NCERT Solutions For Class 11 Physics Chapter 10 Mechanical Properties of Fluids

NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Physics Chapter 10
Mechanical Properties of Fluids

Q.1: Explain why
(a) The blood pressure in humans is greater at the feet than at the brain
(b) Atmospheric pressure at a height of about 6 km decreases to nearly half of its value at the
sea level, though the height of the atmosphere is more than 100 km
(c) Hydrostatic pressure is a scalar quantity even though the pressure is force divided by area
Solution:
(i). The blood column to the feet is at a greater height than the head, thus the blood pressure in the feet
is greater than that in the brain.
(ii). The density of the atmosphere does not decrease linearly with the increase in altitude, in fact, most
of the air molecules are close to the surface. Thus, there is this nonlinear variation of atmospheric
pressure.
(iii). In hydrostatic pressure the force is transmitted equally in all direction in the liquid, thus there is no
fixed direction of pressure making it a scalar quantity.
Q.2: Explain why

(a) The angle of contact of mercury with glass is obtuse, while that of water with glass is acute.
(b) Water on a clean glass surface tends to spread out while mercury on the same surface tends
to form drops. (Put differently, water wets glass while mercury does not.)
(c) Surface tension of a liquid is independent of the area of the surface
(d) Water with detergent disolved in it should have small angles of contact.
(e) A drop of liquid under no external forces is always spherical in shape
Solution:
(a) Water molecules have weak intermolecular forces and a strong force of attraction towards solids.
Thus, they spill out. Whereas mercury molecules have a stronger intermolecular force of attraction and
a weak attraction force towards solids, thus they form droplets.
(b) The angle of contact is the angle between the line tangent to the liquid surface at the point of
contact and the surface of the liquid. It is donated by θ in the following diagram:
In the diagram Ssl, Sla and Ssa, are the respective interfacial tensions between the liquid-solid, liquid-
air, and solid-air interfaces. At the line of contact, the surface forces between the three media are in
equilibrium, i.e.,
Thus, for mercury, the angle of contact θ, is obtuse because Ssa < Sla. And for water, the angle is acute
because Ssl < Sla
(c) A liquid always tends to acquire minimum surface area because of the presence of surface tension.
And as a sphere always has the smallest surface area for a given volume, a liquid drop will always take
the shape of a sphere under zero external forces.
(d) Surface tension is independent of the area of the liquid surface because it is a force depending
upon the unit length of the interface between the liquid and the other surface, not the area of the liquid.
(e) Clothes have narrow pores that behave like capillaries, now we know that the rise of liquid in a
capillary tube is directly proportional to cos θ. So a soap decreases the value of θ in order to increase
the value of cos θ, allowing the faster rise of water through the pores of the clothes.
Q.3: Fill in the blanks using the word(s) from the list appended with each statement:
(a) The surface tension of liquids generally … with temperatures (increases/decreases)
(b) The viscosity of gases … with temperature, whereas the viscosity of liquids … with
temperature (increases/decreases)
(c) For solids with an elastic modulus of rigidity, the shearing force is proportional to … , while
for fluids, it is proportional to … (shear strain/rate of shear strain)
(d) For a fluid in a steady flow, the increase in flow speed at a constriction follows (conservation
of mass / Bernoulli’s principle)
(e) For the model of a plane in a wind tunnel, turbulence occurs at a … speed for turbulence for
an actual plane (greater / smaller)
Solution:
(a) Decreases
(b) increases; decreases
(c) shear strain; rate of shear strain
(d) conservation of mass; Bernoulli’s principle
(e) greater.
Q.4: Explain why

(a) To keep a piece of paper horizontal, you should blow over, not under, it
(b) When we try to close a water tap with our fingers, fast jets of water gush through the
openings between our fingers
(c) The size of the needle of a syringe controls flow rate better than the thumb pressure exerted
by a doctor while administering an injection
(d) A fluid flowing out of a small hole in a vessel results in a backward thrust on the vessel
(e) A spinning cricket ball in air does not follow a parabolic trajectory
Solution:
(a) If we blow over a piece of paper, velocity of air above the paper becomes more than that below it.
As K.E. of air above the paper increases, so in accordance with Bernoulli’s theorem its pressure energy
and hence its pressure decreases.
Due to greater value of pressure below the piece of paper = atmospheric pressure, it remains
horizontal and does not fall.
(b) As per the equation of continuity area × velocity = constant. When we try to close a water tap with
our fingers, the area of cross-section of the outlet of water jet is reduced considerably as the openings
between our fingers provide constriction (regions of smaller area)
Thus, velocity of water increases greatly and fast jets of water come through the openings between our
fingers.
In this equation, the pressure P occurs with a single power whereas the velocity occurs with a square
power. Therefore, the velocity has more effect compared to the pressure. It is for this reason that
needle of the syringe controls flow rate better than the thumb pressure exerted by the doctor.
(d) This is because of principle of conservation of momentum. While the flowing fluid carries forward
momentum, the vessel gets a backward momentum.
(e) A spinning cricket ball would have followed a parabolic trajectory has there been no air. But
because of air the Magnus effect takes place. Due to the Magnus effect the spinning cricket ball
deviates from its parabolic trajectory.
Q.5: A 50 kg girl wearing high heel shoes balances on a single heel. The heel is circular with a
diameter of 1.0 cm. What is the pressure exerted by the heel on the horizontal floor?
Solution:
Given:
Q-6: Toricelli’s barometer used mercury. Pascal duplicated it using French wine of density 984
kg m–3. Determine the height of the wine column for normal atmospheric pressure
Solution:
We know:
Density of mercury, ρ1 = 13.6 × 103 kg/m3
Height of the mercury column, h1 = 0.76 m
Density of French wine, ρ2 = 984 kg/m3
Let the height of the French wine column = h2
Acceleration due to gravity, g = 9.8 m/s2.
We know that:
Pressure in the mercury column = Pressure in the wine column
ρ1h1 g =ρ2h2 g
Q-7: A vertical off-shore structure is built to withstand a maximum stress of 109 Pa. Is the
structure suitable for putting up on top of an oil well in the ocean ? Take the depth of the ocean
to be roughly 3 km, and ignore ocean currents
Solution:
Given:
The maximum stress the structure can handle, P = 109 Pa
Depth of the sea, d = 3 km = 3 × 103 m
Density of water, ρ = 103 kg/m3
Acceleration due to gravity, g = 9.8 m/s2
We know:
The pressure exerted by the seawater at depth, d = ρdg = 103 x 3 × 103 × 9.8 = 2.94 × 107 Pa
As the sea exerts a pressure lesser than the maximum stress the structure can handle, the structure
can survive on the oil well in the sea.
Q-8: A hydraulic automobile lift is designed to lift cars with a maximum mass of 3000 kg. The
area of cross-section of the piston carrying the load is 425 cm2. What maximum pressure would
the smaller piston have to bear?
Solution:
Given:
Maximum mass that can be lifted, m = 3000 kg
Area of cross-section of the load-carrying piston, A = 425 cm2= 425 × 10-4 m2
The maximum force exerted by the load,
F = mg = 3000 x 9.8 = 29400 N
The maximum pressure on the load carrying piston, P = F / A
In a liquid, the pressure is transmitted equally in all directions. Therefore, the maximum pressure on the
smaller is 6.917 × 105 Pa
Q-9: A U-tube contains water and methylated spirit separated by mercury. The mercury columns
in the two arms are in level with 10.0 cm of water in one arm and 12.5 cm of spirit in the other.
What is the specific gravity of spirit?
Solution:
Given:
Height of the spirit column, h1 = 12.5 cm = 0.125 m
Height of the water column, h2 = 10 cm = 0.1 m
Let, A and B be the points of contact between spirit and mercury and water and mercury, respectively.
P0 = Atmospheric pressure
ρ1 = Density of spirit
ρ2 = Density of water
Pressure a point A = P0 + ρ1h 1g
Pressure at point B = P0 + ρ2h 2g
We know pressure at B and D is the same so;
P0 + ρ1h1g = P0 + ρ2h 2g
Therefore the specific gravity of water is 0.8.
Q-10: In the previous problem, if 15.0 cm of water and spirit each is further poured into the
respective arms of the tube, what is the difference in the levels of mercury in the two arms?
(Specific gravity of mercury = 13.6)
Solution:
Given:
h1 = 10.0 cm
ρ1 = 1 g cm-3
For spirit column in other arm of U-tube,
h2 = 12.5 cm
p2 = ?
Let h be the difference between the levels of mercury in the two arms.
Pressure exerted by height h, of the mercury column:
= hρg
= h × 13.6g … (i)
Difference between the pressures exerted by water and spirit:
= ρ1h1g – ρ2h2g
= g(25 × 1 – 27.5 × 0.8)
= 3g … (ii)
Equating equations (i) and (ii), we get:
13.6 hg = 3g
h = 0.220588 ≈ 0.221 cm
Q-11: Can Bernoulli’s equation be used to describe the flow of water through a rapid in a river?
Explain.
Solution:
Bernoulli’s equation cannot be applied to the water flowing in a river because it is applicable only
for ideal liquids in a streamlined flow and the water in a stream is turbulent.
Q-12: Does it matter if one uses gauge instead of absolute pressures in applying Bernoulli’s
equation? Explain
Solution:
No, it does not matter if one uses gauge instead of absolute pressures in applying Bernoulli’s equation,
provided the atmospheric pressure at the two points where Bernoulli’s equation applied to the system
are significantly different.
Q-13: Glycerine flows steadily through a horizontal tube of length 1.5 m and radius 1.0 cm. If the
amount of glycerine collected per second at one end is 4.0 × 10-3 kg s-1, what is the pressure
difference between the two ends of the tube? (Density of glycerine = 1.3 × 103 kg m-3 and
viscosity of glycerine = 0.83 Pa s). [You may also like to check if the assumption of laminar flow
in the tube is correct].
Solution:
Given:
Length of the horizontal tube, l = 1.5 m
Radius of the tube, r = 1 cm = 0.01 m
Diameter of the tube, d = 2r = 0.02 m
Glycerine is flowing at the rate of 4.0 × 10-3 kg/s
M = 4.0 × 10-3 kg/s
Density of glycerine, ρ = 1.3 × 103 kg m-3
Viscosity of glycerine, η = 0.83 Pa s
We know, volume of glycerine flowing per sec:
Using Poiseville’s formula, we get:
Where p’ is the pressure difference between the two ends of the pipe.
Since the Reynolds’s number is 0.3 which is way smaller than 2000, the flow of glycerine in the
pipe is laminar.
Q-14: In a test experiment on a model aeroplane in a wind tunnel, the flow speeds on the upper
and lower surfaces of the wing are 70 m s–1 and 63 m s-1 respectively. What is the lift on the wing
if its area is 2.5 m2? Take the density of air to be 1.3 kg m–3.
Solution:
Given:
Speed of wind on the upper side of the wing, V1 = 70 m/s
Speed of wind on the lower side of the wing, V2 = 63 m/s
Area of the wing, A = 2.5 m2
Density of air, ρ = 1.3 kg m -3
Using Bernoulli’s theorem, we get:
Where, P1 = Pressure on the upper side of the wing

P2 = Pressure on the lower side of the wing
Now the lift on the wing = ( P2 – P1 ) x Area
= 1.51 x 103 N
Therefore the lift experienced by the wings of the air craft is 1.51 x 103 N.
Q-15: Figures (a) and (b) refer to the steady flow of a (non-viscous) liquid. Which of the two
figures is incorrect ? Why ?
Solution:
Figure (a) is incorrect. The reason is that at the kink, the velocity of flow of liquid is large and hence
using the Bernoulli’s theorem the pressure is less. As a result, the water should not rise higher in the
tube where there is a kink (i.e., where the area of cross-section is small).
Q-16: The cylindrical tube of a spray pump has a cross-section of 8.0 cm2 one end of which has
40 fine holes each of diameter 1.0 mm. If the liquid flow inside the tube is 1.5 m min–1, what is
the speed of ejection of the liquid through the holes?
Solution:
Given:
Number of holes, n = 40
Cross-sectional area of the spray pump, A1 = 8 cm-2= 8 × 10-4 m-2
Radius of each hole, r = 0.5 × 10-3 m
Cross-sectional area of each hole, a = πr2 = π (0.5 × 10-3 )2 m2
Speed of flow of water inside the tube, V1 = 1.5 m/min = 0.025 m/s
Let, the water ejected through the holes at a speed = V2
Using the law of continuity:
A1V1 = A2 V2
Therefore, V2 = 0.636 m/s
Q-17: A U-shaped wire is dipped in a soap solution, and removed. The thin soap film formed
between the wire and the light slider supports a weight of 1.5 × 10–2 N (which includes the small
weight of the slider). The length of the slider is 30 cm. What is the surface tension of the film?
Solution:
Given:
The maximum weight the film can support, W = 1.5 × 10-2 N
Length of the slider, l = 30 cm = 0.3 m
Total length of liquid film, l = 2 x 30 cm = 60 cm = 0.6 m because the liquid film has two surfaces.
Surface tension, T = F/l =1.5 x 10-2 N/0.6m =2.5 x 10-2 Nm-1
Q-18: Figure (a) shows a thin liquid film supporting a small weight = 4.5 × 10–2 N. What is the
weight supported by a film of the same liquid at the same temperature in Fig. (b) and (c)?
Explain your answer physically.
Solution:
Case (a):
(a) Given, the length of the film supporting the weight = 40 cm = 0.4 m.
Total weight supported (or force) = 4.5 x 10-2 N.
Film has two free surfaces, Surface tension, S =4.5 x 10-2/2 x 0.4 =5.625 x 10-2 Nm-1
Since the liquid is same for all the given cases (a), (b) and (c), and temperature is also the same,
therefore surface tension for cases (b) and (c) will also be the same = 5.625 x 10-2.
In Fig. (b) and (c), the length of the film supporting the weight is also the same as that of (a), hence the
total weight supported in each case is 4.5 x 10-2 N.
Q-19: What is the pressure inside the drop of mercury of radius 3.00 mm at room temperature?
Surface tension of mercury at that temperature (20 °C) is 4.65 × 10–1 N m–1. The atmospheric
pressure is 1.01 × 105 Pa. Also give the excess pressure inside the drop.
Solution:
Given:
Surface tension of mercury, S = 4.65 × 10-1 N m-1
Radius of the mercury drop, r = 3.00 mm = 3 × 10-3 m
Atmospheric pressure, P0 = 1.01 × 105 Pa
We know:
Total pressure inside the mercury drop = Excess pressure inside mercury + Atmospheric pressure
Q-20: What is the excess pressure inside a bubble of soap solution of radius 5.00 mm, given
that the surface tension of soap solution at the temperature (20 °C) is 2.50 × 10–2 N m–1? If an air
bubble of the same dimension were formed at depth of 40.0 cm inside a container containing
the soap solution (of relative density 1.20), what would be the pressure inside the bubble? (1
atmospheric pressure is 1.01 × 105 Pa)
Solution:
Given:
Surface tension of the soap solution, S = 2.50 × 10-2 N/m
r = 5.00 mm = 5 × 10-3 m
Density of the soap solution, ρ = 1.2 × 103 kg/m3
Relative density of the soap solution = 1.20
Air bubble is at a depth, h = 30 cm = 0.3 m
Radius of the air bubble, r = 4 mm = 5× 10-3 m
1 atmospheric pressure = 1.01 × 105 Pa
We know;
Thus the excess pressure inside the soap bubble is 20 Pa.
Thus, the excess pressure inside the air bubble is 10 Pa

At the depth of 0.4 m, the total pressure inside the air bubble = Atmospheric pressure + hρg + P’
= 1.01 x 105 + 0.4 x 1.2 x 103 x 9.8 + 10
= 1.06 x 105 Pa.
Q-21: A tank with a square base of area 1.0 m2 is divided by a vertical partition in the middle.
The bottom of the partition has a small-hinged door of area 20 cm2. The tank is filled with water
in one compartment, and an acid (of relative density 1.7) in the other, both to a height of 4.0 m.
compute the force necessary to keep the door close.
Solution:
Given:
Area of the hinged door, a = 20 cm2= 20 × 10-4 m
Base area of the given tank, A = 2 m2
Density of water, ρ1 = 103 kg/m3
Density of acid, ρ2 = 1.7 × 103 kg/m3
Height of the water column, h1 = 4 m
Height of the acid column, h2 = 4 m
Acceleration due to gravity, g = 9.8 ms-2
Pressure exerted by water , P1 = h1ρ1g = 4 x 103 x 9.8 = 3.92 x 104 Pa
the pressure exerted by acid , P2 = h2ρ2g = 4 x 1.7 x 103 x 9.8 = 6.664 x 104 Pa
Pressure difference between the above two :
ΔP = P2 – P1
= (6.664 – 3.92) X 104= 2.744 x 104Pa
Thus, the force on the door = ΔP x a
=2.744 x 104 x 20 × 10-4= 54.88 N
Hence the force required to keep the door closed is 54.88N
Q-22: A manometer reads the pressure of a gas in an enclosure as shown in Fig. 10.25 (a) When
a pump removes some of the gas, the manometer reads as in Fig. 10.25 (b) The liquid used in
the manometers is mercury and the atmospheric pressure is 76 cm of mercury.
(a) Give the absolute and gauge pressure of the gas in the enclosure for cases (a) and (b), in
units of cm of mercury.
(b) How would the levels change in case (b) if 13.6 cm of water (immiscible with mercury) is
poured into the right limb of the manometer? (Ignore the small change in the volume of the gas).
Solution:
(a) For diagram (a):
Given, Atmospheric pressure, P0 = 76 cm of Hg
The difference between the levels of mercury in the two arms is gauge pressure.
Thus, gauge pressure is 20 cm of Hg.
We know, Absolute pressure = Atmospheric pressure + Gauge pressure
= 76 + 20 = 96 cm of Hg
For diagram (b):
Difference between the levels of mercury in the two arms = –18 cm
Hence, gauge pressure is –18 cm of Hg.
And, Absolute pressure = Atmospheric pressure + Gauge pressure
= 76 cm – 18 cm = 58 cm
(b) It is given that 13.6 cm of water is poured into the right arm of figure (b).
We know that relative density of mercury = 13.6
=> A 13.6 cm column of water is equivalent to 1 cm of mercury.
Let, h be the difference in the mercury levels of the two arms.
Now, pressure in the right arm PR = Atmospheric pressure + 1 cm of Hg
= 76 + 1 = 77 cm of Hg . . . . . . (a)
The mercury column rises in the left arm, thus the pressure in the left limb, PL = 58 + h . . . . . . (b)
Equating equations (a) and (b) we get :
77 = 58 + h
Therefore the difference in the mercury levels of the two arms, h = 19 cm
Q-23: Two vessels have the same base area but different shapes. The first vessel takes twice
the volume of water that the second vessel requires to fill upto a particular common height. Is
the force exerted by the water on the base of the vessel the same in the two cases ? If so, why
do the vessels filled with water to that same height give different readings on a weighing scale ?
Solution:
As the base area is the same the pressure and thus the force acting on the two vessels will also be the
same. However, force is also exerted on the walls of the vessel, which have a nonvertical component
when the walls are not perpendicular to the base. The net non-vertical component on the sides of the
vessel is lesser for the second vessel than the first. Therefore, the vessels have different weights
despite having the same force on the base.
Q-24: During a blood transfusion, the needle is inserted in a vein where the gauge pressure is
2000 Pa. At what height must the blood container be placed so that blood may just enter the
vein? [Use the density of whole blood from Table 10.1]
Solution:
Given:
Density of whole blood, ρ = 1.06 × 103 kg m-3
Gauge pressure, P = 2000 Pa
=P/ρg =200/(1.06 x 103 x 9.8) =0.1925 m
The blood may just enter the vein if the height at which the blood container be kept must be slightly
greater than 0.1925 m i.e„ 0.2 m.
Q-25: In deriving Bernoulli’s equation, we equated the work done on the fluid in the tube to its
change in the potential and kinetic energy. (a) What is the largest average velocity of blood flow
in an artery of diameter 2 × 10–3 m if the flow must remain laminar? (b) Do the dissipative forces
become more important as the fluid velocity increases? Discuss qualitatively.
Solution:
(a) If dissipative forces are present, then some forces in liquid flow due to pressure difference is spent
against dissipative forces, due to which the pressure drop becomes large.
(b) The dissipative forces become more important with increasing flow velocity, because of turbulence.
Q-26: (a) What is the largest average velocity of blood flow in an artery of radius 2×10 –3m if the
flow must remain lanimar? (b) What is the corresponding flow rate ? (Take viscosity of blood to
be 2.084 × 10–3 Pa s).
Solution:
Given:
Radius of the vein, r = 2 × 10-3 m
Diameter of the vein, d = 2 × 1 × 10-3 m = 2 × 10-3 m
Viscosity of blood ,η = 2.08 x 10-3 m
Density of blood, ρ = 1.06 × 103 kg/m3
(a) We know, Reynolds’ number for laminar flow, NR = 2000
Therefore, greatest average velocity of blood is:
(b) And, flow rate R = VAVG π r2 = 0.983 x 3.14 x ( 10-3)2= 1.235 x 10-6 m3/s
Q.27: A plane is in level flight at constant speed and each of its wings has an area of 25 m2. If
the speed of the air is 180 km/h over the lower wing and 234 km/h over the upper wing surface,
determine the plane’s mass. (Take air density to be 1 kg/m3), g = 9.8 m/s2
Solution:
Area of the wings of the plane, A=2×25=50 m2
Speed of air over the lower wing, V1
=180km/h= 180 x (5/18) = 50 m/s
Speed of air over the upper wing, V2
=234km/h= 234 x (5/18) = 65 m/s
Density of air, =1kg/m3
Pressure of air over the lower wing =P1
Pressure of air over the upper wing =P2
Pressure difference, ΔP = P1−P2 = (1/2) ρ (V22 – V12)
= (1/2) x 1 x (652 – 502) = 862.5 Pa
The net upward force F=ΔP x A
The upward forces balances the weight of the plane
mg = ΔP x A
m = (ΔP x A)/g
= (862.5 x 50)/9.8
=4400kg
The mass of the plane is 4400kg
Q-28: In Millikan’s oil drop experiment, what is the terminal speed of an uncharged drop of
radius 2.0 × 10–5 m and density 1.2 × 103 kg m–3. Take the viscosity of air at the temperature of
the experiment to be 1.8 × 10–5 Pa s. How much is the viscous force on the drop at that speed?
Neglect buoyancy of the drop due to air.
Solution:
Given:
Radius of the uncharged drop, r = 2.0 × 10-5 m
Density of the uncharged drop, ρ = 1.2 × 103 kg m-3
Viscosity of air, η = 1.8 × 10-5 Pa s
We consider the density of air to be zero in order to neglect the buoyancy of air.
Therefore terminal velocity (v) is:
And the viscous force on the drop is:

F = 6πηrv
= 6 x 3.14 x 1.8 × 10-5x2 x 10-5 x 5.8 10-2
= 3.91 x 10-10 N
Q-29: Mercury has an angle of contact equal to 140° with soda lime glass. A narrow tube of
radius 1.00 mm made of this glass is dipped in a trough containing mercury. By what amount
does the mercury dip down in the tube relative to the liquid surface outside ? Surface tension of
mercury at the temperature of the experiment is 0.465 N m–1. Density of mercury = 13.6 × 103 kg
m–3
Solution:
Given:
Density of mercury, ρ =13.6 × 103 kg/m3
Angle of contact between mercury and soda lime glass, θ = 140°
Surface tension of mercury at that temperature, s = 0.465 N m-3
Radius of the narrow tube, r = 2/2 = 1 mm = 1 × 10-3 m
Let, the dip in the depth of mercury = h
The negative sign indicates the falling level of mercury. Thus, the mercury dips by 5.34 mm.
Q-30: Two narrow bores of diameters 3.0 mm and 6.0 mm are joined together to form a U-tube
open at both ends. If the U-tube contains water, what is the difference in its levels in the two
limbs of the tube? Surface tension of water at the temperature of the experiment is 7.3 × 10–2 N
m–1. Take the angle of contact to be zero and density of water to be 1.0 × 103 kg m–3 (g = 9.8 m s–
2
).
Solution:
Given:
Diameter of the first bore, d1 = 3.0 mm = 3 × 10-3 m
Radius of the first bore, r1 = 3/2 = 1.5 x 10-3 m.
Diameter of the second bore, d2 =6mm
Radius of the second bore, r2 = 6/2 = 3 x 10-3 mm
Surface tension of water, s = 7.3 × 10-2 N /m
Angle of contact between the bore surface and water, θ= 0
Density of water, ρ =1.0 × 103 kg/m-3
Let, h1 and h2 be the heights to which water rises in the first and second tubes respectively.
Thus, the difference in the height:
Therefore, the difference in the water levels of the two arms =2.482 mm.
Solution:
(a). We know that rate of decrease of density ρ of air is directly proportional to the height y.
Where y is the constant of proportionality and the –ve sign indicates the decrease in density with
increase in height.
Integrating equation (1), we get:
Where ρ0 = density of air at sea level ie y =0

Or, loge(ρ0 /ρ ) = -y/y0
(b). Given:
Volume of zeppelin = 1500 m3
Mass of payload, m = 400 kg
y0 = 8000 m
ρ0 =1.25 kg m-3
density of helium, ρ He =0.18 kg m-3
Thermal Properties of Matter
Q.1: The triple points of neon and carbon dioxide are 24.57 K and 216.55 K, respectively.
Express these temperatures on the Celsius and Fahrenheit scales.
Solution:
Given: Kelvin and Celsius scales are related as:

TC = TK – 273.15 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . (1)
We know:
For neon:
TK = 24.57 K
For carbon dioxide:

TK = 216.55 K
Q.2: Two absolute scales A and B have triple points of water defined to be 200 A and 350 B.
What is the relation between TA and TB?
Solution:
Given:
Triple point of water on absolute scale B, T2 = 400 B
Triple point of water on absolute scale A, T1 = 200 A
Triple point of water on Kelvin scale, TK = 273.15 K
273.15 K on the Kelvin scale is equivalent to 200 A on absolute scale A.
200 A = 273.15 K
273.15 K on the Kelvin scale is equivalent to 350 B on absolute scale B.
350 B = 273.15 K
Let, TA and TB be the triple point of water on scale A and B respectively.

Thus, we have:
Therefore, TA : TB = 4 : 7
Q.3: The electrical resistance in ohms of a certain thermometer varies with

temperature according to the approximate law:
R = Ro[1 + α (T – To )]
The resistance is 101.6 Ω at the triple-point of water 273.16 K, and 165.5 Ω at the normal melting
point of lead (600.5 K). What is the temperature when the resistance is 123.4 Ω?
Solution:
Triple point temperature, T0 =273.16 K
Resistance at the triple point, R0=101.6 Ω
Normal melting point of lead, T1= 600.5 K
Resistance at normal melting point, R1 =165.5 Ω
According to approximate law
R1=R0[1+α(T1−T0)]
165.5=101.6[1+α(600.5 – 273.16)]
165.5=101.6[1+α(327.34)]
165.5=101.6+α(101.6)(327.34)
165.5=101.6+α(101.6 x 327.34)
α = (165.5 – 101.6) /(101.6 x 327.34)
α = 63.9/(101.6 x 327.34)
Now when resistance is 123.4Ω then temperature T2 is:
R2=R0[1+α(T2−T0)]
123.4=101.6[1+α(T2 – 273.16)]
123.4= 101.6[1 +(63.9/(101.6 x 327.34)) (T2 – 273.16)]
123.4 = 101.6 + (63.9/327.34)(T2 – 273.16)
123.4 =101.6 + (0.195)(T2) – (0.195) (273.16)
123.4 =101.6 + (0.195)(T2) – 53.32
T2 = (123.4 – 101.6 + 53.32) /0.195 = 75.12/0.195 = 385.23
Q.4: Answer the following:

(a) The triple-point of water is a standard fixed point in modern thermometer. Why? What is
wrong in taking the melting point of ice and the boiling point of water as standard fixed points
(as was originally done in the Celsius scale)?
(b) There were two fixed points in the original Celsius scale as mentioned above which were
assigned the number 0 °C and 100 °C, respectively. On the absolute scale, one of the fixed
points is the triple-point of water, which on the Kelvin
absolute scale is assigned the number 273.16 K. What is the other fixed point on this (Kelvin)
scale?
(c) The absolute temperature (Kelvin scale) T is related to the temperature tc on the Celsius
scale by tc = T – 273.15. Why do we have 273.15 in this relation, and not 273.16?
(d) What is the temperature of the triple-point of water on an absolute scale whose unit interval
size is equal to that of the Fahrenheit scale?
Solution:
(i) Melting and boiling points of water aren’t considered as the standard fixed points because they vary
with change in pressure, the temperature of the triple point of water is unique and it does not vary with
pressure.
(ii) On the Kelvin’s scale, there is only a lower fixed point which is 273.16 K, the upper fixed point is not
there.
(iii) The relation is such because 273.15 K on the Kelvin’s scale corresponds to the melting point of ice
while 273.16 K is the triple point of water.
(iv) We know,
Relation between the Fahrenheit scale and Absolute scale :
i.e.
For another set of T’F and T’K
Subtracting Equation (1) and (2):

Q.5. Two ideal gas thermometers A and B use oxygen and hydrogen respectively. The following
observations are made:
Temperature Pressure thermometer A Pressure thermometer B
Triple-point of water 1.250 × 105Pa 0.200 × 105Pa
Normal melting point of sulphur 1.797 × 105Pa 0.287 × 105 Pa

a) What is the absolute temperature of the normal melting point of sulphur as read by
thermometers A and B?
(b) What do you think is the reason behind the slight difference in answers of thermometers A
and B? (The thermometers are not faulty). What further procedure is needed in the experiment
to reduce the discrepancy between the two readings?
Solution:
(a)
Triple point of water, T= 273.16K.
Pressure in thermometer A at the triple point, PA =1.25×105 Pa
Normal melting point of sulphur = T1
Pressure in thermometer A at this temperature, P1=1.797×105 Pa
According to Charles law, we have the relation:
PA/T=P1/T1
T1 = P1 T/PA
= (1.797×105×273.16)/1.25×105
=392.69 K
Therefore, the absolute temperature of the normal melting point of sulphur as read by thermometer A is
392.69 K.
(b) The pressure in thermometer B at the triple point of water, PB =0.2×105 Pa
The temperature in thermometer B at the normal melting point (T1) of sulphur is, P1 = 0.287×105 Pa
According to Charles law, we can write the relation:
PB/T=P1/T1
T1 = P1 T/PB
T1 = (0.287×105 × 273.16)/0.2×105
=391.98 K
Therefore, the absolute temperature of the normal melting point of sulphur as read by thermometer B is
391.98 K.
(b) The reason for the discrepancy is that the gases do not behave like ideal gas in practice. The
discrepancy can be reduced by taking the reading at very low pressure so that the gases show perfect
behaviour.
Q.6. A steel tape 1m long is correctly calibrated for a temperature of 27.0 °C. The length of a
steel rod measured by this tape is found to be 63.0 cm on a hot day when the temperature is
45.0 °C. What is the actual length of the steel rod on that day? What is the length of the same
steel rod on a day when the temperature is 27.0 °C? Coefficient of linear expansion of steel =
1.20 × 10–5 K–1
Solution:
T = 27 °C
At the temperature of 27 °C the length of the tape is 1m = 100 cm
T1 = 45 °C
At the temperature of 45 °C the length of the tape is 63 cm
Coefficient of linear expansion of steel = 1.20 × 10–5 K–1
Let L be the actual length of the steel rod and L’ is the length at 45 °C
L’ = L [1 + ∝(T1 – T)]
= 100 [1+ 1.20 × 10–5 (45- 27)]
= 100[1+ 21.6 × 10–5]
= 100 + 2160 x 10–5
= 100 + 0.02160 = 100.02160
The actual length of the rod at 450 C is
L2 = (100.02160 /100) x 63 = 63. 013608 cm
The length of the rod at 270 C is 63.0 cm
Q.7. A large steel wheel is to be fitted on to a shaft of the same material. At 27 °C, the outer
diameter of the shaft is 8.70 cm and the diameter of the central hole in the wheel is 8.69 cm. The
shaft is cooled using ‘dry ice’. At what temperature of the shaft does the wheel slip on the
shaft? Assume the coefficient of linear expansion of the steel to be constant over the required
temperature range: αsteel = 1.20 × 10–5 K–1.
Solution:
Q.8. A hole is drilled in a copper sheet. The diameter of the hole is 4.24 cm at 27.0 °C. What is
the change in the diameter of the hole when the sheet is heated to 227 °C? Coefficient of linear
expansion of copper = 1.70 × 10–5 K–1.
Solution:
Diameter of hole ( D1) = 4.24 cm
Initial Temperature, T1 = 27.0 °C = 27+ 273 = 300 K
Final temperature, T2 =227 °C = 227+ 273 = 500K
Let the diameter of the hole at the final temperature be D2
Coefficient of linear expansion of copper, α= 1.70 × 10–5 K–1
Initial area of hole (Ao)= πr² =π ( 4.24/2)²
coefficient of superficial expansion (β) = 2× coefficient of linear expansion of copper (α)= 2 × 1.7 × 10 -
5 = 3.4 × 10-5
Using the formula,

A = Ao( 1 + β∆T)
A = π ( 4.24/2)² [1 + 3.4 × 10-5 × (500-300)]
= π ( 4.24/2)² [ 1 + 3.4 × 10-5 × 200]
= π ( 4.24/2)² [ 1 + 6.8 × 10-3 ]
= π ( 4.24/2)² [ 1 + 0.0068]
= π ( 4.24/2)² (1.0068)
πD2²/4 = π ( 4.24/2)² ( 1.0068 )
D2²= 17.97 (1.0068)
D2²= 18.092
= 4.253
D2 = 4.253 cm
Change in diameter (∆D) = D2 – D1
= 4.253 – 4.24
= 0.013 cm
Q.9. A brass wire 1.8 m long at 27 °C is held taut with little tension between two rigid supports. If
the wire is cooled to a temperature of –39 °C, what is the tension developed in the wire, if its
diameter is 2.0 mm? Co-efficient of linear expansion of brass = 2.0 × 10–5 K–1; Young’s modulus
of brass = 0.91 × 1011 Pa.
Solution:
Initial temperature, T1=27oC

Length of the brass wire at 27oC, l =1.8m
Final temperature, T2=- 390C
Diameter of the wire, d=2.0mm=2×10−3m
Coefficient of linear expansion of brass,α =2.0×10−5K−1
Young’s modulus of brass, Y=0.91×1011 Pa
Young’s modulus is given by the relation:
Y= Stress / Strain
Y=(F/A)/ (ΔL/L)
Y = (F x L) /(A x ΔL)
ΔL=F×L/(A×Y) ……(1)
Where,
F= Tension developed in the wire
Cross-sectional area of the wire, A = πd2/4 = π (2×10−3)2/4
The change in the length (ΔL) is given by the relation:
ΔL= αL(T2 -T1) …..(2)
Equating equations (1) and (2), we get:
αL(T2−T1)=(F×L)/(A×Y)
F = [αL(T2−T1) x A x Y]/L
F= α(T2−T1)Yπ(d/2)2
= 2×10−5× (−39−27) x 0.91×1011 ×3.14 x (2×10−3 /2)2
= 2×10−5× (- 66) x 0.91×1011 ×3.14 x ×1 x10−6
= – 377.18
= – 3.77 x 102 N
The negative sign indicates that the tension is directed inward
Hence, the tension developed in the wire is 3.77×102 N
Q. 10. A brass rod of length 50 cm and diameter 3.0 mm is joined to a steel rod of the
same length and diameter. What is the change in length of the combined rod at 250 °C, if
the original lengths are at 40.0 °C? Is there a ‘thermal stress’ developed at the junction? The
ends of the rod are free to expand (Co-efficient of linear expansion of brass = 2.0 × 10–5 K–1, steel
= 1.2 × 10–5 K–1).
Solution:
Length of the brass rod = length of the steel rod = L0 = 50 cm
Diameter of the brass rod = diameter of the steel rod = 3 mm
Initial temperature ( T1) = 40°C
Final temperature ( T2) = 250°C
Therefore, the increase in temperature (∆T) = 250 – 40 =210°C
Coefficient of linear expansion of brass, ∝ = 2 × 10-5 K-1
Coefficient of linear expansion of steel, β = 1.2 × 10-5 K-1
Final length of brass, L1
L1 = Lo(1 + ∝∆T)
= 50( 1 + (2 × 10-5 × 210))
=50( 1 + 420 × 10-5)
= 50× 1.00420
= 50.21 cm
Increase in length of brass ( ∆L) = L2 – L1
= 50.21 – 50
= 0.21 cm
Final length of steel, L2= Lo(1 + β∆T)
= 50( 1 + (1.2 × 10-5 × 210))
= 50 × 1.00252
= 50.126 cm
Increase in length ( ∆L’) = 50.126 cm – 50 cm = 0.126 cm
Total increase in the length = ∆L + ∆L’
= 0.21 + 0.126
= 0.336 cm
Q-11: The coefficient of volume expansion of glycerine is 49 × 10-5 K-1. What is the fractional
change in its density for a 30 °C rise in temperature?
Solution:
Given:
Coefficient of volume expansion of glycerine, αV = 49 × 10-5 K -1
Rise in temperature, ΔT = 30°C
Q.12: A 10 kW drilling machine is used to drill a bore in a small aluminium block of mass 8.0 kg.
How much is the rise in temperature of the block in 2.5 minutes, assuming 50% of power is used
up in heating the machine itself or lost to the surroundings. Specific heat of aluminium = 0.91 J
g–1 K–1.
Solution:
Power = 10 kW
Mass of the small aluminium block, m = 8 kg = 8 x 103 g
Time = 2.5 x 60=150 s
Specific heat of aluminium, c = 0.91 J g–1 K–1.
Total energy =P x t =104 x 150=15 x 105 J
As 50% of the energy is used in the heating or lost to the surrounding,
Therefore, thermal energy available, ΔQ = (1/2) x 15 x 105
= 7.5 x 105
As ΔQ = mcΔT
ΔT= ΔQ/mc
= 7.5 x 105/ (8 x 103 x 0.91)
= 7.5 x 105/ 7.28 x 103
= 1.03 x 102
Rise in the temperature of the block, ΔT = 1030 C
Q.13. A copper block of mass 2.5 kg is heated in a furnace to a temperature of 500 °C and then
placed on a large ice block. What is the maximum amount of ice that can melt? (Specific heat of
copper = 0.39 J g–1 K–1; the heat of fusion of water = 335 J g–1)
Solution:
Mass of the copper block, m = 2.5 kg
Temperature of the block, ΔT= 5000 C
Specific heat of copper, c= 0.39 J g–1 K–1
Latent Heat of fusion of water, L = 335 J g–1
Let m’ be the mass of the ice melted
Therefore, heat gained by ice = heat lost by copper
m’L = mcΔT
m’ = mc ΔT/L
= (2500 x 0.39 x 500)/335 = 1500 g = 1.5 kg
Q.14. In an experiment on the specific heat of a metal, a 0.20 kg block of the metal at 150 °C is
dropped in a copper calorimeter (of water equivalent 0.025 kg) containing 150 cm3 of water at 27
°C. The final temperature is 40 °C. Compute the specific heat of the metal. If heat losses to the
surroundings are not negligible, is your answer greater or smaller than the actual value for the
specific heat of the metal?
Solution:
Q.15: Given below are observations on molar specific heats at room temperature of some common
gases.
Gas Molar Specific Heat CV ( cal mol-1 K-1)
Chlorine 6.17
Oxygen 5.02
Carbon monoxide 5.01
Nitric oxide 4.99
Nitrogen 4.97
Hydrogen 4.87
Generally, the specific heat of a monoatomic gas is 2.92 cal (mol K )-1 , which is significantly lower
from the specific heat of the above gases. Explain.
It can be observed that chlorine has little larger value of specific heat, what could be the reason?
Solution:
The gases in the above list are all diatomic and a diatomic molecule has translational, vibrational and
rotational motion. Whereas, a monoatomic gas only has translational motion. So, to increase the
temperature of one mole of a diatomic gas by 1°C, heat needs to supplied to increase translational,
rotational and vibrational energy. Thus, the above gases have significantly higher specific heats than
monoatomic gases
Chlorine has little larger specific heat as compared to the others in the list because it
possesses vibrational motion as well while the rest only have rotational and translational motions.
Q.16. A child running a temperature of 101°F is given an antipyrin (i.e. a medicine that lowers
fever) which causes an increase in the rate of evaporation of sweat from his body. If the fever is
brought down to 98 °F in 20 minutes, what is the average rate of extra evaporation caused, by
the drug. Assume the evaporation mechanism to be the only way by which heat is lost. The
mass of the child is 30 kg. The specific heat of human body is approximately the same as that of
water, and the latent heat of evaporation of water at that temperature is about 580 cal g–1.
Solution:
Initial temperature of the child, Ti =101o F
Final temperature of the child, Tf=98oF
Decrease in the temperature, △T=(101−98)= 30 F = 3×(5/9)= 1.670 C
Mass of the child, m=30 kg=30×103 g
Time taken to reduce the temperature, t = 20 min
Specific heat of the human body = Specific heat of water = c =1000 cal kg-1 0C-1
Latent heat of evaporation of water, L=580 cal g−1
The heat lost by the child is given as:
△θ=mc△T
=30×1000× 1.67
=50100 cal
Let m’ be the amount of water evaporated from the child’s body in 20 min.
m’ =△θ/L
=(50100/580)=86.37 g
Therefore, the average rate of evaporation=86.2/20
=4.3 g/min.
Q. 17: A ‘thermacole’ icebox is a cheap and an efficient method for storing small quantities of
cooked food in summer in particular. A cubical icebox of side 30 cm has a thickness of 5.0 cm.
If 4.0 kg of ice is put in the box, estimate the amount of ice remaining after 6 h. The outside
temperature is 45 °C, and the co-efficient of thermal conductivity of thermacole is 0.01 J s–1 m–
1
K–1. [Heat of fusion of water = 335 × 103 J kg–1]
Solution:
Side of the cubical icebox, s =30 cm=3 x 10-2 m
Thickness of the icebox, L =5.0 cm=0.05 m
Mass of ice kept in the icebox, m=4 kg
Time, t=6 h=6×60×60 = 21600
Outside temperature, T1= 45o C
Temperature of the icebox = 00 C
Temperature difference = T1 – T2 =45o C – 00 C
Surface area of the icebox = 6 x (0.30)2= 0.54
Coefficient of thermal conductivity of thermacole, K=0.01 Js−1m−1k−1
Heat of fusion of water, L= 335×10 3 Jkg −1
Total heat entering the icebox in 6 hours is
Q = KA(T1−T2)t/L
= (0.01 Js-1m-1C-1 x 0.54 m2 x 450 C x 21600 s)/0.05 m
= 1.05 x 105 J
Let m be the total amount of ice that melts in 6 h.
But Q= mL
Therefore, m = Q/L
=1.05 x 105 /(335×103)=0.313 kg
Amount of ice remaining after 6 h = 4–0.313=3.687 kg
Q.18.A brass boiler has a base area of 0.15 m2 and thickness 1.0 cm. It boils water at the rate of
6.0 kg/min when placed on a gas stove. Estimate the temperature of the part of the flame in
contact with the boiler. Thermal conductivity of brass = 109 J s–1 m–1 K–1; Heat of vaporisation of
water = 2256 × 103 J kg–1.
Solution:
Base area of the brass boiler, A= 0.15 m2
Thickness of the boiler, d =1.0 cm=0.01 m
Brass boiler boils water at the rate, R=6.0 kg/min
Time, t = 60 sec
Mass = 6 kg
Thermal conductivity of brass, K =109 Js−1m−1k−1
Heat of vaporisation of water, L = 2256×103 Jkg−1
Let T1 Temperature of the flame in contact with the boiler
Let T2 be the boiling point of water = 100 0C
The Q be the amount of heat flowing into water through the base of the boiler
Q =KA(T1 −T2)t/d
Q = [109 x 0.15 x (T1 – 100) x 60]/ 0.01 ——-(1)
Heat received by water:
Q=mL
Q = 6 x 2256×103 ——-(2)
Equating equations (1) and (2), we get:
mL = KA(T1 −T2)t/d
6 x 2256×103 = [109 x 0.15 x (T1 – 100) x 60]/ 0.01
13536 ×103 x 0.01 = 981 (T1 – 100)
T1 – 100 = 13536 ×103 x 0.01/ 981
T1 = 137.9 + 100
= 237. 9 oC
Therefore, the temperature of the part of the flame in contact with the boiler is 237.98 oC.
Q.19. Explain why:

(a) a body with large reflectivity is a poor emitter
(b) a brass tumbler feels much colder than a wooden tray on a chilly day
(c) an optical pyrometer (for measuring high temperatures) calibrated for an ideal black body
radiation gives too low a value for the temperature of a red hot iron piece in the open, but gives
a correct value for the temperature when the same piece is in the furnace
(d) the earth without its atmosphere would be inhospitably cold
(e) heating systems based on the circulation of steam are more efficient in warming a building
than those based on the circulation of hot water
Solution:
(a) A body with a large reflectivity is a poor absorber of heat radiation. A poor absorber will be a poor
emitter of radiations. Therefore, a body with a large reflectivity is a poor emitter.
(b) Brass is a good conductor of heat and wood is a poor conductor of heat. When we touch a brass
tumbler, heat is conducted from our hand to the tumbler and there is a drop in the body temperature
Therefore, we feel cold. When a wooden tray is touched on a chilly day, very less heat is conducted
from the hand to the wooden tray and body temperature is not decreased much. So, we do not feel
cold.
(c) The radiation energy from a red hot iron piece place in a furnace is given by the relation
E=σT4
When the iron piece is placed in the open, the radiation energy is given by the relation
E=σ(T4−T04)
Here, E is the energy radiation
T is the temperature of optical pyrometer
σ is a constant
T0 is the temperature of the open space.
The increase in the temperature of the open space reduces the radiation energy.
(d) If there is no atmosphere, extra heat will not be trapped. All the heat from the sun will be radiated
back from the surface of the earth. So without the atmosphere, the earth would be inhospitably cold.
(e) Steam at 100 0C is much hotter than water at 100 0C. This is because steam will have a lot of heat
in the form of latent heat (540 cal/g). Therefore, heating systems based on the circulation of steam are
more efficient in warming a building than those based on the circulation of hot water.
Q.20. A body cools from 80 °C to 50 °C in 5 minutes. Calculate the time it takes to cool from 60
°C to 30 °C. The temperature of the surroundings is 20 °C.
Solution:
Here,
Initial temperature of the body, T1=80 0C
Final temperature of the body, T2 = =50 0C
Average temperature, (T1 + T2) /2
= (80 + 50)/2 = 65 0C
Temperature of the surrounding, T0 =20 0C
Temperature difference, ΔT= 65 0C – 20 0C = 45 0C
t=5 min
According to Newton’s law of cooling, the rate of cooling is proportional to the difference in temperature
Change in temperature/ time = K ΔT
(T2 – T1)/t = KΔT
(80 – 50)/5 = K(45)
6 = K(45)
K = 6/45
K = 2/15
In second condition,
Initial temperature of the body, T1 =60 0C
Final temperature of the body, T2 =30 0C
Let t be the time taken for cooling
Average temperature, (T1 + T2)/2 = (60 + 30)/2 = 45 0C
Temperature difference, ΔT = 45 0C – 20 0C = 25 0C
According to Newton’s law of cooling, the rate of cooling is proportional to the difference in temperature
Change in temperature/ time = K ΔT
(T2 – T1)/t = KΔT
(60 – 30)/t = (2/15) (25)
30/t = 3.33
t = 30/3.33 = 9 min
Q.21.Answer the following questions based on the P-T phase diagram of carbon dioxide:
(a) At what temperature and pressure can the solid, liquid and vapour phases of CO2 co-exist in
equilibrium?
(b) What is the effect of the decrease of pressure on the fusion and boiling point of CO2?
(c) What are the critical temperature and pressure for CO2? What is its significance?
(d) Is CO2 solid, liquid or gas at (a) –70 °C under 1 atm, (b) –60 °C under 10 atm, (c) 15 °C under
56 atm?
Solution:
(a) Liquid and vapour phases of CO2 co-exist at the triple point temperature = – 56.6 °C and pressure =
5.11 atm.
(b) Both the boiling point and freezing point of CO2 decrease if pressure decreases.
(c) The critical temperature and pressure of CO2 are 31.1 °C and 73.0 atm, respectively.
Above this temperature, CO2 will not liquefy even if compressed to high pressures.
(d) (a) vapour (b) solid (c) liquid
Q.22: A hot ball cools from 90 °C to 10 °C in 5 minutes. If the surrounding temperature is 20°C,
what is the time taken to cool from 60 °C to 30 °C?
Solution:
Using Newton’s law of cooling, the cooling rate is directly proportional to the difference in
temperature.
Here, average of 90C and 40 °C = 50 °C
Surrounding temperature = 20 °C
Difference = 50 – 20= 30° C
Under the given conditions, the ball cools 80° C in 5 minutes
Where the value of K is a constant.

The average of 60 °C and 30 °C = 45 °C
Thermodynamics
1. A geyser heats water flowing at the rate of 3.0 litres per minute from 27 °C to 77 °C. If the
geyser operates on a gas burner, what is the rate of consumption of the fuel if its heat of
combustion is 4.0 × 104 J/g?
Solution:
Given
Water is flowing at a rate of 3.0 litre/min
The geyser heats the water, raising the temperature from 270 C to 770 C.
Initial temperature, T1 = 270 C
Final temperature, T2 = 770 C
Rise in temperature, T = T2 – T1
= 77 – 27
= 500 C
Heat of combustion = 4 x 104 J / g
Specific heat of water, C = 4.2 J / g 0C
Mass of flowing water, m = 3.0 litre / min
= 3000 g / min
Total heat used, Q = mcT
= 3000 x 4.2 x 50
On calculation, we get,
= 6.3 x 105 J / min
Rate of consumption = 6.3 x 105 / (4 x 104)
We get,
= 15.75 g/min
Therefore, rate of consumption is 15.75 g/min
2. What amount of heat must be supplied to 2.0 × 10-2 kg of nitrogen (at room temperature) to
raise its temperature by 45 °C at constant pressure? (Molecular mass of N2 = 28; R = 8.3 J mol-
1
K-1.)
Solution:
Given,
Mass of nitrogen = 2 x 10-2 kg
= 20 g
Rise in temperature = ΔT
Thermodynamics
= 450 C
Heat required = Q =?
Q = nCT
We know,
C = 7R / 2 (diatomic molecule)
C = 7 x 8.3 / 2
n (no. of moles) = w / m
where,
w = 20 g
m = 28 u
n = 20 / 28
n = 1/ 1.4 moles
Let the temperature be 45 K
Q = 10 / 14 x 7 / 2 x 8.3 x 45
We get,
Q = 933.75 J
3. Explain why
(a) Two bodies at different temperatures T1 and T2 if brought in thermal contact do not
necessarily settle to the mean temperature (T1 + T2)/2.
(b) The coolant in a chemical or a nuclear plant (i.e., the liquid used to prevent the different
parts of a plant from getting too hot) should have high specific heat.
(c) Air pressure in a car tyre increases during driving.
(d) The climate of a harbour town is more temperate than that of a town in a desert at the same
latitude.
Solution:
(i). When two bodies having different temperatures say, T1 and T2 are brought in thermal contact with
each other, there is a flow of heat from the body at the higher temperature to the body at the lower
temperature till both the body reaches to an equilibrium position, i.e., both the bodies are having equal
temperature. The equilibrium temperature is only equal to the mean temperature when the thermal
capacities of both the bodies are equal.
(ii).The coolant used in a chemical or nuclear plant should always have a high specific heat. Higher is
the specific heat of the coolant, higher is its capacity to absorb heat and release heat. Therefore, a
liquid with a high specific heat value is the best coolant to be used in a nuclear or chemical plant. This
would prevent different parts of the plant from getting too hot.
Thermodynamics
(iii). When the driver is driving a vehicle then due to the motion of air molecules the air temperature
inside the tyre increases. And according to the Charles’ law, the temperature is directly proportional to
pressure.
Therefore, when the temperature inside a tyre increases, then there is also an increase of air pressure.
(iv). The relative humidity in a harbour town is more than that of the relative humidity in a desert town.
Humidity is a measure of water vapor in the atmosphere and the specific heat of water vapor is very
high. Therefore, the climate of a harbour town is more temperate than that of a town in a desert at the
same latitude.
4. A cylinder with a movable piston contains 3 moles of hydrogen at standard temperature and
pressure. The walls of the cylinder are made of a heat insulator, and the piston is insulated by
having a pile of sand on it. By what factor does the pressure of the gas increase if the gas is
compressed to half its original volume?
Solution:
The cylinder is completely insulated from its surroundings.
Therefore, no heat is exchanged between the system (cylinder) and its surroundings.
Thus, the process is adiabatic
Initial pressure inside the cylinder = P1
Final pressure inside the cylinder = P2
Initial volume inside the cylinder = V1
Final volume inside the cylinder = V2
Ratio of specific heat, γ = Cp / Cv = 1.4
For an adiabatic process, we have:
P1V1γ = P2V2γ
The final volume is compressed to half of its initial volume
Hence,
V2 = V1 / 2
P1V1γ = P2(V1 / 2)γ
P2 / P1 = V1γ / (V1 / 2)γ
= 21.4
We get,
= 2.639
Therefore, the pressure increases by a factor of 2.639
Thermodynamics
5. In changing the state of a gas adiabatically from an equilibrium state A to another equilibrium
state B, an amount of work equal to 22.3 J is done on the system. If the gas is taken from state A
to B via a process in which the net heat absorbed by the system is 9.35 cal, how much is the net
work done by the system in the latter case? (Take 1 cal = 4.19 J)
Solution:
Given
The work done (W) on the system while the gas changes from state A to state B is 22.3 J
This is an adiabatic process.
Therefore, change in heat is zero.
So,
ΔQ = 0
ΔW = – 22.3 (Since the work is done on the system)
From first law of thermodynamics, we have:
ΔQ = ΔU + ΔW
Where,
ΔU = Change in the internal energy of the gas
Hence,
ΔU = ΔQ – ΔW
= 0 – (-22.3 J)
We get,
ΔU = + 22.3 J
When the gas goes from state A to state B via a process, the net heat absorbed by the system is:
ΔQ = 9.35 cal
= 9.35 x 4.19
= 39.1765 J
Heat absorbed, ΔQ = ΔU + ΔW
Thus,
ΔW = ΔQ – ΔU
= 39.1765 – 22.3
We get,
= 16.8765 J
Hence, 16.88 J of work is done by the system
Thermodynamics
6. Two cylinders A and B of equal capacity are connected to each other via a stopcock. A
contains a gas at standard temperature and pressure. B is completely evacuated. The entire
system is thermally insulated. The stopcock is suddenly opened. Answer the following:
(a) What is the final pressure of the gas in A and B?
(b) What is the change in internal energy of the gas?
(c) What is the change in the temperature of the gas?
(d) Do the intermediate states of the system (before settling to the final equilibrium state) lie on
its P-V-T surface?
Solution:
(a). Now, as soon as the stop cock is opened the gas will start flowing from cylinder P to cylinder Q
which is completely evacuated and thus the volume of the gas will be doubled because both the
cylinders have equal capacity. And since the pressure is inversely proportional to volume, hence the
pressure will get decreased to half of the original value.
Since, the initial pressure of the gas in cylinder P is 1 atm. Therefore, the pressure in each of the
cylinder will now be 0.5 atm.
(b). Here, in this case, the internal energy of the gas will not change i.e. ΔU = 0. It is because the
internal energy can change only when the work is done by the system or on the system. Since in this
case, no work is done by the gas or on the gas.
Therefore, the internal energy of the gas will not change.
c) There will be no change in the temperature of the gas. It is because during the expansion of gas
there is no work being done by the gas.
Therefore, there will be no change in the temperature of the gas in this process.
d). The above case is the clear case of free expansion and free expansion is rapid and it cannot be
controlled. The intermediate states do not satisfy the gas equation and since they are in non –
equilibrium states, they do not lie on the Pressure-Volume – Temperature surface of the system
7. A steam engine delivers 5.4×108 J of work per minute and services 3.6 × 109 J of heat per
minute from its boiler. What is the efficiency of the engine? How much heat is wasted per
minute?
Solution:
Given
Work done by the steam engine per minute, W = 5.4 x 108 J
Heat supplied from the boiler, H = 3.6 x 109 J
Efficiency of the engine = Output Energy / Input Energy
Hence,
η=W/H
= 5.4 x 108 / (3.6 x 109)
Thermodynamics
On simplification, we get,
= 0.15
Therefore, the percentage efficiency of the engine is 15%
Amount of heat wasted = 3.6 x 109 – 5.4 x 108
We get,
= 30.6 x 108
= 3.06 x 109 J
Hence, the amount of heat wasted per minute is 3.06 x 109 J
8. An electric heater supplies heat to a system at a rate of 100W. If system performs work at a
rate of 75 joules per second. At what rate is the internal energy increasing?
Solution:
According to law of conservation of energy
Total energy = work done + internal energy
ΔQ = ΔW + ΔU
Here,
Rate at which heat is supplied ΔQ = 100 W
Rate at which work is done ΔW = 75 Js-1
Rate of change of internal energy is ΔU
ΔU = ΔQ – ΔW
ΔU = 100 – 75
We get,
ΔU = 25 J s-1
Hence,
The internal energy of the system is increasing at a rate of 25 W
9. A thermodynamic system is taken from an original state to an intermediate state by the linear
process shown in Fig. (12.13)
Thermodynamics
Its volume is then reduced to the original value from E to F by an isobaric process. Calculate the
total work done by the gas from D to E to F
Solution:
Total work done by the gas from D to E to F = Area of ∆DEF
Area of ∆DEF = (1/2) x DE x EF
Where,
DF = Change in pressure
= 600 N/m2 – 300 N/m2
We get,
= 300 N/ m2
FE = Change in volume
= 5.0 m3 – 2.0 m3
We get,
= 3.0 m3
Area of ∆DEF = (1/ 2) x 300 x 3
On further calculation, we get,
= 450 J
Hence, the total work done by the gas from D to E to F is 450 J
10. A refrigerator is to maintain eatables kept inside at 90 C. If room temperature is 360 C,

calculate the coefficient of performance.
Thermodynamics
Solution:
Temperature inside the refrigerator, T1 = 90 C
= 273 + 9
= 282 K
Room temperature, T2 = 360 C
= 273 + 36
= 309 K
Coefficient of performance = (T1) / (T2 – T1)
On substituting, we get,
= 282 / (309 – 282)
We get,
= 10.44
Hence, the coefficient of performance of the given refrigerator is 10.44
Kinetic Theory
1. Estimate the fraction of molecular volume to the actual volume occupied by oxygen gas at
STP. Take the diameter of an oxygen molecule to be 3 Å.
Solution:
Diameter of an oxygen molecule, d = 3 Å

Radius, r = d / 2
r = 3 / 2 = 1.5 Å = 1.5 x 10 -8 cm
Actual volume occupied by 1 mole of oxygen gas at STP = 22400 cm3
Molecular volume of oxygen gas, V = 4 / 3 πr3. N
Where, N is Avogadro’s number = 6.023 x 1023 molecules/ mole
Hence,
V = 4 / 3 x 3.14 x (1.5 x 10-8)3 x 6.023 x 1023
We get,
V = 8.51 cm3
Therefore, ratio of the molecular volume to the actual volume of oxygen = 8.51/ 22400 = 3. 8 x 10-4
2. Molar volume is the volume occupied by 1 mol of any (ideal) gas at standard temperature and
pressure (STP: 1 atmospheric pressure, 0 °C). Show that it is 22.4 litres.
Solution:
The ideal gas equation relating pressure (P), volume (V), and absolute temperature (T) is given as:
PV = nRT
Where, R is the universal gas constant = 8.314 J mol-1K-1
n = Number of moles = 1
T = Standard temperature = 273 K
P = Standard pressure = 1 atm = 1.013 x 105Nm-2
Hence,
V = nRT / P
= 1 x 8.314 x 273 / 1.013 x 105
= 0.0224 m3
= 22.4 litres
Therefore, the molar volume of a gas at STP is 22.4 litres
Kinetic Theory
3. Figure 13.8 shows plot of PV/T versus P for 1.00×10-3 kg of oxygen gas at two different
temperatures.
(a) What does the dotted plot signify?

(b) Which is true: T1 > T2 or T1 < T2?
(c) What is the value of PV/T where the curves meet on the y-axis?
(d) If we obtained similar plots for 1.00×10-3 kg of hydrogen, would we get the same value of
PV/T at the point where the curves meet on the y-axis? If not, what mass of hydrogen yields the
same value of PV/T (for low pressure high temperature region of the plot)? (Molecular mass of
H2 = 2.02 u, of O2 = 32.0 u, R = 8.31 J mo1-1 K-1.)
Solution:
(a) dotted plot is parallel to X-axis, signifying that nR [PV/T = nR] is independent of P. Thus it is
representing ideal gas behaviour
(b) the graph at temperature T1 is closer to ideal behaviour (because closer to dotted line) hence, T1 >
T2 (higher the temperature, ideal behaviour is the higher)
(c) use PV = nRT
PV/ T = nR
Mass of the gas = 1 x 10-3 kg = 1 g
Molecular mass of O2 = 32g/ mol
Hence,
Number of mole = given weight / molecular weight
= 1/ 32
So, nR = 1/ 32 x 8.314 = 0.26 J/ K
Hence,
Kinetic Theory
Value of PV / T = 0.26 J/ K
(d) 1 g of H2 doesn’t represent the same number of mole
Eg. molecular mass of H2 = 2 g/mol
Hence, number of moles of H2 require is 1/32 (as per the question)
Therefore,
Mass of H2 required = no. of mole of H2 x molecular mass of H2
= 1/ 32 x 2
= 1 / 16 g
= 0.0625 g
= 6.3 x 10-5 kg
Hence, 6.3 x 10-5 kg of H2 would yield the same value
4. An oxygen cylinder of volume 30 litres has an initial gauge pressure of 15 atm and a
temperature of 27 °C. After some oxygen is withdrawn from the cylinder, the gauge pressure
drops to 11 atm and its temperature drops to 17 °C. Estimate the mass of oxygen taken out of
the cylinder (R = 8.31 J mol-1 K-1, molecular mass of O2 = 32 u).
Solution:
Volume of gas, V1 = 30 litres = 30 x 10-3 m3
Gauge pressure, P1 = 15 atm = 15 x 1.013 x 105 P a
Temperature, T1 = 270 C = 300 K
Universal gas constant, R = 8.314 J mol-1 K-1
Let the initial number of moles of oxygen gas in the cylinder be n1
The gas equation is given as follows:
P1V1 = n1RT1
Hence,
n1 = P1V1 / RT1
= (15.195 x 105 x 30 x 10-3) / (8.314 x 300)
= 18.276
But n1 = m1 / M
Where,
m1 = Initial mass of oxygen
M = Molecular mass of oxygen = 32 g
Thus,
Kinetic Theory
m1 = N1M = 18.276 x 32 = 584.84 g
After some oxygen is withdrawn from the cylinder, the pressure and temperature reduce.
Volume, V2 = 30 litres = 30 x 10-3 m3
Gauge pressure, P2 = 11 atm
= 11 x 1.013 x 105 P a
Temperature, T2 = 170 C = 290 K
Let n2 be the number of moles of oxygen left in the cylinder
The gas equation is given as:
P2V2 = n2RT2
Hence,
n2 = P2V2 / RT2
= (11.143 x 105 x 30 x 10-30) / (8.314 x 290)
= 13.86
But
n2 = m2 / M
Where,
m2 is the mass of oxygen remaining in the cylinder
Therefore,
m2 = n2 x M = 13.86 x 32 = 453.1 g
The mass of oxygen taken out of the cylinder is given by the relation:
Initial mass of oxygen in the cylinder – Final mass of oxygen in the cylinder
= m 1 – m2
= 584.84 g – 453.1 g
We get,
= 131.74 g
= 0.131 kg
Hence, 0.131 kg of oxygen is taken out of the cylinder
5. An air bubble of volume 1.0 cm3 rises from the bottom of a lake 40 m deep at a temperature of
12 °C. To what volume does it grow when it reaches the surface, which is at a temperature of 35
°C?
Solution:
Volume of the air bubble, V1 = 1.0 cm3
Kinetic Theory
= 1.0 x 10-6 m3
Air bubble rises to height, d = 40 m
Temperature at a depth of 40 m, T1 = 120 C = 285 K
Temperature at the surface of the lake, T2 = 350 C = 308 K
The pressure on the surface of the lake:
P2 = 1 atm = 1 x 1.013 x 105 Pa
The pressure at the depth of 40 m:
P1= 1 atm + dρg
Where,
ρ is the density of water = 103 kg / m3
g is the acceleration due to gravity = 9.8 m/s2
Hence,
P1 = 1.013 x 105 + 40 x 103 x 9.8
We get,
= 493300 Pa
We have
P1V1 / T1 = P2V2 / T2
Where, V2 is the volume of the air bubble when it reaches the surface
V2 = P1V1T2 / T1P2
= 493300 x 1 x 10-6 x 308 / (285 x 1.013 x 105)
We get,
= 5.263 x 10-6 m3 or 5.263 cm3
Hence, when the air bubble reaches the surface, its volume becomes 5.263 cm3
6. Estimate the total number of air molecules (inclusive of oxygen, nitrogen, water vapour and
other constituents) in a room of capacity 25.0 m3 at a temperature of 27 °C and 1 atm pressure.
Solution:
Volume of the room, V = 25.0 m3
Temperature of the room, T = 270 C = 300 K
Pressure in the room, P = 1 atm = 1 x 1.013 x 105 Pa
The ideal gas equation relating pressure (P), Volume (V), and absolute temperature (T) can be written
as:
Kinetic Theory
PV = (kBNT)
Where,
KB is Boltzmann constant = (1.38 x 10-23) m2 kg s-2 K-1
N is the number of air molecules in the room
Therefore,
N = (PV / kBT)
= (1.013 x 105 x 25) / (1.38 x 10-23 x 300)
We get,
= 6.11 x 1026 molecules
Hence, the total number of air molecules in the given room is 6.11 x 1026
7. Estimate the average thermal energy of a helium atom at

(i) room temperature (27 °C),
(ii) the temperature on the surface of the Sun (6000 K),
(iii) the temperature of 10 million kelvin (the typical core temperature in the case of a star).
Solution:
(i) At room temperature, T = 270 C = 300 K
Average thermal energy = (3 / 2) kT
Where,
k is the Boltzmann constant = 1.38 x 10-23 m2 kg s-2 K-1
Hence,
(3 / 2) kT = (3 / 2) x 1.38 x 10-23 x 300
= 6.21 x 10-21 J
Therefore, the average thermal energy of a helium atom at room temperature of 270 C is 6.21 x 10-21 J
(ii) On the surface of the sun, T = 6000 K

= (3 / 2) x 1.38 x 10-23 x 6000
We get,
= 1.241 x 10-19 J
Therefore, the average thermal energy of a helium atom on the surface of the sun is 1.241 x 10-19 J
Kinetic Theory
(iii) At temperature, T = 107 K
= (3 / 2) x 1.38 x 10-23 x 107
We get,
= 2.07 x 10-16 J
Therefore, the average thermal energy of a helium atom at the core of a star is 2.07 x 10-16 J
8.Three vessels of equal capacity have gases at the same temperature and pressure. The first
vessel contains neon (monatomic), the second contains chlorine (diatomic), and the third
contains uranium hexafluoride (polyatomic). Do the vessels contain equal number of respective
molecules? Is the root mean square speed of molecules the same in the three cases? If not, in
which case is Vrms the largest?
Solution:
All the three vessels have the same capacity, they have the same volume.
So, each gas has the same pressure, volume and temperature
According to Avogadro’s law, the three vessels will contain an equal number of the respective
molecules.
This number is equal to Avogadro’s number, N = 6.023 x 1023.
The root mean square speed (Vrms) of a gas of mass m and temperature T is given by the relation:
Vrms = √3kT / m
Where,
k is Boltzmann constant
For the given gases, k and T are constants
Therefore, Vrms depends only on the mass of the atoms, i.e., Vrms ∝ (1/m)1/2
Hence, the root mean square speed of the molecules in the three cases is not the same.
Among neon, chlorine and uranium hexafluoride, the mass of neon is the smallest.
Therefore, neon has the largest root mean square speed among the given gases.
9. At what temperature is the root mean square speed of an atom in an argon gas cylinder equal
to the rms speed of a helium gas atom at – 20 °C? (atomic mass of Ar = 39.9 u, of He = 4.0 u).
Solution:
Given
Temperature of the helium atom, THe = -200 C = 253 K
Atomic mass of argon, MAr = 39.9 u
Kinetic Theory
Atomic mass of helium, MHe = 4.0 u
Let (Vrms)Ar be the rms speed of argon and
Let (Vrms)He be the rms speed of helium
The rms speed of argon is given by:
(Vrms)Ar = √3RTAr / MAr ………… (i)
Where,
R is the universal gas constant
TAr is temperature of argon gas
The rms speed of helium is given by:
(Vrms)He = √3RTHe / MHe ………… (ii)
Given that,
(Vrms)Ar = (Vrms)He
√3RTAr / MAr = √3RTHe / MHe
TAr / MAr = THe / MHe
TAr = THe / MHe x MAr
= (253 / 4) x 39.9
We get,
= 2523.675
= 2.52 x 103 K
Hence, the temperature of the argon atom is 2.52 x 103 K
10. Estimate the mean free path and collision frequency of a nitrogen molecule in a cylinder
containing nitrogen at 2.0 atm and temperature 170 C . Take the radius of a nitrogen molecule to
be roughly 1.0 Å. Compare the collision time with the time the molecule moves freely between
two successive collisions (Molecular mass of N2 = 28.0 u).
Solution:
Mean free path = 1.11 x 10-7 m
Collision frequency = 4.58 x 109 s-1
Successive collision time ≅ 500 x (Collision time)
Pressure inside the cylinder containing nitrogen, P = 2.0 atm = 2.026 x 105 Pa
Temperature inside the cylinder, T = 170 C = 290 K
Radius of a nitrogen molecule, r = 1.0 Å = 1 x 1010 m
Diameter, d = 2 x 1 x 1010 = 2 x 1010 m
Kinetic Theory
Molecular mass of nitrogen, M = 28.0 g = 28 x 10-3 kg
The root mean square speed of nitrogen is given by the relation:
Vrms= √3RT / M
Where,
R is the universal gas constant = 8.314 J mol-1 K-1
Hence,
Vrms= 3 x 8.314 x 290 / 28 x 10-3
= 508.26 m/s
The mean free path (l) is given by relation:
l = KT / √2 x π x d2 x P
Where,
k is the Boltzmann constant = 1.38 x 10-23 kg m2 s-2 K-1
Hence,
l = (1.38 x 10-23 x 290) / (√2 x 3.14 x (2 x 10-10)2 x 2.026 x 105
We get,
= 1.11 x 10-7 m
Collision frequency = Vrms / l
= 508.26 / 1.11 x 10-7
= 4.58 x 109 s-1
Collision time is given as:
T = d / Vrms
= 2 x 10-10 / 508.26
On further calculation, we get
= 3.93 x 10-13 s
Time taken between successive collisions:
T’ = l / Vrms = 1.11 x 10-7 / 508.26
We get,
= 2.18 x 10-10
Hence,
T’ / T = 2.18 x 10-10 / 3.93 x 10-13
Kinetic Theory
= 500
Therefore, the time taken between successive collisions is 500 times the time taken for a collision
11. A metre long narrow bore held horizontally (and closed at one end) contains a 76 cm long
mercury thread, which traps a 15 cm column of air. What happens if the tube is held vertically
with the open end at the bottom?
Solution:
Length of the narrow bore, L = 1 m = 100 cm
Length of the mercury thread, l = 76 cm
Length of the air column between mercury and the closed end, la = 15 cm
Since the bore is held vertically in air with the open end at the bottom, the mercury length that occupies the
air space is:
= 100 – (76 + 15)
= 9 cm
Therefore,
The total length of the air column = 15 + 9 = 24 cm
Let h cm of mercury flow out as a result of atmospheric pressure
So,
Length of the air column in the bore = 24 + h cm
And,
Length of the mercury column = 76 – h cm
Initial pressure, V1 = 15 cm3
Final pressure, P2 = 76 – (76 – h)
= h cm of mercury
Final volume, V2 = (24 + h) cm3
Temperature remains constant throughout the process
Therefore,
P1V1 = P2V2
76 x 15 = h (24 + h)
h2 + 24h – 11410 = 0
On solving further, we get,
Kinetic Theory
= 23.8 cm or -47.8 cm
Since height cannot be negative. Hence, 23.8 cm of mercury will flow out from the bore
Length of the air column = 24 + 23.8 = 47.8 cm
12. From a certain apparatus, the diffusion rate of hydrogen has an average value of 28.7 cm3 s-
1
. The diffusion of another gas under the same conditions is measured to have an average rate
of 7.2 cm3 s-1. Identify the gas.
[Hint: Use Graham’s law of diffusion: R1/R2 = ( M2 /M1 )1/2, where R1 , R2 are diffusion rates of
gases 1 and 2, and M1 and M2 their respective molecular masses. The law is a simple
consequence of kinetic theory.]
Solution:
Given
Rate of diffusion of hydrogen, R1 = 28.7 cm3s-1
Rate of diffusion of another gas, R2 = 7.2 cm3s-1
According to Graham’s Law of diffusion,
We have,
R1 / R2 = √M2 / M1
Where,
M1 is the molecular mass of hydrogen = 2.020g
M2 is the molecular mass of the unknown gas
Hence,
M2 = M1 (R1 / R2)2
= 2.02 (28.7 / 7.2)2
We get,
= 32.09 g
32 g is the molecular mass of oxygen.
Therefore, the unknown gas is oxygen.
13. A gas in equilibrium has uniform density and pressure throughout its volume. This is strictly
true only if there are no external influences. A gas column under gravity, for example, does not
have a uniform density (and pressure). As you might expect, its density decreases with height.
The precise dependence is given by the so-called law of atmospheres
n2= n1 exp [ -mg (h2 – h1)/ kBT]
where n2, n1 refer to number density at heights h2 and h1 respectively. Use this relation to derive
the equation for sedimentation equilibrium of a suspension in a liquid column:
n2 = n1 exp [ -mg NA (ρ – ρ′ ) (h2–h1)/ (ρ RT)]
Kinetic Theory
where ρ is the density of the suspended particle, and ρ′ ,that of surrounding medium. [NA is
Avogadro’s number, and R the universal gas constant.] [Hint : Use Archimedes principle to find
the apparent weight of the suspended particle.]
Solution:
Law of atmosphere
n2= n1 exp [ -mg (h2 – h1)/ kBT] ———(1)
The suspended particle experiences an apparent weight because of the liquid displaced
According to Archimedes principle
Apparent weight = Weight of the water displaced – weight of the suspended particle
= mg – m’g
= mg – Vρ’g = mg – (m/ρ) ρ’g
= mg (1 – (ρ’/ρ)) ——-(2)
ρ′= Density of the water
ρ = Density of the suspended particle
m′ = Mass of the suspended particle
m = Mass of the water displaced
V = Volume of a suspended particle
Boltzmann’s constant (K) = R/NA ——(3)
Substituting equation (2) and equation (3) in equation (1)
n2= n1 exp [ -mg (h2 – h1)/ kBT]
n2 = n1 exp [ -mg (1 – ρ′/ ρ ) (h2–h1)NA / (RT)]
n2 = n1 exp [ -mg NA (ρ – ρ′ ) (h2–h1)/ (ρ RT)]
14. Given below are densities of some solids and liquids. Give rough estimates of the size of
their atoms :
Density (103
Substance Atomic Mass (u)
Kg m-3)
Carbon (diamond) 12.01 2.22
Gold 197.00 19.32
Nitrogen (liquid) 14.01 1.00
Lithium 6.94 0.53
Fluorine (liquid) 19.00 1.14

Kinetic Theory
[Hint: Assume the atoms to be ‘tightly packed’ in a solid or liquid phase, and use the known
value of Avogadro’s number. You should, however, not take the actual numbers you obtain for
various atomic sizes too literally. Because of the crudeness of the tight packing approximation,
the results only indicate that atomic sizes are in the range of a few Å].
Solution:
If r is the radius of the atom then the volume of each atom = (4/3)πr3
Volume of all the substance = (4/3)πr3 x N = M/ρ
M is the atomic mass of the substance
ρ is the density of the substance
One mole of the substance has 6.023 x 1023 atoms
r = (3M/4πρ x 6.023 x 1023)1/3
For carbon, M = 12. 01 x 10-3 kg and ρ = 2.22 x 103 kg m-3
R = (3 x 12. 01 x 10-3/4 x 3.14 x 2.22 x 103 x 6.023 x 1023)1/3
= (36.03 x 10-3 /167.94 x 1026)1/3
1.29 x 10 -10 m = 1.29 Å
For gold, M = 197 x 10-3 kg and ρ = 19. 32 x 103 kg m-3
R = (3 x 197 x 10-3/4 x 3.14 x 19.32 x 103 x 6.023 x 1023)1/3
= 1.59 x 10 -10 m = 1.59 Å
For lithium, M = 6.94 x 10-3 kg and ρ = 0.53 x 103 kg/m3
R = (3 x 6.94 x 10-3/4 x 3.14 x 0.53 x 103 x 6.023 x 1023)1/3
= 1.73 x 10 -10 m = 1.73 Å
For nitrogen (liquid), M = 14.01 x 10-3 kg and ρ = 1.00 x 103 kg/m3
R = (3 x 14.01 x 10-3/4 x 3.14 x 1.00 x 103 x 6.023 x 1023)1/3
= 1.77 x 10 -10 m = 1.77 Å
For fluorine (liquid), M = 19.00 x 10-3 kg and ρ = 1.14 x 103 kg/m3
R = (3 x 19 x 10-3/4 x 3.14 x 1.14 x 103 x 6.023 x 1023)1/3
= 1.88 x 10 -10 m = 1.88 Å
Oscillations
1. Which of the following examples represents periodic motion?

(a) A swimmer completing one (return) trip from one bank of a river to the other and back.
(b) A freely suspended bar magnet displaced from its N-S direction and released.
(c) A hydrogen molecule rotating about its centre of mass.
(d) An arrow released from a bow.
Solution:
(a) The swimmers motion is not periodic. The motion of the swimmer between the banks of a river is to
and fro. However, it does not have a definite period. This is because the time taken by the swimmer
during his back and forth journey may not be the same.
(b) The motion of a freely-suspended magnet, if displaced from its N-S direction and released, is
periodic. Because the magnet oscillates about its position with a definite period of time.
(c) A hydrogen molecule rotating about its centre of mass is periodic. This is because when a hydrogen
molecule rotates about its centre of mass, it comes to the same position again and again after an equal
interval of time.
(d) An arrow released from a bow moves only in the forward direction. It does not come backward.
Therefore, this motion is not periodic.
2. Which of the following examples represent (nearly) simple harmonic motion and which
represent periodic but not simple harmonic motion?
(a) the rotation of earth about its axis.
(b) motion of an oscillating mercury column in a U-tube.
(c) motion of a ball bearing inside a smooth curved bowl, when released from a point slightly
above the lower most point.
(d) general vibrations of a polyatomic molecule about its equilibrium position.
Solution:
(a) Rotation of the earth is not to and fro motion about a fixed point. Therefore, it is periodic but not
S.H.M.
(b) Simple harmonic motion
(c) Simple harmonic motion
(d) General vibrations of a polyatomic molecule about its equilibrium position is periodic but not SHM. A
polyatomic molecule has a number of natural frequencies. Therefore its vibration is a superposition of
simple harmonic motions of a number of different frequencies.
3. Fig. 14.23 depicts four x-t plots for linear motion of a particle. Which of the plots represent
periodic motion? What is the period of motion (in case of periodic motion)?
Oscillations
Solution:
(a) It is not periodic motion because motion does not repeat itself after a regular interval of time
(b) The given graph illustrates a periodic motion, which is repeating itself after every 2 seconds
Oscillations
(c) The given graph does not exhibit a periodic motion because the motion is repeated in one position
only. For a periodic motion, the entire motion during one period must be repeated successively
(d) The given graph illustrates a periodic motion, which is repeating itself in every 2 seconds
4. Which of the following functions of time represent (a) simple harmonic, (b) periodic but not
simple harmonic, and (c) non-periodic motion? Give period for each case of periodic motion (ω
is any positive constant):
(a) sin ωt – cos ωt
(b) sin3 ωt
(c) 3 cos (π/4 – 2ωt)
(d) cos ωt + cos 3ωt + cos 5ωt
(e) exp (–ω2t2)
(f) 1 + ωt + ω2t2
Solution:
(a) sinωt−cosωt
=√2 [(1/√2) sinωt− (1/√2) cosωt]
= √2 [sinωt×cos (π/4) −cosωt×sin (π/4)]
= √2 [sinωt – (π/4)]
It is a simple harmonic motion and its period is 2π/4
(b) sin3ωt=1/4[3sin ωt−sin 3ωt]
Here sin ωt and sin 3ωt individually represent SHM. The superposition of two SHM is periodic but not
simple harmonic.
Its time period is 2π/ω
(c) 3cos[4π −2ωt] = 3cos[2ωt−π/4]
The equation can be written in the form cos(ωt+ϕ). It is S.H.M with the period 2π/2ω=π/ω
(d) cosωt+cos3ωt+cos5ωt.
Each of the cosine function represents a simple harmonic motion. However, the superposition of three
simple harmonic motions is periodic, but not simple harmonic. Its time period is 2π/ω
(e) exp (–ω2t2)
It is an exponential function that does not repeat itself. Therefore, it is a non-periodic motion.
(f) The given function 1+ωt+ω2t2
It is non-periodic.
5. A particle is in linear simple harmonic motion between two points, A and B, 10 cm apart. Take the
direction from A to B as the positive direction and give the signs of velocity, acceleration and force
on the particle when it is
(a) at the end A,
(b) at the end B,
Oscillations
(c) at the mid-point of AB going towards A,

(d) at 2 cm away from B going towards A,
(e) at 3 cm away from A going towards B, and
(f) at 4 cm away from B going towards A.
Solution:
(a) Zero, Positive, Positive
(b) Zero, Negative, Negative
(c) Negative, Zero, Zero
(d) Negative, Negative, Negative
(e) Positive, Positive, Positive
(f) Negative, Negative, Negative
Explanation:
(a), (b) The given situation is shown in the following figure. Points A and B are the two end points, with
AB = 10 cm, where ‘O’ is the midpoint of the path.
A particle is in linear simple harmonic motion between the end points. At the extreme point A, the
particle is at rest momentarily. Therefore, its velocity is zero at this point. Its acceleration is positive as it
is directed along AO. Force is also positive in this case as the particle is directed rightward.
At the extreme point B, the particle is at rest momentarily. Therefore, its velocity is zero at this point
(c) The particle is executing a simple harmonic motion. ‘O’ is the mean position of the particle. Its
velocity at the mean position O is the maximum. The value for velocity is negative since the particle is
directed leftward. The acceleration and force of a particle executing SHM is zero at the mean position.
(d) The particle is moving toward point O from the end B. This direction of motion is opposite to the
conventional positive direction, which is from A and B. Therefore, the particle’s velocity and
acceleration, and the force on it are all negative.
(e) The particle is moving toward point O from the end A. This direction of motion is from A to B, which
is the conventional positive direction. Therefore, the values for velocity, acceleration and force are all
positive.
(f) This case is similar to the one mentioned in (d)
6. Which of the following relationships between the acceleration a and the displacement x of a
particle involve simple harmonic motion?
(a) a = 0.7x
(b) a = –200x2
(c) a = –10x
(d) a = 100x3
Solution:
Oscillations
Condition of SHM
Acceleration is directly proportional to negative of displacement of particle
If ‘a’ is acceleration
x is displacement
Then, for Simple Harmonic Motion,
a = – kx where k is constant
(a) a = 0.7x
This is not in the form of a = -kx
Hence, this is not SHM
(b) a = – 200x2
Clearly, it is not SHM
(c) a = -10x
This is in the form of a = -kx
Hence, this is SHM
(d) a = 100x3
It’s clear it is not SHM
7. The motion of a particle executing simple harmonic motion is described by the displacement
function,
x(t) = A cos (ωt + φ ).
If the initial (t = 0) position of the particle is 1 cm and its initial velocity is ω cm/s, what are its
amplitude and initial phase angle? The angular frequency of the particle is π s–1. If instead of the
cosine function, we choose the sine function to describe the SHM: x = B sin (ωt + α), what are
the amplitude and initial phase of the particle with the above initial conditions.
Solution:
Displacement function x(t) = A cos (ωt + φ)
At position, t = 0;
Displacement, x(0)=1 cm
Initial velocity, v=ω cm/s
Angular frequency, ω=π s−1
The given function is x(t)=Acos(ωt+ϕ) ——–(1)
1=Acos(ω×0+ϕ)=Acosϕ
Acosϕ=1 —————(2)
Differentiating equation (1) w.r.t “t”
Velocity, v=dx/dt
v=−Aωsin(ωt+ϕ) ——(3)
Oscillations
t = 0 and v = ω
1=−Asin(ω×0+ϕ)=−Asinϕ
Asinϕ=−1 ———-(4)
Squaring and adding equations (2) and (4), we get:
A2(sin2ϕ+cos2ϕ)=1+1
A = √2 cm
Dividing equation (4) by equation (2),
(A sin ϕ/A cos ϕ) = -1/1
tanϕ=−1
⇒ ϕ=3π/4, 7π/4
If sine function is used
x=Bsin(ωt+α)
At t = 0, x = 1 and v = ω we get
1=Bsin(ω×0+α]=1+1
Bsinα=1 —- (5)
Velocity, v= dx/dt = Bωcos(ωt+α)
taking v = ω
1 = Bcos(ω(0)+α) = Bcos α——(6)
Squaring and adding equations(5) and (6), we get:
B2[sin2α+cos2α]=1+1
B2 =2
B= √2 cm
Dividing equation (5) by equation (6), we get:
Bsinα/Bcosα=1/1
tanα=1
Therefore, α=π/4,5π/4,……
8. A spring balance has a scale that reads from 0 to 50 kg. The length of the scale is 20 cm. A
body suspended from this balance, when displaced and released, oscillates with a period of 0.6
s. What is the weight of the body?
Solution:
Given
Maximum mass that the scale can read, M = 50 kg
Maximum displacement of the spring = Length of the scale, l = 20 cm
= 0.2 m
Time period, T = 0.6 s
Oscillations
Maximum force exerted on the spring, F = mg

Where,
g = acceleration due to gravity = 9.8 m/s2
F = 50 x 9.8 = 490
Hence,
Spring constant, k = F / l
= 490 / 0.2
We get,
= 2450 N m-1
Mass m is suspended from the balance.
Time period, t = 2π√m / k
Therefore,
m = (T / 2π)2 x k
= {0.6 / (2 x 3.14)}2 x 2450
We get,
= 22.36 kg
Hence, weight of the body = mg = 22.36 x 9.8
= 219.13 N
Therefore, the weight of the body is about 219 N
9. A spring having with a spring constant 1200 N m-1 is mounted on a horizontal table as shown
in Fig. 14.24. A mass of 3 kg is attached to the free end of the spring. The mass is then pulled
sideways to a distance of 2.0 cm and released.
Oscillations
Determine (i) the frequency of oscillations, (ii) maximum acceleration of the mass, and (iii) the
maximum speed of the mass.
Solution:
Given,
Spring constant, k = 1200 N m-1
Mass, m = 3 kg
Displacement, A = 2.0 cm
= 0.02 m
(i) Frequency of oscillation ‘v’ is given by the relation:
v = (1 / T)
= (1 / 2 π) (√k / m)
Where,
T is the time period
So,
v = {1 / (2 x 3.14)}√1200 / 3
On calculating further, we get,
= 3.18 m / s
Therefore, the frequency of oscillations is 3.18 cycles per second.
(ii) Maximum acceleration (a) is given by the relation:
a = ω2 A
Where,
ω = Angular frequency = √k / m
A = Maximum displacement
Hence,
a = (k / m) A
a = (1200 x 0.02) / 3
We get,
= 8 m s-2
Therefore, the maximum acceleration of the mass is 8.0 m / s2
(iii) Maximum velocity, vmax = Aω
= A √k / m
Oscillations
= 0.02 x (√1200 / 3)
= 0.4 m / s
Therefore, the maximum velocity of the mass is 0.4 m / s
10. In Exercise 14.9, let us take the position of mass when the spring is unstreched as x = 0, and
the direction from left to right as the positive direction of x-axis. Give x as a function of time t
for the oscillating mass if at the moment we start the stopwatch (t = 0), the mass is
(a) at the mean position,
(b) at the maximum stretched position, and
(c) at the maximum compressed position. In what way do these functions for SHM differ from
each other, in frequency, in amplitude or the initial phase?
Solution:
Distance travelled by the mass sideways, a = 2.0 cm
Angular frequency of oscillation:
ω = √k / m
= √1200 / 3
= √400
We get,
= 20 rad s-1
(a) As time is noted from the mean position,
Hence, using
x = a sin ωt
We have,
x = 2 sin 20 t
(b) At maximum stretched position, the body is at the extreme right position, with an initial phase of π /
2 rad. Then,
x = a sin (ωt + π / 2)
= a cos ωt
= 2 cos 20 t
(c) At maximum compressed position, the body is at left position, with an initial phase of 3π / 2 rad.
Then,
x = a sin (ωt + 3π / 2)
= – a cos ωt
Oscillations
= – 2 cos 20 t
Therefore,
The functions neither differ in amplitude nor in frequency. They differ in initial phase.
11. Figures 14.25 correspond to two circular motions. The radius of the circle, the period of
revolution, the initial position, and the sense of revolution (i.e. clockwise or anti-clockwise) are
indicated on each figure.
Obtain the corresponding simple harmonic motions of the x-projection of the radius vector of
the revolving particle P, in each case.
Solution:
(a) Time period, t = 2 s
Amplitude, A = 3 cm
At time, t = 0, the radius vector OP makes an angle π / 2 with the positive x -axis,
i.e,
Phase angle ϕ = + π / 2
Hence, the equation of simple harmonic motion for the x – projection of OP, at the time t, is given by the
displacement equation:
x = A cos [(2πt / T) + ϕ]
= 3 cos [(2πt / 2) + π / 2]
= – 3 sin (2πt / 2)
Therefore,
Oscillations
x = – 3 sin (πt) cm
(b) Time period, t = 4 s
Amplitude, a = 2 m
At time t = 0, OP makes an angle π with the x-axis, in the anticlockwise direction
Thus,
Phase angle ϕ = +π
Hence, the equation of simple harmonic motion for the x-projection of OP, at the time t, is given as:
x = a cos [(2πt / T) + ϕ]
= 2 cos [(2πt / 4) + π]
Hence,
x = – 2 cos {(π / 2) t}m
12. Plot the corresponding reference circle for each of the following simple harmonic motions.
Indicate the initial (t =0) position of the particle, the radius of the circle, and the angular speed of
the rotating particle. For simplicity, the sense of rotation may be fixed to be anticlockwise in
every case: (x is in cm and t is in s).
(a) x = –2 sin (3t + π/3)
(b) x = cos (π/6 – t)
(c) x = 3 sin (2πt + π/4)
(d) x = 2 cos πt
Solution:
(a) x = -2sin(3t + π/3)
= 2cos(3t + π/3 + π/2)
= 2cos(3t + 5π/6)
The above equation can be compared with the standard equation, x = A cos(ωt + Φ)
Amplitude, A = 2 cm (radius of the circle)
Angular velocity, ω = 3 rad/s
Phase angle, Φ = 5π/6 = 150 0
(b) x = cos(π/6 – t)
= cos( t – π/6)
Comparing this equation with Acos(ωt + Φ)
Phase angle, Φ = -π/6 = – 300
Amplitude, A = 1 cm (radius of the circle)
Angular velocity, ω = 1 rad/s
(c) x = 3 sin(2πt + π/4)
= -3 cos( 2πt + π/4 + π/2)
= -3 cos(2πt + 3π/4)
=-3 cos( 2πt + 3π/4 )
Comparing with the standard equation Acos(ωt + Φ)
Amplitude, A =- 3cm
Oscillations
Angular velocity, ω = 2π rad/s

Phase angle, Φ = 3π/4 rad
(d) x = 2 cosπt
Amplitude, A = 2
Angular velocity, ω = π rad/sec = 1800
Phase angle, Φ = 0
13. Figure (a) shows a spring of force constant k clamped rigidly at one end and a mass m
attached to its free end. A force F applied at the free end stretches the spring. Figure (b) shows
the same spring with both ends free and attached to a mass m at either end. Each end of the
spring in Fig. (b) is stretched by the same force F.
Oscillations
(a) What is the maximum extension of the spring in the two cases?
(b) If the mass in Fig. (a) and the two masses in Fig. (b) is released, what is the period of
oscillation in each case?
Solution:
(a) The maximum extension of the spring in fig (a) is x. The F = kx Therefore, x = F/k
The force on each mass acts as the reaction force acting on the other mass. The two mass behaves as
if it is fixed with respect to the other.
Therefore, x = F/k
here k is the spring constant
(b) In figure (a) the restoring force on the mass is F = -kx, here x is the extension of the spring.
For the mass (m) of the block, force is written as
F = ma = m (d2x/dt2)
Therefore, m (d2x/dt2) = -kx
(d2x/dt2) = (-k/m)x = – ω2x
Here, angular frequency of oscillation, ω = √k/√m
Time period of oscillation, T = 2π/ω
= 2π (√m/√k)
In Figure (b), the centre of the system is O and there are two springs. Each spring is of length l/2 and it
is attached to two masses
Therefore F = – 2kx
here x is the extension of the spring.
F = ma = m (d2x/dt2)
m (d2x/dt2) = -2kx
(d2x/dt2) = (-2k/m)x= -ω2 x
ω = √(2k/m)
Oscillations
T = 2π (√m/√2k)
14. The piston in the cylinder head of a locomotive has a stroke (twice the amplitude) of 1.0 m. If
the piston moves with simple harmonic motion with an angular frequency of 200 rad/min, what
is its maximum speed?
Given
Angular frequency of the piston, ω = 200 rad/ min
Stroke = 1.0 m
Amplitude, A = 1.0 / 2
= 0.5 m
The maximum speed (vmax) of the piston is given by the relation:
vmax = Aω
= 200 x 0.5
We get,
= 100 m/ min
Therefore, its maximum speed is 100 m / min
15. The acceleration due to gravity on the surface of moon is 1.7 m s-2. What is the time period
of a simple pendulum on the surface of moon if its time period on the surface of earth is 3.5 s?
(g on the surface of earth is 9.8 m s-2)
Solution:
Given
Acceleration due to gravity on the surface of moon, g’ = 1.7 m s-2
Acceleration due to gravity on the surface of earth, g = 9.8 m s-2
Time period of a simple pendulum on earth, T = 3.5 s
T = 2 π√l / g
Where,
l is the length of the pendulum
Therefore,
l = {T2 / (2 π)2} x 2
l = (3.5)2 / {4 x (3.14)2} x 9.8 m
The length of the pendulum remains constant
Oscillations
On moon’s surface, time period, T’ = 2 π√l / g’

= 2 π [√{(3.5)2 / 4 x (3.14)2 x 9.8 / 1.7}]
We get,
= 8.4 s
Therefore, the time period of the simple pendulum on the surface of the moon is 8.4 s
16. Answer the following questions:

(a) Time period of a particle in SHM depends on the force constant k and mass m of the particle:
T = = 2π (√m/√k)
A simple pendulum executes SHM approximately. Why then is the time period of a pendulum
independent of the mass of the pendulum?
(b) The motion of a simple pendulum is approximately simple harmonic for small-
angle oscillations. For larger angles of oscillation, a more involved analysis shows that T is
greater than 2π(√l/√g). Think of a qualitative argument to appreciate this result.
(c) A man with a wristwatch on his hand falls from the top of a tower. Does the watch give the
correct time during the free fall?
(d) What is the frequency of oscillation of a simple pendulum mounted in a cabin that is freely
falling under gravity?
Solution:
(a) In the case of a simple pendulum, the spring constant k is proportional to the mass. The m is the
numerator and the denominator will cancel each other. Therefore, the time period of the simple
pendulum is independent of the mass of the bob.
(b) The restoring force acting on the bob of a simple pendulum is given by the expression
F=−mgsinθ
F is the restoring force
m is the mass of the bob
g is the acceleration due to gravity
θ is the angle of displacement
When θ is small, sinθ≈θ.
Then the expression for the time period of a simple pendulum is given by T=2π(√l/√g)
When θ is large, sinθ<θ. Therefore, the above equation will not be valid. There will be an increase in
the time period T.
(c) Wristwatch works on spring action and does not depend on the acceleration due to gravity.
Therefore, the watch will show the correct time.
(d) During the free fall of the cabin, the acceleration due to gravity will be zero. Therefore the frequency
of oscillation of the simple pendulum will also be zero.
Oscillations
17. A simple pendulum of length l and having a bob of mass M is suspended in a car. The car is
moving on a circular track of radius R with a uniform speed v. If the pendulum makes small
oscillations in a radial direction about its equilibrium position, what will be its time period?
Solution:
The bob of the simple pendulum will experience the centripetal acceleration provided by the circular
motion of the car and the acceleration due to gravity.
Acceleration due to gravity = g
Centripetal acceleration = v2 / R
Where,
v is the uniform speed of the car
R is the radius of the track
Effective acceleration (g’) is given as
g‘ = √g2 + (v4 / R2)
Hence,
Time period, t = 2π√l / g’
= 2π √(l / √g2 + v4 / R2)
Therefore, its time period will be 2π √(l / √g2 + v4 / R2)
18. A cylindrical piece of cork of density of base area A and height h floats in a liquid of density
ρ1. The cork is depressed slightly and then released. Show that the cork oscillates up and down
simple harmonically with a period T = 2π √hρ / ρ1g where ρ is the density of cork. (Ignore
damping due to viscosity of the liquid)
Solution:
Given
Base area of the cork = A
Height of the cork = h
Density of the liquid = ρ1
Density of the cork = ρ
In equilibrium:
Weight of the cork = Weight of the liquid displaced by the floating cork
Let the cork be depressed slightly by x. As a result, some excess water of a certain volume is displaced.
Thus, an extra up-thrust acts upward and provides the restoring force to the cork
Up-thrust = Restoring force, F = Weight of the extra water displaced
F = – (Volume x Density x g)
Oscillations
Volume = Area x Distance through which the cork is depressed

Volume = Ax
Therefore,
F = – Ax x ρ1g …. (1)
According to the force law:
F = kx
k=F/x
where,
k is constant
k = F / x = – Aρ1g ……. (2)
The time period of the oscillations of the cork:
T = 2π (√m / k) ……. (3)
Where,
m = Mass of the cork
= Volume of the cork x Density
= Base area of the cork x Height of the cork x Density of the cork
= Ahρ
Therefore, the expression for the time period becomes:
T = 2π √(Ahρ / Aρ1g)
T = 2π √(hρ / ρ1g)
19. One end of a U-tube containing mercury is connected to a suction pump and the other end
to atmosphere. A small pressure difference is maintained between the two columns. Show that,
when the suction pump is removed, the column of mercury in the U-tube executes simple
harmonic motion.
Solution:
Area of cross-section of the U-tube = A
Density of the mercury column = ρ
Acceleration due to gravity = g
Restoring force, F = Weight of the mercury column of a certain height
F = – (Volume x Density x g)
F = – (A x 2h x ρ x g)
= – 2Aρgh
= – k x Displacement in one of the arms (h)
Oscillations
Where,
2h is the height of the mercury column in the two arms
k is a constant, given by
k=–F/h
We get,
k = 2Aρg
Time period, T = 2π √(m / k)
On substituting k value, we get,
Time period, T = 2π √(m / 2Aρg)
Where,
m is the mass of the mercury column
Let l be the length of the total mercury in the U-tube
Mass of mercury, m = volume of mercury x Density of mercury
= Alρ
Hence,
T = 2π √(Alρ / 2Aρg)
T = 2π √(l / 2g)
Therefore, the mercury column executes simple harmonic motion with time period 2π √(l / 2g)
20. An air chamber of volume V has a neck area of cross-section into which a ball of mass m
just fits and can move up and down without any friction. Show that when the ball is pressed
down a little and released, it executes SHM. Obtain an expression for the time period of
oscillations assuming pressure-volume variations of air to be isothermal [see Figure]
Oscillations
Solution:
Volume of the air chamber = V

Cross-sectional area of the neck = A
Mass of the ball = m
The ball is fitted in the neck at position C
The pressure of the air below the ball in the chamber is equal to the atmospheric pressure.
The ball is pressed down a little by increasing the pressure by a small amount p, so the ball moves
down to position D.
Increase the pressure on the ball by a little amount p, so that the ball is depressed to position D
The distance CD =y
The volume of the air chamber decreases and the pressure increases.
There will be a decrease in volume and hence increase in pressure of air inside the chamber. The
decrease in volume of the air inside the chamber, ΔV=Ay
Volumetric strain = change in volume/ original volume
= ΔV/V = Ay/V
Bulk Modulus of elasticity, B = Stress/ volumetric strain
= -p/(Ay/V)
= -pV/Ay
p = – BAy/V
The restoring force on the ball due to the excess pressure
F = p x A = (- BAy/V) x A = – (BA2/V).y ——(1)
F ∝ y and the negative sign indicates that the force is directed towards the equilibrium position.
Oscillations
If the increased pressure is removed the ball will execute simple harmonic motion in the neck of the
chamber with C as the mean position.
In S.H.M., the restoring force, F=−ky ———(2)
Comparing (1) and (2),
-ky = – (BA2/V).y
k = (BA2/V)
Inertia factor = mass of ball =m
Time period, T = 2π√inertia factor/√spring factor
T = 2π √m/√k
21. You are riding in an automobile of mass 3000 kg. Assuming that you are examining the
oscillation characteristics of its suspension system. The suspension sags 15 cm when the
entire automobile is placed on it. Also, the amplitude of oscillation decreases by 50% during
one complete oscillation. Estimate the values of (a) the spring constant k and (b) the damping
constant b for the spring and shock absorber system of one wheel, assuming that each wheel
supports 750 kg.
Solution:
(a) Mass of the automobile = 3000 kg
The suspension sags by 15 cm
Decrease in amplitude =50% during one complete oscillation
Let k be the spring constant of each spring, then the spring constant of the four springs in parallel is
K= 4k
Since F = 4kx
Mg = 4kx
⇒ k = Mg/4x = (3000 x 10)/(4 x 0.15) = 5 x 104 N
(b) Each wheel supports 750 kg weight
t = 2π√m/√k = 2 x 3.14 x (√750/√5 x 104) = 0.77 sec
Oscillations
22. Show that for a particle in linear SHM the average kinetic energy over a period of oscillation
equals the average potential energy over the same period.
Solution:
Let m be the mass of the particle executing simple harmonic motion. The displacement of the particle at
an instant t is given by
x = A sin ωt
Velocity of the particle, v= dx/dt = Aωcos ωt
Instantaneous Kinetic Energy, K = (1/2) mv2
= (1/2) m (Aωcos ωt)2
= (1/2) m (A2ω2cos2ωt)
Average value of kinetic energy over one complete cycle
Oscillations
Kinetic energy = Potential energy
23. A circular disc of mass 10 kg is suspended by a wire attached to its centre. The wire is
twisted by rotating the disc and released. The period of torsional oscillations is found to be 1.5
s. The radius of the disc is 15 cm. Determine the torsional spring constant of the wire.
(Torsional spring constant α is defined by the relation J = –α θ, where J is the restoring couple
and θ the angle of twist).
Solution:
Mass of the circular disc = 10 kg
Period of torsional oscillation = 1.5 s
Radius of the disc = 15 cm = 0.15 m
Restoring couple, J = –α θ
Moment of inertia, I = (1/2) mR2
= (1/2) x 10 x (0.15)2
= 0.1125 kgm2
Time period is given by the relation
= 4.44/2.25
= 1.97 Nm/rad
24. A body describes simple harmonic motion with an amplitude of 5 cm and a period of 0.2 s.
Find the acceleration and velocity of the body when the displacement is (a) 5 cm (b) 3 cm (c) 0
cm.
Solution:
Amplitude = 5 cm = 0.05 m
Time period = 0.2 s
When the displacement is y, then
Oscillations
acceleration, A = -ω2y
ω = 2π/T
= 2π/0.2 = 10π rad/s
(a) When the displacement y = 5 cm = 0.05 m
Acceleration, A = – (10π)2(0.05) = 5π2 m/s2
(b) When the displacement y = 3 cm = 0.03 m

Acceleration, A = – (10π)2(0.03) = 3π2 m/s2
(c) When the displacement y = 0

Acceleration, A = – (10π)2(0) = 0
25. A mass attached to a spring is free to oscillate, with angular velocity ω, in a horizontal plane
without friction or damping. It is pulled to a distance x0 and pushed towards the centre with a
velocity v0 at time t = 0. Determine the amplitude of the resulting oscillations in terms of the
parameters ω, x0 and v0. [Hint: Start with the equation x = a cos (ωt+θ) and note that the initial
velocity is negative.]
Solution:
The angular velocity of the spring = ω
x = a cos (ωt+θ)
At t = 0, x = x0
Substituting these values in the above equation we get
x0 = A cos θ —–(1)
Velocity, v= dx/dt = – Aω sin (ωt+θ)
At t = 0, v = – v0
Substituting these values in the above equation we get
– v0 = – Aω sin θ
Oscillations
Asin θ = v0/ω———-(2)
Squaring and adding (1) and (2) we get
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Q1. A string of mass 2.50 kg is under a tension of 200 N. The length of the stretched string is
20.0 m. If the transverse jerk is struck at one end of the string, how long does the disturbance
take to reach the other end?
Solution:
Given,
Mass of the string, M = 2.50 kg
Tension in the string, T = 200 N
Length of the string, l = 20.0 m
Mass per unit length, μ = M /l = 5/40 = 0.125 kg / m
We know,
Therefore, the time taken by the transverse wave to reach the other side is 40 m/s.
Q2. A stone dropped from the top of a tower of height 300 m splashes into the water of a pond
near the base of the tower. When is the splash heard at the top given that the speed of sound in
air is 340 m s–1? (g = 9.8 m s–2)
Solution:
Given,
Height of the bridge, s = 300 m
Initial velocity of the stone, u = 0
Acceleration, a = g = 9.8 m/s2
Speed of sound in air = 340 m/s
Let t be the time taken by the stone to hit the water’s surface
We know,
s = ut + ½ gt2
300 = 0 + ½ x 9.8 x t2
therefore, t = 7.82 s
The time taken by the sound to reach the bridge, t’= 300/340 = 0.88 s
Therefore, from the moment the stone is released from the bridge, the sound of it splashing the water is
heard after = t +t’ = 7.82 s + 0.88 s = 8.7s
Q3. Steel wire has a length of 12.0 m and a mass of 2.10 kg. What should be the tension in the
wire so that the speed of a transverse wave on the wire equals the speed of sound in dry air at
20 °C = 343 m s–1.
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Solution:
Given,
Length of the steel wire, l = 12 m
Mass of the steel wire, m = 2.0 kg
Velocity of the transverse wave, v = 343 m/s
Mass per unit length, μ = M /l = 2.10/12 = 0.175 kg / m
We know,
Therefore, T = v2 μ
= 3432 x 0.175 = 2.06 x 104 N
Solution:
Given,
We know,
PV = nRT ( for n moles of ideal gas )
=> PV = RT (m/M )
Where, m is the total mass and M is molecular mass of the gas.
therefore, P = m (RT/M)
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Q5. We know that the function y = f (x, t) represents a wave travelling in one direction, where x
and t must appear in the combination x + vt or x– vt or i.e. y = f (x ± vt). Is the converse true?
Can the following functions for y possibly represent a travelling wave:
( i ) (x – vt) 2
( ii ) log [ ( x + vt)/ x0 ]
( iii ) 1 / (x + vt )
Solution:
No, the converse is not true, because it is necessary for a wave function representing a travelling wave
to have a finite value for all values of x and t.
As none of the above functions satisfy the above condition, thus, none represent a travelling wave.
Q6. A bat emits ultrasonic sound of frequency 1000 kHz in air. If the sound meets a water
surface, what is the wavelength of (a) the reflected sound, (b) the transmitted sound? Speed of
sound in air is 340 m s-1 and in water 1486 m s-1
Solution:
Given,
Frequency of the ultrasonic sound, ν = 1000 kHz = 106 Hz
Speed of sound in air, vA = 340 m/s
We know,
( i ) The wavelength ( λR ) of the reflected sound is :
λR = vA /v
= 340/106 = 3.4 x 10-4 m
( ii ) Speed of sound in water, vW = 1486 m/s
Therefore, the wavelength (λT )of the transmitted sound is :
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λT = 1486 / 106
= 1.49 x 10-3 m
Q7. An ultrasonic scanner operating at 4.2 MHz is used to locate tumours in tissues. If the speed
of sound is 2 km /s in a certain tissue, calculate the wavelength of sound in this tissue.
Solution:
Given,
Speed of sound in the tissue, vT = 2 km/s = 2 × 103 m/s
Operating frequency of the scanner, ν = 4.2 MHz = 4.2 × 106 Hz
Therefore, the wavelength of sound:
λ = vT / v
= (2 × 103)/ (4.2 × 106)
= 4.76 x 10-4 m
Q8. A transverse harmonic wave on a wire is expressed as:

y( x, t ) =3 sin ( 36t +0.018x +π/4 )
( i ) Is it a stationary wave or a travelling one?
( ii ) If it is a travelling wave, give the speed and direction of its propagation.
( iii ) Find its frequency and amplitude.
( iv ) Give the initial phase at the origin.
( v ) Calculate the smallest distance between two adjacent crests in the wave.
[X and y are in cm and t in seconds. Assume the left to right direction as the positive direction
of x]
Solution:
Given,
y(x, t) =3 sin (36t +0.018x + π/4) ......... ..(1)
( i ) We know, the equation of a progressive wave travelling from right to left is:
y (x, t) = a sin (ωt + kx + Φ) ................... (2)
Comparing equation ( 1 ) to equation ( 2 ), we see that it represents a wave travelling from right to left
and also we get:
a = 3 cm, ω = 36 rad/s , k = 0.018 cm and ϕ = π/4
( ii )Therefore, the speed of propagation , v = ω/k = 36/ 0.018 = 20 m/s
( iii ) Amplitude of the wave, a = 3 cm
Frequency of the wave v = ω / 2π
= 36 /2π = 5.7 hz
( iv ) Initial phase at the origin = π/4
( v ) the smallest distance between two adjacent crests in the wave, λ = 2π/ k = 2π / 0.018
= 349 cm
Q9. For the wave in the above question (Q8), plot the displacement (y) versus (t) graphs for x =
0, 2 and 4 cm. ( i ) Give the shapes of these plots.
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( ii ) With respect to which aspects (amplitude, frequency or phase) does the oscillatory motion
in a travelling wave differ from one point to another?
Solution:
Given,
y(x, t) =3 sin (36t +0.018x + π/4) ......... ..(1)
For x= 0, the equation becomes :
y( 0, t ) =3 sin ( 36t +0 + π/4 ) ......... ..(2)
Also,
ω = 2 π/t = 36 rad/s
=> t = π/18 secs.
Plotting the displacement (y) vs. (t) graphs using different values of t listed below:
Similarly graphs are obtained for x = 0, x = 2 cm, and x = 4 cm. The oscillatory motion in the travelling
wave is different from each other only in terms of phase. Amplitude and frequency are invariant for any
change in x. The y-t plots of the three waves are shown in the given figure:
Q10. A travelling harmonic wave is given as: y (x, t) = 2.0 cos 2π (10t – 0.0080x + 0.35).
What is the phase difference between the oscillatory motion of two points separated by a
distance of:
( i ) 8 m,
( ii ) 1 m,
( iii ) λ /2,
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( iv ) 6λ/4
[ X and y are in cm and t is in secs ].
Solution:
Given,
Equation for a travelling harmonic wave :
y (x, t) = 2.0 cos 2π (10t – 0.0080x + 0.35)
= 2.0 cos (20πt – 0.016πx + 0.70 π)
Where,
Propagation constant, k = 0.0160 π
Amplitude, a = 2 cm
Angular frequency, ω= 20 π rad/s
We know,
Phase difference Φ = kx = 2π/ λ
( i ) For x = 8 m = 800 cm
Φ = 0.016 π × 800 = 12.8 π rad
( ii )For x = 1 m = 100 cm
Φ = 0.016 π × 100 = 1.6 π rad
( iii ) For x =λ /2
Φ = (2π/ λ) x ( λ/2)
= π rad
( iv ) For x =6λ /4
Φ = (2π/ λ) x ( 6λ/4)
= 3 π rad
Q11. The transverse displacement of a wire (clamped at both its ends) is described as :
The mass of the wire is 6 x 10-2 kg and its length is 3m.

Provide answers to the following questions:
( i ) Is the function describing a stationary wave or a travelling wave?
( ii ) Interpret the wave as a superposition of two waves travelling in opposite directions. Find
the speed, wavelength and frequency of each wave.
( iii ) Calculate the wire’s tension.
[X and y are in meters and t in secs]
Solution:
We know,
The standard equation of a stationary wave is described as:
y (x, t) = 2a sin kx cos ωt
( i ) Thus, the given function describes a stationary wave.

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( ii ) We know, a wave travelling in the positive x-direction can be represented as :

y1 = a sin( ωt – kx )
Also,
A wave travelling in the negative x-direction is represented as :
y2 = a sin( ωt + kx )
Super- positioning these two waves gives us :
y = y 1 + y2
= a sin( ωt – kx ) – a sin( ωt + kx )
= asin(ωt)cos(kx) – asin(kx)cos(ωt) – asin(ωt)cos(kx) – asin(kx)cos(ωt)
= – 2asin(kx)cos(ωt)
The transverse displacement of the wires is described as :
Comparing equations ( 1 ) and ( 2 ) , we get :

2π/ λ = 2π/ 3
Therefore, wavelength λ = 3m
Also, 2πv/λ = 120π
Therefore, speed v = 180 m/s
And, Frequency = v/λ = 180/3
= 60 Hz
( iii )Given,
Velocity of the transverse wave, v = 180 m / s
The string’s mass, m = 6 × 10-2 kg
String length, l = 3 m
Mass per unit length of the string, μ = m/l = (6 x 10-2 )/3
= 2 x 10-2 kg/m
Let the tension in the wire be T
Therefore, T = v2 μ
= 1802 x 2 x 10-2
= 648 N.
Q12. Considering the wave described in the above question ( Q11 ) answer the following
questions;
( a ) Are all the points in the wire oscillating at the same values of (i) frequency, (ii) phase, (iii)
amplitude? Justify your answers.
( b ) Calculate the amplitude of a point 0.4 m away from one end?
Solution:
( a ) As the wire is clamped at both its ends, the ends behave as nodes and the whole wire vibrates in
one segment. Thus,
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( i ) Except at the ends which have zero frequency, all the particles in the wire oscillate with the same
frequency.
( ii ) All the particles in the wire lie in one segment, thus they all have the same phase. Except for the
nodes.
( iii ) Amplitude, however, is different for different points.
( b ) Given equation,
Q13. Present below are functions of x and t to describe the displacement (longitudinal or
transverse) of an elastic wave. Identify the ones describing ( a ) a stationary wave, ( b ) a
travelling wave and ( c ) neither of the two :
( i ) y = 3 sin( 5x – 0.5t ) + 4cos( 5x – 0.5t )
( ii ) y = cosxsint + cos2xsin2t.
( iii ) y = 2 cos (3x) sin (10t)
Solution:
( i ) This equation describes a travelling wave as the harmonic terms ωt and kx are in the combination
of kx – ωt.
( ii ) This equation describes a stationary wave because the harmonic terms ωt and kx appear
separately in the equation. In fact, this equation describes the superposition of two stationary waves.
( iii ) This equation describes a stationary wave because the harmonic terms ωt and kx appear
separately.
( iv ) This equation does not contain any harmonic term. Thus, it is neither a travelling wave nor a
stationary wave.
Q14. A string clamped at both its ends is stretched out, it is then made to vibrate in its
fundamental mode at a frequency of 45 Hz. The linear mass density of the string is 4.0 × 10 -2 kg/
m and its mass is 2 × 10 -2 kg. Calculate:
( i ) the velocity of a transverse wave on the string,
( ii ) the tension in the string.
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Solution:
Given,
Mass of the string, m = 2 x 10-2 kg
Linear density of the string = 4 x 10-2 kg
Frequency, vF = 45 Hz
We know, length of the wire = m/µ
= (2 x 10-2)/ (4 x10-2) = 0.5 m
We know, λ = 2l/n
Where, n = number of nodes in the wire.
For fundamental node, n =1
=> λ = 2l
= 2 x 0.5 = 1m
( i ) Therefore, speed of the transverse wave, v = λ vF
= 1 x 45 = 45 m/s
( ii ) Tension in the string = µ v2
= 4 x10-2 x 45 = 81 N
Q15. A 1m long pipe with a movable piston at one end and an opening at the other will be in
resonance with a tuning fork vibrating at 340 Hz, if the length of the pipe is 79.3 cm or 25.5 cm.
Calculate the speed of sound in air. Neglect the edge effects.
Solution:
Given,
Frequency of the turning fork, νF = 340 Hz
Length of the pipe, l1 = 0.255 m
As the given pipe is has a piston at one end, it will behave as a pipe with one end closed and the other
end open, as depicted in the figure below:
This kind of system creates odd harmonics. We know, fundamental note in a closed pipe is written as:
l1 = λ / 4
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0.255 x 4 = λ = 1.02m
Therefore speed of sound, v = λ vF
= 340 × 1.02 = 346.8 m/s
Q16. A steel bar of length 200 cm is nailed at its midpoint. The fundamental frequency of the
longitudinal vibrations of the rod is 2.53 kHz. At what speed will the sound be able to travel
through steel?
Solution:
Given,
Length , l = 200 cm = 2 m
Fundamental frequency of vibration, νF = 2.53 kHz = 2.53 × 103 Hz
The bar is then plucked at its midpoint, forming an antinode (A) at its centre, and nodes (N) at its two
edges, as depicted in the figure below :
The distance between two successive nodes is λ / 2

=> l = λ / 2
Or, λ = 2 x 2 = 4m
Thus, sound travels through steel at a speed of v = νλ
v = 4 x 2.53 x 103
=10.12 km / s
Q17. One end of A 20 cm long tube is closed. Find the harmonic mode of the tube that will be
resonantly excited by a source of frequency 430 Hz. lf both the ends are open, can the same
source still produce resonance in the tube? (Sound travels in air at 340 m /s).
Solution:
Given,
Length of the pipe, l = 20 cm = 0.2 m
Frequency of the source = nth
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the normal mode of frequency, νN = 430 Hz

Speed of sound, v = 340 ms -1
We know, that in a closed pipe the nth normal mode of frequency vN = ( 2n -1 )v/4l
where n is an integer = 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, . . . . .
430 = ( 2n – 1 )( 340/4 x0.2)
2n = 2.01
n≈1
Thus, the given source resonantly excites the first mode of vibration frequency
Now, for a pipe open at both the ends, the nth mode of vibration frequency:
VR = nv/2l
n = VR 2l/v
n = (2 x 0.2 x 430)/340 = 0.5
As the mode of vibration ( n ) has to be an integer, this source is not in resonance with the tube.
Q18. Guitar strings X and Y striking the note ‘Ga’ are a little out of tune and give beats at 6 Hz.
When the string X is slightly loosened and the beat frequency becomes 3 Hz. Given that the
original frequency of X is 324 Hz, find the frequency of Y.
Solution:
Given,
Frequency of X, fX = 324 Hz
Frequency of Y = fY
Beat’s frequency, n = 6 Hz
Also,
Q19. Explain how:

( i ) A sound wave’s pressure antinode is a displacement node and vice versa.
( ii ) The Ganges river dolphin despite being blind, can manoeuvre and swim around obstacles
and hunt down preys.
( iii ) A guitar note and violin note are being played at the same frequency, however, we can still
make out which instrument is producing which note
( iv ) Both transverse and longitudinal wave can propagate through solids, but only longitudinal
waves can move through gases.
( v ) In a dispersive medium, the shape of a pulse propagating through it gets distorted.
Solution:
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( i ) An antinode is a point where pressure is the minimum and the amplitude of vibration is the
maximum. On the other hand, a node is a point where pressure is the maximum and the amplitude of
vibration is the minimum.
( ii ) The Ganges river dolphin sends out click noises which return back as vibration informing the
dolphin about the location and distances of objects in front of it. Thus, allowing it to manoeuvre and
hunt down preys with minimum vision.
( iii ) The guitar and the violin produce overtones of different strengths. Thus, one can differentiate
between the notes coming from a guitar and a violin even if they are vibrating at the same frequencies.
( iv ) Both solids and fluids have a bulk modulus of elasticity. Thus, they both allow longitudinal waves
to propagate through them. However, unlike solids, gases do not have shear modulus. Thus,
transverse waves cannot pass through gases.
( v ) A pulse is a combination of waves of un-similar wavelengths. These waves move at different
velocities in a dispersive medium. This causes the distortion in its shape.
Q20.A train, standing at the outer signal of a railway station blows a whistle of frequency 400 Hz
in still air. (i) What is the frequency of the whistle for a platform observer when the train (a)
approaches the platform with a speed of 10 m s–1, (b) recedes from the platform with a speed of
10 m s–1? (ii) What is the speed of sound in each case? The speed of sound in still air can be
taken as 340 m s–1.
Solution:
Frequency of the whistle = 400 Hz
Speed of sound in still air = 340 m/s
(i)
(a)Train approaches the platform at a speed, vs = 10 m/s
Frequency of the whistle for a platform observer
(b) Train recedes from the platform at a speed, vs = 10 m/s

Frequency of the whistle for a platform observer
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(ii) The speed of the sound will not change. It will remain 340 m/s.
Q21. A train, standing in a station-yard, blows a whistle of frequency 400 Hz in still air. The wind
starts blowing in the direction from the yard to the station with a speed of 10 m s–1. What are the
frequency, wavelength, and speed of sound for an observer standing on the station’s platform?
Is the situation exactly identical to the case when the air is still and the observer runs towards
the yard at a speed of 10 m s–1? The speed of sound in still air can be taken as 340 m s–1
Solution:
Frequency of the whistle = 400 Hz
Speed of wind, vw= 10 m/s
Speed of sound in still air,v= 340 m/s
Effective speed of the sound for an observer standing on the platform
v’ = v + vw = 340 + 10 = 350 m/s
There is no relative motion between the source and the observer, therefore the frequency of the sound
heard by the observer will be the same.
Therefore, f = 400 Hz
Wavelength of the sound heard by the observer = speed of wave/frequency = 350/400 = 0.875 m
When the air is still and the observer runs towards the yard at a speed of 10 m s–1 then there is a
relative motion between the observer the source with respect to the medium.
The medium is at rest. Therefore
v’ = v = 340 m/s
The change in frequency, f ‘ =[ (v + v0)/ v ] x f
= [(340 + 10)/340] x 400 = 411.76 Hz
Wavelength = 340/411.76 = 0.826 m
Obviously, the situations in the two cases are entirely different.
Q22. A travelling harmonic wave on a string is described by y(x, t) = 7.5 sin (0.0050x +12t + π/4)
(a) What are the displacement and velocity of oscillation of a point at x = 1 cm, and t = 1 s? Is
this velocity equal to the velocity of wave propagation?
(b)Locate the points of the string which have the same transverse displacements and velocity
as the x = 1 cm point at t = 2 s, 5 s and 11 s.
Solution:
(a) The travelling harmonic wave is y(x, t) = 7.5 sin (0.0050x +12t + π/4)
At x = 1 cm and t = 1 s
y (1,1) = 7.5 sin (0.0050 (1) +12 (1) + π/4)
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= 7.5 sin (12.0050 + π/4) ——-(1)

= 7.5 sin θ
θ = (12.0050 + π/4) x (180/3.14)
= 12.0050 + (3.14/4) = 12.79 x (180/3.14)
θ = 733.180
y (1,1) = 7.5 sin (733.180)
= 7.5 sin (90 x 8 + 13.180)
= 7.5 sin (13.180)
= 7.5 x 0.228
= 1.71
The velocity of oscillation,
At x = 1 cm and t = 1 s
θ = (12.005 + π/4)
= (12.005 + π/4) x 180/π
= 12.79 x 180/3.14
θ = 12.79 x 57.32 = 733.18
v = 90 cos (733.18)
= 90 cos (720 + 13.18)
= 90 cos 13.18
= 90 x 0.97 cm/s
= 87.63 cm/s
The standard equation is given as
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here, k = 2π/λ
and ω = 2πv
Comparing the given equation with the standard equation
a = 7.5 cm
ω = 12 rad/s
⇒ 2πf = 12 rad/s
Therefore, f = 12/2π = 6/π
k = 0.0050 cm-1
2π/λ = 0.0050 cm-1
⇒λ = 2π/0.0050 = 400 π
Velocity of the wave propagation, v = fλ
= (6/π) x 400 π = 2400 cm/s
Velocity at x = 1 cm and t = 1s is not equal to the velocity of wave propagation
(b) Propagation constant, k=2π/λ

here λ is the wavelength
⇒ λ=2π/k=(2×3.14)/0.0050
=1256cm=12.56 m
All the points at distance ±λ, ±2λ, … from x =1 cm will have the same transverse displacement and
velocity. As λ = 12.56 m, therefore the points ±12.56m, ± 25.12m, … and so on for x=1cm, will have
the same displacement as the x=1cm points at t=2s,5s and 11s.
Q23. A narrow sound pulse (for example, a short pip by a whistle) is sent across a medium. (a)
Does the pulse have a definite (i) frequency, (ii) wavelength, (iii) speed of propagation? (b) If the
pulse rate is 1 after every 20 s, (that is the whistle is blown for a split of second after every 20 s),
is the frequency of the note produced by the whistle equal to 1/20 or 0.05 Hz?
Solution:
(a) The speed of propagation is definite, it is equal to the speed of the sound in air. The wavelength and
frequency will not be definite.
(b) The frequency of the note produced by a whistle is not 1/20 = 0.05 Hz. However, 0.05 Hz is the
frequency of repetition of the short pip of the whistle.
Q24. One end of a long string of linear mass density 8.0 × 10–3 kg m–1 is connected to an
electrically driven tuning fork of frequency 256 Hz. The other end passes over a pulley and is
tied to a pan containing a mass of 90 kg. The pulley end absorbs all the incoming energy so that
reflected waves at this end have negligible amplitude. At t = 0, the left end (fork end) of the
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string x = 0 has zero transverse displacement (y = 0) and is moving along positive y-direction.
The amplitude of the wave is 5.0 cm. Write down the transverse displacement y as a function of
x and t that describes the wave on the string.
Solution:
Linear mass density of the string, μ= 8.0 × 10–3 kg m–1
Frequency of the tuning fork = 256 Hz
Mass on the pan = 90 kg
Tension on the string, T = 90 x 9.8 = 882 N
Amplitude, A = 0.05 m
For a transverse wave, the velocity is given by the relation.
= 332 m/s
Angular frequency, ω = 2πf
= 2 x 3.14 x 256 = 1608.5 rad/sec
Wavelength, λ = v/f = 332/256 = 1.296 m
Propagation constant, k = 2π/λ = (2 x 3.14)/ 1.296
= 4.845 m-1
The general equation of the wave is
y (x,t) = A sin (ωt – kx)
Substituting all the values we get
y(x,t) = A sin (1608.5t -4.845x)
x and y are in metre and t is in seconds.
Q25. A SONAR system fixed in a submarine operates at a frequency 40.0 kHz. An

enemy submarine moves towards the SONAR with a speed of 360 km h–1. What is the frequency
of sound reflected by the submarine? Take the speed of sound in water to be 1450 m s–1 .
Solution:
Frequency of the SONAR system, f=40 kHz = 40 x 103 Hz
Speed of sound in water, v =1450m/s
Speed of the enemy submarine, v0=360km/h= 360 x (5/18) = 100m/s
The SONAR is at rest and the energy submarine moves towards it. Therefore, the apparent frequency
is given by the relation
f’ = [(v+v0)/v]f
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= [(1450 + 100)/1450] x 40 x 103

= 42.75 x 103
This frequency (f’) is reflected by the enemy submarine and it is observed by the SONAR. Therefore,
vs = 360 km/s = 100m/s
f” = (v/(v – vs)) x f’
= (1450/(1450 – 100)) x 42.75 x 103
= (1450/1350) x 42.75 x 103
= 45.91 x 103
Q26.Earthquakes generate sound waves inside the earth. Unlike a gas, the earth can experience
both transverse (S) and longitudinal (P) sound waves. Typically the speed of the S wave is
about 4.0 km s–1, and that of the P wave is 8.0 km s–1. A seismograph records P and S waves
from an earthquake. The first P wave arrives 4 min before the first S wave. Assuming the waves
travel in a straight line, at what distance does the earthquake occur?
Solution:
Let the speeds of S and P be v1 and v2 respectively. The time taken by the S and P waves to reach the
position of the seismograph is t1 and t2 respectively
l = v1t1 = v2t2
The speed of S wave, v1=4.0 km s–1
The speed of P wave, v2= 8.0 km s–1
4t1 = 8t2
t1 = 2t2
The first P wave arrives 4 min before the S wave.
t1 – t2 = 4 min = 4 x 60 s = 240 s
2t2 – t2 = 240 s
t2 = 240 s
t1 = 2t2 = 2 x 240 = 480 s
Distance at which earthquake occur, l = v1t1 = 4 x 480 = 1920 km
Q27. A bat is flitting about in a cave, navigating via ultrasonic beeps. Assume that the sound
emission frequency of the bat is 40 kHz. During one fast swoop directly toward a flat wall
surface, the bat is moving at 0.03 times the speed of sound in the air. What frequency does the
bat hear reflected off the wall?
Solution:
The sound emission frequency of the bat = 40 kHz
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The velocity of the bat, vb = 0.03 v

here v is the velocity of the sound in air
The apparent frequency of the sound hitting the wall
= 40/0.97 kHz
The frequency gets reflected by the wall and is received by the bat moving towards the wall.
= ( 1.03 x 40 /0.97) = 42.47 kHz
Q28. A man standing at a certain distance from an observer blows a horn of frequency 200 Hz in
still air. ( a ) Find the horn’s frequency for the observer when the man ( i ) runs towards him at
20 m/s ( ii ) runs away from him at 20 m /s.
( b ) Find the speed of sound in both the cases.
[Speed of sound in still air is 340 m/ s]
Solution:
Given,
Frequency of the horn, νH = 200 Hz
Velocity of the man, vT = 20 m/ s
Velocity of sound, v = 340 m/ s
( a ) We know,
(i) The apparent frequency of the horn as the man approaches the observer is:
v’ = vH [ v/(v – vT) ]
= 200 [ 340 /(340 – 20) ]
= 212.5 Hz
(ii) The apparent frequency of the horn as the man runs away from the observer is:
v’’ = vH [ v/(v + vT) ]
= 200 [ 340 /(340 + 20) ]
= 188.88 Hz
( b ) The speed of sound is 340 m/s in both the cases. The apparent change in frequency is a result of
the relative motions of the observer and the source.
Waves
Q29. A truck parked outside a petrol pump blows a horn of frequency 200 Hz in still air. The
Wind then starts blowing towards the petrol pump at 20 m /s. Calculate the wavelength, speed,
and frequency of the horn’s sound for a man standing at the petrol pump. Is this situation
completely identical to a situation when the observer moves towards the truck at 20 m /sand the
air is still?
Solution:
For the standing observer:
Frequency, νH = 200 Hz
Velocity of sound, v = 340 m/s
Speed of the wind, vW = 20 m/s
The observer will hear the horn at 200 Hz itself because there is no relative motion between the
observer and the truck.
Given that the wind blows in the observer’s direction at 20 m/s.
Effective velocity of the sound, vE = 340 + 20 = 360 m/s
The wavelength ( λ ) of the sound :
λ = vE /vH = 360/200
λ = 1.8 m
For the observer running towards the train :
Speed of the observer, vo = 20 m/s
We know,
The apparent frequency of the sound as the observers move towards the truck is :
v’ = vH [(v + vo)/v ]
= 200[ (20 + 340 )/ 340 ] = 211.764 Hz
As the air is still the effective velocity of sound is still 340 m/s.
As the truck is stationary the wavelength remains 1.8 m.
Thus, the two cases are not completely identical.
Physical World
1.1 Some of the most profound statements on the nature of science have come from Albert
Einstein, one of the greatest scientists of all time. What do you think did Einstein mean when he
said: “The most incomprehensible thing about the world is that it is comprehensible”?
Solution:
The complex physical world involves different orders of magnitudes in space, time and mass. Despite
this, nearly all physical phenomena can be expressed in terms of a few basic laws. By this view,
Einstein’s statement “The most incomprehensible thing about the world is that it is
comprehensible” becomes very clear.
1.2 “Every great physical theory starts as a heresy and ends as a dogma”. Give some examples
from the history of the science of the validity of this incisive remark.
Solution:
One of the general observations in our daily life is that light travels in a straight line. When Huygens
propounded his wave theory, it was a heresy. However, soon it became dogma as interference
patterns, refraction etc. could be successfully explained on the basis of wave theory.
It was believed that light was only energy but when the photoelectric effect was discovered it was
proposed that light had a particle nature too, this was greatly debated and treated as heresy. However,
Einstein finally proved it with his quantum theory of light. Henceforth, it has been treated as a dogma.
1.3 “Politics is the art of the possible”. Similarly, “Science is the art of the soluble”. Explain this
beautiful aphorism on the nature and practice of science
Solution:
Politicians make anything and everything possible to win votes. Science is a systematized study of
observation. Scientist and researchers study these observations and then work out certain laws from
them. There is a multitude of natural phenomena taking place in this universe and all of them can be
explained in terms of some basic laws. For e.g. F = mg is true for you and me and also for a star. Thus,
in science we see that various phenomena are related, they are soluble and can be explained with
similar or the same law. This goes on to justify that science is the art of the soluble just as politics is the
art of the possible.
1.4 Though India now has a large base in science and technology, which is fast expanding, it is
still a long way from realising its potential of becoming a world leader in science. Name some
important factors, which in your view have hindered the advancement of science in India.
Solution:
Here are some important factors that have obstructed the growth of science in India:
• Lack of infrastructure and funds for quality research work in science.

• Poor pay scales and other facilities to scientists as compared to administrators.
• Science education is neither properly oriented nor directed. It needs specific directions
depending on our requirements. The industrialists are the actual consumers of new technology
and research. The industrialists of this country have little confidence in the ability of Indian
scientists. There is practically no co-ordination between the researchers and the industrialists.
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• Rural-based science education is nearly non-existent so that majority of the population is

deprived of the benefits of advancements in technology and science.
1.5 No physicist has ever “seen” an electron. Yet, all physicists believe in the existence of
electrons. An intelligent but superstitious man advances this analogy to argue that ‘ghosts’
exist even though no one has ‘seen’ one. How will you refute his argument?
Solution:
Even though an electron has never been ‘seen’ but its effects have been observed and its practical
evidence have been tested and proved. E.g. electricity. However, regarding spirits and ghosts, even
though there are many claims and sightings, standardized scientific reading and evidence have never
been observed or successfully tested. Thus, we really cannot state with a cent per cent surety that they
exist.
1.6 The shells of crabs found around a particular coastal location in Japan seem mostly to
resemble the legendary face of a Samurai. Given below are two explanations of this observed
fact. Which of these strikes you as a scientific explanation?
(a) A tragic sea accident several centuries ago drowned a young Samurai. As a tribute to his
bravery, nature through its inscrutable ways immortalised his face by imprinting it on the crab
shells in that area.
(b) After the sea tragedy, fishermen in that area, in a gesture of honour to their dead hero, let
free any crab shell caught by them which accidentally had a shape resembling the face of a
Samurai. Consequently, the particular shape of the crab shell survived longer and therefore in
course of time the shape was genetically propagated. This is an example of evolution by
artificial selection.
[Note: This interesting illustration is taken from Carl Sagan’s ‘The Cosmos’ highlights the fact
that often strange and inexplicable facts which on the first sight appear ‘supernatural’ actually
turn out to have simple scientific explanations. Try to think out other examples of this kind].
Solution:
(a) More logical and scientific.
1.7 The industrial revolution in England and Western Europe more than two centuries ago was
triggered by some key scientific and technological advances. What were these advances?
Solution:
The rise of modern Science and industrial revolution are closely connected to each other. The other
profound impact effect that Science had on the development of modern science is that the application
of Science to solve the industrial problems garnered public support and interest in Science.
Some of the key discoveries and their uses are listed below:
• The application of thermodynamics and heat to form the steam engine are some of the key
advances in Science and technology during the period of the industrial revolution.
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• Implementation and discovery of electricity helped in the invention of motors and dynamos.
Likewise, the study of gravitation led to the study of motion which further led to the development
of cannons and guns. This invention gave power in the hands of western countries and they
ruled over the rest of the world.
• The discovery of explosives not only helped the army but also helped in mineral exploration.
These were a few examples of scientific breakthroughs that helped England and Europe to have their
prominent positions in the world.
1.8 It is often said that the world is witnessing now a second industrial revolution, which will
transform the society as radically as did the first. List some key contemporary areas of Science
and technology, which are responsible for this revolution.
Solution:
Some key contemporary areas of technology and Science, which are chiefly responsible for a new
industrial revolution taking place now and likely to take place in the near future are:
• Artificial intelligence
• Design of super-fast computers.
• Biotechnology
• Development of superconducting materials at room temperature.
• Advancements in the field of
→ Electronics
→ Information technology
→ Nanotechnology
→ Developments in the field of Space Sciences
1.9 Write in about 1000 words a fiction piece based on your speculation on the Science and
technology of the twenty-second century.
Solution:
In the 22nd century, humans will be able to create wormholes allowing people to travel to distant places in the
universe. We will be in contact with aliens and have established human settlements outside the earth as
well. With advancements in quantum Physics we shall be more aware and understanding of the true nature
of our universe and existence. Our technologies will not pollute and degrade earth. Artificial intelligence and
humans could have some clashes.
1.10 Attempt to formulate your ‘moral’ views on the practice of Science. Imagine yourself
stumbling upon a discovery, which has great academic interest but is certain to have nothing
but dangerous consequences for human society. How, if at all, will you resolve your dilemma?
Solution:
A scientist works for the truth. Every scientific discovery reveals a certain truth of nature. So, any
discovery, bad or good for mankind, must be made public.
But with that being said, we cannot afford to be blind to consequences. Before disclosing it we must
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ascertain the degree of good or bad consequences it will have. If we know that a certain discovery has
nothing but dangerous consequences to offer to the mass, the discovery is best kept limited only to the
knowledge of the scientist and researches working on it. This way the discovery can help societies in
the long run without completely destroying it now.
1.11 Science, like any knowledge, can be put to good or bad use, depending on the user. Given
below are some of the applications of science. Formulate your views on whether the particular
application is good, bad or something that cannot be so clearly categorised:
(a) Mass vaccination against smallpox to curb and finally eradicate this disease from the
population. (This has already been successfully done in India).
(b) Television for the eradication of illiteracy and for mass communication of news and ideas.
(c) Prenatal sex determination
(d) Computers for the increase in work efficiency
(e) Putting artificial satellites into orbits around the Earth
(f ) Development of nuclear weapons
(g) Development of new and powerful techniques of chemical and biological warfare).
(h) Purification of water for drinking
(i) Plastic surgery
(j ) Cloning
Solution:
(a) Good. Mass vaccination helped eradicate the dreaded diseases from the Earth.
(b) Good. Television helps in the literacy campaign and is an effective method of mass communication
and entertainment.
(c) Bad. Prenatal sex determination is considered bad because it gives rise to the practice of abortion in
the case of the female foetus.
(d) Good. Computer increases work efficiency.
(e) Good. Artificial satellites help in the worldwide communication process.
(f) Bad. Nuclear weapons if misused may cause mass destruction of mankind.
(g) Bad. These techniques may be misused for destructive purposes.
(h) Good. Purified water improves the health of people.
(i) Neither good nor bad. Plastic surgery is something which can’t be classified as either good or bad
because it helps to remove a certain type of deformations in needy persons.
(j) Bad. Cloning has the potential to ruin the normal family life of human society.
1.12 India has had a long and unbroken tradition of great scholarship — in mathematics,
astronomy, linguistics, logic and ethics. Yet, in parallel with this, several superstitious and
obscurantist attitudes and practices flourished in our society and unfortunately continue even
today — among many educated people too. How will you use your knowledge of science to
develop strategies to counter these attitudes?
Physical World
Solution:
In order to popularize scientific explanations of everyday phenomena, mass media like
→ Internet
→ Newspapers
→ Television
→ Radio
should be used. Knowledge of Science should be educated to the masses so that they learn about the
real causes of phenomenon allowing their superstitious beliefs to wash away.
1.13 Though the law gives women equal status in India, many people hold unscientific views on
a woman’s innate nature, capacity and intelligence, and in practice give them a secondary
status and role. Demolish this view using scientific arguments, and by quoting examples of
great women in science and other spheres; and persuade yourself and others that, given equal
opportunity, women are on par with men.
Solution:
No difference is noticed in the ability of women and men as far as work, intelligence, decision making is
concerned. Nature makes little difference in the anatomy and feeling of men and women. The nutrition
content of prenatal and postnatal diet contributes a lot towards the development of a human body. If
equal opportunities are provided to both women and men, then the female mind and body will be just as
efficient as a man’s. The list of great women who have excelled in their respective fields is enormous.
Names of
→ Madame Curie
→ Indira Gandhi
→ Florence Nightingale
→ Margaret Thatcher
→ Mother Teresa,
→ Sarojini Naidu
→ Kalpana Chawla
been taken from fields varying from Sociology to Science and they all very well-known for their
contribution to the world. Reflecting the contribution being made to each and every sphere of life in the
country, it can be positively debated that women are no less essential to society than men.
1.14 “It is more important to have beauty in the equations of Physics than to have them agree
with experiments”. The great British physicist P. A. M. Dirac held this view. Criticize this
statement. Look out for some equations and results in this book which strike you as beautiful.
Physical World
Solution:
Dirac’s belief holds true. Equations which represent entire concepts and hold up against experimental
results are automatically simple, small and symmetrical, making them truly beautiful. Some examples of
beautiful equations are:
E = mc2, E = hv, F = mg, P.E = mgh.
Units and Measurement
2.1 Fill in the blanks

(a) The volume of a cube of side 1 cm is equal to …..m3
(b) The surface area of a solid cylinder of radius 2.0 cm and height 10.0 cm is equal to…(mm) 2
(c) A vehicle moving with a speed of 18 km h–1 covers….m in 1 s
(d) The relative density of lead is 11.3. Its density is ….g cm–3 or ….kg m–3.
Solution:
(a) Volume of cube, V = (1 cm)3 = (10-2 m)3 = 10-6 m3.
(b) Surface area = curved area + area on top /base = 2πrh + 2πr2 = 2πr (h + r)
r = 2 cm = 20 mm
h = 10 cm = 100 mm
Surface area = 2πr (h + r) = 2 x 3.14 x 20 (100 + 20) = 15072 mm2
Hence, answer is 15072 mm2
(c) Speed of vehicle = 18 km/h
1 km = 1000 m
1 hr = 60 x 60 = 3600 s
1 km/hr = 1000 m/3600 s = 5/18 m/s
18 km/h = = (18 x 1000)/3600
= 5 m/s
Distance travelled by the vehicle in 1 s = 5 m
(d) The Relative density of lead is 11.3 g cm-3
=> 11.3 x 103 kg m-3 [1 kilogram = 103g, 1 meter = 102 cm]
=> 11.3 x 103 kg m-4
2.2 Fill in the blanks by suitable conversion of units

(a) 1 kg m2 s–2 = ….g cm2 s–2
(b) 1 m = ….. ly
(c) 3.0 m s–2 = …. km h–2
(d) G = 6.67 × 10–11 N m2 (kg)–2 = …. (cm)3 s–2 g–1
Solution:
(a) 1 kg m2 s–2 = ….g cm2 s–2
1 kg m2 s-2 = 1kg x 1m2 x 1s -2
We know that,
1kg = 103
1m = 100cm = 102cm
When the values are put together, we get:
1kg x 1m2 x 1s-2 = 103g x (102cm)2 x 1s-2 = 103g x 104 cm2 x 1s-2 = 107 gcm2s-2
=>1kg m2 s-2 = 107 gcm2s-2
(b) 1 m = ….. ly
Using the formula,
Distance = speed x time
Speed of light = 3 x 108 m/s
Time = 1 yr = 365 days = 365 x 24 hr = 365 x 24 x 60 x 60 sec
Put these values in the formula mentioned above, we get:
One light year distance = (3 x 108 m/s) x (365 x 24 x 60 x 60) = 9.46×1015m
9.46 x 1015 m = 1ly
So that, 1m = 1/9.46 x 1015ly
=> 1.06 x 10-16ly
=>1 meter = 1.06 x 10-16ly
(c) 3.0 m s–2 = …. km h–2

1 km = 1000m so that 1m = 1/1000 km
3.0 m s-2 = 3.0 (1/1000 km) (1/3600 hour) -2 = 3.0 x 10-3 km x ((1/3600)-2h-2)
= 3 x 10-3km x (3600)2 hr-2 = 3.88 x 104 km h-2
=> 3.0 m s-2 = 3.88 x 104 km h-2
(d) G = 6.67 × 10–11 N m2 (kg)–2 = …. (cm)3s–2 g–1

G = 6.67 x 10-11 N m2 (kg)-2
We know that,
1N = 1kg m s-2
1 kg = 103 g
1m = 100cm= 102 cm
Put the values together, we get:
=> 6.67 x 10-11 Nm2 kg-2 = 6.67 x 10-11 x (1kg m s -2) (1m2) (1kg-2)
Solve the following and cancelling out the units, we get:
=> 6.67 x 10-11 x (1kg -1 x 1m3 x 1s-2)

Put the above values together to convert kg to g and m to cm
=> 6.67 x 10-11 x (103g)-1 x (102 cm)3 x (1s-2)
=> 6.67 x 10-8 cm3 s-2 g -1
=>G = 6.67 x 10-11 Nm2(kg)-2 = 6.67 x 10-8 (cm)3 s-2 g -1
2.3 A calorie is a unit of heat (energy in transit) and it equals about 4.2 J where 1J =1 kg m 2 s–2.
Suppose we employ a system of units in which the unit of mass equals α kg, the unit of length
equals β m, the unit of time is γ s. Show that a calorie has a magnitude of 4.2 α–1 β–2 γ2 in terms
of the new units.
Solution:
2.4 Explain this statement clearly:

“To call a dimensional quantity ‘large’ or ‘small’ is meaningless without specifying a standard for
comparison”. In view of this, reframe the following statements wherever necessary:
(a) atoms are very small objects
(b) a jet plane moves with great speed
(c) the mass of Jupiter is very large
(d) the air inside this room contains a large number of molecules
(e) a proton is much more massive than an electron
(f) the speed of sound is much smaller than the speed of light.
Solution:
(a) In comparison with a soccer ball, atoms are very small
(b) When compared with a bicycle, jet plane travels at high speed.
(c) When compared with the mass of a cricket ball, the mass of Jupiter is very large.
(d) As compared with the air inside a lunch box, the air inside the room has a large number of
molecules.
(e) A proton is massive when compared with an electron.
(f) Like comparing the speed of a bicycle and a jet plane, the speed of light is more than the speed of
sound.
2.5 A new unit of length is chosen such that the speed of light in vacuum is unity. What is the
distance between the Sun and the Earth in terms of the new unit if light takes 8 min and 20 s to
cover this distance?
Solution:
Distance between them = Speed of light x Time taken by light to cover the distance
Speed of light = 1 unit
Time taken = 8 x 60 + 20 = 480 + 20 = 500s
The distance between Sun and Earth = 1 x 500 = 500 units.
2.6 Which of the following is the most precise device for measuring length:
(a) a vernier callipers with 20 divisions on the sliding scale
(b) a screw gauge of pitch 1 mm and 100 divisions on the circular scale
(c) an optical instrument that can measure length to within a wavelength of light?
Solution:
2.7. A student measures the thickness of a human hair by looking at it through a

microscope of magnification 100. He makes 20 observations and finds that the average width of
the hair in the field of view of the microscope is 3.5 mm. What is the estimate on the thickness
of the hair?
Solution:
Magnification of the microscope = 100
Average width of the hair in the field of view of the microscope = 3.5 mm
Actual thickness of hair =3.5 mm/100 = 0.035 mm
2. 8. Answer the following:

(a)You are given a thread and a metre scale. How will you estimate the diameter of
the thread?
(b)A screw gauge has a pitch of 1.0 mm and 200 divisions on the circular scale. Do
you think it is possible to increase the accuracy of the screw gauge arbitrarily by
increasing the number of divisions on the circular scale?
(c) The mean diameter of a thin brass rod is to be measured by vernier callipers. Why
is a set of 100 measurements of the diameter expected to yield a more reliable
estimate than a set of 5 measurements only?
Solution:
(a) The thread should be wrapped around a pencil a number of times so as to form a coil having its
turns touching each other closely. Measure the length of this coil with a metre scale. If L be the length
of the coil and n be the number of turns of the coil then the diameter of the thread is given by the
relation
Diameter = L/n.
(b) Least count of the screw gauge = Pitch/number of divisions on the circular scale
So, theoretically when the number of divisions on the circular scale is increased the least count of the
screw gauge will decrease. Hence, the accuracy of the screw gauge will increase. However, this is only
a theoretical idea. Practically, there will be many other difficulties when the number of turns is
increased.
(c) The probability of making random errors can be reduced to a larger extent in 100 observations than
in the case of 5 observations.
2.9. The photograph of a house occupies an area of 1.75 cm2 on a 35 mm slide. The slide is
projected on to a screen, and the area of the house on the screen is 1.55 m2. What is the linear
magnification of the projector-screen arrangement?
Solution:
Arial Magnification = Area of the image/Area of the object
= 1.55/1.75 x 104
= 8.857x 103
Linear Magnification = √Arial magnification
= √8.857x 103
= 94. 1
2.10 State the number of significant figures in the following:

(a) 0.007 m2
(b) 2.64 × 1024 kg
(c) 0.2370 g cm–3
(d) 6.320 J
(e) 6.032 N m–2
(f) 0.0006032 m2
Solution:
(a) 0.007 m2
The given value is 0.007 m2.
Only one significant digit. It is 7
(b) 2.64 × 1024 kg

The value is 2.64 × 1024 kg
For the determination of significant values, the power of 10 is irrelevant. The digits 2, 6, and 4 are
significant figures. The number of significant digits is 3.
(c) 0.2370 g cm–3

The value is 0.2370 g cm–3
For the given value with decimals, all the numbers 2, 3, 7, and 0 are significant. The 0 before the
decimal point is not significant
(d) 6.320 J
All the numbers are significant. The number of significant figures here is 4.
(e) 6.032 N m-2

6, 0, 3, 2 are significant figures. Therefore, the number of significant figures is 4.
(f) 0.0006032 m2
6, 0, 3, 2 are significant figures. The number of significant figures is 4.
2. 11. The length, breadth and thickness of a rectangular sheet of metal are 4.234 m, 1.005
m, and 2.01 cm respectively. Give the area and volume of the sheet to correct
significant figures.
Solution:
Area of the rectangular sheet = length x breadth
= 4.234 x 1.005 = 4.255 m2= 4.3 m2
Volume of the rectangular sheet = length x breadth x thickness = 4.234 x 1.005 x 2.01 x 10-2 = 8.55 x
10-2 m3.
2.12 The mass of a box measured by a grocer’s balance is 2.30 kg. Two gold pieces of masses
20.15 g and 20.17 g are added to the box. What is
(a) the total mass of the box,
(b) the difference in the masses of the pieces to correct significant figures?
Solution:
The mass of the box = 2.30 kg
and the mass of the first gold piece = 20.15 g
The mass of the second gold piece = 20.17 g
The total mass = 2.300 + 0.2015 + 0.2017 = 2.7032 kg
Since 1 is the least number of decimal places, the total mass = 2.7 kg.
The mass difference = 20.17 – 20.15 = 0.02 g
Since 2 is the least number of decimal places, the total mass = 0.02 g.
2.13 A physical quantity P is related to four observables a, b, c and d as follows:
The percentage errors of measurement in a, b, c and d are 1%, 3%, 4% and 2%, respectively.
What is the percentage error in the quantity P? If the value of P calculated using the above
relation turns out to be 3.763, to what value should you round off the result?
Solution:
2.14 A book with many printing errors contains four different formulas for the displacement y of
a particle undergoing a certain periodic motion:
Solution:
Since the dimensions on both sides are equal, the formula is dimensionally correct.
(b) It is dimensionally incorrect, as the dimensions on both sides are not equal.
(c) It is dimensionally incorrect, as the dimensions on both sides are not equal.
The formula is dimensionally correct.
2.15 A famous relation in physics relates ‘moving mass’ m to the ‘rest mass’ m0 of a particle in
terms of its speed v and the speed of light, c. (This relation first arose as a consequence of
special relativity due to Albert Einstein). A boy recalls the relation almost correctly but forgets
where to put the constant c. He writes:
Guess where to put the missing c.

Solution:
2.16 The unit of length convenient on the atomic scale is known as an angstrom and is denoted
by Å: 1 Å = 10–10 m. The size of a hydrogen atom is about 0.5 Å. What is the total atomic volume
in m3 of a mole of hydrogen atoms?
Solution:
2.17 One mole of an ideal gas at standard temperature and pressure occupies 22.4 L (molar
volume). What is the ratio of molar volume to the atomic volume of a mole of hydrogen? (Take
the size of hydrogen molecule to be about 1 Å). Why is this ratio so large?
Solution:
2.18 Explain this common observation clearly: If you look out of the window of a fast-
moving train, the nearby trees, houses etc. seem to move rapidly in a direction opposite to the
train’s motion, but the distant objects (hilltops, the Moon, the stars etc.) seem to be stationary.
(In fact, since you are aware that you are moving, these distant objects seem to move with you).
Solution:
An imaginary line which joins the object and the observer’s eye is called the line of sight. When we
observe the nearby objects, they move fast in the opposite direction as the line of sight changes
constantly. Whereas, the distant objects seem to be stationary as the line of sight does not change
rapidly.
2.19. The principle of ‘parallax’ in section 2.3.1 is used in the determination of distances of very
distant stars. The baseline AB is the line joining the Earth’s two locations six months apart in its
orbit around the Sun. That is, the baseline is about the diameter of the Earth’s orbit ≈ 3 × 1011m.
However, even the nearest stars are so distant that with such a long baseline, they show
parallax only of the order of 1” (second) of arc or so. A parsec is a convenient unit of length on
the astronomical scale. It is the distance of an object that will show a parallax of 1” (second of
arc) from opposite ends of a baseline equal to the distance from the Earth to the Sun. How
much is a parsec in terms of metres?
Solution:
Diameter of Earth’s orbit = 3 × 1011 m
Radius of Earth’s orbit r = 1.5 × 1011 m
Let the distance parallax angle be θ=1″ (s) = 4.847 × 10–6 rad.
Let the distance of the star be D.
Parsec is defined as the distance at which the average radius of the Earth’s orbit subtends an angle
of 1″
Therefore, D = 1.5 × 1011 /4.847 × 10–6= 0.309 x 1017
Hence 1 parsec ≈ 3.09 × 1016 m.
2. 20. The nearest star to our solar system is 4.29 light-years away. How much is this
distance in terms of parsecs? How much parallax would this star (named Alpha
Centauri) show when viewed from two locations of the Earth six months apart in its
orbit around the Sun?
Solution:
1 light year is the distance travelled by light in a year
1 light year = 3 x 108 x 365 x 24 x 60 x 60 = 9.46 x 1015 m
Therefore, distance travelled by light in 4.29 light years = 4.29 x 9.46 x 1015 = 4.058 x 1016 m
Parsec is also a unit of distance
1 parsec = 3.08 x 1016 m
Therefore, the distance travelled by light in parsec is given as
4.29 light years =4.508 x 1016/3.80 x 1016 = 1.318 parsec = 1.32 parsec.
Using the relation,
θ=d/D
here,
d is the diameter of Earth’s orbit, d = 3 × 1011 m
D is the distance of the star from the earth, D = 405868.32 × 1011 m
∴ θ = 3 × 1011 / 405868.32 × 1011 = 7.39 × 10-6 rad
But the angle covered in 1 sec = 4.85 × 10–6 rad
∴ 7.39 × 10-6 rad = 7.39 × 10-6 / 4.85 × 10-6 = 1.52″
2.21 Precise measurements of physical quantities are a need for science. For example, to
ascertain the speed of an aircraft, one must have an accurate method to find its positions at
closely separated instants of time. This was the actual motivation behind the discovery of radar
in World War II. Think of different examples in modern science where precise measurements of
length, time, mass etc. are needed. Also, wherever you can, give a quantitative idea of the
precision needed.
Solution:
Precise measurement is essential for the development of science. The ultra-short laser pulse is used
for measurement of time intervals. X-ray spectroscopy is used to find the interatomic separation. To
measure the mass of atoms, the mass spectrometer is developed.
2.23 The Sun is a hot plasma (ionized matter) with its inner core at a temperature exceeding 10 7
K, and its outer surface at a temperature of about 6000 K. At these high temperatures, no
substance remains in a solid or liquid phase. In what range do you expect the mass density of
the Sun to be, in the range of densities of solids and liquids or gases? Check if your guess is
correct from the following data: a mass of the Sun = 2.0 × 1030 kg, radius of the Sun = 7.0 ×
108 m.
Solution:
2.24. When the planet Jupiter is at a distance of 824.7 million kilometres from the Earth, its
angular diameter is measured to be 35.72″ of arc. Calculate the diameter of Jupiter.
Solution:
Distance of the planet Jupiter from Earth, D= 824.7 million kilometres = 824.7 x 106 km
Angular diameter θ = 35.72 “= 35.72 x 4.85 x 10-6 rad

= 173.242 x 10-6 rad
Diameter of Jupiter d = θ x D= 173.241 x 10-6 x 824.7 x 106 km
=142871 = 1.43 x 105 km
2.25. A man walking briskly in rain with speed v must slant his umbrella forward making an
angle θ with the vertical. A student derives the following relation between θ and v: tan θ = v and
checks that the relation has a correct limit: as v →0, θ →0, as expected. (We are assuming there
is no strong wind and that the rain falls vertically for a stationary man). Do you think this
relation can be correct? If not, guess the correct relation.
Solution:
According to the principle of homogeneity of dimensional equations,
Dimensions of L.H.S = Dimensions of R.H.S
In relation v = tan θ, tan θ is a trigonometric function and it is dimensionless. The dimension of v
is [L1 T-1]. Therefore, this relation is incorrect.
To make the relation correct, the L.H.S must be divided by the velocity of rain, u.
Therefore, the relation becomes
v/u= tan θ
This relation is correct dimensionally
2.26. It is claimed that two cesium clocks, if allowed to run for 100 years, free from
any disturbance, may differ by only about 0.02 s. What does this imply for the accuracy of the
standard cesium clock in measuring a time-interval of 1 s?
Solution:
Total time = 100 years = 100 x 365 x 24 x 60 x 60 s
Error in 100 years = 0.02 s
Error in 1 second=0.02/100 x 365 x 24 x 60 x 60
=6.34 x 10-12 s
Accuracy of the standard cesium clock in measuring a time-interval of 1 s is 10-12 s
2.27. Estimate the average mass density of a sodium atom assuming its size to be about 2.5 Å.
(Use the known values of Avogadro’s number and the atomic mass of sodium). Compare it with
the mass density of sodium in its crystalline phase: 970 kg m–3. Are the two densities of the
same order of magnitude? If so, why?
Solution:
The diameter of sodium= 2.5 A = 2.5 x 10-10 m
Therefore, the radius is 1.25 x 10-10 m
Volume of sodium atom, V= (4/3)πr3
= (4/3) x (22/7) x (1.25 x 10-10) 3= 8.177 x 10-30 m3
Mass of one mole atom of sodium = 23 g = 23 x 10-3 kg

1 mole of sodium contains 6.023 x 1023 atoms
Therefore, the mass of one sodium atom, M= 23 x 10-3/6.023 x 1023= 3.818 x 10-26 kg
Atomic mass density of sodium, ρ= M/V
=3.818 x 10-26/8.177 x 10-30
= 0.46692 x 104= 4669.2 kg m-3
The density of sodium in its solid state is 4669.2 kg m-3 but in the crystalline phase, density is 970 kg m-
3. Hence, both are in a different order. In solid-phase, atoms are tightly packed but in the crystalline
phase, atoms arrange a sequence which contains void. So, density in solid-phase is greater than in the
crystalline phase.
2.28. The unit of length convenient on the nuclear scale is a fermi: 1 f = 10-15 m. Nuclear sizes
obey roughly the following empirical relation:
r = r0 A1/3
where r is the radius of the nucleus, A its mass number, and r0 is a constant equal to
about, 1.2 f. Show that the rule implies that nuclear mass density is nearly constant
for different nuclei. Estimate the mass density of the sodium nucleus. Compare it with the
average mass density of a sodium atom obtained in Exercise. 2.27.
Solution:
2.29. A LASER is a source of very intense, monochromatic, and the unidirectional beam of light.
These properties of a laser light can be exploited to measure long distances. The distance of the
Moon from the Earth has been already determined very precisely using a laser as a source of
light. A laser light beamed at the Moon takes 2.56 s to return after reflection at the Moon’s
surface. How much is the radius of the lunar orbit around the Earth?
Solution:
Time taken for the laser beam to return to Earth after reflection by the Moon’s surface = 2.56 s
The speed of laser light, c = 3 x 108 m/s.

Let d be the distance of Moon from the Earth,
The time taken by laser signal to reach the Moon, t = 2d/c
Therefore, d = tc/2 = (2.56 x 3 x 108)/2 = 3.84 x 108 m
2. 30. A SONAR (sound navigation and ranging) uses ultrasonic waves to detect and
locate objects underwater. In a submarine equipped with a SONAR, the time delay
between generation of a probe wave and the reception of its echo after reflection from an enemy
submarine is found to be 77.0 s. What is the distance of the enemy submarine? (Speed of sound
in water = 1450 m s–1).
Solution:
Speed of sound in water, v = 1450 m s–1
Time between generation and the reception of the echo after reflection, 2t = 77.0 s
Time taken for the sound waves to reach the submarine, t = 77.0/2 = 38. 5 s
Then v = d/t
Distance of enemy submarine, d = tv
Therefore, d = vt = (1450 x 38. 5) = 55825 m = 55.8 x 103 m or 55.8 km.
2.31. The farthest objects in our Universe discovered by modern astronomers are so distant that
light emitted by them takes billions of years to reach the Earth. These objects (known as
quasars) have many puzzling features, which have not yet been satisfactorily explained. What is
the distance in km of a quasar from which light takes 3.0 billion years to reach us?
Solution:
Time taken by light from the quasar to reach the observer, t = 3.0 billion years = 3.0 x 10 9 years = 3.0 x
109 x 365 x 24 x 60 x 60 s
= 94608000 x 109 s
= 9.46 x 1016 m
Speed of light = 3 x 108 m/s
Distance of quasar from Earth = 3.0 x 108 x 9.46 x 1016 m
= 28.38 x 1024 m
2.32. It is a well-known fact that during a total solar eclipse-the disk of the moon
almost completely covers the disk of the Sun. From this fact and from the information you can
gather from examples 2.3 and 2.4, determine the approximate diameter of the moon.
Solution:
From examples 2.3 and 2.4 we get the following data
Distance of the Moon from Earth = 3.84 x 108 m

Distance of the Sun from Earth = 1.496 x 1011 m
Sun’s diameter = 1.39 x 109 m
Sun’s angular diameter, θ = 1920″ = 1920 x 4.85 x 10-6 rad = 9.31 x 10-3 rad [1″ = 4.85 x 10-6 rad]
During a total solar eclipse, the disc of the moon completely covers the disc of the sun, so the angular
diameter of both the sun and the moon must be equal.
Therefore, Angular diameter of the moon, θ = 9.31 x 10-3 rad
The earth-moon distance, S = 3.8452 x 108 m
Therefore, the diameter of the moon, D = θ x S
= 9.31 x 10-3 x 3.8452 x 108 m = 35.796 x 105 m
Motion in a Straight Line
Q1 In which of the following examples of motion, can the body be considered

approximately a point object:
(a) a railway carriage moving without jerks between two stations.
(b) a monkey sitting on top of a man cycling smoothly on a circular track.
(c) a spinning cricket ball that turns sharply on hitting the ground.
(d) a tumbling beaker that has slipped off the edge of a table.
Solution:
( a ), ( b ) The size of the train carriage and the cap is very small as compared to the distance they’ve
travelled, i.e. the distance between the two stations and the length of the race track, respectively.
Therefore, the cap and the carriage can be considered as point objects.
The size of the basketball is comparable to the distance through which it bounces off after hitting the
floor. Thus, basketball cannot be treated as a point object. Likewise, the size of the bottle is comparable
to the height of the chair from which it drops. Thus, the bottle cannot be treated as a point object.
Q2. The position-time (x-t) graphs for two children A and B returning from their school O to their
homes P and Q respectively are shown in Fig. Choose the correct
entries in the brackets below:
(a) (A/B) lives closer to the school than (B/A)
(b) (A/B) starts from the school earlier than (B/A)
(c) (A/B) walks faster than (B/A)
(d) A and B reach home at the (same/different) time
(e) (A/B) overtakes (B/A) on the road (once/twice).
Solution:
(a) A lives closer to the school than B, because A has to cover shorter distances [OP < OQ],
(b) A starts from school earlier than B, because for x= 0, t = 0 for A but for B, t has some finite time.
(c) The slope of B is greater than that of A, therefore B walks faster than A.
(d) Both A and B will reach their home at the same time.
(e) At the point of intersection, B overtakes A on the roads once.
Q3. A woman starts from her home at 9.00 am, walks at a speed of 5 km/h on a straight road up
to her office 2.5 km away, stays at the office up to 5.00 pm, and returns home by auto with a
speed of 25 km/h. Choose suitable scales and plot the x-t graph of her motion.
Solution:
Distance till her office = 2.5 km.

Walking speed the woman= 5 km/h
Time taken to reach office while walking = (2.5/5 ) h = (1/2) h = 30 minutes
Speed of auto = 25 km/h
Time taken to reach home in auto = 2.5/25 = (1/10) h = 0.1 h = 6 minutes
In the graph, O is taken as the origin of the distance and the time, then at t = 9.00 am, x = 0
and at t = 9.30 am, x = 2.5 km
OA is the portion on the x-t graph that represents her walk from home to the office. AB represents her
time of stay in the office from 9.30 to 5. Her return journey is represented by BC.
Q4. A drunkard walking in a narrow lane takes 5 steps forward and 3 steps backwards, followed
again by 5 steps forward and 3 steps backwards, and so on. Each step is 1m long and requires
1 s. Plot the x-t graph of his motion. Determine graphically and otherwise how long the drunkard
takes to fall in a pit 13 m away from the start.
Solution:
The time taken to go one step is 1 second. In 5s he moves forward through a distance of 5m and then
in next 3s he comes back by 3m. Therefore, in 8s he covers 2m. So, to cover a distance of 8m he takes
32s. He must take another 5steps forward to fall into the pit. So, the total time taken is 32s + 5s = 37s
to fall into a pit 13 m away.
Q.5. A jet airplane travelling at the speed of 500 km/h ejects its products of combustion at the
speed of 1500 km/h relative to the jet plane. What is the speed of the latter with respect to an
observer on the ground?
Solution:
Speed of the jet airplane, VA= 500 km/h
Speed at which the combustion products are ejected relative to the jet plane, VB – VA
= – 1500 km/h
(The negative sign indicates that the combustion products move in a direction opposite to that of jet)
Speed of combustion products w.r.t. observer on the ground, VB – 500 = – 1500
VB = – 1500 + 500 = – 1000 km/h
Q6 A car moving along a straight highway with a speed of 126 km h–1 is brought to a stop within
a distance of 200 m. What is the retardation of the car (assumed uniform), and how long does it
take for the car to stop?
Solution:
The initial velocity of the car = u
Final velocity of the car = v
Distance covered by the car before coming to rest = 200 m
Using the equation,
v = u + at
t = (v – u)/a = 11.44 sec.

Therefore, it takes 11.44 sec for the car to stop.
Q.7. Two trains A and B of length 400 m each are moving on two parallel tracks with a
uniform speed of 72 km h–1 in the same direction, with A ahead of B. The driver of
B decides to overtake A and accelerates by 1 m s–2. If after 50 s, the guard of B just
brushes past the driver of A, what was the original distance between them?
Solution:
Length of the train A and B = 400 m
Speed of both the trains = 72 km/h = 72 x (5/18) = 20m/s
Using the relation, s = ut + (1/2) at2
Distance covered by the train B
SB = uBt + (1/2) at2
Acceleration, a = 1 m/s
Time = 50 s
SB = (20 x 50) + (1/2) x 1 x (50)2
= 2250 m
Distance covered by the train A
SA = uAt + (1/2) at2
Acceleration, a = 0
SA = uAt = 20 x 50 = 1000 m
Therefore, the original distance between the two trains = SB – SA = 2250 – 1000 = 1250 m
Q. 8. On a two-lane road, car A is travelling at a speed of 36 km/h. Two cars B and C approach
car A in opposite directions with a speed of 54 km/h each. At a certain instant, when the
distance AB is equal to AC, both being 1 km, B decides to overtake A before C does. What
minimum acceleration of car B is required to avoid an accident?
Solution:
The speed of car A = 36 km/h = 36 x (5/8) = 10 m/s
Speed of car B = 54 km/h = 54 x (5/18) = 15 m/s
Speed of car C = – 54 km/h = -54 x (5/18) = -15 m/s (negative sign shows B and C are in opposite
direction)
Relative speed of A w.r.t C, VAC= VA – VB = 10 – (-15) = 25 m/s
Relative speed of B w.r.t A, VBA = VB – VA = 15 – 10 = 5 m/s
Distance between AB = Distance between AC = 1 km = 1000 m

Time taken by the car C to cover the distance AC, t = 1000/VAC = 1000/ 25 = 40 s
If a is the acceleration, then
s = ut + (1/2) at2
1000 = (5 x 40) + (1/2) a (40) 2
a = (1000 – 200)/ 800 = 1 m/s2
Thus, the minimum acceleration of car B required to avoid an accident is 1 m/s2
Q. 9. Two towns A and B are connected by regular bus service with a bus leaving in either
direction every T minutes. A man cycling with a speed of 20 km h–1 in the direction A to B
notices that a bus goes past him every 18 min in the direction of his motion, and every 6 min in
the opposite direction. What is the period T of the bus service and with what speed (assumed
constant) do the buses ply on the road?
Solution:
Speed of each bus = Vb
Speed of the cyclist = Vc = 20 km/h
The relative velocity of the buses plying in the direction of motion of cyclist is Vb – Vc
The buses playing in the direction of motion of the cyclist go past him after every 18 minutes i.e.(18/60)
s.
Distance covered = (Vb – Vc ) x 18/60
Since the buses are leaving every T minutes. Therefore, the distance is equal to Vb x (T/60)
(Vb – Vc ) x 18/60 = Vb x (T/60) ——(1)
The relative velocity of the buses plying in the direction opposite to the motion of cyclist is V b + Vc
The buses go past the cyclist every 6 minutes i.e.(6/60) s.
Distance covered = (Vb + Vc ) x 6/60
Therefore, (Vb +Vc ) x 6/60 = Vb x (T/60) ——(2)
Dividing (2) by (1)
[(Vb – Vc ) x 18/60]/ [(Vb + Vc ) x 6/60 ]= [Vb x (T/60)] /[Vb x (T/60)]
(Vb – Vc ) 18/(Vb +Vc ) 6 = 1
(Vb – Vc )3 = (Vb +Vc )
Substituting the value of Vc
(Vb – 20 )3= (Vb + 20 )
3Vb – 60 = Vb + 20
2Vb = 80
Vb = 80/2 = 40 km/h
To find the value of T, substitute the values of Vb and Vc in equation (1)
(Vb – Vc ) x 18/60 = Vb x (T/60)
(40 – 20) x (18/60) = 40 x (T/60)
T = (20 x 18) /40 = 9 minutes
Q.10. A player throws a ball upwards with an initial speed of 29.4 m/s.
(a) What is the direction of acceleration during the upward motion of the ball?
(b) What are the velocity and acceleration of the ball at the highest point of its motion?
(c) Choose the x = 0 m and t = 0 s to be the location and time of the ball at its highest point,
vertically downward direction to be the positive direction of the x-axis, and give the signs of
position, velocity and acceleration of the ball during its upward, and downward motion.
(d) To what height does the ball rise and after how long does the ball return to the player’s
hands? (Take g = 9.8 m s–2 and neglect air resistance).
Solution:
(a) The acceleration due to gravity always acts downwards towards the centre of the Earth.
(b) At the highest point of its motion the velocity of the ball will be zero but the acceleration due to
gravity will be 9.8 m s–2 acting vertically downward.
(c) If we consider the highest point of ball motion as x = 0, t = 0 and vertically downward direction to be
+ve direction of the x-axis, then
(i) During upward motion of the ball before reaching the highest point position ,x = +ve, velocity, v = -ve
and acceleration, a = +ve.
(ii) During the downward motion of the ball after reaching the highest point position, velocity and
acceleration all the three quantities are positive.
(d) Initial speed of the ball, u= -29.4 m/s
Final velocity of the ball, v = 0
Acceleration = 9.8 m/s2
Applying in the equation v2 – u2 = 2gs
0 – (-29.4)2 = 2 (9.8) s
s = – 864.36/19.6 = – 44.1
Height to which the ball rise = – 44.1 m (negative sign represents upward direction)
Considering the equation of motion
v = u + at
0 = (-29.4) + 9.8t
t = 29.4/9.8 = 3 seconds
Therefore, the total time taken for the ball to return to the player’s hands is 3 +3 = 6s
Q11. Read each statement below carefully and state with reasons and examples, if it is true or
false; A particle in one-dimensional motion
(a) with zero speed at an instant may have non-zero acceleration at that instant
(b) with zero speed may have non-zero velocity,
(c) with constant speed must have zero acceleration,
(d) with positive value of acceleration must be speeding up
Solution:
(a) True
(b) False
(c) True (if the particle rebounds instantly with the same speed, it implies infinite acceleration which is
unphysical)
(d) False (true only when the chosen positive direction is along the direction of motion)
Q.12. A ball is dropped from a height of 90 m on a floor. At each collision with the floor, the ball
loses one-tenth of its speed. Plot the speed-time graph of its motion between t = 0 to 12 s.
Solution:
Height from which the ball is dropped = 90 m
The initial velocity of the ball, u = 0
Let v be the final velocity of the ball
Using the equation
v2 – u2 = 2as ——– (1)
v12 – 0 = 2 x 10 x 90
v1= 42.43 m/s
Time taken for first collision can be given by the equation
v = u + at
42.43 = 0 + (10) t
t1 = 4.24 s
The ball losses one-tenth of the velocity at collision. So, the rebound velocity of the ball is
v2= v – (1/10) v
v2 = (9/10) v
v2= (9/10) (42.43)
= 38.19 m/s
Time taken to reach maximum height after the first collision is
v = u + at
38.19 = 0 + (10)t2
t2 = 3.819 s
Total time taken by the ball to reach the maximum height is
T = t1 + t2
T = 4.24 + 3.819 = 8.05 s
Now the ball will travel back to the ground in the same time as it took to reach the maximum height =
3.819 s
Total time taken will be, T = 4.24 + 3.819 + 3.819 = 11.86
Velocity after the second collision
v3 = (9/10) (38.19)
v3 = 34.37 m/s
Using the above information speed- time graph can be plotted
Q13. Provide clear explanations and examples to distinguish between:

( a ) The total length of a path covered by a particle and the magnitude of displacement over the
same interval of time.
( b ) The magnitude of average velocity over an interval of time, and the average speed over the
same interval. [Average speed of a particle over an interval of time is defined as the total path
length divided by the time interval].
In ( a ) and ( b ) compare and find which among the two quantity is greater.
When can the given quantities be equal? [For simplicity, consider one-dimensional motion
only].
Solution:
( a ) Let us consider an example of a football, it is passed to player B by player A and then instantly
kicked back to player A along the same path. Now, the magnitude of displacement of the ball is 0
because it has returned to its initial position. However, the total length of the path covered by the ball =
AB +BA = 2AB. Hence, it is clear that the first quantity is greater than the second.
( b ) Taking the above example, let us assume that football takes t seconds to cover the total distance.
Then,
The magnitude of the average velocity of the ball over time interval t = Magnitude of displacement/time
interval
= 0 / t = 0.
The average speed of the ball over the same interval = total length of the path/time interval
= 2AB/t
Thus, the second quantity is greater than the first.
The above quantities are equal if the ball moves only in one direction from one player to another
(considering one-dimensional motion).
Q.14. A man walks on a straight road from his home to a market 2.5 km away with a speed of 5
km/h. Finding the market closed, he instantly turns and walks back home with a speed of 7.5 km
h–1. What is the
(a) Magnitude of average velocity, and
(b) Average speed of the man over the interval of time (i) 0 to 30 min, (ii) 0 to 50 min, (iii) 0 to 40
min? [Note: You will appreciate from this exercise why it is better to define average speed as
total path length divided by time, and not as the magnitude of average velocity. You would not
like to tell the tired man on his return home that his average speed was zero !]
Solution:
Distance to the market = 2.5 km = 2500 m
Speed of the man walking to the market= 5 km/h = 5 x (5/18) = 1.388 m/s
Speed of the man walking when he returns back home = 7.5 km/h = 7.5 x (5/18) = 2.08 m/s
(a) Magnitude of the average speed is zero since the displacement is zero
(b)
(i) Time taken to reach the market = Distance/Speed = 2500/1.388 = 1800 seconds = 30 minutes
So, the average speed over 0 to 30 minutes is 5 km/h or 1.388 m/s
(ii) Time taken to reach back home = Distance/Speed = 2500/2.08 = 1200 seconds = 20 minutes
So, the average speed is
Average Speed over a interval of 50 minutes= distance covered/time taken = (2500 + 2500)/3000 =
5000/3000 = 5/3 = 1.66 m/s
= 6 km/h
(ii) Average speed over an interval of 0 – 40 minutes = distance covered/ time taken = (2500+
1250)/2400 = 1.5625 seconds = 5.6 km/h
Q. 15. In Exercises 3.13 and 3.14, we have carefully distinguished between average speed and
magnitude of average velocity. No such distinction is necessary when we
consider the instantaneous speed and the magnitude of velocity. The instantaneous speed is
always equal to the magnitude of instantaneous velocity. Why?
Solution:
Instantaneous velocity and instantaneous speed are equal for a small interval of time because the
magnitude of the displacement is effectively equal to the distance travelled by the particle.
Q.16. Look at the graphs (a) to (d) carefully and state, with reasons, which of these cannot
possibly represent the one-dimensional motion of a particle.
Solution:
None of the four graphs shows a one-dimensional motion.
(a) Shows two positions at the same time, which is not possible.
(b) A particle cannot have velocity in two directions at the same time
(c) Graph shows negative speed, which is impossible. Speed is always positive
(d) Path length decreases in the graph, this is also not possible
Q.17. The figure shows the x-t plot of the one-dimensional motion of a particle. Is it correct to
say from the graph shows that the particle moves in a straight line for t < 0 and on a parabolic
path for t >0? If not, suggest a suitable physical context for this graph.
Solution:
It is not correct to say that the particle moves in a straight line for t < 0 (i.e., -ve) and on a parabolic path
for t > 0 (i.e., + ve) because the x-t graph does not represent the path of the particle.
A suitable physical context for the graph can be the particle is dropped from the top of a tower at t =0.
Q. 18. A police van moving on a highway with a speed of 30 km h–1 fires a bullet at a thief’s car
speeding away in the same direction with a speed of 192 km h–1. If the muzzle speed of the
bullet is 150 m s–1, with what speed does the bullet hit the thief’s car? (Note: Obtain that speed
which is relevant for damaging the thief’s car).
Solution:
Speed of the police van = 30 km/h = 30 x (5/18) = 25/3 m/s
Speed of a thief’s car = 192 km/h = 192 x (5/18) = 160/3 m/s
Muzzle Speed of the bullet = 150 m/s
Speed of the bullet = speed of the police van + muzzle speed of the bullet
= (25/3) + 150 = 475/3 m/s

The relative velocity of the bullet w.r.t the thief’s car is
v = Speed of the bullet – Speed of a thief’s car
= (475/3) – (160/3) = 105 m/s
The bullet hits the thief’s car at a speed of 105 m/s
Q. 19. Suggest a suitable physical situation for each of the following graphs
Solution:
(a)The graph is similar to kicking a ball and then it hits the wall and rebounds with a reduced speed.
The ball then moves in the opposite direction and hits the opposite wall that stops the ball.
(b) The graph is showing a continuous change in the velocity of the object and at some instant it losses
some velocity. Therefore, it may represent a situation where a ball falls on the ground from a certain
height and rebounds with a reduced speed.
(c) A cricket ball moving with a uniform speed hit by a bat for a very short time interval.
Q. 20. The following figure gives the x-t plot of a particle executing one-dimensional simple
harmonic motion. (You will learn about this motion in more detail in Chapter 14). Give the signs
of position, velocity and acceleration variables of the particle at t = 0.3 s, 1.2 s, – 1.2 s.
Solution:
In S.H.M., acceleration, a = – ω2 x , ω is the angular frequency —-(1)
(i) At t = 0.3 s, x < 0 i.e., Position is negative. Moreover, as x is becoming more negative with time, it
shows that velocity is negative (i.e., v < 0). However, using equation (1), acceleration will be positive.
(ii) At t = 1.2 s, Positions and velocity will be positive. Acceleration will be negative.
(iii) At t = -1.2 s, Position, x is negative. Velocity and acceleration will be positive.
Q.21. The figure gives the x-t plot of a particle in one-dimensional motion. Three different equal
intervals of time are shown. In which interval is the average speed greatest, and in which is it
the least? Give the sign of average velocity for each interval.
Solution:
Interval 3 is the greatest and 2 is the least. The average velocity is positive for interval 1 and 2 and it is
negative for interval 3.
Q. 22. The following figure gives a speed-time graph of a particle in motion along a
constant direction. Three equal intervals of time are shown. In which interval is the average
acceleration greatest in magnitude? In which interval is the average speed greatest? Choosing
the positive direction as the constant direction of motion, give the signs of v and a in the three
intervals. What are the accelerations at points A, B, C and D?
Solution:
The change in the speed with time is maximum in interval 2. Therefore, the average acceleration is
greatest in magnitude in interval 2.
The average speed is maximum in interval 3
The sign of velocity is positive in interval 1, 2 and 3. The acceleration depends on the slope. The
acceleration is positive in interval 1 and interval 3 as the slope is positive. The acceleration is negative
in interval 2 as the slope is negative.
Acceleration at A, B, C and D is zero since the slope is parallel to the time axis at these instants.
Q23. A three-wheeler starts from rest, accelerates uniformly with 1 m s-2 on a straight road for 10
s, and then moves with uniform velocity. Plot the distance covered by the vehicle during the nth
second (n = 1,2,3….) versus n. What do you expect this plot to be during accelerated motion: a
straight line or a parabola?
Solution:
For a straight line, the distance covered by a body in nth second is :
SN = u + a (2n – 1)/2 . . . . . . . . ( 1 )
Where,
a = Acceleration
u = Initial velocity
n = Time = 1, 2, 3, . . . . . , n
In the above case,
a = 1 m/s2 and u = 0.
∴ SN = (2n – 1) / 2 . . . . . . . . . . .( 2 )
This relation shows that:

SN ∝ n . . . . .. . . . . ( 3 )
Now substituting different values of n in equation ( 2 ) we get:
This plot is expected to be a straight line.
Q.24. A boy standing on a stationary lift (open from above) throws a ball upwards with the
maximum initial speed he can, equal to 49 m s-1. How much time does the ball take to return to
his hands? If the lift starts moving up with a uniform speed of 5 m s-1 and the boy again throws
the ball up with the maximum speed he can, how long does the ball take to return to his hands?
Solution:
Initial velocity of the ball, u = 49 m/s
Case : I
The boy throws the ball upwards when the lift is stationary. The vertically upward direction is taken as
the positive direction. The displacement of the ball is zero.
Considering the equation of motion
s=ut + (1/2) at2
0 = (49) t + (1/2) (-9.8) t2
t = (49 x 2)/9.8 = 98/9.8 = 10 sec

Case : II
As the lift starts moving with a speed of 5 m/s, the initial speed of the ball will be 49 m/s + 5 m/s = 54
m/s
The displacement of the ball will be s = 5t’
Therefore, the time taken can be calculated using the formula
s = ut + (1/2) at2
5t’ = (54) t’ + (1/2) (-9.8) t’2
t’ = 2(54 – 5)/9.8 = 10 sec
The time taken will remain the same in both the cases.
Q. 25. On a long horizontally moving belt figure, a child runs to and fro with a speed 9 km h–
1
(with respect to the belt) between his father and mother located 50 m apart on the moving belt.
The belt moves with a speed of 4 km h–1. For an observer on a stationary platform outside, what
is the
(a) speed of the child running in the direction of motion of the belt ?.
(b) speed of the child running opposite to the direction of motion of the belt?
(c) time taken by the child in (a) and (b)?
Which of the answers alter if motion is viewed by one of the parents?
Solution:
Speed of child = 9 km h-1
Speed of belt = 4 km h-1

(a) When the boy runs in the direction of motion of the belt, then his speed as observed by the
stationary observer = (9 + 4) km h-1 = 13 km h-1.
(b) When the boy runs opposite to the direction of motion of the belt, then speed of child as observed
by the stationary observer = (9 – 4) km h-1 = 5 km h-1
(c) Distance between the two parents = 50 m = 0.05 km
Speed of the boy as observed by both the parents is 9 km h-1
Time taken by the boy to move towards one of the parents =0.05 km/9k h-1=0.0056 h =20 S
Q26. Two stones are thrown up simultaneously from the edge of a cliff 200 m high with initial
speeds of 15 m s-1 and 30 m s-1. Verify that the graph shown in Fig. 3.27 correctly represents the
time variation of the relative position of the second stone with respect to the first. Neglect air
resistance and assume that the stones do not rebound after hitting the ground. Take g = 10 m s -
2
. Give the equations for the linear and curved parts of the plot.
Solution:
For the first stone:
Given,
Acceleration, a = –g = – 10 m/s2
Initial velocity, uI = 15 m/s
Now, we know
s1 = s0 + u1t + (1/2) at2
Given, height of the tree, s0 = 200 m
s1 = 200 + 15t – 5t2 . . . . . . . . . . ( 1 )
When this stone hits the jungle floor, s1 = 0

∴– 5t2 + 15t + 200 = 0
t2 – 3t – 40 = 0
t2 – 8t + 5t – 40 = 0
t (t – 8) + 5 (t – 8) = 0
t = 8 s or t = – 5 s
Since, the stone was thrown at time t = 0, the negative sign is not possible
∴t = 8 s
For second stone:
Given,
Acceleration, a = – g = – 10 m/s2
Initial velocity, uII = 30 m/s
We know,
s2 = s0 + uIIt + (1/2)at2
= 200 + 30t – 5t2 . . . . . . . . . . . . . ( 2 )
when this stone hits the jungle floor; s2 = 0
– 5t2 + 30 t + 200 = 0
t2 – 6t – 40 = 0
t2 – 10t + 4t + 40 = 0
t (t – 10) + 4 (t – 10) = 0
(t – 10) (t + 4) = 0
t = 10 s or t = – 4 s
Here again, the negative sign is not possible
∴ t = 10 s
Subtracting equations ( 1 ) from equation ( 2 ), we get
s2 – s1 = (200 + 30t -5t2) – (200 + 15t -5t2)
s2 – s1 =15t . . . . . . . . . . . . .. . . . . . ( 3 )
Equation ( 3 ) represents the linear trajectory of the two stone, because to this linear relation between
(s2 – s1) and t,, the projection is a straight line till 8 s.
The maximum distance between the two stones is at t = 8 s.
(s2 – s1)max = 15× 8 = 120 m
This value has been depicted correctly in the above graph.
After 8 s, only the second stone is in motion whose variation with time is given by the quadratic
equation:
s2 – s1 = 200 + 30t – 5t2
Therefore, the equation of linear and curved path is given by :
s2 – s1 = 15t (Linear path)
s2 – s1 = 200 + 30t – 5t2 (Curved path)
Q. 27. The speed-time graph of a particle moving along a fixed direction is shown in the figure.
Obtain the distance traversed by the particle between
(a) t = 0 s to 10 s,
(b) t = 2 s to 6 s.
Solution:
(a) Distance traversed by the particle between t = 0 s and t = 10 s
= area of the triangle = (1/2) x base x height
= (1/2) x 10 x x12 = 60 m
Average speed of the particle is 60 m/ 10 s = 6 m/s
(b) The distance travelled by the particle between t = 2 s and t = 6 s
= Let S1 be the distance travelled by the particle in time 2 to 5 s and S2 be the distance travelled by the
particle in time 5 to 6 s.
For the motion from 0 sec to 5 sec
Now, u = 0 , t = 5 , v = 12 m/s
From the equation v = u + at we get
a = (v – u)/t = 12/ 5 = 2.4 m/s2
Distance covered from 2 to 5 s, S1 = distance covered in 5 sec – distance covered in 2 sec
= (1/2) a (5)2 – (1/2) a (2)2 = (1/2) x 2.4 x (25 – 4) = 1.2 x 21 = 25.2 m
For the motion from 5 sec to 10 sec , u = 12 m/s and a = -2.4 m/s2
and t = 5 sec to t = 6 sec means n = 1 for this motion
Distance covered in the 6 the sec is S2 = u + (1/2) a (2n – 1)
= 12 – (2.4/2) (2 x 1 – 1) = 10.8 m
Therefore, the total distance covered from t = 2 s to 6 s = S1 + S2
= 25.2 + 10.8 = 36 m
Q.28. The velocity-time graph of a particle in one-dimensional motion is shown in the figure.
(a) x (t2) = x (t1) + v (t1) (t2 – t1) + (1/2) a(t2 – t1)2
(b) v(t2) = v(t1) + a(t2 – t1)
(c) aaverage = [ x(t2) – x (t1)] /(t2 – t1)
(d) aaverage = [ v(t2) – v (t1)] /(t2 – t1)
(e) x (t2) = x (t1) + vav (t2 – t1) + (1/2) aav (t2 – t1)2
(f) x(t2) – x (t1) = Area under the v-t curve bounded by t- axis and the dotted lines.
Solution:
The graph has a non-uniform slope between the intervals t1 and t2 (since the graph is not a straight
line). The equations (a), (b) and (e) does not describe the motion of the particle. Only the relations (c),
(d) and (f) are correct.
Motion in a Plane
Q-1: State whether the following physical quantities are scalar or vector.
(i) Mass
(ii) Volume
(iii) Speed
(iv) Acceleration
(v) Density
(vi) Number of moles
(vii) Velocity
(viii) Angular frequency
(ix) Displacement
(x) Angular velocity
Solution:
Scalar: Density, mass, speed, volume, angular frequency, number of moles.
Vector: Velocity, acceleration, angular velocity, displacement.
A scalar quantity depends only on the magnitude and it is independent of the direction. Density, mass,
speed, volume, angular frequency and number of moles are scalar quantities.
A vector quantity depends on the magnitude as well as the direction. Velocity, acceleration, angular
velocity, displacement comes under this.
Q-2: From the following pick any two scalar quantities:

Force, angular momentum, work, current, linear momentum, electric field, average velocity,
magnetic moment, relative velocity.
Solution:
The dot product of force and displacement is the work done. Work is a scalar quantity since dot product
of two quantities is always scalar.
Current is a scalar quantity as it is described only by its magnitude and it is independent of direction.
Q-3: From the following identify the vector quantities:

Pressure, temperature, energy, time, gravitational potential, power, total path length, charge,
coefficient of friction, impulse.
Solution:
Impulse is the product of force and time. Since force is a vector quantity, its product with time which is a
scalar quantity gives a vector quantity.
Motion in a Plane
Q-4: State with reasons, whether the following algebraic operations with scalar and vector
physical quantities are meaningful:
(a) Addition of any two scalars
(b) Adding a scalar to a vector which has the same dimensions
(c) Multiplying a vector by any scalar
(d) Multiplying any two scalars
(e) Adding any two vectors
(f) Addition of a vector component to the same vector.
Solution:
(a) Meaningful:
The addition of two scalar quantities is meaningful only if they both represent the same physical
quantity.
(b) Not Meaningful:
The addition of a vector quantity with a scalar quantity is not meaningful
(c) Meaningful:
A scalar can be multiplied with a vector. For example, force is multiplied with time to give impulse.
(d) Meaningful:
A scalar, irrespective of the physical quantity it represents, can be multiplied by another scalar having
the same or different dimensions.
(e) Meaningful:
The addition of two vector quantities is meaningful only if they both represent the same physical
quantity.
(f) Meaningful:
A component of a vector can be added to the same vector as they both have the same dimensions.
Q-5: Read each statement below carefully and state with reasons, if it is true or false:
(a) The magnitude of a vector is always a scalar
(b) Each component of a vector is always a scalar
(c) The total path length is always equal to the magnitude of the displacement vector of a
particle
(d) The average speed of a particle (defined as total path length divided by the time taken to
cover the path) is either greater or equal to the magnitude of the average velocity of the particle
over the same interval of time
(e) Three vectors not lying in a plane can never add up to give a null vector.
Motion in a Plane
Solution:
(a) True:
The magnitude of a vector is a number. So, it is a scalar.
(b) False:
Each component of a vector is also a vector.
(c) False:
The total path length is a scalar quantity, whereas displacement is a vector quantity. Hence, the total
path length is always greater than the magnitude of displacement. It becomes equal to the magnitude
of displacement only when a particle is moving in a straight line.
(d) True:
It is because of the fact that the total path length is always greater than or equal to the magnitude of
displacement of a particle.
(e) True:
Three vectors, which do not lie in a plane, cannot be represented by the sides of a triangle taken in the
same order.
Q-6: Establish the following vector inequalities geometrically or otherwise:
When does the equality sign above apply?

Solution:
Motion in a Plane
Combine equation (iv) and (v),

Motion in a Plane
Motion in a Plane
Combine equation (iv) and (v):

Motion in a Plane
Combine (iii) and (iv),

Motion in a Plane
The quantity on the left hand side is always positive and that on the right hand side can be positive or
negative.
We take modulus on both the sides to make both quantities positive:
If the two vectors act along a straight line in the opposite direction, then:
Combine (iv) and (v):
Q-7: Given that l + m + n + o = 0, which of the given statements are true:

(a) l, m, n and o each must be a null vector.
(b) The magnitude of (l + n) equals the magnitude of (m+ o).
(c) The magnitude of l can never be greater than the sum of the magnitudes of m, n and o.
(d) m + n must lie in the plane of l and o if l and o are not collinear, and in the line of l and o, if
they are collinear?
Solution:
(a) False
In order to make l + m + n + o = 0, it is not necessary to have all the four given vectors to be null
vectors. There are other combinations which can give the sum zero.
(b) True
l+m+n+o=0
l + n = – (m + o)
Taking mode on both the sides,
Therefore, the magnitude of (l + n) is the same as the magnitude of (m + o).

(c) True
l+m+n+o=0
l = (m + n + o)
Motion in a Plane
Taking mode on both the sides,
Equation (i) shows the magnitude of l is equal to or less than the sum of the magnitudes of m, n and o.
(d) True
For,
l+m+n+o=0
The resultant sum of the three vectors l, (m + n), and o can be zero only if (m + n) lie in a plane
containing l and o, assuming that these three vectors are represented by the three sides of a triangle.
If l and o are collinear, then it implies that the vector (m + n) is in the line of l and o. This implication
holds only then the vector sum of all the vectors will be zero.
Q-8: Three girls skating on a circular ice ground of radius 200 m start from a point P on the edge
of the ground and reach a point Q diametrically opposite to P following different paths as shown
in Fig. 4.20. What is the magnitude of the displacement vector for each? For which girl is this
equal to the actual length of path skate?
Motion in a Plane
Solution:
The distance between the initial and the final position of the particle is called the displacement. All the
three girls reach from point P to Q. The diameter of the ground is the magnitude of displacement.
Radius = 200 m
Diameter = 200 x 2 = 400 m
Hence, the magnitude of displacement is 400 m for each girl. This magnitude is equal to the path
skated by girl B.
Q-9: A cyclist starts from the centre O of a circular park of radius 1 km, reaches the edge P of
the park, then cycles along the circumference, and returns to the centre along QO as shown in
Fig. 4.21. If the round trip takes 10 min, what is the
(i) Net displacement
(ii) Average velocity and
(iii) The average speed of the cyclist.
Solution:
(i) The distance between the initial and final position of the body is called displacement. The cyclist
comes back to the place where he had started in 20 minutes. So, the displacement is zero.
As the displacement is zero, the average velocity is zero.

Motion in a Plane
(iii) Average speed = distance travelled/time taken
= OP + Distance PQ + QO/ 10 minutes
= {1 km + (1/4) x 2 x (22/7) x 1km + 1m}/ (10/60) h
= 6 (2 + 22/14)
= 6 (50/14) = 21.43 km/h
Q-10: On an open ground, a motorist follows a track that turns to his left by an angle of 600 after
every 500 m. Starting from a given turn, specify the displacement of the motorist at the third,
sixth and eighth turn. Compare the magnitude of the displacement with the total path length
covered by the motorist in each case.
Solution:
The path followed by the motorist is a regular hexagon with side 500 m as given in the figure.
Let the motorist start from point P.

The motorist takes the third turn at S.
Therefore,
Magnitude of the displacement = PS = PV + VS
= 500 + 500 = 1000 m
Total path length = PQ + QR + RS
= 500 + 500 + 500 = 1500 m
The motorist takes the 6th turn at point P, which is the starting point.
Motion in a Plane
Therefore,
Magnitude of displacement = 0
Total path length = PQ + QR + RS + ST + TU + UP
= 500 + 500 + 500 + 500 + 500 + 500 = 3000 m
The motorist takes the eight turn at point R.
Magnitude of displacement = PR
Therefore, the magnitude of displacement is 866.03 m at an angle of 30° with PR.

Total path length = Circumference of the hexagon + PQ + QR
= 6 × 500 + 500 + 500 = 4000 m
The magnitude of displacement and the total path length corresponding to the required turns is shown
in the following table:
Motion in a Plane
Q-11: A passenger arriving in a new town wants to go from the station to a hotel located 10 km
away on a straight road from the station. A dishonest cabman takes him along a circuitous path
23 km long and reaches the hotel in 28 min.
(a) What is the average speed of the taxi?
(b) What is the magnitude of average velocity? Are the two equal?
Solution:
Q-12: Rain is falling vertically with a speed of 30 ms-1. A woman rides a bicycle with a speed of
10 ms-1 in the north to south direction. What is the direction in which she should hold her
umbrella?
Solution:
The described situation is shown in the given figure
Motion in a Plane
Here,
In order to protect herself from the rain, the woman must hold her umbrella in the direction of the
relative velocity (v) of the rain with respect to the woman.
Hence, the woman must hold the umbrella toward the south, at an angle of nearly 18° with the vertical.
Motion in a Plane
Q-13: A man can swim with a speed of 4 km/h in still water. How long does he take to cross a
river 1 km wide if the river flows steadily at 3 km/h and he makes his strokes normal to the river
current? How far down the river does he go when he reaches the other bank?
Solution:
Q-14: In a harbour, the wind is blowing at the speed of 72 km/h and the flag on the mast of a
boat anchored in the harbour flutters along the N-E direction. If the boat starts moving at a
speed of 51 km/h to the north, what is the direction of the flag on the mast of the boat?
Solution:
Motion in a Plane
Motion in a Plane
Q-15: The ceiling of a long hall is 25 m high. What is the maximum horizontal distance that a ball
is thrown with a speed of 40 ms-1 can go without hitting the ceiling of the hall?
Solution:
Horizontal range, R:
Q-16: A cricketer can throw a ball to a maximum horizontal distance of 100 m. How much high
above the ground can the cricketer throw the same ball?
Motion in a Plane
Solution:
Q-17: A stone tied to the end of a string 80 cm long is whirled in a horizontal circle with a
constant speed. If the stone makes 14 revolutions in 25 s, what is the direction and magnitude
of the acceleration of the stone?
Solution:
Length of the string, l = 80 cm = 0.8 m
No. of revolutions = 14
Time taken = 25 s
Motion in a Plane
Centripetal acceleration:
The direction of centripetal acceleration is always directed along the string, toward the centre, at all
points.
Q-18: An aircraft executes a horizontal loop of radius 1 km with a steady speed of 900 km h-1.
Compare its centripetal acceleration with the acceleration due to gravity.
Solution:
Q-19: Read each statement below carefully and state, with reasons, if it is true or false:
(a) The net acceleration of a particle in a circular motion is always along the radius of the circle
towards the centre.
(b) The velocity vector of a particle at a point is always along the tangent to the path of the
particle at that point.
Motion in a Plane
(c) The acceleration vector of a particle in uniform circular motion averaged over one cycle is a
null vector.
Solution:
(a) False
The net acceleration of a particle in a circular motion is always directed along the radius of the circle
toward the centre only in the case of uniform circular motion.
(b) True
At a point on a circular path, a particle appears to move tangentially to the circular path.
(c) True
In uniform circular motion (UCM), the direction of the acceleration vector points toward the centre of the
circle. However, it constantly changes with time. The average of these vectors over one cycle is a null
vector.
Q-20: The position of a particle is given by
Where t is in seconds and the coefficients have the proper units for r to be in meters.
(a) Find the ‘v’ and ‘a’ of the particle?
(b) What is the magnitude and direction of the velocity of the particle at t = 2.0 s?
Solution:
(a) The position of the particle is given by:
Motion in a Plane
At t = 2.0 s:
The magnitude of velocity is given by:
The negative sign indicates that the direction of velocity is below the x – axis.
Solution:
Motion in a Plane
Integrating the equations with the conditions:

At t = 0; r = 0 and at t = t; r = r.
Motion in a Plane
Solution:
Motion in a Plane
Motion in a Plane
Motion in a Plane
Motion in a Plane
Q-23: Which of the given relations are true for any arbitrary motion in space?
Solution:
(a) False
It is given that the motion of the particle is arbitrary. Therefore, the average velocity of the particle
cannot be given by this equation.
Motion in a Plane
(b) True
The arbitrary motion of the particle can be represented by this equation.
(c) False
The motion of the particle is arbitrary. The acceleration of the particle may also be non-uniform. Hence,
this equation cannot represent the motion of the particle in space.
(d) False
The motion of the particle is arbitrary; acceleration of the particle may also be non-uniform. Hence, this
equation cannot represent the motion of a particle in space.
(e) True
The arbitrary motion of the particle can be represented by this equation.
Q-24: Read each statement below carefully and state, with reasons and examples, if it is true or
false:
A scalar quantity is one that
(a) is conserved in a process
(b) can never take negative values
(c) must be dimensionless
(d) does not vary from one point to another in space
(e) has the same value for observers with different orientations of axes
Solution:
(a) False
Despite being a scalar quantity, energy is not conserved in inelastic collisions.
b) False
Despite being a scalar quantity, the temperature can take negative values.
c) False
The total path length is a scalar quantity. Yet it has the dimension of length.
d) False
A scalar quantity such as gravitational potential can vary from one point to another in space.
e) True
The value of a scalar does not vary for observers with different orientations of axes.
Motion in a Plane
Q.25. An aircraft is flying at a height of 3400 m above the ground. If the angle subtended at a
ground observation point by the aircraft positions 10.0 s apart is 30°, what is the speed of the
aircraft?
Solution:
Height at which the aircraft is flying = 3400 m

Let A and B be the positions of the aircraft making an angle ∠AOB = 300. The perpendicular OC is
drawn on AB. Here OC is the height of the aircraft which is equal to 3400 m and ∠AOC = ∠COB = 150.
In the ΔAOC, AC = OC tan 150 = 3400 x 0.267 = 910.86 m
AB = AC + CB = AC + AC = 2 AC = 2 x 910.86 m
Speed of the aircraft = distance AB/time = (2 x 910.86)/10= 182.17 m/s =182.2 m/s
Q-26: Does a vector have a location in space? Will it fluctuate with time? Can two equivalent
vectors x and y at various locations in space fundamentally have indistinguishable physical
effects? Give cases in support of your answer.
Solution:
No, Yes and No.
A vector in space has no distinct location. The reason behind this is that a vector stays invariant when it
displaces in a way that its direction and magnitude does not change. Although, a position vector has a
distinct location in space.
A vector change with time. For instance, the velocity vector of a ball moving with a specific speed
fluctuates with time.
Two equivalent vectors situated at different locations in space do not generate the same physical effect.
For instance, two equivalent forces acting at different points on a body tend to rotate the body, but the
combination will not generate the equivalent turning effect.
Motion in a Plane
Q-27: As a vector is having both direction and magnitude, then is it necessary that if anything is
having direction and magnitude it is termed as a vector? The rotation of an object is defined by
the angle of rotation about the axis and the direction of rotation of the axis. Will it be a rotation
of a vector?
Solution:
No and no
A physical quantity which is having both direction and magnitude is not necessarily a vector. For
instance, in spite of having direction and magnitude, the current is a scalar quantity. The basic
necessity for a physical quantity to fall in a vector category is that it ought to follow the “law of vector
addition.”
As the rotation of a body about an axis does not follow the basic necessity to be a vector i.e, it does not
follow the “law of vector addition”, so it is not a vector quantity. Although in some cases rotation of a
body about an axis by a small angle follows the law of vector addition so it is termed as a vector.
Q-28: Can we associate a vector with

(i) a sphere
(ii) the length of a wire bent into a loop
(iii) a plane area
Clarify for the same.
Solution:
No, No, Yes
(i) We can’t associate the volume of a sphere with a vector, but the area of a sphere can be associated
with an area vector.
(ii) We can’t associate the length of a wire bent into a loop with a vector.
(iii) We can associate a plane area with a vector.
Q. 29. A bullet fired at an angle of 30° with the horizontal hits the ground 3.0 km away. By
adjusting its angle of projection, can one hope to hit a target 5.0 km away? Assume the muzzle
speed to be fixed, and neglect air resistance.
Solution:
Bullet is fired at an angle = 30°
The bullet hits the ground at a distance of 3km = 3000 m
Horizontal range, R = u2 sin2θ/g
3000 = u2 sin 600/9.8
u2 = (3000 x 9.8)/(√3/2)
= 2 (3000 x 9.8)/√3 = 58800/1.732 = 33949
Motion in a Plane
Also, R’ = u2 sin 2θ/g ⇒ 5000 = (33949 x sin2θ)/9.8
Sin 2θ = (5000 x 9.8)/33949 = 49000/33949 = 1.44
Since sine of an angle cannot be more than 1. Therefore, a target 5 km away cannot be hit
Q. 30. A fighter plane flying horizontally at an altitude of 1.5 km with a speed of 720 km/h passes
directly overhead an anti-aircraft gun. At what angle from the vertical should the gun be fired for
the shell with muzzle speed 600 m s-1 to hit the plane? At what minimum altitude should the pilot
fly the plane to avoid being hit? (Take g = 10 m s-2 ).
Solution:
Speed of the fighter plane = 720 km/h = 720 x (5/18) = 200 m/s
The altitude of the plane = 1.5 km
Velocity of the shell = 600 m/s
Sin θ = 200/600 = 1/3
θ = sin-1 (1/3) = 19.470
Let H be the minimum altitude
Using equation,
H = u2 sin2 (90 – θ)/2g
= (6002 cos2θ)/2g
= 6002 cos 2θ/(2 x 9.8)= {360000[(1+cos 2θ)/2]}/2g
Motion in a Plane
= 360000[1+cos2 (19.470)/2]/2g
= 360000[ (1 + cos 38.94)/2]/(2 x 9.8)
= 360000 [ (1 + 0.778)/2]/19.6
= 360000 [(1.778/2)]/19.6
= (360000 x 0.889) /19.6
= 320040/19.6
= 16328 m = 16.328 km
Q. 31. A cyclist is riding with a speed of 27 km/h. As he approaches a circular turn on the road
of a radius of 80 m, he applies brakes and reduces his speed at the constant rate of 0.50 m/s
every second. What is the magnitude and direction of the net acceleration of the cyclist on the
circular turn?
Solution:
Speed of the cyclist = 27 km/h = 27 x (5/18) = 7.5 m/s

Radius of the road = 80 m
The net acceleration is due to the braking and the centripetal acceleration
Due to braking, a = 0.50 m/s2
Centripetal acceleration, a = v2/2 = (7.5)2/80 = 0.70 m/s2
since the angle between ac and aT is 90o, the resultant acceleration is given by
Motion in a Plane
= 0.86 m/s2
and tan β = ac/at = 0.7/0.5 = 1.4
β = tan -1 (1.4) = 54.50 from the direction of velocity
Q.32. (a) Show that for a projectile the angle between the velocity and the x-axis as a function of
time is given by
(b) Shows that the projection angle θ0 for a projectile launched from the origin is given by
where the symbols have their usual meaning

Solution:
(a) Let θ be the angle at which the projectile is fired w.r.t the x-axis
θ depends on t
Therefore, tan θ(t) = vx/vy = (voy – gt)/v0x (since vy = v0y -gt and vx =vox)
θ(t) = tan-1 ((voy – gt)/v0x)
(b) Since, hmax = u2 sin2θ/2g —–(1)
R = u2sin2θ/g——–(2)
Dividing (1) by (2)
(hmax/R) = [u2 sin2θ/2g]/[ u2sin2θ/g] = tan θ/4
θ = tan-1 (4 hmax/R)
Laws of Motion
1. Give the magnitude and direction of the net force acting on

(a) a drop of rain falling down with a constant speed
(b) a cork of mass 10 g floating on water
(c) a kite skillfully held stationary in the sky
(d) a car moving with a constant velocity of 30 km/h on a rough road
(e) a high-speed electron in space far from all material objects, and free of electric and magnetic
fields.
Solution:
(a)The raindrop is falling at a constant speed. Therefore, acceleration will become zero. When
acceleration is zero, the force acting on the drop will become zero since F = ma.
(b) The cork is floating on water, which means the weight of the cork is balanced by the upthrust.
Therefore, the net force on the cork will be zero
(c) Since the car moves with a constant velocity, the acceleration becomes zero. Therefore, the force
will be zero.
(d) The net force acting on the high-speed electron will be zero since the electron is far from the
material objects and free of electric and magnetic fields.
2. A pebble of mass 0.05 kg is thrown vertically upwards. Give the direction and magnitude of
the net force on the pebble,
(a) during its upward motion
(b) during its downward motion
(c) at the highest point where it is momentarily at rest. Do your solutions change if the pebble
was thrown at an angle of 45° with the horizontal direction? Ignore air resistance
Solution:
(a) During the upward motion of the pebble, the acceleration due to gravity acts downwards, so the
magnitude of the force on the pebble is
F = mg = 0.05 kg x 10 ms-2 = 0.5 N
The direction of the force is downwards
(b) During the downward motion also the magnitude of the force will be equal to 0.5 N and the force
acts downwards
(c) If the pebble is thrown at an angle of 45° with the horizontal direction, it will have both horizontal and
vertical components of the velocity. At the highest point, the vertical component of velocity will be zero
but the horizontal component of velocity will remain throughout the motion of the pebble. This
component will not have any effect on the force acting on the pebble. The direction of the force acting
on the pebble will be downwards and the magnitude will be 0.5 N because no other force other than
acceleration acts on the pebble.
Laws of Motion
3. Give the magnitude and direction of the net force acting on a stone of mass 0.1 kg,
(a) just after it is dropped from the window of a stationary train
(b) just after it is dropped from the window of a train running at a constant velocity of 36 km/h
(c) just after it is dropped from the window of a train accelerating with1 m s-2
(d) lying on the floor of a train which is accelerating with 1 m s-2, the stone being at rest relative
to the train. Neglect air resistance throughout.
Solution:
(a) Mass of stone = 0.1 kg
Acceleration = 10 ms-2
Net force, F = mg = 0.1 x 10 = 1.0 N
The force acts vertically downwards
(b) The train moves at a constant velocity. Therefore the acceleration will be equal to zero. So there is
no force acting on the stone due to the motion of the train. Therefore, the force acting on the stone will
remain the same (1.0 N)
(c) When the train accelerates at 1m/s2, the stone experiences an additional force of F’ = ma
= 0.1 x 1 = 0.1 N. The force acts in the horizontal direction.
But as the stone is dropped, the force F’ no longer acts and the net force acting on the stone F = mg
= 0.1 x 10 = 1.0 N. (vertically downwards).
(d) As the stone is lying on the train floor, its acceleration will be the same as that of the train.
Therefore, the magnitude of the force acting on the stone, F = ma
= 0.1 x 1 = 0.1 N.
It acts along the direction of motion of the train.
4. One end of a string of length l is connected to a particle of mass m and the other to a small
peg on a smooth horizontal table. If the particle moves in a circle with speed v the net force on
the particle (directed towards the centre) is:
(i) T
(ii) T – mv2/l
(iii) T + mv2/l
(iv) 0
T is the tension in the string. [Choose the correct alternative].
Solution:
(i) T
Laws of Motion
The net force acting on the particle is T, and it is directed towards the centre. It provides the centripetal
force required by the particle to move along a circle.
5. A constant retarding force of 50 N is applied to a body of mass 20 kg moving initially with a

speed of 15 m s-1. How long does the body take to stop?
Solution:
Here,
Force = – 50 N (since it is a retarding force)
Mass m = 20 kg
v=0
u = 15 m s-1
Force F = ma
a = F/m = -50/20 = – 2.5 ms-2
Using the equation, v = u + at
0 = 15 + (- 2.5) t
t=6s
6. A constant force acting on a body of mass 3.0 kg changes its speed from 2.0 ms -1 to 3.5 ms-
1
in 25 s. The direction of the motion of the body remains unchanged. What is the magnitude and
direction of the force?
Solution:
Given,
Mass, m = 3.0 Kg
u = 2.0 m/s
v = 3.5 m/s
t = 25 s
F = ma
F = m [(v-u)/t] (since a = (v -u)/t)
F = 3 [ (3.5 – 2)/25] = 0.18 N
The force acts in the direction of motion of the body
7. A body of mass 5 kg is acted upon by two perpendicular forces 8 N and 6 N. Give the
magnitude and direction of the acceleration of the body.
Laws of Motion
Solution:
Given,
Mass, m = 5 kg
Force, F1 = 8N and F2 = 6N
The resultant force of the body
Acceleration, a = F/m
a = 10/ 5 = 2m/s in the direction of the resultant force
The direction of the acceleration,
tan β = 6/8 = 0.75
β = tan-1 (0.75)
β = 370 with 8N
8. The driver of a three-wheeler moving at a speed of 36 km/h sees a child standing in the
middle of the road and brings his vehicle to rest in 4.0 s just in time to save the child. What is
the average retarding force on the vehicle? The mass of the three-wheeler is 400 kg, and the
mass of the driver is 65 kg.
Solution:
Given,
Laws of Motion
Initial velocity, u= 36 km/h

Final velocity, v = 0
Mass of the three-wheeler, m1= 400 Kg
Mass of the driver, m2 = 65 Kg
Time taken to bring the vehicle to rest = 4.0 s
Acceleration, a = v- u/t = (0 – 10)/ 4 = – 2.5 m/s
Now, F = (m1 + m2)/ a = (400 + 65) x (-2.5)
= – 1162.5 N = – 1.16 x 103 N
The negative sign shows that the force is retarding
9. A rocket with a lift-off mass of 20,000 kg is blasted upwards with an initial acceleration of 5.0
ms-2. Calculate the initial thrust (force) of the blast.
Solution:
Given,
Mass of the rocket, m = 20000 kg = 2 x 104 kg
Initial acceleration = 5 ms-2
g = 9.8 m/s2
The initial thrust (force) should give an upward acceleration of 5 ms-2 and should overcome the force of
gravity.
Thus the thrust should produce a net acceleration of 9.8 + 5.0 = 14.8 ms-2.
Using Newton’s second law of motion, the initial thrust acting on the rocket
Thrust = force = mass x acceleration
F = 20000 x 14.8 = 2.96 x 105 N
10. A body of mass 0.40 kg moving initially with a constant speed of 10 ms-1 to the north is
subject to a constant force of 8.0 N directed towards the south for 30 s. Take the instant the
force is applied to be t = 0, the position of the body at that time to be x = 0, and predict its
position at t = -5 s, 25 s, 100 s.
Solution:
Given,
Mass of the body = 0.40 kg
Initial velocity, u = 10 m/s
Force, f = -8 N (retarding force)
Laws of Motion
Using the equation S = ut + (½) at2

(a) Position at the time t = – 5 s
The force starts acting on the body from t = 0 s
So the acceleration of the body when the time is – 5 s is 0
S1= (10)(-5) + (½) (0) (-5)2 = – 50 m
(b) Position at the time t = 25 s

The acceleration of the body due to the force acting in the opposite direction
Acceleration, a = F/a = -8 /0.4 = -20 ms-2
S2= (10)(25) + (½) (-20) (25)2 = – 6000 m
(c) Position at the time t = 100 s

For the first 30 sec, the body will move under the retardation of the force and after that, the speed will
remain constant.
Therefore, distance covered in 30 sec
S3= (10)(30) + (½)(-20)(302)
= 300 – 9000 = – 8700m
The speed after 30 sec is
v = u + at
v = 10 – (20 x 30) = 590 m/s
The distance covered in the next 70 sec is
S4 = – 590 x 70 + (½) (0) (70)2 = – 41300 m
Therefore the position after 100 sec = S3 + S4 = – 8700 – 41300 = – 50000m
11. A truck starts from rest and accelerates uniformly at 2.0 ms-2. At t = 10 s, a stone is dropped
by a person standing on the top of the truck (6 m high from the ground). What are the (a)
velocity, and (b) acceleration of the stone at t = 11s? (Neglect air resistance.)
Solution:
Laws of Motion
Initial velocity, u = 0
Acceleration, a = 2 ms-2,
t=10 s
Using equation, v = u + at, we get
v = 0 + 2 x 10 = 20 m/s
The final velocity, v = 20 m/s
At time, t = 11 sec, the horizontal component of the velocity in the absence of the air resistance
remains unchanged
Vx =20 m/s
The vertical component of the velocity is given by the equation
Vy = u + ayt
Here t = 11 – 10 = 1s and ay= a = 10 m/s
Therefore, the resultant velocity v of the stone is
v = ( vx2 + vy2)½
v = (20 2 + 10 2)1/2
v = 22.36 m/s
tan θ = vy/vx = 10/20 = ½ = 0.5
θ = tan -1 (0.5 ) = 26. 560 from the horizontal
(b) When the stone is dropped from the truck, the horizontal force on the stone is zero. The only
acceleration of the stone is that due to gravity which is equal to 10 m/s2 and it acts vertically
downwards.
Laws of Motion
12. A bob of mass 0.1 kg hung from the ceiling of a room by a string 2 m long is set into
oscillation. The speed of the bob at its mean position is 1 ms-1. What is the trajectory of the bob
if the string is cut when the bob is (a) at one of its extreme positions, (b) at its mean position?
Solution:
(a) When the bob is at one of its extreme positions, the velocity is zero. So, if the string is cut the bob
will fall vertically downward under the force of its weight F = mg.
(b) At its mean position the bob has a horizontal velocity. If the string is cut, the bob will behave like a
projectile and will fall on the ground after taking a parabolic path.
13. A man of mass 70 kg, stands on a weighing machine in a lift, which is moving
(a) upwards with a uniform speed of 10 ms-1.
(b) downwards with a uniform acceleration of 5 ms-2.
(c) upwards with a uniform acceleration of 5 ms-2.
What would be the readings on the scale in each case?
(d) What would be the reading if the lift mechanism failed and it hurtled down freely under
gravity?
Solution:
Mass of the man, m = 70 kg,
g = 10 m/s2
The weighing machine in each case measures the reaction R, i.e., the apparent weight.
(a) When the lift moves upwards with a uniform speed of 10 m/s, it’s acceleration= 0.
R = mg = 70 x 10 = 700 N
(b) Lift moving downwards with a = 5 ms-2
Using Newton’s second law of motion, the equation of motion can be written as
R+mg = ma
R = m (g – a) = 70 (10 – 5) = 350 N
(c) Lift moving upwards with a = 5 ms-2
R = m (g + a) = 70 (10 + 5) = 1050 N
(d) If the lift were to come down freely under gravity, downward a = g
:. R = m(g -a) = m(g – g) = 0
The man will be in a state of weightlessness
Laws of Motion
14. Figure shows the position-time graph of a particle of mass 4 kg. What is the (a) force on the
particle for t < 0, t > 4 s, 0 < t < 4 s? (b) impulse at t = 0 and t = 4 s? (Consider one-dimensional
motion only).
Solution:
When t＜0, the distance covered by the particle is zero. Therefore, the force on the particle is zero.
When 0＜ t ＜4s, the particle is moving with a constant velocity. Therefore, the force will be zero.
When t＞4s, the particle remains at a constant distance. Therefore, the force of the particle will be zero.
Impulse at t = 0.
Here, u = 0
v = ¾ = 0.75 m/s
M = 4 kg
Impulse= total change in momentum = mv – mu = m (v – u)
= 4 (0 – 0.75) = -3 kg m/s
Impulse at t= 4s
u = 0.75 m/s, v = 0
Impulse = m (v – u) = 4 (0 – 0.75) = -3 kg m/s
15. Two bodies of masses 10 kg and 20 kg respectively kept on a smooth, horizontal surface are
tied to the ends of a tight string. A horizontal force F = 600 N is applied to (i) A, (ii) B along the
direction of string. What is the tension in the string in each case?
Laws of Motion
Solution:
Given,
Mass of the body A, m1 = 10 kg
Mass of the body B, m2 = 20 kg
Horizontal force = 600 N
Total mass of the system, m = m1 + m2 = 30 kg
Applying Newton’s second law of motion, we have
F = ma
a = F/m = 600/30 = 20 m/s2
(i) When the force is applied on A (10 kg)
F – T = m1a
T = F – m1a
T = 600 – (10 x 20)
= 600 – 200 = 400 N
(ii) When the force is applied on B (20 kg)
Laws of Motion
F – T = m2a
T = F – m2a
= 600 – (20 x 20) = 200 N
16. Two masses 8 kg and 12 kg are connected at the two ends of a light inextensible string that
goes over a frictionless pulley. Find the acceleration of the masses and the tension in the string
when the masses are released.
Solution:
Given,
Smaller mass, m1 = 8 kg
Larger mass, m2 = 12 kg
Tension in the string = T
The heavier mass m2 will move downwards and the smaller mass m1 will move upwards.
Applying Newton’s second law,
Laws of Motion
For mass m1:

T – m1g = m1a —– (1)
For mass m2:
m2g – T = m2a ——(2)
Add (1) and (2)
(m2 – m1) g = (m1 + m2) a
a = (m2 – m1) g/ (m1 + m2)
=[ (12 – 8)/(12 + 8)] x 10 = (4 /20) x 10= 2m/s
Therefore, acceleration of the mass is 2 m/s2
Substituting this value of acceleration in equation (ii) we get
m2g – T = m2a
m2g – T = m2 [ (m2 – m1) g/ (m1 + m2) ]
= 2m1m2g/(m1 + m2)
T = 2 x 12 x 8 x 10/ (12 + 8)
T = 96 N
Therefore, the tension on the string is 96 N
17. A nucleus is at rest in the laboratory frame of reference. Show that if it disintegrates into two
smaller nuclei, the products must move in opposite directions.
Solution:
Let m1, m2 be the masses of the two daughter nuclei and v1,v2 be their respective velocities of the
daughter nuclei. Let m be the mass of the parent nucleus.
Total linear momentum after disintegration = m1v1 +m2 v2.
Before disintegration, the nucleus is at rest. Therefore, its linear momentum before disintegration is
zero.
Applying the law of conservation of momentum,
Total linear momentum before disintegration = Total linear momentum after disintegration
0 = m1v1 + m2v2
v1=-m2v2/m1
The negative sign indicates v1 and v2 are in opposite directions.
Laws of Motion
18. Two billiard balls, each of mass 0.05 kg, moving in opposite directions with speed 6 ms-1
collide and rebound with the same speed. What is the impulse imparted to each ball due to the
other?
Solution:
Mass of each ball = 0.05 kg
Initial velocity of each ball = 6 m/s
The initial momentum of each ball before the collision
= 0.05 x 6 = 0.3 kg m/s
After the collision, the balls change in the direction of motion without a change in the magnitude of the
velocity
Final momentum after collision of the first ball = – 0.05 x 6 = – 0.3 kg m/s
Final momentum after collision of the second ball = 0.3 kg m/s
Impulse imparted to the first ball = (-0.3) – (0.3) = – 0.6 kg m/s
Impulse imparted to the second ball = (0.3) – (-0.3) = 0.6 kg m/s
The two impulses are opposite in direction.
19. A shell of mass 0.020 kg is fired by a gun of mass 100 kg. If the muzzle speed of the shell is
80 ms-1. What is the recoil speed of the gun?
Solution:
Mass of the shell, m = 0.020 kg
Mass of the gun, M = 100 Kg
Speed of the shell = 80 m/s
The initial velocity of the shell and the gun is zero. So, the initial momentum of the system is zero.
Applying the law of conservation of momentum, the initial momentum is equal to the final momentum.
So,
0 = mv – MV
Recoil speed of the gun, v = mv/M
v = (0.020 x 80)/100
v = 0.016 m/s
20. A batsman deflects a ball by an angle of 45° without changing its initial speed which is equal
to 54 km/h. What is the impulse imparted to the ball? (Mass of the ball is 0.15 kg.)
Laws of Motion
Solution:
Velocity of the ball = 54 km/h

The ball is deflected back such that the total angle = 450
The initial momentum of the ball is mucosӨ = (0.15 x 54 x 1000 x cos 22. 5)/3600
= 0.15 x 15 x 0.9239 along NO
Final momentum of the ball = mucosӨ along ON
Impulse = change in the momentum = mucosӨ – (-mucosӨ) = 2mucosӨ = 2 x 0.15 x 15 x 0.9239
= 4.16 kg m/s
21. A stone of mass 0.25 kg tied to the end of a string is whirled round in a circle of radius 1.5 m
with a speed of 40 rev./min in a horizontal plane. What is the tension in the string? What is the
maximum speed with which the stone can be whirled around if the string can withstand a
maximum tension of 200 N?
Solution:
Mass of the stone = 0.25 kg
Radius, r = 1.5 m
Number of revolution in a second, n= 40/60 = (⅔) rev/sec
The angular velocity, ω = 2πn = 2 x 3.14 x (⅔)
The tension on the string provides the necessary centripetal force
T = mω2r
T = 0.25 x 1.5 x [2 x 3.14 x (⅔)]2
Laws of Motion
= 6.57 N
Maximum tension on the string, Tmax= 200 N
Tmax= mv2max/r
v2max = (Tmax x r)/m
= ( 200 x 1.5)/0.25 = 1200
vmax = 34. 6 m/s
Therefore, the maximum speed of the stone is 34.64 m/s
22. If in problem 21, the speed of the stone is increased beyond the maximum permissible value,
and the string breaks suddenly, which of the following correctly describes the trajectory of the
stone after the string breaks:
(a) the stone moves radially outwards,
(b) the stone flies off tangentially from the instant the string breaks,
(c) the stoneflies off at an angle with the tangent whose magnitude depends on the speed of the
particle?
Solution:
(b)
At each point of the circular motion, the velocity will be tangential. If the string breaks suddenly the
stone moves in the tangential direction according to Newton’s first law of motion.
23. Explain why

(a) a horse cannot pull a cart and run in empty space,
(b) passengers are thrown forward from their seats when a speeding bus stops suddenly,
(c) it is easier to pull a lawnmower than to push it,
(d) a cricketer moves his hands backwards while holding a catch.
Solution:
1. The horse pushes the ground with a certain force when it pulls the cart. By applying the third law of
motion, the ground will exert an equal and opposite reaction force upon the feet of the horse. This causes
the horse to move forward. In empty space, the horse will not experience a reaction force. Therefore, the
horse cannot pull the cart in empty space.
2. Due to inertia of motion. When a bus stops all of a sudden, the lower part of a person’s body that is in
contact with the seat comes to rest suddenly but the upper part will continue to be in motion. As a result, the
person’s upper half of the body is thrown forward in the direction of the motion of the bus.
3. When the lawnmower is pulled, the vertical component of the applied force acts upwards. This reduces
the effective weight of the lawnmower. When the lawn mower is pushed, the vertical component acts in the
Laws of Motion
direction of the weight of the mower. Therefore, there is an increase in the weight of the mower. So, it is
easier to pull a lawnmower than to push it.
4. When the batsman hits the ball, the ball will have a large momentum. When he moves his hands
backwards the time of impact is increased contact, so the force is reduced.
24. Figure shows the position-time graph of a particle of mass 0.04 kg. Suggest a suitable
physical context for this motion. What is the time between two consecutive impulses received
by the particle? What is the magnitude of each impulse?
Solution:
This graph could be of a ball rebounding between two walls separated by a distance of 2 cm. The ball
rebounds between the walls every 2 seconds with a uniform velocity.
Velocity = displacement/ time = (2 x 10-2)/2 = 0.01 m/s
Initial momentum = mu = 0.04 x 0.01 = 4 x 10-4 kgm/s
Final momentum = mv = 0.04 x (-0.01) = – 4 x 10-4 kgm/s
Magnitude of impulse = Change in momentum
= (4 x 10-4 )-(- 4 x 10-4) = 8 x 10-4 kgm/s
The time between two consecutive impulses is 2 sec, so the ball receives an impulse every 2 seconds.
25. Figure shows a man standing stationary with respect to a horizontal conveyor belt that is
accelerating with 1 ms-2. What is the net force on the man? If the coefficient of static friction,
Laws of Motion
between the man’s shoes and the belt is 0.2, up to what acceleration of the belt can the man
continue to be stationary relative to the belt? (Mass of the man = 65 kg.)
Solution:
Here acceleration of conveyor belt a = 1 ms-2,
Coefficient of static friction, μs= 0.2
mass of man, m = 65 kg
Net Force = ma = 65 x 1 = 65N
This net force is due to the friction between the belt and the man
Maximum static friction = μs N
Beyond that, the man starts moving relative to the belt as per the pseudo force
At maximum static friction
μs N = μs .mg = mamax
amax= μs g = 0.2 x 10 = 2 m/s2
26. A stone of mass m tied to the end of a string is revolving in a vertical circle of radius R. The
net force at the lowest and highest points of the circle directed vertically downwards are:
(choose the correct alternative).
Laws of Motion
T1 and v1 denote the tension and speed at the lowest point. T2 and v2 denote corresponding
values at the highest point.
Solution:
(a)
The net force at the lowest point is (mg – T1) and the net force at the highest point is (mg + T2).
Therefore option (a) is correct.
Since mg and T1 are in mutually opposite directions at the lowest point and mg and T2 are in the same
direction at the highest point.
27. A helicopter of mass 1000 kg rises with a vertical acceleration of 15 ms-2. The crew and the
passengers weigh 300 kg. Give the magnitude and direction of
(a) force on the floor by the crew and passengers,
(b) the action of the rotor of the helicopter on surrounding air
(c) force on the helicopter due to the surrounding air
Solution:
Mass of helicopter = 1000 kg
Crew and passengers weight = 300 kg
Vertical acceleration, a = 15 ms-2 and g = 10 ms-2
The total mass of the system, mi = 1000 + 300 = 1300 Kg
(a)Force on the floor of the helicopter by the crew and passengers
R – mg = ma
= m (g+a)
= m (g + a) = 300 (10 + 15) N = 7500 N
(b)Action of the rotor of the helicopter on surrounding air is due to the mass of the helicopter and the
passengers.
R’ – mig = mia
R’ = mi (g+a)
= 1300 x (10 + 15) = 32500 N
Laws of Motion
This force acts vertically downwards

(c)Force on the helicopter due to the surrounding air is the reaction of the force applied by the rotor on
the air. As action and reaction are equal and opposite, therefore, the force of reaction, F = 32500 N.
This force acts vertically upwards.
28. A stream of water flowing horizontally with a speed of 15 m/s pushes out of a tube of cross-
sectional area 10-2 m2 and hits at a vertical wall nearby. What is the force exerted on the wall by
the impact of water, assuming that it does not rebound?
Solution:
Speed of water flowing, v= 15 m/s
Cross-sectional area of the tube, A= 10-2 m2
In one second, the distance travelled is equal to the velocity v
Density of water, ρ = 1000 kgm-3
Mass of water hitting the wall per second = ρ x A x v
= 1000 kgm-3 x 10-2 m2 x 15 m/s = 150 kg/s
Force exerted on the wall because of the impact of water = momentum loss of water per second
= Mass x velocity
= 150 kg/s x 15 m/s = 2250 N
29. Ten one rupee coins are put on top of one another on a table. Each coin has a mass of m kg.
Give the magnitude and direction of
(a) the force on the 7th coin (counted from the bottom) due to all coins above it.
(b) the force on the 7th coin by the eighth coin and
(c) the reaction of the sixth coin on the seventh coin.
Solution:
(a) The force on the 7th coin is due to the weight of the three coins kept above it.
Weight of one coin is mg. So the weight of three coins is 3mg
Force exerted on the 7th coin is (3mg)N and the force acts vertically downwards.
(b) The eighth coin is already under the weight of two coins above it and it has its own weight too.
Hence the force on the 7th coin due to the 8th coin will be the same as the force on the 7th coin by the
three coins above it.
Therefore, the force on the 7th coin by the 8th coin is (3mg)N and the force act vertically downwards.
(c) The sixth coin is under the weight of four coins above it and experiences a downward force due to
the four coins.
The total downward force on the 6th coin is 4mg
Laws of Motion
Applying Newton’s third law of motion, the 6th coin will exert a reaction force upwards. Therefore, the
force exerted by the 6th coin on the 7th coin is equal to 4mg and acts in the upward direction.
30. An aircraft executes a horizontal loop at a speed of 720 km/h with its wings banked at 15°.
What is the radius of the loop?
Solution:
The speed of the aircraft executing the horizontal loop = 720 km/h = 720 x (5/18) = 200 m/s
The angle of banking = 15°
tanθ= v2/rg , we have
r = v2/gtanθ = (200 x 200)/(10 x tan 150) = (200 x 200)/ (10 x 0.2679)= 14931 m
31. A train runs along an unbanked circular track of radius of 30 m at a speed of 54 km/h. The
mass of the train is 106 kg. What provides the centripetal force required for this purpose the
engine or the rails? What is the angle of banking required to prevent wearing out of the rail?
Solution:
Radius of the track = 30 m
Velocity of the train = 54 km/h = 54 x (5/18) = 15 m/s
Mass of the train = 106kg
The required centripetal force is provided by the force of lateral friction due to the rails on the wheels of
the train
The angle of banking required to prevent wearing out of the rails
tanθ= v2/rg = (15 x 15)/ (30 x 10) = 0.75
θ = tan-1 (0.75) = 370
32. A block of mass 25 kg is raised by a 50 kg man in two different ways as shown in Fig. What
is the action on the floor by the man in the two cases? If the floor yields to a normal force of 700
N, which mode should the man adopt to lift the block without the floor yielding?
Laws of Motion
Solution:
Mass of the block = 25 kg
Mass of the man = 50 kg
Acceleration due to gravity = 10 m/s2
Weight of the block, F = 25 x 10 = 250 N
Weight of the man, W = 50 x 10 = 500 N
In the 1st case, the man lifts the block directly by applying an upward force of 250 N (same as the
weight of the block)
According to Newton’s third law of motion, there will be a downward reaction on the floor. The action on
the floor by the man.
= 500 N + 250 N = 750 N.
In the 2nd case, the man applies a downward force of 25 kg wt. According to Newton’s third law of
motion, the reaction is in the upward direction.
In this case, action on the floor by the man
Laws of Motion
= 500 N – 250 N= 250 N.

Therefore, man should adopt the second method.
33. A monkey of mass 40 kg climbs on a rope (Fig.) which can stand a maximum tension of 600
N. In which of the following cases will the rope break: the monkey
(a) climbs up with an acceleration of 6 ms-2
(b) climbs down with an acceleration of 4 ms-2
(c) climbs up with a uniform speed of 5 ms-1
(d) falls down the rope nearly freely under gravity?
(Ignore the mass of the rope).
Solution:
Mass of the monkey = 40 kg
Maximum tension the rope can withstand, Tmax= 600 N
(a) When the monkey climbs up with an acceleration of 6m/s2,
Tension T – mg = ma
T = m (g+a)
T = 40 (10 + 6)
= 640 N
Since T > Tmax, the rope will break
(b) When the monkey climbs down with the acceleration of 4m/s2
Laws of Motion
mg – T = ma
T = mg – ma = m (g – a)
= 40 (10 – 4) = 240 N
Since T ＜Tmax, the rope will not break
(c) When the monkey climbs with a uniform speed 5m/s. The acceleration will be zero. The equation of
motion is
T – mg = ma
T – mg = 0
T = mg = 40 x 10 = 400 N
(d) When the monkey falls freely, the acceleration of the monkey will be equal to the acceleration due to
gravity
The equation of motion is written as
mg + T = mg
T = m(g-g) = 0
34. Two bodies A and B of masses 5 kg and 10 kg in contact with each other rest on a table
against a rigid wall (Fig.). The coefficient of friction between the bodies and the table is 0.15. A
force of 200 N is applied horizontally to A. What are (a) the reaction of the partition (b) the
action-reaction forces between A and B? What happens when the wall is removed? Does the
solution to (b) change, when the bodies are in motion? Ignore the difference between μs and μk.
Laws of Motion
Solution:
Mass of the body, mA = 5 Kg
Mass of the body, mB = 10 kg
Applied Force = 200 N
Coefficient of friction between the bodies and the table μs = 0.15
(a) The force of friction is given by the relation:
fs = μ(mA + mB)g
= 0.15 (5 + 10) x 10
= 1.5 x 15 = 22.5 N, towards left
Therefore, the net force on the partition is 200 – 22.5 = 177. 5 N rightward
According to Newton’s third law, action and reaction are in the opposite direction
Therefore, the reaction of the partition will be 177.5 N, in the leftward direction
(b) Force of friction on mass A
FA = μmAg
= 0.15 x 5 x 10 = 7.5 N leftward
The net force exerted by mass A on mass B = 200 – 7.5 = 192.5 N rightwards
An equal amount of reaction force will be applied on mass A by B, i.e., 192.5 N acting leftward
When the wall is removed, the two bodies move in the direction of the applied force
The net force acting on the moving system = 177. 5 N
The equation of motion for the system of acceleration a, can be written as
Net force = (mA + mB) a
a = Net force/ (mA + mB)
= 177.5/ (5 + 10) = 177. 5/15 = 11. 83 m/s2
Net force causing mass A to move
FA = mA a = 5 x 11.83 = 59. 15 N
Net force exerted by the mass A on mass B= 192.5 – 59.15= 133. 35 N
This force acts in the direction of motion. As per Newton’s third law of motion, an equal amount of force
will be exerted by mass B on mass A, i.e., 133.3N, acting opposite to the direction of motion.
35. A block of mass 15 kg is placed on a long trolley. The coefficient of static friction between
the block and the trolley is 0.18. The trolley accelerates from rest with 0.5 ms-2 for 20 s and then
moves with uniform velocity. Discuss the motion of the block as viewed by (a) a stationary
observer on the ground, (b) an observer moving with the trolley.
Laws of Motion
Solution:
Mass of the block = 15 kg
Coefficient of static friction between the block and the trolley, p= 0.18
Acceleration of the trolley = 0.5 m/s2
(a) Force experienced by block, F = ma = 15 x 0.5 = 7.5 N, this force acts in the direction of motion of
the trolley
Force of friction, Ff= p mg = 0.18 x 15 x 10 = 27 N
Force experienced by the block will be less than the friction. So the block will not move. So, for a
stationary observer on the ground, the block will be stationary.
(b) The observer moving with the trolley has an accelerated motion. He forms a non-inertial frame in
which Newton’s laws of motion are not applicable. The trolley will be at rest for the observer moving
with the trolley
36. The rear side of a truck is open and a box of 40 kg mass is placed 5 m away from the open
end as shown in Fig. The coefficient of friction between the box and the surface below it is 0.15.
On a straight road, the truck starts from rest and accelerates with 2 ms-2. At what distance from
the starting point does the box fall off the truck? (Ignore the size of the box).
Solution:
Force experienced by box, F = ma = 40 x 2 = 80 N
Frictional force Ff = μmg = 0.15 x 40 x 10 = 60 N
Net force = F – Ff = 80 – 60 = 20 N
Backward acceleration produced in the box, a =20/40(Net Force/m)
a = 0.5 ms-2
Laws of Motion
If t is time taken by the box to travel s =5 metre and fall off the truck then from
S = ut + 1/2 at2
5 = 0 x t + (½) x 0.5 t2
t= √(5×2/0.5) = 4.47 s
If the truck travel a distance x during this time, then again from
S = ut + 1/2 at2
x = 0 x 4.47 + (½) x 2(4.47)2 = 19.98 m
37. A disc revolves with a speed of 33⅓ rpm and has a radius of 15 cm. Two coins are placed at
4 cm and 14 cm away from the centre of the record. If the coefficient of friction between the
coins and record is 0.15, which of the coins will revolve with the record?
Solution:
Speed of revolution of the disc = 33 ⅓ rpm= 100/3 rpm= 100/ (3 x 60) rps = 5/9 rps
ω = 2πv = 2 x (22/7)x (5/9) = 220/63 rad/s
The coins revolve with the disc, the centripetal force is provided by the frictional force mv2/r ≤ μmg ——
– (1)
As v = rω, equation (1) becomes mrω2/r ≤ μmg
r ≤ μg/ω2 = (0.15 x 10)/(220/63)2 = 12 cm
For coin A, r = 4 cm
The condition (r≤ 12) is satisfied for coin placed at 4cm, so coin A will revolve with the disc
For coin B, r = 14 cm
The condition (r≤ 12) is not satisfied for the coin placed at 14cm, so coin B will not revolve with the disc.
38. You may have seen in a circus a motorcyclist driving in vertical loops inside a ‘death well’ (a
hollow spherical chamber with holes, so the spectators can watch from outside). Explain clearly
why the motorcyclist does not drop down when he is at the uppermost point, with no support
from below. What is the minimum speed required at the uppermost position to perform a
vertical loop if the radius of the chamber is 25 m?
Solution:
When the motorcyclist is at the uppermost point of the death-well, the normal reaction R on the
motorcyclist by the ceiling of the chamber acts downwards. His weight mg also acts downwards. The
outward centrifugal force acting on the motorcyclist is balanced by these two forces.
R + mg = mv2/r ——— (1)
Here, v is the velocity of the motorcyclist
m is the mass of the motorcyclist and the motorcycle
Laws of Motion
Because of the balance between the forces, the motorcyclist does not fall
The minimum speed required at the uppermost position to perform a vertical loop is given by the
equation (1) when R = 0
mg = mv2min/r
V2min = gr
Vmin = √10 x 25 = 15.8 m/s
39. A 70 kg man stands in contact against the inner wall of a hollow cylindrical drum of radius 3
m rotating about its vertical axis with 200 rev/min. The coefficient of friction between the wall
and his clothing is 0.15. What is the minimum rotational speed of the cylinder to enable the man
to remain stuck to the wall (without falling) when the floor is suddenly removed?
Solution:
Mass of the man, m = 70 kg

Radius of the drum, r = 3 m
Coefficient of friction between the wall and his clothing, μ = 0.15
Number of revolution of hollow cylindrical drum = 200 rev/min= 200/60 = 10/3 rev/s
The centripetal force required is provided by the normal N of the wall on the man
N = mv2/R = mω2R
Laws of Motion
When the floor revolves, the man sticks to the wall of the drum. Hence, the weight of the man (mg)
acting downward is balanced by the frictional force acting vertically upwards.
The man will not fall if mg ≤ limiting frictional force fe (μN)
mg ≤ μN
mg ≤ μ (mω2R)
ω2 ≥ g/Rμ
Therefore, for minimum rotational speed of the cylinder
ω2 = g/Rμ = 10/(0.15 x 3) = 22. 2
ω =√22.2 = 4.7 rad/s
40. A thin circular loop of radius R rotates about its vertical diameter with an angular frequency
ω. Show that a small bead on the wire loop remains at its lowermost point for ω ≤ √g / R . What
is the angle made by the radius vector joining the centre to the bead with the vertically
downward direction for ω = √2g/ R? Neglect friction.
Solution:
Let θ be the angle made by the radius vector joining the bead and the centre of the wire with the
downward direction. Let, N be the normal reaction
Laws of Motion
mg = N cosθ —–(1)
mrω2 = N sinθ —– (2)
(or) m (Rsinθ) ω2 = Nsinθ
mRω2 = N
Substituting the value of N in (1)
mg = mRω2cosθ
(or) cos θ = g/Rω2 ———(3)
As l cosθ I ≤ 1 the bead will remain at the lowermost point
g/Rω2≤ 1 or ω ≤ √g/R
For ω = √2g/ R , equation (3) becomes
cos θ = g/Rω2
cos θ = (g/R) (R/2g) = ½
θ = 600
Work, Energy and Power
Q.1.The sign of work done by a force on a body is important to understand. State carefully if the
following quantities are positive or negative:
(a) work done by a man in lifting a bucket out of a well by means of a rope tied to the bucket.
(b) work done by the gravitational force in the above case,
(c) work done by friction on a body sliding down an inclined plane,
(d) work done by an applied force on a body moving on a rough horizontal plane with uniform
velocity,
(e) work done by the resistive force of air on a vibrating pendulum in bringing it to rest
Solution:
(a) It is clear that the direction of both the force and the displacement are the same and thus the work
done on it is positive.
(b) It can be noted that the displacement of the object is in an upward direction whereas, the force due
to gravity is in a downward direction. Hence, the work done is negative.
(c) It can be observed that the direction of motion of the object is opposite to the direction of the
frictional force. So, the work done is negative.
(d) The object which is moving in a rough horizontal plane faces the frictional force which is opposite to
the direction of the motion. To maintain a uniform velocity, a uniform force is applied on the object. So,
the motion of the object and the applied force are in the same direction. Thus, the work done is positive.
(e) It is noted that the direction of the bob and the resistive force of air which is acting on it are in
opposite directions. Thus, the work done is negative.
Q.2. A body of mass 2 kg initially at rest moves under the action of an applied horizontal force
of 7 N on a table with the coefficient of kinetic friction = 0.1. Compute the
(a) work done by the applied force in 10 s,
(b) work done by friction in 10 s,
(c) work done by the net force on the body in 10 s,
(d) change in kinetic energy of the body in 10 s,
Solution:
The mass of the body = 2 kg
Horizontal force applied = 7 N
Coefficient of kinetic friction = 0.1
Acceleration produced by the applied force, a1= F/m = 7/2 = 3.5 m/s2
Force of friction, f = μR = μmg = 0.1 x 2 x 9.8
Retardation produced by friction, a2 = -f/m = -196/2 = -0.98
Net acceleration with which the body moves
a = a1 + a2 = 3.5 – 9.8 = 2.5
Distance moved by the body in 10 seconds,
s = ut + (1/2)at2 = 0 + (1/2) x 2.52 x (10)2= 126 m
(a) The time at which work has to be determined is t = 10 s

Work = Force x displacement
= 7 x 126 = 882 J
(b) Work done by the friction in 10 s
W = -f x s = -1.96 x 126
(c) Work done by the net force in 10 s
W = (F – f)s = (7 – 1.96) 126 = 635 J
(d) From v = u + at
v = 0 + 2.52 x 10 = 25.2 m/s
Final Kinetic Energy = (1/2) mv2 = (1/2) x 2 x (25.2)2 = 635 J
Initial Kinetic Energy= (1/2) mu2 = 0
Change in Kinetic energy = 635 – 0 = 635 J
The work done by the net force is equal to the final kinetic energy
Q. 3. Given in Figure, are examples of some potential energy functions in one dimension. The
total energy of the particle is indicated by a cross on the ordinate axis. In each case, specify
the regions, if any, in which the particle cannot be found for the given energy. Also, indicate the
minimum total energy the particle must have in each case. Think of simple physical contexts for
which these potential energy shapes are relevant.
Solution:
The total energy is given by E = K.E. + P.E.
K.E. = E – P.E.
Kinetic energy can never be negative. The particle cannot exist in the region, where K.E. would become
negative.
(a) For the region x = 0 and x = a, potential energy is zero. So, kinetic energy is positive. For, x > a, the
potential energy has a value greater than E. So, kinetic energy becomes zero. Thus the particle will not
exist in the region x > a.
The minimum total energy that the particle can have in this case is zero.
(b) For the entire x-axis, P.E. > E, the kinetic energy of the object would be negative. Thus the particle
will not exist in this region.
(c) Here x = 0 to x = a and x > b, the P.E. is greater than E, so the kinetic energy is negative. The
object cannot exist in this region.
(d) For x = -b/2 to x =-a/2 and x = a/2 to x = b/2. Kinetic energy is positive and the P.E. < E. The particle
is present in this region.
Q.4. The potential energy function for a particle executing linear simple harmonic motion is
given by V(x) = kx2/2, where k is the force constant of the oscillator. For k = 0.5 N m-1, the graph
of V(x) versus x is shown in Fig. 6.12. Show that a particle of total energy 1 J moving under this
potential must ‘turn back’ when it reaches x = ± 2 m.
Solution:
Q.5. Answer the following:

(a) The casing of a rocket in flight burns up due to friction. At whose expense is the heat energy
required for burning obtained? The rocket or the atmosphere?
(b) Comets move around the sun in highly elliptical orbits. The gravitational force on the comet
due to the sun is not normal to the comet’s velocity in general. Yet the work done by the
gravitational force over every complete orbit of the comet is zero. Why?
(c) An artificial satellite orbiting the earth in a very thin atmosphere loses its energy
gradually due to dissipation against atmospheric resistance, however small. Why
then does its speed increase progressively as it comes closer and closer to the earth?
(d) In Fig. 6.13(i) the man walks 2 m carrying a mass of 15 kg on his hands. In Fig., he walks the
same distance pulling the rope behind him. The rope goes over a pulley, and a mass of 15 kg
hangs at its other end. In which case is the work done greater?
Solution:
(a) When the casing burns up due to the friction, the rocket’s mass gets reduced.
As per the law of conservation of energy:
Total energy = kinetic energy + potential energy
There will be a drop in total energy due to the reduction in the mass of the rocket. Hence, the energy
which is needed for the burning of the casing is obtained from the rocket.
(b) The force due to gravity is a conservative force. The work done on a closed path by the
conservative force is zero. Hence, for every complete orbit of the comet, the work done by the
gravitational force is zero.
(c) The potential energy of the satellite revolving the Earth decreases as it approaches the Earth and
since the system’s total energy should remain constant, the kinetic energy increases. Thus, the
satellite’s velocity increases. In spite of this, the total energy of the system is reduced by a fraction due
to the atmospheric friction.
(d)
Q.6. Underline the correct alternative:

(a) When a conservative force does positive work on a body, the potential energy of
the body increases/decreases/remains unaltered.
(b) Work done by a body against friction always results in a loss of its kinetic/potential energy.
(c) The rate of change of total momentum of a many-particle system is proportional
to the external force/sum of the internal forces on the system
(d) In an inelastic collision of two bodies, the quantities which do not change after the collision
is the total kinetic energy/total linear momentum/total energy of the system of two bodies.
Solution:
(a) Decreases
When a body is displaced in the direction of the force, positive work is done on the body by the
conservative force due to which the body moves to the centre of force. Thus, the separation between
the two decreases and the potential energy of the body decreases.
(b) Kinetic energy
The velocity of the body is reduced when the work done is in the direction opposite to that of friction.
Thus, the kinetic energy decreases.
(c) External force
Change in momentum cannot be produced by internal forces, irrespective of their directions. Thus, the
change in total momentum is proportional to the external force on the system.
(d) Total linear momentum
Irrespective of elastic collision or an inelastic collision, the total linear momentum remains the same.
Q.7. State if each of the following statements is true or false. Give reasons for your answer
(a) In an elastic collision of two bodies, the momentum and energy of each body is
conserved.
(b) The total energy of a system is always conserved, no matter what internal and external
forces on the body are present.
(c) Work done in the motion of a body over a closed loop is zero for every force in
nature.
(d) In an inelastic collision, the final kinetic energy is always less than the initial kinetic energy
of the system.
Solution:
(a) False
The momentum and the energy of both the bodies are conserved and not individually.
(b) False.
The external forces on the system can do work on the body and are able to change the energy of the
system.
(c) False.
The work done by the conservative force on the moving body in a closed loop is zero.
(d) True
Q.8. Answer carefully, with reasons :

(a) In an elastic collision of two billiard balls, is the total kinetic energy conserved during the
short time of collision of the balls (i.e. when they are in contact)?
(b) Is the total linear momentum conserved during the short time of an elastic collision of two
balls?
(c) What are the answers to (a) and (b) for an inelastic collision?
(d) If the potential energy of two billiard balls depends only on the separation distance between
their centres, is the collision elastic or inelastic? (Note, we are talking here of potential energy
corresponding to the force during a collision, not gravitational potential energy).
Solution:
(a) The initial and the final kinetic energy is equal in an elastic collision. When the two balls collide,
there is no conservation of kinetic energy. It gets converted into potential energy.
(b) The total linear momentum of the system is conserved in an elastic collision.
(c) There will be a loss of kinetic energy in an inelastic collision. The K.E after the collision is always
less than the K.E before the collision.
The total linear momentum of the system is conserved in an inelastic collision also.
(d) It is an elastic collision as the forces involved are conservative forces. It depends on the distance
between the centres of the billiard balls.
Q.9. A body is initially at rest. It undergoes one-dimensional motion with constant acceleration.
The power delivered to it at time t is proportional to
Solution:
Q.10. A body is moving unidirectionally under the influence of a source of constant power. Its
displacement in time t is proportional to
Solution:
Q. 11. A body constrained to move along the z-axis of a coordinate system is subject to a
constant force F given by
where i, j, k, are unit vectors along the x- y- and z-axis of the system respectively. What is the
work done by this force in moving the body at a distance of 4 m along the z-axis?
Solution:
Q.12. An electron and a proton are detected in a cosmic ray experiment, the first with kinetic
energy 10 keV, and the second with 100 keV. Which is faster, the electron or the proton? Obtain
the ratio of their speeds. (electron mass = 9.11×10-31 kg, proton mass = 1.67×10-27 kg, 1 eV = 1.60
×10-19 J)
Solution:
Q. 13. A raindrop of radius 2 mm falls from a height of 500 m above the ground. It falls with
decreasing acceleration (due to viscous resistance of the air) until at half its original height, it
attains its maximum (terminal) speed, and moves with uniform speed thereafter. What is the
work done by the gravitational force on the drop in the first and second half of its journey?
What is the work done by the resistive force in the entire journey if its speed on reaching the
ground is 10 ms-1?
Solution:
Radius of the drop = 2 mm = 2 x 10-3 m.
Height from which the raindrops fall, S=500 m.
The density of water, ρ= 103 kg/ m3

Mass of rain drop = volume of drop x density
m =(4/3)π r3x ρ =(4/3) x (22/7)x (2 x 10-3)3 x 103 = 3.35 x 10-5 kg
The gravitational force experienced by the rain drop
F = mg
= (4/3) x (22/7)x (2 x 10-3)3 x 103 x 9.8 N
The work done by gravity on the drop is
W = mg x s = 3.35 x 10-5 x 9.8 x 250 = 0.082 J
The work done on the drop in the second half of the journey will remain the same.
The total energy of the raindrop will be conserved during the motion
Total energy at the top
E1= mgh = 3.35 x 10-5 x 9.8 x 500 = 0.164 J
Due to resistive forces, energy of drop on reaching the ground.
E2 = 1/2mv2 = 1/2 x (10)2 = 1.675 x 10-3J
Work done by the resistive forces, W =E1 – E2 = 0.164 – 1.675 x 10-3 W
= 0.1623 joule.
Q.14. A molecule in a gas container hits a horizontal wall with speed 200 m s–1 and angle 30°
with the normal, and rebounds with the same speed. Is momentum conserved in the collision?
Is the collision elastic or inelastic?
Solution:
Momentum is always conserved for a elastic or inelastic collision.
The molecule approaches and rebounds with the same speed of 200 m/s.
u = v = 200 m s–1
Therefore, Initial kinetic energy = (1/2) mu2 = (1/2)m(200)2
Final kinetic energy = (1/2) mv2 = (1/2)m(200)2
Therefore, kinetic energy is also conserved
Q.15. A pump on the ground floor of a building can pump up water to fill a tank of volume 30
m3 in 15 min. If the tank is 40 m above the ground, and the efficiency of the pump is 30%, how
much electric power is consumed by the pump?
Solution:
Volume of the tank= 30 m3
time taken to fill the tank= 15 min = 15 x 60 = 900s
height of the tank above the ground, h = 40 m
Efficiency of the pump, η= 30%

Density of water, ρ= 103 kg m-3
Mass of water pumped, m = volume x density = 30 x 103 kg
Power consumed or output power p0utput = W/t = mgh/t
=(30 x 103 x 9.8 x 40)/900=13066 watt
Efficiency, η = Poutput/Pinput
Pinput = Poutput/η = 13066/(30/100) = 1306600/30
= 43553 W = 43.6 kW
Q. 16. Two identical ball bearings in contact with each other and resting on a frictionless table is
hit head-on by another ball bearing of the same mass moving initially with a speed V. If the
collision is elastic, which of the following figure is a possible result after collision?
Solution:
The mass of the ball bearing is m
Before the collision, Total K.E. of the system
=1/2mv2 + 0 =1/2 mv2
After the collision, Total K.E. of the system is
Case I, E1 = (1/2) (2m) (v/2)2 = 1/4 mv2
Case II, E2 = (1/2) mv2
Case III, E3 = (1/2) (3m) (v/3)2 =3mv2/18= 1/6mv2

Thus, case II is the only possibility since K.E. is conserved in this case.
Q.17. A ball A which is at an angle 300 to the vertical is released and it hits a ball B of same mass
which is at rest. Does the ball A rises after collision? The collision is an elastic collision.
Solution:
In an elastic collision when the ball A hits the ball B which is stationary, the ball B acquires the velocity
of the ball A while the ball A comes to rest immediately after the collision. There is a transfer of
momentum to the moving body from the stationary body. Thus, the ball A comes to rest after collision
and ball B moves with the velocity of ball A.
Q.18. The bob of a pendulum is released from a horizontal position. If the length of the
pendulum is 1.5 m, what is the speed with which the bob arrives at the lowermost point, given
that it dissipated 5% of its initial energy against air resistance?
Solution:
Length of the pendulum, l= 1.5 m
Potential of the bob at the horizontal position = mgh = mgl
The initial energy dissipated against air resistance when the bob moves from the horizontal position to
the lowermost point= 5%
The total kinetic energy of the bob at the lowermost position = 95% of the total potential energy at the
horizontal position
(1/2) mv2 = (95/100) mgl
v2 =2 [(95/100) x 9.8 x 1.5]

v2 =2 (13.965) = 27.93
v = √27.93 = 5.28 m/s
Q.19. A trolley of mass 300 kg carrying a sandbag of 25 kg is moving uniformly with a speed of
27 km/h on a frictionless track. After a while, the sand starts leaking out of a hole on the floor of
the trolley at the rate of 0.05 kg s–1. What is the speed of the trolley after the entire sandbag is
empty?
Solution:
The sandbag is placed in the trolley that moves with a uniform velocity of 27 km/h. There is no external
force acting system. Even if the sand starts leaking out of the bag there will not be any external force
acting on the system. So, the speed of the trolley will not change. It will be equal to 27 km/h.
Q.20. A body of mass 0.5 kg travels in a straight line with velocity v =ax 3/2 where a = 5 m–1/2 s–1.
What is the work done by the net force during its displacement from x = 0 to x = 2 m?
Solution:
Mass of the body, m = 0.5 kg
Velocity of the body, v=ax3/2
here, a = 5 m-1/2 s-1.
Initial velocity at x = 0, v1 = a x 0 = 0
Final velocity at x = 2, v2 = a (2)3/2 = 5 x (2)3/2
Work done by the system= increase in K.E of the body
= 1/2 m(v22-v12) = 1/2 x 0.5 [(5 x (2)3/2)2 – 0]
= (1/2) x 0.5 x (25 x 8) = 50 J
Q.21. The windmill sweeps a circle of area A with their blades. If the velocity of the wind is
perpendicular to the circle, find the air passing through it in time t and also the kinetic energy of
the air. 25 % of the wind energy is converted into electrical energy and v = 36 km/h, A = 30
m2 and the density of the air is 1.2 kg m-3. What is the electrical power produced?
Solution:
Q. 22. A person trying to lose weight (dieter) lifts a 10 kg mass, one thousand times, to a height
of 0.5 m each time. Assume that the potential energy lost each time she lowers the mass is
dissipated. (a) How much work does she do against the gravitational force? (b) Fat supplies 3.8
× 107J of energy per kilogram which is converted to mechanical energy with a 20% efficiency
rate. How much fat will the dieter use up?
Solution:
Mass, m = 10 kg
Height to which the mass is lifted, h = 0.5 m

Number of times, n = 1000
(a) Work done against gravitational force.
W = n(mgh) = 1000 x (10 x 9.8 x 0.5) = 49000J.
(b) Mechanical energy supplied by 1 kg of fat = 3.8 x 107 x 20/100 = 0.76 x107 J/kg
Therefore, fat used up by the dieter ={1/(0.76 x 107)} x 49000 = 49000/(0.76 x 107) = 6.45 x 10-3 kg
Q.23. A family uses 8 kW of power. (a) Direct solar energy is incident on the horizontal surface
at an average rate of 200 W per square meter. If 20% of this energy can be converted to useful
electrical energy, how large an area is needed to supply 8 kW?
(b) Compare this area to that of the roof of a typical house.
Solution:
(a) Power used by family, p = 8 KW = 8000 W
Solar energy received per square metre = 200 W/m2
Percentage of energy converted to useful electrical energy = 20%
As solar energy is incident at a rate of 200 Wm-2
The area required to generate the desired energy is A
Useful electrical energy produced per second
= (20/100) A x 200 = 8000
A= 4000 W/200 Wm-2 =200 m2
(b) The area needed is comparable to the roof of a large house of dimension 14m × 14m
Q.24. A bullet of mass 0.012 kg and horizontal speed 70 m s–1 strikes a block of wood of mass
0.4 kg and instantly comes to rest with respect to the block. The block is suspended from the
ceiling by means of thin wires. Calculate the height to which the block rises. Also, estimate the
amount of heat produced in the block.
Solution:
Mass of the bullet, m1= 0.012 kg
Initial speed of the bullet, u1 =70 m/s
Mass of the wooden block, m2= 0.4 kg
Initial speed of the wooden block, u2=0
Final speed of the system of the bullet and the block = v m/s
Applying the law of conservation of momentum:
m1u1+m2u2 =(m1+m2)v
(0.012×70)+(0.4×0)=(0.012+0.4)v
v=0.84/0.412
=2.04 m/s
Let h be the height to which the block rises
Applying the law of conservation of energy to this system:

Potential energy of the combination = Kinetic energy of the combination
(m1 + m2) gh = (1/2) (m1 + m2) v2
h= v2/2g
= (2.04)2/2×9.8
=0.212m
The wooden block will rise to a height of 0.212m
The heat produced = Initial kinetic energy of the bullet – final kinetic energy of the combination
=(1/2)m1u12 −(1/2)(m1 + m2)v2
=(1/2)×0.012×(70)2 −(1/2)×(0.012 + 0.4)×(2.04)2
=29.4−0.857=28.54J
Q. 25. Two inclined frictionless tracks, one gradual and the other steep meet at A from where
two stones are allowed to slide down from rest, one on each track Fig. Will the stones reach the
bottom at the same time? Will they reach there with the same speed? Explain. Given θ1 = 300,
θ2 = 600, and h = 10 m, what are the speeds and times taken by the two stones?
Solution:
In the figure, the sides AB and AC are inclined to the horizontal at ∠θ1 and ∠θ2 respectively.
According to law of conservation of mechanical energy,
PE at the top =KE at the bottom
∴mgh=(1/2)mv12——(1)
and mgh= (1/2)mv22—–(2)

Since the height of both the sides is the same, therefore, both the stones will reach the bottom at the
same speed.
From (1) and (2), we get v1 =v2
Hence both the stones will reach the bottom with the same speed.
For the stone 1
Net force acting on the stone is given by
F = ma1 = mg Sin θ1
a1 = g sin θ1
For stone 2
a2=g sinθ2
As θ2>θ1
Therefore, a2 >a1
From v=u+at=0+at
⇒t= v/a
For stone 1, t1= v/a1
For stone 2, t2= v/a2
As t∝1/a, and a2>a1
Therefore, t2<t1
Hence, stone 2 will reach faster than stone 1.
By applying the law of conservation of energy we get
mgh = (1/2) mv2
When the height, h = 10 m, the speed of the stones are
v = √2gh = √2 x 9.8 x 10 = 14 m/s
The time taken is given as
t1= v/a1 =v/g sin θ1 = 14/ (9.8 x sin 30) = 14/ (9.8 x 1/2) = 2.86 s
t2= v/a2 = v/g sin θ2= 14/ ((9.8 x sin 30) = 14/(9.8 x √3/2) = 1.65 s
Q. 26. A 1 kg block situated on a rough incline is connected to a spring of spring constant 100
N m–1 as shown in Fig. The block is released from rest with the spring in the unstretched
position. The block moves 10 cm down the incline before coming to rest. Find the coefficient of
friction between the block and the incline. Assume that the spring has a negligible mass and the
pulley is frictionless.
Solution:
Mass of the block, m = 1 kg
Spring constant, k = 100 N m–1
Displacement in the block, x = 10 cm = 0.1 m
At equilibrium:
Normal reaction, R = mg cos 37°
Frictional force, F= μ R = mg Sin 370
μ is the coefficient of friction
Net force acting on the block down the incline= mg sin 37° – F
= mgsin 37° – μmgcos 37°
= mg(sin 37° – μcos 37°)
At equilibrium
Work done = Potential energy of the stretched string
mg(sin 37° – μcos 37°) x = (1/2)kx2
1 × 10 x (sin 370 – μcos 37°) = (1/2) × 100 × (0.1)
10 (0.602 – μ (0.798) ) = (1/2) x 100 x 0.1
0.602 – μ(0.798)= 0.5
Therefore, μ = (0.602- 0.5)/0.798 = 0.102 /0.798 = 0.127
μ = 0.127
Q. 27. A bolt of mass 0.3 kg falls from the ceiling of an elevator moving down with a uniform
speed of 7 ms-1. It hits the floor of the elevator (length of elevator = 3 m) and does not rebound.
What is the heat produced by the impact? Would your answer be different if the elevator were
stationary?
Solution:
Mass of the bolt, m = 0.3 kg
Potential energy of the bolt = mgh = 0.3 x 9.8 x 3 = 8.82 J

The bolt does not rebound. So the whole of the potential energy gets converted to heat energy.
The heat produced will remain the same even if the lift is stationary, since the value of
acceleration due to gravity is the same in all inertial system.
Q.28. On a frictionless track, a trolley moves with a speed of 36 km/h with a mass of 200 Kg. A
child whose mass is 20 kg runs on the trolley with a speed of 4 m s1 from one end to other
which is 20 m. The speed is relative to the trolley in the direction opposite to its motion. Find the
final speed of the trolley and the distance the trolley moved from the time the child began to
run.
Solution:
Mass m = 200 Kg
Speed v = 36 km/h = 10 m/s
Mass of boy = 20 Kg
Initial momentum = (M + m)v
= (200 +20) x 10
= 2200 kg m/s
According to law of conservation of energy:

Initial momentum = final momentum
Que.29. Which of the following does not describe the elastic collision of two billiard balls?
Distance between the centres of the balls is r.
Solution:
(i), (ii), (iii), (iv) and (vi).
The potential energy of two masses in a system is inversely proportional to the distance between them.
The potential energy of the system of two balls will decrease as they get closer to each other. When the
balls touch each other, the potential energy becomes zero, i.e. at r = 2R. The potential energy curve in
(i), (ii), (iii), (iv) and (vi) do not satisfy these conditions. So, there is no elastic collision.
System of Particles and Rotational Motion
Q1. Give the location of the centre of mass of a (i) sphere, (ii) cylinder, (iii) ring, and (iv) cube,
each of uniform mass density. Does the centre of mass of a body necessarily lie inside the
body?
Solution:
All the given structures are symmetric bodies having a very uniform mass density. Thus, for all the
above bodies their center of mass will lie in their geometric centres.
It is not always necessary for a body’s center of mass to lie inside it, for example, the center of mass of
a circular ring is at its center.
Q2. In the HCl molecule, the separation between the nuclei of the two atoms is about 1.27 Å (1 Å
= 10-10 m). Find the approximate location of the CM of the molecule, given that a chlorine atom is
about 35.5 times as massive as a hydrogen atom and nearly all the mass of an atom is
concentrated in its nucleus.
Solution:
Given,
mass of hydrogen atom = 1 unit
mass of chlorine atom = 35.5 unit ( As a chlorine atom is 35.5 times the size )
Let the center of mass lie at a distance x from the chlorine atom
Thus, the distance of center of mass from the hydrogen atom = 1.27 – x
Assuming that the center of mass of HCL lies at the origin,
Hydrogen will lie on the left side of the origin and chlorine lie on the right side of the origin
x = (-m (1.27 -x) + 35.5mx)/(m + 35.5m) = 0
-m (1.27 – x) + 35.5mx = 0
-1.27+x+35.5x = 0
36.5x = 1.27
Therefore, x = (1.27)/36.5
= 0.035 Å
The center of mass lies at 0.035 Å from the chlorine atom.
Q3. A child sits stationary at one end of a long trolley moving uniformly with a speed V on a
smooth horizontal floor. If the child gets up and runs about on the trolley in any manner, what is
the speed of the CM of the (trolley + child) system?
Solution:
The child and the trolley constitute a single system and the child moving inside the trolley is a purely
internal motion. Since there is no external force on the system the velocity of the center of mass of the
system will not change.
Q4. Show that the area of the triangle contained between the vectors a and b is one half of the
magnitude of a × b
Solution:
Q5. Show that a.(b × c) is equal in magnitude to the volume of the parallelepiped formed on the
three vectors, a, b and c.
Solution:
Let the parallelepiped formed be:
Here,
Q6. Find the components along the x, y, z axes of the angular momentum l of a particle, whose
position vector is r with components x, y, z and momentum is p with components px, py and pz.
Show that if the particle moves only in the x-y plane the angular momentum has only a z-
component.
Solution:
From this we can conclude;

lX = ypZ – zpyy , lY = zpX – xpZ and lZ = xpY – ypX
If the body only moves in the x-y plane then z = pz = 0. Which means :
lX = lY = 0
And hence only lZ = xpY – ypX , which is just the z component of angular momentum.
Q7. Two particles, each of mass m and speed v, travel in opposite directions along parallel lines
separated by a distance d. Show that the angular momentum vector of the two-particle system
is the same whatever be the point about which the angular momentum is taken
Solution:
Let us consider three points be Z, C and X:
Angular momentum at Z,
LZ =mv x 0 + mv x d
=mvd——(1)
Angular momentum about x,
LX = mv x d + mv x 0
= mvd——(2)
Angular momentum about C,
LC = mv x y + mv x ( d – y ) = mvd——(3)
Thus we can see that ;
LZ = LX = LC
This proves that the angular momentum of a system does not depend on the point about which its
taken.
Q8. A 2m irregular plank weighing W kg is suspended in the manner shown below, by strings of
negligible weight. If the strings make an angle of 350 and 550 respectively with the vertical, find
the location of center of gravity of the plank from the left end.
Solution:
The free body diagram of the above figure is:
Given,
Length of the plank, l = 2 m
θ1 = 350 and θ2 =550

Let T1 and T2 be the tensions produced in the left and right strings respectively.
So at translational equilibrium we have;
T1sinθ1 = T2sinθ2
T1/ T2 = sinθ2 / sinθ1 = sin55 / sin35
T1/ T2 = 0.819 / 0.573 = 1.42
T1 = 1.42T2
Let ‘d’ be the distance of the center of gravity of the plank from the left.
For rotational equilibrium about the centre of gravity:
T1cos35 x d = T2 cos 55 (2 – d)
( T1/ T2 )x0.82d = (2 x 0.57 – 0.57d)
Substituting T1 = 1.42T2
1.42 x 0.82 d + 0.57 d = 1.14
1.73d = 1.14
Therefore d = 0.65m
Q9. A car weighs 1800 kg. The distance between its front and back axles is 1.8 m. Its centre of
gravity is 1.05 m behind the front axle. Determine the force exerted by the level ground on each
front wheel and each back wheel.
Solution:
Given,
Mass of the car, m= 1800 kg
Distance between the two axles, d = 1.8 m
Distance of the C.G. (centre of gravity) from the front axle = 1.05 m
The free body diagram of the car can be drawn as:
Let Rf and Rb be are the forces exerted by the level ground on the front and back wheels, respectively.
At translational equilibrium:
Rf + Rb = mg
= 1800 × 9.8
= 14700 N ...........(1)
For rotational equilibrium about the C.G., we have:
Rf (1.05) = Rb (1.8 – 1.05)
Rf/ Rb = 0.75/1.05 = 5/7
Rf = (5/7) Rb ............(2)
Using value of equation ( 2 ) in equation ( 1 ), we get:
(5/7) Rb + Rb= 14700
Rb = 10290 N
∴ Rf =(5/7) Rb = (5/7)10290 = 7350 N
Q10. (a) Find the moment of inertia of a sphere about a tangent to the sphere, given the moment
of inertia of the sphere about any of its diameters to be 2MR2/5, where M is the mass of the
sphere and R is the radius of the sphere.
(b) Given the moment of inertia of a disc of mass M and radius R about any of its diameters to
be MR2/4, find its moment of inertia about an axis normal to the disc and passing through a
point on its edge.
Solution:
Given,
(a) The moment of inertia (M.I.) of a sphere about its diameter = 2MR2/5
According to the theorem of parallel axes, M.I of a sphere about a tangent to the sphere = 2MR2/5
+ MR2 = (7MR2)/ 5
(b) Given, moment of inertia of a disc about its diameter = (MR2)1/ 4
( i )According to the theorem of perpendicular axis, the moment of inertia of a planar body (lamina)
about an axis passing through its center and perpendicular to the disc = 2 x (1/4)MR2 = MR2 / 2
The situation is shown in the given figure.

( ii ) Using the theorem of parallel axes:
Moment of inertia about an axis normal to the disc and going through a point on its circumference
= MR2 / 2 + MR2
= (3MR2)/ 2
Q11. Torques of equal magnitude are applied to a hollow cylinder and a solid sphere, both
having the same mass and radius. The cylinder is free to rotate about its standard axis of
symmetry, and the sphere is free to rotate about an axis passing through its centre. Which of
the two will acquire a greater angular speed after a given time?
Solution:
Let m be the mass and r be the radius of the solid sphere and also the hollow cylinder.
The moment of inertia of the hollow cylinder about its standard axis, I1 = MR2
Moment of inertia of the solid sphere about an axis passing through its centre,
I2 = (2MR2 ) / 5
Let T be the magnitude of the torque being exerted on the two structures, producing angular
accelerations of α2 and α1 in the sphere and the cylinder, respectively.
Thus we have, T = I1α1= I2α2
α2 > α1 . . . . . .( 1 )
Now, using the relation :
ω = ω0 + αt
Where,
ω0 = Initial angular velocity
t = Time of rotation
ω = Final angular velocity
For equal ω0 and t, we have:
ω∝α ....... .(2)
From equations ( 1 ) and ( 2 ), we can write:
ω2 > ω1
Thus, from the above relation, it is clear that the angular velocity of the solid sphere will be greater than
that of the hollow cylinder.
Q12. A solid cylinder of mass 20 kg rotates about its axis with angular speed 100 rad s -1. The
radius of the cylinder is 0.25 m. What is the kinetic energy associated with the rotation of the
cylinder? What is the magnitude of angular momentum of the cylinder about its axis?
Solution:
Given,
Mass of the cylinder, m = 20 kg
Angular speed, ω = 100 rad s–1
Radius of the cylinder, r = 0.25 m
The moment of inertia of the solid cylinder:
I = mr2 / 2
= (1/2) × 20 × (0.25)2
= 0.625 kg m2
( a ) ∴ Kinetic energy = (1/2) I ω2
= (1/2) × 0.625 × (100)2 =3125 J
( b )∴Angular momentum, L = Iω
= 0.625× 100
= 62. 5 Js
Q13. ( i ) A child stands at the centre of a turntable with his two arms outstretched. The turntable
is set rotating with an angular speed of 40 rev/min. How much is the angular speed of the child
if he folds his hands back and thereby reduces his moment of inertia to 2/5 times the initial
value? Assume that the turntable rotates without friction
( ii ) Show that the child’s new kinetic energy of rotation is more than the initial kinetic energy of
rotation. How do you account for this increase in kinetic energy?
Solution:
(a) Given,
Initial angular velocity, ω1= 40 rev/min
let the final angular velocity = ω2
Let the boy’s moment of inertia with hands stretched out = I1
Let the boy’s moment of inertia with hands folded in = I2
We know:
I2 = (2/5) I1
As no external forces are acting on the boy, the angular momentum will be constant.
Thus, we can write:
I 2 ω2 = I 1 ω 1
ω2 = (I1/I2) ω1
= [ I1 / (2/5)I1 ] × 40 = ( 5/2 ) × 40 = 100 rev/min
(b) Final kinetic energy of rotation, EF = (1/2) I2 ω22
Initial kinetic energy of rotation, EI = (1/2) I1 ω12
EF / EI = (1/2) I2 ω22 / (1/2) I1 ω12
= (2/5) I1 (100)2 / I1 (40)2
= 2.5
∴ EF = 2.5 EI
It is clear that there is an increase in the kinetic energy of rotation and it can be attributed to the internal
energy used by the boy to fold his hands.
Q14. A rope of negligible mass is wound around a hollow cylinder of mass 3 kg and radius 40
cm. What is the angular acceleration of the cylinder if the rope is pulled with a force of 30 N?
What is the linear acceleration of the rope? Assume that there is no slipping.
Solution:
Given,
Mass of the hollow cylinder, m = 3 kg
Radius of the hollow cylinder, r = 40 cm = 0.4 m
Force applied, F = 30 N
Moment of inertia of the hollow cylinder about its axis:
I = mr2
= 3 × (0.4)2 = 0.48 kg m2
Torque, T = F × r = 30 × 0.4 = 12 Nm
Also, we know that:
Torque = moment of inertia x acceleration
T = Iα
( a ) Therefore, α = T / I = 12 / 0.48 = 25 rad s-2
( b ) Linear acceleration = Rα = 0.4 × 25 = 10 m s–2
Q15. To maintain a rotor at a uniform angular speed of 200 rad s-1, an engine needs to transmit
a torque of 180 N m. What is the power required by the engine? (Note: uniform angular velocity
in the absence of friction implies zero torque. In practice, applied torque is needed to counter
frictional torque). Assume that the engine is 100% efficient.
Solution:
Given,
The angular speed of the rotor, ω = 200 rad/s
Torque, T = 180 Nm
Therefore, power of the rotor (P):
P=Tω
= 200 × 180
= 36.0 kW
Therefore, the engine requires 36.0 kW of power.
Q.16. From a uniform disc of radius R, a circular hole of radius R/2 is cut out. The centre of the
hole is at R/2 from the centre of the original disc. Locate the centre of gravity of the resulting flat
body
Solution:
Let the mass/unit area of the original disc = σ
Radius of the original disc =2r
Mass of the original disc, m = π(2r2) σ = 4 πr2σ . . . . . . . . . . . . . . ( i )
The disc with the cut portion is shown in the following figure:
Radius of the smaller disc = r

Mass of the smaller disc, m’ = π r2σ
=> m’ = m/4 [ From equation ( i ) ]
Let O’ and O be the respective centers of the disc cut off from the original and the original disc.
According to the definition of center of mass, the center of mass of the original disc is concentrated at
O, while that of the smaller disc is supposed at O′.
We know that :
OO′= R/2 = r2
After the smaller circle has been cut out, we are left with two systems whose masses are:
–m’ ( = m/4 ) concentrated at O′, and m (concentrated at O).
(The negative sign means that this portion has been removed from the original disc.)
Let X be the distance of the center of mass from O.
We know :
X = (m1 r1 + m2 r2) / (m1 + m2)
X = [ m × 0 – m’ × (r / 2) ] / ( M + (-M‘) ) = –R / 6
(The negative sign indicates that the center of mass is R/6 towards the left of O.)
Q17. A metre stick is balanced on a knife-edge at its centre. When two coins, each of mass 5 g
are put one on top of the other at the 12.0 cm mark, the stick is found to be balanced at 45.0 cm.
What is the mass of the metre stick?
Solution:
The centre of mass of the meter rule shifts to 45 cm mark from 50 cm mark when 2 coins are added at
12 cm mark.
Mass of two coins, m = 10 g
Distance at which the coins are placed from the new support d1= 45 – 12 = 33 cm
Distance of the centre of mass from the new support= 50- 45 = 5 cm
To find the mass of the scale, we should use the balancing moments
Moment due to the coins, r1 = m x d1
Moment due to the mass of the scale r2 = M x d2
r1 = r2
m x d1 = M x d 2
Substituting we get
10 x 33 = M x d2
M = (10 x 33) /5 = 330/5 = 66 g
Q18. A solid sphere rolls down two different inclined planes of the same heights but different
angles of inclination. (a) Will it reach the bottom with the same speed in each case? (b) Will it
take longer to roll down one plane than the other? (c) If so, which one and why?
Solution:
( a )Let the mass of the ball = m
let the height of the ball = h
let the final velocity of the ball at the bottom of the plane = v
At the top of the plane, the ball possesses Potential energy = mgh
At the bottom of the plane, the ball possesses rotational and translational kinetic energies.
Thus, total kinetic energy = (1 / 2)mv2 + (1/2) I ω2
Using the law of conservation of energy, we have:
(1/2)mv2 + (1/2)Iω2 = mgh
For a solid sphere, the moment of inertia about its centre, I = ( 2 / 5 )mr2
Thus, equation ( i ) becomes:
(1 / 2)mv2 + (1 / 2)[ (2 / 5)mr2 ] ω2 = mgh
(1 / 2) v2 + ( 1/5 ) r2 ω2 = gh
Also , we know v = rω
∴ We have : ( 1/2 )v2 + ( 1/5 )v2 = gh
v2 ( 7/10 ) = gh
Since the height of both the planes is the same, the velocity of the ball will also be the
same irrespective of which plane it is rolled down.
( b ) Let the inclinations of the two planes be θ1 and θ2, , where:
θ1 < θ2
The acceleration of the ball as it rolls down the plane with an inclination of θ1 is:
g sinθ1
let R1 be the normal reaction to the sphere.
Similarly, the acceleration in the ball as it rolls down the plane with an inclination of θ2 is:
g sin θ2
Let R2 be the normal reaction to the ball.
Here, θ2 > θ1; sin θ2 > sin θ1 . . . . .. .. . . .. . . ( 1 )
∴ a2 > a1 . . .. . . .. . .. . . .. . . .. . . .. . . . ( 2 )
Initial velocity, u = 0
Final velocity, v = Constant
Using the first equation of motion:
v = u + at
∴ t ∝ ( 1/a )
For inclination θ1 : t1 ∝ ( 1 / a1 )
For inclination θ2 : t2 ∝ ( 1 / a2 )
As a2 > a1 we have:
t2 < t1
( c )Therefore, the ball will take a greater amount of time to reach the bottom of the inclined plane
having the smaller inclination.
Q19. A hoop of radius 2 m weighs 100 kg. It rolls along a horizontal floor so that its centre of
mass has a speed of 20 cm/s. How much work has to be done to stop it?
Solution:
Given
The radius of the ring, r = 2 m

Mass of the ring, m = 100 kg
Velocity of the hoop, v = 20 cm/s = 0.2 m/s
Total energy of the loop = Rotational K.E + Translational K.E..
ET = (1/2)mv2 + (1/2) I ω2
We know, the moment of inertia of a ring about its centre, I = mr2
ET = (1/2)mv2 + (1/2) (mr2)ω2
Also, we know v = rω
∴ ET = ( 1/2 )mv2 + ( 1/2 )mr2ω2
=> ( 1/2 )mv2 + ( 1/2 )mv2 = mv2
Thus the amount of energy required to stop the ring = total energy of the loop.
∴ The amount of work required, W = mv2 = 100 × (0.2)2 = 4 J.
Q.20. The oxygen molecule has a mass of 5.30 × 10-26 kg and a moment of inertia of 1.94×10-46 kg
m2 about an axis through its centre perpendicular to the lines joining the two atoms. Suppose
the mean speed of such a molecule in a gas is 500 m/s and that its kinetic energy of rotation is
two-thirds of its kinetic energy of translation. Find the average angular velocity of the molecule
Solution:
Given,
Mass of one oxygen molecule, m = 5.30 × 10–26 kg
Thus, the mass of each oxygen atom = m/2
Moment of inertia of it, I = 1.94 × 10–46 kg m2
Velocity of the molecule, v = 500 m/s
The distance between the two atoms in the molecule = 2r
Thus, moment of inertia I, is calculated as:
l =(m/2)r2 + (m/2)r2 = mr2
r = ( I / m)1/2
=> (1.94 × 10-46 / 5.36 × 10-26 )1/2 = 0.60 × 10-10 m
Given,
K.Erot = (2/3)K.Etrans
(1/2) I ω2 = (2/3) × (1/2) × mv2
mr2ω2 = (2/3)mv2
Therefore,ω = (2/3)1/2 (v/r)
= (2/3)1/2 (500 / 0.6 × 10-10) = 6.88 × 1012 rad/s.
Q21. A solid cylinder rolls up an inclined plane of the angle of inclination 30°. At the bottom of
the inclined plane, the centre of mass of the cylinder has a speed of 5 m/s.
(a) How far will the cylinder go up the plane?
(b) How long will it take to return to the bottom?
Solution:
Given,
initial velocity of the solid cylinder, v = 5 m/s

Angle of inclination, θ = 30°
Assuming that the cylinder goes up to a height of h. We get :
( ½ ) mv2 + ( ½ ) l ω2 = mgh
( ½ ) mv2 + ( ½ ) ( ½ mr2) ω2 = mgh
3/4 mv2 = mgh (since v = rω)
h = 3v2 / 4g = (3 × 52) / 4 × 9.8 = 75/39.2 = 1.913 m
let d be the distance the cylinder covers up the plane, this means :
sin θ = h/d
d = h/sin θ = 1.913/sin 30° = 3.826m
Now, the time required to return back:
= 1.53 s
Thus, the cylinder takes 1.53 s to return to the bottom.
Q22. As shown in Figure the two sides of a step ladder BA and CA are 1.6 m long and hinged at
A. A rope DE, 0.5 m is tied halfway up. A weight 40 kg is suspended from a point F, 1.2 m from B
along with the ladder BA. Assuming the floor to be frictionless and neglecting the weight of the
ladder, find the tension in the rope and forces exerted by the floor on the ladder. (Take g = 9.8
m/s2) (Hint: Consider the equilibrium of each side of the ladder separately.)
Solution:
The above situation can drawn as :
Solution:
Here,
NB = Force being applied by floor point B on the ladder
NC = Force being applied by floor point C on the ladder
T = Tension in string.
BA= CA = 1.6 m
DE = 0.5 m
BF = 1.2 m
Mass of the weight, m = 40 kg
Now,
Make a perpendicular from A on the floor BC. This will intersect DE at mid-point H.
ΔABI and ΔAIC are similar
∴BI = IC
This makes I the mid-point of BC.
DE || BC
BC = 2 × DE = 1 m AF
BA – BF= 1.6 – 1.2 = 0.4 m . . . . . . . . . . . ( 1 )
D is the mid-point of AB.
Thus, we can write:
AD = (1/2) × BA = 0.8 m . . . . . . . .. . . . ( 2 )
Using equations ( 1 ) and ( 2 ), we get:
DF = 0.4 m
Thus, F is the mid-point of AD.
FG || DH and F is the mid-point of AD. This will make G the mid-point of AH.
ΔAFG and ΔADH are similar
∴ FG / DH = AF / AD
FG / DH = 0.4 / 0.8 = 1 / 2
FG = (1/2) DH
H is the midpoint of the rope. Therefore, DH = 0.5/2 = 0.25 m
= (1/2) × 0.25 = 0.125 m
In ΔADH:
AH = (AD2 – DH2)1/2
= (0.82 – 0.252)1/2 = 0.76 m
For translational equilibrium of the ladder, the downward force should be equal to the upward force.
NC+ NB = mg = 392 N . . .. . . . . . . . . . . . . . ( 3 ) [ mg = 9.8 x 40 ]
Rotational equilibrium of the ladder about A is:
-NB × BI + FG x mg + NC × CI – T × AG + AG × T = 0
-NB× 0.5 + 392× 0.125 + NC × 0.5 = 0
(NC – NB) × 0.5 = 49
NC – NB = 98 . . . . . . . . . .. . . .. . .. . . ( 4 )
Adding equation ( 3 ) and equation ( 4 ), we get:
NC = 245 N
NY = 147 N
Rotational equilibrium about AB
Considering the moment about A
-NB × BI + FG x mg + T × AG = 0
-245× 0.5 + 392 × 0.125 + 0.76 x T = 0
∴ T = 96.7 N.
Q23. A man stands on a rotating platform, with his arms stretched horizontally holding a 5 kg
weight in each hand. The angular speed of the platform is 30 revolutions per minute. The man
then brings his arms close to his body with the distance of each weight from the axis changing
from 90cm to 20cm. The moment of inertia of the man together with the platform may be taken
to be constant and equal to 7.6 kg m2.
(a) What is his new angular speed? (Neglect friction.)
(b) Is kinetic energy conserved in the process? If not, from where does the change come about?
Solution:
( a ) Given,
Mass of each weight = 5 kg
Moment of inertia of the man-platform system = 7.6 kg m2
Moment of inertia when his arms are fully stretched to 90 cm:
2 × m r2
= 2 × 5 × ( 0.9 )2
= 8.1 kg m2
Initial moment of inertia of the system, Ii = 7.6 + 8.1= 15.7 kg m2
Angular speed, ωi = 30 rev / min

=> Angular momentum, Li = Iiωi = 15.7 × 30
= 471 . . . . . . . (i)
Moment of inertia when he folds his hands inward to 15 cm:
2 × mr2
= 2 × 5 x (0.2)2 = 0.4kg m2
Final moment of inertia, If = 7.6 + 0.4 = 8.0 kg m2
let final angular speed = ωf
=> Final angular momentum, Lf = Ifωf = 8.0ωf . . . . . . (ii)
According to the principle of conservation of angular momentum:
I iω i = I f ω f
∴ ωf = 471/ 8 = 58.88 rev/min
(b) There is a change in kinetic energy, with the decrease in the moment of inertia kinetic energy
increases. The extra kinetic energy is supplied to the system by the work done by the man in folding his
arms inside.
Q24. A bullet of mass 10 g and speed 500 m/s is fired into a door and gets embedded exactly at
the centre of the door. The door is 1.0 m wide and weighs 12 kg. It is hinged at one end and
rotates about a vertical axis practically without friction. Find the angular speed of the door just
after the bullet embeds into it.
(Hint: The moment of inertia of the door about the vertical axis at one end is ML2/3.)
Solution:
Given, Velocity,v= 500 m/s
Mass of bullet, m = 10 g = 10 × 10–3 kg
Width of the door, L = 1 m
Radius of the door, r = 1 / 2
Mass of the door, M = 10 kg
Angular momentum imparted by the bullet on the door:
α = mvr
= (10× 10-3 ) × (500) × (1/2) = 2.5 kg m2 s-1 …(i)
Now, Moment of inertia of the door :
I = ML2 / 3
= (1/3) × 12× 12 = 4 kgm2
We know, α = Iω
∴ω=α/I
= 2.5/ 4 = 0.625 rad /s
Q25. Two discs of moments of inertia I1 and I2 about their respective axes (normal to the disc
and passing through the centre), and rotating with angular speeds ω1 and ω2 are brought into
contact face to face with their axes of rotation coincident.
(a) What is the angular speed of the two-disc system?
(b) Show that the kinetic energy of the combined system is less than the sum of the initial
kinetic energies of the two discs. How do you account for this loss in energy? Take ω1 ≠ ω2
Solution:
( a )Given,
Let the moment of inertia of the two turntables be I1 and I2 respectively.
Let the angular speed of the two turntables be ω1 and ω2 respectively.
Thus we have;
Angular momentum of turntable 1, L1 = I1ω1
Angular momentum of turntable 2, L2 = I2ω2
=> total initial angular momentum Li = I1ω1 + I2ω2
When the two turntables are combined together:
Moment of inertia of the two turntable system, I = I1 + I2
Let ω be the angular speed of the system.
=> final angular momentum, LT = (I1 + I2) ω
According to the principle of conservation of angular momentum, we have:
Li = LT
I1ω1 + I2ω2 = (I1 + I2)ω
Therefore , ω = (I1ω1 + I2ω2) / (I1 + I2) . . . . . . . . . . ( 1 )
( b ) Kinetic energy of turntable 1, K.E1 = ( 1/2 ) I1ω12
Kinetic energy of turntable 2, K.E1 = ( 1/2 ) I2ω22
Total initial kinetic energy, KEI = (1/2) ( I1ω12 + I2ω22)
When the turntables are combined together, their moments of inertia add up.
Moment of inertia of the system, I = I1 + I2
Angular speed of the system = ω
Final kinetic energy KEF : = (1/2) ( I1 + I2) ω2Using the value of ω from (1)
= (1/2) ( I1 + I2) [ (I1ω1 + I2ω2) / (I1 + I2) ]2
KEF = (1/2) (I1ω1 + I2ω2)2 / (I1 + I2)
Now, KEI – KEF
= ( I1ω12 + I2ω22) (1/2) – [ (1/2) (I1ω1 + I2ω2)2 / (I1 + I2) ]
Solving the above equation, we get :
= I1 I2 (ω1 – ω2)2 / 2(I1 + I2)
As (ω1 – ω2)2 will only yield a positive quantity and I1 and I2 are both positive, the RHS will be positive.
Which means KEI – KEF > 0
Or, KEI > KEF
Some of the kinetic energy was lost overcoming the forces of friction when the two turntables were
brought in contact.
Q26. (a) Prove the theorem of perpendicular axes. (Hint: Square of the distance of a point (x, y)
in the x–y plane from an axis through the origin and perpendicular to the plane is x2+y2).
(b) Prove the theorem of parallel axes. (Hint: If the centre of mass of a system of n particles is
chosen to be the origin ∑ mi ri = 0 ).
Solution:
(a) According to the theorem of perpendicular axes, the moment of inertia of a planar body (lamina)
about an axis perpendicular to its plane is equal to the sum of the moments of inertia of the lamina
about any two mutually perpendicular axes in its plane and intersecting each other at the point where
the perpendicular axis passes through it.
Let us consider a planar body. An axis perpendicular to the body through a point O is
taken as the z-axis. Two mutually perpendicular axes lying in the plane of the body and concurrent with
z-axis, i.e., passing through O, are taken as the x and y-axes.
Suppose at the point R, m particles are then the moment of inertia about Z axis of the lamina
Iz = ∑m(x2 + y2)
= ∑mx2 + ∑m y2
Moment of inertia about x-axis, Ix =∑mx2
Moment of inertia about y-axis, Iy = ∑my2
I z = Ix + I y
Thus, the theorem is verified.
(b) According to the theorem of parallel axes, the moment of inertia of a body about any axis is equal to
the sum of the moment of inertia of the body about a parallel axis passing through its center of mass
and the product of its mass and the square of the distance between the two parallel axes.
Suppose a rigid body is made up of n number of particles, having masses m1, m2, m3, … , mn, at
perpendicular distances r1, r2, r3, … , rn respectively from the center of mass C of the rigid body.
Let ri be the perpendicular distance of the particle of mass mi from KL, then
As the body is balanced about the centre of mass, the algebraic sum of the moments of the weights of
all particles about an axis passing through C must be zero.
Q27. Prove the result that the velocity v of translation of a rolling body (like a ring, disc, cylinder
or sphere) at the bottom of an inclined plane of a height h is given by
v2 = 2gh/(1+k2/R2) using dynamical consideration (i.e. by consideration of forces and torques).
Note k is the radius of gyration of the body about its symmetry axis, and R is the radius of the
body. The body starts from rest at the top of the plane.
Solution:
The above situation can be represented as :
Here,
R = the body’s radius
g = Acceleration due to gravity
K = the body’s radius of gyration
v = the body’s translational velocity
m = Mass of the body
h = Height of the inclined plane
Total energy at the top of the plane, ET (potential energy) = mgh

Total energy at the bottom of the plane, Eb = KErot + KEtrans
= (1/2) I ω2 + (1/2) mv2
We know, I = mk2 and ω = v / R
Thus, the given relation is proved.
Q28. A disc rotating about its axis with angular speed ωo is placed lightly (without any
translational push) on a perfectly frictionless table. The radius of the disc is R. What are the
linear velocities of the points A, B and C on the disc shown in Figure. Will the disc roll in the
direction indicated?
Solution:
The respective linear velocities are :
For point A, vA = rωo in the direction of the arrow
For point B, vB = rω0 in the direction opposite to the arrow
For point C, vc = (R/2)ωo in the same direction as that of vA
Firstly there is no tangential push given to the disc in the initial state. Secondly, the force of friction was
the only means of tangential force, but that too is absent as the surface is frictionless. Therefore, the
disc cannot roll ahead.
Q29. Explain why friction is necessary to make the disc in Figure roll in the direction indicated.
(a) Give the direction of frictional force at B, and the sense of frictional torque, before perfect
rolling begins.
(b) What is the force of friction after perfect rolling begins?
Solution:
( a ) The frictional force acting on the disc must be opposite to the direction of velocity. Frictional force
acts towards left as it opposes the direction of velocity at point B which is towards right.
( b ) As force of friction acts in the direction opposite to the velocity at point B, perfect rolling starts only
when the force of friction at that point equals zero. This makes the force of friction acting on the disc
equal to zero.
Q30. A solid disc and a ring, both of radius 10 cm are placed on a horizontal table
simultaneously, with an initial angular speed equal to 10 π rad s-1. Which of the two will start to
roll earlier? The coefficient of kinetic friction is µk = 0.2.
Solution:
Given,
Radii of the ring and the disc, r = 10 cm = 0.10 m
Initial angular speed, ω0 =10 π rad s–1
Coefficient of kinetic friction, μk = 0.2
The motion of the two objects is caused by the force of friction. According to Newton’s second, the
force of friction, f = ma
μkmg= ma
Where,
a = Acceleration produced in the disc and the ring
m = Mass
∴ a = μkg . . . . . .. . . . . . . ( 1 )
Using the first equation of motion :
v = u + at
= 0 + μkgt
= μkgt .............. (2)
The frictional force applies a torque in perpendicularly outward direction and reduces the initial angular
speed.
Torque, T= –Iα
Where, α = Angular acceleration
μkmgr = –Iα
∴ α = -μkmgr / I . . . . . . . . . ( 3 )
According to the first equation of rotational motion, we have :
ω = ω0 + αt
= ω0 + (-μkmgr / I )t . . . . . . . .( 4 )
Rolling starts when linear velocity, v = rω
∴ v = r (ω0 – μkmgrt / I ) …(5)
Using equation ( 2 ) and equation ( 5 ), we have:
μkgt = r (ω0 – μkmgrt / I )
= rω0 – μkmgr2t / I . . . . . . . . ( 6 )
For the ring:
I = mr2
∴ μkgt = rω0 – μkmgr2t / mr2
= rω0 – μkgt
2μkgt = rω0
∴ t = rω0 / 2μkg
= ( 0.1 × 10 × 3.14) / (2 × 0.2 × 10 ) = 0.80 s ....(7)
For the disc: I = (1/2)mr2
∴ μkgt = rω0 – μkmgr2t / (1/2)mr2
= rω0 – 2μkgt
3μkgt = rω0
∴ t = rω0 / 3μkg
= ( 0.1 x 10 × 3.14) / (3 × 0.2 × 9.8 ) = 0.53 s …..( 8)
Since tD > tR, the disc will start rolling before the ring.
Q31. A cylinder of mass 10 kg and radius 15 cm is rolling perfectly on a plane of inclination 30 o.

The coefficient of static friction µs = 0.25.
(a) How much is the force of friction acting on the cylinder?
(b) What is the work done against friction during rolling?
(c) If the inclination θ of the plane is increased, at what value of θ does the cylinder begin to
skid, and not roll perfectly?
Solution:
The above situation can be depicted as:
Given,
mass, m = 10 kg
Radius, r = 15 cm = 0.15 m
Co-efficient of kinetic friction, µs = 0.25
Angle of inclination, θ = 30°
We know, moment of inertia of a solid cylinder about its geometric axis, I = (1/2)mr2
The acceleration of the cylinder is given as:
a = mg Sinθ / [m + (I/r2) ]
= mg Sinθ / [m + { (½)mr2 / r2 } ]
= (2/3) g Sin 30°
a = (2/3) × 9.8 × (1/2) = 3.26 ms-2
( a ) Using Newton’s second law of motion, we can write net force as:
fNET = ma
mg Sin 30° – f = ma
f = mg Sin 30° – ma
= 10 × 9.8 × (1/2)- 10 × 3.26

= 49 – 32.6 = 16.3N
( b ) There is no work done against friction during rolling.
( c ) We know for rolling without skidding :
μ = (1/3) tan θ
tan θ = 3μ = 3 × 0.25
∴ θ = tan-1 (0.75) = 36.87°
Q32. Read each statement below carefully, and state, with reasons, if it is true or false;
(a) During rolling, the force of friction acts in the same direction as the direction of motion of the
CM of the body.
(b) The instantaneous speed of the point of contact during rolling is zero.
(c) The instantaneous acceleration of the point of contact during rolling is zero.
(d) For perfect rolling motion, work done against friction is zero.
(e) A wheel moving down a perfectly frictionless inclined plane will undergo slipping (not
rolling) motion.
Solution:
(a) False. The direction of frictional force is opposite to the direction of motion of the centre of mass. In
case of rolling object, the centre of mass moves backwards so the frictional force acts in the forward
direction
( b ) True. During rolling the point of the body in contact with the ground does not move ahead (this
would be slipping) instead it only touches the ground for an instant and lifts off following a curve. Thus,
only if the point of contact remains in touch with the ground and moves forward will the instantaneous
speed not be equal to zero.
(c) False. For a rolling object instantaneous acceleration will have a value it is not zero
(d ) True. This is because during perfect rolling frictional force is zero so work done against it is zero.
(d) True. This is because during perfect rolling frictional force is zero so work done against it is zero.
( e ) True. Rolling occurs only when there is a frictional force to provide the torque so in the absence of
friction the wheel simply slips down the plane under the influence of its weight.
Q33. Separation of Motion of a system of particles into motion of the centre of mass and motion
about the centre of mass:
( i ) Show p = p’i + miV
Where pi is the momentum of the ith particle (of mass mi ) and p’i = mivi‘. Note vi’ is the velocity
of the ith particle with respect to the centre of mass.
Also, verify using the definition of the centre of mass that Σp’i = 0
( ii ) Prove that K = K′ + ½MV2
Where K is the total kinetic energy of the system of particles, K′ is the total kinetic energy of the
system when the particle velocities are taken relative to the center of mass and MV2 /2 is the
kinetic energy of the translation of the system as a whole.
( iii ) Show L = L’+ R × MV where L’ = Σr’i × p’i is the angular momentum of the system about the
centre of mass with velocities considered with respect to the centre of mass. Note r’i = ri – R,
rest of the notation is the standard notation used in the lesson. Note L’ and MR × V can be said
to be angular momenta, respectively, about and of the centre of mass of the system of particles.
( iv ) Prove that :
dL’/dt = ∑ r’i x dp’/dt
Further prove that :
dL’/dt = τ’ext
Where τ’ext is the sum of all external torques acting on the system about the centre of mass.
(Clue : Apply Newton’s Third Law and the definition of centre of mass . Consider that internal
forces between any two particles act along the line connecting the particles.)
Solution:
( i ) Momentum of ith particle
( ii ) Kinetic energy of system of particles
( iii ) Total angular momentum of the system of particles.

( iv ) From previous solution

Gravitation
Q.1: Answer the following:

(a) You can shield a charge from electrical forces by putting it inside a hollow conductor. Can
you shield a body from the gravitational influence of nearby matter by putting it inside a hollow
sphere or by some other means?
(b) An astronaut inside a small space ship orbiting around the earth cannot detect gravity. If the
space station orbiting around the earth has a large size, can he hope to detect gravity?
(c) If you compare the gravitational force on the earth due to the sun to that due to the moon,
you would find that the Sun’s pull is greater than the moon’s pull. (you can check this yourself
using the data available in the succeeding exercises). However, the tidal effect of the moon’s
pull is greater than the tidal effect of the sun. Why?
Solution:
(a). No, as of now, no method has been devised to shield a body from gravity because gravity is
independent of medium and it is the virtue of each and every matter. So the shield would exert the
gravitational forces.
(b). Yes, if the spaceship is large enough then the astronaut will definitely detect the Mars gravity.
(c). Gravitational force is inversely proportional to the square of the distance whereas, Tidal effects are
inversely proportional to the cube of the distance. So as the distance between the earth and the moon
is smaller than the distance between earth and the sun, the moon will have a greater influence on the
earth’s tidal waves.
Q.2. Choose the correct alternative :

(a) Acceleration due to gravity increases/decreases with increasing altitude.
(b) Acceleration due to gravity increases/decreases with increasing depth (assume the earth to
be a sphere of uniform density).
(c) Acceleration due to gravity is independent of the mass of the earth/mass of the body.
(d) The formula –G M m(1/r 2 – 1/r1) is more/less accurate than the formula mg(r2 – r1) for the
difference of potential energy between two points r2 and r1 distance away from the centre of the
earth.
Solution:
(a) decreases
(b) decreases
(c) mass of the body
(d) more
Q.3: Suppose there existed a planet that went around the Sun twice as fast as the earth. What
would be its orbital size as compared to that of the earth?
Solution:
Time taken by the earth for one complete revolution, TE = 1 Year
Radius of Earth’s orbit, RE = 1 AU
Thus, the time taken by the planet to complete one complete revolution:
Gravitation
Let, the orbital radius of this planet = RP

Now, according to the Kepler’s third law of planetary motion:
Therefore, radius of orbit of this planet is 0.63 times smaller than the radius of orbit of the Earth.
Q.4: Io, one of the satellites of Jupiter, has an orbital period of 1.769 days and the radius of the
orbit is 4.22 × 108 m. Show that the mass of Jupiter is about one-thousandth that of the sun.
Solution:
Given,
Orbital period of Io, TI0 = 1.769 days = 1.769 × 24 × 60 × 60 s
Orbital radius of Io, RI0 = 4.22 × 108 m
We know the mass of Jupiter:
Where;
MJ = Mass of Jupiter
G = Universal gravitational constant
Also,
The orbital period of the earth,
TE = 365.25 days = 365.25 × 24 × 60 × 60 s
Orbital radius of the Earth, RE = 1 AU = 1.496 × 1011 m
We know that the mass of sun is:
Therefore,
Gravitation
Now, on substituting the values, we will get:
[Which proves that, the Sun’s mass is 1000 times that of Jupiter’s]
Q.5. Let us assume that our galaxy consists of 2.5 × 1011 stars each of one solar mass. How long
will a star at a distance of 50,000 ly from the galactic centre take to complete one revolution?
Take the diameter of the Milky Way to be 105 ly.
Solution:
Mass of our galaxy, M=2.5×10 11 solar mass
1 Solar mass = Mass of Sun =2×1030 kg
Mass of our galaxy, M=2.5×1011×2×10 30=5×1041kg
Diameter of Milky Way,d=105 ly
Radius of Milky Way,r=5×104 ly
1 ly=9.46×1015m
Therefore, r=5×104×9.46×1015=4.73×1020m
The time taken by the star to revolve around the galactic centre is given by the relation:
T=(4π2r3/GM)1/2
Gravitation
Q.6. Choose the correct alternative:

(a) If the zero of potential energy is at infinity, the total energy of an orbiting satellite is negative
of its kinetic/potential energy.
(b) The energy required to launch an orbiting satellite out of earth’s gravitational influence is
more/less than the energy required to project a stationary object at the same height (as the
satellite) out of earth’s influence.
Solution:
(a) If the zero potential energy is at infinity, the total energy of an orbiting satellite is negative of its
kinetic energy.
(b) The energy required to launch an orbiting satellite out of Earth’s gravitational influence is less than
the energy required to project a stationary object at the same height (as the satellite) out of Earth’s
influence.
Q. 7. Does the escape speed of a body from the earth depend on (a) the mass of the body,
(b) the location from where it is projected, (c) the direction of projection, (d) the height of
the location from where the body is launched?
Solution:
The escape speed is given by the expression
(a) The escape speed of a body from the Earth does not depend on the mass of the body.
(b) The escape speed of a body from the Earth does not depend on the location from where a body is
projected.
(c) The escape speed does not depend on the direction of projection of a body.
(d) The escape speed of a body depends upon the height of the location from where the body is
launched since the escape velocity depends on the gravitational potential at the point from which it is
launched. This potential in turn depends on the height.
Q.8. A comet orbits the Sun in a highly elliptical orbit. Does the comet have a constant (a) linear
speed (b) angular speed (c) angular momentum (d) kinetic energy (e) potential energy (f) total
energy throughout its orbit? Neglect any mass loss of the comet when it comes very close to
the Sun.
Solution:
(a) According to Kepler’s second law the linear speed of the comet keeps changing. When the comet is
near the sun, its speed will be the fastest and when it is far away from the sun, its speed will be the
least.
(b) Angular speed also varies slightly.
(c) Comet has constant angular momentum.
(d) Kinetic energy changes
(e) Potential energy changes along the path.
(f) Total energy will remain constant throughout the orbit
Gravitation
Q9. Which of the following symptoms is likely to afflict an astronaut in space (a) swollen feet, (b)
swollen face, (c) headache, (d) orientational problem.
Solution:
(a). In zero gravity the blood flow to the feet isn’t increased so the astronaut does not get swollen feet.
(b). There is more supply of blood to the face of the astronaut. Therefore, the astronaut will have
a swollen face
(c). Due to increased blood supply to their faces, astronauts can be affected by headaches.
(d). Space has different orientations, so orientational problems can affect an astronaut.
Q.10: In the following two exercises, choose the correct answer from among the given ones:
The gravitational intensity at the centre of a hemispherical shell of uniform mass density has
the direction indicated by the arrow (see Fig ) (i) a, (ii) b, (iii) c, (iv) 0
Solution: (iii) c
Reason:
Inside a hollow sphere, gravitational forces on any particle at any point is symmetrically placed.
However, in this case, the upper half of the sphere is removed. Since gravitational intensity is
gravitational force per unit mass it will act in a direction point downwards along ‘c’.
Q.11: For the above problem, the direction of the gravitational intensity at an arbitrary
point P is indicated by the arrow (i) d, (ii) e, (iii) f, (iv) g.
Gravitation
Solution: (ii) e
Reason:
Making use of the logic/explanation from the above answer we can conclude that the gravitational
intensity at P is directed downwards along e
Q.12. A rocket is fired from the earth towards the sun. At what distance from the earth’s centre
is the gravitational force on the rocket zero? Mass of the sun = 2 x 1030 kg, mass of the earth = 6
x 1024 kg. Neglect the effect of other planets etc. (orbital radius = 1.5 x 1011 m).
Solution:
Mass of Sun, Msun= 2 x 1030 kg
Mass of Earth, Mearth = 6 x 1024 kg
Orbital radius, r = 1.5 x 1011 m
Mass of the rocket = m
Let P be the point at a distance x at which the gravitational force on the rocket due to Earth
Applying Newton’s law of gravitation, the gravitational force acting on the rocket at point P is equated.
1.5 x 1011 – x = 577.35x

x = 1.5 x 1011/578.35 = 2.59 x 108 m
Q.13: How will you ‘weigh the sun’, that is estimate its mass? The mean orbital radius of the
earth around the sun is 1.5 × 108 km.
Solution:
Given:
Earth’s orbit, r = 1.5 × 1011 m
Time taken by the Earth for one complete revolution,
T = 1 year = 365.25 days
i.e. T = (365.25 × 24 × 60 × 60) seconds
Since, Universal gravitational constant, G = 6.67 × 10–11 Nm2 kg–2
Gravitation
Therefore, the estimated mass of the Sun is 2.004 × 1030 Kg
Q. 14. A Saturn year is 29.5 times the Earth year. How far is the Saturn from the Sun if the Earth
is 1.50 x 108 km away from the Sun?
Solution:
According to Kepler’s third law of planetary motion
From the above equation, we get T2 ∝r3

Ts and rs is the orbital period and the mean distance of Saturn from the Sun respectively.
Te and re is the orbital period and the mean distance of Earth from the Sun respectively.
Time period of Saturn, Ts = 29.5 Te
⇒rs3/re3 = Ts2/Te2
rs=re(Ts/Te)2/3
= 1.5 x 108 x 29.52/3
= 14.3 x 108 km
Q.15: A body weighs 63 N on the surface of the earth. What is the gravitational force on it due to
the earth at a height equal to half the radius of the earth?
Solution:
Given:
Weight of the man, W = 63 N
We know that acceleration due to gravity at height ‘h’ from the Earth’s surface is:
Gravitation
Where, g = Acceleration due to gravity on the Earth’s surface

And, Re = Radius of the Earth
Also, the weight of a body of mass ‘m’ kg at a height of ‘h’ meters can be represented as :
W’ = mg
Q. 16. Assuming the earth to be a sphere of uniform mass density, how much would a body
weigh halfway down to the centre of the earth if it weighed 250 N on the surface?
Solution:
Weight of a body on the Earth’s surface, W=mg=250 N
Radius of the Earth = Re
Let d be at a distance halfway to the centre of the earth, d=Re/2
Acceleration due to gravity at d is given by the relation
gd=(1− d/Re)g
gd=(1−Re/2Re)g
=g/2
Weight of the body at depth d,
W′=mgd
=mg/2 = W/2 = 250/2
=125 N
Q.17: A rocket is fired vertically with a speed of 5 km s-1 from the earth’s surface. How far from
the earth does the rocket go before returning to the earth? Mass of the earth = 6.0 × 1024 kg;
mean radius of the earth = 6.4 × 106 m; G = 6.67 × 10–11 N m2 kg–2.
Gravitation
Solution:
Given:
Velocity of the missile, v = 5 km/s = 5 × 103 m/s
Mass of the Earth, ME = 6 × 1024 kg
Radius of the Earth, RE = 6.4 × 106 m
Let, the height reached by the missile be ‘h’ and the mass of the missile be ‘m’.
Now, at the surface of the Earth:
The total energy of the rocket at the surface of the Earth = Kinetic energy + Potential energy
Now, at highest point ‘h’:

Kinetic Energy = 0 [Since, v = 0]
Therefore, total energy of the missile at highest point ‘h’:
According to the law of conservation of energy, we have :

Total energy of the rocket at the Earth’s surface TE1 = Total energy at height ‘h’ TE2:
Gravitation
Q.18. The escape speed of a projectile on the earth’s surface is 11.2 km s–1. A body is projected
out with thrice this speed. What is the speed of the body far away from the earth? Ignore the
presence of the sun and other planets.
Solution:
Given,
Escape speed of the projectile on the Earth’s surface, Ve = 11.2 km/s
Speed of projection of the body, v = 3Ve = 3×11.2 = 33.6 km/s
Let v and v’ be the speed of the body at the time of projection and at a point far from the earth.
At the time of projection
Initial kinetic energy of the body = 1/2mv²
Initial gravitational potential energy of the body = -GMem/Re
Me is the mass of the Earth
Re is the radius of the Earth
At a larger distance from the earth surface
KE of the body = 1/2mv’²
The gravitational potential energy of the body = 0
According to law of conservation of energy
Total energy at the point of projection = total energy at very far from the earth’s surface.
1/2mv² + (-GMem/Re) = 1/2mv’²
1/2 mv’² = 1/2mv² – GMem/Re——–(1)
If Ve is the escape velocity , then,
1/2 mVe² = GMem/Re ———(2)
Substituting (2) in (1)
1/2mv’² = 1/2mv² – 1/2mVe²
v’² = v – Ve²
= (3Ve)² – Ve²
= 8Ve²
Gravitation
v’² = 8Ve²
v’ = √8 x Ve
v = 2 × 1.414 × 11.2 km/s
= 31.68 km/s
Speed of the body far away from the earth = 31.68 km/s
Q. 19. A satellite orbits the earth at a height of 400 km above the surface. How much energy
must be expended to rocket the satellite out of the earth’s gravitational influence? Mass of the
satellite = 200 kg; mass of the earth = 6.0×1024 kg; radius of the earth = 6.4 × 106 m; G = 6.67 ×
10–11 N m2 kg–2
Solution:
Height of the satellite, h = 400 km = 4 × 105 m
Mass of the Earth, M = 6.0 × 10²⁴ kg
Mass of the satellite, m = 200 kg
Radius of the Earth, Re = 6.4 × 106 m
Total energy of the satellite at height h = kinetic energy + potential energy
= (1/2)mv² + [ -GmMe / (Re + h) ]
The negative sign indicates that the satellite is bound to the earth. This is known as the binding energy
of a satellite.
The energy required to send the satellite out of its orbit = – (Bound energy)
Putting values of all terms.
Q. 20. Two stars each of one solar mass (= 2×1030 kg) are approaching each other for a head-
on collision. When they are a distance 109 km, their speeds are negligible. What is the speed
with which they collide? The radius of each star is 104 km. Assume the stars to remain
undistorted until they collide. (Use the known value of G).
Solution:
Mass of each star, M = 2 × 1030 kg
Gravitation
Radius of each star, R = 104 km = 107 m

Distance between the stars, r = 109 km = 1012m
Initial potential energy of the system = -GMm/r ——–(1)
Total K.E. of the stars = 1/2Mv2 + 1/2Mv2 = Mv2
where v is the speed of stars with which they collide. The distance between the centres of the stars at
collision r = 2 R.
Therefore, the final potential energy of two stars when they are close to each other = -GMm/2R
Thus, the total energy of the two stars just before collision
E = Mv2 -GMm/2R
Since the energy is conserved, the initial energy is equal to the final energy
Mv2 -GMm/2R = -GMm/r
v2 =(Gm/2R) – (Gm/r)
= Gm (1/2R – 1/r)
= 6.67 x 10-11 x 2 x 1030 [(1/2 x 107) – (1/1012)]
v2= 6.67 x 1012
v = 2.58 x 106 m/s
Q.21: Two heavy spheres each of mass 100 kg and radius 0.10 m are placed 1.0 m apart on a
horizontal table. What is the gravitational force and potential at the midpoint of the line joining
the centres of the spheres? Is an object placed at that point in equilibrium? If so, is the
equilibrium stable or unstable?
Solution:
Given:
Radius of spheres, R = 0.10 m
Distance between two spheres, r = 1.0 m
Mass of each sphere, M = 100 kg
From the above figure, ‘A’ is the mid-point and since each sphere will exert the gravitational force in the
opposite direction. Therefore, the gravitational force at this point will be zero.
Gravitational potential at the midpoint (A) is;
Gravitation
Therefore, the gravitational potential and force at the mid-point of the line connecting the centres of the
two spheres is = -2.668 x 10-7 J /kg
The net force on an object, placed at the mid-point is zero. However, if the object is displaced even a
little towards any of the two bodies it will not return to its equilibrium position. Thus, the body is in an
unstable equilibrium.
Q.22: As you have learnt in the text, a geostationary satellite orbits the earth at a height of
nearly 36,000 km from the surface of the earth. What is the potential due to earth’s gravity at the
site of this satellite? (Take the potential energy at infinity to be zero). Mass of the earth =
6.0×1024 kg, radius = 6400 km.
Solution:
Given:
Radius of the Earth, R = 6400 km = 0.64 × 107 m
Mass of Earth, M = 6 x 1024 kg
Height of the geostationary satellite from earth’s surface, h = 36000 km = 3.6 x 107 m
Therefore, gravitational potential at height ‘h’ on the geostationary satellite due to the earth’s gravity:
Therefore, the gravitational potential due to Earth’s gravity on a geostationary satellite orbiting earth is
-9.439 × 106 J/Kg
Q.23: A star 2.5 times the mass of the sun and collapsed to a size of 12 km rotates with a speed
of 1.2 rev. per second. (Extremely compact stars of this kind are known as neutron stars.
Certain stellar objects called pulsars belong to this category). Will an object placed on its
equator remain stuck to its surface due to gravity? (mass of the sun = 2×1030 kg).
Solution:
Any matter/ object will remain stuck to the surface if the outward centrifugal force is lesser than the
inward gravitational pull.
Gravitation
Here,
M = Mass of the star = 2.5× 2 × 1030 = 5 × 1031 kg
m = Mass of the object
R = Radius of the star = 12 km = 1.2 ×104 m
Now, Centrifugal force, fc= m r ω2

Here, ω = Angular speed = 2πν
ν = Angular frequency = 10 rev s–1
fc = m R (2πν)2
fc = m × (1.2 x 104) × 4 × (3.14)2 × (1.2)2 = (6.82 ×105m) N
As fG > fC, the object will remain stuck to the surface of black hole.
Q. 24. A spaceship is stationed on Mars. How much energy must be expended on the spaceship
to launch it out of the solar system? Mass of the space ship = 1000 kg; mass of the sun =
2×1030 kg; mass of mars = 6.4×1023 kg; radius of mars = 3395 km; radius of the orbit of mars =
2.28 ×108 km; G = 6.67×10-11 N m2kg–2.
Solution:
Mass of the spaceship, ms =1000 kg
Mass of the Sun, M=2×1030kg
Mass of Mars, mm =6.4×1023kg
Radius of orbit of Mars, R=2.28×1011 m
Radius of Mars, r=3395×103m
Universal gravitational constant, G=6.67×10−11Nm2kg−2
The potential energy of the spaceship due to the gravitational attraction of the Sun, Us =−GMms/R
Potential energy of the spaceship due to the gravitational attraction of Mars, Um=−Gmmms/r
Total energy of the spaceship, E= Um+Us =[−GMms/R]+[-Gmmms/r]
The negative sign indicates that the satellite is bound to the system.
Energy required to launch the spaceship out of the solar system =−(total energy of the spaceship)
– E = [GMms/R]+[Gmmms/r]
= Gms(M/R + mm/r)
Gravitation
Q.25. A rocket is fired ‘vertically’ from the surface of mars with a speed of 2 km s–1. If 20% of its
initial energy is lost due to martian atmospheric resistance, how far will the rocket go from the
surface of mars before returning to it? Mass of mars = 6.4×1023 kg; radius of mars = 3395 km; G
= 6.67×10-11 N m2 kg–2.
Solution:
Speed of the rocket fired from the surface of mars ( v) = 2 km/s
Mass of the rocket = m
Mass of the Mars ( M) = 6.4 × 10²³ Kg
Radius of the Mars (R) = 3395 km = 3.395 × 106 m
Initial Potential energy = – GMm/R
Initial kinetic energy of the rocket = 1/2 mv²
Total initial energy = 1/2 mv² – GMm/R
Due to atmospheric resistance, 20% of the kinetic energy is lost by the rocket.
The remaining Kinetic energy= 80% of 1/2mv²
= 2/5 mv²= 0.4 mv² ——–(1)
When the rocket reaches the highest point, at the height h above the surface the kinetic energy will be
zero and the potential energy is equal to – GMm/(R+h)
Applying Law of conservation of energy.
– GMm/(R+h) = – GMm/R + (0.4) mv²
GM/(R+h) = 1/R [ GM – 0.4Rv2]
(R+h/R) = GM/[ GM – 0.4Rv2]
h/R = {GM/[ GM – 0.4Rv2]} – 1
h/R = (0.4Rv2/GM – 0.4Rv2)
h = (0.4R2v2/GM – 0.4Rv2)
h = 495 km
Mechanical Properties of Solids
Q1. A steel wire of length 4.7 m and cross-sectional area 3.0 × 10-5 m2 stretches by the
same amount as a copper wire of length 3.5 m and cross-sectional area of 4.0 × 10–5 m2 under a
given load. What is the ratio of Young’s modulus of steel to that of copper?
Solution:
Length of the steel wire, l1 = 4.7 m

Cross-sectional area of the steel wire, a1 = 3.0 × 10–5 m2
Length of the copper wire, l2 = 3.5 m
Cross-section area of the copper wire, a2 = 4.0 × 10–5 m2
Change in length = Δl1 = Δl2 = Δl
Force applied in both the cases = F
Young’s modulus of the steel wire:
Young’s modulus of the copper wire:
Dividing (1) by (2), we get
Q2. Figure below shows the strain-stress curve for a given material. What are (a)
Young’s modulus and (b) approximate yield strength for this material?
Solution:
Young’s modulus, Y =Stress/Strain

=150 x 106/0.002
= 150 x 106/2 x 10-3
= 75 x 109 Nm-2
=75 x 1010 Nm-2
(a)Yield strength of a material is the maximum stress that the material can sustain and retain its elastic
property. From graph, the approximate yield strength of the given material
= 300 x 106 Nm-2
= 3 x 108 Nm-2.
Q3. The stress-strain graphs for materials A and B are shown in the figure below.
The graphs are drawn to the same scale.

(a) Which of the materials has the greater Young’s modulus?

(b) Which of the two is the stronger material?
Solution:
Young’s modulus = Stress/Strain

(a) From the graphs we can see that for the given strain, stress for A is greater than that of B.
Therefore, Young’s modulus of A is greater than B.
(b) Young’s modulus is also a measure of the strength of the material. Young’s modulus is greater for
A, therefore material A is stronger than B.
Q4. Read the following two statements below carefully and state, with reasons, if it is true or
false.
(a) The Young’s modulus of rubber is greater than that of steel;
(b) The stretching of a coil is determined by its shear modulus.
Solution:
( a ) True. Stretching a coil does not change its length, only its shape is altered and this involves shear
modulus.
( b ) False. This is because, for the same value of stress, there is more strain in rubber than in steel.
And as Young Modulus is an inverse of strain, it is greater in steel.
Q5. Two wires of diameter 0.25 cm, one made of steel and the other made of brass are loaded as
shown in Fig. The unloaded length of steel wire is 1.5 m and that of brass wire is 1.0 m.
Compute the elongations of the steel and the brass wires. [Young’s modulus of steel is 2.0 x
1011 Pa. (1 Pa = 1 N m2)]
Solution:
Diameter of the two wires, d =0.25m
Radius of the wires, r= d/2 =0.125cm
Unloaded length of the steel wire, l1 =1.5m
Unloaded length of the brass wire, l2 =1.0m
Force exerted on the steel wire:
F1 = (4+6) g = 10×9.8 = 98N
Cross-section area of the steel wire, a1 = πr12
Change in length of the steel wire = Δl1
Young’s modulus for steel= 2.0 x 1011 Pa
= 1.49 x 10-4 m
Force of the brass wire, F2 = 6 x 9.8 = 58. 8 N
Cross-section area of the brass wire, a2 =πr22
Change in length of the brass wire = Δl2
Young’s modulus of the brass wire = 0.91 x 1011 Pa
= 1.3 x 10-4 m
Elongation of the steel wire is 1.49 x 10-4 m and that of brass is 1.3 x 10-4 m.
Q6. The edge of an aluminium cube is 10 cm long. One face of the cube is firmly fixed to
a vertical wall. A mass of 100 kg is then attached to the opposite face of the cube. The shear
modulus of aluminium is 25 GPa. What is the vertical deflection of this face?
Solution:
Edge of the aluminium cube, L = 10 cm =10/100= 0.1 m

Area of each face, A = (0.1)2 = 0.01 m2
Mass attached to the opposite face of the cube = 100 kg
Tangential force acting on the face, F = 100 kg = 100 x 9.8 = 980 N
Shear modulus, η = Tangential stress/Shearing strain
Shearing strain = Tangential stress/ Shear modulus
= F/Aη = 980/(0.01 x 25 x 109) = 3.92 x 10-6
Since, Shearing strain = Lateral strain/Side of the cube
Lateral strain = Shearing strain x Side of the cube = 3.92 x 10-6 x 0.1
= 3.92 x 10-7 m ≈ 4 x 10-7 m
Q7. Four identical hollow cylindrical columns of mild steel support a big structure of a
mass 50,000 kg. The inner and outer radii of each column are 30 and 60 cm
respectively. Assuming the load distribution to be uniform, calculate the compressional strain
of each column.
Solution:
Mass of the big structure, M = 50,000 kg
Total force exerted on the four columns= total weight of the structure=50000×9.8N
The compressional force on each column = Mg/4 = (50000×9.8)/4 N= 122500 N

Therefore, Stress = 122500 N
Young’s modulus of steel, Y=2×1011 Pa
Young’s modulus, Y= Stress/Strain
Strain = Young’s modulus/Stress
Strain = (F/A)/Y
Inner radius of the column, r = 30 cm = 0.3 m
Outer radius of the column, R = 60 cm = 0.6 m
Where,
Area, A=π(R2−r2)=π((0.6)2−(0.3)2) = 0.27 π m2
Strain =122500/[0.27 x 3.14×2×1011]=7.22×10−7
Hence, the compressional strain of each column is 7.22×10−7.
Q8. A piece of copper having a rectangular cross-section of 15.2 mm × 19.1 mm is pulled

in tension with 44,500 N force, producing only elastic deformation. Calculate the resulting
strain?
Solution:
Area of the copper piece, A=19.1×10−3 ×15.2×10−3=2.9×10−4m2
Tension force applied on the piece of copper, F=44,500 N
Modulus of elasticity of copper, Y=42×109 Nm−2
Modulus of elasticity (Y) = Stress / Strain
=(F/A) / Strain
Strain = F/(YA)
= 44500/(2.9×10−4×42×109)
= 3.65×10−3
Q9. A steel cable with a radius of 1.5 cm supports a chairlift at a ski area. If the maximum stress
is not to exceed 108 Nm-2. What is the maximum load the cable can support?
Solution:
Radius of the steel cable, r=1.5 cm = 0.015 m
Cross-sectional area of the cable = πr2= 3.14 x ( 0.015)2
= 7.06 x 10-4 m
Maximum stress allowed on the steel cable = 108 N/m2
Maximum load the cable can support = Maximum stress × Area of cross-section
= 108 x 7.06 x 10-4
= 7.065×104 N
Hence, the cable can support the maximum load of 7.065×104 N.
Q10. A rigid bar of mass 15 kg is supported symmetrically by three wires each 2.0 m long.
Those at each end are of copper and the middle one is of iron. Determine the ratios of their
diameters if each is to have the same tension.
Solution:
As the tension on the wires is the same, the extension of each wire will also be the same. Now, as the
length of the wires is the same, the strain on them will also be equal.
Now, we know:
Y = Stress / Strain
= (F/A) / Strain = (4F/πd2) / Strain . . . . . . . . . . ( 1 )
Where,
A = Area of cross-section
F = Tension force
d = Diameter of the wire
We can conclude from equation ( 1 ) that Y ∝ (1/d2)
We know that Young’s modulus for iron, Y1 = 190 × 109 Pa
Let the diameter of the iron wire = d1
Also, Young’s modulus for copper, Y2 = 120 × 109 Pa
let the diameter of the copper wire = d2
Thus, the ratio of their diameters can be given as :
Q11. A 14.5 kg mass, fastened to the end of a steel wire of unstretched length 1.0 m, is whirled
in a vertical circle with an angular velocity of 2 rev/s at the bottom of the circle. The cross-
sectional area of the wire is 0.065 cm2 . Calculate the elongation of the wire when the mass is at
the lowest point of its path.
Solution:
Mass, m = 14.5 kg
Length of the steel wire, l = 1 m
Angular velocity, v = 2 rev/s
Cross-sectional area of the wire, A = 0.065 x 10-4 m2
Total pulling force on the steel wire when the mass is at the lowest point of the vertical circle, F = mg +
mr ω2
= 14.5×9.8+14.5×1×(12.56)2
=2429.53 N
Young’s modulus = Stress / Strain
Δl=(2429.53×1)/(0.065×10−4) × (2×1011) = 1.87×10−3m

Hence, the elongation of the wire when the mass is at the lowest is 1.87×10 −3m.
Q12. Compute the bulk modulus of water from the following data: Initial volume = 100.0 litre,
Pressure increase = 100.0 atm (1 atm = 1.013 × 105 Pa), Final volume = 100.5 litre. Compare the
bulk modulus of water with that of air (at constant temperature). Explain in simple terms why the
ratio is so large.
Solution:
Initial volume, V1 =100.0 litre =100.0×10−3 m3
Final volume, V2 =100.5 litre =100.5×10−3 m3
Change in the volume, ΔV=V2 −V1 =0.5×10−3 m3
Pressure increase, p=100.0atm=100×1.013×105Pa
= 101.3 x 105Pa
Bulk modulus of water= p/(ΔV/V1)=pV1/ΔV
= 101.3×105×100×10−3/(0.5×10−3)
= 2.026×109 Pa
Bulk modulus of air = 1×105 Pa
Bulk modulus of water / Bulk modulus of air = 2.026×109/(1×105)
=2.026×104
The intermolecular force in the liquids is much larger than air as the distance between the molecules is
much lesser in liquid than in air. Therefore, at the same temperature, strain for water is much more than
air.
Q13. What is the density of water at a depth where pressure is 80.0 atm, given that its density at
the surface is 1.03 × 103 kg m–3?
Solution:
Let the depth be the alphabet ‘d’.
Given,
Pressure at the given depth, p = 60.0 atm = 60 × 1.01 × 105 Pa
Density of water at the surface, ρ1 = 1.03 × 103 kg m–3
Let ρ2 be the density of water at the depth d.

V1 be the volume of water of mass m at the surface.
Then, let V2 be the volume of water of mass m at the depth h
and ΔV is the change in volume.
ΔV = V1 – V2
= m [ (1/ρ1) – (1/ρ2) ]
∴ Volumetric strain = ΔV / V1
= m [ (1/ρ1) – (1/ρ2) ] × (ρ1 / m)
ΔV / V1 = 1 – (ρ1/ρ2) .. ... ..(1)
We know, Bulk modulus, B = pV1 / ΔV
=> ΔV / V1 = p / B
Compressibility of water = ( 1/B ) = 45.8 × 10-11 Pa-1
∴ ΔV / V1 = 60 × 1.013 × 105 × 45.8 × 10-11 = 2.78 × 10-3 .....(2)
Using equation ( 1 ) and equation ( 2 ), we get:
1 – (ρ1/ρ2) = 2.78 × 10 -3
ρ2 = 1.03 × 103 / [ 1 – (2.78 × 10-3) ]
= 1.032 × 103 kg m-3
Therefore, at the depth d water has a density of 1.034 × 103 kg m–3.
Q14. Compute the fractional change in volume of a glass slab, when subjected to a hydraulic
pressure of 10 atm.
Solution:
Given,
Pressure acting on the glass plate, p = 10 atm = 10 × 1.013 × 105 Pa
We know,
Bulk modulus of glass, B = 37 × 109 Nm–2
=> Bulk modulus, B = p / (∆V/V)
Where,
∆V/V = Fractional change in volume
∴ ∆V/V = p / B
= [ 10 × 1.013 × 105] / (37 × 109)
= 2.73 × 10 -4
Therefore, the fractional change in the volume of the glass plate is 2.73 × 10–4.
Q15. Determine the volume contraction of a solid copper cube, 10 cm on an edge,

when subjected to a hydraulic pressure of 7.0 × 106 Pa.
Solution:
Side of the copper cube, a = 10 cm
Therefore, Volume of the copper cube, V = a3 = 10-3 m3
hydraulic pressure, p = 7.0 x 106 Pa
Bulk modulus of copper B = 140 G Pa = 140 x 109 Pa.
Bulk modulus, K=−P/(ΔV/V)

We get the value of volume contraction as, ΔV = – PV/K
=−(7×106 ×0.001)/(140×109)
=−0.05×10−6m3
Q16.How much should the pressure on a litre of water be changed to compress it by 0.10%?
Solution:
Volume of water, V=1 litre
Water should be compressed by 0.10%
The fractional change in volume, △V/V=(0.1/100)×1=10−3
Bulk modulus, B =P/(△V/V) = PV/△V
P=B×(△V/V)
Bulk modulus of water, B = 2.2×109 Nm −2
Pressure on water, P=2.2×109 ×10−3 =2.2×106 Pa
Q17. Anvils made of single crystals of diamond, with the shape as shown in the figure, are used
to investigate the behaviour of materials under very high pressures. Flat faces at the narrow end
of the anvil have a diameter of 0.50 mm, and the wide ends are subjected to a compressional
force of 50,000 N. What is the pressure at the tip of the anvil?
Solution:
Flat faces at the narrow end of the anvil have a diameter, d=0.50mm=0.5×10−3 m
Radius, r=d/2=0.25×10−3 m
Compressional force, F=50000N

Pressure at the tip of the anvil:
P=Force/Area
Area = πr2 = 3.14 x (0.25×10−3 )2 = 0.1925 x 10-6m2
Pressure at the tip of the anvil = F/A
= 50000/0.1925 x 10-6
=2.59×1011 Pa
Q18. A rod of length 1.05 m having negligible mass is supported at its ends by two wires of steel
(wire A) and aluminium (wire B) of equal lengths as shown in the figure. The cross-sectional
areas of wires A and B are 1.0 mm2 and 2.0 mm2, respectively. At what point along the rod
should a mass m be suspended in order to produce (a) equal stresses and (b) equal strains in
both steel and aluminium wires.
Solution:
Given,
Cross-sectional area of wire A, a1 = 1.0 mm2 = 1.0 × 10–6 m2
Cross-sectional area of wire B, a2 = 2 mm2 = 2 × 10–6 m2
We know, Young’s modulus for steel, Y1 = 2 × 1011 Nm–2
Young’s modulus for aluminium, Y2 = 7.0 ×1010 Nm–2
( i ) Let a mass m be hung on the stick at a distance y from the end where wire A is attached.
Stress in the wire = Force / Area = F / a
Now it is given that the two wires have equal stresses ;
F1 / a 1 = F2 / a 2
Where,
F1 = Force acting on wire A
and F2 = Force acting on wire B

F1 / F2 = a 1 / a 2 = 1 / 2 . . . . . . . . . . . . ( 1 )
The above situation can be represented as :
Moment of forces about the point of suspension, we have:

F1y = F2 (1.5 – y)
F1 / F2 = (1.5 – y) / y . . . . . . . . . . ( 2 )
Using equation ( 1 ) and equation ( 2 ), we can write:
(1.5 – y) / y = 1 / 2
2 (1.5 – y) = y
y=1m
Therefore, the mass needs to be hung at a distance of 1m from the end where wire A is attached in
order to produce equal stress in the two wires.
( ii ) We know,
Young’s modulus = Stress / Strain
=> Strain = Stress / Young’s modulus = ( F/a)/ Y
It is given that the strain in the two wires is equal :
( F1/a1) / Y1 = ( F2/a2) / Y2
F1 / F2 = a1Y1 / a2Y2
a1 / a2 = 1 / 2
F1 / F2 = (1 / 2) (2 × 1011 / 7 × 1010) = 10 / 7 ...........(3)
Let the mass m be hung on the stick at a distance y1 from the end where the steel wire is attached in
order to produce equal strain
Taking the moment of force about the point where mass m is suspended :
F1y1 = F2 (1.5 – y1)
F1 / F2 = (1.5 – y1) / y1 ...........(4)
From equations ( 3 ) and ( 4 ), we get:

(1.05 – y1) / y1 = 10 / 7
7(1.05 – y1) = 10y1
y1 = 0.432 m
Therefore, the mass needs to be hung at a distance of 0.432 m from the end where wire A is attached
in order to produce equal strain in the two wires.
Q19. 9 A mild steel wire of length 1.0 m and cross-sectional area 0.50 × 10-2 cm2 is stretched,
well within its elastic limit, horizontally between two pillars. A mass of 100 g is suspended from
the mid-point of the wire. Calculate the depression at the midpoint.
Solution:
Given,
Water pressure at the bottom, p = 1000 atm = 1000 x 1.013 x 105 Pa
p = 1.01 x 108 Pa
Initial volume of the steel ball, V = 0.30 m3
We know, bulk modulus of steel, B = 1.6 × 1011 Nm–2
Let the change in the volume of the ball on reaching the bottom of the trench be ΔV.
Bulk modulus, B = p / (∆V/V)
∆V = pV / B
= [ 1.01 × 108 × 0.30 ] / (1.6 × 1011 ) = 1.89 × 10-4 m3
Hence, volume of the ball changes by 1.89 × 10-4 m3 on reaching the bottom of the trench.
Q20. Two strips of metal are riveted together at their ends by four rivets, each of diameter
6.0 mm. What is the maximum tension that can be exerted by the riveted strip if the shearing
stress on the rivet is not to exceed 6.9 × 107 Pa? Assume that each rivet is to carry one-quarter
of the load.
Solution:
Diameter of the metal strips= 6mm = 6 x 10-3 m
Radius, r = 3 x 10-3 m;
Shearing stress on the rivet= 6.9 x 107 Pa
Maximum load or force on a rivet
= Maximum stress x cross-sectional area
= 6.9 x 107 x 3.14 x (3 x 10-3)2 N = 1950 N
Maximum tension = 4 x 1950 N = 7800 N
Q21. The Marina trench is located in the Pacific Ocean, and at one place it is nearly eleven km
beneath the surface of the water. The water pressure at the bottom of the trench is about 1.1 ×
108 Pa. A steel ball of initial volume 0.32 m3 is dropped into the ocean and falls to the bottom of
the trench. What is the change in the volume of the ball when it reaches the bottom?
Solution:
Water pressure at the bottom of the trench, p=1.1×10 8 Pa
Initial volume of the steel ball, V=0.32m3
Bulk modulus of steel, B=1.6×1011 Nm−2
The ball falls at the bottom of the trench which is nearly 11 km beneath the surface of the water.
The volume change of the ball after reaching the bottom of the trench is △V
Bulk modulus, B=p/(△V/V) = pV/△V
△V= pV/B
=(1.1×108×0.32)/(1.6×1011)
= 0.352 ×108/1.6×1011
= 0.22 x 10-3m3
The change in volume of the ball on reaching the bottom of the trench is 0.22 x 10-3m3
Q22. A mild steel wire of cross-sectional area 0.60 x 10 -2 cm2 and length 2 m is stretched ( not
beyond its elastic limit ) horizontally between two columns. If a 100g mass is hung at the
midpoint of the wire, find the depression at the midpoint.
Solution:
Let YZ be the mild steel wire of length 2l = 2m and cross sectional area A = 0.60 x 10 -2 cm2. Let the
mass of m = 100 g = 0.1 kg be hung from the midpoint O, as shown in the figure. And let x be the
depression at the midpoint i.e OD
From the figure;
ZO =YO = l = 1 m ;
M = 0.1 KG
ZD = YD = (l2 + x2)1/2
Increase in length, ∆l = YD + DZ – ZY
= 2YD – YZ ( As DZ = YD)
= 2(l2 + x2)1/2 – 2l
∆l = 2l( x2/2l2 ) = x2 / l
Therefore, longitudinal strain = ∆l / 2l = x2/2l2 . . . . . . . . ( i )
If T is the tension in the wires, then in equilibrium 2Tcosθ = 2mg
Or, T = mg / 2cos θ
= [ mg (l2 + x2)1/2] / 2x =mgl / 2x
Therefore, Stress = T / A = mgl / 2Ax . . . . . . . . . . . . ( ii )

NCERT Solutions For Class 11 Physics Chapter 10 Mechanical Properties of Fluids

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NCERT Solutions For Class 11 Physics Chapter 10 Mechanical Properties of Fluids

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NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Physics Chapter 10

Mechanical Properties of Fluids

Q.2: Explain why

Q.4: Explain why

Using Poiseville’s formula, we get:

Where, P1 = Pressure on the upper side of the wing

Therefore, V2 = 0.636 m/s

Thus the excess pressure inside the soap bubble is 20 Pa.

Thus, the excess pressure inside the air bubble is 10 Pa

And the viscous force on the drop is:

Where ρ0 = density of air at sea level ie y =0

Given: Kelvin and Celsius scales are related as:

For carbon dioxide:

273.15 K on the Kelvin scale is equivalent to 350 B on absolute scale B.

Let, TA and TB be the triple point of water on scale A and B respectively.

Q.3: The electrical resistance in ohms of a certain thermometer varies with

Q.4: Answer the following:

For another set of T’F and T’K

Subtracting Equation (1) and (2):

Temperature Pressure thermometer A Pressure thermometer B

Triple-point of water 1.250 × 105Pa 0.200 × 105Pa

Normal melting point of sulphur 1.797 × 105Pa 0.287 × 105 Pa

Using the formula,

Initial temperature, T1=27oC

Gas Molar Specific Heat CV ( cal mol-1 K-1)

Carbon monoxide 5.01

Nitric oxide 4.99

Q.19. Explain why:

Where the value of K is a constant.

10. A refrigerator is to maintain eatables kept inside at 90 C. If room temperature is 360 C,

Diameter of an oxygen molecule, d = 3 Å

(a) What does the dotted plot signify?

7. Estimate the average thermal energy of a helium atom at

(ii) On the surface of the sun, T = 6000 K

Carbon (diamond) 12.01 2.22

Gold 197.00 19.32

Nitrogen (liquid) 14.01 1.00

Lithium 6.94 0.53

Fluorine (liquid) 19.00 1.14

1. Which of the following examples represents periodic motion?

(c) at the mid-point of AB going towards A,

Maximum force exerted on the spring, F = mg

Angular velocity, ω = 2π rad/s

On moon’s surface, time period, T’ = 2 π√l / g’

16. Answer the following questions:

Volume = Area x Distance through which the cork is depressed

Volume of the air chamber = V

Kinetic energy = Potential energy

(b) When the displacement y = 3 cm = 0.03 m

(c) When the displacement y = 0

Q8. A transverse harmonic wave on a wire is expressed as:

The mass of the wire is 6 x 10-2 kg and its length is 3m.

( i ) Thus, the given function describes a stationary wave.

( ii ) We know, a wave travelling in the positive x-direction can be represented as :

The transverse displacement of the wires is described as :

Comparing equations ( 1 ) and ( 2 ) , we get :

The distance between two successive nodes is λ / 2

the normal mode of frequency, νN = 430 Hz

Q19. Explain how:

(b) Train recedes from the platform at a speed, vs = 10 m/s

= 7.5 sin (12.0050 + π/4) ——-(1)

(b) Propagation constant, k=2π/λ