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Solution: Case I: Assume Statement I Is True
Solution: Case I: Assume Statement I Is True
aspx
Section I
1. Saira, Mumtaz and Zeenat have a ball, a pen and a pencil, and each girl has
3 Marks
just one object in hand. Among the following statements, only one is true and
the other two are false.
1) Saira
2) Mumtaz
3) Zeenat
4) Indeterminate
Solution:
Case I: Assume statement I is true.
Thus, if Saira has the ball, Mumtaz cannot have the ball.
If Mumtaz does not have the ball, then one of Saira or Zeenat has to have the
ball.
Since Saira does not have the ball, Zeenat has to have the ball.
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Thus, Zeenat who does not have the pen, has either the ball or the pencil.
Hence, Zeenat has the pencil and Saira has the pen.
Hence, option 2.
2. Albert, David, Jerome and Tommy were plucking mangoes in a grove to earn
3 Marks
some pocket money during the summer holidays. Their earnings were directly
related to the number of mangoes plucked and had the following relationship:
Jerome got less money than Tommy. Jerome and Tommy together got the
same amount at Albert and David taken together. Albert and Tommy together
got less than David and Jerome taken together.
Who earned the most pocket money? Who plucked the least number of
mangoes?
1) David, Jerome
2) David, Albert
3) Jerome, Tommy
4) Jerome, Albert
Solution:
Let the money with Jerome, Tommy, David and Albert be J, T, D and A
respectively.
(2) Jerome and Tommy together got the same amount at Albert and David
taken together.
Albert and Tommy together got less than David and Jerome taken together.
∴ 2T < 2D
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∴ 2J > 2A
Thus, Albert plucked the least number of mangoes and David earned the
most pocket money.
Hence, option 2.
Group Question
Answer the following questions based on the information given below.
Kya-Kya is an obscure island which is inhabited by two types of people: the ‘Yes’
type and the ‘No’ type. Natives of the ‘Yes’ type ask only those questions which
have the right answer as ‘Yes’, while those of the ‘No’ type ask only those
questions which have the right answer as ‘No’. For example: The ‘Yes’ type people
will ask questions like “Is 2 plus 2 equal to 4?” while the ‘No’ type will ask
questions like “Is 2 plus 2 equal to five?” The following questions are based on
your visit to the island of Kya-Kya.
3. If an islander asks, “Do I belong to the ‘No’ type?”, which of the following
3 Marks
is correct?
1) He is a ‘No’.
2) He is a ‘Yes’.
3) It is impossible for him to have asked such a question.
4) His type cannot be identified.
Solution:
Since there are only two types of people on this island, the person has
to belong to one of the two types.
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Thus, a person of the ‘Yes’ type can never ask this question.
Case II: Assume that the person belongs to the ‘No’ type.
Thus, a person of the ‘No’ type can never ask this question.
Since these are the only type of people on this island, no one from the
island can ask this question.
Hence, option 3.
4. Ram and Laxman are brothers from the island. Laxman asks you, “Is at
3 Marks
least one from our pair of the ‘No’ type?” You can conclude that:
Solution:
There are 4 cases possible here, 2 where both brothers are of the same
type and 2 where both brothers are of different types.
If both brothers are of the type ‘Yes’, the answer to Laxman's question
(as per the definition of the type) should be ‘Yes’ while the actual
answer will be ‘No’.
If both brothers are of the type ‘No’, the answer to Laxman's question
(as per the definition of the type) should be ‘No’ while the actual answer
will be ‘Yes’.
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Case III: Laxman is the ‘No’ type and Ram is the ‘Yes’ type.
If Laxman is of the ‘No’ type, the answer to his question (as per the
definition of the type) should be ‘No’ while the actual answer will be
‘Yes’.
Case IV: Laxman is the ‘Yes’ type and Ram is the ‘No’ type.
If Laxman is of the ‘Yes’ type, the answer to his question (as per the
definition of the type) should be ‘Yes’ while the actual answer will also
be ‘Yes’ (because Ram is of the ‘No’ type).
Thus, Laxman is the ‘Yes’ type and Ram is the ‘No’ type.
Hence, option 1.
1) he is a ‘No’ type.
2) he is a ‘Yes’ type.
3) such a question is impossible to ask.
4) no conclusion is possible.
Solution:
The islander can either be a ‘Yes’ type person or a ‘No’ type person.
For such a person, the answer to the question will be ‘Yes’ as per the
definition of the type and the actual answer will also be ‘Yes’.
For such a person, the answer to the question will be ‘No’ as per the
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definition of the type and the actual answer will also be ‘No’.
Hence, option 4.
6. Each of three friends knows whether the other two have passed or failed in an
3 Marks
examination, but does not know his own result. The teacher comes and says,
“At least one student has failed”. If all three friends still do not know their own
results which of the following is true?
Solution:
It is known that even after the teacher says “At least one student has failed”,
no one knows his result.
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In case IV, A knows that B and C have passed, but doesn't know his own
result.
Now, if the teacher says that at least one student has failed, it becomes clear
to A that he is the one who has failed.
Thus, A knows his result now, which is contradictory with the information in
the question.
In case II, C knows that A and B have failed, but doesn't know his own result.
Now, if the teacher says that at least one student has failed, it may mean that
A and B have failed while C has passed, or that all three have failed.
Finally, consider that all three students failed (as seen in case I).
Now, if the teacher says that at least one student has failed, it may mean
that two have failed while the third has passed, or that all three have failed.
Hence, option 3.
7. Amar, Akbar and Anthony come from the same public school in the
3 Marks
Himalayas. Every boy in that school either fishes for trout or plays Frisbee. All
fishermen like snow while no Frisbee player likes rain. Amar dislikes whatever
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Akbar likes and likes whatever Akbar dislikes. Akbar likes rain and snow.
Anthony likes whatever the other two like. Who is a fisherman but not a
Frisbee player?
1) Amar
2) Akbar
3) Anthony
4) More than one of the three boys
Solution:
All fishermen like snow while no Frisbee player likes rain.
Since Anthony likes what the other two like, he cannot like anything. This is
because Amar dislikes rain and snow.
Hence, option 2.
Group Question
Answer the following questions based on the information given below.
A leading socialite decided to organise a dinner and invited some of her friends.
Only the host and hostess were sitting at opposite ends of a rectangular table,
with three people on each side. The seating arrangement was such that
every person had at least on person of the opposite sex next to him/her. Maqbool
is opposite Shoba, who is not the hostess. Ratan has a woman on his right and is
sitting opposite a woman. Monisha is sitting to the hostess’s right, next to
Dhirubhai. One person is seated between Madhuri and Urmila, who is not the
hostess. The men were Maqbool, Ratan, Dhirubhai and Jackie, while the women
were Madhuri, Urmila, Shoba and Monisha.
I. the host.
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1) I only
2) III only
3) I and II only
4) II and III only
Solution:
Neither Shoba nor Urmila is the hostess. Also, Monisha is sitting to the
right of the hostess.
Thus, if one starts from Madhuri, Monisha is to her immediate right and
Dhirubhai is to Monisha's right.
Thus, Urmila has to be at the second place from left, starting from
Madhuri. This means that Urmila and Dhirubhai sit opposite each other.
Now, Shoba and Maqbool sit opposite each other. The only place where
two seats opposite each other are available is to the immediate right and
left of the host.
This means that Maqbool cannot be the host. Also, one of Ratan and
Jackie has to be the host.
Thus, there is one empty seat between Dhirubhai and the host (who is a
male).
Since every person must have at least one person of the opposite sex
next to him/her, the person between Dhirubhai and the host cannot be a
male.
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Since the only female left is Shoba, she has to be to the immediate right
of Dhirubhai and Maqbool is opposite her (i.e. to the immediate right
of the host).
Since Ratan has a woman to his right, he cannot be the host (due to
Maqbool on his right).
Therefore, Jackie is the host and Ratan is between Madhuri and Urmila.
Hence, option 3.
1) Maqbool
2) Madhuri
3) Jackie
4) Shoba
Solution:
From the arrangement obtained in the solution to the first question, it
can be seen that Shoba is sitting between two men (Jackie and
Dhirubhai).
Hence, option 4.
10. If Ratan had exchanged seats with the person four places to his left,
3 Marks
which of the following would have been true after the exchange?
I. No one was seated between two persons of the opposite sex. (e.g. no man was
seated between two women)
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II. One side of the table consisted entirely of persons of the same sex.
III. Either the host or the hostess changed seats.
1) I only
2) II only
3) I and II only
4) II and III only
Solution:
Consider the final arrangement obtained in the solution to the first
question.
If Ratan had exchange seats with the person four places to his left, he
would have had to change places with Shoba.
Thus, neither the host nor the hostess would have changed their place.
The side to Madhuri's left would have consisted of Shoba, Urmila and
Maqbool i.e. female, female and male.
Thus, no side of the table would consist of people from the same sex.
No one would have been seated between two people of the opposite
sex.
Hence, option 1.
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11. If each person is placed directly opposite his/her spouse, which of the
3 Marks
following pairs must be married?
Solution:
Refer to the final arrangement obtained in the solution to the first
question.
Among the pairs given in the answer options, only Ratan and Monisha
are seated opposite each other.
Hence, option 1.
Group Question
Answer the following questions based on the information given below.
Five of India’s leading models are posing for a photograph promoting “y’know,
world peace and understanding”. But then, Rakesh Shreshtha, the photographer,
is having a tough time getting them to stand in a straight line, because Aishwarya
refuses to stand next to Sushmita because Sushmita had said something about
her in a leading gossip magazine. Rachael and Anu want to stand together
because they are “such good friends, y’know”. Manpreet on the other hand cannot
get along well with Rachael, because there is some talk about Rachael scheming
to get a contract already awarded to Manpreet. Anu believes her friendly
astrologer who has asked her to stand at the extreme right for all group
photographs. Finally, Rakesh managed to pacify the girls and got a beautiful
picture of five beautiful girls smiling beautifully in a beautiful straight line,
promoting world peace.
12. If Aishwarya is standing to the extreme left, which girl is standing in the
3 Marks
middle?
1) Manpreet
2) Sushmita
3) Rachael
4) Cannot say
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Solution:
Anu stands to the extreme right and Rachael wants to stand next to
Anu.
Thus, one of Aishwarya and Sushmita is at the extreme left and the
other is at the centre.
Now, if Aishwarya stands to the extreme left, then Sushmita would have
to stand in the middle.
Hence, option 2.
13. If Aishwarya stands to the extreme left, who stands second from left?
3 Marks
1) Cannot say
2) Sushmita
3) Rachel
4) Manpreet
Solution:
Refer to the arrangement obtained in the solution to the first question.
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Hence, option 4.
14. If Anu’s astrologer tells her to stand second from left and Aishwarya
3 Marks
decides to stand second from right, which girl stands on the extreme
right?
1) Rachel
2) Sushmita
3) Cannot say
4) Manpreet
Solution:
Anu is second from left and Aishwarya is second from right.
Thus, the only place available for Manpreet is at the extreme right.
Hence, option 4.
15. In each of the following sentences the main statement is followed by four
3 Marks sentences each. Select a pair of sentences that relate logically with the given
statement.
Either Sam is ill; or he is drunk.
A. Sam is ill.
B. Sam is not ill.
C. Sam is drunk.
D. Sam is not drunk.
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1) AB
2) DA
3) AC
4) CD
Solution:
This logical connective is of the following type
Either P or Q
The conclusions for the above type of logical connective are as follows
1. ~P ⇒ Q
2. ~Q ⇒ P
Thus, if Sam is not ill, then he is drunk (BC) or if Sam is not drunk, then he is
ill (DA).
Hence, option 2.
16. In each of the following sentences the main statement is followed by four
3 Marks sentences each. Select a pair of sentences that relate logically with the given
statement.
Whenever Ram hears of a tragedy, he loses sleep.
1) CA
2) BD
3) DB
4) AD
Solution:
This logical connective is of the following type
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The conclusions for the above type of logical connective are as follows
1. P ⇒ Q
2. ~Q ⇒ ~P
Thus, if Ram heard a tragedy, he lost sleep (AC) or, if Ram did not lose sleep,
he had not heard of a tragedy (DB).
Hence, option 3.
17. In each of the following sentences the main statement is followed by four
3 Marks sentences each. Select a pair of sentences that relate logically with the given
statement.
Either the train is late; or it has derailed.
1) AB
2) DB
3) CA
4) BC
Solution:
This logical connective is of the following type
Either P or Q
The conclusions for the above type of logical connective are as follows
1. ~P ⇒ Q
2. ~Q ⇒ P
Thus, if the train is not late, it has been derailed (BC) or, if the train is not
derailed, it is late (DA).
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Hence, option 4.
18. In each of the following sentences the main statement is followed by four
3 Marks sentences each. Select a pair of sentences that relate logically with the given
statement.
When I hear a horror story I have a nightmare.
A. I heard a story.
B. I did not hear a horror story.
C. I did not have a nightmare.
D. I had a nightmare.
1) CB
2) AD
3) BC
4) AC
Solution:
This logical connective is of the following type
The conclusions for the above type of logical connective are as follows
1. P ⇒ Q
2. ~Q ⇒ ~P
Hence, option 1.
19. In each of the following sentences the main statement is followed by four
3 Marks sentences each. Select a pair of sentences that relate logically with the given
statement.
When I eat berries I get rashes.
A. I ate berries.
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1) DA
2) BC
3) CB
4) AB
Solution:
This logical connective is of the following type
The conclusions for the above type of logical connective are as follows
1. P ⇒ Q
2. ~Q ⇒ ~P
Thus, if I ate berries, I got rashes (AD) or if I did not get rashes, I did not eat
berries (BC).
Hence, option 2.
Group Question
Answer the following questions based on the information given below.
Amar, Akbar, Anthony are three friends. Only three colours are available for their
shirts, viz., red, green and blue. Amar did not wear a red shirt. Akbar did not wear
a green shirt. Anthony did not wear a blue shirt.
20. If Akbar and Anthony wear the same colour, then which of the following
3 Marks
is not true?
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Solution:
Let the red, blue and green shirts be denoted by R, B and G
respectively.
Given conditions:
Since Akbar and Anthony wear the same colour, both have to wear red.
Hence, option 1.
21. If two of them wear the same colour then how many of the following
3 Marks
statements must be false?
1) None
2) One
3) Two
4) Three
Solution:
Given that any two wear the same colour, only the following 3 cases
satisfy this condition:
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Hence, option 2.
Group Question
Answer the following questions based on the information given below.
Mr. Bankatlal acted as a judge for the beauty contest. There were four participants,
viz., Ms. Andhra Pradesh, Ms. Uttar Pradesh, Ms. West Bengal and Ms.
Maharashtra. Mrs. Bankatlal, who was very anxious about the results, asked him
about it as soon as he was back home. Mr. Bankatlal just said that the one who was
wearing the yellow saree had won the contest. When Mrs. Bankatlal pressed for
further details, he elaborated as follows:
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3 Marks
1) Ms. Andhra Pradesh
2) Ms. West Bengal
3) Ms. Uttar Pradesh
4) Ms. Maharashtra
Solution:
Consider the following statements:
Hence, option 2.
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Solution:
From the final table obtained in the solution to the first question, Ms. West
Bengal was sitting adjacent to Ms. Uttar Pradesh and Ms. Andhra
Pradesh.
Hence, option 3.
1) Yellow
2) Red
3) Green
4) White
Solution:
From the final table obtained in the solution to the first question, Ms.
Andhra Pradesh wore the Yellow saree.
Hence, option 1.
Solution:
From the final table obtained in the solution to the first question, Ms. Uttar
Pradesh was the runner-up of the contest.
Hence, option 3.
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26. Abraham, Border, Charlie, Dennis and Elmer and their respective wives dined
3 Marks
together and were seated at a circular table. The seats were so arranged that
men and women alternated and each woman was three places distant from
her husband. Mrs. Charlie sat to the left of Mr. Abraham. Mrs. Elmer sat two
places to the right of Mrs. Border. Who sat to the right of Mr. Abraham?
1) Mrs. Dennis
2) Mrs. Elmer
3) Mrs. Border
4) Mrs. Border or Mrs. Dennis
Solution:
It is given that men and women alternated in their seating arrangement.
Hence, each man is between two women.
Identify the women who cannot be seated to the right of Mr. Abraham.
Since each woman was three places away from her husband, Mrs. Abraham
cannot sit next to Mr. Abraham.
It is known that Mrs. Charlie is to the left of Mr. Abraham, so she cannot be at
the right side simultaneously.
Since Mrs. Elmer is two places to the right of Mrs. Border, Mrs. Elmer cannot
be sitting to the right of Mr. Abraham.
So, either Mrs. Border or Mrs. Dennis could sit to the right of Mr. Abraham.
Hence, option 4.
Group Question
Answer the following questions based on the information given below.
A and G have to leave the luncheon early and must be seated at the extreme right end of
the table, which is closest to the exit.
B will receive the Man of the Match award and must be in the center chair.
C and D who are bitter rivals for the position of wicket keeper, dislike one another and
should be seated as far apart as possible.
E and F are best friends and want to sit together.
27. Which of the following may not be seated at either end of the table?
3 Marks
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1) C
2) D
3) G
4) F
Solution:
Consider the blank seat from left to right as shown below.
(Left) __ __ __ __ __ __ __ (Right)
__ __ __ B __ A/G G/A
Since C and D have to be as far away as possible from each other, one
of them has to be to the immediate right of B while the other has to be
at the extreme left seat.
Now, E and F have to be together. They anyways have only the second
and third seat from the left available.
Hence, option 4.
1) E and A
2) B and D
3) C and F
4) G and D
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Solution:
From the solution to the first question, it can be seen that B and D, C
and F, as well as G and D can be seated together.
Hence, option 1.
29. Each question has a main statement followed by four statements labelled A,
3 Marks B, C and D. Choose the ordered pair of statements where the first statement
implies the second, and the two statements are logically consistent with the
main statement.
Either the orangutan is not angry, or he frowns upon the world.
1) CB only
2) DA only
3) AB only
4) CB and DA
Solution:
This logical connective is of the following type
Either P or Q
The conclusions for the above type of logical connective are as follows
1. ~P ⇒ Q
2. ~Q ⇒ P
Thus, if the orangutan is angry, he frowns upon the world (DA) or if the
orangutan does not frown upon the world, the orangutan is not angry (CB).
Thus, both pairs (DA and CB) are logically consistent with the main
statement.
Hence, option 4.
30. Each question has a main statement followed by four statements labelled A,
3 Marks
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B, C and D. Choose the ordered pair of statements where the first statement
implies the second, and the two statements are logically consistent with the
main statement.
Either Ravana is a demon, or he is a hero.
A. Ravana is a hero.
B. Ravana is a demon.
C. Ravana is not a demon.
D. Ravana is not a hero.
1) CD only
2) BA only
3) CD and BA
4) DB and CA
Solution:
This logical connective is of the following type
Either P or Q
The conclusions for the above type of logical connective are as follows
1. ~P ⇒ Q
2. ~Q ⇒ P
Thus, both pairs (DB and CA) are logically consistent with the main
statement.
Hence, option 4.
31. Each question has a main statement followed by four statements labelled A,
3 Marks B, C and D. Choose the ordered pair of statements where the first statement
implies the second, and the two statements are logically consistent with the
main statement.
Whenever Rajeev uses the internet, he dreams about spiders.
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1) AD
2) DC
3) CB
4) DA
Solution:
This logical connective is of the following type
The conclusions for the above type of logical connective are as follows
1. P ⇒ Q
2. ~Q ⇒ ~P
Thus, if Rajeev used the internet, he dreamt about spiders (BC) or if Rajeev
did not dream about spiders, he did not use the internet (AD).
Hence, option 1.
32. Each question has a main statement followed by four statements labelled A,
3 Marks B, C and D. Choose the ordered pair of statements where the first statement
implies the second, and the two statements are logically consistent with the
main statement.
If I talk to my professors, then I do not need to take a pill for headache.
A. I talked to my professors.
B. I did not need to take a pill for headache.
C. I needed to take a pill for headache.
D. I did not talk to my professors.
1) AB only
2) DC only
3) CD only
4) AB and CD
Solution:
This logical connective is of the following type
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If P then Q
The conclusions for the above type of logical connective are as follows
1. P ⇒ Q
2. ~Q ⇒ ~P
Thus, if I talked to my professors, I did not need to take a pill for headache
(AB) or if I needed to take a pill for my headache, I did not talk to my
professors (CD).
Thus, both pairs (AB and CD) are logically consistent with the main
statement.
Hence, option 4.
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Section I
Group Question
Answer the following questions based on the information given below.
Five women decided to go shopping to M.G. Road, Bangalore. They arrived at the
designated meeting place in the following order: 1. Archana, 2. Chellamma, 3.
Dhenuka, 4. Helen, and 5. Shahnaz. Each woman spent at least Rs. 1000. Below
are some additional facts about how much they spent during their shopping
spree.
i. The woman who spent Rs. 2234 arrived before the lady who spent Rs. 1193.
ii. One woman spent Rs. 1340 and she was not Dhenuka.
iii. One woman spent Rs. 1378 more than Chellamma.
iv. One woman spent Rs. 2517 and she was not Archana.
v. Helen spent more than Dhenuka.
vi. Shahnaz spent the largest amount and Chellamma the smallest.
1) Rs. 1193
2) Rs. 1340
3) Rs. 2234
4) Rs. 2517
Solution:
The amounts are Rs. 2,234, Rs. 1,193, Rs. 1,340 and Rs. 2,517. The
fifth amount is not given.
∴ Chellamma’s amount
= Rs. 1,139
∵ It is given that Helen spent more than Dhenuka and Dhenuka did not
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We also know that the women who spent Rs. 2,234 arrived before the
lady who spent 1193.
Hence, option 2.
1) Rs. 1139
2) Rs. 1378
3) Rs. 2571
4) Rs. 2718
Solution:
Rs. 1,139 was one of the amounts which was spent by Chellamma.
Hence, option 1.
1) Archana
2) Chellamma
3) Dhenuka
4) Helen
Solution:
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Hence, option 3.
Group Question
Answer the following questions based on the information given below.
Five friends meet every morning at Sree Sagar restaurant for an idli-vada
breakfast. Each consumes a different number of idlis and vadas. The number of
idlis consumed are 1, 4, 5, 6, and 8, while the number of vadas consumed are 0,
1, 2, 4, and 6. Below are some more facts about who eats what and how much?
i. The number of vadas eaten by Ignesh is three times the number of vadas consumed by
the person who eats four idlis.
ii. Three persons, including the one who eats four vadas, eat without chutney.
iii. Sandeep does not take any chutney.
iv. The one who eats one idli a day does not eat any vadas or chutney. Further, he is not
Mukesh.
v. Daljit eats idli with chutney and also eats vada.
vi. Mukesh, who does not take chutney, eats half as many vadas as the person who eats twice
as many idlis as he does.
vii. Bimal eats two more idlis than Ignesh, but Ignesh eats two more vadas than Bimal.
Solution:
From (i),
Number of vadas eaten by Ignesh is 6 and the person eating 4 idlis eats
2 vadas.
From (vii),
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Ignesh, Mukesh, Daljit and Bimal eat at least 1 vada and 1 idli.
From (vi),
Hence, option 1.
Solution:
Ignesh eats 6 vadas and Bimal eats 4 vadas.
There seems to be some problem with this question as there are two
options which are correct.
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2) The person who eats 5 idlis and 1 vada does not take
chutney.
3) The person who eats equal number of vadas and idlis also
takes chutney.
4) The person who eats 4 idlis and 2 vadas also takes chutney.
Solution:
Ignesh eats 6 vadas and 6 idlis with chutney.
Hence, option 3.
Group Question
Answer the following questions based on the information given below.
Four families decided to attend the marriage ceremony of one of their colleagues.
One family has no kids, while the others have at least one kid each. Each family
with kids has at least one kid attending the marriage. Given below is some
information about the families, and who reached when to attend the marriage.
The family with 2 kids came just before the family with no kids.
Shanthi who does not have any kids reached just before Sridevi’s family.
Sunil and his wife reached last with their only kid.
Anil is not the husband of Joya.
Anil and Raj are fathers.
Sridevi’s and Anita’s daughters go to the same school.
Joya came before Shanthi and met Anita when she reached the venue.
Raman stays the farthest from the venue.
Raj said his son could not come because of his exams.
1) Shanthi
2) Sridevi
3) Anita
4) Joya
Solution:
Let’s organize the information given in a tabular form.
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∴ Anita reached the venue first, Joya reached second, Shanthi reached
third and Sridevi reached last.
As Sunil reached the last with his only kid, Sunil is the husband of
Sridevi.
Hence, option 1.
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Solution:
Referring the solution given in the first question of the set we get that,
Out of the given choices, Sunil and Sridevi is the correct pair.
Hence, option 2.
Solution:
The daughters of Anita and Sridevi go to the same school.
Referring the table given in the solution of the first question of the set
we get that,
Hence, option 3.
10. Whose family is known to have more than one kid for certain?
3 Marks
1) Raman’s
2) Raj’s
3) Anil’s
4) Sunil’s
Solution:
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Anil has at least one kid, and hence, could be having exactly one kid
also.
Hence, option 2.
Group Question
Answer the following questions based on the information given below.
The plan above shows an office block for six officers, A, B, C, D, E and F. Both B
and C occupy offices to the right of corridor (as one enters the office block) and A
occupies an office to the left of the corridor. E and F occupy offices on opposite
sides of the corridor but their offices do not face each other. The offices of C and
D face each other. E does not have a corner office. F’s office is further down the
corridor than A’s, but on the same side.
11. If E sits in his office and faces the corridor, whose office is to his left?
3 Marks
1) A
2) B
3) C
4) D
Solution:
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From the data given we can figure out that A, F and D have offices on
the left side of the corridor and B, E and C have offices on the right side
of the corridor.
If E sits in his office and faces the corridor. C’s office is to his left.
Hence, option 3.
1) B
2) C
3) D
4) E
Solution:
From the arrangement given in the solution of the first question of the
set we get that,
Hence, option 4.
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1) A only
2) A and D
3) C only
4) B and C
Solution:
Only A is F’s neighbour.
Hence, option 1.
14. D was heard telling someone to go further down the corridor to the last
3 Marks
office on the right. To whose room was he trying to direct that person?
1) A
2) B
3) C
4) F
Solution:
D was trying to direct the person to B’s office as B’s office is last on the
right side of the corridor.
Hence, option 2.
Group Question
Answer the following questions based on the information given below.
JC : I came in first, and the next two persons to enter were SS and SM. When
I left the lounge, JP and VR were present in the lounge. DG left with me.
JP : When I entered the lounge with VR, JC was sitting there. There was
someone else, but I cannot remember who it was.
SM : I went to the lounge for a short while, and met JC, SS and DG in the
lounge on that day.
SS : I left immediately after SM left.
DG : I met JC, SS, SM, JP and VR during my first visit to the lounge. I went
back to my office with JC. When I went to the lounge the second time, JP and VR
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were there.
PK : I had some urgent work, so I did not sit in the lounge that day, but just
collected my coffee and left. JP and DG were the only people in the lounge while
I was there.
VR : No comments.
15. Based on the responses, which of the two JP or DG, entered the lounge
3 Marks
first?
1) JP
2) DG
3) Both entered together
4) Cannot be deduced
Solution:
DG comes back on his second visit to the lounge finding JP and VR still
sitting in the lounge.
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VR leaves the lounge, and only JP and DG are left behind in the
lounge.
PK enters the lounge and finds only JP and DG sitting in the lounge.
PK leaves, which means that JP and DG must be the last two faculty
members to leave the lounge.
Hence, option 2.
1) SS
2) SM
3) DG
4) PK
Solution:
DG was sitting with JC when JP entered the lounge.
Hence, option 3.
17. How many of the seven members did VR meet on Friday in the lounge?
3 Marks
1) 2
2) 3
3) 4
4) 5
Solution:
VR met JC, DG and JP in the lounge on Friday.
Hence, option 2.
18. Who were the last two faculty members to leave the lounge?
3 Marks
1) JC and DG
2) PK and DG
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3) JP and PK
4) JP and DG
Solution:
JP and DG were the last two faculty members to leave the lounge.
Hence, option 4.
Group Question
Answer the following questions based on the information given below.
[CAT 2006]
1) 2 or 3
2) 2 or 4
3) 3 or 4
4) Only 2
5) Only 4
Solution:
As K is included, L is included. So, N and U cannot be included. As U is
not included, S and W are not included. One out of M and Q and one
out of P and R will be included.
Hence, option 5.
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20. In how many ways a team can be constituted so that the team includes
3 Marks
N?
1) 2
2) 3
3) 4
4) 5
5) 6
Solution:
If the team includes N, it does not include L and K.
One out of M and Q can be included and one out of P, S and R can be
included.
1. N, M, P
2. N, M, R
3. N, Q, P
4. N, Q, R
5. N, M, S, U, W
6. N, Q, S, U, W
Hence, option 5.
1) 8
2) 7
3) 6
4) 5
5) Cannot be determined
Solution:
If S is not included, the team can have P or R, M or Q, K and L.
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Hence, option 4.
1) K
2) L
3) M
4) P
5) R
Solution:
If K or L are included, N, U, S and W are excluded. One out of P and R
and one out of M and Q are included. Thus the team has only 4
members.
Hence, option 3.
1) L
2) M
3) N
4) P
5) Q
Solution:
A team sized 3 has to have M or Q and P or R. The only other member
that can be selected all alone is N.
Hence, option 1.
Group Question
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[CAT 2008]
1) Red
2) Blue
3) Green
4) Yellow
5) None of these
Solution:
We have to arrange six houses on opposite sides of a road.
From condition (vii), we can say that P, U and S lie on one side of the
road as follows:
From condition (viii) and (ix) we can further complete the arrangement
as follows. We have also used the color of the house P from statement
(x).
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The only left house is definitely T. From conditions (v) and we can
complete the arrangement as follows.
From condition (vi) it can be deduced that U is the shortest house. Also
from the last condition it can be deduced that P is the fourth tallest, R is
the fifth tallest and S and Q are second and third tallest not in that
order.
Hence, option 2.
25. What is the colour of the house diagonally opposite to the Yellow
3 Marks
coloured house?
1) White
2) Blue
3) Green
4) Red
5) None of these
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Solution:
The house diagonally opposite to the Yellow coloured house is S which
has red colour.
Hence, option 4.
1) P
2) S
3) Q
4) R
5) Cannot be determined
Solution:
The second tallest house can be either S or Q. We cannot determine for
sure which of them is the second tallest.
Hence, option 5.
Group Question
Answer the following questions based on the information given below.
In a sports event, six teams (A, B, C, D, E and F) are competing against each
other. Matches are scheduled in two stages. Each team plays three matches in
Stage-I and two matches in Stage-II. No team plays against the same team more
than once in the event. No ties are permitted in any of the matches. The
observations after the completion of Stage-I and Stage-II are as given below.
Stage-I:
Stage-II:
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[CAT 2008]
27. The team(s) with the most wins in the event is (are):
3 Marks
1) A
2) A&C
3) F
4) E
5) B&E
Solution:
Let the bold letters denote the teams that have lost.
D lost to A.
D won against C.
D won against F.
D -- A
D -- C
D -- F
E -- B
E -- C
E -- F
From the above representations it is clear that all other teams except A
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∴ From condition 1, of stage I, only A has won all the three matches in
stage I.
B -- A
A -- C
The only 2 teams which have not won even a single match so far is C
and F.
represented as:
F -- B
D -- A B -- A
D -- C A -- C
D -- F F -- B
E -- B
E -- C
E -- F
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Also, since no team plays against the same team more than once in the
event, A plays matches against E and F.
A -- E
A -- F
Since one of the two teams at the bottom after stage I won both
matches in stage II, F is the team which has won both the matches in
stage II.
F -- C
B -- C
The last condition states that one more team lost both matches in stage
II.
D -- B
D -- E
A -- E
A -- F
F -- C
B -- C
D -- B
D -- E
Now, we can calculate the number of times each team has won.
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It can be observed from the above table that B and E have most wins in
the event.
Hence, option 5.
28. The two teams that defeated the leader of Stage-I are:
3 Marks
1) F&D
2) E&F
3) B&D
4) E&D
5) F&D
Solution:
E and F defeated A.
Hence, option 2.
29. The only team(s) that won both the matches in Stage-II is (are):
3 Marks
1) B
2) E&F
3) A, E & F
4) B, E & F
5) B&F
Solution:
B, E and F are the three teams that won both matches in stage II.
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Hence, option 4.
30. The teams that won exactly two matches in the event are:
3 Marks
1) A, D & F
2) D&E
3) E&F
4) D, E & F
5) D&F
Solution:
From the table it is clear that the team that won excatly two matches in
the event are D and F.
Hence, option 5.
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Section I
Group Question
Answer the following questions based on the information given below.
The following graph shows the value of liquor supplied by 5 states in 1996 and
the excise duty rates in each state.
1. What is the lowest percentage difference in the excise duty rates for any
3 Marks
two states?
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1) 13
2) 15
3) 20
4) Indeterminate
Solution:
The approximate excise duty rate for each state is:
TN : 25%
AP : 60%
Maharashtra : 50%
MP : 40%
Delhi : 80%
The lowest percentage difference will be possible only when any two
consecutive values are considered.
25 - 40 - 50 - 60 - 80
Hence, option 3.
1) Tamil Nadu
2) Delhi
3) The states which has the lowest value for (Wholesale price –
Excise duty) per litre
4) Indeterminate
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Solution:
The answer to this question cannot be found.
This is because the total quantity of liquor produced in each state is not
known.
Even if that quantity is known, one would have to assume that the total
cost of liquor comes only from excise duty.
Hence, option 4.
3. If Excise duty is levied before the goods leave the factory (on the value
3 Marks
of the liquor), then which of the following choices shows the distilleries
in ascending order of the excise duty paid by them for the year 1996?
(Assume the total liquor in TN is supplied by only these 5 distilleries).
1) ECABD
2) ADEBC
3) DCEBA
4) Indeterminate
Solution:
This question can be answered by simple observation.
Also, the excise duty is levied on the goods (based on the value of the
liquor)
From the bar chart for 1996, it is obvious that distillery D supplies the
minimum amount (and hence value) of liquor and distillery A supplies
the maximum.
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Hence, option 3.
4. If the Tamil Nadu distillery, with the least average simple annual growth
3 Marks
in amount of liquor supplied in the given period had shown the same
rate of growth as the one which grew fastest, what would that distillery’s
supply have been in 1998, in lakh litres?
1) 13
2) 15.4
3) 130
4) Indeterminate
Solution:
Observe that distillery E remains relatively constant throughout the
period while distillery C grows quite drastically in the given period.
= 633.33% (approx)
If distillery E had grown at this rate, it supply in 1998 would have been
Hence, option 2.
Group Question
Answer the following questions based on the information given below.
The graph below shows the market value of 4 shares at the end of each month in
a period from January to June.
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1) A
2) B
3) C
4) D
Solution:
Observe that C grows with a very grentle slope throughout the period
and so can be ruled out.
The three possible options are : D (between Feb and Mar), B (between
Mar and Apr) and A (between Jan and Feb).
Hence, option 1.
6. In which month was the greatest absolute change in market value for
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3 Marks
any share recorded?
1) March
2) April
3) May
4) June
Solution:
The market value of D in the month of March increased to 115 from 95 in
the month of February.
There is no other absolute change greater than this during the given
period.
Hence, option 1.
1) February
2) March
3) April
4) May
Solution:
The market value of A increased from 40 to 50 in February.
Hence, option 1.
1) February
2) March
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3) April
4) June
Solution:
The profit/loss in the month of February = 90 + 72 – 50 = 112
Thus, among the options given, the maximum profit was made in the
month of June.
Hence, option 4.
1) 5
2) 10
3) 15
4) None
Solution:
The person earns money on shares A and B and spends money on
share D.
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Hence, option 2.
Group Question
Answer the following questions based on the information given below.
Study the following graph and answer questions that follow. The x-axis denotes
the years from 1983 to 1991.
10. The sum of food and fertilizer production has shown a constant value
3 Marks
for how many years at a stretch?
Solution:
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The sum of food and fertilizer production has been constant at 8.5
units from 1984 to 1988 i.e.5 consecutive years and then at 8 units from
1990 to 1991 i.e. 2 consecutive years.
Thus, the sum has shown a constant value for 5 years at a stretch.
Hence, option 4.
11. If in 1988, the sum of the food and fertilizer production was 170 million
3 Marks
tons, the value of food production must have been (approximately, in
million tons) _____.
1) 90
2) 70
3) 100
4) Insufficient data
Solution:
The sum of food and fertilizer production in 1988 as per the graph is 8.5
units, and food production contributes 5 units to this.
Hence, option 3.
12. From its apparent behaviour, the food production in year 1992 can be
3 Marks
expected to …
1) go up.
2) go down.
3) remain the same as in the previous year.
4) Nothing can be said.
Solution:
The food production follows the pattern shown below:
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Hence, as per the pattern, the food production in 1992 should go down.
Hence, option 2.
13. Going by the previous trends, one can say that fertilizer production has
3 Marks
shown an anomalous behaviour in which year?
1) 1985
2) 1984
3) 1991
4) 1989
Solution:
Observe that the fertilizer production was the same in 1984 and 1985.
Going by this logic, the fertilizer production in 1989 and 1988 should
have been the same and it should have been different from the 1986-87
period as well as the 1990-91 period.
Hence, option 4.
14. A scholar observed that if the production of fertilizers in 1989 had been
3 Marks
the same as that in 1988, then the total fertilizer production for all the
given years would have been 450 million tons. Using this information,
and knowing that the food production has been plotted on the same
scale, one may say that the food production in 1983 was _____
(approximately, in million tons).
1) 80
2) 130
3) 105
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4) Indeterminate
Solution:
Based on the condition given, the fertilizer production in 1989 should
have been 3.5 units
Hence, option 2.
Group Question
Answer the following questions based on the information given below.
The following table shows the number of households in a country during the
period from 1970 to 1990. The subsequent pie-charts show the distribution of
households for the years 1970 and 1990 based on the number of children.
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Solution:
Statement 1:
Thus, there were more households with children in 1990 than in 1970.
Statement 2:
Thus, there were more households with 3 or more children in 1990 than
in 1970.
Statement 3:
Hence,option 4.
16. The average number of children per household in 1990 was _____.
3 Marks
1) 1.18
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2) 1.35
3) 2.0
4) Indeterminate
Solution:
This question could have been answered using weighted averages, had
the last category of the pie chart been “3 children”.
Hence, option 4.
17. The simple annual growth rate of the number of households from 1970
3 Marks
to 1990 was_____.
1) 1.52%
2) 1.65%
3) 2.10%
4) 3.00%
Solution:
The number of households in 1970 and 1990 is 120 and 160 million
respectively.
Hence, option 2.
18. Assuming that the average number of children per household in 1970
3 Marks
was 3, how many households were without children in 1970?
1) 24 million
2) 42 million
3) 14 million
4) Indeterminate
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Solution:
The number of households that were without children is independent of
the average number of children.
Hence, option 2.
Group Question
Answer the questions based on the following graph.
19. In which year is the profit per rupee of equity the highest?
3 Marks
1) 1991
2) 1992
3) 1993
4) 1990
Solution:
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The values of the sales, expenditure, profit and equity can be plotted as
shown in the first table above.
From the table, it is clear that the profit per rupee of equity was the
highest in the year 1991.
Hence, option 1.
Alternatively,
Observe that the profit is less than the equity in each given year.
Thus, the profit per rupee of equity will be highest where the profit is as
close as possible to the equity figure.
Hence, option 1.
20. In which year is the sales per rupee of equity the highest?
3 Marks
1) 1990
2) 1991
3) 1992
4) 1994
Solution:
Refer to the first table in the solution to the first question.
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1990: 80/10 = 8
Hence, option 2.
21. The simple annual growth rate in sales was the highest between the
3 Marks
years:
1) 1990-91
2) 1991-92
3) 1992-93
4) 1990-92
Solution:
The growth rate for sales in 1991
Thus, the simple annual growth rate was the highest between 1992 and
1993.
Hence, option 3.
Group Question
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Solution:
The solubility of each salt under the given conditions is:
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Hence, option 3.
1) 0.04
2) 0.4
3) 4
4) 0.35
Solution:
At 30°C, the solubility of Potassium Nitrate is approximately 0.36 kg/litre
of water.
Hence, option 3.
1) 100
2) 200
3) 250
4) 150
Solution:
At 30°C, solubility of Potassium Chlorate = 0.15 kg/litre (approx)
Hence, option 4.
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1) 700
2) 650
3) 480
4) 540
Solution:
At 36°C, the solubility of Potassium Chloride is 0.4 kg/litre (approximate)
Hence, option 4.
26. Which of the salts has the greatest change in solubility in kg/litre of
3 Marks
water between 15°C and 25°C?
1) Potassium Chlorate
2) Potassium Nitrate
3) Sodium Chlorate
4) Sodium Nitrate
Solution:
This can be directly solved by observation.
The salt that has the steepest curve between 15°C and 25°C between
those two temperatures will have the greatest change in solubility.
It is clear from the curve that, among the options given, Sodium
Chlorate has the steepest curve and hence, the greatest change in
solubility.
Hence, option 3.
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Group Question
Answer the following questions based on the information given below.
Refer to the pie-charts given below and answer the questions that follow.
27. What fraction of Ghosh Babu’s weight consists of muscular and skin
3 Marks
protein?
1)
2)
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3)
4) Indeterminate
Solution:
15% of Ghosh Babu's body consists of protein.
Hence, option 3.
1) 3:1
2) 3 : 10
3) 1:3
4) 3.5 : 1
Solution:
The ratio of the distribution of protein in muscle to the protein
distribution in skin = 25% of total protein : 8% of total protein
i.e. 25 : 8 or 3 : 1 (approx).
Hence, option 1.
1) 0.15
2) 10
3) 1.2
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4) Indeterminate
Solution:
The occurrence of protein in the skin is given.
Hence, option 4.
30. In terms of total body weight, the proportion of material other than water
3 Marks
and protein is closest to _____.
1)
2)
3)
4)
Solution:
The percentage of material other than water and protein in the total
body weight is 15%.
Hence, option 1.
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Section I
Group Question
The bar graph shows the breakup of engineering students in different categories of
engineering colleges in India. the number of students given in the graph is in thousands.
1) 28500
2) 4400
3) 4200
4) 420000
Solution:
The number of students in each category of college for each year can be as
shown in the table above.
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As can be seen from the table, the total number of engineering students in
1989-90 is 415000.
Hence, option 4.
1) more
2) less
3) equal
4)
Solution:
The growth rate of Government Engineering College students between the
years 1988-89 and 1989-90 is
The growth rate of Private Engineering College students between the years
1988-89 and 1989-90 is
Hence, option 3.
1) 5700
2) 57000
3) 44800
4) None of these
Solution:
The total number of engineering students in 1990-91 is 560000.
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If there is a decrease of 10% in the next year, then the total number of
engineering students in the year 1991-92
= 0.9 × 560000
= 504000
Hence, option 4.
1) 16
2) 15
3) 14
4) 12
Solution:
The percentage of engineering students that were studying in the IITs in
1990-91
Hence, option 3.
Group Question
Refer to the following pie chart and answer the questions that follow.
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1) 23%
2) 22%
3) 25%
4) 24%
Solution:
The percentage increase in the operation profit in 1991-92 over 1990-91
Hence, option 1.
6. The interest burden in 1991-92 was higher than that in 1990-91 by _____.
3 Marks
1) 50%
2) Rs. 25 lakhs
3) 90%
4) More than one of the above
Solution:
The interest in the year 1990-91 = 30% of 130 = Rs. 39 lakhs.
This value when expressed as a percentage is (25/39) × 100 which is more than
50%.
Hence, option 2.
7. If, on an average, a 20% rate of interest was charged on borrowed funds, then
3 Marks
the total borrowed funds used by this company in the given two years amounted
to _____.
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Solution:
The interest in the year 1990-91 = 30% of 130 = Rs. 39 lakhs.
Hence, option 4.
1) higher by 2.5%
2) higher by 1.5%
3) lower by 2.5%
4) lower by 1.5%
Solution:
Hence, option 4.
9. The equity base of these companies remained unchanged. Then the total
3 Marks
dividend earning (lakh rupees) by the share holders in 1991-92 was _____.
Solution:
The total dividend earning by the share holders in 1991-92 is 8% of 160 lakhs,
i.e. 12.8 lakhs.
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Hence, option 3.
Group Question
The bar graph below shows the revenue obtained by a publishing house by selling books,
magazines and journals (in Rs. lakhs).
10. Which year shows the highest change in revenue obtained from journals?
3 Marks
1) 1989
2) 1990
3) 1991
4) 1992
Solution:
The revenue obtained from each type of publication in each year is as shown in
the table above.
The change in revenue from journals for each year is +1, −2 and −1.
Hence, option 3.
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11. In 1992, what percent of the total revenue came from books?
3 Marks
1) 45
2) 55
3) 35
4) 25
Solution:
The total revenue in 1992 is Rs. 173 lakhs and the revenue from books is Rs. 79
lakhs.
Hence, option 1.
12. The number of years in which there was an increase in revenue from at least
3 Marks
two categories is _____.
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
Solution:
For each year, the number of categories from which there was an increase in
revenue is:
1992: 1 (magazines)
Thus, in two different years, there was an increase in revenue from at least two
categories.
Hence, option 2.
13. If 1993 were to show the same percentage growth as 1992 over 1991, the
3 Marks
revenue in 1993 must be _____.
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Solution:
The revenue in 1991 and 1992 is Rs. 169 lakhs and Rs. 173 lakhs respectively
i.e. a growth of Rs. 4 lakhs.
So, the total revenue in 1993 = 1.0231 × 173 = Rs. 177 lakhs
Hence, option 4.
1) 21%
2) 28%
3) 15%
4) 11%
Solution:
The total revenue in the years 1989 and 1992 is Rs. 150 lakhs and Rs. 173
lakhs respectively.
Hence, option 3.
Group Question
A manufacturer can choose from any of the three types of tests available for checking the
quality of his product. The graph that follows gives the relative costs for each of these
tests for a given percentage of defective pieces (p).
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1) Either 1 or 2
2) 2 only
3) 3 only
4) Either 2 or 3
Solution:
From the graph, it can be seen that for p = 0.2, the relative cost is the same for
test 2 and 3 and is the least.
Hence, option 4.
1) p > 0.2
2) 0.1 < p < 0.2
3) 0.05 < p < 0.2
4) p < 0.05
Solution:
From the graph, it is clear that test 3 will be feasible only when p > 0.2.
Hence, option 1.
17. Adopting Test-2 will be feasible if the percentage of defective pieces ‘p’ lies in
3 Marks
the range :
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1) 0.10 to 0.20
2) 0.20 to 0.30
3) 0.05 to 0.20
4) 0.00 to 0.05
Solution:
From the graph, observe that test 2 is the cheapest in the range between p =
0.05 and p = 0.2
Hence, option 3.
1) p < 0.05
2) 0.0 < p < 0.2
3) 0.1 < p < 0.2
4) 0.05 to 0.2
Solution:
From the graph, observe that test 1 is feasible only when p < 0.05.
Hence, option 1.
1) Conduct Test-2
2) Conduct Test-3
3) Conduct Test-1
4) Do not conduct Test-3
Solution:
If p < 0.2, then either of test 1 or test 2 proves to be cheaper.
Hence, option 4.
Group Question
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Solution:
The revenue, expenditure and profit for each year can be plotted in a single table
as shown above.
The total revenue in the given period = 120 + 135 + 145 + 165 + 185 + 200 + 220
= Rs. 1170 lakhs
Hence, option 2.
21. The total expenditure for the given period forms what percent of the revenues
3 Marks
during the same period?
1) 75%
2) 67%
3) 62%
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4) 83%
Solution:
From the solution to the first question, the total revenue for the given period = Rs.
1170 lakhs.
The total expenditure for the given period = 100 + 110 + 115 + 125 + 135 + 140 +
150 = Rs. 875 lakhs
Hence, option 1.
22. Which year showed the greatest percentage increase in profit as compared to the
3 Marks
previous year?
1) 1993
2) 1994
3) 1990
4) 1992
Solution:
The percentage increase in profit in the years 1990, 1992, 1993 and 1994 is
Hence, option 4.
23. In which year was the growth in expenditure as compared to the previous year the
3 Marks
maximum?
1) 1993
2) 1995
3) 1990
4) 1992
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Solution:
Consider the years mentioned in the answer options.
In such a case, the growth in expenditure is maximum for the fraction that has the
lowest denominator i.e. the inital year which has the least expenditure.
The least initial value of expenditure is in 1989 (Rs. 100 lakhs) and so
the greatest percentage growth in expenditure is 10%.
Hence, option 3.
24. If the profit in 1996 shows the annual rate of growth that it had shown in 1995 over
3 Marks
the previous year, then what approximately what will be the profit in 1996?
1) Rs. 72 lakhs
2) Rs. 82 lakhs
3) Rs. 93 lakhs
4) Rs. 78 lakhs
Solution:
If the profit in 1996 shows the same growth rate, the profit in 1996 = 1.167 × 70 = Rs.
81.69 lakhs
Hence, option 2.
Group Question
Answer the following questions based on the information given below.
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25. In which year was the increase in raw material the maximum?
3 Marks
1) 1992
2) 1993
3) 1994
4) 1995
Solution:
The actual values under each head are shown in the table above.
The amount of raw-material in the years 1991, 1992, 1993, 1994 and 1995 is
respectively 60, 50, 65, 75 and 80 units.
Hence, option 2.
26. For which period was the change in profit the maximum?
3 Marks
1) 1991-92
2) 1992-93
3) 1993-94
4) 1994-95
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Solution:
The change in profit is the maximum in the period 1993 to 1994, because the
profit in 1993 was 20 units which reduced to –30 units in 1994.
Hence, option 3.
27. Which component of the cost of production has remained more or less constant
3 Marks
over the period?
1) Interest
2) Overheads
3) Wages
4) Raw material
Solution:
This question can be solved directly by observation.
From the graph, observe that only the interest component remains more or less
constant throughout the given period.
Hence, option 1.
28. In which year were the overheads, as a percentage of the raw material, the
3 Marks
maximum?
1) 1995
2) 1994
3) 1992
4) 1993
Solution:
The overheads, as a percentage of the raw material, for the years given in the
options is :
Thus, the overheads as a percentage of the raw material were the highest in
1992.
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Hence, option 3.
29. Over the period, the profits formed what approximate percent of the total cost?
3 Marks
1) 3%
2) 5%
3) 8%
4) 11%
Solution:
From 1991 to 1995, the total amount spent on raw-materials, wages, overheads,
interest is respectively 330, 290, 90 and 260 units.
Thus, the total cost in the given period is 330 + 290 + 90 + 260 = 970 units.
Hence, option 2.
30. If the interest component is not included in the total cost calculation, which year
3 Marks
would show the maximum profit per unit cost?
1) 1991
2) 1992
3) 1993
4) 1995
Solution:
Excluding the interest component, the total cost in 1991, 1992, 1993, 1994 and
1995 is respectively 115, 125, 140, 165 and 165 units.
The profit in 1991, 1992, 1993, 1994 and 1995 is respectively 15, 25, 20, –30
and 15 units.
For all the other years, the same ratio is less than 1/5.
Hence, option 2.
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Section I
Group Question
Answer the questions based on the following graph.
1. What is the average value of the contract secured during the years shown in the
3 Marks
diagram?
Solution:
Hence, option 1.
2. Compared to the performance in 1985 (i.e. taking it as the base), what can you
3 Marks
say about the performances in the years ’84, ’85, ’86, ’87, ’88 respectively, in
percentage terms?
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Solution:
If you consider the performance in the year 1985 as the base, the performance
for the years 1984, 85, 86, 87 and 88 is respectively
Thus, the performance for the years 1984, 85, 86, 87 and 88 in percentage
terms is respectively 150, 100, 211, 216 and 97.
Hence, option 1.
Alternatively,
Consider option 2:
The values given for each year in option 2 indicate the actual performance for
these 5 years. The actual values are unrelated in the sense that they are not
calculated using the 1985 value as a base. When the performance in the year
1985 is taken as a base, it implies that given the current performance in any
year, what would have been the performance in that year had the performance
in the year 1985 been 100. Therefore, the values given in option 2 cannot be
the performance figures considering 1985 as the base year.
Consider option 4.
Since 1985 is the base year, the performance in 1985 is taken to be 100.
Observe that the actual performance in 1988 is marginally less than the actual
performance in 1985 (approximately 3% less).
However, as per the values given in option 4, the performance in 1988 is 2/3 of
the performance in 1985 (i.e. approximately 32% less).
Consider option 3.
As per the values in option 3, the performance in 1986 is exactly double the
performance in 1985.
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However, the actual performance is 141 in 1986 and 67 in 1985 i.e. more
than double.
Hence, option 1.
3. In which year is the highest percentage decline seen in the value of the
3 Marks
contracts secured compared to the preceding year?
1) 1985
2) 1988
3) 1984
4) 1986
Solution:
Since the question mentions percentage decline and not percentage change,
all the years mentioned need not be considered.
Observe that, with respect to the previous year, the value of the contracts
secured decreases only in 1985 and in 1988.
= 33.33%
= 55% (approximately)
Hence, option 2.
4. Each question is followed by two statements, A and B. Select the correct option
3 Marks based on the following instructions:
Mark (1) if the question can be answered by one of the statements, but not by the
other.
Mark (2) if the question can be answered by using either statement, independently
of the other.
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Mark (3) if the question can be answered by using both statements together, but
not by either statement alone.
Mark (4) if the question cannot be answered by either of the statements.
What is the distance x between two cities A and B (in km)? x is an integer.
B. x ≤ 10 km
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
Solution:
Using Statement A alone:
Assuming that A and B are two different cities, x can take any value from 1 to 9.
When both the statements are combined, the only valid value of x is x = 4.
Thus, the question can be answered using both the statements together but not by
using either statement alone.
Hence, option 3.
Group Question
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Prakash has to decide whether or not to test a batch of 1000 widgets before sending
them to the buyer. In case he decides to test, he has two options: (1) Use test I; (2) Use
test II. Test I costs Rs. 2 per widget. However, the test is not perfect. It sends 20% of
the bad widgets to the buyer as good. Test II costs Rs. 3 per widget. It identifies all the
bad widgets. A defective widget identified before sending can be corrected at a cost of
Rs. 25 per widget. All defective widgets are identified at the buyer’s end and a penalty
of Rs. 50 per defective widget has to be paid by Prakash.
5. Prakash should not test if the number of bad widgets in the lot …
3 Marks
Solution:
The total number of widgets = 1000
If there is no test, then the only cost incurred is the penalty at the buyer's
end.
It is beneficial not to conduct a test when the cost without the test is less than
the cost with the test.
Consider Test I:
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∴ x < 100
Thus, when the number of bad widgets is less than 100, it is better to not
conduct a test than to conduct test I.
∴ x < 120
Thus, when the number of bad widgets is less than 120, it is better to not
conduct a test than to conduct test II.
Thus, in any case, when the number of bad widgets is less than 100, it is
better not to conduct a test.
Hence, option 1.
Solution:
The total number of bad widgets i.e. x = 120
Total cost incurred under test I = 2000 + 30x = 2000 + (30 × 120) = Rs. 5,600
Total cost incurred under test II = 3000 + 25x = 3000 + (25 × 120) = Rs. 6,000
If there is no test, then the penalty charged at buyer’s end = 50 × 120 = Rs.
6,000
Hence, option 4.
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7. If the number of defective widgets in the lot is between 200 and 400, Prakash
3 Marks
…
Solution:
Let the total number of bad widgets be x.
Find the number of defective widgets for which one test is cheaper than the
other.
First find the value of x for which test II is cheaper than test I.
∴ 5x > 1000
∴ x > 200
Thus, for any number of defective widgets greater than 200, it would be
cheaper to go for test II than test I.
Now find the value of x for which test I is cheaper than test II.
∴ 5x < 1000
∴ x < 200
Thus, for any number of defective widgets less than 200, it would be cheaper
to go for test I than test II.
Hence, option 3.
8. If Prakash is told that the lot has 160 defective widgets, he should …
3 Marks
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3) do no testing.
4) either use Test I or do no test.
Solution:
The total number of bad widgets i.e. x = 160
Total cost incurred under test I = 2000 + 30x = 2000 + (30 × 160) = Rs. 6,800
Total cost incurred under test II = 3000 + 25x = 3000 + (25 × 160) = Rs. 7,000
If there is no test, then the penalty charged at buyer’s end = 50 × 160 = Rs.
8,000
Thus, test I is the least expensive and so Prakash should go for test I.
Hence, option 1.
Solution:
The total number of bad widgets i.e. x = 200
Total cost incurred under test I = 2000 + 30x = 2000 + (30 × 200) = Rs. 8,000
Total cost incurred under test II = 3000 + 25x = 3000 + (25 × 200) = Rs. 8,000
If there is no test, then the penalty charged at buyer’s end = 50 × 200 = Rs.
10,000
Since the amount spent for test I or test II is the same, Prakash can
use either test I or test II.
Hence, option 1.
10. In a six-node network, two nodes are connected to all the other nodes. Of the
3 Marks
remaining four, each is connected to four nodes. What is the total number of links
in the network?
1) 13
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2) 15
3) 17
4) 26
Solution:
Let the 6 nodes be A, B, C, D, E and F.
Thus A is connected to C, D, E and F, forming 4 links i.e. AC, AD, AE and AF.
Similarly, B also forms four links through the nodes C, D, E and F i.e. BC, BD, BE
and BF.
Finally, A and B are connected to each other thereby forming a link AB (which is
the same as BA).
Now, each of the four nodes i.e. C, D, E and F is connected to four nodes.
For each of these nodes, two connections are with A and B each.
Assume that C is connected to D and E, thus forming two links CD and CE.
Thus, D can only be connected to one more node, say F, forming the link DF.
Finally, all the four links for F have already been formed i.e. AF, BF, EF and DF.
Hence, option 1.
Group Question
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1) 150000 m
2) 200000 m
3) 225000 m
4) 250000 m
Solution:
Total requirement of cloth = Total number of shirts × Cloth required per shirt
Hence, option 1.
1) 22500 m
2) 46500 m
3) 60000 m
4) 40000 m
Solution:
No Type A shirt uses low quality cloth.
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The total cloth required for Type B shirts is 30000 × 1.5 = 45000 m.
Hence, first find the total cloth required for each type of shirt.
The total cloth required for Type C, D and E shirts is 45000 m, 15000 m and
15000 m respectively.
Type C, D and E shirts use 30%, 40% and 90% low quality cloth respectively.
= 46500 m.
Hence, option 2.
13. How many metres of high quality cloth are consumed by Type A shirts?
3 Marks
1) 8000 m
2) 112000 m
3) 24000 m
4) 30000 m
Solution:
The number of Type A shirts made = 20000
∴ The total amount of cloth required for Type A shirts = 20000 × 1.5 = 30000
∴ The total amount of high quality cloth required for Type A shirts = 0.8 ×
30000 = 24000 m.
Thus, 24000 metres of high quality cloth are consumed by Type A shirts.
Hence, option 3.
14. What is the ratio of the three qualities of dyes in high-quality cloth?
3 Marks
1) 2:3:5
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2) 1:2:5
3) 7 : 9 : 10
4) Indeterminate
Solution:
The relationship between the proportion of dyes and the proportion of a
certain quality of cloth is not known.
One cannot assume that the proportion of dyes applicable to a certain shirt
type is also applicable to the cloth of different quality levels within the same
shirt type.
Hence, even though the total amount of cloth required and the proportion of
dyes used in each type of shirt can be found, the proportion of dyes in the
cloth of a certain quality within a specific shirt type cannot be calculated.
Hence, option 4.
15. What is the ratio of low-quality dye used for Type C shirts to low-quality
3 Marks
dye used for Type D shirts?
1) 3:2
2) 2:1
3) 1:2
4) 2:3
Solution:
Number of Type C shirts made = 30000
∴ Amount of low-quality dye required for Type D shirts = 0.6 × 10000 = 6000
units
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Hence, option 2.
16. Each question is followed by two statements, A and B. Select the correct option
3 Marks based on the following instructions:
Mark (1) if the question can be answered by one of the statements, but not by the
other.
Mark (2) if the question can be answered by using either statement, independently
of the other.
Mark (3) if the question can be answered by using both statements together, but
not by either statement alone.
Mark (4) if the question cannot be answered by either of the statements.
What is the ratio of the volume of the given right circular cone to the one obtained
from it?
A. The smaller cone is obtained by passing a plane parallel to the base and dividing the
original height in the ratio 1 : 2.
B. The height and the base of the new cone are one-third those of the original cone.
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
Solution:
Using statement A alone:
Since the smaller cone is obtained by cutting the original cone in a plane parallel
to the base , the height, circumference as well as radius of the new cone are
proportional to the old cone.
∴ Height of new cone : Height of old cone = Radius of new cone : Radius of old
cone = 1 : 3
Since the base of the new cone is one-third of the original cone, the radius of the
new cone is also one-third of the original cone.
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Thus, the question can be answered using any one statement independently.
Hence, option 2.
Group Question
Answer the following questions based on the information given below.
The questions that follow are based on the price fluctuations of four commodities -
Arhar, Pepper, Sugar and Gold - during the period February 1999 - July 1999 as shown
in the figures below. In the graphs, A2 implies the second week of April, JN2 implies the
second week of June and so on.
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1) Arhar
2) Pepper
3) Sugar
4) Gold
Solution:
For Arhar: Initial price = Rs 1,700, Final Price = Rs 2,200.
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∴ Absolute difference in the final and initial price of sugar = Rs. 525
Hence, option 1.
1) Arhar
2) Pepper
3) Sugar
4) Gold
Solution:
Hence, option 3.
19. Mr. X, a funds manager with an investment company invested 25% of his
3 Marks
funds in each of the four commodities at the beginning of the period. He sold
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the commodities at the end of the period. His investments in the commodities
resulted in:
1) 17% profit
2) 5.5% loss
3) No profit, no loss
4) 4.3% profit
Solution:
Let the profit/loss percentage on Arhar, Pepper, Sugar and Gold be P1, P2,
P3 and P4 respectively.
Since Mr. X invested 25% of hits total investments in each of the four
commodities, W 1 = W 2 = W 3 = W 4 = 0.25
Since the closest answer is given in option 4, that is marked as the correct
answer.
Hence, option 4.
20. The price volatility of the commodity with the highest PV during the
3 Marks
February-July period is approximately equal to:
1) 3%
2) 40%
3) 20%
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4) 12%
Solution:
Arhar had the highest PV during the Februrary-July period and the value of
this PV was approximately 40%.
Hence, option 2.
Group Question
The primitive tribes on the island of Lexicophobos have recently developed a language
for themselves which has a very limited vocabulary. In fact, the words can be classified
into only three types: the “Bingoes”, the “Cingoes” and the “Dingoes”.
Solution:
Consider Option 1:
According to condition III. Grumbs and Ihavitoo have to be part of the same
sentence.
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Thus, if Grumbs and Harrumphs are used as Bingoes and Ihavitoo is used as
a Cingo, no condition is violated.
Consider Option 3:
Using Grumbs and Ihavitoo as the Bingoes and Lovitoo and Nana as the
Dingoes ensures that the relevant conditions (II and III) are satisfied.
Consider Option 4:
Since Metoo and Nana are not connected to any other word, they can be
used together.
Consider Option 2:
However, if Harrumphs and Ihavitoo as the Bingoes are part of the same
sentence, the number of slots available for Bingoes is exhausted. Thus,
Grumps cannot be used in the same sentence.
The only way Ihavitoo, Grumps and Harrumphs can be used in the same
sentence is if Ihavitoo is used as a Cingo while the other two are used as
Bingoes.
Hence, option 2.
22. If Grumbs and Harrumphs are the Bingoes in a sentence, and no rule of
3 Marks
grammar is violated, which of the following is/are necessarily true?
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1) I only
2) II only
3) III only
4) I and III only
Solution:
Consider Statement I:
Since Grumbs and Harrumphs are already used as Bingoes, Ihavitoo cannot
be used as a Bingo.
With the given combination, it is possible that the Dingoes are Metoo and
Nana. This does not violate any condition.
On the other hand, having Lovitoo as a Dingo also does not violate any
condition.
Any two of the the three possible Dingoes can be chosen without violating
any given condition.
Hence, option 4.
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Solution:
According to condition II, there should be exactly one Cingo in each
sentence.
Consider option 2:
Since Grumbs and Harrumphs are Bingoes, Ihavitoo has been used as a
Cingo.
Consider option 3:
According to condition III, Ihavitoo and Grumbs have to be part of the same
sentence.
Since Ihavitoo is part of option 3 and Grumbs is not, this is not a valid
combination.
Consider option 4:
Since Koolodo is used in option 4 but Lovitoo is not, this is not a valid
combination.
Consider option 1:
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Hence, option 1.
Solution:
If Grumps is the Bingo, any one of Harrumphs or Ihavitoo can be the other
Bingo.
If Ihavitoo is the other Bingo, one from Jingongo or Koolodo can be the
Cingo.
Hence, option 2.
25. Each question is followed by two statements, A and B. Select the correct option
3 Marks based on the following instructions:
Mark (1) if the question can be answered by one of the statements, but not by the
other.
Mark (2) if the question can be answered by using either statement, independently
of the other.
Mark (3) if the question can be answered by using both statements together, but
not by either statement alone.
Mark (4) if the question cannot be answered by either of the statements.
What is the average weight of the 3 new members who have recently been
included into the team?
1) 1
2) 2
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3) 3
4) 4
Solution:
Using statement A alone:
It has not been mentioned whether these new members have been added to the
team or have replaced a few members. Depending on the case, the calculations for
average changes.
The 3 new members replace 3 other members whose total weight is 205 kg.
However, the number of members in the team as well as the impact of the
replacement on the average weight is not known.
Since these new members replace three old members, the total number of
members remains the same.
Since the number of members in the team is not known, the average weight cannot
be found.
Thus, the question cannot be answered on the basis of the two statements.
Hence, option 4.
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Section I
Mark (1) if the question can be answered by one of the statements, but not by
the other.
Mark (2) if the question can be answered by using
either statement, independently of the other.
Mark (3) if the question can be answered by using both statements together,
but not by either statement alone.
Mark (4) if the question cannot be answered by either of the statements.
A and B work at digging a ditch alternately for a day each. If A can dig a ditch
in ‘a ’ days and B can dig it in ‘b ’ days, will the work get done faster if A
begins the work?
A.
B. b > a
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
Solution:
Using statement A alone:
A can dig ‘1/a’ part of the ditch in one day while B can dig ‘1/b’ part of the
ditch in one day.
Irrespective of who starts first, the total work done at the end of 2 days is
always [(1/a) + (1/b)]
Similarly, if the total number of days taken to complete the work is an even
number, the total amount of work done is 2n × [(1/a) + (1/b)]
Thus, if the total amount of work done is of the form given above, the total
time taken to complete the work is the same irrespective of who starts.
Had the work been completed in say, 3 days, the total amount of work done
would have been [(2/a) + (1/b)] or [(1/a) + (2/b)]
Thus, in general, had the work taken an odd number of days for completion,
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the total amount of work would have been [(2n/a) + ((2n − 1)/b)] or [((2n −
1)/a) + (2n/b)]
Since the total amount of work done, as per the given equation, falls in the
first category, the work gets completed in an even number of days.
Since the work gets completed in an even number of days, it takes the same
time irrespective of who starts.
Assume that A can do 5 units of work per day while B can do 2 units of work
per day.
Thus, the work may or may not get completed faster if A starts, depending on
the amount of work.
Thus, the question can be answered by one of the statements but not by the
other.
Hence, option 1.
Group Question
Answer the following questions based on the information given below.
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Solution:
The given data does not mention whether the third place is from the
right or from the left.
As such, assign the first place to the seat at the extreme right or
extreme left and proceed from there. Assume that the seat at the
extreme left is the first place.
Given conditions:
(i) B cannot be at the third place (ii) C and D cannot sit together.
Since B cannot be at the third place, B can possibly take any of the
other three places. Assume B to be at each place and see the
combinations possible.
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From the 4 cases listed above, it can be seen that A can never be at the
first place.
Hence, option 1.
3. If A is not at the third place, then C can occupy which of the following
3 Marks
places?
Solution:
If A is not at the third place, there are two possible candidates for the
third place i.e. C and D.
If any of them is at the third place, the other cannot occupy the two
places adjacent to it (i.e. second and fourth place). The other place has
to mandatorily occupy the first place.
Thus, C can occupy any one of the first and third place.
Hence, option 3.
Solution:
From the solution to the first question, observe that A and B can be
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Hence, option 2.
Group Question
Answer the following questions based on the information given below.
The table below shows the amount of money invested (in Rs. crore) in the core
infrastructural areas of two districts, Chittoor and Khammam, in Andhra Pradesh.
5. By what percent was the total investment in the two districts more in
3 Marks
1996 as compared to that in 1995?
1) 14%
2) 21%
3) 24%
4) 18%
Solution:
The total investment in the year 1995 = 2923.1 + 7081.6 = 10004.7
crores
The total investment in the year 1996 = 3489.5 + 8352 = 11841.5 crores
≈ 1836.8/100
≈ 18.4%
Hence, option 4.
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1) 41%
2) 47%
3) 52%
4) 55%
Solution:
The total investment in Electricity and Thermal Energy in the year 1995
= 815.2 + 632.4 + 2065.8 + 1232.7 = 4746.10 crores
Hence, option 2.
1) Electricity
2) Chemical
3) Solar
4) Nuclear
Solution:
The percentage increase for each area mentioned in the options is:
Hence, option 1.
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Alternatively,
However, note that the percentage increase for the other three areas are
very cloe to each other. Hence, if the maximum percentage increase
had been asked, Electricity could have been eliminated but the other
three values would have to be calculated in a little more detail.
Hence, option 1.
1) 2.8
2) 2.0
3) 2.4
4) 1.7
Solution:
The total investment in Chittoor in the years 1995 and 1996 is = 2923.10
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Hence, option 3.
1) 9,850
2) 10,020
3) 9,170
4) 8,540
Solution:
The percentage increase in the investment in Khammam from the year
1995 to 1996 is
Hence, option 1.
10. Each question is followed by two statements, A and B. Select the correct
3 Marks option based on the following instructions:
Mark (1) if the question can be answered by one of the statements, but not by
the other.
Mark (2) if the question can be answered by using
either statement, independently of the other.
Mark (3) if the question can be answered by using both statements together,
but not by either statement alone.
Mark (4) if the question cannot be answered by either of the statements.
What is the price of tea?
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1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
Solution:
Let the price of coffee and tea be Rs. x and Rs. y respectively.
x=y+5
∴ x = z − 5 and z = 3y
∴ x = 3y − 5
x = y + 5 and x = 3y − 5
∴ y + 5 = 3y − 5
∴y=5
Thus, the question can be answered using both the statements together but
not by using either statement alone.
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Hence, option 3.
Group Question
Answer the following questions based on the information given below.
In a game played by two people there are initially N match sticks kept on the
table. A move in the game consists of a player removing either one or two
matchsticks from the table. The one who takes the last matchstick loses. Players
make moves alternately. The player who makes the first move is A. The other
player is B.
11. The smallest value of N (greater than 5) that ensures a win for B is
3 Marks
_____.
1) 7
2) 6
3) 10
4) 8
Solution:
Let N = 1. Since there is only one matchstick, A picks it up and loses
the game.
Thus, when there are exactly 1, 4, 7.. matchsticks left just before A has
to pick them up, A definitely loses the game.
Let N = 7.
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A: 2
B:1
A: 1/2
B : 2/1
A: 1
B:2
A: 1/2
B : 2/1
Hence, option 1.
12. The largest of N (less than 50) that ensures a win for B is _____.
3 Marks
1) 46
2) 47
3) 48
4) 49
Solution:
As seen in the solution to the previous question, if the number of match
sticks left just before A's turn are 1, 4, 7 and so on, A loses the game.
If one continues with this series, A loses the game if there are either 46
or 49.
Since, 49 is the largest number just less than 50, the largest number
less than 50 that ensures a win for B is 49.
Hence, option 4.
Group Question
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13. The number of people in Dighospur who read only Ganashakti is _____.
3 Marks
1) 121
2) 83
3) 79
4) 127
Solution:
In Dighospur, the number of people who read Ganashakti is 121 while
the number of people who read Anand Bazaar Patrika is 117.
Also, the number of people who read either of these two newspapers is
200.
Hence, option 2.
14. The number of people in Aghosh Colony who read both these
3 Marks
newspapers is _____.
1) 13
2) 20
3) 19
4) 14
Solution:
In Agosh Colony, the number of people who read Ganashakti is 33 and
the number of people who read Anand Bazaar Patrika is 32.
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The total number of people who read either of these two newspapers is
52.
Thus, the number of people who read both the newspapers in Agosh
Colony = 33 + 32 – 52 = 13
Hence, option 1.
15. The number of people in Aghosh Colony who read only one paper is
3 Marks
_____.
1) 29
2) 19
3) 39
4) 20
Solution:
The number of people in Aghosh colony who read at least one of the
two newspapers = 52
Hence, option 3.
Group Question
Answer the following questions based on the information given below.
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16. When was the per capita production of milk the least?
3 Marks
1) 1990
2) 1992
3) 1994
4) 1996
Solution:
Now,
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Since each fraction has the same numerator, the fraction with the
largest denominator has the smallest value.
Hence, option 1.
17. When was the per capita production of food-grains the most?
3 Marks
1) 1992
2) 1993
3) 1994
4) 1995
Solution:
The per capita production of food-grains for years 1992, 1993, 1994 and
1995 is
Since each fraction has the same numerator, the fraction with the
smallest denominator has the largest value.
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Thus, the per capita production of food grains was highest in 1995.
Hence, option 4.
18. In which year was the difference between the increase in the production
3 Marks
of food-grains and milk the maximum?
1) 1993
2) 1994
3) 1995
4) 1996
Solution:
This question can be solved by direct observation.
Hence, option 3.
19. If milk contains 320 calories and food-grains contain 160 calories, in
3 Marks
which year was the per capita consumption of calories the highest?
1) 1993
2) 1994
3) 1995
4) 1996
Solution:
The per capita consumption of calories in the years 1993, 1994, 1995
and 1996 is respectively,
1993: 5920/74 = 80
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Hence, option 3.
20. If one gallon of milk contains 120 gm of a particular nutrient and one ton
3 Marks
of food-grains contains 80 gm of the same nutrient, in which year was
the availability of this nutrient the maximum?
1) 1993
2) 1994
3) 1995
4) 1996
Solution:
The availability of the concerned nutrient for each given year is:
Hence, option 3.
21. Referring to the above question, in which year was the per capita
3 Marks
consumption of this nutrient the highest?
1) 1993
2) 1994
3) 1995
4) 1996
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Solution:
The per capita consumption of the nutrient for each of the given years is
:
Hence, option 3.
22. Each question is followed by two statements, A and B. Select the correct
3 Marks option based on the following instructions:
Mark (1) if the question can be answered by one of the statements, but not by
the other.
Mark (2) if the question can be answered by using
either statement, independently of the other.
Mark (3) if the question can be answered by using both statements together,
but not by either statement alone.
Mark (4) if the question cannot be answered by either of the statements.
What is the value of p + q?
A.
B.
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
Solution:
Using statement A alone:
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Even when the two statements are combined, we have two equations and
three unknowns. Therefore, a unique solution cannot be found.
Hence, option 4.
Group Question
Answer the following questions based on the information given below.
A, B, C, D, E and F are a group of friends from a club. There are two doctors, one
lecturer, one architect, one accountant and one lawyer in the group. There are
two married couples in the group. The lawyer is married to D who is a doctor. No
lady in the group is either an architect or an accountant. C, the accountant, is
married to F who is a lecturer. A is married to D and E is not a doctor.
1) Lawyer
2) Architect
3) Lecturer
4) Accountant
Solution:
There are 6 people (A, B, C, D, E and F) who have the following
occupations (D1, D2, Ac, Ar, Lc and Lw) in no particular order.
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married to D.
Since E is not a doctor, E can only be the architect while B is the other
doctor.
Hence, option 2.
1) 2
2) 3
3) 4
4) Cannot be determined
Solution:
From the solution to the previous question, it is clear that C being the
accountant, cannot be a lady. Hence, F is a lady.
Hence, option 4.
25. Each question is followed by two statements, A and B. Select the correct
3 Marks option based on the following instructions:
Mark (1) if the question can be answered by one of the statements, but not by
the other.
Mark (2) if the question can be answered by using
either statement, independently of the other.
Mark (3) if the question can be answered by using both statements together,
but not by either statement alone.
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A. b is negative.
B. c is positive.
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
Solution:
Is (a – b + c) > (a + b – c)?
Thus, the question can be answered by using both statements together but
not by using either statement alone.
Hence, option 3.
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Section I
Mark (1) if the question can be answered by one of the statements, but not by
the other.
Mark (2) if the question can be answered by using
either statement, independently of the other.
Mark (3) if the question can be answered by using both statements together,
but not by either statement alone.
Mark (4) if the question cannot be answered by either of the statements.
What is the area bounded by the two lines and the co-ordinate axes in the
first quadrant?
A. The lines intersect at a point which also lies on the lines 3x − 4y = 1 and 7x − 8y = 5.
B. The lines are perpendicular, and one of them intersects the y-axis at an intercept of
4.
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
Solution:
Using Statement A alone:
However, the point of intersection of these two lines with the x-axis and the
y-axis is not known.
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If the co-ordinates of any other point through which this line passes are
known, one can find the equation of this line.
If this equation is known, the equation of the other line and its x-intercept can
be found.
Since no other co-ordinate is known, the above calculations are not possible.
Hence, the slope of this line can be found. This slope is −2/3.
Since the other line i.e. L2 is perpendicular to this line, the slope of L2 is 3/2.
Using this slope and the co-ordinates (3, 2), the equation of line L2 can be
found.
Thus, all four co-ordinates of the bounded area are now known.
Thus, the question can be answered using both the statements together, but
not by using either statement alone.
Hence, option 3.
2. A cube is made into a number of smaller cubes by dividing each edge into
3 Marks
four equal parts. What is the minimum number of similar additional small
cubes that would be required to create a bigger cube which would completely
enclose the original cube?
1) 152
2) 261
3) 61
4) 148
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Solution:
When a cube is cut into four equal parts on each edge, the total number of
smaller cubes created is 4 × 4 × 4 = 64 (Length × Breadth × Height)
When a bigger cube encloses the original cube using small cubes similar to
the ones just created, it implies that one small cube gets added to the length
on each side.
Similarly, the breadth as well as height of the bigger cube will consist of 6
small cubes each.
Hence, option 1.
Group Question
Answer the following questions based on the information given below.
The bar chart below shows the total sales, total expenditure and share capital of
four companies, A, B, C and D. ‘Profits’ is defined as the difference between total
sales and total expenditure.
1) A
2) B
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3) C
4) D
Solution:
It can be seen from the table that the profit per rupee of sales is the
least for the company C (0.0833).
Hence, option 3.
4. Which company has the lowest profit per rupee of the share capital?
3 Marks
1) A
2) B
3) C
4) D
Solution:
Profit per rupee of share capital = Profit/Share Capital
The profit per rupee of share capital for each company is given below:
A : 5/10 = 0.5
B : 1/0.5 = 2
C : 1/8 = 0.125
D : 3/5 = 0.6
Thus, company C has the lowest profit per rupee of the share capital.
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Hence, option 3.
5. Which company has the highest sales per rupee of the share capital?
3 Marks
1) A
2) B
3) C
4) D
Solution:
Sales per rupee of share capital = Sales/Share Capital
This ratio for each company can be calculated from the table in the
solution to the first question and is given below.
A : 20/10 = 2
B : 4/0.5 = 8
C : 12/8 = 1.5
D : 15/5 = 3
Thus, company B has the highest sales per rupee of the share capital.
Hence, option 2.
6. Which company has the lowest profit per rupee of the total expenditure?
3 Marks
1) A
2) B
3) C
4) D
Solution:
Profit per rupee of the expenditure = Profit/Expenditure
This ratio can be calculated for each company from the table in the
solution to the first question and is given below.
A : 5/15 = 0.33
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B : 1/3 = 0.33
C : 1/11 = 0.09
D : 3/12 = 0.25
Thus, company C has the lowest profit per rupee of the total
expenditure.
Hence, option 3.
Mark (1) if the question can be answered by one of the statements, but not by
the other.
Mark (2) if the question can be answered by using
either statement, independently of the other.
Mark (3) if the question can be answered by using both statements together,
but not by either statement alone.
Mark (4) if the question cannot be answered by either of the statements.
A train started from Station A, developed engine trouble and reached Station
B, 40 minutes late. What is the distance between Stations A and B?
A. The engine trouble developed after travelling 40 km from Station A and the speed
reduced to 1/4 of the original speed.
B. The engine trouble developed after travelling 40 km from station A in two hours and
the speed reduced to 1/4 of the original speed.
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
Solution:
Using Statement A alone:
Since the time in which the train travelled the 40 kms is not known, the
distance cannot be found.
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The train travelled 40 km in 2 hours, and then the engine trouble started.
Since the speed reduces to 1/4 of the original speed, the time taken if 4 times
the original time.
If the time taken to travel the balance distance at 40 km is t minutes, then the
time taken to travel the same distance at the revised speed is 4t minutes.
∴ 3t = 40
∴ t = 40/3
Once this time, the balance distance travelled and the total distance can be
calculated.
Thus, the question can be answered by one of the statements but not by the
other.
Hence, option 1.
Group Question
Answer the following questions based on the information given below.
Recently, Ghosh Babu spent his winter vacation on Kyakya Island. During the
vacation, he visited the local casino where he came across a new card game. Two
players, using a normal deck of 52 playing cards, play this game. One player is
called the “Dealer” and the other is called the “Player”. First, the Player picks a
card at random from the deck. This is called the “base card”. The amount in
rupees equal to the face value of the base card is called the “base amount”. The
face values of Ace, King, Queen and Jack are ten. For other cards, the face value
is the number on the card. Once the Player picks a card from the deck, the Dealer
pays him the base amount. Then the Dealer picks a card from the deck and this
card is called the “top card”. If the top card is of the same suit as the base card,
the player pays twice the base amount to the Dealer. If the top card is of the same
colour as the base card (but not the same suit) then the Player pays the base
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amount to the Dealer. If the top card happens to be of a different colour than the
base card, the Dealer pays the base amount to the Player.
Ghosh Babu played the game 4 times. In the first game, he picked the eight of
clubs and the Dealer picked the queen of clubs. In the second, he picked the ten
of hearts and the Dealer picked the two of spades. Next time, Ghosh Babu picked
the six of diamonds and the Dealer picked the ace of hearts. In the finally
game, he picked the eight of spades and the Dealer picked jack of
spades. Answer the following questions based on the information given
about these four games.
8. If Ghosh Babu stopped playing the game when his gain was the
3 Marks
maximum, the gain in Rs. would have been:
1) 12
2) 20
3) 16
4) 4
Solution:
Assume that the Player gets an amount n from the Dealer at the
beginning of each game.
The amount with the Player at the end of the game is as shown below:
Case I : If the Dealer picks a card from the same suit, the Player pays
2n to the Dealer and is left with −n
Case II : If the Dealer picks a card of the same colour but not from the
same suit, the Player pays n to the Dealer and is left with 0
Case III : If the Dealer picks a card from a different colour, the
Player gets n from the Dealer and is left with 2n
Game I :
Ghosh Babu picked the eight of clubs and so the Dealer gave him Rs.
8. The Dealer picked the queen of clubs (same suit card) and Ghosh
Babu gave him Rs. 16.
Thus, Ghosh Babu had a loss of Rs. 8 at the end of the first game.
In the second game, Ghosh Babu picked the ten of hearts and so the
Dealer gave him Rs. 10. The Dealer picked the two of spades (different
colour card) and gave Ghosh Babu Rs. 10.
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Thus, the amount with Ghosh Babu at the end of the second game
(Ghosh Babu's gain) was −8 + 10 + 10 = Rs. 12.
In the third game, Ghosh Babu picked the six of diamonds and so the
Dealer gave him Rs. 6. The Dealer picked the ace of hearts (same
colour card) and so Ghosh Babu gave him the base amount i.e. Rs. 6.
Thus, there was no profit and no loss.
Thus, Ghosh Babu's gain at the end of the third game was again Rs.
12.
In the final game, Ghosh Babu picked the eight of spades and got Rs. 8
from the Dealer. The Dealer then picked the jack of spades (same suit
card) and so Ghosh Babu gave him Rs. 16.
Thus, at the end of the fourth game, the amount with Ghosh Babu (his
gain) was 12 + 8 − 16 = Rs. 4
Thus, the maximum gain was at the end of either Game II or Game III.
Hence, option 1.
9. The initial amount that Ghosh Babu had (before the beginning of the
3 Marks
game sessions) was Rs. X. At no point did he have to borrow any
money. What is the minimum possible value of X?
1) 16
2) 8
3) 100
4) 24
Solution:
As seen from the solution to the previous question, Ghosh Babu
incurred a loss of Rs. 8 at the end of the first game.
Thus, if he already had at least Rs. 8 before the beginning of the game
sessions, he would have got Rs. 8 from the Dealer at the neginning of
the first game and would have paid Rs. 16 to the Dealer at the end of
the first game. He would therefore have a zero balance, but would not
need to borrow money.
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Hence, option 2.
10. If the final amount of money that Ghosh Babu had with him was Rs.
3 Marks
100, what was initial amount that he had?
1) 120
2) 8
3) 4
4) 96
Solution:
From the solution to the first question, Ghosh Babu had a gain of Rs. 4
at the end of four games.
Thus, if he had Rs. 100 at the end of the fourth game, he should have
had Rs. (100 – 4) = Rs. 96 with him at the start of the session.
Hence, option 4.
11. Each question is followed by two statements, A and B. Select the correct
3 Marks option based on the following instructions:
Mark (1) if the question can be answered by one of the statements, but not by
the other.
Mark (2) if the question can be answered by using
either statement, independently of the other.
Mark (3) if the question can be answered by using both statements together,
but not by either statement alone.
Mark (4) if the question cannot be answered by either of the statements.
What is the first term of an arithmetic progression of positive integers?
A. The sum of the squares of the first and second term is 116.
B. The fifth term is divisible by 7.
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
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Solution:
Using Statement A alone:
The sum of the squares of the first and second term is 116.
The only positive integers that add up to 116 and are both perfect squares are
100 and 16.
Thus, the squares of the first and second term are 16 and 100.
If the first term is 10, 4 becomes the second term and the third term becomes
−2.
∴ a + 4d = 7n
Thus, the question can be answered by one of the statements but not by the
other.
Hence, option 1.
12. Each question is followed by two statements, A and B. Select the correct
3 Marks option based on the following instructions:
Mark (1) if the question can be answered by one of the statements, but not by
the other.
Mark (2) if the question can be answered by using
either statement, independently of the other.
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Mark (3) if the question can be answered by using both statements together,
but not by either statement alone.
Mark (4) if the question cannot be answered by either of the statements.
What are the values of the 3 integers a,b and c?
A. ab = 8
B. bc = 9
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
Solution:
Using statement A alone:
ab = 8 ... (i)
The combinations possible are (1, 8), (2, 4), (4, 2), (8, 1), (−1, −8), (−2, −4),
(−4, −2) and (−8, −1)
bc = 9 ... (ii)
The combinations possible are (1, 9), (3, 3), (9, 1), (−1, −9), (−3, −3) and (−8,
−1)
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Hence, option 4.
13. In each of the following sentences the main statement is followed by four
3 Marks sentences each. Select a pair of sentences that relate logically with the given
statement.
Either Sita is sick or she is careless.
1) AB
2) AD
3) BA
4) DA
Solution:
This logical connective is of the following type
Either P or Q
This implies that if P does not occur then Q occurs or if Q does not occur
then P occurs.
1. ~P ⇒ Q
2. ~Q ⇒ P
Thus, if Sita is not sick, then she is careless (i.e. AD), or , if Sita is not
careless then she is sick. (i.e. BC).
Hence, option 2.
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14. In each of the following sentences the main statement is followed by four
3 Marks sentences each. Select a pair of sentences that relate logically with the given
statement.
Ram gets a swollen nose whenever he eats hamburgers.
1) AB
2) DC
3) AC
4) CB
Solution:
This logical connective is of the following type
Q whenever P
The conclusions for the above type of logical connective are as follows
1. P ⇒ Q
2. ~Q ⇒ ~P
Thus, if Ram eats hamburgers, he gets a swollen nose (i.e. DA) or if Ram
does not get a swollen nose, he does not eat hamburgers (i.e. CB).
Hence, option 4.
15. In each of the following sentences the main statement is followed by four
3 Marks sentences each. Select a pair of sentences that relate logically with the given
statement.
Either the employees have no confidence in the management or they are
hostile by nature.
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Section I
Mark (1) if the question can be answered by one of the statements, but not by
the other.
Mark (2) if the question can be answered by using
either statement, independently of the other.
Mark (3) if the question can be answered by using both statements together,
but not by either statement alone.
Mark (4) if the question cannot be answered by either of the statements.
If R is an integer between 1 and 9, P − R = 2370, what is the value of R?
A. P is divisible by 4.
B. P is divisible by 9.
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
Solution:
Using Statement A alone:
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Thus, the question can be answered using statement B alone but not by
using statement A alone.
Thus, the question can be answered using one of the statements, but not by
using the other statement.
Hence, option 1.
Mark (1) if the question can be answered by one of the statements, but not by
the other.
Mark (2) if the question can be answered by using
either statement, independently of the other.
Mark (3) if the question can be answered by using both statements together,
but not by either statement alone.
Mark (4) if the question cannot be answered by either of the statements.
A man distributed 43 chocolates to his children. How many of his children are
more than five years old?
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
Solution:
Using Statement A alone:
Since there are 43 chocolates, there can be a maximum of 8 children who are
older than 5 years.
However, the actual number of children who are older than five years cannot
be found.
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The actual number of children who are older than five years cannot be found.
Thus, the actual number of children who are older than five years cannot be
found.
Let the number of children who are less than or equal to 5 years be x and the
number of children who are older than five years be y.
∴ 5x + 6y = 43
Since x and y stand for number of people, they should have integral values.
Thus, the question can be answered using both statements together, but not
by using either statement alone.
Hence, option 3.
Mark (1) if the question can be answered by one of the statements, but not by
the other.
Mark (2) if the question can be answered by using
either statement, independently of the other.
Mark (3) if the question can be answered by using both statements together,
but not by either statement alone.
Mark (4) if the question cannot be answered by either of the statements.
Ramu went by car from Kolkata to Trichy via Chennai, without any stoppages.
The average speed for the entire journey was 40 kmph. What was the
average speed from Chennai to Trichy?
A. The distance from Chennai to Trichy is 0.3 times the distance from Kolkata to
Chennai.
B. The average speed from Chennai to Trichy was twice the average speed
from Kolkata to Chennai.
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1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
Solution:
Using Statement A alone:
Let the distance between Kolkata and Chennai be 10 km. Therefore, the
distance between Chennai and Trichy is 3 km.
The average speed from Chennai to Trichy cannot be found from this data.
Let the average speed from Chennai to Trichy be 2x kmph, then the average
speed from Kolkata to Chennai is x kmph.
∴ 40 = (13 × 2x)/23
∴ x = (40 × 23)/26
Thus, the question can be answered using both statements together, but not
by using either statement alone.
Hence, option 3.
Mark (1) if the question can be answered by one of the statements, but not by
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the other.
Mark (2) if the question can be answered by using
either statement, independently of the other.
Mark (3) if the question can be answered by using both statements together,
but not by either statement alone.
Mark (4) if the question cannot be answered by either of the statements.
x, y and z are three positive odd integers. Is x + z divisible by 4?
A. y − x = 2
B. z − y = 2
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
Solution:
Using Statement A alone:
y−x=2
Since the relationship between x and z is not known, and the value of x is not
known, the value of x + z cannot be found.
z−y=2
Since the relationship between x and z is not known, and the value of z is not
known, the value of x + z cannot be found.
∴z=x+4
Now, z + x = x + 4 + x = 2x + 4
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= 4k + 6
Thus, the question can be answered using both the statements together but
not by using either statement alone.
Hence, option 3.
Mark (1) if the question can be answered by one of the statements, but not by
the other.
Mark (2) if the question can be answered by using
either statement, independently of the other.
Mark (3) if the question can be answered by using both statements together,
but not by either statement alone.
Mark (4) if the question cannot be answered by either of the statements.
The unit price of product P1 is non-increasing and that of product P2 is
decreasing. Which product will be costlier 5 years hence?
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
Solution:
The unit price of P1 either decreases or remains constant. The unit price of
P2 keeps on decreasing.
Thus, if the rate of decrease for P1 is much higher than P2, P2 can be
costlier 5 years hence.
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When both the statements are combined, it seems that the rate of decrease
of P2 is much more than the rate of decrease of P1.
However, the question does not say that the rate of decrease for a particular
product is constant throughout.
Hence, option 4.
Mark (1) if the question can be answered by one of the statements, but not by
the other.
Mark (2) if the question can be answered by using
either statement, independently of the other.
Mark (3) if the question can be answered by using both statements together,
but not by either statement alone.
Mark (4) if the question cannot be answered by either of the statements.
X is older than Y, Z is younger than W and V is older than Y. Is Z younger
than X?
1) 1
2) 2
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3) 3
4) 4
Solution:
X > Y, Z < W, V > Y.
Hence, option 4.
Mark (1) if the question can be answered by one of the statements, but not by
the other.
Mark (2) if the question can be answered by using
either statement, independently of the other.
Mark (3) if the question can be answered by using both statements together,
but not by either statement alone.
Mark (4) if the question cannot be answered by either of the statements.
How long did Mr. X take to cover 5000 km. journey with 10 stopovers?
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1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
Solution:
Using Statement A alone:
The 1st stopover lasted 12 minutes, the 2nd stopover lasted 22 minutes and so
on. The 10th stopover lasted 102 minutes.
Therefore,
The stopover time is obtained from statement A while the travelling time is
obtained from statement B.
Thus, the question can be answered using both statements together, but not
by using either statement alone.
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Hence, option 3.
Mark (1) if the question can be answered by one of the statements, but not by
the other.
Mark (2) if the question can be answered by using
either statement, independently of the other.
Mark (3) if the question can be answered by using both statements together,
but not by either statement alone.
Mark (4) if the question cannot be answered by either of the statements.
A. x + y > 0
B. x and y are positive integers and each is greater than 2.
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
Solution:
Using Statement A alone:
x + y > 0.
Consider x = y = 2
Consider x = y = 1
When the expression of the left hand side is simplified, you get [x2y + xy2]/(x2
+ y2)
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Thus, the question can be answered using statement B alone but not by
using statement A alone.
Thus, the question can be answered by one of the statement but not by the
other.
Hence, option 1.
Mark (1) if the question can be answered by one of the statements, but not by
the other.
Mark (2) if the question can be answered by using
either statement, independently of the other.
Mark (3) if the question can be answered by using both statements together,
but not by either statement alone.
Mark (4) if the question cannot be answered by either of the statements.
Is it more profitable for Company M to produce Q?
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
Solution:
Using Statement A alone:
Though the selling price of Q and R can be compared, the cost and effort
involved in producing Q and R is not known.
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Though the effort involved in producing Q and R is known, the selling price of
Q and R cannot be compared.
Since there is no other constraint, except labour, the selling price can be
assumed to be directly proportional to the amount of labour involved.
Since R sells at a price four times that of Q, R should ideally require 8 units
of labour for every 2 units of labour needed by Q.
Thus, R uses less labour than required and gets a higher selling price.
Thus, the question can be answered using both statements together, but not
by using either statement alone.
Hence, option 3.
10. Each question is followed by two statements, A and B. Select the correct
3 Marks option based on the following instructions:
Mark (1) if the question can be answered by one of the statements, but not by
the other.
Mark (2) if the question can be answered by using
either statement, independently of the other.
Mark (3) if the question can be answered by using both statements together,
but not by either statement alone.
Mark (4) if the question cannot be answered by either of the statements.
What is the value of the prime number x?
1) 1
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2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
Solution:
Using Statement A alone:
x2 + x > 50
∴ x(x + 1) > 50
For x = 5; x(x + 1) = 5 × 6 = 30
For x = 7; x(x + 1) = 7 × 8 = 56
Thus, the only prime number that satisfies the twin conditions of x2 + x being
a two-digit number that is greater than 50 is 7.
100 ≤ x3 ≤ 999
For x = 5; x3 = 125
For x = 7; x3 = 343
Thus, the question can be answered using statement A alone but not by
using statement B alone.
Thus, the question can be answered by one of the statements but not by the
other.
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Hence, option 1.
11. Each question is followed by two statements, A and B. Select the correct
3 Marks option based on the following instructions:
Mark (1) if the question can be answered by one of the statements, but not by
the other.
Mark (2) if the question can be answered by using
either statement, independently of the other.
Mark (3) if the question can be answered by using both statements together,
but not by either statement alone.
Mark (4) if the question cannot be answered by either of the statements.
The average of three unequal quotations for a particular share is Rs. 110. If
all the amounts are quoted in integral rupee values, does the highest
quotation exceed Rs. 129?
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
Solution:
Using Statement A alone:
The sum of the value of the three quotations is 3 × 110 = Rs. 330
The lowest quotation is Rs. 101 and no two quotations are equal.
The maximum possible value of any quotation can be obtained when the
second highest quotation is Rs. 101
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Since the lowest quotation value is not known, the highest quotation value
can be anything.
Thus, the question can be answered using statement A alone but not by
using statement B alone.
Thus, the question can be answered by one of the statements but not by the
other.
Hence, option 1.
12. Each question is followed by two statements, A and B. Select the correct
3 Marks option based on the following instructions:
Mark (1) if the question can be answered by one of the statements, but not by
the other.
Mark (2) if the question can be answered by using
either statement, independently of the other.
Mark (3) if the question can be answered by using both statements together,
but not by either statement alone.
Mark (4) if the question cannot be answered by either of the statements.
How many people (from a group surveyed) read both Indian Express and
Times of India?
A. Out of a total of 200 readers, 100 read Indian Express, 120 read Times of India and 50
read Hindu.
B. Out of a total of 200 readers, 100 read Indian Express, 120 read Times of India and 50
read neither.
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
Solution:
Using Statement A alone:
100 people read Indian Express, 120 read Times of India and 50 read Hindu.
Since this involves three newspapers, the number of people who read both
indian Express and Times of India cannot be found.
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If the survey comprises only two newspapers (Indian Express and Times of
India), the number of people who read at least one newspaper is 150.
Therefore, the number of people who read both newspapers is 100 + 120
− 150 = 70
If the survey comprises three newspapers (including Hindu), the 50 who read
neither Times of India nor Indian Express consists of those who read only
Hindu and those who do not read all three newspapers.
Since this breakup is not known, the number of people who read both
newspapers cannot be found.
Even when the data is combined, the number of people who read both
newspapers cannot be found.
Hence, option 4.
13. Each question is followed by two statements, A and B. Select the correct
3 Marks option based on the following instructions:
Mark (1) if the question can be answered by one of the statements, but not by
the other.
Mark (2) if the question can be answered by using
either statement, independently of the other.
Mark (3) if the question can be answered by using both statements together,
but not by either statement alone.
Mark (4) if the question cannot be answered by either of the statements.
X says to Y, “I am 3 times as old as you were 3 years ago”. How old is X?
A. Y’s age 17 years from now would be the same as X’s present age.
B. X’s age nine years from now is 3 times Y’s present age.
1) 1
2) 2
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3) 3
4) 4
Solution:
Let the current ages of X and Y be x and y years respectively.
∴ x = 3(y − 3)
∴ 3y – x = 9 …(i)
y + 17 = x
∴ x – y = 17 …(ii)
x + 9 = 3y
∴ 3y − x = 9 …(iii)
Since equations (iii) and (i) are the same, the value of x and y cannot be
found.
Thus, the question can be answered using statement A alone but not by
using statement B alone.
Thus, the question can be answered by one of the statements, but not by the
other.
Hence, option 1.
14. Each question is followed by two statements, A and B. Select the correct
3 Marks option based on the following instructions:
Mark (1) if the question can be answered by one of the statements, but not by
the other.
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1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
Solution:
Let the side of each small square be a units.
Thus, the area under the lines GHI and JKL is (3a × 2a) + (a × 2a) = 8a2
∴ 10a ≥ 60
∴a≥6
Since the exact value of a is not known, the required area cannot be found.
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∴ 42a2 ≤ 1512
∴ a2 ≤ 36
∴a≤6
Since the exact value of a is not known, the required area cannot be found.
When both the statements are combined, the only possible value of a is 6.
Thus, the question can be answered using both the statements together but
not by using either statement alone.
Hence, option 3.
15. Each question is followed by two statements, A and B. Select the correct
3 Marks option based on the following instructions:
Mark (1) if the question can be answered by one of the statements, but not by
the other.
Mark (2) if the question can be answered by using
either statement, independently of the other.
Mark (3) if the question can be answered by using both statements together,
but not by either statement alone.
Mark (4) if the question cannot be answered by either of the statements.
What is the radius of the circle?
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
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4) 4
Solution:
Using Statement A alone:
(πr2)/(2πr) > 7
∴ r/2 > 7
∴ r > 14
Thus, the radius can be any value greater than 14, but the exact value cannot
be found.
d ≤ 32
∴ r ≤ 16
Thus, the radius can be any value up to 16, but the exact value cannot be
found.
When both statements are combined, the possible integral values of r are 14
and 15.
Hence, option 4.
16. Each question is followed by two statements, A and B. Select the correct
3 Marks option based on the following instructions:
Mark (1) if the question can be answered by one of the statements, but not by
the other.
Mark (2) if the question can be answered by using
either statement, independently of the other.
Mark (3) if the question can be answered by using both statements together,
but not by either statement alone.
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A. The departure time of the flight at New York is exactly 9.00 a.m. local time and the
arrival time at London is 10.00 a.m. local time.
B. The flight time is 5 hours.
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
Solution:
Using Statement A alone:
As the duration of the journey is not known, the time difference cannot be
calculated.
As the time of departure and arrival is not known, the time difference cannot
be calculated.
The flight departs at 9.00 a.m. New York time and arrives at 2 p.m. London
time.
Thus, if London is ahead of New York, the time difference is 4 hours while
London is behind New York, the time difference is 20 hours.
Thus, the question can be answered using both the statements together but
not by using either statement alone.
Hence, option 3.
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17. Each question is followed by two statements, A and B. Select the correct
3 Marks option based on the following instructions:
Mark (1) if the question can be answered by one of the statements, but not by
the other.
Mark (2) if the question can be answered by using
either statement, independently of the other.
Mark (3) if the question can be answered by using both statements together,
but not by either statement alone.
Mark (4) if the question cannot be answered by either of the statements.
Mr. Murthy takes the morning train to his office from station A to station B, and
his colleague Mr. Rahman joins him on the way. There are three stations C, D
and E on the way, not necessarily in that sequence. What is the sequence of
stations?
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
Solution:
Using Statement A alone:
This does not give any indication about the sequence of stations.
Since the station at which Mr. Rahman boards the train is not known, the
sequence cannot be determined.
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Since Mr. Thomas has 2 segments of his journey common with Mr. Murthy
and none with Mr. Rahman, the two common segments have to be CE and
ED.
Thus, the question can be answered using both the statements together but
not by using either statement alone.
Hence, option 3.
18. Each question is followed by two statements, A and B. Select the correct
3 Marks option based on the following instructions:
Mark (1) if the question can be answered by one of the statements, but not by
the other.
Mark (2) if the question can be answered by using
either statement, independently of the other.
Mark (3) if the question can be answered by using both statements together,
but not by either statement alone.
Mark (4) if the question cannot be answered by either of the statements.
What is the length of the line SQ which is the diagonal of a square as well as
the diameter of a circle?
A. All four vertices of the square lie on the circumference of the circle.
B. The numerical value of the area of the circle is twice the length of SQ.
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
Solution:
Using Statement A alone:
The data given in this statement is the same as the data given in the
question.
The numerical value of the area of the circle is twice the length of SQ, where
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∴ π × SQ2/4 = 2SQ
∴ SQ = 8/π
Thus, the question can be answered using statement B alone but not by
using statement A alone.
Thus, the question can be answered by one of the statements but not by the
other.
Hence, option 1.
19. Each question is followed by two statements, A and B. Select the correct
3 Marks option based on the following instructions:
Mark (1) if the question can be answered by one of the statements, but not by
the other.
Mark (2) if the question can be answered by using
either statement, independently of the other.
Mark (3) if the question can be answered by using both statements together,
but not by either statement alone.
Mark (4) if the question cannot be answered by either of the statements.
P, Q, R and S are four consecutive even integers. What is the value of the
largest integer among these?
A. The average of the four numbers is the first prime number greater than 10.
B. The relation between the largest and smallest number is less than 10.
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
Solution:
Let the numbers P, Q, R and S be x − 3, x − 1, x + 1 and x + 3 respectively.
Hence, the average of these 4 numbers is x. The largest integer among these
is x + 3.
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The average of the four numbers is the first prime number greater than 10 i.e.
11.
∴ x = 11
The relation between the largest and smallest number is less than 10.
Thus, the question can be answered using statement A alone but not by
using statement B alone.
Thus, the question can be answered by one of the statements but not by the
other.
Hence, option 1.
20. Each question is followed by two statements, A and B. Select the correct
3 Marks option based on the following instructions:
Mark (1) if the question can be answered by one of the statements, but not by
the other.
Mark (2) if the question can be answered by using
either statement, independently of the other.
Mark (3) if the question can be answered by using both statements together,
but not by either statement alone.
Mark (4) if the question cannot be answered by either of the statements.
What is the price of an apple?
A. The average of the price of an apple and the price of an orange is Rs. 5.
B. 24 apples and 24 oranges cost Rs. 240.
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
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4) 4
Solution:
Let the cost of an apple and an orange be a and r respectively.
(a + r)/2 = 5
∴ a + r = 10
Since this is a single linear equation in two variables, a unique value of a and
r cannot be found.
∴ a + r = 10
Since this is a single linear equation in two variables, a unique value of a and
r cannot be found.
Since both the statements give the same equation, there is still only one
equation in terms of two variables.
Hence, option 4.
21. Each question is followed by two statements, A and B. Select the correct
3 Marks option based on the following instructions:
Mark (1) if the question can be answered by one of the statements, but not by
the other.
Mark (2) if the question can be answered by using
either statement, independently of the other.
Mark (3) if the question can be answered by using both statements together,
but not by either statement alone.
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1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
Solution:
Let the money with Prem and Jagdish be p and j respectively.
p – j ≥ 100
However, the amount with Prem cannot be determined from this inequation.
p + j ≤ 500
However, the amount with Prem cannot be determined from this inequation.
Even if both the inequations are combined, the exact amount with Prem
cannot be determined.
Hence, option 4.
22. Each question is followed by two statements, A and B. Select the correct
3 Marks option based on the following instructions:
Mark (1) if the question can be answered by one of the statements, but not by
the other.
Mark (2) if the question can be answered by using
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A. 2x + 2y ≤ 40
B. x − 2y ≥ 20
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
Solution:
x ≥ 0, y ≥ 0
2x + 2y ≤ 40 ...(i)
x − 2y ≥ 20 ...(ii)
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Thus, x = 20
Hence, option 3.
23. Each question is followed by two statements, A and B. Select the correct
3 Marks option based on the following instructions:
Mark (1) if the question can be answered by one of the statements, but not by
the other.
Mark (2) if the question can be answered by using
either statement, independently of the other.
Mark (3) if the question can be answered by using both statements together,
but not by either statement alone.
Mark (4) if the question cannot be answered by either of the statements.
Is the average of the largest and the smallest of four given numbers greater
than the average of four numbers?
A. The difference between the largest and the second largest numbers is greater than
the difference between the second smallest and the smallest numbers.
B. The difference between the largest and the second largest numbers is less than the
difference between the second smallest and the smallest numbers.
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
Solution:
If the numbers are a, b, c and d in the descending order,
∴a+d+a+d>a+d+b+c
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Thus, the average of the largest and smallest number is greater than the
average of all four numbers.
∴a+d+a+d<a+d+b+c
Thus, the average of the largest and smallest number is less than the
average of all four numbers.
Hence, option 2.
24. Each question is followed by two statements, A and B. Select the correct
3 Marks option based on the following instructions:
Mark (1) if the question can be answered by one of the statements, but not by
the other.
Mark (2) if the question can be answered by using
either statement, independently of the other.
Mark (3) if the question can be answered by using both statements together,
but not by either statement alone.
Mark (4) if the question cannot be answered by either of the statements.
What are the ages of three brothers?
1) 1
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2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
Solution:
Using Statement A alone:
There are two combinations that give this value i.e. (1, 3, 7) and (1, 1, 21).
For the two combinations, the sum of the ages is 11 and 23 respectively.
Hence, option 4.
25. Each question is followed by two statements, A and B. Select the correct
3 Marks option based on the following instructions:
Mark (1) if the question can be answered by one of the statements, but not by
the other.
Mark (2) if the question can be answered by using
either statement, independently of the other.
Mark (3) if the question can be answered by using both statements together,
but not by either statement alone.
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A. One unit of the type A widget requires 2 machine hours and one unit of the type B
widget requires 4 machine hours.
B. The widget dealer wants to supply at least 10 units of type A widget per week and he
would not accept less than 15 units of type B widget.
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
Solution:
Let the number of type A and type B widgets be a and b respectively.
One type A widget requires 2 machine hours while one type B widget requires
4 machine hours.
∴ 2a + 4b = 80
Since this is a linear equation in two variables, the value of a and b cannot be
found.
a ≥ 10 and b ≥ 15
If the dealer makes the minimum number of widgets of each type, the time
that will be taken is:
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Hence, option 3.
26. Each question is followed by two statements, A and B. Select the correct
3 Marks option based on the following instructions:
Mark (1) if the question can be answered by one of the statements, but not by
the other.
Mark (2) if the question can be answered by using
either statement, independently of the other.
Mark (3) if the question can be answered by using both statements together,
but not by either statement alone.
Mark (4) if the question cannot be answered by either of the statements.
What is the area of a regular hexagon?
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
Solution:
Using Statement A alone:
One the side of a regular hexagon is known, the area can be easily found.
For any regular hexagon, the area is always 6 times the area of an equilateral
triangle formed on one of the sides of the hexagon.
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Thus, this information does not provide the area of the hexagon.
Thus, the question can be answered using statement A alone but not by
using statement B alone.
Thus, the question can be answered by one of the statements but not by the
other.
Hence, option 1.
27. Each question is followed by two statements, A and B. Select the correct
3 Marks option based on the following instructions:
Mark (1) if the question can be answered by one of the statements, but not by
the other.
Mark (2) if the question can be answered by using
either statement, independently of the other.
Mark (3) if the question can be answered by using both statements together,
but not by either statement alone.
Mark (4) if the question cannot be answered by either of the statements.
What is the price of one kg mangoes?
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
Solution:
Let the cost of one kg mangoes be x and the cost of one dozen oranges be y.
10x + 2y = 252
Since this is a single linear equation in two variables, the value of x and y
cannot be found.
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2x = y
This is a single linear equation in two variables and so the value of x and y
cannot be calculated.
∴ 14x = 252
∴ x = 18
Thus, the question can be answered using both the statements together but
not by using either statement alone.
Hence, option 3.
28. Each question is followed by two statements, A and B. Select the correct
3 Marks option based on the following instructions:
Mark (1) if the question can be answered by one of the statements, but not by
the other.
Mark (2) if the question can be answered by using
either statement, independently of the other.
Mark (3) if the question can be answered by using both statements together,
but not by either statement alone.
Mark (4) if the question cannot be answered by either of the statements.
Is the distance from the office to home less than the distance from the cinema
hall to home?
A. The time taken to travel from home to the office is as much as the time taken from
home to the cinema hall, both distances being covered without stopping.
B. The road from the cinema hall to home is bad and the speed reduces as compared to
that on the road from home to the office.
1) 1
2) 2
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3) 3
4) 4
Solution:
Using Statement A alone:
The time from home to office = time from home to cinema hall.
Since the relationship between the two speeds is not given, the two distances
cannot be compared.
Speed from cinema hall to home < speed from home to office.
Since the relationship betwen the time taken on these two stretches is not
known, the two distances cannot be compared.
Since time is constant, and the speed from home to the cinema hall is less
than the speed from home to the office, the distance from home to the
cinema hall is less than the distance from home to office.
Thus, the question can be answered by using both the statements together
but not by using either statement alone.
Hence, option 3.
29. Each question is followed by two statements, A and B. Select the correct
3 Marks option based on the following instructions:
Mark (1) if the question can be answered by one of the statements, but not by
the other.
Mark (2) if the question can be answered by using
either statement, independently of the other.
Mark (3) if the question can be answered by using both statements together,
but not by either statement alone.
Mark (4) if the question cannot be answered by either of the statements.
If twenty sweets are distributed among some boys and girls such that each
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girl gets two sweets and each boy gets three sweets, what is the number of
boys and girls?
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
Solution:
Let the number of boys and girls be B and G respectively.
2G + 3B = 20
G≤5
If G = 1, B = 6
If G = 4, B = 4
3G + 2B = 20
∴ 2G + 3B = 3G + 2B
∴G=B
Thus, the question can be answered using statement B alone but not by
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Thus, the question can be answered by one the statements but not by the
other.
Hence, option 1.
30. Each question is followed by two statements, A and B. Select the correct
3 Marks option based on the following instructions:
Mark (1) if the question can be answered by one of the statements, but not by
the other.
Mark (2) if the question can be answered by using
either statement, independently of the other.
Mark (3) if the question can be answered by using both statements together,
but not by either statement alone.
Mark (4) if the question cannot be answered by either of the statements.
If the selling price were to be increased by 10%, the sales would reduce by
10%. In what ratio would the profits change?
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
Solution:
If the original selling price is S and the sales is V, the total revenue is SV.
When the selling price becomes 1.1s and the sales reduce to 0.9V, the total
revenue is 0.99SV.
Hence, the old profit is SV − CV and the new profit is 0.99SV − 0.9CV.
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Thus, the question can be answered using statement B alone but not by
using statement A alone.
Thus, the question can be answered by one of the statements but not by the
other.
Hence, option 1.
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Section I
Mark (1) if the question can be answered by one of the statements, but not by
the other.
Mark (2) if the question can be answered by using
either statement, independently of the other.
Mark (3) if the question can be answered by using both statements together,
but not by either statement alone.
Mark (4) if the question cannot be answered by either of the statements.
Is segment PQ greater than segment RS?
A. PB > RE, BQ = ES
B. B is a point on PQ and E is a point on RS.
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
Solution:
Using Statement A alone:
PB + BQ > RE + ES
∴ PQ > RS
Since it is not known if B and E are on those segments, the above conclusion
may or may not be true.
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Thus, the question can be answered using both the statements together, but
not by using either statement alone.
Hence, option 3.
Mark (1) if the question can be answered by one of the statements, but not by
the other.
Mark (2) if the question can be answered by using
either statement, independently of the other.
Mark (3) if the question can be answered by using both statements together,
but not by either statement alone.
Mark (4) if the question cannot be answered by either of the statements.
Three boys had a few Coffee Bite toffees with them. The number of toffees
with the second boy was four more than those with the first and the number
of toffees with the third boy was four more than those with the second. How
many toffees were there in all?
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
Solution:
Let the number of toffees with the 1st, 2nd and the 3rd boy be (n − 4), n and (n
+ 4) respectively.
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The first, second and third boy now have (n − 8), (n − 6) and n toffees
respectively.
∴ (n − 6)2 = n(n − 8)
∴n=9
Thus, the question can be answered using statement B alone but not by
using statement A alone.
Thus, the question can be answered by one the statements but not by the
other.
Hence, option 1.
Mark (1) if the question can be answered by one of the statements, but not by
the other.
Mark (2) if the question can be answered by using
either statement, independently of the other.
Mark (3) if the question can be answered by using both statements together,
but not by either statement alone.
Mark (4) if the question cannot be answered by either of the statements.
Little Beau Peep lost her sheep. She couldn’t remember how many were
there. She knew that in the next year she would have 400 more sheep than
the number she had last year. How many sheep were there?
A. The number of sheep last year was 20% more than the year before that and this
simple rate of increase continued to be the same for the next 10 years.
B. The increase is compounded annually.
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
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Solution:
Let the number of sheep last year be x.
Since the number of sheep grows by 20% every year, the number of sheep
this year is 1.2x and the number of sheep next year is 1.44x.
∴ 1.44x = x + 400
∴ x = 909
Thus, the question can be answered using statement A alone but not by
using statament B alone.
Thus, the question can be answered by one the statements but not by the
other.
Hence, option 1.
Mark (1) if the question can be answered by one of the statements, but not by
the other.
Mark (2) if the question can be answered by using
either statement, independently of the other.
Mark (3) if the question can be answered by using both statements together,
but not by either statement alone.
Mark (4) if the question cannot be answered by either of the statements.
What will the total cost of creating a one foot border of tiles along the inside
edges of a room be?
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1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
Solution:
Using Statement A alone:
Since the dimensions of the room and that of each tile are not known, the
total tiling cost cannot be found.
Since the dimensions of an individual tile are not known, the total tiling cost
cannot be found.
Hence, option 4.
Mark (1) if the question can be answered by one of the statements, but not by
the other.
Mark (2) if the question can be answered by using
either statement, independently of the other.
Mark (3) if the question can be answered by using both statements together,
but not by either statement alone.
Mark (4) if the question cannot be answered by either of the statements.
Ten boys go to a neighbouring orchard. Each boy steals a few mangoes.
What is the total number of mangoes that they steal?
A. The first boy steals 4 mangoes, the fourth boy steals 16 mangoes, the eighth boy
steals 32 mangoes and the tenth boy steals 40 mangoes.
B. The first boy stole the minimum number of mangoes and the tenth boy stole the
maximum number of mangoes.
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1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
Solution:
Using Statement A alone:
From the statement, it is possible that the number of mangoes stolen by the
nth peron is 4n.
However, it is not given that the number of mangoes stolen forms a series.
Thus, the remaining 6 boys could have stolen any number of mangoes.
This does not provide any useful information regarding number of mangoes
stolen.
Hence, option 4.
Mark (1) if the question can be answered by one of the statements, but not by
the other.
Mark (2) if the question can be answered by using
either statement, independently of the other.
Mark (3) if the question can be answered by using both statements together,
but not by either statement alone.
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A. xyz is odd.
B. xy + yz + zx is even.
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
Solution:
Using Statement A alone:
If x is even and y is even, then even if z is odd or even, the given sum is even.
Thus, the question can be answered using statement A alone but not by
using statement B alone.
Thus, the question can be answered by one of the statements but not by the
other.
Hence, option 1.
Mark (1) if the question can be answered by one of the statements, but not by
the other.
Mark (2) if the question can be answered by using
either statement, independently of the other.
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Mark (3) if the question can be answered by using both statements together,
but not by either statement alone.
Mark (4) if the question cannot be answered by either of the statements.
What is the value of x, if x and y are consecutive positive even integers?
A. (x − y)2 = 4
B. (x + y)2 < 100
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
Solution:
Since x and y are consecutive positive even integers, x − y = ± 2
Considering the equation obtained from the data given in the question, this
statement will always be true for any x and y that satisfy the above equation.
(4 + 6)2 = 100
However, it has been mentioned whether x is the greater or the lesser of the
two integers.
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Since statement A does not provide any additional data, this is the same as
using statement B alone.
Hence, option 4.
Mark (1) if the question can be answered by one of the statements, but not by
the other.
Mark (2) if the question can be answered by using
either statement, independently of the other.
Mark (3) if the question can be answered by using both statements together,
but not by either statement alone.
Mark (4) if the question cannot be answered by either of the statements.
What is the profit percent?
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
Solution:
Using Statement A alone:
Though the profit is known, the cost price or selling price is not known.
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Thus, the question can be answered using statement A alone but not by
using statement B alone.
Thus, the question can be answered by one of the statements but not by the
other.
Hence, option 1.
Mark (1) if the question can be answered by one of the statements, but not by
the other.
Mark (2) if the question can be answered by using
either statement, independently of the other.
Mark (3) if the question can be answered by using both statements together,
but not by either statement alone.
Mark (4) if the question cannot be answered by either of the statements.
What is the area of the triangle?
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
Solution:
Using Statement A alone:
Though two sides are known, the third side or the angle between these two
sides is not known.
The area of a triangle cannot be found just using the altitude to a side, unless
the triangle is equilateral in nature.
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Once both the statements are combined, the triangle can be drawn as shown
below.
Hence,
Thus, the question can be answered using both the statements together but
not by using either statement alone.
Hence, option 3.
10. Each question is followed by two statements, A and B. Select the correct
3 Marks option based on the following instructions:
Mark (1) if the question can be answered by one of the statements, but not by
the other.
Mark (2) if the question can be answered by using
either statement, independently of the other.
Mark (3) if the question can be answered by using both statements together,
but not by either statement alone.
Mark (4) if the question cannot be answered by either of the statements.
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1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
Solution:
Using Statement A alone:
Let the price of one banana be Rs. x and the price of an orange be Rs. y.
∴ 14x + 35y = 84
∴ 2x + 5y = 12
It is not given that the price of the banana or orange needs to be an integer.
Hence, one banana costs Rs. 0.25 as per the new price.
Thus, the question can be answered using statement B alone but not by
using statement A alone.
Thus, the question can be answered by one statement but not by the other.
Hence, option 1.
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11. Each question is followed by two statements, A and B. Select the correct
3 Marks option based on the following instructions:
Mark (1) if the question can be answered by one of the statements, but not by
the other.
Mark (2) if the question can be answered by using
either statement, independently of the other.
Mark (3) if the question can be answered by using both statements together,
but not by either statement alone.
Mark (4) if the question cannot be answered by either of the statements.
What is the perimeter of the rectangle ABCD?
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
Solution:
Using Statement A alone:
Multiple combinations such as (1, 48), (2, 24), (3, 16), (4, 12), (6, 8) are
possible.
Let l and b denote length and breadth of the given rectangle respectively.
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lb = 48 and l2 + b2 = 100
∴ (l − b) = 2
∴ (l + b) = 14
∴ l = 8, b = 6
Thus, the question can be answered using both the statements together but
not by using either statement alone.
Hence, option 3.
12. Each question is followed by two statements, A and B. Select the correct
3 Marks option based on the following instructions:
Mark (1) if the question can be answered by one of the statements, but not by
the other.
Mark (2) if the question can be answered by using
either statement, independently of the other.
Mark (3) if the question can be answered by using both statements together,
but not by either statement alone.
Mark (4) if the question cannot be answered by either of the statements.
What is the number x?
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
Solution:
Using Statement A alone:
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HCF of x and 18 is 2.
and so on.
x × 18 = 36 × 2
∴ x = 72/18 = 4
Thus, the question can be answered using both the statements together but
not by using either statement alone.
Hence, option 3.
13. Each question is followed by two statements, A and B. Select the correct
3 Marks option based on the following instructions:
Mark (1) if the question can be answered by one of the statements, but not by
the other.
Mark (2) if the question can be answered by using
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A. x + y + t is even.
B. tz is odd.
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
Solution:
Using Statement A alone:
x + y + t is even.
tz is odd.
Thus, the question can be answered using both the statements together but
not by using either statement alone.
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Hence, option 3.
14. Each question is followed by two statements, A and B. Select the correct
3 Marks option based on the following instructions:
Mark (1) if the question can be answered by one of the statements, but not by
the other.
Mark (2) if the question can be answered by using
either statement, independently of the other.
Mark (3) if the question can be answered by using both statements together,
but not by either statement alone.
Mark (4) if the question cannot be answered by either of the statements.
A tractor travelled a distance of 5 m. What is the radius of the rear wheel?
A. The front wheel rotates ‘N’ times more than the rear wheel over this distance.
B. The circumference of the rear wheel is ‘t’ times that of the front wheel.
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
Solution:
Using Statement A alone:
This simply means that the front wheel is smaller than the rear wheel.
Since the value of N and the radius of the front wheel is not known, the
radius of the rear wheel cannot be found.
Since the value of t is not known, the two wheels cannot be compared.
Even when the two statements are combined, no numerical value is known.
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Hence, option 4.
15. Each question is followed by two statements, A and B. Select the correct
3 Marks option based on the following instructions:
Mark (1) if the question can be answered by one of the statements, but not by
the other.
Mark (2) if the question can be answered by using
either statement, independently of the other.
Mark (3) if the question can be answered by using both statements together,
but not by either statement alone.
Mark (4) if the question cannot be answered by either of the statements.
What is the ratio of the two liquids A and B in the mixture finally, if these two
liquids kept in three vessels are mixed together? (The containers are of equal
volume).
A. The ratios of liquid A to liquid B in the first and second vessels is 3 : 5 and 2 : 3
respectively.
B. The ratio of liquid A to liquid B in vessel 3 is 4 : 3.
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
Solution:
Using Statement A alone:
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The ratio in which the liquids from the three vessels are taken is not known.
Hence, option 4.
16. Each question is followed by two statements, A and B. Select the correct
3 Marks option based on the following instructions:
Mark (1) if the question can be answered by one of the statements, but not by
the other.
Mark (2) if the question can be answered by using
either statement, independently of the other.
Mark (3) if the question can be answered by using both statements together,
but not by either statement alone.
Mark (4) if the question cannot be answered by either of the statements.
If α, β are the roots of the equation ax2 + bx + c = 0, then what is the value of
(α2 + β2)?
A. α + β = (−b/a)
B. αβ = c/a
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
Solution:
Using Statement A alone:
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Thus, the question can be answered using both the statements together but
not by using either statement alone.
Hence, option 3.
17. Each question is followed by two statements, A and B. Select the correct
3 Marks option based on the following instructions:
Mark (1) if the question can be answered by one of the statements, but not by
the other.
Mark (2) if the question can be answered by using
either statement, independently of the other.
Mark (3) if the question can be answered by using both statements together,
but not by either statement alone.
Mark (4) if the question cannot be answered by either of the statements.
What is the cost price of the article?
A. After selling the article, a loss of 25% is incurred on the cost price.
B. The selling price is three-fourths of the cost price.
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
Solution:
Using Statement A alone:
Since neither the selling price nor the loss is known, the cost price cannot be
found.
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Since neither the selling price nor the loss is known, the cost price cannot be
found.
Since both the statements provide the same information, the cost price
cannot be found.
Hence, option 4.
18. Each question is followed by two statements, A and B. Select the correct
3 Marks option based on the following instructions:
Mark (1) if the question can be answered by one of the statements, but not by
the other.
Mark (2) if the question can be answered by using
either statement, independently of the other.
Mark (3) if the question can be answered by using both statements together,
but not by either statement alone.
Mark (4) if the question cannot be answered by either of the statements.
What is the Selling Price of the article?
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
Solution:
Using Statement A alone:
The profit on sales is 20%, but the actual profit is not known.
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Thus, the question can be answered using statement B alone but not by
using statement A alone.
Thus, the question can be answered by one of the statements but not by the
other.
Hence, option 1.
19. Each question is followed by two statements, A and B. Select the correct
3 Marks option based on the following instructions:
Mark (1) if the question can be answered by one of the statements, but not by
the other.
Mark (2) if the question can be answered by using
either statement, independently of the other.
Mark (3) if the question can be answered by using both statements together,
but not by either statement alone.
Mark (4) if the question cannot be answered by either of the statements.
How many different triangles can be formed?
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
Solution:
Using Statement A alone:
The number of parallel lines among the 16 given and the number of
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Since the number of lines is not known, the number of triangles cannot be
found.
(i) If all lines intersect at the same point, then no triangle can be formed.
(ii) If all the lines intersect at different points, then several triangles can be
formed, the number of which depends on the number of intersection points.
Hence, option 4.
20. Each question is followed by two statements, A and B. Select the correct
3 Marks option based on the following instructions:
Mark (1) if the question can be answered by one of the statements, but not by
the other.
Mark (2) if the question can be answered by using
either statement, independently of the other.
Mark (3) if the question can be answered by using both statements together,
but not by either statement alone.
Mark (4) if the question cannot be answered by either of the statements.
What is the total worth of Lakhiram’s assets?
1) 1
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2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
Solution:
Using Statement A alone:
Also, it is not known if this year is the first year of the interest or not. Since
this is a case of compound interest, the interest will change every year.
Whether the interest of 10% is on a per annum or half yearly or quarter yearly
basis is still not known.
Also, it is not known whether the given year is this year or not.
Hence, option 4.
21. Each question is followed by two statements, A and B. Select the correct
3 Marks option based on the following instructions:
Mark (1) if the question can be answered by one of the statements, but not by
the other.
Mark (2) if the question can be answered by using
either statement, independently of the other.
Mark (3) if the question can be answered by using both statements together,
but not by either statement alone.
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A. Sachin is 11 years younger than Anil whose age will be a prime number in 1998.
B. Anil’s age was a prime number in 1996.
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
Solution:
Using Statement A alone:
Anil’s age could be any prime number greater than 11 (13, 17, 19, 23, 29 ...)
in 1998.
Anil’s age is a prime number in 1996 and 1998, thus his age in those two
years could be 11 and 13, 17 and 19, 29 and 31 and so on.
Thus, Sachin’s age in 1997 can have multiple possible values and so cannot
be uniquely determined.
Hence, option 4.
22. Each question is followed by two statements, A and B. Select the correct
3 Marks option based on the following instructions:
Mark (1) if the question can be answered by one of the statements, but not by
the other.
Mark (2) if the question can be answered by using
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A. If the production of type-1 widgets increases by 10% and that of type-2 decreases by
6%, the total production remains the same.
B. The ratio in which type-1 and type-2 widgets are produced is 2 : 1.
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
Solution:
Using Statement A alone:
Since the original production of any one type of widget is not known, the
number of type-2 widgets cannot be found.
Also, it is not known if there are any types of widgets also being
manufactured.
It is not known if there are other types of widgets also being manufactured.
Even when the statements are combined, it is not known whether there are
other types of widgets produced.
Hence, option 4.
23. Each question is followed by two statements, A and B. Select the correct
3 Marks
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Mark (1) if the question can be answered by one of the statements, but not by
the other.
Mark (2) if the question can be answered by using
either statement, independently of the other.
Mark (3) if the question can be answered by using both statements together,
but not by either statement alone.
Mark (4) if the question cannot be answered by either of the statements.
A. a 2 + b2 = 22
B. ab = 3
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
Solution:
a3 + b3 = (a + b)(a2 − ab + b2)
Since the value of a + b and ab is not known, the required value cannot be
found.
Since the value of a + b and a2 + b2 is not known, the required value cannot
be found.
(a + b)2 = a2 + b2 + 2ab
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Hence, option 4.
From either statement I alone or statement II alone, we cannot find the values
of a and b for there is only one equation in each statement and there are two
unknowns.
a2 + b2 = 22 …(i)
ab = 3 …(ii)
Solving equation (iii) will give us more than one value for a.
Hence, the combination of statements I and II also will not give us a unique
solution.
Hence, option 4.
24. Each question is followed by two statements, A and B. Select the correct
3 Marks option based on the following instructions:
Mark (1) if the question can be answered by one of the statements, but not by
the other.
Mark (2) if the question can be answered by using
either statement, independently of the other.
Mark (3) if the question can be answered by using both statements together,
but not by either statement alone.
Mark (4) if the question cannot be answered by either of the statements.
Is the three digit number completely divisible by 99?
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1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
Solution:
Using Statement A alone:
If the number obtained by reversing the digits is divisible by 99, then the
original number is also divisible by 99.
z + y + x is the same as x + y + z.
∴ x + y + z = 9n.
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Hence, option 2.
25. Each question is followed by two statements, A and B. Select the correct
3 Marks option based on the following instructions:
Mark (1) if the question can be answered by one of the statements, but not by
the other.
Mark (2) if the question can be answered by using
either statement, independently of the other.
Mark (3) if the question can be answered by using both statements together,
but not by either statement alone.
Mark (4) if the question cannot be answered by either of the statements.
A person is walking from Mali to Pali, which lies to its North-East. What is the
distance between Mali and Pali?
A. When the person has covered 1/3rd of the distance, he is 3 km East and 1 km North
of Mali.
B. When the person has covered 2/3rd of the distance, he is 6 km East and 2 km North
of Mali.
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
Solution:
Using Statement A alone:
Since the person is 3 km East and 1 km North of Mali, the distance between
this point and the starting point can be found using Pythagoras Theorem.
Since the person is 6 km East and 2 km North of Mali, the distance between
this point and the starting point can be found using Pythagoras Theorem.
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Hence, option 2.
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Section I
Mark (1) if the question can be answered by one of the statements, but not by
the other.
Mark (2) if the question can be answered by using
either statement, independently of the other.
Mark (3) if the question can be answered by using both statements together,
but not by either statement alone.
Mark (4) if the question cannot be answered by either of the statements.
What is the value of x and y?
A. 3x + 2y = 45
B. 10.5x + 7y = 157.5
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
Solution:
Using Statement A alone:
3x + 2y = 45.
Since this is a single equation in two variables, the value of x and y cannot be
found.
10.5x + 7y = 157.5.
Since this is a single equation in two variables, the value of x and y cannot be
found.
The second equation, if divided by 3.5 gives the same co-efficients as the first
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equation.
Thus, the two equations cannot be solved to get a value for x and y.
Hence, option 4.
Mark (1) if the question can be answered by one of the statements, but not by
the other.
Mark (2) if the question can be answered by using
either statement, independently of the other.
Mark (3) if the question can be answered by using both statements together,
but not by either statement alone.
Mark (4) if the question cannot be answered by either of the statements.
Three friends, P, Q and R are wearing hats, either black or white. Each
person can see the hats of the other two persons. What is the colour of P’s
hat?
A. P says that he can see one black hat and one white hat.
B. Q says that he can see one white hat and one black hat.
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
Solution:
Using Statement A alone:
Since the number of black and white hats in all is not specified, the colour of
P's hat cannot be determined.
Since the number of black and white hats in all is not specified, the colour of
P's hat cannot be determined.
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Hence, option 4.
Mark (1) if the question can be answered by one of the statements, but not by
the other.
Mark (2) if the question can be answered by using
either statement, independently of the other.
Mark (3) if the question can be answered by using both statements together,
but not by either statement alone.
Mark (4) if the question cannot be answered by either of the statements.
What is the speed of the car?
A. The speed of the car is 10 kmph more than that of the motor-cycle.
B. The motor-cycle takes 2 hours more than the car to cover 100 km.
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
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Solution:
Let the speed of the car and the motor-cycle be c and m kmph respectively.
c = m + 10
Since the speed of the motor-cycle or the time required to cover a constant
distance is not known, the speed of the car cannot be calculated.
(100/m) − (100/c) = 2
Since the speed of the motor-cycle is not known, the speed of the car cannot
be calculated.
c = m + 10 …(i)
c2 − 10c – 500 = 0
Solving the above quadratic question, you get a unique answer for c.
Thus, the question can be answered using both the statements together but
not by using either statement alone.
Hence, option 3.
Mark (1) if the question can be answered by one of the statements, but not by
the other.
Mark (2) if the question can be answered by using
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A. The chair and the table are sold, respectively, at profits of 15% and 20%.
B. If the cost price of the chair is increased by 10% and that of the table is increased by
20%, the profit reduces by Rs.20.
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
Solution:
Using Statement A alone:
Though the profit percentages are known, neither the actual profit nor the
actual selling price is known.
Hence, option 4.
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Mark (1) if the question can be answered by one of the statements, but not by
the other.
Mark (2) if the question can be answered by using
either statement, independently of the other.
Mark (3) if the question can be answered by using both statements together,
but not by either statement alone.
Mark (4) if the question cannot be answered by either of the statements.
After what time will the two persons, Tez and Gati, meet while moving around
the circular track? Both of them start at the same point and at the same time.
A. Tez moves at a constant speed of 5 m/s, while Gati starts at a speed of 2 m/s and
increases his speed by 0.5 m/s at the end of every second thereafter.
B. Gati can complete one entire round in exactly 10 seconds.
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
Solution:
Using Statement A alone:
Since the circumference of the track is not known, the time cannot be
calculated.
Since the circumference of the track is not known, the time cannot be
calculated.
However, the direction in which both of them are moving is not known.
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Hence, option 4.
Mark (1) if the question can be answered by one of the statements, but not by
the other.
Mark (2) if the question can be answered by using
either statement, independently of the other.
Mark (3) if the question can be answered by using both statements together,
but not by either statement alone.
Mark (4) if the question cannot be answered by either of the statements.
In the figure below, if ∠YBC = ∠CAX = ∠YOX = 90°, then find the length of
AB.
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
Solution:
OC is the radius of the quarter circle.
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Thus, the question can be answered by using one of the statement, but not
by other.
Hence, option 1.
Mark (1) if the question can be answered by one of the statements, but not by
the other.
Mark (2) if the question can be answered by using
either statement, independently of the other.
Mark (3) if the question can be answered by using both statements together,
but not by either statement alone.
Mark (4) if the question cannot be answered by either of the statements.
Is n odd?
A. n is divisible by 5, 7 and 9.
B. 0 < n < 400
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
Solution:
Using Statement A alone:
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When both the statements are combined, there can be only one possible
value of n.
∴ n = 315.
Thus, n is odd.
Thus, the question can be answered using both the statements together but
not by using either statement alone.
Hence, option 3.
Mark (1) if the question can be answered by one of the statements, but not by
the other.
Mark (2) if the question can be answered by using
either statement, independently of the other.
Mark (3) if the question can be answered by using both statements together,
but not by either statement alone.
Mark (4) if the question cannot be answered by either of the statements.
A.
B.
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1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
Solution:
Using Statement A alone:
Thus, the question can be answered using statement B alone but not by
using statement A alone.
Thus, the question can be answered by one of the statements but not by the
other.
Hence, option 1.
Mark (1) if the question can be answered by one of the statements, but not by
the other.
Mark (2) if the question can be answered by using
either statement, independently of the other.
Mark (3) if the question can be answered by using both statements together,
but not by either statement alone.
Mark (4) if the question cannot be answered by either of the statements.
Radha and Rani appeared for an examination. What was the total number of
questions?
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1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
Solution:
Using Statement A alone:
Radha and Rani together solved 8x questions and so the total number of
questions is 40x.
Hence, option 4.
10. Each question is followed by two statements, A and B. Select the correct
3 Marks option based on the following instructions:
Mark (1) if the question can be answered by one of the statements, but not by
the other.
Mark (2) if the question can be answered by using
either statement, independently of the other.
Mark (3) if the question can be answered by using both statements together,
but not by either statement alone.
Mark (4) if the question cannot be answered by either of the statements.
What is the value of a?
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1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
Solution:
Using Statement A alone:
Hence, option 4.
11. Each question is followed by two statements, A and B. Select the correct
3 Marks option based on the following instructions:
Mark (1) if the question can be answered by one of the statements, but not by
the other.
Mark (2) if the question can be answered by using
either statement, independently of the other.
Mark (3) if the question can be answered by using both statements together,
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A. Each girl was given 50 paisa, while each boy was given 25 paisa to purchase goods
totalling Rs. 49.
B. Girls and boys were given 30 paisa each to buy goods totalling Rs. 45.
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
Solution:
Let the number of boys and girls be respectively b and g.
0.3b + 0.3g = 45
Thus, the question can be answered using statement A alone but not by
using statement B alone.
Thus, the question can be answered by one of the statements but not by the
other.
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Hence, option 1.
12. Each question is followed by two statements, A and B. Select the correct
3 Marks option based on the following instructions:
Mark (1) if the question can be answered by one of the statements, but not by
the other.
Mark (2) if the question can be answered by using
either statement, independently of the other.
Mark (3) if the question can be answered by using both statements together,
but not by either statement alone.
Mark (4) if the question cannot be answered by either of the statements.
There are four envelope E1, E2, E3, E4 in which one was supposed to put
letters L1, L2, L3, L4 meant for persons C1, C2, C3, C4 respectively but by
mistake the letters got jumbled up and went in wrong envelopes. Now if C2 is
allowed to open an envelope at random, then how will he identify the
envelope containing the letter for him?
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
Solution:
Using Statement A alone:
If L2 is put in E1, then C2 will know that his letter is in the envelop E1.
If the letter L3 is put in E3, the other three letters can go into any of the three
remaining envelopes.
Thus, the question can be answered using statement A alone but not by
using statement B alone.
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Thus, the question can be answered by one of the statements but not by the
other.
Hence, option 1.
13. Each question is followed by two statements, A and B. Select the correct
3 Marks option based on the following instructions:
Mark (1) if the question can be answered by one of the statements, but not by
the other.
Mark (2) if the question can be answered by using
either statement, independently of the other.
Mark (3) if the question can be answered by using both statements together,
but not by either statement alone.
Mark (4) if the question cannot be answered by either of the statements.
There are four racks numbered 1, 2, 3, 4 and four books numbered 1, 2, 3, 4.
If an even numbered rack has to contain an odd numbered book and an odd
numbered rack contains an even numbered book then what is the position of
book 4?
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
Solution:
An odd numbered rack has to contain an even numbered book and vice
versa.
Since the second book is in the third rack, the fourth book can only be in the
first rack.
The fourth book cab in either the first or third rack. It's exact position cannot
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be found.
Thus, the question can be answered using statement A alone but not by
using statement B alone.
Thus, the question can be answered by one of the statements but not by the
other.
Hence, option 1.
14. Each question is followed by two statements, A and B. Select the correct
3 Marks option based on the following instructions:
Mark (1) if the question can be answered by one of the statements, but not by
the other.
Mark (2) if the question can be answered by using
either statement, independently of the other.
Mark (3) if the question can be answered by using both statements together,
but not by either statement alone.
Mark (4) if the question cannot be answered by either of the statements.
What is the value of X in terms of a?
B.
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
Solution:
Using Statement A alone:
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Thus, the question can be answered using statement A alone but not by
using statement B alone.
Thus, the question can be answered by one of the statements but not by the
other.
Hence, option 1.
15. Each question is followed by two statements, A and B. Select the correct
3 Marks option based on the following instructions:
Mark (1) if the question can be answered by one of the statements, but not by
the other.
Mark (2) if the question can be answered by using
either statement, independently of the other.
Mark (3) if the question can be answered by using both statements together,
but not by either statement alone.
Mark (4) if the question cannot be answered by either of the statements.
Two concentric circles C1 and C2 have radii r1 and r2. If C1 fully encloses C2,
what is the radius of C1?
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
Solution:
r1 > r2
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Thus, the question can be answered using both the statements together but
not by using either statement alone.
Hence, option 3.
16. Each question is followed by two statements, A and B. Select the correct
3 Marks option based on the following instructions:
Mark (1) if the question can be answered by one of the statements, but not by
the other.
Mark (2) if the question can be answered by using
either statement, independently of the other.
Mark (3) if the question can be answered by using both statements together,
but not by either statement alone.
Mark (4) if the question cannot be answered by either of the statements.
A circle circumscribes a square. What is the area of the square?
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
Solution:
Using Statement A alone:
The diameter of the circle is the same as the diagonal of the square.
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Since the radius of the circle is given, the diameter of the circle and
consequently, the diagonal of the square can be found.
Using this, the side of the square and the area of the square can be found.
The distance between the tangent and the centre of the circle is nothing but
the radius of the circle.
Once the radius of the circle is known, one can find the side of the square
and the area of the square.
Hence, option 2.
17. Each question is followed by two statements, A and B. Select the correct
3 Marks option based on the following instructions:
Mark (1) if the question can be answered by one of the statements, but not by
the other.
Mark (2) if the question can be answered by using
either statement, independently of the other.
Mark (3) if the question can be answered by using both statements together,
but not by either statement alone.
Mark (4) if the question cannot be answered by either of the statements.
The average weight of students in a class is 50 kg. What is the number of
students in the class?
A. The heaviest and the lightest members of the class weigh 60 kg and 40 kg
respectively.
B. Exclusion of the heaviest and the lightest members from the class does not change
the average weight of the student.
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
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Solution:
Let the number of students in the class be n. Thus, the total weight of the
students is 50n.
The weight of the remaining n − 2 students is 50n − 100. Thus, the average is
still 50.
Hence, option 4.
18. Each question is followed by two statements, A and B. Select the correct
3 Marks option based on the following instructions:
Mark (1) if the question can be answered by one of the statements, but not by
the other.
Mark (2) if the question can be answered by using
either statement, independently of the other.
Mark (3) if the question can be answered by using both statements together,
but not by either statement alone.
Mark (4) if the question cannot be answered by either of the statements.
A small storage tank is spherical in shape. What is the storage volume of the
tank?
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Section I
[CAT 2000]
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
Solution:
From statement A, there are four possibilities.
X>Y>Z
X>Z>Y
Z>X>Y
Y>X>Z
Y>X>Z
Y>Z>X
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X>Y>Z
Z>Y>X
Hence, option 3.
A. X(X + 3) < 0
B. X(X – 3) > 0
[CAT 2000]
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
Solution:
From statement A
X (X + 3) < 0
∴ –3 < X < 0
∴ |X| < 3
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From statement B
X(X – 3) > 0
X < 0 or X > 3
Hence, option 1.
[CAT 2000]
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
Solution:
From Statement A
Q = 1000
P ∩ Q = 100
This doesn’t gives any information regarding how many people are watching
TV programme P
From Statement B
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P ∪ Q = 1500
∴P∪Q=P+Q−P∩Q
∴ P = 600
Hence, option 3.
Alternatively
By combining both the statements together we can arrive at the above Venn
diagram which gives the number of people watching programme P.
Hence, option 3.
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RQ?
[CAT 2000]
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
Solution:
From statement A
PF = PR – FR = PR – OD = PR – 5
QD = QR – DR = QR – OF = QR – 5
∵ PE = PF and QE = QD
∴ PE = PR – 5 and QE = QR – 5
∴ PQ = PE + QE = PR – 5 + QR – 5
∴ PR + QR = PQ + 10
From Statement B
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∴ PQ = 26
∴ PR + QR = PQ + 10 = 26 + 10 = 36
Hence, option 3.
A. The sales price per share was 1.05 times that of its purchase price.
B. The number of shares purchased was 100.
[CAT 2000]
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
Solution:
From Statement A
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CP + 0.01 CP = 1.01 CP
SP – 0.01 SP = 0.99 SP
= 0.99 SP – 1.01 CP
∵ SP = 1.05 CP
= 0.0295 CP
Hence, option 1.
A. a ⊕ b is zero if a is zero.
B. a ⊕ b = b ⊕ a
[CAT 2000]
1) 1
2) 2
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3) 3
4) 4
Solution:
(2 ⊕ 0) ⊕ (–5 ⊕ –6)
= (2 ⊕ 0) ⊕ 1
From statement A
From statement B
(2 ⊕ 0) = (0 ⊕ 2)
(2 ⊕ 0) = (0 ⊕ 2) = 0
∴ (2 ⊕ 0) ⊕ (–5 ⊕ –6)
= (2 ⊕ 0) ⊕ 1
=0⊕1
=0
Hence, option 3.
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There are two straight lines in the x-y plane with equations ax + by = c , dx +
ey = f. Do the two straight lines intersect?
[CAT 2000]
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
Solution:
Statement A implies that a, b, c, d, e, f are distinct real numbers.
Even after combining both the statements the above condition is not clear.
Hence, option 4.
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A. bc/cd = 1
B. A third circle intersects the inner circle at b and d and the point c is on the line
joining the centres of the third circle and the inner circle.
[CAT 2000]
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
Solution:
From statement A
bc = cd
∴ ac = ce
From Statement B
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If c is the point on the line joining the two centres, it has to bisect the chord
bd.
∴ ac = ce
Hence, option 2.
[CAT 2000]
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
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4) 4
Solution:
By combining both the statements we can get the duration of the flight. But
for the arrival time we should have the information regarding the time zone
difference of Mumbai and No man’s land.
Hence, option 4.
10. Choose 1; if the question can be answered by using one of the statements
3 Marks alone, but cannot be answered using the other statement alone.
[CAT 2000]
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
Solution:
From statement A
X–Y=6
From statement B
XY is divisible by 6.
∵ There are many possible values for example (12, 6), (18, 12), (24, 18) ...
Hence, option 4.
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11. Choose 1; if the question can be answered by using one of the statements
3 Marks alone, but cannot be answered using the other statement alone.
[CAT 2001]
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
Solution:
Statement A doesn’t provide any specific values of m and n.
m × n = 30 = 1 × 30 = 2 × 15 = 3 × 10 = 5 × 6
If we combine both the statements A and B together, then we have only one
possibility m = 15 and n = 2
Hence, option 3.
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12. Choose 1; if the question can be answered by using one of the statements
3 Marks alone, but cannot be answered using the other statement alone.
A. GDPs of the countries X and Y have grown over the past five years at compounded
annual rate of 5% and 6% respectively.
B. Five years ago, GDP of country X was higher than that of country Y.
[CAT 2001]
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
Solution:
Statement A does not give us the actual values of their GDPs 5 years ago.
We know that GDP of country X is greater than that of Y but we do not know
by how much it is greater.
Even after combining both the statements the question cannot be answered.
Hence, option 4.
13. Choose 1; if the question can be answered by using one of the statements
3 Marks alone, but cannot be answered using the other statement alone.
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A. X and Y are unequal even integers, less than 10, and X/Y is an odd integer.
B. X and Y are even integers, each less than 10, and product of X and Y is 12.
[CAT 2001]
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
Solution:
Using statement A alone:
12 = 1 × 12 = 2 × 6 = 3 × 4
∵ Both are even integers and less than 10, the possible set of values of X
and Y are (2, 6) and (6, 2).
∴ X is either 2 or 6.
Hence, option 1.
14. Choose 1; if the question can be answered by using one of the statements
3 Marks alone, but cannot be answered using the other statement alone.
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[CAT 2001]
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
Solution:
Statement A only gives the maximum capacity of the boat.
Hence, option 1.
15. Choose 1; if the question can be answered by using one of the statements
3 Marks alone, but cannot be answered using the other statement alone.
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[CAT 2001]
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
Solution:
Statement A alone is not sufficient because it gives only the rate at which
data is transferred but it does not give the size of the software.
Statement B alone is not sufficient because it gives only the size of the
software but it does not give the rate of data transfer.
Combining both the statements A and B together, we can get the time to
download.
Hence, option 3.
16. Choose 1; if the question can be answered by using one of the statements
3 Marks alone, but cannot be answered using the other statement alone.
[CAT 2001]
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
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4) 4
Solution:
Using statement A alone:
∴ Area of the square can be computed and thus the required difference.
∴ Area of the circle can be computed and thus the required difference.
Hence, option 2.
17. Choose 1; if the question can be answered by using one of the statements
3 Marks alone, but cannot be answered using the other statement alone.
[CAT 2001]
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
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Solution:
Statement A simply gives the ratio of apples between Ram and Gopal.
Even after combining both the statements A and B together, the question
cannot be answered.
Hence, option 4.
18. Each question is followed by two statements A and B. Answer each question
3 Marks using the following instructions:
Answer (1) if the question can be solved by any one of the statements, but not
the other one.
Answer (2) if the question can be solved by using either of the two statements.
Answer (3) if the question can be solved by using both the statements
together and not by any one of them.
Answer (4) if the question cannot be solved with the help of the given data
and more data is required.
In a hockey match, the Indian team was behind by 2 goals with 5 minutes
remaining. Did they win the match?
A. Deepak Thakur, the Indian striker scored 3 goals in the last 5 minutes of the match.
B. Korea scored a total of 3 goals in the match.
[CAT 2002]
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
Solution:
From statement A alone, it is not clear whether Korea too scored in the last 5
minutes or not.
From statement B alone, it is not clear whether India scored in the last 5
minutes or not.
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Case 1:
Case 2:
∴ Even after combining both the statements, we cannot say whether India
won the match or not.
Hence, option 4.
19. Each question is followed by two statements A and B. Answer each question
3 Marks using the following instructions:
Answer (1) if the question can be solved by any one of the statements, but not
the other one.
Answer (2) if the question can be solved by using either of the two statements.
Answer (3) if the question can be solved by using both the statements
together and not by any one of them.
Answer (4) if the question cannot be solved with the help of the given data
and more data is required.
Four students were added to a dance class. Would the teacher be able to
divide her students evenly into a dance team (or teams) of 8?
A. If 12 students were added, then the teacher could put everyone in teams of 8
without any left overs.
B. The number of students in the class is currently not divisible by 8.
[CAT 2002]
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
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Solution:
Consider statement A:
∵ (x + 12) − (x + 4) = 8
Hence, option 1.
20. Each question is followed by two statements A and B. Answer each question
3 Marks using the following instructions:
Answer (1) if the question can be solved by any one of the statements, but not
the other one.
Answer (2) if the question can be solved by using either of the two statements.
Answer (3) if the question can be solved by using both the statements
together and not by any one of them.
Answer (4) if the question cannot be solved with the help of the given data
and more data is required.
Is x = y?
B. (x − 50)2 = (y − 50)2
[CAT 2002]
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
Solution:
Consider statement A:
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∴ (x + y)2 = 4xy
∴ x2 + y2 + 2xy − 4xy = 0
∴ (x − y)2 = 0
∴x=y
Consider statement B:
(x – 50)2 = (y – 50)2
Hence, option 1.
21. Each question is followed by two statements A and B. Answer each question
3 Marks using the following instructions.
Mark (1) if the question can be answered by using statement A alone but not
by using statement B alone.
Mark (2) if the question can be answered by using statement B alone but not
by using statement A alone.
Mark (3) if the question can be answered by using both the statements
together but not by using either of the statements alone.
Mark (4) if the question cannot be answered on the basis of the two
statements.
A dress was initially listed at a price that would have fetched the store a profit
of 20% on the wholesale cost. What was the wholesale cost of the dress?
A. After reducing the listed price by 10% the dress was sold for a net profit of 10
dollars.
B. The dress was sold for 50 dollars.
[CAT 2002]
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
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Solution:
Let 100x be the wholesale cost of the dress.
Consider statement A:
∴ (108x) − (100x) = 10
∴ x = 10/8
Consider statement B:
This gives the selling price of the dress but it is not mentioned whether any
discount is provided on the list price or not.
Hence, option 1.
22. Each question is followed by two statements A and B. Answer each question
3 Marks using the following instructions:
Answer (1) if the question can be solved by any one of the statements, but not
the other one.
Answer (2) if the question can be solved by using either of the two statements.
Answer (3) if the question can be solved by using both the statements
together and not by any one of them.
Answer (4) if the question cannot be solved with the help of the given data
and more data is required.
Is 500 the average (arithmetic mean) score of the GMAT?
A. Half of the people who take GMAT score above 500 and half of the people score
below 500.
B. The highest GMAT score is 800 and the lowest score is 200.
[CAT 2002]
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1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
Solution:
Consider statement A:
This statement alone does not give sufficient information as we do not know
how much above/below 500 these students scored.
For example, it is possible that one student scored 800, one scored 750, the
third scored 450, while the last scored 200.
Then, average = (800 + 750 + 450 + 200)/4 = 550 ≠ 500
Consider statement B:
Using this statement alone, we cannot say whether 500 is the average score
of GMAT. The previous example can be used here as well.
Even now, we cannot determine the average. (Again, the above example can
be used.)
Hence, option 4.
23. Each question is followed by two statements A and B. Answer each question
3 Marks using the following instructions:
Answer (1) if the question can be solved by any one of the statements, but not
the other one.
Answer (2) if the question can be solved by using either of the two statements.
Answer (3) if the question can be solved by using both the statements
together and not by any one of them.
Answer (4) if the question cannot be solved with the help of the given data
and more data is required.
Is |x − 2| < 1?
A. |x| > 1
B. |x − 1| < 2
[CAT 2002]
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1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
Solution:
|x − 2| < 1
Consider statement A:
|x| > 1
x < −1 or x > 1
Consider statement B:
|x − 1| < 2
−2 < x − 1 < 2
−1 < x < 3
Hence, option 3.
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24. Each question is followed by two statements A and B. Answer each question
3 Marks using the following instructions:
Answer (1) if the question can be solved by any one of the statements, but not
the other one.
Answer (2) if the question can be solved by using either of the two statements.
Answer (3) if the question can be solved by using both the statements
together and not by any one of them.
Answer (4) if the question cannot be solved with the help of the given data
and more data is required.
Members in a club either speak French or Russian or both. Find the number
of members in a club who speak only French.
A. There are 300 members in the club and the number of members who speak both
French and Russian is 196.
B. The number of members who speak only Russian is 58.
[CAT 2002]
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
Solution:
Let F represent the set of members speaking French and R represent the set
of members speaking Russian.
Consider statement A:
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Consider statement B:
We have, 104 – x = 58
Hence, option 3.
25. Each question is followed by two statements A and B. Answer each question
3 Marks using the following instructions:
Answer (1) if the question can be solved by any one of the statements, but not
the other one.
Answer (2) if the question can be solved by using either of the two statements.
Answer (3) if the question can be solved by using both the statements
together and not by any one of them.
Answer (4) if the question cannot be solved with the help of the given data
and more data is required.
A sum of Rs. 38,500 was divided among Jagdish, Punit and Girish. Who
received the minimum amount?
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[CAT 2002]
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
Solution:
Consider statement A:
Consider statement B:
Hence, option 3.
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Choose 1 if the question can be answered by one of the statements alone but
not by the other.
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
Solution:
F and M have a total of four brothers and three sisters.
Statement A states that F has two brothers, which means M should have two
brothers.
Hence, option 1.
Choose 1 if the question can be answered by one of the statements alone but
not by the other.
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1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
Solution:
Let the number of tosses be x.
= Rs. (10 + x)
i. If the game ends normally then Ram's net loss = Rs. (10 + x) − Rs. 100
ii. If he quits prematurely his loss = Rs. (10 + x)
From statement A,
∴ 50 = (10 + x) − 100
∴ x = 140
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From statement B,
∴ x = 40
∴ 10 + x – 100 = 50
∴ x = 140
Hence, option 2.
Choose 1 if the question can be answered by one of the statements alone but
not by the other.
A. The last label obtained by her was S and the total amount spent was Rs. 210.
B. The total number of vowels obtained was 18.
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
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4) 4
Solution:
From Statement A,
From Statement B,
But this is also not individually sufficient to arrive at the required answer.
After combining both the statements A and B, we can conclude that 18 out of
21 coupons are O's and A's and that the 21st is an S.
Hence, option 3.
Choose 1 if the question can be answered by one of the statements alone but
not by the other.
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If A and B run a race, then A wins by 60 seconds. If B and C run the same
race, then B wins by 30 seconds. Assuming that C maintains a uniform
speed, what is the time taken by C to finish the race?
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
Solution:
From the question, if A and C participate in a race, A will win by 90 seconds.
From statement A,
Hence, option 3.
30. Each question is followed by two statements, A and B. Answer each question
3 Marks using the following instructions
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A. b is even
B. b is greater than 16
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
Solution:
a44 < b11
But, a = 2
∴ a44 = 244
∴ a44 = 1611
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Hence, option 1.
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Section I
1. There were x pigeons and y mynahs in a cage. One fine morning p of them
3 Marks
escaped to freedom. If the bird keeper, knowing only that the value of p
was 7, was able to figure out without looking into the cage that at least one
pigeon had escaped, then which of the following does not represent a
possible (x, y) pair?
1) (10, 8)
2) (7, 2)
3) (25, 6)
4) (12, 4)
Solution:
7 birds escaped, out of which at least one was a pigeon.
For an (x, y) pair to be possible, there should be no chance that all the birds
that escaped were mynahs.
If y ≥ 7, there is a possibility that all seven birds that escaped were mynahs.
This is because this pair has 8 mynahs which means that all 7 birds that
escaped can be mynahs. This violates the basic condition of the problem.
Hence, option 1.
1. Put x = 1, y = 2
2. Replace x by xy
3. Replace y by y + 1
4. If y = 5 then go to step 6 otherwise go to step 5.
5. Go to step 2
6. Stop
1) 1
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2) 24
3) 120
4) 720
Solution:
Step 1:
x = 1 × 2 = 2; y = 2 + 1 = 3
y ≠ 5. So, go to step 5.
Step 2:
x = 2 × 3 = 6; y = 3 + 1 = 4
y ≠ 5. So, go to step 5.
Step 3:
x = 6 × 4 = 24; y = 4 + 1 = 5
When y = 5, x = 24
Hence, option 2.
1) 115
2) 53
3) 232
4) 116
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Solution:
Consider Round 1 :
Since there are 116 players, 116/2 = 58 matches are played and 58 winners
are obtained.
Consider Round 2 :
Consider Round 3 :
Since one person has obtained a bye, 15 people go to the next round.
Consider Round 4 :
Since one person has obtained a bye, 8 people go to the next round.
Consider Round 5 :
Consider Round 6 :
Consider Round 7 :
Hence, option 1.
Alternatively,
The concept of a knockout tournament is that a person who loses goes out.
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Thus, the person winning the tournament is considered to have won once
against every other player participating in the tournament.
Hence, option 1.
Group Question
Answer the following questions based on the information given below.
The following questions relate to a game to be played by you and your friend. The
game consists of a 4 x 4 board (see below) where each cell contains a positive
integer. You and your friend make moves alternately. A move by any of the players
consists of splitting the current board configuration into two equal halves and
retaining one of them. In your moves you are allowed only to split the
board vertically and decide to retain either the left half or the right half. Your
friend, in his/her moves, can only split the board horizontally and can retain either
the lower half or the upper half. After two moves by each player a single cell will
remain which can no longer be split and the number in that cell will be treated as
the gain (in rupees) of the person who has started the game. A sample game is
shown below.
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So your gain is Re.1. With the same initial board configuration as above and
assuming that you have to make the first move, answer the following questions.
4. If you choose (retain right) (retain left) in your turns, the best move
3 Marks
sequence for your friend to reduce your gain to a minimum will be
_____.
Solution:
The initial board is:
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Since your first move is (retain right), the board configuration after the
move is as shown below
Since your next move is (retain left), your final profit will be one from (2,
6, 3 and 8).
If the friend's first move is (retain lower), your possible profit will be
either Rs. 3 or Rs. 8.
If the friend's first move is (retain upper), your possible profit will be
either Rs. 2 or Rs. 6.
Since his objective is to minimise your gain, he will try and limit your
gain to the least value i.e. Rs. 2.
Since you have now selected (retain left), the numbers left for your
friend are 2(upper) and 6(lower).
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Hence, option 3.
1) Rs. 4
2) Rs. 3
3) Rs. 2
4) None of these
Solution:
The initial board is:
Since both of you play intelligently, your objective is to get the maximum
possible gain while your friend's objective is to give you the minimum
possible gain.
Since your friend also plays intelligently, he will select (retain upper) so
that your gain does not cross Rs. 5. If he selects (retain lower), your
gain can possibly go up to Rs. 9
Now, you will again select (retain left) to get a maximum possible gain of
Rs. 5
Finally, in order to minimise your gain, your friend will again select
(retain upper).
Thus, with intelligent moves, your maximum gain in this case is Rs. 2
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Now, if your friend selects (retain upper), the minimum profit you can
earn is Rs. 2 and the maximum profit you can earn is Rs. 4
On the other hand, if your friend selects (retain lower), the minimum
profit you can earn is Rs. 2 and the maximum profit you can earn is Rs.
3.
Since your friend also plays intelligently, he will select (retain lower) so
that your gain does not cross Rs. 3.
Now, you will again select (retain left) to get a maximum possible gain of
Rs. 8
Finally, in order to minimise your gain, your friend will again select
(retain upper).
Thus, with intelligent moves, your maximum gain in this case is Rs. 3
Since you want to maximise your gain, your first intelligent move will be
(retain right).
Hence, option 2.
6. If your first move is (retain right), then whatever moves your friend may
3 Marks
select, you can always force a gain of no less than _____.
1) Rs. 3
2) Rs. 6
3) Rs. 4
4) None of these
Solution:
The first move will be as shown below.
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If your friend selects (retain upper), you will now select (retain right) to
try and get a maximum gain of Rs. 7.
This means that your friend can now limit your gain to the minimum of
(4, 7) i.e. Rs. 4
If my friend selects (retain lower), you will now select (retain left) to try
and get a maximum gain of Rs. 8.
This means that your friend can now limit your gain to the minimum of
(3, 8) i.e. Rs. 3.
Thus, irrespective of your friend's move, you will never gain anything
less than Rs. 3.
Hence, option 1.
Group Question
Answer the following questions based on the information given below.
The pages of a book are numbered 0, 1, 2 … upto M, M > 0. There are four
categories of instructions that direct a person in positioning the book at a
particular page. The instruction types and their meanings are:
In each of the following questions, you will find a sequence of instructions formed
from the above categories. In each case, let n1 be the page number before the
instructions are executed and n2 be the page number at which the book is
positioned after the instructions are executed.
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1) n1 = n2 if M = 10 and n1 = 0
2) M = 20 provided n1 > 0
3) n1 > 30 provided M = 900
4) n1 = 37 provided M = 25
Solution:
The given instructions are: FORWARD 25, BACKWARD 10.
∴ n2 = 0 = n1
Assume n1 = 1.
For any M > 25, FORWARD 25 will lead to page number 26 (1 + 25)
and then BACKWARD 10 will lead to page number 16 (26 − 10). This is
valid.
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Since M is the number of pages in the book and n1 is the page from
where we start, n1 ≤ M.
Here, n1 > M
Hence, option 1.
1) n1 = n2 provided n1 ≥ 5
2) n1 = n2 provided n1 > 0
3) n2 = 5 provided M > 0
4) n1 > n2 provided M > 0
Solution:
The given instructions are: BACKWARD 5, FORWARD 5.
n1 ≥ 5
∴ n1 = n2
Consider n1 = 3.
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∴ n1 ≠ n2
Now, consider n1 = 5.
∴ n1 = n2
Let n1 = 2 and M = 4
∴ n2 ≠ 5
∴ n2 = 5
Let n1 = 1 and M = 5:
∴ n1 < n2
Hence, option 1.
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NOTE : The second case in option 2 and 3 have been given to illustrate
that the statement may or may not be true. Since the question asks for
a “definitely true” condition, you can eliminate that option once it is
proved that the statement has a possibility of being false. However, if
the question had asked for a “possibly true” condition, you would have
needed to check both cases as shown above.
1) n2 – n1 = 20 only if n1 = 0
2) n2 – n1 = 20 if M > 20 and n1 = 1
3) n2 – n1 = 10 if M = 21 and n1 = 0
4) n2 > n1 if M > 0
Solution:
The given instructions are: FORWARD 10, FORWARD 10.
Let n1 = 1:
∴ n2 – n1 = 21 − 1 = 20
Note that this not a restrictive condition like the one above. You just
need to prove that the equation is satisfied for the given values of n1
and M.
n1 = 1. Let M = 21
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∴ n2 – n1 = 21 − 1 = 20
Again, you just need to prove that the equation is satisfied for the given
values of n1 and M.
∴ n2 – n1 = 20 ≠ 10
Here, n2 = n1.
Hence, option 2.
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Solution:
The given instructions are: FORWARD 5, BACKWARD 4.
Let n1 = 2:
Here, n2 ≠ n1 + 4
Let n1 = 3 and M = 5:
Here, n1 ≠ n2
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∴ n2 − n1 = 2 – 1 = 1 > 0
Hence, option 3.
11. The last time Rahul bought Diwali cards, he found that the four types of cards
3 Marks
that he liked were priced at Rs. 2.00, Rs. 3.50, Rs. 4.50 and Rs. 5.00 each.
As Rahul wanted 30 cards, he took five each of two kinds and ten each of the
other two, putting down an exact number of 10 rupees notes on the counter
payment. How many notes did Rahul give?
1) 8
2) 9
3) 10
4) 11
Solution:
In all, there are 4 varieties of cards, of a price Rs 2, Rs 3.50, Rs 4.50 and Rs 5
per card.
Rahul buys 30 cards and puts an amount which is a multiple of 10. Also, he
buys 5 cards each of two types and 10 cards each of the other two types.
Since two denominations are in terms of decimals, they will together give a
number that is an integer only if the same number of cards is bought for each
denomination.
In such a case, the total cost of the Rs. 3.5 and the Rs. 4.5 cards will be 3.5x
+ 4.5x = 8x. Here, x is the number of cards bought for each of these two
types.
Now, if Rahul buys 10 cards each of these two denominations, he will buy 5
cards each of the Rs. 2 and the Rs. 5 denomination.
Thus, the total cost will be 2(5) + 5(5) + 8(10) = 10 + 25 + 80 = Rs. 115
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Since the total amount has to be a multiple of 10, this is not possible.
Hence, Rahul buys 5 cards each of the Rs. 3.5 and the Rs. 4.5 denomination
and 10 cards each of the Rs. 2 and the Rs. 5 denominations.
Since Rahul places all Rs. 10 notes, he places 110/10 = 11 notes in all.
Hence, option 4.
12. I happened to be the judge in the all India Essay Competition on Nylon
3 Marks
Dying, organized some time back by a dyestuff firm. Mill technicians were
eligible to enter the competition. My work was simplified in assessing the
essays, which had to be done under five heads-Language, Coherence,
Subject Matter, Machinery and Recent Developments. Marks were to be given
out of a maximum of 20 under each head. There were only five entries
resulting in a sole winner. The winner got 90 marks. Akhila got 13 in
Coherence and Divya 10 in Machinery. Bhanu’s total was less than Akhila’s.
Charulata has sent an entry. Ela had got as many marks as Divya. No one got
20 under any head.
Solution:
Consider the answer options.
Since Bhanu's total was less than Akhila's total, Bhanu cannot be the winner.
Ela and Divya had the same marks. However, there was a sole winner.
Thus, Ela and Divya could not have been combined winners.
Now, Akhila got 13 in Coherence and the winner's total marks were 90.
Thus, if Akhila was the winner, she should have scored 90 − 13 = 77 under
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No person got 20 under any individual head. Thus, the maximum one could
have got under any head was 19.
Even if Akhila got 19 in the remaining 4 heads, she would have scored 19 × 4
= 76 in the remaining four heads.
Hence, option 2.
13. A player rolls a die and receives the same number of rupees as the number
3 Marks
of dots on the face that turns up. What should the player pay for each roll if
he wants to make a profit of one rupee per throw of the die in the long run?
1) Rs. 2.50
2) Rs. 2
3) Rs. 3.50
4) Rs. 4
Solution:
The possible outcome on one throw of a fair die is one from 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and
6.
Now, in the long run, since each outcome has an equal chance of appearing,
the expected outcome from one roll of an ordinary (that is, fair) six-sided die
Thus, if the player wants to make a profit of one rupee per throw in the long
run, then the amount that should be paid by the player for each roll = 3.5 – 1
= Rs. 2.5
Hence, option 1.
14. A calculator has two memory locations, A and B. The value ‘1’ is initially
3 Marks
stored in both memory locations. The following sequence of steps is carried
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1) 120
2) 450
3) 720
4) 250
Solution:
The calculations and the value in memory locations A and B at the end of
each iteration are as shown in the table given above.
Thus, the value in the memory location A at the end of the 5th iteration is 720.
Hence, option 3.
15. X and Y are playing a game. There are eleven 50 paise coins on the table
3 Marks
and each player must pick up at least one coin but not more than five. The
person picking up the last coin loses. X starts. How many coins should he
pick up at the start to ensure a win no matter what strategy Y employs?
1) 4
2) 3
3) 2
4) 5
Solution:
This problem can easily be solved by working backwards.
If X has to win the game, there has to be 1 coin left on the table after his turn.
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This means that B canot have the second last turn and that the last turn has
to be B's.
Thus, A has to pick x coins at the start such that there 5 + 1 + 1 = 7 coins left
on the table.
Since there are 11 coins in all, A has to pick up 4 coins at the start.
Hence, option 1.
16. The money order commission is calculated as follows. From Rs. X to be sent
3 Marks
by money order, subtract Rs. 0.01 and divide by 10. Add 1 to the quotient
obtained. If the result is Rs. Y, the money order commission is Rs. 0.5Y. If a
person sends two money orders to Aurangabad and Bhatinda for Rs. 71 and
Rs. 48 respectively, the total commission is:
1) Rs. 7.00
2) Rs. 6.50
3) Rs. 6.00
4) Rs. 7.50
Solution:
X − 0.01 = 70.99
X − 0.01 = 47.99
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Hence, option 2.
17. The auto fare in Ahmedabad is calculated using the meter reading and the
3 Marks
following process. The meter reading (in paise) is rounded up to the multiple
of 4 just greater than this reading. For instance, if the meter reading is 37
paise, it is rounded up to 40 paise. The resultant is multiplied by 12. The final
result is then rounded off to the nearest multiple of 25 paise. If 53 paise is the
meter reading what will the actual fare be?
1) Rs. 6.75
2) Rs. 6.50
3) Rs. 6.25
4) Rs. 7.50
Solution:
Since the meter reading is 53 paise, it is first rounded off to the next multiple
of 4 i.e. 56 paise.
Hence, option 1.
18. Juhi and Bhagyashree were playing simple mathematical puzzles. Juhi wrote
3 Marks
a two-digit number and asked Bhagyashree to guess what it was. Juhi also
indicated that the number was exactly thrice the product of its digits. What
was the number that Juhi wrote?
1) 36
2) 24
3) 12
4) 48
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Solution:
This can be solved very easily using the answer options and verifying the
product of digits.
Hence, option 2.
19. After paying all your bills, you find that you have Rs. 7.20 in your pocket. You
3 Marks
have an equal number of 50 paise and 10 paise coins, but no other coins nor
any other currency notes. How many coins do you have?
1) 8
2) 24
3) 12
4) 30
Solution:
Let the number of 50 paise coins be n.
Since the number of 50 paise coins and 10 paise coins is the same, the
number of 10 paise coins is also n.
Since the total amount in your pocket is Rs. 7.20 and you have no other coins
or currency notes,
∴ 0.6n = 7.2
∴ n = 12
Hence, option 2.
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Group Question
Answer the following questions based on the information given below.
Alord has received a large order for stitching school uniforms from Mayflower
School and Little Flower School. He has two cutters to cut the fabric, five tailors to
do the stitching, and two assistants to stitch the buttons and buttonholes. Each of
these nine persons work for exactly 10 hours a day. Each of the Mayflower
uniforms requires 20 minutes for cutting the fabric, one hour for stitching, and 15
minutes for stitching the buttons and buttonholes. On the other hand, each Little
Flower uniform requires 30 minutes, 1 hour, and 30 minutes, respectively for
cutting, stitching and stitching the buttons and buttonholes.
1) 30
2) 40
3) 25
4) 0
Solution:
Alord has 2 cutters who both work for 10 hours a day.
Thus, both the cutters can together cut all 20 uniforms in 5 hours.
Alord has 2 assistants who stitch buttons and buttonholes for 10 hours
a day.
Thus, as seen above, both the assitants can together finish 20 uniforms
in 5 hours.
Thus, if all 5 tailors work together, the Little Flower uniforms can be
completed in 4 hours.
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Thus, at the end of 5 hours, all 20 Little Flower uniforms are complete.
Hence, option 1.
1) 20
2) 30
3) 5
4) 25
Solution:
Each Little Flower uniform requires 30 minutes, 1 hour and 30 minutes
for cutting, stitching and stitching buttons and button holes respectively.
Thus, the time taken to complete Little Flower uniforms is 30/4 = 7.5
hours.
Therefore, the total idle man-hours for the cutters is 2.5 × 2 = 5 hours.
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Similarly, the total idle time man-hours for the tailors and the assistants
can be found as shown in the table below.
Hence, option 2.
22. What is the maximum number of Little Flower uniforms that Alord can
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complete in a day?
1) 50
2) 20
3) 40
4) 30
Solution:
Number of uniforms cut in a day = Number of cutters × (Total number of
hours worked by each cutter/Time required by one cutter to cut one
uniform)
= 2 × (10/0.5)
= 40
= 50
=
40
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Since one uniform can be considered complete only if all three acitivities
have been completed on it, the maximum number of Little Flower uniforms
that Alord can make in a day is equal to the smallest of the three numbers
above i.e. 40.
Hence, option 3.
23. Alord has the option to hire one more employee of any category. Which
3 Marks
category should he hire to get the maximum increase in production
capacity assuming that he needs to stitch only Mayflower uniforms on
that day?
1) Tailor
2) Cutter
3) Assistant
4) Indeterminate
Solution:
Each person has 10 man-hours available on a day.
Hence, option 1.
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1) 40
2) 50
3) 60
4) 30
Solution:
Each person has 10 man-hours available on a day.
Hence, option 2.
25. 139 persons have signed for an elimination tournament. All players are to be
3 Marks
paired up for the first round, but because 139 is an odd number one player
gets a bye, which promotes him to the second round, without actually playing
in the first round. The pairing continues in the next round, with a bye to any
player left over. If the schedule is planned so that a minimum number of
matches is required to determine the champion, then the number of matches
which must be played is:
1) 136
2) 137
3) 138
4) 139
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Solution:
The concept of a knockout competition comprising n players is that the winner
is better than every other player.
Thus, the tournament is equivalent to one where the winner beats the
remaining (n − 1) players.
Since this tournament has 139 players, the number of matches that must be
played is 138.
Hence, option 3.
26. There are ten 50 paise coins placed on a table. Six of these show tails and
3 Marks
four show heads. A coin is chosen at random and flipped over (not tossed).
This operation is performed seven times. One of these coins is then covered.
Of the remaining nine coins, five show tails and four show heads. The
covered coin shows:
1) A head
2) A tail
3) More likely a head
4) More likely a tail
Solution:
Assume that one coin, say one showing a tail, is flipped 7 times, instead of 7
different coins. Then, it would show a head and there would be 5 heads and
5 tails.
If by covering a coin, there are 5 tails and 4 heads to be seen, then the
covered coin is showing a head.
Hence, option 1.
Alternatively,
Assume that all four coins that now show heads are flipped coins. Hence,
they originally showed tails.
Hence, the remaining two coins that originally showed tails still show tails.
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Now, since there are seven flips in all, only three coins that originally showed
heads can be flipped.
Since five tails and four heads are visible, the remaining coin (the one that is
covered) shows a head.
Hence, option 1.
27. Along a road lie an odd number of stones placed at intervals of 10 m. These
3 Marks
stones have to be assembled around the middle stone. A person can carry
only one stone at a time. A man carried out the job starting with the stone in
the middle, carrying stones in succession, thereby covering a distance of 4.8
km. Then, the number of stones on the road is:
1) 30
2) 15
3) 29
4) 31
Solution:
If the total distance covered is 4.8 km, the distance covered on each side of
the middle stone is 2.4 km.
Assume that there are n stones on each side of the middle stone.
Thus, the man travels a distance of 10 + 10 = 20 m to carry the first stone and
place it around the middle stone.
Thus, the distance travelled by the man on one side forms a G.P. with a = 20
and d = 20.
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∴ n × (n + 1) = 240
∴ n2 + n − 240 = 0
Hence, option 4.
Group Question
Answer the following questions based on the information given below.
Alphonso, on his death bed, keeps half his property for his wife and divides the
rest equally among his three sons Ben, Carl and Dave. Some years later Ben dies
leaving half his property to his widow and the remaining to his brothers Carl and
Dave together, shared equally. When Carl makes his will he keeps half his
property for his widow and the rest he bequeaths to his younger brother Dave.
When Dave dies some years later, he keeps half his property for his widow and
the remaining for his mother. The mother now has Rs. 15,75,000.
1) Rs. 30 lakh
2) Rs. 8 lakh
3) Rs. 18 lakh
4) Rs. 24 lakh
Solution:
Let the value of the property of Alphonso be Rs. x
Thus, Alphonso's wife gets Rs. x/2 and the three sons together get Rs.
x/2.
Now, when Ben dies, his wife gets [x/6]/2 = Rs. x/12.
Carl and Dave together get Rs. x/12 and individually get Rs. x/24
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Thus, the amount with Carl as well as Ben is Rs. [(x/6) + (x/24)]
Now, Carl leaves half of this property for his wife and the other half for
Dave.
Thus, the amount now available with Dave is [(x/6) + (x/24)] + (1/2) ×
[(x/6) + (x/24)] i.e. Rs. (3/2) × [(x/6) + (x/24)]
Dave leaves half of this amount for his wife and the remaining for his
mother.
Now, Dave's mother has a total amount of Rs. (x/2) + (3/4) × [(x/6) +
(x/24)]
∴ (21x/32) = 1575000
∴ x = (1575000 × 32)/21
= 75000 × 32
= 2400000
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Hence, option 4.
1) Rs. 4 lakh
2) Rs. 12 lakh
3) Rs. 6 lakh
4) Rs. 5 lakh
Solution:
Hence, option 4.
30. What was the ratio of the property owned by the widows of the three
3 Marks
sons, in the end?
1) 7 : 9 : 13
2) 8 : 10 : 15
3) 5:7:9
4) 9 : 12 : 13
Solution:
The worth of the total property x = 24 lakhs
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Hence, option 2.
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Section I
Group Question
Answer the following questions based on the information given below.
A, B, C, D, E, F and G are brothers. Two brothers had an argument and A said to B, “You
are as old as C was when I was twice as old as D, and will be as old as E was when he
was as old as C is now”. B said to A, “You may be older than F but G is as old as I was
when you were as old as G is, and D will be as old as F was when F will be as old as G is”.
1) A
2) E
3) C
4) Indeterminate
Solution:
B is as old as C was when A was twice as old as D was.
A may be older than F but G is as old as B was when A was as old as G is.
Hence, option 2.
1) B
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2) D
3) F
4) Indeterminate
Solution:
From the solution to the first question, the youngest brother is D.
Hence, option 2.
1) D and G
2) E and C
3) A and B
4) Indeterminate
Solution:
From the solution to the first question, it can be seen that A and B are of the
same age.
Thus, they are the only pair that can possibly be twins.
Hence, option 3.
Solution:
Refer to the order obtained in the solution to the first question.
E>C>A=B>G>F>D
Statement 2 : From the order it is clear that A is older than G but younger than E.
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From the order it can be seen that B has only two elder brothers i.e. E and C. B
had one brother (A) who is of the same age.
Hence, option 3.
Group Question
Answer the following questions based on the information given below.
Four sisters Suvarna, Tara, Uma and Vibha were playing a game such that the loser
doubled the money of the other players from her share. They played four games and each
sister lost one game in the alphabetical order. At the end of fourth game each sister had
Rs. 32 with her.
1) 60
2) 34
3) 66
4) 28
Solution:
Let the amounts held by Suvarna, Tara, Uma and Vibha at any stage be denoted
by S, T, U and V respectively.
Since Vibha lost game 4, she would have doubled the other three players'
amount.
Thus, at the end of the game 3 (or at the beginning of game 4), Suvarna, Tara
and Uma would each have had Rs. 32/2 = Rs. 16.
Similarly, the amount with each person at the end of each game can be
calculated as shown in the table below.
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Hence, option 3.
1) Suvarna
2) Tara
3) Uma
4) Vibha
Solution:
From the table in the solution to the first question, Vibha started with the least
amount (Rs. 10).
Hence, option 4.
1) Suvarna
2) Tara
3) Uma
4) Vibha
Solution:
From the table in the solution to the first question, it is clear that Suvarna started
with the highest amount (i.e. Rs. 66)
Hence, option 1.
8. What was the amount with Uma at the end of the second game?
3 Marks
1) 36
2) 72
3) 16
4) None of these
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Solution:
From the table in the solution to the first question, Uma had Rs. 72 at the end of
the second game.
Hence, option 2.
Group Question
Answer the following questions based on the information given below.
A salesman entered the quantity sold and the price into the computer. Both the numbers
were two-digit numbers. But by mistake, both numbers were entered with their digits
interchanged. The total sales value remained the same, i.e. Rs. 1,148, but the inventory
reduced by 54 units.
1) Rs. 82
2) Rs. 41
3) Rs. 14
4) Rs. 28
Solution:
Total sales value = 1148 = Price × Quantity
To find the price and quantity, factorise 1148 in terms of two two-digit numbers.
1148 = 2 × 2 × 7 × 41
∴ 1148 = 14 × 82 = 28 × 41
Inventory is the amount of goods remaining in the store after the sale.
Since this has mistakenly reduced by 54 units, it means that the quantity has
been mistakenly shown to be more by 54 units.
82 = 28 + 54
Thus, the original price has to be Rs. 41 and then after interchanging, it becomes
Rs. 14.
Hence, option 2.
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1) 28
2) 14
3) 82
4) 41
Solution:
From the solution to the previous question, it is clear that the actual quantity
sold is 28 units.
Hence, option 1.
11. Out of two-thirds of the total number of basketball matches scheduled, a team has
3 Marks
won 17 matches and lost 3. What is the maximum number of matches that the team
can lose and still win more than three-fourths of the total number of matches
scheduled, if it is true that no match can end in a tie?
1) 4
2) 6
3) 5
4) 3
Solution:
Matches played so far = 17 + 3 = 20
If the team wants to win more than three-fourths of all the matches scheduled, they
have to win at least (3/4) × 30 i.e. at least 22.5 matches.
Hence, not more than (10 – 6) = 4 matches can be lost to maintain the required the
winning ratio.
Hence, option 1.
Group Question
Answer the following questions based on the information given below.
The production pattern for a number of units (in cubic feet) per day:
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For a truck that can carry 2000 cubic feet, the hiring cost per day is Rs. 1,000. The storing
cost per cubic feet is Rs. 5 per day.
12. If all the units have to be sent to the market, on which days should the truck be
3 Marks
hired to minimise the total cost?
Solution:
Hiring cost of truck per day = Rs 1,000.
Thus, hiring a truck is cheaper compared to storage for more than 200 cubic feet.
Thus, on all days when the number of units present is less than or equal to 200,
hiring a truck is costlier than storing the goods. Thus, on such days, the units
should be stored and not sent out.
On the other hand, on all days when the number of units present is more than
200, a truck should be hired to minimize the total cost.
The truck has to be hired on the 7th day because that is the last available day and
all the units have to be sent to the market.
Hence, the truck is hired on the 2nd, 4th, 6th and the 7th days.
Hence, option 1.
13. If storage costs are reduced to Rs. 0.8 per cubic feet per day, then on which days
3 Marks
should the trucks be hired to minimise the total cost?
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Solution:
Hiring cost of truck per day = Rs 1,000.
Storage cost for each day of storage = Rs 0.8 per cubic feet.
Thus, hiring a truck is cheaper compared to storage for more than (1000/0.8) i.e.
1250 cubic feet.
Thus, on all days when the number of units present is less than or equal to 1250,
hiring a truck is costlier than storing the goods. Thus, on such days, the units should
be stored and not sent out.
On the other hand, on all days when the number of units present is more than 1250, a
truck should be hired to minimize the total cost.
If this quantity is not reached till the last day, then on the 7th day, the truck has to be
hired to transport all the units to the market.
Hence, option 2.
Group Question
Answer the following questions based on the information given below.
14. The maximum number of coins collected by any one of them cannot exceed
3 Marks
_____.
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1) 64
2) 36
3) 54
4) None of these
Solution:
Each person collects an even number of coins such that the minimum number of
coins with each person is 10.
Thus, the maximum number of coins that the fourth person i.e. D can collect =
100 − (10 + 12 + 14)
= 100
− 36
= 64
Thus, the maximum number of coins collected by a person cannot exceed 64.
Hence, option 1.
15. If A collected 54 coins, then the difference in the number of coins between the
3 Marks
one who collected the maximum number of coins and the one who collected the
second-highest number of coins must be at least _____.
1) 12
2) 24
3) 30
4) None of these
Solution:
The difference between the person who collected the most number of coins and
the one who collected the 2nd highest number of coins would be minimum when
the 2nd highest collects the maximum number of coins possible for him.
Assume that the person who collects the 2nd highest number of coins is B.
Now, B can collect the maximum number of coins when C and D collect as few
coins as possible.
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This can happen if one of C and D collects 10 coins while the other collects 12
coins.
Therefore, the difference between the highest and second highest person is at
least 54 − 24 i.e. 30 coins.
Hence, option 3.
16. If A collected 54 coins and B collected two more coins than the twice of the
3 Marks
number of coins collected by C, then the number of coins collected by B could
be _______.
1) 28
2) 20
3) 26
4) 22
Solution:
Let the number of coins collected by A, B, C and D be a, b, c and d respectively.
a + b + c + d = 100
∴ b + c + d = 100 – 54 = 46
∴ 2c + 2 + c + d = 46
Hence, option 4.
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1) M wins over N.
2) N wins over M.
3) M does not play with N.
4) None of these
Solution:
Since no match ends in a draw and no two players have the same score, it means that
all players have won matches according to their rankings which correspond to the
alphabetical order.
Since M takes precedence over N in the ranking order, M should have won over N.
Hence, option 1.
18. Three labeled boxes containing red and white cricket balls are all mislabeled. It is
3 Marks
known that one of the boxes contains only white balls and one only red balls. The third
contains a mixture of red and white balls. You are required to correctly label the boxes
with the labels red, white and red and white by picking a sample of one ball from only
one box. What is the label on the box you should sample?
1) White
2) Red
3) Red and White
4) Not possible to determine from a sample of one ball
Solution:
Let the red, white and red/white box be denoted by R, W and RW respectively.
RW could actually be R or W
R could actually be W or RW
Since the label RW is an incorrect label, the ball that comes out from that box will be
the actual colour of the balls in the box.
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Case 1:
Case 2:
Thus, if you sample a ball from the box labelled red and white, you can correctly label
all the boxes.
Hence, option 3.
Group Question
Answer the following questions based on the information given below.
Ten coins are distributed among four people P, Q, R and S such that one of them gets one
coin, another gets two coins, the third gets three coins and the fourth gets four coins. It is
known that Q gets more coins than P, and S gets fewer coins than R.
19. If the number of coins distributed to Q is twice the number distributed to P then
3 Marks
which one of the following is necessarily true?
Solution:
Based on the given data, the number of coins with P, Q, R and S should be 1, 2,
3 and 4 coins (not necessarily in that order).
Thus,
Given: Q = 2P
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From the 2 possible cases shown above, it can be seen that S always gets an
odd number of coins.
Hence, option 4.
20. If R gets at least two more coins than S, then which one of the following is
3 Marks
necessarily true?
Solution:
Given: R ≥ (S + 2)
From the 3 possible cases shown above, it can be seen that the statement
‘Q gets more coins than P’ is always true.
Hence, option 2.
21. If Q gets fewer coins than R, then which one of the following is not necessarily
3 Marks
true?
Solution:
Given: Q < R → P < Q < R and S < R, thus R = 4
(i) P = 1, Q = 2, S = 3
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(ii) P = 1, Q = 3, S = 2
(iii) P = 2, Q = 3, S = 1
(Q + S) ≥ 4, (R + S) ≥ 5 and (P + R) ≥ 5
Thus, the only option that is not always true is (P + Q) ≥ 4 [Case (i)].
Hence, option 1.
Group Question
Answer the following questions based on the information given below.
A young girl Roopa leaves home with x flowers and goes to the bank of a nearby river. On
the bank of the river, there are four places of worship, standing in a row. She dips all the
'x' flowers in the river. The number of flowers doubles. Then she enters the first place of
worship, offers 'y' flowers to the deity. She dips the remaining flowers into the river, and
again the number of flowers doubles. She goes to the second place of worship, offers 'y'
flowers to the deity. She dips the remaining flowers into the river, and again the number of
flowers doubles. She goes to the third place of worship, offers 'y' flowers to the deity. She
dips the remaining flowers into the river, and again the number of flowers doubles. She
goes to the fourth place of worship, offers 'y' flowers to the deity. Now she is left with no
flowers in hand.
22. If Roopa leaves home with 30 flowers, the number of flowers she offers to each
3 Marks
deity is:
1) 30
2) 31
3) 32
4) 33
Solution:
Let Roopa leave home with x flowers and offer y flowers to each deity.
After each dip, the number of flowers she has doubles and after offering flowers
to each deity, the number of flowers decreases by y.
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Thus, from the table, it can be seen that 16x = 15y … (i)
Hence, option 3.
23. The minimum number of flowers that could be offered to each deity is:
3 Marks
1) 0
2) 15
3) 16
4) Indeterminate
Solution:
From the solution to the first question, y = (x/15) × 16
Hence, option 3.
24. The minimum number of flowers with which Roopa leaves home is:
3 Marks
1) 16
2) 15
3) 0
4) Indeterminate
Solution:
From the solution to the first question, x = (y/16) × 15.
Hence, option 2.
Group Question
Answer the following questions based on the information given below.
There are m blue vessels with known volumes v1, v2, ... vm, arranged in ascending order of
volume, where v1 > 0.5 litre, and vm < 1 litre. Each of these is full of water initially. The
water from each of these is emptied into a minimum number of empty white vessels, each
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having volume of 1 litre. The water from a blue vessel is not emptied into a white vessel
unless the white vessel has enough empty volume to hold all the water of the blue
vessel. The number of white vessels required to empty all the blue vessels according to the
above rules was n.
25. Among the four values given below, which is the least upper bound on e, where
3 Marks
e is the total empty volume in the n white vessels at the end of the above
process?
1) mvm
2) m(1 – vm )
3) mv1
4) m(1 – v1)
Solution:
The upper bound is the least when the volumes in all the blue vessels is nearly
equal, i.e., v1 ≈ v2 ≈ … ≈ vm
Hence, option 4.
26. Let the number of white vessels needed be n1 for the emptying process
3 Marks
described above, if the volume of each white vessel is 2 liters. Among the
following values, which is the least upper bound on n1?
1)
2)
3) n
4)
Solution:
Minimum number of blue vessels that can be emptied into each white vessel of
2 litres capacity = 2
Hence, option 2.
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Section I
Group Question
Answer the following questions based on the information given below.
Design a route such that you start from any city of your choice and walk on each
of the 7 roads once and only once, not necessarily returning to the city from which
you started.
1. For a route that satisfies the above restrictions, which of the following
3 Marks
statements is true?
Solution:
The route has to be created in such a way that you pass through each
road exactly once and you do not need to end at the same city from
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where you started. Also, it is not mentioned that a particular city cannot
be visited more than once. This means that you can go through one city
more than once provided you do not go through the same road.
The statement in option 2 is true as no valid route can start and end at
C.
Hence, option 2.
2. From how many different cities can one start such that the given
3 Marks
restriction is satisfied?
1) One
2) Zero
3) Three
4) Two
Solution:
To ensure that the given restriction is not violated, one can start either
from D or from C.
Hence, option 4.
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1) 4
2) 9
3) 10
4) 11
Solution:
The given information can be represented as shown in the following Venn
diagram:
a + b + c + x + y + z + r + d = 50 ... (i)
a + x + y + r = 22 ... (ii)
b + x + z + r = 15 ... (iii)
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c + y + z + r = 14 ... (iv)
Now,
a + b + c = 51 − 2(9) − 3(1)
= 51 − 18 − 3
= 30
∴ 30 + 9 + 1 + d = 50
∴ d = 10
Thus, 10 teachers did not own even one of the three products.
Hence, option 3.
4. For the network given, what is the total number of ways in which one way can
3 Marks
reach B from A?
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1) 12
2) 16
3) 20
4) 22
Solution:
The number of ways in which one can reach B from A can be found by
counting as shown below.
1. A-c-g-l-B
2. A-c-h-l-B
3. A-c-h-k-B
4. A-c-g-k-B
5. A-d-g-l-B
6. A-d-h-l-B
7. A-d-h-k-B
8. A-d-g-k-B
9. A-e-i-k-B
10. A-e-i-l-B
11. A-e-j-l-B
12. A-e-j-k-B
13. A-f-i-k-B
14. A-f-i-l-B
15. A-f-j-l-B
16. A-f-j-k-B
Hence, option 2.
Alternatively,
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For such a network, the total number of ways in which one can reach from A
to B can be calculated as the product of the number of routes emerging from
any node at a particular level.
i.e. There are 4 posssible routes from the origin (A) to the next level (i.e. to c,
d, e or f).
Next, from each of c, d, e and f, there are 2 possible routes to the next level
(i.e. to g, h or i, j)
Similarly, from each of g, h, i and j, there are 2 routes to the next level ( i.e. to
k and l)
Finally, from both l and k, there is one route each available to go to the
destination (B).
Hence, option 2.
Group Question
Answer the following questions based on the information given below.
There were a hundred schools in a town. Of these, the number of schools having
a play-ground was 30, and these schools had neither a library nor a laboratory.
The number of schools having a laboratory alone was twice the number
of schools having only a library. The number of schools having a laboratory as
well as a library was one-fourth the number of schools having a laboratory alone.
The number of schools having either a laboratory or a library or both was 35.
5. How many schools had none of the three, viz., laboratory, library or
3 Marks
play-ground?
1) 20
2) 5
3) 30
4) 35
Solution:
The town had 30 schools which had a playground. However, none of
these 30 schools had either a library or a laboratory.
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The number of schools having only a laboratory was twice the number
of schools having only a library.
Thus, the given data can now be represented as shown in the following
Venn diagram:
∴ 2x + x + 4x = 35
∴ 7x = 35
∴x=5
Let the number of schools that did not have any of the three facilities i.e.
playground, library and laboratory be y.
∴ 30 + 35 + y = 100
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∴ y = 35
Hence, option 4.
1) 1:2
2) 5:3
3) 2:1
4) 2:3
Solution:
Number of schools having a laboratory = 4x + x = 5x
Hence, option 2.
1) 20
2) 25
3) 50
4) 70
Solution:
Let a, b, and c represent the number of people who are members of only club
A, only club B and only club C respectively.
∴ a + b + c = 70 ... (i)
Let the number of people who are members only in clubs A and B, but not in
C be x.
Similarly, let the number of people who are members in only B and C be y
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∴ a + x + z + 10 = 40 ... (ii)
b + x + y + 10 = 50 ... (iii)
c + y + z + 10 = 60 ... (iv)
(a + b + c) + 2(x + y + z) + 30 = 150
∴ 70 + 2(x + y + z) = 120
∴ x + y + z = 25
Hence, option 2.
8. A man starting at a point walks one km east, then two kms north, then one
3 Marks
km east, then one km north, then one km east and then one km north to
arrive at the destination. What is the shortest distance from the starting point
to the destination?
1)
2) 7 km
3)
4) 5 km
Solution:
The shortest distance between the starting point and the destination can be
found by first finding the horizontal as well as the vertical distance travelled
between the starting point and the destination and then applying Pythagoras'
Theorem.
Since the man alternately walked towards the east and then towards the
north, the horizontal distance will simply be the summation of the total
distance travelled towards the east. Similarly, the vertical distance will be the
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Thus,
Hence, option 4.
9. If 8 + 12 = 2, 7 + 14 = 3 then 10 + 18 = ?
3 Marks
1) 10
2) 4
3) 6
4) 18
Solution:
The actual sum of 8 and 12 is 20
Now, 10 + 18 = 28
∴ 10 + 18 = 10
Hence, option 1.
10. Lata has the same number of sisters as she has brothers, but her brother
3 Marks
Shyam has twice as many sisters as he has brothers. How many children are
there in the family?
1) 7
2) 6
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3) 5
4) 4
Solution:
Let the number of girls and boys in the family be G and B respectivley.
Lata has the same number of sisters as she has brothers. This implies that
the number of girls reduced by 1 is the same as the number of boys.
∴G−1=B … (i)
Lata’s brother Shyam has twice as many sisters as he has brothers. This
implies that the number of boys reduced by 1 is half the number of girls.
∴ G = 2(B – 1) … (ii)
G = 2(G − 2)
∴G=4
∴B=3
G+B=4+3=7
Hence, option 1.
11. A cube is made into a number of cubelets by dividing each edge into four
3 Marks
equal parts. The top face of the cube is a square ABCD. Take the diagonal
AC and push a knife downwards so that the cube is cut into two prisms of
equal size. How many cubelets are cut by the knife in this operation?
1) 16
2) 48
3) 4
4) 8
Solution:
When the cube is cut into four equal parts on each edge, the total number of
cublets formed is 4 × 4 × 4 = 64 (length × breadth × depth)
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The top face of the cube can be represented as given below. The numbers 1,
2, 3 and 4 represent the four cubelets whose top face forms the diagonal AC
of the square ABCD.
Consider cubelet 1. It is evident that there are 3 more cubelets exactly below
it (because the depth is 4).
Thus, when the knife cuts downwards through cubelet 1, it actually cuts
cubelet 1 and the three cubelets exactly below it i.e. a total of 4 cubelets.
Hence, option 1.
1) 0
2) 6
3) 11
4) 20
Solution:
m # n = m + n + mn
∴ 2 # 3 = 2 + 3 + (2 × 3) = 11
Hence, option 3.
1) 0
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2) –1
3) 1
4) q does not exist
Solution:
m # n = m + n + mn
It is given that m # q = m
∴ m + q + mq = m
∴ q(1 + m) = 0
∴ q = 0 or 1 + m = 0
∴ q = 0 or m = −1
∴ q= 0
Hence, option 1.
14. 100 Management students who read at least one of three available business
3 Marks
magazines are surveyed to observe the readership pattern. It is found that 80
students read Business India, 50 read Business World, and 30 read Business
Today. Five students read all the three magazines. How many read exactly
two magazines?
1) 50
2) 10
3) 95
4) 25
Solution:
Since all 100 students read at least one of the three available magazines,
there is no student who does not read any of the three magazines.
The general Venn diagram for this survey can be as shown below where BI,
BW and BT represent Business India, Business World and Business Today
respectively.
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a + x + y + r = 80 ... (ii)
b + x + z + r = 50 ... (iii)
c + y + z + r = 30 ... (iv)
r = 5 ... (v)
Subtracting (i) from (vii), and substiuting the value of r, you get
x + y + z = 50
Hence, option 1.
15. A young girl counted the fingers of her left hand in the following manner. She
3 Marks
started calling the thumb 1, the index finger 2, middle finger 3, ring finger
4 and little finger 5; then reversed the direction, calling the ring finger 6,
middle finger 7, index finger 8, thumb 9 and then back to the index finger for
10, middle finger for 11, and so on. She counted up to 1994. She ended on
her..
1) Thumb
2) Index finger
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3) Middle finger
4) Ring finger
Solution:
Note that all five fingers were counted in the first iteration while only four
fingers were counted in every iteration after that.
The girl started with the thumb at 1 before reaching the thumb again at 9.
Similarly, she would reach the thumb again at 17, 25 and so on after every 8
counts.
Thus, the number assigned to the thumb would always be of the form 8n + 1.
Similarly, the number assigned to the index finger would be of the form 8n +
2, for the middle finger would be 8n + 3 and so on.
1994 = 8(249) + 2
Hence, option 2.
16. Out of 100 families in a certain neighbourhood, 45 own radios, 75 own TVs
3 Marks
while 25 have VCRs. Only 10 families have all three appliances and each
VCR owner also has a TV. If 25 families have only a radio, how many families
own only a TV?
1) 30
2) 35
3) 40
4) 45
Solution:
Each VCR owner also has a TV. This implies that there is no family that owns
only a VCR.
Similarly, there is no family that owns only a VCR and radio, but not a TV.
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Families that own a VCR = Families that own only a VCR + Families that own
only TV and VCR + Families that own only VCR and radio + Families that own
all three appliances.
∴ Families with only TV = Families with TV − (Families with only TV and radio
+ Families with only TV and VCR + Families with all three appliances)
= 75 − (10 + 15 + 10)
= 40
Hence, option 3.
Group Question
Answer the following questions based on the information given below.
85 children went to an amusement park where they could ride on the merry-
go-round, roller coaster or Ferris wheel. It is known that 20 of them took all three
rides, and 55 of them took at least two of the three rides. Each ride costs Re. 1
and the total receipts of the amusement park were Rs. 145.
17. How many children did not try any of the rides?
3 Marks
1) 5
2) 10
3) 15
4) 20
Solution:
The number of children that took atleast 2 rides = 55
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Each ride costs Re. 1 and the total collections were Rs. 145
∴ n = 15
Hence, option 3.
1) 5
2) 10
3) 15
4) 20
Solution:
From the solution to the previous question, the number of children that
took exactly 1 ride = 15
Hence, option 3.
Group Question
Answer the following questions based on the information given below.
19. You are walking on a road and come to a fork. You ask the inhabitants
3 Marks
Ram, Laxman and Lila, “Which road will take me to the village?"
Ram says, “I never speak to strangers. I am new to these parts.”
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Solution:
Since Ram is talking to you, he speaks to strangers. This implies that
his first statement is False.
This makes Lila's second statement False and her first statement True
i.e. Lila is married to Ram.
Finally, this means that Laxman's first statement becomes False and
second becomes True i.e. “Take the left road” is a True statement.
Hence, option 1.
20. You find that your boat is stolen. You question three inhabitants of the
3 Marks
island and they reply as follows:
John says, “I didn’t do it. Matthew didn’t do it.”
Matthew says, “I didn’t do it. Krishna didn’t do it.”
Krishna says, “I didn’t do it. I don’t know who did it.”
Who stole your boat?
1) John
2) Matthew
3) Krishna
4) None of them
Solution:
If the second statement of Matthew and first statement of Krishna is
true, then Matthew has stolen the boat which implies that his first
statement is false. So, the first statement of John is true and his second
statement is false.
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Hence, option 2.
21. You want to speak to the chief of the village. You question three
3 Marks
inhabitants, Amar, Bobby and Charles. Only Bobby is wearing a red
shirt.
Amar says, “I am not Bobby’s son. The chief wears a red shirt.”
Bobby says, “I am Amar’s father, Charles is the chief.”
Charles says, “The chief is one among us. I am the chief.”
Who is the chief?
1) Amar
2) Bobby
3) Charles
4) None of them
Solution:
Since it is mentioned in two places that “Charles is the chief”, start by
assuming that this statement is True.
Thus, if Charles is the chief, the chief is definitely one among Amar,
Bobby and Charles.
Thus, both the statements made by Charles become True, which is not
possible as per the condition of the problem.
Since Bobby is the only person wearing a red shirt, Bobby has to be the
chief.
Hence, option 2.
22. There is only one pilot on the island. You interview three men; Koik,
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3 Marks
Lony and Mirna. You also notice that Koik is wearing a cap.
Mirna says, “Lony’s father is the pilot. Lony is not the priest’s son.”
Koik says, “I am the priest. On this island, only priests can wear caps.”
Lony says, “I am the priest’s son. Koik is not the priest.”
Which of the following statements is true?
Solution:
Consider Koik's statements.
This makes Lony's second statement false and first statement true,
which in turn makes Mirna's second statement false and first statement
true.
Thus we can see that Lony's father, Koik is the priest as well as the
pilot.
Hence, option 2.
Group Question
Answer the following questions based on the information given below.
There are three different cable channels, namely Ahead, Luck and Bang. In a
survey it was found that 85% of the viewers respond to Bang, 20% to Luck, and
30% to Ahead. 20% of the viewers respond to exactly two channels and 5% to
none.
1) 10
2) 12
3) 14
4) None of these
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Solution:
A general Venn diagram can be drawn to represent the given data as
shown under:
∴ (a + b + c) + (x + y + z) + r = 95 ... (i)
The number of viewers who respond to Ahead, Bang and Luck is 30, 85
and 20 respectively.
∴ a + x + y + r = 30 ... (ii)
b + x + z + r = 85 ... (iii)
c + y + z + r = 20 ... (iv)
∴ x + y + z = 20 ... (vi)
Substituting the value from (vi) in (i) and (v), you get
(a + b + c) + r = 75 ... (vii)
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∴ a + b + c = 65
Hence, option 1.
24. Assuming 20% respond to Ahead and Bang and 16% respond to Bang
3 Marks
and Luck, what is the percentage of viewers who watch only Luck?
1) 20
2) 10
3) 16
4) None of these
Solution:
Using the terminology and the values obtained in the solution to the
previous question,
x + r = 20
and
z + r = 16
x = 10 and z = 6
x + y + z = 20
∴ y=4
∴ c + 4 + 6 + 10 = 20
∴c=0
Hence, option 4.
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Group Question
Answer the following questions based on the information given below.
In a locality, there are five small cities, A, B, C, D and E. The distances of these
cities from each other are as follows:
AB = 2 km AC = 2 km AD > 2 km AE > 3 km BC = 2 km
BD = 4 km BE = 3 km CD = 2 km CE = 3 km DE > 3 km
1) 2
2) 3
3) 4
4) 5
Solution:
Given distances between the points:
(ii) BD = 4 km, CD = 2 km. Hence it can be seen that point D lies on the
extended straight line connecting B and C and at a distance of 2 km
from C.
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Thus, all the 5 cities can be properly served using just 2 ration shops.
Hence, option 1.
26. If a ration shop is to be set up within 3 km of each city, how many ration
3 Marks
shops will be required?
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
Solution:
Using the figure obtained in the solution to the previous question; if a
ration shop is required within 3 km of each city, then a single ration
shop at city C can serve all the cities under consideration.
Hence, option 1.
27. A cube of sides 12 cm is painted red on all the faces and then cut into
3 Marks
smaller cubes, each of sides 3 cm. What is the total number of smaller cubes
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1) 16
2) 8
3) 12
4) 24
Solution:
Number of smaller cubes on each side (n) = 12/3 = 4
If one wants the side of a cube to not be painted, one has to ignore one small
cube exactly in front of that side.
Thus, when one wants a small cube that has none of its sides painted, one
has to ignore one cube from each side. In other words, one has to ignore two
small cubes in each dimension.
Thus, the number of small cubes that have none of their sides painted = (n –
2)3 = 23 = 8
Hence, option 2.
28. In a locality, two-thirds of the people have cable-TV, one-fifth have VCRs, and
3 Marks
one-tenth have both. What is the fraction of people having either cable-TV or a
VCR?
1)
2)
3)
4)
Solution:
Fraction of people having either cable-TV or VCR = Fraction of people having
cable-TV + Fraction of people having VCR − Fraction of people having both
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Hence, option 4.
Group Question
Answer the following questions based on the information given below.
A survey of 200 people in a community who watched at least one of the three
channels - BBC, CNN, DD - showed that 80% of the people watched Doordarshan
(DD), 22% watched BBC, and 15% watched CNN.
29. What is the maximum percent of people who can watch all three
3 Marks
channels?
1) 12.5
2) 8.5
3) 15
4) Insufficient data
Solution:
All 200 people watched at least one channel. This implies that there
was no one who did not watch any of the three channels.
The general Venn diagram for the channels can be drawn as shown
below.
The percentage of people who can watch all three channels can be
maximum only if all the people watching one particular channel also
watch the other two channels.
Note that since only 15% people watch CNN, all of the 80% people who
watch DD cannot watch CNN.
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Thus, the percentage can be maximum if all the people who watch the
channel with the least viewership also watch the other two channels
that have a higher viewership.
Thus, the percentage can be maximum if the 15% people who watch
CNN also watch BBC as well as DD.
Thus, the maximum percentage of people who can wacth all three
channels is 15%.
Hence, option 3.
30. If 5% of the people watched DD and CNN, 10% watched DD and BBC,
3 Marks
then what percent of the people watched BBC and CNN only?
1) 2%
2) 5%
3) 8.5%
4) Indeterminate
Solution:
Consider the Venn diagram made in the previous solution as well as the
data given in the question.
80% people watched DD, 22% watched BBC and 15% watched CNN.
Thus, the actual number of people watching DD, BBC and CNN was
160, 44 and 30 respectively.
b + x + z + r = 44 ... (ii)
c + y + z + r = 30 ... (iii)
∴ y + r = 10 ... (iv)
and
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x + r = 20 ... (v)
x + y + z + 2r = 34
∴ (x + r) + (y + r) + z = 34
Substituting the values from (iv) and (v) in the above equation, you get,
20 + 10 + z = 34
∴z=4
Hence, option 1.
31. Referring to the previous question, how many percent of the people
3 Marks
watched all the three channels?
1) 3.5%
2) 0%
3) 8.5%
4) Indeterminate
Solution:
The percentage of people who watched all three channels can be found
if the value of r can be found.
Hence, option 4.
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Group Question
Answer the following questions based on the information given below.
32.
3 Marks
1)
2) 1
3)
4) 3
Solution:
(i) a # b = a + b, if a, b > 0; else a # b = 1
Therefore,
Hence, option 3.
33.
3 Marks
1)
2)
3)
4) None of these
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Solution:
log10 0.1 = log10 (10)−1 = −1
Thus, one of the parts of the second term of the numerator is negative
and so this second term becomes 1 (as per the alternate condition)
Thus,
Hence, option 1.
34.
3 Marks
1) X = 1, Y = 2
2) X > 0, Y < 0
3) Both X and Y are positive.
4) Both X and Y are negative.
Solution:
If X and Y lie on the same side of the number line, the numerator as
well as denominator both have one term that is negative.
Thus, the value of the expression becomes 1 for the case where both X
and Y are positive as well as for the case where both X and Y are
negative.
The values in option 1 are a specific case of option 3 and so, they also
yield a value of 1 for the expression.
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On the other hand, the denominator has both terms negative and
becomes (XY)−(X + Y)
Among the options given, this is the only option that give the value of
the expression as 3/8.
Hence, option 2.
35. In a survey of political preference, 78% of those asked were in favor of at least
3 Marks
one of the proposals: I, II and III. 50% of those asked favored proposal I, 30%
favored proposal II, and 20% favored proposal III. If 5% of those asked
favored all three of the proposals, what percentage of those asked favored
more than one of the 3 proposals?
1) 10
2) 12
3) 17
4) 22
Solution:
The information given can be expressed as a general Venn Diagram as
shown below.
∴ (a + b + c) + (x + y + z) + r = 78 ... (i)
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The number of people who favored proposals I, II, and III was respectively 50,
30 and 20.
∴ a + x + y + r = 50 ... (ii)
b + x + z + r = 30 ... (iii)
c + y + z + r = 20 ... (iv)
(x + y + z) + 2r = 22 ... (vi)
∴ r = 5 ... (vii)
∴ (x + y + z) = 12 ... (viii)
The number of people who favored more than one of the three proposals = (x
+ y + z) + r
= 12
+5
= 17
Thus, 17 out of 100 people favored more than one of the three proposals.
Hence, 17% people favored more than one of the three proposals.
Hence, option 3.
Group Question
Answer the following questions based on the information given below.
A robot moves on a graph sheet with x and y-axes. The robot is moved by feeding
it a sequence of instructions. The different instructions that can be used in moving
it are:
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36. The robot reaches point (6, 6) when a sequence of three instructions is
3 Marks
executed, the first of which is a GOTO (x, y) instructions, the second is
WALK X(2) and the third is WALK Y(4). What is the value of x and y
respectively?
1) 2, 4
2) 0, 0
3) 4, 2
4) 2, 2
Solution:
The final position of the robot is (6, 6) after the instruction WALK Y(4).
Therefore, the position of the robot just before this instruction and after
the instruction WALK X(2) is (6, 2).
Similarly, the position of the robot just before the instruction WALK X(2)
is (4, 2).
This is also the position of the robot after the GOTO (x, y) instruction
Since the robot is at (4, 2) after the GOTO instruction, it must have
received the instruction as GOTO (4, 2).
∴ x = 4 and y = 2
Hence, option 3.
37. The robot is initially at (x, y), x > 0 and y < 0. The minimum number of
3 Marks
instructions needed to be executed to bring it to the origin (0, 0) if you
are prohibited from using the GOTO instruction is:
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1) 2
2) 1
3) x+y
4) 0
Solution:
Since the x as well as y co-ordinate is not zero and GOTO is not
allowed, each co-ordinate has to be separately brought to zero.
This can be done using a total of two instructions (one WALK X and one
WALK Y).
WALK X(−x)
WALK Y(+y)
Hence, option 1.
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Section I
Group Question
Answer the following questions based on the information given below.
There are three bottles of water, A, B, C, whose capacities are 5 litres, 3 litres, and
2 litres respectively. For transferring water from one bottle to another and to drain
out the bottles, there exists a piping system. The flow thorough these pipes is
computer controlled. The computer that controls the flow through these pipes can
be fed with three types of instructions, as explained below
[CAT 2000]
Solution:
Instruction 1: FILL (C, A)
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Hence, option 2.
2. Consider the same sequence of three instructions and the same initial
3 Marks
state mentioned above. Three more instructions are added at the end of
the above sequence to have A contain 4 litres of water. In this total
sequence of six instructions, the fourth one is DRAIN (A). This is the
only DRAIN instruction in the entire sequence. At the end of the
execution of the above sequence, how much water (in litres) is
contained in C?
1) One
2) Two
3) Zero
4) None of these
Solution:
After third instruction A has 1 litre, B has 2 litres and C has 2 litres of
water.
Instruction 4: DRAIN A
After 6th instruction, C has no water as all 2 litres have been transferred
to A.
Hence, option 3.
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[CAT 2000]
1) One
2) Two
3) Three
4) Four
Solution:
In four moves the task can be accomplished.
One of the ways is given below.
Step 3: Move books 2(on top) and 3(below book 2) from table B to table A on
book 1(bottommost)
Hence, option 4.
[CAT 2000]
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1) Zero
2) Four
3) 2n – 1
4) Cannot be determined
Solution:
The frog has to jump at least four times to reach E.
i.e. a4 = 2
(i.e. (i)A-B, B-C,C-D and D-E; (ii) A-H, H-G, G-F and F-E).
If the frog keeps jumping on left (right) hand side vertices it will not take more
than four jumps.
If it jumps on right vertex and then keeps on jumping left vertices then it will
take 6 jumps to reach E.
∴ We will not find any path such that the frog takes 5 jumps and reaches E.
∴ a5 = 0
Similarly, we find that only for even values of n the frog can reach E.
2n − 1 is an odd number
Hence, option 1.
Group Question
Answer the following questions based on the information given below.
The following sketch shows the pipelines carrying material from one location to
another. Each location has a demand for material. The demand at Vaishali is 400,
at Jyotishmati is 400, at Panchal is 700, and at Vidisha is 200. Each arrow
indicates the direction of material flow through the pipeline. The flow from Vaishali
to Jyotishmati is 300. The quantity of material flow is such that the demands at all
these locations are exactly met. The capacity of each pipeline is 1000.
[CAT 2001]
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1) 200
2) 800
3) 700
4) 1000
Solution:
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The diagram above shows the flow of the material in the pipelines and
the demand at the respective points.
Hence, option 4.
1) 0
2) 100
3) 200
4) 300
Solution:
From the flow diagram, we have,
Each pipeline has a capacity of 1000 and the flow in the Avanti-Vaishali
pipeline is 700.
Hence, option 4.
1) 300
2) 200
3) 100
4) 0
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Solution:
From the flow diagram, the Avanti-Vidisha pipeline carries 1000.
Hence, option 4.
8. While Balbir had his back turned, a dog ran into his butcher shop, snatched a
3 Marks
piece of meat off the counter and ran out. Balbir was mad when he realised
what had happened. He asked three other shopkeepers, who had seen the
dog, to describe it. The shopkeepers really didn't want to help Balbir. So each
of them made a statement which contained one truth and one lie.
A. Shopkeeper Number 1 said: "The dog had black hair and a long tail."
B. Shopkeeper Number 2 said: "The dog has a short tail and wore a collar."
C. Shopkeeper Number 3 said: "The dog had white hair and no collar."
[CAT 2001]
Solution:
According to the statement of the shopkeeper number 1, the dog had either
black hair or a long tail, but definitely not both.
According to the statement of shopkeeper number 3, the dog had either white
hair or wore a collar, but not both.
Hence, option 2.
9. Eight people carrying food baskets are going for a picnic on motorcycles.
3 Marks
Their names A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H. They have four motorcycles, M1, M2,
M3 and M4 among them. They also have four food baskets O, P, Q and R of
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different sizes and shapes and each can be carried only on motorcycles M1,
M2, M3, or M4, respectively. No more than two persons can travel on a
motorcycle and no more than one basket can be carried on a motorcycle.
There are two husband-wife pairs in this group of eight people and each pair
will ride on a motorcycle together. C cannot travel with A or B. E cannot travel
with B or F. G cannot travel with F or H or D. The husband-wife pairs must
carry baskets O and P. Q is with A and P is with D. F travels on M1 and E
travels on M2 motorcycles. G is with Q, and B cannot go with R. Who is
travelling with H?
1) A
2) B
3) C
4) D
Solution:
As, O, P, Q, R are on motorcycle M1, M2, M3, M4 respectively. Hence we get,
Hence we get,
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Hence, option 3.
10. In a family gathering there are two males who are grandfathers and four
3 Marks
males who are fathers. In the same gathering there are two females who are
grandmothers and four females who are mothers. There is at least one
grandson or a granddaughter present in this gathering. There are two
husband-wife pairs in this group. These can either be a grandfather and a
grandmother, or a father and a mother. The single grandfather (who wife is
not present) has two grandsons and a son present. The single grandmother
(whose husband is not present) has two granddaughters and a daughter
present. A grandfather or a grandmother present with their spouses does not
have any grandson or granddaughter present. What is the minimum number
of people present in this gathering?
[CAT 2001]
1) 10
2) 12
3) 14
4) 16
Solution:
∵ We want the minimum number of people, let us assume that the two
grandfathers and two grandmothers have already been counted as fathers
and mothers respectively.
Hence, option 2.
Group Question
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A and B are two sets (e.g. A = mothers, B = women). The elements that could
belong to both the sets (e.g. women who are mothers) is given by the set C = A.B.
The elements which could belong to either A or B, or both, is indicated by the set
D = A ∪ B. A set that does not contain any elements is known as a null set,
represented by ϕ (for example, if none of the women in the set B is a mother, they
C = A.B is a null set, or C = ϕ).
Let 'V' signify the set of all vertebrates; 'M' the set of all mammals; 'D' dogs; 'F'
fish; 'A' Alsatian and 'P', a dog named Pluto.
[CAT 2001]
11. Given that X = M.D is such that X = D, which of the following is true?
3 Marks
Solution:
X = M.D implies some dogs are mammals and X = D implies the set of
dogs.
Hence, option 1.
Solution:
Y = F.(D.V) implies some vertebrates are dogs and some vertebrate
dogs are fishes.
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Hence, option 3.
Solution:
Z = (P.D) ∪ M
P.D means a dog called Pluto and P ∪ M means Pluto the dog and the
other mammals.
Hence, option 1.
Solution:
P. A = ϕ means that "Pluto is not an Alsatian".
Hence, option 3.
Group Question
Answer the following questions based on the information given below.
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A man headed towards north and follows the given signals as:
[CAT 2002]
15. What is the total distance covered by the man till the last signal?
3 Marks
1) 90 km
2) 120 km
3) 110 km
4) 84 km
Solution:
The movement can be tabulated as below:
= 10 + 10 + 20 + 40 + 10
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= 90 km
Hence, option 1.
16. What is his net displacement with respect to the starting point?
3 Marks
Solution:
The map of his movements is as shown below:
Hence, option 2.
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17. If the first signal after the starting point, is 1 Red and 2 Green lights,
3 Marks
then what is the total distance covered by the man till the last signal?
1) 90 km
2) 50 km
3) 40 km
4) 80 km
Solution:
Since only the direction of the man has changed, the total distance
covered by him will still remain the same.
∴ Total distance = 90 km
Hence, option 1.
18. Instead of heading North, if the man was heading South, then by the
3 Marks
end of the journey, he was
Solution:
If instead of North, the man headed for South, the map given in the
solution of the second question in the set will get inverted and flipped.
Hence, option 4.
19. In each of the following questions there are two blanks marked I & II. The
3 Marks words to fill in these blanks are given against I as (A, B, C, D) and II as (P, Q,
R, S). The right words to fill in these blanks are given as four alternatives. The
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words on either side of the sign (::) have a similar relationship. That alternative
which signifies this relationship is your answer.
For what reason Purohit did not get the offer of employment?
Statement:
[CAT 2002]
Solution:
Non-clearance of the mandatory medical test is the reason for not getting the
offer of employment.
Hence, option 4.
20. Each question given below is followed by five statements numbered I, II, III, IV
3 Marks and V. The answer choice given below each question consists of one or more
statements. You have to choose the choice which gives more relevant / useful
information in answering the question correctly. Read all the statements
together with the question and choose your answer
What were the possible reasons due to which DESCO incurred losses for the
last two years?
Statement:
[CAT 2002]
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Solution:
Inefficient labour forces, fall in product price, and entry of similar foreign
goods at lower rates are the possible reasons for incurring losses by DESCO.
Hence, option 1.
21. Each question given below is followed by five statements numbered I, II, III, IV
3 Marks and V. The answer choice given below each question consists of one or more
statements. You have to choose the choice which gives more relevant / useful
information in answering the question correctly. Read all the statements
together with the question and choose your answer
On which day of the week did Sunil get his letter of promotion?
Statement:
[CAT 2002]
1) I and II only
2) II, III and IV only
3) I and III only
4) II, III and V only
Solution:
Sunil purchased a new shirt on Friday and he got the letter of promotion one
day before.
Hence, option 3.
Group Question
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New Age Consultants have three consultants Gyani, Medha and Buddhi. The sum
of the number of projects handled by Gyani and Buddhi individually is equal to
the number of projects in which Medha is involved. All three consultants are
involved together in 6 projects. Gyani works with Medha in 14 projects. Buddhi
has 2 projects with Medha but without Gyani and 3 projects with Gyani but
without Medha. The total number of projects for New Age Consultants is one less
than twice the number of projects in which more than one consultant is involved.
Solution:
b + d = 14
∴b=8
Also, e = 3 and f = 2
It is given that
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a+g=b+c+d+f
∴ a − c + g = 16 … (i)
a + b + c + d + e + f + g = 2 × (b + d + e + f) − 1
∴ a + c + g = 19 − 1 = 18 … (ii)
c = 1 and a + g = 17
Hence, option 4.
Solution:
From the solution to the previous question, we get, c = 1
Hence, option 2.
Group Question
Answer the following questions based on the information given below.
Two days (Thursday and Friday) are left for campaigning before a major election,
and the city administration has received requests from five political parties for
taking out their processions along the following routes.
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Congress: A-C-D-E
BJP: A-B-D-E
SP: A-B-C-E
BSP: B-C-E
CPM: A-C-D
1) Only on Thursday.
2) Only on Friday.
3) On either day.
4) Only if the religious procession is cancelled.
Solution:
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Hence, option 1.
Solution:
From the explanation given in the solution of the first question we get
that,
Hence, option 4.
1) 15%
2) 5%
3) 10%
4) Cannot be determined
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Solution:
70% have VCD Players.
= 100 – 90 = 10%
Hence, option 3.
Alternatively,
= 45%
= 65%
= 10%
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Hence, option 3.
Group Question
Answer the following questions based on the information given below.
The seven basic symbols in a certain numeral system and their respective values
are as follows:
In general, the symbols in the numeral system are read from left to right, starting
with the symbol representing the largest value; the same symbol cannot occur
continuously more than three times; the value of the numeral is the sum of the
values of the symbols.
1) 1687
2) 1787
3) 1887
4) 1987
Solution:
The expression MDCCLXXXVII is expanded as,
= 1787
Hence, option 2.
1) 1999
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2) 1899
3) 1989
4) 1889
Solution:
The expression MCMXCIX is expanded as,
= 1000 + 900 + 90 + 9
= 1999
Hence, option 1.
29. Which of the following can represent the numeral for 1995?
3 Marks
a. MCMLXXV
b. MCMXCV
c. MVD
d. MVM
Solution:
Option (a): MCMLXXV
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Hence, option 3.
Group Question
Answer the following questions based on the information given below.
A study was conducted to ascertain the relative importance that employees in five
different countries assigned to five different traits in their Chief Executive Officers.
The traits were compassion (C), decisiveness (D), negotiation skills (N), public
visibility (P), and vision (V). The level of dissimilarity between two countries is the
maximum difference in the ranks allotted by the two countries to any of the five
traits. The following table indicates the rank order of the five traits for each
country.
[CAT 2004]
30. Three of the following four pairs of countries have identical levels of
3 Marks
dissimilarity. Which pair is the odd one out?
Solution:
Let us consider the options:
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‘N’.
Hence, option 4.
1) China
2) Japan
3) Malaysia
4) Thailand
Solution:
The table gives levels of dissimilarity between India and the other
countries for all traits.
Hence, option 2.
1) China
2) Japan
3) Malaysia
4) Thailand
Solution:
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From the above table, China is least dissimilar to India (since its level of
dissimilarity is only 2).
Hence, option 1.
Solution:
Consider the levels of dissimilarities for the four options.
Hence, option 4.
Group Question
Answer the following questions based on the information given below.
A Maximum number of volunteers are involved in the FR project. Among them, the
number of volunteers involved in FR project alone is equal to the volunteers having
additional involvement in the ER project.
The number of volunteers involved in the ER project alone is double the number of
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[CAT 2005]
1) 1
2) 3
3) 4
4) 5
Solution:
Now, a + b + 4 = 10
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∴a+b=6
Also, 7 + a + b + 4 + x + x – 4 + 8 = 37
∴ 2x = 16 or x = 8
Hence, option 3.
35. Which of the following additional information would enable to find the
3 Marks
exact number of volunteers involved in various projects?
Solution:
We can obtain the information in options 2 and 3 from the initial data.
Hence, option 1.
36. After some time, the volunteers who were involved in all the three
3 Marks
projects were asked to withdraw from one project. As a result, one of
the volunteers opted out of the TR project, and one opted out of the ER
project, while the remaining ones involved in all the three projects opted
out of the FR project. Which of the following statements, then,
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necessarily follows?
Solution:
Hence, option 2.
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one project alone for each of the three projects became identical. At that
point, it was also found that the number of volunteers involved in FR
and ER projects was the same as the number of volunteers involved in
TR and ER projects. Which of the projects now has the highest number
of volunteers?
1) ER
2) FR
3) TR
4) Cannot be determined
Solution:
Let m volunteers be added to TR project and n be added to each of FR
and ER projects.
Then, 7 + m = 8 + n
∴m=n+1
Also, b + 2 = 5
∴ b = 3 and a = 3
Hence, option 1.
38. Three Englishmen and three Frenchmen work for the same company. Each of
3 Marks
them knows a secret not known to others. They need to exchange these
secrets over person-to-person phone calls so that eventually each person
knows all six secrets. None of the Frenchmen knows English, and only one
Englishman knows French. What is the minimum number of phone calls
needed for the above purpose?
[CAT 2005]
1) 5
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2) 10
3) 9
4) 15
Solution:
Let E1, E2 and E3 be the three Englishmen and F1, F2 and F3 be the three
Frenchmen.
Now, Let A ↔ B denote a phone call between A and B, where they both tell
each other their secrets.The following phone calls will ensure that all six
persons know all the six secrets.
1. E1 ↔ E2
3. F1 ↔ F 2
6. E3 ↔ E2
7. E2 ↔ E1
8. F3 ↔ F 2
9. F2 ↔ F 1
Thus, a minimum of 9 calls are needed to pass all the secrets to all the six
persons.
Hence, option 3.
Group Question
Answer the following questions based on the information given below.
A significant amount of traffic flows from point S to point T in the one-way street
network shown below. Points A, B, C, and D are junctions in the network, and the
arrows mark the direction of traffic flow. The fuel cost in rupees for travelling along
a street is indicated by the number adjacent to the arrow representing the street.
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Motorists travelling from point S to point T would obviously take the route for
which the total cost of travelling is the minimum. If two or more routes have the
same least travel cost, then motorists are indifferent between them. Hence, the
traffic gets evenly distributed among all the least cost routes.
The government can control the flow of traffic only by levying appropriate toll at
each junction. For example, if a motorist takes the route S-A-T (using junction A
alone), then the total cost of travel would be Rs. 14 (i.e. Rs. 9 + Rs. 5) plus the
toll charged at junction A.
[CAT 2006]
39. If the government wants to ensure that all motorists travelling from S to
3 Marks
T pay the same amount (fuel costs and toll combined) regardless of the
route they choose and the street from B to C is under repairs (and
hence unusable), then a feasible set of toll charged (in rupees) at
junctions A, B, C, and D respectively to achieve this goal is:
1) 2, 5, 3, 2
2) 0, 5, 3, 1
3) 1, 5, 3, 2
4) 2, 3, 5, 1
5) 1, 3, 5, 1
Solution:
Let the toll charged at junctions A, B, C and D be a, b, c and d
respectively.
Since the cost of travel including toll on routes S-A-T, S-D-T, S-B-A-T
and S-D-C-T is the same,
∴ 14 + a = 13 + d = 9 + a + b = 10 + c + d
Thus, b = 5, d – a = 1, c = 3
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If a = 0, d = 1, If a = 1, d = 2 and if a = 2, d = 3
40. If the government wants to ensure that no traffic flows on the street from
3 Marks
D to T, while equal amount of traffic flows through junctions A and C,
then a feasible set of toll charged (in rupees) at junctions A, B, C, and D
respectively to achieve this goal is:
1) 1, 5, 3, 3
2) 1, 4, 4, 3
3) 1, 5, 4, 2
4) 0, 5, 2, 3
5) 0, 5, 2, 2
Solution:
Since the cost of travel including toll on routes S-A-T, S-B-C-T, S-B-A-T
and S-D-C-T is the same,
∴ 14 + a = 7 + b + c = 9 + a + b = 10 + c + d
∴ b = 5, d = 2, c – a = 2
Hence, option 5.
41. If the government wants to ensure that all routes from S to T get the
3 Marks
same amount of traffic, then a feasible set of toll charged (in rupees) at
junctions A, B, C, and D respectively to achieve this goal is:
1) 0, 5, 2, 2
2) 0, 5, 4, 1
3) 1, 5, 3, 3
4) 1, 5, 3, 2
5) 1, 5, 4, 2
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Solution:
Since the cost of travel including toll on all routes is the same.
∴ 14 + a = 7 + b + c = 13 + d = 9 + a + b = 10 + c + d
∴ b = 5, d = 2, c = 3 and a = 1
Hence, option 4.
42. If the government wants to ensure that the traffic at S gets evenly
3 Marks
distributed along streets from S to A, from S to B, and from S to D, then
a feasible set of toll charged (in rupees) at junctions A, B, C, and D
respectively to achieve this goal is:
1) 0, 5, 4, 1
2) 0, 5, 2, 2
3) 1, 5, 3, 3
4) 1, 5, 3, 2
5) 0, 4, 3, 2
Solution:
If we make the cost of travelling on all the routes equal, traffic along S-B
will be twice that along S-A.
But we want traffic along S-A, S-B and S-D to be the same.
Now, 14 + a = 9 + b = 13 + d
∴ a = 0, b = 5 and d =1
∴c>3
Hence, option 1.
43. The government wants to devise a toll policy such that the total cost to
3 Marks
the commuters per trip is minimized. The policy should also ensure that
not more than 70 per cent of the total traffic passes through junction B.
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1) Rs. 7
2) Rs. 9
3) Rs. 10
4) Rs. 13
5) Rs. 14
Solution:
If toll charges at all junctions are made 0, 100% traffic will pass through
S-B-C-T. This is not possible.
If toll charges at A and B are made 0, then 100% traffic will pass
through S-B-A-T. This is also not possible.
If toll charges at C and D are made 0, that at B are made Rs. 3, then
the traffic will get equally divided between S-D-C-T and S-B-C-T.
Hence, option 3.
44. A survey was conducted of 100 people to find out whether they had read
3 Marks
recent issues of Golmal, a monthly magazine. The summarized information
regarding readership in 3 months is given below:
Only September: 18; September but not August: 23; September and July:
8; September: 28; July: 48; July and August: 10; None of the three months:
24.
What is the number of surveyed people who have read exactly two
consecutive issues (out of the three)?
[CAT 2006]
1) 7
2) 9
3) 12
4) 14
5) 17
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Solution:
If x people read all the three issues, then (8 – x) people read only the
September and July issues.
23 people read the September issue but not the August issue.
∴ 18 + 8 – x = 23
∴x=3
As 10 people read the July and August issues, 10 – 3 = 7 people read only
the July and August issues.
∴ The number of people who have read exactly two consecutive issues = 7 +
2=9
Hence, option 2.
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PAST CAT PAPER 2002
Instructions:
1. The Test Paper contains 150 questions. The duration of the test is 120 minutes.
2. The paper is divided into three sections. Section-I: 50 Q:, Section-II: 50 Q:, Section-III: 50 Q.
3. Wrong answers carry negative marks. There is only one correct answer for each question.
Section 1
Directions for questions 1 to 6: Answer the questions independently.
Four students — Ashish, Dhanraj, Felix and Sameer sat for the Common Entrance Exam for Management
(CEEM). One student got admission offers from three NIMs (National Institutes of Management), another
from two NIMs, the third from one NIM, while the fourth got none. Below are some of the facts about who
got admission offers from how many NIMs and what is their educational background.
I. The one who is an engineer didn’t get as many admissions as Ashish.
II. The one who got offer for admissions in two NIMs isn’t Dhanraj nor is he a chartered accountant.
III. Sameer is an economist.
IV. Dhanraj isn’t an engineer and received more admission offers than Ashish.
V. The doctor got the most number of admission offers.
2. Five boys went to a store to buy sweets. One boy had Rs. 40. Another boy had Rs. 30. Two other
boys had Rs. 20 each. The remaining boy had Rs. 10. Below are some more facts about the initial
and final cash positions.
I. Alam started with more than Jugraj.
II. Sandeep spent Rs. 1.50 more than Daljeet.
III. Ganesh started with more money than just only one other person.
2
IV. Daljeet started with of what Sandeep started with.
3
V. Alam spent the most, but did not end with the least.
VI. Jugraj spent the least and ended with more than Alam or Daljeet.
VII. Ganesh spent Rs.3.50.
VIII. Alam spent 10 times more than what Ganesh did.
In the choices given below, all statements except one are false. Which one of the following statements
can be true?
1. Alam started with Rs. 40 and ended with Rs. 9.50
2. Sandeep started with Rs. 30 and ended with Re. 1
3. Ganesh started with Rs. 20 and ended with Rs. 4
4. Jugraj started with Rs. 10 and ended with Rs. 7
4. Three children won the prizes in the Bournvita Quiz contest. They are from the schools: Loyola,
Convent and Little Flowers, which are located at different cities. Below are some of the facts about
the schools, the children and the city they are from.
I. One of the children is Bipin.
II. Loyola School’s contestant did not come first.
III. Little Flower’s contestant was named Riaz.
IV. Convent School is not in Hyderabad.
V. The contestant from Pune is not from Loyola School.
VI. The contestant from Bangalore did not come first.
VII. Convent School’s contestant’s name is not Balbir.
5. Two boys are playing on a ground. Both the boys are less than 10 years old. Age of the younger boy
is equal to the cube root of the product of the age of the two boys. If we place the digit representing
the age of the younger boy to the left of the digit representing the age of the elder boy, we get the age
of father of the younger boy. Similarly, if we place the digit representing the age of the elder boy to
the left of the digit representing the age of the younger boy and divide the figure by 2, we get the age
of mother of the younger boy. The mother of the younger boy is younger to his father by 3 years.
Then, what is the age of the younger boy?
1. 3 2. 4 3. 2 4. None of these
6. Flights A and B are scheduled from an airport within the next one hour. All the booked passengers
of the two flights are waiting in the boarding hall after check-in. The hall has a seating capacity of
200, out of which 10% remained vacant. 40% of the waiting passengers are ladies. When boarding
announcement came, passengers of flight A left the hall and boarded the flight. Seating capacity of
each flight is two-third of the passengers who waited in the waiting hall for both the flights put
together. Half the passengers who boarded flight A are women. After boarding for flight A, 60% of the
waiting hall seats became empty. For every twenty of those who are still waiting in the hall for flight
B, there is one air hostess in flight A. What is the ratio of empty seats in flight B to the number of
air hostesses in flight A?
1. 10 : 1 2. 5 : 1 3. 20 : 1 4. 1 : 1
7. The total distance travelled by the motorist from the starting point till the last signal is
1. 90 km 2. 100 km 3. 120 km 4. None of these
8. What is the position (radial distance) of the most motorist when he reaches the last signal?
1. 45 km directly north of the starting point
2. 30 km directly to the east of the starting point
3. 50 km away to the north-east of the starting point
4. 45 km away to the north-west of the starting point
9. After the starting point if the 1st signal were 1 red and 2 green lights, what would be the final position
of the motorist?
1. 30 km to the west and 20 km to the south 2. 30 km to the west and 40 km to the north
3. 50 km to the east and 40 km to the north 4. Directly 30 km to the east
10. If at the starting point, the car was heading towards south, what would be the final position of the
motorist?
1. 30 km to the east and 40 km to the south 2. 50 km to the east and 40 km to the south
3. 30 km to the west and 40 km to the south 4. 50 km to the west and 20 km to the north
11. What percentage of cities located within 10°E and 40°E (20° East and 40° East) lie in the Southern
Hemisphere?
1. 15% 2. 20% 3. 25% 4. 30%
12. The number of cities whose names begin with a consonant and are in the Northern Hemisphere in
the table
1. exceeds the number of cities whose names begin with a consonant and are in the southern
hemisphere by 1
2. exceeds the number of cities whose names begin with a consonant and are in the southern
hemisphere by 2
3. is less than the number of cities whose names begin with a consonant and are in the east of the
meridian by 1
4. is less than the number of countries whose name begins with a consonant and are in the east
of the meridian by 3
13. The ratio of the number of countries whose name starts with vowels and located in the southern
hemisphere, to the number of countries, the name of whose capital cities starts with a vowel in the
table above is
1. 3 : 2 2. 3 : 3 3. 3 : 1 4. 4 : 3
14. In a hockey match, the Indian team was behind by 2 goals with 5 min remaining. Did they win the
match?
A. Deepak Thakur, the Indian striker, scored 3 goals in the last 5 min of the match.
B. Korea scored a total of 3 goals in the match.
1. 1 2. 2 3. 3 4. 4
15. Four students were added to a dance class. Would the teacher be able to divide her students evenly
into a dance team (or teams) of 8?
A. If 12 students were added, the teacher could put everyone in teams of 8 without any leftovers.
B. The number of students in the class is currently not divisible by 8.
1. 1 2. 2 3. 3 4. 4
16. Is x = y?
1 1
A. (x + y) + = 4
x y
B. (x − 50)2 = (y − 50)2
1. 1 2. 4 3. 3 4. 4
17. A dress was initially listed at a price that would have given the store a profit of 20% of the wholesale
cost. What was the wholesale cost of the dress?
A. After reducing the listed price by 10%, the dress sold for a net profit of $10.
B. The dress is sold for $50.
1. 1 2. 2 3. 3 4. 4
19. Is |x – 2| < 1?
A. |x| < 1
B. |x – 1| < 2
1. 2 2. 1 3. 3 4. 4
20. People in a club either speak French or Russian or both. Find the number of people in a club who
speak only French.
A. There are 300 people in the club and the number of people who speak both French and Russian
is 196.
B. The number of people who speak only Russian is 58.
1. 1 2. 2 3. 3 4. 4
Directions for questions 22 to 25: Answer the questions based on the following information.
The following table gives details regarding the total earnings of 15 employees and the number of days they
have worked on complex, medium and simple operation in the month of June 2002. Even though the
employees might have worked on an operation, they would be eligible for earnings only if they have minimum
level of efficiency.
23. The number of employees who have earned more than Rs. 600 and having more than 80% attendance
(there are 25 regular working days in June 2002; some might be coming on overtime too) is
1. 4 2. 5 3. 6 4. 7
24. The employee number of the person who has earned the maximum earnings per day in medium
operation is
1. 2001180 2. 2001164 3. 2001172 4. 2001179
25. Among the employees who were engaged in complex and medium operations, the number of
employees whose average earning per day in complex operations is more than average earning per
day in medium operations is
1. 2 2. 3 3. 5 4. 7
The following table shows the revenue and expenses in millions of Euros (European currency) associated
with REPSOL YPF company’s oil and gas producing activities in operations in different parts of the world
for 1998-2000.
REPSOL YPF’S Operations of Oil and Gas Producing Activities
S. No. Item Year Total Spain North Argentina Rest of Far North Rest of
World Africa & Latin East Sea the
Middle America World
East
1998 916 70 366 281 34 82 78 5
1 Revenue 1999 3374 55 666 2006 115 301 140 91
2000 8328 394 1290 5539 482 603 0 20
1998 668 39 255 187 57 63 52 15
2 Expenses 1999 1999 48 325 1168 131 204 65 58
2000 3709 43 530 2540 252 311 0 33
Income
1998 248 31 111 94 –23 19 26 –10
before
Taxes &
1999 1375 7 341 838 –16 97 75 33
3 Charges
(Revenue-
Expenses) 2000 4619 351 760 2999 230 292 0 –13
=[(1)-(2)]
1998 152 6 104 33 –3 9 6 –3
Taxes &
4 1999 561 3 169 338 –6 39 21 –3
Charges
2000 1845 126 404 1150 61 103 0 1
Net
1998 96 25 7 61 –20 10 20 –7
Income
5 Taxes
1999 814 4 172 500 –10 58 54 36
Charges
[=(3)-(4)] 2000 2774 225 356 1849 169 189 0 –14
26. How many operations (Spain, North Africa and Middle East,..) of the company accounted for less
than 5% of the total revenue earned in 1999?
1. 2 2. 3 3. 4 4. None of these
27. How many operations (Spain, North Africa and Middle East…) of the company witnessed more than
200% revenue from 1999 to 2000?
1. 1 2. 2 3. 3 4. None of these
28. How many operations registered a sustained yearly increase in income before taxes and charges
from 1998 to 2000?
1. 3 2. 4 3. 5 4. None of these
30. If profitability is defined as the ratio of net income after taxes and charges to expense, which of the
following statements is true?
1. The Far East operations witnessed its highest profitability in 1998
2. The North Sea operations increased its profitability from 1998 to 1999
3. The operations in Argentina witnessed a decrease in profitability from 1998 to 1999
4. Both 2 and 3 are true
31. In 2000, which among the following countries had the best profitability?
1. North Africa and Middle East 2. Spain
3. Rest of Latin America 4. Far East
32. If efficiency is defined as the ratio of revenue to expenses, which operation was the least efficient in
2000?
1. Spain 2. Argentina 3. Far East 4. None of these
Directions for questions 34 and 35: Answer the questions based on the pie charts given below.
Sw itzerland Pakistan
Sw itzerland Pakistan 11% 16%
USA
20% 12%
15%
India
20%
USA
17% Turkey
India
Turkey China 15%
China 26%
16% 15%
17%
Chart 1
Chart 2
Chart 1 shows the distribution by value of top 6 suppliers of MFA Textiles in 1995. Chart 2 shows the
distribution by quantity of top 6 suppliers of MFA Textiles in 1995. The total value is 5760 million
Euro (European currency). The total quantity is 1.055 million tonnes.
Directions for questions 36 to 41: Answer these questions based on the tables given below:
There are 6 refineries, 7 depots and 9 districts. The refineries are BB, BC, BD, BE, BF and BG. The depots
are AA, AB, AC, AD, AE, AF and AG. The districts are AAA, AAB, AAC, AAD, AAE, AAF, AAG, AAH, and
AAI. Table A gives the cost of transporting one unit from refinery to depot. Table B gives the cost of
transporting one unit from depot to a district.
Table A
BB BC BD BE BF BG
AA 928.2 537.2 567.8 589.9 589.9 800.1
AB 311.1 596.7 885.7 759.9 759.9 793.9
AC 451.1 0 320.1 780.1 720.7 1000.1
AD 371.1 150.1 350.1 750.1 650.4 980.1
AE 1137.3 314.5 0 1157.7 1157.7 1023.4
AF 617.1 516.8 756.5 1065.9 1065.9 406.3
AG 644.3 299.2 537.2 1093.1 1093.1 623.9
Table B
AA AB AC AD AE AF AG
AAA 562.7 843.2 314.5 889.1 0 754.8 537.2
AAB 532.7 803.2 284.5 790.5 95.2 659.6 442
AAC 500.7 780.2 0 457.3 205.7 549.1 331.5
AAD 232.9 362.1 286.2 275.4 523.6 525.3 673.2
AAE 345.1 268.6 316.2 163.2 555.9 413.1 227.8
AAF 450.1 644.3 346.2 372.3 933.3 402.9 379.1
AAG 654.5 0 596.7 222.7 885.7 387.6 348.5
AAH 804.1 149.6 627.2 360.4 1035.3 537.2 498.1
AAI 646 255 433.5 137.7 698.7 112.2 161.5
36. What is the least cost of sending one unit from any refinery to any district?
1. 95.2 2. 0 3. 205.7 4. 284.5
37. What is the least cost of sending one unit from any refinery to the district AAB?
1. 0 2. 284.5 3. 95.2 4. None of these
38. What is the least cost of sending one unit from refinery BB to any district?
1. 284.5 2. 311.1 3. 451.1 4. None of these
39. What is the least cost of sending petrol from refinery BB to district AAA?
1. 765.6 2. 1137.3 3. 1154.3 4. None of these
41. The largest cost of sending petrol from any refinery to any district is
1. 2172.6 2. 2193.0 3. 2091.0 4. None of these
Directions for questions 42 to 47: Answer the questions based on the chart given below.
The chart given below indicates the annual sales tax revenue collections (in rupees in crores) of seven
states from 1997 to 2001. The values given at the top of each bar represents the total collections in that
year.
49.638
50000
4300
45000 W B W es t Bengal
42.348
6375
40000 3500 UP Uttar Prdes h
36.068 5270
35000 33.168 3118 8015 TN Tamil Nadu
29.870 2844
30000 4458 7000
W B 2704 3935
25000 UP 3473 6113 12034 MA Maharas htra
5604
TN 5341 10284
20000
8067
7826 5413 KA Karnataka
15000 MA 7290 4839
3829 4265
10000 KA 3510 6300 GU Gujarat
5400
4402 4796
5000 GU 4026
7202 A P A ndhra Prades h
A P 3526 4728 5251 6055
0
1996-97 1997-98 1998-99 1999-2000 2000-01
42. If for each year, the states are ranked in terms of the descending order of sales tax collections,
how many states do not change the ranking more than once over the five years?
1. 1 2. 5 3. 3 4. 4
43. Which of the following states has changed its relative ranking most number of times when you
rank the states in terms of the descending volume of sales tax collections each year?
1. Andhra Pradesh 2. Uttar Pradesh 3. Karnataka 4. Tamil Nadu
44. The percentage share of sales tax revenue of which state has increased from 1997 to 2001?
1. Tamil Nadu 2. Karnataka 3. Gujarat 4. Andhra Pradesh
45. Which pair of successive years shows the maximum growth rate of tax revenue in Maharashtra?
1. 1997 to 1998 2. 1998 to 1999 3. 1999 to 2000 4. 2000 to 2001
47. Which state below has been maintaining a constant rank over the years in terms of its contribution
to total tax collections?
1. Andhra Pradesh 2. Karnataka 3. Tamil Nadu 4. Uttar Pradesh
Directions for questions 48 to 50: Answer the questions based on the table given below.
The table below gives information about four different crops, their different quality, categories and the
regions where they are cultivated. Based on the information given in the table answer the questions below.
48. How many regions produce medium qualities of Crop-1 or Crop-2 and also produce low quality of
Crop-3 or Crop-4?
1. Zero 2. One 3. Two 4. Three
50. How many low quality Crop-1 producing regions are either high quality Crop-4 producing regions or
medium quality Crop-3 producing regions?
1. One 2. Two 3. Three 4. Zero
DIRECTIONS for Questions 51 to 53: In each question, there are two statements: A and B, either of
which can be true or false on the basis of the information given below.
A research agency collected the following data regarding the admission process of a reputed manage-
ment school in India.
51. Statement A: The success rate of moving from written test to interview stage for males was worse
than for females in 2003.
Statement B: The success rate of moving from written test to interview stage for females was better
in 2002 than in 2003.
52. Statement A: In 2002, the number of females selected for the course as a proportion of the number
of females who bought application forms, was higher than the corresponding proportion for males.
Statement B: In 2002, among those called for interview, males had a greater success rate than
females.
53. Statement A: The percentage of absentees in the written test among females decreased from 2002
to 2003.
Statement B: The percentage of absentees in the written test among males was larger than among
females in 2003.
The length of an infant is one of the measures of his/her development in the early stages of his/her life.
The figure below shows the growth chart of four infants in the first five months of life.
65
60
Seeta
Length (cm)
Geeta
55
Ram
Shyam
50
45
0 1 2 3 4 5
Month
54. After which month did Seeta's rate of growth start to decline?
1. Second month 2. Third month 3. Fourth month 4. Never
55. Who grew at the fastest rate in the first two months of life?
1. Geeta 2. Seeta 3. Ram 4. Shyam
56. The rate of growth during the third month was the lowest for
1. Geeta 2. Seeta 3. Ram 4. Shyam
57. Among the four infants, who grew the least in the first five months of life?
1. Geeta 2. Seeta 3. Ram 4. Shyam
59. Given the information above, the percentage of respondents older than 35 can be at most
1. 30% 2. 73.33% 3. 76.67% 4. 90%
60. The percentage of respondents that fall into the 35 to 40 years age group (both inclusive) is at least
1. 6.67% 2. 10% 3. 13.33% 4. 26.67%
DIRECTIONS for Questions 61 to 63: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
Spam that enters our electronic mailboxes can be classified under several spam heads. The following table
shows the distribution of such spam worldwide over time. The total number of spam emails received during
December 2002 was larger than the number received in June 2003. The total number of spam emails
received during September 2002 was larger than the number received in March 2003. The figures in the
table represent the percentage of all spam emails received during that period, falling into those respective
categories.
61. In which category was the percentage of spam emails increasing but at a decreasing rate?
1. Financial 2. Scams 3. Products 4. None of the above
63. In the financial category, the number of spam emails received in September 2002 as compared to
March 2003.
1. was larger 2. was smaller 3. was equal 4. cannot be determined
DIRECTIONS for Questions 64 to 66: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
One of the functions of the Reserve Bank of India is to mobilize funds for the Government of India by issuing
securities. The following table shows details of funds mobilized during the period July 2002 - July 2003.
Notice that on each date there were two rounds of issues, each with a different maturity.
Non-
Competitive Non- Total
Date of Notified competitive Competitive bids Coupon Implicit
Maturity bids competitive amount
issue amount bids accepted rate % yield %
received bids accepted mobilized
received
Rs. Crore Years No. No. No. Value No. Value Rs. Crore
17-Jul-02 40 15 229 23 66 15.21 23 0.37 16 8.07 7.80
17-Jul-02 30 10 145 12 90 29.88 12 0.12 30 6.72 6.72
5-Aug-02 50 9 324 13 105 49.68 13 0.33 50 9.39 7.24
5-Aug-02 20 24 163 9 34 19.81 9 0.19 20 10.18 7.93
28-Aug-02 50 15 260 26 157 48.92 26 1.08 50 7.46 7.46
28-Aug-02 20 30 119 15 67 19.61 15 0.39 20 7.95 7.95
11-Sep-02 40 15 261 22 152 38.93 22 1.07 40 7.46 7.44
11-Sep-02 30 20 131 20 98 29.44 20 0.56 30 8.35 7.70
9-Oct-02 40 11 361 26 119 39.22 26 0.78 40 7.27 7.14
9-Oct-02 30 30 91 15 39 29.52 15 0.48 30 7.95 7.89
7-Nov-02 40 17 245 14 20 39.71 14 0.29 40 10.03 7.26
7-Nov-02 30 24 166 11 49 29.70 11 0.31 30 10.18 7.48
9-Apr-03 40 20 245 25 65 39.53 25 1.47 40 6.30 6.30
9-Apr-03 50 11 236 24 201 49.40 24 0.60 50 7.37 5.98
23-Apr-03 50 15 319 26 134 48.98 26 1.02 50 6.25 6.10
23-Apr-03 20 29 131 19 9 19.39 19 0.61 20 7.95 6.33
5-May-03 60 10 314 14 98 59.69 14 0.31 60 7.27 5.97
5-May-03 30 20 143 14 118 29.58 14 0.42 30 6.30 6.35
4-Jun-03 30 25 187 19 15 28.50 19 1.50 30 6.13 6.13
4-Jun-03 60 9 378 21 151 59.09 21 0.91 60 6.85 5.76
2-Jul-03 50 11 298 20 116 49.05 20 0.95 50 7.37 5.76
2-Jul-03 30 25 114 20 45 28.64 20 1.36 30 6.31 6.10
16-Jul-03 60 17 371 29 115 57.00 29 3.10 60 6.35 5.97
16-Jul-03 30 29 134 22 12 29.32 22 0.68 30 7.95 6.20
Total 930 906
64. How many times was the issue of securities under-subscribed, i.e., how often did the total amount
mobilized fall short of the amount notified?
1. 0 2. 1 3. 2 4. 3
DIRECTIONS for Questions 67 to 69: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
Each point in the graph below shows the profit and turnover data for a company. Each company belongs
to one of the three industries: textile, cement and steel.
P rofit
400
300 Textile
C em ent
200 Ste el
100
67. For how many companies does the profit exceed 10% of turnover?
1. 8 2. 7 3. 6 4. 5
68. For how many steel companies with a turnover of more than 2000 is the profit than 300?
1. 0 2. 1 3. 2 4. 7
69. An investor wants to buy stock of only steel or cement companies with a turnover more than
1000 and profit exceeding 10% of turnover. How many choices are available to the investor?
1. 4 2. 5 3. 6 4. 7
Details of the top 20 MBA schools in the US as ranked by US News and World Report, 1997 are given
below.
70. Madhu has received admission in all schools listed above. She wishes to select the highest overall
ranked school whose a) annual tuition fee does not exceed $23,000 and b) median starting salary is
at least $70,000. Which school will she select?
1. University of Virginia. 2. University of Pennsylvania
3. Northwestern University 4. University of California - Berkeley
72. How many schools in the list above have single digit rankings on at least 3 of the 4 parameters
(overall ranking, ranking by academics, ranking by recruiters and ranking by placement)?
1. 10 2. 5 3. 7 4. 8
DIRECTIONS for Questions 73 to 75: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
Table A below provides data about ages of children in a school. For the age given in the first column, the
second column gives the number of children not exceeding the age. For example, first entry indicates that
there are 9 children aged 4 years or less. Tables B and C provide data on the heights and weights respec-
tively of the same group of children in a similar format. Assuming that an older child is always taller and
weighs more than a younger child, answer the following questions.
73. What is the number of children of age 9 years of less whose height does not exceed 135 cm?
1. 48 2. 45 3. 3 4. Cannot be determined
74. How many children of age more than 10 years are taller than 150 cm and do not weigh more than
48 kg?
1. 16 2. 40 3. 9 4. Cannot be determined
75. Among the children older than 6 years but not exceeding 12 years, how many weigh more than
38 kg.?
1. 34 2. 52 3. 44 4. Cannot be determined
An industry comprises four firms (A, B, C, and D). Financial details of these firms and of the industry as a
whole for a particular year are given below. Profitability of a firm is defined as profit as a percentage of sales.
77. If firm A acquires firm B, approximately what percentage of the total market (total sales) will they
corner together?
1. 55% 2. 45% 3. 35% 4. 50%
DIRECTIONS for Questions 78 to 80: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
A, B, C, D, E, and F are a group of friends. There are two housewives, one professor, one engineer, one
accountant and one lawyer in the group. There are only two married couples in the group. The lawyer is
married to D, who is a housewife. No woman in the group is either an engineer or an accountant. C, the
accountant, is married to F, who is a professor. A is married to a housewife. E is not a housewife.
The Head of a newly formed government desires to appoint five of the six elected members A, B, C, D, E
and F to portfolios of Home, Power, Defence, Telecom and Finance. F does not want any portfolio if D gets
one of the five. C wants either Home or Finance or no portfolio. B says that if D gets either Power or
Telecom then she must get the other one. E insists on a portfolio if A gets one.
82. If A gets Home and C gets Finance, then which is NOT a valid assignment of Defense and Telecom?
1. D-Defence, B-Telecom. 2. F-Defence, B-Telecom.
3. B-Defence, E-Telecom. 4. B-Defence, D-Telecom.
DIRECTIONS for Questions 83 to 85: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
Rang Barsey Paint Company (RBPC) is in the business of manufacturing paints. RBPC buys RED, YELLOW,
WHITE, ORANGE, and PINK paints. ORANGE paint can be also produced by mixing RED and YELLOW
paints in equal proportions. Similarly, PINK paint can also be produced by mixing equal amounts of RED
and WHITE paints. Among other paints, RBPC sells CREAM paint, (formed by mixing WHITE and YELLOW
in the ratio 70:30) AVOCADO paint (formed by mixing equal amounts of ORANGE and PINK paint) and
WASHEDORANGE paint (formed by mixing equal amounts of ORANGE and WHITE paint). The following
table provides the price at which RBPC buys paints.
Color Rs./litre
RED 20
YELLOW 25
WHITE 15
ORANGE 22
PINK 18
DIRECTIONS for Questions 86 to 88: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
Seven varsity basketball players (A, B, C, D, E, F, and G) are to be honoured at a special luncheon. The
players will be seated on the dais in a row. A and G have to leave the luncheon early and so must be seated
at the extreme right. B will receive the most valuable player's trophy and so must be in the centre to
facilitate presentation. C and D are bitter rivals and therefore must be seated as far apart as possible.
88. Which of the following pairs cannot occupy the seats on either side of B?
1. F & D 2. D & E 3. E & G 4. C & F
DIRECTIONS for Questions 89 to 92: In each question there are two statements: A and B.
Choose (1) if the question can be answered by one of the statements alone but not by the other.
Choose (2) if the question can be answered by using either statement alone.
Choose (3) if the question can be answered by using both the statements together but cannot be answered
using either statement alone.
Choose (4) if the question cannot be answered even b using both the statements A and B.
89. F and M are father and mother of S, respectively. S has four uncles and three aunts. F has two
siblings. The siblings of F and M are unmarried. How many brothers does M have?
90. A game consists of tossing a coin successively. There is an entry fee of Rs. 10 and an additional fee
of Re. 1 for each toss of coin. The game is considered to have ended normally when the coin turns
heads on two consecutive throws. In this case the player is paid Rs. 100. Alternatively, the player
can choose to terminate the game prematurely after any of the tosses. Ram has incurred a loss of
Rs. 50 by playing this game. How many times did he toss the coin?
A. The last label obtained by her was S and the total amount spent was Rs. 210.
B. The total number of vowels obtained was 18.
92. If A and B run a race, then A wins by 60 seconds. If B and C run the same race, then B wins by 30
seconds. Assuming that C maintains a uniform speed what is the time taken by C to finish the
race?
DIRECTIONS for Questions 93 to 94: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
Some children were taking free throws at the basketball court in school during lunch break. Below are
some facts about how many baskets these children shot.
DIRECTIONS for Questions 98 to 100: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
Five friends meet every morning at Sree Sagar restaurant for an idli-vada breakfast. Each consumes a
different number of idlis and vadas. The number of idlis consumed are 1, 4, 5, 6, and 8, while the number of
vadas consumed are 0, 1, 2, 4, and 6. Below are some more facts about who eats what and how much.
i. The number of vadas eaten by Ignesh is three times the number of vadas consumed by the person
who eats four idlis.
ii. Three persons, including the one who eats four vadas eat without chutney.
iii. Sandeep does not take any chutney.
iv. The one who eats one idli a day does not eat any vadas or chutney. Further, he is not Mukesh.
v. Daljit eats idli with chutney and also eats vada.
vi. Mukesh, who does not take chutney, eats half as many vadas as the person who eats twice as
many idlis as he does.
vii. Bimal eats two more idlis than Ignesh, but Ignesh eats two more vadas than Bimal.
81. 2 (1) gets eliminated because C can have either home 89. 1 S has 4 uncles and from statement A. F has two
or finance. brothers. Hence, the other 2 uncles of S must be the
(3) gets eliminated because F and D cannot be in the brothers of M. Statement B does not give any additional
same team. information.
(4) gets eliminated because C cannot have telecom
portfolio. 90. 2 From both statements individually. If x is the number of
Hence (2) is correct. tosses he took, from statement I we get the equation
10 + x – 100 = 50. Thus x = 140.
82. 4 B-Defence, D - Telecom because if D gets Telcom then From statement II individually, we have x > 138.
B must get Power. Thus we are sure he has paid up more than 148. If he
incurs a loss of only Rs. 50, the game has to end
83. 2 AVOCADO paint is mixture of ORANGE and PINK in normally. Thus the above state of his taking 150 shots
equal quantities. with first 138 as tails and 139 and 140 throw as heads
If ORANGE is made using RED and YELLOW, then the is the scenario. With no other scenario will a loss of
just 50 and 138 tails show up.
20 + 25
cost of ORANGE would be = 22.5 which is
2 91. 3 Since Ms. X bought 21 packets out of which there are
greater than the cost of the ORANGE. 18 O’s and A’s in total. Since she got one S, there has
If we make PINK by RED and WHITE, the cost of PINK to be 2 P’s which she bought. Hence, both the
20 + 15 statements are required.
would be = 17.5 which is less than the cost
2
of the PINK paint.
22 + 17.5
Hence, the cost of the AVOCADO is = 19.75
2
99. 3
Directions for questions 111 to 120: Each question consists of five statements followed by options
consisting of three statements put together in a specific order. Choose the option which indicates a valid
argument, that is, where the third statement is a conclusion drawn from the preceding two statements.
Example:
A. All cigarettes are hazardous to health.
B. Brand X is a cigarette.
C. Brand X is hazardous to health.
ABC is a valid option, where statement C can be concluded from statements A and B.
Directions for questions 121 to 124: Each question has a main statement followed by four statements
labelled A, B, C and D. Choose the ordered pair of statements where the first statement implies the
second, and the two statements are logically consistent with the main statement.
121. Either the orangutan is not angry, or he frowns upon the world.
A. The orangutan frowns upon the world.
B. The orangutan is not angry.
C. The orangutan does not frown upon the world.
D. The orangutan is angry.
a. CB only b. DA only c. AB only d. CB and DA
124. If I talk to my professors, then I do not need to take a pill for headache.
A. I talked to my professors.
B. I did not need to take a pill for headache.
C. I needed to take a pill for headache.
D. I did not talk to my professors.
a. AB only b. DC only c. CD only d. AB and CD
Directions for questions 125 to 134: Each question has a set of four statements. Each statement has
three segments. Choose the alternative where the third segment in the statement can be logically deduced
using both the preceding two, but not just from one of them.
125. A. No cowboys laugh. Some who laugh are sphinxes. Some sphinxes are not cowboys.
B. All ghosts are florescent. Some ghost do not sing. Some singers are not florescent.
C. Cricketers indulge in swearing. Those who swear are hanged. Some who are hanged are not
cricketers.
D. Some crazy people are pianists. All crazy people are whistlers. Some whistlers are pianists.
a. A and B b. C only c. A and D d. D only
126. A. All good people are knights. All warriors are good people. All knights are warriors.
B. No footballers are ministers. All footballers are tough. Some ministers are players.
C. All pizzas are snacks. Some meals are pizzas. Some meals are snacks.
D. Some barkers are musk deer. All barkers are sloth bears. Some sloth bears are musk deer.
a. C and D b. B and C c. A only d. C only
127. A. Dinosaurs are prehistoric creatures. Water-buffaloes are not dinosaurs. Water-buffaloes are not
prehistoric creatures.
B. All politicians are frank. No frank people are crocodiles. No crocodiles are politicians.
C. No diamond is quartz. No opal is quartz. Diamonds are opals.
D. All monkeys like bananas. Some GI Joes like bananas. Some GI Joes are monkeys.
a. C only b. B only c. A and D d. B and C
130. A. All IIMs are in India. No BIMs are in India. No IIMs are BIMs.
B. All IIMs are in India. No BIMs are in India. No BIMs are IIMs.
C. Some IIMs are not in India. Some BIMs are not in India. Some IIMs are BIMs.
D. Some IIMs are not in India. Some BIMs are not in India. Some BIMs are IIMs.
a. A and B b. C and D c. A only d. B only
131. A. Citizens of Yes Islands speak only the truth. Citizens of Yes Islands are young people. Young
people speak only the truth.
B. Citizens of Yes Islands speak only the truth. Some Yes Islands are in Atlantic. Some citizens of
Yes Islands are in the Atlantic.
C. Citizens of Yes Islands speak only the truth. Some young people are citizens of Yes Islands.
Some young people speak only the truth.
D. Some people speak only the truth. Some citizens of Yes Islands speak only the truth. Some
people who speak only the truth are citizens of Yes Islands.
a. A only b. B only c. C only d. D only
132. A. All mammals are viviparous. Some fish are viviparous. Some fish are mammals.
B. All birds are oviparous. Some fish are not oviparous. Some fish are birds.
C. No mammal is oviparous. Some creatures are oviparous and some are not. Some creatures are
not mammals.
D. Some creatures are mammals. Some creatures are viviparous. Some mammals are viviparous.
a. A only b. B only c. C only d. D only
133. A. Many singers are not writers. All poets are singers. Some poets are not writers.
B. Giants climb beanstalks. Some chicken do not climb beanstalks. Some chicken are not giants.
C. All explorers live in snowdrifts. Some penguins live in snowdrifts. Some penguins are explorers.
D. Amar is taller than Akbar. Anthony is shorter than Amar. Akbar is shorter than Anthony.
a. A only b. B only c. B and C d. D only
134. A. A few farmers are rocket scientists. Some rocket scientists catch snakes. A few farmers catch
snakes.
B. Poonam is a kangaroo. Some kangaroos are made of teak. Poonam is made of teak.
Directions for questions 135 to 138: Answer the questions based on the following information.
The figure below represents sales and net profit in Rs. crore of IVP Ltd. for five years from 1994-95 to
1998-99. During this period the sales increased from Rs. 100 crore to Rs. 680 crore. Correspondingly, the
net profit increased from Rs. 2.5 crore to Rs. 12 crore. Net profit is defined as the excess of sales over total
costs.
700 680 14
600 12
500 8.5 12 10
400 6 8
300 250 6
200 2.5 300 290 4
4.5
100 100 2
0 0
1994-95 1995-96 1996-97 1997-98 1998-99
135. The highest percentage of growth in sales, relative to the previous year, occurred in
a. 1995-96 b. 1996-97 c. 1997-98 d. 1998-99
136. The highest percentage growth in net profit, relative to the previous year, was achieved in
a. 1998-99 b. 1997-98 c. 1996-97 d. 1995-96
137. Defining profitability as the ratio of net profit to sales, IVP Ltd., recorded the highest profitability in
a. 1998-99 b. 1997-98 c. 1994-95 d. 1996-97
Directions for questions 139 to 142: Answer the questions based on the following information
Consider the information provided in the figure below relating to India’s foreign trade in 1997-98 and the first
eight months of 1998-99. Total trade with a region is defined as the sum of exports and imports from that
region. Trade deficit is defined as the excess of imports over exports. Trade deficit may be negative.
A. USA G. Other East European countries
B. Germany H. OPEC
C. Other EU I. Asia
D. UK J. Other LDCs
E. Japan K. Others
F. Russia
D D
H
H 6% 6%
17%
23%
E E
5% 5%
G
G
F 21% F
19%
2% 1%
Destination of exports
1997-98 1998-99
Exports from India: $33,979 million Exports from India (April-November)
$21,436 million
J K J K
A
5% 1% 5% 1% A
19% 23%
I
I
17%
20%
B
6%
B
H 6%
H C 10%
10% 14% C
G G 14%
D D
F E 12% F E
10% 6%
3% 6% 2% 5% 5%
139. What is the region with which India had the highest total trade in 1997-98?
a. USA b. Other EU countries c. OPEC d. Others
140. In 1997-98 the amount of Indian exports, million US dollars, to the region with which India had the
lowest total trade, is approximately
a. 750 b. 340 c. 220 d. 440
141. In 1997-98, the trade deficit with respect to India, billion US dollars, for the region with the highest
trade deficit with respect to India, is approximately equal to
a. 6.0 b. 3.0 c. 4.5 d. 7.5
Directions for questions 143 and 144: Answer the questions based on the following information.
Assume that the average monthly exports from India and imports to India during the remaining four months
of 1998-99 would be the same as that for the first eight months of the year.
143. What is the region to which India’s exports registered the highest percentage growth between
1997-98 and 1998-99?
a. Other East European countries b. USA
c. Asia d. Exports have declined, no growth
144. What is the percentage growth rate in India’s total trade deficit between 1997-98 and 1998-99?
a. 43 b. 47 c. 50 d. 40
Directions for questions 145 to 148: Answer the questions based on the following information.
These questions are based on the price fluctuations of four commodities — arhar, pepper, sugar and gold
during February-July 1999 as described in the figures below.
2 30 0 1 95 00
2 10 0 1 90 00
1 90 0 1 85 00
1 70 0 1 80 00
1 50 0 1 75 00
1 30 0 1 70 00
F1 F4 M 3 A2 A5 M 3 JN 2 JL1 F1 F4 M3 A2 A5 M 3 JN 2 JL1
W eeks (1999) W eeks (1999)
1 50 0 4 20 0
1 48 0 4 10 0
1 46 0 4 00 0
1 44 0 3 90 0
1 42 0 3 80 0
1 40 0 3 70 0
F1 F4 M 3 A2 A 5 M 3 JN 2 JL1 F1 F4 M 3 A2 A 5 M 3 JN 2 JL1
W eeks (1999) W eeks (1999)
145. Price change of a commodity is defined as the absolute difference in ending and beginning prices
expressed as a percentage of the beginning. What is the commodity with the highest price change?
a. Arhar b. Pepper c. Sugar d. Gold
147. Mr X, a fund manager with an investment company invested 25% of his funds in each of the four
commodities at the beginning of the period. He sold the commodities at the end of the period. His
investments in the commodities resulted in
a. 17% profit b. 5.5% loss c. No profit, no loss d. 5.4% profit
148. The price volatility(PV) of the commodity with the highest PV during the February-July period is
approximately equal to
a. 3% b. 40% c. 20% d. 12%
Directions for questions 149 to 153: Answer the questions based on the following information.
The table below presents data on percentage population covered by drinking water and sanitation facilities
in selected Asian countries.
India 85 79 81 70 14 29
Bangladesh 99 96 97 79 44 48
China 97 56 67 74 7 24
Pakistan 82 69 74 77 22 47
Philippines 92 80 86 88 66 77
Indonesia 79 54 62 73 40 51
Sri Lanka 88 52 57 68 62 63
Nepal 88 60 63 58 12 1
(Source: World Resources 1998-99, p. 251, UNDP, UNEP and World Bank.)
Country A is said to dominate B or A > B if A has higher percentage in total coverage for both drinking water
and sanitation facilities, and, B is said to be dominated by A, or B < A.
A country is said to be on the coverage frontier if no other country dominates it. Similarly, a country is not
on the coverage frontier if it is dominated by at least one other country.
151. Using only the data presented under ‘sanitation facilities’ columns, it can be concluded that rural
population in India, as a percentage of its total population is approximately
a. 76 b. 70 c. 73 d. Cannot be determined
152. Again, using only the data presented under ‘sanitation facilities’ columns, sequence China, Indonesia
and Philippines in ascending order of rural population as a percentage of their respective total
population. The correct order is
a. Philippines, Indonesia, China b. Indonesia, China, Philippines
c. Indonesia, Philippines, China d. China, Indonesia, Philippines
Directions for questions 154 and 155: Answer the questions based on the following information.
These relate to the above table with the additional provison that the gap between the population coverages
of ‘sanitation facilities’ and ‘drinking water facilities’ is a measure of disparity in coverage.
154. The country with the most disparity in coverage of rural sector is
a. India b. Bangladesh c. Nepal d. None of these
155. The country with the least disparity in coverage of urban sector is
a. India b. Pakistan c. Philippines d. None of these
Directions for questions 156 to 165: Each question is followed by two statements I and II.
Mark:
a. if the question can be answered by any one of the statements alone, but cannot be answered by
using the other statement alone.
b. if the question can be answered by using either statement alone.
c. if the question can be answered by using both the statements together, but cannot be answered
by using either statement alone.
d. if the question cannot be answered even by using both the statements together.
156. The average weight of students in a class is 50 kg. What is the number of students in the class?
I. The heaviest and the lightest members of the class weigh 60 kg and 40 kg respectively.
II. Exclusion of the heaviest and the lightest members from the class does not change the average
weight of the students.
157. A small storage tank is spherical in shape. What is the storage volume of the tank?
I. The wall thickness of the tank is 1 cm.
II. When an empty spherical tank is immersed in a large tank filled with water, 20 l of water overflow
from the large tank.
159. A line graph on a graph sheet shows the revenue for each year from 1990 through 1998 by points
and joins the successive points by straight-line segments. The point for revenue of 1990 is labelled
A, that for 1991 as B, and that for 1992 as C. What is the ratio of growth in revenue between
1991-92 and 1990-91?
I. The angle between AB and X-axis when measured with a protractor is 40°, and the angle between
CB and X-axis is 80°.
II. The scale of Y-axis is 1 cm = Rs. 100
160. There is a circle with centre C at the origin and radius r cm. Two tangents are drawn from an external
point D at a distance d cm from the centre. What are the angles between each tangent and the
X-axis.
I. The coordinates of D are given.
II. The X-axis bisects one of the tangents.
161. Find a pair of real numbers x and y that satisfy the following two equations simultaneously. It is
known that the values of a, b, c, d, e and f are non-zero.
ax + by = c
dx + ey = f
I. a = kd and b = ke, c = kf, k ≠ 0
II. a = b = 1, d = e = 2, f ≠ 2c
162. Three professors A, B and C are separately given three sets of numbers to add. They were expected
to find the answers to 1 + 1, 1 + 1 + 2, and 1 + 1 respectively. Their respective answers were 3, 3 and
2. How many of the professors are mathematicians?
I. A mathematician can never add two numbers correctly, but can always add three numbers
correctly.
II. When a mathematician makes a mistake in a sum, the error is +1 or –1.
163. How many students among A, B, C and D have passed the examination?
I. The following is a true statement: A and B passed the examination.
II. The following is a false statement: At least one among C and D has passed the examination.
164. What is the distance x between two cities A and B in integral number of kilometres?
I. x satisfies the equation log2 x = x
II. x ≤ 10 km
165. Mr Mendel grew 100 flowering plants from black seeds and white seeds, each seed giving rise to
one plant. A plant gives flowers of only one colour. From a black seed comes a plant giving red or
blue flowers. From a white seed comes a plant giving red or white flowers. How many black seeds
were used by Mr Mendel?
I. The number of plants with white flowers was 10.
II. The number of plants with red flowers was 70.
Opening Closing
Game Player's pick Dealer's pick TC = Instances of traffic congestion
balance balance
ICM = Instances of increase in carbon monoxide in the
Debit Credit Debit Credit environment.
( –) (+) (–) (+) HH = Instances that are hazardous to health.
The premises state that increase in carbon monoxide
1 0 0 8 16 0 -8 is hazardous to health and traffic congestion increases
carbon monoxide in the environment. Therefore, traffic
2 -8 0 10 0 10 12 congestion is hazardous to health.
(a) CBA is invalid, because if TC and ICM are both
3 12 0 6 6 0 12 separately hazardous to health (HH), no definite
relationship between TC and ICM necessarily follows.
4 12 0 8 16 0 4 (b) BDE is invalid, because the some TC that are not
ICM need not necessarily be free of any hazard to
health (HH): they could possibly pollute the environment
108. Hence, we see that the maximum gain is Rs. 12 with other noxious gases.
109. Since the maximum negative that Ghosh Babu goes HH
into is –8, he should begin with at least Rs. 8, so that TC
he does not have to borrow any money at any point. IC M
TT
CEKW = Companies that employ knowledge workers
SC = Software companies S A
TT = Tara Tech
The premises state that all software companies
employ knowledge workers and Tara Tech is a
Figures S = Sweets
software company. Therefore, Tara Tech employs
TT = Tasty things
knowledge workers.
A = Apples
(a) ABC is invalid, because if Tara Tech employs
Sweets are a subset of tasty things. Apples are not
knowledge workers, it cannot definitely be concluded
tasty things. As apples are not a part of the main set
that it is a software company.
of tasty things, they can also not be a part of the
(c) CDB is invalid, because if only some software
subset of sweets.
companies employ knowledge workers, Tara Tech
(b) BDC is invalid, because the set of some A that are
may not be among them.
S and the set of some A that are not TT may have no
(d) ACE introduces a fourth term. ‘Companies that
relationship with each other (disjoint sets).
employ only knowledge workers’ and, therefore,
(c) CBD is invalid, because some A that are S are
violates the very definition of a syllogism, which must
definitely TT, but we have no knowledge of the
have 3 and only 3 terms.
remaining A, and hence can reach no conclusion about
them.
112. (d) BAC is the correct answer choice, as it forms a
(d) EAC is invalid, because if all A are neither S nor TT,
valid syllogism.
we cannot establish a definite relationship between S
and TT.
D .S
C = Cricketers
U .I S = Those who swear
H = Those who are hanged
The valid conclusion is:
All C are H (ü) and not its negation: Some H are not (C)
(x)
Where,
Statement D is valid.
UI → Uses Internet
Some CP are P.
DS → Dreams of spiders All CP are W.
Answer choice (a) AD states that Rajeev did not dream ∴ Some W are P.
about spiders, and hence he did not use the Internet.
This logically follows the above Venn diagram. If the W P
main set does not occur, the subset will also not occur.
CP
Thus, AD is the right option.
F K = Knights
G S GP = Good People
W = Warriors
Statement B is invalid, because it has four terms:
footballers, ministers, tough people and players.
Statement C is valid: The ‘some M’ that are P are also
F = Florescent things
S. (shaded position).
G = Ghosts
S = Singers
S M
The valid conclusion is: Some F(shared position) are
not S. (V) and not the converse: Some S are not F. (X) P
(The some ghosts who are not singers (in shaded
portion) are also the ‘some florescent things that are
not singers’)
Statement C is invalid: S = Snacks
All C are S. P = Pizzas
All S are H. M = Meals
Statement D is valid: The ‘some MD’ that are B are also
SB. (shaded portion).
SB = Sloth bears
B = Barkers
MD = Musk deer
B = Brittle things
CO = Clay objects
127. (b) B only is the correct answer choice.
CO is a subset of B.
Statement A is invalid, as ‘No WB are PC’ cannot be
XY is a subset of CO.
validly concluded. What can, however, be validly
Therefore, XY is also a subset of B.
concluded is that ‘Some PC (which are all D in shaded
Thus, all XY are also brittle.
position) are not WB’.
Statement D is invalid.
No valid conclusion can follow from two negative
PC
premises, as negatives have the effect of separating
D WB one term from the other.
IIM B IM
T = Transparent
GT = Glass things II = Institutes in India.
C = Curios IIMs is a subset of II.
As all glass things (GT) are transparent (T), those No II is a BIM
curios (C) that are GT are definitely T. As the mainset II can never intersect with the disjoint
CB
CYI
G C
CYI = Citizens of Yes Islands
ST = People who speak only the truth
YP = Young people
Statement B is invalid, because it has four terms: Statement B is valid, as the ‘Some C (shaded portion)’
a. Citizens of Yes Islands that do not climb beans stalks cannot be giants.
b. People who speak only the truth G = Grants
c. Things that are in the Atlantic C = Children
d. Yes Islands CB = Creatures which climb beanstalks
Statement C is valid. The ‘Some YP’ who are CYI also C is invalid, the ‘Some penguins’ that live in snowdrifts
are people who speak only the truth. (shaded portion) need not be explorers.
D is invalid, as Amar is the tallest among the three, but
ST YP it is not clear how the heights of Akbar and Anthony
are compared.
CYI Note: This is not a ‘Categorical’ syllogism comprising
statements, as such. All S is P, No S is P, Some S is P
and some S is not P. It is a ‘relational’ syllogism
comprising relational statements that normally feature
Statement D is invalid, because the ‘some people’ and in analytical reasoning. Be alert: CAT examiner is in
the ‘some CYI’ need not have any relationship between the habit of jumbling up questions to throw you off
them, just because both speak only the truth. gear.
132. (c) C only is the correct answer choice. 134. (d) ‘C and D’ is the correct answer choice.
Statement A is invalid, as the some fish that are
viviparous need not be mammals. F CS
RS
O
B F
Statement A is invalid: The ‘Some F’ who are RS and
the ‘Some RS’ who can catch snakes need not have
any relationship between them.
Statement B is invalid. We can validly conclude that CS = People who catch snakes
the ‘Some fish (shaded portion)’ that are not oviparous RS = Rocket scientists
are definitely not birds as well. But, based on this, we F = Farmers
cannot conclude that ‘Some fish are birds’, as we Note: ‘Many’ or ‘a few’ are both translated as ‘some’
have no knowledge about the ‘remaining fish’. to convert the statements in the standard form.
Statement C is valid, as we can validly conclude that Statement B is invalid. Poonam need not be among the
the ‘Some C’ which are inside the circle O cannot be some kangaroos that are made of teak.
mammals. But nothing definite can be said about the
‘Some C’ which are outside the circle O. EG
B
O N .O . M
C
Statement C is valid. No matadors can be bulls because
Statement D is invalid, because the ‘Some C’, which the former eat grass, while the latter do not.
are V and the ‘Some C’, which are M, need not have EG: Creatures that eat grass
any relationship between them, as evident from the M: Matadors
Venn diagram.
1997-98 300 290 -10 –3.33% H – OPEC has the maximum trade.
1998-99 290 680 390 134.5% 140. From the pie chart, the region having lowest trade is
K.
It is but obvious from the above table that the maximum 1% of imports + 1% of exports
percentage increase relative to previous year occurred ∴ Indian exports are 1% of 3397.9 which is roughly
in 1995-96. 340 US $ million.
136. From the graph, we can again calculate the growth in 141.
profits. Imports to Exports Trade deficit
India from India
Previous Current
Difference Percentage A 3670.11 6456.01 –2785.9
profit profit
B 2038.95 2038.74 0.21
1995-96 2.5 4.5 2 80%
C 4893.48 4757.06 136.42
1996-97 4.5 6 1.5 33.33%
D 2446.74 2038.74 408
1997-98 6.0 8.5 2.5 41.66%
E 2038.95 2038.74 0.21
1998-99 8.5 12 3.5 41.2%
The highest percentage growth in net profit relative to F 815.58 1019.37 –203.79
the previous year was achieved in 1995-96.
G 7748.01 3397.9 4350.11
137.
H 9379.17 3397.9 5981.27
1995-96 4.5 250 0.02 So, we see that region H has highest trade deficit of
approximately $6,000 million or $6 billion.
1996-97 6 300 0.02
142. From the pie chart for 1997-98, we get that USA which
1997-98 8.5 290 0.03 is a region A has the lowest trade deficit.
(9% of imports – 19% of total exports)
1998-99 12 680 0.018
9 19
× 40779 − × 33979
The profitability is maximum for 1997-98. 100 100
= $– 2785.9 million.
Also the exports for 8 months have been given. The price volatility for sugar is least, hence answer
According to new directions, before question 143, choice is (c).
we need to calculate exports for 12 months Note: Average price can be calculated by highest
21436 × 12 price, lowest price, ending and beginning price.
= $32,154 million.
8
147. Let us assume Mr X invested Rs. 100 in each
The maximum percentage increase is therefore from
commodity.
region A.
P epper 19275 18525 750 4 150. Statement A > Statement B only if statement A has
higher percentage in total coverage for both drinking
Sugar 1435 1440 5 –0.3 water and sanitation facilities taken independently and
not as a total of the two facilities.
Gold 3820 4250 330 7.8 Thus, only statement B and statement D are
India > China
(81 > 67 and 29 > 24)
The highest price change from the graph and the above
India > Nepal
is definitely for Arhar.
(81 > 63 and 29 > 18)
Also China > Nepal (67 > 63 and 24 > 18)
C 79.8% 1 00
C B
B 52 20
159. R C
C 49 23
P 47 5
P 20 4
B 8 0°
I 22 6 Q
S –5 20 P A 4 0°
N 51 30
160. P
D
P
(iv) DL = LQ
D L C
r d
Q
C
r
Directions for questions 111 to 120: There are ten short arguments given below. Read each of the
passages and answer the question that follows it.
111. In a recent report, the gross enrolment ratios at the primary level, that is, the number of children
enrolled in classes one to five as a proportion of all children aged six to ten, were shown to be very
high for most states; in many cases they were way above 100 per cent! These figures are not worth
anything, since they are based on the official enrolment data compiled from school records. They
might as well stand for ‘gross exaggeration ratios’.
Which one of the following options best supports the claim that the ratios are exaggerated?
a. The definition of gross enrolment ratio does not exclude, in its numerator, children below six
years or above ten years enroled in classes one to five.
b. A school attendance study found that many children enrolled in the school records were not
meeting a minimum attendance requirement of 80 per cent.
c. A study estimated that close to 22 per cent of children enrolled in the class one records were
below six years of age and still to start going to school.
d. Demographic surveys show shifts in the population profile which indicate that the number of
children in the age group six to ten years is declining.
112. Szymanski suggests that the problem of racism in football may be present even today. He begins
by verifying an earlier hypothesis that clubs’ wage bills explain 90 per cent of their performance.
Thus, if players’ salaries were to be only based on their abilities, clubs that spend more should
finish higher. If there is pay discrimination against some group of players — fewer teams bidding for
black players thus lowering the salaries for blacks with the same ability as whites — that neat
relation may no longer hold. He concludes that certain clubs seem to have achieved much less than
what they could have, by not recruiting black players.
Which one of the following findings would best support Szymanski’s conclusion?
a. Certain clubs took advantage of the situation by hiring above-average shares of black players.
b. Clubs hired white players at relatively high wages and did not show proportionately good
performance.
c. During the study period, clubs in towns with a history of discrimination against blacks, under-
performed relative to their wage bills.
d. Clubs in one region, which had higher proportions of black players, had significantly lower wage
bills than their counterparts in another region which had predominantly white players.
FLT – 06 Page 31
113. The pressure on Italy’s 257 jails has been increasing rapidly. These jails are old and overcrowded.
They are supposed to hold up to 43,000 people — 9,000 fewer than now. San Vittore in Milan, which
has 1,800 inmates, is designed for 800. The number of foreigners inside jails has also been increasing.
The minister-in-charge of prisons fears that tensions may snap, and so has recommended to the
government an amnesty policy.
Which one of the following, if true, would have most influenced the recommendation of the minister?
a. Opinion polls have indicated that many Italians favour a general pardon.
b. The opposition may be persuaded to help since amnesties must be approved by a two-thirds
majority in parliament.
c. During a recent visit to a large prison, the Pope, whose pronouncements are taken seriously,
appealed for ‘a gesture of clemency’.
d. Shortly before the recommendation was made, 58 prisons reported disturbances in a period of
two weeks.
114. The offer of the government to make iodised salt available at a low price of one rupee per kilogram is
welcome, especially since the government seems to be so concerned about the ill effects of non-
iodised salt. But it is doubtful whether the offer will actually be implemented. Way back in 1994, the
government, in an earlier effort, had prepared reports outlining three new and simple but experimental
methods for reducing the costs of iodisation to about five paise per kilogram. But these reports have
remained just those — reports on paper.
Which one of the following, if true, most weakens the author’s contention that it is doubtful whether
the offer will be actually implemented?
a. The government proposes to save on costs by using the three methods it has already devised for
iodisation.
b. The chain of fair-price distribution outlets now covers all the districts of the state.
c. Many small-scale and joint-sector units have completed trials to use the three iodisation methods
for regular production.
d. The government which initiated the earlier effort is in place even today and has more information
on the effects of non-iodised salt.
115. About 96 per cent of Scandinavian moths have ears tuned to the ultrasonic pulses that bats, their
predators, emit. But the remaining 4 per cent do not have ears and are deaf. However, they have a
larger wingspan than the hearing moths, and also have higher wing-loadings — the ratio between a
wing’s area and its weight — meaning higher manoeuvrability.
Which one of the following can be best inferred from the above passage?
a. A higher proportion of deaf moths than hearing moths fall prey to bats.
b. Deaf moths may try to avoid bats by frequent changes in their flight direction.
c. Deaf moths are faster than hearing moths, and so are less prone to becoming a bat’s dinner than
hearing moths.
d. The large wingspan enables deaf moths to better receive and sense the pulses of their bat
predators.
Page 32 FLT – 06
116. Argentina’s beef cattle herd has dropped to under 50 million from 57 million ten years ago in 1990.
The animals are worth less, too: prices fell by over a third last year, before recovering slightly. Most
local meat packers and processors are in financial trouble, and recent years have seen a string of
plant closures. The Beef Producers Association has now come up with a massive advertisement
campaign calling upon Argentines to eat more beef — their ‘juicy, healthy, rotund, plate-filling’
steaks.
Which one of the following, if true, would contribute most to a failure of the campaign?
a. There has been a change in consumer preference towards eating leaner meats like chicken and
fish.
b. Prices of imported beef have been increasing, thus making locally grown beef more competitive in
terms of pricing.
c. The inability to cross-breed native cattle with improved varieties has not increased production to
adequate levels.
d. Animal rights pressure groups have come up rapidly, demanding better and humane treatment of
farmyard animals like beef cattle.
117. The problem of traffic congestion in Athens has been testing the ingenuity of politicians and town
planners for years. But the measures adopted to date have not succeeded in decreasing the number
of cars on the road in the city centre. In 1980, an odds and evens number-plate legislation was
introduced, under which odd and even plates were banned in the city centre on alternate days,
thereby expecting to halve the number of cars in the city centre. Then in 1993 it was decreed that all
cars in use in the city centre must be fitted with catalytic converters; a regulation had just then been
introduced, substantially reducing import taxes on cars with catalytic converters, the only condition
being that the buyer of such a ‘clean’ car offered for destruction a car at least 15-year-old.
Which one of the following options, if true, would best support the claim that the measures adopted
to date have not succeeded?
a. In the 1980s, many families purchased second cars with the requisite odd or even number plate.
b. In the mid-1990s, many families found it feasible to become first-time car owners by buying a car
more than 15-year-old and turning it in for a new car with catalytic converters.
c. Post-1993, many families seized the opportunity to sell their more than 15-year-old cars and buy
‘clean’ cars from the open market, even if it meant forgoing the import tax subsidy.
d. All of the above
FLT – 06 Page 33
118. Although in the limited sense of freedom regarding appointments and internal working, the
independence of the Central Bank is unequivocally ensured, the same cannot be said of its right to
pursue monetary policy without coordination with the Central Government. The role of the Central
Bank has turned out to be subordinate and advisory in nature.
Which one of the following best supports the conclusion drawn in the passage?
a. A decision of the chairman of the Central Bank to increase the bank rate by two percentage
points sent shock-waves in industry, academic and government circles alike.
b. Government has repeatedly resorted to monetisation of the debt despite the reservations of the
Central Bank.
c. The Central Bank does not need the Central Government’s nod for replacing soiled currency
notes.
d. The inability to remove coin shortage was a major shortcoming of this government.
119. The Shveta-chattra or the ‘White Umbrella’ was a symbol of sovereign political authority placed over
the monarch’s head at the time of the coronation. The ruler so inaugurated was regarded not as a
temporal autocrat but as the instrument of protective and sheltering firmament of supreme law. The
white umbrella symbol is of great antiquity and its varied use illustrates the ultimate common basis
of non-theocratic nature of states in the Indian tradition. As such, the umbrella is found, although not
necessarily a white one, over the head of Lord Ram, the Mohammedan sultans and Chatrapati
Shivaji.
120. The theory of games is suggested to some extent by parlour games such as chess and bridge.
Friedman illustrates two distinct features of these games. First, in a parlour game played for money,
if one wins the other (others) loses (lose). Second, these games are games involving a strategy. In
a game of chess, while choosing what action is to be taken, a player tries to guess how his/her
opponent will react to the various actions he or she might take. In contrast, the card-pastime,
‘patience’ or ‘solitaire’ is played only against chance.
Page 34 FLT – 06
Directions for questions 121 to 125: Read each of the five problems given below and choose the best
answer from among the four given choices.
121. Persons X, Y, Z and Q live in red, green, yellow or blue-coloured houses placed in a sequence on a
street. Z lives in a yellow house. The green house is adjacent to the blue house. X does not live
adjacent to Z. The yellow house is in between the green and red houses. The colour of the house, X
lives in is
a. blue b. green
c. red d. Not possible to determine
122. My bag can carry not more than ten books. I must carry at least one book each of management,
mathematics, physics and fiction. Also, for every management book I carry I must carry two or more
fiction books, and for every mathematics book I carry I must carry two or more physics books. I earn
4, 3, 2 and 1 points for each management, mathematics, physics and fiction book, respectively, I
carry in my bag. I want to maximise the points I can earn by carrying the most appropriate combination
of books in my bag. The maximum points that I can earn is
a. 20 b. 21 c. 22 d. 23
123. Five persons with names P, M, U, T and X live separately in any one of the following: a palace, a hut,
a fort, a house or a hotel. Each one likes two different colours from among the following: blue, black,
red, yellow and green. U likes red and blue. T likes black. The person living in a palace does not like
black or blue. P likes blue and red. M likes yellow. X lives in a hotel. M lives in a
a. hut b. palace c. fort d. house
124. There are ten animals — two each of lions, panthers, bison, bears, and deer — in a zoo. The
enclosures in the zoo are named X, Y, Z, P and Q and each enclosure is allotted to one of the
following attendants: Jack, Mohan, Shalini, Suman and Rita. Two animals of different species are
housed in each enclosure. A lion and a deer cannot be together. A panther cannot be with either a
deer or a bison. Suman attends to animals from among bison, deer, bear and panther only. Mohan
attends to a lion and a panther. Jack does not attend to deer, lion or bison. X, Y and Z are allotted to
Mohan, Jack and Rita respectively. X and Q enclosures have one animal of the same species. Z and
P have the same pair of animals. The animals attended by Shalini are
a. bear and bison b. bison and deer c. bear and lion d. bear and panther
125. Eighty kilogram of store material is to be transported to a location 10 km away. Any number of
couriers can be used to transport the material. The material can be packed in any number of units
of 10, 20, or 40 kg. Courier charges are Rs. 10 per hour. Couriers travel at the speed of 10 km/hr if
they are not carrying any load, at 5 km/hr if carrying 10 kg, at 2 km/hr if carrying 20 kg and at
1 km/hr if carrying 40 kg. A courier cannot carry more than 40 kg of load. The minimum cost at which
80 kg of store material can be transported to its destination will be
a. Rs. 180 b. Rs. 160 c. Rs. 140 d. Rs. 120
FLT – 06 Page 35
Directions for questions 126 to 130: Answer these questions with reference to the table given below.
Software
Hardware
Peripherals
Exports 6 6 14 19 18
Networking and
36 73 156 193 237
others
126. The total annual exports lies between 35 and 40% to the total annual business of the IT industry, in
a. 1997-98 and 1994-95 b. 1996-97 and 1997-98
c. 1996-97 and 1998-99 d. 1996-97 and 1994-95
127. The highest percentage growth in the total IT business, relative to the previous year was achieved in
a. 1995-96 b. 1996-97
c. 1997-98 d. 1998-99
Page 36 FLT – 06
Additional directions for questions 129 and 130:
For any activity, A, year X dominates year Y if the IT business in activity A, in the year X is greater than the
IT business in activity A in the year Y. For any two IT business activities, A and B, year X dominates year
Y if
I. the IT business in activity A, in the year X, is greater than or equal to the IT business in activity A in
the year Y,
II. the IT business in activity B, in the year X, is greater than or equal to the IT business in activity B in
the year Y and
III. there should be strict inequality in the case of at least one activity.
129. For the IT hardware business activity, which one of the following is not true?
a. 1997-98 dominates 1996-97 b. 1997-98 dominates 1995-96
c. 1995-96 dominates 1998-99 d. 1998-99 dominates 1996-97
130. For the two IT business activities, hardware and peripherals, which one of the following is true?
a. 1996-97 dominates 1995-96 b. 1998-99 dominates 1995-96
c. 1997-98 dominates 1998-99 d. None of these
Directions for questions 131 to 140: Each question is followed by two statements, I and II. Answer each
question using the following instructions.
131. Consider three real numbers, X, Y and Z. Is Z the smallest of these numbers?
I. X is greater than at least one of Y and Z.
II. Y is greater than at least one of X and Z.
FLT – 06 Page 37
135. Harshad bought shares of a company on a certain day, and sold them the next day. While buying
and selling he had to pay to the broker 1% of the transaction value of the shares as brokerage. What
was the profit earned by him per rupee spent on buying the shares?
I. The sales price per share was 1.05 times that of its purchase price.
II. The number of shares purchased was 100.
137. There are two straight lines in the x-y plane with equations:
ax + by = c
dx + ey = f
Do the two straight lines intersect?
I. a, b, c, d, e and f are distinct real numbers.
II. c and f are non-zero.
138. ‘O’ is the centre of two concentric circles, AE is a chord of the outer circle and it intersects the inner
circle at points ‘B’ and ‘D’. ‘C’ is a point on the chord in between ‘B’ and ‘D’.
What is the value of AC/CE?
I. BC/CD = 1
II. A third circle intersects the inner circle at ‘B’ and ‘D’ and the point ‘C’ is on the line joining the
centres of the third circle and the inner circle.
139. Ghosh Babu has decided to take a non-stop flight from Mumbai to No-man’s-land in South America,
He is scheduled to leave Mumbai at 5 a.m., IST on December 10, 2000. What is the local time at
No-man’s-land when he reaches there?
I. The average speed of the plane is 700 km/hr.
II. The flight distance is 10,500 km.
Page 38 FLT – 06
Directions for questions 141 to 145: Answer these questions based on the data provided in the table
below.
Factory Sector by Type of Ownership
All figures in the table are in percentage of the total for the corresponding column
States or local
5.2 16.2 24.3 11.6 14.9
government
141. Suppose the average employment level is 60 per factory. The average employment in ‘wholly private’
factories is approximately
a. 43 b. 47 c. 50 d. 54
142. Among the firms in different sectors, value added per employee is highest in
a. Central Government b. Central and State/Local Governments
c. Joint sector d. Wholly private
143. Capital productivity is defined as the gross output value per rupee of fixed capital. The three sectors
with the higher capital productivity, arranged in descending order are
a. Joint, Wholly private, Central and States/Local
b. Wholly private, Joint, Central and States/Local
c. Wholly private, Central and State/Local, Joint
d. Joint, Wholly private, Central
144. A sector is considered ‘pareto efficient’ if its value added per employee and its value added per rupee
of fixed capital is higher than those of all other sectors. Based on the table data, the pareto efficient
sector is
a. Wholly private b. Joint
c. Central and State/Local d. others
145. The total value added in all sectors is estimated at Rs. 1,40,000 crore. Suppose the number of firms
in the joint sector is 2,700. The average value added per factory, in the Central Government is
a. Rs. 141 crore b. Rs. 14.1 crore c. Rs. 131 crore d. Rs. 13.1 crore
FLT – 06 Page 39
Directions for questions 146 to 149: Answer these questions based on the data presented in the figure
below.
FEI for a country in a year, is the ratio (expressed as a percentage) of its foreign equity inflows to its GDP.
The following figure displays the FEIs for select Asian countries for 1997 and 1998.
12 10.67
9.92
10
8
5.96 5.82
6 4.80 5.09
4
2.16 2.50
1.71
2
0.72
0
India China Malaysia South Korea Thailand
1997 1998
146. The country with the highest percentage change in FEI in 1998 relative to its FEI in 1997, is
a. India b. China c. Malaysia d. Thailand
148. It is known that China’s GDP in 1998 was 7% higher than its value in 1997, while India’s GDP grew
by 2% during the same period. The GDP of South Korea, on the other hand, fell by 5%. Which of the
following statements is/are true?
I. Foreign equity inflows to China were higher in 1998 than in 1997.
II. Foreign equity inflows to China were lower in 1998 than in 1997.
III. Foreign equity inflows to India were higher in 1998 than in 1997.
IV. Foreign equity inflows to South Korea decreased in 1998 relative to 1997.
V. Foreign equity inflows to South Korea increased in 1998 relative to 1997.
a. I, III and IV b. II, III and IV c. I, III and V d. II and v
Page 40 FLT – 06
149. China’s foreign equity inflows in 1998 were 10 times that of India. It can be concluded that
a. China’s GDP in 1998 was 40% higher than that of India
b. China’s GDP in 1998 was 70% higher than that of India
c. China’s GDP in 1998 was 50% higher than that of India
d. no inference can be drawn about relative magnitudes of China’s and India’s GDPs
Directions for questions 150 to 153: Answer the questions based on the table below.
The table shows trends in external transactions of Indian corporate sector during the period 1993-94 to
1997-98. In addition, following definitions hold good:
Salesi, Importsi, and Exportsi respectively denote the sales, imports and exports in year i.
Deficit for year i, Deficiti = Importsi – Exportsi
Deficit Intensity in year i, DIi = Deficiti / Salesi
Growth rate of deficit intensity in year i, GDIi = (DIi – DIi – 1 ) / DIi – 1
Further, note that all imports are classified as either raw material or capital goods.
151. The value of the highest growth rate in deficit intensity is approximately
a. 8.45% b. 2.15% c. 33.3% d. 23.5%
152. In 1997-98 the total cost of raw materials is estimated as 50% of sales of that year. The turnover of
gross fixed assets, defined as the ratio of sales to gross fixed assets, in 1997-98 is, approximately
a. 3.3 b. 4.3
c. 0.33 d. Not possible to determine
153. Which of the following statements can be inferred to be true from the given data?
a. During the 5-year period between 1993-94 and 1997-98 exports have increased every year.
b. During the 5-year period 1993-94 and 1997-98, imports have decreased every year.
c. Deficit in 1997-98 was lower than that in 1993-94.
d. Deficit intensity has increased every year between 1993-94 and 1996-97.
FLT – 06 Page 41
Directions for questions 154 to 159: Answer the questions based on the data given below.
The figures below present annual growth rate, expressed as the percentage change relative to the previous
year, in four sectors of the economy of the Republic of Reposia during the 9-year period from 1990 to 1998.
Assume that the index of production for each of the four sectors is set at 100 in 1989. Further, the four
sectors: manufacturing, mining and quarrying, electricity, and chemicals, respectively, constituted 20%,
15%, 10% and 15% of total industrial production in 1989.
Manufacturing
15
10
0
1990 1991 1992 1993 1994 1995 1996 1997 1998
-5
10
0
1990 1991 1992 1993 1994 1995 1996 1997 1998
-5
Electrical
10
8
6
4
2
0
1990 1991 1992 1993 1994 1995 1996 1997 1998
Chem ical
15
10
0
1990 1991 1992 1993 1994 1995 1996 1997 1998
Page 42 FLT – 06
154. Which is the sector with the highest growth during the period 1989 to 1998?
a. Manufacturing b. Mining and quarrying
c. Electricity d. Chemical
155. The overall growth rate in 1991 of the four sectors together is approximately
a. 10% b. 1% c. 2.5% d. 1.5%
156. When was the highest level of production in the manufacturing sector achieved during the 9-year
period 1990-98?
a. 1998 b. 1995 c. 1990 d. Cannot be determined
157. When was the lowest level of production of the mining and quarrying sector achieved during the
9-year period 1990-98?
a. 1996 b. 1993 c. 1990 d. Cannot be determined
158. The percentage increase of production in the four sectors, namely, manufacturing, mining and
quarrying, electricity and chemicals, taken together in 1994, relative to 1989 is approximately
a. 25% b. 20% c. 50% d. 40%
159. It is known that the index of total industrial production in 1994 was 50% more than that in 1989.
Then, the percentage increase in production between 1989 and 1994 in sectors other than the four
listed above is
a. 57.5% b. 87.5% c. 127.5% d. 47.5%
Directions for questions 160 to 165: Answer the questions based on the following information.
ABC Ltd. produces widgets for which the demand is unlimited and they can sell all of their production. The
graph below describes the monthly variable costs incurred by the company as a function of the quantity
produced. In addition, operating the plant for the first shift results in a fixed monthly cost of Rs. 800. Fixed
monthly costs for second shift operation is estimated at Rs. 1,200. Each shift operation provides capacity
for producing 30 widgets per month.
Variable cost
700 0
600 0
500 0
400 0
300 0
200 0
100 0
0
1 6 11 16 21 26 31 36 41 46 51 56
FLT – 06 Page 43
Total monthly costs
Note: Average unit cost, AC = and marginal cost, MC is the rate of change in total
Monthly production
cost for unit change in quantity produced.
160. Total production in July is 40 units. What is the approximate average unit cost for July?
a. 3,600 b. 90
c. 140 d. 115
161. ABC Ltd. is considering increasing the production level. What is the approximate marginal cost of
increasing production from its July level of 40 units?
a. 110 b. 130
c. 150 d. 160
162. From the data provided it can be inferred that, for production levels in the range of 0 to 60 units,
a. MC is an increasing function of production quantity
b. MC is a decreasing function of production quantity
c. initially MC is a decreasing function of production quantity, attains a minimum and then it is an
increasing function of production quantity
d. None of the above
163. Suppose that each widget sells for Rs. 150. What is the profit earned by ABC Ltd. in July?
(Profit is defined as the excess of sales revenue over total cost.)
a. 2,400 b. 1,600
c. 400 d. 0
164. Assume that the unit price is Rs. 150 and profit is defined as the excess of sales revenue over total
costs. What is the monthly production level of ABC Ltd. at which the profit is highest?
a. 30 b. 50 c. 60 d. 40
Page 44 FLT – 06
PAST CAT PAPER 2002
1 3 2 4 3 4 4 3 5 3 6 1 7 1 8 3 9 3 10 3
11 2 12 4 13 1 14 4 15 1 16 1 17 1 18 4 19 2 20 3
21 3 22 3 23 4 24 1 25 3 26 3 27 2 28 4 29 2 30 2
31 2 32 4 33 4 34 2 35 2 36 2 37 1 38 2 39 1 40 4
41 2 42 2 43 2 44 4 45 3 46 1 47 3 48 2 49 4 50 3
51 3 52 2 53 1 54 2 55 1 56 4 57 4 58 2 59 4 60 4
61 3 62 2 63 4 64 4 65 3 66 2 67 2 68 4 69 3 70 1
71 3 72 2 73 3 74 4 75 4 76 1 77 1 78 4 79 2 80 4
81 4 82 3 83 4 84 3 85 1 86 3 87 1 88 3 89 2 90 2
91 4 92 4 93 4 94 3 95 4 96 2 97 2 98 4 99 3 100 3
101 3 102 2 103 4 104 2 105 4 106 3 107 1 108 3 109 4 110 2
111 3 112 1 113 4 114 3 115 1 116 4 117 3 118 2 119 3 120 2
121 1 122 4 123 1 124 3 125 1 126 3 127 2 128 3 129 4 130 1
131 1 132 4 133 4 134 4 135 2 136 4 137 2 138 2 139 4 140 4
141 4 142 1 143 1 144 2 145 1 146 3 147 4 148 3 149 1 150 3
Scoring table
QA 51 to 100 50
EU + RC 101 to 150 50
Total 150
W E
A C
BC2 = AB2 + AC2 S S
S TA R T
BC = AB2 + AC2
1 0 km
SF = ST 2 + TF2 = 402 + 302 = 2500 = 50 km
I 1 0 km II
9. 3 For the case when 1st signal were 1 red and 2 green
lights, the surface diagram will be as given below. 4 0 km
N 2 0 km
W E 3 0 km
IV
F S 4 0 km III
5 0 km 1 0 km
T
1 0 km F
III FIN IS H
IV From the above we can conclude that option (3) is
4 0 km 4 0 km
correct.
27. 2 For man the 200% growth. The value should be more
x + 196 + 58 = 300. Thus, x can be found. than three times.
21. 3 Jagdish (J), Punit (P), Girish (G) 28. 4 Four operations, as given below:
(1) North Africa and Middle-East
2 (2) Argentina
(A) J = [P + G]
9 (3) Rest of Latin America
P + G + J = 38500 (4) Far East
Thus, only J can be found. have registered yearly increase in income before taxes
(B) Similarly, from this only P can be found. and charges from 1998 to 2000.
Combining we know J, P and G can be found.
29. 2 Percentage increase in net income before tax and
22. 3 Emp. numbers 51, 58, 64, 72, 73 satisfy them. charges for total world (1998-99)
Total = 5 1375 − 248
= × 100 = 454.4%
248
Spain is making loss.
16
5760 × 100
; 5.6
15
1055 × 100
5413 9x 2
2000-01 ⇒
49638
= 0.11 ⇒ 3 3y = 9 + y 2 – ... (ii)
49
So Karnataka is the correct option and no further check Now (i) × 9 – 16 × (ii), we get
is required.
12 3
36 3y – 48 3y = 9y 2 – 16y 2 ⇒ y =
47. 3 On referring to the table prepared in the solution for 7
question (11), we can see that Tamil Nadu has been 53. 1
maintaining a constant rank over the years in terms of
its contribution to total tax collections. C
15 20
48. 2 Only R9
A B
49. 4 Statement (1) is not satisfied by R9. 25
Statement (2) is not satisfied R2 & R3
Statement (3) is incorrect as there are five such region
R1, R2, R3, R4 & R11. Let the chord = x cm
Statement (4) is correct.
1 1 x
∴ (15 × 20) = × 25 × ⇒ x = 24 cm
50. 3 All three R9, R10, R11. 2 2 2
Directions for questions 101 to 104: Answer the questions based on the table given below.
The following table describes garments manufactured based upon the colour and size for each lay. There
are four sizes: M – medium, L – large, XL – extra large and XXL – extra extra large. There are three colours:
yellow, red and white.
103. How many lays are used to produce XL yellow or XL white fabrics?
a. 8 b. 9 c. 10 d. 15
FLT – 07 Page 25
104. How many varieties of fabrics, which exceed the order, have been produced?
a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 6
Directions for questions 105 to 108: Answer the questions based on the table given below concerning the
busiest 20 international airports in the world.
International
No. Name Code Location Passengers
Airport Type
105. How many international airports of type ‘A’ account for more than 40 million passengers?
a. 4 b. 5 c. 6 d. 7
106. What percentage of top ten busiest airports is in the United States of America?
a. 60% b. 80% c. 70% d. 90%
Page 26 FLT – 07
107. Of the five busiest airports, roughly, what percentage of passengers in handled by Heathrow Airport?
a. 30 b. 40 c. 20 d. 50
108. How many international airports not located in the USA handle more than 30 million passengers?
a. 5 b. 6 c. 10 d. 14
Directions for questions 109 to 114: Answer the questions based on the two graphs shown below.
Figure I shows the amount of work distribution, in man-hours, for a software company between offshore and
onsite activities. Figure 2 shows the estimated and actual work effort involved in the different offshore
activities in the same company during the same period. [Note: Onsite refers to work performed at the
customer’s premise and offshore refers to work performed at the developer’s premise.]
500
400
300
Offshore
Onsite
200
100
0
Design Coding Testing
Figure 1
500
400
300
Estimated
Actual
200
100
0
Design Coding Testing
Figure 2
FLT – 07 Page 27
110. Roughly, what percentage of the total work is carried out onsite?
a. 40% b. 20 %
c. 30 % d. 10 %
111. The total effort in man-hours spent onsite is nearest to which of the following?
a. The sum of the estimated and actual effort for offshore design
b. The estimated man-hours of offshore coding
c. The actual man-hours of offshore testing
d. Half of the man-hours of estimated offshore coding
112. If the total working hours were 100, which of the following tasks will account for approximately 50 hr?
a. Coding b. Design
c. Offshore testing d. Offshore testing plus design
113. If 50% of the offshore work were to be carried out onsite, with the distribution of effort between the
tasks remaining the same, the proportion of testing carried out offshore would be
a. 40% b. 30% c. 50% d. 70%
114. If 50% of the offshore work were to be carried out onsite, with the distribution of effort between the
tasks remaining the same, which of the following is true of all work carried out onsite?
a. The amount of coding done is greater than that of testing
b. The amount of coding done onsite is less than that of design done onsite
c. The amount of design carried out onsite is greater than that of testing
d. The amount of testing carried out offshore is greater than that of total design
Directions for questions 115 to 117: Answer the questions based on the pipeline diagram below.
The following sketch shows the pipelines carrying material from one location to another. Each location has
a demand for material. The demand at Vaishali is 400, at Jyotishmati is 400, at Panchal is 700, and at
Vidisha is 200. Each arrow indicates the direction of material flow through the pipeline. The flow from
Vaishali to Jyotishmati is 300. The quantity of material flow is such that the demands at all these locations
are exactly met. The capacity of each pipeline is 1,000.
Avanti
Vid isha
115. The quantity moved from Avanti to Vidisha is
a. 200 b. 800 c. 700 d. 1,000
Page 28 FLT – 07
117. What is the free capacity available in the Avanti-Vidisha pipeline?
a. 300 b. 200 c. 100 d. 0
Directions for questions 118 to 120: Answer these questions based on the data given below:
There are six companies, 1 through 6. All of these companies use six operations, A through F. The
following graph shows the distribution of efforts put in by each company in these six operations.
100%
15.7 18.2 17.6
22.2 19.7
90% F F 23.4 F
F F
F
80%
23.5
21.8 23.6
70% E
E 28.6 E
25.9
% Distribution of Efforts
E 28.6 E
60% E
15.7 16.3 11.8
50% D 7.4 D 7.7 D
D D
11.2
9.8 9.3 13.8
40% 10.9 D 13
C C C
C 8.2 C
30% C
17.6 16.7
16.4 10.3 17.6
B B 16.1
B B B
20% B
0%
1 2 3 4 5 6
Company
118. Suppose effort allocation is inter-changed between operations B and C, then C and D, and then D
and E. If companies are then ranked in ascending order of effort in E, what will be the rank of
company 3?
a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5
119. A new technology is introduced in company 4 such that the total effort for operations B through F
get evenly distributed among these. What is the change in the percentage of effort in operation E?
a. Reduction of 12.3 b. Increase of 12.3 c. Reduction of 5.6 d. Increase of 5.6
120. Suppose the companies find that they can remove operations B, C and D and redistribute the effort
released equally among the remaining operations. Then which operation will show the maximum
across all companies and all operations?
a. Operation E in company 1 b. Operation E in company 4
c. Operation F in company 5 d. Operation E in company 5
FLT – 07 Page 29
Directions for questions 121 to 127: Each question is followed by two statements, I and II.
Mark
a. if the question can be answered by one of the statements alone and not by the other.
b. if the question can be answered by using either statement alone.
c. if the question can be answered by using both the statements together, but cannot be answered
by using either statement alone.
d. if the question cannot be answered even by using both statements together.
124. On a given day a boat ferried 1,500 passengers across the river in 12 hr. How many round
trips did it make?
I. The boat can carry 200 passengers at any time.
II. It takes 40 min each way and 20 min of waiting time at each terminal.
126. A square is inscribed in a circle. What is the difference between the area of the circle and that of
the square?
I. The diameter of the circle is 25 2 cm.
II. The side of the square is 25 cm.
127. Two friends, Ram and Gopal, bought apples from a wholesale dealer. How many apples did they
buy?
I. Ram bought one-half the number of apples that Gopal bought.
II. The wholesale dealer had a stock of 500 apples.
Page 30 FLT – 07
Directions for questions 128 to 130: Answer the questions based on the pie charts given below.
Chart 1 shows the distribution of 12 million tonnes of crude oil transported through different modes over a
specific period of time. Chart 2 shows the distribution of the cost of transporting this crude oil. The total
cost was Rs. 30 million.
Rail
9%
Pipeline
49% Pipeline
65%
128. The cost in rupees per tonne of oil moved by rail and road happens to be roughly
a. Rs. 3 b. Rs. 1.5 c. Rs. 4.5 d. Rs. 8
129. From the charts given, it appears that the cheapest mode of transport is
a. road b. rail c. pipeline d. ship
130. If the costs per tonne of transport by ship, air and road are represented by P, Q and R respectively,
which of the following is true?
a. R > Q > P b. P > R > Q c. P > Q > R d. R > P > Q
131. At a village mela, the following six nautankis (plays) are scheduled as shown in the table below.
You wish to see all the six nautankis. Further, you wish to ensure that you get a lunch break from
12.30 p.m. to 1.30 p.m. Which of the following ways can you do this?
FLT – 07 Page 31
a. Sati Savitri is viewed first; Sundar Kand is viewed third, and Jhansi ki Rani is viewed last
b. Sati Savitri is viewed last; Veer Abhimanyu is viewed third, and Reshma aur Shera is viewed first
c. Sati Savitri is viewed first; Sundar Kand is viewed third, and Joru ka Ghulam is viewed fourth
d. Veer Abhimanyu is viewed third; Reshma aur Shera is viewed fourth, and Jahansi ki Rani is
viewed fifth
132. Mrs Ranga has three children and has difficulty remembering their ages and months of their birth.
The clue below may help her remember.
Based on the above clues, which one of the following statements is true?
a. Vaibhav is the oldest, followed by Anshuman who was born in September, and the youngest is
Suprita who was born in April
b. Anshuman is the oldest being born in June, followed by Suprita who is 4-year-old, and the
youngest is Vaibhav who is 2-year-old
c. Vaibhav is the oldest being 7-year-old, followed by Suprita who was born in April, and the youngest
is Anshuman who was born in September
d. Suprita is the oldest who was born in April, followed by Vaibhav who was born in June, and
Anshuman who was born in September
133. The Bannerjees, the Sharmas, and the Pattabhiramans each have a tradition of eating Sunday
lunch as a family. Each family serves a special meal at a certain time of day. Each family has a
particular set of chinaware used for this meal. Use the clues below to answer the following
question.
Page 32 FLT – 07
c. The Sharmas eat sambar at noon, the Pattabhiramans eat fried brinjal served in blue chinaware,
and the Bannerjees eat makkai-ki-roti served in red chinaware
d. The Bannerjees eat makkai-ki-roti served in white chinaware, the Sharmas eat fried brinjal at
12 o’clock and the Pattabhiramans eat sambar from red chinaware
134. While Balbir had his back turned, a dog ran into his butcher shop, snatched a piece of meat off the
counter and ran out. Balbir was mad when he realised what had happened. He asked three other
shopkeepers, who had seen the dog, to describe it. The shopkeepers really did not want to help
Balbir. So each of them made a statement which contained one truth and one lie.
. Shopkeeper number 1 said: “The dog had black hair and a long tail.”
. Shopkeeper number 2 said: “The dog had a short tail and wore a collar.”
. Shopkeeper number 3 said: “The dog had white hair and no collar.”
Based on the above statements, which of the following could be a correct description?
a. The dog had white hair, short tail and no collar
b. The dog had white hair, long tail and a collar
c. The dog had black hair, long tail and a collar
d. The dog had black hair, long tail and no collar
Directions for questions 135 and 136: Answer the following questions based on the information given
below.
Elle is three times older than Yogesh. Zaheer is half the age of Wahida. Yogesh is older than Zaheer.
136. Which of the following information will be sufficient to estimate Elle’s age?
a. Zaheer is 10-year-old
b. Both Yogesh and Wahida are older than Zaheer by the same number of years
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. None of these
Directions for questions 137 to 139: Answer the questions based on the passage below.
A group of three or four has to be selected from seven persons. Among the seven are two women: Fiza and
Kavita, and five men: Ram, Shyam, David, Peter and Rahim. Ram would not like to be in the group If
Shyam is also selected. Shyam and Rahim want to be selected together in the group. Kavita would like to
be in the group only if David is also there. David, if selected, would not like Peter in the group. Ram would
like to be in the group only if Peter is also there. David insists that Fiza be selected in case he is there in
the group.
FLT – 07 Page 33
137. Which of the following is a feasible group of three?
a. David, Ram and Rahim
b. Peter, Shyam and Rahim
c. Kavita, David and Shyam
d. Fiza, David and Ram
140. On her walk through the park, Hamsa collected 50 coloured leaves, all either maple or oak. She
sorted them by category when she got home, and found the following:
The number of red oak leaves with spots is even and positive.
The number of red oak leaves without any spot equals the number of red maple leaves without
spots.
All non-red oak leaves have spots, and there are five times as many of them as there are red spotted
oak leaves.
There are no spotted maple leaves that are not red.
There are exactly 6 red spotted maple leaves.
There are exactly 22 maple leaves that are neither spotted nor red.
141. Eight people carrying food baskets are going for a picnic on motorcycles. Their names are A, B, C,
D, E, F, G, and H. They have 4 motorcycles M1, M2, M3 and M4 among them. They also have 4
food baskets O, P, Q and R of different sizes and shapes and each can be carried only on motorcycles
M1, M2, M3 and M4 respectively. No more than 2 persons can travel on a motorcycle and no more
than one basket can be carried on a motorcycle. There are 2 husband-wife pairs in this group of
8 people and each pair will ride on a motorcycle together. C cannot travel with A or B. E cannot travel
with B or F. G cannot travel with F, or H, or D. The husband-wife pairs must carry baskets O and P.
Q is with A and P is with D. F travels on M1 and E travels on M2 motorcycles. G is with Q, and B
cannot go with R. Who is travelling with H?
a. A b. B c. C d. D
Page 34 FLT – 07
142. In a family gathering there are 2 males who are grandfathers and 4 males who are fathers. In the
same gathering there are 2 females who are grandmothers and 4 females who are mothers. There is
at least one grandson or a granddaughter present in this gathering. There are 2 husband-wife pairs
in this group. These can either be a grandfather and a grandmother, or a father and a mother. The
single grandfather (whose wife is not present) has 2 grandsons and a son present. The single
grandmother (whose husband is not present) has 2 grand daughters and a daughter present. A
grandfather or a grandmother present with their spouses does not have any grandson or granddaughter
present.
What is the minimum number of people present in this gathering?
a. 10 b. 12 c. 14 d. 16
143. I have a total of Rs. 1,000. Item A costs Rs. 110, item B costs Rs. 90, item C costs Rs. 70, item D
costs Rs. 40 and item E costs Rs. 45. For every item D that I purchase, I must also buy two of item
B. For every item A, I must buy one of item C. For every item E, I must also buy two of item D and
one of item B. For every item purchased I earn 1,000 points and for every rupee not spent I earn a
penalty of 1,500 points. My objective is to maximise the points I earn.
What is the number of items that I must purchase to maximise my points?
a. 13 b. 14 c. 15 d. 16
144. Four friends Ashok, Bashir, Chirag and Deepak are out for shopping. Ashok has less money than
three times the amount that Bashir has. Chirag has more money than Bashir. Deepak has an
amount equal to the difference of amounts with Bashir and Chirag. Ashok has three times the
money with Deepak. They each have to buy at least one shirt, or one shawl, or one sweater, or one
jacket that are priced Rs. 200, Rs. 400, Rs. 600, and Rs. 1,000 a piece respectively. Chirag borrows
Rs. 300 from Ashok and buys a jacket. Bashir buys a sweater after borrowing Rs. 100 from Ashok
and is left with no money. Ashok buys three shirts. What is the costliest item that Deepak could buy
with his own money?
a. A shirt b. A shawl c. A sweater d. A jacket
145. In a ‘keep-fit’ gymnasium class there are 15 females enrolled in a weight-loss programme. They all
have been grouped in any one of the five weight-groups W1, W2, W3, W4, or W5. One instructor is
assigned to one weight-group only. Sonali, Shalini, Shubhra and Shahira belong to the same weight-
group. Sonali and Rupa are in one weight-group, Rupali and Renuka are also in one weight-group.
Rupa, Radha, Renuka, Ruchika, and Ritu belong to different weight-groups. Somya cannot be with
Ritu, and Tara cannot be with Radha. Komal cannot be with Radha, Somya, or Ritu. Shahira is in
W1 and Somya is in W4 with Ruchika. Sweta and Jyotika cannot be with Rupali, but are in a weight-
group with total membership of four. No weight-group can have more than five or less than one
member. Amita, Babita, Chandrika, Deepika and Elina are instructors of weight-groups with
membership sizes 5, 4, 3, 2 and 1 respectively. Who is the instructor of Radha?
a. Babita b. Elina c. Chandrika d. Deepika
FLT – 07 Page 35
146. A king has unflinching loyalty from eight of his ministers M1 to M8, but he has to select only four to
make a cabinet committee. He decides to choose these four such that each selected person
shares a liking with at least one of the other three selected. The selected persons must also hate at
least one of the likings of any of the other three persons selected.
M1 likes fishing and smoking, but hates gambling.
M2 likes smoking and drinking, but hates fishing.
M3 likes gambling, but hates smoking,
M4 likes mountaineering, but hates drinking,
M5 likes drinking, but hates smoking and mountaineering.
M6 likes fishing, but hates smoking and mountaineering.
M7 likes gambling and mountaineering, but hates fishing.
M8 likes smoking and gambling, but hates mountaineering.
Directions for questions 147 to 150: Answer the questions based on the following information.
A and B are two sets (e.g. A = Mothers, B = Women). The elements that could belong to both the sets
(e.g. women who are mothers) is given by the set C = A . B. The elements which could belong to either A
or B, or both, is indicated by the set D = A ∪ B . A set that does not contain any elements is known as a
null set represented by ϕ (e.g. if none of the women in the set B is a mother, then C = A .B is a null set, or
C = ϕ ).
Let ‘V’ signify the set of all vertebrates, ‘M’ the set of all mammals, ‘D’ dogs, ‘F’ fish, ‘A’ alsatian and ‘P’,
a dog named Pluto.
149. If Z = (P . D) ∪ M, then
a. the elements of Z consist of Pluto, the dog, or any other mammal
b. Z implies any dog or mammal
c. Z implies Pluto or any dog that is a mammal
d. Z is a null set
Page 36 FLT – 07
101. Count only those lays for which any size of yellow 111. From figure the total effort in man-hours spent on-site
coloured fabric is produced. is 320.
They are lay number It is nearest to actual man-hours of offshore testing
1, 3, 4, 6, 7, 8, 9, 11, 12, 15, 21, 24, 25, 27 which is 280 (approximately.)
Hence, 14 is the answer.
112. Total man-hours
102. Count those lays for which extra-extra large fabric is = (100 + 80) + (420 + 100) + (280 + 140) = 1120.
produced of any colours, i.e. count the lay numbers Total working hours = 100
for which at least one of XXL from 3 colours is non-
1120
zero. Total man working = = 11.2 or 11.
They are lay number 7, 8, 9, 10, 11, 12, 13, 14, 15, 21, 100
22, 23, 24, 25, 26, 27 . For 50 hr the total man-hours is 50 × 11 = 550 which
Hence, 16 is the answer. is near to coding (420 + 100)
Hence, (a) is the answer
103. Again count lay number for which at least one of the
XXL from yellow and white are non-zero. 113. Total offshore work = 100 + 420 + 280
Lay number 7, 8, 9, 10, 11, 12, 13, 14, 15, 21, 23, 24, = 800 man-hours.
25, 26, 27. 50% of offshore work are carried out on-site.
Hence, 15 is the answer. Distribution of effort are in ratio 180 : 520 : 420
9 : 26 : 21
104. The varieties for which there is surplus gives the Effort distributed to testing will be
answer. There are 4 such varieties.
21
× 400 = 147 man-hours.
105. Put a decimal after the first two digit in the passengers 56
column and it wil give the figure in millions. 280
In that case we have only 5 international airports of Offshore testing work is = 140
2
type A having more than 40 million passengers.
They are in serial number 1, 2, 3, 5, 9. ∴ Proportion of testing carried out offshore is
Rest all ‘A’ type is below 40 million. 140
× 100 = 30%
(140 + 140 + 147 )
106. There are only six airports of USA among the top 10
busiest airports. They are in serial number 1, 2, 3, 5,
9, 10. 114.
6 Design Coding Testing
Hence, × 100 = 60%
10
Initially 80 100 140
107. We have to calculate the percentage of passengers
handled at Heathrow Airport. 100 420 294
Now total number of passengers in the 5 busiest Finally 80 + = 130 100 + = 310 140 + = 287
2 2 2
airport is approximately
(77 + 72 + 63 + 62 + 60) million 115. We see flow from Vaishali to Jyotishmati is 300 where
= 334 million as demand is 400 so the deficient 100 would be met
At Heathrow it is 62 million. by flow from Vidisha. Again the demand of 700 in
The approximate percentage is Panchal is again to be met by flow from Jyotishmati
60 which can get it from Vidisha.
× 100 ~ 20% Thus, the quantity moved from Avanti to Vidisha is
300
200 + 100 + 700 = 1000
108. All the international airports handle more than 30 million
116. Free capacity at Avanti-Vaishali pipeline is 300, since
passengers. Among these only 6 airports are not
capacity of each pipeline is 1000 and demand at
located in USA. Hence, (b) is the answer.
Vidisha is 400 and 300 flows to Jyotishmati.
Thus, free capacity = {1000 – (400 + 300)} = 300
109. Man-hours spent in coding is 420 + 100 = 520.
Now going by options, we see (a) is the only option.
117. Free capactiy in Avanti-Vidisha is zero. Explanation is
similar as in previous answer.
110. Total work is approximately
(100 + 80) + (420 + 100) + (280 + 140) = 1120
118. On interchanging the effort allocation between
On-site work = 80 + 100 + 140 = 320
operations B and C, then C and D, and then D and E
Percentage of total work carried out on-site is
we find that B takes the E’s position.
320 Looking at the effort in B and then ranking in ascending
× 100 = 30% approxmately. order we find that the company 3 ranks third.
1120
Page 12 FLT – 07
119. Total effort for operation B through F is 81.5%. 126.
Even distribution will give effort allocation in each
81.5
operation = = 16.3%
5
∴ Change in E = 28.6 – 16.3 = 12.3% O
121. From II, m, n could be (2, 15) (5, 6), (3, 10) and (1, 30)
129. From the chart, we can make out the least among
but from I, we get m, n as (2, 15).
road, rail, pipeline, ship by looking at the ratio of cost
to volume.
122. From I nothing can be said since exact figures are not
given. 6
Road =
From II since X > Y (from B) we do not know how 22
much X is greater than Y, because if it is slightly greater 12
than it will be less than Y after 5 years whereas if the Rail =
9
difference is very high, then X will be greater than Y
even after 5 years. 65
Pipeline =
49
123. From I, unequal even integers less than 10 are 2, 4, 6, 10
8. Ship =
9
X Obviously road is the lowest and hence the cheapest.
is an odd integer is possible only if x = 6, y = 2
Y
130. Ship, air and road.
From II, even integers less than 10 are 2, 4, 6, 8. Like the previous answer again look at ratio of
XY = 12 ⇒ X = 6, Y = 2 or X = 2, Y = 6
10 7 6
Hence, question can be answered using either , ,
statement alone but not from statement B. 9 11 22
10 7 6
124. I gives the capacity of boat and is of no help in finding So > >
out the number of round trips. 9 11 22
From II round trips can be calculated since we know Hence, P > Q > R
the total time taken is 12 hr.
131. Sati-Savitri starts at the earliest.
125. I gives the rate and II gives the size. It is like I gives the So we view it first.
speed and II the distance and we are to find out time. (1) Sati-Savitri — 9.00 a.m. to 10.00 a.m.
So both statements are needed. (2) Veer Abhimanu — 10.00 a.m. to 11.00 a.m.
(3) Jhansi Ki Rani/Sundar Kand — 11.00 a.m. to
11.30 a.m.
(4) Joru Ka Ghulam — 11.30 a.m. to 12.30 p.m.
Now lunch break from 12.30 p.m. to 1.30 p.m.
At 1.30 p.m. he can takes the show of only Jhansi
Ki Rani so it cannot be viewed at 3rd.
FLT – 07 Page 13
(5) Jhansi Ki Rani — 1.30 p.m. to 2.00 p.m. 135. Elle is 3 times older than Yogesh and Zaheer is half
(6) Reshma aur Shera 2.00 p.m. to 3.00 p.m. the age of Wahida.
Hence, option (c) is best. If Wahida is 2x-year-old, then Zaheer is x.
Now Yogesh > Zaheer
132. Three children Vaibhav, Suprita and Anshuman. ⇒ Yogesh > x
Vaibhav > Suprita Elle is 3 times older than Yogesh.
↓ Which means Elle is older than Wahida as 3x > 2x.
(Born in April)
Alternative method:
One of children is born in September, but it is not E = 3y ...(i)
Vaibhav, so it has to be Anshuman. w
So Vaibhav is born in June and is 7-year-old. Vaibhav z= , or 2z = w ...(ii)
2
is 7-year-old and Anshuman is not 4-year-old.
y > z , implies 2y > 2z implies 2y > w from (ii)
So Suprita is 4-year-old.
Now, if 2y > w
Youngest child is 2-year-old and it has to be Anshuman.
3y > w, i.e. E > w from (i)
Vaibhav > Suprita > Anshuman
Hence, Elle is older than Wahida.
(June, 7 years) (April, 4 years) (Sept., 2-year-old)
Hence, (c) is the answer.
136. From (a) Zaheer is 10-year-old means Wahida is
20-year-old. From (b) Yogesh and Wahida are older
133. We can find out the time for lunch of respective families
than Zaheer by same number of years.
from the table below:
This means Yogesh is 20-year-old. Now Elle is 3 times
older than Yogesh.
Family/Time 12:00 1:00 2:00 Elle is 20 × 3 = 60-year-old.
Hence, we see that both (a) and (b) statements are
ü
needed so the answer is (c).
Sharma
137. Find out from the options.
Banerjee ü (a) David, Rama and Rahim
Ram would like to be in the group only if Peter is there,
Pattabhiraman ü so it is not feasible.
(b) Peter, Shyam and Rahim
Shyam and Rahim want to be selected together and
Fried brinjal → Chinaware
none of them have problem or any conditions, hence
Sambar → White Chinaware
feasible.
Makkai-ki-roti → Red Chinaware (c) Since Shyam is there, Rahim has to be but he is
The family that eats at 1 o’clock serves fried brinjal, not also Fiza is not there which David insists so not
hence Pattabhiraman serves fried brinjal. feasible.
The family that eats last like makkai-ki-roti so (d) Since Peter is not there and so Ram would not
Banaerjees like makkai-ki-roti. Sharmas are left with prefer that group, hence not feasible.
sambar.
Sharma - 12:00 - Sambar - White 138. Looking at options, we see (c) is best as Shyam and
Pattabhiraman - 1:00 - Fried brinjal - Blue Rahim is selected and Fiza is there when David is
Bannerjees - 2:00 - Makkai-ki-roti - Red selected.
Hence, (c) is the best option. In (a) we see Shyam is not there with Rahim.
In (b) Fiza is not there with David.
134. We start making one true and other false. In (d) Peter and David cannot go together as David
Case I would not like Peter in the group.
T F
Shopkeeper 1: Black hair Long tail 139. In Ist option — Kavita is in the group means David is
T F there and David would not like Peter in the group,
Shopkeeper 2: Short tail Wore a collar whereas Ram would like to be in the group if Peter is
T F there so the statement cannot be true.
Shopkeeper 3: White hair No collar 2nd option — If David is there, then only the group will
have both women Kavita and Fiza, but in that case
Case II we see none of the rest could be the fourth person
T F as Shyam and Rahim has to be together and Ram
Shop keeper 1: Black hair Long tail would be if Peter is there and David would not like
T F Peter in the group, hence statement is false.
Shop keeper 2: Short tail Wore a collar 3rd option — It is not possible as Ram cannot go with
T F Shyam and David with Peter.
Shop keeper 3: White hair No collar So none of the above statements are true.
Both the cases are correct, and hence we see only
option (b) is correct.
Page 14 FLT – 07
140. Let S = spotted, NS = Non-spotted 143. We have packages as follows:
3 item (D + 2B) = Rs. 40 + Rs.180 = Rs. 220 ... (i)
2 item (A + C) = Rs.180 ... (ii)
Oak Maple 4 item (E + 2D + B) = 45 + 50 + 90 = 215 ... (iii)
The combinations of purchase possible are
Red Non-red Red Non-red Case 1: Rs. 220 × 4 = Rs. 880
Points: 12 × 1000 – 120 × 1500 = – 1,68,000
S NS S NS S NS S NS
Case 2: Rs. 180 × 5 = Rs. 900
2n x 10n 0 6 x 0 22 Points: 10 × 1000 – 100 × 1500 = – 1,40,000
There are 50 coloured leaves and is given as red and Case 3: Rs. 215 × 4 = Rs. 860
non-red. Points:16 × 1000 – 140 × 1500 = – 1,94,000
We make the following table. Let 2n be number of red
oak leaves where n is any natural number. Case 4: 2(220 + 180) + 180 = Rs. 980
Points: 12 × 1000 – 20 × 1500 = – 18,000
Now we have 2n + x + 10n + 6 + x + 22 = 50
⇒ 12n + 2x = 22 Case 5: 2(220 + 215) = Rs. 890
It is possible for only n = 1, x = 5 Points : 14 × 1000 – 110 × 1500 = – 1,51,000
We cannot take n > 1
Hence, number of oak leaves are Case 6: 2(215 + 180) + 180 = Rs. 970
2 × 1 + 5 + 10 × 1 = 17 Points :14 × 1000 – 30 × 1500 = – 31,000
By seeing the above figure, we see that we maximize
141. O, P, Q and R carried on motorcycles M1, M2, M3 and M4 the point in last case when purchase is 14 item for
respectively. So Rs. 970.
OP Q R
M1 M2 M3 M4 144. Bashir < Chirag.
F E A+G C Now Chirag borrows Rs. 300 and Bashir Rs. 100
BD H from Ashok. Ashok buys 3 shirt so he must have at
Since B cannot be with R so it will go with O that is least Rs. 1,000.
only left. Bashir is left with no money after buying a sweater
Hence, C and H will go together in M4 with R. and he had to borrow Rs.100 from Ashok means he
had Rs. 500 with him.
Ashok must have less than Rs. 1,500.
142. Ashok has three times the money with Deepak.
G F1 Gm1 So Deepak cannot have Rs. 300 because Ashok must
have Rs.1,000, again Deepak cannot have Rs. 500
because Ashok should have less than Rs.1,500.
F1 M1 So Deepak has Rs. 400 for which he can purchase
the shawl which is costliest.
145. W1 W4
Rupa Radha Renuka Ruchika Ritu
GS1 G S2 GD1 GD2 Sonali Rupali Somya Tara
Shalini Komal Sweta
Shubhra Jyotika
G F 2+G M 2 Shahira Deepika
FLT – 07 Page 15
146. 147. X = M.D = M ∩ D
X=D
M ∩D=D
Mount- ⇒D ⊂M
Gam-
Fishing Smoking Drinking aineer-
bling Thus all dogs are mammals.
ing
L i ke s
M1 M1 M2 M3 M4 M
M6 M2 M5 M7 M7 D
M8 M8
M5
M2 M3
Dislikes M4 M1 M6 148. Y = F ∩ (D ∩ V ) is not a null set means some F’s are
M7 M5
M8 D’s and sum D’s are V’s .
M6
That means some fish are dogs.
Page 16 FLT – 07
108. 117. (a) would only result in more cars per family. (b) and
(c) defeat Athens’ purpose as citizens devise
1 2 19 82 ingenious methods to maintain status quo both in terms
1 2 16 5 – 2 of number of cars and congestion.
1 2 13 – 9
1 – 1 118. The Central Bank can only express ‘reservations’ on
‘monetisation’ to the government. It cannot be the ‘boss’,
it only advises. (c) does not support the conclusion in
The answer is 1192. any way. (a) and (d) are specific observations, but
they do not contribute to our answer.
109. Work with options. If the cylinder has a capacity of
1,200 L, then the conical vessel shall have a capacity 119. (d) is a summary for the general words ‘varied use’,
of 700 L. Once 200 L have been taken out from the ‘common basis’ pertaining to the ‘symbol’ in the
same, the remaining volume in each of them shall be geographical and historical context. (c) does not
1000 and 500. present the complete picture. (a) refuses to divulge
the significance of the umbrella. (b) is wrong as the
Alternative method: ruler is regarded as the instrument of firmament of the
Let the volume of conical tank be x. supreme law.
Then the volume of cylindrical tank = x + 500
x + 300 = 2(x – 200) ⇒ x = 700 120. This answer goes without guessing. There are two
Volume of cylindrical tank = 700 + 500 = 1200. parties in the game, and each has its own strategy
and a guess on the opponent’s move. (a) involves
110. Work with options. Length of wire must be a multiple more of cooperation strategies than game plans. (b) is
of 6 and 8. Number of poles should be one more than competition involving more than two candidates. (d) is
the multiple.
about cartels.
111. If the number of students enrolled for a certain class
do not fit into that age interval, they are in excess and 121. Since yellow is between green and red, it should be
hence, unrepresentative, thus resulting in bloated house number 2 or 3. Also green is adjacent to blue
ratios. (a) is wrong because the definition of gross house, it should have blue and yellow house on either
enrollment ratio itself is flawed. Attendance is not the side. Hence, the following table can be constructed.
focus of our argument. We are also not concerned
House number 1 2 3 4
with demographic trends, but only with given data.
Colour Blue Green Yellow Red
Occupant X Z
112. The argument states that ‘clubs that spend more should Since X does not live adjacent to Z, it has to live in blue
finish at a higher ranking’. This is reflected in ‘highly house.
paid white players returned a low ranking’. (a) focuses
on clubs that recruited black players, a consquence 122. The ratio of points for carrying books of various
Szymanski is not immediately concerned with. (c) also subjects is:
throws no light on the relation ‘clubs that spend more Management : Mathematics : Physics : Fiction
should finish higher’. Nor does (d). =4:3:2:1
Since the points are to be maximized, the number of
113. Only (d) connects the recommendation directly to the books that Ramesh should carry in descending order
cause ‘rising tensions’ in prisons and not to any is management, mathematics, physics and fiction.
marginal political factors. (a), (b) and (c) may have The ratio which Ramesh has to maintain is:
contributed, but peripherally, to the minister’s decision. Management : Fiction < 1 : 2,
Mathematics : Physics < 1 : 2.
114. (a) and (d) cover the government’s honourable This means that a combination of management and
intentions, which look best on paper. (b) discusses fiction books in the ratio of 1 : 2 will give 6 points while
one feasiblilty factor. (c) is the best choice as it shows a combination of mathematics and physics books in
how the project has reached the implementation stage the ratio of 1 : 2 will give 7 points, hence, Ramesh
from the pilot stage. should carry the following combination of books to
maximize the points; management 1, mathematics 2,
115. ‘Manoeuvrability’ is linked to ‘flight direction changes’ physics 5 and fiction 2, a total of 22 points.
in (d). (c) just vaguely mentions ‘faster’. (a) makes no
inference, as such. It may or may not be true. There is
insufficient evidence to infer (d), it sounds rather far-
fetched.
FLT – 06 Page 9
123. The following table can be created using the data Information Technology Industry in India
given. (Figures are in million US dollars)
Software
Blue Red
Colour
and Yellow and Black Domestic 350 490 670 950 1250
choice
Red Blue
Exports 485 734 1083 1750 2650
Hotel
Stays in
Hardware
Does not
Palace Palace Palace Domestic 590 1037 1050 1205 1026
stay in
Since X stays in a hotel and P or U or T cannot stay in Exports 177 35 286 201 4
a palace, M stays in palace.
Peripherals
124. The attendants of X, Y and Z are to be Mohan, Jack
Domestic 148 196 181 229 329
and Rita. The animals under Mohan’s care is given in
the data. Since Jack does not attend to deer, lion and Exports 6 6 14 19 18
bison, the following table can be created using the
data given. Training 107 143 185 263 302
Enclosure X Y Z
126. Total exports
= Software export + Hardware export + Peripherals
export
Name Mohan Ja ck Rita Shalini Suman Hence, total export as a percentage of IT business for
1994-95
Li on B ear D eer Li on D eer 668
Animals and and and and and = × 100 = 32.7%
2041
panther panther b i so n bear b i so n
775
For 1995-96 = × 100 = 26.8%
C age X Y Z Q P 2886
1383
For 1996-97 = × 100 = 36%
The data for Mohan and Jack can be filled directly. 3807
Similarly, X, Y, Z can be filled directly from data given.
1970
The key after filling in these animals is that Z and P For 1997-98 = × 100 = 39%
have the same pair of animals, the only option is deer 5031
and bison. 2672
For 1998-99 = × 100 = 44 %
125. By trial and error, we can make different 6052
combinations and find the cost.
Like 20 kg × 2 + 10 kg × 4, the cost would be 127. Percentage growth for 1995-96 = 41%,
Rs.180. The minimum cost comes in the case of 1996-97 = 32%, 1997-98 = 32%, 1998-99 = 20%.
10 kg × 8, i.e. Rs.160.
128. (a) and (b) can be easily eliminated from the given
Direction for students: The table for questions 126 table.
to 130 in CAT 2001 Bulletin has some misprints and it
should be read like the following. 129. Total IT business in hardware (Export + Import) shows
a continuous increase from 1994-95 to 1997-98 and
then declines in 1998-99.
Page 10 FLT – 06
130. In this question there are two activities — hardware imply towards C being the mid-point of BD. The ratio
and peripherals, hence for year X to dominate year Y, of AC/CE will be one by using any statement.
at least one activity in year X has to be greater than
that in year Y and the other activity in year X cannot 139. Here, by combining the two statements, we get the
be in year Y. In (a), (b) and (c) while hardware duration of the flight.
dominates in one year, the peripherals dominate in the For the arrival time we should have information
other. regarding the time zone difference of Mumbai and
No-man’s-land.
131. Statement I implies X > Y, or X > Z, or X > Y and Z
Statement II implies Y > X, or Y > Z, or Y > X and Z. 140. Statement I implies X – Y = 6. .
Combining both statements, we can get Y > X > Z or Statement II implies XY is divisible by 6.
X > Y > Z. Hence, Z is the smallest. You can see that many values of X and Y can satisfy
statement I and II.
132. The first statement implies that X must lie between
0 and – 3. Hence, it gives the answer. But from the 141. If the total number of factories is 100, then the total
second statement, we have either X > 3 or X < 0. This number of employees
does not gives us an information about the modulus = 60 × 100 = 6000 of which 64.6% = 3876 work in
of X. wholly private factories. Since the number of wholly
133. The Venn diagram arrived at from both I and II clearly 3876
private factories = 90.3, the answer = = 43.
indicates that 500 people are watching programme P. 90.3
60 2
Short cut: 0.64 × < × 60 = 45
P Q 0.903 3
5 00 1 00 9 00 Value added
142. Value added per employee = Employment
134. For a given inradius and circumradius, there is only Gross output
one possible value of (PR + RQ). 143. Compound productivity = Fixed capital .
Hence, both the statements are required to answer
Hence, compound productivity for various sectors is:
the question.
Public sector = 0.6, Central Government = 0.725,
States/Local = 0.47, Central/States/Local = 1.07, Joint
135. Statement I implies that profit is 2.95%, but we want sector = 1.23 and wholly private = 1.36. Hence, the
the profit per rupee spent on buying the shares. The order should be: Wholly private, Joint, Central/State/
cost of buying the shares for Harshad is CP + 0.01 CP Local, Central Government, Public sector and State/
= 1.01 CP. The cost of selling is Local government.
SP – 0.01 SP = 0.99 SP
The difference of the two is profit, i.e. 144. Calculate the ratios: Value added/employment and
0.99 SP – 1.01 CP = 0.99 × 1.05 CP – 1.01 CP value added/fixed capital for the sectors mentioned in
= 0.0295 CP. Hence, profit = 2.95%. the choices. The respective values are:
Wholly private 0.9 and 1.25; Joint sector 1.59 and
136. We cannot work the questions individually through 1.19; Central/State/Local 1.8, 1.28; others 0.92 and
I or II. But combining the two statements, we get 0.75.
(2 ⊕ 0) = (0 ⊕ 2) = 0 and 0 ⊕ (– 5 ⊕ – 6) = 0.
145. The number of factories in joint sector is 1.8% = 2700,
137. Both the statements combined also do not tell us if thus the number of factories in Central Government
they are intersecting or not. The two lines can be = 1% of (2700 x 100/1.8) = 1500. Value added by
parallel also depending on the values of a, b, d, e. Central Government = 14.1% of 1,40,000 crore
= 19,740.
138. You can see from the following diagram that both
statements individually 19740
Hence, answer = = Rs. 13.1 crore.
1500
FLT – 06 Page 11
153. Clear from the table.
−0.75
For Malaysia, percentage = × 100 = –7.02
10.67 154. Clear from the given graph.
For Thailand, change is 14.34%.
For China and Korea, changes are – 19.46% and 155. First find out the growth in 1990 of the all four sectors.
15.74% respectively. So manufacturing 9% of 20 = 1.8. Hence, 20 + 1.8
Hence, we can see that the country with the largest = 21.8. Similarly, for mining and quarrying it is 15.6.
change in FEI is India. For electrical, it is 10.85 and for chemical it is 16.1, now
in 1991 there is 1% negative growth in manufacturing.
147. Since the absolute values are not given, it cannot be So 1% of 21.8 becomes 0.218. Thus, 21.8 – 0.218
calculated. = 21.582. Similarly, for mining and quarrying it is 15.44.
For electrical it is 11.88 and for chemical it is 16.21.
148. Assume of GDP of India for 1997 to be x. Now we add the figures for 1991 of all the sectors
which comes to 21.582 + 15.75 + 11.88 + 16.21
0.72 × 102x
For 1998, India's FEI = = 0.7344x = 65.42. Now 65.42 – 64.35 = 1.07 which comes to
100 approximately 1.5% growth rate.
And foreign equity inflows for 1997 = 1.71x
For China, assume GDP as y. Then FEI in 1998 156. Clear from the graph.
107y
= × 4.8 = 5.136y. And FEI in 1997 = 5.96y. 157. In 1990, there is 4% growth. Hence, 4% of 15 = 0.6.
100 So weightage in 1990 becomes 15.6.
For South Korea, let GDP be z. Similarly, in 1991 it becomes 15.44, in 1992 it is 15.6,
in 1993 it is 14.97, in 1994 it is 16.16.
95z
FEI in 1998 = × 2.5 = 2.375z and FEI = 2.16z. Hence, it can be seen that the lowest level of
100 production was in 1993.
We can see that India and China were lower in 1998
than in 1997, and South Korea is higher in 1998 than 158. Find out the weightage for all the sectors for 1994.
in 1997. For manufacturing it is 25.54, for mining and quarrying
it is 16, for electrical it comes out to be 14.5 and for
149. Let x be the foreign equity inflow of India. Hence, chemical it is 19.5. The total comes to approximately
China’s foreign equity inflow is 10x. 77. In 1989, it was 60. Hence, 77 – 60 = 17 which is
Now in 1998, FEI in India was 0.72, therefore approximately 25% increase.
x
0.72 = 159. Since the index of total industrial production in 1994 is
GDP of India
50% more than in 1989, it becomes 150.
Similarly, FEI in China in 1998 was 4.8, therefore 4.8 Now total weightage for manufacturing, mining and
quarrying, electrical and chemical in 1994 is
10x
= GDP of China approximately 77. So 150 – 77 = 73.
In 1989, it was 100 – 60 = 40.
Hence, (GDP of China/GDP of India) So 73 – 40 = 33, which is approximately 87.5%.
= (10 × 0.72)/4.8 = 1.5.
Thus, China’s GDP is 50% higher than that of India. 160. Cost in shift operation = 800 + 1200 = Rs. 2,000
Variable cost for 40 units = Rs. 3,600
150. As from the table, the deficit intensity from 1993-94 to Approximate average unit cost for July
1997-98 are 5.1, 6.3, 7.6, 8 and 5.
3600 + 2000
Therefore, highest growth rate is 7.6 – 6.3 = 1.3 which = = Rs. 140 .
is in 1994-95. 40
152. From the tables given, 162. The trend for MC is varying and is just the reverse
Import of raw material = 10.1 × Sales (S) import of condition as that stated in C. Take some values and
capital goods = 17.6 × Gross fixed assets (GFA) check.
Given imports = Raw materials + Capital goods
So import = 10.1 S + 17.6 GFA 163. Total sales revenue = Rs. (150 × 40) = Rs. 6,000
So imports = 14.2 S Total production cost = Rs. (3600 + 2000) = Rs. 5600.
Hence, 14.2 S = 10.1 S + 17.6 GFA So profit = Rs. 400.
S 17.6
Hence, = = 4.3 164. Profit is highest when there is no second shift.
GFA 4.1
165. (a) and (b) are definitely not true as the case is the
inverse of that mentioned in (c). Take some values
and check.
Page 12 FLT – 06
Section III
Directions for questions 61 to 64: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below:
A management institute was established on January 1, 2000 with 3, 4, 5, and 6 faculty members in the
Marketing, Organisational Behaviour (OB), Finance, and Operations Management (OM) areas respec-
tively, to start with. No faculty member retired or joined the institute in the first three months of the year
2000. In the next four years, the institute recruited one faculty member in each of the four areas. All these
new faculty members, who joined the institute subsequently over the years, were 25 years old at the time
of their joining the institute. All of them joined the institute on April 1. During these four years, one of the
faculty members retired at the age of 60. The following diagram gives the area-wise average age (in terms
of number of completed years) of faculty members as on April 1 of 2000, 2001, 2002, and 2003.
55
52.5
51.5
50.5 50.2
50 49.33 49
2000
47.8
2001
46 46 2002
45 45 45 45 2003
45 44 44
43
40
Marketing OB Finance OM
62. Professors Naresh and Devesh, two faculty members in the Marketing area, who have been with the
Institute since its inception, share a birthday, which falls on 20th November. One was born in 1947
and the other one in 1950. On April 1 2005, what was the age of the third faculty member, who has
been in the same area since inception?
(1) 47 (2) 50 (3) 51 (4) 52
63. In which year did the new faculty member join the Finance area?
(1) 2000 (2) 2001 (3) 2002 (4) 2003
Directions for questions 65 to 67: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below:
The table below reports annual statistics related to rice production in select states of India for a particular
year.
65. Which two states account for the highest productivity of rice (tons produced per hectare of rice
cultivation)?
(1) Haryana and Punjab (2) Punjab and Andhra Pradesh
(3) Andhra Pradesh and Haryana (4) Uttar Pradesh and Haryana
66. How many states have a per capita production of rice (defined as total rice production divided by its
population) greater than Gujarat?
(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 6
67. An intensive rice producing state is defined as one whose annual rice production per million of
population is at least 400,000 tons. How many states are intensive rice producing states?
(1) 5 (2) 6 (3) 7 (4) 8
Sl. Na m e Ge nde r De signa tion Age group Com m itte d to Inte re ste d in
No. proje cts w orkshop
during on
1 Anshul M Mgr Y Jan, Mar CS, EG
2 Bushkant M Dir I Feb, Mar BO, EG
3 Charu F Mgr I Jan, Feb BO, CS
4 Dinesh M Exe O Jan, Apr BO, CS, EG
5 Eashwaran N Dir O Feb, Apr BO
6 Fatima F Mgr Y Jan, Mar BO, CS
7 Gayatri F Exe Y Feb, Mar EG
8 Hari M Mgr I Feb, Mar BO, CS, EG
9 Indira F Dir O Feb, Apr BO, EG
10 John M Dir Y Jan, Mar BO
11 Kalindi F Exe I Jan, Apr BO, CS, EG
12 Lavanya F Mgr O Feb, Apr CS, EG
a
Jn
,
13 Mandeep M Mgr O Mar, Apr BO, EG
14 Nandlal M Dir I Jan, Feb BO, EG
15 Parul F Exe Y Feb, Apr CS, EG
16 Rahul M Mgr Y Mar, Apr CS, EG
17 Sunita F Dir Y Jan, Feb BO, EG
18 Urvashi F Exe I Feb, Mar EG
19 Yamini F Mgr O Mar, Apr CS, EG
20 Zeena F Exe Y Jan, Mar BO, CS, EG
68. Assuming that Parul and Hari are attending the workshop on Communication Skills (CS), then
which of the following employees can possibly attend the CS workshop?
(1) Rahul and Yamini (2) Dinesh and Lavanya
(3) Anshul and Yamini (4) Fatima and Zeena
Directions for questions 71 to 74: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below:
In the table below is the listing of players, seeded from highest (#1) to lowest (#32), who are due to play in
an Association of Tennis Players (ATP) tournament for women. This tournament has four knockout rounds
before the final, i.e., first round, second round, quarterfinals, and semi-finals. In the first round, the highest
seeded player plays the lowest seeded player (seed #32) which is designated match No. 1 of first round;
the 2nd seeded player plays the 31st seeded player which is designated match No. 2 of the first round, and
so on. Thus, for instance, match No. 16 of first round is to be played between 16th seeded player and the
17th seeded player. In the second round, the winner of match No. 1 of first round plays the winner of match
No. 16 of first round and is designated match No. 1 of second round. Similarly, the winner of match No. 2
of first round plays the winner of match No. 15 of first round, and is designated match No. 2 of second
round. Thus, for instance, match No. 8 of the second round is to be played between the winner of match
No. 8 of first round and the winner of match No. 9 of first round. The same pattern is followed for later rounds
as well.
71. If there are no upsets (a lower seeded player beating a higher seeded player) in the first round, and
only match Nos. 6, 7, and 8 of the second round result in upsets, then who would meet Lindsay
Davenport in quarter finals, in case Davenport reaches quarter finals?
(1) Justine Henin (2) Nadia Petrova (3) Patty Schnyder (4) Venus Williams
73. If, in the first round, all even numbered matches (and none of the odd numbered ones) result in
upsets, and there are no upsets in the second round, then who could be the lowest seeded player
facing Maria Sharapova in semi-finals?
(1) Anastasia Myskina (2) Flavia Pennetta (3) Nadia Petrova (4) Svetlana Kuznetsova
74. If the top eight seeds make it to the quarterfinals, then who, amongst the players listed below, would
definitely not play against Maria Sharapova in the final, in case Sharapova reaches the final?
(1) Amelie Mauresmo (2) Elena Dementieva (3) Kim Clijsters (4) Lindsay Davenport
Directions for questions 75 to 78: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below:
Venkat, a stockbroker, invested a part of his money in the stock of four companies — A, B, C and D. Each
of these companies belonged to different industries, viz., Cement, Information Technology (IT), Auto, and
Steel, in no particular order. At the time of investment, the price of each stock was Rs. 100. Venkat
purchased only one stock of each of these companies. He was expecting returns of 20%, 10%, 30% and
40% from the stock of companies A, B, C and D, respectively. Returns are defined as the change in the
value of the stock after one year, expressed as a percentage of the initial value. During the year, two of
these companies announced extraordinarily good results. One of these two companies belonged to the
Cement or the IT industry, while the other one belonged to either the Steel or the Auto industry. As a result,
the returns on the stocks of these two companies were higher than the initially expected returns. For the
company belonging to the Cement or the IT industry with extraordinarily good results, the returns were
twice that of the initially expected returns. For the company belonging to the Steel or the Auto industry, the
returns on announcement of extraordinarily good results were only one and a half times that of the initially
expected returns. For the remaining two companies which did not announce extraordinarily good results,
the returns realized during the year were the same as initially expected.
75. What is the minimum average return Venkat would have earned during the year?
(1) 30% (2) 311/4% (3) 321/2% (4) Cannot be determined
76. If Venkat earned a 35% return on average during the year, then which of these statements would
necessarily be true?
I. Company A belonged either to Auto or to Steel Industry.
II. Company B did not announce extraordinarily good results.
III. Company A announced extraordinarily good results.
IV. Company D did not announce extraordinarily good results.
(1) I and II only (2) II and III only (3) III and IV only (4) II and IV only
78. If Company C belonged to the Cement or the IT industry and did announce extraordinarily good
results, then which of these statement(s) would necessarily be true?
I. Venkat earned not more than 36.25% return on average.
II. Venkat earned not less than 33.75% return on average.
III. If Venkat earned 33.75% return on average, Company A announced extraordinarily good results.
IV. If Venkat earned 33.75% return on average, Company B belonged either to Auto or to Steel
Industry.
(1) I and II only (2) II and IV only (3) II and III only (4) III and IV only
Directions for questions 79 to 82: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below:
The year is 2089. Beijing, London, New York, and Paris are in contention to host the 2096 Olympics. The
eventual winner is determined through several rounds of voting by members of the IOC with each member
representing a different city. All the four cities in contention are also represented in IOC.
1) In any round of voting, the city receiving the lowest number of votes in that round gets eliminated.
The survivor after the last round of voting gets to host the event.
2) A member is allowed to cast votes for at most two different cities in all rounds of voting combined.
(Hence, a member becomes ineligible to cast a vote in a given round if both the cities (s)he voted for
in earlier rounds are out of contention in that round of voting.)
3) A member is also ineligible to cast a vote in a round if the city (s)he represents is in contention in
that round of voting.
4) As long as the member is eligible, (s)he must vote and vote for only one candidate city in any round
of voting.
The following incomplete table shows the information on cities that received the maximum and
minimum votes in different rounds, the number of votes cast in their favour, and the total votes that
were cast in those rounds.
79. What percentage of members from among those who voted for New York in round 1, voted for Beijing
in round 2?
(1) 33.33 (2) 50 (3) 66.67 (4) 75
81. What percentage of members from among those who voted for Beijing in round 2 and were eligible
to vote in round 3, voted for London?
(1) 33.33 (2) 38.10 (3) 50 (4) 66.67
Directions for Questions 83 to 86: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below:
The table below presents the revenue (in million rupees) of four firms in three states. These firms, Honest
Ltd., Aggressive Ltd., Truthful Ltd. And Profitable Ltd. Are disguised in the table as A, B, C and D, in no
particular order.
86. If Profitable Ltd.’s lowest revenue is from UP, then which of the following is true?
(1) Truthful Ltd.’s lowest revenues are from MP.
(2) Truthful Ltd.’s lowest revenues are from Bihar.
(3) Truthful Ltd.’s lowest revenues are from UP.
(4) No definite conclusion is possible.
• A maximum number of volunteers are involved in the FR project. Among them, the number of
volunteers involved in FR project alone is equal to the volunteers having additional involvement in the
ER project.
• The number of volunteers involved in the ER project alone is double the number of volunteers involved
in all the three projects.
• 17 volunteers are involved in the TR project.
• The number of volunteers involved in the TR project alone is one less than the number of volunteers
involved in ER project alone.
• Ten volunteers involved in the TR project are also involved in at least one more project.
87. Based on the information given above, the minimum number of volunteers involved in both FR and TR
projects, but not in the ER project is
(1) 1 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 5
88. Which of the following additional information would enable to find the exact number of volunteers
involved in various projects?
(1) Twenty volunteers are involved in FR.
(2) Four volunteers are involved in all the three projects.
(3) Twenty three volunteers are involved in exactly one project.
(4) No need for any additional information.
89. After some time, the volunteers who were involved in all the three projects were asked to withdraw
from one project. As a result, one of the volunteers opted out of the TR project, and one opted out
of the ER project, while the remaining ones involved in all the three projects opted out of the FR
project. Which of the following statements, then, necessarily follows?
(1) The lowest number of volunteers is now in TR project.
(2) More volunteers are now in FR project as compared to ER project.
(3) More volunteers are now in TR project as compared to ER project.
(4) None of the above.
90. After the withdrawal of volunteers, as indicated in Question 89, some new volunteers joined the
NGO. Each one of them was allotted only one project in a manner such that, the number of volun-
teers working in one project alone for each of the three projects became identical. At that point, it
was also found that the number of volunteers involved in FR and ER projects was the same as the
number of volunteers involved in TR and ER projects. Which of the projects now has the highest
number of volunteers?
(1) ER (2) FR (3) TR (4) Cannot be determined
Directions for Questions 26 to 29: Answer the following questions based on the information given below:
A health-drink company’s R&D department is trying to make various diet formulations, which can be used
for certain specific purposes. It is considering a choice of 5 alternative ingredients (O, P, Q, R, and S),
which can be used in different proportions in the formulations. The table below gives the composition of
these ingredients. The cost per unit of each of these ingredients is O: 150, P: 50. Q: 200, R: 500, S: 100.
Composition
Ingredient
Carbohydrate% Protein% Fat% Minerals%
O 50 30 10 10
P 80 20 0 0
Q 10 30 50 10
R 5 50 40 5
S 45 50 0 5
26. For a recuperating patient, the doctor recommended a diet containing 10% minerals and at least
30% protein. In how many different ways can we prepare this diet by mixing at least two ingredients?
(1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) Four (5) None
27. Which among the following is the formulation having the lowest cost per unit for a diet having 10% fat
and at least 30% protein? (The diet has to be formed by mixing two ingredients).
(1) P and Q (2) P and S (3) P and R (4) Q and S (5) R and S
28. In what proportion P, Q and S should be mixed to make a diet having at least 60% carbohydrate at
the lowest cost per unit?
(1) 2:1:3 (2) 4:1:2 (3) 2:1:4 (4) 3:1:2 (5) 4:1:1
29. The company is planning to launch a balanced diet required for growth needs of adolescent children.
This diet must contain at least 30% each of carbohydrate and protein, no more than 25% fat and at
least 5% minerals. Which one of the following combinations of equally mixed ingredients is feasible?
(1) O and P (2) R and S (3) P and S
(4) Q and R (5) O and S
30. In a particular school, sixty students were athletes. Ten among them were also among the top
academic performers. How many top academic performers were in the school?
A. Sixty per cent of the top academic performers were not athletes.
B. All the top academic performers were not necessarily athletes.
31. Five students Atul, Bala, Chetan, Dev and Ernesto were the only ones who participated in a quiz
contest. They were ranked based on their scores in the contest. Dev got a higher rank as compared
to Ernesto, while Bala got a higher rank as compared to Chetan. Chetan’s rank was lower than the
median. Who among the five got the highest rank?
A. Atul was the last rank holder.
B. Bala was not among the top two rank holders.
32. Thirty per cent of the employees of a call centre are males. Ten per cent of the female employees
have an engineering background. What is the percentage of male employees with engineering
background?
A. Twenty five per cent of the employees have engineering background.
B. Number of male employees having an engineering background is 20% more than the number of
female employees having an engineering background.
33. ln a football match, at the half-time, Mahindra and Mahindra Club was trailing by three goals. Did it
win the match?
A. In the second-half Mahindra and Mahindra Club scored four goals.
B. The opponent scored four goals in the match.
Year 2002 Year 2003 Year 2004 Year 2005 Year 2006
Volume of production and sale (units) 1000 900 1100 1200 1200
Costs (Rs.)
Material 50,000 45,100 55,200 59,900 60,000
Labour 20,000 18,000 22,100 24,150 24,000
Consumables 2,000 2,200 1,800 1,600 1,400
Rent of building 1,000 1,000 1,100 1,100 1,200
Rates and taxes 400 400 400 400 400
Repair and maintenance expenses 800 820 780 790 800
Operating cost of machines 30,000 27,000 33,500 36,020 36,000
Selling and marketing expenses 5,750 5,800 5,800 5,750 5,800
The production capacity of the company is 2000 units. The selling price for the year 2006 was
Rs. 125 per unit. Some costs change almost in direct proportion to the change in volume of production,
while others do not follow any obvious pattern of change with respect to the volume of production and hence
are considered fixed. Using the information provided for the year 2006 as the basis for projecting the figures
for the year 2007, answer the following questions:
34. What is the approximate cost per unit in rupees, if the company produces and sells 1400 units in
the year 2007?
(1) 104 (2) 107 (3) 110 (4) 115 (5) 116
35. What is the minimum number of units that the company needs to produce and sell to avoid any
loss?
(1) 313 (2) 350 (3) 384 (4) 747 (5) 928
36. If the company reduces the price by 5%, it can produce and sell as many units as it desires. How
many units the company should produce to maximize its profit?
(1) 1400 (2) 1600 (3) 1800 (4) 1900 (5) 2000
37. Given that the company cannot sell more than 1700 units, and it will have to reduce the price by
Rs.5 for all units, if it wants to sell more than 1400 units, what is the maximum profit, in rupees, that
the company can earn?
(1) 25,400 (2) 24,400 (3) 31,400 (4) 32,900 (5) 32,000
39. In Class 12, twenty five per cent of the vegetarians are male. What is the difference between the
number of female vegetarians and male non-vegetarians?
(1) less than 8 (2) 10 (3) 12 (4) 14 (5) 16
41. In the Secondary Section, 50% of the students are vegetarian males. Which of the following
statements is correct?
(1) Except vegetarian males, all other groups have same number of students.
(2) Except non-vegetarian males, all other groups have same number of students.
(3) Except vegetarian females, all other groups have same number of students.
(4) Except non-vegetarian females, all other groups have same number of students.
(5) All of the above groups have the same number of students.
Directions for Questions 42 to 45: Answer the following questions based on the information given below:
The Table below shows the comparative costs, in US Dollars, of major surgeries in USA and a select few
Asian countries.
Comparative Costs in USA and some Asian countries
Procedure (in US Dollar)
USA India Thailand Singapore Malaysia
Heart Bypasss 130000 10000 11000 18500 9000
Heart Valve Replacement 160000 9000 10000 12500 9000
Angioplasty 57000 11000 13000 13000 11000
Hip Replacement 43000 9000 12000 12000 10000
Hysterectomy 20000 3000 4500 6000 3000
Knee Replacement 40000 8500 10000 13000 8000
Spinal Fusion 62000 5500 7000 9000 6000
1 US Dollar equivalent
India 40.928 Rupees
Malaysia 3.51 Ringits
Thailand 32.89 Bahts
Singapore 1.53 S Dollars
A consulting firm found that the quality of the health services were not the same in all the countries above.
A poor quality of a surgery may have significant repercussions in future, resulting in more cost in correcting
mistakes. The cost of poor quality of surgery is given in the table below:
42. A US citizen is hurt in an accident and requires an angioplasty, hip replacement and a knee
replacement. Cost of foreign travel and stay is not a consideration since the government will take
care of it. Which country will result in the cheapest package, taking cost of poor quality into account?
(1) India (2) Thailand (3) Malaysia (4) Singapore (5) USA
43. Taking the cost of poor quality into account, which country/countries will be the most expensive for
knee replacement?
(1) India (2) Thailand (3) Malaysia
(4) Singapore (5) India and Singapore
44. Approximately, what difference in amount in Bahts will it make to a Thai citizen if she were to get a
hysterectomy done in India instead of in her native country, taking into account the cost of poor
quality? (It costs 7500 Bahts for one-way travel between Thailand and India).
(1) 23500 (2) 40500 (3) 57500 (4) 67500 (5) 75000
45. The rupee value increases to Rs.35 for a US Dollar, and all other things including quality, remain the
same. What is the approximate difference in cost, in US Dollars, between Singapore and India for a
Spinal Fusion, taking this change into account?
(1) 700 (2) 2500 (3) 4500 (4) 8000 (5) No difference
47. The company plans to introduce a direct flight between A and J. The market research results
indicate that all its existing passengers travelling between A and J will use this direct flight if it is
priced 5% below the minimum price that they pay at present. What should the company charge
approximately, in rupees, for this direct flight?
(1) 1991 (2) 2161 (3) 2707 (4) 2745 (5) 2783
48. If the airports C, D and H are closed down owing to security reasons, then what would be the
minimum price, in rupees, to be paid by a passenger travelling from A to J?
(1) 2275 (2) 2615 (3) 2850 (4) 2945 (5) 3190
49. If the prices include a margin of 10% over the total cost that the company incurs, then what is the
minimum cost per kilometer that the company incurs in flying from A to J?
(1) 0.77 (2) 0.88 (3) 0.99 (4) 1.06 (5) 1.08
50. If the prices include a margin of 15% over the total cost that the company incurs, then which among
the following is the distance to be covered in flying from A to J that minimizes the total cost per
kilometer for the company?
(1) 2170 (2) 2180 (3) 2315 (4) 2350 (5) 2390
Directions for Questions 26 to 28: Answer the following questions based on the statements given
below:
26. What is the colour of the house diagonally opposite to the Yellow coloured house?
(1) White (2) Blue (3) Green
(4) Red (5) none of these
Telecom operators get revenue from transfer of data and voice. Average revenue received from transfer of
each unit of data is known as ARDT. In the diagram below, the revenue received form data transfer as
percentage of total revenue received and the ARDT in US Dollars (USD) are given for various countries.
In do ne sia ($ 2,4 2% )
UK
R e ve n ue fro m D a ta Tran sfer as a % o f To ta l R eve nu e
M alaysia
30 %
G erm a ny
C h in a S w itzerlan d S o uth K ore a
P o la nd Ire la nd
S ing ap ore N o rw ay
A u stria
20 %
R u ssia S w e de n
M exico
USA
H o ng K o ng Spain
Isra el
Th aila nd D e nm a rk C a na da
1 0%
In dia B ra zil
$5 $ 10 $1 5
A R D T (in U S D )
Legend: A S IA EURO PE A M E R IC A S
29. It was found that the volume of data transfer in India is the same as that of Singapore. Then which
of the following statements is true?
(1) Total revenue is the same in both countries.
(2) Total revenue in India is about 2 times that of Singapore.
(3) Total revenue in India is about 4 times that of Singapore.
(4) Total revenue in Singapore is about 2 times that of India.
(5) Total revenue in Singapore is about 4 time that of India.
31. If the total revenue received is the same for the pairs of countries listed in the choices
below, choose the pair that has approximately the same volume of data transfer.
(1) Philippines and Austria
(2) Canada and Poland
(3) Germany and USA
(4) UK and Spain
(5) Denmark and Mexico
Directions for Questions 32 to 34: Answer the following questions based on the information given below:
For admission to various affiliated colleges, a university conducts a written test with four different sections,
each with a maximum of 50 marks. The following table gives the aggregate as well as the sectional cut-off
marks fixed by six different colleges affiliated to the university. A student will get admission only if he/she
gets marks greater than or equal to the cut-off marks in each of the sections and his/her aggregate marks
are at least equal to the aggregate cut-off marks as specified by the college.
32. Bhama got calls from all colleges. What could be the minimum aggregate marks obtained
by her?
(1) 180 (2) 181 (3) 196 (4) 176 (5) 184
33. Charlie got calls from two colleges. What could be the minimum marks obtained by him in a
section?
(1) 0 (2) 21 (3) 25 (4) 35 (5) 41
34. Aditya did not get a call from even a single college. What could be the maximum aggregate
marks obtained by him?
(1) 181 (2) 176 (3) 184 (4) 196 (5) 190
Stage-I:
• Once team won all the three matches.
• Two teams lost all the matches.
• D lost to A but won against C and F.
• E lost to B but won against C and F.
• B lost at least one match.
• F did not play against the top team of Stage-I.
Stage-II:
• The leader of Stage-I lost the next two matches
• Of the two teams at the bottom after Stage-I, one team won both matches, while the other lost both
matches.
• Once more team lost both matches in Stage-II.
35. The two teams that defeated the leader of Stage-I are:
(1) F & D (2) E & F (3) B & D (4) E & D (5) F & D
36. The only team(s) that won both matches in Stage-II is (are):
(1) B (2) E & F (3) A, E & F (4) B, E & F (5) B & F
37. The teams that won exactly two matches in the event are:
(1) A, D & F (2) D & E (3) E & F (4) D, E & F (5) D & F
38. The team(s) with the most wins in the event is (are):
(1) A (2) A & C (3) F (4) E (5) B & E
1000
900
Subscription Revenue in Million USD
800
700
600
500 US
400 Europe
300
200
100
0
03 04 05 06 07 08 09 10
Years
39. The difference between the estimated subscription in Europe in 2008 and what it would have been if
it were computed using the percentage growth rate of 2007 (over 2006), is closest to:
(1) 50 (2) 80 (3) 20 (4) 10 (5) 0
40. In 2003, sixty percent of subscribers in Europe were men. Given that women subscribers increase
at the rate of 10 percent annum and men at the rate of 5 percent per annum, what is the approximate
percentage growth of subscribers between 2003 and 2010 in Europe? The subscription prices are
volatile and may change each year.
(1) 62 (2) 15 (3) 78 (4) 84 (5) 50
41. Consider the annual percent change in the gap between subscription revenues in the US and
Europe. What is the year in which the absolute value of this change is the highest?
(1) 03 - 04 (2) 05 - 06 (3) 06 - 07 (4) 08 - 09 (5) 09 - 10
42. While the subscription in Europe has been growing steadily towards that of the US, the growth rate
in Europe seems to be declining. Which of the following is closest to the percent change in growth
rate of 2007 (over 2006) relative to the growth rate of 2005 (over 2004)?
(1) 17 (2) 20 (3) 35 (4) 60 (5) 100
Abdul, Bikram and Chetan are three professional traders who trade in shares of a company XYZ Ltd. Abdul
follows the strategy of buying at the opening of the day at 10 am and selling the whole lot at the close of the
day at 3 pm. Bikram follows the strategy of buying at hourly intervals: 10 am, 11am, 12 noon, I pm. And 2
pm, and selling the whole lot at the close of the day, Further, he buys an equal number of shares in each
purchase. Chetan follows a similar pattern as Bikram but his strategy is somewhat different. Chetan’s total
investment amount is divided equally among his purchases. The profit or loss made by each investor is the
difference between the sale value at the close of the day less the investment in purchase. The “return” for
each investor is defined as the ratio of the profit or loss to the investment amount expressed as a percent-
age.
43. On a day of fluctuating market prices, the share price of XYZ Ltd. ends with a gain, i.e, it is higher
at the close of the day compared to the opening value. Which trader got the maximum return on that
day?
(1) Bikram
(2) Chetan
(3) Abdul
(4) Bikram or Chetan
(5) cannot be determined
45. On a “boom” day the share price of XYZ Ltd. keeps rising throughout the day and dpeaks at the
close of the day. Which trader got the minimum return on that day?
(1) Bikram (2) Chetan (3) Abdul
(4) Abdul or Chetan (5) cannot be determined
One day, two other traders. Dane and Emily joined Abdul, Bikram and Chetan for trading in the shares of
XYZ Ltd. Dane followed a strategy of buying equal numbers of shares at 10 am. 11 am and 12 noon, and
selling the same numbers at 1 pm, 2 pm and 3 pm Emily, on the other hand, followed the strategy of buying
shares using all her money at 10 am and selling all of them at 12 noon and again buying the shares for all
the money at 1 pm and again selling all of them at the close of the day at 3 pm. At the close of the day the
following was observed.
i. Abdul lost money in the transactions.
ii. Both Dane and Emily made profits.
iii. There was an increase in share price during the closing hour compared to the price at 2 pm.
iv. Share price at 12 noon was lower than the opening price
Directions for Questions 48 to 50: Answer the following questions based on the information given below:
There are 100 employees in an organization across five departments. The following table gives the depart-
ment-wise distribution of average age, average basic pay and allowances. The gross pay of an employee is
the sum of his/her basic pay and allowances.
There are limited numbers of employees considered for transfer/promotion across departments Whenever
a person is transferred/promoted from a department of lower average age to a department of higher average
age, he/she will get an additional allowance of 10% of basic pay over and above his/her current allowance.
There will not be any change in pay structure if a person is transferred/promoted from a department with
higher average age to a department with lower average age.
48. What is the approximate percentage change in the average gross of the HR department due to
transfer of a 40-year old person with basic pay of Rs. 8000 from the Marketing department?
(1) 9% (2) 11% (3) 13% (4) 15% (5) 17%
49. There was a mutual transfer of an employee between Marketing and Finance departments and
transfer of one employee from Marketing to HR. As a result, the average age of finance department
increased by one year and that of Marketing department remained the same. What is the new
average age of HR department?
(1) 30 (2) 35 (3) 40
(4) 45 (5) cannot be determined
50. If two employees (each with a basic pay of Rs. 6000) are transferred from Maintenance department
to HR department and one person (with a basic pay of Rs. 8000) was transferred from Marketing
department to HR department, what will be the percentage change in average basic pay of HR
department?
(1) 10.5% (2) 12.5% (3) 15% (4) 30% (5) 40%
Directions for questions 1 to 5: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below:
K, L, M, N, P, Q, R, S, U and W are the only ten members in a department. There is a proposal to form a
team from within the members of the department, subject to the following conditions:
5. In how many ways a team can be constituted so that the team includes N?
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 5 (5) 6
In a Class X Board examination, ten papers are distributed over five Groups - PCB, Mathematics, Social
Science, Vernacular and English. Each of the ten papers is evaluated out of 100. The final score of a
student is calculated in the following manner. First, the Group Scores are obtained by averaging marks in
the papers within the Group. The final score is the simple average of the Group Scores. The data for the top
ten students are presented below. (Dipan's score in English Paper II has been intentionally removed in the
table.)
Social
Vernacular
Name of the PCB Group Mathematics Science English Group
Group
student Group Group Final
Phy. Chem. Bio. Hist. Geo. Paper I Paper II Paper I Paper II Score
Ayesha (G) 98 96 97 98 95 93 94 96 96 98 96.2
Ram (B) 97 99 95 97 95 96 94 94 96 98 96.1
Dipan (B) 98 98 98 95 96 95 96 94 96 ?? 96.0
Sagnik (B) 97 98 99 96 96 98 94 97 92 94 95.9
Sanjiv (B) 95 96 97 98 97 96 92 93 95 96 95.7
Shreya (G) 96 89 85 100 97 98 94 95 96 95 95.5
Joseph (B) 90 94 98 100 94 97 90 92 94 95 95
Agni (B) 96 99 96 99 95 96 82 93 92 93 94.3
Pritam (B) 98 98 95 98 83 95 90 93 94 94 93.9
Tirna (G) 96 98 97 99 85 94 92 91 87 96 93.7
Note: B or G against the name of a student respectively indicates whether the student is a boy or a girl.
7. Among the top ten students, how many boys scored at least 95 in at least one paper from each of
the groups?
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 (5) 5
8. Had Joseph, Agni, Pritam and Tirna each obtained Group Score of 100 in the Social Science Group,
then their standing in decreasing order of final score would be:
(1) Pritam, Joseph, Tirna, Agni (2) Joseph, Tirna, Agni, Pritam
(3) Pritam, Agni, Tirna, Joseph (4) Joseph, Tirna, Pritam, Agni
(5) Pritam, Tirna, Agni, Joseph
10. Each of the ten students was allowed to improve his/her score in exactly one paper of choice with
the objective of maximizing his/her final score. Everyone scored 100 in the paper in which he or she
chose to improve. After that, the topper among the ten students was:
(1) Ram (2) Agni (3) Pritam (4) Ayesha (5) Dipan
Directions for questions 11 to 15: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below:
Mathematicians are assigned a number called Erdös number (named after the famous mathematician,
Paul Erdös). Only Paul Erdös himself has an Erdös number of zero. Any mathematician who has written
a research paper with Erdös has an Erdös number of 1. For other mathematicians, the calculation of his/
her Erdös number is illustrated below:
Suppose that a mathematician X has co-authored papers with several other mathematicians. From among
them, mathematician Y has the smallest Erdös number. Let the Erdös number of Y be y. Then X has an
Erdös number of y+1 . Hence any mathematician with no co-authorship chain connected to Erdös has an
Erdös number of infinity.
In a seven day long mini-conference organized in memory of Paul Erdös, a close group of eight mathema-
ticians, call them A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H, discussed some research problems. At the beginning of the
conference, A was the only participant who had an infinite Erdös number. Nobody had an Erdös number
less than that of F.
1 On the third day of the conference F co-authored a paper jointly with A and C. This reduced the
average Erdös number of the group of eight mathematicians to 3. The Erdös numbers of B, D, E, G
and H remained unchanged with the writing of this paper. Further, no other co-authorship among any
three members would have reduced the average Erdös number of the group of eight to as low as 3.
2 At the end of the third day, five members of this group had identical Erdös numbers while the other
three had Erdös numbers distinct from each other.
3 On the fifth day, E co-authored a paper with F which reduced the group's average Erdös number by
0.5. The Erdös numbers of the remaining six were unchanged with the writing of this paper.
4 No other paper was written during the conference.
11. How many participants in the conference did not change their Erdös number during the conference?
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 5 (5) Cannot be determined
13. How many participants had the same Erdös number at the beginning of the conference?
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 5 (5) Cannot be determined
Directions for questions 16 to 20: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below:
Two traders, Chetan and Michael, were involved in the buying and selling of MCS shares over five trading
days. At the beginning of the first day, the MCS share was priced at Rs 100, while at the end of the fifth day
it was priced at Rs 110. At the end of each day, the MCS share price either went up by Rs 10, or else, it
came down by Rs 10. Both Chetan and Michael took buying and selling decisions at the end of each
trading day. The beginning price of MCS share on a given day was the same as the ending price of the
previous day. Chetan and Michael started with the same number of shares and amount of cash, and had
enough of both. Below are some additional facts about how Chetan and Michael traded over the five trading
days.
1 Each day if the price went up, Chetan sold 10 shares of MCS at the closing price. On the other
hand, each day if the price went down, he bought 10 shares at the closing price.
2 If on any day, the closing price was above Rs 110, then Michael sold 10 shares of MCS, while if it
was below Rs 90, he bought 10 shares, all at the closing price.
16. If Chetan sold 10 shares of MCS on three consecutive days, while Michael sold 10 shares only once
during the five days, what was the price of MCS at the end of day 3?
(1) Rs 90 (2) Rs 100 (3) Rs 110 (4) Rs 120 (5) Rs 130
17. If Chetan ended up with Rs 1300 more cash than Michael at the end of day 5, what was the price of
MCS share at the end of day 4?
(1) Rs 90 (2) Rs 100 (3) Rs 110
(4) Rs 120 (5) Not uniquely determinable
18. If Michael ended up with 20 more shares than Chetan at the end of day 5, what was the price of the
share at the end of day 3?
(1) Rs 90 (2) Rs 100 (3) Rs 110 (4) Rs 120 (5) Rs 130
20. What could have been the maximum possible increase in combined cash balance of Chetan and
Michael at the end of the fifth day?
(1) Rs 3700 (2) Rs 4000 (3) Rs 4700 (4) Rs 5000 (5) Rs 6000
Directions for questions 21 to 25: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below:
A significant amount of traffic flows from point S to point T in the one-way street network shown below.
Points A, B, C, and D are junctions in the network, and the arrows mark the direction of traffic flow. The fuel
cost in rupees for travelling along a street is indicated by the number adjacent to the arrow representing the
street.
A
9 5
2
2 3 2
S B C T
7 1 6
Motorists travelling from point S to point T would obviously take the route for which the total cost of
travelling is the minimum. If two or more routes have the same least travel cost, then motorists are indiffer-
ent between them. Hence, the traffic gets evenly distributed among all the least cost routes.
The government can control the flow of traffic only by levying appropriate toll at each junction. For example,
if a motorist takes the route S-A-T (using junction A alone), then the total cost of travel would be Rs 14 (i.e.,
Rs 9 + Rs 5) plus the toll charged at junction A.
21. If the government wants to ensure that no traffic flows on the street from D to T, while equal amount
of traffic flows through junctions A and C, then a feasible set of toll charged (in rupees) at junctions
A, B, C, and D respectively to achieve this goal is:
(1) 1,5,3,3 (2) 1,4,4,3 (3) 1,5,4,2 (4) 0,5,2,3 (5) 0,5,2,2
23. If the government wants to ensure that the traffic at S gets evenly distributed along streets from S to
A, from S to B, and from S to D, then a feasible set of toll charged (in rupees) at junctions A, B, C,
and D respectively to achieve this goal is:
(1) 0,5,4,1 (2) 0,5,2,2 (3) 1,5,3,3 (4) 1,5,3,2 (5) 0,4,3,2
24. If the government wants to ensure that all routes from S to T get the same amount of traffic, then a
feasible set of toll charged (in rupees) at junctions A, B, C, and D respectively to achieve this goal
is:
(1) 0,5,2,2 (2) 0,5,4,1 (3) 1,5,3,3 (4) 1,5,3,2 (5)1,5,4,2
25. The government wants to devise a toll policy such that the total cost to the commuters per trip is
minimized. The policy should also ensure that not more than 70 per cent of the total traffic passes
through junction B. The cost incurred by the commuter travelling from point S to point T under this
policy will be:
(1) Rs. 7 (2) Rs. 9 (3) Rs. 10 (4) Rs. 13 (5) Rs. 14
1 1 2 4 3 2 4 3 5 3 6 4 7 4 8 1 9 1 10 3
11 1 12 2 13 2 14 3 15 4 16 1 17 4 18 1 19 2 20 4
21 1 22 1 23 1 24 2 25 3 26 4 27 3 28 1 29 2 30 2
31 4 32 3 33 3 34 4 35 4 36 2 37 4 38 4 39 3 40 2
41 1 42 2 43 1 44 2 45 1 46 1 47 3 48 4 49 4 50 2
51 3 52 4 53 2 54 2 55 3 56 4 57 4 58 3 59 4 60 3
61 3 62 2 63 3 64 2 65 1 66 2 67 2 68 4 69 4 70 1
71 3 72 3 73 1 74 2 75 1 76 4 77 3 78 2 79 4 80 3
81 1 82 4 83 1 84 3 85 2 86 1 87 3 88 3 89 4 90 2
91 4 92 2 93 1 94 2 95 4 96 1 97 2 98 1 99 3 100 3
101 1 102 1 103 2 104 4 105 2 106 1 107 1 108 3 109 4 110 4
111 3 112 3 113 3 114 3 115 2 116 3 117 2 118 2 119 3 120 1
121 3 122 2 123 4
Scoring table
Section Question Total Total Total Total Net Time
number questions attempted correct wrong Score Taken
DI 1 to 38 38
Quant 39 to 73 35
EU + RC 74 to 123 50
Total 123
SUP-0001/09
H 1 3 1 1 6 20 4
t= = hours = 80 minutes .
5 + 10 3
P 1 2 2 1 6
After this time of 80 minutes, boat (1) has covered
R 2 2 1 1 6
5 20
4 8 5 4 80 × kms = kms ,
60 3
21 whereas boat (2) has covered
10 40
Africa America Australasia Europe 80 × kms = kms.
60 3
L 0 1 1 1 3
After 79 minutes, distance covered by the first boat =
H 1 3 1 1 6
20 5
d1 = – kms
P 2 1 2 1 6 3 60
R 1 3 1 1 6 After 79 minutes, distance covered by the second
4 8 5 4 40 10
boat = d2 = – kms
21 3 60
So the separation between the two boats
1
31. 4 32. 3 33. 3 34. 4 = 20 – (d1 + d2 ) = kms
4
Solution for question 35 and 36: After 2nd round, team
goals for and goals against table can be drawn: Alternative method:
Team Round 1 and Round 2 combinations Relative speed of two boats = 5 + 10 = 15 km/hr
i.e. in 60 min they cover (together) = 15 km
Goals for → Goals Goals for → Goals
15 1
against against ∴ in 1 min they will cover (together) = km
60 4
Germany 2 →1 1 →0
40. 2 x
Argentina 1 →0 1 →0
4 →0 1 → 2 Not
Spain possible
5 →1 0 → 1 Possible
2
Pakistan 2 →0 0 →1
1 →2 0 → 4 Not
New
possible
Zealand
0 →1 1 → 5 Possible x/2
South 1 →2 0 →2
x
Africa In original rectangle ratio =
2
35. 4 36. 2 2
In Smaller rectangle ratio =
Solutions for question 37 and 38: From the statements x
2
from (a), (b), (c) given in the problem four teams (Spain, Ar-
gentina, Germany, Pakistan) appear to win their matches in the x 2
Given = ⇒x=2 2
fifth round. However, there are only three matches per round 2 x
and hence only three teams can win their matches in any 2
round. Hence, the data set appears to be inconsistent.
x
37. 4 38. 4 Area of smaller rectangle = × 2 = x = 2 2 sq. units
2
OM Total Age 4 13
2000 45 × 6 = 270 5 12
2001 43 × 7 = 301 One faculty joined age 25. 6 11
2002 44 × 7 = 308
2003 45 × 7 = 315 7 10
8 9
61. 1 Clear from the data
62. 4 From the data of 2000: Let that person be X, on April 1, We will have to draw two tables in the Question number
2000 (age of Naresh) + (age of Devesh) + (age of X) 71. Winners after round two would be 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 11,
= 49.33 × 3 = 148 yr. 10, 9 for 8 rounds respectively. As Lindsay is number
Now ages of Naresh/Devesh on 1 Apr. - 2000 ≡ two she will play Venus Williams in quarter final.
52y + 4m + 10d 72. 3 Elena is at number 6, Serena is at number 8
+ If they loose then table would be
49y + 4m + 10d
_________________ 1 9
2 7
(101y + 8m + 20d) 3 11
⇒ the age of X on 1-Apr-2000 is 47y + 3m + 10d 4 5
⇒ the X’s age on 1st April 2005 is ≡ (52y + 3m + 10d) Maria is number 1 she will play
Number 9, i.e. Nadia Petrova
63. 3 Read the notes in the beginning, the average age dips
twice (from 2000–2001) & from (2001–2002). The dip 73. 1 1 32
is more when a 25 yr old joins and lesser when 2 31
somebody retires.
3 30
64. 4 New faculty joined in 2001, on 1 April, 2001 his age 4 29
was 25 yrs. So on April 1, 2003, his age is 28 years. 5 28
6 27
65. 1 State Productivity (Tons per hectare)
7 26
19.2
Haryana =6 8 25
3.2
9 24
24
Punjab =6 10 23
4
11 22
112
Andhra Pradesh =5 12 21
22.4
13 20
67.2
Uttar Pradesh =4 14 19
16.8 15 18
Hence, Haryana and Punjab have the highest
productivity. 16 17
In this case Kim Clijster will either not reach semi final Questions 79 to 82:
or she will play Maria in semi final. L = London, Paris = P, New York= NY, Beijing = B
Hence she cannot play Maria in final. In round III, one of the two cities, either London or Paris will get
38 votes and the other 37. Further:
75. 1 The minimum return will be gained if the extraordinary
performing stocks (double & 1.5 growth) are the ones 1) The persons representing London, Paris, Beijing and
whose expected returns are lowest (i.e. 10% & 20%). New York can not vote as long as their own cities are
Taking the minimum value of the expected returns as in contention. In round I, New York gets eliminated and
10. We have to see which of the two values of 10 and hence the representative from NY becomes eligible
20 multiplied by 2 and 1.5 and vice versa yields the for voting in the II round hence increasing the total
minimum value. votes by 1. This means the total votes in the first
Hence comparing the minimum value between round must be 83 – 1 = 82.
20 × 2 + 10 × 1.5 and 20 × 1.5 + 10 × 2, the 2nd one is 2) After round II, the representative from Beijing votes in
minimum. Hence the minimum average return is the III round. This should have increased the number
of total votes by 1 and the total votes must have
20 × 1.5 + 10 × 2 + 30 + 40 become 83 + 1 = 84.
= 30%
4 We are given that the total votes in round III are 75
only. We conclude that 84 – 75 = 9 people who voted
76. 2 If the average return is 35%, then the total return is in round I and II have become ineligible for voting in
35 × 4 = 140. round III.
TR (17 ) TR (17 )
• 10 in TR also in at least one more ⇒ 7 in TR alone
Now, total number of FR is maximum
FR ER
⇒8+4+4+x>8+4+4+y
⇒ x > y and x + y = 6
as n(TR) = 17
=x+y+4+7
⇒ x = {4, 5, 6}
y = {0, 1, 2}
7
TR (17 ) 87. 3 Both FR and TR but not ER
• TR alone = one less than ER alone ⇒ ER alone = 8 =x
Minimum x = 4
8 88. 1 Option (2) and option (3) are superfluous. They are
• ER alone = double of all 3 ⇒ In all three = =4 not required.
2
Option (1), if given, would tell us the value of x = 4 and
hence y = 2.
FR ER
89. 2 Out of 4 who are in all three projects, 2 move out of FR
and one-one move out of ER and TR.
8
4 FR (14 + x) ER (15 + y)
x y
7 8 8 5 (= 1 + 4)
1 y+
TR (17 ) x+ 2
N ull
• FR alone = (FR and ER) 7
FR ER TR (16)
Minimum in FR = 14 + x = 14 + 4 = 18
p q 8 Maximum in ER = 15 + y = 15 + 2 = 17
4
x y As
x = {4, 5, 6}
y = {0, 1, 2}
7
Hence, option (2).
TR (17 )
90. 4 FR and ER = 5
⇒p=q+4 ...(1) ER and TR = y + 2
Total = 37 ⇒5=y+2
[7 + 8 + p + (x + y + q) + 4] ⇒ y = 3;
= 37 [p + q = 12] which is not a possible value as y is 0, 1, or 2 only.
⇒ p – a = 4 ⇒ p = 8 and q = 4 ⇒ option (4)
Inconsistent data.
1 1 2 3 3 4 4 5 5 5 6 3 7 1 8 1 9 4 10 5
11 4 12 2 13 2 14 2 15 3 16 3 17 2 18 1 19 5 20 4
21 5 22 2,3 23 1,4 24 4 25 3 26 5 27 1 28 2 29 3 30 4
31 2 32 1 33 4 34 5 35 3 36 3 37 2 38 5 39 1 40 4
41 3 42 1 43 4 44 2 45 4 46 3 47 5 48 4 49 2 50 1
51 1 52 2 53 1 54 2 55 5 56 2 57 2 58 4 59 2 60 4
61 2 62 4 63 1 64 4 65 4 66 3 67 2 68 5 69 1 70 5
71 5 72 5 73 2 74 5 75 3
EU + RC 26 to 50 25
QA 51 to 75 25
Total 75
SUP-0003/09
From statement six, L and U cannot be included together. So the following cases are possible
⇒ L, U are never together. P Q N,
RQN
1. 1 From statements one and two; P M N,
one of P, R, S and RMN
one of M, Q are to be selected. We require one more
member. If 'S' is selected
But from statement three; (K, L) are always together. SUWMN
Hence 'L' cannot be included in a team of 3 members. SUWQN
25. 3 We have to find a path on which minimum cost is 29. 3 The answer is very direct. With every statement of
incurred and such that total traffic through B does not his, the author seeks to show how foolish those people
exceed 70% are who call his advice ‘rules’. After his first statement
So, option (5) is ruled out because we can send al he has posed the rhetorical question “Call that a rule?”
traffic through SDCT or SDT and meet all conditions. The same should follow after his second “scarcely a
Option (1) is also ruled out as in that case all traffic will rule!”
be passed through SBCT [not possible as traffic at B
can't be more than 70%]
Option (2) is also ruled out as it is possible only when
toll at junction C is 2. In that case also all traffic will
pass through B.
28. 5 To make a diet with atleast 60% carbohydrates we 34. 2 Total cost = 9600 + 100 × 1400 = 149600
can use option (2) or (5) only but the lowest cost per
149600
unit can be achieved when P, Q and S are mixed in the Cost per unit = = 107 (approx.)
ratio 4 : 1 : 1. 1400
104 − (21 + 27 + 15.8) 120. 4 According to statement (1), A which has the third
So percentage profit = × 100
104 highest profitability has the lowest operating income
in 2002-03.
40.2 According to statement (2), company D has the highest
= × 100 = 38.65%
104 combined operating income and has the lowest
operating profit.
108. 2 According to statement (3), only company B has higher
operating income in 2001-02 than 2002-03, and has
Steel Power Wages Iron Ore higher profitability in 2002-03 than 2001-02.
93 − 94 100 30 10 25 According to statement (4), the companies having
02 − 03 105.5 32.4 10.53 26.5 profitability between 10-20% are A, C, E but C has
operating income equal to 200 crore.
So percentage profit So the answer is 4.
105.5 − (32.4 + 10.53 + 26.5)
= × 100 121. 3 Operating profit of companies is:
105.5
A = 15
= 34.18% B = 7.75
C = 30
109. 1 You only need to see the the particular row in the table D=3
for the given options and for Power it experienced E = 35
continuous rise. F = 20
So the answer is E.
Using the above info – Anil and Raj cannot be married 143. 2
to Shanthi as Shanthi has no kids! Hence, Sunil has to
be married to Sridevi (not with Joya already stated) 144. 3
and Raman with Shanthi.
145. 2
Arrival Order Husband Wife Kids
1 Anil Anita 1 146. 4
2 Raj Joya 2
3 Raman Shanthi 0 For questions 147 to 150:
4 Sunil Sridevi 1
D A F
139. 1
Entrance Corridor
140. 2 C E B
141. 3
147. 3 If E faces the corridor, person to his left is C.
142. 2 So the answer is (3).
101. The athletes from FRG and USA decided to run a 4 × 100 m relay race for their respective countries
with the country having three athletes borrowing the athlete from CZE. Assume that all the athletes
ran their stretch of the relay race at the same speed as in Decathlon event. How much more time did
the FRG relay team take as compared to the USA team?
1. 0.18 2. 0.28 3. 0.78 4. 0.00
102. What is the least that Daley Thompson must get in Score-2 that ensures him a bronze medal?
1. 5309 2. 5296 3. 5271 4. 5270
103. At least how many competitors (excluding Daley Thompson) must Michael Smith have out-jumped
in the long jump event?
1. One 2. Two 3. Three 4. Four
544 566
600 487 510
464
500
400
300
200
100
0
1995 1996 1997 1998 1999
Year
1995 207
421
1996 189
561
1997 209
587
1998 215
645
1999 220
660
104. In which year during the period 1996-1999 was Chaidesh’s export of tea, as a proportion of tea
produced, the highest?
1. 1996 2. 1997 3. 1998 4. 1999
105. In which of the following years was the population of Chaidesh the lowest?
1. 1995 2. 1996 3. 1997 4. 1999
106. The area under tea cultivation continuously decreased in all four years from 1996 to 1999, by 10%,
7%, 4%, and 1%, respectively. In which year was tea productivity (production per unit of area) the
highest?
1. 1999 2. 1998 3. 1997 4. 1996
The following is the wholesale price index (WPI) of a select list of items with the base year of 1993-94.
In other words, all the item prices are made 100 in that year (1993-94). Prices in all other years for an item
are measured with respect to its price in the base year. For instance, the price of cement went up by 1%
in 1994-95 as compared to 1993-94. Similarly, the price of power went up by 3% in 1996-97 as compared
to 1993-94.
1993-94 1994-95 1995-96 1996-97 1997-98 1998-99 1999-2000 2000-01 2001-02 2002-03
All items 100 102.0 102.5 104.0 103.0 105.0 106.0 108.0 107.0 106.0
Cement 100 101.0 100.5 103.0 102.5 103.5 103.1 103.8 103.7 104.0
Limestone 100 102.0 102.5 102.75 102.25 103.0 104.0 105.0 104.5 105.0
Power 100 101.5 102.5 103.0 103.5 104.0 106.0 107.0 107.5 108.0
Steel 100 101.5 101.0 103.5 104.0 104.25 105.0 105.5 106.0 105.5
Timber 100 100.5 101.5 102.0 102.5 102.0 103.0 103.5 104.0 104.5
Wages 100 101.5 103.0 103.5 104.0 104.25 104.0 104.75 104.9 105.3
107. Let us suppose that one bag of cement (50 kg) consumes 100 kg of limestone and 10 units of
power. The only other cost item in producing cement is in the form of wages. During 1993-94,
limestone, power and wages contributed, respectively, 20%, 25% and 15% to the cement price per
bag. The average operating profit (per cent of price per cement bag) earned by a cement manufacturer
during 2002-03 is closest to
1. 40% 2. 39.5% 3. 38.5% 4. 37.5%
108. Steel manufacturing requires the use of iron ore, power and manpower. The cost of iron ore has
followed the All Items index. During 1993-94 power accounted for 30% of the selling price of steel,
iron ore for 25%, and wages for 10% of the selling price of steel. Assuming the cost and price data
for cement as given in the previous question, the operating profit (per cent of selling price) of an
average steel manufacturer in 2002-03
1. is more than that of a cement manufacturer
2. is less than that of a cement manufacturer
3. is the same as that of a cement manufacturer
4. Cannot be determined
109. Which item experienced continuous price rise during the ten-year period?
1. Power 2. Cement 3. Wages 4. Limestone
110. Which item(s) experienced only one decline in price during the ten-year period?
1. Steel and limestone 2. Steel and timber
3. Timber 4. Timber and wages
Below is a table that lists countries region-wise. Each region-wise list is sorted, first by birth rate and then
alphabetically by name of country. We now wish to merge the region-wise list into one consolidated list
and provide overall rankings to each country based first on birth rate and then on death rate. Thus, if some
countries have the same birth rate, then the country with a lower death rate will be ranked higher. Further,
countries having identical birth and death rates will get the same rank. For example, if two countries are
tied for the third position, then both will be given rank 3, while the next country (in the ordered list) will be
ranked 5.
111. In the consolidated list, what would be the overall rank of the Philippines?
1. 32 2. 33 3. 34 4. 35
112. In the consolidated list, how many countries would rank below Spain and above Taiwan?
1. 9 2. 8 3. 7 4. 6
114. In the consolidated list, how many countries in Asia will rank lower than every country in South
America, but higher than at least one country in Africa?
1. 8 2. 7 3. 6 4. 5
350
300
Rainfall (in cm.)
250
200
150
100
50
0
1 2 3 4 5 6 7
Locations
116. Locations 6 and 7 differ from all the rest because only in these two locations,
1. April rainfall exceeds March rainfall
2. Peak rainfall occurs in April
3. November rainfall is lower than March rainfall
4. April rainfall is less than 200 cm
117. During 1996-2002, the number of commodities that exhibited a net overall increase and net overall
decrease, respectively, were
1. 3 and 3 2. 2 and 4 3. 4 and 2 4. 5 and 1
118. The number of commodities that experienced a price decline for two or more consecutive years is
1. 2 2. 3 3. 4 4. 5
119. For which commodities did a price increase immediately follow a price decline only once in this
period?
1. Rice, edible oil and dal 2. Egg and dal
3. Onion only 4. Egg and onion
25%
300
20%
250
200 15%
150 10%
100 5%
50
0%
0
-5% A B C D E F
A B C D E F Com pany
Com pany
Fy 01-02 Fy 02-03 Fy 01-02 Fy 02-03
The operating profits of four of these companies are plotted against their respective operating income
figures for the F.Y. 2002-03, in the third chart given below.
25
20
15
10
5
0
100 150 200 250 300
O p erating Inco m e
120. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
1. The company with the third lowest profitability in F.Y. 2001-02 has the lowest operating
income in F.Y. 2002-03
2. The company with the highest operating income in the two financial years combined has the
lowest operating profit in F.Y. 2002-03
3. Companies with a higher operating income in F.Y. 2001-02 than in F.Y. 2002-03 have higher
profitability in F.Y 2002-03 than in F.Y. 2001-02
4. Comanies with profitability between 10% and 20% in F.Y. 2001-02 also have operating incomes
between 150 crore and 200 crore in F.Y. 2002-03
122. What is the approximate average operating profit, in F.Y 2001-02, of the two companies excluded
from the third chart?
1. –7.5 crore 2. 3.5 crore 3. 25 crore 4. Cannot be determined
123. The average operating profit in F.Y. 2002-03 of companies with profitability exceeding 10% in F.Y.
2002-03, is approximately
1. 17.5 crore 2. 25 crore 3. 27.5 crore 4. 32.5 crore
Directions for questions 124 to 126: Answer the questions on the basis of the table given below:
Sex Ratio (Number of females per 1,000 males) of Selected States in India : 1901-2001
1901 1911 1921 1931 1941 1951 1961 1971 1981 1991 2001
AP 985 992 993 987 980 986 981 977 975 972 978
Assam 919 915 896 874 875 868 869 896 910 923 932
Bihar 1061 1051 1020 995 1002 1000 1005 957 948 907 921
Goa 1091 1108 1120 1088 1084 1128 1066 981 975 967 960
Gujarat 954 946 944 945 941 952 940 934 942 934 921
Haryana 867 835 844 844 869 871 868 867 870 865 861
HP 884 889 890 897 890 912 938 958 973 976 970
J&K 882 876 870 865 869 873 878 878 892 896 900
Karnataka 983 981 969 965 960 966 959 957 963 960 964
Kerala 1004 1008 1011 1022 1027 1028 1022 1016 1032 1036 1058
MP 972 967 949 947 946 945 932 920 921 912 920
Maharashtra 978 966 950 947 949 941 936 930 937 934 922
Orissa 1037 1056 1086 1067 1053 1022 1001 988 981 971 972
Punjab 832 780 799 815 836 844 854 865 879 882 874
Rajasthan 905 908 896 907 906 921 908 911 919 910 922
TN 1044 1042 1029 1027 1012 1007 992 978 977 974 986
UP 938 916 908 903 907 998 907 876 882 876 898
WB 945 925 905 890 852 865 878 891 911 917 934
India 972 964 955 950 945 946 941 930 934 927 933
124. The two states which achieved the largest increases in sex ratio over the period
1901-2001 are
1. Punjab and HP 2. HP and Kerala 3. Assam and J & K 4. Kerala and J & K
125. Among the states which have a sex ratio exceeding 1000 in 1901, the sharpest decline over the
period 1901-2001 was registered in the state of
1. Goa 2. TN 3. Bihar 4. Orissa
Directions for questions 127 and 128: Answer the questions on the basis of the following information.
Shown below is the layout of major streets in a city.
E
D
A
B
Two days (Thursday and Friday) are left for campaigning before a major election, and the city
administration has received requests from five political parties for taking out their processions along the
following routes.
Street B-D cannot be used for a political procession on Thursday due to a religious procession. The district
administration has a policy of not allowing more than one procession to pass along the same street on the
same day. However, the administration must allow all parties to take out their procession during these two
days.
Choose 1 if the question can be answered by using statement A alone but not by using B alone.
Choose 2 if the question can be answered by using statement B alone but not by using A alone.
Choose 3 if the question can be answered by using either statement alone and
Choose 4 if the question can be answered using both the statements together but not by either statement
alone.
129. In a cricket match, the ‘Man of the Match’ award is given to the player scoring the highest number
of runs. In case of a tie, the player (out of those locked in the tie) who has taken the higher number
of catches is chosen. Even thereafter if there is a tie, the player (out of those locked in the tie) who
has dropped fewer catches is selected. Aakash, Biplab, and Chirag who were contenders for the
award dropped at least one catch each. Biplab dropped two catches more than Aakash did, scored
50, and took two catches. Chirag got two chances to catch and dropped both. Who was the ‘Man of
the Match’?
A. Chirag made 15 runs less than both Aakash and Bipla2.
B. The catches dropped less by Biplab are 1 more than the catches taken by Aakash.
130. Four friends — A, B, C and D got the top four ranks in a competitive examination, but A did not get
the first, B did not get the second, C did not get the third, and D did not get the fourth rank.
Who secured which rank?
A. Neither A nor D were among the first 2.
B. Neither B nor C was third or fourth.
131. The members of a local club contributed equally to pay Rs. 600 towards a donation. How much did
each one pay?
A. If there had been five fewer members, each one would have paid an additional Rs. 10.
B. There were at least 20 members in the club, and each one paid not more than Rs. 30.
132. A family has only one kid. The father says, “After ‘n’ years, my age will be 4 times the age of my
kid.” The mother says, “After ‘n’ years, my age will be 3 times that of my kid.” What will be the
combined ages of the parents after ‘n’ years?
A. The age difference between the parents is 10 years.
B. After ‘n’ years the kid is going to be twice as old as she is now.
A 46 —
B 96 46, 90, 25
C 27, 56 17, 46, 90
D 17 —
E 46, 90 —
F 14, 46 92, 90
G 25 —
H 46, 92 —
I 27 17, 46, 90
133. Which one among the following must have two sources?
1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D
134. How may people (excluding the mastermind) needed to make answer-keys before C could make his
answer-key?
1. 2 2. 3 3. 4 4. 5
Directions for question 138: Answer the question on the basis of the following information.
138. Seventy percent of the employees in a multinational corporation have VCD players, 75% have
microwave ovens, 80% have ACS and 85 have washing machines. At least what percentage of
employees has all four gadgets?
1. 15 2. 5 3. 10 4. Cannot be determined
Directions for questions 139 to 142: Answer the questions on the basis of the following information.
Four families decided to attend the marriage ceremony of one of their colleagues. One family has no kids,
while the others have at least one kid each. Each family with kids has at least one kid attending the
marriage. Given below is some information about the families, and who reached when to attend the
marriage.
The family with two kids came just before the family with no kids.
Shanthi who does not have any kids reached just before Sridevi’s family.
Sunil and his wife reached last with their only kid.
Anil is not the husband of Joya.
Anil and Raj are fathers.
Sridevi’s and Anita’s daughters go to the same school.
Joya came before Shanthi and met Anita when she reached the venue
Raman stays the farthest from the venue.
Raj said his son could not come because of his exams.
142. Whose family is known to have more than one kid for certain?
1. Raman’s 2. Raj’s 3. Anil’s 4. Sunil’s
JC: I came in first, and the next two persons to enter were SS and SM. When I left the lounge, JP and
VR were present in the lounge. DG left with me.
JP: When I entered the lounge with VR, JC was sitting there. There was someone else, but I cannot
remember who it was.
SM: I went to the lounge for a short while, and met JC, SS and DG in the lounge that day.
SS: I left immediately after SM left.
DG: I met JC, SS, SM, JP and VR during my first visit to the lounge, I went back to my office with JC.
When I went to the lounge the second time, JP and VR were there.
PK: I had some urgent work, so I did not sit in the lounge that day, but just collected my coffee and left.
JP and DG were the only people in the lounge while I was there.
VR: No comments.
143. Based on the responses, which of the two, JP or DG, entered the lounge first?
1. JP 2. DG
3. Both entered together 4. Cannot be determined
145. How many of the seven members did VR meet on Friday in the lounge?
1. 2 2. 3 3. 4 4. 5
146. Who were the last two faculty members to leave the lounge?
1. JC and DG 2. PK and DG 3. JP and PK 4. JP and DG
E ntra nce
C orrid or
The plan above shows an office block for six officers — A, B, C, D, E and F. Both B and C occupy offices
to the right of the corridor (as one enters the office block) and A occupies an office to the left of the corridor.
E and F occupy offices on opposite sides of the corridor but their offices do not face each other. The offices
of C and D face each other. E does not have a corner office. F’s office is further down the corridor than A’s,
but on the same side.
147. If E sits in his office and faces the corridor, whose office is to his left?
1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D
150. D was heard telling someone to go further down the corridor to the last office on the right. To whose
room was he trying to direct that person?
1. A 2. B 3. C 4. F
Directions for questions 1 to 4: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
The Dean's office recently scanned student results into the central computer system. When their character
reading software cannot read something, it leaves the space blank. The scanner output reads as follows:
In the grading system, A, B, C, D, and F grades fetch 6, 4, 3, 2, and 0 grade points respectively. The Grade
Point Average (GPA) is the arithmetic mean of the grade points obtained in the five subjects. For example
Nisha's GPA is (6 + 2 + 4 + 6 + 0) / 5 = 3.6. Some additional facts are also known about the students'
grades. These are
(a) Vipul obtained the same grade in Marketing as Aparna obtained in Finance and Strategy.
(b) Fazal obtained the same grade in Strategy as Utkarsh did in Marketing.
(c) Tara received the same grade in exactly three courses.
Lin e indicating
Incom e = E xpend itu re
300 0
200 0
100 0
0 E xpenditure
100 0 200 0 300 0
Directions for questions 9 to 12: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
Prof. Singh has been tracking the number of visitors to his homepage. His service provider has provided
him with the following data on the country of origin of the visitors and the university they belong to:
11. Which among the listed countries can possibly host three of the eight listed universities?
(1) None (2) Only UK
(3) Only India (4) Both India and UK
12. Visitors from how many universities from UK visited Prof. Singh's homepage in the three days?
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 4
200 182
162
150 134
120 124
100 80
50 30
0 0
0
1995 1996 1997 1998 1999 2000
Purana Naya
14. How many Naya mixer-grinders were disposed off by the end of 2000?
(1) 10 (2) 16
(3) 22 (4) Cannot be determined from the data
Country
Rank India China Japan Malaysia Thailand
1 C N D V V
2 P C N D C
3 N P C P N
4 V D V C P
5 D V P N D
17. Which of the following pairs of countries are most dissimilar?
(1) China and Japan (2) India and China
(3) Malaysia and Japan (4) Thailand and Japan
20. Three of the following four pairs of countries have identical levels of dissimilarity. Which pair is the
odd one out?
(1) Malaysia and China (2) China and Thailand
(3) Thailand and Japan (4) Japan and Malaysia
Directions for questions 21 to 26: Each question is followed by two statements, A and B. Answer each
question using the following instructions.
Choose (1) if the question can be answered by using one of the statements alone but not by using the
other statement alone.
Choose (2) if the question can be answered by using either of the statements alone.
Choose (3) if the question can be answered by using both statements together but not by either state-
ment alone.
Choose (4) if the question cannot be answered on the basis of the two statements.
21. Zakib spends 30% of his income on his children's education, 20% on recreation and 10% on
healthcare. The corresponding percentage for Supriyo are 40%, 25%, and 13%. Who spends more
on children's education?
A. Zakib spends more on recreation than Supriyo.
B. Supriyo spends more on healthcare than Zakib.
23. In a class of 30 students, Rashmi secured the third rank among the girls, while her brother Kumar
studying in the same class secured the sixth rank in the whole class. Between the two, who had a
better overall rank?
A. Kumar was among the top 25% of the boys merit list in the class in which 60% were boys.
B. There were three boys among the top five rank holders, and three girls among the top ten
rank holders.
24. Tarak is standing 2 steps to the left of a red mark and 3 steps to the right of a blue mark. He tosses
a coin. If it comes up heads, he moves one step to the right; otherwise he moves one step to the left.
He keeps doing this until he reaches one of the two marks, and then he stops. At which mark does
he stop?
A. He stops after 21 coin tosses.
B. He obtains three more tails than heads.
25. Ravi spent less than Rs. 75 to buy one kilogram each of potato, onion, and gourd. Which one of the
three vegetables bought was the costliest?
A. 2 kgs potato and 1 kg gourd cost less than 1 kg potato and 2 kg gourd.
B. 1 kg potato and 2 kgs onion together cost the same as 1 kg onion and 2 kgs gourd.
26. Nandini paid for an article using currency notes of denominations Re. 1, Rs. 2, Rs. 5, and Rs. 10
using at least one note of each denomination. The total number of five and ten rupee notes used was
one more than the total number of one and two rupee notes used. What was the price of the article?
A. Nandini used a total of 13 currency notes.
B. The price of the article was a multiple of Rs. 10.
Directions for questions 27 to 30: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
Coach John sat with the score cards of Indian players from the 3 games in a one-day cricket tournament
where the same set of players played for India and all the major batsmen got out. John summarized the
batting performance through three diagrams, one for each game. In each diagram, the three outer triangles
communicate the number of runs scored by the three top scores from India, where K, R, S, V, and Y
represent Kaif, Rahul, Saurav, Virender, and Yuvraj respectively. The middle triangle in each diagram
denotes the percentage of the total score that was scored by the top three Indian scorers in that game. No
two players score the same number of runs in the same game. John also calculated two batting indices for
each player based on his scores in the tournaments; the R-index of a batsman is the difference between
his highest and lowest scores in the 3 games while the M-index is the middle number, if his scores are
arranged in a non-increasing order.
27. For how many Indian players is it possible to calculate the exact M-index?
(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) More than 2
28. Among the players mentioned, who can have the lowest R-index from the tournament?
(1) Only Kaif, Rahul or Yuvraj (2) Only Kaif or Rahul
(3) Only Kaif or Yuvraj (4) Only Kaif
29. How many players among those listed definitely scored less than Yuvraj in the tournament?
(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) More than 2
30. Which of the players had the best M-index from the tournament?
(1) Rahul (2) Saurav (3) Virender (4) Yuvraj
32. If Ramos is the lone American expert in population studies, which of the following is NOT true about
the numbers of experts in the conference from the four continents?
(1) There is one expert in health from Africa.
(2) There is one expert in refugee relocation from Africa.
(3) There are two experts in health from the Americas.
(4) There are three experts in refugee relocation from the Americas.
33. Alex, an American expert in refugee relocation, was the first keynote speaker in the conference.
What can be inferred about the number of American experts in refugee relocation in the conference,
excluding Alex?
i. At least one
ii. At most two
(1) Only i and not ii (2) Only ii and not i (3) Both i and ii (4) Neither i nor ii
34. Which of the following numbers cannot be determined from the information given?
(1) Number of labour experts from the Americas.
(2) Number of health experts from Europe.
(3) Number of health experts from Australasia.
(4) Number of experts in refugee relocation from Africa.
Pool A
In the third round, Spain played Pakistan, Argentina played Germany, and New Zealand played South
Africa. All the third round matches were drawn. The following are some results from the fourth and fifth
round matches
(a) Spain won both the fourth and fifth round matches.
(b) Both Argentina and Germany won their fifth round matches by 3 goals to 0.
(c) Pakistan won both the fourth and fifth round matches by 1 goal to 0.
35. Which one of the following statements is true about matches played in the first two rounds?
(1) Germany beat New Zealand by 1 goal to 0.
(2) Spain beat New Zealand by 4 goals to 0.
(3) Spain beat South Africa by 2 goals to 0.
(4) Germany beat South Africa by 2 goals to 1.
36. Which one of the following statements is true about matches played in the first two rounds?
(1) Pakistan beat South Africa by 2 goals to 1. (2) Argentina beat Pakistan by 1 goal to 0.
(3) Germany beat Pakistan by 2 goals to 1. (4) Germany beat Spain by 2 goals to 1.
37. If Pakistan qualified as one of the two teams from Pool A, which was the other team that qualified?
(1) Argentina (2) Germany (3) Spain (4) Cannot be determined
38. Which team finished at the top of the pool after five rounds of matches?
(1) Argentina (2) Germany (3) Spain (4) Cannot be determined
(Talle st)
M 5 2/3 1 1 2/3 5
B C
R S
x R Q T T Q R
Ye llow G re en Blue Blue G re en Ye llow
Let, the height of the cylinder be ‘h’ cm and radius
be ‘x’ cm. R O AD OR R O AD
∆ANQ is similar to ∆QSC W h ite O ra ng e Red Red O ra ng e W h ite
AN QS 10 − h h P U S S U P
⇒ = ⇒ =
NQ SC x 4−x 4 (S ho rte st) 3 /2 3 /2 6 4
6
10 x 10 4
⇒ −1= ⇒ =
h 4−x h 4−x 26. 4 Diagonally opposite to yellow is red.
5 27. 5 Second tallest house is either Q or S. So, we can not
∴h = (4 − x)
2 determine.
29. 5 Let volume of data transfer in India = Volume of data Re venue from Data transfar
× 100 = 30% (approx )
transfer in Singapore = X Total Re venue
For INDIA: 30
Revenue from Data transfer = × Total Re venue
ARDT for India ≈ $1 (approx) 100
∴ Revenue from data transfer = $X (approx) ARDT = $ 13 (approx)
30 Total Re venue
Re venue from data transfer
× 100 = 9% (approx)
∴ Volume of Data transfer =
100
×
13
Total Re venue
3
x ≈ × Total Re venue
⇒ Total Re venue ; × 100 (approx) 130
9
For Spain:
For SINGAPORE:
9x 3
⇒ Total Re venue = × 100 (approx) ≈ × Total Re venue
20.5 130
Similarly, we can check the other options and easily
9x see that the volume of data transfer is NOT the same
× 100
Total Re venue for Singapore 20.5 for given pair countries.
= ≈ 4 (approx)
Total Re venue for India x
× 100
9 32. 2 Since Bhama got calls from all colleges, she has to
score marks in each section equal to at least the
So, the statement given in option (5) is true.
maximum of the cut-offs across colleges which means
45, 45, 46 & 45 in section A, B, C, & D respectively.
30. 3 Let total Revenue of Sweden in 2010 = x
This makes her total to be 181 with which she will
Therefore total Revenue of India in 2010 = 2x
clear the overall cut-offs of all institutes also.
For Sweden in 2010:
33. 3 Since we have to minimise the marks in a particular
ARDT = $6 section, we will maximise the marks in other 3 sections.
Revenue from data transfer = 2 × 18% of x Let us assume that marks obtained in each of the
three sections in which we are going to maximize the
2 × 18% of x
∴ Volume of data transfer = 6
score, is equal to 50. Now, the lowest overall cut-off
is 171 & second lowest is 175. Hence Charlie must
have scored at least 175 – (50 + 50 + 50) = 25 marks
For India in 2010: in the remaining section.
Let ARDT = y
Lets confirm whether he can clear sectional cut-offs
Revenue from data transfer = 3 × 9% of 2x also with such a distribution. On seeing the sectional
cut-offs, we conclude what they can be cleared with
3 × 9%of 2x
∴ Volume of data transfer = 50 marks each in section A, B & C and 25 marks in
y section D, which may enable Charlie to clear the
sectional cut-off of section D for college 1, 2, 3 or 5.
2 × 18%of x 3 × 9% of 2x
Therefore = ⇒ y = $9 Hence answer is 25.
6 y
Therefore % change in ARDT of India
9 –1
= × 100 = 800%
1
EXERCISE 1
Directions for Qs. 1 to 2: Refer to the following data and answer the following questions.
A B C
D
E F G
H
I
Directions for Qs. 3 to 7: Refer to the following information and answer the following questions.
In a group of 200 people, number of people having at least primary education : number of people having at
least middle school education : number of people having at least high school education :: 7 : 3 : . 90 of
these play football and 60 play hockey. 5 people in category III (defined as people having high school
education) and one fourth each in category I and II (defined as people having primary school education
only and people having middle school education but not high school education, respectively) do not play
any game. In each of the above category the number of people playing only hockey equal the number of
people playing only football. 2 people each in categories I and II and 1 person in category III play both the
games. 2 people playing both games are uneducated (category IV). 5 people in category III play only
hockey.
Assume middle school education can be had only after completing primary school and high school
education can be had only after completing middle school. Also all people in the group fall under the four
categories described above.
5. How many people having middle school, but not high school, education play only football?
(1) 2 (2) 7 (3) 11 (4) 15
6. How many people who completed primary school could not finish middle school?
(1) 48 (2) 64 (3) 80 (4) 96
A simple coding system, using cryptograms, is designed as below. Three concentric wheels each having all
the alphabets and the number 0 to 9 are written around the rims of the wheels.
9 A
B
8 9 A
B C
8
7 9A C
B D
7 8 C D
7 D
8. Suppose that a cryptogram system is made by rotating the inner wheel 2 alphabets to the right and
rotating the outer wheel 2 alphabets to the left. Starting with the inner wheel, what would APPLE
be coded as?
(1) BRRC7 (2) 8RNJC (3) 8CCNR (4) 8RNNC
9. How many cryptogram system can be totally made from this device? (Starting inner wheel)
(1) 2315 (2) 1295 (3) 676 (4) Indeterminate
10. Assume that both the inner and outer wheels have been rotated one step, but you don’t know
whether left or right. What would the rotations be if HOCJ9 has to decode to a proper English
word? (Starting inner wheel)
(1) Inner right, Outer right (2) Inner left, Outer left
(3) Inner right, Outer left (4) Inner left, Outer right
Directions for Qs. 11 to 13: Each of these questions contains six statements followed by 4 sets of
combinations of 3. Choose the set in which the statements are most logically related.
11. A. All pianos are large B. All flutes are well turned
C. All pianos are loud D. All flutes are loud
E. All pianos are flutes F. All pianos are well tuned
(1) FBE (2) CDF (3) BEF (4) BCF
Directions for Qs. 14-17: Refer to the following information and answer the following questions.
In a village far far away, by name Foolistan, there are four kinds of people: Dumbos, Idiots, Fools and
Morons. The village has each of these people in equal numbers, people in the village belong to exactly one
of the four kinds. Everyday, people in this village have the habit of making assess of themselves. However,
some rules are followed. A person may not make an ass of himself (or herself) at all. Idiots commit twice
the number of blunders as do Dumbos, Fools thrice as many as Idiots and Morons four times as many as
Fools. However, by a strange fact of the tribe, if even one person of a kind commits zero blunders, no one
in the group commits a blunder. Every Dumbo commits the same number of blunders as every other
Dumbo. Use these facts to answer the next four questions.
14. On a particular day, 66,000 blunders were committed. Which of the following is not possible?
(Assume the total population is 400)
(1) A Fool did not commit any blunder
(2) An Idiot did not commit any blunder
(3) A Moron did not commit any blunder
(4) None of these
15. The population of the village is 400. On a given day every group committed blunders, and Fools
as a group commit 1200 blunders. The total number of blunders committed on that day is:
(1) 5000 (2) 6600 (3) 66000 (4) 6000
16. On a particular day, the Morons don’t commit any blunders, and the other groups may or may not
have committed blunders. Which of the following is the least number of blunders, which certainly
satisfy the above the criteria? (Assume total population = 400)
(1) 600 (2) 100 (3) 2700 (4) 900
17. On a day, all four groups commit blunders and a Dumbo commits 3 blunders. If the population is
400, the total number of blunders on the day is:
(1) 99 (2) 9900 (3) 9000 (4) 990
Directions for Qs. 18 to 20: Refer to the following information and answer the following questions.
Shyam Kumar multiplier is a smart mathematician. While negotiating has salary with his prospective
employer he worked out and proposed a novel salary plan, which his employer accepted as he was one of
the smartest salesman around. According to the plan, his salary would increase every day of his
employment such that on any day his income would be two rupees more than the square of the number of
the days he has been employed for with the company.
Back home his wife Renu congratulated him on working out an excellent deal and then together they
planned their expenses in tune with the new salary plan. As they expected their income to be increasing on
a daily basis — they planned their expenses in a way that the expenses of any day would be met by the
day’s income itself, moreover they planned to make a net saving (which would be the difference of income
and the expenses of the day) out of the day’s income.
Thus they expected their expenses to be one rupee more than twice the number of days Shyam Kumar
would have been employed for on that day, with the company.
18. On which day of his employment did Shyam Kumar Multiplier’s savings of a day exceed Rs. 100?
(1) 10th (2) 11th (3) 12th (4) 13th
19. Shyam Kumar Multiplier wanted to get into Limca Book of Records. He eyed the category which
listed the person holding the record for the maximum salary increase in a single day. The person
currently holding the record is Salim Khan who was given a raise of Rs. 12,000 in a single day. If
Shyam Kumar were to beat his record he will have to remain in this job for a minimum of,
(1) 5999 days (2) 6000 days (3) 6001 days (4) 6002 days
20. Shyam and Renu planned to put each day’s savings into their savings bank account. They also
decided that they would regularly purchase Fixed Deposits in multiples of
Rs. 300 from their savings in the account. They would purchase their first Fixed Deposit on
(1) 11th day (2) 12th day (3) 13th day (4) 14th day
Directions for Qs. 21 – 25: Refer to the following information and answer following questions.
Alord received a large order for stitching school uniforms from Mayflower school and Little Flower school.
He has two cutters who will cut the fabric, five tailors who will do the stitching, and two assistants to stitch
the buttons and button holes. Each of these nine persons will work for exactly 10 hours a day. Each of the
May-flower uniforms requires 20 min. for cutting the fabric, one hour for stitching, and 15 min. for
stitching buttons and button holes, whereas the Little Flower uniform requires 30 min., 1 hour, and 30 min.
respectively for these activities.
21. What is the maximum number of little Flower uniforms that A lord can complete in a day?
(1) 50 (2) 20 (3) 40 (4) 30
22. On particular day, Alord decided to complete 20 Little Flower uniforms. How many Mayflower
uniforms can he complete on that day?
(1) 30 (2) 40 (3) 20 (4) 0
23. If Alord decides to complete 30 Little Flower uniforms only and no other on a particular day, how
many total man-hours will be idle?
(1) 20 (2) 30 (3) 5 (4) 25
24. If he hires one more assistant, what is the maximum number of Mayflower uniforms that he can
complete in a day?
(1) 40 (2) 50 (3) 60 (4) 30
25. A lord has the option to hire one more employee of any category. Which category should he hire
to get maximum increase in production capacity, assuming that he needs to stitch only Mayflower
uniforms on that day?
(1) Tailor (2) Cutter (3) Assistant (4) Cannot be determined
Directions for questions 26 to 35: Each questions is followed by two statements, A and B. Answer each
question using the following instructions.
Choose 1: if the question can be answered by using one of the statements alone, but cannot be
answered by using the other statement alone.
Choose 2: if the question can be answered by using either statement alone.
Choose 3: if the questions can be answered by using both the statements together, but cannot be
answered by using either statement alone.
Choose 4: if the question cannot be answered even by using both the statements together.
29. What is the perimeter of the triangle ABC? One of its side is 10√3 units.
A. ABC is the hypotenuse of the right angle triangle ABC.
B. The sum of the areas of the semicircles described on the three sides of the triangle ABC is
100 π sq. units.
30. The cost price of an article is 100. Find the profit made by selling it.
A. Ten percent discount was given on the list price and the profit percentage made is 25
percentage points more than the discount percent.
B. List price is Rs.180 and profit percent is 1/5th of the mark up percentage.
n
10 + 5
33. Is an integer?
3
A. n is an integers.
B. n is and natural integer.
34. Will A and B take more than 14½ days to complete the work working together?
A. If they work on alternate days with A starting the work, they take 28½ days to complete the
work.
B. If they work on alternate days with slower person among A and B starting the work, they
take 29 days to complete the work.
35. The length of train A and B are 4000m and 350 respectively. What is the speed of the train B?
A. Train B crosses train A which is traveling at 60km/hr in 22 seconds.
B. The speed of trains B is more than the speed of trains A.
Directions questions for 36 to 40: Study the following graph and answer the questions that follow.
PERCENTAGE SHARE OF NUMBER OF CARDS SOLD BY
VARIOUS MAKES OF CARS IN MARUTI (in '000s)
100 THE MARKET
90 5000
80
70 4000
60
50
3000
40
30
20 2000
10
0 1000
1994 1995 1996 1997 1998
0
Maruti Fiat Ambassador Ford Escort 1994 1995 1996 1997 1998
36. What is the number of Fiat cars sold in 1994 (in ‘000s)?
(1) 750 (2) 500 (3) 1500 (4) can’t say
39. In which of the following years, did the umber of ford Escorts sold register a decrease compared
to that in the previous year?
(1) 1998 (2) 1996 (3) 1997 (4) Both1996 and 1998
Directions questions for 41 to 45: These questions are based on the following data.
50,000 Units of brand X are being sold in the market at a price of Rs.1o/- unit. A competitive brand, Y, enter the
market. The course of actions available for the company marketing brand X are
(1) Cut the price of X by 50 %, which would result in an increase in the number of units sold of X by
30 % with a probability of 0.5 and 20% with a probability of 0.5
((2) Advertise, which would cost Rs.2,00,00, but would result in an increase in the number of units
sold of X by 50% with a probability of 0.1, by 20% with a probability of 0.5 and 10% with a
probability of 0.4.
(3) Remain silent, in which case, the probability of losing the market by 40 % is 0.5 and the
probability of retaining its market is 0.5
42. In which of the cases, does the market of X (number of units sold) increase the most?
(1) cut down the prices (2) Advertising
(3) Remaining silent (4) None of these
44. What is the revenue realised (net of advertising expenses) if Course 2 is followed?
(1) Rs.4,00,000 (2) Rs.3,95,000 (3) Rs.3,12,500 (4) Rs.3,00,000
45. How much more/less in the net revenue realized by following course 2 than that realised by
following course 2 than that realised by following course 3?
(1) Rs.5,000 less (2) Rs.5,000 more (3) Rs.50,000 (4) Rs.50,000 more
DIRECTIONS for questions 46 to 50: Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.
ABC limited produces a product P for which demand is unlimited and they can sell all they produce. They
want to control costs and have three production plans from which to choose. The fixed cost incurred by the
company is Rs.1lac, Rs.1.5lacs and Rs.1lac from plan I, II and III respectively. Given below is the graph of
marginal cost of production virus number of units produced. It is also give that it can produce P in a batch
of 1000 only.
7
6
5
Rs. lacs
4
3
2
1
0
1 2 3 4 5 6
Unit productions (in '000)
47. If production = 3000 then which of the three is the best plan?
(1) Plan 1 (2) Plan 2 (3) Plan 3 (4) Plan 1 or Plan 2
48. If production < 3000 then which of the three is the best plan?
(1) Plan 1 (2) Plan 2 (3) Plan 3 (4) Plan 1 or Plan 2
49. If production > 4000 then which of the three is the best plan?
(1) Plan 1 (2) Plan 2 (3) Plan 3 (4) Plan 1 or Plan 2
50. For some reasons, the company cannot choose plan1, then 2 is best plan if;
(1) Production≤4000 (2) Production<4000
(3) Production=3000 or Production=4000 (4) Non of these
EXERCISE 2
Direction for Qs. 1to5 : Refer to the following information and the answer the following questions.
People Power Corporation presently employs three Managers (A, B and C) and five recruitment agents (D,
E, F, G and H). The company is planning to open a new office in San Jose to manage placement of
software professionals in the US. It is planning to relocate two of the three managers and three of the five
recruitment agents to the office at San Jose. As it is an organization which is highly people oriented the
management wants to ensure that the individuals who do not function well together should not be made as a
part of the team going to the US. The following information was available to the HR department of People
Power Corporation.
Managers A and C are at each others throat and therefore cannot be sent as a team to the new
office.
C and E are excellent performers in their own right. However, they do not function together as a
team. They should be separated.
D and G have had a major misunderstanding during the last office picnic. After the picnic these
two have not been in speaking terms and should therefore not be sent as a team.
D and F are competing for a promotion which is due in another 3 months. They should not be a
team.
2. If A is to be moved as one of the Managers, which of the following cannot be a possible working
unit?
(1) ABDEH (2) ABFGH (3) ABEGH (4) ABDGH
3. If C and F are moved to the new office, how many combinations are possible?
(1) 4 (2) 1 (3) 3 (4) 5
4. Given the group dynamics of the Managers and the recruitment agents, which of the following is
sure to find a berth in the San Jose office?
(1) B (2) H (3) G (4) E
5. If C is sent to the San Jose office which member of the staff cannot go with C?
(1) B (2) D (3) G (4) F
Directions for Qs. 6 - 10: Refer to the following data and answer the following questions.
It is a game based on the position you take in a clock. You are at the 1 O’clock position. You can move one
step clockwise, 1 step anti clockwise or to a place that is diametrically opposite yours. For example, from 1
O’clock if you move clockwise you will be at 2 O’clock. As you start the game, you are at 1 O’clock
position and your score is 1. If you move a step clockwise, add the value of the time in that position to your
score to give you the new score. If you move a step anticlockwise, add the value of the time in that position
and subtract 2 from your score. If you move a step diametrically opposite, add the value of the time in that
position to your score and subtract 4 from your score to get the new score. You cannot get back to a
position that you have already visited.
9. What is the shortest number of moves that you require to reach the 5 O’clock position When you
start from 1 O’clock position?
(1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 5 (4) 2
10. A man said to a lady, “Your mother’s husband’s sister is my aunt.” How is the lady related to the
man?
(1) Mother (2) Aunt (3) Sister (4) Grandmother
11. If P + Q means P is the brother of Q; P – Q means P is the mother of Q and P * Q means P is the
sister of Q. Which of the following means M is the maternal uncle of R, if you can assume a third
person K to be involved in establishing the relationship?
(1) M-K*P (2) M+K*R (3) M+K-R (4) M+K+R
Directions for Qs. 12 - 13: Refer to the following information and answer the following questions.
A, B, C and D are four ladies who are friends of Elizabeth. On one Saturday the four of them visited
Elizabeth at her weekend getaway.
I. The time of each visit was as follows: A at 8 O’clock, B at 9 O’clock, C at 10 O’clock and D at 11
O clock.
II. At least one woman visited Elizabeth between A and B.
III. At least one of C or D visited Elizabeth before A.
IV. C did not visit Elizabeth between B and D.
Directions for Qs. 14 - 18 : Refer to the following information and answer the following questions.
Each of the questions is followed by two statements. You have to decide whether the information provided
in the statements is sufficient for answering the question.
Mark (1), If the question can be answered by using one of the statements alone, but cannot be
answered by using the other statement alone.
Mark (2), If the question can be answered by using either statement alone.
Mark (3), If the question can be answered by using both the statements together, but cannot be
answered using either statement alone.
Mark (4), If the question cannot be answered even by using both the statements together.
17. Which amongst the three x, y and z (all real) is the greatest?
A. x : y : z : : 6 : 8 : 11 B. xyz – y2 is positive
18. What is the speed at which L is driving?
A. The ratio of the speeds of L and M is 3 : 5
B. L and M start from city X to Y simultaneously and as soon M reaches city Y he returns and
meets L on the way exactly 2 horus from the time they both left city X.
Directions for Qs. 19 – 23: Refer to the following information and answer the following questions.
Each question contains two statements in the question followed by four statements. Choose the alternative
from the four statements which is logically related and follows the statements in the question.
23. All Critical Thinking classes are full. John found a class that wasn’t full
(1) John might have found a Critical Thinking class
(2) The class John found was not a Critical Thinking class
(3) All Critical Thinking classes were not found
(4) John was a dumb guy
Directions for Qs.24– 25: Refer to the following information and answer following questions.
Speaker: The great majority of people in this city have access to the best medical care available any where
in the world.
Opposition: There are thousand of poor in this city who cannot afford to pay to see a doctor.
25. A possible objection that opposition could have fielded to the spearker’s comments would be to
point to the existence of
(1) a city which has more doctors than this city
(2) a city in which people are given better medical care than this city
(3) a city which has a higher per capita hospital bed than this city
(4) the amount spent on medical insurance for people of this city
DIRECTIONS for questions 26 to 30: Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.
Figure 1
600
500
Property Crimes
400
300
200
100
0
75 80 85 90 95 2000
Year
Figure 2
60
50
Violent Crimes
40
30
20
10
0
75 80 85 90 95 2000
Year
The two graph above gives me crime statistics for the USA. Fig 1 give the variation of the number of
property crimes per 1000 households with time. Property crimes consist of motor vehicle theft, theft and
burglary. Fig 2 gives the number of violent crimes per 1000 population with time. Violent following can be
divisible into three categories – aggravated assault, simple assault and robbery. The following facts are also
given and may be used in answering the questions that follow.
1. The population of the USA between 1975 and 2050 is by the equation P= 2.3 (T-1950) + 157,
where P is the population in millions in the year T.
2. The number of persons per household can assumed to remain constant for the period 1975 to 2050.
26. Let x1 and x2 be the number of property crimes in 1975 and in 2000 expressed as a percentage of
the population, respectively. What is the ratio of x1 to x2?
(1) 3 : 1 (2) 27 : 10 (3) 1 : 3 (4) 18 : 5
27. Assume that the total number of property crimes per year follow the following trend after 2000.
The total number of property crimes per year at the end of every 25 year is 0.71 times the number
at the beginning. What is the number of property crimes per 1000 households in the year 2050?
(1) 63 (2) 90 (3) 129 (4) 180
28. In 2000, the number of aggravated assaults/1000 population was greater the number of
robberies/1000 population by 1.8 and the number of simple assaults was three time the number of
aggravated assaults. What was the total number of robberies in 2000?
(1) 1.1×106 (2) 1.1×103 (3) 3.9 (4) 3.9×103
29. Let y1 and y2 be the total number of violent crimes per year in 1975 and 2000, respectively. What
is y2 – y1
(1) 22 (2)-22 (3) 4.2 (4) none of these
30. The total number of property rimes in the year 200 was 1.45 times the total number of violent
crimes in the year 1975. what is the average number of person per household?
(1) 2.1 (2) 3.2 (3) 4.2 (4) 4.9
DIRECTIONS for questions 31 to 35: Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.
ABC is a firm which deals with furniture. Manufacturing of table requires three levels of assembly. The
finished table is at first level. The leg assembly and table top are second level. The pieces that go into the leg
assembly are at the third level which consist of shortrails, longrails and legs. One unit of table requires one
unit of tabletop and one unit of leg assembly. One unit of leg assembly requires 2 units of shortrails, 2 units of
longrails and 4 units. Orders are placed just in time to minimize storage.
The lead time for activities are (Lead time is waiting time required to complete one activity)
Parts Weeks
Assamble table 1
Finished leg assembly 1
Purchase legs 1
Purchase shortrails 1
Purchase longrails 1
Purchase table top 2
Parts Units
Table 50
Leg assembly 100
Legs 150
Shortrails 50
Longrails 0
Table top 50
31. For meeting the demand of 200 units of finished table of week 4, when would the first order of
tabletops be placed?
(1) Week 1 (2) Week 3 (3) Week 4 (4) Week 5
32. What is the net requirement of legs for meeting the demand of week 4 finished table?
(1) 200 (2) 50 (3) 400 (4) 800
33. When and how many units of shortrail would be placed for meeting the demand of finished table
of week 6?
(1) 100 units in week 1 (2) 200 units in week 3
(3) 300 units in week 6 (4) Data insufficient
34. If in-hand units of legs are increased from 150 to 300, then what would be the net requirements of
legs for meeting the demand of finished table of week 5?
(1) 1800, 900 (2) 2200, 1100 (3) 1600, 800 (4) 800, 400
35. The supplier of longrails has shiftedhis manufacturing unit to its new location. Because of this the
delivery time of long rail has been increased by 1 week. When would the order of longrails be
placed to meet the week 5 demand of finished table?
(1) Week 1 (2) Week 4 (3) Week 5 (4) None of above
DIRECTIONS for questions 36 to 40: Each of the following questions is by two statements.
Mark [1], if the question can be answered by using any of the statements alone but not by using the
other statement alone.
Mark [2], if the question can be answered only by using either of the statements alone.
Mark [3], if the question can be answered only by using both the statements together.
Mark [4], if the question cannot be answered.
37. LCM of two numbers A & a B is & is and HCF is 12. What is the number B?
I. A is not a factor B.
II. B is greater than A.
Questions 41 to 43: are based on the following City College is selecting a four-person debate team. There are
seven candidates of equal ability. X, Y and Z, who belong to Group A; and L, M, N and P who belong to
Group B. The team must have two members from each group. Also, the members must be able to work well
with the all the members of the other team. Debaters Y & L, Z & N, L & M are incompatible pairs.
42. If debater L is on the team, which other debaters must be on the team as well?
(1) M, X and Z (2) N, X and Z (3) P, N and Z (4) P, X and Z
43. If both Y and Z are selected, which of the other debaters are thereby assured of a place on the
team?
(1) Both L and M (2) Both M and P (3) Only N (4) Both N and P
Directions: Q 44-50: The following table gives the number of AIDS cases over 2 years of selected
countries.
All countries that have reported more than five hundred AIDS cases to the WHO in 1997 are listed here.
The left column gives the total number of cases reported by each country for 1996, the middle column
gives the 1996 rate (AIDS cases per 10000 population) and the last column shows the number of cases
reported in early 1997.
Most 1997 reports were for only the first quarter or a third of the year. Owing to reporting delays of six
months or more, cases reported in 1997 actually were diagnosed in 1996.
44. Which country has reported the maximum number of AIDS cases to WHO during 1996?
(1) Brazil (2) United States (3) France (4) Italy
55. How many countries have reported 25000 AIDS cased in the early 1997?
(1) Two (2) One (3) Three (4) None.
46. The ratio of AIDS cases reported in early 1997 is 2 : 5 for
(1) South Africa & Portugal (2) Israel & Denmark
(3) Yugoslavia & Netherlands (4) West Germany & France
47. The number of countries for which 1996 (rate) [per 100,000] is more than five is
(1) five (2) four (3) three (4) six
48. What is the population of Zambia on the basis of the reported cases of AIDS in 1996 (in
thousands)?
(1) 650000 (2) 700000 (3) 72000 (4) 715000
50. The countries which have reported less than 2000 cases both in 1996 and early 1997 are
(1) Japan, Ethiopia and Israel (2) Jamaica, Yugoslavia & Japan
(3) Ethiopia, Chile & French Guyana (4) Ethiopia, Israel and Yugoslavia.
EXERCISE 3
DIRECTIONS for questions 1 to 10: Each question is followed by two statements.
You have to decide whether the information provided in the statements is sufficient for answering the
question.
Mark 1 if the question can be answered by using one of the statements alone, but cannot be answered by
using the other statement alone.
Mark 2 if the question can be answered by using either statement alone.
Mark 3 if the question can be answered by using both statements together, but cannot be answered by
using either statement alone.
Mark 4 if the question cannot be answered even by using both the statements together.
1. One side of the triangle ABC is 5cm long. Is the largest angle in triangle ABC greater than 90°?
I. Triangle ABC is a right angled triangle 4,
II. Two sides of the triangle ABC are 3 cm and 4 cm long.
2. What is the number of institutes in Hyderabad that have an annual income of over Rs.5, 00, 000
and own a Laser Printer?
I. 30% of the institutes in Hyderabad have an annual income of over Rs.5, 00, 000
II. 25% of the institutes in Hyderabad which have an annual income of over Rs.5,00,000
own a Laser Printer.
3. Is a >b?
I. 8 - (a - b)3 is a positive number.
II. 4 - (a-b)2 is a negative number.
4. There are two identical cubical boxes A and B which contain 8 and 27 balls respectively. The balls
are made of the same material. Which box is heavier?
I. The balls are of different sizes.
II. The boxes are not made of same material.
7. A ladder is leaning against a wall at a height of 9m at 8:00 a.m. and it started slipping. What is the distance
between the point at which the ladder is contacting the wall and point at which the ladder is contacting the
floor at 8:30 a.m.?
I. The length of the ladder is 15 m.
II. The rate at which the top of the ladder is slipping is 2 cm per minute.
8. What is the speed of a particle at position x?
I. The speed of the particle was 5 cm/sec at point X0 which is 5 cm away from x.
II. The speed of the particle is increasing at the rate of 0.5 cm/sec every 1 cm it travels.
9. What is the ratio of two numbers p and q?
I. p is 50% greater than q.
II. p and q are respectively 87.5% and 25% greater than a third number r.
10. If each pencil costs Rs.2 and each pen costs Rs.3, then how many pens did I buy given that I
bought at least one pencil and at least one pen?
I. I bought one pencil.
II. I spent a total amount of Rs.8 buying pens and pencils.
DIRECTIONS for questions 11 to 14: These questions are based on the following information regarding
the price changes that a certain pharmaceutical company is considering for its products.
The prices for all the products except Expectorant are the prices of 10 tablets.
11. If a family has a hypertensive and an asthmatic patient, where the person with hypertension has to
consume three tablets of Anti Hypertensive per day and the asthmatic patient has to take two tablets of
Anti Asthmatic every alternate day, what will be the increase in expenditure on two patients for 30
days?
(l) Rs.40.50 (2) Rs.42.75 (3) Rs.46.50 (4) Rs.38.50
12. What is the percentage increase in the expenditure of a person for one year if he consumes 32
tablets of Antacid in one week?
(1) 7½% (2) 6 ½ % (3) 62/3% (4) None of these
13. A person is prescribed to take two spoons of Expectorant thrice everyday for a period of, 20
weeks. Assuming that each bottle of Expectorant contains 90 spoons. Find the expenditure
according to the existing prices.
(1) Rs.200 (2) Rs.180 (3) Rs.168 (4) Rs.240
14. A person is prescribed a combination of antipyretic and anti-asthmatic such that he has to take one of
these before breakfast, the other after lunch and the one he had at breakfast at dinner also; if he
consumed an antipyretic at the end of the dinner after the 7th day of the course, he started the course
with
(1) Anti-asthmatic (2) Antipyretic
(3) Not possible to determine (4) None of the above
DIRECTIONS for questions 15 to 19: These questions are based on the pie diagrams given below.
Shefali, a first year student of management from a well known institute of management in western India, was
doing her internship with a leading public sector bank in India. Her project involved analyzing the market shares
of various Indian companies that manufacture and sell fuels and lubes. Halfway through her project she managed
to collect the following information from the sales figures of various companies.
PRL PRL
10% OTHERS 10%
OTHERS
15% 15%
PHCL PHCL
25% 25%
OICL OICL
30% 30%
PBCL
PBCL
20% 20%
Total Sales of fuels for the year Total Sales of lubes for the year
2000-2001 = Rs. 22, 400crores 2000-2001 = Rs. 22, 400crores
Shefali's project guide, after reviewing the above information, pointed out the fact that the above figures
were inclusive of the considerable volumes of inter-company sales that occur every year. Therefore the
correct market shares of the companies should be arrived at after deducting the inter company sales figures
from the present figures. Shefali then further collected the following information regarding the inter-
company sales.
BUYER Sale value as a percentage of the total sales of the selling company
SELLER PRL OICL PHCL PBCL OTHERS
Fuels - 50 10 - 40
PRL
Lubes - 30 - 10 60
Fuels — — 15 20 10
OICL
Lubes - - 20 - 40
Fuels - 20 - 20 20
PHCL
Lubes - 10 - 25 40
Fuels - 30 10 - 35
PBCL
Lubes - 15 5 - 25
Fuels - 10 5 10 -
OTHERS
Lubes - 15 5 15 -
15. By approximately what percentage did Shefali overestimate the correct value of the total sales of
fuels?
(1) 135% (2) 200% (3) 110% (4) 180%
16. If the correct sales figures are considered, then which of the following has the largest percentage
share by value of the sales of fuels and lubes put together?
(1) PRL (2) OTHERS (3) OICL (4) PBCL
17. If for any company, Sales - Purchases = Profit, then neither fuels nor lubes were profitable for
(1) PRL (2) PHCL (3) OTHERS (4) OICL
18. Assuming the information given in the above question as true, which of the following had the
maximum profitability for fuel?
(1) OICL (2) PHCL (3) PBCL (4) OTHERS
19. Which of the following had the second largest percentage share by value when the correct sales
figures of fuels and lubes put together are considered?
(1) OTHERS (2) PHCL (3) OICL (4) PBCL
DIRECTIONS for questions 20 to 23: These questions are based on the data given below.
A paddy processing unit purchases 10,000 kg of paddy. After subjecting it to milling operation, the husk
and rice are separated. The husk forms 5% of the total paddy weight. The rice so extracted from the paddy
contains 6% of brokens or defective material in it. Cost of purchase of paddy is Rs.3.50/kg and the selling
price of rice is Rs.8.00/kg. The broken material is sold at Rs.2.00/kg. The husk is sold atRs.0.50/kg.
20. What is the amount of paddy to be processed, such that the sale of the rice extracted from it excluding
brokens and husk fetches an amount of Rs.14, 288?
(1) 2000 kg (2) 1786kg (3) 2500 kg (4) 1886 kg
21. Assuming that all the rice produced by processing 10,000 kg of paddy is sold, what would be the
decrease in profits if the brokens in the operations increased to 8%?
(1) Rs. 1,000 (2) Rs. 1,100 (3) Rs. 1, 140 (4) Rs. 1,200
22. Due to the evaporation of moisture, there is a 5% loss of weight before the processing of the.
Paddy began. As a result the decrease in the weight of rice obtained (in kg) is
(1) 450 kg (2) 500 kg (3) 447 kg (4) 475 kg
23. What is the amount realised on the sale of by products i.e., broken and husk on processing 5,000
kg of paddy
(l) Rs.200 (2) Rs.180 (3) Rs.695 (4) Rs.190
DIRECTIONS for questions 24 to 27: These questions are based on the data given below.
In a zoo, twelve animals, Elephant. Wolf Deer, Bear. Gorilla, Tiger. Antelope, Giraffe, Lion, Chimpanzee, Horse
and Zibra are locked in twelve different cages from 1 through 12 (not necessarily in that order.) These cages are
on either side of the path. Cages 1 through 6, in that order, are on the left side of the path and the cages 7 through
12, in that order, are on the right side of the path. Cage 1 is opposite Cage 7, Cage 2 is opposite Cage 8 and so on.
The arrangement of the animals is as follows.
1. The Elephant is in the P1 cage and is diagonally opposite to the Wolf which is opposite to the
Chimpanzee.
2. The Bear is opposite to the Giraffe which is exactly in between the Gorilla and the Antelope.
3. The Deer is opposite to the Lion which is exactly in between the Wolf and the Tiger.
4. The Horse is diagonally opposite to the Chimpanzee.
24. If the Tiger is not opposite to the Gorilla, then which animal is adjacent to the Elephant?
(1) Antelope (2) Horse (3) Gorilla (4) Cannot be determined
25. In how many ways can the animals be arranged in the cage?
(l) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) Four
26. Which animal is exactly in between the Giraffe and the Deer?
(1) Antelope (2) Giraffe (3) Gorilla (4) Cannot be determined
27. If the Elephant is shifted to 12th cage and the Deer is adjacent to the Gorilla then which animal is
opposite to the Tiger?
(1) Antelope (2) Lion (3) Gorilla (4) Deer
28. Five items A, B, C, D and E are kept in five different boxes numbered 1 to 5. Exactly one item is
kept in each box. C's box number is as much less than E's box number as E's box number is less 1
than A's box number. D is in box number 4 but not next to E. Then B is in box number
(1) 3 (2) 1 (3) 5 (4) 4
Directions Q. 29 to 33: Study the following table and answer the question given below it.
Number of different types of tyres of tyres sold by a company over the years (Numbers in lakh)
Year A B C D E
1989 35 20 40 14 25
1990 40 15 55 20 35
1991 30 25 45 25 30
1992 25 30 50 30 35
1993 45 35 25 38 32
1994 42 28 34 42 30
1995 36 34 38 48 25
29. What was the approximate percentage increase in the number of D type tyres sold from 1992 to
1993?
(1) 26 (2) 30 (3) 35 (4) 40
30. In which of the following years was the percentage of D type tyres sold to total number of tyres
sold the maximum among the given years?
(1) 1992 (2) 1994 (3) 1990 (4) 1995
31. In the case of which of the following types of tyres was there continuous increase in sales over the
years?
(1) B (2) E (3) D (4) C
32. What was the difference in the number of C type tyres sold in 1990 and 1994?
(1) 21,000 (2) 2,10,000 (3) 2,50,000 (4) 21,00,000
33. The share of B type tyres in total sales of the company in 1994 was:
(1) 13% (2) 14% (3) 15% (4) 16%
DIRECTIONS for questions 34 to 36: These questions are based on the data given below.
In the recently held Asian Games, an apartment in the games village was allotted to five sportsmen -
Pranay, Qureshi, Rasool, Surendar and Tarif. They were practising for the games in which they were
participating. The games in which they are participating are as follows.
DIRECTIONS for questions 37 to 38: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.
37. Eighty players numbered I through 80 are standing in a row, one behind the other, in the
increasing order of their numbers. The physical director of the players performed eight successive
inspections of the players and in each of the respective inspections he sent the first 10, 20, 30, 40,
50, 60, 70 and 80 players, from the front of the row to the end of the row. Each time the players
being sent back one after another. After these eight rounds of inspections what is the position of
the player numbered 5?
(1) 46th (2) 45th (3) 35th (4) None of these
38. Five friends A, B. C. D and F wear five different coloured shirts Red. White, Green, Blue, and
Black (not necessarily in that order) and five different coloured Trousers Red, White, Green, Blue
and Black (not necessarily in that order) such that no person wears the shirt and the trouser of
same colour. It is known that neither B nor E wears the Blue trouser while A wears a Black shirt.
A. person has to wear only a White or Blue shirt with a White or Blue trouser. Which of the
following gives a correct combination of the colour of A's trouser and the person wearing the Blue
trouser given that D wears the Green shirt but not the Black trouser?
(1) Green, D (2) Green, C (3) Red, D (4) cannot be determined
DIRECTIONS for questions 39 to 42: These questions are based on the pie charts given below
SECTORAL OUTLAY
1991- Total Outlay Rs. 2, 00, 000 1992- Total Outlay Rs. 2,50, 000
Medicine
10% Educations
Industrial 10% Medicine
Industrial
10% 15%
15%
Educations
25%
Agriculture
15%
Rural
Developme
Rural
nt Agriculture Developmen
30% 20% t
50%
39. In 1992, the amount allocated to the sector recording a decrease in outlay of 8 percentage points
over the one year period exceeds the amount allocated to the sector recording an increase in outlay
of 5 percentage points by an amount of
(l) Rs.l0, 000 (2) Rs.12, 500 (3) Rs. 15, 000 (4) Rs. 17, 500
40. In the year in which the allocation to four sectors equals the allocation to Rural Development, the
outlay of the sector which has the maximum allocation out of these four sectors, exceeds that of
the sector to which there was least allocation by
(l) Rs.5, 000 (2) Rs. 10.000 (3) Rs.15, 000 (4) Rs.12, 500
41. The year in which allocation to Rural Development and other sectors are equal, the two sectors
whose combined aggregate exceeds 25% but is less than 50% of the total allocation are
(1) Agriculture and Medicine (2) Agricultural and Industrial
(3) Medical and Education (4) None of the above
42. For the sector which records maximum percentage increase in allocation as compared to the
previous year, the difference between the outlay for the two years is
(1) Rs.40, 000 (2) Rs. 5, 000 (3) Rs.50, 000 (4) None of these
DIRECTIONS for questions 43 to 46: These are based on the bar graph given below.
PRODUCTION OF COTTON
In thousands bales
102
90
84
76
72
54
42 45
18
16
0.6 0.6
Manipur Sikkim Nagaland Tripura Assam W. Bengal
1993-94 1994-95
43. The total production in 1994-95 of the states that individually show a growth of more than 10%
from 1993-94 to 1994-95 forms what proportion of the total production for all the states for that
year?
(1) 82.1% (2) 91.7% (3) 93.6% (4) 85.8%
44. If x denotes maximum percentage increase in 1994-95 for any state and y denotes the least
percentage increase for any state in 1994-95, then which of the following relations between x and
y is the most appropriate?
(1) (x-y)2 = 0 (2) (x –y)2 = 5621
(3) x2/y2 is undefinable (4) y2/x2 is undefinable
45. By what percentage does the combined production in 1993-94 of the two largest cotton producing
states exceed the production of the state whose production was the closest to the average
production of all the states that year?
(1) 360% (2) 255% (3) 160% (4) None of these
46. The state which records 33.33% increase in production produces approximately what percentage
of total production for 1993-94?
(1) 20 (2) 21 (3) 19 (4) 22
DIRECTIONS for questions 47 to 50: These questions are based on the following pie chart which
represents the percentage of various trees in a fruit orchard consisting of 21, 600 trees and the table which
represents percentages of fruit-yielding trees in each category of trees.
47. The number of fruit yielding Cherry trees in the orchard are
(1) 1701 (2) 4941 (3) 3402 (4) 5751
48. The number of fruit yielding apricot trees exceed the number of fruit yielding peach trees by
(1) 327 (2) 364 (3) 357 (4) 347
49. Which among the following has the greatest number of fruit yielding trees?
(1) Avocado (2) Apricot (3) Peach (4) Plum
50. The fruit yielding plum trees from what percentage of fruit yielding peach trees?
(1) 112 (2) 110 (3) 107 (4) 101
DIRECTIONS for questions 51 to 55: These questions are based on the table given below.
Students qualify in the test if they score more than or equal to cut off mark in all the sections. The sum of
the net scores in all four sections together is called Grand Total.
51. Among the students who have qualified what is the maximum Grand Total?
(1) 106.5 (2) 108.5 (3) 100 (4) 103
52. What is the least Grand Total among the students who have qualified?
(1) 100 (2) 96 (3) 94 (4) 96.5
55. Who among the following answered maximum number of questions correctly?
(1) S8 (2) S7 (3) S5 (4) S6
EXERCISE 4
DIRECTIONS for questions 1 to 5: Refer to data below and answer the questions that follow.
In the two Tables below some statistics about consumption of electricity in India are given.
Table 1 gives the electricity consumed per (1) 1000 population, (20 1000 sq. kms of area and (3) per1000
consumers, for the period 1950 to 1950. note that all the population in India does not consume
electricity- only a fraction are actual consumers. The data is given in terms of GWH (Giga watt
Hour) and 1 GWH = 109 WH.
Table 2 gives the number of consumers as well its break up into various categories for the same period.
TABLE 1
Electricity Consumption in GWH
TABLE 2
Electricity of Consumers in Thousand
3. Let f1 andf2 be the fraction of the total population who were electricity
f2
consumers in 1970 and 1980, respectively. What is the value of the ratio
f1
(1) 0.51 (2) 1.97 (3) 1.32 (4) Data insufficient
4. Consider the percentage rate of growth for the period 1980 to 1990 in the numbers of the four
types consumers Domestic, Commercial, Industrial and Agricultural. How many of these
percentage rates of growth were more than the percentage rate of growth of the total number of
consumers for the same period?
(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 3
5. What was the percentage increase in the number of Domestic consumers from 1970 to 1994?
(1) 223% (2) 374% (3) 524% (4) 612%
DIRECTIONS for questions 6 to10: Each of the following questions is followed by two statements.
Mark [1], if the question can be answered by using any of the statements alone but not by using the
other statement alone.
Mark [2], if the question can be answered by using either of the statements alone.
Mark [3], if the question can be answered by using both the statements together.
Mark [4], if the question can not be answered.
7. Is a bag there are less than 40 marbles which are red, blue and black in colour. What is the
probability of picking a black marble?
I The probability of drawing a blue marble is 1/3.
II. The probability of drawing a red marble is 1/24.
9. The sum of the prices of 2 shares X and Y is Rs.160. what is the price of Y?
III. When there is an increase of 10% in one of these of the shares and a decrease of 55 in the
other, there is a change of Rs.6 in Y.
IV. 50 < x < 130
DIRECTIONS for questions 11 to 14: Refer to the data and answer the questions that follow.
Three leading drug manufacturers, ajit Pharma, and Chinku pharma each launch an atipyretic drug. Each
company uses all or some of the 5 components A, B, C,D and E. the table below gives the composition of
these components in their drug.
A B C D E
Ajit Pharma 12 15 20 28 25
Bittu Pharma 37 15 13 15 20
Chinku Pharam 26 15 10 34 15
Above value are in percentage of composition. All manufactures produce their drug as a tablet of 300 mg.
11. .The effectiveness of components A, B, C, D are in the ratio 5 : 6 : 4 : 3, while E is just a sweetner
and does not have any therapeutic. Which of the following company’s tablet is most effective?
(1) Ajit Pharma (2) Bittu Pharma
(3) ChinkuPharma (4) Data Insufficient
12. If the side effects caused by drugs are proportional to the ratio of ‘s composition to the sum of B’s
and E’s composition, which drug has least side effect.
(1) Ajit Pharma (2) Bittu Pharma
(3) ChinkuPharma (4) Data Insufficient
13. Ajit Pharma finds that its sales are dipping, because it drug’s taste is too sweet. So, it decides to
decrease the composition of E and increase that C, keeping other composition unchanged. It also
wants to make sure that the side effect is not more than double its previous value. What could be
the maximum percentage of C’s composition in Ajit’s Drug? (Use data from the previous
questions if necessary).
(1) 25% (2) 30% (3) 34% (4) 37%
14. If in all, million tables are produced by these 3 companies, per annum, the consumption of
component C, annually would be:
(1) 60 kg (2) 90 kg (3) 105 kg (4) Data Insufficient
DIRECTIONS for questions 15 to 19: Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.
JET AIRWAYS
To and From fares are same and the rates are effective from 1st August,2002 to 31st October,2002.
15. Ramesh, an executive of a company at Mumbai visits Delhi, Nagpur and Indors every month and
Mr. Ganesh visits Kolkata, Manglore and Hyderabad every mnth from Mumbai. Find the
difference in th percentager benefit to the company between the rips of Ramesh and Ganesh in the
festival month.
(1) 11 (2) 25 (3) 35 (4) none of these
16. With the discounts offered for Kolkata and Delhi tickets, how many different kinds of tickets can
be bought respectively utilizing the festival benefit for other visits also
(1) 11 & 5 (2) 12 & 6 (3) 17 & 4 (4) 16 & 3
17. The largest absolute discount is what percentage of the lowest absolute discount?
(1) 3.87% (2) 216% (3) 464% (4) 546%
19. Four executives of a company visited one of the four cities Delhi, Bhopal. Ahemdabad and Indore.
All of them left on 29th July, 2002 and came after a weeks visit, by the return flight of the same air
lines. What would have been percentage saving in tickets expenditure if they had postponed their
visit by one week, and returned after a week.
(1) 12% (2) 24% (3) 38% (4) 42%
DIRECTONS for questions 20 to 24: Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow.
The table provides the percentage of total revenues accounted for the top 2 firms, top 4 firms and the top 190
firms in various industries. However, one of the data points in one of the industries is incorrect which is then
corrected by adding or subtracting 4% from the incorrect data.
Industry Top2 form (% of Top 4 Firms (% of Top 10 Firms(% of
total industry) total industry) total industry)
Steel 60 75 100
Oil & gas 50 80 100
Shipping 40 50 100
Leather 4 6 10
Textiles 8 18 30
Sp. Chem 3 5 7
Elevators 100 100 100
Refrigerators 25 40 60
20. Which is the incorrect data point and what is the correct data?
(1) Top4firmsforOil & Gas, 75% (2) Top 4 firms for Leather,55
(3) Top 4 firms for Textiles,14% (4) Top 4 firms for Refrigerators, 45%
21. if the size of the largest steel firms is Rs5000 cr, which of the following cannot be the total size of
the steel industry?
(1) 10,000 cr (2) 12,500 cr (3)15,000 cr (4) 17,000 cr
23. An industry faces restrictions if the top 2 firms form more than 40% of the industry and the top 4
firms more than 60% of the industry. An exception to this is if the largest firm in the industry is
owned firms by the government. Which of the following is true?
(1) Government owned firms can exist in a maximum of 3 industries
(2) 4 industries face restrictions.
(3) The ratio of the number of industries that face restrictions to the number of industries that do
not face restrictions isles than 0.5.
(4) None of above.
24. If were least 2 mergers in the steel industry last year (the year before the data pertains to), how
many firms definitely existed in that industry last year?
(1) 8 (2) 10 (3) 9 (4) 7
DIRECTIONS for Qns. 25 to 29: Consider the following statements where every person gets exactly one
different dish:
1. Ria will not get soup unless Janet gets hot coffee.
2. Gia will not get gums unless Veena gets soup.
3. Veena will not get tea unless Gia gets soup.
4. Janet will not get gums unless Ria gets hot coffee.
5. Janet will not get hot coffee unless Veena gets gums.
6. Gia will not get hot coffee unless Ria gets tea.
7. Gia will not get tea unless Ria gets hot coffee.
8. Ria will not get hot coffee unless Gia gets soup.
9. Veena will not get gums unless Ria gets the hot coffee.
10. Janet will not get tea unless Ria gets gums.
11. Gia will not get soup unless Ria gets gums.
29. Dileep, Martin and Salman married Ranjana, Vidisha and Karuna (not necessarily in that order).
Each of the couples has a son; their names being Saumitra, Shyam and Subhash. Further
i. Ranjana married six months before Karuna did.
ii. Salman was first to marry & Dileep, the last. Al the marriages took place in 1998
between February (month of first marriage) and September (month of last marriage).
iii. None of the couples had a child within one year of their marriage.
iv. Saumitra was born within 16 months of his parents’ wedding. He was not born between
August & Janauary both months inclusive
v. Karuna’s son was born within 16 months of her marriage and Vidisha’s exactly 24
months after the marriage.
vi. Subash was born an American citizen in Janaury.
30. Sangt Kripalchand had been preaching daily how important it was not to tell a lie. At last, Seth
Jhuthamal decided to heed Sant’s teaching. So, henceforth, he would not tell a lie on Monday,
Wednesday, Thursday and Saturday; on other days he would continue to tell lies only.
Presently, a customer comes to his jewellery shop and Seth Juthamal ties to close a sales deal.
“But what is the guarantee that the jewellery is of specified parity” the customer asks.
For today is Tuesday, the Santji’s beloved day, when I don’t speak a lie.
“What if I make purchase tomorrow”, the customer enquires.
“Tomorrow may be too late as being Saturday I may lie that day” insisted Sethji.
So, this is how the conversation took place.
31. Every month Chess Federation of India publishes ranking of Indian Chess Players. They actually
complement the FIDE lists which are brought out at longer intervals. It was seen, observing
monthly lists for last tear, that top six players in the list remained same throughout the year but
there was considerable mutual change of rankings among these six. Thus ranking for January 2003
as follows:
The list of rankings for Feb 2003 had an entirely different look with each of the six ranked in a
position from the previous one. The following facts are known :
1. No one else had his/her ranking changed by as many places as D. Barua, whose change in
ranking was the greatest of the six.
2. The product of Chanda’s ranking for the two months was the same as product of Ganguli’s
ranking for the two months.
Who was ranked 5th in the list for February 2003.
(1)P. Harikrishna (2)D. Barua (3) K. Humpy (4) None of these
where each of the different letters stand for a different digits, E stands for
(1)2 2 .3 (3) 4 (4) None of these
DIERCTIONS for Questions 33 - 35: The coach of Indian Snooker and Billiards team has a novel way of
providing them the required practice and improving the individual’s skill set. He does this through forming
practice teams from among the team members after carefully considering relative strengths and
weaknesses. Presently, he aims to reduce the number of practice teams from 4 – A1, A2, A3, A4 – to 3 to
be called B1, B2 and B3. The players on team A1 are: A, B and C. The players on Team A2 are: D, E, F
and G. The players on team A3 are: H and I. The players on team A4 are: J, K and L. A new team must, of
course, have a minimum of two players. Other conditions are:
1. Each of the new teams (B teams) must contain at least one member from the four original teams
(A teams)
2. K and L have to be in separate teams
3. Any of the B teams cannot contain all the members of any of the A teams.
35. If a B team is constituted of A, C, D and K only, which of the following groups does not
completely represent one of the other B teams?
(1) B, G, L (2) B, E, I (3) B, F, G, H (4) E, H, J, L
38. How many of these three residents are not government officials?
(1) 1 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) Insufficient data
39 What is the order in which the three residents statements are true/false
(1) True, True, False (2) False, False, True
(3) True, True, True (4) Insufficient data
40. In a batch of 120 postgraduate History students each student has to select at least one subject out
of American History, Ancient Indian History. Modern Indian History and History of Modern
Europe. 90 students selected History of Modern Europe and an equal number. American History.
105 students selected Ancient Indian History and an equal number. Modern Indian History. AT
least how many students selected all the four subjects.
(1) 75 (2) 45 (3) 30 (4) Insufficient data
EXERCISE 5
Directions: Q 1 to 4 are based on the following bar charts:
Q.1 Which of the five states manufactured liquor at the lowest cost?
(1) Tamil Nadu
(2) Delhi
(3) The state which has the lowest value for (Wholesale Price – Excise duty)
per litre
(4) Cannot be determined
Q.2 If Excise duty is levied before the goods leave the factory, then which of the following choices
shows the excise duty in ascending order for the year 1986?
(1) ECABD (2) ADEBC (3) DCEBA (4) Cannot be determined
Q.3 By what per cent do the excise duty rates between the closest among the five rates nearly differ?
(1) 2 (2) 13 (3) 1/3 (4) Cannot be determined
Q.4 If the Tamil Nadu Co., with the least simple annual growth in sales in the given period had shown
the same rate of growth as the one which grew fastest, what would that company’s sale have been
in 1988, in lakh cases?
(1) 13 (2) 15.4 (3) 130 (4) Cannot be determined
Q.6 Considering 1985 as the performance base of 100% to which other performances may be referred,
which of the following most closely represents the set of Project Export Performance indices for
’84, ’85, ‘86’, ’87, ’88?
(1) 150, 100, 211, 216, 97 (2) 100, 67, 141, 144, 65
(3) 150, 100, 200, 215, 100 (4) 120, 100, 220, 230, 68
Q.7 Which is the year in which the highest percentage decline is seen in the value of contract secured
compared to the preceding year?
(1) 1985 (2) 1988 (3) 1984 (4) 1986
Directions Q 8 to 13 :The table below shows the estimated cost (in Rs. lakh) of a project of laying a railway
line between two places.
Q.8 If the cost of materials rises by 5% each year from 1990 onwards, by how much w ill the
estimates fall short?
(1) Rs. 11.4 lakh (2) Rs. 16.4 lakh
(3) Rs. 21.4 lakh (4) Rs. 26.4 lakh
Q.9 What ratio does cost of material bear to labour cost approximately?
(1) 4 : 1 (2) 8 : 1 (3) 12 : 1 (4) 16 : 1
Q.10 The total expenditure is required to be kept within Rs. 700 lakh by making a cut equally in all the
years, on expenditure of administration. What will be the percentage cut for 1989?
(1) 22.6 (2) 32.6 (3) 42.6 (4) 52.6
Q.11 If the length of line to be laid each year is in proportion to the provision for material and labour
cost, what fraction of the total length is proposed to be completed in the third year?
(1) 0.9 (2) 0.7 (3) 0.6 (4) 0.3
Q.12 After preparing the estimate, the provision for contingencies is felt inadequate and is therefore
doubled. By what percent does the total estimate increase?
(1) 3.47 (2) 2.45 (3) 1.50 (4) 3.62
Q.13 It is found at the end of 1990, that the entire amount estimated for the project has been spent. But
for 1991, the actual amount spent is equal to that which was estimated. By what per cent
approximately has the actual expenditure exceeded the estimate?
(1) 39 (2) 29 (3) 19 (4) 9
Directions for Q. 14 to 18: The first table gives the number of saris (of all the eight colours) stocked in six
regional showrooms. The second gives the number of saris (of all the eight colours) sold in these six regional
showrooms. The third table gives the percentage of saris sold to saris stocked for each colour in each region.
The fourth table gives the percentage of saris of a specific colour sold within that region. The fifth table gives
the percentage of saris of a specific colour sold across all the regions.
Study the tables and for each of the following questions, choose the best alternative.
Table 1
Region Blue Green Magent Brown Orange Red Violet Yellow Total
a
1 267 585 244 318 132 173 195 83 1994
2 341 480 99 199 234 119 200 109 1781
3 279 496 107 126 100 82 172 106 1468
4 198 307 62 221 65 96 124 91 1164
5 194 338 120 113 82 60 125 124 1156
6 158 261 133 104 71 158 128 82 1095
Total 1437 2454 765 1081 684 688 944 595 8658
Table 2
Region Blue Green Magent Brown Orange Red Violet Yellow Total
a
1 122 164 71 165 40 84 97 45 788
2 124 200 37 78 67 47 73 50 676
3 21 57 7 24 9 14 20 11 163
4 79 85 22 164 18 46 43 54 511
5 29 36 22 17 9 18 19 16 166
6 1 3 2 2 1 3 2 4 18
Total 376 545 161 450 144 212 254 180 2322
Table 3
Region Blue Green Magent Brown Orange Red Violet Yellow Total
a
1 46 28 29 52 30 49 50 54 40
2 36 42 37 39 29 39 37 46 38
3 8 11 7 19 9 17 12 10 11
4 40 28 35 74 28 48 35 59 44
5 15 11 18 15 11 30 15 13 14
6 1 1 2 2 1 2 2 5 2
All 26 22 21 42 21 31 27 30
Table 4
Region Blue Green Magent Brown Orange Red Violet Yellow Total
a
1 15 21 9 22 4 11 12 6 100
2 18 30 5 12 10 7 11 7 100
3 13 35 4 15 6 9 12 7 100
4 15 17 4 32 4 9 8 11 100
5 17 22 13 10 5 11 11 10 100
6 6 14 11 11 6 17 11 22 100
Table 5
Region Blue Green Magent Brown Orange Red Violet Yellow
a
1 32 30 44 37 28 40 38 25
2 33 37 23 17 47 22 29 28
3 6 10 4 5 6 7 8 6
4 21 16 14 36 13 22 17 30
5 8 7 14 4 6 8 7 9
6 0 1 1 0 1 1 1 2
Total 100 100 100 100 100 100 100 100
Q.15 Out of its total sates, which region sold the minimum percentage of green saris?
(1) 1 (2) 6 (3) 4 (4) 2
Q.16 Which region sold the maximum percentage of magenta saris out of the total sales of magenta
saris?
(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 2 (4) 1
Q.18 Which region-colour combination accounts for the highest percentage of sales to stock?
(1) (1, Brown) (2) (2, Yellow) (3) (4, Brown) (4) (5, Red)
Directions for Q. 19 to 22 : The table below give the achievements of Agricultural Development
Programmes from 1983-84 to 1988-89.
Q.19 How much area, in million hectares, was brought under irrigation during the year 1986-87?
(1) 58.20 (2) 1.43 (3) 0.80 (4) 2.23
Q.20 The consumption of chemical fertiliser per hectare of gross cropped area is lowest for the year
(1) 1984-85 (2) 1985-86 (3) 1986-87 (4) 1987-88
Q.21 It is possible that a part of the minor irrigated area is brought under major and medium areas. In
which year has this definitely happened?
(1) 1984-85 (2) 1985-86 (3) 1986-87 (4) 1987-88
Q.22 In which year does the area cropped under high yielding varieties show a decline for the maximum
number of crops?
(1) 1988-89 (2) 1985-86 (3) 1986-87 (4) None of these
Directions for Q. 23 to 30: Each of the following questions is followed by two statements.
Mark 1, if the question can be answered with the help of statement 1 alone.
Mark 2, if the question can be answered with the help of statement 2 alone.
Mark 3, if both statement 1 and statement 2 are needed to answer the question, and
Mark 4, if the question cannot be answered even with the help of both the statements.
Q.23 How long did Mr. X take for the 5000 km journey with 10 stopovers?
(1) The ith stopover lasted i2 minutes.
(2) The average speed between any two stopovers was 66 kmph.
Q.24 A man distributed 43 chocolates to his children. How many of his children are older than five
years?
(1) A child older than five gets 5 chocolates.
(2) A child 5 years or younger gets 6 chocolates.
Q.28 Ramu went by car from Calcutta to Trivandrum via Madras, without any stopping breaks. The
average speed for the entire journey was 40 kmph. What was the average speed from Madras to
Trivandrum?
(1) The distance from Madras to Trivandrum is 0.30 times the distance from Calcutta to
Madras.
(2) The average speed from Madras to Trivandrum was twice that of the average speed from
Calcutta to Madras.
Q.29 X is older than Y, Z is younger than W and V is as old as Y. Is Z younger than X?
(1) W may not be older than V (2) W is not older than V
Q.30 The unit price of product P1 is non-increasing and that of product P2 is decreasing. Five years
hence, which product will be costlier?
(1) Current unit price of P1 is twice that of P2.
(2) 5 years ago, unit price of P2 was twice that of P1.
Directions Q. 31 to 35: Each of these items has a question followed by two statements. As the answer,
mark
1, if the questions can be answered with the help of both the statements but not with the help of
either statement itself.
2, if the question can not be answered even with the help of both the statements.
3, if the question can be answered with the help of statement II alone
4, if the question can be answered with the help of statement I alone
Bankatal works x hours a day and rests y hours a day. This pattern continues for 1 week, with an exactly
opposite pattern next week, and so on for four weeks. Every fifth week he has a different pattern. When he
works longer than he rests, his wage per hour is twice of what he earns per hour when he rests longer than
he works.
The following are his daily working hours for the weeks numbered 1 to 13:
Q.2 Referring to the data given in Q. 187, Bankatlal’s average monthly salary at the end of the first
four months will be:
(1) 1760 (2) 2040 (3) 1830 (4) 1680
Q.3 The new manager Kushaldas stipulated that Rs. 5 be deducted for every hour of rest and Rs.25 be
paid per hour starting the 9th week, then what will be the change in Bankatlal’s salary for the 3rd
month? (Hourly deductions and salaries are constant for all weeks starting 9th week).
(1) 540 (2) 480 (3) 240 (4) 0
Q.4 Using the data in the previous questions, what will be the total earning of Bankatlal at the end of
sixteen weeks.
(1) 7320 (2) 7800 (3) 8400 (4) 7680
Machine M1 as well as Machine M2 can independently produce either Product P or Product Q. The times
taken by machines M1 and M2 (in minutes) to produce one unit of product P and Q are given in the table
below: (Each machine works 8 hours per day).
Product M1 M2
P 10 8
Q 6 6
Q.5 What is the maximum number of units that can be manufactured in one day?
(1) 140 (2) 160 (3) 120 (4) 180
Q.6 If the number of units of P is to be 3 times that of Q, what is the minimum idle time for maximum
total units manufactured?
(1) 0 minutes (2) 24 minutes
(3) 1 hour (4) 2 hours
Q.7 If equal quantities of both are to be produced, then out of the four choices given below, the least
efficient way would be:
(1) 48 of each with 3 minutes idle (2) 64 of each with 12 minutes idle
(3) 53 of each with 10 minutes idle (4) 71 of each with 9 minutes idle.
Q.8 If M1 works at half its normal efficiency, what is the maximum number of units produced, if at
least one unit of each must be produced?
(1) 96 (2) 89 (3) 100 (4) 119
Q.9 What is the least number of machine hours required to produce 30 pieces of P and 25 pieces of Q?
(1) 6 hours 30 minutes (2) 7 hours 24 minutes
(3) 5 hours 48 minutes (4) 4 hours 6 minutes
A company produces five types of shirts - A, B, C, D, E - using cloth of three qualities - High, Medium and
Low - using dyes of three qualities - High, Medium, and Low. The following tables give, respectively:
1. The number of shirts (of each category) produced, in thousands.
2. The percentage distribution of cloth quality in each type of shirt, and
3. The percentage distribution of dye quality in each type of shirt.
Q.12 What is the ratio of low-quality dye used for C-shirts to that used for D-shirts?
(1) 3 : 2 (2) 2 : 1 (3) 1 : 2 (4) 2 : 3
Q.14 What is the ratio of the three qualities of dyes in high-quality cloth?
(1) 2 : 3 : 5 (2) 1 : 2 : 5 (3) 7 : 9 : 10 (4) None of the above.
For 15 to 19 use the following data:
A manufacturer can choose from any of the three types of tests available for checking the quality of his
product. The graph gives the relatives costs for each of these tests for a given percentage of defective pieces.
Relative Cost
0.3
0.25
0.2 Test 1
Test 2
0.15
Test 3
0.1
0.05
0
0 0.05 0.1 0.15 0.2 0.25 0.3
% defective
Q.15 dopting Test-2 will be feasible if the percentage of defective pieces (p) lies between:
(1) 0.10 to 0.020 (2) 0.20 to 0.30
(3) 0.05 to 0.20 (4) 0.00 to 0.05
DIRECTIONS for Q. 20 to 26: The table below provides the data for production of ferrous and non-
ferrous metals in million dollars for the year 1990 and % change for the three periods for the entire world
and regionwise.
Value Non-Ferrous Metals Region Value Ferrous Metals
1990 Annual %change 1990 Annual %change
1980-90 1989 1990 1980-90 1989 1990
8660 6 4 11 World 11350 6 4 12
2308 8 7 15 Asia 2590 8 10 23
670 5 8 14 Japan 665 5 11 20
348 15 6 18 China + HK + Taiwan 393 15 18 28
908 9 8 19 Asian 1075 8 11 25
1408 7 5 11 North America 2632 9 11 17
502 9 7 18 Latin America 678 12 -3 15
3415 4 0 3 Western Europe 4490 4 1 5
3151 4 0 2 European Union (15) 4133 4 2 5
378 7 0 24 C./E Europe/ Baltic 423 5 -12 13
States/USSR
162 8 1 14 Central Europe 255 10 -1 13
147 - 1 34 USSR 80 - -23 12
203 3 10 27 Africa 297 4 -3 7
368 7 28 46 Middle East 300 6 1 14
Q.20 In which of the following regions production of Non-ferrous metals exceeded that of ferrous
metals in 1989?
(1) Asean (2) China + HK + Taiwan
(3) Japan (4) Middle East
Q.21 What was the following regions production of Ferrous metals in million dollars by developing
economies of Asia in 1990 (In Asia Japan is the only developed economy)?
(1) 1256 (2) 1568 (3) 1925 (4) 1638
Q.22 Which of the following values is closest to world production of ferrous metals in the year 1988
(million dollars)?
(1) 13200 (2) 9000 (3) 7500 (4) 9750
Q.23 What percentage of the world production of non-ferrous metals was contributed by non-EU
countries of Western European in 1980?
(1) 6% (2) 36% (3) 3% (4) Indeterminate
Q.24 What was the CAGR of ferrous metals production between the year 1988-90 in USSR,
Central/East Central/East Europe, European Union, Batlic States and non-EU-Western Europe
economies?
(1) 2% (2) 4.1% (3) 3% (4) 0.40%
Q.26 What is value of total metals production of Western of Western Europe in 1988 (million dollars)?
(1) 7730 (2) 7550 (3) 7900 (4) 8300
DIRECTIONS for Q 27 - 13: Each question is followed by two statements A and B. Answer each question
using the following instructions.
Choose (1) if the question can be answered by using statement A alone but not by using B alone.
Choose (2) if the question can be answered by using statement B alone but not by using A alone.
Choose (3) if the question can be answered by using both the statements together, but cannot be
answered using either statement alone.
Choose (4) if the question cannot be answered even by using both the statements together.
Q.27 What is the ratio of radii of the circumcircle and the incircle of a polygon of 12 sides
(A) The polygon is a regular one of side 8 cm.
(B) One angle measures 150°
Q.28 A newspaper boy has 3 TOI, 2 ET and 3 HT in his bag (kept at random). He takes out 2
newspapers at random, without replacement. Does he retain at least one ET?
(A) He takes out 5 more newspapers at random of which there is at least one TOI, one ET and
one HT
(B) He takes out 5 more newspapers at random and there are 2 TOI and 2 HT among them
Q.29 Determine the value of the function f(x) = aloga x
(A) a is a positive real number such that twice of ‘a’ is 8 more than ‘a’ itself
(B) x is 12 less than half of itself
Q.30 If a sequence of numbers a1, a2, a3, …. is given by the rule an2 = an+1, does a multiple of 3 appear in
the sequence?
(A) a1 (B) an
Q.31 Which of the three bowlers in the series of test matches took most wickets?
(I) The first and the third bowlers took twice as many wickets as the second bowler
(II) The second and the third bowlers took three times as many wickets as the first bowler.
Q.33 Is x + y - z + t even?
I. x + y + t is even. II. tz is odd.
9 3 1
A B (2) C
(6) (5) (7) D 8
(4) E 4 (8) F 7 (1) G 2
(3) H 5
(9) I 6
∴E represents 4 and D represents 7 or 8.
1. (2)
2. (4)
Directions for Qs. 3 to 7: Refer to the following data for the following solutions.
Let ‘x’ people have high school education.
∴ 3x have middle school education and 7x have primary school education.
Also as all and middle school educational people have primary school education and all high
school educated people have middle school education, number of people in Category I = 4x,
Category II = 2x, Category III = x.
∴Number of people Category I and II, who do not play any game = x and x/2 respectively.
∴Number of people playing only hockey = Number of people playing only football.
3x
−2
3x − 2 3x − 4
= and 2 = respectively
2 2 4
x−6
Also number of people in category III playing only hockey = = 5 = ⇒ x = 16.
2
3. (3) 3x = 48 people have middle school education.
x−6
4. (3) Number of high school education who do not play football = 5 + = 10.
2
5. (3) Number of people having middle school education but not high school education who
x−6
play only football = = 11.
2
6. (2) Number of such people = Number of people having primary school education
- No. of people having middle school education = 7x – 3x = 4x = 64.
11. (3) From the given options, only (3) i.e. BEF are logically related.
12. (4) Statements BAE are logically related. Hence this is the answer.
13. (1) By combining Statements B and D, we can deduce the statements E. Hence BDE are logically
related.
14. (4)
15. (2) It is given that, Blunders committed by Idiots (I) = 2 (Dumbos) ……(i)
Blunders committed by Fools (F) = 3 (Idiots) and ………. (ii)
Blunders committed by Morons (M) = 4 (Fools) ………… (iii)
As, Fools commit 1200 blunders, hence Moron commit 4800 blunders, Idiots, commit 400
blunders & Dumbos commit 200 blunders from (i) , (ii) & (iii).
Hence total numbers of blunders committed = 1200 + 4800 + 400 + 200 = 6600.
400
16. (2) The population in each group = = 100
4
Let us assume that if Dumbos commit the lest number of blunders i.e. 1, hence blunders
committed by Dumbos group = 1 x 100 = 100.
Note: Others may & may not commit blunders. Hence (2).
400
17. (2) As the population is same in each groups, hence Dumbo’s population = = 100.
4
As every Dumbo commits the same number of blunders as every other Dumbo, so total blunders
committed by Dumbos = 3 x 100 = 300.
Now using equations as shown in Q. 135,
Blunders committed by Idiots, Fools & Morons are respectively 600, 1800 and 7200.
∴Total number of blunders of the day = 300 + 600 + 1800 + 7200 = 9900.
Direction for Qs. 18 to 20: Refer to the following data for the following solutions.
Equation
Salary = n2 + 2 where n > 1 ………….. (1)
Expenses = 2n + 1 where n > 1 ……….. (2)
Saving = n2 – 2n + 1 where n > 1 ………….. (3)
18. (3) Putting the value of savings in equation (3), 100 = n2 – 2n + 1 ⇒ n2 – 2n – 99 = 0, we get n = 11.
Hence the savings would exceed Rs. 100 on 12th day.
20. (1) Putting different values of n starting from 1 in eqn 3 and adding all the savings up to 11th day,
Total saving = Rs. 385, so on 11th day they will buy a first fixed deposit.
Direction for Qs. 21 to 25 : Refer to the following table for the following solutions.
MAYFLOWER LITTLEFLOWER
CUTTING 20 mins 30 mins
STITCHING 60 mins 60 mins
STITCHING BUTTON 15 mins 30 mins
AND BUTTON HOLES
24. (2) Hiring one more assistance increases the time available for stitching buttons and button holes.
Max. No. of uniform those cutter can cut for Mayflower in a day = 1200/20 = 60
Time required by Tailors to stitch 60 uniforms = (60 x 60) = 3600 mins, whereas time available is
3000 mins only.
Hence maximum No. of uniform that can be stitched in a day = 3000/60 = 50
Time consumed by assistant to stitch buttons to 50 uniform = (50 x 50) = 750 mins
Time available for assistant = (3 x 10 x 60) = 1800 mins.
Hence 50 uniforms can be completed in a day.
25. (1) Max. number of uniforms that can be cut by those 2 cutters in a day for MayFlower is 60. And the
buttons and buttonholes can be easily stitched by the 2 assistant for these 60 uniforms in a day in
the time available for them. While 5 tailors can stitch only 50 uniforms in the available time.
Hence, A lord will hire 1 tailor to get maximum increase in production capacity in a day.
26. (2) From statement A alone
4n + 48 = 102
4n = 52
n= 13
A alone is sufficient.
From statement B alone:
Numbers whose squares lie between 150 and 250 are 13, 14 and 15
Among these A, only 13 is a prime number.
:. B alone is sufficient.
27. (4) Even upon using both the statements we can only conclude that two of the opposite sides are
parallel and sum of 2 angles is 180°.
In order to conclude that ABCD is a rectangle which is also a cyclic quadrilateral we also need to
know whether the opposite sides are equal in length.
x
y
A C C
A z
Given, sum of areas of semi-circles x, y and z is 100π
If BC = a cm, AC = b cm, AB = c cm.
Area of semi-circle x is π/2 a2/4 cm2
Area of semi circle y is π/2 c2/4 cm2
Area of semi circlezx is π/2 b2/4 cm2
½ π/4 (a2 + b2 +c2) =100π
a2 + b2 + c2 = 400
We know that in ∆ABC
a2 = b2 +c2 = ∴2 (b2 + c2) = 800
b2 + c2 = 400
b2 + c2 = a2 = 400 ⇒ a = 20
⇒ b or c = 10√3 and ⇒ the sides are 10, 10√3, 20
∴ the perimeter = 30 + 10√3 cm
36.(2) Number of Maruthi cars sold in 1 994 = 40% =1000,000 Number of Fiat cars sold in 1994 » 20%
= 500,000
⎛ 30 ⎞
37.(4) Fiat in1995 → 1125⎜ × 1500⎟
⎝ 40 ⎠
⎛ 15 ⎞
Fiat in 1996 → 818⎜ × 3000 ⎟
⎝ 55 ⎠
⎛ 35 ⎞
Fiat in 1997 → 1167⎜ × 1500⎟
⎝ 45 ⎠
Ambassador in 1997 → 334
Ambassador in 1998 → 423
On observation we can see that all the statements are true.
46. (1) 47. (4) 48. (1) 49. (4) 50. (1)
EXERCISE 2
Direction for Qs. 1 to 5: Refer to the following information the following solutions.
From clues I & III we can conclude that B is always present and one only one of A & C is always present.
Also note that when D goes than the only combination possible agents is D-E-G and from clues IV, in such
a case A should be included.
1. (3)
2. (4)
3. (2) From clues IV & VI we conclude that F – G – H are the recruitment agents that should be
included. Hence only one combination is possible.
4. (1)
5. (2) From previous solutions we know that F, G and B all can go with C,
Directions for Qs. 6 to10 : Refer to the following table for the following solutions.
The following table gives the moves that can be made for the mentioned conditions. The underlined
positions indicate your position after nth move.
6. (4)
7. (3)
8. (4) By moving a step anticlockwise in the first move, you reach at 12 O’clock. From here you can
reach
(1) 10’O Clock through 12 – 11 - 10
(2) 5 ‘O clock through 12 – 6 – 5
(3) 7 ‘O Clock through 12 – 6 – 7.
But you cannot reach 6 ‘O Clock.
9. (2)
10. (3) Your mother’s husband ⇒ your father. Your father’s sister ⇒ your aunt. So, the lady’s aunt is the
man’s aunt ⇒ the man and the lady are brother and sister.
11.(3) M is the maternal uncle of R means m is the brother of R‘s mother (say K) i.e., M + K – R.
Direction for Qs. 12 to 13 : Refer to the following information for the following solutions.
We are given that A visited at 8 O’clock. Now from III we conclude that A visited at 8 p.m. Now from I we
concluded that B has to visit at 9 a.m. otherwise nobody will be able to visit in between A & B. Now if D
were to visit at 11 p.m. then condition IV will get violated hence we concluded that D visited at 11 a.m. and
C visited at 10 p.m. From here all the questions are answered.
12. (2)
13. (3)
14. (3) As X2Y3 = 8, either X or Y or both are fractional. From statement B, we get that X is rational.
8
Therefore, X2 is either and integer or a fraction. Therefore, X2 = 3
will either be an integer or
γ
a fraction, So either X or Y is a fraction.
15. (1) Statement A alone is sufficient to say that B is not prime. However, statement B alone is not
sufficient.
16. (3) From statement A we can conclude that 3x is even. As y is an integer (by virtue of it being odd)
from statement B, we can conclude that 10y is even. The sum of two even numbers will be even.
17. (4) From statement A we cannot conclusively state which of the three is largest as they could all be
positive or negative. From statement B we know that xyz is positive as xyz – y2 (as y2 will always be
positive for real values of y) is positive. This is possible in two cases, I. All of x, y and z are positive
in this case z is the greatest II. Y is negative and one of x and z is negative. Hence we cannot
conclude even if we combine the two statements.
18. (4) From both the statements we know the ratio of the speeds and the times at which they met.
Without knowing the distance between the two cities X and Y, we will not be able to find out the
speed of L or M.
19. (4) Those S which are M are not P. Hence some S are not P.
20. (3)
21. (3) Those ‘M’ are not ‘P’ are ‘S’ because all ‘M’ are ‘S’
23. (2)
24. (4) Because the minority might consist of thousand of people, the opposition might not be inconsistent
with the speaker’s remarks.
25. (2)
26. (1) Since the number of persons per household can be assumed to be a constant, the ratio of x1 to x2 is
the same as the ratio of the number of property crimes per1000 households in 1975 to that in 2000.
560
This value is = 3 :1 .
180
27. (1) Let the number of households in thousands be T1 in 2000 and T2 in 2050. The total number of
property crimes in 2000 is, therefore, T1 × 180. This will reduce to T1 × 180 × 0.71 × 0.71. The
number of property crimes per thousands households in 2050 is, therefore, T1 × 180 × 0.71 ×
0.71/T2/ Since the number of persons per households remains constant, the ratio of T1/ T2 is the
same as the ratio of the populations. The ratio of the populations is (157+ 2.3 × 50)/ (157 +2.3 ×
100). The required answer comes out to be approximately 63.
28. (1) Let x be the number of aggravated assaults per thousand population. The number of robberies is x
– 1.8 and the number of simple assaults is 3x. From the graph, we get the sum of all the three as
27. Hence x – 1.8 + x+{ 3x = 27, giving x = 5.76 and x – 1.8 = 3.96. The total number of robberies
is, therefore, (3.96/1000) × (1.57 + 2.3 × 50) ×106 = 1.1 × 106.
29. (3)
30. (2) The number of property crimes in 2000 was 180 × H where H is the number of households in the
thousands in 2000.
The number of violent crimes in 1975 was 49 × P1 where P1 is the population in 1975 in
H P1 3.67
thousands. Therefore, 180 × = 1.45 which gives =
49 × P1 H 1.45
P2
The quantity required is where P2 is the population in 2000.
H
157 + 2.3 × 50 272 272 3.67
But P2/ P1= = . Therefore P2/ H= × ≈ 3.2 .
157 + 2.3 × 25 214.5 214.5 1.45
31. (1) Week 1, for detailed solution refer the table below.
32. (2) 50, for detailed solution refer the table below.
33. (2) 200 units’ week 3, for detailed solution refer the table below.
The gross requirement of leg is 200 and 600 in week 3 out of 300 in – hand units of legs, 200 units
would be used for wek2 requirement and the rest units would be used for meeting the requirements
of week 3. Therefore net requirement of week would be 600 – 100 = 500 units of legs for meeting
the demand of finished table of week 5.
Week 1
As lead – time increased by 1 week so planned order release would be by one week ahead.
a b b c
36. (3) I. < <
3 4 2 3
⇒ 4a < 3b ⇒ 3b < 2c
⇒a<b ⇒ b<c
(as both a & b are positive) ( ∴b & c are positive)
But, this is not sufficient as nothing is known about d till now
a d c d
II. < <
4 6 4 3
⇒ 6a < 4d ⇒ 3c < 4d
⇒a<d
This means a < d, but nothing can be concluded about the value of d compared to b or c.
When we combine I & II,
We get 3b < 2c or 9b < 6c & 3c < 4d or 6c < 8d
Which can be represented as 9b< 6c < 8d ⇒ 9b < 8d ⇒ b < d
We know that b < c & a < b. this shows that a is smallest and b the second smallest number, even
thought which is greater between c & d cannot be decided.
39. (3) Let r & R be the radius of sphere & cone respectively.
Let h be the height of the cone.
4 3
Volume of sphere = πr
3
1 2
Volume of cone = πR h
3
I. Radius of cone, R = 2r
4 3 1 2
∴Volume of sphere = πr & volume of cone = π × 4r h
3 3
4 3
πr
3 r
Ratio of volume of sphere to that of cone = = . Hence, I is not sufficient.
1 2 h
π × 4r h
3
II. Height of the cone, h = r.
But, this alone cannot give us the ratio. Hence, II is also not sufficient.
Combining I & II
r
Ratio = = 1 (∴r = h)
h
40. (4) I. D is the tallest among C, D & E. But, we don't know anything about
A & B. Hence, I is not sufficient.
II. B is not shorter than D, means B is either taller than or equal to D, But, this is not
sufficient, as nothing is known about C & E. Combining I & II,
We get that D is the tallest of C, D & E. And B not shorter of A & B. Between B & D it is opt
known whether they are equal or B is taller, which means either B is the tallest in the group or A;
B & D both are the tallest in the group hence we cannot decide.
41. (4) It y is dropped, XZ must be selected. Since Z is there, N cannot be taken hence M and P must be
taken.
42. (4) It L is taken, we cannot take Y hence XZ must be taken and also P.
43. (2) If Y and Z are taken, L and N cannot be taken hence M and P must be taken
44. (2) Visually, we see US has reported more than 21,000 cases.
46. (4) West Germany = 222, France 555 Reqd ratio = 222 : 555 = 2 : 5
2. (4) Since the actual number of institutes in Hyderabad is not mentioned, even both the statements are
insufficient.
4. (4) Since the weights of the balls mentioned are not given, ft is not possible to determine the heavier
box.
6. (4) Since the angle given is 80' in (I) and the time between 3' clock and 4" clock in (II), we can see
that there can be two values, hence no unique answer possible.
10. (1) As per statement II alone, a sum of Rs.8 can be arrived at by adding 2 and 3 in the form 2 + 3x2 =
8 i.e. one pencil and two pens
11. (1) Three tablets/day would mean the hypertensive has to be taken 90 times in 30 days
The increase 2.50……> 10 tablets
hence for 2.50 x 9 = 22.50 for 90 tablets Asthmatic has to consume…> 30 tablets 6.00x3= 18.00
∴The total increase = 22.50 +18 = 40.50
1.00 2 2
12. (4) × 100 = × 100 = 66 %
1.50 3 3
14. (3) Since he may change the order in which he takes the tablets it is not possible to determine
15. (1) To arrive at the correct value of the total sales of Fuels the inter company sales figures should be
subtracted from the present total sales. To be subtracted from 100%
PRL ⇒ 50 + 10 + 40 = 100% i.e. has sold all its sales to other companies only ⇒ correct sales =
0%
OICL⇒ 15 + 20 + 10 = 45
⇒ (100 - 45)% of 30% = 16.5%
PHCL ⇒ 20 + 20 + 20 = 60
⇒ (100 - 60)% of 25% = 10%
PBCL ⇒ 30 + 10 + 35 = 75
⇒ (100 - 75)% of 20% = 5%
OTHERS ⇒ 10 + 5 + 10 = 25
⇒ (100 - 25)% of 15% = 11.25%
∴ Actual sales:
= (0 + 16.5 + 10 + 5 + 11.25) = 42.75% of given sales
∴% by which total sales of fuels were over estimated
(100 − 42.75)
× 100 ≅ 135%
42.5
17. (3) We need to find that company for which Total sales are less than total purchases = S-P is
minimum (and -ve) i.e. S is minimum and P is maximum S is from the pie chart and P is the sum
of purchases obtained from the columns in the table. By observation alone
OTHERS have purchased far more than any of the rest.
And its sales are also minimal for both lubes and fuels.
19. (1) The correct sates figures for Fuels have already been calculated in solution (1) and in similar
manner we calculate those of lubes
OTHERS ⇒ [100 - (15+5+15)] x 25% = 16.25%
PHCL ⇒ [100 - (10+25+40)] x 20% = 5%
OICL ⇒ [100-(20+40)] x 15% = 6%
PBCL ⇒ [100 - (15+5+25)] x 30% = 16.5%
Now total sales of lubes =% x that of fuels ⇒ effect values for above are OTHERS ⇒ 8.125
PHCL ⇒ 2.5% (of total sales of fuels)
OICL ⇒ 3%
PBCL ⇒ 8.25%
The total correct sales value of fuels and lubes put together maximum is for OTHERS ⇒ 11.25 +
8.125 =19.375
PBCL⇒ 5+ 8.25 =13.25%
OICL ⇒ 16.5 + 3 = 19.5%
PHCL⇒ 10 + 2.5 = 12.5%
∴OTHERS is second in terms of (correct) total value of sales of fuels and lubes put together.
20. (1) Let the amount of paddy to be processed = q kg. the amount of rice it yields = q x 0.95 = 0.95 q
out of this if you exclude 6% broken
⎛ 6 ⎞
0.95q⎜ 1 − ⎟ = 0.893q
⎝ 100 ⎠
∴So the rice you get = 0.893q ∴0.893q x 8 = 14.288
0.893q = 1786 q = 2000 kg.
21. (3) The rice produced by processing 10.000 kg of paddy = 9,500 kg.
if the brokens increase by 2% of 9,500 ⇒ 190 kg
of additional brokens 190 kg of fine nee less ⇒190 x 8 = 1520 but this is offset by 190 x 2 = 380
profit over sale of additional brokens 1, 520 – 380 = Rs.1, 140
24. (3) If tiger is not opposite to Gorilla, then the order of the animals are as follows.
Elephant Gorilla Giraffe Antelope Deer
Chimpanzee Horse Zebra Bear Tiger
Lion Wolf
Then Gorilla is adjacent to Elephant.
27. (3) If elephant is shifted to the 12tH cage and deer is adjacent to gorilla, then the order in which the
animals are arranged in the cages is
Wolf Lion Tiger Bear Zebra Horse
Chimpanzee Deer Gorilla Giraffe Elephant
Gorilla is opposite to tiger.
28. (3) 1 2 3 4 5
C E A D B
C, E, A are in that order as C's number is less than E's as E's is less than A's. Hence C, D and A
can only take box numbers 1, 2 and 3. Therefore B has to be in box number 5.
It is given that the number of games played by each player is different, i.e. one player plays one game,
another plays two games and so on. With the given information we can conclude that
From (6) Tarif does not plays weightlifting because cycling is the only common of Rasool and Tarif.
3 players participates in swimming and the most common game is weightlifting. Hence 4 players
participates in weightlifting,
From (6), Rasool does not play Tennis
All the players play at least two games except Surender. From Statement (1) we get Surender plays only
one game and
Qureshi plays all the five games and Pranay do not play cycling,
From (3) Tarif do not play swimming.
Hence, the final arrangement is as follows.
35. (3) The common game among Pranay, Qureshi and Rasool are swimming and weight lifting. Hence
(1) is not true.
The common game among Qureshi and Tarif is cycling and tennis. Hence (2) is not true. All the
four games except Tennis are played by Qureshi and Rasool is true.
37. (2) When the first 10, 20, (and so on) players are sent back in that order the row is gradually "and
completely reversed after every 80 players who are sent back. Total number of players sent back = 10 +
20 +.... 80 = 360
i.e. (80 x 4) * 40 ^ effectively only the first 40 players have been sent to the end of the row and hence
the player numbered 5 will be in the 40 + 5 = 45th position.
38. (2) It is given that A wears Black shirt means A cannot wear black trouser, blue trouser, white trouser.
Hence he wears either Red or Green trouser
Similarly, D wears Green shirt means he cannot wear green trouser, black trouser, white trouser.
Hence he wears either Red or Black trouser. It is also given that D does not wear Black trouser.
Hence D weans Red trouser and A wears Green trouser. It was also given that neither B nor E
wears the Blue trouser. Hence, C wears the Blue trouser.
Solutions for questions39 to 42:
39. (2) The sector recording a decrease of 8 percentage points is medicine the sector recording a 5
percentage of points increase is education the difference in amounts allocated in 1992 will be
15 10
2,50,000× − 2,50,000× = 12,500
100 100
40. (4) The year in 4 sectors = Rural Development is 1992; the difference between maximum and
minimum allocations is
⎛ 15 10 ⎞
2,50,000⎜ − ⎟
⎝ 100 100 ⎠
5
= = 2,50,000× = Rs.12,500
100
41. (1) In the year 1992 medicine + agriculture is 15% + 15% = 30%
42. (4) The maximum percentage increase is for the rural development
∴the difference in outlay for two years 1, 25, 000 - 80, 000 = Rs.45, 000
43. (4) The states with a growth greater than 10% are Sikkim, Tripura, Assam, West Bengal.
Total production = 0.6 + 18 + 45 + 72 + 84 + 102 = 321.6
Production of states which show more than 10% increase
= 321 .6 - (0.6 + 45) = 276
276/321 = 85.8%
44. (3) The maximum % increase in 1994-95 is for the state of Tripura which is 33.33%. Where as the
least percentage decrease is zero in case of Manipur
∴ x2/y2 is undefinable.
46. (3) The state which records 33% increase is Tripura has 19% of the lot at production for the year
1993-94.
47. (2) Total trees = 21.600
Cherries are 37.5% of total = 3/8 x 21600 - 8100
Fruit yielding cherry tree are 61% of 8100
= 3/5x8100+ 1% of 8100
= 4860 + 81 = 4941
48. (1) Apricot fruit yielding trees = 12.5% of 87% of 21600. = 10.87% of 21600
Peach fruit yielding trees = 12% of 78% of 21600 = 9.36% of 21600
∴10.87% of 21600- 9.36% of 21600 = 1.51% of 21600 = 327
50. (3) The percentage of fruit yielding plum trees as a percentage of fruit yielding peach trees is
10.01
× 100 = 107%
9.36
51. (1) Only S3, S6, S7 and S8 have qualified and among these it is dear (by addition) that 106.5 marks is
the highest for S3.
54. (1) (a) Maximum score in RC is 37.5 and was secured by S2. yet he did not
qualify. Hence statement I is true.
(b) 82 is the person with the maximum grand total and he did get the maximum in VA and
RC sections arid hence statement II is false.
(c) S6 has made maximum attempts. Not S8. Hence statement III is false.
Hence only statement I is true.
Alternatively,
⎛ 1 1⎞
Using both the statements, the probability of drawing a black marbles 1 - ⎜ + ⎟
⎝ 24 3 ⎠
(since there are only red, blue and black marbles). Hence (3)
8. (3) Possible values of x can be 1, 2, 3, 6, 17, 34, 51, 102
Form I : x + 17 is divisible by 3
∴x + 2 is also divisible by 3 which is possible when x = 1or 34
From II : x + 2 is divisible by 4 which is possible when x = 2, 6, 34
∴Using both statements, we have only one common value of x, i.e., 34. Hence (3)
9. (3) From I : Y can either be Rs.60 or Rs.120
From Y = 60, X = 100
When Y = 120, X = 40
From II, x > 50, therefore the 2nd case does not apply.
∴x =100; y =60
∴Both statements are required. Hence (3)
10. (3) From I : ∠B > ∠A
From II : We know B + C = 1100
∴(B + C)2 =12,100
B2 + 2BC + C2 = 12,100
∴BC= 2400
2400
∴B + = 110 0
B
B – 110B + 2400 = 0
B = 80 OR B = 30
B>A
∴∠B = 1800 – (70 + 80)0
∠C = 300
∴Both statements are necessary. Hence (3)
11. (2) Let the effectiveness of A, B, C and D be 5x, 6x, 4x and 3x respectively then, total effectiveness
of Ajit’s drug ⇒ 12 × 5x + 15 × 6x + 20× 4x + 28× 3x = 314x
that of Bittu’s and drug ⇒ 37 × 5x + 15 × 6x + 13× 4x + 15× 3x = 372x
that of Chinku’s drug ⇒ 26 × 5x + 15 × 6x + 10× 4x + 34× 3x = 362x
Alternatively,
The most effective drug B is in equal proportion in all drugs. Now the second most effective is A,
Ajit‘s pharma can be easily eliminated as it has very less proportion of A compared to Bittu’s and
Chinku’s drug.
Again, Ajit pharma: 37× 5+ 13 × 4+ 15 × 3 = 82
Bittu’s pharma : 26 × 5 + 10 × 4 + 34 × 3 = 272 Hence (2)
C
12. (3) Side effect
B+ E
20 1
For Ajit’s drug, it I, =
15 + 25 2
13
For Bittu’s drug, it is, = 0.37
15 + 20
10 1
Fro Chinku’s drug, it is, . = Hence (3)
15 + 15 3
13. (2) Let the new composition of E be 25 – x and that of be 20 + x.
20 + x
then, ≤1
15 + 25 − x
20 + x ≤ 20
x ≤ 10
∴Maximum composition of C is 20 + 10 = 30%. Hence (2)
14. (4) We cannot answer this, unless the production of individual companies are given. Hence (4)
15. (4)
16. (3) The discount in Kolkata ticket is Rs.3535
and the discount in Delhi ticket is Rs. 2175
So with Rs.3535 ticket for 17 destination can be bought (any one of them except Delhi0 and with
Rs.2175 tickets for 4 destinations i.e. Ahemedabad, Pune, Indore and Aurangabad can be bought
(any one of them 0. So answer is 17 & 4. Hence (3)
17. (4) Maximum discount in numerical terms is in Kolkata ticket.
It is 6855 – 3320 = Rs. 3535
Lowest discount same way for Aurangabad is 647 Rs.
So Rs. 3535 is almost 546% of Rs. 647. Hence, (4)
18. (3) less than 50%
19. (2)
Case I Case II
To From To From
Delhi 6095 3920 3920 3920
Bhopal 4125 2371 2371 2371
Ahemedabad 3255 2017 2017 2017
indore 3360 1965 1965 1965
16835 10273 10273 10273
So Expenditure in I case =27108
So Expenditure in II case = 20546
The solving in the second case = 6562it is approx. 24%. Hence (2)
20. (3) From the options, it is obvious that only the top 4% numbers must be evaluated.
The average size of the 3rd and 4th largest firms must be less than or equal to the average size of
the first two firms.
Based on an inspection, the jump in textiles appears to be very large. The average fro the 3rd and
(18 − 8) 8
4th firms is = 5 . However, the first two firms’ average is only = 4 . Hence, it is
2 2
incorrect and needs to be corrected by subtracting 4%. Hence (3)
Only option (3) shows the correction by 4%.
21. (4) The solution lies in estimating the size of the largest firms as a proportion of the total industry.
(75 − 60)
Since the 3rd largest firms ≥ average of the 3rd and 4th firms, The 3rd largest firms ≥ or
2
7.5%
Hence, the 2nd largest firms ≥ 7.5% or the largest firms ⇐ 60 – 7.5 = 52.5%
Also, largest firms ≥ average of the top 2 firms
Hence, the largest firms ≥ 60/2 or 30%.
5000 5000
Hence, the size of the steel industry is between (about 9500) and (16667) . Hence, (4)
0.525 0.3
is not possible Hence (4)
22. (2) It is obvious that steel, oil & gas shipping and Elevators have less than 20 firms.
Now, the average size of the top 10 firms ≥ the average size of all the remaining firms. Consider
10
the leather industry. The average size of the top 10 firms = = 1% . Hence, each of the
10
90
remaining firms cannot be larger than 1% and there must be at least = 90 such firms. In all,
1
then there must be at least 100 firms.
Similarity, Textiles has at least 17 firms. Hence, leather, textiles and chemicals definitely have at
least 20 firms. Hence (2)
23. (4) Option (1) is a red herring and is false. Applying these rules, it can be seen that a maximum of 3
industries can face restrictions (Steel, Oil & Gas and Elevator). We do not know the number of
industries where the largest firms is government owned. Hence, options (2) and (3) cannot be
evaluated. Hence (4)
24. (2) Consider the current year. Maximum possible size of the 4th largest firms = average of 3rd and 4th
(75 − 60)
largest firms= = 7.55 of the industry. Assuming the remaining firms (the firms other
2
100 − 75)
than the top 4 firms) are the same size (7.5%), there would have been or 3.33 or 4 firms
7.5
other than the top 4. Hence, a total of at least 8 firms in this year. There were at least 2 mergers
last year. Hence, last year’s minimum = 8 + 2 =10. Hence (2)
25-28.
For this caselet consider possibilities one by one. E.g. first suppose Ria gets soup then Janet gets
hot coffee (statement 1), Venna gets gums (statement 5) and Ria gets hot coffee (statement 9)
which contradicts our supposition; hence, rejected.
Next suppose Gia gets soup then Ria gets gums (statement 11). Then if Janet get hot coffee, Veena
gets gums (statement 5), which is not possible. So, Janet gets tea and remaining Veena gets hot
coffee.
25. (1) 26. (3) 27. (2) 28. (4) 29. (3) 30. (3) 31. (2) 32. (4)
33. (2) Two other teams each must have at least 3 members.
34. (1) This team contains members from two of the original teams only.
35. (1) Since neither of two new teams has any member from team A3, both members of A3 will have to be
accommodated in the third team which, however, is not allowed.
1. (4) The data is insufficient as the manufacturing cost of the liquor is not mentioned anywhere for any
of the states.
2. (4) The data is insufficient, as the excise duty per litre for the year 1986 is not mentioned.
3. (4) The data is insufficient, as the amount of liquor supplied to four states is not mentioned. The
amount of liquor supplied in Tamil Nadu is only mentioned and moreover for the first bar graph
the year is not mentioned.
4. (4) The data is insufficient as the sales for the period is not mentioned in the question. Therefore, the
answer is 4.
5. (1) The average value of the contract secured during the years = (100.5 + 67 + 141 + 143.9 + 65)/5 =
103.48
6. (2) Considering 1985 as the performance base of 100% i.e. 67 = 100% the figure for the indices for
different years are shown in the table below:
Index is calculated as 67 = 100 (Base year 1985)
Index for 1984 is therefore = 100/67 × 100.5 = 150 (contract secured is 100.5)
7. (2) There is decline in contract secured only in the year 85 and 88 compared to the previous year. The
highest % decline in the value of contract secured is for year 1988 = {(143.9 - 65)/143.9} ×
100 = 54.82%
14. (1) Referring table 5, we can directly say that % of blue sari sold is maximum in the region 2 = 33%
15. (2) Referring table 4, we can say directly say that minimum % of green sari is sold in region 6 = 14%
16. (4) Referring table 5, it is quite obvious that % of magenta saris sold is maximum for region 1 = 44%
17. (2) The popularity of any colour in any region can be checked by looking the % sale of that colour in
that region i.e. referring table 4. The most popular colour in region 12 is brown
18. (3) Refer to table 3 to know % of saris sold to saris stocked for each colour in each region.
The region-colour combination that accounts for the highest % of sales to stock is (4, Brown) =
74%
19. (4) The area which was brought under irrigation in 1986-87 = (24 - 23.2) + (34.2 - 32.77) = 2.23
million hectares
20. (1) Consumption of chemical fertilisers per hectare of gross cropped area is given by {Total
consumption of chemical fertiliser/gross cropped area}
The consumption of chemical fertiliser per hectare of gross cropped are is lowest for the year
1984-85 = (3.68 + 1.21 + 0.62)/173.1 = 0.0318 ton per hectare
21. (4) In year 1987-88 a part of minor irrigated area is brought under major and medium areas as it was
the cumulative figures and hence data for minor irrigation for 1987-88 must be greater than the
previous year, but it is not so.
22. (1) Refer to the table showing High yielding varieties. In year 1988-89, wheat jowar and bajra shows
a decline from previous year and that is the maximum number of crop.
23. (3) The travelling time was 5000/66 hours. The stopping time was 12 + 22 + 32 + … + 10² minutes.
24. (3) If the number of children older than 5 years of age is x and the number of children younger than 5
years of age is y, then 5x + 6y = 43. The only values of x and y satisfying the equation are x = 5
and y = 3.
25. (2) P lies between 2371 and 2379. If P is divisible by 4, it could be 2372 or 2376. But if it is divisible
by 9, it can only be 2376.
26. (2) [(x-1 - y-1)/(x-2 - y-2)] = (1/x - 1/y)(1/x² - 1/y²) = 1/(1/x + 1/y). If x and y are both greater than 2, 1/x
and 1/y are both less than 0.5. Hence 1/x + 1/y is less than 1, or its reciprocal is greater than 1.
27. (3) x + z = 2x + (y - x) + (z - y) = 2x + 2 + 2 = 2x + 4. Since x is odd (dos not have a factor 2), 2x + 4
is not divisible by 4.
28. (3) Let the average speed from C to M be s, and the distance be x. Then from M to T, the speed is 2s
and the distance is 0.3x. Average speed of the entire journey = distance / time = (x + 0.3x) / (x/s
+ 0.3x/2s) = 2.6s/2.3 = 40.
29. (2) If w is not older than V, he is younger than or the same age as Y. Hence Z is younger than X.
30. (4) The change in the prices of the two products over the next five years cannot be determined.
31. (2) x - y will always be 2. x + y < 10 does not specify the numbers.
32. (4) If CP is 80% of SP, then SP is 125% of CP, or the profit is 25%.
33. (1) If the length is I, the breadth is 48/1, and the diagonal is √[i² + (48/l)²] = 10. Hence I can be found.
34. (3) If a price reduction of 50% enables me to buy 48 bananas in Rs. 12, I can buy 48 bananas for Rs.
24 at the original price. ∴ The price of a banana is 50 paise.
35. (4) The only two positive numbers whose squares add up to 116 are 4 and 10.
EXERCISE 6
Direction for 1 to 4: First of all derive a general formula for Bankatlal’s monthly salary
Thus for every month, 1st & 3rd week and 2nd week must be identical.
Salary per day in 1st & 3rd week = KY, where k = wage per hour
Salary per day in 2nd & 4th week = kX/2
Total monthly salary = 1{ky + kX/2} = 6k(2Y + X), where
x = hours of rest per day, Y = working hours per day in the 1st week of the month.
Direction for 1 to 4
1. (1) Fro the 1st month X = 2, Y = 5, so total salary = 6x 20 (2x 5 + 2) = Rs. 1440.
2. (3) Total salary for 4 months = [1440 + 120 {(2 × 7 + 3) + (2x 6 + 4) + (2x 8)}] = Rs. 7320
7320
Average Salary = = Rs.1830.
4
3. (2) Under New Scheme salary per day in 9th & 11th week = 25 × 6 - 5x4 = Rs. 130
Under New Scheme salary per day in 10th & 12th week = 25 × 4 - 4x6 = Rs. 70
Under New Scheme total salary for 3rd month = 12 (130 + 70) = Rs. 2400
Under previous scheme total salary for 3rd month = 120 (2 × 6 + 4) = Rs. 1920
Difference = 2400 - 1920 = Rs. 480.
4. (2) As per the conditions salary for first 3 months = (!440 + 2040 + 2400) = Rs. 5880
For 4th month salary per day in 13th & 15th week = 8 × 25 = Rs. 200
For 4th month salary per day in 14th & 16th week = - 8 × 5 = (- 40)
Total salary for 4th month = 12 (200 - 40) = Rs. 1920
Total salary for 16 weeks = {1440 + 2040 + 2400 + 19
5. (2) In order to manufacture maximum number of units, make Q on both the machines as time taken
for manufacturing one unit of Q is less on both the machines. And maximum number of units
obtained = {(8 + 8) × 60}/6 = 160.
6. (1) As per the given condition number of units of P should be three times that of Q. One unit of P
takes less time on M2 as compared to that on M1. So manufacture P on all the time available on
M1, number of units of P obtained = (8 × 60)/8 = 60. Now number of units of Q required to fulfil
the given condition = (60/3) = 20. Time taken to manufacture 20 units of Q on M2 = 20 × 6 = 120
min. Remaining time available on machine M2 = (8 × 60) - (120) = 360 min. In this time
manufacture 3 units of P followed by 1 unit of Q & continue till all the available time is utilised.
Time taken to manufacture 3 units of P & 1 unit of Q on M1 = (3 × 8 + 6) = 30 min. Thus in 360
min 36 units of P & 12 units of Q will be manufactured & idle time will be zero.
7. (3) Here four different method is given and to compare each method we will bring them into common
platform so that we can compare them. Taking the LCM of 48, 64, 53 and 71 which will give total
number quantities to be manufactured and hence we will see which method is taking maximum
idle machine hour to manufactured this number of quantities. LCM of 48, 64, 53 and 71 = 722496
By method a) Total idle machine hours (722496 × 3)/48 = 45156 min
b) Total idle machine hours (722496 × 12)/64 = 135468 min
c) Total idle machine hours (722496 × 10) = 136320 min
d) Total idle machine hours (722496 × 9)/71 = 91584
From above it is very clear that method c) is maximum idle hours hence it is the least efficient
method. Answer is 3).
8. (4) If M1 works at half of its normal efficiency, time taken by M1 to manufacture 1 unit of P = 20
min. and Q = 12 min. And now maximum number of units obtained = (8 × 60)/12 + (8 × 60 - 8)/6
+ 1 = (41 + 472/6) = 119 (consider only complete units).
9. (1) In order to take minimum time manufacture P on M2 & Q on M1. Number of machine hours
required = (30 × 8 + 25 × 6)/60 = 6.50 hours.
10. (1) Total requirement of cloth = Total number of shirts x cloth required per shirt = (20 + 30 + 30 + 10
+ 10) 1000 × 1.5 = 150,000 m.
11. (3) Total quantity of high quality cloth consumed by A shirts = (80% of 20000) × 1.5 = (4/5) × 30000
= 24,000 m.
13. (2) Total low quality cloth consumed = 1.5 {(3/10)x60 + (2/5) × 10 + (9/10) × 10} 1000 = 46,500 m.
14. (3)
15. (3) One can logically assume that a test will be feasible if its relative cost is lower than that of any other
test. Test -2 has the lowest relative cost in the range 0.05% to 0.2%, so the answer is (c).
16. (4) For p = 0.2, both, Test-2 and Test - 3 have the same relative cost, so both of them are feasible.
17. (1) Test-3 has the lowest relative cost for the range p > 0.2, so Test - 3 will be the best option to adopt
for p > 0.2.
18. (1) In the range 0.00 < p < 0.05, Test - 1 has the lowest relative cost, so the answer is (a), i.e. p < 0.05.
19. (4) If p < 0.2, then initially Test-1 is more feasible, while thereafter, Test -2 is
a better option. While we cannot say from the data given in the question, which of these two tests
is better, we can definitely say that Test-3 is the most expensive test for the range p < 0.2.
32. (3) dozen organs are equivalent to 4 kg mangoes, hence 14 kg mangoes cost Rs. 252.
Solid DI Set 1
Question
For Questions 1 to 5 read the following instructions:
Nine horses participated in a horse tournament. Five races were held in this tournament. The winner of a race
gets 5 points, 2nd gets 3 and the 3rd gets 1. The table gives the points tally.
One race is held between five horses. The first race is held among the first 5 horses from the left in the above
table. Out of these horses, A drops out of the race and a new horse. ie. F enters into the race. In the next race, B
drops out and G enters and so on. It is also given that H is the only horse that scored in 2 consecutive races.
Q.2 What is the ratio of the points scored by “G” and E in race 5?
a. 1:3 b. 3:1 c. 1:5 d. cannot be determined e. 5:1
Q.5 Suppose if C had 6 points and E had 7 points while the points of the rest of the horses remain unchanged
then E could’ve come second in
a. One race b. Two races c. At most one race d. At most 2 races
e. cannot be determined
Answer:
For Solid DI Set 1
The table of the winners is as follows:
Race1 A C E
Race2 B F D So 1-b, 2-d, 3-a, 4-c
Race3 C E/G G/E
For 5 interchange the places of C and E in race 1. Hence the answer is d, 5-d
Race4 H F D
Race5 H G/E E/G
Solid DI Set - 2
Question
For Questions 1 to 5 read the following instructions:
The following Table gives the number of students in all the different classes of Indian Public school in the years
2050 and 2051 respectively.
2
It is known that
i. New students join the school only in class VII
ii. No student leaves the school before passing out from class XII
iii. The students, who fail, have to repeat the year.
Q.1 If no student of class XI failed in the year 2020, then what is the pass percentage of class XII for the year
2050?
a. 22.66% b. 16.66% c. 83.33% d. 77.77% e. None of these
Q.2 If the new joiners in the year 2051 were 76, then the number of students failed in class XII in the year
2050?
a. 10 b. 14 c. 8 d. 16 e. 20
Q.3 How many students of class IX failed in the year 2050, if no student of class XI failed in the year 2050?
a. 12 b. 8 c.10 d. 14 e. None of these
Q.4 If number of students of class VII failed in the year 2050 is 64, then what is the total number of students
failed in the year 2050?
a. 150 b. 182 c. 195 d. 164 e. 176
Answer:
For Solid DI Set 2
1. No. of failures in class XII in 2050 is 54-48=6. Hence the pass percentage is 5/6*100.ie 83.33
2. Back track and obtain the failures and passes in that particular year from the formula. Answer is 16.
5.The highest pass percentage for class VII can be obtained only when class XI has no failures( because, all the
other classes have certainly a min number of failures). You’ll get it as 66. so its 66/120 ie.55%
Solid DI Set - 3
Question
Q.1 How many times are step 1, step2 and step 3 are performed before one sequence?
a. 8 b. 6 c. 4 d. 5 e. 10
Q.3 How many members come to their original positions at least once before the sequence ends?
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 e. 5
Q.4 Suppose their initial positions were in the order mentioned before but from right to left, and the steps 1 and
2 remain the same while in step 3 the person in front of 3 joins between 3 and 2 and so on to form a single row.
Q.5 In the above mentioned sequence, how many members come back to their original position at least once
before the sequence ends?
a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5 e. 6
Answer:
For Solid DI Set 3
Step1: A B C
D E
F
Step 2: A B C
DFE
Step 3: A D B F C E
Another formation is F E D C B A
Step 1: C B A
E D
F
Step 2: C B A
EFD
Step 3: C E B F A D
Solid DI Set - 4
Questions
For Questions 1 to 5 read the following instructions:
12 Hockey teams participated in a tournament. These teams were equally distributed into 2 pools A and B. In
the 1st round, each team played a match against all the other teams in the same pool. Top 3 teams with highest
average (from both the pools) went to the next round, where all the six teams played against each other once.
Again the top 3 teams with highest average qualified to the finals. In the final round, all the 3 teams played
against each other and the team with the highest average was declared the winner.
Scoring: A win earns 4 points, loss earns -2, and a tie will result in 2 each.
Teams A1 A2 A3 A4 A5 A6 B1 B2 B3 B4 B5 B6
Total 28 0 10 0 16 6 -6 26 6 12 4 14
Average 2.33 0 1 0 1.6 1.2 -1.2 2.16 1.2 1.2 0.8 1.16
Also
--The winner of the tournament won both its matches in the finals
--the total points earned by all the teams (Played in the second round) after second round are 100.
Q.1 Which 2 teams do not play against each other in the finals?
a. A1,B2 b. A1,B6 c. A5,B2 d. B2,B6 e. none of these
Q.3 How many points did the second runner up earn in the finals?
a. -4 b. 2 c. 4 d. 0 e. cannot be determined
Answer:
For Solid DI Set 4
The teams playing in second round are A1, A3 A5,B2,B4 and B6.
Final is played between B2, B6 and A1.
Total points earned by the teams which dropped out in second round are 10 + 16 +12 =38. So points earned by
B2, B6 and A1 after round 2 is 100-38 = 62.
Total points earned by these teams after final round = 28 +26+14=68, ie. They together earned 6 points in the 3
matches happened in the final round. A1 won both its matches in final ie. It got 8 points. So the points earned in
these 2 matches =4+4-2-2 =4 points. So the match between B2 and B6 resulted in 2 points. Hence it cannot be a
draw.
Suppose, B2 had lost that match , then it must’ve lost 4 points in the final round , while B6 must’ve gained 2
points which means it’s points after second round must’ve been 12, equal to that of B4, which contradicts the
fact that top 3 with highest average made it to the finals. Hence B2 must’ve won the B2 v/s B6 encounter. That
means B2’s points after second round must’ve been 24. while B6’s must’ve been 18.
Solid DI Set - 5
Question
For Questions 1 to 5 read the following instructions:
Friday morning, local pediatrician Dr. Johnson N. Johnson had appointments with five infants scheduled at
9:00, 9:30, 10:00, 10:30, and 11:00. Each of the five, including the Ortiz baby, is a different number--1, 2, 3, 4,
or 5--of months old. The following notes are available.
1. Immediately after seeing infant Beth, Dr. Johnson examined the Majors infant, who is 2 months younger than
Beth.
2. Erica isn't the one of the five who is 1 month old.
3. The doctor saw David later in the morning than the 1-month-old.
4. The 9:30 appointment was with the 3-month-old baby.
5. The Luce infant isn't the one who is 5 months of age.
6. Dr. Johnson saw the Nash infant, then examined Alice, who is 2 months older than the Nash baby.
7. The pediatrician's 10:00 appointment was with Chad, who isn't the Majors or the Nash baby.
8. The Prior baby isn't the 1-month-old and wasn't the doctor's 9:00 examinee.
Answer:
For Solid DI SET 5
By clue 7, Dr. Johnson saw infant Chad at 10:00, the middle appointment of the five. By clue 1, Dr. Johnson
saw Beth and then the Majors baby, while by clue 6, he saw the Nash baby and then Alice. Since Beth is 2
months older than the Majors infant (1) and Alice is 2 months older than the Nash infant (6), Beth can't be the
Nash baby and Alice be the Majors infant (the only way possible to combine the two clues), so four different
babies are named between the two clues. Since Chad is neither the Majors nor the Nash baby (7), either Dr.
Johnson saw Beth at 9:00 and the Nash child at 10:30, or he saw the Nash child at 9:00 and Beth at 10:30.
Trying the latter case, he would have examined Alice at 10:00 (6) and the Majors baby at 11:00 (1). By clue 4,
Alice would be 3 months old, with the Nash baby then 1 month old. However, neither Erica (2) nor David (3)
could be the Nash infant, so this arrangement cannot work. Dr. Johnson's 9:00 patient was Beth, with the
Majors baby his 9:30 (1); and he saw the Nash infant at 10:30 and Alice at 11:00 (6). The Majors baby is 3
months (4) and Beth 5 months (1) old. By clue 3, David is the Nash child and Chad the 1-month-old. Erica is
the Majors baby. By clue 6, David Nash is 2 and Alice 4 months old. Beth is neither the Luce (5) nor Prior (8)
infant and is the Ortiz baby. Chad's surname is Luce and Alice's Prior (8). In sum, Dr. Johnson saw the five
babies as follows:
Solid DI Set - 6
Question
Directions for Q.1 to Q.5: Read the information given below and answer the questions that follow.
Five friends (Avinash, Vijay, Alok, Vivek and Rajiv) went to a hotel and ordered five different soups (Tomato,
Chicken, Vegetable, Corn and Mutton), followed by lunch. After lunch, they ordered five different desserts.
(Mango, Pista, Vanilla, Tutti-Fruti and Casatta).
Answer:
For Solid DI SET 6
Make a table as below
Solid DI Set - 7
Question
Answer:
For Solid DI SET 7
p stands for Preceding letter and s for Succeeding letter. Coding is done by taking the preceding and succeeding
letters alternately
Solid DI Set - 8
Question
An Inspector has discovered that 5 people were involved in the murder of Miss Batliwala. Nine suspects are
short listed by him. Maina, Naina and Raina are women. Ooman, sangha, Topaz, Unni Vasu and Wagle are
men. Through intelligent deliberation and analysis, Ghote has also made a checklist of points.
I) There were at least two women involved in the crime.
II) Raina will never collude with Ooman.
III) Sangha and Topaz will always commit crimes together.
IV) Unni and Vasu never work together.
A). If Maina was involved in the crime and Naina is not, which statements
given below are true necessarily.
I) Either Unni or Vassu but not both are involved.
II) Sangha and Topaz will be involved
1. I only 2. II only 3. Both I and II 4. Either I or II
Answer:
For Solid DI SET 8
A) Correct answer is 2.
Women : M, N and R Men ; O, S, T, U , V & W
If M is involved and N is not means that R must be involved so 3 men, of which O is not a part, of must be
involved so analysing given statements : either U or V but both not involved This means that U or V can pair up
only with S & T But S & T have the option of choosing W. So U or V must not necessarily be involved so
statement I is not necessarily true
B) Correct answer is 1.
If V is involved U cannot be involved If R involved O cannot be involved since We require 2 more men of
which U and O are not available so the option is S & T.
C) Correct answer is 4.
M and N can pair with U +W + O or V + W + O. If R is not involved, it can give options like M and N with S +
T +U or S + T + V or S + T + W so is definitely not true.
Solid DI Set - 9
Question
Answer:
For Solid DI SET 9
Solid DI Set - 10
Question
At the IIM 5 areas of specilisation are available. They are Marketing, finance, production, personnel and
systems. However it is necessary for any student to take up a combnination of two of the above.
Based on common preference, preset combinations called moducles are offered, coded M001, M002, M003,
M004 and M005. Each allows two specialisations such that every specilisation is assigend to two modules.
Further to allow for uncommon prefercences a student is allowed to take up more than one commbination in
such a manner that the specialisation common to the two modules is necessarily dropped.
However, a smart student, by manipulating combinations, may be able to specialise in more than two subjects.
1. What is the maximum number of modules any person may take to specialise in at least two areas ?
1. 2 2. 4 3. 5 4. 3
Answer:
For Solid DI Set 10
1) 2 2) 2 3) 3 4) 1
The main thing is that if any specialisation is common to the 2 modules selected it gets dropped and is not a
specialisation. M001 does not have production and M003 does not have marketing. But their combination gives
us marketing and systems so M001 must have marketing since Moo1 and M002 have 4 different subjects three
must be no common specialisation and M002 will not have marketing but will have production M003 will have
systems included because it is not a part of M001 so M001 will have finance or personnel and it will be
common to M003. Since the M001 and M004 combination does not have marketing as a specialisation it means
that they have marketing in common. Since they have finance and personnel in common M001 has finance and
M004 has personnel. So M002 also has personnel. So M003 must also have finance. This leaves M005 with
production and systems.
Solid DI Set - 11
Question
There are two ethnic groups, the Dravids and the Aryans. No marriage is permitted within a group. After
marriage, men become a part of their wives’ group; women remain in their own group. Children belong to the
same group as their parents. Widowers and divorced males revert to the group of their birth. Marriage to more
than one person at a time and marriage to a direct descendant is forbidden.
3. If widowers and divorced males had retained the group they had upon marrying, which of the following
would be permissible, assuming that no previous marriage had occurred?
a. a woman marrying her dead sister’s husband.
b. a woman marrying her divorced daughter’s ex-husband.
c. a widower marrying his brother’s daughter
d. a divorced male his ex-wife’s divorced sister in law.
Answer:
For Solid DI SET 11
1) The key to remember in this question is that when it says “Dravid male” they refer to his group when he was
born, and not after he gets married. I will shorten Dravid to D and Aryan to A.
Given that, the answer is trivial. You can eliminate b and c immediately, since a D must be married to an A,
becomes an A, his children (sons and daughters) are A’s. Option d is similarly eliminated since his daughter A,
must marry a D. That leaves option a, which can be quickly verified. An uncle could be maternal or paternal.
His paternal uncle could be a D (if unmarried), or an A (if married). His maternal uncle could be an A (if
unmarried), or a D (if married). Hence option a) is correct.
Solid DI Set - 12
Question
In 2001 census, the following data regarding two village ‘Rajgarh’ and ‘Sukhgarh’ was found
I. Rajgarh has 2104 more males the Sukhgarh
II. Sukhgarh has 2041 fewer females than Rajgarh
III. Sukhgarh has 687 more males than females
IV. Rajgarh has 750 fewer females than males
2. What is the difference between the number of males in Sukhgarh and the number of females in Rajgarh?
1. 27,961 2. 1,354 3. 2,747 4. Cannot be determined.
Answer:
For Solid DI SET 12
1.1 Let x be number of males in Rajgarh, z the number of males in Sukhgarh, y the number of females in
Rajgarh, and t the number of females in Sukhgarh. Check the options if x + z = 11924. Then x = 7014, z = 4910,
y = 6264 and t = 4223
So, all other equations (ii) , (iii) and (iv) are satisfied.
Solid DI Set - 13
Question
A hedge fund has recently acquired four companies - BOB, MOB, ZOB and DOB. The sales of DOB are half
that of BOB whereas the profits of DOB are double that of BOB. The expenses of ZOB are Rs 3 crores less than
that of DOB whereas the profit of MOB is Rs 1 Crore less than that of ZOB. The expenses of BOB are three
times that of DOB. It is also known that the sales of ZOB are Rs 15 crores or one-fourth that of MOB. The
auditing firm has also reported that sales of DOB are Rs 10 crores more than that of ZOB and the expenses of
BOB are 90% of its own sales.
Q1) The total sales of all the four companies is (Rs crores):
a) 200 b) 150 c) 125 d) 160
Q4) The expenses of MOB exceed the profits of BOB by (Rs crores):
a) 51 b) 52 c) 53 d) 54
Q6) The profits of MOB form what percentage of the expenses of ZOB?
a) 16% b) 20% c) 15% d) 23%
Answer:
For Solid DI SET 13
Based on the information given, best way to solve this is to make a table. May seem tedious initially but would
save you time for answering other questions
Solid DI Set - 14
Question
a) If the question can be answered by using one of the statements alone, but cannot be answered using the other
statement alone.
b) If the question can be answered by using either statement alone.
c) If the question can be answered by using both statements together, but cannot be answered by using either
statement alone.
d) If the question cannot be answered based on the information provided
1) Average of ten numbers s 15.34. If the fifth number is incorrect then what would be the average of the
remaining nine numbers?
I. In the given ten numbers the average of the first five numbers is 14.35
and the average of the last six numbers is 15.43.
13
II. In the given ten numbers, the average of the first six numbers is 14.38
and the average of the last six numbers is 15.40.
I. p = n2 + 1, where n is an integer
II. p2 is greater than 200
Answer:
For Solid DI SET 14
In (A) the expression n2 + 1 can represent a prime number less than 37, equal to 37, or greater than 37,
depending on the value of n. For example, if n = 4, the 42 + 1 = 17; if n = 6, then 62 + 1 = 37; if n = 10, then
102 + 1 = 101; and 17, 37, and 101 are all prime numbers. Thus, (A) alone is not sufficient
Both the statements together are not sufficient
Solid DI Set - 15
Question
1) Two schools decide to send their students to a picnic on the same day.
How many students attend the picnic from the first school?
Answer:
For Solid DI SET 15
While at first glance, you may be tempted to answer ©, since there are two linear equations and two variables,
as you try to solve the question you will get two answers 30 and 10. So you can’t say which one of those applies
to the first school
Solid DI Set - 16
Question
Mr. Malik went to US on a business trip and rented a car to drive from his hotel to the plant that he was visiting.
Being new to driving in US, he was very cautious and wanted to ensure he drove within the speed limits. The
graph below shows the speed he was driving at different times of the day
1) For what percent of the time was he driving at 40 miles per hour or faster?
a) 20 b) 45 c) 40 d) 50
Q2) How far, in miles, did Mr. Malik drive between 8:30 and 9:00?
a) 0 b) 20 c) 30 d) 40
Q4) How much time Mr. Malik would have taken if he had traveled the whole distance at the average speed of
40 miles per hr?
a) 2 hrs b) 2.8 hrs c) 2.4 hrs d) 3 hrs
Answer:
For Solid DI SET 16
Solid DI Set - 17
Question
Two shopkeepers go to buy newly designed weights from the trade fair. In a particular shop the salesman asks
their limits of weighing at a time. Both of them tell their limit as 120 kg at a time. The salesman shows them the
price list as:
In the 1st option, the shopkeepers might have to put the weights on both sides. He gave them an example:
Suppose you want to weigh 7 kg, so put 10 kg on weight side and put 3 kg on the goods side.
In the second option, the shopkeeper did not need to put the weights on goods side.
1. If the 1st shopkeeper opts for the 1st option, what is the minimum number of weights he would need to buy at
the lowest cost?
1. 8 2. 10 3. 5 4. None of these
2. The 2nd shopkeeper opts for the 2nd option. What is the min. no. of weights he would need to buy at the
lowest cost?
1. 5 2. 7 3. 10 4. None of these
3. One of them needed as much more amount as the other has left after purchase. Suppose both of them left
their home with the same amount. Who borrowed and what amount was borrowed?
1. First shopkeeper borrowed Rs. 30
2. Second shopkeeper borrowed Rs. 30
3. Second shopkeeper borrowed Rs. 15
4. First shopkeeper borrowed Rs. 15
Answer:
For Solid DI SET 17
A1) Correct answer is (3)
In the first option, the minimum no. of weights needed is 5. The weights are 1 kg, 3 kg, 9 kg, 27 kg, 81 kg.
Solid DI Set - 18
Question
2.Suppose Step5 is replace by 'Increase X by 5' then what would be the last value of Y typed?
1] 5 2] 4 3] 6 4] 9 5] 8
Answer:
For Solid DI SET 18
Five brothers have among them a pair of twins who are neither the oldest nor the youngest. E is older than C but
younger than B. D is younger than 3 brothers
1) The youngest is
1] A 2] B 3] C 4] D
Answer:
For Solid DI SET 19
1 2 3 4 5
B E A D C
Solid DI Set - 20
Question
Each item has a question followed by two statements each giving some data.
• Mark 1 if the question can be answered by using one of the statements alone; but cannot be answered
by using other statement alone.
• Mark 2 if the question can be answered by using either statement alone.
• Mark 3 if the question can be answered by using both statements together, but cannot be answered by
using either statement alone.
• Mark 4 if the question cannot be answered even by using both the statement together.
1) a and b are two positive numbers. How many of them are old?
I. Multiplication of b with an odd number gives an even number
II. a2 – b is even.
1] 1 2] 2 3] 3 4] 4
2)A, B, C, D have to stand in a queue in descending order of their heights. Who stands first?
I. D was not the last, A was not the first.
II. The first is not C and B was not the tallest.
1] 1 2] 2 3] 3 4] 4
Answer:
For Solid DI SET 20
2) Taking II and I we get A, B, C are not the tallest, hence D has to be the
tallest. Thus D stands first. Choice (3)
3) From statement I, the price cannot be calculated.
18
Solid DI Set - 21
Question
Each item has a question followed by two statements each giving some data.
• Mark 1 if the question can be answered by using one of the statements alone; but cannot be answered by
using other statement alone.
• Mark 2 if the question can be answered by using either statement alone.
• Mark 3 if the question can be answered by using both statements together, but cannot be answered by
using either statement alone.
• Mark 4 if the question cannot be answered even by using both the statement together.
2) How many guests attended the party hosted by Rajesh? He invited 60 people for the party.
I. 12 of the invitees expressed their inability to attend the party where as another 12 did not get back to Rajesh
nor did they attend the party later on.
II. 50% of the invitiees confirmed that they would attend the party, but only 80% of them actually attended the
party.
1] 1 2] 2 3] 3 4] 4
Answer:
For Solid DI SET 21
1) From statement I
B=G+8
G = 5 x (B – G) = 5 x 8 = 40
B = 48
From statement II
G + 4 N/2 Choice (1)
Solid DI Set - 22
Question
Priya has agreed to feed a friend’s dog for a full week, running from Monday to Sunday. A total of seven brands
of dog food are available, of which exactly five, M, N, O, P and Q are protein-enriched, and exactly two, R and
S, are vitamin-enriched. Priya must adhere to the following feeding instructions.
On each of the seven days, a different brand of dog food must be fed.
Protein-enriched dog food cannot be fed for more than two consecutive days.
R must be fed earlier in the week than S.
M must be fed earlier in the week than R.
M must be fed earlier in the week than Q and exactly four of the other brands must be fed between N and Q.
19
2). If Q is scheduled to be fed on Sunday, which of the following could also be true?
[1] R and O are scheduled to be fed on consecutive days.
[2] N is scheduled to be fed earlier than M.
[3] Two days intervene between the day O is fed and the day P is fed.
[4] P is scheduled to be fed on Tuesday.
3) Which of the following pair of brands could be scheduled to be fed on consecutive days?
[1] M and O [2] N and P
[3] O and S [4] Q and R
Answer:
For Solid DI SET 22
The possible combinations that meet all the conditions
Mon Tue Wed Thurs Fri Sat Sun
a) N M R O/P S Q P/Q
b) M N R O/P S P/O Q
Solid DI Set - 23
Question
DIRECTIONS for the questions 1 to 3
A quack- Dr. Fool’s Paradise- fools his customers by claiming to predict future using a unique method. He has
three parrots kept in three different cages. Each cage has three cards with a single non-zero digit inscribed on
every card. No two cards have the same number & no cage contains two cards with digits totalling ten. Further,
the total of three cards in the first cage is greater by two than the total in the second cage & by four than that of
third cage. When a customer asks for his prediction, the quack lets out three parrots which randomly picks one
card out of their respective cages. Before the prediction is made, the quack totals the digits on the three picked
cards & charges the customer the same number of rupees as the total of the cards. One day a customer paid
seven rupees for his prediction.
1. What is the lowest payment possible?
(1) Rs. 5 (2) Rs. 7 (3) Rs. 6 (4) Rs. 8
Answer:
For Solid DI SET 23
The cards are numbered 1,2,3…..9
There fore, the sum of numbers on all cards = 9 * 10 /2 = 45
If sum of numbers of cards in the 1st cage = X , then
Sum of numbers of cards in the 2nd cage = X-2
Then , sum numbers of cards in the 3rd cage = X-4
X + X-2 + X-4 =45 or X =17
There fore the three cages would have cards totaling 17 , 15 and 13 respectively.So, each cage should have one
card from each of the following three sets of cards .
1,2,3 4,5,6 7,8,9
The following combinations are possible if one has to satisfy the requirements.
20
Case 1 : 17 = 9 + 6 +2 9 + 5 + 3 9 + 5 + 3
Case 2 : 15 = 8 + 4 +2 8 + 6 + 1 6 + 7 + 2
Case 3 : 13 = 7 + 5 + 1 7 + 4 + 2 8 + 4 +1
But combinations 2 and 3 are not possible because the only way a person can pay Rs 7 is if three cards are 4 , 2,
1=7
But in combination 2 and 3 , this is not possible.
Therefore the only combination possible is 1.
The lowest possible payment is 3 + 2 + 1 = 6
Ans 1 (3)
Ans2 (3)
The maximum possible payment is 9 + 8 + 7 = Rs 24.
Ans3 (4)
A customer cannot pay Rs 23 as 23 = 9 + 8 + 6 as 9 and 6 are in the same cage.
Option (2) is possible as all three cards mentioned are in different cages. A customer can pay Rs 19 i.e 19 = 9 +
3 + 7. as all three cards are in different cages.
Solid DI Set - 24
Question
2) If on a day ,Robert decides to complete 20 Little Flower uniforms , then how many Pink Flower uniforms can
he complete that day?
(1) 30 (2) 35 (3) 40 (4) 36
3) If Robert decided to complete 30 Little Flower uniforms only and no other uniform on a particular day, then
how many total man hours will go idle?
(1) 30 (2) 60 (3) 45 (4) 36
4) If Robert hires one more assistant , then what is the maximum number of Pink Flower uniforms that he can
complete in a day ?
(1) 60 (2) 48 (3) 120 (4) 50
5) Robert has the option to hire one more employee of any category.Whom should he hire to get maximum
increase in production capacity , assuming that he needs to stitch only Pink Flower uniforms on that day?
(1) One cutter (2) One tailor
(3) One assistant (4) Either a tailor or a cutter.
Answer:
For Solid DI SET 24
When he has to complete maximum number of Pink Flower uniforms in a day, he will not at al devote to the
Little Flower uniforms .Now , to find the maximum number of Little Flower uniforms , we have to concentrate
on the time resource .It will be the category with the least available time which will then decide the maximum
no. of uniforms which can be prepared.
Cutting :20hours available and30minutes required per uniform.
Thus 20*60/30 = 40 uniforms can be cut.
Stitching 50 hours available and 60 minutes required per uniform .Thus 50*60/60 = 50 uniforms can be
stitched.
21
Buttoning : 20 hours available and 30 minutes required per uniform. Thus ( 20 * 60)/30 = 40 uniforms can be
buttoned .Obviously , the least number of the above three will determine the maximum number of uniforms that
can be completed.
Ans1 (3 ) 40 uniforms of Little Flower can be completed.
Total uniforms of Little Flower to be completed = 20
Cutting time required = 20 * 30 = 600 minutes = 10 hours
Stitching Time required = 20 * 60 = 1200 minutes = 20 hours
Buttoning time required = 20 * 30 = 600 minutes = 10 hours
Cutting time remaining = 20 –10 = 10 hours: Stitching time remaining = 50 –20 = 30 hours;
Buttoning time remaining = 20 – 10 = 10 hours. Since the times for cutting , stitching and buttoning each Pink
Flower uniform are 20 minutes , 60 minutes and 15 minutes respectively.
We can cut ( 10 * 60) /20 = 30 Pink Flower uniforms , we can stitch ( 30 * 60)/ 60 = 30 Pink Flower uniforms
and we can stitch
( 30 * 60 )/60 = 30 Pink flower uniforms , and we can button ( 10 * 60 )/60 = 30 Pink Flower uniforms, and we
can button
( 10 * 60 )/ 15 = 40 Pink Flower uniforms
30 is the maximum number possible ( the bottleneck resource )
Ans2(1)
Ans3(1)
Total man- hours available = 20 + 50 + 20 = 90 per day.
If Robert makes 30 Little Flower uniforms in a day , time utlised
= (30 * 30) minutes + ( 30 * 1) hours + (30 * 30 ) minutes
Total time utilized = 15 + 30 + 15 = 60 hours
Man hours remaining = 90- 60 = 30 hours
Again we have to basically find out the bottleneck resource
Total cutting time available = 20 hours
Number of uniforms that can be stitched = ( 50 * 60) / 60 = 50
Total stitching time available = 50 hours
Number of uniforms that can be stitched = ( 50 * 60)/60 = 50
Total buttoning time available = 30 hours
Number of uniforms that can be buttoned = 30 * 60 /15 = 120
The minimum hour = 50 = The maximum uniforms that can be completed
Ans 4(4)
When he makes only Pink Flower uniforms on a day , as per the current availability
No. of uniforms that can be cut = 20 * 60 /20
Number of uniforms stitched = 50 * 60 / 60 = 50 , and the number of uniforms buttoned = ( 20 * 60 )/15=80.
Thus maximum no. of uniforms completed = 50 and the bottle neck was time for tailoring ( stitching). Hence to
get the maximum increase in the production capacity , he should employ one more tailor. Ans5 ( 2 ).
Solid DI Set - 25
Question
1) A, B, C, D & E are five different integers. When written in the ascending order of values, the difference
between any two adjacent integers is 3. D is the greatest and A is the least. B is greater than E but less than C.
The sum of the five integers is equal to E- 1. A + B is:
A] 15 B] -8 C] -9 D] 16
1] 1 2] 2 3] 3 4] 4
Answer:
For Solid DI SET 25
1. Answer is B]
We know that D>C>B>E>A and D+C+B+E+A=E-1. We also know that the numbers are E-3, E, E+3, E+6,
E+9 or E = -4.
B = -1, A = -7, A+B = -8
2. Answer is 1]
Only the first statement is needed. If x, y and z are the heights,
X + y + z = 68 x 3 = 204
If z = 72, x + y = 132
Since x and y are less than 72 (z is the tallest person), the shortest person has to be as tall as 132 – 72 = 60
inches.
Solid DI Set - 26
Question
In a one-day cricket international between India and Australia. Australia managed to score 329 runs in 50 overs.
To win the match India was required to score 330 runs in 50 overs. Tendulkar and Seghwag opened the innings
for India. The first wicket fell at the end of the 9th over when the score was 63. At the end of the 19th over the
second wicket fell at 128. 3rd wicket fell at the score of 187 when Tendulkar was caught behind in the 32nd
over. 4th & 5th wicket fell when score was 261 in 42nd over. Finally, India scored 333 with a four hit by
Harbhajan of the first fall he faced in the 50th over. India won the match by 4 wickets with two balls to spare.
Tendulkar scored approx 37% of the total runs scored by India, but man of the match was given to the player
who scored curtail runs in the pressure situation at the end of the innings. Two more players scored more than
50 runs. Seghwag and Pathan scored in mid 20’s. Dhoni scored more than Pathan and Seghwag but still
Seghwag was not the least scorer. Indian batting order – Tendulkar - Seghwag – Pathan – Dhoni – Yuvraj –
Dravid – Kaif - Harbhajan – Zaheer – Balaji – kumble. Each team had 11 players 5 batsmen, 1 wicketkeeper
and 5 bowlers, where only 10 wickets is to be taken of a team. The game was played in accordance with the
rules laid down by the ICC.
1. What can be said about Sachin’s contribution in the three partnerships he was involved in assuming that there
were no extras conceded by the Australian team?
1] 39, 40 & 44 2] 38, 39, 46 3] 40, 37 & 46 4] 41, 39, 44
2. What can be concluded from theanalysis of the paragraph given above inaccordance with the two statements
give with this question:
Statement 1: Dhoni scored second highest runs and was the 5th wicket to fall
for India in the 42nd over.
Statement 2: Dravid scored a duck in the match.
1] If statement 2 is true then statement 1 is necessarily false.
2] If statement 1 is false then statement 2 is necessarily true.
3] If statement 1 is true then statement 2 is necessarily true.
4] None of the above.
Answer:
For Solid DI SET 26
1. 2 Sachin scored approximately 37% runs scored by India i.e. 333 *37% = 123 runs approx. He was involved
in the partnerships of 63 (Seghwag), 65 (Pathan) and 59 (Dhoni). Seghwag and Pathan scored in mid 20’s
(between 24 – 26) As Pathan scored more than Seghwag, so lets assume they score 25 and 24 respectively. In
first partnership of 63 if Seghwag scored 24 so Sachin cannot score more than 39 runs. In second partnership of
65 if Pathan scored 26 so Sachin cannot score more than 39 runs. There in the first two partnerships Sachin
cannot score more than 78 runs. So he must have score 45 runs in the third partnership with Dhoni to make 123
runs. So option 2.
2. 1 If statement 2 is true, than 1 cannot be true as if Dravid scored a duck than he must be the one to get out as
the 5th wicket in the 42nd over for India. In such case either Dhoni or Yuvraj was the 4th wicket to fall for India
as they were batting after the fall of 3rd wicket (Sachin). Dravid can only come to the crease after the fall of 4th
wicket and he is the second batsman to get out in the 42nd over. So he can only be the 5th wicket to fall without
scoring a run. See the batting order for India. So option 1.
3. 3 Statement 1: Kaif batted at no 7th, which means he came to crease
after the fall of 5th wicket in 42nd over when score was 261. So Kaif was
involved in a partnership of 72 runs for the 6th wicket, where as either or 5th
or 6th (Rahul or Yuvraj) was involved in two partnerships of 74 and 72. So
logically it could not be true.
Statement 2: 1st wicket partnership was of 63, second wicket partnership
was of 128 – 63 = 65, third wicket partnership was of 187- 128 = 61 when
Tendulkar got out), 4th partnership was of 261- 187 = 74, 5th wicket fell at
same over (given), 6th wicket partnership was of 333 – 261 = 72.
So statement 2 is absolutely true.
Solid DI Set - 27
Question
A Quality Assurance inspector is planning to inspect certain vehicles on this Monday and Tuesday at Tata
Motors. He has to inspect three vehicles on each of the two days. On these two days put together, he has to
inspect at least three Indica’s, at least one Safari and at least one Ace. The registration numbers of a vehicle
available for inspection are as follows:
Indica : I 21, I 22, I 24, I 23
Safari : S 11, S 21, S 12, S 13
Ace : A 22 , A 11 , A 12
Each vehicle is given a registration number, which consists of a single – letter code (I, S or A) followed by a
two – digit numerical code (21, 22, etc.)
The following restrictions are placed in a selection of the vehicles to be inspected:
(i) Not more than two vehicles of the same kind can be inspected on one day.
(ii) Vehicles whose registration numbers have a numerical code of 21, 22 and 23 are available for inspection on
Tuesday only.
(iii) No vehicle inspected on Monday can be inspected on Tuesday.
1. Which of the following vehicles must be inspected by the vehicle inspector?
1] S 13 2] A 22 3] I 23 4] I 24
2. Which of the following is possible combination of vehicles that can be inspected on Tuesday?
1] I 21, S 21, I 14 2] S 11, A 12 , I 23 3] I 22, S 13, I 21 4] I 23, S 21, A 22
Answer:
For Solid DI SET 27
1. 4 Among the Indica’s I 21, I 22 and I 23 can be inspected only on the second day. As three Indica’s have to
be inspected in two days and at most two Indica’s can be inspected on Tuesday, I 24 must be inspected on
Monday.
24
2. 3 I 24 must be inspected on the first day. As only one Indica can be inspected on the first day, at least two
Indica’s must be inspected on the second day. Hence option 2 and 4 are not possible combinations. Option 3
does not violate any condition.
Solid DI Set - 28
Question
There are six companies – Rediff, Bazee, Naukri, Contest 2 Win, Shaadi and MCX. In the dotcom companies
market capitalization, four of these six companies have secured the first four positions. Three venture capitalists
– Natwest, Chrysalis and General Atlantic – have invested in these companies their individual speculations
regarding the companies that would top the market capitalization among the first four positions are given in the
following tables.
Venture Speculated Positions
Capitalists 1st 2nd 3rd 4th
Natwest Rediff Bazee Naukri MCX
Chrysalis Bazee Shaadi Rediff Contest 2
Win
General Atlantic MCX Naukri Bazee Contest 2
Win
1. 3 From (ii), three of the four companies speculated by Chrysalis finished in the first four positions. Hence,
exactly one of the other two companies – Naukri and MCX – finished in the top four positions.
From
(i), Exactly one of Rediff and Bazee finished in first four positions. Hence, from
(ii), Both Contest 2 Win and Shaadi must have finished in first four positions. From
(iii), Bazee did not finish in the first four positions.
Hence, Rediff finished in the first four positions.
Now, the companies finished in the first four positions are Contest 2 Win, Rediff, Shaadi and MCX / Naukri.
From (ii), Two of the companies as predicted by Chrysalis finished at the same positions.
\ Rediff cannot finish at 2nd or 4th positions as in this case the above value for Chrysalis can be at most one.
From (i), Rediff cannot finish at first position.
\ It must have finished at third position.
25
2. 2 If Contest 2 Win did not finish at the finish, then it should have finish at first position, in this case no
company according to General Atlantic’s predictions could have finished at the correct position. Hence, Contest
2 Win finished at 4th position; Shaadi finished at first position and MCX finished at 2nd position. The correct
order is
Shaadi MCX Rediff Contest 2 Win
Solid DI Set - 29
Question
There are 11 players on each side in ODI cricket, and one team bats while the others bowl. Then the teams swap
after 50 overs. Kraig Chapal, the coach of the Indian ODI cricket team is a master strategist when it comes to
shuffling the batting order. In a match in which India scored 340 runs, 9 batsmen were out and the last unbeaten
pair of batsmen together scored 40 runs before they ran out of overs. In the batting order the 4th and the 5th
men each scored exactly a 100 runs, while the first two batsmen scored 50 between themselves. The ratio of the
runs scored by the first three batsman, Ganguly, Sehwag and Pathan (though not necessarily) 1, 2 and 3 in the
batting order) was 6 : 4 : 3. Two consecutive batsman scored 0, and the first 9 batsmen in the batting order
scored either 0 or scores that were multiples of 5. Dhoni was the 8th batsmen in the batting order, and the next
person after Dhoni scored a 5. The runs scored by Tendulkar if added to theextras (bonus runs not scored by any
batsmen but given by the bowling team to the batting team) equaled Ganguly’s scores. Sehwag scored one-fifth
of Yuvaraj and equal to Tendulkar. Srinath scored 5 times what Tendulkar scored. Munaf and Mohanty scored
18 and 22 respectively, while together they scored 25 more than Dhoni and Pathan together. Kumble was
India’s most successful bowler of the match, and Harbhajan took 2 wickets less than Kumble.
3. What is the total of the least 5 scores in the Indian Cricket team (excluding extras)?
(1) 20 (2) 30 (3) 35 (4) 38
Answer:
For Solid DI SET 29
• It is given that the first a batsmen scored multiples of 5.Also the first two scored a total of 50 and the
ratio of scores of the first three batsmen Ganguly, Sehwag and Pathan was 6 : 4 : 3.
i.e. either 6x + 4x = 50 or 6x + 3x = 50 or 4x + 3x = 50
As the only possibility is 6x + 4x = 50, Ganguly scored 30, Sehwag scored 20 and Pathan scored 15.
Hence Pathan was 3rd in the batting order.
• Yuvraj scored 5 times that of sehwag, i.e. 100.
• Tendulkar scored equal to sehwag, i.e. 20
• Srinath scored 5 times Tendulkar, i.e.100
• Hence Yuvaraj and Srinath occupy positives 4 and 5, not necessarily in that order
• Ganguly = Tendulkar + Extras. \ Extras = 10
• Munaf and Mohanty are batsmen 10 and 11, though not necessarily in that order.
• Together they score 40 which is equal to 25 + Dhoni + Pathan. Hence Dhoni = 0
• Batsmen 9 scored 5. As the two who score 0 are consecutive, batsmen 7 scores 0. Hence Tendulkar has
only one slot left, i.e. 6. Now all questions can be answered.
26
Solid DI Set - 30
Question
At 3:00 pm afternoon I’m 11th in a college fee payment counter queue. The queue increased at the rate of 1
person every minute the counter clerk takes 3 minutes to entertain a person. There is one girl after every 2 boys
in the queue. The Tea break of 10 minute is at 3:35. The first person is a boy and the person behind me is a girl.
The ratio of boy to girl gets interchanged after the 17th person. At 3:02 and 3:04 girls join the queue.
1. Assuming that there was delay of 5 minutes at 3:07 pm in the counter clerks working. At what time I’ll be
free to catch up with my friends?
1. 3:43 2. 3:48 3. 3:45 4. 3:40
2. Where will I be at 3:18 hrs, i.e. my position? If the 3rd person in the queue decides to pay the fees of two
persons (including herself) and a boy who was exactly after her, left the counter without paying his fees?
position
1. 4th position 2. 5thposition 3. 6th position 4. None of these
Answer:
For Solid DI SET 30
1. 2 After 2 boys there is a lady. 1 st person is a boy, thus it can be BBG or BGBBGB. And so on, where B
stands for boy and G stands for girl. The person behind me is a girl (12th in a row). There for it is BBGBBG i.e.
3rd 6th 9th 12th & 15th are girls. After 12th person girls ratio interchanges i.e. it becomes 2 girls to boys in a
group … at 3:02 and 3:04.
I am 11th in a queue, i.e. my number shall arrive after 10 people (3 minute per) 10X3 = 30 min. + 10 minutes
tea break + 5 minutes interruption + 3 minute processing time. (30 + 10 + 5 + 3 = 48 min. So I’ll be free by 3:48
pm..
2. 2 Counter clerk takes 3 minutes to entertain on person. So in 18 minutes 18/3 = 6 persons have paid their
fees.
I was 11th so now I am 5th Now one of the girls has paid 2 fees, so it is like being 6th in the queue, but a boy
exactly after her, so we are back to being 5th position..
Solid DI Set - 31
Question
The table below shows the sales and expenditure of three companies JAI foods, HAWAI foods and WAI foods
for the financial year 2004-2005. These companies are located in the different parts of the world. Expenditure
break ups are in percentage. Closely analyse the data and answer the questions.
Particulars Jai foods (Sales Rs 7.5) Hawai foods (Sales Rs 1.9) Wai foods (Sales Rs 6.9)
Operating Profit 7 9 9
Interest paid 10 11 12
Rental 21 19 18
Taxes 8 8 11
Salaries 12 9 12
Raw material cost 25 18 19
Power and Electricity 5 10 7
Labour cost 5 6 4
Transportation 3 2 3
Maintenance 2 5 2
Miscellaneous 2 3 3
Total 100 100 100
27
2. If the interest paid by JAI FOODS is reduced by 1%, and everything else remains the same, its operating
profit will:
1. Increase by 1% percent. 2. Not change.
3. Increase by 0.0075 million 4. Increase by 2% percent.
3. If the average monthly salary in WAI FOODS is Rs 9,500, then how many employees does WAI have?
1. Can’t say 2. 18 3. 81 4. 87
Answer:
For Solid DI SET 31
1. 3 Option 1, 2 and 4 are not true, by visual observation and approximation. Revenue wise hawai and wai are
spending less then Jai foods..
2. 3 The reduction of 1% in the expenditure will result in increase of 10% x 1% in operating profit for Jai foods,
so operating profit of Jai foods will increase 0.1% of 7.5 m. Increase of 0.0075 million..
3. 4 Total salary paid by WAI foods = 6.9 x 0.12 x 1,000,000 = 828000. So number of employees = total salary
paid/ average salary = 828000 / 9,500 = 87 employees..
Solid DI Set - 32
Question
Between two persons, A and B, there is one apple and one banana. When I asked them as to who among them
had the apple, they gave two statements each in
reply :
A: B has the apple.
B has the banana.
B: A doesn’t have the banana
A has the apple.
It is known that at least one of A and B tells a least one false statement.
2. If it is also known that each of A and B tells at least one true statement, then which of the following
statements must be true?
(1) All the four statements given by both A and B are true.
(2) Both the statements given by exactly one person out of A and B must
be true.
(3) Each of A and B tells at least one false statement
(4) B has the banana as well as the apple with him.
28
Answer:
For Solid DI SET 32
The given statements are :
A : B has the apple.
B has the banana.
B : A doesn’t have the banana.
A has the apple
Let us study the choice and eliminate the incorrect choice:
1. (1) We can have an arrangement in which A’s statements are true and false in that order, and B’s statement
are both false, which defers the statements given in choice (1)
Bothe A and B cannot be liars as the first statement of A is the same as the second statement given by B, and
one of them must have the banana. Hence, at least one of A and B tells at least one truth.
(3) This means that both A and B are liars which is not possible.
(4) This suggests that both A and B are altermators (i.e. one truth and one lie), which defies the arrangement
mentioned in (1).
Hence, only choice (2) is correct. Choice (2)
2. (1) Defies the initial condition.
(2) Is correct as either A’s both statements are true and B’s statements, are true and false, in that order, or both
of B’s statements are true and A’s statements are false and true, in that order.
(3) Is incorrect as per the arrangement given above.
(4) Is incorrect as in the second arrangement mentioned in (2) Choice ( 2)
Solid DI Set - 33
Question
From one sequence of digits another sequence of digits has to be formed as per the following rules:
Single switch: Interchange of any two adjacent digits.
Double switch: Interchange of any two digits with maximally one digit in between.
Random switch: Interchange of any two digits.
1. Using only single switching what is the minimum number of steps required to change 42153 to 12345?
a) 4 b) 5 c) 6 d) 7
2. Using only double switching what is the minimum number of steps required to change 53124 to 12345?
a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 6
3. Using only random switching what is the minimum number of steps required to change 312546 to 654321?
a) 4 b) 5 c) 6 d) 7
4. Using only single switching for first two steps and then double switching what is the minimum number of
steps required to change 54321 to 12345?
a) 5 b) 6 c) 7 d) 8
5. Using only single switching for first three steps and then random switching what is the minimum number of
steps required to change 621534 to 123456?
a) 5 b) 6 c) 7 d) 8
Answer:
For Solid DI SET 33
1. b Starting with 42153 interchange 3 and 5 to get 42135. Next, interchange 2 and 4 to get 24135. Next,
interchange 4 and 1 to get 21435. Next, interchange 1-2 and 4-3 to get the required sequence 12345. Hence, the
single switch operation has to be invoked 5 times.
2. b Starting with 53124, interchange 1-5, then 5-3, then 2-5, and then 4-5 to get 12345.
3. a Starting with 312546, first interchange 5-1, then 6-3, then 3-1, and 4-2 to get 654321.
4. b Starting with 54321, first interchange 2-3, then 4-5, then 2-5, then 1-5, then 1-4 and then 3-4 to get 12345.
The first two operations being single switches and he rest double.
5. b Starting with 654321, first interchange 2-3, then 2-4, then 3-5, then 1-6 to get the required sequence
123456.
29
Solid DI Set - 34
Question
The following questions consist of a questions and two statements ,I and II.
Choose
(1) If one of the two statements (I or II) alone is sufficient but the other statement alone is not
(2) If each statement alone is sufficient to answer the question asked.
(3) If statements I and II together are sufficient to answer the question but neither statement alone is sufficient.
(4) If even statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question
1) P, Q, R are three polygons of having different number of sides. Which has the largest area among them?
I. Their perimeters are the same and Q is a square.
II. R is a pentagon.
1.1 2.2 3.3 4.4
Answer:
For Solid DI SET 34
Ans 1) 4 We cannot find the polygon which is the largest area.
Because we don’t have any information about P.
Ans 2 ) 2 Each statement independently will give the answer.
Assume in statement (I) the values of a, b, c, d as x, x
+ 3. x + 6, x + 9. Find ad – bc …it is equal to –18.
Similarly for statement (II) we get the difference as –8.
Solid DI Set - 35
Question
Srinivas intends to draw one rectangle of integer sides with a pencil which can last for a maximum possible
length of 100 units only. Let R denote the set of all possible distinct rectangles from which Srinivas can choose
to draw one such rectangle.
1. The number of rectangles in set R is
1. 636 2. 601 3. 613 4. 625
2. All the rectangles in R are formed in to groups such that all the rectangles of same perimeter are in the same
group. What is maximum number of groups that is possible?
1. 99 2. 96 3. 49 4. 51
Answer:
For Solid DI SET 35
1. 4 Given 2(l + b) =100. But minimum 2(l + b) will be 4 units.
i.e. 49 possible values that perimeter can assume for each possible l + b = n, we have different ways of choosing
distinct pairs of l & b.
Solid DI Set - 36
Question
A student is allotted 1950 points to bid for courses totaling 16 credits in IIM. For every extra credit undertaken,
he gets an additional 75 points. He is required to bid a minimum of 75 points per credit for all uncapped
courses. However, in the case of capped courses, he can bid more than 75 points per credit. “A” decides to take
18 credits in which all courses, other than one course which is 3 credits, are uncapped.
1. What is the maximum number of points he can bid for the capped course?
(1) 975 (2) 950 (3) 1125 (4) 1050 (5) None of the above
2. What would be the maximum number of points he could bid for the same course if he decides to take a total
of 16 credits only?
(1) 925 (2) 975 (3) 950 (4) 1125 (5) 1050
Answer:
For Solid DI SET 36
Ans 1) 1
Minimum points to be allotted for uncapped course = 15 * 75 = 1125
Therefore Maximum points available for capped course = 2100 – 1125 =
975
Ans 2) 2
Round about method
Total credits = 16, Total points allotted = 1950
Capped credits = 3, Uncapped credits = 13
Minimum points allotted for uncapped courses = 13 x 75 = 975
Maximum points available for capped course = 1950 – 975 = 975
Short cut method
Maximum points available for capped course = 975
As 150 less points allotted and 150 (2 x 75) used up. Choice (2)
Solid DI Set - 37
Question
Each of the letters of the alphanumeric addition EAT + THAT = APPLE are distinctly different. The addition is
done in the decimal system.
1). What is the sum of the digits of APPLE?
a. 9 b. 10 c. 11 d. 12 e. 15
Answer:
For Solid DI SET 37
A1) d A2) a
The hints are:
1. A has to be 1.
2. T has to be 9.
3. So E is 8
4. If three digit number added to 4 digit number to get a
5 digit number then the second digit of APPLE has
to be zero.
31
Solid DI Set - 38
Question
The following questions consist of a questions and two statements ,I and II.
Choose
(1) If one of the two statements (I or II) alone is sufficient but the other statement alone is not
(2) If each statement alone is sufficient to answer the question asked.
(3) If statements I and II together are sufficient to answer the question but neither statement alone is sufficient.
(4) If even statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question
1) A survey was conducted among 500 people and it was found that 58% preferred coffee, 47% liked tea and 9
% drank milk in the morning. How many people preferred nothing between coffee, milk and tea?
I. 21% liked both coffee and tea. No person liked both milk and tea.
II. 4 % liked both coffee and milk.
1.1 2.2 3.3 4.4
Answer:
For Solid DI SET 38
Ans 1.3
From statement I we know that the number of people
drinking milk and tea is zero, so number of people
drinking all 3 is also zero. From I and II we know that
the number of people drinking exactly 1 drink or 2
drinks. So, we can find out the number of people not
drinking any of the drinks.
Ans 2.4
We cannot get the answer from statement II. Statement
I is implied if statement II is true. Hence we cannot find
the answer.
Solid DI Set - 39
Question
Rahul Sharma has a factory which manufactures Alpha I, Beta I and Gamma I. All these are manufactured by
processing Omega 34. Alpha I requires 1 kg/unit, Beta I requires 2 kg/unit and Gamma I Gamma I requires 2.5
kg per unit of Omega 34, which costs Rs. 2 per kilogram. The total availability of Omega 34 is 350 kilogram.
the processing is done on a machine having production hours of 160 hours in day shift and 182 hours in the
night shift. The time required per unit production is as follows.
The machine costs Rs. 1 per hour. Selling price of Alpha I Beta I and Gamma I are Rs. 8 per Unit, Rs. 12 per
Unit and Rs. 3.50 per Unit respectively. At least 5o units of Alpha I have to be produced and at the most 150
units of Gamma I can be produced.
2. What percentage of the available raw material is utilised if 100 units of Alpha I, 40 units of Beta I, and 10
units of Gamma I are produced?
a) 50% b) 58% c) 68% d) 78%
3. If Rahul Sharma spends initially 150 machine hours in day shift to manufacture Gamma I, 10 hours to
manufacture Alpha I, and in the night shift manufactures 53 units of Gamma I and spends the rest of the night
shift to manufacture Alpha 1. What will be his profit/loss?
a) loss of Rs. 65 b) profit Rs. 65
c) No profit to loss d) This manufacturing pattern is not possible
4. If the minimum possible manufacturing requirement for Alpha I is met and the remaining raw material is
utilised for the manufacture of the other 2 products then
a) 10 units of Beta I can be manufactured
b) 0 units of Beta I can be manufactured
c) 5 units of Beta I can be manufactured
d) Any of the above
5. If in the shift, 65 units of Alpha I, 4 units of Beta I, 15 units of Gamma I and in the night shift. 20 units of
Beta 1,40 units of Gamma I and 20 units of Alpha I are manufactured then which of the following is true?
I. 5 hours of machine time is unutilised
II. Total cost of production is Rs. 54
III. More than 20% of the available raw material is unutilised
a) I only b) II only c) I and III d) I and II
Answer:
For Solid DI SET 39
1. c 74 units of Alpha I and 4 units of Beta I in day shift will require (74 x 2 + 4 x 3) = 160 hours of day shift
which are available as per the condition given in the question. 25 units of Beta I, 10 units of Gama I and 30
units of Alpha in night shift will require (25 x 4 + 10 x 1.5 + 30 x 2.5) = 190 hours which again satisfies the
condition given in the question.
2. b Amount of raw material i.e. Omega 34 utilised will be (100 x 1 + 40 x 2 + 10 x 2.5) = 205 kg. Total amount
of Omega 34 available is 350 Kg. So % of total = 205/350 x 100 = 58%.
3. d Since in the question it is mentioned that the maximum no of units of Gamma I have to be 150 but
according to the question total no of Gamma I units being manufactured are 203.
4. d Minimum possible manufacturing requirement of Alpha I is 50 units. So amount of raw material used will
be 50 kg. Remaining raw material is 300 kg. so any of the first three options are possible.
5. c In the day shift time utlised (65 x 2 + 4 x 3 + 15 x 1) = 157 hours. So 3 hours unutilised in day shift. In the
night shift time utilised (20 x 4 + 40 x 1.5 + 20 x 2.5) = 190 hours. So 2 hours unutilised in night shift.
So total unutilised time is 5 hours.
Total raw material consumed ((65 + 20) x 1 + (20 + 4) x 2 + (55 x 2.5)) =
33
270.5 kg.
So amount of raw material unutilised will be (350 - 270.5)/350 x 100 = 22.7% which is more than 20%. Hence
c).
Solid DI Set - 40
Question
Toyota motor company’s teams A, B, C, D, E and F are racing new concept cars competing in a season of 6
races. Points awarded for rank 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 are 10, 8, 5, 3, 1 and 0 respectively. Points scored by five
teams in the first 4 races are given in the table below.
2. If Team E wins the next race and finishes second in the last race, who wins the championship?
I. Team D finishes second in one of the races.
II. Team F does not win any race.
1.1 2.2 3.3 4.4
Answer:
For Solid DI SET 40
1. 3 From the table, Team F scores 5, 5, 8 and 3 in the Race 1, 2, 3 and 4
respectively.Team C has 36 points after the 6 races:
Statement I and II are individually insufficient as the positions of the other players in the last two races
are not known.
Combining I and II: Maximum number of points Team F can get = 8 + 5 = 13.
His maximum possible score at the end of 6 races = 21 + 13 = 34.
Team A cannot finish second in the fifth race as Team F is second.
Maximum possible score of Team A is 21 + 13 = 34.
No other player can score more than this, as their scores in the first four
races are less than Team F and Team A.
Therefore, Team C wins the championship with 36 points.
1.Which of the following numbers cannot be determined from the information given?
(1) Number of labour experts from America.
(2) Number of health experts from Europe.
(3) Number of health experts from Australia.
(4) Number of experts in refugee relocation from Africa.
3. If Ramos is the lone American expert in population studies, which one of the following is NOT true about the
numbers of experts in the conference from the four continents.
(1) There is one expert in health from Africa.
(2) There is one expert in refugee relocation from Africa.
(3) There are two experts in health from America.
(4) There are three experts in refugee relocation from America.
4. Alex, an American expert in refugee relocation, was the first keynote speaker in the conference. What can be
inferred about the number of American experts in refugee relocation in the conference, excluding Alex?
(I) At least one (II) At most two
(1) Only I and not II
(2) Only II and not I
(3) Both I and II
(4) Neither I nor II
35
Answer:
For Solid DI SET 41
Solid DI Set - 42
Question
Divide a circle into 8 equal parts; number them clockwise from 1 to 8. Assume that you are at 1 & your initial
score is 1. If you move a step clockwise, you just add the number in the next slot to your current score. If you
move a step anticlockwise, you add the number in that slot but subtract 2 from the total to get your new score. If
you move to the number diagonally across, you add that number to your score but subtract 3 from the total. You
can move to a slot only once.
2. Assuming you move a step clockwise in your first move, then the digit that you would have left untouched
after the third move will be
(1) 7 (2) 4 (3) 8 (4) 5
3. If you have made three moves, without seeking to maximize your score, then you most likely to get a score
of
(1) 12 (2) 9 (3) 8 (4) 10
Answer:
For Solid DI SET 42
Ans1 (1)
Moving in anticlockwise direction in 1st step will give the score 1 + 8 –2 = 7 . second step in anticlockwise
direction will give the score = 7 + 7 –2 = 12 .
Ans2 (3)
Only digit 8 cannot be reached in the third move.
Ans3(4).
The most common score in the three moves is 10 irrespective of the direction of the moves.
36
Solid DI Set - 43
Question
Sally and Sue have a strong desire to date Sam, they all live on the same street yet neither Sally nor Sue knows
where Sam lives. The houses on this street are numbered 1 to 99.
Sally asks Sam. “Is your house number a perfect square?” He answers. Then Sally asks. “Is it greater than 50?”
He answers again. Sally thinks she now knows the address of Sam’s house and decides to visit. When she gets
there, she finds out she is wrong. This is not surprising, considering Sam answered only the second question
truthfully.
Sue, unaware of Sally’s conversation, asks Sam two questions. Sue asks, “Is your house number a perfect
cube?” He answers. She then asks, “Is it greater than 25?” He answers again. Sue thinks she knows where Sam
lives and decides to pay him a visit. She too is mistaken as Sam once again answered only the second question
truthfully.
Sam’s house number is less than the numbers of the houses where Sue and Sally live, and that the sum of all
three of their numbers is a perfect square multiplied by two.
In summary,
Sam = 55 Sue = 64 Sally = 81
Solid DI Set - 44
Question
Mr Odd collects all the even numbers between 1 and 100 (both included) and adds them up. Mr Even does the
same for all odd numbers between 10 and 100 (both included). Mr. Prime collects all prime numbers between
50 and 65 (both included) and adds them up. Mr Square collects all the perfect squares of positive integers
between 1 and 100 (both included) and adds them up.
37
1. The final sum obtained is what percentage of the sum of first 100 positive integers?
a) 90% b) 100% c) 110% d) 125%
Answer:
For Solid DI SET 44
Solid DI Set - 45
Question
DIRECTIONS for questions 1 to 3:
Among the marriages conducted for poor people by the “Association for Troubled Lowers” five grooms –
Ranjha, Majnu, Romeo, Farhaad ;and Devdas – get married to the brides Heer, Laila, Juliet, Siri and Paaro, not
necessarily in the same order. Each man marries exactly one woman and vice versa. Ten days after the
marriages took place, the marriage registrar lost the records of these marriage, but remembered only the
following information in connection with these five marriage.
2. If the condition (a) is replaced by “Heer married Romeo only if Laila married Ranjha” than who married Siri?
(1) Ranjha (2) Romeo (3) Majnu (4) Cannot be determined
Answer:
For Solid DI SET 45
For solving these questions, the symbol ‘_’ means ‘married’ and ‘x’ means ‘did not marry’. Let us take down
the information as given below.
Either Laila - Romeo or Ranjha - Heer
Farhad - (Paaro or Heer)
Devdas - Juliet, only if Parro - Farhad
Manju X Juliet
38
From the above, we conclude that Devdas marries Juliet, and hence Paaro marries Farhad ©. This means that
Manju marries Heer. Now, Ranjha is not married to Heer. Hence Romeo must be married to Laila; hence,
Ranjha must be married to Siri (d)
We get the following pairs of married couples.
Ranjha – Siri
Manju – Heer
Romeo – Laila
Farhad – Paaro
Devdas – Juliet
1. Choice (2)
2. Choice (4) We know that Ranjha and Romeo must marry Siri and Laila (not necessarily in that order). But
now from the replaced condition we get only the following additional implication “if Laila did not marry
Ranjha then Heer did not marry Romeo” which still is not enough to determine who among Romeo and Ranjha
marries Siri.
3. Choice (3)
Solid DI Set - 46
Question
DIRECTIONS for questions 1 and 2 : These questions are based on the data given below.
In order to save the world from the hand of evil forces, eight superheroes are sitting around a circular table to
plan their strategy. It was known that Batman and Robin neither sat on adjacent seats nor directly opposite to
each other. Superman sits besides Flash Gordon and opposite to Heman while Mandrake sat directly opposite to
Phantom who sits adjacent to Superman.
Answer:
For Solid DI SET 46
It is known that :
(b) Superman sits between flash Gordon and Phantom (this will give rise to two arrangements)
(c) Heman sits opposite to superman and adjacent to Mandrake, who sat directly opposite to Phantom.
1. Choice (3) As can be observed in the above possibilities, the Spiderman must be seated adjacent to the
Phantom.
2. Choice (4) The Position of Batman and Robin are not fixed, hence choices (1) and (2) cannot be correct. As
in case II, Spiderman sits to the left of the Phantom; hence even choice (3) is incorrect.
Solid DI Set - 47
Question
There are five identical looking boxes having different objects in it and every box has a label indicating their
contents. The following is the description of the contents and the label of each box:
Contents Label
Two Pins PP
Two Balls BB
Two Clips CC
One Pin and One Clip PC
One Ball and One Clip BC
Somebody has mischievously interchanged these labels in such a way that no box contains the label correctly
explaining its contents.
1. If the first box opened contained label PP and the second box opened contained label PC and out of the
combined four items, at least one item was a Ball, which of the following will be definitely true?
1. Other three items will not contain two Balls.
2. Other three items will not contain any Clip.
3. Other three items will contain at least one Clip.
4. None of the above.
2. If the box PP contained two Clips, the box CC contained two Pins and the box BB contained at least one Ball,
which of the following will definitely not be true?
1. The box BC contains one Pin and one Clip.
2. The box BB contains one Ball and one Clip.
40
3. If the information is available that box PC does not contain either any Pin or any Clip and box PP does not
contain any Pin and box CC contains one Clip and one Ball, which of the following will definitely be true if
only one of the remaining boxes is opened?
1. It will have one Pin and one Clip.
2. It will have at least one Clip.
3. It will have two Pins.
4. It will have at least one Pin.
4. If the first box, containing the label BC was opened and it was found that one item is a Ball, which of the
following would be definitely true?
1. The other item may either be a Ball or a Clip.
2. The other box with BB label will contain a Ball and a Clip.
3. The other item will not be a Ball.
4. None of the above.
Answer:
For Solid DI SET 47
1. 4 : If the first box label was PP then it could be any one of the other four and if the second box was PC, it
could be any one of the other four. The union of the two indicates that the two boxes opened could be any two
of the five and hence none of the statements can be DEFINITELY true.
2. 3 : From the given data, PP is CC, BB is BC and CC is PP. That leaves BB and PC to be allocated to PC and
BC. Hence PC is BB and BC is PC. Thus the only statement that is DEFINITELY NOT true is that BC contains
two balls.
3. 4 : From the given data, CC is BC, PC is BB and PP is CC. That leaves behind PC and PP, hence statement 3
is definitely true.
4. 4 : If one item is a Ball, the other one can be either a Ball or a Pin or a Clip. Hence none of the statements are
true.
Solid DI Set - 48
Question
The table shown below is a board on which a counter is moving from cell to cell. Initially, the value of the
counter is the value of the cell it is in. Follow the rules given below to answer the questions.
Cell No. 1 2 3 4 5
A 2 6 7 3 1
B 3 -3 -2 2 1
C -4 -2 -1 6 7
D 5 -5 3 1 2
E -3 -4 -5 -2 1
Rule 1: If the counter moves from cell 1 to cell 2, its value will be the value of cell 1 multiplied by the value of
cell 2. For example, if the counter is moving from cell (A, 1) to cell (D, 5), its value will be 2 x 2 = 4. Next
time if it moves from (D, 5) to (D, 3), its value will be 4 x 3 = 12.
Rule 2: If the counter moves from cell 1 to cell 2 and the value of cell 1 is greater than that of cell 2, then the
counter value is the value of cell 2, else the counter value will be the value of cell 1.
41
1. Rule 1: If the counter moves from (B, 3) to (D, 4) to (A, 1), its value will be:
a) 4 b) 8 c) –2 d) –4
2. Rule 1: If the counter moves from (A, 2), to (B, 2) to (C, 2) to (D, 3) to (E, 4), its value will be
a) 1 b) – 226 c) 0 d) -216
3. If the counter moves from (A, 1) to (C, 3) to (E, 5) to (D, 4), its value according to rule 2 is
a) 1 b) – 4 c) 2 d) – 1
4. If rule 1 supersedes rule 2 for the value of counter > 0, but not for the value of the counter < 0, and the
counter moves from (B, 3) to (D, 1) to (C, 3) to (B, 4), what will be its value?
a) 2 b) – 1 c) – 2 d) 1
Answer:
For Solid DI SET 48
1. d Value of counter = (-2) x (1) x (2) = -4
Solid DI Set - 49
Question
There exists a 10 digit number such that the 1st digit from left represents the number of 0's in the number, the
2nd digit from left represents the number of 1's occurring in the number and so on until the 10th digit represents
the number of 9's in the number.
Answer:
For Solid DI SET 49
Since each digit represents the number of that particular digits representing in that number, the total sum is 10,
as only 10 digits exist in the number. That is the sum of digits is equal to the total digits by the property given.
All the counting is done from the left side of the number. To find the number of 0's note that you cannot have 9,
8 or 7. For the place which gives the number of 7 clearly it can at maximum be one since the sum of digits is
equal to 10, suppose the value is 1 then clearly the 7 which occurs can only be in the first digit otherwise again
the sum will exceed 10. Suppose 7 is the first digit and 1 is the 8th digit then the ones digit must have at least 2
since there is already one 1 occuring in 8th digit, suppose the second digit is 2, then the 3rd digit has to be 1,
since we have one 2 occuring in the number.
42
But if this happens then the sum of digit exceeds 10 thus there can be no 0 in 8th, 9th or 10th digit. Suppose the
7th digit is 1, i.e. there is one 6 in the number, then the 6 can only be in the 1st digit otherwise the sum of the
digits will exceed 10, so if the 6 is in 1st digit, then, at least one 1 is present, (because the 7th digit already has
1), now the number of 1 has to be greater than 1 as you cannot have the second digit as 1 (then two 1's will be
present in the number).
Thus the 2nd digit is 2 and the third digit which represents the number of 2's has to be 1 as the second digit is 2,
thus the number is 6210001000. And the remaining solutions follow.
1. Choice 3
2. Choice 4
3. Choice 3
Solid DI Set - 50
Question
Subhart, a mathematics wizard, develops a coded language. He converts all words in some number series in the
following manner:
Answer:
For Solid DI SET 50
Write down all the letters as per the given rules.
Solid DI Set - 51
Question
These questions are based on the following pie chart and the table, which gives the details of expenses of an
Excellent Management Training Institute in India (EMTI)
43
Faculty 25% 1. If it cost EMTI Rs.4.4 lakhs for printing in 1995-96, salaries in
Advertising 20% 1994-95 are closest to (in Rs.lakhs)
Material Preparation 10%
Printing 25% (1) 6.0 (2) 4.8
Administrative expenses 7.5% (3) 3.0 (4) Insufficient data
Salaries 5%
Others 7.5% 2. If a pie-chart were to be drawn for the expenses in 1994-95 also,
which expense would show the maximum drop in the angle from
1994-95 to 1995-96?
(1) Others (2) Administrative expenses (3) Salaries (4) Insufficient data
3. If the profits were 20% of total turnover in 1995-96, and total expenses in 1995-96 are the same as the
turnover of 1994-95, profit as a percentage of turnover in 1994-95 is how many percentage points less than that
in 1995-96?
4. If the total expenses of EMTI in 1995-96 are Rs.16 lakhs, the total expenses in 1994-95 are closest to (in Rs.
lacs).
(1) 12 (2) 13
(3) 14 (4) 15
5. If the total expenses of EMTI in 1995-96 was Rs.22 lacs and the profit that year stood at 10% of the total
expenses, the turnover of EMTI in 1994-95 was closest to which of the following?