SMT MANORAMABAI MUNDLE COLLEGE OF ARCHITECTURE

FIFTH SEMESTER- COMSTRUCTION TECHNOLOGY AND MATERIALS

QUESTION BANK

FALSE CEILING, SUSPENDED CEILINGS & ROOFS

1. Different materials used for false ceiling

2. Specifications of false ceiling materials (for eg- acoustical materials).

3. Nomenclature of ceiling sections in Gypboard false ceiling.

For eg: Perimeter channel, Ceiling angles, Intermediate channel, Suspender, Connecting clip etc.

4. Nomenclature for Primary and Secondary member in a false ceiling

Ans: Main tee & Cross tee

5. What is the shape of the main runner in false ceiling?

Ans: T

6. The section is used to connect the ceiling section to the intermediate channel is

Ans: Connecting clip

7. What are the various reasons for providing False ceiling?

8. Advantages of different false ceiling covering materials?

9. Steps involved in installation of Gypboard false ceiling.

10. The ceiling height of building is

Ans: Between ceiling and floor level

11. The process used to finish the false ceiling with paper tape is called as?

Answer: Taping

12. Why is the marking line transferred to all corners of the room?

• To maintain uniformity
• For avoiding deviations
• To mark levels
• All of the above

Answer: All of the above

13. The section in false ceiling used along the periphery of the wall is called as

Ans: Perimeter channel

14. Length of the ceiling board should be ___________ to the ceiling section.

Ans: Perpendicular
15. What type of tape is used for jointing?

Ans: Paper

16. Member required for suspending the ceiling?

Ans: Suspenders

17. The L section used to fix the suspender to slab is called as

Ans: Cleat

ROOFS

1. Roofs are provided to protect the structure from----

a. Structural damage
b. Natural disaster
c. Earthquake damages
d. Weathering conditions
2. Components of roof are—
a. Roof frame members and roof coverings
b. Wall members and roof frame members
c. Openings and roof coverings
d. Wall finishes and roof coverings
3. Materials used to construct roofs are----
a. Steel
b. Timber
c. Cement
d. All of the above
4. In pitched roof, triangular part at the end is known as---
a. Gambrel
b. Gable
c. Hip
d. Ridge
5. Thin pieces of split or sawn wood as covering materials are known as----
a. Shingles
b. Ribbon
c. Ply
d. Thatch
6. Thumb rule to calculate rise of the trussed roof is---
a. Span/pitch
b. Span/column to column distance
c. Span/4
d. Span/centre to centre distance
7. Asbestos cement roofing sheet is also known as----
a. Fibre cement sheet
b. Flexible sheet
c. GI sheet
d. Ferro cement sheet
 8. Following structure is not a shell structure
a. Lotus Temple
b. Sydney Opera
c. Sabarmati ashram
d. Munich Olympic stadium
9. Following is not an envelope material used for roofing ----
a. Fibre glass
b. Polyester
c. ETFE
d. Porcelain
10. A member which runs horizontally at the highest level of the roof is known as
a. Ridge
b. Valley
c. Rafter
d. Wall plate

11. Identification of different types of roofs, For eg;

• Sloping triangles in walls are formed in Gable roof

• The type of roof which slopes in two directions with a change in the sloping angle on each
side is known as Gambrel roof
• Mansard roof is a roof which slopes in four directions with break in the slope on each side
• Onion dome bulges out beyond their base diameters and taper smoothly in an ogee (S-curve)
profile.
• The roof which slopes downwards from ends towards center of span to form a V shape is
Butterfly roof
• Roof slopes in opposite directions at two different levels and have a vertical wall in between
the levels is known as Clerestory roof
• Pyramid roof has four sloping sides with zero vertical roof lines.

12. The uppermost part of building to give protection from rain, wind etc

Ans: Roof

13. Pitched and sloping roofs are suitable for

Ans: High rainfall region

ADVANCE FOUNDATIONS

1. Black cotton soil is unsuitable for foundations because of its property to undergo a volumetric
change due to variation of moisture content

2. To support a heavy structure in sandy soil, the type of foundation generally used, is Pile
foundation

3. Identification of different types of foundation, For eg:

• Raft foundation consists of a thick reinforced cement slab covering whole area to
support heavy concentrated structural loads, is known as
 • Raft foundation are generally preferred to when the area required for individual
footing, is more than 50% of total area
• Pile foundation is a type of deep Foundation
• Anchor pile is not based on the load transfer
• Screw pile is not a type of concrete pile but a steel pile and is used in soft clay of low
bearing capacity.
• Raymond pile is the example of cased pile
• Compaction pile is used to increase the bearing capacity of soil
• Fender piles are used to protect water front structures against impact from ships or
other floating objects.
• The pile provided with one or more bulbs in its vertical shaft, is generally known as
Under-ream pile
• Steel foundation are called as Grillage foundation
• The Auger borings are not common in soils that require lateral support
• For the construction of flyovers in sandy soils, the type of foundation provided, is
Pile foundation
• The foundation in which a beam is provided to join two footings, is known as
Strap footing
• Pile foundation is suitable for Compact soil
• The minimum distance between the centres of bulb of diameter d, of a multi ream
pile is 2d-1.5d
• Continuous or Spread footing is used in load bearing masonry construction

4. What are the advantages of Concrete piles over timber piles, Precast piles over Cast in Situ
piles etc?

5. In case of Raymond pile:

• Lengths vary from 6 m to 12 m
• Diameter of top of piles varies from 40 cm to 60 cm
• Diameter of pile at bottom varies from 20 cm to 28 cm

6. Various uses of Grillage foundation are :

• Is used to transfer heavy structural loads from steel columns to steel beams and then to soil
• Is economical
• Does not require deep cutting as the required base area with required pressure intensity is
obtained at a shallow depth.

7. The maximum bearing capacity of soil is that of

Ans: Hard rocks

8. Raft foundation are used for:

• Counter acting of hydrostatic effect

• Providing increased area of foundation over poor bearing capacity of soil
• Spanning over small soft or loose pockets

9. The bearing capacity of piles is determined by the following:

• Static formula
• Dynamic formula
• Pile load tests

10. Under reamed piles are generally used for the following;

• Machine foundation
• Transmission line towers
• Tall structures

11. Box foundation is also called

Answer: Caisson

12. Types of machine foundation

SHALLOW FOUNDATIONS
1. How many types of foundations are based on depth?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
2. Which footing is used in load bearing masonary construction
a. Pile
b. Strap
c. Strip
d. Isolated
3. How many types of combined footings are possible?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
4. CPRF stands for......... Combined Pile and Raft Foundations
EARTHQUAKE RESISTANT STRUCTURES

BE THOROUGH WITH ALL THE TERMS

Fault, Fault Line, Epicentre, Focus, Magnitude, Intensity, Types Of Plate Boundaries, Types Of Faults,
Inside Of Earth Layers, Tectonic Plates, All Types Of Waves,Their Directions, Speed, Damage Causing
Capacity, Seismograph, Isoseismals, Various Scales To Measure Intensity And Magnitude, Seismic
Zones Of India, Architectural Design Considerations And Features, Types Of Stresses And Movements
In Buildings, Oscillation And Flexibility Of Buildings, Seismic Codes Of India, Behavior Of Brick Masonry,
Stone Masonry, Rcc And Remedies Or Extra Features To Safeguard Buildings, Foundations For
Earthquake Zone Buildings, Technologies To Protect Buildings –Egs- Seismic Dampers, Base Isolation

1) Sudden movements which originate from inside the earth are

Tsunami
Volcano
Earthquake
Landslide
2) The instrument that measures earthquake shaking, is called
Seismograph
Seismoscale
Seismogenrator
Seismogram

3) The point where the rocks start to fracture within the earth is
Fault
Focal Depth
Epicenter
Focus

4) Magnitude is a ______________ measure of the actual size of the earthquake.

Qualitative
Quantitative

5) The point vertically above on surface of the earth from the point where the rocks start to
fracture is
Hypocenter
Epicenter
Focus
Focal Depth

6) Which of these is not a type of Seismic wave

Love Waves
Tertiary Waves
Rayleigh Waves
Secondary Waves

7) Intensity is a ______________ measure of the actual shaking of the earthquake at a location

Qualitative
Quantitative

8) The distribution of intensity at different places during an earthquake is shown graphically

using lines joining places with equal seismic intensity called ___________.
Isobars
Isotopes
Isoseismals
Isometrics

9) Zone V in India according to The Indian Seismic Zone map is a

Very High Risk Zone
High Risk Zone
Moderate Risk Zone
 Low Risk Zone

10) Earthquake causes shaking of ground in

X,Y direction
X,Z direction
Y,Z direction
X,Y,Z direction

11) When the two tectonic plates move side by side along the same direction or opposite, it is
called
Divergent Boundry
Convergent Boundry
Transform Boundry
Parallel Boundry

12) Direction of earthquake force if perpendicular to plane of masonry wall, then the masonry
wall is said to be in
Carton Action
Ball Action
Box Action
Hold Action

13) Direction of earthquake force if perpendicular to plane of masonry wall, then the masonry
wall is said to be in
Weak Direction
Strong Direction

14) What is used in stone masonry walls to prevent wythes (vertical layers) from separating
Through Stone
Rough Stone
Polished Stone
Sandstone

15) Strength Hierarchy for building to remain safe during earthquake shaking is
column stronger than foundation, beam stronger than colomn
foundation stronger than colomn, column stronger than beam
foundation stronger than column, beam stronger than colomn
beam stronger than foundation, column stronger than beam

16) Buildings with re-entrant corners, like V, +, U shape in plan are ______ as far as performance
during strong earthquakes is considered.
GOOD
BAD

17) During past earthquakes, _____ columns have suffered more damage in a RCC frame building
with both short and tall columns in same storey of building.
 SHORTER
TALLER

18) Buildings with symmetrically placed shear walls have performed better during past
earthquakes.
TRUE
FALSE

19) Which is a basic technology used to protect building from damaging earthquake effects?
Building isolation
Base Connection
Base Isolation
Building Compartmentalization

20) Viscous damper is a type of seismic damper, which is a basic technology to protect building
from damaging earthquake effects.
TRUE
FALSE

EXPANSION JOINTS
1. The centre to centre distance between two expansion joints should not exceed _______
2. When one portion of a building is higher than other, it is desirable to have complete
separation of the two parts by providing_____________
3. The contraction joints for floor should be provided at c/c spacing varying
between__________
4. The expansion and contraction joints generally consist of some elastic material known as
____________which should be compressible, rigid, cellular and resilient.
5. _______are provided in contraction joints to transfer the load.
6. Vertical construction joints are provided where the shear forces are minimum in case
of______
7. In case of beam, the construction joint should be located____
8. __________ are installed to allow shrinkage movement in the structure.
9. Joint where there is discontinuity of concrete but reinforcement continues is called
as_________-
10. Provision of ___________ becomes necessary to separate out the foundation of machines
from rest of the structure to avoid transference of dynamic stresses from machine to
structure.
11. In case of covered verandah slabs, the expansion joints maybe spaced from
12. Water bar is used to seal the joint against passage of water. T OR F
13. Expansion joints in ________ should have water bar and joint filler for prevention of water
leakages.
14. A sealing compound_______---- Properties?
15. _____ are placed at the stopping places in construction joints which forms the groove for
second placement of concrete.
16. A construction joint is formed by creating______
PAINTS AND VARNISHES

1. In how many layers is oil paint applied to a surface?

2. Anticorrosive paint is ___________ in colour
3. Cement paints require a smooth surface to be applied on
4. Spray painting is used to:
5. In paints the pigment is responsible for
6. The liquid part of the paint is called
7.

In paints the pigment is responsible for

A. Durability
B. Colour
C. Smoothness
D. Glassy face
B. Colour
8. Enamel paint is made by adding
A. White lead in varnish
B. Bitumen in varnish
C. White lead in lacquer
D. Zinc white in spirit
A. White lead in varnish
9. The commonly based used in a paint is
A. Iron oxide
B. Zinc oxide
C. Any one of the above
D. None of the above
C. Any one of the above
10. Bitumen paints offer
A. Pleasing surface
B. Hard surface
C. Smooth surface
D. Protective surface
D. Protective surface

PLASTERS AND FINISHES

1. The mortar used for the smooth cast finish has cement and sand in the ratio of
___________
a) 1:2
b) 2:3
c) 1:3
d) 1:4
Answer: c
Explanation: The mortar used for the smooth cast finish has cement and sand in the ratio of
1:3. A smooth and levelled surface is obtained in this finish.

2. In sand faced finish, the second coat of plaster is applied after curing the first coat for
__________ days.
a) 7
b) 15
c) 21
d) 27
Answer: a
Explanation: Sand faced finish is acquired by plastering in two coats. The second coat of
plaster is applied after curing the first coat for 7 days. The surface of the final coat is finished
by rubbing clean sand of uniform size.

3. In smooth cast finish, steel floats are not recommended for external renderings.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: In smooth cast finish, steel floats are not recommended for external renderings.
Instead, a wooden float is used for applying the mortar. This is because steel floats give a very
smooth finish which is very likely to crack when exposed to atmospheric conditions.

4. The first coat in sand faced finish is applied in ___________ cement sand mortar.
a) 1:2
b) 1:3
c) 1:1
d) 1:4
Answer: d
Explanation: The first coat in sand faced finish is applied in 1:4 cement sand mortar. However,
the mortar for the second coat has cement and sand in the ratio 1:1. The first coat is provided
with zigzag lines.

5. In sand faced finish, the thickness of the second coat is ___________

a) 4 mm
b) 8 mm
c) 12 mm
d) 15 mm
Answer: b
Explanation: In sand faced finish, the thickness of the first coat is 12 mm while the thickness
of the second coat is 8 mm. The sand in the mortar mix for the second coat should be
perfectly screened in order to obtain a uniform size resulting in the surface having sand grains
of uniform density.
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6. Rough cast finish is also known as ____________

a) Dry dash finish
b) Pebble dash
c) Spatter dash finish
d) Textured finish
Answer: c
Explanation: Rough cast finish is also known as spatter dash finish. This type of finish is
waterproof and durable. It is also resistant to cracking and crazing.

7. In rough cast finish, the mortar for the final coat has the ratio ____________ (cement:
sand: aggregate).
a) 1 : 3/2 : 3
b) 3/2 : 1 : 3
 c) 1 : 3/2 : 4
d) 1 : 1/2 : 3
Answer: a
Explanation: In rough cast finish, the mortar for the final coat has the ratio 1 : 3/2 : 3 (cement
: sand : aggregate). Here, the size of the coarse aggregate varies from 3mm to 12 mm. A large
trowel is used to dash the mortar against the prepared plastered surface.

8. Which of the following types of plaster finishes is used with stucco plastering?
a) Smooth cast finish
b) Pebble dash
c) Scrapped finish
d) Textured finish
Answer: d
Explanation: Textured finish is used with stucco plastering. In this, suitable tools are used to
make ornamental patterns on the final coat of stucco plastering.

9. Pebble dash is also known as ___________

a) Dry dash finish
b) Rough cast finish
c) Wet dash finish
d) Spatter dash finish
Answer: a
Explanation: Pebble dash is also known as dry dash finish. The mortar used in this type of
finish has cement and sand in the ratio 1:3. It is applied in a thickness of 12 mm.

10. In pebble dash, the size of pebbles used generally varies from ___________
a) 2-5 mm
b) 10-20 mm
c) 20-35 mm
d) 30-50 mm
Answer: b
Explanation: In pebble dash, the size of pebbles used generally varies from 10-20 mm. These
pebbles are dashed against the surface in order to keep them in position. The pebbles may
also be lightly pressed in the mortar by using a wooden float

DAMP PROOFING
1. DPM stands for:
a) Damp Proof Material
b) Damp Proof Mix
c) Damp Proof Member
d) Damp Proof Membrane
2. At roof slab level over the DPC, __________ are provided.
a) Tiles
b) Concrete
c) P.C.C
d) Rubber sheet
3. DPC materials should ideally be flexible, where differential thermal movements occur.
a) True
b) False
4. Which of the below is an example of semi rigid DPC material?
a) Plastic sheeting
b) Cement concrete
c) Asphalt
d) Stone
5. For DPC at plinth level, which grade of concrete is used?
a) M10
b) M20
c) M25
d) M15
6. DPC materials can be classified into:
a) 3
b) 4
c) 2
d) 5
7. Dampness spreads upwards from the ground only.
a) True
b) False
8. The damp proof course (D.P.C.) is measured in________________?
a) Cub. m
b) Sq. m
c) Metres
d) None of these
9. Damp proofing __________ the process of water absorption.
a) Increase
b) Slows
c) Doesn’t effect
d) Depends on the mixture
10. The addition of the admixture to the mix __________ the surface tension.
a) Lowers
 b) Higher
c) Don’t affect
d) No change

11. If the soil is dry, DPC for ground floor consists of the layer of:
a) Metal
b) Coarse sand
c) Fine sand
d) Concrete
12. The horizontal d.p.c. is placed not less than 150 mm above the:
(a) finished floor level
(b) foundations
(c) External ground level
(d) Oversite concrete
13. A d.p.c.:
(a) provides a level bed
(b) provides a bed for floor joists
(c) Holds back moisture
(d) binds the lower courses together
14. The type of material suitable for a flexible d.p.c. is:
(a) blue slate
(b) bituminous felt
(c) engineering bricks
(d) mastic asphalt
15. A d.p.c. placed under a stone sill should extend on each side of the sill at least:
(a) 75 mm
(b) 100 mm
(c) 150 mm
(d) 200 mm

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