BOLAN MEDICAL COLLEGE QUETTA

DEPARTMENT OF PATHOLOGY
MCQ test for 4th year MBBS 2021
Total marks:100 Time Allowed: one hour
Total No. of MCQs: 50 Paper A Date: 26/04/2021
Class Roll No: _____________ Name____________________________

Q. No.1: The common clinical feature of hemolytic anemia is

A. Renal stone
B. Neurological symptoms
C. Pica
D. Jaundice
Q. No. 2: The feature not seen in hemolytic anemia is
A. Increased serum bilirubin
B. Increased stercobilinogen in stool
C. Decreased iron stores
D. Increased urobilinogen in urine
Q. No. 3: Typical dominant hereditary spherocytosis is most commonly caused by deficiency of
A. Ankyrin
B. Band 3
C. Spectrin
D. Protein 1.2
Q. No. 4: South east ovalocytosis is due to defect in
A. Band 3
B. Ankyrin
C. Protein 4.2
D. Protein 4.1
Q. No. 5: Barrett esophagus is a complication of
A. Persistent reflex of gastric content
B. Acute esophagitis
C. Gastric ulcer
D. Chronic granulomatous inflammation of esophagus
Q. No. 6: What is true for oral cancer
A. Most common type is adenocarcinoma
B. Increase fruit intake is most common cause
C. Pan chewing does not have any association with disease
D. Is associated with tobacco, naswaar and paan chewing
Q. No. 7: Which of the following is predisposing factor or esophageal cancer
A. Candidiasis
B. Barrett esophagus
C. Acute esophagitis
D. Enteric fever
Q. No. 8: Peptic ulcer is caused by which of the following
A. Chronic cholecystitis
B. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAID)
C. Oral candidiasis
D. Antibiotic therapy
Q. No. 9: All of the following are complications of peptic ulcer except
A. Scarring
B. Acute appendicitis
C. Perforation
D. Peritonitis
Q. No. 10: Testicular tumor is common in which age group?
A. Infancy, early adulthood and after 6th decade of life
B. Only old age
C. Both in infants and old age
D. Only in elderly age group

Q. No. 11: Seminoma is the most common type of

A. Yolk sac tumor
B. Embryonal carcinoma of testis
C. Germ cell tumor
D. Renal cell carcinoma
Q. No. 12: Glucose-6-phosphate-dehydrogenase deficiency is associated with
A. Iron deficiency anemia
B. Hemolytic anemia
C. Aplastic anemia
D. Megaloblastic anemia
Q. No. 13: Which of the following tests is most helpful for thalassemia diagnosis
A. Hemoglobin electrophoresis
B. Total iron binding capacity
C. Mean corpuscular volume
D. Indirect and total bilirubin
Q. No. 14: Sickle cells are seen in which of the following
A. Sideroblastic anemia
B. Anemia of chronic disease
C. Sickle cell anemia
D. Iron deficiency anemia
Q. No. 15: Causative agent for Infectious mononucleosis is
A. West Nile Virus
B. Hepatitis C Virus
C. Yellow Fever Virus
D. Epstein Bar Virus
Q. No. 16: What is true about serological markers of hepatitis
A. HBsAg appears in blood after the onset of symptoms
B. HBeAg indicates end of replication
C. HBcAg is present during window period
D. Anti-HBc appears before onset of symptoms
Q. No. 17: What is true about morphology of hepatitis
A. Chronic hepatitis is characterized by ballooning degeneration of hepatocytes
B. Fibrosis is hallmark of acute hepatitis D
C. Hepatitis C infected liver show lymphoid aggregates
D. Kupffer cells disappear in acute hepatitis
Q. No. 18: Hepatitis A
A. Is caused by an enveloped RNA virus
B. Has a long incubation period
C. Is a benign self-limiting disease
D. No vaccine is available for it
Q. No. 19: Hepatitis E
A. Is caused by a DNA virus
B. Spreads by blood transfusion
C. Has high mortality rate in pregnant women
D. Vaccine is available for it
Q. No. 20: Regarding Hepatitis B virus
A. Only causes acute hepatitis
B. Never leads to cirrhosis of live
C. Has a long incubation period
 D. Does not spread by body fluids
Q. No. 21: Regarding hypertension
A. It never causes small vessel disease
B. Increased sodium excretion may initiate essential hypertension
C. Gene disorders have no role in development of hypertension
D. Malignant hypertension may cause brain swelling
Q. No. 22: Hyaline arteriosclerosis
A. Is not generalized in hypertensive patient
B. Is a major morphological characteristic of benign nephrosclerosis
C. Is another name for hyperplastic arteriosclerosis
D. Never presents in elderly patients
Q. No. 23: adult polycystic kidney disease
A. Involves both kidneys
B. Is an acquired disease
C. Is a unilateral disease
D. None of above is correct
Q. No. 24: Adult polycystic kidney on microscopic examination
A. Exhibit uniform epithelia
B. Reveals functioning nephrons dispersed between the cysts
C. Never approach to encroach calyces
D. Always appear containing turbid fluid
Q. No. 25: Adult polycystic kidney disease is initially characterized by
A. No hematuria
B. Anuria
C. Passage of stones in urine
D. Passage of blood clots and pain
Q. No. 26: Childhood polycystic kidney disease
A. Is characterized by shrink kidneys
B. There is roughened external surface
C. On cut section kidney appears sponge like
D. Has autosomal dominant inheritance
Q. No. 27: regarding childhood polycystic disease
A. It is always bilateral
B. Cysts are lined by variable epithelia
C. Never appear from collecting ducts
D. Histologically it is different from adult type
Q. No. 28: Most common type of hypertension is
A. Associated with acromegaly
B. Essential
C. Pregnancy induced
D. Associated with renal artery stenosis
Q. No. 29: Which class of antibody molecule has the ability to cross placenta?
A. Ig G
B. IG A
C. IgM
D. Ig E
Q. No. 30: Which of the following antibodies is the largest in size?
A. Ig G
B. IgM
C. Ig E
D. Ig D
Q. No. 31: Characteristic feature of adaptive immune response and not of innate response is
A. Physical barrier
B. Chemical Barrier
C. Clonal expansion of effector cells
 D. Phagocytosis

Q. No. 32: Which of the following red cell indices tells you how big your patient’s red cells are?
A. Hemoglobin percentage
B. RDW
C. MCV
D. MCHC
Q. No. 33: Normal range for Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) is
A. 80-95 femtoliter
B. 60-110 femtoliter
C. 95-200 femtoliter
D. 200-300 femtoliter
Q. No. 34: Oval macrocytes are feature of which of the following
A. Liver disease
B. Megaloblastic anemia
C. Aplastic anemia
D. Hypothyroidism
Q. No. 35: Macrocytic anemias are the anemias in which
A. The red cells are small than normal
B. The red cells are normal in size
C. The red cells are big than normal
D. All of the above
Q. No. 36: Microcytic anemias are the anemias in which
A. The red cells are small than normal
B. The red cells are normal in size
C. The red cells are big than normal
D. All of the above
Q. No. 37: Unit used to express Mean corpuscular volume is
A. Pico gram
B. Femtoliter
C. Percentage
D. Kilo gram
Q. No. 38: Non-Megaloblastic anemia may be seen in all the following conditions except:
A. Vitamin B12 and folate deficiency
B. Pregnancy
C. Aplastic anemia
D. Smoking
Q. No. 39: Macrocytosis in liver disease is caused by
A. Deposition of Iron in red cell membrane
B. Deposition of Carbon in Golgi apparatus
C. Deposition of lipid in nucleus
D. Deposition of lipids in red cell membrane
Q. No. 40: Excess cell water in smoking associated macrocytosis is secondary to
A. Oxygen retention
B. Helium retention
C. Carbon dioxide retention
D. Lithium retention
Q. No. 41: The physiological causes of large circulating erythrocytes are
A. Newborns
B. Infants
C. Pregnancy
D. All of the above
Q. No. 42: Inflammatory bowel disease are classified as
A. Celiac disease and ulcerative colitis
B. Celiac disease and Crohn’s disease
C. Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis
D. Peptic ulcer and irritable bowel disease
Q. No. 43: Crohn’s disease
A. Can affect any part of Gastrointestinal tract from mouth to anus
B. It is the disease of small intestine only
C. Mostly involve the colon in continuous pattern
D. Spreads to inguinal lymph nodes, liver and spleen
Q. No. 44: Testicular tumor
A. Spreads only by hematogenous route
B. Spreads by both hematogenous and lymphatic routes
C. Spreads only by lymphatic route
D. Spreads by direct continuation to adjacent organs
Q. No. 45: What type of macrocytes are typically seen in megaloblastic anemia?
A. Triangular macrocytes
B. Oval macrocytes
C. Round macrocytes
D. Square macrocytes
Q. No. 46: What type of macrocytes are typically seen in non-megaloblastic anemia?
A. Hypersegmented neutrophils
B. Oval macrocytes
C. Round macrocytes
D. Tear drop
Q. No. 47: Hemolytic anemias there is increased destruction of
A. Neutrophils
B. Eosinophils
C. Red cells
D. Platelets
Q. No. 48: Multiple myeloma is a disease of
A. Plasma cells
B. Red blood cells
C. Lymphocytes
D. Monocytes
Q. No. 49: Which one of these is relatively common complication in multiple myeloma?
A. Pulmonary edema
B. Renal failure
C. Diarrhea
D. Vomiting
Q. No. 50: Which of the following is not a feature of multiple myeloma
A. Renal failure
B. Anemia
C. Bone pain
D. Elevated liver enzymes
Q. No. 51: The most common cause of renal failure in patients of Multiple myeloma is
A. Hypokalemia
B. Accumulation and precipitation of light chains
C. Hypocalcemia
D. Hyponatremia
Q. No.52: Serum protein electrophoresis shows which bad in multiple myeloma is
A. Z band
B. K band
 C. L band
D. M Band

Q. No. 53: which of the following statements is not true about morphology of Multiple
myeloma
A. Cytoplasm of abnormal plasma cells may contain inclusions- Mott cells
B. Cytoplasm of abnormal plasma cells may be red tinged - Flaming cells
C. The peripheral smear is always normal
D. Peripheral blood smear often has a blue background due to increased serum protein
Q. No. 54: An acronym associated with Multiple myeloma “CRAB” represents
A. Calcium problems
B. Renal problems
C. Anemia and bone pain
D. All of the above
Q. No. 55: Myeloma cells usually produce a single type of protein antibody known as
A. M-protein
B. K-protein
C. S-protein
D. O-protein
Q. No. 56: Dysregulation which of the following is believed to be an early unifying event in
Multiple myeloma
A. Cyclin Z
B. Cyclin H
C. Cyclin D (D1, D2 and D3)
D. Cyclin L
Q. No. 57: Antibodies in warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia are
A. Ig G
B. Ig A
C. Ig D
D. Ig E
Q. No. 58: Antibodies in cold autoimmune hemolytic anemia are
A. Ig A
B. Ig M
C. Ig D
D. Ig E
Q. No. 59: Normal red cell breakdown is extravascular. Which of the following is correct
match for the fate following the red cell destruction?
A. Iron -- mostly excreted in urine
B. Bilirubin -- stored in hair follicles
C. Hemoglobin -- used as such in the new red cells
D. Globin – breaks down into amino acids
Q. No. 60: In warm antibody autoimmune hemolytic anemia Ig G antibodies are active
A. At 100oC
B. At 10oC
C. At 37oC
D. At -80oC
 Answer Key

Question Number Answer Question Number Answer

1 D 31 C
2 C 32 C
3 A 33 A
4 A 34 B
5 A 35 C
6 D 36 A
7 B 37 B
8 B 38 A
9 B 39 D
10 A 40 C
11 C 41 D
12 B 42 C
13 A 43 A
14 C 44 B
15 D 45 B
16 D 46 C
17 C 47 C
18 C 48 A
19 C 49 B
20 C 50 D
21 D 51 B
22 B 52 D
23 A 53 C
24 B 54 D
25 D 55 A
26 C 56 C
27 A 57 A
28 B 58 B
29 A 59 D
30 B 60 C
 Topic 1: Haemopoietic system Bone marrow and hematopoiesis

Q. No. 61: In normal adult hematopoiesis takes place in

A. Liver
B. Spleen
C. Kidney
D. Bone marrow
Q. No. 62: during 2-7 months of fetal life hematopoiesis takes place in
A. Liver and spleen
B. Brain
C. Kidney
D. Esophagus
Q. No. 63: Bone marrow provides unique microenvironment for
A. Orderly proliferation
B. Differentiation
C. Release of blood cells
D. All of the above
Q. No. 64: Anisocytosis (unequal cells) is the term used for
Red blood cells
 White blood cells
Platelets
Hepatocytes
Q. No. 65: Spherocytes are seen in
A. Megaloblastic anemia
B. Glucose-6-phosphate-dehydrogenase deficiency
C. Sickle cell disease
D. Iron deficiency anemia
Q. No. 66: in very initial time of fetal development (0-2) months hematopoiesis take place in
A. Long bones
B. Kidney
C. Stomach
D. Yolk sac
Q. No. 67: Hematopoiesis include all except
A. Erythropoiesis
B. Angiogenesis
C. Myelopoiesis
D. Megakaryopoiesis
Erythropoiesis is regulated by
A. Thrombopoietin
B. Serotonin
C. Erythropoietin
D. Renin-angiotensin system
Q. No. 68: Stimulus to erythropoietin production is
A. Hypoxia
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Excess salivation
D. High protein intake
Q. No. 69: Estimated life span of red blood cells is
A. 19 days
B. 1000days
C. 120 days
D. 780 days
Q. No. 70: Each molecule of normal adult hemoglobin is composed of
A. Hb A, Hb A2 and Hb F
B. Only Hb A
C. Only Hb F
D. Hb A and Hb F
Topic 2: Pneumoconiosis
Topic 3: granulomatous diseases of the lungs

Topic 4: Complete blood count

Q. No.1: