Mcqs PG Diploma Aima 2021

Leading - MCQs with answers - Part 1
1. ___________ is a performance measure of both efficiency and effectiveness.

a. Organisational behaviour
b. Organisational citizenship
c. Employee productivity
d. None of the above
View Answer / Hide Answer
ANSWER: c. Employee productivity
2. The voluntary and involuntary permanent withdrawal from an organisation is

called ___________.
a. Turnover
b. Behaviour
c. Misbehaviour

ANSWER: a. Turnover
3. Discretionary behaviour that is not part of an employee's formal job

requirements, but that promotes the effective functioning of the organisation.
a. Behaviour
b. Organisational behaviour
c. Workplace misbehaviour
d. Organisational citizenship behaviour

ANSWER: c. Workplace misbehaviour
4. _____________ is that part of an attitude that's made up of the beliefs,
opinions, knowledge or information held by a person.
a. Behavioural component
b. Cognitive component
c. Affective component
ANSWER: b. Cognitive component

5. The emotional part of an attitude is called _______.
a. Affective component
b. Attitude
c. Behavioural component
d. All of the above
ANSWER: a. Affective component
6. Employee's general belief that their organisation values their contribution

and cares about their well - being is called __________.
a. Behaviour
b. Workplace misbehaviour
c. Organisational behaviour
d. Perceived organisational support

ANSWER: d. Perceived organisational support
7. Any compatibility or inconsistency between attitudes or between behaviour

and attitudes is called _____.
a. Attitude surveys
b. Personality
c. Cognitive dissonance

ANSWER: c. Cognitive dissonance
8. Which is the most popular approach to classifying personality traits?
a. MBTI
b. Style of making decisions
c. Social interaction
ANSWER: a. MBTI
9. Match the following personality types with their respective descriptions
1) Introvert, Intuitive, Feeling & Judgemental------ A. Blunt and sometimes insensitive
2) Extrovert, Intuitive, Thinking & Judgemental----- B. Warm, friendly, candid and
decisive
3) Extrovert, Sensing, Thinking & Perceptive-------- C. Quietly forceful, conscientious
& concern
4) Introvert, Sensing, Feeling & Perceptive--------- D. Sensitive, Kind, Modest, Shy
and Quiet
a. 1-C, 2-B, 3-A, 4-D
b. 1-C, 2-A, 3-B, 4-D
c. 1-C, 2-A, 3-B, 4-D
d. 1-A, 2-B, 3-D, 4-C
ANSWER: a. 1-C,2-B,3-A,4-D
10. Which of these is one of the five personality traits in the Big - Five Model?
a. Emotional stability
b. Openness to experience
c. Extraversion
d. All of the above

ANSWER: d. All of the above
1. The degree to which people are pragmatic, maintain emotional distance and believe
that ends justify means is called __________.
a. Impression Management
b. Machiavellianism
c. Locus of control
ANSWER: b. Machiavellianism
2. Match the following personality types with their characters
1) Realistic -------------- A. Self - confident

2) Investigative ---------- B. Idealistic
3) Social ----------------- C. Persistent
4) Conventional------------ D. Unimaginative
5) Enterprising ----------- E. Curious
6) Artistic --------------- F. Co - operative
a. 1-C, 2-E, 3-F, 4-D, 5-A, 6-B

b. 1-E, 2-C, 3-F, 4-A, 5-D, 6-B
C. 1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-B, 5-E, 6-F
D. 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-F, 5-D, 6-E
ANSWER: a. 1-C,2-E,3-F,4-D,5-A,6-B
3. The ability to notice and to manage emotional cues and information is called _____.
a. Perception
b. Emotions
c. Emotional Intelligence
ANSWER: c. Emotional Intelligence
4. Which is the theory that explains how we judge people differently depending on the
meaning we attribute to a given behaviour?
a. Attribution Theory
b. X and Y theory
c. Fundamental attribution theory
ANSWER: a. Attribution Theory

5. _____________ is a type of learning in which desired voluntary behaviour
leads to a reward or prevents a punishment.
a. Self - serving bias

b. Assumed similarity
c. Stereotyping
d. Operant conditioning
ANSWER: d. Operant conditioning
6. What is fundamental attribution theory?
a. Tendency to underestimate the influence of external factors and overestimate the

influence of internal factors when judging other's behaviour
b. Tendency for individuals to attribute their own successes to internal factors while putting
the blame for failures on external factors
c. General impression of an individual based on a single

characteristic
ANSWER: a. Tendency to underestimate the influence of external factors and

overestimate the influence of internal factors when judging other's behaviour
7. Which of these is one of the four processes that influence social learning theory?
a. Motor reproduction processes
b. Reinforcement processes
c. Attentional processes
d. All of the above

Human Resource Planning - MCQs with answers - Part 1
1. __________ is the process of forecasting an organisations future demand
for, and supply of, the right type of people in the right number.
a. Human Resource Planning

b. Recruitments
c. Human Resource Management
d. Human Capital Management
ANSWER: a. Human Resource Planning
2. Which of the following factors state the importance of the Human Resource
Planning?
a. Creating highly talented personnel

b. International strategies
c. Resistance to change and move
d. All of the above
3. A process that is used for identifying and developing internal people with
the potential to fill key business leadership positions in the company is called
______.
a. Highly talented personnel creation

b. Investing in human resources
c. Succession planning
ANSWER: c. Succession planning

4. State true or false
i. Human Resource Planning facilitates international expansion strategies.

a. True
b. False
ANSWER: a. True
5. Which of the following option is not the factor that hinders with the human
resource planning process?
a. Type and quality of forecasting information

b. Time horizons
c. Environmental uncertainties
d. Unite the perspectives of line and staff managers

ANSWER: d. Unite the perspectives of line and staff managers
6. What is the major issue faced while doing personal planning?
a. Type of information which should be used in making forecasts

b. Types of people to be hired
c. Multiple positions to be filled
d. All of the above

ANSWER: a. Type of information which should be used in making forecasts
7. Rearrange the following steps involved in the Human resource planning

process in proper order.
A. HR Programming
B. HR Demand Forecast
C. Environmental Scanning
D. Control and evaluation of programme
E. Surplus - restricted hiring
F. HRP implementation
G. HR supply forecast
H. Organisational objectives and Policies
I. Shortage - Recruitments and Selection
a. ABCDEFGHI
b. CHBGAFDEI
c. IHDEBCAFG
d. IHGFEDCBA
8. Which of these factors is not included in environmental scanning?
a. Political and legislative issues

b. Economic factors
c. Technological changes
ANSWER: d. None of the above
9. _______ is the process of estimating the quantity and quality of people

required to meet future needs of the organisation.
a. Demand forecasting
b. Supply forecasting
c. Environmental forecasting

ANSWER: a. Demand forecasting
10. Which of the below given options are the forecasting techniques used?
A. Ration Trend Analysis

B. Delphi Technique
C. Staffing projections
a. A & C
b. B & C
c. A, B & C
d. A & B

ANSWER: d. A & B
1. Which of the forecasting technique is the fastest?
a. Work study technique

b. Flow models
c. Ratio trend analysis
d. HR demand Forecast
ANSWER: c. Ratio trend analysis
2. What does the ratio trend analysis studies for forecasting?
a. Profits and loss

b. Retirements and requirements
c. Past and future ratios of workers and sales
ANSWER: c. Past and future ratios of workers and sales
i. The Delphi technique is named after the ancient Greek Oracle at the city of Delphi.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: a. True
4. What does the Delphi technique use to do the forecasting?
a. Personal needs
b. Emotional needs
c. Social needs
d. All of the above
ANSWER: a. Personal needs

5. Which is the simplest flow model used for forecasting?
a. Semi - Markov Model
b. Resource based Model
c. Markov Model
d. Vacancy Model
ANSWER: c. Markov Model
6. ___________ is a systematic procedure for collecting, storing, maintaining,

retrieving and validating data needed by an organisation about its human
resources.
a. Data collection
b. Human Resource Information System
c. Management Information System
d. Maintenance of records

ANSWER: b. Human Resource Information System
7. Choose the correct option, where Human Resource Information System can
be used.
a. Succession planning
b. Retirement
c. Designing jobs
d. Inducting new hires
ANSWER: a. Succession planning
8. How many steps are involved in implementing Human Resource Information

System?
a. 10
b. 5
c. 14
d. 15

ANSWER: c. 14
9. At what stage does vendor analysis step â€“ in while implementing human
resource information system?
a. 5
b. 14
c. 1
d. 3
ANSWER: a. 5
10. What techniques are used while analysing the internal supply?
a. Inflows and outflows

b. Turnover rate
c. Conditions of work and absenteeism
d. All of the above
11. Complete the following formula to calculate turnover rate.
(Number of separations during one year / ______) X 100

_________
a. Average number of persons X number of working days
b. Average number of working days
c. Average number of employees during the year
d. Average number of leaves
ANSWER: c. Average number of employees during the year
12. Which of the below mentioned option is not a retention plan?
a. Performance appraisal
b. Compensation plan
c. Induction crisis
d. Voluntary retirement Scheme
ANSWER: d. Voluntary retirement Scheme

13. Which of the following is a barrier while doing human resource planning?
a. HR information often is incompatible with the information used in strategy

formulation
b. Implementing human resource information system
c. Managing inventories
d. Supply forecast
ANSWER: a. HR information often is incompatible with the information used in

strategy formulation
14. What are the pre- requisites for successful human resource planning?
a. Backing of top management

b. Personal records must be complete
c. Techniques of planning should be the best
d. All of the above
15. Which of the following is requisite for a typical succession planning?
a. Career counselling
b. Performance appraisal
c. Compensation plan
d. Employees quitting
ANSWER: a. Career counselling

Nature and Scope of Human Relation Management - MCQs with answers
i. Human Resource Management (HRM) functions are not confined to business
establishments; they are applicable to non-business organisations as well.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: a. True
2. Which of these activities are not included in the scope of human resource
management?
a. Job analysis and design

b. Motivation and communication
c. Safety and health
d. Organizational structure and design

ANSWER: d. Organizational structure and design
3. HRM differs from PM both in ____ and ____
a. Definitions and functions

b. Scope and orientation
c. Functions and objectives

ANSWER: b. Scope and orientation
4. Which of the following is not an objective of the Human Resource

Management Function?
a. Societal objectives
b. Political objectives
c. Personal Objectives
d. Organisational Objectives

ANSWER: b. Political objectives
5. Match the following objectives and functions:
I. Functional ------------- A. Union - Management Relations

II. Organisational --------- B. Compensation
III. Societal -------------- C. Employee Relations
IV. Personal --------------- D. Assessment
a. I-D, II-C, III-a, IV-B

b. I-C, II-B, III-D, IV-A
c. I-B, II-C, III-A, IV-D
d. I-A, II-B, III-C, IV-D
ANSWER: a. I-D,II-C,III-a,IV-B
6. __________ is the process by which employers transfer routine or peripheral

work to another organisation that specialises in that work and can perform it
more efficiently.
a. Farming out
b. Production Management
c. Compensation
d. Outsourcing

ANSWER: d. Outsourcing
7. Which of the following companies were awarded as the best employers in

2006 - 2007 by Hewitt?
a. Agilent Tech
b. ICICI Bank
c. HCL
d. Videocon
ANSWER: a. Agilent Tech

8. Organisations need to evolve HR policies as they ensure _____ and _____ in
treating people.
a. Constancy and similarity

b. Intention and safety
c. Consistency and uniformity
ANSWER: c. Consistency and uniformity
i. Sound policies do not help in resolving intrapersonal, interpersonal and intergroup

conflicts.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: b. False
Reason: Sound policies reflects established principles of fair play and justice,
hence they do help in resolving all the types of conflicts arising in an
organisation.
10. Which of these are the principle sources for determining the content and
meaning of policies?
a. Knowledge and experience gained from handling problems on a day to day basis
b. Past practices in the organisation
c. Attitudes and philosophy of the founders, top management, middle and lower
management
d. Prevailing practices in rival companies
e. All of the above
ANSWER: e. All of the above

11. Which of these is a HR Model?
a. The Guest Model

b. Open - System Theory
c. Mc Gregor's theory X and theory Y
ANSWER: a. The Guest Model
12. Which of these is the first HR model which dates back to 1984?
a. The Harvard Model

b. The Guest Model
c. The Fombrun, Tichy and Devanna Model
d. The Warwick Model
ANSWER: c. The Fombrun, Tichy and Devanna Model
13. Who developed the Guest Model in 1997?
a. Hendry
b. David Guest
c. Pettigrew
ANSWER: b. David Guest
14. The two researchers Hendry and Pettigrew belonged to which institute?
a. Warwick University
b. Harvard University
c. Cambridge University
d. Stanford University
ANSWER: a. Warwick University

15. Match the following models with their respective functions/ components.
1. The Harvard Model ----- A. Selection, Appraisal, Development and Rewards
2. The Warwick Model ----- B. Stakeholders interests,Situational Factors, HRM Policy

choices
3. The Guest Model ------ C. Strategy, Practices, Outcomes, Performance results
4. The Fombrun Model ----- D. Outer & Inner Context, Business strategy Content,
HRM Content and context
a. 1-B, 2-D, 3-C, 4-A

b. 1-D, 2-C, 3-A, 4-B
c. 1-C, 2-D, 3-B, 4-A
d. 1-D, 2-B, 3-C, 4-A
ANSWER: a. 1-B, 2-D, 3-C, 4-A
16. In which year did the term HRM emerge?
a. 1970
b. 1990
c. 1980
d. 1999
ANSWER: a. 1970
17. What is the role of a Human Capital Manager?
A. Unlearn old skills and acquire new skills
B. He or she seeks to fine-tune HR policies and practices to fir the culture
C. It is the responsibility of a centralised or a decentralised department.
a. Both A & C
b. A, B and C
c. Both A & B
d. B & C

ANSWER: c. Both A & B
Recruitment & Selection - MCQs with answers - Part 1
1. Which of these is the purpose of recruitment?
a. Make sure that there is match between cost and benefit
b. Help increase the success rate of the selection process by reducing the number of visibly
underqualified or over qualified job applicants.
c. Help the firm create more culturally diverse work - force
ANSWER: b. Help increase the success rate of the selection process by reducing
the number of visibly underqualified or over qualified job applicants.
Reason: Rest all the alternatives are the ways in which a recruit programme helps
the firm.
2. The poor quality of selection will mean extra cost on _______ and supervision.
a. Training
b. Recruitment
c. Work quality
ANSWER: a. Training
3. Which of these is the most important external factor governing
recruitments?
a. Sons of soil
b. Labour market
c. Unemployment rate
d. Supply and demand
ANSWER: d. Supply and demand
4. While recruiting for non - managerial, supervisory and middle - management

positions which external factor is of prime importance?
a. Political - Legal
b. Unemployment rate
c. Labour market
d. Growth and Expansion
ANSWER: c. Labour market
5. Which of the following act deals with recruitment and selection?
a. Child labour act

b. The apprentices act
c. Mines act
d. All of the above

6. A major internal factor that can determine the success of the recruiting programme
is whether or not the company engages in ______.
a. HRP
b. Selection
c. Induction
ANSWER: a. HRP
7. _________ refers to the process of identifying and attracting job seekers so as to

build a pool of qualified job applicants.
a. Selection
b. Training
c. Recruitments
d. Induction
ANSWER: c. Recruitments
8. How many stages does the recruitment process comprise of?
a. 2
b. 6
c. 9
d. 5
ANSWER: d. 5
9. Rearrange the following steps of recruitment.
I. Searching
II. Evaluation and control
III. Planning
IV. Screening
V. Strategy development
a. III, II, I, V, IV
b. III, V, I, IV, II
c. IV, V, III, I, II
d. II, I, IV, V, III
ANSWER: b. III, V, I, IV, II
10. ___________ express the relationship of applicant inputs to outputs at various

decision points.
a. Number of contacts
b. Yield Ratios
c. Type of contacts
d. Technological sophistication
ANSWER: b. Yield Ratios
11. Which of the following are the decisions to be made while devising the strategies
to hire?
a. Geographic distribution of labour markets comprising job seekers

b. Make or buy employees
c. Sequencing the activities in the recruitment process
d. All of the above

12. Which decision in strategy development relates to the methods used in
recruitment and selection?
a. Sources of recruitment
b. Technological sophistication
d. â€˜makeâ€™ or â€˜buyâ€™ employees
ANSWER: b. Technological sophistication
13. Choose the odd man out.
a. Acquisitions and mergers

b. Radio and television
c. Former employees
d. Advertisements
ANSWER: c. Former employees
Reason: Except for option â€˜câ€™ all the other options are external sources of
recruitment
14. What is the natural perception of people on the process of recruitment and
selection?
a. Positive
b. Negative
c. Both positive and negative
ANSWER: a. Positive
15. What is the main objective of the recruitment and selection process?
a. Recruit the right candidates

b. Meet the high labour turnover
c. To reduce the costs of recruiting
ANSWER: b. Meet the high labour turnover
1. What is the full form of AIDA - a four point guide used by experienced
advertisers?
a. Create abstract, develop industrious ads, defiant and acceptable
b. Being accessible, should be inexpensive, detailed and alluring
c. Attract attention, develop interest, create desire and instigate action
ANSWER: c. Attract attention, develop interest, create desire and instigate action
2. Which mode of recruitment is through advertisements, newspapers and

want ads?
a. Direct
b. Indirect
c. On payroll
ANSWER: b. Indirect
3. Which is the least expensive method for recruitments?
a. Walk - ins, write - ins and talk - ins

b. Campus placements
c. Employment exchanges
d. Consultants

ANSWER: a. Walk - ins, write - ins and talk - ins
4. What is the general fee charged by consultants?
a. 10 - 20 % of the first year salaries of the individuals placed

b. 20 - 50% of the first year salaries of the individuals placed
c. 20 - 30 % of the first year salaries of the individuals placed

ANSWER: b. 20 - 50% of the first year salaries of the individuals placed
5. Identifying the right people in rival companies, offering them better terms
and luring them away is popularly called as __________.
a. Competition
b. Acquisition
c. Poaching

ANSWER: c. Poaching
6. Which of the following are general costs incurred in the recruitment

process?
a. Costs of material
b. Costs of overtime and outsourcing while the vacancies remain unfilled
c. Costs of property
ANSWER: b. Costs of overtime and outsourcing while the vacancies remain

unfilled
7. Which philosophies of recruiting have been mentioned by K. Ashwathappa
in his book Human Resource Management?
A. Realistic job previews

B. Job compatibility questionnaire
C. Temporary employment
a. Both A & B
b. A & C
c. B & C
d. A, B and C
ANSWER: a. Both A & B
8. _______ provides complete job related information (both positive and

negative) to the applicants so that they can make right decisions before taking
the job.
a. Job Compatibility Questionnaire

b. Realistic job preview
c. Market survey
ANSWER: b. Realistic job preview
9. Which of these is an alternative to recruitments?
a. Employee leasing
b. Contractors
c. Trade associations
ANSWER: a. Employee leasing

10. ______ is the process of differentiating between applicants in order to
identify and hire those with a greater likelihood of success in
a job.
a. False negative error

b. Training
c. Selection

ANSWER: c. Selection

1. Selection is ______ in its application as much as it seeks to eliminate as
many unqualified applications as possible in order to identify the right
candidates.
a. Both negative and positive

b. Positive
c. Negative

ANSWER: c. Negative
2. Rejection of an applicant who would have succeeded is _____.
a. False positive error

b. True positive
c. True negative
d. False negative error

ANSWER: d. False negative error
3. Which is the type of error in which failure is predicted and it happens?

b. True negative
c. False negative error
d. True positive
ANSWER: b. True negative

4. Selection is now ____ and is handled by the human resource department.
a. Unplanned
b. Outsourced
c. Centralised
ANSWER: c. Centralised
5. Rearrange the following steps involved in the selection process.
i. External environment
ii. Internal environment
iii. Preliminary interview
iv. Selection test
v. Employment interview
vi. Reference and background analysis
vii. Selection decision
viii. Physical examination
ix. Job offer
x. Employment contract
xi. Evaluation
a. xi, x, ix, viii, vii, vi, v, iv, iii, ii, i

b. i, ii, iii, iv, v, vi, vii, viii, ix, x, xi
c. v, i, xi, ii, iv, ix, iii, vi, viii, x, ix, vii
d. i, iii, iv, v, vii, ix, xi, ii, vi, viii, x
ANSWER: c. v, i, xi, ii, iv, ix, iii, vi, viii, x, ix, vii
6. Which test assesses an individual's achievement and motivational levels?
a. Thurstone Temperament Survey

b. Minnesota Multiphasic Personality
c. Thematic Apperception Test
d. Guilford - Zimmerman Temperament Survey
ANSWER: c. Thematic Apperception Test

7. A test that seeks to predict success or failure through oneâ€™s handwriting
is ____
a. Polygraph
b. Graphology
c. Grammatologist
ANSWER: b. Graphology
8. Which country uses the graphology test to select candidates?
a. U.S
b. India
c. Germany
d. China

ANSWER: a. U.S
9. Which tests are designed to ensure accuracy of the information given in the
applications?
a. Graphology test
b. Interest test
c. Grammatology test
d. Polygraph test
ANSWER: d. Polygraph test
10. Who used the graphology technique first and in which year?
a. Jean - Hippolyte in 1830

b. Elaine Quigley in 1893
c. Jean Charles Gille in 1907
d. Alfred Binnet in 1920

ANSWER: a. Jean - Hippolyte in 1830
11. In __________, the interviewer uses pre-set standardised questions which
are put to all applicants.
a. Unstructured interview
b. Structured interview
c. Behavioural interview
d. Mixed interview

ANSWER: b. Structured interview
12. _______ occurs when an interviewer judges an applicant's entire potential

for job performance on the basis of a single trait, such as how the applicant
dresses or talks.
a. Stress producing
b. Halo - effect
c. Unstructured

ANSWER: b. Halo - effect
13. Which of the selection steps is the most critical?
a. Physical examination
b. Selection decision
c. Reference and background checks
d. Employment interviews

ANSWER: b. Selection decision
Induction and Placing New Hires - MCQs with answers
1. ___________ is a systematic and planned introduction of employees to their

jobs, their co-workers and the organisation.
a. Job evaluation
b. Investiture orientation
c. Orientation
d. Placement
ANSWER: c. Orientation
2. Which type of information is conveyed by orientation?
a. Training and education benefit

b. Job location
c. Job safety requirements
d. General information about the daily work routine

ANSWER: d. General information about the daily work routine
Reason: All the other options except "d" are topics covered in employee
orientation programme.
3. In which country and year was orientation first developed?
a. U.S in 1970
b. U.K in 1970
c. India in 1970

ANSWER: a. U.S in 1970
4. Which strategic choices a firm needs to make before designing its

orientation programme?
a. Formal or informal
b. Individual or collective
c. Serial or disjunctive
d. Investiture or divestiture
e. All of the above

5. _________ seeks to ratify the usefulness of the characteristics that the

person brings to the new job.
a. Divestiture orientation
c. Investiture orientation
ANSWER: c. Investiture orientation

6. Which of these is a stage while conducting formal orientation?
a. Employee is given only menial tasks that discourage job interest and company
loyalty
b. Employee is overloaded with forms to complete
c. Specific orientation to the department and the job, typically

given by the employee's supervisor
d. Employee's mistakes can damage the company

ANSWER: c. Specific orientation to the department and the job, typically given by
the employee's supervisor
Reason: Rest all the other options are problems of orientation
7. Which of the below options are the topics covered in employee orientation
programme?

b. To employee counsellor
c. Relationship to other jobs
d. Disciplinary regulations
e. All of the above
8. ______ refers to the allocation of people to jobs; it includes initial

assignment of new employees, and promotion, transfer, or demotion of
present employees.
a. Recruitment
b. Placement
c. Selection
ANSWER: b. Placement
9. Which of these is a job in the context of placement problems and employee
works?
a. Group health
b. Early departures
c. Independent
d. All of the above
ANSWER: c. Independent
10. Which of these is mentioned in the orientation checklist?
A. Parking
B. Equal employment opportunity
C. Complete form B
a. A & B
b. B & C
c. A & C
d. A, B & C
ANSWER: d. A, B & C
Performance Appraisal - MCQs with answers - Part 1
1. ______ is an objective assessment of an individual's performance against

well-defined benchmarks.
a. Performance Appraisal
b. HR Planning
c. Information for goal identification
ANSWER: a. Performance Appraisal

2. What is linked with performance appraisal?
a. Job Design
b. Development
c. Job analysis
ANSWER: c. Job analysis
3. Which of the following is an alternate term used for performance appraisal?
a. Quality and quantity of output

b. Job knowledg e
c. Employee assessment
ANSWER: c. Employee assessment
4. Match the following general applications of performance assessment with

their specific purposes
I. Administrative Uses/ Decisions ----- A. Performance Feedback
II. Documentation --------------------- B. Lay - offs
III. Organisational Maintenance/ Objectives ---- C. Helping to meet legal

requirements
IV. Developmental Uses ----- D. Evaluation of HR systems
a. I-C, II-D, III-B, IV-A

b. I-B, II-C, III-D, IV-A
c. I-B, II-C, III-D, IV-D
d. I-A, II-B, III-D, IV-C
ANSWER: b. I-B, II-C, III-D, IV-A

5. Which of these is the main purpose of employee assessment?
a. Making correct decisions

b. To effect promotions based on competence and performance
c. Establish job expectations

ANSWER: b. To effect promotions based on competence and performance
Reason: Rest all the options are the competitive advantage of performance
appraisal
6. How performance appraisal can contribute to a firm's competitive

advantage?
a. Ensures legal compliances

b. Minimising job dissatisfaction and turnover
c. Improves performance
d. All of the above

7. From the strategic point of view, in which three categories can an

organisation be grouped?
a. Defenders
b. Prospectors
c. Analysers
d. All of the above

8. Successful defenders use performance appraisal for identifying

____________.
a. Staffing needs
b. Job behaviour
c. Training needs

ANSWER: c. Training needs
9. Analysers tend to emphasise both ______ and _______ and employee
extensive training programmes.
a. Skill building and skill acquisition

b. Current performance and past performance
c. Strategy and behaviour
ANSWER: a. Skill building and skill acquisition
10. What do successful analysers tend to examine?
a. Division and corporate performance evaluation

b. Current performance with past performance
c. Ideal appraisal process
ANSWER: b. Current performance with past performance
Performance Appraisal - MCQs with answers- Part 2
1. Rearrange the steps in appraisal process.
A. Objectives of performance appraisal

B. Establish job expectations
C. Design in appraisal programme
D. Performance Management
E. Appraise performance
F. Performance interview
G. Archive appraisal data
H. Use appraisal data for appropriate purposes
a. DCHGFABE
b. HGFEDBCA
c. ABCFGHDE
d. ABCDEFGH
ANSWER: d. ABCDEFGH
2. Which of these is an issue while designing an appraisal programme?
a. Quality
b. What methods of appraisal are to be used
c. Quantity
d. Cost of effectiveness
ANSWER: b. What methods of appraisal are to be used
Raters can be immediate supervisors, specialists from the HR department,

subordinates, peers, committees, clients and self - appraisals or a combination of all.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: a. True
4. When appraisals are made by superiors, peers, subordinates and clients

then it is called ____.
a. 360 degree feedback

b. 180 degree feedback
c. Self - appraisal
ANSWER: a. 360 degree feedback
5. Which company first developed the 360 degree system of appraisal?
a. Wipro in 1990
b. Godrej Soaps in 1991
c. General Electric, US in 1992
ANSWER: c. General Electric, US in 1992

6. Which factors lower the accuracy rate of the rater?
a. The rater is aware of personal biases and is willing to take action to minimise their
effect
b. Performance factors are properly defined
c. The rater has documented behaviours to improve the recall
d. The rater is unable to express himself or herself honestly and unambiguously
ANSWER: d. The rater is unable to express himself or herself honestly and

unambiguously
Reason: Rest all the options are factors that increase the accuracy rate of a rater
7. Which of these is one of the seven criteria for assessing performance?
a. Community service
b. Interpersonal contact
c. Need for supervision
d. All of the above
8. Which is the simplest and most popular technique for appraising employee
performance?
a. Rating Scales
b. Critical Incident
c. Cost accounting
d. BARS
ANSWER: a. Rating Scales

i. In the forced choice method the rater is forced to select statements which are
readymade.
a. True
b. False

ANSWER: a. True
10. Which of these is a major weakness of the forced distribution method?
a. Assumes that employee performance levels always conform to a normal

distribution
b. Work is reliable
c. The error of central tendency

ANSWER: a. Assumes that employee performance levels always conform to a
normal distribution
Managing Remuneration - MCQs with answers

1. How many components are there in remuneration?
a. 4
b. 5
c. 6
d. 7
ANSWER: b. 5
2. Which of the following option is a component of remuneration?
a. Fringe Benefits
b. Commitment
c. External equity
d. Motivation

ANSWER: a. Fringe Benefits
Reason: Rest of the options are dimensions of equity

3. What is the alternate name for incentives?
a. Gratuity
b. Paid holidays
c. Payments by result
ANSWER: c. Payments by result
4. Match the following components of remuneration with their inclusions -
I. Fringe Benefits ------- A. Stock option

II. Job Context ---------- B. Challenging job responsibilities
III. Perquisites --------- C. Group Plans
IV. Incentives ----------- D. Medical Care
a. I-D, II-B, III-A, IV-C

b. I-B, II-A, III-C, IV-D
c. I-A, II-C, III-D, IV-B
d. I-C, II-B, III-D, IV-A
ANSWER: a. I-D,II-B,III-A,IV-C
5. Which of these is a theory of remuneration?
A. Reinforcement
B. Labour Market
C. Agency
a. A & B
b. B & C
c. A & C
d. A, B & C
ANSWER: c. A & C
6. Which importance is emphasised by the reinforcement and expectancy
theory?
a. Person actually experiencing award

b. Seeking to restore equality
c. Holding identical jobs in the organisation
ANSWER: a. Person actually experiencing award
7. Which are the three types of equities mentioned in the equity theory?
a. Internal
b. External
c. Individual
d. All of the above
8. _____ involves the perceived fairness of pay differentials
a. External equity
b. Individual equity
c. Internal equity
d. All of the above
ANSWER: c. Internal equity
9. Who are the two main stakeholders in an organisation?
a. CEO and top management

b. Employers and employees
c. Executives and owners
ANSWER: b. Employers and employees

10. Which of these is a consequence of pay dissatisfaction?
a. Strikes
b. Grievances
c. Turnover
d. Job dissatisfaction

ANSWER: d. Job dissatisfaction
11. Which of these is an internal factor influencing remuneration?
a. Business strategy
b. Cost of living
c. Legislations
d. Society

ANSWER: a. Business strategy
12. Rearrange the steps mentioned in a remuneration model.
A. Pay survey
B. Job evaluation
C. Pricing jobs
D. Job hierarchy
E. Job description
a. ABCDE
b. DCBEA
c. EBDAC
d. EACDB

ANSWER: c. EBDAC
13. Which of the following is a challenge mentioned in remuneration?
a. Employee participation
b. Pay secrecy
c. Comparable worth
d. All of the above

14. Under which conditions does skill - based pay system work well?
a. Employee turnover is relatively high

b. To set minimum wages for workers whose bargaining position is weak
c. To abolish malpractices and abuses in wage and salary payments
ANSWER: a. Employee turnover is relatively high
15. Which of the wage concept is higher than fair wage?
a. Minimum wage
b. Living wage
c. Team based pay
ANSWER: b. Living wage
1. Which of these is an advantage of the critical incidents methods while

performing performance appraisal?
a. Minimise inventory costs
b. Negative incidents are generally more noticeable than positive ones
c. Evaluation is based on actual job behaviour
ANSWER: c. Evaluation is based on actual job behaviour

2. What is the full form of "BARS"?
a. Behaviourally Anchored Rating Scales

b. Baseline Accounting and Reporting System
c. Budgeting Accounting and Reporting System

ANSWER: a. Behaviourally Anchored Rating Scales
3. What do behaviourally anchored scales represent?
a. The scales are anchored by descriptions of actual job behaviour
b. Superiors would feel comfortable to give feedback
c. A range of descriptive statements of behaviour varying from the least to the most
effective

ANSWER: c. A range of descriptive statements of behaviour varying from the least
to the most effective
4. Who conducts the field review method?
a. Peers
b. Supervisor
c. Subordinates
d. Someone from corporate office or the HR department

ANSWER: d. Someone from corporate office or the HR department
5. Which of these is mentioned in a typical confidential report?

A. Leadership
B. Ability to reason
C. Integrity
a. A & B
b. A & C
c. A, B & C
d. B & C

ANSWER: c. A, B & C
6. Which performance appraisal methods consumes a lot of time?
a. Essay method
b. Rating Scales
c. Critical incident
d. Tests And Observation

ANSWER: a. Essay method
7. On what parameter does the cost accounting method measures

performance?
a. Based on merit
b. Monetary returns the employee pitches to his/ her organisation
c. Comparing workers performance with his colleagues
d. Based on confidential report of the employee

ANSWER: b. Monetary returns the employee pitches to his/ her organisation
8. Who was the first person to give the concept of Management by Objectives?
a. Edwards Deming
b. D.W. Cheetham
c. Peter F. Drucker
ANSWER: c. Peter F. Drucker
9. Rearrange the steps involved in the management by objective process.

A. Setting the performance standard for the subordinates
B. Establishing new goals and new strategies
C. The actual level of goal attainment
D. Establish the goals
a. ABCD
b. DCBA
c. BCDA
d. DACB
ANSWER: d. DACB
10. The focuses of psychological appraisals are on _____.
a. Future potential
b. Actual performance
c. Past performance
ANSWER: a. Future potentia
1. Which method is used for evaluating the performance of executives or

supervisory positions?
a. Psychological Appraisals
b. Assessment Centres
c. Behaviourally Anchored Rating Scales
d. 360 degree feedback
ANSWER: b. Assessment Centres
2. In which country was the assessment centre first build?
a. US and UK
b. India
c. China
d. Japan
ANSWER: a. US and UK
3. What does the 360 degree feedback assess?
a. Communication Skills
b. Behavioural Aspect
c. Team - building skills
d. Soft skills

ANSWER: d. Soft skills
4. Which of these options are the activities that constitute the core of
performance management?
a. Performance interview
b. Archiving performance data
c. Use of appraisal data
d. All of the above
5. Which is the biggest challenge faced while conducting performance

appraisal?
a. Evaluating performance of self - managed teams

b. Presence of a formal appeal process
c. Appraisals based on traits are to be avoided
ANSWER: a. Evaluating performance of self â€“ managed teams
Reason: Rest of the options are the legal issues involved while conducting
performance appraisal
6. What is the main objective of job evaluation?
a. Job is rated before the employee is appointed to occupy

b. It is not compulsory
c. To define satisfactory wage and salary differentials
ANSWER: c. To define satisfactory wage and salary differentials

7. Which of these options is one of the non - analytical methods of job
evaluation?
a. Job - grading method

b. Point ranking method
c. Factor comparison method

ANSWER: a. Job - grading method
Reason: Rest of the options are of analytical methods of job evaluation
8. Which of these is an alternate to job evaluation?
a. Wage survey
b. Employee classification
c. Decision Bank Method

ANSWER: c. Decision Bank Method
Training & Development - MCQs with answers
1. _____ refers to the learning opportunities designed to help employees grow.
a. Training
b. Development
c. Education
d. All of the above

ANSWER: b. Development
2. How does training and development offer competitive advantage to an

organisation?
a. Removing performance decencies

b. Deficiency is caused by a lack of ability
c. Individuals have the aptitude and motivation to learn

ANSWER: a. Removing performance decencies
3. Which of the following is a benefit of employee training?
a. Improves morale
b. Helps people identify with organisational goals
c. Provides a good climate for learning, growth and co - ordination
ANSWER: b. Helps people identify with organisational goals

Reason: Rest of the options are benefits in personnel and HR
4. Choose which of the following is a benefit to the individual while receiving

training?
a. Creates an appropriate climate for growth, communication
b. Aids in increasing productivity and/ or quality of work
c. Satisfies a personal needs of the trainer
ANSWER: c. Satisfies a personal needs of the trainer

Reason: Rest all the options are benefits of employee training
5. Which of this is a step in training process?
a. KSA deficiency
b. Provide proper feedback
c. Obstacles in the system
d. Use of evaluation models
ANSWER: d. Use of evaluation models
6. Which of the following is a method used in group or organisational training

needs assessment?
a. Consideration of current and projected changes
b. Rating scales
c. Interviews
d. Questionnaires
ANSWER: a. Consideration of current and projected changes
Reason: rest all the other options are individual training needs assessment
7. _________ seeks to examine the goals of the organisation and the trends
that are likely to affect these goals.
a. Organisational Support
b. Organisational analysis
c. Person analysis
d. Key skill abilities analysis
ANSWER: b. Organisational analysis
8. Which of these is the benefit of needs assessment?
a. Assessment makes training department more accountable

b. Higher training costs
c. Loss of business
d. Increased overtime working
ANSWER: a. Assessment makes training department more accountable
Reason: Rest all the options are consequence of absence of training needs
assessment
9. Rearrange the steps in training programme.
A. What should be the level of training

B. What principles of learning
C. Who are the trainees?
D. What methods and techniques?
E. Where to conduct the programme?
F. Who are the trainers?
a. ABCDEF
b. DECAFB
c. CADFBE
d. CFDABE

ANSWER: d. CFDABE
10. Which of these is an off - the - job training method?
a. Television
b. Job rotation
c. Orientation training
d. Coaching
ANSWER: a. Television
Reason: Rest all other options are on - the job training method.
11. State true or false.
i. Vestibule training utilises equipment which closely resemble the actual ones used
on the job.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: a. True
12. Match the following techniques of training with their correct description.
1. Tag Teams --------- A. Games to get team members know each other
2. Outward - bound training ----- B. Games to test ability to plan ahead
3. Mirroring ------ C. Training with an external perspective
4. Strategic planners ----- D. Adventure sports for teams
5. Ice breakers ----- E. one role played alternately by two participants
a. 1-E,2-D,3-C,4-B,5-A
b. 1-A,2-D,3-E,4-C,5-B
c. 1-D,2-A,3-C,4-E,5-B
d. 1-C,2-D,3-B,4-A,5-E
ANSWER: a. 1-E,2-D,3-C,4-B,5-A
13. Which of the following is a learning principle?
a. Recognition of individual differences

b. Schedules of learning
c. Transfer of learning
d. All of the above

14. Which of the following is a technique of evaluation?
a. Longitudinal or time - series analysis

b. Transfer validity
c. Inter - organisational validity

ANSWER: a. Longitudinal or time - series analysis
15. Which of these is a hindrance to effective training?
a. Career planning workshop

b. Aggregate spending on training is inadequate
c. Mentoring
d. Career counselling

ANSWER: b. Aggregate spending on training is inadequate
Motivating the employees - MCQs with answers
1. Rearrange the six steps of motivation logically.

A. Engages in goal - directed behaviour
B. Reassess needs deficiencies
C. Performs
D. Identifies needs
E. Searches for ways to satisfy the needs
F. Receives either rewards or punishment
a. DFCAEB
b. BCDEAF
c. DEACFB
d. ABCDEF
ANSWER: c. DEACFB
2. ___________ is the name given to a philosophy and set of methods and

techniques that stressed the scientific study and organisation of work at the
operational level.
a. Scientific Management
b. Human Relations Model
c. Two factor theory
d. Achievement motivation theory
ANSWER: a. Scientific Management
3. Rearrange the steps of Maslow's Need Hierarchy Theory.
A. Self - Actualisation Needs

B. Physiological needs
C. Belongingness and love needs
D. Self - esteem needs
E. Safety needs
a. ABCDE
b. ADCBE
c. DCBEA
d. ADCEB
ANSWER: d. ADCEB
4. Which of the following is a content theory?
a. Expectancy theory
b. ERG Theory
c. Equity theory
ANSWER: b. ERG Theory
i. Needs reflect either physiological or psychological deficiencies.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: a. True
6. Who propounded the Need's Theory
a. Frederick Herzberg
b. Alderfer
c. Abraham Harold Maslow
ANSWER: c. Abraham Harold Maslow
7. The two factor theory is based on which factors?
a. Hygiene and behavioural

b. Safety and self - esteem
c. Self - actualisation and status quotient
ANSWER: a. Hygiene and behavioural

8. What does "E", "R" and "G" stand for in the ERG theory?
a. Export, Risk and Guarantee

b. Exponential, Reliability and Growth
c. Existence, Relatedness and Growth
ANSWER: c. Existence, Relatedness and Growth
9. Which of the following is a need that motivates human behaviour as per the
achievement motivation theory?
a. Power
b. Affiliation
c. Achievement
d. All of the above
10. Which of the following is a process theory?
a. Achievement Motivation theory

b. Performance - satisfaction model
c. ERG theory
d. Two factor theory
ANSWER: b. Performance - satisfaction model
11. What are the alternate names used for the expectancy model?
a. Instrumentality theory
b. Path - goal theory
c. Valence - instrumentality - expectancy theory
d. All of the above

i. First level and second level outcomes, expectancy, valence and instrumentalists
are the four important variables of the achievement motivation theory.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: b. False
Reason: First level and second level outcomes, expectancy, valence and
instrumentalists are the four important variables of the Expectancy Model.
13. Which of the following option, is an important term used in the theory?
a. Inputs
b. Promotion
c. Working condition
d. Responsibility
ANSWER: a. Inputs
Reason: Rest all the other options are examples of outcomes in an organisation.
14. _________ and ___________ came out with a comprehensive theory of

motivation called the performance - satisfaction model.
a. Festinger and Heider

b. Jacques and Patchen
c. Porter and Lawler
d. Weick and Adams
ANSWER: c. Porter and Lawler

15. Which of the following options is a factor which the equity theory is not
clear about?
a. How does a person choose the comparison other?

b. Carefully explaining to the employees what their roles are
c. Making sure the rewards dispersed are valued by the employees
ANSWER: a. How does a person choose the comparison other?
Incentives and Performance based payments - MCQs with answers
1. The ____________ refers incentives to variable pay.
a. National Tribunal
b. International Labour office
c. Labour Court

ANSWER: b. International Labour office
2. _______ are variable rewards granted to employees according to variations

in their performance.
a. Remuneration
b. Perks
c. Fringe Benefits
d. Incentives

ANSWER: d. Incentives
i. Incentives lead to corruption and conspicuous consumption.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: a. True
4. Which of the below given options is a pre - requisite for an effective
incentive system?
a. Increased need for planning

b. Co-operation of workers
c. Management's commitment to the cost and time necessary to administer incentive
schemes
d. All of the above

5. The four categories of incentives are listed by _______.
a. The International Labour Organisation

b. The International Labour Office
c. World Health Organisation

ANSWER: a. The International Labour Organisation
6. Match the following types of incentives with respective incentive schemes.
1) Earnings vary in the same proportion as output ---- A. High Piece Rate
2) Earnings vary less proportionately than output ---- B. Merrick Differential Piece
Rate
3) Earning vary proportionately more than output ---- C. Standard Hour
4) Earnings differ at different levels of output ---- D. Barth Scheme
a. 1-C,2-D,3-A,4-B
b. 1-D,2-C,3-A,4-B
c. 1-C,2-D,3-B,4-A
d. 1-B,2-C,3-D,4-A
ANSWER: a. 1-C,2-D,3-A,4-B
7. In ________, bonus paid to a worker is equal to 50% of time saved multiplied

by rate per hour.
a. Rowan Plan
b. Barth Scheme
c. Bedaux Plan
d. Hasley Plan

ANSWER: d. Hasley Plan
i. The standard time under the Bedaux Plan varies.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: b. False
Reason: The standard time in the Bedaux plan is fixed.
9. What is the percentage of bonus received by a worker against the number of

points earned?
a. 50%
b. 75%
c. 25%
ANSWER: b. 75%
10. In Taylor's differential piece rate system an inefficient worker is paid only
___ of the piece rate.
a. 120%
b. 75%
c. 80%
ANSWER: c. 80%
Communicating with employees - MCQs with answers - Part 1
1. Which of the following options is an important issue in the definition of
communication?
a. Transmission and reception of messages

b. Involvement of people
c. Process of communication
d. All of the above
2. Effective communication helps the managers in carrying out which of the

basic function?
A. Leading
B. Controlling
C. Power
a. A & B
b. B & C
c. A, B & C
d. A & C
ANSWER: a. A & B
3. _____ is attributing our own thoughts and feeling to others.
a. Stereotyping
b. Halo effect
c. Projection
d. All of the above

ANSWER: c. Projection
i. Role of communication facilitates managerial functions and changes people's

attitudes and enabling social behaviour.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: a. True
5. Rearrange the steps in the process of interpersonal communication.
A. Decoding
B. Message
C. Receiver
D. Sender
E. Encoding
F. Feedback
G. Channel
a. ABCDEFG
b. GFEDCBA
c. DCBAEFG
d. DEBGACF
ANSWER: d. DEBGACF
6. Which of these is an electronic mode of communication?
a. Letter
b. Manuals
c. Fax
d. Circulars
ANSWER: c. Fax
7. Match the following categories of barriers with their classification
I. Sender - related barrier -------- A. Non-verbal signals
II. Situation-related barriers ----- B. Noise
III. Receiver - related barriers -- C. Perceptions
a. 1-A,2-B,3-C
b. 1-B,2-A,3-C
c. 1-A,2-C,3-B
ANSWER: a. 1-A,2-B,3-C
i. The message is clearly conveyed and the sender receives the desires results in
interpersonal sensitivity.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: b. False
Reason: In interpersonal sensitivity, the message is conveyed clearly but due to

insensitivity of the sender desired results are not achieved.
9. Which of these is one of the six habits that distorts the communication
process?
a. Dismissing a subject prematurely as uninteresting

b. Message can be understood in different ways
c. Failure of mechanical equipment
ANSWER: a. Dismissing a subject prematurely as uninteresting

Communicating with Employees - MCQs with answers - Part 2
1. ________ makes us from opinion on an individual based on one element.
a. Noise
b. Halo effect
c. Distance
d. Time pressure
ANSWER: b. Halo effect
2. _____ means an additional idea accompanying every idea that is expressed.
a. Mechanical Failure
b. Information Overload
c. Perceptions
d. Metacommunication
ANSWER: d. Metacommunication
3. Which of the following is an option to overcome communication barriers?
a. Using pictures
b. Practising empathic communication
c. Setting communication goals
d. All of the above

4. Which of the following is a barrier to effective listening?
a. Setting communication goals

b. Using correct amount of redundancy
c. Partial listening and distractions
d. Improving communicator's credibility
ANSWER: c. Partial listening and distractions
Reason: Rest all the other options are solutions to overcome communication
barriers.
5. Which of the factors influence organisational communication?
A. Information Ownership
B. Avoid evaluative judgement
C. Job specialisation
a. Only C
b. Only A
c. A & C
d. A, B & C

ANSWER: c. A & C
6. Which of these is an example of formal channel of communication?
a. Reports
b. Text messaging
c. Indirect communication

ANSWER: a. Reports
i. The term information ownership means that individuals possess unique information
and knowledge about their jobs.
a. True
b. False

ANSWER: a. True
8. In how many directions does a communication flow in an organisational

setup?
a. 1
b. 3
c. 7
d. 5
ANSWER: d. 5
i.Communication flows from superiors to subordinates in downward flow of
communication.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: a. True
10. What is the reason for downward communication to be ineffective?
a. Distortions
b. Procedures
c. Filtering
ANSWER: a. Distortions
Communicating with Employees - MCQs with answers - Part 3
1. What is lateral communication?

a. Communication flows from superiors to subordinates
b. Communication flows between manager and members of other work - groups
c. Communication flows between peers
ANSWER: c. Communication flows between peers
2. When communication flows between manager and outside groups like

suppliers, creditors, banks, etc. is called _________.
a. Grapevine communication
b. External communication
c. Horizontal communication
d. Upward communication

ANSWER: b. External communication
3. ______________ is a tool for auditing communication policies, networks and
activities.
a. Communication audits
b. Informal communication
c. Formal communication
ANSWER: a. Communication audits
4. Which of the following is a communication network that needs to be

audited?
a. Information - instructive network

b. Innovative network
c. Regulative network
d. All of the above
i. Informal communication is also called as grapevine.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: a. True
6. How many types of grapevine communication is there?
a. 5
b. 7
c. 3
d. 9
ANSWER: c. 3
7. ___________ is that part of grapevine which is inaccurate.
a. Chain system
b. Gossip system
c. Cluster system
d. Rumour

ANSWER: d. Rumour
Reason: Rest all the options are the types of grapevine communication.
i. Innovative network includes pertaining to policies, procedures and rules.

a. True
b. False

ANSWER: b. False
Reason: innovative network includes problem solving, meeting and suggestions.
Analysing Work and Designing Jobs-MCQs with answers-Part 1
1. ___________ is the process of collecting job related information.
a. Job analysis
b. Job design
c. Methods of collecting job data
ANSWER: a. Job analysis
2. Which two broad aspects of work are mentioned in the HRM book by
Ashwathappa?
a. Political and Environmental

b. Psychological and sociological
c. Behavioural and Sociological

ANSWER: b. Psychological and sociological
i. Job description and job specification are the two sets of data in the job analysis
process.
a. True
b. False

ANSWER: a. True
4. Which of the following details is mentioned in job specification?
a. Materials and forms used

b. Location
c. Hazards
d. Physical skills

ANSWER: d. Physical skills
Rest all the options are mentioned in the job description.
5. Which of the following is a benefit of job analysis?
a. Laying the foundation for performance appraisal

b. Laying the foundation for safety and health
c. Laying the foundation for employee hiring
d. All of the above

6. Arrange the following steps in the job analysis process in a chronological

order.
A. Gather information
B. Job specification
C. Strategic choices
D. Process information
E. Job description
a. ABCDE
b. CADEB
c. CBADE
d. EDCBA
ANSWER: b. CADEB
i. The focus of job analysis is on the individual and not on the job.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: b. False
Reason: The focus of job analysis is on the job and not on the individual
8. Match the following categories of work with the type of information

mentioned in job analysis.
1. Job context ---------- A. Physical characteristics
2. Work activities ------- B. List of machines and tools used
3. Machines, tools and equipments used ----- C. Behaviours required on the jobs
4. Personal requirements --------- D. Social Context
a. 1-D,2-C,3-B,4-A
b. 1-C,2-D,3-A,4-B
c. 1-A,2-D,3-C,4-B
d. 1-B,2-C,3-D,4-A

ANSWER: a. 1-D,2-C,3-B,4-A
9. Match the following persons responsible for data collection with the
advantages attached to them.
1.Trained Analyst ----------- A. Objectivity is maximised

2. Supervisor -------------- B. Fast data collection
3. Job holder -------------- C. Less expensive
a. 1-A, 2-B,3-C
b. 1-B, 2-A, 3-C
c. 1-C, 2-B,3-A

ANSWER: a. 1-A, 2-B, 3-C
10. Which of the following is not a method of collecting job data?
a. Checklists
b. Interviews
c. Case study
d. All of the above

ANSWER: c. Case study
Analysing Work and Designing Jobs - MCQs with answers - Part 2
1. What does MPDQ stand for?
a. Mutual Psychological Development Questionnaire

b. Multi - Priority Dual Queue
c. Management Position Description Questionnaire
ANSWER: c. Management Position Description Questionnaire
2. Which of the following questions are included in a management position

description questionnaire?
a. Autonomy of actions
b. Complexity and stress
c. Public and customer relations
d. All of the above
i. Total Quality Management is inconsistent with job analysis.
a. True
b. False

ANSWER: a. True
4. Which of this is an essential feature of Total Quality Management?
a. Creation of customer centric mentality
b. Jobs are performed in relation to data
c. An ordinary scale can represent the levels of difficulty required in dealing with data
and people

ANSWER: a. Creation of customer centric mentality
5. ________ involves conscious efforts to organise tasks, duties and

responsibilities into a unit of work to achieve certain objectives.
a. Training needs analysis

b. Job design
c. Job analysis

i. Job analysis is followed by job design.
a. True
b. False

ANSWER: b. False
Reason: Job design is followed by job analysis.
7. Which are the factors by which the process of job design can be affected?
a. Organisational
b. Environmental
c. Behavioural
d. All of the above

8. Which of the following is an organisational factor affecting the process of
job design?
a. Social and cultural expectations

b. Ergonomics
c. Feedback
ANSWER: c. Feedback
9. ___________ is concerned with designing and shaping jobs to fit the

physical abilities and characteristics of employees.
a. Ergonomics
b. Autonomy
c. Technostress
ANSWER: a. Ergonomics
10. ___________ refers to the use of micro â€“ computers, networks and other
communication technology such as fax machines.
a. Task revision
b. Telecommuting
c. Technostress
ANSWER: b. Telecommuting
Social Responsibility & Managerial Ethics - MCQs with answers - Part 1
1. What is the classical view of management's social responsibility?

a. To create specific environment in work place
b. To maximise profits
c. To protect and improve society's welfare
d. All of the above

ANSWER: b. To maximise profits
2. What does the socio - economic view of social responsibility talk about?
a. Social responsibility goes beyond making profits to include protecting and

improving society's welfare
b. Encourage business
c. Financial return

ANSWER: a. Social responsibility goes beyond making profits to include
protecting and improving society's welfare
3. Who was the most outspoken advocate of the classical view of

management's responsibility?
a. Wieck and Adams

b. Jacques and Patchen
c. Milton Friedman

ANSWER: c. Milton Friedman
4. What is the only concern of stock holders?
a. Financial return
b. Make profits
c. Encourage business to take up social responsibility

ANSWER: a. Financial return
5. Which of the following is a disadvantage of social responsibility?
a. Possession of resources
b. Ethical obligation
c. Public image
d. Violation of profit maximisation

ANSWER: d. Violation of profit maximisation
Rest all the options are advantages of social responsibility

6. __________ is when a firm engages in social actions because of its
obligation to meet certain economic and legal responsibilities.
a. Social obligation
b. Social responsibility
c. Social responsiveness
ANSWER: a. Social obligation
7. When social criteria is applied on investment decisions it is called ____
a. Social responsiveness
b. Ethical obligation
c. Social screening
d. Financial return
ANSWER: c. Social screening
8. The recognition of the close link between an organisation's decisions and

activities and its impact on the natural environment is called __________.
a. Global environment
b. Greening of management
c. Social actions
ANSWER: b. Greening of management
9. Which of these is called a light green approach?
a. Market approach
b. Activist
c. Stakeholder approach
d. Legal

ANSWER: d. Legal
i. Activist approach is also called as the dark green approach.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: a. True
Social Responsibility & Managerial Ethics - MCQs with answers - Part 2
1. Which of these is a purpose of shared organisational values?
a. Build Team Support

b. Influence marketing efforts
c. Guide managers' decisions and actions
d. All of the above

2. Which of these is a factor that affects ethical and unethical behaviour?
a. Ethical dilemma
b. Diversity
c. Teamwork
d. Open communication

ANSWER: a. Ethical dilemma
Reason: Rest all the options are the stated values of organisations
3. The term ___________ refers to principles, values and beliefs that define
right and wrong behaviour.
a. Customer satisfaction
b. Empowerment
c. Innovation
d. Ethics
ANSWER: d. Ethics
4. Which of this is a second stage of moral development?
a. Principled
b. Conventional
c. Pre conventional
ANSWER: b. Conventional
5. A personality measure of the strength of a person's convictions is called

_________.
a. Locus of control
b. Ego
c. Ego Strength
ANSWER: c. Ego Strength
6. _________ is a personality attribute that measures the degree to which

people believe they control their own fate.
a. Locus of control
b. Culture
c. Values

ANSWER: a. Locus of control
7. Which of these is one of the six characters that determine issue intensity?
a. Probability of harm
b. Immediacy of consequences
c. Proximity to victims
d. All of the above

8. ____________ are those individuals who raise ethical concerns or issues to
others inside or outside the organisation.
a. Entrepreneur
b. Whistle blowers
c. Social entrepreneur
d. Social impact management
ANSWER: b. Whistle blowers
Planning - MCQs with answers - Part 1
1. Rearrange the steps in the decision- making process logically.
A. Identification of a problem
B. Identification of decision criteria
C. Allocation of weights to criteria
D. Development of alternatives
E. Analysis of alternatives
F. Selection of an alternative
G. Implementation of the alternative
a. GFEDCBA
b. CDBAFEG
c. ABCDEFG
d. GCDABEF
ANSWER: c. ABCDEFG
i. Managers when plan, organise, lead and control are called decision makers.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: a. True
3. Which of the following is an assumption of rationality to rationale decision
making?
a. Preferences are clear

b. Final choice will maximise payoff
c. The problem is clear and unambiguous
d. All of the above
4. ___________ is accepting solutions that are "good enough".
a. Bounded rationality
b. Satisficing
c. Escalation of commitment
ANSWER: b. Satisficing
5. Making decisions on the basis of experience, feelings and accumulated

judgement is called as __________.
a. Decision making
b. Structured problems
c. Intuitive decision making
ANSWER: c. Intuitive decision making
6. Who is the CEO of Nike?
a. D. Perez's
b. John. T. Chambers
c. Phil Knight
ANSWER: a. D. Perez's
7. Which of this is not mentioned in decision-making matrix?
a. Analytic
b. Behavioural
c. Directive
d. Performance management
ANSWER: d. Performance management
8. Which software provides key performance indicators to help managers

monitor efficiency of projects and employees?
a. Management Information System

b. Business Performance Management
c. Enterprise Application Software
d. Online analytical Processing
ANSWER: b. Business Performance Management
9. ___________ is a rule of thumb that managers use to simplify decision

making.
a. Sunk - costs
b. Framing
c. Heuristics
ANSWER: c. Heuristics
i. Availability bias is when decisions makers tend to remember events that are most
recent.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: a. True
1. _____________ is a performance measure of both efficiency and
effectiveness.
a. Organisational behaviour
b. Organisational citizenship
c. Employee productivity

ANSWER: c. Employee productivity
2. The voluntary and involuntary permanent withdrawal from an organisation is

called ___________.
a. Turnover
b. Behaviour
c. Misbehaviour

ANSWER: a. Turnover
3. Discretionary behaviour that is not part of an employee's formal job

requirements, but that promotes the effective functioning of the organisation.
a. Behaviour
b. Organisational behaviour
c. Workplace misbehaviour
d. Organisational citizenship behaviour

ANSWER: c. Workplace misbehaviour
4. _____________ is that part of an attitude that's made up of the beliefs,
opinions, knowledge or information held by a person.
a. Behavioural component
b. Cognitive component
c. Affective component
ANSWER: b. Cognitive component

5. The emotional part of an attitude is called _______.
a. Affective component
b. Attitude
c. Behavioural component
d. All of the above
ANSWER: a. Affective component
6. Employee's general belief that their organisation values their contribution

and cares about their well - being is called __________.
a. Behaviour
b. Workplace misbehaviour
c. Organisational behaviour
d. Perceived organisational support
ANSWER: d. Perceived organisational support
7. Any compatibility or inconsistency between attitudes or between behaviour

and attitudes is called _____.
a. Attitude surveys
b. Personality
c. Cognitive dissonance
ANSWER: c. Cognitive dissonance
8. Which is the most popular approach to classifying personality traits?
a. MBTI
b. Style of making decisions
c. Social interaction
ANSWER: a. MBTI
9. Match the following personality types with their respective descriptions
1) Introvert, Intuitive, Feeling & Judgemental------ A. Blunt and sometimes insensitive

2) Extrovert, Intuitive, Thinking & Judgemental----- B. Warm, friendly, candid and
decisive
3) Extrovert, Sensing, Thinking & Perceptive-------- C. Quietly forceful, conscientious
& concern
4) Introvert, Sensing, Feeling & Perceptive--------- D. Sensitive, Kind, Modest, Shy
and Quiet
a. 1-C, 2-B, 3-A, 4-D

b. 1-C, 2-A, 3-B, 4-D
c. 1-C, 2-A, 3-B, 4-D
d. 1-A, 2-B, 3-D, 4-C
ANSWER: a. 1-C,2-B,3-A,4-D
10. Which of these is one of the five personality traits in the Big - Five Model?
a. Emotional stability
b. Openness to experience
c. Extraversion
d. All of the above
1. The degree to which people are pragmatic, maintain emotional distance and
believe that ends justify means is called __________.
a. Impression Management
b. Machiavellianism
c. Locus of control
ANSWER: b. Machiavellianism
2. Match the following personality types with their characters
1) Realistic -------------- A. Self - confident

2) Investigative ---------- B. Idealistic
3) Social ----------------- C. Persistent
4) Conventional------------ D. Unimaginative
5) Enterprising ----------- E. Curious
6) Artistic --------------- F. Co - operative
a. 1-C, 2-E, 3-F, 4-D, 5-A, 6-B

b. 1-E, 2-C, 3-F, 4-A, 5-D, 6-B
C. 1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-B, 5-E, 6-F
D. 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-F, 5-D, 6-E
ANSWER: a. 1-C,2-E,3-F,4-D,5-A,6-B
3. The ability to notice and to manage emotional cues and information is called
_________.
a. Perception
b. Emotions
c. Emotional Intelligence
ANSWER: c. Emotional Intelligence
4. Which is the theory that explains how we judge people differently depending
on the meaning we attribute to a given behaviour?
a. Attribution Theory
b. X and Y theory
c. Fundamental attribution theory
ANSWER: a. Attribution Theory

5. _____________ is a type of learning in which desired voluntary behaviour
leads to a reward or prevents a punishment.
a. Self - serving bias

b. Assumed similarity
c. Stereotyping
d. Operant conditioning
ANSWER: d. Operant conditioning
6. What is fundamental attribution theory?
a. Tendency to underestimate the influence of external factors and overestimate the

influence of internal factors when judging other's behaviour
b. Tendency for individuals to attribute their own successes to internal factors while
putting the blame for failures on external factors
c. General impression of an individual based on a single

characteristic
ANSWER: a. Tendency to underestimate the influence of external factors and

overestimate the influence of internal factors when judging other's behaviour
7. Which of these is one of the four processes that influence social learning
theory?
a. Motor reproduction processes

b. Reinforcement processes
c. Attentional processes
d. All of the above

1. __________ is the process of forecasting an organisations future demand
for, and supply of, the right type of people in the right number.
a. Human Resource Planning

b. Recruitments
c. Human Resource Management
d. Human Capital Management

ANSWER: a. Human Resource Planning
2. Which of the following factors state the importance of the Human Resource
Planning?
a. Creating highly talented personnel

b. International strategies
c. Resistance to change and move
d. All of the above

3. A process that is used for identifying and developing internal people with
the potential to fill key business leadership positions in the company is called
______.
a. Highly talented personnel creation

b. Investing in human resources
c. Succession planning

ANSWER: c. Succession planning
i. Human Resource Planning facilitates international expansion strategies.
a. True
b. False

ANSWER: a. True
5. Which of the following option is not the factor that hinders with the human
resource planning process?
a. Type and quality of forecasting information

b. Time horizons
c. Environmental uncertainties
d. Unite the perspectives of line and staff managers
ANSWER: d. Unite the perspectives of line and staff managers
6. What is the major issue faced while doing personal planning?
a. Type of information which should be used in making forecasts

b. Types of people to be hired
c. Multiple positions to be filled
d. All of the above
ANSWER: a. Type of information which should be used in making forecasts
7. Rearrange the following steps involved in the Human resource planning

process in proper order.
A. HR Programming
B. HR Demand Forecast
C. Environmental Scanning
D. Control and evaluation of programme
E. Surplus - restricted hiring
F. HRP implementation
G. HR supply forecast
H. Organisational objectives and Policies
I. Shortage - Recruitments and Selection
a. ABCDEFGHI
b. CHBGAFDEI
c. IHDEBCAFG
d. IHGFEDCBA
ANSWER: b. CHBGAFDEI
8. Which of these factors is not included in environmental scanning?
a. Political and legislative issues

b. Economic factors
c. Technological changes

ANSWER: d. None of the above
9. _______ is the process of estimating the quantity and quality of people

required to meet future needs of the organisation.
a. Demand forecasting
b. Supply forecasting
c. Environmental forecasting

ANSWER: a. Demand forecasting
10. Which of the below given options are the forecasting techniques used?
A. Ration Trend Analysis

B. Delphi Technique
C. Staffing projections
a. A & C
b. B & C
c. A, B & C
d. A & B

ANSWER: d. A & B

1. Which of the forecasting technique is the fastest?
a. Work study technique

b. Flow models
c. Ratio trend analysis
d. HR demand Forecast
ANSWER: c. Ratio trend analysis

2. What does the ratio trend analysis studies for forecasting?
a. Profits and loss

b. Retirements and requirements
c. Past and future ratios of workers and sales
ANSWER: c. Past and future ratios of workers and sales
i. The Delphi technique is named after the ancient Greek Oracle at the city of Delphi.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: a. True
4. What does the Delphi technique use to do the forecasting?
a. Personal needs
b. Emotional needs
c. Social needs
d. All of the above
ANSWER: a. Personal needs
5. Which is the simplest flow model used for forecasting?
a. Semi - Markov Model

b. Resource based Model
c. Markov Model
d. Vacancy Model
ANSWER: c. Markov Model

6. ___________ is a systematic procedure for collecting, storing, maintaining,
retrieving and validating data needed by an organisation about its human
resources.
a. Data collection
b. Human Resource Information System
c. Management Information System
d. Maintenance of records
ANSWER: b. Human Resource Information System
7. Choose the correct option, where Human Resource Information System can
be used.
a. Succession planning
b. Retirement
c. Designing jobs
d. Inducting new hires
ANSWER: a. Succession planning
8. How many steps are involved in implementing Human Resource Information

System?
a. 10
b. 5
c. 14
d. 15
ANSWER: c. 14
9. At what stage does vendor analysis step â€“ in while implementing human
resource information system?
a. 5
b. 14
c. 1
d. 3

ANSWER: a. 5
10. What techniques are used while analysing the internal supply?
a. Inflows and outflows

b. Turnover rate
c. Conditions of work and absenteeism
d. All of the above
11. Complete the following formula to calculate turnover rate.

(Number of separations during one year / ______) X 100
_________
a. Average number of persons X number of working days
b. Average number of working days
c. Average number of employees during the year
d. Average number of leaves
ANSWER: c. Average number of employees during the year
12. Which of the below mentioned option is not a retention plan?
a. Performance appraisal
b. Compensation plan
c. Induction crisis
d. Voluntary retirement Scheme
ANSWER: d. Voluntary retirement Scheme
13. Which of the following is a barrier while doing human resource planning?
a. HR information often is incompatible with the information used in strategy

formulation
b. Implementing human resource information system
c. Managing inventories
d. Supply forecast

ANSWER: a. HR information often is incompatible with the information used in
strategy formulation
14. What are the pre- requisites for successful human resource planning?
a. Backing of top management

b. Personal records must be complete
c. Techniques of planning should be the best
d. All of the above
15. Which of the following is requisite for a typical succession planning?
a. Career counselling
b. Performance appraisal
c. Compensation plan
d. Employees quitting
ANSWER: a. Career counselling
Nature and Scope of Human Relation Management - MCQs with

answers
i. Human Resource Management (HRM) functions are not confined to business
establishments; they are applicable to non-business organisations as well.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: a. True
2. Which of these activities are not included in the scope of human resource
management?
a. Job analysis and design

b. Motivation and communication
c. Safety and health
d. Organizational structure and design

ANSWER: d. Organizational structure and design
3. HRM differs from PM both in ____ and ____
a. Definitions and functions
b. Scope and orientation
c. Functions and objectives

ANSWER: b. Scope and orientation
4. Which of the following is not an objective of the Human Resource
Management Function?
a. Societal objectives
b. Political objectives
c. Personal Objectives
d. Organisational Objectives
ANSWER: b. Political objectives

5. Match the following objectives and functions:
I. Functional ------------- A. Union - Management Relations
II. Organisational --------- B. Compensation
III. Societal -------------- C. Employee Relations
IV. Personal --------------- D. Assessment
a. I-D, II-C, III-a, IV-B

b. I-C, II-B, III-D, IV-A
c. I-B, II-C, III-A, IV-D
d. I-A, II-B, III-C, IV-D
ANSWER: a. I-D,II-C,III-a,IV-B
6. __________ is the process by which employers transfer routine or peripheral

work to another organisation that specialises in that work and can perform it
more efficiently.
a. Farming out
b. Production Management
c. Compensation
d. Outsourcing

ANSWER: d. Outsourcing
7. Which of the following companies were awarded as the best employers in
2006 - 2007 by Hewitt?
a. Agilent Tech
b. ICICI Bank
c. HCL
d. Videocon
ANSWER: a. Agilent Tech
8. Organisations need to evolve HR policies as they ensure _____ and _____ in

treating people.
a. Constancy and similarity

b. Intention and safety
c. Consistency and uniformity
ANSWER: c. Consistency and uniformity
i. Sound policies do not help in resolving intrapersonal, interpersonal and intergroup

conflicts.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: b. False
Reason: Sound policies reflects established principles of fair play and justice,
hence they do help in resolving all the types of conflicts arising in an
organisation.
10. Which of these are the principle sources for determining the content and
meaning of policies?
a. Knowledge and experience gained from handling problems on a day to day basis
b. Past practices in the organisation
c. Attitudes and philosophy of the founders, top management, middle and lower
management
d. Prevailing practices in rival companies
e. All of the above

11. Which of these is a HR Model?
a. The Guest Model

b. Open - System Theory
c. Mc Gregor's theory X and theory Y

ANSWER: a. The Guest Model
12. Which of these is the first HR model which dates back to 1984?
a. The Harvard Model

b. The Guest Model
c. The Fombrun, Tichy and Devanna Model
d. The Warwick Model

ANSWER: c. The Fombrun, Tichy and Devanna Model
13. Who developed the Guest Model in 1997?
a. Hendry
b. David Guest
c. Pettigrew

ANSWER: b. David Guest
14. The two researchers Hendry and Pettigrew belonged to which institute?
a. Warwick University
b. Harvard University
c. Cambridge University
d. Stanford University
ANSWER: a. Warwick University
15. Match the following models with their respective functions/ components.
1. The Harvard Model ----- A. Selection, Appraisal, Development and Rewards
2. The Warwick Model ----- B. Stakeholders interests,Situational Factors, HRM Policy

choices
3. The Guest Model ------ C. Strategy, Practices, Outcomes, Performance results
4. The Fombrun Model ----- D. Outer & Inner Context, Business strategy Content,
HRM Content and context
a. 1-B, 2-D, 3-C, 4-A

b. 1-D, 2-C, 3-A, 4-B
c. 1-C, 2-D, 3-B, 4-A
d. 1-D, 2-B, 3-C, 4-A
ANSWER: a. 1-B, 2-D, 3-C, 4-A
16. In which year did the term HRM emerge?
a. 1970
b. 1990
c. 1980
d. 1999
ANSWER: a. 1970
17. What is the role of a Human Capital Manager?
A. Unlearn old skills and acquire new skills
B. He or she seeks to fine-tune HR policies and practices to fir the culture
C. It is the responsibility of a centralised or a decentralised department.
a. Both A & C
b. A, B and C
c. Both A & B
d. B & C

ANSWER: c. Both A & B
1. Which of these is the purpose of recruitment?

a. Make sure that there is match between cost and benefit
b. Help increase the success rate of the selection process by reducing the number of
visibly underqualified or over qualified job applicants.
c. Help the firm create more culturally diverse work - force
ANSWER: b. Help increase the success rate of the selection process by reducing
the number of visibly underqualified or over qualified job applicants.
Reason: Rest all the alternatives are the ways in which a recruit programme helps
the firm.
2. The poor quality of selection will mean extra cost on _______ and
supervision.
a. Training
b. Recruitment
c. Work quality

ANSWER: a. Training
3. Which of these is the most important external factor governing
recruitments?
a. Sons of soil
b. Labour market
c. Unemployment rate
d. Supply and demand
ANSWER: d. Supply and demand
4. While recruiting for non - managerial, supervisory and middle - management

positions which external factor is of prime importance?
a. Political - Legal
b. Unemployment rate
c. Labour market
d. Growth and Expansion
ANSWER: c. Labour market
5. Which of the following act deals with recruitment and selection?
a. Child labour act

b. The apprentices act
c. Mines act
d. All of the above
6. A major internal factor that can determine the success of the recruiting
programme is whether or not the company engages in ______.
a. HRP
b. Selection
c. Induction
ANSWER: a. HRP
7. _________ refers to the process of identifying and attracting job seekers so
as to build a pool of qualified job applicants.
a. Selection
b. Training
c. Recruitments
d. Induction

ANSWER: c. Recruitments
8. How many stages does the recruitment process comprise of?
a. 2
b. 6
c. 9
d. 5

ANSWER: d. 5
9. Rearrange the following steps of recruitment.
I. Searching
II. Evaluation and control
III. Planning
IV. Screening
V. Strategy development
a. III, II, I, V, IV
b. III, V, I, IV, II
c. IV, V, III, I, II
d. II, I, IV, V, III

ANSWER: b. III, V, I, IV, II
10. ___________ express the relationship of applicant inputs to outputs at

various decision points.
a. Number of contacts
b. Yield Ratios
c. Type of contacts
d. Technological sophistication
ANSWER: b. Yield Ratios

11. Which of the following are the decisions to be made while devising the
strategies to hire?
a. Geographic distribution of labour markets comprising job seekers

b. Make or buy employees
d. All of the above

12. Which decision in strategy development relates to the methods used in

recruitment and selection?
a. Sources of recruitment
b. Technological sophistication
d. â€˜makeâ€™ or â€˜buyâ€™ employees

ANSWER: b. Technological sophistication
13. Choose the odd man out.
a. Acquisitions and mergers

b. Radio and television
c. Former employees
d. Advertisements

ANSWER: c. Former employees
Reason: Except for option â€˜câ€™ all the other options are external sources of
recruitment
14. What is the natural perception of people on the process of recruitment and
selection?
a. Positive
b. Negative
c. Both positive and negative

ANSWER: a. Positive
15. What is the main objective of the recruitment and selection process?
a. Recruit the right candidates
b. Meet the high labour turnover
c. To reduce the costs of recruiting

ANSWER: b. Meet the high labour turnover
1. What is the full form of AIDA - a four point guide used by experienced
advertisers?
a. Create abstract, develop industrious ads, defiant and acceptable
b. Being accessible, should be inexpensive, detailed and alluring
c. Attract attention, develop interest, create desire and instigate action

ANSWER: c. Attract attention, develop interest, create desire and instigate action
2. Which mode of recruitment is through advertisements, newspapers and

want ads?
a. Direct
b. Indirect
c. On payroll

ANSWER: b. Indirect
3. Which is the least expensive method for recruitments?
a. Walk - ins, write - ins and talk - ins

b. Campus placements
c. Employment exchanges
d. Consultants

ANSWER: a. Walk - ins, write - ins and talk - ins
4. What is the general fee charged by consultants?
a. 10 - 20 % of the first year salaries of the individuals placed

b. 20 - 50% of the first year salaries of the individuals placed
c. 20 - 30 % of the first year salaries of the individuals placed
ANSWER: b. 20 - 50% of the first year salaries of the individuals placed
5. Identifying the right people in rival companies, offering them better terms
and luring them away is popularly called as __________.
a. Competition
b. Acquisition
c. Poaching
ANSWER: c. Poaching
6. Which of the following are general costs incurred in the recruitment

process?
a. Costs of material
b. Costs of overtime and outsourcing while the vacancies remain unfilled
c. Costs of property
ANSWER: b. Costs of overtime and outsourcing while the vacancies remain

unfilled
7. Which philosophies of recruiting have been mentioned by K. Ashwathappa
in his book Human Resource Management?
A. Realistic job previews

B. Job compatibility questionnaire
C. Temporary employment
a. Both A & B
b. A & C
c. B & C
d. A, B and C
ANSWER: a. Both A & B
8. _______ provides complete job related information (both positive and

negative) to the applicants so that they can make right decisions before taking
the job.
a. Job Compatibility Questionnaire

b. Realistic job preview
c. Market survey

ANSWER: b. Realistic job preview
9. Which of these is an alternative to recruitments?

a. Employee leasing
b. Contractors
c. Trade associations

ANSWER: a. Employee leasing
10. ______ is the process of differentiating between applicants in order to

identify and hire those with a greater likelihood of success in a job.
a. False negative error

b. Training
c. Selection

ANSWER: c. Selection
1. Selection is ______ in its application as much as it seeks to eliminate as

many unqualified applications as possible in order to identify the right
candidates.
a. Both negative and positive

b. Positive
c. Negative

ANSWER: c. Negative
2. Rejection of an applicant who would have succeeded is _____.

b. True positive
c. True negative
d. False negative error

ANSWER: d. False negative error
3. Which is the type of error in which failure is predicted and it happens?

b. True negative
c. False negative error
d. True positive

ANSWER: b. True negative
4. Selection is now ____ and is handled by the human resource department.
a. Unplanned
b. Outsourced
c. Centralised
ANSWER: c. Centralised
5. Rearrange the following steps involved in the selection process.
i. External environment
ii. Internal environment
iii. Preliminary interview
iv. Selection test
v. Employment interview
vi. Reference and background analysis
vii. Selection decision
viii. Physical examination
ix. Job offer
x. Employment contract
xi. Evaluation
a. xi, x, ix, viii, vii, vi, v, iv, iii, ii, i

b. i, ii, iii, iv, v, vi, vii, viii, ix, x, xi
c. v, i, xi, ii, iv, ix, iii, vi, viii, x, ix, vii
d. i, iii, iv, v, vii, ix, xi, ii, vi, viii, x
ANSWER: c. v, i, xi, ii, iv, ix, iii, vi, viii, x, ix, vii
6. Which test assesses an individual's achievement and motivational levels?
a. Thurstone Temperament Survey

b. Minnesota Multiphasic Personality
c. Thematic Apperception Test
d. Guilford - Zimmerman Temperament Survey
ANSWER: c. Thematic Apperception Test
7. A test that seeks to predict success or failure through oneâ€™s handwriting

is ____
a. Polygraph
b. Graphology
c. Grammatologist
ANSWER: b. Graphology
8. Which country uses the graphology test to select candidates?
a. U.S
b. India
c. Germany
d. China
ANSWER: a. U.S
9. Which tests are designed to ensure accuracy of the information given in the
applications?
a. Graphology test
b. Interest test
c. Grammatology test
d. Polygraph test
ANSWER: d. Polygraph test
10. Who used the graphology technique first and in which year?
a. Jean - Hippolyte in 1830

b. Elaine Quigley in 1893
c. Jean Charles Gille in 1907
d. Alfred Binnet in 1920
ANSWER: a. Jean - Hippolyte in 1830
11. In __________, the interviewer uses pre-set standardised questions which

are put to all applicants.
a. Unstructured interview
b. Structured interview
c. Behavioural interview
d. Mixed interview
ANSWER: b. Structured interview

12. _______ occurs when an interviewer judges an applicant's entire potential
for job performance on the basis of a single trait, such as how the applicant
dresses or talks.
a. Stress producing
b. Halo - effect
c. Unstructured
ANSWER: b. Halo - effect
13. Which of the selection steps is the most critical?

a. Physical examination
b. Selection decision
c. Reference and background checks
d. Employment interviews

ANSWER: b. Selection decision
Induction and Placing New Hires - MCQs with answers
1. ___________ is a systematic and planned introduction of employees to their

jobs, their co-workers and the organisation.
a. Job evaluation
b. Investiture orientation
c. Orientation
d. Placement
ANSWER: c. Orientation
2. Which type of information is conveyed by orientation?
b. Job location
c. Job safety requirements
d. General information about the daily work routine
ANSWER: d. General information about the daily work routine
Reason: All the other options except "d" are topics covered in employee
orientation programme.
3. In which country and year was orientation first developed?
a. U.S in 1970
b. U.K in 1970
c. India in 1970
ANSWER: a. U.S in 1970
4. Which strategic choices a firm needs to make before designing its

orientation programme?
a. Formal or informal
c. Serial or disjunctive
d. Investiture or divestiture
e. All of the above

5. _________ seeks to ratify the usefulness of the characteristics that the

person brings to the new job.
a. Divestiture orientation
c. Investiture orientation
ANSWER: c. Investiture orientation
6. Which of these is a stage while conducting formal orientation?

a. Employee is given only menial tasks that discourage job interest and company
loyalty
b. Employee is overloaded with forms to complete
c. Specific orientation to the department and the job, typically

given by the employee's supervisor
d. Employee's mistakes can damage the company

ANSWER: c. Specific orientation to the department and the job, typically given by
the employee's supervisor
Reason: Rest all the other options are problems of orientation

7. Which of the below options are the topics covered in employee orientation
programme?

b. To employee counsellor
c. Relationship to other jobs
d. Disciplinary regulations
e. All of the above

8. ______ refers to the allocation of people to jobs; it includes initial

assignment of new employees, and promotion, transfer, or demotion of
present employees.
a. Recruitment
b. Placement
c. Selection

ANSWER: b. Placement
9. Which of these is a job in the context of placement problems and employee

works?
a. Group health
b. Early departures
c. Independent
d. All of the above

ANSWER: c. Independent
10. Which of these is mentioned in the orientation checklist?

A. Parking
B. Equal employment opportunity
C. Complete form B
a. A & B
b. B & C
c. A & C
d. A, B & C
ANSWER: d. A, B & C
1. ______ is an objective assessment of an individual's performance against

well-defined benchmarks.
a. Performance Appraisal
b. HR Planning
c. Information for goal identification

ANSWER: a. Performance Appraisal
2. What is linked with performance appraisal?
a. Job Design
b. Development
c. Job analysis

3. Which of the following is an alternate term used for performance appraisal?
a. Quality and quantity of output

b. Job knowledg e
c. Employee assessment

ANSWER: c. Employee assessment
4. Match the following general applications of performance assessment with

their specific purposes
I. Administrative Uses/ Decisions ----- A. Performance Feedback
II. Documentation --------------------- B. Lay - offs
III. Organisational Maintenance/ Objectives ---- C. Helping to meet legal

requirements
IV. Developmental Uses ----- D. Evaluation of HR systems
a. I-C, II-D, III-B, IV-A

b. I-B, II-C, III-D, IV-A
c. I-B, II-C, III-D, IV-D
d. I-A, II-B, III-D, IV-C

ANSWER: b. I-B, II-C, III-D, IV-A
5. Which of these is the main purpose of employee assessment?
a. Making correct decisions

b. To effect promotions based on competence and performance
c. Establish job expectations

ANSWER: b. To effect promotions based on competence and performance
Reason: Rest all the options are the competitive advantage of performance
appraisal
6. How performance appraisal can contribute to a firm's competitive

advantage?
a. Ensures legal compliances

b. Minimising job dissatisfaction and turnover
c. Improves performance
d. All of the above

7. From the strategic point of view, in which three categories can an

organisation be grouped?
a. Defenders
b. Prospectors
c. Analysers
d. All of the above

8. Successful defenders use performance appraisal for identifying __________.
a. Staffing needs
b. Job behaviour
c. Training needs
ANSWER: c. Training needs
9. Analysers tend to emphasise both ______ and _______ and employee

extensive training programmes.
a. Skill building and skill acquisition
b. Current performance and past performance
c. Strategy and behaviour
ANSWER: a. Skill building and skill acquisition
10. What do successful analysers tend to examine?
a. Division and corporate performance evaluation

b. Current performance with past performance
c. Ideal appraisal process
ANSWER: b. Current performance with past performance

1.
The meaning of the acronym HRM is
A. Human Relations Management
B. Humanistic Resource Management
C. Human Resource Management
D. Human Resourceful Management
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option C
Solution:
The meaning of the acronym HRM is Human Resource Management. Human resource management
(HRM) is the practice of recruiting, hiring, deploying and managing an organization's employees.
HRM is really employee management with an emphasis on those employees as assets of the
business.
2.
HRM is___________
A. A staff functions
B. A line function
C. A staff function, line function and accounting function

D. All of the above
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option A
Solution:
HRM is a staff functions. A "staff function" supports the organization with specialized advisory and
support functions. For example, human resources, accounting, public relations and the legal
department are generally considered to be staff functions.
3. Finding ways to reduce ________ is a key responsibility

of management.
A. Dissatisfaction
B. Uncertainty
C. Stress
D. None of the above
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option B
Solution:
Finding ways to reduce uncertainty is a key responsibility of management. The primary role of a
manager is to ensure the daily functioning of a department or group of employees.
4.
The ________ and control systems should be altered to

support the strategic human resource function.
A. Appointment
B. Reward
C. Job allotment
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option B
Solution:
The reward and control systems should be altered to support the strategic human resource function.
Strategic human resource management is the practice of attracting, developing, rewarding, and
retaining employees for the benefit of both the employees as individuals and the organization as a
whole.
5.
All aspects of the merger need ________.
A. Controlling
B. Delegating
C. Staffing
D. Managing
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option D
Solution:
All aspects of the merger need managing. A merger is a corporate strategy of combining different
companies into a single company in order to enhance the financial and operational strengths of both
organizations.
6.
Commitment strategy is inherently ________.
A. Short term
B. Long term
C. Continuous
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option B
Solution:
Commitment strategy is inherently long term. An employee commitment strategy is a promise, a

sort of mission statement where your business leaders also commit to the employee population.
Like many other things, commitment is a two-way street.
7.
HR professionals has to be skilled in the art of ________.
A. Clarifying
B. Handling people
C. Both (A) and (B)

Answer & Solution
Answer: Option A
Solution:
HR professionals has to be skilled in the art of clarifying. The HR professional has to be skilled in the
art of clarifying those fuzzy visions and providing feedback to top managers and others.
8.
________ of management is likely to be another key

agenda item.
A. Performance
B. Quality
C. Expansion
D. Decision
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option B
Solution:
Quality of management is likely to be another key agenda item. Quality management is the act of
overseeing all activities and tasks needed to maintain a desired level of excellence. This includes the
determination of a quality policy, creating and implementing quality planning and assurance, and
quality control and quality improvement.
9.
Strategic thinking is a ________ process.

A. Short term
B. Long term
C. Continuous
D. All of the above
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option C
Solution:
Strategic thinking is a continuous process. Strategic thinking is an ability to plan for the future. It's
the capacity to prepare strategies and conjure ideas that will both cope with changing environments
and consider the various challenges that lie ahead.
10.
________ is considered as a strategic activity.
A. Recruitment
B. Planning
C. Productivity
D. All of the above
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option A
Solution:
Recruitment is considered as a strategic activity. Recruitment is the process of attracting qualified
candidates for a job role and Selection is the process of identifying and selecting the right candidate
for that job. Recruitment is not only an operational activity but a key strategic activity for the
business.
11.
Competitive edge comes from the ________ of people.
A. Competency
B. Efforts
C. Quality
D. Hard work
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option C
Solution:
Competitive edge comes from the quality of people. Competitive advantage means positioning your
company ahead of other companies in order to achieve superiority in quality, low cost, value or
innovation.
12.
The business side of the process begins with the strategic

_____ as the guiding framework.
A. HR
B. Plan
C. Policy
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option B
Solution:
The business side of the process begins with the strategic plan as the guiding framework. Strategic
planning is an organizational management activity that is used to set priorities, focus energy and
resources, strengthen operations, ensure that employees and other stakeholders are working
toward common goals, establish agreement around intended outcomes/results, and assess and
adjust the organization’s direction in response to a changing environment.
13.
Individual level where people are usually motivated to

close the gap between their current and desired ______.
A. Capabilities
B. Skills
C. Expectations
D. Performance
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option A
Solution:
Individual level where people are usually motivated to close the gap between their current and
desired capabilities. The individual level is directly connected to the interpersonal level as the
process of socialisation occurs from when we were born from people around us. The individual level
is considered to be the strongest level in determining whether an individual participates in sport.
14.
HR professional should apply risk management
techniques to the different aspects of ________.
A. HR Strategies
B. HR Competencies
C. Both (A) and (B)
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option A
Solution:
HR professional should apply risk management techniques to the different aspects of HR Strategies.
The HR strategy is based on the organizational strategy. The HR strategy touches on all the key areas
in HR. These include recruitment, learning & development, performance appraisal, compensation,
and succession planning.
15.
Developing characteristics of people needed to run

business in ________ .
A. Short term
B. Medium term
C. Long term
D. Any of the above

Answer & Solution
Answer: Option C
Solution:
Developing characteristics of people needed to run business in long term. The long run is defined as
the time horizon needed for a producer to have flexibility over all relevant production decisions.
16.
________ issues tend to be well disguised.
A. Political
B. Territorial
C. Social
D. Economical
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option B
Solution:
Territorial issues tend to be well disguised. Sales operations adjust territories at least annually and
usually include input from first line managers, who bring local knowledge to the table. When making
adjustments to territories, they consider workload, relationships, and even sales rep characteristics
such as tenure and experience.
17.
________ suggests Human Resource Strategy in itself may

not be effective.
A. Peter Drucker
B. Tony Groundy
C. John Zimmerman
D. Anonymous
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option B
Solution:
Tony Groundy suggests Human Resource Strategy in itself may not be effective. HR Strategy (Human
Resource Strategy) is a designation for a long-term plan created to achieve objectives in the field of
human resource and human capital management and development in the organization. Human
Resource strategy is one of the outputs of strategic management in the field of human resources
management.
18.
Pettigrew & Whipp identified ________ central factors for

managing change successfully.
A. Three
B. Four
C. Five
D. Six
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option C
Solution:
Pettigrew & Whipp identified five central factors for managing change successfully. The five factors
are "environmental assessment," "leading change," "linking strategic and operational change,"
"human resources as assets and liabili- ties," and "coherence." It refers to a process pattern that is
shared among higher- performing firms.
19.
________ executives take a full part in the strategic

planning process.
A. Training & Development
B. Human Resource
C. Quality Control
D. Production
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option A
Solution:
Training & Development executives take a full part in the strategic planning process. Strategic plans
help identify what an organization is striving to achieve and maps out the necessary steps needed to
be successful.
20.
________ aims to put a financial measure on an

organisation's intellectual capital.
A. Knowledge exchange
B. The consortium
C. Financial planning
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option A
Solution:
Knowledge exchange aims to put a financial measure on an organisation's intellectual capital.

Information and knowledge can be defined as today's thermonuclear weapons. Knowledge is
stronger and more valu- able than the natural sources, huge factories or swollen bank accounts.
Organizations perform by using three types of capital: Physical Capital, Financial Capital and
Intellectual Capital.
21.
_______ is defined as the record of outcomes produced on

a specific job function or activity during a specific time
period.
A. Performance
B. Work function
C. Evaluation
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option A
Solution:
Performance is defined as the record of outcomes produced on a specific job function or activity
during a specific time period. The evaluation of employee‟s performance reveals the contribution of
an individual in the organization‟s objectives.
22.
______ is the personnel activity by means of which the

enterprise determines the extent to which the employee is
performing the job effectively.
A. Job evaluation
B. Work evaluation
C. Performance evaluation
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option C
Solution:
Performance evaluation is the personnel activity by means of which the enterprise determines the
extent to which the employee is performing the job effectively. Performance Evaluation is defined as
a formal and productive procedure to measure an employee's work and results based on their job
responsibilities.
23.
a/an ______ is a plan or programmes to motivate individual

or group performance.
A. Incentive scheme
B. Promotion scheme
C. Reward
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option A
Solution:
An incentive scheme is a plan or programmes to motivate individual or group performance. Incentive

schemes attempt to link at least a portion of pay to job performance to encourage higher
productivity. Incentives, as often called, should be aligned with the behaviours that help achieve
organizational goals or performance. Incentives are either individual or group (organization wide).
24.
A/An ______ is a vertical move in rank and responsibility.
A. Increment
B. Appraisal
C. Promotion
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option C
Solution:
A promotion is a vertical move in rank and responsibility. Promotion is the transfer of an employee
to a new position which commands higher pay, privileges or status compared with the old. It is a
vertical move in rank and responsibility.
25.
The _________ provides the essential information on

which each job is evaluated.
A. Job ranking
B. Job enrichment
C. Job description
D. Job enlargement
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option C
Solution:
The job description provides the essential information on which each job is evaluated. Job analysis is
a systematic process of collecting all information about the job for preparing of job description and
job specification meant to selection of employee, satisfaction in job, and motivation etc
26.
A ______ is a written record of the duties, responsibilities

and conditions of the job.
A. Job ranking
B. Job enrichment
C. Job description
D. Job enlargement
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option C
Solution:
A job description is a written record of the duties, responsibilities and conditions of the job. Job
description is an informative documentation of the scope, duties, tasks, responsibilities and working
conditions related to the job listing in the organization through the process of job analysis.
27.
Section ________ of the Industrial Disputes Act 1947,

states that an employer should only retrench employees
who have been most recently hired
A. 24-F
B. 24-G
C. 25-F
D. 25-G
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option D
Solution:
Section 25-G of the Industrial Disputes Act 1947, states that an employer should only retrench
employees who have been most recently hired. Where any workman in an industrial establishment
who is a citizen of India, is to be retrenched and he belongs to a particular category of workmen in
that establishment, in the absence of any agreement between the employer and the workman in
this behalf, the employer shall ordinarily retrench the workman who was the last person to be
employed in that category, unless for reasons to be recorded the employer retrenches any other
workman.
28.
The ________ programme once installed must be

continued on a permanent basis.
A. Job evaluation
B. Training & Development
C. Recruitment
D. All of the above
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option A
Solution:
Job evaluation is the process establishing the value or worth of jobs in a job hierarchy and compares
the relative intrinsic value or worth of jobs within an organization. Once this programme installed
must be continued on a permanent basis.
29.
For closure, every worker is to be compensated with

________ average pay for every year of service completed
A. 15 days
B. 20 days
C. 25 days
D. 30 days
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option A
Solution:
For closure, every worker is to be compensated with 15 days average pay for every year of service
completed. The retrenched employee must be provided with 15 days of average pay for a year of
continuous service or any part thereof in excess of six months.
30.
The whole process of conducting a 360 - Degree Feedback

process in any Organisation could last about ________.
A. 1.5 to 3 months
B. 3 to 6 months
C. 6 to 9 months
D. 9 to 12 months
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option A
Solution:
The whole process of conducting a 360 - Degree Feedback process in any Organisation could last
about 1.5 to 3 months. The 360 review differs from an employee appraisal which traditionally
provides the employee with the opinion of his or her performance as viewed by their manager.
31.
In a re-engineering programme, when a process changes

so does the ________ of the concerned employee.
A. Designation
B. Job profile
C. Qualification
D. Job experience
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option B
Solution:
In a re-engineering programme, when a process changes so does the job profile of the concerned
employee. Business Process Reengineering involves the radical redesign of core business processes
to achieve dramatic improvements in productivity, cycle times and quality.
32.
Union leaders at different levels & at federations are

elected on ________
A. democratic principle
B. political considerations
C. employer?s recommendation
D. seniority basis
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option A
Solution:
Union leaders at different levels & at federations are elected on democratic principle. Organizational
democracy is a system of organization that is based on freedom, instead of fear and control.
33.
______ is the simple act of comparison & learning for
organisational improvement
A. Benchmarking
B. Feedback
C. Ranking
D. Job evaluation
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option A
Solution:
Benchmarking is the simple act of comparison & learning for organisational improvement. Bench
marking is the process of identifying “best practice” in relation to both products (including) and the
processes by which those products are created and delivered. The search for “best practice” can
taker place both inside a particular industry, and also in other industries.
34.
_______ can be defined as a written record of the duties,

responsibilities and conditions of job.
A. Job description
B. Job specification
C. Job profile

Answer & Solution
Answer: Option A
Solution:
Job description can be defined as a written record of the duties, responsibilities and conditions of
job. It generally includes duties, purpose, responsibilities, scope, and working conditions of a job
along with the job's title, and the name or designation of the person to whom the employee reports.
35.
Under training and development plan, the form is to be

prepared in ________ form.
A. Duplicate
B. Structured
C. Detailed
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option A
Solution:
Under training and development plan, the form is to be prepared in duplicate form. Training and
development process is an organizational activity aimed at improving the performance of the
individuals and groups of employees in the organizational settings. It is an organized activity for
increasing the knowledge and skills of the employees.
36.
The process of analyzing jobs from which job descriptions

are developed are called________.
A. Job analysis
B. Job evaluation
C. Job enrichment
D. Job enlargement
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option A
Solution:
The process of analyzing jobs from which job descriptions are developed are called Job analysis. Job
analysis is the process of gathering and analyzing information about the content and the human
requirements of jobs, as well as, the context in which jobs are performed. This process is used to
determine placement of jobs.
37.
360-Degree Feedback enhances the quality of ________

decisions.
A. HR
B. Management
C. HRD
D. All of the above
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option D
Solution:
360-Degree Feedback enhances the quality of HR, Management and HRD decisions.
38.
In the Grid Seminars, stress is laid on _______.
A. Teaching
B. Professionalism
C. Training & Development
D. All of the above
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option A
Solution:
In the Grid Seminars, stress is laid on teaching. The Grid Training is the comprehensive organization
development programme developed by Blake and Mouton, which focuses on the overall
development of individuals, groups and the organization as a whole.
39.
__________ involves a one to one discussion between the

participant and administrator.
A. Counselling
B. Training
C. Motivation
D. All of the above
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option A
Solution:
Counselling involves a one to one discussion between the participant and administrator. Counselling
is the process that occurs when a client and counsellor set aside time to explore difficulties which
may include the stressful or emotional feelings of the client.
40.
______ appraisal done separately will provide feedback on

the potential of these managers.
A. Potential
B. Managerial
C. General
D. Administrative
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option A
Solution:
Potential appraisal is done separately will provide feedback on the potential of these managers.
Potential appraisal is a future-oriented appraisal whose main objective is to identify and evaluate the
potential of the employees to assume higher positions and responsibilities in the organizational
hierarchy. Many organizations consider and use PA as a part of the performance appraisal processes
41.
________ system stresses on discipline and there is
simplicity in the form.
A. Merit rating
B. Point rating
C. Both ?a? and ?b?
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option A
Solution:
Merit rating system stresses on discipline and there is simplicity in the form. Merit Rating is also
known as performance appraisal or performance evaluation. It is a systematic process for measuring
the performance of the employees in terms of job requirements.
42.
Stephen Knauf defined HRA as "the measurement &

________ of Human organisational inputs such as
recruitment, training experience & commitment
A. Qualification
B. Accounting
C. Development
Answer & Solution

Answer: Option A
Solution:
Stephen Knauf defined HRA as "the measurement & Qualification of Human organisational inputs
such as recruitment, training experience & commitment.
43.
Under ______ method, common factors to all the jobs are

identified.
A. Point
B. Merit
C. Factor comparison
D. Ranking
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option A
Solution:
Under Point method, common factors to all the jobs are identified. With this method, job factors are
identified under primary groups (i.e., skill, effort, responsibilities, working conditions) typically up to
five groups. Each factor is assigned a dollar value (as opposed to point value). This is a complex
system used only by a few organizations.
44.
The ________ role is to ensure the deserving managers

should get appropriate opportunities for job Rotation.
A. Reviewer
B. Assessor
C. Administrator
D. Employer
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option A
Solution:
The reviewer role is to ensure the deserving managers should get appropriate opportunities for job
Rotation. Job Rotation is a management approach where employees are shifted between two or
more assignments or jobs at regular intervals of time in order to expose them to all verticals of an
organization. It is a pre-planned approach with an objective to test the employee skills and
competencies in order to place him or her at the right place. In addition to it, it reduces the
monotony of the job and gives them a wider experience and helps them gain more insights.
45.
The role of the organisation in career planning is to

introduce & strengthen systems to ensure ________ of
employees
A. Career progression
B. Self development
C. Economical Development
D. Skill enhancement
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option A
Solution:
The role of the organisation in career planning is to introduce & strengthen systems to ensure Career
progression of employees. Developing career paths that enable employees to understand their
options to grow in the organization. Gathering the information to determine what skills they would
need to achieve this.
46.
The Job Characteristics Model is one of the most

influential attempts to___________
A. Design jobs with increased motivational properties
B. Assign jobs with proper motivational properties
C. Analyse jobs with increase and proper motivation
D. Describe jobs with increase motivation for proper jobs
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option D
Solution:
The Job Characteristics Model is one of the most influential attempts to describe jobs with increase
motivation for proper jobs. The job characteristics model applicable to a business identifies the job
characteristics of skill variety, autonomy, task significance, task identity and feedback, and the
outcomes of high job performance, high job satisfaction, high intrinsic motivation, and low
absenteeism or turnover.
47.
A broad statement of the purpose, scope, duties and

responsibilities of a particular job is___________
A. Job specification
B. Job description
C. Job analysis
D. Job design
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option C
Solution:
A broad statement of the purpose, scope, duties and responsibilities of a particular job is Job
analysis. A job analysis is a process used to collect information about the duties, responsibilities,
necessary skills, outcomes, and work environment of a particular job.
48.
Executive recruiters are also called___________
A. head hunters
B. staffers
C. alternative staffing companies
D. contract technical recruiters
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option A
Solution:
Executive recruiters are also called head hunters. A headhunter is a company or individual that
provides employment recruiting services. Headhunters are hired by firms to find talent and to locate
individuals who meet specific job requirements. Employers tend to enlist headhunters when they
are unable to find the right person to fill a role on their own.
49.
Strategic management process usually consists of
______steps.
A. Four
B. Five
C. Six
D. Seven
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option B
Solution:
Strategic management process usually consists of Five steps. The process of strategic management
includes goal setting, analysis, strategy formation, strategy implementation, and strategy
monitoring.
50.
Treating employees as precious human resources is the

basis of the ___________ approach
A. Hard HRM
B. Soft HRM
C. Medium HRM
D. Utiliarian approach
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option B
Solution:
Treating employees as precious human resources is the basis of the Soft HRM approach. Human
resource management (HRM) has frequently been described as a concept with two distinct forms:
soft and hard. The soft model emphasizes individuals and their self-direction and places
commitment, trust, and self-regulated behaviour at the centre of any strategic approach to people
51.
The best medium to reach a 'large audience for the

process of recruitment is___________
A. Casual applicants
B. Advertising
C. Employee referrals
D. Employment agencies
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option B
Solution:
The best medium to reach a 'large audience for the process of recruitment is Advertising. Advertising
provides a direct line of communication to your existing and prospective customers about your
product or service.
52.
The most popular method of recruiting applicants to jobs

is___________
A. Radio and TV advertisement
B. Corporate website
C. Employee referral schemes
D. Commercial job boards
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option B
Solution:
The most popular method of recruiting applicants to jobs is Corporate website. A Corporate Website
is more than the face of a business. It is the perception of a firm. New Global Ventures translates
your business into a compelling case for collaboration on the web.
53.
Using a structured interviewing technique would likely

achieve all of the following except___________
A. Increased consistency across candidates
B. Reduced subjectivity on the part of the interviewer
C. Enhanced job relatedness
D. More opportunity to explore areas as they arise during the interview
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option D
Solution:
Using a structured interviewing technique would likely achieve all of the following except more
opportunity to explore areas as they arise during the interview. Structured Interview is one in which
a particular set of predetermined questions are prepared by the interviewer in advance.
54.
Recruiting is necessary to___________
A. forecast the supply of outside candidates
B. developing an applicant pool
C. determine whether to use inside or outside candidates
D. develop qualifications inventories
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option B
Solution:
Recruiting is necessary to developing an applicant pool. The applicant pool is the total number of
people who have applied for an open position – the employer then embarks on the selection process
by reducing the applicant pool to either a short-list or a long-list and then a short-list, depending on
the number of people in the applicant pool.
55.
Campus Recruiting does not have the advantage

of___________
A. High Intellectual Capacity
B. Higher understanding of organization

C. High level of curiosity
D. High potential
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option B
Solution:
Campus Recruiting does not have the advantage of higher understanding of organization. Main
advantage of campus placement is that it is possible for companies to select best, quality candidates
within short time duration. Students can have the advantage of getting a reputed job even before
completion of their academic course in college.
56.
The characteristics of human resources are ___________

in nature
A. Homogeneous
B. Heterogeneous
C. Ductility
D. Stable
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option B
Solution:
Human resources management are heterogeneous. They consist of many different individuals, each
having a unique personality, different emotional responses to different stimuli and different needs,
motives, values, attitudes and modes of thinking. Each of them has his own physical and
psychological traits.
57.
___________ best defines how well a test or selection

procedure measures a person's attributes.
A. Reliability
B. Testing
C. Validity
D. Organizational constraint
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option C
Solution:
Validity best defines how well a test or selection procedure measures a person's attributes. Validity
refers to what a test or procedure measures and how well it measures. It is the degree to which a
test or procedure measures a person's attributes.
58.
Job Enrichment involves___________
A. Increases the amount of money employees are paid for completing an unit of work
B. Is a programme through which management seeks greater productivity from workers
C. my answer: (that staff is moved periodically from task to task in order to increase
variety and interest
D. Involves giving employees work with a greater degree of responsibility and autonomy
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option D
Solution:
Job Enrichment involves giving employees work with a greater degree of responsibility and
autonomy. Responsibility can also help speed up work processes by enabling the employee to make
decisions without having to wait for management approval. Autonomy is a very important part of
job enrichment because it gives the employee power and a feeling of importance.
59.
Moving employees from one job to another in a

predetermined way is called ___________
A. Job rotation
B. Job reengineering
C. Work mapping
D. Job enrichment
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option A
Solution:
Moving employees from one job to another in a predetermined way is called Job rotation. Job
rotation is a strategy where employees rotate between jobs at the same business. Employees take
on new tasks at a different job for a period of time before rotating back to their original position.
60.
The following are some of the ways that human resources

can benefit through electronic systems,
except___________
A. online recruiting can eliminate paperwork and speed up the hiring process
B. online learning can slash travel costs and make training available anytime anywhere
C. working online can reduce the resistance sometimes experienced from employees
D. online retirement planning can help employees map out their future while reducing
questions and paperwork for HR
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option C
Solution:
The following are some of the ways that human resources can benefit through electronic systems,
except working online can reduce the resistance sometimes experienced from employees. It is the
policy of different organizations to promote and reward workers who have been showing exemplary
performance in a particular duration. However, the details showing the level of performance of
various people working in the company can only be traced through an electronic system
61.
___________tests have proven to be particularly good

predictors for jobs that require
A. Intelligence
B. Integrity
C. Work sampling
D. Aptitude
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option A
Solution:
Intelligence tests have proven to be particularly good predictors for jobs that require. Tests of
intellectual ability, spatial and mechanical ability, perceptual accuracy, and motor ability are
moderately valid predictors for many semiskilled and unskilled lower-level jobs in industrial
organizations.
62.
Although many authors experience difficulty in

distinguishing between personnel management and HRM,
it can be argued that HRM is the elevation of personnel
management to a more ________ Level.
A. Strategic
B. Organisational
C. Operational
D. Centralized
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option B
Solution:
Although many authors experience difficulty in distinguishing between personnel management and
HRM, it can be argued that HRM is the elevation of personnel management to a more organisational
Level. HRM concentrates on maintaining human resources by acquiring, developing and motivating
them at organisational Level.
63.
HRM is more___________ whereas Personnel Management
is slightly narrow
A. Complex
B. Detailed
C. Mechanical
D. Growth-oriented
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option D
Solution:
HRM is more growth-oriented whereas Personnel Management is slightly narrow. Personnel

management is a little old and a more traditional way of handling employees at a workplace;
whereas HRM is a more modern and a more specific approach to managing human resources in an
organization.
64.
The term used before the language of modern HRM was
A. Labour Relations
B. Personnel Management
C. Industrial Management
D. All of the above

Answer & Solution
Answer: Option D
Solution:
The term used before the language of modern HRM was Labour Relations, Personnel Management
and Industrial Management.
65.
Which of the following is not a function normally

performed by HR department?
A. Accounting
B. Recruitment and Selection
C. Pay and Reward
D. Employee Relations
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option A
Solution:
Accounting is not a function normally performed by HR department. The six main function of HR are
recruitment, workplace safety, employee relations, compensation planning, labor law compliance
and training.
66.
Which of the following statements is false?
A. Organizations are now less hierarchical in nature

B. Organizations are now generally focusing upon domestic rather than international
matters
C. Organizations have adopted more flexible norms
D. Organizations have been subject to a raft of organizational change programs
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option B
Solution:
Organizations are now generally focusing upon domestic rather than international matters is not
true they are focusing on both matters.
67.
HRM is
A. Employee oriented
B. Employer oriented
C. Legally oriented
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option A
Solution:
HRM is Employee oriented. Employee orientation is the process of introducing new hires to their
jobs, co-workers, responsibilities, and workplace. Effective employee orientation answers any
questions or concerns a new colleague may have, makes them aware of company policies and
expectations, and eases them comfortably into their new positions.
68.
Scope of the HRM includes
A. Retirement and separation of employees
B. HR training and development
C. Industrial relations
D. All of the above
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option D
Solution:
Scope of the HRM includes Retirement and separation of employees, HR training and development,
Industrial relations, etc. The scope of Human Resource Management (HRM) is Personal
Management, Employee Welfare and Industrial Relations.
69.
The objectives of HRM are categorized as
A. Personal objectives
B. Functional objectives
C. Organisational and social objectives
D. All of the above

Answer & Solution
Answer: Option D
Solution:
The objectives of HRM are categorized as Personal objectives, Functional objectives and
Organisational and social objectives.
70.
The scope of HRM does not include
A. Retirement of employees
B. Manpower planning
C. Training of employees
D. Maintenance of accounts
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option D
Solution:
The scope of HRM does not include maintenance of accounts. HRM is a process of making the
efficient and effective use of human resources so that the set goals are achieved
1.
The meaning of the acronym 'SHRM' is
A. Short-term Human Resource Management
B. Strategic Human Resource Management

C. Strategestic Human Resource Management
D. Strategic Humane Resource Management
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option B
Solution:
The meaning of the acronym 'SHRM' is Strategic Human Resource Management. Strategic human
resource management includes typical human resource components such as hiring, discipline, and
payroll, and also involves working with employees in a collaborative manner to boost retention,
improve the quality of the work experience, and maximize the mutual benefit of employment for
both the employee and the employer.
2.
The organization's ____ must be conducive to productivity

and quality improvement.
A. Culture
B. Development
C. Policy
D. Environment
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option A
Solution:
The organization's Culture must be conducive to productivity and quality improvement. The ways
the employees interact amongst themselves and with others outside the organization contribute to
the culture of the workplace. The culture gives an identity to the organization and makes it distinct
from others. Communication and relationship play an important role in a healthy organization
culture.
3.
College Professors are generally evaluated on the

following Work function(s)
A. Teaching
B. Service
C. Research
D. All of the above
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option D
Solution:
College Professors are generally evaluated on Teaching, Service and Research Work functions.
4.
In which evaluation method, the evaluator is asked to

describe the strong and weak aspects of the employee's
behavior.
A. Graphic rating scale
B. Forced choice
C. Essay evaluation
D. Management by Objective
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option C
Solution:
In essay evaluation method, the evaluator is asked to describe the strong and weak aspects of the
employee's behavior. In the essay method approach, the appraiser prepares a written statement
about the employee being appraised. The statement usually concentrates on describing specific
strengths and weaknesses in job performance.
5.
The following system combines the superior and self

evaluation systems?
A. Graphic rating scale
B. Forced choice
C. Essay evaluation
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option D
Solution:
The Management by Objective system combines the superior and self evaluation systems.
Management by objectives (MBO) is a strategic management model that aims to improve the
performance of an organization by clearly defining objectives that are agreed to by both
management and employees
6.
In this technique, personnel specialists and operating
managers prepare lists of statements of very effective and
very ineffective behavior for an employee.
A. Critical incident technique
B. Forced choice
C. Essay evaluation
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option A
Solution:
In Critical incident technique, personnel specialists and operating managers prepare lists of
statements of very effective and very ineffective behavior for an employee. Critical incident method
or critical incident technique is a performance appraisal tool in which analyses the behavior of
employee in certain events in which either he performed very well and the ones in which he could
have done better.
7.
The following technique(s) is based on the critical incident

approach.
A. Behaviorally anchored rating scales (BARS)
B. Critical incident technique
C. Both (A) and (B)

Answer & Solution
Answer: Option C
Solution:
Behaviorally anchored rating scales (BARS) and Critical incident techniques are based on the critical
incident approach.
BARS is designed to bring the benefits of both quantitative and qualitative data to employee
appraisal process.
Critical incident technique is a method of gathering facts (incidents) from domain experts or less
experienced users of the existing system to gain knowledge of how to improve the performance of
the individuals involved.
8.
Paired comparison method can be used by
A. Superiors
B. Peers
C. Subordinates
D. All of the above
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option D
Solution:
Paired comparison method can be used by Superiors, Peers and Subordinates.
9.
The multiple-input approach to performance feedback is

sometimes called ____ degree assessment.
A. 90
B. 180
C. 270
D. 360
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option D
Solution:
The multiple-input approach to performance feedback is sometimes called 360 degree assessment.
A 360-degree feedback (also known as multi-rater feedback, multi source feedback, or multi source
assessment) is a process through which feedback from an employee's subordinates, colleagues, and
supervisor(s), as well as a self-evaluation by the employee themselves is gathered.
10.
An incentive plan may consist of
A. Monetary
B. Nonmonetary
C. Both monetary and nonmonetary
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option C
Solution:
An incentive plan may consist of both monetary and nonmonetary. Monetary rewards are the
incentives which involve direct money to the employees. Non-Monetary rewards are the incentives
which do not involve direct money to the employees. Non-Monetary rewards are usually given to all
the employees of a certain level to offer them convenience and security
11.
The following technique is used to evaluate an employee

individually.
A. Graphic scale rating
B. Ranking
C. Paired comparison
D. Forced distribution
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option A
Solution:
Graphic scale rating technique is used to evaluate an employee individually. A graphic rating scale
lists the traits each employee should have and rates workers on a numbered scale for each trait. The
scores are meant to separate employees into tiers of performers, which can play a role in
determining promotions and salary adjustments.
12.
The technique that have been used to evaluate an

employee in comparison with other employees
A. Ranking
B. Forced choice
C. Essay evaluation
D. Critical incident technique
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option A
Solution:
The Ranking technique have been used to evaluate an employee in comparison with other
employees. Ranking method is one of the simplest performance evaluation methods. In this method,
employees are ranked from best to worst in a group. The simplicity of this method is overshadowed
by the negative impact of assigning a 'worst' and a 'best' rating to an employee.
13.
The Recognition may be shown in the form of
A. A pat on the back of employee
B. Promotion
C. Assignment of more interesting tasks
D. All of the above
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option D
Solution:
The Recognition may be shown in the form of a pat on the back of employee, Promotion and
Assignment of more interesting tasks.
14.
The purpose of Job Evaluation is to determine

A. Worth of a job in relation to other jobs
B. Time duration of a job
C. Expenses incurred to make a job
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option A
Solution:
The purpose of Job Evaluation is to determine worth of a job in relation to other jobs. Job
evaluations have many purposes within business organizations. While they may be perceived as
focusing only an individual's performance, they actually help the organization take a look at its
structure, allowing it to make changes to improve its competitiveness or efficiency.
15.
Job Evaluation tries to make a systematic comparison

between
A. Workers
B. Jobs
C. Machines
D. Departments
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option B
Solution:
Job Evaluation tries to make a systematic comparison between Jobs to assess their relative worth for
the purpose of establishing a rational pay structure
16.
Basis of Job Evaluation is
A. Job design
B. Job ranking
C. Job analysis
D. Any of the above
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option C
Solution:
Basis of Job Evaluation is Job analysis. Job evaluation is an assessment of the relative worth of
various jobs on the basis of a consistent set of job and personal factors, such as qualifications and
skills required.
17.
The important objectives of a job evaluation programme
A. Establishment of sound wage differentials between jobs.
B. Maintenance of a consistent wage policy.
C. Installation of an effective means of wage control.

D. All of the above
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option D
Solution:
The important objectives of a job evaluation programme Establishment of sound wage differentials
between jobs is maintenance of a consistent wage policy and installation of an effective means of
wage control.
18.
The following is not a job evaluation method.
A. Factor comparison method
B. Point Method
C. Ranking method
D. Assessment method
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option D
Solution:
The Assessment method is not a job evaluation method. A business assessment helps you to achieve
your company's goals, to expand and grow your business in a smart and strategic way. As the
company owner, you have to be aware of the strengths and weaknesses of your company.
19.
In which of the following methods Jobs can be arranged

according to the relative difficulty in performing them.
A. Ranking method
B. Point method
C. Factor comparison method
D. Classification method
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option A
Solution:
In Ranking method Jobs can be arranged according to the relative difficulty in performing them.
Ranking method is one of the simplest performance evaluation methods. In this method, employees
are ranked from best to worst in a group. The simplicity of this method is overshadowed by the
negative impact of assigning a 'worst' and a 'best' rating to an employee.
20.
Job Evaluation is carried on by
A. Groups
B. Individuals
C. Both (A) and (B)
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option A
Solution:
Job Evaluation is carried on by groups. Since job evaluation is subjective, specially trained personnel
or job analysts should conduct it. When a group of managers is used for this purpose, the group is
called a job evaluation committee. The committee reviews job analysis information to learn about
the duties, responsibilities and working conditions.
21.
The Ranking method is best suited for
A. Complex organizations
B. Large organizations
C. Small organizations
D. Any of the above
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option C
Solution:
The Ranking method is best suited for Small organizations. Ranking method is one of the simplest
performance evaluation methods. In this method, employees are ranked from best to worst in a
group. The simplicity of this method is overshadowed by the negative impact of assigning a 'worst'
and a 'best' rating to an employee.
22.
Point method is suitable for
A. Small size organization
B. Mid size organization

C. Large organization
D. Both (B) and (C)
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option D
Solution:
Point method is suitable for Mid size organization and Large organization. The point method is an
extension of the factor comparison method. Each factor is then divided into levels or degrees which
are then assigned points. Each job is rated using the job evaluation instrument. The points for each
factor are summed to form a total point score for the job.
23.
In Factor Comparison method, each factor is ascribed a
A. Money value
B. Ranking
C. Scale
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option A
Solution:
In Factor Comparison method, each factor is ascribed a Money value. Factor comparison is
systematic and scientific method designed to carry out job evaluation which instead of ranking job as
a whole, ranks according to a series of factors. The aim of factor comparison is to assign financial
value to the relative parts of each job role.
24.
The following is (are) the key components of a business
process Re-engineering programme?
A. Product development
B. Service delivery
C. Customer satisfaction
D. All of the above
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option D
Solution:
The Product development, Service delivery and Customer satisfaction are the key components of a
business process Re-engineering programme.
25.
The actual achievements compared with the objectives of

the job is
A. Job performance
B. Job evaluation
C. Job description
Answer & Solution

Answer: Option A
No explanation is given for this question Let's Discuss on Board
26.
The following is (are) concerned with developing a pool of

candidates in line with the human resources plan
A. Development
B. Training
C. Recruitment
D. All of the above
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option C
Solution:
The Recruitment is concerned with developing a pool of candidates in line with the human resources
plan. In human resource management, “recruitment” is the process of finding and hiring the best
and most qualified candidate for a job opening, in a timely and cost-effective manner. It can also be
defined as the “process of searching for prospective employees and stimulating and encouraging
them to apply for jobs in an organization”.
27.
Majority of the disputes in industries is (are) related to the

problem of
A. Wages
B. Salaries
C. Benefits
D. All of the above
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option D
Solution:
Majority of the disputes in industries are related to the problem of Wages, Salaries and Benefits.
28.
In an organisation initiating career planning, the career

path model would essentially form the basis for
A. Placement
B. Transfer
C. Rotation
D. All of the above
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option D
Solution:
In an organisation initiating career planning, the career path model would essentially form the basis
for Placement, Transfer and Rotation.
29.
Performance development plan is set for the employee by

his
A. Employer
B. Department Head
C. Immediate boss
D. Any of the above
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option C
Solution:
Performance development plan is set for the employee by his immediate boss. Performance and
development planning is carried out jointly by the manager and the employee and in the process of
discussions they both arrive at performance agreements and define performance expectations.
30.
The following type of recruitment process is said to be a

costly affair.
A. Internal recruitment
B. External recruitment
C. Cost remains same for both types
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option B
Solution:
The External recruitment process is said to be a costly affair. External recruitment is the assessment
of an available pool of job candidates, other than existing staff, to see if there are any sufficiently
skilled or qualified to fill and perform existing job vacancies. It is the process of searching outside of
the current employee pool to fill open positions in an organization.
31.
The following is (are) the objective(s) of inspection.
A. Quality product
B. Defect free products
C. Customer satisfaction
D. All of the above
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option D
Solution:
Quality product, Defect free products and Customer satisfaction are the objectives of inspection.
32.
Large recruitment ____ problematic and vice-versa.
A. Less
B. More
C. Any of the above
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option A
No explanation is given for this question Let's Discuss on Board
33.
The following person has suggested the new concept

which takes into account various key factors that will tell
the overall performance of a job.
A. Elliot Jecques
B. Fred Luthas
C. Juran
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option A
Solution:
Elliot Jecques has suggested the new concept which takes into account various key factors that will
tell the overall performance of a job.
34.
The three important components in aligning business

strategy with HR practice:
A. Business Strategy, Human Resource Practices, Organisational Capabilities
B. Marketing Strategy, Human Resource Practices, Organisational Capabilities
C. Business Strategy, Human Resource Practices, Organisational structure

D. Marketing Strategy, Human Resource Practices, Organisational structure
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option A
Solution:
The three important components in aligning business strategy with HR practice are Business
Strategy, Human Resource Practices and Organisational Capabilities.
35.
The basic managerial skill(s) is(are)
A. To supervise
B. To stimulate
C. To motivate
D. All of the above
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option D
Solution:
The basic managerial skills are To supervise, To stimulate and To motivate.
36.
The process which is continuous and stops only when the

organisation ceases to exist
A. Training
B. Job evaluation
C. Hiring
D. All of the above
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option C
Solution:
Hiring is the process which is continuous and stops only when the organisation ceases to exist. The
hiring process is the process of reviewing applications, selecting the right candidates to interview,
testing candidates, choosing between candidates to make the hiring decision and performing various
pre-employment tests and checks.
37.
The following factor would be relatively low if supply of

labour is higher than demand.
A. production
B. labour cost
C. wage
D. all of the above
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option C
Solution:
Wage factor would be relatively low if supply of labour is higher than demand. Wages are the price
that workers receive for their labor in the form of salaries, bonuses, royalties, commissions, and
fringe benefits, such as paid vacations, health insurance, and pensions.
38.
The nation wide consumer councils formed by the

Government comprise of representatives of
A. Cost account and consumer
B. Various ministries
C. Manufactures of commerce
D. All of the above
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option D
Solution:
The nation wide consumer councils formed by the Government comprise of representatives of Cost
account and consumer, Various ministries and Manufactures of commerce.
39.
The following is (are) the option(s) while planning for

surplus
A. Reassign the jobs
B. Redesign the jobs
C. Reduce work hours

D. All of the above
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option D
Solution:
Reassign the jobs, Redesign the jobs and Reduce work hours are the options while planning for
surplus.
40.
The following system is simple, less expensive and less

time consuming.
A. Paired comparison
B. Confidential report system
C. Ranking
D. Checklist method
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option C
Solution:
Ranking system is simple, less expensive and less time consuming. In a ranking method, jobs are
arranged in order of their value or merit to the organization. Accordingly the jobs at the top of the
list provide more value to the organization and its relative importance keeps decreasing as we move
down the list.
41.
The following are the factors which come under ? Work

planning? that is component systems of HRD
A. Contextual analysis
B. Role analysis
C. Performance appraisal
D. All of the above
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option D
Solution:
Contextual analysis, Role analysis and Performance appraisal are the factors that come under work
planning that is component systems of HRD.
42.
The three types of forecasts are
A. Economic, employee market, company's sales expansion
B. Long, Short, Medium
C. Production, economic, company's sales expansion
D. Production, labor, economic
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option A
Solution:
The three types of forecasts are Economic, employee market, company's sales expansion.
43.
Under point method, factor(s) generally considered are
A. Skill, effort, Accountability
B. Skill, job enrichment, accountability
C. Wage, job enrichment, accountability
D. Wage effort, accountability
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option A
Solution:
Under point method, factors generally considered are Skill, effort and Accountability. The point
method is an extension of the factor comparison method. Each factor is then divided into levels or
degrees which are then assigned points. Each job is rated using the job evaluation instrument. The
points for each factor are summed to form a total point score for the job.
44.
HRD process variable include
A. Role clarity
B. Work planning
C. Better communication
D. All of the above

Answer & Solution
Answer: Option D
Solution:
HRD process variable include Role clarity, Work planning and Better communication.
45.
The following is (are) included in salary survey.
A. Average salary
B. Inflation indicators
C. Salary budget averages
D. All of the above
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option D
Solution:
Average salary, Inflation indicators and Salary budget averages are included in salary survey. Salary
surveys are typically conducted with numerous Organisations in a given employment sector or
industry in order to determine levels of pay for specific job groups or classifications.
46.
When effort to earn additional income through a second

job does not bear fruit, such type of efforts & the
consequent results may be called as
A. Red moon lighting

B. Blue moon lighting
C. Yellow moon lighting
D. Silver moon lighting
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option B
Solution:
When effort to earn additional income through a second job does not bear fruit, such type of efforts
& the consequent results may be called as Blue moon lighting. Moonlighting refers to the practice of
working a second job outside normal business hours. Therefore, an employee may work a normal 9-
to-5 job as a primary source of income but work nights at a different job in order to earn extra
money.
47.
Which pay is one of the most crucial pay given to the

employee & also shown in the pay structure?
A. Performance
B. Strategic
C. Bonus
D. Commission
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option A
Solution:
Performance is one of the most crucial pay given to the employee & also shown in the pay structure.
Performance is understood as achievement of the organization in relation with its set goals.
48.
Which of the following is (are) the HRD score card?
A. HRD systems maturity score
B. Competency score
C. HRD competencies systems maturity score
D. All of the above
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option D
Solution:
HRD systems maturity score, Competency score and HRD competencies systems maturity scoreis are
the HRD score card.
49.
The three performance counseling phases are
A. Rapport building, Exploration, Action planning
B. Support building, Exploration, Action planning
C. Rapport building, Explanation, Action planning
D. Rapport building, Exploration, Accurate planning

Answer & Solution
Answer: Option A
Solution:
The three performance counseling phases are Rapport building, Exploration and Action planning.
In the rapport building phase, a good counselor attempts to establish a climate of acceptance,
warmth, support, openness and mutuality.
In Exploration phase, the counselor should attempt to help the employee understand and appreciate
his strengths and weaknesses. He should also understand his own situation, problems and needs.
In Action Planning Counseling interviews should end with specific plans of action for development of
the employee. The main contribution of the superior in this phase is in helping the employee think of
alternative ways of dealing with a problem.
50.
What is that describes the duties of the job, authority

relationship, skills requirement, conditions of work etc.
A. Job analysis
B. Job enlargement
C. Job enrichment
D. Job evaluation
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option A
Solution:
Job analysis describes the duties of the job, authority relationship, skills requirement, conditions of
work etc. Job analysis is the process of gathering and analyzing information about the content and
the human requirements of jobs, as well as, the context in which jobs are performed. This process is
used to determine placement of jobs.
51.
During the lay off period, the employer has to pay ____ of
the basic wages.
A. One fourth
B. Half
C. Three fourth
D. One third
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option B
Solution:
During the lay off period, the employer has to pay half of the basic wages. A layoff is an involuntary
separation between an employer and an employee that occurs through no fault of the employee.
52.
Point system and factor comparison methods are placed

under such category
A. Non
B. Quantitative job evaluation
C. Any of the above
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option B
Solution:
Point system and factor comparison methods are placed under Quantitative job evaluation. This is
the most widely used method for job evaluation. It along with factor comparison method, involves a
more detailed, quantitative and analytical approach to the measurement of job worth.
53.
A key HR role in the firm will be multidisciplinary

consulting around
A. Individual
B. Team
C. Business unit
D. All of the above
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option D
Solution:
A key HR role in the firm will be multidisciplinary consulting around Individual, Team and Business
unit.
54.
The following are the key factors of the new economic

policy.
A. Privatization
B. Market friendly state
C. Liberalisation
D. All of the above
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option D
Solution:
Privatization, Market friendly state and Liberalisation are the key factors of the new economic policy.
55.
During which of the following stage, the firm plans the

proposed changes into practice.
A. Clarification
B. Monitoring
C. Assessment
D. Design
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option D
Solution:
During design stage, the firm plans the proposed changes into practice. These projects are designed
with the aim of efficient management.
56.
During which of the following stage, the firm identifies and

confirms the overall business direction
A. Clarification
B. Monitoring
C. Assessment
D. Design
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option A
Solution:
During Clarification, the firm identifies and confirms the overall business direction.
57.
The process of the feedback is made up of __ phases.
A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 7
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option B
Solution:
The process of the feedback is made up of 5 phases. Here are the five steps to communicating
positive feedback to employees: Establish the purpose of the conversation. Describe the positive
behavior or performance. Ask the employee the reasons for their success. Listen actively and
empathetically. Thank the employee and express your confidence in their continued success.
58.
The three phases of recruitment process are
A. Planning, Implementing, Evaluating
B. Planning, Implementing, Screening
C. Planning, Implementing, Enrichment
D. Planning, Screening, Evaluating
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option A
Solution:
The three phases of recruitment process are Planning, Implementing and Evaluating.
59.
Recruitment is widely viewed as a
A. Positive process
B. Negative process
C. Positive as well as negative process
D. None of the above processes
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option A
Solution:
Recruitment is widely viewed as a Positive process. Recruitment is a process of identifying,

screening, shortlisting and hiring potential resource for filling up the vacant positions in an
organization. It is a core function of Human Resource Management. Recruitment is the process of
choosing the right person for the right position and at the right time.
60.
Recruitment policy usually highlights need for establishing
A. Job specification
B. Job analysis
C. Job description
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option A
Solution:
Recruitment policy usually highlights need for establishing job specification. A job specification
defines the knowledge, skills and abilities that are required to perform a job in an organization.
61.
The process of developing the applicant's pool for job

openings in an organization is called
A. Hiring
B. Recruitment
C. Selection
D. Retention
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option B
Solution:
The process of developing an applicants' pool for job openings in an Organisation is called
Recruitment. Recruitment is the process of searching for prospective employees and stimulating
them to apply for jobs in their organisation.
62.
A brief write-up of what the job is all about is
A. Job finding
B. Job summary
C. Job analysis
D. Job specification
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option B
Solution:
A brief write-up of what the job is all about is Job summary. A job summary basically provides an
overview of the company and the expectations that comes with the job. It summarizes the main
point of the job description which may include key responsibilities, functions, and duties; education
and experience requirements and other important information.
63.
A job specification is one of the areas of

A. Job analysis
B. Job design
C. Job description
D. Job summary
64.
The division of the total task to be performed into a

manageable and efficient unit is
A. A job design
B. A job specification
C. A job analysis
D. A job description
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option A
Solution:
The division of the total task to be performed into a manageable and efficient unit is a job design.
The Job Design means outlining the task, duties, responsibilities, qualifications, methods and
relationships required to perform the given set of a job.
65.
Which of the following is the area from which applicants
can be recruited?
A. Employment Lines
B. Employees' Association
C. Labour Market
D. Labour Schemes
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option C
Solution:
Labour Market is the area from which applicants can be recruited. A labour market is the place
where workers and employees interact with each other. In the labour market, employers compete
to hire the best, and the workers compete for the best satisfying job.
66.
For forecasting the demand for manpower, the important

techniques used are
A. Delphi Techniques
B. Statistical Techniques
C. Work Study Techniques
D. All of the above

Answer & Solution
Answer: Option D
Solution:
For forecasting the demand for manpower, the important techniques used are Delphi Techniques,
Statistical Techniques and Work Study Techniques
67.
Selection of the candidates is done out of
A. Target population
B. Internal sources
C. External sources
D. Internal as well as external sources
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option A
Solution:
Selection of the candidates is done out of target population. Target population refers to the ENTIRE
group of individuals or objects to which researchers are interested in generalizing the conclusions.
The target population usually has varying characteristics and it is also known as the theoretical
population.
68. HRM is considered as
A. A reactive function
B. A proactive function
C. An auxiliary function
D. An auto-reactive function
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option B
Solution:
HRM is considered as a proactive function. It also manages communication, motivation, and

leadership between people in the organization.
69. A job design is
A. The design involving maximum acceptable job design qualities to perform a job
B. The division of total task to be performed into manageable and efficient units
C. A systematic way of designing and determination of the worth of a job
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option B
Solution:
A job design is the division of total task to be performed into manageable and efficient units. Job
design is the allocation of specific work tasks to individuals and groups. Allocating jobs and tasks
means specifying the contents, method, and relationships of jobs to satisfy technological and
organizational requirements, as well as the personal needs of jobholders.
70. According to Edwin Flippo, the first and immediate

product of job analysis is
A. The job description
B. The job design
C. The job production
D. The job specification
Answer & Solution
Answer: Option A
Solution:
According to Edwin Flippo, the first and immediate product of job analysis is the job description. A
job description or JD lists the main features of a specific job. The description typically includes the
person's main duties, responsibilities, and working conditions. It also includes the job title and to
whom the person holding that job has to report.

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Leading - MCQs with answers - Part 1

1. ___________ is a performance measure of both efficiency and effectiveness.

ANSWER: c. Employee productivity

2. The voluntary and involuntary permanent withdrawal from an organisation is

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3. Discretionary behaviour that is not part of an employee's formal job

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ANSWER: b. Cognitive component

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ANSWER: a. Affective component

6. Employee's general belief that their organisation values their contribution

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7. Any compatibility or inconsistency between attitudes or between behaviour

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8. Which is the most popular approach to classifying personality traits?

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Leading - MCQs with answers - Part 2

1) Realistic -------------- A. Self - confident

a. 1-C, 2-E, 3-F, 4-D, 5-A, 6-B

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ANSWER: c. Emotional Intelligence

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ANSWER: a. Attribution Theory

a. Self - serving bias

ANSWER: d. Operant conditioning

6. What is fundamental attribution theory?

a. Tendency to underestimate the influence of external factors and overestimate the

c. General impression of an individual based on a single

d. None of the above

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ANSWER: a. Tendency to underestimate the influence of external factors and

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ANSWER: d. All of the above

a. Human Resource Planning

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ANSWER: a. Human Resource Planning

a. Creating highly talented personnel

ANSWER: d. All of the above

a. Highly talented personnel creation

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ANSWER: c. Succession planning

i. Human Resource Planning facilitates international expansion strategies.

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a. Type and quality of forecasting information

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6. What is the major issue faced while doing personal planning?

a. Type of information which should be used in making forecasts

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7. Rearrange the following steps involved in the Human resource planning

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8. Which of these factors is not included in environmental scanning?

a. Political and legislative issues

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ANSWER: d. None of the above

9. _______ is the process of estimating the quantity and quality of people

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A. Ration Trend Analysis

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a. Work study technique

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3. HRM differs from PM both in and