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READING
COMPREHENSIO
N drawing a conclusion or logical judgment on
Tips on Improving Reading
Comprehension (RC)
The most important thing about RC is
understanding what you read. Being able to
read fast is also important, but remember
that speed is always secondary to
understanding. Below are some tips for
exam-preparation as well as for general
improvement.
The main types of RC questions and how to
approach them are:
Type 1: Big Picture questions
These questions are based on the overall
content of the passage and check your overall
understanding of the passage. These are
mostly in the following forms:
1 Main Idea/Main point/Central theme
question
2 Structure and Organization
3 Tone and Attitude of the author of the
passage
4 Title of the passage
With the right analysis of the passage, you
will be able to answer these questions
without referring to the passage again
Type 2: Detail Questions  questions by analyzing the facts given
These are the specific questions. Examples
for these question types are as follows:
1 What can be inferred from the passage?
2 The author of the passage is most likely to
agree/disagree with the statement.
3 Paraphrase the given line or segment
from the passage
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4 Vocabulary Based questions
5 Fact based questions
Type 3: Inference Questions
Inference refers to the reasoning involved in
the basis of circumstantial evidence and prior
conclusions rather than on the basis of direct
observation. You need to draw conclusions
that relate to the passage. The common
mistake committed here is to select an
answer option that is outside the scope of the
passage. Here again, practice becomes the
key.
Type 4: Author agree/disagree questions
These questions are asked in two ways.
Either the question setter might give a
statement based on the overall sentiment of
the passage or he might give a statement
based on specific aspects of the passage.
1 It tests your ability to comprehend
minute details. You need to go through
the directions carefully as multiple cases
are possible here: he might ask you the
statement the author agrees with, the
statement the author does not agree with,
the statement the author does not
disagree with, etc.
Type 5: Fact-based questions
These are the easiest of the lot as these
simply ask you to identify the
correct/incorrect facts. 
One can easily find answers to these
in the
paragraph.
Type 6: Vocabulary based questions
These questions test your vocabulary- the
meaning of a word, synonym or the opposite
of the word/antonym. The contextual
meaning of the word has a vital role here.

Exam Tips
• Don't rush yourself. It is natural that you
will start a little slowly and then build up
speed as you gain familiarity with the
passage.
• Read all the questions first (if the exam
format permits this). This will help you
zero in on the relevant portions when you
start reading the passage.
• Read actively. This means, try to
anticipate the next sentence. Reading this
way will help you engage with the
passage more closely.
• Make notes to capture the essence of
each paragraph within the passage. The
first sentence of the paragraph usually
conveys the main idea or theme of the
paragraph.
• Don't try to memorize anything.
Memorizing consumes time and is not
very useful.
• Get the overview. After you have read
the passage, ask yourself the following
questions:
(1) What is the passage as a whole trying to
say?
(2) How does each paragraph contribute to
the broad message of the passage?
General Improvement Tips
It is a known fact that people with a regular
reading habit do much better in RC tests than
those who don't. Regular reading improves
not just your reading speed, but also the
depth of your understanding of an unfamiliar
passage. The most important thing is to
cultivate a regular reading habit that you
follow with discipline. Here are some things
you can do:
• Read for at least 30 minutes a day.
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• Read from a variety of sources: newspapers,
the Internet, novels, magazines.
• Read across a broad range of topics: sports,
business, politics, science etc.
• Read actively. Develop a habit of being very
curious about whatever you're reading!
• Always summarize to yourself the material
you have just read.
Solving RC's in Computer Based Tests
Exams like CAT, NMAT and MAT are now
computer based. Those who are concerned
about dealing the RCs from the screen
instead of paper, experts suggest them some
ways to handle it. Experts suggest that if you
practice reading more articles and news on
your computer and take notes in your rough
paper while reading it, you will be better
equipped.
‘Focus on comprehending the passage and not
on speed reading. You may make a note of
important points as you read on the rough
paper provided. This will help you answer the
questions faster and minimize the time
required to browse through a passage every
time you answer a question. You have to make
full use of the highlight option which is
provided in the computer-based CAT exam.’
Level 1-Easy
Passage 1: Common Information
On August 22, 1939, Adolf Hitler
summoned his top military generals to
Obersalzberg, here he delivered a speech
explaining his plans for war, first with
Poland, then with the rest of Europe.
Despite resistance from those both inside
and outside Germany, Hitler felt
exceedingly confident that he could defy
the will of the international community
and conquer vast amounts of land. In his
speech at Obersalzberg, he laid out

numerous factors he believed would
contribute to the success of his war plans.
Chief among Hitler's sources of confidence
in Germany's brazen war plans was
German military quickness. Hitler said,
"Our strength lies in our quickness." On
the advice of Colonel-General von
Brauchitsch, Hitler believed Poland could
be captured in a few weeks, an
astonishingly short amount of time given
the recent history of trench warfare & the
long history of protracted European
military engagements that resulted in
minimal land gains and high casualty
counts.
Hitler's confidence in the ability of the
German military to inflict considerable
brutality further strengthened his
determination to pursue an exceedingly
ambitious plan of territorial
aggrandizement. He said, "I shall shoot
everyone who utters one word of
criticism" and noted that "the goal to be
obtained in the war is not that of reaching
certain lines but of physically demolishing
the opponent." In this vein, Hitler ordered
his military to "be hard, be without mercy,
[and] act more quickly and brutally than
others…for it scares the others off." Hitler
believed that enemies, not used to this
type of brutality, would surrender
quickly.
In addition to speed and brutality, Hitler
believed that, in the end, history would
overlook his inhumane conduct. To
support this view, which turned out to be
anything but prescient, Hitler invoked a
Pollyannaish view of Asian leader Genghis
Kahn. In Hitler's eyes, Kahn "sent millions
of women and children into death
knowingly and with a light heart," yet
"history sees in him only the great
founder of States.”
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Although Hitler brimmed with confidence
and experienced initial yet widely
expected success in Poland and then in
Denmark, he overlooked important
considerations. In many ways, Hitler
made the same mistake Napoleon
Bonaparte made years earlier. Hitler
believed he could advance further and
conquer Britain, yet, like Napoleon, Hitler
did not adequately foresee the
insurmountable barrier posed by Britain's
island status. Despite the damage inflicted
at the hands of the German Luftwaffe
during the Battle of Britain (1940), British
forces eventually won this important
battle. Nevertheless, Hitler pressed on
and, in an even more fateful decision that
carried echoes of a Napoleonic tactical
misstep, invaded the USSR where his
forces suffered the decisive defeat of
World War II at Stalingrad in 1943. In the
end, Hitler's reputation in history proved
to be as brutal and decisive as the battle
plans and philosophy he announced at
Obersalzberg.
Q1. According to the passage, Hitler's
confidence in his military strategy stemmed
from its:
A. Surprise invasions
B. Emphasis on unconventional warfare
C. Reliance on air supremacy
D. Swift brutality
E. Napoleonic overtones
Q2. The author of the passage is primarily
concerned with explaining:
A. The logistics of Hitler's war strategy and
the mechanic s of its failure
B. The philosophy of Hitler's war strategy and
the world's reaction
C. Why Hitler believed his war plans would
succeed and why they eventually failed

D. Hitler's plans and their failure with an eye
to pre-1900 history
E. Explaining the source of Hitler's brutality
and the reasons for its failure
Q3. Which of the following best characterizes
the author's view of the relationship between
Hitler and Napoleon?
A. Governed with similar styles
B. Fought military conflicts with similar
ideologies
C. In general, shared a legacy as overly
ambitious leaders
D. At a high-level, some similarities in
military missteps existed
E. Both suffered final defeats by impetuously
charging east
Q4. According to the passage, what best
describes the author's understanding of why
Hitler's military campaign eventually failed?
A. Failed to demoralize opponents
B. Overlooked important tactical and
geographic considerations
C. Underestimated international resolve
D. Fell behind technological advancements of
European enemies
E. Failed to consolidate initial military and
land gains
Q5. According to the passage, Hitler's
confidence in the war plans announced at
Obersalzberg stemmed from all of the
following EXCEPT:
A. The speed of the German military
B. The brutality of the German military
C. The plan to stifle dissent
D. The belief that instilling fear weakened
enemies
E. The history of overlooking European
military brutality
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Q6. According to the passage, why did Hitler
believe he could conquer Poland in a few
weeks?
A. The inaction of European neighbors
B. The example of Napoleon
C. The philosophy of Genghis Kahn
D. The counsel of a military general
E. The small size of Poland
Q7. According to the passage, which of the
following represents the chronological
unfolding of events?
A. Generals summoned to Obersalzberg;
Invaded Poland; Invaded Denmark; the Battle
of Britain; Battle at Stalingrad
B. Generals summoned to Obersalzberg;
Invaded Denmark; Invaded Poland; the Battle
of Britain; Battle at Stalingrad
C. Generals summoned to Obersalzberg;
Invaded Denmark; Invaded Poland; Battle at
Stalingrad; the Battle of Britain
D. Generals summoned to Obersalzberg;
Invaded Poland; Invaded Denmark; Battle at
Stalingrad; the Battle of Britain
E. Generals summoned to Obersalzberg; the
Battle of Britain; Invaded Poland; Invaded
Denmark; Battle at Stalingrad
Passage 2: Common Information
Although websites such as Facebook and
MySpace experienced exponential growth
during the middle of the first decade of
the 21st century, some users remain
oblivious to the fact that the information
they post online can come back to haunt
them. First, employers can monitor
employees who maintain a blog, photo
diary or website. Employers can look for
controversial employee opinions,
sensitive information disclosures or
wildly inappropriate conduct. For
example, a North Carolina newspaper
fired one of its features writers after she
created a blog on which she anonymously

wrote about the idiosyncrasies of her job
and co-workers.
The second unintended use of information
from social networking websites is
employers who check on prospective
employees. A June 11, 2006 New York
Times article reported that many
companies recruiting on college campuses
use search engines and social networking
websites such as MySpace, Xanga and
Facebook to conduct background checks.
Although the use of MySpace or Google to
scrutinize a student’s background is
somewhat unsettling to many
undergraduates, the Times noted that the
utilization of Facebook is especially
shocking to students who believe that
Facebook is limited to current students
and recent alumni.
Corporate recruiters and prospective
employers are not the only people
interested in college students’ lives. The
third unintended use of social networking
websites is college administrators who
monitor the Internet—especially
Facebook—for student misconduct. For
example, a college in Boston’s Back Bay
expelled its student Government
Association President for joining a
Facebook group highly critical of a
campus police sergeant. In addition,
fifteen students at a state university in
North Carolina faced charges in court for
underage drinking because of photos that
appeared on Facebook.
Although more users of websites
such as Facebook are becoming aware of
the potential pitfalls of online identities,
many regular users still fail to take three
basic security precautions. First, only
make your information available to a
specific list of individuals whom you
approve. Second, regularly search for
potentially harmful information about
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yourself that may have been posted by
mistake or by a disgruntled former
associate. Third, never post blatantly
offensive material under your name or on
our page as, despite the best precautions,
this material will likely make its way to
the wider world. By taking these simple
steps, members of the digital world can
realize the many benefits of e-community
without experiencing some of the
damaging unintended consequences.
Q1. Based upon the passage, the author
implies which of the following:
A. Information obtained unwillingly from the
Internet is permissible in court
B. It is impossible to protect yourself from
unintended uses of information online
C. Making information available only to
people whom you trust compromises your
online community
D. Even if you restrict who can view your
data, the government may still access it
E. Done properly, posting prurient
information about oneself poses no
substantial risk
Q2. The author implies that users should take
all of the following actions to protect their
online privacy EXCEPT:
A. Know to whom you make your online
information available
B. Actively hunt for misinformation or
damaging information posted about you or
under your name
C. Speak with recruiters to inform them of
any misinformation published about you
D. Carefully select and limit who can view
your electronic profile
E. Avoid uploading information that would be
exceedingly damaging if it were discovered

Q3. The tone of the passage suggests that the
author's view toward e-community and the
digital world can best be described as:
A. Largely Pessimistic
B. Frustrated
C. Guardedly Optimistic
D. Distressed
E. Strongly Optimistic
Q4. According to the passage, all of the
following represent a possible threat to
privacy or an unintended use of data
EXCEPT:
A. Disgruntled past associates posting
damaging information online
B. Colleges or universities disciplining
students for expressing politically incorrect
or institutionally disowned opinions
C. Government officials using online
information, obtained against one’s will, to
bring legal proceedings
D. Potential employers conducting
unauthorized and potentially invasive
background checks via Google or Facebook
E. Malicious users impersonating one's
identity to commit identity fraud
Q5. Primary purpose of the passage is to:
A. Explain the growth of the digital world
through the lens of privacy
B. Discuss the risks of the digital world and
suggest ways to protect yourself
C. Evaluate the pros and cons of active
participation in the digital world
D. Propose steps Facebook, MySpace, and
Google can take to protect user privacy
E. Illustrate potential unintended uses of
private information
Q6. Which of the following best describes the
relationship of the last paragraph to the
remainder of the passage?
A. It offers detailed examples to support
previous assertions
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B. It provides suggestions to ameliorate the
previously mentioned problems
C. It summarizes the points of the preceding
paragraphs
D. It offers counter evidence and an
alternative point of view to the claims made
earlier in the passage
E. It reconciles conflicting claims
Passage 3: Common Information
It is difficult to reconcile the ideas of
different schools of thought on the
question of education. Some people
maintain that pupils of school should
concentrate on a narrow range of subjects
which will benefit them directly in their
subsequent careers. Others contend that
they should study a wide range of subjects
so that they not only have the specialized
knowledge necessary for their chosen
careers but also sound general knowledge
about the world they will have to work
and live in. Supporters of the first theory
state that the greatest contributions to
civilization are made by those who are
expert in their trade or profession. Those
on the other side say that, unless they
have a broad general education, the
experts will be too narrow in their
outlook to have sympathy with their
fellows or a proper sense of responsibility
towards humanity as a whole.
Q1. What is the passage about?
A. Reconciliation of two different ideas about
education
B. Projecting two different ideas about
education
C. Career-oriented education
D. Broad-based education
Q2. According to the passage which one of
the following statements is true about broad
general knowledge?

A. Without it no one would get a job
B. Specialization is incomplete without it
C. It teaches us about different things
D. It broadens one's outlook
Q3.Supporters of the first theory would not
agree with
A. experts have contributed most to the
progress in the modern world
B. students should study a few subjects that
will help them in their profession
C. people with broad general education have
not contributed much to civilization
D. students should not undertake any
specialized work
Q4.'School of thought' can best be explained
as
A. groups of people who are schooled to think
B. groups of people having different
perceptions on a particular subject
C. groups of people belonging to different
schools
D. groups of people whose job is to think
Q5. According to the second school of thought
education will not be very effective, if
students
A. do not have a wide general education
B. have inadequate knowledge of their own
work
C. ignore the study of fine arts
D. concentrates on only a few subjects
Passage 4: Common Information
Some religious teachers have taught that
Man is made up of a body and a soul: But
they have been silent about the Intellect.
Their followers try to feed the body on
earth and to save soul from perdition
after death: But they neglected the claims
of the mind. Bread for the body and Virtue
for the soul: These are regarded as the
indispensable requisites of human
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welfare here and hereafter. Nothing is
said about knowledge and education.
Thus Jesus Christ spoke much of feeding
the hungry, healing the sick, and
converting the sinners: But he never
taught the duty of teaching the ignorant
and increasing scientific knowledge. He
himself was not a well-educated man, and
intellectual pursuits were beyond his
horizon. Gautam Buddha also laid stress
on morality, meditation and asceticism,
but he did not attach great importance to
history, science, art or literature. St.
Ambrose deprecated scientific studies and
wrote, “To discuss the nature and position
of the earth does not help us in our hope
for life to come”. St. Basil said very frankly
and foolishly, “It is not a matter of interest
for us whether the earth is a sphere or a
cylinder or disc.” Thomas Carlyle also
followed the Christian traditions when he
declared that he honored only two men
and no third: The manual labor and the
religious teacher. He forgot the scientist,
the scholar and the artist. The cynics of
Greece despised education at last.
Q1. What have the religious teachers taught
in the past?
A. That man is made up of body only
B. That man is made up of soul only
C. That man is made up of bubbles
D. That man is made up of body and soul
together
Q2. What is food for the soul?
A. Bread
B. Virtue
C. Vice
D. Education
 TYL TRAINING | VERBAL ABILITY
Q3. The following philosophers occur in the They have left the task of value extraction
passage. But they are not in correct order. mostly to the informal system of garbage
Correct the order collectors and recyclers. Improving on the
(l) Jesus Christ national record of collecting only 80% of
(II) Gautam Buddha waste generated and being able to process
(III) St. Ambrose just 28% of that quantum, requires
(IV) Thomas Carlyle behavior modification among citizens and
(V) St. Basil institutions. But what is more important is
A. I, II, III, IV, V that the municipal bodies put in place an
B. I, III, IV, V, II integrated system to transport and
C. I, II, III, V, IV process what has been segregated at
source.
D. II, I, III, IV, V
The Swachh Bharat programme of the
Centre has focussed too narrowly on
Q4. Intellectual pursuits have been neglected individual action to keep streets clean,
because: without concurrent pressure on State and
(I) They are unnecessary and superfluous municipal authorities to move closer to
(II) They make people dwarf scientific management by the deadline of
(III) They lead people to hell April 2018 set for most places, and arrest
A. Only I is correct the spread of pollution from trash.
B. Only II is correct In the absence of stakeholders at
C. Only III is correct the local body level, recoverable
D. Only I and II are correct resources embedded in discarded
materials are lost due to dumping.
Organic refuse, which forms about 50% of
Passage 5: Common Information all garbage, readily lends itself to the
The collapse of a great wall of garbage in generation of compost or production of
east Delhi’s Ghazipur area, sweeping methane for household use or power
people and vehicles into a nearby canal, is generation. But it is a major opportunity
a stark reminder that India’s neglected lost. Organic waste that could help green
waste management crisis can have deadly cities and feed small and affordable
consequences. household biogas plants is simply being
More than a year after the notification of thrown away. It is also ironic that while
the much-delayed Solid Waste some countries such as Rwanda and
Management Rules, cities and towns are Kenya have introduced stiff penalties for
in no position to comply with its the use of flimsy plastic bags, India is
stipulations, beginning with the doing little to prevent them from drifting
segregation of different kinds of waste at into suburban garbage mountains, rivers,
source and their scientific lakes and the sea, and being ingested by
processing. Neither are urban local cattle feeding on dumped refuse. A new
governments treating the 62 million paradigm is needed, in which bulk waste
tonnes of waste generated annually in the generators take the lead and city
country as a potential resource. managers show demonstrable change in
the way it is processed. There has to be a

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shift away from large budgets for
collection and transport by private
contractors, to the processing of
segregated garbage. As the nodal body for
the implementation of the new rules, the
Central Pollution Control Board should
put out periodic assessments of the
preparedness of urban local bodies in the
run-up to the deadline. Without a rigorous
approach, the national problem of merely
shifting city trash to the suburbs, out of
sight of those who generate it, will fester
and choke the landscape. Considering that
waste volumes are officially estimated to
grow to 165 million tonnes a year by
2030, many more suburbs are bound to be
threatened by collapsing or burning
trash-mountains.
Q1. Which among the following is true
according to the passage?
A. The national record of collecting more
than 80% of waste generated and being able
to process just 28% of that quantum requires
behavior modification among citizens and
institutions.
B. the national record of collecting below
80% of waste generated and being able to
process just 28% of that quantum, requires
behavior modification among citizens and
institutions
C. the national record of collecting only 80%
of waste generated and being able to process
less than 28% of that quantum, requires
behavior modification among citizens and
institutions
D. the national record of collecting only 80%
of waste generated and being able to process
just 28% of that quantum, requires behavior
modification among citizens and institutions
E. all are false
Q2. Which of the following can be the suitable
title for the passage?
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A. Mountains of garbage
B. Negligence of waste management
C. Waste management and clean India.
D. Clean India campaign 
E. None of these
Q3. Which of the following statement is/are
wrong according to the passage?
I. The Swachh Bharat programme of the
Centre has focused too much on individual
action to keep streets clean.
II. Organic waste that could help green cities
and feed small and affordable household
biogas plants is simply being thrown away.
III. Organic refuse, which forms more than
50% of all garbage, readily lends itself to the
generation of compost or production of
methane for household use or power
generation
A. Only I
B. (I) and (III)
C. Only B
D. Only C
E. (I) and (II)
Q4. Which of the following country/countries
introduced stiff penalties for the use of flimsy
plastic bags?
A. Rwanda and Kenya
B. Kenya and India
C. India
D. Rwanda
E. Kenya
Q5. Choose the word, which is MOST
SIMILAR in meaning of the word printed in
bold as used in the passage. Flimsy
A. Tough
B. Coarse
C. Thin
D. Lasting
E. Durable

Q6. Choose the word, which is MOST
OPPOSITE in meaning of the word printed in
bold as used in the passage. Segregation
A. Isolation
B. Solitude
C. Seclusion
D. Camaraderie
E. Separateness
Level 2-Moderate
Passage 1: Common Information
On the surface, the conquest of the Aztec
empire by Herman Cortes is one of the
most amazing military accomplishments
in history. With a small fighting force
numbering in the hundreds, Cortes led the
Spanish explorers into victory against an
Aztec population that many believe
topped 21 million. In light of such a
seemingly impossible victory, the obvious
question is: how did a small group of
foreign fighters manage to topple one of
the world's strongest, wealthiest and most
successful military empires?
Several factors led to Cortes' success.
First, the Spanish exploited animosity
toward the Aztecs among rival groups and
convinced thousands of locals to fight. In
one account of a battle, it is recorded that
at least 200,000 natives fought with
Cortes. Next, the Spanish possessed
superior military equipment in the form
of European cannons, guns, and
crossbows, leading to effective and
efficient disposal of Aztec defenses. For
example, Spanish cannons quickly
defeated large Aztec walls that had
protected the empire against big and less
technically advanced armies.
Despite the Spanish advantages, the
Aztecs probably could have succeeded in
defending their capital city of
Tenochtitlan had they leveraged their
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incredible population base to increase
their army's size and ensured that no
rogue cities would ally with Cortes. In
order to accomplish this later goal, Aztec
leader Motecuhzoma needed to send
envoys to neighbouring cities telling their
inhabitants about the horrors of Spanish
conquest and the inevitability of Spanish
betrayal.
In addition, the Aztecs should have
exploited the fact that the battle was
taking place on their territory. No reason
existed for the Aztecs to consent to
conventional battle, which heavily
favoured the Spanish. Motecuhzoma's
forces should have thought outside the
box and allowed Cortes into the city, only
to subsequently use hundreds of
thousands of fighters to prevent escape
and proceed in surprise "door-to-door"
combat. With this type of battle, the Aztecs
would have largely thwarted Spanish
technological supremacy. However, in the
end, the superior weaponry of the
Spanish, the pent-up resentment of Aztec
rivals, the failure of Aztec diplomacy, and
the lack of an unconventional Aztec war
plan led to one of the most surprising
military outcomes in the past one
thousand years.
Q1. Which of the following best characterizes
the main point the author is trying to convey
in the passage?
A. Aztec failure to fight an unconventional
war led to an unnecessary defeat
B. Spanish victory was neither as impressive
nor as surprising as it may first appear
C. Resentment toward the Aztecs led to their
demise
D. Herman Cortes masterminded an amazing
military accomplishment
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E. The myopic vision of the Aztecs led to their Q5. Which of the following best characterizes
unnecessary downfall the author's view about the inevitability of
Aztec demise at the hands of the Spanish?
Q2. The passage is sequentially organized in A. Absolutely Inevitable
which of the following ways? B. Likely Inevitable
A. Introduce an enigma; explain the reasons C. Ambivalent
for the enigma; discuss the inevitability of the D. Likely Not Inevitable
enigma E. Absolutely Not Inevitable
B. Define a problem; explain the sources of
the problem; offer a solution to the problem Q6. The author implies which of the following
C. Introduce a mystery; offer an explanation about the nature of Aztec regional influence
for the mystery; provide an alternative and power?
explanation for the mystery A. Engendered some anger
D. Pose a question; offer an answer to the B. Achieved with a non-traditional military
question; offer an alternative answer to the campaign
question C. Based upon a technologically outdated
E. Define a problem; explain the likelihood of military
the problem; discuss the consequences of the D. Achieved through alliances
problem E. Based upon small yet swift and brutal
military force
Q3. The author implies which of the following
about the Aztec view toward an Q7. The passage implies that which of the
unconventional military confrontation of the following constituted the reason for Cortes'
Spanish? success seeming so impressive?
A. The Aztecs did not consider it A. Utilization of technological supremacy
B. The Aztecs considered it, but rejected it out B. Ability to form a coalition of local tribes to
of beliefs about how battles ought to be fight the Aztecs
fought C. The vast quantities of gold and other
C. The Aztecs considered this, but it was too precious metals obtained in conquest
late D. The large disparity in the size of the Aztec
D. The Aztecs were certain a victory could be and Spanish militaries
achieved via traditional combat
E. The Aztecs felt the geography of Q8. The author's tone can best be described
Tenochtitlan did not favour this strategy as?
A. Frustrated
Q4. According to the passage, all of the B. Angry
following led to Cortes' success EXCEPT: C. Optimistic
A. Advanced crossbows D. Analytical
B. Nimble military force E. Introspective
C. Local Spanish allies
D. Local tribal friction Passage 2: Common Information
E. Quick destruction of Aztec walls The classical realist theory of
international relations has long
dominated both academic institutions and

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the American government. Even at the
birth of the nation, early political
thinkers, such as Alexander Hamilton,
promoted a realist view of international
relations and sought to influence the
actions of the government based on this
perspective. While the classical realist
school of international relations is not
entirely homogeneous in nature, there are
certain premises that all classical realists
share.
The primary principle underlying
classical realism is a concern with issues
of war and peace. Specifically, classical
realists ask, what are the causes of war
and what are the conditions of peace? The
members of the classical realist school
mainly attribute war and conflict to what
is termed the security dilemma. In the
absence of any prevailing global
authority, each nation is required to
address its own security needs. However,
each nation’s quest for security—through
military build-ups, alliances, or territorial
defenses—necessarily unsettles other
nations. These nations react to feelings of
insecurity by engaging in their own
aggressive actions, which leads other
nations to react similarly, perpetuating
the cycle.
It is important to note that for realists,
unlike idealists or liberal
internationalists, international conflict is
a necessary consequence of the structural
anarchy that nations find themselves in.
Whereas other schools may see
international conflict as the result of evil
dictators, historical chance, flawed socio
political systems, or ignorance of world
affairs, classical realists see war as the
logical result of a system that by its nature
lacks a true central authority.
Hand in hand with this view of conflict as
an inevitable condition of the global
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power structure is the realists’ view of the
nation as a unitary actor. Because
classical realists see international
relations as a continuing struggle for
dominance, the nation cannot be viewed
as a collection of individuals with
disparate wants, goals, and ideologies.
The realist view requires the formulation
of a national interest, which in its simplest
terms refers to the nation’s ability to
survive, maintain its security, and achieve
some level of power relative to its
competitors. Realism is not without its
critics, many of whom challenge the
premise that war is the natural condition
of international relations or that there can
be a truly national interest. However, the
realist school of international relations
continues to shape foreign policy because
of the successes it has had in describing
real world interactions between nations.
Q1.It can be inferred from the passage that
members of the classical realist school would
be LEAST likely to support.
A. an international policy based on building a
strong military force to deter threats
B. an international policy that seeks to reduce
threats of war by providing humanitarian aid
to potential aggressor countries
C. a domestic policy that attempts to unify the
nation’s citizens behind a common cause
D. a domestic policy that allocates a majority
of the country’s budget for defense spending
E. an international policy based on joining a
common defense contract with other nations
Q2. Which of the following, if true, would best
support the classical realist theory of
international conflict as it is described in the
passage?
A. Some countries ruled by dictators maintain
peaceful relations with their neighbors.

B. Despite the presence of a world
superpower, many countries continue to
fight wars with their neighbors.
C. War has existed from the beginning of
recorded history.
D. After the nations of the world form an
authoritative world court, wars decrease
dramatically.
E. Some countries are able to capture
territories from other countries without fear
of international consequences.
Q3.According to the passage, the formation of
a national interest serves what function in
the classical realist theory of war and peace?
A. It is a convenience used by theorists to
describe national interests where none exist.
B. It provides the necessary justification for
the classical realist view of a continuous
global power struggle.
C. It is less important to the theory than is the
idea of the nation as a unitary actor.
D. It is a description of the policies used by
world leaders to convince their citizens that
war is necessary.
E. It is the part of the theory that receives the
most criticism from opponents.
Q4. The author most likely regards the
classical realist theory of international
relations with
A. general apathy
B. skeptical dismissal
C. veiled disapproval
D. glowing approval
E. qualified acceptance
Passage 3: Common Information
After the end of World War II, a pervasive,
but unfortunately fallacious, economic
perspective took hold. Based on the
United States’ successful emergence from
the Depression, the idea that war was
good for an economy became fashionable.
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However, linking the United States
economic recovery with its entry into
World War II is a prime example of flawed
economic thinking.
Supporters of the war benefits economy
theory hold that a country at war is a
country with a booming economy.
Industry must produce weapons, supplies,
food, and clothing for the troops. The
increased production necessitates the
hiring of more people, reducing
unemployment.
More employment means more money in
the pockets of citizens, who are then likely
to go out and spend that money, helping
the retail sector of the economy. Retail
shops experience an increase in business
and may need to hire more workers,
further reducing unemployment and
adding to the economic momentum. While
this scenario sounds good in theory, it
does not accurately represent what truly
happens in a war time economy.
In reality, the government can fund a war
in a combination of three ways. It can
raise taxes, cut spending on other areas,
or increase the national debt. Each of
these strategies has a negative impact on
the economy. An increase in taxes takes
money out of an individual’s hands,
leading to a reduction in consumer
spending. Clearly, there is no net benefit
to the economy in that case. Cutting
spending in other areas has its costs as
well, even if they are not as obvious.
Any reduction in government spending
means the imposition of greater burden
on the benefactors of that government
spending. Cutbacks in a particular
program mean that the people who
normally depend on that program now
must spend more of their money to make
up for the government cuts. This also
takes money out of consumers’ hands and

leaves the economy depressed. Of course,
a government could go into debt during
the war, but such a strategy simply means
that at some point in the future, taxes
must be increased or spending decreased.
Plus, the interest on the debt must be paid
as well.
Q1. The "pervasive…economic perspective"
mentioned in line 1 took hold because:
A. observers took the appearance of one
phenomenon with another to indicate that
one caused the other
B. the U.S. would not have emerged from the
Depression had it not entered World War II
C. the booming economy during wartime
created thousands of jobs in the U.S.
D. most people /are not trained to think in
economic terms
E. economists confused an event that was
necessary for an outcome to occur with one
that is merely sufficient to bring about that
outcome
Q2. Which of the following situations best
mirrors the effect that cutting spending in
government programs has, as detailed in the
passage?
A. Government cutbacks on public works
maintenance lead to a deterioration of roads,
which creates more work for private
construction firms.
B. A decrease in the federal education budget
causes certain schools to close, which forces
families to send their children to schools that
are farther away.
C. A federal decrease in unemployment
payments causes some individuals who
would otherwise remain on unemployment
to seek jobs.
D. Government cuts in housing subsidies
results in fewer houses being built.
E. A reduction in the federal spending on food
safety inspections leads to a rash of illnesses
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and an increase in the amount of money
spent on medicine.
Q3. The passage implies which of the
following about a government that funds a
war by increasing the national debt?
A. It is no worse off than it would be funding
a war by cutting spending or increasing taxes.
B. The initial costs it incurs are less than with
the other two methods, but the future costs
are greater.
C. It must increase taxes in order to pay off
the interest on the debt.
D. If the government does not increase taxes
or decrease spending, its economy will not
recover.
E. It receives a net benefit to the economy
greater than it would achieve with either of
the other two methods.
Q4. The second paragraph of the passage
performs which of the following functions?
A. It describes the common economic
benefits of a wartime economy.
B. It provides the background information
necessary to understand the information in
the third paragraph.
C. It explains what happened to the United
States’ economy during World War II.
D. It presents a possible objection to the
author’s main thesis.
E. It helps explain why individuals might hold
the viewpoint presented in the first
paragraph.
Passage 4: Common Information
We have inherited the tradition of
secrecy about the budget from Britain
where also the system has been strongly
attacked by eminent economists and
political scientists including Peter Jay. Sir
Richard Wilson, who was the originating
prodigy of nearly every significant growth
in the British budgeting procedures

during the last two decades, has spoken
out about the abuse of budget
confidentiality: ―The problems of long-
term tax policy should surely be debated
openly with the facts on the table. In my
estimation, all governments should have
just the same onus to publish their
spending policy.
Indeed, this obligation to public
taxation policy is really essential for the
control of public expenditure in order to
get realistic taxation implications.
Realising that democracy flourishes best
on the ideologies of open government,
more and more democracies are having
an open public dispute on budget
suggestions before announcing the
appropriate Bill in the legislature. In the
United States, the budget is conveyed in a
message by the President to the Congress,
which comes well in advance of the date
when the Bill is introduced in the
Congress.
In Finland, the Parliament and the
people are already conversing in June the
tentative modest suggestions which are to
be familiarized in the Finnish Parliament
in September. Every budget contains a
cartload of figures in black and white-but
the dark figures represent the myriad
lights and shades of India‘s life, the
contrasting tones of poverty and wealth,
and of bread so dear and flesh and blood
so cheap, the deep tints of adventure and
enterprise and man‘s ageless struggle for
a brighter morning. The Union budget
should not be an annual scourge but a
part of presentation of annual accounts of
a partnership between the Government
and the people. That partnership would
work much better when the ridiculous
confidentiality is substituted by openness
and public consultations, resulting in fair
laws and the people‘s acceptance of their
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moral duty to pay.
Q1. How do the British economists and
political scientists react to budget secrecy?
They are
(a) in favor of having a mix of secrecy and
openness.
(b) indifferent to the budgeting techniques
and taxation policies.
(c) Eminent British economists and political
scientists have strongly attached the
tradition of budget secrecy.
(d) advocates of not disclosing in advance the
budget contents.
(e) None of these 
Q2. The author thinks that openness in
budget is essential as it leads to 
(a) prevention of tax implications
(b) People‘s reluctance to accept their moral
duties
(c) exaggerated revelation of the strengths
and weaknesses of economy
(d) making our country on par with Finland
(e) It leads to the control of public
expenditure in order to set realistic taxation
implications.
Q3. The author seems to be in favour of 
(a) maintaining secrecy of budget
(b) judicious blend of secrecy and openness
(c) transparency in budget proposals
(d) replacement of public constitution by
secrecy
(e) None of these 
Q4. The secrecy of the budget is maintained
by all of the following countries except
(A) Finland
(B) India
(C) United States
(a) Only A
(b) Only B

(c) Only C
(d) A and C
(e) B and C  communal order of his pattern, there was
Q5. Sir Richard Clarke seems to deserve the
credit for
(a) transformation in the British budgetary
techniques.
(b) Maintenance of secrecy of the British
budget.
(c) detection of abuse of transparency in
budget
(d) bringing down the tax load on British
people.
(e) None of these  nots. We have seen, in our time, attempts
Q6. For making the budget realistic, the
Government should
(a) refrain from making public the proposed
provisions before finalization.  In the ultimate analysis, it is difficult, if
(b) discuss it secretly within themselves.
(c) encourage the public to send in their
suggestions.
(d) An open public debate on budget
proposals should be held before introducing
the appropriate bill.
(e) None of these Directions  dam, once a barrier brakes, the reaction
Passage 5: Common Information
The work, which Gandhi had taken up,
was not only achievement of political
freedom but also the establishment of a
social order based on truth and non-
violence, unity and peace, equality and
universal brotherhood and maximum
freedom for all. This unfinished part of his
experiment was perhaps even more
difficult to achieve than the achievement
of political freedom. In the political
struggle, the fight was against a foreign
power and all one could do, was either
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join it or wish it success and give it their
moral support. In inaugurating the
a sparkling possibility of a skirmish
arising between groups and classes of our
own people. Experience shows that man
values his possessions even more than his
life because, in the former, he sees the
means for perpetuation and survival of his
descendants even after his body is
reduced to ashes. A new order cannot be
proven without fundamentally changing
the mind and attitude of men towards
property and, at some stage or the other,
the ―haves have to yield place to the have-
to achieve a kind of egalitarian society
and the picture of it after it was achieved.
But this was done, by and large, through
the use of physical force.
not impossible, to say that the instinct to
possess has been rooted out or that, it will
not reappear in an even worse form under
s different guise. It may even be that like a
gas kept confined within containers under
great pressure, or water held by a big
will one day sweep back with a violence
equal in extent and intensity to what was
used to establish and maintain the
outward egalitarian form. This obligatory
equality contains in its dearest the seed of
its own destruction.
The root cause of class conflict is
possessiveness or the acquisitive instinct.
So Long as the ideal that is to be achieved
is one of securing the maximum material
satisfaction, possessiveness is neither
suppresses nor eliminated but grows on
what it feeds. Nor does it cease to be such
it is possessiveness, still whether it is
confined to only a few or is shared by
many.

If egalitarianism is to endure, it has to be
based not on the possession of the
maximum material goods by few or by all
but on voluntary, enlightened
renunciation of those goods, which cannot
be shared by others or can be enjoyed
only at the expense of others. This calls
for substitution of spiritual values for
purely material ones. The paradise of
material satisfaction that is sometimes
equated with neither progress these days
spells peace nor progress. Mahatma
Gandhi has shown us how the acquisitive
instinct inherent in man could be
transmuted by the adoption of the ideals
of trusteeship by those who have for the
benefit of all those who have not so, that
instead of leading to exploitation and
conflict, it would become a means and
incentive for the amelioration and
progress of society respectively.
Q1. According to the passage, impartiality
will not survive if  order.
(a) It is based on voluntary renunciation.
(b) It is achieved by resorting to physical
forces.
(c) Underprivileged people learn to love and
are not involved in its establishment.
(d) People‘s outlook towards it is not
radically changed
(e) None of these.  (e) None of these.
Q2. According to the passage, why does man
value his belongings other than his life?
(a) He has inherent desire to share his
possessions with others.
(b) He is endowed with the possessive
instinct.
(c) Only his possessions help him earn love
and respect from his descendants.
(d) Through his possessions, he can preserve
his name even after his death.
(e) None of these. 
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Q3. According to the passage, which was the
unfinished part of Gandhi‘s experiment? 
(a) Educating people to avoid class conflict
(b) Achieving total political freedom for the
country.
(c) Establishment of an egalitarian society.
(d) Radically changing the mind and attitude
of men towards truth and non-violence.
(e) None of these. 
Q4. According to the passage, true
egalitarianism will last if. 
(a) It is thrust upon people.
(b) It is based on truth and non-violence.
(c) People inculcate spiritual values along
with material values.
(d) Haves and have-nots live together
peacefully.
(e) None of these. 
Q5. According to the passage, people
ultimately overturn the form of a social
 
(a) Which is based on coercion and
oppression.
(b) Which does not satisfy their basic needs.
(c) Which is based upon conciliation and
rapprochement.
(d) Which is not congenial to the spiritual
values of the people.
 
Q6. According to the passage, the root cause
of class conflict is. 
(a) The paradise of material satisfaction
(b) Dominant inherent acquisitive instinct in
man
(c) Exploitation of the have-nots by the haves
(d) A social order where unprivileged are not
part of the establishment
(e) None of these. 

Q7. According to the passage, what does
adoption of the ideals of trusteeship mean?  and overhead expenses adequately low.
(a) Equating peace and progress with
material satisfaction.
(b) Adoption of the ideal by the ‘haves’ for
the benefit of the society
(c) Voluntary, enlightened renunciation of
the possessive instinct by the privileged
class.
(d) Substitution of spiritual values by
material one by those who live in the
paradise of material satisfaction.
(e) None of these.  a few years it will be successful and turn a
Level 3-Difficult
Passage 1: Common Information
Today, with a Nobel Prize to its credit,
Grameen is one of the largest
microfinance organizations in the world.
It started out providing small sums to
underprivileged tycoons in Bangladesh to
help them grow from a survival living to a
livelihood. The great discovery its
founders made was that even with few
assets, these entrepreneurs repaid on
time. Grameen and microfinance have
since become financial staples of the
developing world. It‘s approach, distinct
from other microfinance, uses the group
lending model. Costs are kept down by
having borrowers vet one another, tying
together their financial fates and
eliminating expensive loan officers
entirely. The ultimate promise of
Grameen is to use business lending as a
way for people to lift themselves out of
poverty.
Recently, Grameen has taken on a
different challenge by setting up
operations in the US. Money may be tight
in the waning recession, but it is still a
nation 1,00,000 bank branches. Globally,
the occupied microfinance equation
consists of borrowing reserves
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economically and keeping loan evasions
Microlenders, including Grameen, do this
by charging colossal interest rates as high
as 60% or 70%-which is necessary to
compensate for the risk and attract bank
funding, but loans rates much above the
standard 15% would most likely be
attacked as usurious in America.
So, the question is whether there is a role
for a Third World leader in the world‘s
largest economy. America believes that in
profit, thanks to 9 million US households,
untouched by mainstream banks, and 21
million using the likes of payday loans and
pawn shops for financing. But enticing the
unbanked won‘t be easy. After all, profit
has long eluded US microfinanciers and if
it is not lucrative, it is not micro-lending,
but charity. When Grameen first went to
the US, in the late 1980s, it tripped up.
Under Grameen‘s tutelage, banks started
microloans to entrepreneurs with a
shocking 30% loss. But Grameen America
says that this time results will be making
loans, not training an American bank to
do it. More often than not, the borrowers,
Grameen finds, in the US already have
jobs(as factory workers for example) or
side business-selling toys, cleaning houses
etc. the loans from Grameen, by and large,
provided a steadier source of funding, but
they don‘t create businesses out of
nothing. But, money isn‘t everything. More
importantly for many entrepreneurs,
group members are tremendous sources
of support to one another. So even if
studies are yet to determine if Grameen is
a clear-cut pathway out of poverty, it still
achieves something useful.
Q1. What has adversely affected the success
of microfinance institutions in the US?
 TYL TRAINING | VERBAL ABILITY
(a) The focus of these institutions is on (a) The conventional that Grameen is
making a profit at any cost instead of being doomed to fail in developed countries
charitable to the needy (b) A comprehensive evaluation of the
(b) American banks engaged in micro- current status of the American economy
lending were the most severely hit during the (c) A brief discussion about the prospects of
recession Grameen and microfinance in the US.
(c) A widespread perception is better suited (d) The role of banks in facilitating micro-
to developing countries lending efforts in developed nations
(d) Their failure to attract those outside the (e) Microfinance efforts are useful in
formal banking system as customers developing countries but are futile in
(e) American‘s are too proud to accept aid developed ones. 
from Third World Countries 
Q5. Why was Grameen America‘s initial US
Q2. Why has Grameen made a second initiative of a flop? 
attempt to launch itself in the US?  (A) Shortage of correct training to Grameen
(a) The willingness of US banks to provide American staffs.
the necessary staff and funds to facilitate the (B) Grameen‘s refusal to adapt their system
spread of micro-finance to meet the needs of the American poor.
(b) The rates of interest on loans in the US (C) It ended up giving loans at half their
are exorbitant, making it easier to recover customary rates of interest 
capital. (a) None 
(c) The realization that a large percentage of (b) only (A)
the American population not reached by (c) Only (A) and (C) 
mainstream banks can be tapped (d) Only (B) 
(d) Recognition of the fact that disbursing (e) Only (C) 
credit in developing countries during the
recession is too risky Q6. Which of the following is a benefit of the
(e) None of these  Grameen system of microfinance?
(a) If a single member is unable to repay a
Q3. According to the author, what has loan, other group members will repay 
enhanced the likelihood of success for (b) Dispensing with the expense of
Grameen America at present?  technology networks to monitor advances
(a) Its success in Bangladesh and other (c) It utilizes the vast bank network already
developing countries existing in a country
(b) Absence of other microfinance (d) Group members can sanction loans and
institutions for competition verify if borrowers have sufficient collateral
(c) The fact that America is currently in the (e) Backing that borrowers receive from
midst of a recession other group members 
(d) It provides loans at nominal rates of
interest ie below 15 percent
(e) None of these  Passage 2: Common Information
Italian super - luxury sports car
Q4. What is the central theme of the passage?  manufacturer Lamborghini has spread its
wings in India. And it has just opened a

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dealership in Bengaluru, the IT
(information technology) capital of the
country. It has already a dealership in
Mumbai, the financial capital, and Delhi,
the political capital, at a price tag of over
Rs. 1 Crore. Who will buy a Lamborghini
car? Rather, what gives the Italian car
maker the confidence to not only drive
into India but also expand its presence?
The choice of its location for dealership
gives a clue or two to its game plan, and
also an insight into its prospective
customer profile.
While dealership in Mumbai and Delhi are
understandable considering the wealth
and power that reside in these two
metros, the choice of Bengaluru to locate
it new dealership indicates that the Italian
company is betting big on the neo rich
who have sprouted in big numbers in the
wake of an unprecedented growth
experienced by this city. If super - luxury
brand like Lamborghini is sensing an
unfolding big opportunity in a New India,
other traditional global luxury car makers
have turned very ambitious with new
launches. Despite high import duty
barriers, global luxury car markers
continue to believe that roll out new
models and ramp up dealership in a bid to
sustain the appetite of India's super rich
for expensive cars is only likely to grow.
After the launch of BMW M5, priced
at Rs. 1.35 crore its German rival
Mercedes - Benz launched next -
generation C- Class, priced at Rs. 40.9 lakh
in New Delhi. The C- Class is one of the
most successful products of Merc. in India.
It has so far sold over 20,000 units C- class
in India. Till date, Lamborghini had sold
around 94 sports cars in the country.
It said the high import duty would
impact the company's sales in India, and
2014 might see a lower volume. In 2013, it
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sold around 22 super - luxury sports cars
in India. "The import duty in India is
higher than many other counties. We want
to sell more cars in the country but the
import duty in India is high as much as
167 percent. This huge import tax will
impact the sales of the super cars in the
country," said Automobili Lamborghini
President and CEO Stephan Winkelman.
Apart from the high import duty,
the late launch of its new model Huracan
into India market was another reason for
lower sales this year. The company
expects to improve the sales next year.
Lamborghini is also considering the
possibility of launching its SUV in India by
2018. In  April 2012 the company
showcased its concept SUV at the Beijing
Auto Show.
Q1. Which of the following rationale explains
the curtailing of Lamborghini car trade in
India?
(1) The price figure ranges over one crore.
(2) Lofty import duty
(3) Delayed launch of its new model
A. Only 1
B. Only 2
C. Only 3 and 1
D. Only 2 and 3
E. Only 1 and 2
Q2. What kind of strategy is mentioned in the
passage about the car selling geographical
factor?
A. Launching a new model every six months
will give lots of choices to buyers.
B. Competitive environment leads to better
designing of Lamborghini cars.
C. Seeking out well - heeled people who have
enormously emerged in Bengaluru. 

D. Mumbai and Delhi are having many rich
people, so it was easy for the company to
launch their car first here.
E. None of these
Q3. Which of the following statements is true
according to the given passage?
1. Lamborghini in the only company to
flourish better in India when it comes to car
sales.
2. The new model Huracan's predecessor is
Mercedes' C- class  facing different problems. A recent report
3. Lamborghini proliferates augmentation in
India.
4. Mercedes- Benz is an adherent of
Lamborghini.
5. None of these
Q4. According to the passage what makes the
company think that their sales will grow in
the country?
(1) The ability of afford high import duties by
Indians who are living in rich metropolitan
areas.
(2) The inclination of moneyed people
towards sports car will potentially grow.
(3) The luxury car is a stipulated
requirement or thriving people as it has been
seen in Delhi, Mumbai and Bengaluru.  literacy and the availability of primary
A. Only 1
B. Only 2
C. Only 3 and 1
D. Only 2 and 3
E. Only 2 and 2
Q5. What can be concluded from the passage
about the buyers and sellers of Lamborghini
cars?
(1) People in India have a good preference
and knowledge about the Lamborghini car.
(2) Buyers are afar of sellers in India,
therefore new metropolitan city was opted to
launch a new dealership.
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(3) Regarding car sales competitive
environment is ubiquitous in India.
A. Only 1
B. Only 2
C. Only 3
D. Only 2 and 3
E. Only 1 and 2
Passage 3: Common Information
Women all over the world in general and
Indian women in particular have been
titled 'Women and children in India' and a
nearly simultaneous report on ‘Indian
women their Health and Economic
productivity' highlight the international
importance bring given to the problems of
the Indian women.
Unfortunately, both the reports fail to
either convey a fresh understanding of the
issues or to suggest innovative and
workable approaches for women’s
development. The former is because the
reports restrict themselves to old
statistics. We are told, for example, that
the ratio of women to men remains below
its natural level and that it is related to
other parameters, such as the level of
health care.
The failure to suggest a fresh approach is
less understandable given that a variety of
approaches to women’s development has
been tried out all over the world. In India,
the State has made a strong political and
economic commitment to women. In
1990, the National Commitment to
Women was established. In 1969 two
major policy documents were released.
Ever since the Sixth Five-year plan there
has been a special section on socio-
economic programs for women. Poverty
alleviation programs have a
30% target for women. Special programs

like Development of women and children
in Rural Areas have also been started.
These government and other approaches
have had mixed results. For example,
certain organization’s approach of using
bank credit to organize self-employed
women has worked well. So did women’s
literacy programs in Kerala. On the other
hand, some of the legislated reforms like
dowry prohibition have not worked well.
The issue of whether women should be
identified as separate participator in the
development process is also not free from
controversy. In this context, it is
disappointing to read in one of the reports
that one of the government’s target for
1991-95 ought to be to foster “an ethos of
caring in the community- not to let a
child go to bed hungry, be subjected to a
preventable disease or remain without
learning opportunity-this could
not mark the beginning of a social process
towards a more humane order”. Is the
report saying then, that Indians do not
love their children, as a matter a cultural
practice? Both the reports are likely to be
highly influential on opinion leaders and
policy makers. It is very unfortunate that
these reports have become superficial and
do not delve sufficiently deep into the real
problems.
Q1. Which of the following statement (s) is /
are correct in the context of the passage in
regard to development schemes?
1. All people are of the opinion that women
should be given special status.
2. No one feels that women should be given
special status.
3. There is no controversy regarding women
being given special status.
A. Only 1
B. Only 2
C. Only 3
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D. All the three
E. None of these
Q2. Which of the following is not put forward
by the author of the passage as a defect of the
report?
A. They highlight the problems of Indian
women
B. They contain outdated statistical data
C. The reports have not suggested any new
measures
D. Some of the suggestions in the reports are
superficial
E. The reports are not analytical
Q3. Which of the following is specifically put
forward as a reason for the unequal sex ratio
in the population?
A. Natural causes
B. Economic development
C. Literacy level and healthcare
D. Socio-economic programs
E. Poverty alleviation programs
Q4. Which of the following is FALSE
according to the passage?
1. The problem of women in general is
attracting attention the world over.
2. Indian people do not love their children as
much as they should.
3. Right from independence women have
been receiving special attention for
development.
A. Only 1
B. Only 2
C. Only 3
D. Only 2 and 3
E. Only 1 and 2 
Q5. Which of the following would correctly
reflect the tone of the author of the passage
to the two reports mentioned in the first
paragraph?
A. Biased

B. Critical
C. Neutral
D. Praiseful
E. Appreciative
Passage 4: Common Information
The catastrophic monsoon floods in
Kerala and parts of Karnataka have
revived the debate on whether political
expediency trumped science. Seven years
ago, the Western Ghats Ecology Expert
Panel issued recommendations for the
preservation of the fragile western
peninsular region. Madhav Gadgil, who
chaired the Union Environment Ministry’s
WGEEP, has said the recent havoc in
Kerala is a consequence of short-sighted
policymaking, and warned that Goa may
also be in the line of nature’s fury. The
State governments that are mainly
responsible for the Western Ghats —
Kerala, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Goa and
Maharashtra — must go back to the
drawing table with the reports of both the
Gadgil Committee and the Kasturirangan
Committee, which was set up to examine
the WGEEP report. The task before them
is to initiate correctives to environmental
policy decisions. This is not going to be
easy, given the need to balance human
development pressures with stronger
protection of the Western Ghats ecology.
The issue of allowing extractive industries
such as quarrying and mining to operate
is arguably the most contentious. A way
out could be to create the regulatory
framework that was proposed by the
Gadgil panel, in the form of an apex
Western Ghats Ecology Authority and the
State-level units, under the Environment
(Protection) Act, and to adopt the zoning
system that it proposed. This can keep
incompatible activities out of the
Ecologically Sensitive Zones (ESZs).
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  At issue in the Western Ghats —
spread over 1,29,037 sq km according to
the WGEEP estimate and 1,64,280 sq km
as per the Kasturirangan panel — is the
calculation of what constitutes the
sensitive core and what activities can be
carried out there. The entire system is
globally acknowledged as a biodiversity
hotspot. But population estimates for the
sensitive zones vary greatly, based on
interpretations of the ESZs. In Kerala, for
instance, one expert assessment says 39
lakh households are in the ESZs outlined
by the WGEEP, but the figure drops
sharply to four lakh households for a
smaller area of zones identified by the
Kasturirangan panel. The goal has to be
sustainable development for the Ghats as
a whole. The role of big hydroelectric
dams, built during an era of rising power
demand and deficits, must now be
considered afresh and proposals for new
ones dropped. Other low-impact forms of
green energy led by solar power are
available. A moratorium on quarrying and
mining in the identified sensitive zones, in
Kerala and also other States, is necessary
to assess their environmental impact.
Kerala’s Finance Minister, Thomas Isaac,
has acknowledged the need to review
decisions affecting the environment, in
the wake of the floods. Public consultation
on the expert reports that includes
people’s representatives will find
greater resonance now, and help chart a
sustainable path ahead.
Q1. Which among the following has been
attributed by the experts as a reason of the
recent floods in Kerala and Karnataka?
A. The states do not have proper system in
place of drainage and that is why the rain
water always overflows in these two states.

B. The states have no idea how to manage any
kind of natural calamity and that is why they
cannot tackle any situation however small it
may be.
C. The states should be entrusted with the
responsibility of protection of environment
in the areas within their jurisdiction.
D. The political decision-making strategy has
always taken the upper hand as compared to
the real interests of the environment.
E. None of the above
Q2. According to the passage, the states
affected by the floods should do which among
the following to prevent such incidents in the
future?
A. The states should devote more funds
towards the reduction of natural calamities in
the states.
B. The states should put in place proper
warning mechanism so that the government
can get to know the possibility of any natural
calamity beforehand.
C. The states should plan properly so that
they can implement the recommendations of
the expert panels regarding the preservation
of the Western Ghats Area.
D. The states should not do anything at
present and should only focus on the idea of
going all out in disaster management
operations.
E. None of the above
Q3. Which among the following is the main
issue pointed out in the passage in the
implementation of the expert panel reports
in various states?
A. There is no proper framework depicted in
the expert panel reports to regulate the
Ecologically Sensitive Zone in the Western
Ghat Area.
B. There is no issue pertaining to the Western
Ghat area but the main problem is that the
governments do not have enough funds.
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C. The reservoirs in the vicinity of the area
will spell the doom for the area since they
will exhaust the groundwater available in the
area.
D. The area will be flooded since the policy
makers are not bothered about the
environment until it affects their vote base.
E. The balance between development and
preservation should be there in order to
develop the area properly.
Q4. Which among the following should be the
objective of all concerned regarding the
development of the Western Ghats Area?
A. The development plan should be well
supported by money and also manpower by
all the states.
B. The development plan must be drawn up
correctly at the first place since it will help
gain an upper hand in the whole process.
C. The states should take the development of
the Western Ghats region seriously so that
the area is actually preserved.
D. The Western Ghats Area should be
preserved properly so that there is
sustainable development of the area.
E. The Western Ghats Area should not be
taken for granted for development work by
the states because they are not responsible
for this.
Q5. Which among the following should be the
course of action of the government in order
to ensure that the Western Ghats Area is
preserved properly?
 I. There should be utilization of various clean
sources of energy such as the solar power in
the area
II. There should not be any restriction in
mining activities as well as quarrying
activities in the area
III. There should not be new construction of
hydroelectric dams in the area from now
onwards

A. Both I and II
B. Only II
C. Both I and III
D. Only I
E. All I, II and III
Passage 5: Common Information
The oceans are so vast and deep that until
fairly recently, it was widely assumed that
no matter how much trash and chemicals
humans dumped into them, the effects
would be negligible. Proponents of
dumping in the oceans even had a
catchphrase: "The solution to pollution is
dilution."  counted some 400 such dead zones
Today, we need look no further
than the New Jersey-size dead zone that
forms each summer in the Mississippi
River Delta, or the thousand-mile-wide
swath of decomposing plastic in the
northern Pacific Ocean to see that this
"dilution" policy has helped place a once
flourishing ocean ecosystem on the brink
of collapse.
  There is evidence that the oceans
have suffered at the hands of mankind for
millennia, as far back as Roman times. But
recent studies show that degradation,
particularly of shoreline areas, has
accelerated dramatically in the past three
centuries as industrial discharge and
runoff from farms and coastal cities has
increased.
Pollution is the introduction of
harmful contaminants that are outside the
norm for a given ecosystem. Common
man-made pollutants that reach the ocean
include pesticides, herbicides, chemical
fertilizers, detergents, oil, sewage,
plastics, and other solids. Many of these
pollutants collect at the ocean's depths,
where they are consumed by small marine
organisms and introduced into the global
food chain. Scientists are even discovering
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that pharmaceuticals ingested by humans
but not fully processed by our bodies are
eventually ending up in the fish we eat.
Many ocean pollutants are released
into the environment far upstream from
coastlines. Nitrogen-rich fertilizers
applied by farmers inland, for example,
end up in local streams, rivers, and
groundwater and are eventually
deposited in estuaries, bays, and deltas.
These excess nutrients can spawn massive
blooms of algae that rob the water of
oxygen, leaving areas where little or no
marine life can exist. Scientists have
around the world.
Solid wastes like bags, foam, and
other items dumped into the oceans from
land or by ships at sea are frequently
consumed, with often fatal effects, by
marine mammals, fish, and birds that
mistake it for food. Discarded fishing nets
drift for years, ensnaring fish and
mammals. In certain regions, ocean
currents corral trillions of decomposing
plastic items and other trash into gigantic,
swirling garbage patches. 
  Pollution is not always physical. In
large bodies of water, sound waves can
carry undiminished for miles. The
increased presence of loud or persistent
sounds from ships, sonar devices, oil rigs,
and even from natural sources like
earthquakes can disrupt the migration,
communication, hunting, and
reproduction patterns of many marine
animals, particularly aquatic mammals
like whales and dolphins.
Q1. Which of the following is the reason for
degradation of shore lines of oceans as per
the passage?
I. Industrial waste
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II. Migration from coastal cities. migration and communication pattern of
III. Hunting of Aquatic animals. dolphins.
A. Only I III. Solid wastes have fatal effects on marine
B. Only I and II animals.
C. Only III A. Only I
D. Only II and III B. Only II
E. Only I, II and III C. Only II and III
D. All of the above
Q2. Which of the following statement/s E. Either I or III
is/are not true in the context of passage?
I. Marine pollution is the resultant of physical
pollution only.
II. Plastic bags, foams etc. are rarely
consumed by aquatic animals.
III. The earthquakes can disturb lifestyle and
behavior pattern of aquatic mammals. 
A. Only I and III
B. Only III
C. Only II and III
D. Only I and II
E. None of these

3. Which of the following is/are a source of

solid waste?
A. Pesticides
B. Plastics
C. Organic fertilizers
D. Only (A.) and (B.)
E. Only (B.) and (C.)

Q4. As per the passage, how do nitrogen-rich

fertilizers contribute to marine pollution?
A. By releasing chemicals in the water.
B. By absorbing all the oxygen from water,
making it near impossible for any marine life
to dwell.
C. By raising nitrogen levels in the sea.
D. All of the above.
E. None of the above.

Q5. Which of the following is/are true as per

the passage?
I. Dilution is the key to control pollution.
II. Pollution can make changes in the hunting,

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