial size
D Aerial size has no effect on frequency
 ANSWER Smaller is the size of the aerial

44 QUESTION Ideal length of an antenna is given by:-

A 1 x wavelength
B 2 x wavelength
C ½ x wavelength
D ¾ x wavelength
ANSWER ½ x wavelength

45 QUESTION If the HF frequency is lowered, the critical angle will:-

A Decrease
B Increase
C Remain same
D
ANSWER Decrease

46 QUESTION In a VLF system, long ranges are obtained by:-

A Surface waves
B Sky waves
C Multi-hop sky waves
D Duct propagation
ANSWER Surface waves

47 QUESTION In the MF band expected ranges are approximately

A 1500 miles over land and 1000 miles over sea
B 300 to 500 miles over land and 1000 miles over sea
C 150 miles over land and 500 miles over sea
D none of the above
ANSWER 300 to 500 miles over land and 1000 miles over sea

48 QUESTION Maximum power is required when using :-

A Sweep through Jammer
B Deception Jammer
C Spot Jammer
D Barrage Jammer
ANSWER Barrage Jammer

49 QUESTION Static interference is most likely to be severe on:

A VHF
B LF
C UHF
D
ANSWER LF

50 QUESTION Suitable HF frequencies for transmission by night are :-

A Approximately half of day.
B Same as day
C Approximately double of day.
D Depends on height of receiver
ANSWER Approximately half of day.
51 QUESTION The frequency band in which sky waves are not likely to occur by day or by night
A VLF/LF
B HF
C MF
D
ANSWER VLF/LF

The height of a VHF transmitter is 100ft, the RT range (theoretical) of an ac flying at

52 QUESTION
10,000 ft is:
A 80 NM
B 137.5 Nm
C 231.3 Nm
D 164.8 Nm
ANSWER 137.5 Nm

53 QUESTION The HF frequency used in communication is

A Lower by day
B Depends on the antenna
C Lower by night
D Day or night does not matter
ANSWER Lower by night

54 QUESTION The polar diagram of two aerials place half wavelength apart will be: -
A Circle
B Cardioid
C Figure of eight
D None of the above
ANSWER Figure of eight

55 QUESTION Which of the following properties is not common to VLF and microwaves?
A Refraction
B Reflection
C Interference
D Ducting
ANSWER Ducting

56 QUESTION QTE means:

A Aircraft`s true track to the station
B Aircraft`s true bearing from the station
C Aircraft`s magnetic bearing from the station
D
ANSWER Aircraft`s true bearing from the station

57 QUESTION 180 deg ambiguity in a radio compass is eliminated by a:

A Loop aerial
B Sense aerial
C Rotation of loop aerial
D
ANSWER Sense aerial

58 QUESTION At night, the ranges of NDB signals actually:-

 A Increase because of sky waves
B Decrease because of sky waves
C Remain same
D
ANSWER Increase because of sky waves

59 QUESTION Coastal error for an NDB will be maximum for an ac flying towards the NDS.
A Along the coast line.
B At 90 deg to the coast line.
C Parrallel to the coast line but 100 km over sea.
D When the NDB is located well inside the land and the ac is flying along the coast line.
ANSWER When the NDB is located well inside the land and the ac is flying along the coast line.

60 QUESTION Critical period of NDB is: -

A Dusk
B Dawn
C Both (a) and (b)
D Midnight and Noon
ANSWER Both (a) and (b)

61 QUESTION Due to mountains or other obstruction the NDB signals may be:
A Only blocked
B Only reflected
C Blocked or reflected
D Neither blocked nor reflected
ANSWER Blocked or reflected

62 QUESTION Errors in a radio compass would be maximum during

A 0800 - 1000 hrs
B 1400 - 1500 hrs
C 2000 - 2200 hrs
D
ANSWER 2000 - 2200 hrs

63 QUESTION Factors affecting ADF accuracy are:-

A Night effect, Quadrantal error, Loop misalignment
B Night effect, Centering error, Loop misalignment
C Night effect, Quadrantal error, Propagation error
D Night effect, Propagation error, Centering error
ANSWER Night effect, Quadrantal error, Loop misalignment

64 QUESTION For max NDB range you would fly at a height of:-
A Absolute ceiling
B Service ceiling
C Any height
D none of the above
ANSWER Any height

65 QUESTION In ADF
A Sense aerial detects direction of NDB and loop aerial resolves 180° ambiguity
B Loop aerial detects direction of NDB and sense aerial resolves 180° ambiguity
 C Sense aerial is used for both purpose
D Loop aerial is used for both purposes
ANSWER Loop aerial detects direction of NDB and sense aerial resolves 180° ambiguity

Night effect error in a radio compass can be minimised by choosing _____________

66 QUESTION
frequency beacon:-
A Closer and higher
B Closer and lower
C Far and higher
D Far and lower
ANSWER Closer and lower

67 QUESTION Night effect in ADF can be minimised by using one or more of the following:-
A Higher section of frequency band
B Lower section of frequency band
C High power NDBs
D Low power NDBs
ANSWER Lower section of frequency band

68 QUESTION Night effect of the NDB can be minimised by using the nearest station or also:-
A Using lower section of frequency band or low power NDB
B Using higher section of frequency band or low power NDB
C Using lower section of frequency band or higher power NDB
D Using higher section of frequency band or higher power NDB
ANSWER Using lower section of frequency band or higher power NDB

Night effect on NDB transmissions cause long range beacons which have an effective
69 QUESTION
range of about 200 nms by day to reduce to about 70 nms by night. This occurs due to
A the absence of solar radiation
B the presence of sky waves in the LF/MF bands during night
C The greater reflectively of the earth/s surface during night
D All of the above
ANSWER the presence of sky waves in the LF/MF bands during night

70 QUESTION Principle of operation of ADF is:

A Direction finding by phase comparison
B Bearing by phase comparison
C Direction finding by lobe comparison
D Bearing by loop theory
ANSWER Bearing by loop theory

71 QUESTION The 180° ambiguity in the radio compass is removed by:

A Loop aerial
B Sense aerial
C Cardiod
D L/R switch
ANSWER Sense aerial

The alignment of Saurashtra coast is 330/150. You are flying very close to the coast at
72 QUESTION low levels. Your ADF indicates a homing of 060 deg to Jamnagar. Taking into the coastal
effect, the actual homing to Jamnagar should be :-
 A Approx 060 deg
B Less than 060 deg
C More than 060 deg
D
ANSWER Approx 060 deg

73 QUESTION The coastal effect in a radio compass causes the EM waves to:
A Bend towards land
B Bend away from land
C Has no effect
D
ANSWER Bend towards land

74 QUESTION The most critical period in the operation of ADF is:-

A Time of precipitation
B Dawn & dusk
C Night
D None of the above
ANSWER Dawn & dusk

75 QUESTION The night effect in NDB/ADF is:

A Most pronounced at dawn
B Most pronounced at dusk
C Most pronounced at midnight
D Most pronounced at dawn and dusk
ANSWER Most pronounced at dawn and dusk

76 QUESTION The polar diagram of NDB is a: -

A Cardoid
B Limacon
C Rotating cardoid
D None of the above
ANSWER Cardoid

77 QUESTION The range of a long range NDB:

A Reduce at night
B Increases at night
C Remain same
D none of the above
ANSWER Reduce at night

78 QUESTION To double the range of ADF the power output has to be increased:-
A Two times
B Four times
C Eight times
D 16 times
ANSWER Four times

79 QUESTION To minimise coastal error :-

A Choose an NDB located on the coast line
B Climb to a higher altitude
 C Use only that NDB where the signals leave to the coast line
D All the above
ANSWER Use only that NDB where the signals leave to the coast line

You have to make good a track of 270 to an NDB from overhead your base at a TAS of 600
80 QUESTION
kmph ; if winds at your level are 360/120 kmph you would steer (approx) :
A 274 with ADF needle 4 deg to left of 12 `O clock
B 266 with ADF needle 4 deg to left of 12 `O clock
C 270 with ADF needle at 12 `O clock
D 274 with ADF needle at 12 `O clock
ANSWER 274 with ADF needle 4 deg to left of 12 `O clock

81 QUESTION As compared to NDB for a given power output VOR has:

A More range
B Less range
C Same range
D Depends on the terrain
ANSWER Less range

82 QUESTION The principle of VOR is

A Bearing by loop DF.
B Bearing by lobe comparison.
C Bearing by phase comparison.
D None of the above
ANSWER Bearing by phase comparison.

83 QUESTION In DVOR the reference signal is ____modulated and variable signal is____ modulated.
A Freq, amp
B Pulse, amp
C Amp, freq
D None
ANSWER Amp, freq

You select 010° on the OBS of VOR. Ac is on a course to 130° (T) and on a radial of 310°
84 QUESTION
from a VOR station. The L/R indicator will show a turn to :-
A Left
B Right
C Central
D
ANSWER Right

An ac is assumed to have an average approach speed of 210 kts / 390 kmph. Then its
85 QUESTION
average ROD on a 3 deg approach would be:
A 1050`/min
B 5.3 mts/sec
C 10.5 mts/sec
D None
ANSWER 5.3 mts/sec

Approximate ROD for a glide path of 2.6 deg and average ground spped of 100 m/sec
86 QUESTION
would be
 A 35 m/sec
B 5 m/sec
C 6 m/sec
D 7 m/sec
ANSWER 5 m/sec

87 QUESTION For a 3° angle the elevation coverage of ILS is ______ above the surface.
A 0.45 x GP angle to 1.75x GP angle
B 1.5° to 4.5°
C 1.35° to 5.25°
D a&c
ANSWER a&c

88 QUESTION GCA becomes unreliable in:-

A Fog
B Heavy rain
C Dense traffic
D None of the above
ANSWER Heavy rain

89 QUESTION GCA gives bearing by:-

A Loop theory
B Lobe comparison
C Beam direction finding
D Phase comparison
ANSWER Beam direction finding

In a 5-dot a full deflection of Fly up indicates that the aircraft is ____ deg below the glide
90 QUESTION
slope.
A 0.7
B 3
C 1.5
D None
ANSWER 0.7

91 QUESTION In an ILS, normally the marker that is not available is the:-

A Inner marker
B Outer marker
C Middle marker
D
ANSWER Inner marker

92 QUESTION In MLS the ac position is determined by :

A TRSB
B Phase comparision
C Frequency shift
D None
ANSWER TRSB

93 QUESTION The frequency of the ILS marker beacon is

A 445 Hz
 B 750 Hz
C 75 kHz
D 75 MHz
ANSWER 75 MHz

The instrument landing system, which gives the advantage of wide three dimensional
94 QUESTION coverage, allowing curved flight path captures and final approaches on different glide
slopes is:
A GPS
B ILS
C MLS
D PRMG
ANSWER MLS

95 QUESTION The RVR and DH limitations of a Cat II ILS are:

A 400 m and 100 ft
B 350 m & 200-100 ft
C 200 m and 50 ft
D None of the above
ANSWER 350 m & 200-100 ft

96 QUESTION A narrow EM beam with a high rate of rotation needs:

A Low PRF
B Medium PRF
C High PRF
D None of the above
ANSWER High PRF

97 QUESTION A radar mile corresponds to:-

A 6 micro sec
B 12 micro sec
C 6 nano sec
D 12 nano sec
ANSWER 12 micro sec

98 QUESTION An ac flying at 2500 ft would be picked up by a radar whose height is 16 ft at a dist. of

A 56.7 nm
B 67.5 nm
C 54 nm
D None
ANSWER 67.5 nm

99 QUESTION Blind speed in an MTI depends on :-

A PRF, wavelength & scan rate
B PRI, wavelength & scan rate
C PRF and scan rate only
D PRI and wavelength only
ANSWER PRF and scan rate only

100 QUESTION Equipment which works on the principle of secondary radar is:-
A INS
 B ILS
C GPS
D SSR
ANSWER SSR

101 QUESTION In a radar:-

A PRF determines the max unambigious range and Pulse Width determines the min range
B Pulse Width determines the max unambigous rage and PRF determines the min range
C PRF determines both max and min ranges
D Only Pules Width determine both max and min ranges
ANSWER PRF determines the max unambigious range and Pulse Width determines the min range

102 QUESTION Narrow radar beam requires shorter ______________

A Wavelength
B Pulses
C Frequency
D Pulse width
ANSWER Wavelength

103 QUESTION Nominal beam width is the angle between:

A the directions in which the power radiated is 50X of max
B the direction in which the power radiated is 30% of max
C the directions in which the power radiated is 63% of max
D None
ANSWER the directions in which the power radiated is 50X of max

104 QUESTION Power output required by secondary Radar as compared to a Primary Radar is:
A Same
B More
C Less
D Depends on type of radar
ANSWER Less

105 QUESTION PRF of EM wave in a primary radar determine:-

A Minimum unambiguous range
B Minimum angular resolution
C Maximum unambiguous range
D Maximum angular resolution
ANSWER Maximum unambiguous range

106 QUESTION The maximum range of a primary radar is determined by its:-

A PRF
B Pulse width
C Frequency
D None of the above
ANSWER PRF

To increase the range of a primary radar by 2 times the power of Tx needs to be

107 QUESTION
increased by :
A 4 times
 B 8 times
C 12 times
D None (16times)
ANSWER None (16times)

108 QUESTION To reduce rain clutter in radar, one of the technique used is:-
A Horizontally polarized signal
B Vertically polarized signal
C Circularly polarized signal
D None of the above
ANSWER Circularly polarized signal

109 QUESTION As compared to a SRE radar, PAR works on:

A Lower frequency
B Same frequency
C Higher frequency
D Could be (a) or (c)
ANSWER Higher frequency

110 QUESTION Elevation sector scanned by the PAR upto a distance of atleast10 nm is:
A 5 deg
B 9 deg
C 7 deg
D
ANSWER 7 deg

111 QUESTION In GCA:

A SRE uses a 3cm-wave length, whereas the PAR uses a 10cm wavelength
B SRE uses a 3cm-wave length, whereas the PAR uses a 10cm wavelength
C Both SRE and PAR use 3cm wavelength
D Both SRE and PAR use 10cm wavelength
ANSWER SRE uses a 3cm-wave length, whereas the PAR uses a 10cm wavelength

On a 3 deg glide slope during PAR, at your DH of 100m, your distance from touch down
112 QUESTION
would be approx :-
A 1.2 KM
B 1.8 KM
C 2.0 KM
D 2.4 KM.
ANSWER 2.0 KM

113 QUESTION On a PAR approach, with strong headwind, the ROD as compared to nil winds will be:
A Same
B Less
C More
D Depends upon controllers capability
ANSWER Less

114 QUESTION PAR equipment can be badly affected by weather clutter due to its:
A short range
B short wave length
 C long wave length
D none of these
ANSWER short wave length

115 QUESTION The PAR equipment can be badly affected by weather clutter
A Due to its short wavelength
B Due to its short frequency
C Due to its short polarisation
D Due to its short modulation
ANSWER Due to its short wavelength

116 QUESTION The PAR-89 when working in homing station mode covers the following freq range.
A 150 to 1300 KHz
B 150 to 1800 KHz
C 0.15 to 1.3 x 103
D a&c
ANSWER a&c

117 QUESTION Wave length of a SRE transmission is in the range of

A 3 cm
B 5 cm
C 10 cm
D 20 cm
ANSWER 10 cm

An ac transmits on a frequency of 13500 MHz at an angle of depression of 60° the

118 QUESTION
frequency shift would be:-
A 11.2 KHz
B 56.2 KHz
C 5.6 KHz
D 1.12 KHz
ANSWER 11.2 KHz

119 QUESTION In a CRT device, an anode is incorporated to -

A Reflect the electron beam.
B Focus the electron beam.
C Sweep the electron beam.
D Absorb the electron beam.
ANSWER Focus the electron beam.

120 QUESTION Doppler navigation radar operation in:

A SHF band
B EHF band
C 8-12 GHz band
D None
ANSWER SHF band

121 QUESTION While flying on relatively smooth terrian the doppler will measure :-
A lower fd
B higher fd
C Random fluctuatons in fd
 D None of these
ANSWER lower fd

122 QUESTION The mapping mode of the weather radar uses a:

A Conical beam
B Narrow beam
C Cosecant square beam
D Hollow beam
ANSWER Cosecant square beam

123 QUESTION A Nav system which can be interrupted if a serious military need develops is the:-
A INS
B Doppler Nav Syst
C GPS
D None
ANSWER GPS

124 QUESTION Disadvantages of Inertial Navigation System (INS) are:-

Position and velocity information does degrade with time and this is true whether the
A
system is moving or stationary
B Eqpt is expensive and difficult to maintain or service
Initial alignment is simple enough in moderate latitude when stationary, but difficult above
C
75 degrees latitude and in flight
D All of the above
ANSWER All of the above

125 QUESTION During the alignment process of an INS, gyro-compassing is used to

A Align the platform to the local vertical
B Align the platform to the true north
C Fix the position in air
D Feed the route for navigation
ANSWER Align the platform to the true north

126 QUESTION In INS:-

A Position and velocity information degrades with time
B Position and velocity information degrades with distance
C Position and velocity information degrades with speed
D Initial alignment is difficult in moderate latitudes
ANSWER Position and velocity information degrades with time

127 QUESTION The errors in the INU and a Doppler system are:-
A Both INU and Doppler are time cummulative
B Both INU and Doppler are distance cummulative .
C INU is distance cummulative, Doppler is time cummulative.
D INU is time cummulative, Doppler is distance cummulative.
ANSWER INU is time cummulative, Doppler is distance cummulative.

The Inertial Navigational System needs to be aligned before use. For accurate alignment
128 QUESTION
it needs another independent system in the aircraft that:-
A Provides accurate True North direction
B Provides accurate Grid North direction
 C Provides accurate Magnetic North direction
D None of the above
ANSWER None of the above

129 QUESTION A secondary radar system requires :-

A A transmitter both at the ac and at the ground.
B A transmitter and a receiver both at the ac and at the ground.
C A transmitter and a receiver at the ground.
D A transmitter and a receiver at the aircraft.
ANSWER A transmitter and a receiver both at the ac and at the ground.

130 QUESTION For a given power output the range of an SSR as compared to primary radars :
A is more
B is less
C cannot be compared
D
ANSWER is more

131 QUESTION Mode C of IFF is used for:

A Collision avoidance
B Terrain avoidance
C Altitude Indication
D Digital Identification
ANSWER Altitude Indication

132 QUESTION A DME provides within its coverage area:-

A Slant Range
B Horizontal Range
C Incidental Range
D Navigational Range
ANSWER Slant Range

133 QUESTION Distance between an ac and the ground transmitter, provided by DME is:-
A Ground distance
B Slant distance
C Aerial distance
D None of the above
ANSWER Slant distance

134 QUESTION The position lines obtained from a DME are:-

A Straight Position lines
B Circular Position lines
C Hyperbolic Position lines
D None of the above
ANSWER Circular Position lines

135 QUESTION Each satellite in the space segment of GPS orbits the Earth:-
A Once in 48 hrs
B Once in 6 hrs
C Once in 24 hrs
D Once in 12 hrs
 ANSWER Once in 12 hrs

136 QUESTION In the GPS constellation, each satellite orbits the earth once every:-
A 24 hrs
B 12 hrs
C 6 hrs
D 8 hrs
ANSWER 12 hrs

137 QUESTION The `true` statement with respect to GPS is:-

A Satellites transmit on three frequencies, L1, L2 & P
B Satellites are positioned in 4 orbital planes
C The orbit height of satellites is 32,000 kms
D Normally a minimum of 5 satellites are observable
ANSWER Normally a minimum of 5 satellites are observable

138 QUESTION The errors of a GPS are:-

A Timing Bias error and Cuticle Supply error
B Ionospheric error and Satellite Geometry error
C Satellite Orbit error and Creeping error
D GPS does not have any of the above errors
ANSWER Ionospheric error and Satellite Geometry error

139 QUESTION The following is not an error in GPS but occurs when using position lines for a fix.
A Satellite Ephemeris error
B Satellite geometry error
C Atmospheric propagation error
D Receiver error
ANSWER Satellite geometry error

The number of GPS satellites that should always be in view to enable highly accurate
140 QUESTION determination of latitude, longitude, altitude, velocity and time from the satellites signals
received by an ac in flight or on the ground is:-
A 3
B 4
C 6
D can be (a) or (c) depending upon the accuracy required
ANSWER 4

141 QUESTION The pseudo/random code in GPS repeats itself after every:-
A 24 hrs
B 7 days
C 3 days
D 12 days
ANSWER 7 days

While using GPS as a non-precision aid in IMC, a major limitation that needs to be kept in
142 QUESTION
mind is :
A Location and presentation of GPs data w.r.t. basic instrument panel
B Lack of failure warning device
C Lower accuracy for non-US operators
 D (a) and (b)
ANSWER Lack of failure warning device

143 QUESTION A radio altimeter may give wrong indication when flying over :-
A Desert
B Calm sea
C Forest
D None of the above
ANSWER Forest

144 QUESTION A radio altimeter works on the principle of

A Frequency Shift
B Echo
C Secondary radar
D Lobe comparison
ANSWER Frequency Shift

145 QUESTION Mush error in a radio altimeter is due to :-

A Tx & Rx aerials not being at same height
B Change in Tx & Rx frequencies
C Atmospheric attenuation
D None of these
ANSWER Tx & Rx aerials not being at same height

146 QUESTION Radio Altimeter is a:

A Pulse Radar system
B CW Radar system
C A mix of (a) and (b)
D It is not a radar system
ANSWER CW Radar system

147 QUESTION Radio Altimeters operate in:-

A X Band
B Z Band
C C Band
D Ka Band
ANSWER C Band

148 QUESTION OMEGA is a:

A VHF aid
B HF aid
C MF aid
D VLF aid
ANSWER VLF aid

149 QUESTION IR penetration is poor through:

A Fog
B Rain
C Clouds
D Foliage
ANSWER Fog
150 QUESTION IR penetration through fog is poor because of:-
A Reduced temperature difference
B Wave length of IR fog particles size are comparable
C Poor visibility
D Presence of water droplets in the fog
ANSWER Reduced temperature difference

151 QUESTION A Ring Laser Gyro:-

A Has a Horizontal tyro
B Is a rate sensor
C Has a vertical axis gyro
D None of the above
ANSWER Is a rate sensor

Laser that operate on a wavelength of more than 1.4 microns and are less damaging to
152 QUESTION
human eyes are:-
A Helium
B Argon
C CO2
D Liquid
ANSWER CO2

153 QUESTION The human organ most susceptible to damage by laser is:-
A Skin
B Eye
C Hair
D None of the above
ANSWER Eye

154 QUESTION In a fiber optics refractive index increases :-

A Inside to outside
B Outside to inside
C Along the core
D None of the above
ANSWER Inside to outside

155 QUESTION Outside air temperature thermometers in aircraft are shielded to protect from:
A radiation
B airframe icing
C accidental physical damage on ground or hail stone damage in flight
D adiabatic heating
ANSWER radiation

156 QUESTION A Radio wave of 100m wavelength will fall in the following band:
A MF
B HF
C VHF
D UHF
ANSWER HF
157 QUESTION Atmospheric static is stronger in
A Temperate zones than tropics
B Day time than during night time.
C Summers than winters
D Not affected by temperature variations.
ANSWER Summers than winters

158 QUESTION Range of a surface wave is given by?

A 2 X 3√ Power in waLs
B 2 X √ Power in waLs
C 3 X 3√Power in waLs
D 3 X √ Power in waLs
ANSWER 3 X √ Power in waNs

159 QUESTION To minimise coastal refraction (sometimes called shore-line effect),

A aircraft should fly low.
B and use NDBs as close to the coast as possible.
C Use an NDB placed atleast 50Km inland
D Use an NDB which is atleat 30deg off the normal.
ANSWER and use NDBs as close to the coast as possible.

160 QUESTION The following is not true for Variable or Directional Signal in a VOR.
A It is transmitted by an aerial which rotates @ 30 Hz AM.
B The signal is stronger than the omnidirectional signal,
C The horizontal polar diagram of this resultant signal is called a 'limacon',
D The signal is amplitude modulated at 30 Hz to a depth of 30%.
ANSWER The signal is stronger than the omnidirectional signal,

While landing at an airfield 345 Ft AMSL, on a 3 Deg GS,at 3 Nm on approach, you

161 QUESTION
altimeter is indicating 1150Ft. You are
A Above the Glide slope by 85 Ft.
B Below the Glide slope by 125 Ft.
C On Glide slope.
D Below the Glide slope by 95 Ft.
ANSWER Below the Glide slope by 95 Ft.

If OBS selection is 225 deg/TO and the ac is flying a heading of 220 deg (M) with 2 dot fly
162 QUESTION
left indication on a four dot display, the ac is on radial
A 40
B 220
C 50
D 45
ANSWER 40

On a heading of 180,your homing to base is 123, you select 060 on the VOR OBS. VOR
163 QUESTION
indication will be
A TO/ Full Deflection to the right
B FROM/ Full deflection to the left.
C FROM/ Full Deflection to the right
D TO/ Full deflection to the left.
ANSWER TO/ Full Deflection to the right
 As per Annexure 10 of ICAO, the ILS LOC aerial must be placed along the centre line. In
164 QUESTION
case it has to be placed to one side due to some constraint
A It can only be used as a CAT-I/ II ILS only.
B It can be used as a CAT-I ILS only.
C It can be used upto CAT-III ILS provided the RVR is 100M.
D ILS can be used as a training aid only.
ANSWER It can be used as a CAT-I ILS only.

When flying on a 3 Deg GS at a constant TAS of 130 KTS, winds are 10 O' clock 20 Kts. To
165 QUESTION
remain on GS,ROD would be
A Approx 900 Ft/Min
B Approx 1000 Ft/Min
C Approx 800 Ft/Min
D Approx 600 Ft/Min
ANSWER Approx 600 Ft/Min

If the VOR & DME have separate identification codes of VON & VOZ for VOR & DME
166 QUESTION
respectively. It means that
A VOR & DME are collocated
VOR & DME are not collocated but are serving the same location & may be used in
B
conjunction with each other
C VOR & DME beacons are entirely at different locations.
D VOR and DME are located withing the same Control Zone.
VOR & DME are not collocated but are serving the same location & may be used in
ANSWER
conjunction with each other

If the RMI indicates a VOR radial of 150°, what is the bearing of the ac from the station, if
167 QUESTION
the variation at the ac is 4 W and at at the station 2 W?
A 148° (M)
B 152° (M)
C 150(M)
D 154(M)
ANSWER 150(M)

The tail of an RMI needle indicates 256 when the VOR/ADF selector is selected to ADF.
168 QUESTION
This indicates?

Great circle bearing

A

B Rhumb line bearing

C Straight line bearing

D Depends upon the Latitude

ANSWER Great circle bearing

169 QUESTION An ILS glideslope signal may be received within the following footprint.
A 8° either side of the centerline, out to 25 nm
B 8° either side of the centerline, out to 10 nm
 C 10° either side of the centerline, out to 25 nm
D 10°either side of the centerline, out to 10 nm
ANSWER 8° either side of the centerline, out to 10 nm

170 QUESTION Glide path transmitter operate on frequencies between

A 108 to 112 Mhz
B 328 to 336 Mhz
C 112 to 118 Mhz
D None of the above
ANSWER 328 to 336 Mhz

An aircraft is HOMING to a radio beacon whilst maintaining a relative bearing of zero. If

171 QUESTION
the magnetic heading decreases, the aircraft is experiencing:
A left drift.
B right drift.
C a wind from the west.
D zero drift.
ANSWER right drift.

An aircraft is using single beam Doppler system with a depressing angle of 60° to measure
172 QUESTION its ground speed. Tx frequency is 10 GHz. What will be the ground speed in the Doppler
shift is 5 KHz?
A 150 Kts
B 300 Kts
C 250 Kts
D 600 Kts
ANSWER 300 Kts

173 QUESTION Using JANUS aerial, error due to transmitter instability is :-

A Reduced considerably
B Amplified
C Eliminated
D Not addressed
ANSWER Eliminated

174 QUESTION With regard to Doppler navigation system:

A updating is the process of entering co-ordinates after taking a fix.
B updating can be achieved using VOR/DME fix.

C updating must be carried out as soon as possible after a prologed period in memory mode.

D all of the above are correct.

ANSWER all of the above are correct.

175 QUESTION On QDMs from NDB and VOR for plotting

A Apply variation at ac for VOR and station variation for NDB.
B Apply variation at ac for NDB and station variation for VOR.
C Apply no variation at ac for VOR and station variation for NDB.
D Apply no variation at ac for NDB and station variation for VOR.
ANSWER Apply variation at ac for VOR and station variation for NDB.

176 QUESTION Radial information depends :-

 A only on the phase diff bet modulating signal
B on the heading of the aircraft
C both(a) &(b)
D none of the above
ANSWER only on the phase diff bet modulating signal

177 QUESTION The Q code for an aircraft's magnetic heading to steer to reach the station in zero winds
A QTE
B QDR
C QDM
D QTR
ANSWER QDM

The VOR ground equipment achieves horizontally polarised reference and variable
178 QUESTION
transmission by having:
A a cylindrical metallic VOR hut.
B A combination of vertical slot aerials horizontal rotating dipole.
C Horizontal slot aerials.
D A rotating horizontal dipole.
ANSWER A combination of vertical slot aerials horizontal rotating dipole.

179 QUESTION A long range NDB is likely to transmit on _________________and be classified as

A 200 KHz; A2A.
B 800 KHz; A2A.
C 200 KHz; A1A.
D 800 KHz; A1A.
ANSWER 200 KHz; A1A.

A radio beacon has an operational range of 10 NM. By what factor should the transmitter
180 QUESTION
power be increased in order to achieve an operational range of 20 NM?
A Eight.
B Six.
C Four.
D Two.
ANSWER Four.

ADF bearings received by an aeroplane by day within the published protection range
181 QUESTION
should be accurate to within a maximum error of:
A +/-10°
B +/-5°
C +/-2.5°
D +/-2°
ANSWER +/-5°

182 QUESTION Aircraft heading 225(M), ADF RMI reading 090 the quadrantal error of this bearing:
A proportional to sine heading times the signal strength.
B zero.
C maximum.
D not much.
ANSWER maximum.
 An ADF bearing changes from 315◦ to 300◦ in 2 mins. The time to reach the station is
183 QUESTION
________ minutes
A 5
B 6
C 7
D 8
ANSWER 8

184 QUESTION An ADF maintains a steady indication of 340 (R) while homing on to a beacon. The drift is

A Nil
B 20 Stbd
C 20 Port
D None of the above
ANSWER 20 Port

185 QUESTION An ADF uses a sense aerial to:

A determine the null position.
B resolve ambiguous bearings.
C transmit the beacon ident.
D detect the receiver test signal.
ANSWER resolve ambiguous bearings.

An aeroplane is flying parallel to a coast. Which of the following NDBs will give the
186 QUESTION
greatest coastal refraction error in the LOP?
A NDB sited on the coast-RBI 330°.
B NDB sited 30 nm inland-RBI 330°.
C NDB sited on the coast-RBI 300°.
D NDB sited 30 nm inland-RBI 300°.
ANSWER NDB sited 30 nm inland-RBI 330°.

An aircraft heading 040 (M) has an ADF reading of 060 Relative. The heading to steer to
187 QUESTION
intercept the 120° track inbound to the NDB at 50° offset angle is:
A 050(M)
B 060(M)
C 070(M)
D 080(M)
ANSWER 070(M)

An aircraft heading 040°(M) has an ADF reading of 060° Relative. Aircraft is to intercept
188 QUESTION the 120° (M) track inbound to an NDB at 50°offset angle . The relative bearing of the NDB
that confirms track interception is:
A 050 Relative.
B 060 Relative.
C 070 Relative.
D 080 Relative.
ANSWER 050 Relative.

An aircraft heading 100° (M) has an ADF reading of 210° Relative. The alteration of
189 QUESTION
heading required to intercept the 340° track inbound to the NDB at 60° offset angle is:
A 170 Right.
 B 170 Left.
C 180 Left or Right.
D 180 Left.
ANSWER 180 Left or Right.

An aircraft heading 130° (M) has an ADF reading of 190° Relative is to intercept the
190 QUESTION 170°(M) track outbound from an NDB at 30° offset angle . The relative bearing of the NDB
that confirms track interception is:
A 140° Relative.
B 150° Relative.
C 160° Relative.
D 170° Relative.
ANSWER 150° Relative.

An aircraft heading 130° (M) has an ADF reading of 190° Relative. The aircraft is presently
191 QUESTION on QDR of __________ and the heading to steer to intercept the 170° track outbound
from the NDB at an intercet angle of
A 320° , 190°(M)
B 140° , 200°(M)
C 320° , 210°(M)
D 140° , 220°(M)
ANSWER 140° , 200°(M)

An aircraft heading 130° (M) has an ADF reading of 190° Relative. The alteration of
192 QUESTION heading required to intercept the 170° track outbound from the NDB at 30° offset angle
is:
A 50° right.
B 60° right.
C 70° right.
D 80° right.
ANSWER 70° right.

An aircraft heading 135° (M) with 13° Right drift intercepts the 082° (M) track outbound
193 QUESTION
from an NDB. The relative bearing of the NDB that confirms track interception is:
A 122° Relative.
B 127° Relative.
C 132° Relative.
D 137° Relative.
ANSWER 127° Relative.

An aircraft heading 200° (M) has an ADF reading of 160° Relative is to intercept the 150°
194 QUESTION (M) track outbound from an NDB at 30° offset angle. The relative bearing of the NDB that
confirms track interception is:
A 210
B 220
C 230
D 240
ANSWER 210

An aircraft heading 200° (M) has an ADF reading of 160° Relative. The heading to steer to
195 QUESTION
intercept the 150° track outbound from the NDB at 30° offset angle is:
 A 110°(M)
B 130°(M)
C 120°(M)
D 140°(M)
ANSWER 120°(M)

An aircraft heading 315°M obtains an NDB bearing 180° on the RMI. Any quadrantal
196 QUESTION
error affecting the accuracy of this bearing is likely to be:
A zero, as quadrantal errors are not found on the RMI.
B at a maximum.
C at a minimum.
D zero, as quadrantal errors affect only the VOR.
ANSWER at a maximum.

An aircraft heading 325° (M) has an ADF reading of 330° Relative. The heading to steer to
197 QUESTION
intercept the 280° track inbound to the NDB at 50° offset angle is:
A 310(M)
B 320(M)
C 330(M)
D 340(M)
ANSWER 330(M)

An aircraft is approaching an NDB on a Hdg 090(T). The winds are light and variable. The
198 QUESTION Brg (R) indicates 000. If the wind velocity becomes 335 /40 kts, and the same hdg is
continued, the Brg(R) will indicate ______________.
A 0
B Less than 000
C More than 000
D None of the above
ANSWER Less than 000

An aircraft is flying a constant heading with 8° right drift and is making good a track
199 QUESTION parallel to the centre line of an airway but 5 nm off to the left of the centreline. The ADF
reading of a NDB on the airway centreline 42 nm ahead
A 011° Relative.
B 015° Relative.
C 002° Relative.
D 001° Relative.
ANSWER 015° Relative.

An aircraft is going from NDB A to NDB B. forecast wind velocity is L / V. After some time
200 QUESTION
the rel brgs of A and B are 190 and 350 respectively. The aircraft is
A On track
B Left of track
C Right of track
D None of the above
ANSWER Right of track

An aircraft is maintaining track outbound from an NDB with a constant relative bearing of
201 QUESTION
184°. To return to the NDB the relative bearing to maintain is:
 A 356°.
B 000°.
C 004°
D 184°
ANSWER 356°.

An aircraft is on Hdg(C) = 359°, Dev = 3°E. Var = 4°W. ADF needle on RMI reads steady
202 QUESTION
175°. The drift being experienced is
A 3 port°
B 3°stbd
C 7°port
D 2° stbd
ANSWER 7°port

An aircraft is proceeding out from an airport served by an NDB. ADF needle on RMI reads
203 QUESTION 220. Variation at aircraft position is 2° W. Hdg(C) = 038° . Deviation is 3° E. The drift
being experienced is
A 2° port
B 2° stbd
C 1° port
D 1° stbd
ANSWER 1° port

An aircraft over the sea is receiving a signal from an NDB 50nm from the coast and
204 QUESTION another from an NDB 20nm from the coast. Which of the following statements is most
correct?
A The bearing information from relative bearings of 90° and 270° would be most correct.
B The bearing information from relative bearings of 360° and 180° would be most correct.
C The bearing information from the beacon 20nm inland would be most correct.
D The bearing information from the beacon 50nm inland would be most correct.
ANSWER The bearing information from the beacon 20nm inland would be most correct.

An aircraft tracking 060° (T) in still air has a relative bearing off an NDB of 035° at 1300.
205 QUESTION At 1312 the relative bearing is 070°. The groundspeed of the aircraft is 180 knots. What is
the aircraft distance from the NDB at 1312:
A 18 nm
B 36 nm
C 24 nm
D 30 nm
ANSWER 30 nm

An NDB signal crossing from land to sea will _________ speed and bend ___________ the
206 QUESTION
normal.
A decrease, towards.
B increase, towards.
C decrease, away from.
D increase, away from.
ANSWER increase, away from.

207 QUESTION An NDB transmits a signal pattern in the horizontal plane which is:
A a beam rotating at 30 Hz.
 B bi-lobal circular.
C a limacon balanced at 30 Hz.
D a cardioid
ANSWER a cardioid

At 1000 Z an aircraft is overhead NDB PE enroute to NDB CN, Track 075(M), Heading
208 QUESTION 082(M) At 1029 Z NDB PE bears 176 Relative and NDB CN bears 353 Relative. The heading
to steer at 1029 Z to reach NDB CN is:
A 078(M)
B 079(M)
C 081(M)
D 0082(M)
ANSWER 079(M)

209 QUESTION Bearing obtained in flight from loop antennae is

A True Brg
B Relative to magnetic heading
C Relative to aircraft heading
D QDM to the Stn
ANSWER Relative to aircraft heading

210 QUESTION Coastal refraction on an ADF bearing will be increased if the:

A beacon is further inland.
B beacon is nearer the coast.
C aircraft is further away from the coast.
D aircraft is nearer the coast.
ANSWER beacon is further inland.

211 QUESTION Consider the following statements on the NDB transmitter:

A It is operating in the MF/HF band.
To overcome the limitations caused by line of sight propagation, high-power transmitters
B
must be used.
C NDBs operate in the frequency band 455 - 1750 kHz.
D It is very simple, being required to transmit only a carrier wave and an identification.
ANSWER It is very simple, being required to transmit only a carrier wave and an identification.

Errors caused by the effect of coastal refraction on bearings at lower altitudes are
212 QUESTION
maximum when the NDB is:
A near the coast and the bearing crosses the coast at right angles.
B inland and the bearing crosses the coast at an acute angle.
C inland and the bearing crosses the coast at right angles.
D near the coast and the bearing crosses the coast at an acute angle.
ANSWER inland and the bearing crosses the coast at an acute angle.

213 QUESTION Factors liable to affect most NDB/ADF system performance and reliability include:
A height error - station interference - mountain effect.
B static interference - station interference - latitude error.
C static interference - night effect - absence of failure warning system.
D coastal refraction - lane slip - mountain effect.
ANSWER static interference - night effect - absence of failure warning system.
214 QUESTION Fading of an ADF signal, together with a hunting needle, is an indication of:
A mountain effect.
B quadrantal error.
C thunderstorm effect.
D night effect.
ANSWER night effect.

215 QUESTION Flying in the vicinity of CB clouds and using ADF:

A The ANT position of the function switch should be used when listening for NDB ID.
B Strong static emitted from the CB may cause the ADF needle to deflect towards the CB.
C The static emitted from the CB will fade soon after you have passed it.
D All the choices are correct
ANSWER All the choices are correct

Given: Compass heading 270° Deviation 2°W Variation 3°E Relative bearing 316°. What is
216 QUESTION
the QDR?
A 224°
B 226°
C 046°
D 044°
ANSWER 044°

217 QUESTION Homing on an NDB:

A requires an assessment of the drift.
B Is most effective in strong winds.
C Will in most situations result in frequent heading changes when approaching the NDB.
D Will result in passing the NDB along the planned track.
ANSWER Will in most situations result in frequent heading changes when approaching the NDB.

If an NDB with a transmitter power of 25 KW which has a range of 50 nm is adjusted to

218 QUESTION
give a power output of 100 KW the new range of the NDB will be approximately:
A 100 nm
B 200 nm
C 300 nm
D 400 nm
ANSWER 100 nm

219 QUESTION In order to obtain an ADF bearing the:

A signal must be received by both the sense and loop aerials.
B sense aerial must be tuned separately.
C mode selector should be switched to LOOP.
D BFO switch must be selected to ON.
ANSWER signal must be received by both the sense and loop aerials.

220 QUESTION Long range NDBs normally employ:

A NON A2A
B NON A1A
C A3A
D A9E
ANSWER NON A1A
221 QUESTION Loop Aerial is designed to receive
A vertically polarised signals
B horizontally polarised signals
C resultant of horizontal and vertically polarised signals
D none of the above
ANSWER vertically polarised signals

222 QUESTION NDB uses

A Amplitude modulation and Horizontal polarization
B Frequency modulation and vertical polarization
C Frequency modulation and horizontal polarization
D Vertical polarization and amplitude modulation
ANSWER Vertical polarization and amplitude modulation

Night Effect which causes loss of signal and fading, resulting in bearing errors from NDB
223 QUESTION
transmissions, is due to:
A static activity increasing at night particularly in the lower frequency band.
B interference from other transmissions and is maximum at dusk when east of the NDB.
C skywave distortion of the null position and is maximum at dawn and dusk.
D the effect of the Aurora Borealis.
ANSWER skywave distortion of the null position and is maximum at dawn and dusk.

224 QUESTION Quadrantal error in direction finding is caused because

A The signals received on the quadrantal headings are weak
B Of reradiation of signals by metallic parts of aircraft
C Defective transmission from the ground station
D Due to steering quadrantal directions
ANSWER Of reradiation of signals by metallic parts of aircraft

Quadrantal errors associated with aircraft Automatic Direction Finding (ADF) equipment
225 QUESTION
are caused by:
A misalignment of the loop aerial.
B signal bending caused by electrical interference from aircraft wiring.
C signal bending by the aircraft electrical field
D skywave/groundwave contamination.
ANSWER signal bending by the aircraft electrical field

226 QUESTION The accuracy of ADF (combined with NDB) within the DOC by day is:
A +/-1 deg.
B +/-2 deg.
C +/-5 deg.
D +/-10 deg.
ANSWER +/-5 deg.

227 QUESTION The ADF reception loop is always used so that the electromotive force (EMF):
A is null
B induced is maximum.
C is zero.
D is maximum.
ANSWER is null
228 QUESTION The basic information given by the ADF is:
A The magnetic direction of the loop aerial with reference to the sense aerial.
B The magnetic bearing from the aircraft to the NDB.
C The true great circle track from the NDB to the aircraft.
D The relative bearing from the aircraft to the NDB.
ANSWER The relative bearing from the aircraft to the NDB.

229 QUESTION The BFO selector on an ADF receiver is used to:

A find the loop NULL position.
B stop loop rotation.
C hear the IDENT and must always be switched ON.
D hear the IDENT of some NDB stations radiating a continuous wave signal.
ANSWER hear the IDENT of some NDB stations radiating a continuous wave signal.

230 QUESTION The BFO:

A is used to improve the signal to noise ratio of the incoming signal
B is used to make the ident from an A2A NDB audible.
C is used to make the ident from an A1A NDB audible.
D is used to determine the signal strength of an NDB.
ANSWER is used to make the ident from an A1A NDB audible.

The D layer in the ionosphere causes __________errors by day for an NDB system
231 QUESTION
and____________ errors by night for a VOR system:
A maximum; maximum
B no; no
C maximum; no
D no; maximum
ANSWER no; no

232 QUESTION The D layer of the ionosphere affects the accuracy of NDB bearings:
A by day and night.
B by day only.
C by night only.
D none of the above
ANSWER none of the above

233 QUESTION The frequency band chosen for NDBs is

A upper LF and lower MF
B VHF and above
C upper VLF and lower MF
D upper MF and lower LF
ANSWER upper LF and lower MF

234 QUESTION The heading read on a standard RMI is:

A The magnetic heading.
B The relative heading.
C The compass heading.
D The True heading.
ANSWER The compass heading.
 The inbound track to NDB GDV is 075°(T), Variation 10° W, drift 7° Right. The relative
235 QUESTION
bearing to maintained on the radio compass to reach GDV is
A 353 Relative.
B 000 Relative.
C 007 Relative.
D 183 Relative.
ANSWER 007 Relative.

The inbound track to NDB GDV is 075°(T), Variation 10° W, drift 7° Right. The RMI ADF
236 QUESTION
bearing to maintain to reach GDV is
A 085°
B 075°
C 080°
D 078°
ANSWER 078°

The Rel Brg shows 030°. The heading of the aeroplane is 140° M. The intercept angle for a
237 QUESTION
course to the NDB of 180° M is:
A 20° right
B 30° right
C 20° left
D 60° right
ANSWER 20° left

The maximum errors when using an ADF bearing will occur in the position of NDB
238 QUESTION
____________and angle of cut at the coast
A on the coast; 90°
B inland; 90°
C on the coast; 45°
D inland; 30°
ANSWER inland; 30°

239 QUESTION The nominal maximum range of an NDB with a transmitter power is 200 watts is:
A 40 to 50 nm.
B 100 to 120 nm.
C 150 to 170 nm.
D 200 to 220 nm.
ANSWER 40 to 50 nm.

240 QUESTION The promulgated range for an NDB is applicable:

A during daytime only.
B during night time only.
C throughout 24 hours, but is most prone to error around dusk and dawn.
D at all times.
ANSWER during daytime only.

241 QUESTION The purpose of the BFO switch on the ADF receiver is to:
A make the signal audible.
B cut out the static noise.
C improve the strength of the received signal.
D attenuate the received signal.
 ANSWER make the signal audible.

242 QUESTION The rated coverage of homing and holding NDBs is a range of approximately
A 25 nm
B 10 nm
C 50 nm
D 40 nm
ANSWER 50 nm

The Rel Brg shows 030°. The heading of the aeroplane is 140° M. The intercept angle for a
243 QUESTION
course to the NDB of 180° M is:
A 20° right
B 30° right
C 20° left
D 60° right
ANSWER 20° left

The relative bearing of an NDB as 160°. The heading of the aeroplane is 320° M. In order
244 QUESTION to intercept an outbound course of 330° (from the NDB) at an offset angle of 40°, the
aeroplanes heading should be altered to:
A 010°
B 330°
C 300°
D 040°
ANSWER 010°

245 QUESTION The result of flying towards a NDB maintaining a 000 relative bearing with a crosswind is:

A the heading remains constant.

B the aircraft's track curves to the downwind of the NDB.
C the aircraft's track curves to the upwind side of the NDB.
D the aircraft’s track remains unchanged.
ANSWER the aircraft's track curves to the downwind of the NDB.

The signal to noise ratio for an NDB is ________ allowing a maximum error of ________
246 QUESTION
during
A 5/1, ±3 degrees, daylight hours only.
B 3/1, ±5 degrees, 24 hours.
C 5/1, ±3 degrees, 24 hours.
D 3/1, ±5 degrees, daylight hours only.
ANSWER 3/1, ±5 degrees, daylight hours only.

247 QUESTION To double the range of an NDB the power (in watts) must be increased by a factor of:-
A 2
B 4
C 6
D 8
ANSWER 4

248 QUESTION Using an NDB, it is possible to experience which of the following errors or limitations?
A Coastal refraction, timing error and night effect.
 B Night effect, station interference and latitude error.
C Night effect, quadrantal error and lack of a failure warning system.
D Coastal refraction, timing error and lack of a failure warning system.
ANSWER Night effect, quadrantal error and lack of a failure warning system.

249 QUESTION Variations of signal strength in NDB receivers known as fading indicates the presence of:

A mountain or terrain effect.

B reflection from thunderstorms.
C coastal refraction.
D night effect.
ANSWER night effect.

250 QUESTION What is the approved frequency band assigned to aeronautical NDBs?
A 190-1750 Hz
B 190-1750 kHz
C 190-1750 MHz
D 190-1750 GHz
ANSWER 190-1750 kHz

251 QUESTION What is the wavelength of an NDB transmitting on 375 kHz?

A 8m
B 8000 m
C 800 m
D 80 m
ANSWER 800 m

When ADF equipment which incorporates a sense aerial and a loop aerial is tuned to an
252 QUESTION
NDB and the loop is rotated so that a sharp null is found, the aerial is:
A parallel to the incoming signals.
B in line with the incoming signals.
C at right angles with the incoming signals.
D aligned with the aircraft nose
ANSWER at right angles with the incoming signals.

253 QUESTION When considering the propagation of ADF transmissions night effect is most pronounced:

A at dusk and dawn.

B during the long winter nights.
C at or near the coast.
D when flying at low altitude.
ANSWER at dusk and dawn.

254 QUESTION When flying on a hdg of 135(T), the quadrantal error is max on:
A 090 -270 relative
B 000 - 180 relative
C quadrantal relative
D none of the above
ANSWER quadrantal relative

255 QUESTION When is coastal error its worst for an aircraft at low level?
 A Beacon close to the coast at 90° to the coast.
B Beacon inland at 90° to the coast.
C Beacon close to the coast at an acute angle to the coast.
D Beacon inland at an acute angle to the coast.
ANSWER Beacon inland at an acute angle to the coast.

When the induced signals from the loop and sense antenna are combined in an ADF
256 QUESTION
receiver, the resultant polar
A a limacon.
B a bi-lobal circular.
C a cardioid.
D None of the above
ANSWER a cardioid.

257 QUESTION When using a N0N A2A NDB the BFO should be:
A on for tuning and on for identification.
B off for tuning and on for identification.
C on for tuning and off for identification.
D off for tuning and off for identification.
ANSWER on for tuning and off for identification.

258 QUESTION When using ADF for enroute navigation, the bearing obtained is
A magnetic bearing
B true bearing
C relative bearing
D none of the above
ANSWER relative bearing

259 QUESTION When using ADF, the sky-wave (night) effect:

A Is most dominant at the darkest time of the day.
Occurs when the signal from the desired NDB is interfered with by a long distant sky- wave
B
signal from another NDB operating at the same or a close frequency.
C Occurs when two sky-wave signals from two different NDBs interfere with each other.
D Is most dominant around dusk and dawn.
ANSWER Is most dominant around dusk and dawn.

260 QUESTION When using NDBs night effect is most likely to be greatest at:
A dawn.
B dusk.
C dawn or dusk.
D night.
ANSWER dawn or dusk.

261 QUESTION Which of the following are all errors associated with ADF
A Selective availability, coastal refraction, night effect
B Night effect, quadrantal error, shore line effect
C Mountain effect, station interference, static interference
D Selective availability, coastal refraction, quadrantal errors
ANSWER Night effect, quadrantal error, shore line effect
 Which of the following equipments does not have a system to warn the pilot that it is
262 QUESTION
inoperative:
A ADF
B ILS
C DME
D VOR
ANSWER ADF

263 QUESTION Which of the following factors could cause an error of an ADF bearing of an NDB?
A Scalloping.
B Atmospheric scatter.
C Phase interference
D Night effect.
ANSWER Night effect.

264 QUESTION Which of the following factors could cause an error on an ADF bearing of an NDB:
A land/sea bias.
B tropospheric scatter.
C night effect
D scalloping errors.
ANSWER night effect

265 QUESTION Which of the following is likely to have the greatest effect on ADF accuracy?
A Interference from other NDBs, particularly during the day.
B Frequency drift at the ground station.
C Interference from other NDBs, particularly at night.
D Mutual interference between aircraft aerials.
ANSWER Interference from other NDBs, particularly at night.

266 QUESTION Which of the following is the ICAO allocated frequency band for ADF receivers?
A 255 - 455 kHz.
B 190 - 1750 kHz.
C 300 - 3000 kHz.
D 200 - 2000 kHz.
ANSWER 190 - 1750 kHz.

267 QUESTION Which of the following is true about the ADF?

A Its accuracy is the same by day and by night.
B It does not have a signal failure warning.
C It should not be used at night because of sky waves.
D Sky waves do not affect the bearing accuracy provided they come from the correct NDB.
ANSWER It does not have a signal failure warning.

Which one of the following disturbances is most likely to cause the greatest inaccuracy in
268 QUESTION
ADF bearings?
A Coastal effect.
B Local thunderstorm activity.
C Quadrantal error.
D Precipitation interference.
ANSWER Local thunderstorm activity.
269 QUESTION While using an NDB, which of the following errors or limitations are experienced?
A Coastal refraction, timing error and night effect.
B Night effect, station interference and latitude error.
C Night effect, quadrantal error and lack of a failure warning system.
D Coastal refraction, timing error and lack of a failure warning system.
ANSWER Night effect, quadrantal error and lack of a failure warning system.

With a transmission from an NDB aerial, the _________ component travels in the
270 QUESTION
_____________plane and the signal is ______________ polarised.
A magnetic; horizontal; vertically.
B electrical; horizontal; vertically.
C electrical; vertical; horizontally.
D magnetic; vertical; horizontally.
ANSWER magnetic; horizontal; vertically.

271 QUESTION With regard to the types of NDB which statements is correct?
A Locators have 50 nm range and are NON A2A.
B Locators have 10-25 nm range and are NON A2A.
C Locators 50 nm range and are NON A1A.
D Locators have 10 nm range and are NON A1A.
ANSWER Locators have 10-25 nm range and are NON A2A.

You are advised to follow a track Of 100 Deg to an NDB and the Radio Compass reads 010
272 QUESTION deg relative, heading 045 deg. if the drift is 10 deg port and you have intercepted the
required track
A You will steer 090 Deg with Radio Compass 010 Deg.
B You will steer 100 Deg with Radio Compass 000 Deg
C You will steer 110 Deg with Radio Compass 350 Deg.
D You will steer 010 Deg with Radio Compass 090 Deg.
ANSWER You will steer 110 Deg with Radio Compass 350 Deg.

You are approaching an NDB on a course of 045 deg with forecast winds being Light &
273 QUESTION Variable. The radio compass needle reads 000 deg. if the wind pattern changes and you
are drifted to the port:
A the radio compass will continue to read 000 deg
B the radio compass will read less than 000 deg
C the radio compass will read more than 000 deg
D none of the above
ANSWER the radio compass will read more than 000 deg

274 QUESTION For a given scanner diameter, a narrow beam is produced with:-
A low frequency
B high frequency
C medium frequency
D none of the above
ANSWER high frequency

275 QUESTION Power loss at half power points is

A -2db
B -3db
C - 1/2db
 D - 1/root 2 db
ANSWER -3db

276 QUESTION The PCE switch provided in HF receivers is for

A Supressing signals from stations that are very far
B Supressing signals from stations that are very near
C Amplifying signals by either -16 db or -26 db
D Carrier wave reinsertion as per teleprinter compatibility
ANSWER Carrier wave reinsertion as per teleprinter compatibility

277 QUESTION Tropo units of IAF use

A Duct propagation
B Anomalous propagation
C Ground propagation
D None of the above
ANSWER Anomalous propagation

A frequency of 10 GHz is considered to be the optimum for use in an airborne weather

278 QUESTION
radar system because:
the larger water droplets will give good echoes and the antenna can be kept relatively
A
small.
B greater detail can be obtained at the more distant ranges of the smaller water droplets.
C static interference is minimised.
D less power output is required in the mapping mode.
the larger water droplets will give good echoes and the antenna can be kept relatively
ANSWER
small.

279 QUESTION A frequency used by airborne weather radar is:

A 8800 MHz.
B 9.375 GHz.
C 93.75 GHz.
D 1213 MHz.
ANSWER 9.375 GHz.

280 QUESTION A height ring can be used:

A to determine that the weather radar is functioning.
B to determine the aeroplanes height above the surface.
C as a range marker.
D as the zero point for range measurement.
ANSWER to determine that the weather radar is functioning.

Airborne Weather Radar is an example of _________ radar operating on a frequency of

281 QUESTION
__________ in the _____________ band.
A primary; 8800 MHz; SHF
B secondary; 9.375 MHz; UHF
C secondary; 9375 MHz; SHF
D primary; 9375 MHz; SHF
ANSWER primary; 9375 MHz; SHF

282 QUESTION Airborne Weather Radar operates in the SHF band because
 large water droplets, hailstones, etc, give good reflections at a 3 cm wavelength, while
A
small droplets of fog, mist or stratus do not
it enables equipment to be powerful but light enough to be installed in the aircraft nose
B
cone
C it enables a narrow width beam to be used to obtain the required degree of definition
D ground clutter is minimum in this band
large water droplets, hailstones, etc, give good reflections at a 3 cm wavelength, while
ANSWER
small droplets of fog, mist or stratus do not

283 QUESTION Airborne weather radar operates on a frequency of:

A 8800 MHz because gives the best returns from all types of precipitation.

B 13300 MHz because this freq gives adequate doppler shift to detect movement of CB cells.

C 9375 MHz because it gives the best returns from rainfall associated with Cb.
D 9.375 GHz because this frequency is best for detecting aircraft in flight.
ANSWER 9375 MHz because it gives the best returns from rainfall associated with Cb.

Airborne weather radar uses a particularly high frequency radar signal, at 9 - 12 GHz, in
284 QUESTION
order to:
A get the most accurate range and bearing information.
B get good returns from droplets of water and other types of precipitation.
C making it possible to present a colour display of the weather situation.
D All 3 answers are correct.
ANSWER get good returns from droplets of water and other types of precipitation.

An airborne weather radar is required to detect targets up to a maximum range of 200

285 QUESTION
nm. Ignoring pulse length and flyback in the CRT calculate the maximum PRF.
A 405 pps.
B 810 pps.
C 1500 pps.
D 750 pps.
ANSWER 405 pps.

An aircraft at FL 250 is using its Weather Radar which has a beam width of 5 degrees. A
286 QUESTION cloud at 25 nm ceases to paint when the tilt control is selected to 1 degree up. Using the
1 in 60 rule calculate the height of the cloud top.
A 28800 ft
B 25000 ft
C 21200 ft
D 26000 ft
ANSWER 21200 ft

An aircraft heading 137(M) has a small island showing on the Airborne Weather Radar at
287 QUESTION 45nm range on the 30 left azimuth line. Local variation is 12°W. To obtain a fix from this
information you should plot is :
A Range 45 nm and QTE 095 from the centre of the island.
B Range 45 nm and QTE 275 from the centre of the island.
C Range 45 nm and QTE 107 from the centre of the island.
D Range 45 nm and QTE 287 from the centre of the island.
ANSWER Range 45 nm and QTE 275 from the centre of the island.
288 QUESTION An aircraft Weather Radar in the iso-echo or contour mode is used for:
A identifying areas of maximum turbulence within a cloud.
B identifying rain bearing clouds.
C long range mapping.
D short range mapping.
ANSWER identifying areas of maximum turbulence within a cloud.

289 QUESTION As a storm intensifies, the colour sequence on the Weather Radar display will change:
A black, yellow, amber.
B green, yellow, red.
C blue, green, orange.
D green, yellow, amber.
ANSWER green, yellow, red.

290 QUESTION Before commencing a flight the weather radar should:

A be switched to stand-by but not used until airborne.
B not be switched on until clear of buildings.
C be switched to a range function after push back to make sure it is functioning.
D preferably be kept at stand-by until line up with the runway.
ANSWER preferably be kept at stand-by until line up with the runway.

Hail associated with thunderstorms will often be shown on an Airborne Weather Radar
291 QUESTION
as
A an extremely straight edge to the echo
B a series of sharp edged returns
C a distinct concave edge to the echo
D a finger extending out from the echo
ANSWER a finger extending out from the echo

In an Airborne Weather Radar that has a colour cathode ray tube (CRT) increasing
292 QUESTION
severity of rain and turbulence is generally shown by a change of colour from:
A green to yellow to red.
B yellow to amber to blue.
C green to red to black.
D yellow to orange to red.
ANSWER green to yellow to red.

293 QUESTION In general the operation of airborne weather radar equipment on the ground is:
A unrestrictedly permitted in aerodrome maintenance areas.
only permitted with certain precautions, to safeguard health of personnel and to protect
B
equipment.
C permitted anywhere.
D totally prohibited.
only permitted with certain precautions, to safeguard health of personnel and to protect
ANSWER
equipment.

In order to have good sensitivity to water droplets in cumuliform type clouds, the
294 QUESTION
wavelength of an Weather Radar should be:
A as long as is practicable.
B approximately 3 cm.
C as short as is practicable.
 D between 0.5 to 1 cm.
ANSWER approximately 3 cm.

295 QUESTION In the MAPPING MODE the airborne weather radar utilises a:
A fan shaped beam generally effective up to a maximum of 50 NM to 60 NM range.
B fan shaped beam effective up to a range of 150 NM.
C pencil beam to a maximum range of 60 NM.
D pencil beam effective from zero to 150 NM.
ANSWER fan shaped beam generally effective up to a maximum of 50 NM to 60 NM range.

296 QUESTION In weather radar the use of a cosecant beam in Mapping mode enables:
A better reception of echoes on contrasting terrain such as ground to sea.
scanning of a large ground zone producing echoes whose signals are practically
B
independent of distance.
C a greater radar range to be achieved.
D higher definition echoes to be produced giving a clearer picture.
scanning of a large ground zone producing echoes whose signals are practically
ANSWER
independent of distance.

297 QUESTION In which frequency band do most airborne weather radars operate?
A SHF
B UHF
C EHF
D VHF
ANSWER SHF

In which mode of operation does the aircraft weather radar use a cosecant radiation
298 QUESTION
pattern?
A MAPPING
B CONTOUR
C WEATHER
D MANUAL
ANSWER MAPPING

299 QUESTION Iso-echo contour facility in a weather radar basically indicates

A areas of hail
B areas of relative turbulence
C areas of turbulence
D areas of relative rainfall quadient.
ANSWER areas of relative rainfall quadient.

300 QUESTION On a colour radar, the greatest turbulence is likely in a area where the target is :
A coloured red.
B coloured magenta.
C show a clearly defined hole.
D show a rapid gradient of change from magenta to yellow.
ANSWER coloured red.

301 QUESTION On the airborne weather radar display, different colours are used:
A to display different intensity of precipitation.
 B high ground.
C echoes from other aircraft
D clouds, indicating different levels of visibility.
ANSWER to display different intensity of precipitation.

302 QUESTION On the Weather Radar colour display the most severe turbulence will be shown:
A in flashing red.
B by a black hole.
C by a steep colour gradient.
D alternating red and white.
ANSWER by a steep colour gradient.

The airborne weather radar is using a 5° beam. A cloud is detected at a range of 60 miles.
303 QUESTION If the scanner is tilted up to 5° the cloud echo disappears. Using the 1/60 rule to
determine the height of the top of the cloud, in relation to the aeroplane
A 31.900 ft above the level.
B 15.900 ft below the level.
C 15.100 ft above the level.
D 31.900 ft below the level.
ANSWER 15.100 ft above the level.

304 QUESTION The Airborne Weather Radar transmitter is not normally selected on the ground because:

A it can interfere with radars and approach aids.

B its radiated energy can damage people and equipment.
C it can overload the electrical system.
D none of these answers are correct.
ANSWER its radiated energy can damage people and equipment.

The centre of a small island is identified at the intersection of the 60° left bearing line and
305 QUESTION 15nm range arc of an airborne weather radar. If the aircraft's heading and height are
035°(M) and 42500ft what QTE and range should be plotted in order to obta
A 175 / 15 nm.
B 135 / 15 nm.
C 155 / 13 nm.
D 135 / 14 nm.
ANSWER 155 / 13 nm.

The colours used to denote variations in rainfall rate on an Airborne Weather Radar
306 QUESTION screen are _________ for very light or no returns, _________ for light returns, _________
for medium returns and ________ for strong returns.
A black, yellow, green, magenta,
B black, green, yellow, magenta.
C grey, green, yellow, red.
D black, green, yellow, red.
ANSWER black, green, yellow, red.

307 QUESTION The ISO-ECHO facility of an airborne weather radar is provided in order to:
A give an indication of cloud tops.
B detect areas of possible severe turbulence in cloud.
C inhibit unwanted ground returns.
 D extend the mapping range.
ANSWER detect areas of possible severe turbulence in cloud.

308 QUESTION The main purpose of HOLD switch on an Weather Radar is

A the storm movement can be assessed
B ground mapping can be done
C the storm's potential rate of decay can be assessed
D the storm's potential rate of development can be assessed
ANSWER the storm movement can be assessed

309 QUESTION The mapping mode of Airborne Weather Radar utilises:

A a pencil beam from 70 nm to 150 nm.
B a cosecant fan shaped beam which is effective to 150 nm.
C a pencillweather beam with a maximum range of 70 nm.
D a cosecant fan shaped beam effective 50 nm to 70 nm.
ANSWER a cosecant fan shaped beam effective 50 nm to 70 nm.

The pencil shaped beam of an airborne weather radar is used in preference to the
310 QUESTION
mapping mode for the determination of ground features:
A when approaching coast-lines in polar regions.

B beyond 100 NM because insufficient antenna tilt angle is available with the mapping mode.

C beyond 150 NM because the wider beam gives better definition.

D beyond 50 to 60 NM because more power can be concentrated in the narrower beam.
ANSWER beyond 50 to 60 NM because more power can be concentrated in the narrower beam.

311 QUESTION The theoretical maximum range for an Airborne Weather Radar is determined by the:
A pulse recurrence frequency.
B transmission power.
C size of the aerial.
D transmission frequency.
ANSWER pulse recurrence frequency.

The tilt angle on the Weather Radar at which an active cloud just disappears from the
312 QUESTION screen is 4 degrees up. If the beam width is 5 degrees and the range of the cloud is 40 NM
use the 1 in 60 rule to calculate the approximate height of the cloud relative to the ai

A 4000 above.
B 6000 above.
C 4000 below.
D 6000 below.
ANSWER 6000 above.

The Weather Radar can be checked on the ground provided:

i.the aircraft is clear of personnel, buildings and vehicles
313 QUESTION ii.conical beam is selected
iii.maximum up tilt is selected
iv.the Weather Radar must never be operated on the ground
A iv
B i, iii
C i, ii, iii
 D ii, iii
ANSWER i, ii, iii

314 QUESTION The Weather Radar transmitter is not normally selected on the ground because:
A it can interfere with radars and approach aids.
B its radiated energy can damage people and equipment.
C it can overload the electrical system.
D none of these answers are correct.
ANSWER its radiated energy can damage people and equipment.

Typical Airborne Weather Radar (Airborne Weather Radar) is gyro stabilised within limits
315 QUESTION
in:
A pitch and yaw.
B yaw and turn.
C pitch and roll.
D pitch, roll and yaw.
ANSWER pitch and roll.

Using airborne weather radar the weather beam should be used in preference to the fan
316 QUESTION
shaped beam for mapping in excess of ... nm.
A 20 to 25
B 60 to 70
C 100 to 150
D 150 to 200
ANSWER 60 to 70

Using Airborne Weather Radar, the conical beam should be used for map painting in
317 QUESTION
preference to the fan shaped beam when
A there are thunderstorms in the vicinity
B maximum range is required to be scanned
C approaching a coastline
D range accuracy is required
ANSWER maximum range is required to be scanned

318 QUESTION Using the airborne weather radar, before take-off:

A the contrast control should be adjusted to maximum contrast.
the radar transmitter should not be operated when personnel are observed in the sector
B
ahead of the aircraft.
C the antenna tilt control should be set to max negative tilt.
the gain control should be adjusted according to the light conditions expected when
D
airborne.
the radar transmitter should not be operated when personnel are observed in the sector
ANSWER
ahead of the aircraft.

Using Weather Radar, the conical beam should be used for map painting in preference to
319 QUESTION
the fan shaped beam when
A there are thunderstorms in the vicinity
B maximum range is required to be scanned
C approaching a coastline
D range accuracy is required
ANSWER maximum range is required to be scanned
 Weather Radar in the _________ mode progressively ____________ as distances
320 QUESTION
_____________ to equalise screen brightness.
A weather, decreases gain, increase.
B mapping, decreases power, decrease.
C weather, increases power, decrease.
D mapping, increases gain, decrease.
ANSWER mapping, decreases power, decrease.

321 QUESTION Weather Radar in the contour mode is used for:

A identifying areas of maximum turbulence within a cloud.
B identifying rain bearing clouds.
C long range mapping.
D short range mapping.
ANSWER identifying areas of maximum turbulence within a cloud.

322 QUESTION Weather radar is used by the pilot to assist in the:

A detection and avoidance of all turbulence.
B detection and avoidance of potentially turbulent cloud cells.
C detection and determination of a route through active cloud formations.
D detection of other aircraft through clouds.
ANSWER detection and avoidance of potentially turbulent cloud cells.

323 QUESTION Weather Radar operates in the SHF band because

large water droplets, hailstones, etc, give good reflections at a 3 cm wavelength, while
A
small droplets of fog, mist or stratus do not
it enables equipment to be powerful but light enough to be installed in the aircraft nose
B
cone
C it enables a narrow width beam to be used to obtain the required degree of definition
D ground clutter is minimum in this band
large water droplets, hailstones, etc, give good reflections at a 3 cm wavelength, while
ANSWER
small droplets of fog, mist or stratus do not

324 QUESTION What causes echoes on airborne weather radar screens?

A Water vapour.
B All cloud types.
C Fog.
D Hail and water droplets
ANSWER Hail and water droplets

325 QUESTION What frequency is typically chosen for Weather Radar systems?
A 9.375 MHz
B 93.75 MHz
C 9.375 GHz
D 93.75 GHz
ANSWER 9.375 GHz

326 QUESTION When Iso-echo contour is used

A signals above a certain frequency are blanked off
B signals above a certain wavelength are blanked off
C signals above a certain amplitude are blanked off
 D signals reflected from the ionosphere are rejected
ANSWER signals above a certain amplitude are blanked off

When the airborne weather radar is operating in its primary mode, to detect
327 QUESTION
precipitation:
A maximum tilt of the aerial will often be used.
B the range will be limited, compared to the range obtainable in the mapping mode.
C the radar beam is pencil-shaped.
D the radar beam is a cosecant squared beam.
ANSWER the radar beam is pencil-shaped.

When using the Airborne Weather Radar to detect long range ground features the most
328 QUESTION
suitable mode of operation or beam selected would be:
A the manual mode.
B the fan shaped beam.
C the mapping mode.
D the contour mode.
ANSWER the manual mode.

Which of the following cloud types is most readily detected by airborne weather radar
329 QUESTION
when using the weather beam?
A Stratus
B Cirrocumulus
C Cumulus
D Altostratus
ANSWER Cumulus

330 QUESTION Which of the following equipments uses primary radar principles?
A Distance Measuring Equipment (DME).
B Global Positioning System (GPS).
C Airborne weather radar (AWR).
D Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR).
ANSWER Airborne weather radar (AWR).

331 QUESTION Which of the following lists phenomena that CANNOT be detected by weather radar?
A Dry hail; clear air turbulence.
B Snow; clear air turbulence.
C Clear air turbulence; turbulence in cloud with precipitation.
D Snow; turbulence in clouds with precipitation.
ANSWER Snow; clear air turbulence.

You want to use your airborne weather radar to detect areas with turbulence. Consider
332 QUESTION
the following statements:
If you are flying at low altitude, the detection of turbulence at levels below the aircraft may
A
br difficult because of ground returns.
B You should select the cosec beam and carefully adjust the aerial tilt.
Using the cosec beam, the height of top of clouds, with possible turbulence, may be
C
calculated using the 1: 60 rule.
D All 3 answers are correct.
If you are flying at low altitude, the detection of turbulence at levels below the aircraft
ANSWER
may be difficult because of ground returns.
333 QUESTION An equipment is considered to be more reliable if it has
A high MTBF
B low MTBF
C low MTBUR
D low MTBF and high MTBUR
ANSWER high MTBF

334 QUESTION Avionics design objectives for the user includes

A probability of fault x severity of its effect
B ease of maintenance
C probability of fault x 1/severity of its effect
D none of the above
ANSWER probability of fault x 1/severity of its effect

335 QUESTION QTE means

A aircraft's true track to the station
B aircrafts true bearing from the station
C aircraft's magnetic bearing from the station
D aircraft's magnetic bearing to the station
ANSWER aircrafts true bearing from the station

336 QUESTION RAM is

A real access to memory
B read all memory
C refer all memory
D none of the above
ANSWER none of the above

337 QUESTION Sensitivity of receiver is its ability to

A interpret only desired signals
B detect weak signals
C reproduces exactly as original
D suppress noise
ANSWER detect weak signals

338 QUESTION 1 µs pulse will not distinguish between two objects if separation is ___________ or less.
A 150 m
B 300 m
C 3000 m
D 1500 m
ANSWER 150 m

A primary pulse radar system operates with a pulse repetition frequency of 400 pps. The
339 QUESTION
maximum theoretical range of the system is:
A 202 nm
B 303 nm
C 404 nm
D 505 nm
ANSWER 202 nm
 A primary radar has a pulse repetition frequency of 275 pps. The time interval between
340 QUESTION
the leading edges of successive pulses is:
A 3.64 milliseconds.
B 36.4 milliseconds.
C 3.64 microseconds.
D 36.4 microseconds.
ANSWER 3.64 milliseconds.

341 QUESTION A Primary radar operates on the

A echo principle for ranging
B search light principle for direction finding
C echo principle for target velocity determination
D both A & B are correct
ANSWER both A & B are correct

A primary radar system has a pulse repetition frequency of 450 pps, ignoring pulse width
342 QUESTION
and flyback at the CRT, the maximum range of the radar would be:
A 333 NM.
B 180 NM.
C 666 NM.
D 320 NM.
ANSWER 333 NM.

A radar facility transmitting at a Pulse Recurrence Frequency (PRF) of 1200 pulses/second

343 QUESTION
will have a maximum unambiguous range of approximately:
A 135 NM.
B 69 NM.
C 270 NM.
D 27 NM.
ANSWER 69 NM.

A radio wave with a horizontal magnetic component would be best received by a

344 QUESTION
_________ aerial.
A circular
B parabolic
C horizontal
D vertical
ANSWER vertical

345 QUESTION Designated operational coverage of TVOR is ________ nms.

A 50
B 25
C 10
D 65
ANSWER 25

346 QUESTION Duty cycle is given by the formula:-

A PW x PRF
B PW / PRF
C PRF / PW
D 1/PW x 1/PRF
 ANSWER PW x PRF

347 QUESTION Duty cycle of CW radar is

A Zero
B Unity
C Infinity
D Root 2
ANSWER Unity

348 QUESTION First false glide path for a 3 deg nominal glide path does not occur until above
A 9°
B 6°
C 6°
D cannot be predicted
ANSWER 6°

349 QUESTION For a horizontal aerial the magnetic component travels in _________________ plane.
A HORIZONTAL
B VERTICAL
C ELLIPTICAL
D None of the above
ANSWER VERTICAL

For any given circumstances, in order to double the effective range of a primary radar the
350 QUESTION
power output must be increased by a factor of:
A 2
B 16
C 4
D 8
ANSWER 16

Full scale deflection on Loc and G/S indicates a deviation at _______ and ________
351 QUESTION
respectively from the zero DDM, line.
A 5.0 degree, 0.7 degree
B 2.5 degree, 0.7 degree
C 3.0 degree, 1.4 degree
D .5 degree, 0.7 degree
ANSWER 2.5 degree, 0.7 degree

352 QUESTION GPS employs ___________ satellites in ___________ orbits.

A 21,4
B 28,6
C 24, 6
D 21,6
ANSWER 24, 6

If a primary radar has a pulse width of 1.5 microseconds and a PRF of 809 the min & max
353 QUESTION
range would be :
A min. 2 nm - max. 131 nm
B min. 0.25 nm - max. 131 nm
C min. 0.12 nm - max. 200 nm
 D min. 0.12 nm - max. 100 nm
ANSWER min. 0.12 nm - max. 100 nm

354 QUESTION If HF frequency is lowered, the critical angle will __________ (increase/decrease)
A Increase
B Be unaffected
C Decrease
D None of the above
ANSWER Decrease

355 QUESTION If the PRF of a transmitter is stated as 500 Hz, the corresponding PRI is:
A 2 picoseconds.
B 2 nanoseconds.
C 2 microseconds.
D 2 milliseconds.
ANSWER 2 milliseconds.

Ignoring pulse length, the maximum pulse repetition frequency (PRF) that can be used by
356 QUESTION a primary radar facility to detect targets unambiguously to a range of 200 NM is: (pps =
pulses per second)
A 375 pps.
B 782 pps.
C 308 pps.
D 405 pps.
ANSWER 405 pps.

357 QUESTION In a Cathode Ray Tube the grid is used to:

A control the focus.
B control the brilliance.
C drain electrons from the tube.
D deflect the electron stream to form a time-base.
ANSWER control the brilliance.

358 QUESTION In a cathode ray tube the grid potential is:

A negative with respect to the cathode.
B the same as the cathode.
C zero.
D the same as the second anode.
ANSWER negative with respect to the cathode.

In frequency modulation, frequency of the carrier is varied in accordance with the change
359 QUESTION
in _______________________ of the modulating signal.
A Frequency of carrier signal
B Amplitude of carrier signal
C Amplitude of modulating signal
D Amplitude of modulating signal
ANSWER Amplitude of modulating signal

In relation to radar systems that use pulse technology, the term Pulse Recurrence Rate
360 QUESTION
(PRR) signifies the:
A ratio of pulse period to pulse width.
 B delay after which the process re-starts.
C the number of cycles per second.
D number of pulses per second.
ANSWER number of pulses per second.

361 QUESTION Min detectable range of pulse radar is governed by:

A PRF
B PULSE WIDTH
C BEAM WIDTH
D PRP
ANSWER PULSE WIDTH

362 QUESTION Nominal beam width is

the angle between the points on the beam where radiated power has fallen to half its
A
maximum valve
B where radiated power has fallen to unusable level
C same as effective beam width
the angle through which the beam rotates whilst continuing to give a discernible image
D
from a small point response.
the angle between the points on the beam where radiated power has fallen to half its
ANSWER
maximum valve

363 QUESTION On a standard radar display (PPI):

A the time base is a sine curve.
B the time base is a cosine curve.
C the time base is a linear, straight scale
the time base is made to rotate synchronously with the antenna in order to display bearing
D
as well as range
the time base is made to rotate synchronously with the antenna in order to display
ANSWER
bearing as well as range

364 QUESTION Pulse width can be defined as:

A the time difference from the start of one radar pulse to the start of the next pulse.
B the duration of the pulse generally measured in microseconds.
C the number of pulses per second.
D the time that the radar is active.
ANSWER the duration of the pulse generally measured in microseconds.

365 QUESTION Pulse width of a radar governs

A the range resolution required
B the max range of the radar
C minimum range
D both A and C are correct
ANSWER both A and C are correct

366 QUESTION The interval in time between the commencement of two consecutive pulses is:
A pulse rate.
B pulse width.
C pulse recurrence frequency.
D pulse recurrence period.
ANSWER pulse recurrence period.
367 QUESTION The main advantage of a continuous wave radar over a pulsed radar is:
A more complex equipment but better resolution and accuracy.
B removes the minimum range restriction.
C smaller more compact equipment.
D permits measurement of Doppler in addition to improved range and bearing.
ANSWER removes the minimum range restriction.

368 QUESTION The maximum range of primary radar depends on:

A pulse recurrence frequency.
B wave length.
C frequency.
D pulse length.
ANSWER pulse recurrence frequency.

369 QUESTION The maximum theoretical range of a radar whose PRF is 750 PPS is:
A 218 nm.
B 132 nm.
C 200 nm.
D 108 nm.
ANSWER 108 nm.

The minimum range of a primary radar, using the pulse technique, is determined by the
370 QUESTION
(i); the maximum unambiguous range by the (ii)
A (i) transmission frequency (ii) pulse recurrence frequency.
B (i) transmission frequency (ii) transmitter power output.
C (i) pulse length (ii) length of the time base.
D (i) pulse length (ii) pulse recurrence frequency.
ANSWER (i) pulse length (ii) pulse recurrence frequency.

371 QUESTION The minimum range of a radar with a pulse width of 1.5 microseconds is:
A 225 metres.
B 450 metres.
C 225 ft.
D 450 ft.
ANSWER 225 metres.

372 QUESTION The PRF of a radar is 1500 Hz, what is the PRI:
A 6.66 microseconds.
B 66.66 microseconds.
C 666.66 microseconds.
D 6666.66 microseconds.
ANSWER 666.66 microseconds.

The prime factor in determining the maximum unambiguous range of a primary radar is
373 QUESTION
the:
A pulse recurrence rate.
B power output.
C size of parabolic receiver aerial.
D height of the transmitter above the ground.
ANSWER pulse recurrence rate.
 The pulse repetition frequency of a signal having a pulse interval (pulse recurrence
374 QUESTION
period) of 5 microseconds is:
A 6 MHz
B 200 KHz
C 60 MHz
D 2000 KHz
ANSWER 200 KHz

375 QUESTION The receiver in a primary radar:

A must be very sensitive in order to detect weak signals.
B must be protected from the influence of the high-power transmitter pulse.
C must have a short recovery time in order to receive echoes from near-by aircraft.
D All 3 answers are correct.
ANSWER All 3 answers are correct.

376 QUESTION The resolution of a radar display, disregarding other variables, will be best with:
A narrow beamwidth and narrow pulsewidth.
B narrow beamwidth and wide pulsewidth.
C wide beamwidth and narrow pulsewidth.
D wide beamwidth and wide pulsewidth.
ANSWER narrow beamwidth and narrow pulsewidth.

377 QUESTION The speed of a radio wave in nm/sec is:

A 300000
B 161987
C 163842
D 186000
ANSWER 161987

378 QUESTION To increase the maximum theoretical range of a pulse radar one could increase:
A the PRI and the power.
B the PRF or the PRI.
C the PW and the power.
D the power.
ANSWER the PRI and the power.

379 QUESTION To increase the maximum theoretical range of a pulse radar system:
A reduce the PRF and increase the power.
B increase the PRF and reduce the power.
C reduce the PRF and decrease the power.
D maintain the PRF and increase the power.
ANSWER reduce the PRF and increase the power.

380 QUESTION Total image distortion on a radar scope is a combination of

A range, freq and pulse width
B range and pulse length
C beam width, pulse length and spot size
D wave length, beam width and spot size
ANSWER beam width, pulse length and spot size
381 QUESTION Using a primary radar:
A target size will influence the maximum range.
B detection of targets in the area close to the radar will be difficult.
C precipitation may reduce the useful range.
D All 3 answers are correct.
ANSWER All 3 answers are correct.

382 QUESTION Using primary radar, super refraction may play a role, because:
A super refraction may cause the direct wave range to be considerably increased.
B other radar signals may be received due to super refraction of signals.
C super refraction may cause shadows, in which no target will be observed.
D super refraction will cause a sort of night effect also on radar frequencies.
ANSWER super refraction may cause the direct wave range to be considerably increased.

Which one of the following statements is correct concerning the use in primary radar of
383 QUESTION
continuous wave transmissions as compared with pulse transmissions?
A A smaller common transmitter and receiver aerial can be used.
B It eliminates the minimum range limitation.
C It is less effective in short range radars but more effective in long range radars.
The equipment required is more complex in continuous wave radar but this is offset by
D
greater reliability and accuracy.
ANSWER It eliminates the minimum range limitation.

384 QUESTION With regards to radio waves, which statement is true?

A They are reflected by metallic objects with a size compatible to the wavelength.
B The longer the wavelength the greater the surface attenuation.
C They travel at 186,000 nm a second in vacuum.
D High frequencies need large aerials.
ANSWER They are reflected by metallic objects with a size compatible to the wavelength.

385 QUESTION In a monopulse radar

A the sum pattern is used for transmission
B the difference pattern is used for transmission
C the sum and difference pattern is used for reception
D both a and c
ANSWER both a and c

386 QUESTION Staggered PRF technique is used for

A Avoidance of spurious signals
B Prevention of self triggering
C Recognition of self triggering
D Overcoming Blind Speeds
ANSWER Overcoming Blind Speeds

387 QUESTION The output of a PSD of an MTI is

A phase difference between two returns
B amplitude difference between two returns
C phase difference expressed as amplitude
D none of the above
ANSWER phase difference expressed as amplitude
388 QUESTION As compared to LED, a CRT display is
A Less sensitive to EM interference
B Less susceptible to catastrophic failure
C Both (a) & (b)
D None of the above
ANSWER None of the above

389 QUESTION Binary code 100110 in Decimal value is

A 32
B 38
C 48
D 64
ANSWER 38

390 QUESTION Number 5 in decimal system can be represented by ________ in Binary system.
A 100
B 101
C 111
D 110
ANSWER 101

391 QUESTION Number 56 is represented in Binary code as _________________.

A 101100
B 111000
C 100111
D 110011
ANSWER 111000

392 QUESTION Randan Access Memory (RAM)

A this memory is non volatile i.e. any info stored in memory is not lost.
B Information can only be read from RAM transferred from some where else.
It is called `Scratch - Pad` memory as info can be read and written on it. But info is lost
C
when switched off.
D Information can be erased and chip programmed anew to record different information.
It is called `Scratch - Pad` memory as info can be read and written on it. But info is lost
ANSWER
when switched off.

What are, in order of highest priority followed by lowest, the two levels of message
393 QUESTION
produced by the CDU of the B737-400 Electronic Flight Instrument System?
A Warning and Advisory.
B Caution and Advisory.
C Urgent and Routine.
D Warning and Caution.
ANSWER Warning and Advisory.

A DME ground transponder having a transmission frequency of 962 MHz would have a
394 QUESTION
reception frequency of:
A 1030 MHz.
B 902 MHz.
C 1025 MHz.
D 962 MHz.
 ANSWER 1025 MHz.

395 QUESTION If a DME in track mode experiences a reduction in signal strength it would switch over to:

A standby mode.
B search mode.
C memory mode.
D signal controlled search.
ANSWER memory mode.

A DME is located at MSL. An aircraft passing vertically above the station at flight level FL
396 QUESTION
360 will obtain a DME range of approximately:
A 11 NM.
B 7 NM.
C 6 NM.
D 8 NM.
ANSWER 6 NM.

A DME receiver is able to distinguish between replies to its own interrogations and
397 QUESTION
replies to other aircraft because:

A DME is a secondary radar and each aircraft transmits and receives on a different frequency.

DME transponders reply to interrogations with twin pulses and the airborne equipment
B
ejects all other pulses.
C Each aircraft transmits pulses at a random rate and will only accept synchronised replies.
D When DME is in the search mode it will only accept pulses giving the correct range.
ANSWER Each aircraft transmits pulses at a random rate and will only accept synchronised replies.

A DME station is located 1.000 feet above MSL. An aircraft flying at FL 370, 15 NM away
398 QUESTION
from the DME station, will have a DME reading of:
A 17 NM
B 16 NM
C 14 NM
D 15 NM
ANSWER 16 NM

399 QUESTION A DME that has difficulty obtaining a lock-on

A alternates search mode with periods of memory mode lasting 10 seconds.
B stays in search mode without a reduction in PRF.
C stays in search mode but reduces PRF to max. 60 PPS after 100 seconds.
stays in search mode but reduces PRF to max. 60 PPS after 15000 pulse pairs have been
D
transmitted.
stays in search mode but reduces PRF to max. 60 PPS after 15000 pulse pairs have been
ANSWER
transmitted.

A DME transponder becomes saturated if interrogated by a excessive number of aircraft.

400 QUESTION
It will reply to the nearest:
A 50 aircraft.
B 150 aircraft.
C 200 aircraft.
D 100 aircraft.
 ANSWER 100 aircraft.

A VOR and DME are co-located. You want to identify the DME by listening to the callsign.
402 QUESTION
Having heard the same callsign 4 times in 30 seconds the:
A VOR and DME callsigns were the same and broadcast with the same pitch.
DME callsign was not transmitted, the distance information is sufficient proof of correct
B
operation.
C DME callsign is the one with the lower pitch that was broadcast several times.
D DME callsign is the one with the higher pitch that was broadcast only once.
ANSWER DME callsign is the one with the higher pitch that was broadcast only once.

A VOR/DME share the same first two letters of their respective identifiers; the last
403 QUESTION
identifying letter of the DME is a Z. This means that:
A they are co-located.
B they are more than 600m apart but serve the same location.
C they are widely separated and do not serve the same location.
D they are a maximum distance of 30m apart.
ANSWER they are more than 600m apart but serve the same location.

Airborne DME equipment is able to discriminate between pulses intended for itself and
404 QUESTION
pulses intended for other aircraft because:
A aircraft transmit and receive on different frequencies.
B aircraft will only accept unique twin pulses.
C aircraft reject pulses not synchronised with its own random pulse recurrence rate.
D each aircraft has its own frequency allocation.
ANSWER aircraft reject pulses not synchronised with its own random pulse recurrence rate.

405 QUESTION An aircraft at FL 410 has a DME range of 14 nm. The ground range from the DME is:
A 11.18 nm
B 12.27 nm
C 12 96 nm
D 10.33 nm
ANSWER 12.27 nm

406 QUESTION An aircraft at FL 450 is 15 nm from a DME. The ground distance is:
A 13.96 nm.
B 13.04 nm
C 15.02 nm.
D 15.04 nm.
ANSWER 13.04 nm

An aircraft at FL360 is 10 nm plan range from a DME. The DME reading in the aircraft will
407 QUESTION
be:
A 8 nm.
B 11.6 nm.
C 10 nm.
D 13.6 nm.
ANSWER 11.6 nm.
 An aircraft DME interrogator transmits pairs of pulses for limited periods at switch on.
408 QUESTION
The transmission pattern is:
A 150 pps for 100 seconds, thereafter 60 pps until lock on, then 27 pps.
B 15000 pps for 100 seconds, thereafter 60 pps until lock on, then 27 pps.
C 27000 pps for 100 seconds, thereafter 60 pps until lock on, then 30 pps.
D 270 pps for 100 seconds, thereafter 150 pps until lock on, then 25-30 pps.
ANSWER 150 pps for 100 seconds, thereafter 60 pps until lock on, then 27 pps.

An aircraft flying at flight level 250 wishes to interrogate a DME beacon situated 400 ft
409 QUESTION
above mean sea level. What is the maximum range likely to be achieved?
A 210 nm.
B 198 nm.
C 175 nm.
D 222 nm.
ANSWER 222 nm.

An aircraft receives a reply pulse from a DME 1200 micro s after transmission of the
410 QUESTION interrogation pulse. The DME has a fixed delay of 50 micro s. The range of the aircraft
from the DME station is:
A 45 nm
B 63 nm
C 75 nm
D 93 nm
ANSWER 93 nm

An aircraft will not accept replies from its own DME interrogation transmissions that are
411 QUESTION
reflected from the ground because the:
A pulses are transmitted in pairs.
B random PRF which is unique to each transmitter.
C the aircraft's registration is embedded onto the signal.
D interrogation and reply frequencies are 63 MHz apart.
ANSWER interrogation and reply frequencies are 63 MHz apart.

An aircraft's DME receiver will accept replies to its own interrogations from a DME
412 QUESTION
transponder and ignore replies to interrogations from other aircraft because the:
A interrogation and reply frequencies are 63 MHz apart.
B random PRF which is unique to each transmitter.
C interrogation and reply frequencies are 126 MHz apart.
D pulses are transmitted in pairs.
ANSWER random PRF which is unique to each transmitter.

413 QUESTION An X channel DME transponder will not reply to a Y channel interrogation, because:
A the interrogation and reply frequencies are 126 MHz apart.
B the Y channel accepts three pulse interrogations only.
C the x channel accepts three pulse interrogations only,
D the spacing between the X and Y interrogation pulses is different.
ANSWER the interrogation and reply frequencies are 126 MHz apart.

414 QUESTION Consider the following statements on slant/plan range when using DME:

A The difference between the two is automatically compensated for in all DME equipment.
 The difference between the two distances will be negligible for en-route navigation when
B the indicated range in Nm is substantially higher than the height of the aircraft (considered
in Nm)
C The plan range is always slightly longer than the slant range.
The operator in the aircraft should always make a mental increase to the indicated range,
D
in order to compensate for the difference between horizontal and slant distance.
The difference between the two distances will be negligible for en-route navigation when
ANSWER the indicated range in Nm is substantially higher than the height of the aircraft
(considered in Nm)

415 QUESTION Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) operates in the:

A UHF band and is a primary radar system.
B VHF band and uses the principle of phase comparison.
C UHF band and is a secondary radar system.
D SHF band and uses frequency modulation techniques.
ANSWER UHF band and is a secondary radar system.

Distance Measuring Equipment is an example of ____________ radar operating on a

416 QUESTION
frequency of _____________ to ____________________ in the ________________ band.
A primary; 8800 MHz - 9500 MHz; SHF
B secondary; 2300 MHz- 2400 MHz ; ; UHF
C secondary; 962 MHz - 1213 MHz ; ; UHF
D primary; 9375MHz- 10000 MHZ ; SHF
ANSWER secondary; 962 MHz - 1213 MHz ; ; UHF

417 QUESTION DME and VOR are frequency paired because:

A the same receiver can be used for both aids.
B the VOR transmitter is easily converted to the required DME frequency.
C cockpit workload is reduced.
D both ground transmitter aerials can be placed on the same site if required.
ANSWER cockpit workload is reduced.

DME is ________ radar, operating in the _________ band , transmitting ________ from
418 QUESTION
an airborne interrogator
A Secondary radar, SHF, pulses spaced at 8, 17 or 21 μ seconds depending on the mode
B Primary radar, VHF, pairs of pulses
C Secondary radar, UHF, pulses spaced at 8, 17 or 21 μ seconds depending on the mode
D Secondary radar, SHF, pairs of pulses
ANSWER Secondary radar, UHF, pulses spaced at 8, 17 or 21 μ seconds depending on the mode

419 QUESTION DME measures _____________________ & indicates_____________________

A Horizontal Range , Slant Range
B Slant Range, Slant Range
C Vertical Range, Slant Range
D None of the above
ANSWER Slant Range, Slant Range

DME operates on _____________ frequency band and uses _______________

420 QUESTION
propagation:
A VHF; space wave
B VHF; sky wave
 C UHF; space wave
D UHF; sky wave
ANSWER UHF; space wave

421 QUESTION DME uses random PRF technique for:-

A Better reception
B Differentiating between Tx and pulse
C Avoiding self triggering
D Recogniziing its own reply
ANSWER Recogniziing its own reply

422 QUESTION DME uses:

A primary radar for interrogation & secondary radar for replies
B secondary radar.
C primary radar from the ground and secondary radar from the aircraft.
D primary radar from the aircraft and secondary radar from the ground.
ANSWER secondary radar.

During a flight at FL 210, a pilot does not receive any DME distance indication from a DME
423 QUESTION
station located approximately 220 NM away. The reason for this is that the:
A aeroplane is below the line of sight altitude.
B aeroplane is circling around the station.
C altitude is too high.
D range of a DME system is always less than 200 NM.
ANSWER aeroplane is below the line of sight altitude.

For a conventional DME facility Beacon Saturation will occur whenever the number of
424 QUESTION
simultaneous interrogations exceeds:
A 80
B 100
C 200
D 60
ANSWER 100

For a VOR and a DME beacon to be said to be associated.The aerial separation must not
425 QUESTION exceed ___________ in a terminal area and __________________ outside a terminal
area.
A 100 m; 2000 m
B 50 feet; 200 feet
C 30m; 600m
D 50 m; 200 m.
ANSWER 30m; 600m

426 QUESTION Given height of aircraft 32.000 feet DME indicated range 16 nm. The actual range is:
A 22.8 nm
B 16.58 nm
C 15.1 nm
D 6.58 nm
ANSWER 15.1 nm

427 QUESTION Groundspeed measurement using DME equipment is most accurate flying:
 A from the station at long range.
B past the station at long range.
C towards the station at short range.
D past the station at short range.
ANSWER from the station at long range.

428 QUESTION How many aircraft can a DME respond to simultaneously:

A 50
B 100
C 150
D 200
ANSWER 100

ICAO specifications are that range errors indicated by Distance Measuring Equipment
429 QUESTION
(DME) should not exceed:
A + or - 0.5 NM or 3% of the. distance measured whichever is the greater.
B + or - 1.2 5 NM plus 0.25% of the distance measured.
C + or - 0.25 NM plus 3% of the distance measured up to a maximum of 5 NM.
D + or - 0.25 NM plus 1.25% of the distance measured.
ANSWER + or - 0.5 NM or 3% of the. distance measured whichever is the greater.

If a VOR station and a DME station, having different locations, are selected to provide a
430 QUESTION
fix:
A two different IDs will have to be checked.
B two positions, being ambiguous, will be presented.
C two sets, with separate frequency control, are required in the aircraft.
D all 3 answers above are correct.
ANSWER all 3 answers above are correct.

431 QUESTION If an ident signal is received once in 30 seconds on a frequency paired VOR/DME, then:
A the VOR only is operational.
B the DME only is operational.
C the TACAN signal is degraded.
D both facilities are operational.
ANSWER the DME only is operational.

432 QUESTION In a DME, the ground transponder responds at a frequency:

A the same as the interrogation signal.
B 63 MHz greater than interrogation frequency.
C 63 MHz lower than interrogation frequency.
D 63 MHz different from interrogation frequency, either above or below.
ANSWER 63 MHz different from interrogation frequency, either above or below.

433 QUESTION In DME the ground beacon uses different freq from that used by the aircraft
A to prevent self triggering
B to measure distance very accurately when close to the station
C as it operates on VHF
D none of the above
ANSWER to prevent self triggering

434 QUESTION In the DME system:

 A The aircraft equipment is called a transponder.
B The receive and the transmit frequency is always separated by 63 MHz.
C The operation is similar to a primary radar system.
The channels are referred to as "X" channels paired with VORs and "Y" channels paired with
D
ILS localizers.
ANSWER The receive and the transmit frequency is always separated by 63 MHz.

In which situation will speed indications on an airborne Distance Measuring Equipment

435 QUESTION
(DME) most closely represent the groundspeed of an aircraft flying at FL400?
A When passing abeam the station and within 5 NM of it.
B When tracking directly towards the station at a range of 100 NM or more.
C When overhead the station, with no change of heading at transit.
D When tracking directly away from the station at a range of 10 NM.
ANSWER When tracking directly towards the station at a range of 100 NM or more.

436 QUESTION Of what use, if any, is a military TACAN station to civil aviation?
A It can provide a DME distance and magnetic bearing.
B It is of no use to civil aviation.
C It can provide DME distance.
D It can provide a magnetic bearing.
ANSWER It can provide DME distance.

437 QUESTION On a DME with digital presentation, failure indication is given by

A the DISTANCE TO GO returning to 0
B an OFF flag
C the DISTANCE TO GO oscillating at figures in excess of 200 nm
D a drop down bar falling across the face of the figures
ANSWER a drop down bar falling across the face of the figures

438 QUESTION On a DME, display counters rotating throughout their range indicates:
A ground equipment failure.
B airborne equipment failure.
C the airborne receiver is conducting a range search.
D the airborne equipment is conducting a frequency search.
ANSWER the airborne receiver is conducting a range search.

439 QUESTION Referring to DME, during the search pattern before lock-on.
A the airborne receiver checks 150 pulse pairs per second.
B the airborne transmitter transmits 150 pulse pairs per second.
the ground receiver maintains the ground transmitter pulse pair transmission rate at no
C
more than 150 per second.
the aircraft transmits 24 pulse pairs per second and the receiver checks a maximum of 150
D
pulse pairs per second.
ANSWER the airborne transmitter transmits 150 pulse pairs per second.

440 QUESTION System, or beacon, saturation of the DME system:

Occurs when the aircraft DME set has been in operation for an extended period of time,
A
without being put into the STANDBY mode.

B Occurs when many aircraft, being at a long distance from the DME, are demanding a reply.
 May occur when more than 100 aircraft are demanding replies from a single ground
C
station.
D All 3 answers are correct.
May occur when more than 100 aircraft are demanding replies from a single ground
ANSWER
station.

441 QUESTION The accuracy associated with DME is:

A + or - 3% of range, or 0.5 nm, whichever is greater.
B + or - 1.25% of range.
C + or - 3% of range.
D + or - 0.2 nm.
ANSWER + or - 3% of range, or 0.5 nm, whichever is greater.

442 QUESTION The accuracy of DME at 100 nm slant range is within:

A 1 nm
B 2 nm
C 3 nm
D 4 nm
ANSWER 3 nm

443 QUESTION The airborne DME equipment will transmit pulse pairs at a comparatively high PRF:
A At all times, except when the panel control LO is operated.
B When the distance presented is above 50 NM.
C Whenever a stable signal is being received from the selected ground station.
D When first switched on and after a channel selection.
ANSWER When first switched on and after a channel selection.

The aircraft DME receiver cannot lock on to interrogation signals reflected from the
444 QUESTION
ground because:
A DME pulse recurrence rates are varied.
B aircraft transmitter and DME ground station are transmitting on different frequencies.
C reflections are subject to Doppler frequency shift.
D DME transmits twin pulses.
ANSWER aircraft transmitter and DME ground station are transmitting on different frequencies.

445 QUESTION The difference between plan range and slant range
A is approximately ± 0.5 nm.
B decreases with increase of range.
C increases with increase of altitude.
D is approximately ± 2 nm.
ANSWER decreases with increase of range.

446 QUESTION The distance displayed by the DME indicator is:

A slant range in Nm.
B plan range in Nm.
C slant range in kilometres.
D plan range in kilometres.
ANSWER slant range in Nm.

447 QUESTION The DME (Distance Measuring Equipment) interrogates within the following frequencies:
 A 329 to 335 MHz
B 962 to 1213 kHz
C 962 to 1213 MHz
D 1025 to 1150 MHz
ANSWER 1025 to 1150 MHz

448 QUESTION The DME automatic standby will activate the DME interrogator when:
A random squitter pulses from the transponder are received.
B a VOR frequency that has a frequency paired DME is selected.
C there are too many aircraft in the area for it to service.
D the DME ident signal is received.
ANSWER a VOR frequency that has a frequency paired DME is selected.

449 QUESTION The DME frequency band is:

A UHF
B VHF
C HF
D FM
ANSWER UHF

450 QUESTION The DME indication when an aircraft is overhead a VOR/DME station at 6000 ft:
A 0.5 nm
B 1 nm
C 1.3 nm
D 0.2 nm
ANSWER 1 nm

The frequency difference between the signal transmitted by the DME in an aircraft and
451 QUESTION the reply signal which is transmitted by the ground station is , and this
difference ensures that the aircraft receiver does not lock-on to
A 63 GHz; ground reflected signals.
B 63 MHz; interrogation pulses from other aircraft.
C 63 MHz; ground reflected signals of its own interrogations.
D 6.3 MHz; interrogation pulses from other aircraft.
ANSWER 63 MHz; ground reflected signals of its own interrogations.

The greatest error between ground distance to the DME station(plan range) and the
452 QUESTION
indicated distance(slant range) is:
A high altitudes at maximum range.
B high altitudes close to the DME station.
C low altitudes at maximum range.
D low altitudes close to the DME station.
ANSWER high altitudes close to the DME station.

The maximum theoretical range of a DME at 460 ft amsl interrogated by an aircraft at FL

453 QUESTION
260 is:
A 228 nm.
B 183 nm.
C 190 nm.
D 137 nm.
ANSWER 228 nm.
 The most accurate measurement of speed by DME for an aircraft at 30.000 ft will be
454 QUESTION
when the aircraft is:
A tracking towards the beacon at 10 nm.
B overhead the beacon.
C tracking away from the beacon at 100 nm.
D passing abeam the beacon at 50 nm.
ANSWER tracking away from the beacon at 100 nm.

455 QUESTION The OFF flag on aircraft DME mileage displays indicate:
A the DME airborne equipment has failed.
B the DME is off.
C DME is tuned to the wrong frequency.
D any of the above.
ANSWER any of the above.

456 QUESTION The range indicated by DME is considered to be accurate to within:

A 3% of range.
B 1.25 % of range.
C 0.5 nm.
D 0.2 nm.
ANSWER 3% of range.

The reason for using different frequencies for transmitting and receiving in the DME
457 QUESTION
system:
A Is to avoid the reception in the aircraft of signals referring to other aircraft.
B Is to prevent seLF-triggering of the receiving equipment by the transmitter
C Is to prevent overload of the system.
D Is to permit more channels in the system.
ANSWER Is to prevent seLF-triggering of the receiving equipment by the transmitter

The time interval between the transmission of a given DME interrogation pulse and the
458 QUESTION reception of the appropriate response pulse at the aircraft is 2 milli seconds. The slant
range is:
A 323 km
B 73 km
C 92 km
D 162 km
ANSWER 162 km

The time taken for the transmission of an interrogation pulse by a Distance Measuring
459 QUESTION Equipment (DME) to travel to the ground transponder and return to the airborne receiver
is 2050 micro-seconds. The fixed delay at the ground transponder is 50 micro-seco

A 165 NM.
B 186 NM.
C 296 NM.
D 330 NM.
ANSWER 165 NM.
 The transmission frequency of a DME beacon is 63 MHz removed from the aircraft
460 QUESTION
interrogator frequency to prevent:
A interference from other radars.
the airborne receiver locking on to primary returns from its own interrogation
B
transmissions.
C static interference.
D receiver accepting replies intended for other interrogators.
the airborne receiver locking on to primary returns from its own interrogation
ANSWER
transmissions.

461 QUESTION What is the approved frequency band assigned to DME?

A 960-1215 MHz which is VHF
B 960-1213 MHz which is UHF
C 960-1215 MHz which is SHF
D 960-1215 MHz which is EHF
ANSWER 960-1213 MHz which is UHF

What is the maximum distance apart, in meters, that an associated en-route VOR/DME
462 QUESTION
can be sited?
A 600 m.
B 300 m.
C 30 m.
D 2000 m.
ANSWER 600 m.

What is the maximum distance between VOR and DME/TACAN ground installations if
463 QUESTION
they are to have the same morse code identifier?
A 60 m
B 2000 m
C 600 m
D 300 m
ANSWER 600 m

What is the slant range error for an aircraft flying at 9000 feet absolute altitude above a
464 QUESTION
DME located at elevation 2000 ft, when the slant range is 12 NM?
A 0,31 NM.
B 1,42 NM.
C 0,57 NM.
D 0,09 NM.
ANSWER 0,09 NM.

When a DME is used instead of marker beacons to provide range to the threshold on an
465 QUESTION ILS approach and where the DME frequency is paired with the ILS, the DME indications
should not be used at altitudes greater than:
A 3.000 ft.
B 6.000 ft.
C 25.000 ft
D 10.000 ft
ANSWER 6.000 ft.
 When a VOR is selected, the morse identifier codes PSV. The DME morse identifier codes
466 QUESTION
PSZ. This means that:
A the two aids are associated and the aerials are less than 2.000 ft apart.
B the two aids are co-located and can be used for an airfield approach.
C the two transmitter aerials do not meet the co-location criteria.
D the two aerials are not associated with each other but do meet the co-location criteria.
ANSWER the two aids are associated and the aerials are less than 2.000 ft apart.

When identifying a co-located VOR/DME the following signals are heard in the Morse
467 QUESTION
code every 30 seconds?
A 4 identifications in the same tone.
B 4 identifications with the DME at a higher tone.
C 4 identifications with the DME at a lower tone.
no DME identification, but if the VOR identification is present and a range is indicated then
D
this shows that both are serviceable.
ANSWER 4 identifications with the DME at a higher tone.

468 QUESTION When VOR and DME stations are associated?

A Their IDs will not be identical.
B Their aerials will be mounted on top of each other.
Their signals must be tuned in by VOR and DME sets in the aircraft having common
C
frequency control.
They may be separated by as much as 600 meters if they are meant for en-route
D
navigation.
They may be separated by as much as 600 meters if they are meant for en-route
ANSWER
navigation.

469 QUESTION A Doppler shift will occur:

A If a transmitter is moving during transmission to a fixed position receiver.

B When the distance between a transmitter and a receiver is changing during a transmission.

C If a receiver is moving during reception of transmissions from a fixed position transmitter.

D All 3 answers are correct.

ANSWER All 3 answers are correct.

470 QUESTION A large broad side angle in case of Doppler beams results in
A greater overlap between front and back beams
B accurate measurement of G/S
C accurate measurement of drift
D none of the above
ANSWER accurate measurement of drift

471 QUESTION After a long period in memory, Doppler:

A falls back to DR mode.
B requires updating.
C should be switched to manual.
D will have wandered more over land than over sea.
ANSWER requires updating.
 An apparent increase in the transmitted frequency which is proportional to the
472 QUESTION
transmitter velocity will occur when:
A the transmitter moves away from the receiver.
B the transmitter moves towards the receiver.
C the receiver moves towards the transmitter.
D both transmitter and receiver move towards each other.
ANSWER the transmitter moves towards the receiver.

473 QUESTION Doppler shifts depend upon

A relative speed
B frequency used
C angle of dep
D all the choices are correct
ANSWER all the choices are correct

474 QUESTION Doppler will unlock

A over calm sea
B in severe turbulence
C in the vicinity of CB
D none of the above
ANSWER over calm sea

Due to Doppler effect an apparent decrease in the transmitted frequency, which is

475 QUESTION
proportional to the transmitters velocity, will occur when:
A the transmitter and receiver move towards each other.
B the transmitter moves away from the receiver.
C the transmitter moves toward the receiver.
D both transmitter and receiver move away from each other.
ANSWER the transmitter moves away from the receiver.

476 QUESTION Four beams in doppler are used in preference to single beam to minimise
A turning error.
B pitching error
C height error
D none of the above
ANSWER pitching error

477 QUESTION Frequency measured by the frequency tracker in a Doppler system is that frequency
A on either side of which the frequency spread is equal
B on either side of which voltage induced is equal
C on either side of which energy content is equal
D on either side of which the voltage increases gradually
ANSWER on either side of which energy content is equal

478 QUESTION Height hole effect in a pulse Doppler radar system occurs
when time interval between pulses equals the time taken by a signal to reach the ground
A
and return
B when PRF is a multiple of Doppler shift
C when Doppler shift is too low to be measured
when the lower and upper beat freq are such that their addition results in inaccurate
D
measurement of G/S, the error being proportional to the height of the ac
 when time interval between pulses equals the time taken by a signal to reach the ground
ANSWER
and return

If a receiver is moving away from a stationary object at a speed of 360 mtrs/sec; the
479 QUESTION
frequency shift will be:
A 12 KHz
B 12 Hz
C 120 KHz
D 12 MHz
ANSWER 12 KHz

480 QUESTION In day to day use the greatest cause of error in Doppler is:
A input error.
B sea movement error.
C weight error.
D pitch error.
ANSWER input error.

481 QUESTION In the normal applications, Doppler shift measured in aircraft equipment:
A will only be detectable when a ground station is within range.
will be doubled, because it is based on measuring the frequency of a reflected signal from
B
the ground.
will always indicate a speed higher than the actual ground speed of the aircraft, due to
C
depression of the beams.
D none of the above
will be doubled, because it is based on measuring the frequency of a reflected signal from
ANSWER
the ground.

482 QUESTION In using an airborne Doppler navigation system, the expected accuracy:
A will be higher for cross-track movements than for movement along track.
B will be improved with careful adjustment of the antenna tilt.
C is 0.1% in ground speed.
D will be high when flying over a calm sea.
ANSWER is 0.1% in ground speed.

483 QUESTION Sea bias error:

A is due to the movement of the sea and can be partially corrected by the land/sea switch.
B is due to the movement of the sea and is not affected by the land/sea switch.
C is due to a change in Doppler shift over water and is not affected by the land/sea switch.
is due to a change in Doppler shift over water and is partially corrected by the land/sea
D
switch.
is due to a change in Doppler shift over water and is partially corrected by the land/sea
ANSWER
switch.

484 QUESTION The 4-beam moving Janus array aligns with the aircraft centre line by:
A rotating the array towards the beams with the smallest Doppler shift.
rotating the array until matched pairs of beams receive the same difference in Doppler
B
shift.
C measuring the drift and rotating the array by the same amount.
D all of the above.
 rotating the array until matched pairs of beams receive the same difference in Doppler
ANSWER
shift.

485 QUESTION The Doppler equipment may go into memory mode when flying over
A mountainous region.
B flat land
C calm sea
D none of the above
ANSWER calm sea

486 QUESTION The Doppler Navigation System is based on:

A Doppler VOR (DVOR) Navigation System.
B radio waves refraction in the ionosphere.
C radar principles using frequency shift.
D phase comparison from ground station transmissions.
ANSWER radar principles using frequency shift.

487 QUESTION The doppler will be least effective when flying over
A mountainous region.
B flat land
C calm sea
D none of the above
ANSWER calm sea

488 QUESTION The error in the measurement of drift by doppler can be caused by:
A apparent wander

B misalignment of the lubber line of the compass from the fore and aft axis of the aircraft.

C misalignment of the aerial from the fore and aft axis.

D none of the above
ANSWER misalignment of the aerial from the fore and aft axis.

489 QUESTION The major source of cross-track error in a Doppler navigation system is:
A compass error.
B altitude error.
C latitude error.
D manoeuvring error.
ANSWER compass error.

490 QUESTION What frequencies are allocated to Doppler Navigation systems?

A 8.8 Hz and 13.3 Hz
B 8.8 KHz and 13.3 KHz
C 8.8 MHz and 13.3 MHz
D 8.8 GHz and 13.3 GHz
ANSWER 8.8 GHz and 13.3 GHz

Which of the following statements is correct when considering a Doppler navigation

491 QUESTION
system?
A aerial misalignment will produce an error to drift angle.
B sea bias can be reduced by using a gyro stabilised aerial array.
 sea movement error produces higher frequency, and thus ground speed as indicated will
C
be too low.
D all of the above
ANSWER aerial misalignment will produce an error to drift angle.

492 QUESTION A pseudo range in GNSS is in error because of:

A ionospheric delays.
B receiver clock error.
C satellite clock error.
D all of these
ANSWER receiver clock error.

A satellite navigation system requires information from ... satellites to give a three
493 QUESTION
dimensional fix without considering RAIM.
A 3
B 4
C 5
D 2
ANSWER 4

Almanac data stored in the receiver of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is
494 QUESTION
used for the:
A recognition of Selective Availability (SA).
B fast identification of received signals coming from visible satellites.
C assignment of received PRN-codes (Pseudo Random Noise) to the appropriate satellite.
D correction of receiver clock error.
ANSWER fast identification of received signals coming from visible satellites.

495 QUESTION An all in view satellite navigation receiver is one which:

A monitors all 24 satellites.
B tracks selected satellites.
C selects and tracks all (in view) satellites and selects the best four.
D tracks the closest satellites.
ANSWER selects and tracks all (in view) satellites and selects the best four.

496 QUESTION At what approximate height are the GPS satellites circling the earth?
A 20200 km
B 10900 km
C 36000 km
D 19500 km
ANSWER 20200 km

497 QUESTION Clock bias is the process of correcting the pseudo range for:
A receiver clock errors.
B satellite clock errors.
C receiver and satellite clock errors.
D UTC errors.
ANSWER receiver clock errors.

Concerning the GPS satellite navigation system, what is the meaning of the term Receiver
498 QUESTION
Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM)?
 It is a method whereby a receiver ensures the integrity of the Pseudo Random Noise (PRN)
A
code transmitted by the satellites.
It is the ability of the GPS satellites to check the integrity of the data transmitted by the
B
monitoring stations of the ground segment.
C It is a technique by which a receiver ensures the integrity of the navigation information.
It is a technique whereby the receivers of the world-wide distributed monitor stations
D
(ground segment) automatically determines the integrity of the navigation message.
ANSWER It is a technique by which a receiver ensures the integrity of the navigation information.

499 QUESTION Current minimum operational standards for the GPS system calls for:
A 3 satellites visible at least 7.5° above the horizon.
B 4 satellites visible above the horizon.
C 4 satellites visible at least 10° above the horizon.
D 5 satellites visible at least 7.5° above the horizon.
ANSWER 5 satellites visible at least 7.5° above the horizon.

500 QUESTION Differential GPS (DGPS):

A is used to differentiate between the signals from different satellites.
means to find the difference between a DR position produced by the navigation (between
B
the GPS position and the real position) computer and the GPS position.
is used to improve the accuracy of GPS signals within an area, by using data from a receiver
C placed in a known position as a correction to the data received in the aircraft from the
satellites.
D means to use the GPS receiver while in a known position, and register the difference.
is used to improve the accuracy of GPS signals within an area, by using data from a
ANSWER receiver placed in a known position as a correction to the data received in the aircraft
from the satellites.

501 QUESTION GPS receiver clock error is removed by:

A regular auto-synchronisation with the satellite clocks.
B adjusting the pseudo-ranges to determine the clock bias error
C synchronisation with the satellite clocks on initialisation.
D having an appropriate atomic time standard within the receiver.
ANSWER adjusting the pseudo-ranges to determine the clock bias error

How does a GPS satellite navigation system receiver recognise which of the received
502 QUESTION
signals belongs to which satellite?
A Each satellite transmits its signal on a separate frequency.
B The Doppler shift is unique to each satellite.
The receiver detects the direction from which the signals are received and compares this
C
information with the calculated positions of the satellites.
Each satellite transmits its signal, on common frequencies, with an individual Pseudo
D
Random Noise code.
Each satellite transmits its signal, on common frequencies, with an individual Pseudo
ANSWER
Random Noise code.

How does a receiver of the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system determine the
503 QUESTION
elevation and azimuth data of a satellite relative to the location of the antenna?
The data is determined by the satellite and transmitted together with the navigation
A
message.
 B It calculates it by using Almanac data transmitted by the satellites.
C The data is stored in the receiver together with the Pseudo Random Noise (PRN) code.
The data is based on the direction to the satellite determined at the location of the
D
antenna.
ANSWER It calculates it by using Almanac data transmitted by the satellites.

How does Selective Availability (SA), if at all, affect the navigation accuracy of the
504 QUESTION
NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system?
It increases because only signals from satellites in the most suitable geometric constellation
A
are selected by the receiver.
B It degrades position accuracy by manipulating satellite signals.
It has no influence because, by selecting of the most suitable signals, the computing
C
process in the receiver is quicker.
D It degrades accuracy by reducing the number of available satellites.
ANSWER It degrades position accuracy by manipulating satellite signals.

505 QUESTION How long does it take a GPS satellite to orbit the earth?
A 12 days.
B Approximately 24 hours (one sidereal day).
C Approximately 12 hours (1/2 of a sidereal day).
D 365 days because the satellites are located in a geostationary orbit.
ANSWER Approximately 12 hours (1/2 of a sidereal day).

506 QUESTION In a GPS

A L1 signal carries both P and C/A code
B L2 signal carries only C/A code
C L1 signal carries only P code
D none of the above
ANSWER L1 signal carries both P and C/A code

507 QUESTION In a Satellite-Assisted Navigation system (GNSS/GPS) a position line is obtained by:

A timing the period that is taken for a satellites transmission to reach the aircraft's receiver.

the aircrafts receiver measuring the phase angle of the signal received from a satellite in a
B
known position.
timing the period that is taken for a transmission from the aircrafts transmitter/receiver to
C
reach and return from a satellite in a known position.
the aircrafts receiver measuring the time difference between signals received from a
D
minimum number of satellites.
timing the period that is taken for a satellites transmission to reach the aircraft's
ANSWER
receiver.

508 QUESTION In DGPS:-

A An on board receiver coupled to INS/Doppler calculates correction to position obtained
B All satellites directly send correction signals to the receivers
C The ground monitors originate correction values to raw GPS signals
D All of the above
ANSWER The ground monitors originate correction values to raw GPS signals

509 QUESTION In GPS the PRN codes are used to:

A reduce ionospheric and tropospheric errors.
 B determine satellite range.
C eliminate satellite clock and ephemeris errors.
D remove receiver clock error.
ANSWER determine satellite range.

510 QUESTION In GPS, the satellites operate on two frequencies known as:
A L1 and L2, L1 carries the P codes, L2 carries the C/A code.
B L1 and L2, L1 carries the C/A code, L2 carries the P code.
C L1 and L2, L1 carries the P code, L2 carries the C/A and P codes.
D L1 and L2, L1 carries the C/A and P codes, L2 carries just the P code.
ANSWER L1 and L2, L1 carries the C/A and P codes, L2 carries just the P code.

In relation to the GPS satellite navigation system, what is involved in the differential
511 QUESTION
technique (D- GPS)?
Receivers from various manufacturers are operated in parallel to reduce the
A
characteristically receiver noise error.
The difference between signals transmitted on the L1 and L2 frequencies are processed by
B
the receiver to determine an error correction.
Fixed ground stations compute position errors and transmit correction data to a suitable
C
receiver on the aircraft.
Signals from satellites are received by 2 different antennas which are located a fixed
D distance apart. This enables a suitable receiver on the aircraft to recognise and correct for
multipath errors.
Fixed ground stations compute position errors and transmit correction data to a suitable
ANSWER
receiver on the aircraft.

In relation to the satellite navigation system GPS, which of the following statements
512 QUESTION
correctly describes the term Pseudo Random Noise (PRN) signal?
A PRN describes the continuous electro-magnetic background noise that exists in space.
B PRN is the atmospheric jamming that affects the signals transmitted by the satellites.
PRN is a code used for the identification of the satellites and the measurement of the time
C
taken by the signal to reach the receiver.
PRN occurs in the receiver. It is caused by the signal from one satellite being received from
D
different directions (multipath effect).
PRN is a code used for the identification of the satellites and the measurement of the
ANSWER
time taken by the signal to reach the receiver.

In relation to the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS, the term inclination denotes
513 QUESTION
the angle between the:
A orbital plane and the equatorial plane.
B horizontal plane at the location of the receiver and the direct line to a satellite.
C orbital plane and the earths axis.
D horizontal plane at the location of the receiver and the orbital plane of a satellite.
ANSWER orbital plane and the equatorial plane.

514 QUESTION In respect of the use of GPS, Dilution of Precision (DOP) is a loss of accuracy due to:
A relative position of the visible satellites.
B ionospheric effects.
C multi-path signals from some satellites.
D all the choices are correct.
ANSWER all the choices are correct.
515 QUESTION In the GPS satellite navigation system, receiver clock error:
A is the biggest part of the total error; it cannot be corrected
B is corrected by using signals from four satellites
C can be minimised by synchronisation of the receiver clock with the satellite clocks

D is negligible small because of the great accuracy the atomic clocks installed in the satellites

ANSWER is corrected by using signals from four satellites

In the GPS satellite navigation system, Selective Availability (SA) is the artificial
516 QUESTION
degradation of the navigation accuracy by:
A shutting off selected satellites.
B dithering the satellite clock.
C using a less accurate atomic clock in a satellite for signal processing.
D offsetting satellite atomic clocks by a predetermined constant amount.
ANSWER dithering the satellite clock.

In which frequency band do Satellite-Assisted Navigation systems (GNSS/GPS) provide

517 QUESTION
position information that is available to civil aircraft?
A EHF
B SHF
C UHF
D VHF
ANSWER UHF

518 QUESTION Ionospheric error in GPS will generally be in the order of:
A 1.5 metres.
B 3 metres.
C 5 metres.
D 30 metres
ANSWER 5 metres.

519 QUESTION Of the types of GPS receivers available for aviation, which is the most advanced type?
A The multiplex receiver.
B The multiple satellite receiver.
C The single channel receiver.
D The continuous tracking receiver.
ANSWER The continuous tracking receiver.

520 QUESTION One of the frequencies used in the GPS is

A 1575.42 MHz in the L band
B 2227.5 MHz in the S band
C 4454.5 in the C band
D none of the above
ANSWER 1575.42 MHz in the L band

One of the tasks of the control segment of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS
521 QUESTION
is to:
manipulate the signals of selected satellites to reduce the precision of the position fix
A
(Selective Availability SA).
B manufacture and launch the satellites.
 C monitor the status of the satellites.
D grant and monitor user authorisations.
ANSWER monitor the status of the satellites.

522 QUESTION One of the tasks of the space segment of the satellite navigation system GPS is to:
transmit signals which can be used, by suitable receivers, to determine time, position and
A
velocity.
B transmit signals to suitable receivers and to monitor the orbital planes autonomously.
compute the user position from the received user messages and to transmit the computed
C
position back to the user segment.
D monitor the satellites orbits and status.
transmit signals which can be used, by suitable receivers, to determine time, position and
ANSWER
velocity.

523 QUESTION Position fixing by satellite is by means of

A simultaneous bearings from a number of satellites
B range and bearing from each known satellites position
C simultaneous ranges from a number of satellites
D pseudo ranges
ANSWER simultaneous ranges from a number of satellites

524 QUESTION Satellite geometry error is greatest when

A satellites are closest together
B satellites are spaced well apart
C satellites are nearest the horizon
D adequate no of satellites are not in view
ANSWER satellites are closest together

525 QUESTION The DGPS signal is

the time difference between the transmission the satellites coded signal and the time that
A
it is received at the aircraft
the time difference between the satellite and the aircraft GPS unit transmitting the same
B
code put on the signal
C the correction applied to the raw GPS position to obtain a more precise position
D different in format from the GPS satellite signal
ANSWER the correction applied to the raw GPS position to obtain a more precise position

526 QUESTION The distance between a GPS satellite and receiver is:
determined by the time taken for the signal to arrive from the satellite multiplied by the
A
speed of light.
B calculated from the Doppler shift of the known frequencies.
calculated, using the WGS-84 reference system, from the known positions of the satellite
C
and the receiver.
determined by the phase shift of the Pseudo Random Noise code multiplied by the speed
D
of light.
determined by the time taken for the signal to arrive from the satellite multiplied by the
ANSWER
speed of light.

The geometric shape of the reference system for the satellite navigation system
527 QUESTION
NAVSTAR/GPS, defined as WGS 84, is:
A an ellipsoid.
 B a mathematical model that describes the exact shape of the earth.
C a sphere.
D a geoid.
ANSWER an ellipsoid.

528 QUESTION The GPS constellation comprises:

A 24 satellites in 6 orbits.
B 24 satellites in 4 orbits.
C 24 satellites in 3 orbits.
D 24 satellites in 8 orbits.
ANSWER 24 satellites in 6 orbits.

529 QUESTION The GPS satellite navigation system suffers from the following errors:
A Interference from other satellites, clock bias, time lag.
B Ephemeris, clock bias, propagation.
C Ephemeris, interference from other satellites, propagation.
D Ephemeris, time lag, interference from other satellites.
ANSWER Ephemeris, clock bias, propagation.

530 QUESTION The GPS segments are:

A space, ground, air.
B space, control, ground.
C space, control, air.
D space, control, user.
ANSWER space, control, user.

The height value computed by the receiver of the satellite navigation system
531 QUESTION
NAVSTAR/GPS is the:
A height above Mean Sea Level (MSL).
B geometric height above ground.
C height above the WGS-84 ellipsoid.
D flight level.
ANSWER height above the WGS-84 ellipsoid.

532 QUESTION The influence of the ionosphere on the accuracy of the satellite navigation system GPS is:

A only significant if the satellites are located at a small elevation angle above the horizon.
B minimised by computing the average of all signals.
minimised by the receiver using a model of the atmosphere and comparing signals
C
transmitted by the satellites.
D negligible.
minimised by the receiver using a model of the atmosphere and comparing signals
ANSWER
transmitted by the satellites.

The main task of the user segment (receiver) of the satellite navigation system
533 QUESTION
NAVSTAR/GPS is to:
A monitor the orbital planes of the satellites.
transmit signals which, from the time taken, are used to determine the distance to the
B
satellite.

C to monitor the status of the satellites, determine their positions and to measure the time.
 select appropriate satellites automatically, to track the signals and to measure the time
D
taken by signals from the satellites to reach the receiver.
select appropriate satellites automatically, to track the signals and to measure the time
ANSWER
taken by signals from the satellites to reach the receiver.

534 QUESTION The navigation processor of a GPS determines the aeroplanes track and groundspeed by:

A Doppler frequency shift measurements.

B computing the distance between fixes over a 10 second period,
C computing the distance traveled from the last waypoint.
D Doppler shift measured from the last known waypoint.
ANSWER computing the distance between fixes over a 10 second period,

535 QUESTION The NAVSTAR/GPS space segment:

A provides X, Y & Z co-ordinates and monitoring of the accuracy of the satellite data.
B provides X, Y, Z & T co-ordinates and the constellation data.
C monitors the accuracy of the satellite data and provides system time.
D provides geographic position and UTC.
ANSWER provides X, Y, Z & T co-ordinates and the constellation data.

536 QUESTION The output of a GPS receiver carrier tracking loop is

A pseudo range from various satellites
B true velocity of the receiver
C true range from various satellites
D none of the above
ANSWER pseudo range from various satellites

537 QUESTION The purpose of a pseudolite is

A to transmit the DGPS correction to user
B to receive the GPS signal and calculate the DGPS correction
C to transmit the DGPS correction and augment the existing GPS signals
D none of the above
ANSWER to transmit the DGPS correction to user

The reason why the measured distance between a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation
538 QUESTION
system satellite and a receiver is called a Pseudo-Range is because the:
A measured distance is based on the Pseudo Random Noise code.
B calculated range includes receiver clock error or clock bias.
movement of satellite and receiver during the distance calculation is not taken into
C
account.
D calculated range is based on an idealised Keplerian orbit.
ANSWER calculated range includes receiver clock error or clock bias.

539 QUESTION The required 24 GPS operational satellites are located on:
6 orbital planes with 3 satellites in each plane plus 6 reserve satellites positioned in a
A
geostationary orbital plane.
B 3 orbital planes with 8 satellites in each plane.
C 4 orbital planes with 6 satellites in each plane.
D 6 orbital planes with 4 satellites in each plane.
ANSWER 6 orbital planes with 4 satellites in each plane.
540 QUESTION The satellites used in the GPS
A Are geostationary
B Do not cross the plane of the Equator
C All have different planes of orbit
D Orbit the Earth at an altitude of about 20 200 km
ANSWER Orbit the Earth at an altitude of about 20 200 km

541 QUESTION The visibility of GPS satellites is:

A dependent on the location of the user.
B greatest at the equator.
C greatest at the poles.
D the same at all points on and close to the surface of the earth.
ANSWER dependent on the location of the user.

To provide 3D fixing with RAIM and allowing for the loss of one satellite requires
542 QUESTION
___________________ satellites:
A 4
B 5
C 6
D 7
ANSWER 6

543 QUESTION Using GPS, the primary position information is in the form of:
A Spheres, with the satellites in the centre of the spheres.
B Spheres, with the airplane in the centre of the spheres.
C Bearing and distance from the satellite.
D 3-dimensional position, with the Earths centre as reference.
ANSWER Spheres, with the satellites in the centre of the spheres.

What are the effects, if any, of shadowing by parts of the aircraft (e.g. wing) on the
544 QUESTION
reception of signals from NAVSTAR/GPS satellites?
A It may prevent the reception of signals.
B It causes multi-path propagation.
The signals will be distorted, however the error can be corrected for using an algorithm and
C
information from unaffected signals.
D It has no influence because high frequency signals are unaffected.
ANSWER It may prevent the reception of signals.

What datum is used for the Minimum Descent Altitude (MDA) on a non-precision
545 QUESTION
approach when using the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system?
If using Differential-GPS (D-GPS) the altitude obtained from the D-GPS, otherwise
A
barometric altitude.
B Barometric altitude.
C Radar altitude.
D GPS altitude.
ANSWER Barometric altitude.

546 QUESTION What is RAIM and what is its function?

A Integrity monitoring of satellites by the receiver to ensure accurate navigation.
B GPS integrity monitoring of master and slave stations to ensure correct alignment.
C Resolution and intensity monitoring for increased accuracy.
 D Integrity monitoring of satellites by the master station to increase accuracy.
ANSWER Integrity monitoring of satellites by the receiver to ensure accurate navigation.

What is the minimum number of satellites required for a Satellite-Assisted Navigation

547 QUESTION System (GNSS/GPS) to carry out two dimensional operations after catering for clock bias
error ?
A 5
B 4
C 3
D 2
ANSWER 4

What is the procedure to be followed if, on a flight under IFR conditions using GPS
548 QUESTION satellite navigation system, the number of satellites required to maintain the RAIM
(Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring) function are not available?
A The flight may be continued using other certificated navigation systems.
B IFR flight has to be discontinued
A constant heading and speed must be flown until the required number of satellites are
C
again available.
The flight may be continued as planned if at least 4 satellites are available and the pilot
D
monitors the GPS- System manually.
ANSWER IFR flight has to be discontinued

549 QUESTION What is the purpose of the GPS control segment?

A To control the use of the satellites by unauthorised users.
B To monitor the satellites in orbit.
C To maintain the satellites in orbit.
D Degrade the accuracy of satellites for unauthorised users.
ANSWER To monitor the satellites in orbit.

550 QUESTION Which GPS frequencies are available for commercial air transport?
A 1227.6 MHz only.
B 1575.42 MHz only.
C 1227.6 MHz and 1575.42 MHz.
D 1227.6 MHz or 1575.42 MHz.
ANSWER 1575.42 MHz only.

Which of the following data, in addition to the Pseudo Random Noise (PRN) code, forms
551 QUESTION
part of the Navigation Message transmitted by GPS satellites?
A Time; data to impair the accuracy of the position fix (Selective Availability SA).
B Almanac data; satellite status information.
C Data to correct receiver clock error; almanac data.
D Time; positions of the satellites.
ANSWER Almanac data; satellite status information.

552 QUESTION Which of the following is not reduced by DGPS?

A Ionospheric delay
B Selective availability
C Multipath errors
D Satellite position errors
ANSWER Selective availability
 Which of the following is the datum for altitude information when conducting flights
553 QUESTION
under IFR conditions on airways using the GPS satellite navigation system?
A GPS altitude if 4 or more satellites are received otherwise barometric altitude.
B The average of GPS altitude and barometric altitude.
C GPS altitude.
D Barometric altitude.
ANSWER Barometric altitude.

Which of the following lists all the parameters that can be determined by a GPS receiver
554 QUESTION
tracking signals from 4 different satellites?
A Latitude, longitude and altitude.
B Latitude and longitude.
C Latitude, longitude and time.
D Latitude, longitude, altitude and time.
ANSWER Latitude, longitude, altitude and time.

Which of the following lists are all errors that affect the accuracy and reliability of the
555 QUESTION
Satellite-Assisted Navigation system (GNSS/GPS)?
A Satellite to ground time lag; atmospheric propagation; satellite clock.
B Satellite mutual interference; satellite ephemeris; atmospheric propagation.
C Satellite clock; satellite ephemeris; ionospheric error.
D Satellite mutual interference; frequency drift; satellite to ground time lag.
ANSWER Satellite clock; satellite ephemeris; ionospheric error.

Which of the following statements about the accuracy that can be obtained with the
556 QUESTION
differential technique (D- GPS) of the satellite navigation system GPS is correct?
The increase in accuracy of position fixes is independent of the receiver position in relation
A
to a D-GPS ground station.
The nearer a receiver is situated to a D-GPS ground station, the more accurate the position
B
fix.
C A D-GPS receiver can detect and correct for SA providing a more accurate position fix.
D Only D-GPS allows position fixes accurate enough for Non Precision Approaches.
The nearer a receiver is situated to a D-GPS ground station, the more accurate the
ANSWER
position fix.

557 QUESTION Which of the following statements about the visibility of GPS satellites is correct?
A It is greatest at the equator.
B It is greatest at the poles.
C It varies, depending on the time and observer's location.
D It is the same throughout the globe.
ANSWER It varies, depending on the time and observer's location.

Which of the following statements is correct concerning the principle behind the
558 QUESTION correction of one of the GPS satellite navigation system errors by the transmission of
the signals on two frequencies (L1 and L2)?
The effect of signal reflections (multi-path effect) can be reduced due to the interference of
A
both frequencies.

B The effect of receiver noise can be reduced due to the interference of both frequencies.
 The path delay of the signals in the earth's atmosphere is proportional to the inverse of
C
the carrier frequency squared.
The influence of shadowing on the GPS signals is proportional to the inverse of the carrier
D
frequency squared.
The path delay of the signals in the earth's atmosphere is proportional to the inverse of
ANSWER
the carrier frequency squared.

Which of the following, if any, is a prerequisite if a receiver of a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite

559 QUESTION
navigation system is to be used in combination with a multi sensor system?
A Multi-sensor systems are not certificated for flights under IFR conditions.
The prescribed IFR-equipment must be working correctly and the navigation information
B
continuously monitored.
The RAIM-function of the GPS receiver must be able to monitor all prescribed navigation
C
systems.
D The prescribed IFR-equipment must be installed and operational.
ANSWER The prescribed IFR-equipment must be installed and operational.

Which one of the following errors can be compensated for by a GPS receiver comparing
560 QUESTION
L1 and L2 frequencies?
A Ionospheric
B Multipath
C Tropospheric
D Receiver noise
ANSWER Ionospheric

Which one of the following is an advantage of a multi-sensor system using inputs from a
561 QUESTION
global navigation satellite system (GNSS) and an inertial navigational system (INS)?
The average position calculated from data provided by both systems increases overall
A
accuracy.
B The activation of Selective Availability can be recognised by the INS.
C The GNSS can be used to update a drifting INS.
D The only advantage of coupling both systems is double redundancy.
ANSWER The GNSS can be used to update a drifting INS.

An aircraft goes around after descending to a radio alt of 190 feet. As power is applied an
562 QUESTION engine fails and some height is lost. The GPWS would provide an alert when the aircraft
had lost about:
A 10 feet
B 20 feet
C 50 feet
D 100 feet
ANSWER 20 feet

563 QUESTION GPWS mode 2 operates between:

A 50 ft and 2450 ft AGL
B 50 ft and 1800 ft AGL
C 50 ft and 700 ft AGL
D 50 ft and 500 ft AGL
ANSWER 50 ft and 2450 ft AGL

564 QUESTION GPWS mode 3 will operate if altitude loss occurred before you have acquired:
 A 700 ft barometric altitude gain
B 500 ft terrain clearance
C 200 ft barometric altitude gain
D 700 ft terrain clearance
ANSWER 700 ft terrain clearance

565 QUESTION GPWS mode 4 is

A Excessive terrain closure rate
B Unsafe terrain clearance when not in landing configuration
C Excessive rate of descent
D Below glide slope warning
ANSWER Unsafe terrain clearance when not in landing configuration

566 QUESTION GPWS Mode One gives warning of:

A excessive descent rate.
B height loss after take-off/missed approach.
C unsafe terrain clearance when not in the landing configuration.
D excessive terrain closure rate.
ANSWER excessive descent rate.

567 QUESTION GPWS mode three gives warning of:

A excessive descent rate.
B height loss after take-off/missed approach.
C unsafe terrain clearance when not in the landing configuration.
D excessive terrain closure rate.
ANSWER height loss after take-off/missed approach.

If an aircraft is flying (with flaps and landing gear retracted) in proximity to terrain and its
568 QUESTION GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning System) get activated, because it is detecting that the
aeroplane has an excessive rate of descent, the system provides the fol
A ... DON'T SINK, DON'T SINK ....
B ...SINK RATE, SINK RATE ... followed by ... WHOOP WHOOP PULL UP ... (twice).
C ... TERRAIN, TERRAIN ... followed by ... WHOOP WHOOP PULL UP ... (twice).
D ... TOO LOW, TERRAIN ... (twice) followed by ... TOO LOW GEAR ... (twice).
ANSWER ...SINK RATE, SINK RATE ... followed by ... WHOOP WHOOP PULL UP ... (twice).

If the GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning System) activates, and alerts the pilot with an
569 QUESTION
aural warning "DON'T SINK" (two times), it is because:

A during take-off or missed approach manoeuvre, the aircraft has started to loose altitude.

the aircraft experiences an unexpected proximity to the terrain, with landing gear
B
retracted.
C at too low altitude, the aircraft has an excessive rate of descent.

D the aircraft experiences an unexpected proximity to terrain, without landing-flap selected.

ANSWER during take-off or missed approach manoeuvre, the aircraft has started to loose altitude.

570 QUESTION Operating range of the GPWS is:

A 50' to 2500'
B 50' to 5000'
 C 0' to 2500'
D 0' to 5000'
ANSWER 50' to 2500'

The following GPWS mode... aural alert will be generated when passing the... boundary:
571 QUESTION
"... SINK RATE..."
A III, second.
B IV, first.
C I, first.
D I, second.
ANSWER I, first.

572 QUESTION The GPWS the alert/warning information is provided by a radio altimeter with:
a downward transmitting beam whose dimensions are in the order of 60° and 30° in the
A
fore/aft and the athwartship axes.
a downward transmitting beam whose dimensions are in the order of 30° and 60° in the
B
fore/aft and the athwartship axes.
C a forward transmitting beam.
D a downwards transmitting radio beam.
a downward transmitting beam whose dimensions are in the order of 30° and 60° in the
ANSWER
fore/aft and the athwartship axes.

573 QUESTION The GPWS uses inputs from:

the radio altimeter, the ILS receiver, the Air Data Computers and the landing gear position
A
indicators.
the radio altimeter, the Air Data Computers, the landing gear position indicators and the
B
flap position indicators.
the radio altimeter, the Air Data Computers, the Captain's ILS receiver, the landing gear
C
position indicators and the flap position indicators.
D the radio altimeter and the ILS receiver.
the radio altimeter, the Air Data Computers, the Captain's ILS receiver, the landing gear
ANSWER
position indicators and the flap position indicators.

574 QUESTION The GPWS would provide visual and audible warning to a pilot if the aircraft descended:
to below 500' radio altitude with flaps not in the landing position and speed below Mach
A
.28
to below 500' radio altitude with flaps not in the landing position and speed below Mach
B
.35
to below 200' barometric altitude with flap not in the landing position and speed below
C
Mach .28

D to below 200' radio altitude with flap not in the landing position and speed below Mach .28

to below 200' radio altitude with flap not in the landing position and speed below Mach
ANSWER
.28

The Ground Proximity Warning mode 4A provides a visual and audible warning TOO LOW
575 QUESTION
GEAR to the pilot if the aircraft descends below with landing gear retracted.
A 200 feet radio altitude with speed below M 0.28
B 200 feet barometric altitude with speed below M 0.28
C 500 feet radio altitude with speed below M 0.35
D 500 feet barometric altitude with speed below M 0.35
 ANSWER 500 feet radio altitude with speed below M 0.35

The Ground Proximity Warning mode 5 provides a visual and audible warning to the pilot
576 QUESTION
if the aircraft:
A descends below 500ft radio altitude with gear retracted
B is below 1000 ft radio altitude and more than 1.3 dots below the ILS glidepath
C descend below 200 ft radio altitude with flaps retracted
D sinks more than approximately 10% of accumulated altitude
ANSWER is below 1000 ft radio altitude and more than 1.3 dots below the ILS glidepath

The Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS) generates the following sound signal or
577 QUESTION
signals when the aircraft is sinking after a take-off or a go-around:
A DON'T SINK always followed by WHOOP WHOOP PULL UP.
B WHOOP WHOOP PULL UP repetitive only.
C DON'T SINK repetitive only.
DON'T SINK followed by WHOOP WHOOP PULL UP if the sink rate overshoots a second
D
level.
ANSWER DON'T SINK repetitive only.

The Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS) is a system working according to a height
578 QUESTION
span ranging from:
A the ground to 1 000 ft.
B 50 ft to 2 500 ft.
C 30 ft to 5 000 ft.
D the ground to 500 ft.
ANSWER 50 ft to 2 500 ft.

579 QUESTION The Ground Proximity Warning System (GWPS) Mode 3 is activated when:
A an excessive height loss is experienced after take-off or during go-around.
the barometric descent rate is excessive with respect to the aircraft height above the
B
terrain.
C the aircraft is flying into rising terrain.
D when the aircraft is significantly below the ILS glidepath.
ANSWER an excessive height loss is experienced after take-off or during go-around.

580 QUESTION The Ground Proximity Warning Systems (GWPS) Mode 2 is activated when:
A an excessive height loss is experienced after take-off or during go-around.
the barometric descent rate is excessive with respect to the aircraft height above the
B
terrain.
C the aircraft is flying into rising terrain.
D when the aircraft is significantly below the ILS glidepath.
ANSWER the aircraft is flying into rising terrain.

581 QUESTION The Ground Proximity Warning Systems (GWPS) Mode 4 is activated when:
A an excessive height loss is experienced after take-off or during go-around.
an unsafe terrain clearance situation is experienced, with the aircraft not in the landing
B
configuration.
C the aircraft is flying into rising terrain.
D when the aircraft is significantly below the ILS glidepath.
an unsafe terrain clearance situation is experienced, with the aircraft not in the landing
ANSWER
configuration.
582 QUESTION The Ground Proximity Warning Systems (GWPS) Mode 5 is activated when:
A an excessive height loss is experienced after take-off or during go-around.
an unsafe terrain clearance situation is experienced, with the aircraft not in the landing
B
configuration.
C the aircraft is flying into rising terrain.
D when the aircraft is significantly below the ILS glidepath.
ANSWER when the aircraft is significantly below the ILS glidepath.

583 QUESTION What is the GPWS Mode 3 audible alert?

DON'T SINK, DON'T SINK' followed by 'WHOOP WHOOP, PULL UP' if the sink rate exceeds a
A
certain value.
B DON'T SINK, DON'T SINK' continuously.
C DON'T SINK, DON'T SINK' followed immediately by 'WHOOP WHOOP, PULL UP'.
SINK RATE' repeated each 1.5 seconds. Penetrating the second boundary generates an
D
aural alert of 'WHOOP, WHOOP PULL UP'.
ANSWER DON'T SINK, DON'T SINK' continuously.

584 QUESTION Which of the following statements is true of the GPWS ?

A The system permits a ‘Flap override’
B The system permits a ‘Gear override’
C The system receives inputs from the GPS
D The system receives inputs on total fuel on board
ANSWER The system permits a ‘Flap override’

585 QUESTION With reference to GPWS:

In all six modes the audible alerts and warnings are accompanied by the red flashing PULL-
A
UP light
Mode 4A activates when the aircraft descends below 500 ft radio altitude at a speed less
B
than .35 Mach with the landing gear retracted
Mode 4A activates when the aircraft descends below 500 ft barometric altitude at a speed
C
less than .28 Mach with the landing gear retracted
D Mode 6 re-arms when the aircraft leaves the hard alerting area
Mode 4A activates when the aircraft descends below 500 ft radio altitude at a speed less
ANSWER
than .35 Mach with the landing gear retracted

586 QUESTION "Fruiting" occurs in SSR when

A synchronous reply for one station becomes a non synchronous interference at an
A
adjacent station
B A non synchronous reply is received at only one station
C The transmitter has transmitted without interrogation
D The transmitter has transmitted due to interrogation by side lobes
A synchronous reply for one station becomes a non synchronous interference at an
ANSWER
adjacent station

587 QUESTION A mode A/C transponder will respond to which of the following Mode S interrogations
A Initial all call
B All call lock out
C Mode S all call
D Both (a) & (b)
ANSWER Initial all call
588 QUESTION A mode S transponder will:
A not respond to interrogations made on mode A.
B respond normally to mode A/C interrogations.
C respond to mode A interrogations but not mode C.
D not respond to mode A/C as it is on a different frequency.
ANSWER respond normally to mode A/C interrogations.

A secondary radar can provide up to 4096 different codes. These 4096 codes can be used
589 QUESTION
in:
A mode C only.
B mode A only.
C all modes.
D mode S.
ANSWER all modes.

590 QUESTION ATC area surveillance radars (ARSR or ASR) will normally operate to a maximum range of:

A 100 nm.
B 200 nm.
C 300 nm.
D 400 nm.
ANSWER 300 nm.

591 QUESTION Consider the following statements on SSR Mode S:

A Mode S has the ability to transmit short messages from the ground to a particular aircraft.

B A mode S interrogator can collect data from old mode A and C transponders.
C Mode S caters for 16 million unique address of aircraft.
D All 3 statements are correct.
ANSWER All 3 statements are correct.

592 QUESTION Data transmission and exchange in SSR is conducted in:

A Mode A
B Mode C
C Mode D
D Mode S
ANSWER Mode S

593 QUESTION Garbling is caused by:

an aeroplane's transponder responding to side lobes or reflections of the interrogation
A
signal.
B aeroplanes in close proximity responding to the same interrogation.
C aeroplane at range responding to interrogations from another ATC, SSR.
D Doppler effect on targets moving radial towards or away from the SSR.
ANSWER aeroplanes in close proximity responding to the same interrogation.

594 QUESTION Garbling occurs when there are two aircraft at a slant range:-
A more than 1.65nm
B less than 1.65nm
C more than 3.3nm
 D less than 3.3nm
ANSWER less than 1.65nm

595 QUESTION If an aircraft is hijacked it is recommended that the pilot set transponder code to:
A 7700
B 7500
C 7600
D 7300
ANSWER 7500

596 QUESTION In a Mode 'S' SSR, the purpose of "ALL CALL LOCK OUT INSTRUCTION" is
A to ask all aircraft to stop replying
B to ask Mode 'S' transponders to stop replying to" initial all call" interrogation
C to ask Mode A/C transponders to stop replying to "Mode 'S' all call" interrogation
D none of the above
ANSWER to ask Mode 'S' transponders to stop replying to" initial all call" interrogation

597 QUESTION In order to indicate radio failure the aircraft SSR transponder should be selected to code:

A 7000
B 7700
C 7600
D 7500
ANSWER 7600

598 QUESTION In the SSR response, the operation of the transponder ident button:
A transmits the aeroplanes registration or flight number as a data coded sequence.
B sends a special pulse after the normal response pulse train.
C sends a special pulse before the normal response pulse train.
D sends a special pulse in the X position on the pulse train.
ANSWER sends a special pulse after the normal response pulse train.

599 QUESTION In the SSR terminology de-fruiting means:

A Removing all different colours from the display, making it a mono-colour display.
B Displaying only airplanes with a selected destination.
C Displaying only airplanes changing their altitude.
D The removal from the display of random responses.
ANSWER The removal from the display of random responses.

600 QUESTION Max total of ______ pulses can be used to transmit ________ codes in a SSR reply.
A 10, 4096
B 6, 2096
C 12, 2096
D 12, 4096
ANSWER 12, 4096

On a typical computer generated SSR display the following data on a particular flight will
601 QUESTION
be shown:
A Squawk code, Flight level, Ground speed, Airplane callsign.
B Destination, Flight level, Ground speed, Airplane callsign.
C Squawk code, Magnetic heading, Ground speed, Airplane callsign.
 D Squawk code, Flight level, True heading, Airplane callsign.
ANSWER Squawk code, Flight level, Ground speed, Airplane callsign.

602 QUESTION Secondary radars require:

A a target which will respond to the interrogation, and this target will always be an aircraft.
a target which will respond to the interrogation, and this target will always be ground
B
based.
a target which will respond to the interrogation, and this target may be either an aircraft or
C
a ground based transponder.
D a quiescent target.
a target which will respond to the interrogation, and this target may be either an aircraft
ANSWER
or a ground based transponder.

Secondary Surveillance Radar is a form of _________ radar with _____________ type

603 QUESTION
emissions operating in the ___________ band.
A primary; pulse; SHF
B primary; pulse; UHF
C secondary; FM; SHF
D secondary; pulse; UHF
ANSWER secondary; pulse; UHF

604 QUESTION SSR uses wide aperture aerials to:

A reduce side lode effects.
B improve bearing discrimination.
C improve range discrimination.
D reduce the vertical beam width.
ANSWER reduce the vertical beam width.

605 QUESTION SSR, in ATC use:

A is complementary to primary radar.
B suffers from greater attention (than primary radar) due to the higher frequency used.
C replaces primary radar.
D uses primary radar techniques.
ANSWER is complementary to primary radar.

606 QUESTION The essential difference between a primary radar and a secondary radar system is that:
A a primary radar is ground based, whereas a secondary radar is an airborne system.
B a primary radar is pulsed, whereas a secondary radar uses CW techniques.
a primary radar relies on target reflections, whereas a secondary radar relies on a
C
transponder at the target to generate a reply pulse or pulses.
D a primary radar is limited to line of sight, whereas a secondary radar is not.
a primary radar relies on target reflections, whereas a secondary radar relies on a
ANSWER
transponder at the target to generate a reply pulse or pulses.

607 QUESTION The purpose of mode S is:

A for use by links TCAS 3.
B to improve HF communication.
C for data linking, ATC surveillance and reduced R/T communications and use by TCAS II.
D none of the above
ANSWER for data linking, ATC surveillance and reduced R/T communications and use by TCAS II.
608 QUESTION The selection of code 2000 on an aircraft SSR transponder indicates:
A unlawful interference with the planned operation of the flight.
B an emergency.
C transponder maLFunction.
D entry into airspace from an area where SSR operation has not been required.
ANSWER entry into airspace from an area where SSR operation has not been required.

609 QUESTION The spacing between the two pulses transmitted by an SSR interrogator decides:
A The identification of that SSR.
B What mode is used.
C What service may be provided by the SSR.
D The ATC code to be set in the aircraft.
ANSWER What mode is used.

610 QUESTION The SSR system involves :

A two modes, each of 4096 codes
B four modes, each 1024 codes
C four modes, each 4096 codes
D two modes, each 1024 codes
ANSWER four modes, each 4096 codes

611 QUESTION The transponder code set in an SSR system consists of:
A 2 digits and 2 letters, forming any of 4096 different codes.
B 4 digits, forming any of 9999 different codes.
C 4 digits, forming any of 4096 different codes.
D 4 digits, forming any of 7777 different codes.
ANSWER 4 digits, forming any of 4096 different codes.

612 QUESTION What are the frequencies used for interrogation and response for SSR?
A 1090 MHz for interrogation from the ground 1030 MHz for response from the aircraft.
B 1030 MHz for interrogation from the ground 1090 MHz for response from the aircraft.
C 1090 MHz for interrogation from the aircraft 1030 MHz for response from the ground.
D 1030 MHz for interrogation from the aircraft 1090, MHz for response from the ground.
ANSWER 1030 MHz for interrogation from the ground 1090 MHz for response from the aircraft.

When a mode C interrogation is responded to, vertical position of the aircraft is coded
613 QUESTION
and transmitted. This vertical position is with reference to :
A the sub-scale of the altimeter.
B area QNH.
C 1013.2 hPa
D any of the above as directed by ATC.
ANSWER 1013.2 hPa

When an aircraft is operating its Secondary Surveillance Radar in Mode C an air traffic
614 QUESTION controller's presentation gives information regarding the aircraft's indicated flight level
that is accurate to within:
A + or - 50 FT.
B + or - 75 FT.
C + or - 100 FT.
D + or - 25 FT.
ANSWER + or - 50 FT.
615 QUESTION When both SSR and primary radar is presented on the controller's display?
A The SSR information is more accurate in bearing and distance.
B The primary radar information is superfluous.
C The primary radar information is more accurate in bearing and distance.
D Altitude information is presented for all targets.
ANSWER The primary radar information is more accurate in bearing and distance.

When Mode C is selected on the aircraft SSR transponder the additional information
616 QUESTION
transmitted is:
A height based on QFE.
B altitude based on regional QNH.
C aircraft height based on sub-scale setting.
D flight level based on 1013.25 hPa.
ANSWER flight level based on 1013.25 hPa.

When using SSR the ground controller will ask the pilot to cancel mode C if there is a
617 QUESTION discrepancy of more than ________feet between the altitude detected by the radar from
the reply pulses and the altitude reported by the pilot, then report altitude from
A 100 feet; Regional QNH.
B 200 feet; 1013 mb.
C 300 feet; 1013mb.
D 400 feet; QNE.
ANSWER 200 feet; 1013 mb.

Which one of the following switch positions should be used when recycling a code on the
618 QUESTION
transponder?
A NORMAL
B OFF
C STBY (Standby)
D IDENT (Identification)
ANSWER STBY (Standby)

619 QUESTION Why is a secondary radar display screen free of storm clutter?
A The principle of echo return is not used in secondary radar.
B The frequencies employed are too high to give returns from moisture sources.
C A moving target indicator facility suppresses the display of static or near static returns.
D The frequencies employed are too low to give returns from moisture sources.
ANSWER The principle of echo return is not used in secondary radar.

620 QUESTION With regard to the advantages of SSR which of the following statements is correct?
A Lesser power is required to effect longer range as compared to primary radar.
B No aircraft manoeuvres are necessary for identification.
C Range, bearing and height can be calculated from reply signals.
D All of the above.
ANSWER All of the above.

621 QUESTION A Cat III ILS glidepath transmitter provides reliable guidance information down to:
A the surface of the runway and taxiways.
B a maximum height of 200 ft above the runway.
C a maximum height of 100 ft above the runway.
 D a maximum height of 50 ft above the runway.
ANSWER the surface of the runway and taxiways.

622 QUESTION A One Dot Deflection On A 4 Dot Glide Slope Indicator Is:-
A 0.7 Deg
B 0.17 Deg
C 0.27 Deg.
D None Of The Above
ANSWER 0.17 Deg

623 QUESTION A typical ILS glidepath frequency, in MHz, is:

A 330.3
B 110.3
C 110.45
D 75
ANSWER 330.3

Accurate glidepath signals cannot be guaranteed above a certain angle relative to the
624 QUESTION
horizontal . That angle is:
A 0.45 x basic glide angle
B 5.25 x basic glide angle
C 1.75 x basic glide angle
D 1.35 x basic glide angle
ANSWER 1.75 x basic glide angle

An aircraft carrying out a 3° glidepath ILS approach experiences a reduction in

625 QUESTION groundspeed from 150 kt at the outer marker to 120 kt over the threshold. The effect of
this change in groundspeed on the aircrafts rate of descent will be a decrease of appro
A 150 FT/MIN.
B 250 FT/MIN.
C 50 FT/MIN.
D 100 FT/MIN.
ANSWER 150 FT/MIN.

An aircraft carrying out an ILS approach is receiving less 90 Hz than 150 Hz modulation
626 QUESTION
notes from both the localiser and glidepath transmitters. The ILS indication will show:
A Fly right and fly down.
B Fly left and fly down.
C Fly right and fly up.
D Fly left and fly up.
ANSWER Fly left and fly up.

An aircraft compass card is stuck on 200 deg. When the aircraft has intercepted the ILS
627 QUESTION
localiser for runway 25, the localiser needle will be:
A left of the centre.
B centred.
C right of the centre.
D centred with the fail flag showing.
ANSWER centred.
 An aircraft flying down a 3° ILS glideslope is at 25 nm DME from the threshold. Using the
628 QUESTION 1 in 60 rule and approximating 1 nm to 6000ft, calculate the aircraft height above the
runway threshold, assuming that the ILS glidepath crosses the threshold at a h
A 6450 ft.
B 7455 ft.
C 7550 ft.
D 8015 ft.
ANSWER 7550 ft.

An aircraft flying down a 3° ILS glideslope is at 35 nm DME from the threshold. Using the
629 QUESTION 1 and 60 rule and approximating 1 nm to 6000 ft, calculate the aircraft height above the
runway threshold, assuming that the ILS glidepath crosses the threshold at a
A 6450 ft.
B 7455 ft.
C 10550 ft.
D 10015 ft.
ANSWER 10550 ft.

An aircraft is following the ILS glidepath of 3° at an airfield where the outer marker is 4.2
630 QUESTION nm from the ILS touchdown point. The aircraft approach speed is 130 kt. Using 1/60 rule
and RDH= 50 feet, the height of the aircraft at the outer marker should
A 1326 ft
B 1200 ft
C 1150 ft
D 960 ft
ANSWER 1326 ft

An aircraft is maintaining a 5.2% gradient is at 7 NM from the runway, on a flat terrain.

631 QUESTION
Its height is approximately?
A 3640 FT.
B 2210 FT.
C 680 FT.
D 1890 FT.
ANSWER 3640 FT.

An aircraft is on an ILS 3 degree glideslope, which passes over the runway threshold at a
632 QUESTION height of 50 feet. The DME range is 15 nm from the threshold. What is the height above
the runway threshold elevation? (Use the one in 60 rule and the approximation
A 3550 feet.
B 4450 feet.
C 4550 feet.
D 4310 feet.
ANSWER 4550 feet.

An aircraft is on an ILS 3 degree glideslope, which passes over the runway threshold at a
633 QUESTION height of 50 feet. The DME range is 25 nm from the threshold. What is the height above
the runway threshold elevation? (Use the 1 in 60 rule and the approximation 60
A 6550 feet.
B 7450 feet.
C 7550 feet.
D 8110 feet.
 ANSWER 7550 feet.

An aircraft is on ILS and receives close to full-scale deviation on localizer. The ILS DME
634 QUESTION
reads 10 Nm. The aircraft is approximately ____ feet displaced laterally from the localizer

A 2653
B 10 700 feet
C 1300 feet
D 5350 feet
ANSWER 2653

An aircraft is on ILS with the ILS DME reading 1.9 Nm. The glide path indicator reads 2
635 QUESTION dots fly-up on a 4-dot indicator. The radio altimeter reading at this position (assuming
flat terrain on approach path) if the glide angle is 3◦ (and RDH = 50 feet)
A 464 feet
B 560 feet
C 434 feet
D 524 feet
ANSWER 560 feet

An aircraft on a 3° ILS approach at 150kt groundspeed is required to reduce its speed to

636 QUESTION 120kts at the outer marker, 4.5 nm from the threshold. The rate of descent should reduce
by approximately:
A 190 ft/min.
B 170 ft/min.
C 150 ft/min.
D 120 ft/min.
ANSWER 150 ft/min.

An aircraft tracking to intercept the Instrument Landing System (ILS) localiser inbound on
637 QUESTION
the approach side, outside the published ILS coverage angle:
A will receive signals without identification coding.
B will not normally receive signals.
C may receive false course indications.
D can expect signals to give correct indications.
ANSWER will not normally receive signals.

An ILS category II ground installation is one that is capable of providing guidance to a

638 QUESTION
height of:
A 30 m above the horizontal plane containing the threshold.
B 60 m above the horizontal plane containing the threshold.
C 15 m on QNH.
D 60 m on QNH.
ANSWER 30 m above the horizontal plane containing the threshold.

Assuming a five dot display, what does each of the dots on either side of the ILS localizer
639 QUESTION
cockpit display represent:
A 2.0 degrees.
B 1.5 degrees.
C 2.5 degrees.
D 0.5 degrees.
 ANSWER 0.5 degrees.

At 5.25 nm from the threshold an aircraft on an ILS approach has a display showing it to
640 QUESTION be 4 dots low on a 3 degree glidepath. Using an angle of 0.15° per dot of glideslope
deviation and the 1 in 60 rule calculate the height of the aircraft from touchdow
A 1280 ft.
B 1325 ft.
C 1375 ft.
D 1450 ft.
ANSWER 1325 ft.

At a distance of 20 NM from the localizer transmitter, the horizontal extent of the

641 QUESTION
localizer coverage is:
A +/- 10 NM wide.
B 10 NM wide.
C +/- 10° from the runway extended centre line.
D +/- 2,5°.
ANSWER +/- 10° from the runway extended centre line.

642 QUESTION Category I aircraft ILS equipment is certificated to:

A 100 ft radio height.
B 200 ft radio height.
C 100 ft barometric height.
D 200 ft barometric height.
ANSWER 200 ft barometric height.

643 QUESTION Category II ILS provides accurate guidance to:

A 75 ft above the horizontal plane containing the threshold.
B 100 ft above the horizontal plane containing the threshold.
C 125 ft above the horizontal plane containing the threshold.
D 150 ft above the horizontal plane containing the threshold.
ANSWER 100 ft above the horizontal plane containing the threshold.

644 QUESTION Consider the following statements on ILS:

A ILS is the primary precision approach facility for civil aviation.
When the pilot is reaching the decision height (DH) he may only continue the approach if
B
both localizer and glidepath indications are within one dot from the centre positions.
An ILS-approach may be flown only if the localizer, glide path and marker beacons/DME
C
are operational.
If the localizer is out of service, an ILS approach with increased decision height (DH) may be
D
carried out.
ANSWER ILS is the primary precision approach facility for civil aviation.

645 QUESTION Every 10 kt decrease in groundspeed, on a 3° ILS glidepath, will require an approximate:
A increase in the aircraft's rate of descent of 50 FT/MIN.
B decrease in the aircraft's rate of descent of 50 FT/MIN.
C decrease in the aircraft's rate of descent of 100 FT/MIN.
D increase in the aircraft's rate of descent of 100 FT/MIN.
ANSWER decrease in the aircraft's rate of descent of 50 FT/MIN.

646 QUESTION False glide path of the ILS are likely to occur
 A On the localizer, below the actual glide path
B On the back beam, below the actual glide path
C On the localizer, above the actual glide path
D At localizer full scale deflection line, on the glide path
ANSWER On the localizer, above the actual glide path

647 QUESTION False Glide Slope Due To Re- Radiation Of Lobes Is Normally
A Above The True Glide Slope
B Below The True Glide Slope.
C Sometimes Above And Sometimes Below The True Glide Slope
D Always Below The Glide Slope
ANSWER Above The True Glide Slope

Flying a 3° glidepath ILS approach, at a ground speed of 100 Kt., the required rate of
648 QUESTION
descent is :
A 500 ft/min.
B 600 ft/min.
C 450 ft/min.
D 400 ft/min.
ANSWER 500 ft/min.

649 QUESTION For a 2.7 degree glidepath on a Category 1 ILS the vertical coverage is:
A 1.22º - 4.73º.
B 2.05º - 5.55º.
C 1.85º - 4.75º.
D 1.35º - 5.25º.
ANSWER 1.22º - 4.73º.

650 QUESTION For a category I ILS glide path of 3.3 degrees the coverage is:
A 1.49 to 5.77 degrees
B 1.49 to 5.94 degrees
C 1.65 to 5.77 degrees
D 1.65 to 5.94 degrees
ANSWER 1.49 to 5.77 degrees

For a glide slope of 3°, the rate of descent for ground speed of 120 knots would be
651 QUESTION
__________.
A 216 ft/min
B 400 ft/min
C 600 ft/min
D 650 ft/min
ANSWER 600 ft/min

For an aircraft at a height of 1500 feet, interception of a 3° ILS glide path will occur at
652 QUESTION
approximately?
A 7.0 nm from the threshold.
B 5.0 nm from the threshold.
C 6.0 nm from the threshold.
D 4.5 nm from the threshold.
ANSWER 5.0 nm from the threshold.
 For an aircraft at a height of 2500 feet, intercepting of a 3° ILS glide path will occur at
653 QUESTION
approximately?
A 7.0 nm from the threshold.
B 8.0 nm from the threshold.
C 13.1 nm from the threshold.
D 14.5 nm from the threshold.
ANSWER 8.0 nm from the threshold.

654 QUESTION For reliable navigational information the approximate coverage of a 3° glideslope is:
A 1.35° to 5.25° from the horizontal and 8° either side of the localiser.
B 0.45° from the horizontal to 1.75° above the glidepath and 8° either side of the localiser.
C 0.7° above and below the glidepath and 8° either side of the localiser.
D 3° above and below the glidepath and 10° either side of the localiser.
ANSWER 1.35° to 5.25° from the horizontal and 8° either side of the localiser.

Given: Aircraft height 2500 FT, ILS GP angle 3°. At what approximate distance from THR
655 QUESTION
can you expect to capture the GP?
A 8.3 NM.
B 7.0 NM.
C 13.1 NM.
D 14.5 NM.
ANSWER 8.3 NM.

656 QUESTION Given: ILS GP angle = 3.5 DEG, GS = 150 kt. Approximate rate of descent is?
A 900 FT/MIN.
B 1000 FT/MIN.
C 700 FT/MIN.
D 800 FT/MIN.
ANSWER 900 FT/MIN.

657 QUESTION Given: ILS GP angle = 3.5 DEG, GS = 250 kt. Approximate rate of descent is?
A 1460 FT/MIN.
B 1400 FT/MIN.
C 1780 FT/MIN.
D 1800 FT/MIN.
ANSWER 1460 FT/MIN.

If the ILS monitoring equipment senses a shift or change outside set limits in the basic
658 QUESTION
transmission:
A The Tower control will inform any inbound aircraft about the inaccuracy.
B The technicians on duty will switch on the stand-by ILS equipment.
C The pilot on ILS approach will be notified by the ident disappearing.
D The transmissions on a Cat I ILS will be stopped within 6 seconds.
ANSWER The transmissions on a Cat I ILS will be stopped within 6 seconds.

If there is a 17 knot decrease in headwind by what amount must the rate of descent be
659 QUESTION
changed in order to maintain a 3° glideslope?
A It must be increased by 58 ft/min.
B It must be decreased by 58 ft/min.
C It must be increased by 85 ft/min.
 D It must be decreased by 85 ft/min.
ANSWER It must be increased by 85 ft/min.

If there is a 27 knot decrease in headwind by what amount must the rate of descent be
660 QUESTION
changed in order to maintain a 3° glideslope?
A It must be increased by 158 ft/min.
B It must be decreased by 158 ft/min.
C It must be increased by 135 ft/min.
D It must be decreased by 135 ft/min.
ANSWER It must be increased by 135 ft/min.

If there is a 35 knot increase in headwind by what amount must the rate of descent be
661 QUESTION
changed in order to maintain a 3° glideslope?
A It must be decreased by 175 ft/min.
B It must be increased by 175 ft/min.
C It must be increased by 235 ft/min.
D It must be decreased by 235 ft/min.
ANSWER It must be decreased by 175 ft/min.

If there is a 45 knot decease in headwind by what amount must the rate of descent be
662 QUESTION
changed in order to maintain a 3° glideslope?
A It must be increased by 130 ft/min.
B It must be decreased by 130 ft/min.
C It must be increased by 225 ft/min.
D It must be decreased by 225 ft/min.
ANSWER It must be increased by 225 ft/min.

If there is a 65 knot decrease in headwind by what amount must the rate of descent be
663 QUESTION
changed in order to maintain a 3° glideslope?
A It must be increased by 225 ft/min.
B It must be decreased by 225 ft/min.
C It must be decreased by 325 ft/min.
D It must be increased by 325 ft/min.
ANSWER It must be increased by 325 ft/min.

664 QUESTION ILS Cat II will permit instrument approaches down to:
A DH 100 ft, RVR 200 m.
B DH 100 ft, RVR 350 m.
C DH 50 ft, RVR 200 m.
D DH 150 ft RVR 400 m.
ANSWER DH 100 ft, RVR 350 m.

665 QUESTION ILS glidepath coverage, in extends to a range of 10 nm and:

A 13° in azimuth
B 8° in azimuth
C 8°in azimuth
D none of the above
ANSWER 8° in azimuth

666 QUESTION ILS is subject to false glide paths resulting from:

A back-scattering of antennas.
 B spurious signals reflected by nearby obstacles.
C multiple lobes of radiation patterns in the vertical plane.
D ground returns ahead of the antennas.
ANSWER multiple lobes of radiation patterns in the vertical plane.

ILS localiser signals use VHF frequencies between 108 MHz and 118.85 MHz with
667 QUESTION
frequencies allocated every:
A even 100 KHz
B odd 100 KHz
C odd 100 KHz and odd 100 KHz + 50 KHz
D even 100 KHz and even 100 KHz + 50 KHz
ANSWER odd 100 KHz and odd 100 KHz + 50 KHz

In a MLS, the time that elapses between the passage of the TO scan and the FRO scan at
668 QUESTION
the aircraft position is:
A not related to the angular position of the aircraft.
B indirectly proportional to the angular position of the aircraft.
C directly proportional to the angular position of the aircraft.
D none of the above are correct.
ANSWER directly proportional to the angular position of the aircraft.

669 QUESTION In an ILS system, the identification:

A Is transmitted with a tone of 1450 Hz.
B Is transmitted in morse by the localizer transmitter with a tone of 1020 Hz.
C Is transmitted by the localizer and the glidepath transmitters.
Is transmitted alternatively by the localizer and the glidepath transmitters using morse
D
code (In some countries voice identification is also used).
ANSWER Is transmitted in morse by the localizer transmitter with a tone of 1020 Hz.

670 QUESTION In an MLS system, the azimuth coverage is:

A +/- 10°
B +/- 8°
C +/- 35°
D +/- 40°
ANSWER +/- 40°

In order to maintain a 3° glide-path at an approach speed of 150 kts, the rate of descent
671 QUESTION
required is approximately:
A 600 feet per minute.
B 300 feet per minute.
C 450 feet per minute.
D 750 feet per minute.
ANSWER 750 feet per minute.

672 QUESTION In which frequency band does the Microwave Landing System (MLS) operate?
A EHF
B SHF
C VHF
D UHF
ANSWER SHF
 Instrument Landing Systems (ILS) Glide Paths provide azimuth coverage of __________
673 QUESTION
to a distance of _______ NM from the threshold.
A (i) 8° (ii) 10
B (i) 25° (ii) 17
C (i) 35° (ii) 25
D (i) 5° (ii) 8
ANSWER (i) 8° (ii) 10

674 QUESTION Kinks in ILS are due to

A Imperfect definition of zero DDM due to modulations
B Transmitter voltage fluctuations
C Obstructions in the vicinity of transmitter
D Recover error in airborne equipment
ANSWER Obstructions in the vicinity of transmitter

Localizer signals are protected up to ______ and as for accuracy they are checked up to
675 QUESTION
________.
A 30 NM, 25 NM
B 30 NM, 17 NM
C 15 NM, 08 NM
D 25 NM, 10 NM
ANSWER 25 NM, 10 NM

676 QUESTION Making an MLS approach, the aircraft:

A Receives elevation information 2 times a second.
B Receives elevation information 13 times a second.
C Receives elevation information three times as frequently as azimuth information.
D Receives elevation and azimuth information 39 times a second.
ANSWER Receives elevation information three times as frequently as azimuth information.

677 QUESTION Microwave landing systems use guidance signals formed from:
A time referenced scanning beams.
B radar beams.
C intersecting modulated signals transmitted on very narrow beams.
phase differences between an amplitude modulated reference signal and a frequency
D
modulated variable signal.
ANSWER time referenced scanning beams.

MLS installations notified for operation, unless otherwise stated, provide azimuth
678 QUESTION
coverage of:
A + or - 20° about the nominal courseline out to a range of 10 NM.
B + or - 20° about the nominal courseline out to a range of 20 NM.
C + or - 40° about the nominal courseline out to a range of 30 NM.
D + or - 40° about the nominal courseline out to a range of 20 NM.
ANSWER + or - 40° about the nominal courseline out to a range of 20 NM.

On a localizer the modulations are at 150 Hz and 90 Hz. Which of the following
679 QUESTION
statements is correct?
A The 90 Hz modulation predominates to the right of the centre line.
B The 150 Hz modulation predominates to the right of the centre line.
 If the 150 Hz modulations predominates, the needle on the CDI moves to the right of
C
centre.
When both modulations are received in unequal depth, the aeroplane will be on the centre
D
line.
ANSWER The 150 Hz modulation predominates to the right of the centre line.

On an ILS approach you receive more of the 90 Hz modulation than the 150 Hz
680 QUESTION
modulation. The action you should take is:
A fly left and up.
B fly left and down.
C fly right and up.
D fly right and down.
ANSWER fly right and down.

681 QUESTION Outer marker transmits on 75 MHz and has an aural frequency of:
A 1300 Hz.
B 400 Hz.
C 2000 Hz.
D 3000 Hz.
ANSWER 400 Hz.

682 QUESTION Scalloping of an ILS beam means:

A That the beam slowly leaves the intended approach line.
B That the beam is intermittent, and is received only now and then during an approach.
C That false beams (sidelobes) appear from time to time during the approach.
That the guidance beam direction is unsteady and varies from side to side of the intended
D
approach path.
That the guidance beam direction is unsteady and varies from side to side of the
ANSWER
intended approach path.

683 QUESTION The amplitude modulation and the colour of an outer marker (OM) is:
A 400 Hz, blue.
B 3000 Hz, blue.
C 1300 Hz, blue.
D 400 Hz, amber.
ANSWER 400 Hz, blue.

The azimuth transmitter of a Microwave Landing System (MLS) provides a fan-shaped

684 QUESTION
horizontal approach zone which is usually:
A + or - 50° of the runway centre-line.
B + or - 40° of the runway centre-line.
C + or - 60° of the runway centre-line.
D + or - 30° of the runway centre-line.
ANSWER + or - 40° of the runway centre-line.

The coverage of 3° glide path beam for a cat I ILS in the vertical plane extends from
685 QUESTION
_________° surface above the to _________ ° above the surface.
A 2.25°, 5.25°
B 2.25°, 4.35°
C 1.75°, 4.25°
D 1.35°, 5.25°
 ANSWER 1.35°, 5.25°

The coverage of the ILS localiser at 17 nm is guaranteed up to an angle of ___________

686 QUESTION
either side of the extended centreline :
A 30 degrees.
B 25 degrees.
C 35 degrees.
D 10 degrees.
ANSWER 35 degrees.

The emission characteristic used in ILS is __________ and a typical localiser frequency is
687 QUESTION
_____
A A9W; 329.30 MHz.
B A8W; 110.30 MHz.
C A9W; 110.70 MHz.
D A8W; 118.30 MHz.
ANSWER A8W; 110.30 MHz.

688 QUESTION The glide path transmitter operates on:

A 36 VHF frequencies, paired with localizer frequencies.
B The frequencies 90 and 150 MHz.
C On frequencies found by multiplying the localizer frequency by 3.
D 40 frequencies from 329.5 MHz to 335.6 MHz.
ANSWER 40 frequencies from 329.5 MHz to 335.6 MHz.

689 QUESTION The glide-path signals must be received to a range of 10 nm over a sector:
A 10° each side of the localizer centre line.
B 10° wide centred on the localizer centre line.
C 8° each side of the localizer centre line.
D 8° wide centred on the localizer centre line.
ANSWER 8° wide centred on the localizer centre line.

The ILS glidepath is 2.8°. At what altitude above the threshold level is the upper limit of
690 QUESTION the glide path coverage at a distance of 1.5 NM from the touchdown point? (Use RDH =
50 feet & 1/60 rule )
A 425 feet.
B 795 feet.
C 865 feet.
D 610 feet.
ANSWER 795 feet.

691 QUESTION The ILS glidepath operates between:

A 108 to 112 MHz in the VHF band.
B 328.6 to 335.4 MHz in the UHF band.
C 108 to 112 MHz in the UHF band.
D 329.3 to 335 MHz in the VHF band.
ANSWER 328.6 to 335.4 MHz in the UHF band.

692 QUESTION The ILS glidepath transmitter is located:

A No more than 600 meters from the localizer transmitter.
 About 150 meters upwind from the landing threshold and about 300 meters from the
B
centre line of the runway.
About 300 meters upwind from the landing threshold and about 150 meters from the
C
centre line of the runway.
D As close to the runway threshold as possible without causing an obstruction to aircraft.
About 300 meters upwind from the landing threshold and about 150 meters from the
ANSWER
centre line of the runway.

The ILS localiser gives coverage out to a range of 17 nm on either side of the centre line
693 QUESTION
through angle of:
A 35°
B 25°
C 28°
D 31°
ANSWER 35°

The ILS localiser uses frequencies in the__________ band and the glideslope uses
694 QUESTION
frequencies in the __________band:
A UHF; VHF
B UHF; SHF
C VHF; HF
D VHF; UHF
ANSWER VHF; UHF

695 QUESTION The Max Safe Deviation Below A Glide Path Is

A 1 Dot On A 4 Dot Or 1.5 Dots On A 5 Dot Indicator
B 2 Dots On A 4 Dot Or 2.5 Dots On A 5 Dot Indicator
C 3 Dots On A 4 Dot Or 3.5 Dots On A 5 Dot Indicator
D None of The Above
ANSWER 2 Dots On A 4 Dot Or 2.5 Dots On A 5 Dot Indicator

696 QUESTION The middle marker of an ILS installation identifies itself with:
A alternating dots and dashes with an amber light.
B continuous dots with a white light.
C continuous dashes with an amber light.
D alternating dots and dashes with a white light.
ANSWER alternating dots and dashes with an amber light.

The MIDDLE MARKER of an Instrument Landing System (ILS) facility is identified aurally
697 QUESTION
and visually by a series of:
A alternate dots and dashes and an amber light flashing.
B two dashes per second and a blue light flashing.
C dots and a white light flashing.
D dashes and an amber light flashing.
ANSWER alternate dots and dashes and an amber light flashing.

698 QUESTION The MLS use a technique based on:

A Frequency Modulated Duplex.
B Pulse interrogation.
C Time Reference Scanning Beam.
D Analogue Scanning Beam.
 ANSWER Time Reference Scanning Beam.

The outer marker of an ILS with a 3° glide slope is located 4.6 NM from the threshold.
699 QUESTION Assuming a glide slope height of 50 FT above the threshold (RDH), the approximate
height of an aircraft passing the outer marker is:
A 1.400 FT
B 1.450 FT
C 1.350 FT
D 1.300 FT
ANSWER 1.450 FT

The OUTER MARKER of an Instrument Landing System (ILS) facility transmits on a

700 QUESTION
frequency of:
A 300 MHz and is modulated by morse at two dashes per second.
B 200 MHz and is modulated by alternate dot/dash in morse.
C 75 MHz and is modulated by alternate dot/dash in morse.
D 75 MHz and is modulated by morse at two dashes per second.
ANSWER 75 MHz and is modulated by morse at two dashes per second.

The principle of operation of an ILS localiser transmitter is based on two overlapping

701 QUESTION lobes that are transmitted on ______ frequencies and carry different
___________________.
A (i) different; (ii) phases
B (i) the same; (ii) phases
C (i) different; (ii) modulation frequencies
D (i) the same; (ii) modulation frequencies
ANSWER (i) the same; (ii) modulation frequencies

The rate of descent in feet per minute, appropriate to a 3.2° ILS glidepath at an approach
702 QUESTION
groundspeed of 110 kts is:
A 563 fpm
B 586 fpm
C 666 fpm
D 692 fpm
ANSWER 586 fpm

The rate of descent required to maintain a 3.25° glide slope at a groundspeed of 140 kt is
703 QUESTION
approximately:
A 850 FT/MIN
B 750 FT/MIN.
C 670 FT/MIN.
D 700 FT/MIN.
ANSWER 750 FT/MIN.

The reason why pre take-off holding areas are sometimes further from the active runway
704 QUESTION when ILS Category 2 and 3 landing procedures are in progress than during good weather
operations is:
A heavy precipitation may disturb guidance signals.
B aircraft manoeuvring near the runway may disturb guidance signals.
C to increase distance from the runway during offset approach operations.
D to increase aircraft separation in very reduced visibility conditions.
 ANSWER aircraft manoeuvring near the runway may disturb guidance signals.

705 QUESTION The scanning beam of the MLS system is called:

A frequency reference scanning beam (FRSB).
B phase reference scanning beam (PRSB).
C time reference scanning beam (TRSB).
D angle reference scanning beam (ARSB).
ANSWER time reference scanning beam (TRSB).

706 QUESTION The sensitive area of an ILS is the area aircraft may not enter when:
A ILS operations are in progress.
B category 1 ILS operations are in progress.
C category II/III ILS operations are in progress.
D the ILS is undergoing calibration.
ANSWER category II/III ILS operations are in progress.

707 QUESTION The upper limit of the vertical coverage of the localizer must be:
A not less than 300 m above the highest point on the approach.
B not less than 7° above the horizontal
C not less than 600 m above the horizontal.
D not less than 35° above the horizontal.
ANSWER not less than 7° above the horizontal

708 QUESTION The visual and aural indications of the ILS outer marker are:
A A blue light and 2 dashes per second of a 1300 Hz modulated tone.
B An amber light and alternate dots and dashes of a 1300 Hz modulated tone.
C A white light and 6 dots per second of a 30 Hz modulated tone.
D A blue light and 2 dashes per second of 400 Hz modulated tone.
ANSWER A blue light and 2 dashes per second of 400 Hz modulated tone.

The visual indication of passing the outer marker is a _________ light with a series of
709 QUESTION
____________ at 3000 Hz:
A blue; dots
B white; dots & dashes
C blue; dashes
D white; dashes
ANSWER blue; dashes

710 QUESTION There are four types of marker beacons, all transmitting on the same carrier frequency:
A Airway marker (fan marker), Outer marker, Middle marker, Intersection marker.
B Intersection marker, Outer marker, Middle marker, Inner marker.
C Airway marker (fan marker), Outer marker, Middle marker, Inner marker.
D Boundary marker, Outer marker, Middle marker, Inner marker.
ANSWER Airway marker (fan marker), Outer marker, Middle marker, Inner marker.

Using the 1 in 60 rule calculate the height on a 3 degree glide path of an aircraft 4.5 NM
711 QUESTION
from touchdown.RDH = 50 feet.
A 1480 ft
B 1420 ft
C 1370 ft
D 1230 ft
 ANSWER 1420 ft

Using the 1 in 60 rule, calculate the rate of descent (in ft/min) for a 3.3 degree glidepath
712 QUESTION
at a groundspeed of 115 kts.
A 172 ft/min.
B 325 ft/min.
C 641 ft/min.
D 522 ft/min.
ANSWER 641 ft/min.

What approximate rate of descent is required in order to maintain a 3° glide path at a

713 QUESTION
groundspeed of 120 kt?
A 550 FT/MIN.
B 600 FT/MIN.
C 800 FT/MIN.
D 950 FT/MIN.
ANSWER 600 FT/MIN.

What approximate rate of descent is required in order to maintain a 3° glidepath at a

714 QUESTION
groundspeed of 90 kt?
A 600 FT/MIN
B 400 FT/MIN
C 500 FT/MIN
D 450 FT/MIN
ANSWER 450 FT/MIN

715 QUESTION What frequency is assigned to all ILS marker beacons?

A 75 MHz
B One chosen from between 108-112 MHz at odd tenths or odd tenths/2
C 90 Hz
D 150 Hz
ANSWER One chosen from between 108-112 MHz at odd tenths or odd tenths/2

What is the approximate angular coverage of reliable navigation information for a 3° ILS
716 QUESTION
glide path out to a distance of 10 NM?
A 0.45° above the horizontal to 1.75° above the glide path and 8° in azimuth
B 1.35° above the horizontal to 5.25° above the horizontal and 8° in aximuth.
C 0.7° above and below the glide path and 2.5° each side of the localiser centreline.
D 3° above and below the glide path and 10° each side of the localiser centreline.
ANSWER 1.35° above the horizontal to 5.25° above the horizontal and 8° in aximuth.

What is the colour sequence when passing over an Outer, Middle and Inner Marker
717 QUESTION
beacon?
A white - amber - blue.
B amber - white - green.
C blue - amber - white.
D blue - green - white.
ANSWER blue - amber - white.

What is the Rate of Descent required to maintain a 3° glidepath at a groundspeed of 135

718 QUESTION
knots.
 A 750 fpm.
B 725 fpm.
C 675 fpm.
D 800 fpm.
ANSWER 675 fpm.

What will be rate of descent when flying down a 12% glide slope, at a groundspeed of
719 QUESTION
375 knots?
A 4560 ft/min.
B 4217 ft/min.
C 4227 ft/min.
D 4422 ft/min.
ANSWER 4560 ft/min.

What will be the rate of descent when flying down a 6% glide slope, at a groundspeed of
720 QUESTION
500 knots?
A 3903 ft/min.
B 3309 ft/min.
C 3039 ft/min.
D 9303 ft/min.
ANSWER 3039 ft/min.

721 QUESTION When can an ILS back beam be received at the aircraft ?:
A when flying in the area behind the localiser aerial.
B when flying in the area forward the localiser aerial
C never.
D only at installations where this facility exists.
ANSWER when flying in the area behind the localiser aerial.

When correctly positioned at the end of 45 deg leg of left procedure turn on outbound of
722 QUESTION
an ILS procedure, the FPDI will show turn
A right and climb
B left and descend
C right and descend
D left and climb
ANSWER left and climb

723 QUESTION When using the ILS, a false glidepath is:

A always found below the real glidepath.
B always found above the real glidepath.
C found both above and below the real glidepath.
D not found.
ANSWER always found above the real glidepath.

Where, in relation to the runway, is the ILS localiser transmitting aerial normally
724 QUESTION
situated?
On the non-approach end of the runway about 300 m from the runway on the extended
A
centreline.
At the approach end of the runway about 300 m from touchdown 300 m right of the
B
centreline.
 At the non-approach end about 150 m to one side of the runway and 300 m along the
C
extended centreline.
D At the approach end about 150 m to one side of the runway and 300 m from touchdown.
On the non-approach end of the runway about 300 m from the runway on the extended
ANSWER
centreline.

Which answer correctly completes the following statement? The characteristics of an

725 QUESTION
MLS installation are that it uses:
an azimuth transmitter at the approach end of the runway, an elevation transmitter at the
A
upwind end of the runway and two frequencies.
B one transmitter for both elevation and azimuth and two frequencies.
C one transmitter for both elevation and azimuth and a single frequency.
an elevation transmitter at the approach end of the runway, an azimuth transmitter at the
D
upwind end of the runway and a single frequency.
an elevation transmitter at the approach end of the runway, an azimuth transmitter at
ANSWER
the upwind end of the runway and a single frequency.

726 QUESTION Which of the following correctly describes the ILS glidepath radiation pattern:
A two overlapping lobes on the same VHF carrier frequency.
B two overlapping lobes on the same UHF carrier.

C a pencil beam comprising a series of smaller beams each carrying a different modulation.

D two overlapping lobes on different radio carrier frequencies but with the same modulation.

ANSWER two overlapping lobes on the same UHF carrier.

727 QUESTION Which of the following frequencies are used by ILS?

A 109.35 MHz.
B 111.10 MHz.
C 108.45 MHz.
D A and B above.
ANSWER A and B above.

728 QUESTION Which of the following is an advantage of MLS?

A Can be used in inhospitable terrain.
B Uses the same aircraft equipment as ILS.
C Has a selective accessability.
D Is not affected by heavy precipitation.
ANSWER Can be used in inhospitable terrain.

729 QUESTION Which of the following is an ILS localiser frequency?

A 112.10 MHz.
B 108.25 MHz.
C 110.20 MHz.
D 109.15 MHz.
ANSWER 109.15 MHz.

730 QUESTION Which of the following is TRUE in respect of using ILS?

A When using a CDI you must set the OBS to the localizer course.
B When using a CDI in the overshoot sector you must disobey the needles.
C When using an HSI you must set the course arrow to the localizer course.
 D When using an HSI the glide path must be set before approach.
ANSWER When using an HSI you must set the course arrow to the localizer course.

731 QUESTION Which of the following statements is TRUE in respect of microwave landing system?
A Azimuth and elevation signals use the same aerial on a time share basis.
B Azimuth and elevation signals are transmitted at the same UHF frequency.
C A special precision DME, operating in the SHF band, provides range information.
D Range information is provided by precision DME operating in the UHF band.
ANSWER Range information is provided by precision DME operating in the UHF band.

732 QUESTION Which of the following statements is true, in respect of an ILS?

A If the glide path is not operating, the ILS will be switched off.
B An ILS cannot be used if either of the outer or middle markers is switched off.
C The glide path frequency is paired with the marker frequency.
D The glide path transmits on UHF.
ANSWER The glide path transmits on UHF.

733 QUESTION Which of the following statements is TRUE?

A A localizer back beam should only be used for approaches if there is a published procedure.

B All localisers have back beams. They provide guidance in the event of a missed approach.

C Localiser back beams are never checked for accuracy.

D A localizer back beam will always provide reversed steering signals.
A localizer back beam should only be used for approaches if there is a published
ANSWER
procedure.

Which of the following statements is untrue about an aircraft maintaining glide path on
734 QUESTION
an ILS approach?
A A heavier aircraft has higher rate of descent
B A faster aircraft has higher rate of descent
C If the glide path angle increases, the ROD increases
D If the tailwind increases, the ROD increases
ANSWER A heavier aircraft has higher rate of descent

Which one of the following correctly lists the major ground based components of a
735 QUESTION
Microwave Landing System (MLS)?
A Combined azimuth and elevation transmitter, outer and inner marker beacons.
B Separate azimuth and elevation transmitters, outer and middle marker beacons.
C Combined azimuth and elevation transmitter, DME facility.
D Separate azimuth and elevation transmitters, precision DME ( DME-P) facility.
ANSWER Separate azimuth and elevation transmitters, precision DME ( DME-P) facility.

Which one of the following is an advantage of a Microwave Landing System (MLS)

736 QUESTION
compared with an Instrument Landing System (ILS)?
A It does not require a separate azimuth (localiser) and elevation (azimuth) transmitter.
It is insensitive to geographical site and can be installed at sites where it is not possible to
B
use an ILS.
The installation does not require to have a separate method (marker beacons or DME) to
C
determine range.
 There is no restriction on the number of ground installations that can be operated because
D
there is an unlimited number of frequency channels available.
It is insensitive to geographical site and can be installed at sites where it is not possible to
ANSWER
use an ILS.

Which one of the following methods is used by a Microwave Landing System (MLS) to
737 QUESTION
indicate distance from the runway threshold?
Timing the interval between the reception of sequential secondary radar pulses from the
A
MLS station to the aircraft.
Timing the interval between the transmission and reception of primary radar pulses from
B
the aircraft to MLS station.
Measurement of the frequency shift between the MLS azimuth and elevation
C
transmissions.
D A precision DME co-located with the MLS transmitters.
ANSWER A precision DME co-located with the MLS transmitters.

738 QUESTION The frequency of an SSR ground transmission is:

A 1050 +/- 0.5 MHz.
B 1030 +/- 0.2 MHz.
C 1090 +/- 0.3 MHz.
D 1120 +/- 0.6 MHz.
ANSWER 1030 +/- 0.2 MHz.

739 QUESTION The two main design functions of Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) Mode S are:
the elimination of ground to air communications and the introduction of automatic
A
separation between aircraft using TCAS II.

B collision avoidance using TCAS II and improved long range (HF) communication capability.

continuous automatic position reporting using Global Positioning System (GPS) satellites
C
and collision avoidance using TCAS II.
air to ground and ground to air data link communications and improved ATC aircraft
D
surveillance capability.
air to ground and ground to air data link communications and improved ATC aircraft
ANSWER
surveillance capability.

740 QUESTION What SSR modes are currently in use by ATC?

A Mode C and Mode D.
B Mode A and Mode B.
C Mode A and Mode C.
D Mode A, Mode B and Mode C.
ANSWER Mode A and Mode C.

Which one of the following Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) codes should be used by
741 QUESTION
aircraft entering airspace from an area where SSR operation has not been required?
A Pending
B 5000
C 7000
D 2000
ANSWER 2000

742 QUESTION With SSR, interrogation and response signals:

 A are separated by 160 MHz.
B must be set by the pilot but are always 60 MHz apart.
C are at standard frequencies separated by 60 MHz.
D are at variable frequencies set by the controller but are always 63 MHz apart.
ANSWER are at standard frequencies separated by 60 MHz.

743 QUESTION ‘Step error’ is associated with

A EGPWS
B TSI
C Radar altimeters
D Radio altimeters
ANSWER Radio altimeters

744 QUESTION When comparing FM and Pulse Type Radio Altimeters :

A FM type is more accurate
B Pulse type is more accurate
C No diff in accurate
D Depends on Tx freq.
ANSWER FM type is more accurate

745 QUESTION ________________ polarization is used to reduce rain clutter in radar.

A circular
B vertical
C horizontal
D elliptical
ANSWER circular

746 QUESTION A Class B bearing, based on distance, will be accurate up to

A 20 nm
B 10nm
C 25nm
D 30nm
ANSWER 20 nm

747 QUESTION A frequency of 295 KHz would be described as:

A short wave.
B LF.
C MF.
D HF.
ANSWER LF.

748 QUESTION A frequency of 305 KHz would be described as:

A Short Wave.
B LF.
C MF.
D HF.
ANSWER LF

749 QUESTION A polarized wave is that wave

A In which E and H vectors are vertical and horizontal respectively to the earth's surface
B In which E and H vectors are horizontal and vertical respectively to the earth's surface
 C In which E and H vectors reside in fixed plane as the wave progresses
D In which E and H vectors are not present
ANSWER In which E and H vectors reside in fixed plane as the wave progresses

A radar set with a wavelength of 10 cm lies within which of the following frequency
750 QUESTION
bands:
A HF
B VHF
C SHF
D EHF
ANSWER SHF

751 QUESTION A radio signal which is modulated in a manner described as A3E is likely to be used for:
A VHF voice communication.
B HF telegraphy.
C LF/MF radio navigation (NDB).
D a pulsed radar system.
ANSWER VHF voice communication.

752 QUESTION A radio transmission has a wavelength of 2.4 m. The frequency is:
A 12.5 MHz
B 125 MHz
C 720 MHz
D 72 MHz
ANSWER 125 MHz

753 QUESTION A signal with a wavelength of 7360 m lies in the:

A VLF band.
B LF band.
C MF band.
D HF band.
ANSWER LF band.

754 QUESTION An advantage of VHF band as compared to LFband is:

A better reception as wave travels faster.
B reduction in static interference.
C much greater range is possible.
D none of the above
ANSWER reduction in static interference.

755 QUESTION Around a radiating transmitter aerial there is:

A an electrical field.
B a magnetic field.
C an electrical and magnetic field.
D a field of equal ionisation.
ANSWER an electrical and magnetic field.

As a radio signal increases in frequency, ionospheric refraction ... and atmospheric

756 QUESTION
attenuation…
A decreases; increases.
B decreases; decreases.
 C increases; decreases.
D increases; increases.
ANSWER increases; decreases.

757 QUESTION At 100% depth of modulation the power efficiency of amplitude modulation is
A 39449
B 39450
C 39451
D None of the above
ANSWER 39450

758 QUESTION Attenuation of a radio wave is the:

A increase of its power by the combination of multi-path signals.
B change of its frequency by use of sidebands.
C change of its amplitude by use of sidebands.
D reduction of its power by absorption, scattering or spreading.
ANSWER reduction of its power by absorption, scattering or spreading.

759 QUESTION Class C bearings have an accuracy of _______________.

A ±10 degree
B ±5 degree
C ±15 degree
D ±3 degree
ANSWER ±10 degree

760 QUESTION Diffraction of a RF signal is a displacement of its propagation path due to:
A reflection from the surface.
B passing over or though mediums of different conductivity.
C passing over obstacles with dimensions close to the wavelength.
D passing through ionised regions of the upper atmosphere.
ANSWER passing over obstacles with dimensions close to the wavelength.

761 QUESTION Duct propagation results in

A increase in VHF range.
B decrease in VHF range
C increase in HF range
D none of the above
ANSWER increase in VHF range.

762 QUESTION Fading is

A short period variation in phase of a sky wave lasting one min or more
short period fluctuation in relative phases and polarization of a down traveling sky wave
B
lasting one min or less
C short period decreases in interferences lasting one min or less
D short period increases in noise lasting one min or more
short period fluctuation in relative phases and polarization of a down traveling sky wave
ANSWER
lasting one min or less

763 QUESTION For a given HF frequency, skip distance will normally

A have no diurnal variation
B be greater by night than by day
 C be greater by day than by night
D have only a seasonal variation
ANSWER be greater by night than by day

764 QUESTION For a given set of ionospheric conditions, as the frequency of an HF signal is increased:

A the size of the dead space increases solely due to the increasing minimum skip distance.

B the size of the dead space increases solely due to the decreasing minimum skip distance.

the size of the dead space increases because the surface wave coverage decreases, and the
C
minimum skip distance increases.
the size of the dead space decreases because the surface wave coverage decreases, and
D
the minimum skip distance decreases.
the size of the dead space increases because the surface wave coverage decreases, and
ANSWER
the minimum skip distance increases.

765 QUESTION Frequency 3 to 30 GHz are used for

A ILS glide path, radio altimeter and VHF R/T
B point to point communication, LORAN and DME
C Glide Slope, VOR and marker beacons
D WX radar, Doppler NAV system, and FMCW altimeters
ANSWER WX radar, Doppler NAV system, and FMCW altimeters

766 QUESTION Frequency of an EM wave with a wavelength of 30 cm will be _________Hz.

A 1 X 107
B 1 X 109
C 9 X 109
D 9 X 107
ANSWER 1 X 109

Heading 270 deg (T) around dawn with a choice of two frequencies of 9 MHz and 5 MHz
767 QUESTION
for HF communications, to contact a station it would be better to use
A 9 MHz for the station ahead
B 5 MHz for the station behind
C 5 MHz for the station ahead
D none of the above
ANSWER 5 MHz for the station ahead

How many wavelengths of frequency 150 MHz, to the nearest whole no, is equivalent to
768 QUESTION
6 feet ?
A 10
B 9
C 6
D 3
ANSWER 3

769 QUESTION If a radio signal takes 5 micro seconds to travel from A to B, the distance AB is
A 10,000 mtrs
B 50,000 mtrs
C 15,000 mtrs
D 1500 mtrs
 ANSWER 1500 mtrs

If the (i)_______________ of a sky wave is (ii)___________________ then the skip

770 QUESTION distance will (iii)_____________________ and the dead space will (iv)
___________________
A (i) wavelength; (ii) increase; (iii) increase; (iv) increase
B (i) frequency; (ii) increase; (iii) increase; (iv) increase
C (i) frequency; (ii) decrease; (iii) increase; (iv) decrease
D (i) wavelength; (ii) decrease; (iii) increase; (iv) decrease
ANSWER (i) frequency; (ii) increase; (iii) increase; (iv) increase

If you are using HF voice communications & have good two way signal during the day,
771 QUESTION
what must you do as night falls to maintain a communication
A Stay at the same freq. but increase the volume
B change to lower frequency
C Change to higher frequency
D Nothing
ANSWER change to lower frequency

772 QUESTION In a micro second, a radio wave travels approximately

A 1 km
B 3 nm.
C 300 mts.
D 100 mts.
ANSWER 300 mts.

773 QUESTION In an amplitude modulated signal, the amplitude of the carrier wave will:
A vary according to the amplitude of the modulating signal.
remain constant, and the frequency will vary according to the amplitude of the modulating
B
signal.
C vary according to the phase of the modulating signal.
D vary according to the frequency of the modulating signal.
ANSWER vary according to the amplitude of the modulating signal.

774 QUESTION In radio wave propagation, frequency means:

A the speed of radio waves in meters per second.
B the length of a complete waveform in meters.
C the number of complete waveforms passing a spot in one second.
D the number of waveforms in one hour.
ANSWER the number of complete waveforms passing a spot in one second.

In sky wave propagation the distance between the end of the surface wave and the first
775 QUESTION
returning sky wave is called the:
A skip distance.
B minimum theoretical range.
C maximum usable range.
D dead space.
ANSWER dead space.

776 QUESTION In the ionosphere, the F layer

A is the lowest ionized layer
 B is at all times more weakly ionized than other layers
C may be split into two layers by day
D none of the above
ANSWER may be split into two layers by day

777 QUESTION In the MF frequency band:

A skywaves are more common by day than by night.
B skywaves are more common by night than by day.
C ducting is a common phenomena.
D reasonable reception is restricted to line of sight range.
ANSWER skywaves are more common by night than by day.

778 QUESTION Power in a side band is

A Independent of modulation index (m)
B Directly proportional to m2
C Inversely proportional to m2
D Directly proportional to m
ANSWER Directly proportional to m2

779 QUESTION Radio ducting is of most significance on the frequency bands

A VLF to MF
B VHF and above
C MF and HF
D none of the above
ANSWER VHF and above

780 QUESTION Radio waves travel through the atmosphere

A at a speed which varies with power of transmission
B at a speed which varies slightly with the density of the medium
C at a constant speed
D none of the above
ANSWER at a constant speed

781 QUESTION Raindrops absorb signals, at wave length immediately below,

A 1 cm
B 10 cm
C 100 cm
D 10 Mtr
ANSWER 10 cm

782 QUESTION Range of space wave

A is unlimited because it moves through free space
B is appx equal to v1.5Ht of tx + v1.5 Ht of RX
C depends upon the ionization state of upper atmosphere
D reduces due to fading
ANSWER is appx equal to v1.5Ht of tx + v1.5 Ht of RX

783 QUESTION Surface wave attenuation is greatest on

A LF.
B VHF .
C MF
 D VLF
ANSWER VHF .

The attenuation of a radio wave which occurs when the wave travels close to the Earths
784 QUESTION
surface :

A increases as the frequency of the wave increases, and is greater over the land than the sea.

decreases as the frequency of the wave increases, and is greater over the land than the
B
sea.

C increases as the frequency of the wave increases, and is greater over the sea than the land.

decreases as the frequency of the wave increases, and is greater over the sea than the
D
land.
increases as the frequency of the wave increases, and is greater over the land than the
ANSWER
sea.

The critical angle at, which the radio signal refracts enough to return to the earth
785 QUESTION
depends on
A Ionosphere condition
B Time of the day
C Frequency
D All the above are correct
ANSWER All the above are correct

786 QUESTION The density of electrons is max in

A D Layer
B E Layer
C F Layer.
D none of the above
ANSWER F Layer.

The distance between the transmitter and the point on the surface where the first sky
787 QUESTION
return arrives is called the:
A Dead Space
B Zone of silence
C Skip distance
D cone of confusion
ANSWER Skip distance

788 QUESTION The emission characteristics A3E describe:

A ILS.
B VHF communications.
C HF communications.
D VOR
ANSWER VHF communications.

789 QUESTION The frequency which corresponds to a wavelength of 12 mm is:

A 2.5 MHz
B 25 MHz
C 2.5 GHz
D 25 GHz
 ANSWER 25 GHz

790 QUESTION The limits of the VHF band are:

A 300 - 3000 MHz.
B 30 - 300 MHz.
C 300 - 3000 KHz.
D 3 - 30 MHz.
ANSWER 30 - 300 MHz.

791 QUESTION The most important factor influencing sky wave propagation is
A Terrain
B Power of transmission
C Modulation
D Time of the day
ANSWER Time of the day

792 QUESTION The MUF between two specified places at a particular time is
A the frequency which gives the least radio interference
B the maximum frequency which can be used
C the maximum frequency which is reflected by the ionosphere
D none of the above
ANSWER the maximum frequency which can be used

793 QUESTION The range at which you can obtain a VDF bearing or lock on a VOR can be influenced by:
A time of day.
B type of surface.
C height of aircraft.
D intensity of ionisation.
ANSWER height of aircraft.

794 QUESTION The type of SSB transmission used in HF communication is

A A3E
B J3E
C H3E
D B8E
ANSWER J3E

795 QUESTION The wavelength corresponding to a frequency of 108.95 MHz is

A 0.275 m.
B 275 m.
C 27.5 m.
D 2.75 m.
ANSWER 2.75 m.

To establish and maintain effective HF communications the frequency used at a given

796 QUESTION
range:
A should remain constant.
B should be increased at night.
C should be decreased at night.
D should only be varied by season, decreased in summer and increased in winter.
ANSWER should be decreased at night.
797 QUESTION VLF surface waves achieve greater range than LF surface waves because:
A VLF diffraction is greater and attenuation is less.
B VLF diffraction and attenuation are less.
C VLF diffraction is less and attenuation is greater.
D VLF diffraction and attenuation are greater.
ANSWER VLF diffraction is greater and attenuation is less.

What is the minimum level that an aircraft, at a range of 113 NM, must fly in order to
798 QUESTION
contact the tower on R/T for a VDF bearing from an airport sited 169 FT above MSL
A FL 50
B FL 80
C FL 100
D FL 60
ANSWER FL 60

When two separate frequencies are mixed together the resultants are the sum and also
799 QUESTION
the difference between the frequencies. This process is called:
A transponding.
B hydro-phasing.
C frequency modulation.
D heterodyning.
ANSWER heterodyning.

800 QUESTION Which of the following bands of radio frequencies is known as MF

A 30-300 MHz
B 10-30 KHz
C 300-3000 KHz
D 3- 30 MHz
ANSWER 300-3000 KHz

801 QUESTION Which of the following statements is true?

A A broad bandwidth gives a narrow beam width.
B A narrow bandwidth improves beam width.
C A transmissions bandwidth is affected by the design of the aerial.
D Bandwidth must be reduced in order to reduce noise.
ANSWER Bandwidth must be reduced in order to reduce noise.

802 QUESTION Wrt sky wave propagation, dead space is: -

A The area beyond the last sky wave where no signals are received.
B The area between the transmitter and the first sky wave.
C The area between the limits of ground wave coverage and the first sky wave return.
D A combination of all the above.
ANSWER The area beyond the last sky wave where no signals are received.

You are at an altitude of 9.000 feet. At a range of 200nm from a VHF communications
803 QUESTION
transmitter, and you are receiving a good signal.
A You should expect this since the transmitter is at a height of 2.000 feet.
B You should have been receiving the signal from a range of 240 nm.
C You are probably receiving a sky wave signal.
D You are probably receiving a duct propagation signal.
 ANSWER You are probably receiving a duct propagation signal.

804 QUESTION An IRS differs from an INS in that it?

A Has a longer spin-up time and is not affected by vertical acceleration due to gravity.
B Does not need to correct for coriolis and central acceleration.
C Does not experience Schuler errors as accelerometers are strapped down.
D Has a shorter spin-up time and suffers from laser lock.
ANSWER Has a shorter spin-up time and suffers from laser lock.

805 QUESTION How long does it take to align an IRS (Laser Ring Gyros)?
A 10 minutes.
B 15 minutes.
C 1 minute.
D 5 minutes.
ANSWER 10 minutes.

806 QUESTION Operation of RLG is based on

A Photoelectric effect
B Sagnac effect
C Emf effect
D Laser effect
ANSWER Sagnac effect

807 QUESTION The dither motor in a ring laser gyro is used to?
A Compensate for transport wander.
B Stabilise the laser frequencies.
C Enhance the accuracy of the gyro at all rotational rates.
D Overcome laser lock.
ANSWER Overcome laser lock.

What principle is utilized by employing a piezo-electric motor to overcome laser lock in

808 QUESTION
an IRS system?
A Shake.
B Shudder.
C Dither.
D Vibrate.
ANSWER Dither.

809 QUESTION Which of the following statements is true of a Ring Laser Gyro?
A It is not necessarily fixed to true north and is quick to erect.
B It is fixed to true north and is quick to erect.
C It doesn’t suffer from ‘lock in’ and is unaffected by the earth’s gravitational force.
D It is not necessarily fixed to true north but takes along time to erect.
ANSWER It is not necessarily fixed to true north and is quick to erect.

810 QUESTION A terrain following radar is used to

A follow contours in elevation
B fly at a height which corresponds to peak to peak altitude
C avoid terrain in azimuth
D warm a pilot of the underlying terrain`s proximity
ANSWER follow contours in elevation
811 QUESTION A pulse radar has a pulse width of 3 micro secs its minimum range is
A 900 mts
B 450 mts
C 9000 mts
D 4500 mts
ANSWER 450 mts

The most effective way to jam an enemy transmitter whose exact frequency is known,
812 QUESTION
would be:
A Barrage Jamming
B Sweep through Jamming.
C Probability Jamming
D None of the above.
ANSWER None of the above.

813 QUESTION With increase in pulse width, the range resolution:-

A improves
B remains unchanged
C deteriorates
D none of the above
ANSWER improves

814 QUESTION "Whisper-shout" technique is used by TCAS to

A differentiate between Mode'S' equipped and conventional SSR equipped aircraft
B differentiate between replies from nearer and distant aircraft
C reduce confusion by resolving replies from various aircraft in azimuth
D none of the above
ANSWER reduce confusion by resolving replies from various aircraft in azimuth

A "proximity traffic" is displayed on the display device of the TCAS 2 (Traffic Collision
815 QUESTION
Avoidance System) by:
A a blue or white empty lozenge.
B an orange full circle.
C a blue or white full lozenge.
D a red full square.
ANSWER a blue or white empty lozenge.

816 QUESTION A "TCAS II" (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) provides:

the intruder relative position and possibly an indication of a collision avoidance manoeuvre
A
within both the vertical and horizontal planes.
B a simple intruding airplane proximity warning.
the intruder relative position and possibly an indication of a collision avoidance manoeuvre
C
within the Vertical plane only.
the intruder relative position and possibly an indication of a collision avoidance manoeuvre
D
within the horizontal plane only.
the intruder relative position and possibly an indication of a collision avoidance
ANSWER
manoeuvre within the Vertical plane only.

817 QUESTION A solid yellow circle on TCAS indicates

A TA
 B RA
C TA & RA
D Caution
ANSWER RA

818 QUESTION ACAS II gives information to the Pilot about collision threats and it provides
A The range of a possible collision threat but no brg
B The brg of a possible collision threat but no range

C The range and brg of a possible collision threat and avoidance action in the vertical plane

D Advises the pilot about avoiding action in the horizontal plane

ANSWER The range and brg of a possible collision threat and avoidance action in the vertical plane

An "intruding traffic advisory" is represented on the display system of the TCAS 2 (Traffic
819 QUESTION
Collision Avoidance System) by displaying:
A a red full square.
B a blue or white empty lozenge.
C a blue or white full lozenge.
D a yellow full circle.
ANSWER a yellow full circle.

820 QUESTION Concerning the TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System):

A In one of the system modes, the warning : "TOO LOW TERRAIN" is generated
B In one of the system modes, the warning : "PULL UP" is generated

C No protection is available against aircraft not equipped with a serviceable SSR transponder

D Resolution advisor (RA) must not be followed without obtaining a clearance from ATC
No protection is available against aircraft not equipped with a serviceable SSR
ANSWER
transponder

821 QUESTION In TCAS ‘Proximate traffic’ means

A +- 600ft, <12 Nm
B _+600ft, <6 Nm
C _+1200ft, <6 Nm
D _+1200ft, <30 Nm
ANSWER _+1200ft, <6 Nm

In the event of a conflict, the TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) will give
822 QUESTION
information such as:
A climb/descent.
B turn left/turn right.
C too low terrain.
D glide slope.
ANSWER climb/descent.

On a TCAS2 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) the preventive "resolution advisory"

823 QUESTION
(RA) is a "resolution advisory":
A asking the pilot to modify the heading of his aircraft
B asking the pilot to modify the speed of his aircraft
C asking the pilot to modify effectively the vertical speed of his aircraft
 that advises the pilot to avoid certain deviations from the current vertical rate but does not
D
require any change to be made to that rate
that advises the pilot to avoid certain deviations from the current vertical rate but does
ANSWER
not require any change to be made to that rate

824 QUESTION On receipt of a TCAS RA your action is to:

A initiate the required manoeuvre immediately.
B make a note of the details.
C request a flight clearance deviation from ATC.
D do nothing until a TA is received.
ANSWER initiate the required manoeuvre immediately.

On the display of a TCAS 2 (Traffic alert and Collision Avoidance System), a resolution
825 QUESTION
advisory (RA) is represented by:
A a white or cyan empty lozenge.
B a red full square.
C an amber solid circle.
D a white or cyan solid lozenge.
ANSWER a red full square.

826 QUESTION Parrots are nuisance warnings associated

A Weather Radar
B GPWS
C TCAS
D ACARS
ANSWER TCAS

827 QUESTION TCAS 2 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) uses for its operation:
both the replies from the transponders of other aircraft and the ground-based radar
A
echoes.
B the echoes of collision avoidance radar system especially installed on board.
C the echoes from the ground air traffic control radar system.
D the replies from the transponders of other aircraft.
ANSWER the replies from the transponders of other aircraft.

828 QUESTION TCAS 2 when fitted with mode C transponder may give:
A TA only.
B TA and RA in horizontal plane.
C TA and RA in vertical plane.
D RA only.
ANSWER TA and RA in vertical plane.

TCAS II obtains information from: 1.Pressure encoding from mode C transponder 2.Radio
829 QUESTION
altimeter 3.Aircraft specific configurations 4.Inertial reference unit (IRU)
A 1, & 2
B 1, 2, & 4
C 1, 2, 3, & 4
D 1, 2, & 3
ANSWER 1, & 2

830 QUESTION TCAS stands for

 A time/frequency controlled collision avoidance system
B traffic collision avoidance system
C time controlled collision avoidance system
D tri-modal collision avoidance system
ANSWER traffic collision avoidance system

831 QUESTION The ACAS

A Receives Mode C inputs of intruder aircraft (if Mode C is available on intruder aircraft)
B Inhibits descent RAS based on radio altimeter inputs
C Responds to intruder aircraft Mode S interrogations
D All of the above
ANSWER All of the above

832 QUESTION The aural messages provided by TCAS II are:

A Threat, Climb; Threat, Descend
B Climb left; Climb right; Descend left; Descend right
C Climb; Descend; Increase climb; Increase Descent
D Turn left, Turn Right, Increase Turn, Decrease Turn
ANSWER Climb; Descend; Increase climb; Increase Descent

833 QUESTION The principle of the TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance Systems) is based on the use of:
A FMS (Flight Management System)
B transponders fitted in the aircraft
C air traffic control radar systems
D airborne weather radar system
ANSWER transponders fitted in the aircraft

834 QUESTION The principle that TCAS uses is:

A Primary radar.
B ATC radar.
C RT communications.
D Transponder principle
ANSWER Transponder principle

The TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) computer receives information:1.about the
835 QUESTION pressure altitude through the mode C transponder 2.from the radio-altimeter 3.specific
to the airplane configuration 4.from the inertial units.The combination regroupi

A 1, 2, 3, 4.
B 1, 2, 3.
C 1, 2, 4.
D 1, 2.
ANSWER 1, 2.

836 QUESTION The TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) gives avoidance resolutions:
A only in the horizontal plane.
B in horizontal and vertical planes.
C only in the vertical plane.
D based on speed control.
ANSWER only in the vertical plane.
 The TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) is a proximity alarm system which detects
837 QUESTION
a "traffic" when the conflicting traffic is equipped with a:
A SELCAL system.
B serviceable weather radar.
C serviceable SSR transponder.
D DME system.
ANSWER serviceable SSR transponder.

The TCAS 1 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) provides: 1.traffic information

838 QUESTION 2.horizontal resolution (RA: Resolution Advisory) 3.vertical resolution (RA: Resolution
Advisory) 4.ground proximity warning. The combination regrouping all the correct statem

A 1
B 1, 2.
C 1, 2, 3.
D 1, 2, 3, 4.
ANSWER 1

The TCAS 2 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) provides: 1.traffic information (TA: Traffic
839 QUESTION Advisory) 2.horizontal resolution (RA: Resolution Advisory) 3.vertical resolution (RA:
Resolution Advisory) 4.ground proximity warning The combination regrouping
A 1, 2, 3, 4.
B 1, 2.
C 1, 2, 3.
D 1, 3.
ANSWER 1, 3.

The TCAS II data display devices can be in the form of: 1.a specific dedicated screen 2.a
840 QUESTION screen combined with the weather radar 3. on a liquid crystal screen which allows the
display of Traffic Advisory (TA) and Resolution Advisory (RA) 4. an EFIS (Elect
A 1, 2 and 3.
B 1, 2, 3 & 4
C 3 and 4.
D 3 and 4.
ANSWER 1, 2, 3 & 4

The use of TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) for avoiding an aircraft in flight is
841 QUESTION
now general. TCAS uses for its operation:
both the replies from the transponders of other aircraft and the ground-based radar
A
echoes
B the replies from the transponders of other aircraft
C the echoes from the ground air traffic control radar system
D the echoes of collision avoidance radar system especially installed on board
ANSWER the replies from the transponders of other aircraft

842 QUESTION What corrective action is given by TCAS?

A Turn left or right.
B Climb or descend.
C Contact ATC.
D Turn then climb or descend.
ANSWER Climb or descend.
843 QUESTION What is the correct response to a TCAS RA?
A Smoothly and immediately follow the climb or descent commands.
B Request permission to manoeuvre from ATC.
C Follow ATC instructions as these override TCAS RA's.
D Turn 090 and smoothly and immediately follow the climb or descent commands.
ANSWER Smoothly and immediately follow the climb or descent commands.

When an intruder aircraft has no Altitude Reporting facility (Mode A transponder only).
844 QUESTION
TCAS 2 can give:
A a corrective RA only.
B TA followed by preventative and corrective RA's.
C TA only.
D no useful information.
ANSWER TA only.

When the intruding aircraft is equipped with a serviceable mode C transponder, the TCAS
845 QUESTION
II (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) generates a:
A "traffic advisory" and horizontal "resolution advisory".
B "traffic advisory" and vertical "resolution advisory".
C "traffic advisory" only.
D "traffic advisory", vertical and horizontal "resolution advisory".
ANSWER "traffic advisory" and vertical "resolution advisory".

846 QUESTION Where is TCAS resolution information displayed?

A On the VSI
B On the EADI
C On a separate TCAS display
D All these solutions are possible
ANSWER All these solutions are possible

847 QUESTION Which is the correct input to TCAS 2?

A Mode 'A' transponder which gives TA and RA's.
B Mode 'C' transponder which co-ordinates avoidance manoeuvres.
C Mode 'C' and 'S' transponders which co-ordinate avoidance manoeuvres.
D Mode 'S' transponder which co-ordinates avoidance manoeuvres.
ANSWER Mode 'S' transponder which co-ordinates avoidance manoeuvres.

848 QUESTION Which of the following is a preventative RA?

A Monitor vertical speed.
B Turn left.
C Traffic, traffic.
D Climb, climb now.
ANSWER Monitor vertical speed.

849 QUESTION Which of the following statements concerning TCAS is correct?

A TCAS 2 provides avoidance instructions in the vertical and horizontal planes.
B TCAS 2 cannot provide information on non-SSR equipped intruders.
C TCAS 2 requires Mode S to be fitted to other aircraft.
D TCAS 2 provides advice on which way to turn.
ANSWER TCAS 2 cannot provide information on non-SSR equipped intruders.
 With reference to Traffic Collision Avoidance Systems. The difference between TCAS I and
850 QUESTION
II is that:
TCAS II can provide 'Traffic Advisories' and 'Resolution Advisories' while TCAS I can only
A
provide 'Traffic Advisories'
TCAS II can only be fitted to large aircraft which carry more than 30 passengers. While TCAS
B
I can be fitted to any aircraft
TCAS I can be fitted to aircraft which carry transponders with Mode A only while TCAS II
C
can only be fitted to aircraft whose transponders include either Mode C or Mode S
D TCAS II can only be fitted to aircraft which are equipped with EFIS
TCAS II can provide 'Traffic Advisories' and 'Resolution Advisories' while TCAS I can only
ANSWER
provide 'Traffic Advisories'

851 QUESTION With reference to Traffic Collision Avoidance Systems:

RAs may be disregarded only when the pilot visually identifies the potentially conflicting
A
traffic and decides that no deviation is necessary and has the clearance confirmed by ATC.

RAs may be disregarded only when the pilot visually identifies the potentially conflicting
B traffic and decides that no deviation is necessary and has advised ATC of the other aircraft's
proximity.
C RAs must never be disregarded.
RAs may be disregarded only when the pilot visually identifies the potentially conflicting
D
traffic and decides that no deviation is necessary.
RAs may be disregarded only when the pilot visually identifies the potentially conflicting
ANSWER traffic and decides that no deviation is necessary and has the clearance confirmed by
ATC.

852 QUESTION A maximum range and altitude is published for a VOR to indicate that ___________
The signal from the VOR will be too weak to provide information when you are outside this
A
airspace.
The terrain will cause bends and/or scalloping on the VOR signal and make it inaccurate in
B
the airspace outside the published airspace.
The reception from this VOR is guaranteed free from interference from other VORs when
C
you are within this airspace.
You are guaranteed to receive no interference to the VOR signal from other radio
D
transmissions as long as you are within the air space published.
The reception from this VOR is guaranteed free from interference from other VORs when
ANSWER
you are within this airspace.

A VOR frequency is selected and VOR and DME indications are received on the
853 QUESTION appropriate indicators. The VOR ident is GDV and the DME MFT. This indicates that VOR
and DME transmitters are:
A co-located, and the bearing and range can be plotted from the VOR position.
B at two independent positions and are not related.
C serving the same location and may be plotted after checking the two positions.
D this indicates that GDV is a TACAN installation.
ANSWER at two independent positions and are not related.

A VOR is sited at position 58°00 N 073°00 W where the magnetic variation equals 32°W.
854 QUESTION An aircraft is located at position 56°00 N 073°00 W where the magnetic variation equals
28°W. The aircraft is on VOR radial:
 A 360
B 208
C 212
D 180
ANSWER 212

A VOR is sited at position A (45°00N, 010°00E). An aircraft is located at position B

855 QUESTION (44°00N, 010°00E). Assuming that the magnetic variation at A is 10°W and at B is 15°W,
the aircraft is on VOR radial:
A 185°
B 180°
C 190°
D 195°
ANSWER 190°

856 QUESTION A VOT is:

A a test VOR.
B a terminal VOR.
C a trial VOR.
D a tracking VOR
ANSWER a test VOR.

A/C is maintaining Hdg (C)=225 and proceeding out from an A/F. Deviation = 3°W,
857 QUESTION Variation=2°E. Var at VOR stn=10°E. Drift being experienced = 5°S. Co-located NDB & VOR
indications on the RMI and OBS setting for CDI to centralize will be as follows:-
A 219/039 / 219/039
B 039/047 / 219/039
C 042/222 / 042/222
D 219/229 / 040/220.
ANSWER 039/047 / 219/039

Aircraft is on Track 047 (T) to a VOR. VOR Stn variation is 3 W. OBS setting to retain it CDI
858 QUESTION
centralised and sector indication 'TO' I s:
A 50
B 30
C 44
D 224
ANSWER 50

An aeroplane is on radial 070° of a VOR, HDG is 270°. If the OBS is set to 260°, the CDI will
859 QUESTION
show:
A fly right /TO.
B fly left/ TO.
C fly left/ FROM
D fly right /FROM
ANSWER fly left/ TO.

An aircraft at 6.000 amsl is attempting to receive a VOR signal from a station at 240 amsl.
860 QUESTION Assuming no other factors are involved the maximum range at which the signal could be
detected is:
A 151 nm
 B 116 nm
C 116 km
D 151 km
ANSWER 116 nm

An aircraft at FL 100 should be able to receive a VOR ground station at 100 FT AMSL at an
861 QUESTION
approximate maximum range of:
A 135 NM
B 123 NM
C 130 NM
D 142 NM
ANSWER 135 NM

862 QUESTION An aircraft equipped with TACAN receiver will get

A slant range from a VOR/DME station
B slant range and mag brg from VOR/DME station
C magnetic brgs only from a VOR TAC station
D slant range only from a VOR TAC station
ANSWER slant range from a VOR/DME station

An aircraft heading 140°(M) bears 320°(T) from a VOR (VAR 10°E). The bearing, selected
863 QUESTION
on the OBS which would make the CDI show TO and the needle centralise would be:
A 120°
B 130°
C 320°
D 330°
ANSWER 130°

An aircraft is 100 NM from a VOR facility. Assuming no error when using a deviation
864 QUESTION indicator where 1 dot = 2° deviation, how many dots deviation from the centre line of the
instrument will represent the limits of the airway boundary? (Assume that the air
A 6
B 3
C 4.5
D 1.5
ANSWER 3

An aircraft is flying on a heading of 270°(M). The VOR OBS is also set to 270° with the full
865 QUESTION left deflection and FROM flag displayed. The aircraft is ___________ of the VOR ground
station:
A SE
B SW
C NW
D NE
ANSWER NW

An aircraft is flying on the true track 090° towards a VOR station located near the equator
866 QUESTION where the magnetic variation is 15°E. The variation at the aircraft position is 8°E. The
phase difference between the reference and the variable signal at the airc
A 255°.
B 278°.
 C 262°.
D 285°.
ANSWER 255°.

An aircraft is maintaining radial from a VOR at 61N 013W to a VOR at 58N 013W. The
867 QUESTION variation at the beacon is 13W and the variation at the aircraft is 5W. What radial is the
aircraft on?
A 13
B 15
C 193
D 187
ANSWER 193

An aircraft is on a bearing of 263°(M) from a VOR station, the OBI is set to 091°, the
868 QUESTION
deviation indicator will show:
A FROM and fly right 4 dots.
B FROM and fly left 4 dots.
C TO and fly left 4 dots.
D TO and fly right 4 dots.
ANSWER TO and fly left 4 dots.

An aircraft is on a heading of 100 degrees (m) from a VOR. To make the VOR/ILS
869 QUESTION deviation indicator needle centralise with the TO flag showing, the following bearing
should be selected on the OBS:
A 100 degrees.
B 110 degrees.
C 290 degrees.
D 280 degrees.
ANSWER 280 degrees.

An aircraft is on a VOR radial of 235°, heading 003°(M), and with the OBS set to 060. The
870 QUESTION
correct indications are:
A TO; 1/2 Scale deflection to the right.
B FROM; 1/2 Scale deflection to the left.
C TO; 1/2 Scale deflection to the left.
D FROM; 1/2 Scale deflection to the right.
ANSWER TO; 1/2 Scale deflection to the left.

An aircraft is on Hdg 050(T) and is tracking on a VOR radial with OBS set to 068. The
871 QUESTION TO/FROM indicator indicates ‘From’. The variation at the VOR station = 10 W. The LSR or
Brg(R) from an NDB sited at the VOR station =
A 8
B 188
C 172
D 52
ANSWER 188

An aircraft is on Hdg 300°. OBS is set to 300. CDI shows 3 dots turn left and TO/FROM
872 QUESTION indicator reads TO. Aircraft is turned on to reciprocal heading of 120° and the OBS
setting remains unchanged. The indication will be
A No change takes place on the CDI and on TO/FROM indication
 B CDI shows 3 dots turn left and sector indicates FROM
C CDI shows 3 dots turn right and sector remains unchanged at TO
D CDI shows 3 dots turn right and sector indicates FROM
ANSWER CDI shows 3 dots turn right and sector indicates FROM

An aircraft is on radial 120 with a magnetic heading of 300°, the track selector (OBS)
873 QUESTION
reads: 330. The indications on the Course Deviation Indicator (CDI) are fly:
A left with FROM showing.
B right with TO showing.
C right with FROM showing.
D left with TO showing.
ANSWER left with TO showing.

An aircraft is proceeding to a VOR on radial 274. Drift = 10° S. Variation at the VOR
874 QUESTION
station = 5° W and at the aircraft DR position is 3° W. Hdg to maintain =
A 079 (M)
B 088 (M)
C 084 (M)
D 082 (M)
ANSWER 082 (M)

An aircraft is required to approach a VOR station via the 244° radial. In order to obtain
875 QUESTION
correct sense indications the deviation indicator or HSI course selector should be set to:
A 064° with the FROM flag showing.
B 064° with the TO flag showing.
C 244° with the FROM flag showing.
D 244° with the TO flag showing.
ANSWER 064° with the TO flag showing.

An aircraft is required to approach a VOR via the 104° radial. Which of the following
876 QUESTION
settings should be made on the VOR/ILS deviation indicator?
A 284° with the FROM flag showing.
B 284° with the TO flag showing.
C 104° with the TO flag showing.
D 104° with the FROM flag showing.
ANSWER 284° with the TO flag showing.

An aircraft is required to maintain Radial 160 to a VOR. Drift =Zero. DME indicates 60 Nm.
877 QUESTION
The RMI indicates 336 . The aircraft’s position is
A 4Nm stbd of selected radial
B 4Nm port of selected radial
C Insufficient data to determine aircraft position
D Depends on the OBS setting
ANSWER 4Nm stbd of selected radial

An aircraft is tracking inbound to a VOR beacon on the 105 radial. The setting the pilot
878 QUESTION
should put on the OBS and the CDI indications are:
A 105, FROM.
B 105, TO.
C 285, FROM.
D 285, TO.
 ANSWER 285, TO.

An aircraft is tracking the 065° radial inbound to VOR X. With 12° port drift what is the
879 QUESTION
compass Hdg to fly if the deviation is 2° E ?
A 259°
B 075°
C 255°
D 077°
ANSWER 255°

An aircraft on a heading of 270° (M) has 093 set on the OBS and TO indicated on the VOR
880 QUESTION
L/R deviation indicator. The needle shows two dots fly left. The aircraft is on the:
A 277° radial.
B 089° radial
C 097° radial
D 269° radial
ANSWER 269° radial

An aircraft on a heading of 280°(M) is on a bearing of 090°(M) from a VOR. The bearing

881 QUESTION you should select on the OMNI bearing selector to centralise the VOR/ILS left/right
deviation needle with a TO indication is:
A 100°
B 090°
C 270°
D 280°
ANSWER 270°

An airway 10 NM wide is to be defined by two VOR’s each having a resultant bearing

882 QUESTION accuracy of plus or minus 5.5°. In order to ensure accurate track guidance within the
airway limits the maximum distance apart for the transmitter is approximately:
A 165 NM.
B 50 NM.
C 109 NM.
D 210 NM.
ANSWER 109 NM.

An Omni-bearing selector (OBS) shows full deflection to the left when within range of a
883 QUESTION
serviceable VOR. What angular deviation are you from the selected radial?
A 10° or more.
B less than 10°.
C 1.5° or more.
D 2.5 or more
ANSWER 10° or more.

An RMI slaved to a remote indicating compass has gone unserviceable and is locked on to
884 QUESTION a reading of 090°.The tail of the VOR pointer shows 135°. The available information from
the VOR is:
A Radial 315°, relative bearing unknown.
B Radial unknown, relative bearing 225°.
C Radial unknown, relative bearing 045°.
D Radial 135°, relative bearing unknown.
 ANSWER Radial 135°, relative bearing unknown.

At a height 5.000 feet you might expect to receive a VHF signal, from a transmitter at sea
885 QUESTION
level, at a range of:
A 88.4 nm
B 88.4 km
C 70.7 nm
D 200 km
ANSWER 88.4 nm

886 QUESTION Compared to ADF, VOR

A is more accurate and easy to interpret
B is not affected by static and night effect
C has lesser range but more accurate
D can give only mag brg but not relative
ANSWER is not affected by static and night effect

During maintenance, malfunction or testing the identification signal of a VOR transmitter

887 QUESTION
is (i) by (ii) or (iii).
A (i) suppressed; (ii) a continuous tone; (iii) removed
B (i) replaced; (ii) a continuous tone; (iii) morse letter S
C (i) suppressed; (ii) a modulated tone; (iii) suppressed
D (i) removed; (ii) an antiphase signal; (iii) suppressed
ANSWER (i) suppressed; (ii) a continuous tone; (iii) removed

For a conventional VOR a phase difference of 090 deg between the reference and the
888 QUESTION
variable signal would be achieved by flying ________________ from the beacon.
A west
B north
C east
D south
ANSWER east

For an aircraft at 30.000 ft what is the maximum radius above a VOR where unreliable or
889 QUESTION
no signals at all may be received:
A 2 nm.
B 4 nm
C 5 nm
D 3 nm
ANSWER 4 nm

Given: Aircraft heading 160° (M). Aircraft is on radial 240° from a VOR. Selected course on
890 QUESTION
HSI is 250°.The HSI indications are deviation bar:
A ahead of the aeroplane symbol with the FROM flag showing.
B ahead of the aeroplane symbol with the TO flag showing.
C behind the aeroplane symbol with the FROM flag showing.
D behind the aeroplane symbol with the TO flag showing.
ANSWER behind the aeroplane symbol with the FROM flag showing.

Given: Course Deviation Indicator (CDI) for a VOR is selected to 090°. From/To indicator
891 QUESTION
indicates TO. CDI needle is deflected halfway to the right. On what radial is the aircraft?
 A 85
B 275
C 265
D 95
ANSWER 275

Given: Magnetic heading 280° VOR radial 090° What bearing should be selected on the
892 QUESTION omni-bearing selector in order to centralise the VOR deviation needle with a TO
indication?
A 100°
B 280°
C 270°
D 090°
ANSWER 270°

Given: VOR station position N61° E025°, variation 13°E; Estimated position of an aircraft
893 QUESTION
N59° E025°, variation20°E. What VOR radial is the aircraft on?
A 167°.
B 347°.
C 160°.
D 193°.
ANSWER 167°.

894 QUESTION If an aircraft flies along a VOR radial it will follow a:

A rhumbline track.
B great circle track.
C line of constant bearing.
D constant magnetic track.
ANSWER great circle track.

If the receiver is due magnetic north of the VOR beacon the phase difference between
895 QUESTION
the variable and reference is
A zero
B 180°
C zero+var
D 180°+var
ANSWER zero

If the reference phase differs 30° with the variable phase the radial from the VOR station
896 QUESTION
will be:
A 030° for a doppler VOR only
B 330° for a conventional VOR only
C 210° for a doppler VOR only
D None of the above
ANSWER None of the above

If VOR bearing information is used beyond the published protection range, errors could
897 QUESTION
be caused by:
A sky wave interference from distant transmitters on the same frequency.
B interference from other transmitters.
C noise from precipitation static exceeding the signal strength of the transmitter.
 D sky wave interference from the same transmitter.
ANSWER interference from other transmitters.

If you correctly tuned in a VOT situated to your east, your RMI should read
898 QUESTION
________________ and your OBS would read ________________
A 000; 000 with needle central and TO indicated.
B 090; 090 with needle central and FROM indicated.
C 000; 000 with needle central and FROM indicated.
D 090; 090 with needle central and TO indicated.
ANSWER 000; 000 with needle central and FROM indicated.

899 QUESTION In a Doppler VOR

A reference signal is frequency modulated
B airborne equipment need not be changed as compared to a conventional VOR
C site error is reduced due to increased aperture of the antenna
D both B and C are correct
ANSWER both B and C are correct

900 QUESTION In a DVOR the resultant propagation is:

A more sensitive to obstructions around its vicinity than conventional VOR
B less sensitive to obstructions around its vicinity than conventional VOR
C equally sensitive to obstructions around its vicinity than conventional VOR
D none of the above
ANSWER less sensitive to obstructions around its vicinity than conventional VOR

901 QUESTION In order to establish what radial you are on, you could:
A Read the OBS when the CDI is centered and the TO/FROM is showing TO.
Rotate the OBS until the CDI gets centered and the TO/FROM indicator is showing FROM.
B
Then read the radial on the OBS.
Turn the OBS to make the TO/FROM change from TO to FROM. The OBS is now indicating
C
the radial you are on.
Turn the aircraft until the CDI is centered. The aircraft magnetic heading is now the
D
reciprocal of the radial you are on.
Rotate the OBS until the CDI gets centered and the TO/FROM indicator is showing FROM.
ANSWER
Then read the radial on the OBS.

In order to plot a bearing from a VOR station, a pilot needs to know the magnetic
902 QUESTION
variation:
A at the VOR.
B at the aircraft location.
C at the haLF-way point between the aircraft and the station.
D at both the VOR and aircraft.
ANSWER at the VOR.

903 QUESTION In which frequency band do VOR transmitters operate?

A VHF
B UHF
C SHF
D EHF
ANSWER VHF
904 QUESTION The antenna polar diagram of a conventional VOR is a Limacon and
A Is always directed towards the aircraft.
B Is like a figure of 8.
C Is a pencil beam.
D Rotates at 30 revolutions per second.
ANSWER Rotates at 30 revolutions per second.

The approximate width of the cone of confusion at 15.000 ft overhead a VOR beacon
905 QUESTION
should not be greater than?
A 6 nm
B 4 nm
C 3 nm
D 2 nm
ANSWER 2 nm

906 QUESTION The average total system error using VOR is:
A +/- 5° at 95% of the times
B +/- 7.5° at 95% of the times
C +/- 3.5° at 95% of the times
D +/- 2.5° at 95% of the times
ANSWER +/- 5° at 95% of the times

907 QUESTION The basic principle of operation of the VOR is by:

A phase comparison between a 63 Hz reference signal and a 63 Hz variable signal.
B amplitude difference between a 30 Hz reference signal and a 30 Hz variable signal.
C phase comparison between a 30 Hz reference signal and a 30 Hz variable signal.
D phase comparison between a 30 Hz reference signal and a 63 Hz variable signal.
ANSWER phase comparison between a 30 Hz reference signal and a 30 Hz variable signal.

908 QUESTION The correct setting on the OBS or the HSI course pointer is
A Magnetic heading
B QDR
C QDM
D Magnetic track
ANSWER Magnetic track

The HSI is showing half full scale deflection fly right with a TO indication. The aircraft
909 QUESTION
heading is 280(M) and the required track is 270(M). The radial is:
A 275
B 265
C 85
D 95
ANSWER 95

910 QUESTION The Frequency Band allocated for Doppler VOR is

A 108 TO 117.975 MHZ
B 100 TO 110.975 MHZ.
C 100 TO 130.975 MHZ.
D 100 TO 122.25 MHZ
ANSWER 108 TO 117.975 MHZ
911 QUESTION The frequency range of a VOR receiver is:
A 108 to 117.975 MHz.
B 108 to 111.975 MHz.
C 118 to 135.975 MHz.
D 108 to 135.975 MHz.
ANSWER 108 to 117.975 MHz.

912 QUESTION The ICAO designation for VOR emission is:

A A3W
B A9W
C J3E
D A8W
ANSWER A9W

The maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at FL210 may receive signals from a
913 QUESTION
VOR facility sited 340 feet above mean sea level is approximately:
A 163 NM.
B 245 NM.
C 204 NM.
D 183 NM.
ANSWER 204 NM.

The maximum theoretical range that an aircraft flying at 14.400 ft can receive signals
914 QUESTION
from a VOR station (400 ft amsl) is:
A 72.5 nm.
B 152 nm.
C 175 nm.
D 203 nm.
ANSWER 175 nm.

The monitor facility of a VOR removes the Ident from the transmission if the radial
915 QUESTION
information is found to be in error greater than
A 1°
B 2°
C 3°
D 4°
ANSWER 1°

The needle of a CDI is showing 3 dots right with 268 set and FROM showing. The aircraft
916 QUESTION
is on a VOR radial of:
A 82
B 94
C 262
D 274
ANSWER 262

The phase difference between the reference and variable signals on QDM 050° (VAR
917 QUESTION
10°W) for a conventional VOR is:
A 050°
B 040°
C 230°
 D 220°
ANSWER 230°

918 QUESTION The principle advantage of Doppler VOR is that:

A the effective range is increased.
B a readout of range as well as bearing is obtained.
C site errors are considerably reduced.
D transmitter frequency instability is minimised.
ANSWER site errors are considerably reduced.

919 QUESTION The principle used in VOR bearing measurement is:

A envelope matching.
B beat frequency discrimination.
C difference in depth of modulation.
D phase comparison.
ANSWER phase comparison.

920 QUESTION The reference signal of a VOR is

A Amplitude modulated at 30 Hz
B Frequency modulated at 30 Hz
C Pulse modulated at 30 Hz
D Phase modulated at 30 Hz
ANSWER Frequency modulated at 30 Hz

The RMI indicates aircraft magnetic heading. To convert the RMI bearings of NDBs and
921 QUESTION VOR’s to true bearings the correct positions to read magnetic variation are: __________
for (VOR) & _____________ for (NDB)
A aircraft position, beacon position.
B beacon position, beacon position.
C beacon position, aircraft position.
D aircraft position, aircraft position.
ANSWER beacon position, aircraft position.

922 QUESTION The TO/FROM indicator of a VOR:

A Tells whether you are now flying towards or from the VOR.

B Tells whether a track equal to the selected bearing will bring you to or away from the VOR.

Tells whether the deviation indicator shows that you should manoeuvre the aircraft
C
towards or from the CDI needle.
D Tells whether you should turn the aircraft towards or away from the CDI indication.
Tells whether a track equal to the selected bearing will bring you to or away from the
ANSWER
VOR.

923 QUESTION The transmission freq of VOR is:

A more than DVOR.
B less than DVOR
C same as DVOR
D none of the above
ANSWER same as DVOR
 The two signals transmitted by a conventional VOR ground station are 90° out of phase
924 QUESTION
on magnetic:
A west.
B south.
C east.
D north.
ANSWER east.

925 QUESTION The variable signal of a conventional VOR is:

A 30 Hz frequency modulated.
B 30 Hz amplitude modulated.
C 9960 Hz frequency modulated.
D 9960 Hz amplitude modulated.
ANSWER 30 Hz amplitude modulated.

926 QUESTION The VOR’s errors can be described as :-

A Coastal effect, precipitation static, might effect
B Night effect, co-channel interference, quadrantal error
C Scalloping, Propagation error, Instrument error & Site error
D Night effect, scalloping height effect, precipitation static
ANSWER Scalloping, Propagation error, Instrument error & Site error

927 QUESTION Transmissions from VOR facilities may be adversely affected by:
A static interference.
B uneven propagation over irregular terrain close to the transmitter
C night effect.
D quadrantal error.
ANSWER uneven propagation over irregular terrain close to the transmitter

Using a 5 dot CDI, how many dots would show for an aircraft on the edge of an airway at
928 QUESTION
100 nm from the VOR beacon? ( Semi width of airway = 10 Nm)
A 5
B 2.5
C 1.5
D 3
ANSWER 3

929 QUESTION Using a VOR beyond the limits of the DOC may result in:
A loss of signal due to line of sight limitations.
B interference from other VOR’s operating on the same frequency.
C skywave contamination of the VOR signal.
D scalloping errors.
ANSWER interference from other VOR’s operating on the same frequency.

930 QUESTION VOR range is affected by

A Transmission power, aircraft altitude, night effect
B Station elevation, receiver altitude, and static interference
C Station elevation, aircraft altitude, and transmission power
D Night effect, Coastal refraction, Interference
ANSWER Station elevation, aircraft altitude, and transmission power
931 QUESTION What is the approved frequency band assigned to VOR?
A 108-117.975 MHz which is LF
B 108-117.975 MHz which is MF
C 108-117.975 MHz which is HF
D 108-117.975 MHz which is VHF
ANSWER 108-117.975 MHz which is VHF

What is the approximate maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at FL130 could
932 QUESTION
receive information from a VOR facility which is sited 1024 FT above MSL?
A 180 NM
B 220 NM
C 120 NM
D 150 NM
ANSWER 180 NM

What is the maximum range at which a VOR station at 325 ft elevation can provide a
933 QUESTION
service to an aircraft at FL080?
A 134 nm
B 107 nm
C 91 nm
D 114 nm
ANSWER 134 nm

What is the maximum theoretical range that an aircraft at FL150 can receive signals from
934 QUESTION
a VOR situated 609 feet above MSL?
A 156 NM
B 220 NM
C 147 NM
D 184 NM
ANSWER 184 NM

935 QUESTION When the warning flag on a VOR indicator appears, it may indicate?
A That no signal is received.
B That the received signal is too week to be processed in the receiver.
That the quality of the received signal is so poor that a stable establishment of phase
C
difference between the reference and the variable signal is not possible.
D All 3 answers are correct.
ANSWER All 3 answers are correct.

When using a DVOR, the pilot should be aware that the reference and variable signals are
936 QUESTION
reversed. This:
A does not affect the VOR indications in any way.
B reverses the indications.
C improves the accuracy.
D improves the range.
ANSWER does not affect the VOR indications in any way.

937 QUESTION When using an RMI as an indicator for the VOR receiver?
A You will read the drift as the angle between the OBS bug and the tip of the VOR needle.
B You will read the number of the received radial under the tail of the VOR needle.
 The TO/FROM indication on the RMI will indicate which way to turn the aircraft in order to
C
fly towards the VOR station being received
D You will read the number of the received radial under the tip of the VOR needle.
ANSWER You will read the number of the received radial under the tail of the VOR needle.

938 QUESTION Which of the following can affect the accuracy of VOR?
A Coastal refraction.
B Sky waves.
C Night effect.
D Site error
ANSWER Site error

Which of the following coordinate systems is used by the GPS receiver to determine
939 QUESTION
position (Latitude, longitude and altitude)?
A EUREF 92
B WGS 84
C ED 87
D ED 50
ANSWER WGS 84

940 QUESTION Which of the following does NOT affect the accuracy of VOR bearings:
A sky waves.
B duct propagation.
C ground reflections.
D synchronous transmissions.
ANSWER sky waves.

Which of the following lists information required to input a waypoint or Phantom Station
941 QUESTION
into a basic VOR/DME- based Area Navigation System?
A Magnetic track and distance from the aircraft to the waypoint or Phantom Station.
B Magnetic track and distance to a VOR/DME from the Waypoint or Phantom Station.
C Radials from a minimum of two VOR’s to the waypoint or Phantom Station.
D Radial and distance from a VOR/DME to the waypoint or Phantom Station.
ANSWER Radial and distance from a VOR/DME to the waypoint or Phantom Station.

Which of the following OBS/CDI combinations indicate that an aircraft is within 180-269
942 QUESTION
radials of a VOR
A 090; TO/Fly Right
B 270; TO/Fly Left
C 090; TO/Fly Left
D 270; TO/fly Right
ANSWER 090; TO/Fly Left

Which of the following statements concerning the variable, or directional signal of a

943 QUESTION
conventional VOR is correct?
A The transmitter varies the amplitude of the variable signal by 30 Hz each time it rotates.
The rotation of the variable signal at a rate of 30 times per second gives it the
B
characteristics of a 30 Hz amplitude modulation.
The transmitter changes the frequency of the variable signal by 30 Hz either side of the
C
allocated frequency each time it rotates.
 D The receiver adds 30 Hz to the variable signal before combining it with the reference signal.

The rotation of the variable signal at a rate of 30 times per second gives it the
ANSWER
characteristics of a 30 Hz amplitude modulation.

944 QUESTION With reference to a VOR, the cone of confusion is:

A the area outside the DOC.
B the area directly overhead a VOR.
C the change over from TO to FROM when the OBS is set 90° to the radial.
D the change over from TO to FROM when the OBS is set 90° to the radial.
ANSWER the area directly overhead a VOR.

945 QUESTION With reference to the VOR:

A Failure of the monitor will cause the beacon to cease its ident.
B A typical VOR frequency is 118.15 MHz.
The TO/FROM indicator shows whether the aircraft is heading towards or away from the
C
beacon.
D The system is susceptible to dip error
ANSWER Failure of the monitor will cause the beacon to cease its ident.

You are in an aircraft on a heading of 280° (M) and on a bearing of 090° (M) from a VOR.
946 QUESTION The bearing you should select on the omni-bearing selector in order to centralize the
deviation needle with TO showing is:
A 280°
B 270°
C 100°
D 90°
ANSWER 270°
 INSTRUMENT

1 QUESTION A fighter ac is on a long distance ferry covering a distance of 1200 kms. During the ferry the
pilot observes that the ac is steadily drifting to right of desired track. Considering only the
changes in pressure pattern the altimeter tends to :-
A Over read
B Under read
C Over read followed by under read
D None of the these.
ANSWER Over read

2 QUESTION AC true altitude and pressure altitude would be the same if:
A QNH is equal to QNE
B QNH is equal to QFF
C QNH is equal to QFE
D At density altitude
ANSWER QNH is equal to QNE

Flying from a high pressure area to a low pressure area at a constant flight level the clearance
3 QUESTION
from terrain (assume flat terrain) will:-
A Reduce
B Increase
C Remain same
D Can be (a) or (b) depending upon the altimeter
ANSWER Reduce

4 QUESTION If the altimeter setting subscale reading is increased by 10 mb the altimeter will read.
A + 300 ft
B - 300 ft
C + 100 ft
D + 200 ft
ANSWER + 300 ft

If the existing temp is lower by 2°C form ICAN settings the density altitude will be _______ by
5 QUESTION
________ ft.
A Lower, 238
B Lower, 476
C Higher, 476
D Higher, 238
ANSWER Lower, 238

6 QUESTION If the surface temperature is higher than ISA, then density altitude at FL 100 will be:
A higher than 10000`
B lower than 10000`
C same as 10000`
D None of these
ANSWER higher than 10000`
 In NH an ac is maintaining altitude of 20,000 and experience a drift to port. Then the true
7 QUESTION
altitude is:-
A Lower than pressure altitude
B Higher than pressure altitude
C Same as pressure altitude
D None of these
ANSWER Lower than pressure altitude

QNH of an airfield, which is 780 ft AMSL is 1006 mb. Its QFE at that time will approximately
8 QUESTION
be: -
A 980 mb
B 990 mb
C 986 mb
D 928 mb
ANSWER 980 mb

9 QUESTION During low flying at high speeds, a pressure altimeter

A Over-reads
B Under-reads
C Reads correctly
D None of the above
ANSWER Under-reads

10 QUESTION One Hecta pascal (hpa) of pressure is equal to:

A One mm of Hg
B One mb
C 1 Newton/m2
D None of the above
ANSWER One mb

11 QUESTION ROD in a 30 deg dive at 900 km/ph TAS is

A 75 m/sec
B 100 m/sec
C 125 m/sec
D 175 m/sec
ANSWER 125 m/sec

12 QUESTION While flying from a region of high pr area to a low pr area the altimeter :
A read correctly
B under read
C Over read
D None of these
ANSWER Over read

13 QUESTION At 3 Km your static vent gets blocked, when descending lower your ASI will:
A Over read
B Under read
C Read same
D None of these
ANSWER Over read
14 QUESTION EAS is IAS corrected for:-
A Instrument, pressure and compressibility error
B Density, pressure and Instrument error
C Instrument, Temperature and density error
D None of these
ANSWER Instrument, pressure and compressibility error

15 QUESTION In the ASI, compressibility error:-

A Increases with increase in altitude
B Decreases with increase in altitude
C Remains same with increase in altitude
D None of these
ANSWER Increases with increase in altitude

16 QUESTION Short capillary introduced in pilot line of ASI is to :

A dampen any surge
B compensate for altitude
C compensate for temp
D None
ANSWER dampen any surge

17 QUESTION The capsule of ASI in connected to :-

A Pitot
B Static
C Dynamic pressure
D None of them
ANSWER Pitot

A designer forgot to install static vents in the pitot tube of an ac. As an afterthought, he put
18 QUESTION
them on the tail fin. The ASI will now indicated speed of Relative Airflow at:-
A The pitot head
B At the tail fin
C Exactly halfway between the two
D None of these
ANSWER At the tail fin

An ac when descending from 5 Km experiences a blocked static when IAS is 550 Kmph. At 2
19 QUESTION
Km the ASI would indicate:
A The manufacturers name only <550 Kmph
B >550 Kmph
C 550Kmph
D None of these
ANSWER >550 Kmph

20 QUESTION ASI can be calibrated to read correctly:

A Only for one pressure altitude
B Only for one density altitude
C Only for one pressure or density altitude
D None of the above
ANSWER Only for one density altitude
21 QUESTION ASI indicates the speed of RAF measured at:
A Pitot
B Static
C Both A & C
D A or B
ANSWER Static

22 QUESTION Compressibility error causes an ASI to :

A Under read
B Over read
C Under read badly
D None of these
ANSWER Over read

23 QUESTION Compressibility error correction is always :-

A Positive
B Negative
C Positive then negative
D None of the above
ANSWER Negative

24 QUESTION During descent if the static vent becomes blocked the following will happen:-
A ASI will underread
B ASI will overread
C VSI will read zero
D VSI will underread
ANSWER ASI will overread

25 QUESTION In clear configuration with increases in speed the pressure error correction in ASI:
A increases
B Decreases
C Remain same
D None of these
ANSWER Decreases

26 QUESTION An ASI measures:-

A Pitot pressure
B Pitot and static pressure
C Dynamic pressure
D Pitot and Dynamic pressure
ANSWER Dynamic pressure

27 QUESTION RAS is IAS corrected for:-

A Instrument error
B Pressure error
C Both
D None of the above
ANSWER Both
28 QUESTION The pressure measured by the pilot tube of an ac when it is exposed to the airflow close to
the aircraft is:-
A Dynamic pressure
B Pilot pr + static pr
C Static pr + dynamic pr
D Pilot pr + dynamic pr
ANSWER Static pr + dynamic pr

Your static source n the pilot head gets blocked during cloud flying. When you descend to
29 QUESTION
circuit height you must expect the ASI to :-
A Read zero
B Under read
C Over read
D None of these
ANSWER Over read

30 QUESTION Blockage of the VSI can cause it to read:

A Zero
B Last reading
C Opposite
D None of these
ANSWER Zero

31 QUESTION In a VSI static pressure with a delay is fed to

A Capsule
B Casing
C Both
D There is no delay
ANSWER Casing

32 QUESTION An IVSI does not suffer from:-

A pressure error
B instrument error
C time lag error
D manoeuvre induced error
ANSWER time lag error

In a VSI, to compensate for altitude and temperature errors, the orifice and capillary type of
33 QUESTION
metering units are used: -
A Each tupe for one error
B Only one type for both errors
C Combination of both types
D none of the above
ANSWER Combination of both types

34 QUESTION During a descent, if the dynamic pressure source gets blocked, the VSI will:
A Over read
B Under read
C Remain the same
D Not be affected
ANSWER Not be affected
35 QUESTION At an ambient temp of -17°C, the speed of sound in kts is:
A 624 kts
B 636 kts
C 838 kts
D None of the above
ANSWER 624 kts

36 QUESTION Mach meter measures ratio of: -

A Dynamic Pr to Static Pr.
B Pitot Pr to Static Pr.
C Pitot Pr to Dynamic Pr.
D Static Pr to Dynamic Pr.
ANSWER Dynamic Pr to Static Pr.

37 QUESTION A Mach meter is subject to:

A Instrument and pressure errors.
B Instrument and density errors.
C Instrument, pressure and density errors.
D None of these
ANSWER Instrument and pressure errors.

38 QUESTION If the static of machmeter gets blocked while the ac is descending the machmeter will:
A under read
B over read
C read correctly
D will not read
ANSWER over read

39 QUESTION Mach No. can be said to be a ratio of :-

A Total Head Pressure (THP) to Dynamic Pressure
B THP to Static Pressure
C Speed of Sound at sea level to Absolute Temperature
D Dynamic to Static Pressure.
ANSWER Speed of Sound at sea level to Absolute Temperature

40 QUESTION Mach number as indicated on the Machmeter in a function of:-

A Stagnation pressure and Dynamic Pressure
B Total head pressure and stagnation pressure
C Dynamic pressure and static pressure
D None of the above
ANSWER Dynamic pressure and static pressure

41 QUESTION The following errors are virtually eliminated in IVSI

A Pressure and leg
B Turning and Instrument
C Manouvre induced and lag
D None of these
ANSWER Manouvre induced and lag
42 QUESTION Mach meter has following error:
A Density error
B Tempo error
C Barometer error
D None
ANSWER None

43 QUESTION Accelerometer is designed to give ____________ acceleration.

A Vertical and Horizontal
B Horizontal
C Vertical
D Angular
ANSWER Vertical

44 QUESTION For a horizontal axis gyro, the apparent wander is:

A O°/hr at equator and 15° /hr at pole
B 15°/hr at equator and 0°/hr at pole
C Always 0°/hr
D Always 15°/hr
ANSWER O°/hr at equator and 15° /hr at pole

45 QUESTION The movement of gyro spin axis in vertical plan is termed as:
A Topple
B Drift
C Apparent wander
D None
ANSWER Topple

46 QUESTION The movement of the spin axis of a gyro from its original position is termed as:-
A Wander
B Real Drift
C Topple
D Apparent Drift
ANSWER Wander

47 QUESTION Tied gyro is a gyro having freedom of movement

A In 3 planes at right angles to each other, controlled by an external force
B In 2 planes at right angles to each other, controlled by an external force
C In 3 planes at right angles to each other
D The No of planes does not matter so long as external force control exists
ANSWER In 3 planes at right angles to each other, controlled by an external force

48 QUESTION Apparent wander n horizontal axis n gyro in NH at 30°N is _______deg/hr.

A 15.04
B 7.54
C 13.02
D None
ANSWER 7.54
49 QUESTION One of the methods to increase rigidity of a gyro is to:
A Reduce the distance of the mass from the centre of the rotor so as to make it compact
B Increase the distance of the mass from the centre of the rotor
C The distance of the mass from the centre has no effect
D None of these
ANSWER Increase the distance of the mass from the centre of the rotor

50 QUESTION The apparent wander in a horizontal axis gyro is:-

A Maximum at the equator
B Maximum at the poles
C Unaffected by latitude
D None of these
ANSWER Maximum at the poles

51 QUESTION A `Tied Gyro` has freedom of movement in:-

A Single plane
B Two plane
C Three plane
D No freedom at all
ANSWER Three plane

52 QUESTION Apparent wander in a gyro is caused due to:-

A Motion of the platform
B Motion of observer on ground
C Rotation of earth
D (b) & (c)
ANSWER Rotation of earth

53 QUESTION Rigidity of a gyroscope depends upon:

A Mass of the rotor and speed of the rotor
B Mass of the rotor and Distance of the mass from the centre of the rotor
C Mass of the rotor, speed of the rotor and distance of the mass from the centre of the rotor
D None of the above
ANSWER Mass of the rotor, speed of the rotor and distance of the mass from the centre of the rotor

54 QUESTION Space gyro has:

A Freedom of movement in 3 planes at right angle and controlled by acceleration due gravity
B Freedom of movement in 3 planes at right angle and controlled by gimbal mounted control
C No means of external control
D None
ANSWER No means of external control

55 QUESTION Angular change of direction of the plane of rotation is called:-

A Drift
B Gyration
C Moment of Inertia
D Precession
ANSWER Precession
56 QUESTION Any physical deviation of the gyro axis from its position is called:-
A Topple
B Apparent wander
C Gimble lock
D None of the above
ANSWER None of the above

57 QUESTION Like apparent wander, the real wander:

A Has fixed and predictable rates
B Depends on position of gyro on earth
C Has rates of wander which can be corrected through lock nut
D None
ANSWER None

58 QUESTION The rigidity of a gyro depends upon:-

A Speed of the rotor
B Mass of the rotor
C Distance of the mass from the centre of the rotor
D All of the above
ANSWER All of the above

59 QUESTION Artificial horizon is a __ gyro

A Earth
B Free
C Rate
D Space
ANSWER Earth

60 QUESTION Turning errors in artificial horizon are due to: -

A Erection and pensulosity errors
B Erection and velocity errors.
C Velocity and pendulosity errors.
D None of the above.
ANSWER Erection and pensulosity errors

61 QUESTION In an electrically driven A/H turning errors are catered for by the following:
A Graduated air leak
B Pitch bank mechanism
C Precision Amplifier
D None
ANSWER Pitch bank mechanism

62 QUESTION The acceleration error in an electrically driven A/H causes it to

A Pitch up and bank left
B Pitch up and bank right
C Pitch down and bank left
D Pitch down and bank right
ANSWER Pitch up and bank right
63 QUESTION In a TSI, an increase in rotor RPM will cause the instrument to ___________ read.
A Over
B Under
C Correct
D Depends on rate of turn
ANSWER Over

64 QUESTION With increases in Rotor RPM, the TSI will:-

A Overread
B Underread
C Read correctly
D None of these
ANSWER Overread

65 QUESTION The slip indicator (TSI-ball) takes up a mean position after being subjected to:-
A Inertial and reaction force
B Centrifugal and gravitational force
C Centripetal and gravitational force
D None of the above
ANSWER Centrifugal and gravitational force

66 QUESTION The slip indicator in a TSI assumes a position according to the resultant of:-
A Centripetal force & weight
B Centrifugal force & weight
C Centripetal force & centrifugal force
D None of the above
ANSWER Centrifugal force & weight

67 QUESTION The TSI is a:

A Tied Gyro
B Rate Gyro
C Earth Gyro
D None of these
ANSWER Rate Gyro

68 QUESTION In a co-ordinated climbing turn to the left, the displacement of TSI needle will:-
A Increase with increase in bank at constant speed
B Increase with increase in speed at constant bank
C (a) and (d)
D Increase with decrease in speed at constant bank
ANSWER (a) and (d)

69 QUESTION In a TSI, when the secondary precession equals original torque the turn needle will
A Return to neutral position
B Move completely to one side
C Show a steady turn indication
D None of the above
ANSWER Show a steady turn indication
70 QUESTION Slip Indicator is a :-
A Rate gyro
B Earth gyro
C Tied gyro
D None of the above
ANSWER None of the above

71 QUESTION Apparent drift of a DI is max at:-

A Poles
B Equator
C Aircraft flying at 40,000 ft
D None of the above
ANSWER Poles

72 QUESTION The gymblling error DI while turning through 360 deg:

A reach max on cardinal hdgs
B reach max on inter cardinal hdgs
C remain same on alol hdgs
D None of the above
ANSWER reach max on inter cardinal hdgs

73 QUESTION The Gyro in a compass is a:-

A Earth Gyro
B Rate Gyro
C Tied Gyro
D Space Gyro
ANSWER Tied Gyro

With gyro axis aligned with local meridians the following manoeuvres can be done without
74 QUESTION
toppling the DI:
A Loop on N-S direction
B Roll on E-W direction
C A 60 deg bank turn through 360 deg
D None of these
ANSWER None of these

75 QUESTION In a gyrocompass (like C2J, SFIM, KASSI)

A Flux valve senses the magnetic heading
B Gyros sense the direction
C A suspended magnet senses direction
D None of the above
ANSWER Flux valve senses the magnetic heading

76 QUESTION Coeff B correction compensates for: -

A Dev N-Dev S / 2
B Dev E-Dev W / 2
C Var N-Var S / 2
D Var E-Var W / 2
ANSWER Dev E-Dev W / 2
77 QUESTION Co-efficient B for a magnetic compass is given by:-
A Deviation N-Deviation S/2
B Deviation E - Deviation W/ 2
C Deviation S - Deviation N/2
D None of the above
ANSWER Deviation E - Deviation W/ 2

78 QUESTION Remote Indicating Compasses are preferable over magnetic compasses because:-
A They are simple and robust in construction
B They are easier to maintain
C The detector uses Flux gate principle thus giving more accurate readings
D Compass swing and deviation corrections are easier
ANSWER The detector uses Flux gate principle thus giving more accurate readings

The deviation recorded on both E2B compass is: Dev E=E=+5°, Dev W=-4° and Dev N=+2°.
79 QUESTION
Coefficient B of the compass is:
A 2.5°
B 7.5°
C 4.5°
D 3.5°
ANSWER 4.5°

80 QUESTION Remote indicating compasses which incorporate a gyro unit suffers from:
A No provision to set variation for operating lat
B Certain amount of turning and acceleration errors still exist
C Apparent drift needs to be catered for
D None
ANSWER None

81 QUESTION The detector unit of the remote indicating compass:

A Aligns with the earth`s magnetic lines
B Does not align with earth`s magnetic lines
C Utilises the principle of flux gate to sense the earth`s magnetic field
D (b) and (c)
ANSWER (b) and (c)
 INSTRUMENT -1

1 QUESTION A fighter ac is on a long distance ferry covering a distance of 1200 kms. During the
ferry the pilot observes that the ac is steadily drifting to right of desired track.
Considering only the changes in pressure pattern the altimeter tends to:
A Over read
B Under read
C Over read followed by under read
D None of the these.
ANSWER Over read

2 QUESTION AC true altitude and pressure altitude would be the same if:
A QNH is equal to QNE
B QNH is equal to QFF
C QNH is equal to QFE
D At density altitude
ANSWER QNH is equal to QNE

Flying from a high pressure area to a low pressure area at a constant flight level the
3 QUESTION
clearance from terrain (assume flat terrain) will:-
A Reduce
B Increase
C Remain same
D Can be (a) or (b) depending upon the altimeter
ANSWER Reduce

4 QUESTION If the altimeter setting subscale reading is increased by 10 mb the altimeter will read.

A + 300 ft
B - 300 ft
C + 100 ft
D + 200 ft
ANSWER + 300 ft

If the existing temp is lower by 2°C form ICAN settings the density altitude will be
5 QUESTION
_______ by ________ ft.
A Lower, 238
B Lower, 476
C Higher, 476
D Higher, 238
ANSWER Lower, 238

6 QUESTION If the surface temperature is higher than ISA, then density altitude at FL 100 will be:

A higher than 10000`

B lower than 10000`
C same as 10000`
D None of these
ANSWER higher than 10000`
 In NH an ac is maintaining altitude of 20,000 and experience a drift to port. Then the
7 QUESTION
true altitude is:-
A Lower than pressure altitude
B Higher than pressure altitude
C Same as pressure altitude
D None of these
ANSWER Lower than pressure altitude

QNH of an airfield, which is 780 ft AMSL is 1006 mb. Its QFE at that time will
8 QUESTION
approximately be: -
A 980 mb
B 990 mb
C 986 mb
D 928 mb
ANSWER 980 mb

9 QUESTION During low flying at high speeds, a pressure altimeter

A Over-reads
B Under-reads
C Reads correctly
D None of the above
ANSWER Under-reads

10 QUESTION One Hecta pascal (hpa) of pressure is equal to:

A One mm of Hg
B One mb
C 1 Newton/m2
D None of the above
ANSWER One mb

11 QUESTION ROD in a 30 deg dive at 900 km/ph TAS is

A 75 m/sec
B 100 m/sec
C 125 m/sec
D 175 m/sec
ANSWER 125 m/sec

12 QUESTION While flying from a region of high pr area to a low pr area the altimeter :
A read correctly
B under read
C Over read
D None of these
ANSWER Over read

13 QUESTION At 3 Km your static vent gets blocked, when descending lower your ASI will:
A Over read
B Under read
C Read same
D None of these
ANSWER Over read
14 QUESTION EAS is IAS corrected for:-
A Instrument, pressure and compressibility error
B Density, pressure and Instrument error
C Instrument, Temperature and density error
D None of these
ANSWER Instrument, pressure and compressibility error

15 QUESTION In the ASI, compressibility error:-

A Increases with increase in altitude
B Decreases with increase in altitude
C Remains same with increase in altitude
D None of these
ANSWER Increases with increase in altitude

16 QUESTION Short capillary introduced in pilot line of ASI is to :

A dampen any surge
B compensate for altitude
C compensate for temp
D None
ANSWER dampen any surge

17 QUESTION The capsule of ASI in connected to :-

A Pitot
B Static
C Dynamic pressure
D None of them
ANSWER Pitot

A designer forgot to install static vents in the pitot tube of an ac. As an afterthought,
18 QUESTION
he put them on the tail fin. The ASI will now indicated speed of Relative Airflow at:-

A The pitot head

B At the tail fin
C Exactly halfway between the two
D None of these
ANSWER At the tail fin

An ac when descending from 5 Km experiences a blocked static when IAS is 550 Kmph.
19 QUESTION
At 2 Km the ASI would indicate:
A The manufacturers name only <550 Kmph
B >550 Kmph
C 550Kmph
D None of these
ANSWER >550 Kmph

20 QUESTION ASI can be calibrated to read correctly:

A Only for one pressure altitude
B Only for one density altitude
C Only for one pressure or density altitude
D None of the above
ANSWER Only for one density altitude
21 QUESTION ASI indicates the speed of RAF measured at:
A Pitot
B Static
C Both A & C
D A or B
ANSWER Static

22 QUESTION Compressibility error causes an ASI to :

A Under read
B Over read
C Under read badly
D None of these
ANSWER Over read

23 QUESTION Compressibility error correction is always :-

A Positive
B Negative
C Positive then negative
D None of the above
ANSWER Negative

24 QUESTION During descent if the static vent becomes blocked the following will happen:-
A ASI will underread
B ASI will overread
C VSI will read zero
D VSI will underread
ANSWER ASI will overread

25 QUESTION In clear configuration with increases in speed the pressure error correction in ASI:
A increases
B Decreases
C Remain same
D None of these
ANSWER Decreases

26 QUESTION An ASI measures:-

A Pitot pressure
B Pitot and static pressure
C Dynamic pressure
D Pitot and Dynamic pressure
ANSWER Dynamic pressure

27 QUESTION RAS is IAS corrected for:-

A Instrument error
B Pressure error
C Both
D None of the above
ANSWER Both
28 QUESTION The pressure measured by the pilot tube of an ac when it is exposed to the airflow
close to the aircraft is:-
A Dynamic pressure
B Pilot pr + static pr
C Static pr + dynamic pr
D Pilot pr + dynamic pr
ANSWER Static pr + dynamic pr

Your static source n the pilot head gets blocked during cloud flying. When you descend
29 QUESTION
to circuit height you must expect the ASI to :-
A Read zero
B Under read
C Over read
D None of these
ANSWER Over read

30 QUESTION Blockage of the VSI can cause it to read:

A Zero
B Last reading
C Opposite
D None of these
ANSWER Zero

31 QUESTION In a VSI static pressure with a delay is fed to

A Capsule
B Casing
C Both
D There is no delay
ANSWER Casing

32 QUESTION An IVSI does not suffer from:-

A pressure error
B instrument error
C time lag error
D manoeuvre induced error
ANSWER time lag error

In a VSI, to compensate for altitude and temperature errors, the orifice and capillary
33 QUESTION
type of metering units are used: -
A Each tupe for one error
B Only one type for both errors
C Combination of both types
D none of the above
ANSWER Combination of both types

34 QUESTION During a descent, if the dynamic pressure source gets blocked, the VSI will:
A Over read
B Under read
C Remain the same
D Not be affected
ANSWER Not be affected
35 QUESTION At an ambient temp of -17°C, the speed of sound in kts is:
A 624 kts
B 636 kts
C 838 kts
D None of the above
ANSWER 624 kts

36 QUESTION Mach meter measures ratio of: -

A Dynamic Pr to Static Pr.
B Pitot Pr to Static Pr.
C Pitot Pr to Dynamic Pr.
D Static Pr to Dynamic Pr.
ANSWER Dynamic Pr to Static Pr.

37 QUESTION A Mach meter is subject to:

A Instrument and pressure errors.
B Instrument and density errors.
C Instrument, pressure and density errors.
D None of these
ANSWER Instrument and pressure errors.

38 QUESTION If the static of machmeter gets blocked while the ac is descending the machmeter will:

A under read
B over read
C read correctly
D will not read
ANSWER over read

39 QUESTION Mach No. can be said to be a ratio of :-

A Total Head Pressure (THP) to Dynamic Pressure
B THP to Static Pressure
C Speed of Sound at sea level to Absolute Temperature
D Dynamic to Static Pressure.
ANSWER Speed of Sound at sea level to Absolute Temperature

40 QUESTION Mach number as indicated on the Machmeter in a function of:-

A Stagnation pressure and Dynamic Pressure
B Total head pressure and stagnation pressure
C Dynamic pressure and static pressure
D None of the above
ANSWER Dynamic pressure and static pressure

41 QUESTION The following errors are virtually eliminated in IVSI

A Pressure and leg
B Turning and Instrument
C Manouvre induced and lag
D None of these
ANSWER Manouvre induced and lag
42 QUESTION Mach meter has following error:
A Density error
B Tempo error
C Barometer error
D None
ANSWER None

43 QUESTION Accelerometer is designed to give ____________ acceleration.

A Vertical and Horizontal
B Horizontal
C Vertical
D Angular
ANSWER Vertical

44 QUESTION For a horizontal axis gyro, the apparent wander is:

A O°/hr at equator and 15° /hr at pole
B 15°/hr at equator and 0°/hr at pole
C Always 0°/hr
D Always 15°/hr
ANSWER O°/hr at equator and 15° /hr at pole

45 QUESTION The movement of gyro spin axis in vertical plan is termed as:
A Topple
B Drift
C Apparent wander
D None
ANSWER Topple

46 QUESTION The movement of the spin axis of a gyro from its original position is termed as:-
A Wander
B Real Drift
C Topple
D Apparent Drift
ANSWER Wander

47 QUESTION Tied gyro is a gyro having freedom of movement

A In 3 planes at right angles to each other, controlled by an external force
B In 2 planes at right angles to each other, controlled by an external force
C In 3 planes at right angles to each other
D The No of planes does not matter so long as external force control exists
ANSWER In 3 planes at right angles to each other, controlled by an external force

48 QUESTION Apparent wander n horizontal axis n gyro in NH at 30°N is _______deg/hr.

A 15.04
B 7.54
C 13.02
D None
ANSWER 7.54
49 QUESTION One of the methods to increase rigidity of a gyro is to:

A Reduce the distance of the mass from the centre of the rotor so as to make it compact

B Increase the distance of the mass from the centre of the rotor
C The distance of the mass from the centre has no effect
D None of these
ANSWER Increase the distance of the mass from the centre of the rotor

50 QUESTION The apparent wander in a horizontal axis gyro is:-

A Maximum at the equator
B Maximum at the poles
C Unaffected by latitude
D None of these
ANSWER Maximum at the poles

51 QUESTION A `Tied Gyro` has freedom of movement in:-

A Single plane
B Two plane
C Three plane
D No freedom at all
ANSWER Three plane

52 QUESTION Apparent wander in a gyro is caused due to:-

A Motion of the platform
B Motion of observer on ground
C Rotation of earth
D (b) & (c)
ANSWER Rotation of earth

53 QUESTION Rigidity of a gyroscope depends upon:

A Mass of the rotor and speed of the rotor
B Mass of the rotor and Distance of the mass from the centre of the rotor
Mass of the rotor, speed of the rotor and distance of the mass from the centre of the
C
rotor
D None of the above
Mass of the rotor, speed of the rotor and distance of the mass from the centre of the
ANSWER
rotor

54 QUESTION Space gyro has:

Freedom of movement in 3 planes at right angle and controlled by acceleration due
A
gravity
Freedom of movement in 3 planes at right angle and controlled by gimbal mounted
B
control
C No means of external control
D None
ANSWER No means of external control
55 QUESTION Angular change of direction of the plane of rotation is called:-
A Drift
B Gyration
C Moment of Inertia
D Precession
ANSWER Precession

56 QUESTION Any physical deviation of the gyro axis from its position is called:-
A Topple
B Apparent wander
C Gimble lock
D None of the above
ANSWER None of the above

57 QUESTION Like apparent wander, the real wander:

A Has fixed and predictable rates
B Depends on position of gyro on earth
C Has rates of wander which can be corrected through lock nut
D None
ANSWER None

58 QUESTION The rigidity of a gyro depends upon:-

A Speed of the rotor
B Mass of the rotor
C Distance of the mass from the centre of the rotor
D All of the above
ANSWER All of the above

59 QUESTION Artificial horizon is a __ gyro

A Earth
B Free
C Rate
D Space
ANSWER Earth

60 QUESTION Turning errors in artificial horizon are due to: -

A Erection and pensulosity errors
B Erection and velocity errors.
C Velocity and pendulosity errors.
D None of the above.
ANSWER Erection and pensulosity errors

61 QUESTION In an electrically driven A/H turning errors are catered for by the following:
A Graduated air leak
B Pitch bank mechanism
C Precision Amplifier
D None
ANSWER Pitch bank mechanism
62 QUESTION The acceleration error in an electrically driven A/H causes it to
A Pitch up and bank left
B Pitch up and bank right
C Pitch down and bank left
D Pitch down and bank right
ANSWER Pitch up and bank right

63 QUESTION In a TSI, an increase in rotor RPM will cause the instrument to ___________ read.
A Over
B Under
C Correct
D Depends on rate of turn
ANSWER Over

64 QUESTION With increases in Rotor RPM, the TSI will:-

A Overread
B Underread
C Read correctly
D None of these
ANSWER Overread

65 QUESTION The slip indicator (TSI-ball) takes up a mean position after being subjected to:-
A Inertial and reaction force
B Centrifugal and gravitational force
C Centripetal and gravitational force
D None of the above
ANSWER Centrifugal and gravitational force

66 QUESTION The slip indicator in a TSI assumes a position according to the resultant of:-
A Centripetal force & weight
B Centrifugal force & weight
C Centripetal force & centrifugal force
D None of the above
ANSWER Centrifugal force & weight

67 QUESTION The TSI is a:

A Tied Gyro
B Rate Gyro
C Earth Gyro
D None of these
ANSWER Rate Gyro

68 QUESTION In a co-ordinated climbing turn to the left, the displacement of TSI needle will:-
A Increase with increase in bank at constant speed
B Increase with increase in speed at constant bank
C (a) and (d)
D Increase with decrease in speed at constant bank
ANSWER (a) and (d)
69 QUESTION In a TSI, when the secondary precession equals original torque the turn needle will
A Return to neutral position
B Move completely to one side
C Show a steady turn indication
D None of the above
ANSWER Show a steady turn indication

70 QUESTION Slip Indicator is a :-

A Rate gyro
B Earth gyro
C Tied gyro
D None of the above
ANSWER None of the above

71 QUESTION Apparent drift of a DI is max at:-

A Poles
B Equator
C Aircraft flying at 40,000 ft
D None of the above
ANSWER Poles

72 QUESTION The gymblling error DI while turning through 360 deg:

A reach max on cardinal hdgs
B reach max on inter cardinal hdgs
C remain same on alol hdgs
D None of the above
ANSWER reach max on inter cardinal hdgs

73 QUESTION The Gyro in a compass is a:-

A Earth Gyro
B Rate Gyro
C Tied Gyro
D Space Gyro
ANSWER Tied Gyro

With gyro axis aligned with local meridians the following manoeuvres can be done
74 QUESTION
without toppling the DI:
A Loop on N-S direction
B Roll on E-W direction
C A 60 deg bank turn through 360 deg
D None of these
ANSWER None of these

75 QUESTION In a gyrocompass (like C2J, SFIM, KASSI)

A Flux valve senses the magnetic heading
B Gyros sense the direction
C A suspended magnet senses direction
D None of the above
ANSWER Flux valve senses the magnetic heading
76 QUESTION Coeff B correction compensates for: -
A Dev N-Dev S / 2
B Dev E-Dev W / 2
C Var N-Var S / 2
D Var E-Var W / 2
ANSWER Dev E-Dev W / 2

77 QUESTION Co-efficient B for a magnetic compass is given by:-

A Deviation N-Deviation S/2
B Deviation E - Deviation W/ 2
C Deviation S - Deviation N/2
D None of the above
ANSWER Deviation E - Deviation W/ 2

78 QUESTION Remote Indicating Compasses are preferable over magnetic compasses because:-
A They are simple and robust in construction
B They are easier to maintain
C The detector uses Flux gate principle thus giving more accurate readings
D Compass swing and deviation corrections are easier
ANSWER The detector uses Flux gate principle thus giving more accurate readings

The deviation recorded on both E2B compass is: Dev E=E=+5°, Dev W=-4° and Dev
79 QUESTION
N=+2°. Coefficient B of the compass is:
A 2.5°
B 7.5°
C 4.5°
D 3.5°
ANSWER 4.5°

80 QUESTION Remote indicating compasses which incorporate a gyro unit suffers from:
A No provision to set variation for operating lat
B Certain amount of turning and acceleration errors still exist
C Apparent drift needs to be catered for
D None
ANSWER None

81 QUESTION The detector unit of the remote indicating compass:

A Aligns with the earth`s magnetic lines
B Does not align with earth`s magnetic lines
C Utilises the principle of flux gate to sense the earth`s magnetic field
D (b) and (c)
ANSWER (b) and (c)