Test ID : 367

GREEN PARK INTERNATIONAL SENIOR SECONDARY SCHOOL, NAMAKKAL

WEEKEND TEST – 12 (SECOND YEAR)
Std : XII* - CBSE (JUNIOR) Marks : 360
Date : 14.08.2021 BIOLOGY Time : 1.30 Hrs.
Choose the correct answer: 90 x 4 = 360
Note :
For every correct answer four marks will be awarded. For every wrong answer one mark will be
reduced. For unanswered questions zero mark.
1. The crystals of Bt toxin produced by some 7. α-1-antitrypsin is a
bacteria do not kill the bacteria themselves 1) protein which is used to treat HIV
because 2) carbohydrate which is used to treat
1) bacteria enclose toxin in a special sac rheumatoid arthritis
2) toxin is in denatured form 3) protein which is used to treat emphysema
3) toxin is in inactive form 4) carbohydrate which is used to treat HIV
4) bacteria are resistant to the toxin 8. GEAC make decisions regarding
2. rDNA technology, PCR and ELISA are some
1) the validity of GM research
of the techniques that commonly
2) the safety of introducing GM organisms for
1) helps in the detection of HIV only
public services
2) used to amplify the number of copies of
3) the clearance of second amendment of the
desirable genes
Indian Patents Bill
3) serve the purpose of early diagnosis of a
disease 4) both (1) and (2)
9. Basmati rice is distinct for its unique
4) All of the above
3. Choose the correct match 1) shape and aroma
1) Coleopterans – Beetles 2) colour and aroma
2) Lepidopterans – Flies 3) aroma and flavour
3) Dipterans – Tobacco budworm 4) flavour and colour
4) Both (2) and (3) 10. All of the following are genes except

4. The insecticidal Bt toxin protein binds to the 1) cryIAc 2) rop

surface of ______ of insects. 3) cryIAb 4) ADA
1) epithelial cells of hind-gut 11. Over 95 per cent of all existing transgenic
2) epithelial cells of fore-gut animals are
3) epithelial cells of salivary gland 1) Cows 2) Mice
4) epithelial cells of mid-gut 3) Sheep 4) Pigs
5. Type of bonds present in the free C-peptide of 12. Today transgenic models exist for the
human insulin is/are investigation of new treatment for which of
1) Disulphide bridge 2) Glycosidic bonds the following human diseases?
3) Peptide bonds 4) Both (1) and (3) I) Cancer II) Cystic fibrosis
6. The nematode Meloidegyne incognitia infects III) Rheumatoid arthritis IV) Alzheimer’s
which part of tobacco plants? 1) I, II and III 2) II, III and IV
1) Stems 2) Roots 3) I, III and IV 4) I, II, III and IV
3) Flowers 4) Leaves
 2 Test ID : 367
13. Endotoxins encoded by cryIAb of Bacillus 21. Select the incorrect match
thuringiensis are effective against 1) ELISA – Molecular diagnosis
1) Meloidegyne incognitia 2) Human protein – Alpha lactalbumin gene
2) Corn borer 3) Transgenic mice – Vaccine safety
3) Cotton bollworms 4) ssDNA / RNA probe – Gene therapy
4) Mosquitoes and flies 22. Out of 30 recombinant therapeutics approved
14. The process of separation and purification of for human use world wide, how many are
expressed protein before marketing is called presently being marketed in India?
1) 30 2) 12
1) Biofortification
3) 15 4) 18
2) Upstream processing
23. Genetically engineered bacteria have been
3) Downstream processing
used in commercial production of which of the
4) Biomagnification following products?
1) Human insulin 2) Cyclosporin A
3) Citric acid 4) Penicillin
24. Two microbes found to be very useful in
15.
genetic engineering are
1) Vibrio cholerae and bacteriophage
The diagram shown above represents the
2) Escherichia coli and Agrobacterium
1) Proinsulin 2) Immature insulin tumifaciens
3) Mature insulin 4) Preproinsulin 3) Diplococcus sp and Pseudomonas sp
16. The continuous culture system maintains most 4) Vibrio cholerae and Mycobacterium
of the cells in their physiologically 25. Silencing of mRNA has been used in
1) log phase 2) lag phase producing transgenic plants resistant to
3) stationary phase 4) death phase 1) Bollworms 2) Nematodes
17. If any protein encoding gene is expressed in 3) White rust 4) Bacterial blight
a heterologous host, it is called a 26. Which one of the following techniques is used
1) recombinant protein to produce the GM crops?
2) conjugate protein 1) Micropropagation
3) non recombinant protein 2) rDNA technology
4) derived protein 3) Somatic hybridization
4) Cross breeding
18. Golden rice is enriched with
27. Statement – I : Bacillus thuringiensis
1) Vitamin B 2) Vitamin C
produces toxin protein that kills lepidopteran
3) Vitamin A 4) Vitamin D insect only
19. Genetic modification has reduced Statement – II : Bacillus thuringiensis forms
1) efficiency of mineral usage by plants active protein crystals during a particular
2) nutritional value of food phase of their growth.
3) reliance on chemical pesticides 1) Both the statements are correct
4) the tolerance of crops to abiotic stresses 2) Both the statements are incorrect
20. Bt toxin gene has been cloned from the 3) Statement – I is correct, statement – II is
incorrect
1) Viruses 2) Fungi
4) Statement – I is incorrect, statement – II is
3) Bacteria 4) Protozoans correct
 3 Test ID : 367
28. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t PCR 36. The first clinical gene therapy was given in
1) Helps in amplification of gene of interest 1990 to a 4 years old girl with deficiency of
enzyme
2) Used to detect HIV in suspected AIDS
patients 1) tyrosine oxidase
2) adenosine deaminase
3) Used to detect mutations is genes in
3) glutamate dehydrogenase
suspected cancer patients
4) beta – galactosidase
4) Helps to detect the antibodies synthesised
37. In the novel strategy to develop pest resistant
against the pathogen.
plants, the RNAi stands for
29. Which strategy is adopted to prevent 1) RNA inactivation 2) RNA initiation
Meloidegyne incognitia infection in tobacco
3) RNA interference 4) RNA interferon
plants?
38. The amount of human protein in the milk
1) DNA interference produced by the first transgenic cow is
2) Enzyme inhibition 1) 24 grams per litre
3) RNA interference 2) 2.4 grams per litre
4) Transcriptional inhibition 3) 42 grams per litre
30. Which of the following is based upon the 4) 4.2 grams per litre
principle of antigen antibody interaction? 39. GEAC stands for
1) PCR 2) ELISA 1) Genome Engineering Action Committee
3) Southern blotting 4) Northern blotting 2) Green Environment Action Committee
31. RNAi takes place in 3) Genetic Engineering Approval Committee
1) All prokaryotes only 2) Some eukaryotes 4) Genetic and Environmental Approval
Committee
3) All eukaryotes 4) Both (1) and (2)
40. How many of the following are the
32. Which of the following is the first transgenic applications of biotechnology?
cow? Therapeutics, Diagnostics, Processed food,
1) Dolly 2) Rosie Bioremediation, Waste treatment, Energy
3) Laika 4) Merino production
33. Which vector is used to introduce the 1) 6 2) 5
functional ADA cDNA into lymphocytes of a 3) 4 4) 3
patient during gene therapy? 41. Which company prepared two DNA sequences
1) Lambda bacteriophage corresponding to A and B chains of human
insulin?
2) Agrobacterium
1) Eli Lilly, an Asian Company
3) E.coli
2) Pfizer, an American Company
4) Retroviruses 3) Eli Lilly, an American Company
34. Downstream processing does not involve 4) Pfizer, an Asian Company
1) separation 2) purification 42. In RNA interference, complementary dsRNA
3) preservation 4) biosynthesis interferes with
35. How many documented varieties of Basmati 1) translation in nematode
are grown in India? 2) transcription in nematode
1) 27 2) 72 3) both transcription and translation in
3) 32 4) 23 nematode
4) synthesis of rRNA in nematode
 4 Test ID : 367
43. In the diagram given below of stirred tank 50. The non- infectious disease, which is the
bioreactor. What is the function of labelled major cause of death
part A? 1) AIDS 2) cancer
3) hepatitis 4) SCID
51. Typhoid fever could be confirmed by
1) ELISA test 2) mantoux test
3) widal test 4) PCR test
52. Match the following.
Column - I Column - II
1) To maintain the optimum temperature A) Haemophilus
i) Malaria
2) To maintain the optimum pH influenzae
3) To maintain the optimum salt concentration B) Salmonella typhi ii) Typhoid
4) To control the foam formation C) Plasmodium
44. Which of the following are the conventional iii) Amoebiasis
vivax
methods of disease diagnosis?
D) Entamoeba
1) Serum analysis, PCR iv) Pneumonia
histolytica
2) PCR, ELISA
1) A - i, B - ii, C - iii, D - iv
3) Serum analysis, Urine analysis
4) ELISA, Urine analysis 2) A - iv, B - iii, C - ii, D - i
45. Insulin is used for the treatment of which of 3) A - iv, B - ii, C - iii, D - i
the following diseases? 4) A - iv, B - ii, C - i, D - iii
1) Diabetes 2) Emphysema 53. Statement – I: In humans pneumonia infect
3) PKU 4) Sickle cell anaemia nose, respiratory passage and lungs.
46. Health for a long time, was considered as a Statement – II: In severe condition of
state of body and mind where there was a pneumonia, the lips and finger nails may turn
balance of certain gray to bluish in colour.
1) humors 2) tumors 1) Both Statements I and II are correct
3) enzymes 4) hormones 2) Statement I is correct, Statement II is
47. Our health is affected by incorrect
1) genetic disorders 2) infections 3) Statement I is incorrect, statement II is
3) life style 4) all of these correct
48. Yoga has been practiced since time 4) Both statements I and II are incorrect
immemorial to achieve 54. Filariasis is caused by
1) physical health 2) mental health
1) protozoan parasite
3) both 1 and 2 4) social health
2) helminthic parasite
49. Diseases which are easily transmitted from
3) bacteria
one person to another are called
1) infectious diseases 4) fungus
2) non infectious diseases 55. The fungi genera which is responsible for
3) genetic diseases ringworms is /are
4) both 2 and 3 1) Microsporum 2) Trichophyton
3) Epidermophyton 4) all the above
 5 Test ID : 367
56. Read the symptoms given below. 61. Match the following from column - I with
a - sustained high fever (39o to 40oC) column - II.
b - intestinal perforation Column - I Column - II
c - blockage of the intestinal passage A) Physical barrier i) Interferons
d - stomach pain B) Physiological barrier ii) Neutrophils
How many of above statements are not related
C) Cellular barrier iii) Saliva
to typhoid?
1) a and d 2) c only D) Cytokine barrier iv) Skin
3) a, b and c 4) all except c 1) A - ii, B - iii, C - i, D - iv
57. Observe the diagram and identify to which 2) A - iii, B - iv, C - ii, D - i
disease it is meant for 3) A - iv, B - iii, C - i, D - ii
4) A - iv, B - iii, C - ii, D - i
62. The immunity which is characterised by
memory is
1) innate immunity 2) inborn immunity
3) acquired immunity 4) both 1 and 2
1) Ascariasis 2) Filariasis 63. An antibody is represented by
3) Malaria 4) Amoebiasis 1) H1L2 2) H2L2
58. Favourable conditions for the growth of fungi 3) H2L1 4) H1L1
which are responsible for ringworms are 64. The immunity which is responsible for graft
1) heat and moist 2) cold and moist rejection is
3) heat and dry 4) cold and dry 1) cell mediated immunity
59. The following fishes are introduced into ponds 2) non-specific immunity
to control the mosquito population. 3) inborn immunity
1) Catla 2) Clarias 4) innate immunity
3) Gambusia 4) Rohu 65. Colostrum secreted by mother during initial
60. Statement – I: A large number of diseases days of lactation to protect the infant is an
like polio, diphtheria, pneumonia and tetanus example for
have been controlled to a large extent by the 1) passive immunity
use of vaccines.
2) active immunity
Statement – II: Biotechnology is at the verge
3) innate immunity
of making available newer and safer vaccines.
4) cell mediated immunity
1) Both Statements I and II are correct
66. During vaccination, the following is
2) Statement I is correct, Statement II is
introduced into the body.
incorrect
1) antigen proteins of pathogen
3) Statement I is incorrect, statement II is
2) inactivated pathogen
correct
3) weakened pathogen
4) Both statements I and II are incorrect
4) any one of the above
 6 Test ID : 367
67. Observe the following diagram and choose the 1) A - Q, B - P, C - S, D - P
correct labelling for P, Q and R. 2) A - S, B - P, C - R, D - Q
3) A - S, B - Q, C - R, D - P
4) A - S, B - R, C - Q, D - P
72. Find out the mismatch from the following.
1) Physical barrier - mucus coating
2) Cell mediated immunity - ‘T’ lymphocytes
3) Primary lymphoid organ - Thymus
4) Secondary lymphoid organ - Bone marrow
1) P - Heavy chain, Q - Light chain,
73. Find out correct statement regarding ‘A’ of
R - Antigen binding site
the following diagram.
2) P - Antigen binding site, Q - Light chain,
R - Heavy chain
3) P - Antigen binding site, Q - Heavy chain,
R - Light chain
4) P - Heavy chain, Q - Antigen binding site,
R - Light chain
68. The antibodies produced against allergens are
___ .
1) IgA type 2) IgG type
3) IgE type 4) IgM type
69. Find out correct combination of secondary 1) It act as filter of the blood by trapping
lymphoid organs. blood-born micro organisms
1) spleen, lymph nodes and thymus 2) It provides microenvironments for the
2) spleen, Peyer’s patches and tonsils development and maturation of ‘T’-
3) Peyer’s patches, bone-marrow and thymus lymphocytes
4) lymph nodes, tonsils and bone-marrow 3) It constitute about 50% of all lymphoid
70. Percentage of lymphoid tissue in human body tissue in human body
in the form of MALT is 4) all the above
1) 40% 2) 60%
74. Statement – I: HIV/AIDS is spread by mere
3) 50% 4) 70%
touch or physical contact.
71. Match the following from column - I with
column - II. Statement – II: HIV can spread to the
children born to an HIV infected mother.
Column - I Column - II
1) Both Statements I and II are correct
A) Allergy P) Hepatitis B vaccine
2) Statement I is correct, Statement II is
B) rDNA technology Q) Group of symptoms
incorrect
R) Auto immune
C) Rheumatoid arthritis 3) Statement I is incorrect, statement II is
disease
correct
S) Exaggerated
D) Syndrome response of immune 4) Both statements I and II are incorrect
system
 7 Test ID : 367
75. Read the statements from the following and 79. Smoking is associated with increased
find out true or false. incidence of
A. Cancer is one of the most dreaded diseases 1) lung cancer
of human beings and is a major cause of 2) urinary bladder cancer
death all over the globe. 3) throat cancer
B. More than a million Indians suffer from 4) all the above
cancer.
80. The drug which is obtained by acetylation of
C. Neoplastic cells grow very rapidly, morphine is
invading and damaging the surrounding 1) heroin 2) smack
normal tissues. 3) both 1 and 2 4) charas
D. Ionizing radiation like UV cause DNA 81. Erythroxylum coca is the native of
damage. 1) North America 2) South America
A B C D 3) South Africa 4) South Asia
1) T F T T 82. Nicotine stimulates A gland to release B
2) T T F T and C in to blood circulation.
3) T T T F 1) A - Adrenal, B - Adrenaline, C - Aldosterone
4) T F T F 2) A - Adrenal, B - Adrenaline, C - Nor-
adrenaline
76. The following is skeletal structure of a drug
3) A -Adrenal, B - Nor adrenaline,
which is obtained from the plant.
C - Aldosterone
4) A - Adrenal, B - Aldosterone,
C -Epinephrine
83. The most feared property of malignant tumors
is
1) contact inhibition
2) controlled cell division
3) metastasis
4) metagenesis
1) Papaver somniferum 2) Cannabis sativa 84. These days the following drugs are being
3) Erythroxylum coca 4) Poppy plant abused by some sportspersons.
77. Find out the correct pair from the following. 1) Morphine 2) Smack
1) Opioids - Nicotine 3) Opioids 4) Cannabinoids
2) Cannabinoids - Hashish 85. Acne, depression, enlargement of clitoris,
3) Cocaine - Morphine deepening of voice, increased aggressiveness,
mood swings.
4) Tobacco - Crack
How many of the above are common side
78. Tobacco have been used by human beings for effects of the use of anabolic steroids in both
more than male and female.
1) 1000 years 2) 1400 years 1) 3 2) 4
3) 4000 years 4) 400 years 3) 5 4) 6
 8 Test ID : 367
86. Both AIDS and Hepatitis B infections are 89. Which of the following statement is incorrect
1) chronic and non fatal regarding adolescence?
2) chronic and fatal 1) It is the period between 12 - 18 years of age
3) congenital and fatal 2) It is accompanied by several biological and
4) acute and non fatal behavioral changes
87. Statement – I: It is true that habits such as 3) It is a bridge linking childhood and adult
smoking, taking drugs or alcohol are more hood
likely to be taken up at young age, more 4) It is a non-vulnerable phase of mental and
during adolescence. psychological development of an individual
Statement – II: Any addict requires 90. Match the following from column - I with
counseling and medical help to get rid of the column - II.
habit. Column - I Column - II
1) Both Statements I and II are correct A) Typhoid i) Bacterial disease
2) Statement I is correct, Statement II is
B) Amoebiasis ii) Helminthic disease
incorrect
3) Statement I is incorrect, statement II is C) Ascariasis iii) Fungal disease
correct D) Ringworms iv) Protozoan disease
4) Both statements I and II are incorrect 1) A - i, B - iii, C - ii, D - iv
88. Withdrawal syndrome is characterized by 2) A - i, B - iii, C - iv, D - ii
1) anxiety and nausea only 3) A - i, B - iv, C - ii, D - iii
2) nausea and sweating only 4) A - i, B - ii, C - iv, D - iii
3) sweating and shakiness only
4) anxiety, shakiness, nausea and sweating
*** All The Best ***