Embryology QNS

Embryology Practice Questions with Answers flashcards | Quizlet https://quizlet.com/3472776/embryology-practice-questions-with-answers...
Like this study set? Create a free account to save it.
1. The part of the sperm containing D. is correct.

proteolytic enzymes to digest the zona The acrosome is the part of the sperm
pellucida is the: containing proteolytic enzymes to
digest the zona pellucida. It is exposed
A. capacitor by the process of capacitation. Then,
B. head under the influence of substances
C. corona released by corona radiata cells, it
D. acrosome releases its proteolytic enzymes and
E. cumulus penetrates the oocyte.
2. The ovulated mammalian oocyte is D. is correct.

arrested at: The long arrest in meiosis occurs in the
primary oocyte. These descendants of
A. prophase of meiosis I oogonia begin meiosis before birth and
B. metaphase of meiosis I stop dividing during prophase of the
C. prophase of meiosis II first division. Years later, this first
D. metaphase of meiosis II division is completed just prior to
E. none of the above ovulation. Ovulated secondary oocytes
then stop at metaphase II until
fertilized.
1 of 33 6/14/2016 1:19 PM
3. The seven-day blastocyst: C. is correct.

The decidual reaction of the
A. has a single layer of trophoblast at endometrium creates a nourishing
the embryonic pole environment for the conceptus a it
B. has an amniotic cavity buries itself by invasion of the uterine
C. is attached to the endometrial endometrial wall. Progesterone
epithelium produced by the corpus luteum
D. is surrounded by a degenerating stimulates glandular secretion in the
zona pellucida endometrium during the secretory
E. is called the hypoblast phase of menstruation or early
pregnancy.
4. Haploid nuclei that fuse at E. is correct.

fertilization are called: After the sperm reaches the ovum, it
deposits its genetic load, the male
A. homunculi pronucleus, into the cytoplasm of the
B. mitotic figures egg. After finally completing the
C. centrioles meiotic division that had begun years
D. nucleoli before, the female pronucleus fuses
E. pronuclei with the male pronucleus to create the
diploid nucleus of the zygote
5. The first week of human E. is correct.

development is characterized by At four days, the blastocyst cavity of
formation of the: blastocele forms within the morula.
Trophoblast are outer cells of the
A. inner cell mass blastocyst, while a knot of cells
B. hypoblast appears, protruding into the blastocele.
C. trophoblast This is the inner cell mass. Trophoblast
D. blastocyst becomes 2 layers: syncytiotrophoblast
E. all of the above and cytotrophoblast. Inner cell mass
becomes epiblast and hypoblast.
6. During implantation, the blastocyst: E. is correct.

Implantation occurs when the
A. implants in the endometrium trophoblast cells at the embryonic pole
B. usually attaches to endometrial secrete proteolytic enzymes that allow
epithelium at its embryonic pole the blastocyst to penetrate the wall of
C. usually implants in the posterior wall the uterus, usually the posterior wall.
of the body of the uterus The endometrial lining responds to
D. causes change in the endometrial implantation through the decidua
tissues reaction, by which it becomes more
E. all of the above are correct succulent for nourishing the blastocyst.
2 of 33 6/14/2016 1:19 PM
7. Capacitation of the sperm: D. is correct.

Capacitation involves removing the
A. is caused by the zona pellucida glycoprotein coat and seminal plasma
B. occurs in the male proteins from the head of the sperm,
C. prevents polyspermy exposing the acrosome and allowing
D. is essential for fertilization the acrosome reaction to occur.
E. removes the head of the sperm Capacitation occurs within the female
genital tract, and without its
occurrence, fertilization could not
occur.
8. The early stages of cleavage are D. is correct.

characterized by: The earliest stages of cleavage are
marked by a series of mitotic divisions
A. formation of a hollow ball of cells that increase the number of cells in the
B. formation of the zona pellucida zygote without an increase in size. As
C. increase in the size of the cells in the the cleavage continues the zygote
zygote becomes a morula or a solid ball of
D. increase in the number of cells in the 12-16 cels. A cavity forming within the
zygote morula transforms it into a blasocyst,
E. none of the above at about day 4.
9. The most common site for D. is correct.

implantation in ectopic pregnancy is: The most common site of ectopic
implantation is the uterine tube. The
A. internal os of the uterus growth of the embryo in this site
B. mesentery usually causes rupture of the tube and
C. ovary severe hemorrhage in the mother.
D. uterine tube Abdominally, an ectopic pregnancy
E. other often occurs in the rectouterine pouch,
an area between the uterus and the
rectum.
10. With the light microscope, the zona E. is correct.

pellucida appears as a translucent The zona pellucida persists until early it
membrane surrounding the: the blastocyst stage. It dissolves during
the blastocyst stage in order that
A. primary oocyte implantation may occur.
B. zygote
C. morula
D. very early blastocyst
E. all of the above are correct
3 of 33 6/14/2016 1:19 PM
11. The amniotic cavity develops: C. is correct.

The amniotic cavity begins to develop
A. on the tenth day around the 8th ay as a slit-like area
B. within the outer cell mass within the epiblast near the
C. within the inner cell mass near the cytotrophoblast. It usually ha a thin
cytotrophoblast strip of epiblast cells, called
D. in extraembryonic mesoderm amnioblasts, between it and the
E. none of the above cytotrophoblast.
12. During the second week of A. is correct.

development, the trophoblast The trophoblast gives rise to both the
differentiates into: syncytiotrophoblast and the
cytotrophoblast, as well as the
A. syncytiotrophoblast extraembryonic mesoderm. The
B. ectoderm ectoderm is a derivative of the epiblast,
C. intraembryonic mesoderm and the secondary yolk sac comes from
D. yolk sac (secondary) endoderm cells that line the
exocoelomic cavity or the primitive yolk
sac.
13. The first two intraembryonic germ B. is correct.

layers to differentiate are the: The epiblast and hypoblast develop
from the inner cell mass during the 2nd
A. ectoderm and hypoblast week. During the 3rd week, the epiblast
B. epiblast and hypoblast produces cells between itself and the
C. ectoderm and endoderm hypoblast, called the mesoderm.
D. ectoderm and mesoderm Epiblast also replaces the hypoblast
with endoderm cells. Epiblast then
changes its name to ectoderm,
completing the process of gastrulation.
14. The blastocoele becomes the: C. is correct.

Around the 9th day, cells from the
A. amniotic cavity hypoblast spread around the
B. extraembryonic coelom blastocoele, forming the exocoelomic
C. primary yolk sac or Heuser's membrane. When the
D. chorionic cavity blastocoele is surrounded by this
E. secondary cavity membrane, it is referred to as the
primary yolk sac or exocoelomic cavity.
4 of 33 6/14/2016 1:19 PM
15. The bilaminar germ disc: C. is correct.

The bilaminar germ disc develops from
A. consists of epiblast and mesoblast the inner cells of the morula and inner
B. is derived from the outer cells of the cell mass of the blastocyst. It is
morula composed to epiblast and hypoblast
C. forms the embryo proper layers, and it is also called the
D. synthesizes human chorionic embryoblast because it becomes the
gonadotropin, HCG embryo. The outer cells of the morula
and blastocyst become cyto- and
syncytiotrophoblast. The latter
produces HCG.
16. The primitive streak first appears at C. is correct.

the beginning of the _____ week. Gastrulation, the process of formation
of the three germ layers, occurs during
A. first the third week. Epiblast cells form a
B. second thickening called the primitive streak,
C. third with a primitive knot or node located at
D. fourth its cranial end. Epiblast cells invaginate
E. fifth from this streak to form the mesoderm
layer and to replace hypoblast with
endoderm.
17. Which of the following structures is B. is correct.

believed to be a primary organizer or The notochord is thought to be an
inducer during organogenesis? important structure in induction of
nervous system development, axial
A. somites skeleton development and other
B. notochord organogenic events.
C. metanephric blastema
D. lens placode
E. none of the above
18. Cells from the primitive streak DO E. is correct.

NOT become: All mesoderm is a derivative of the
invaginating cells at the primitive
A. endoderm streak. The invagination occurs at the
B. intermediate mesoderm beginning of the third week. It is
C. paraxial mesoderm interesting that endoderm cells are also
D. lateral plate mesoderm derived from the epiblast during
E. amnioblasts gastrulation, replacing the hypoblast.
5 of 33 6/14/2016 1:19 PM
19. The primitive streak: D. is correct.

The primitive streak begins to form on
A. is derived from the outer cells of the the surface of the epiblast at the
morula beginning of the third week. It is at the
B. is formed during the second week in primitive streak that epiblast cells
development invaginate to form the mesoderm,
C. persists as the cloacal membrane through the process of gastrulation.
D. is the site of involution of epiblast Streaking was a fad of the 1970's that
cells to form mesoderm involved running naked in public,
E. was done in a bathing suit, for those definitely not a winter sport.
who remember streaking
20. In the third week of human D. is correct.

embryonic development: It is during the third week that the
notochordal process and its associated
A. the amnion appears mesoderm induce the neural plate. The
B. a bilaminar embryonic disc is formed hollow notochordal process eventually
C. the body stalk moves ventrally and becomes the solid notochord, the
joins with the yolk sac stalk to form the forerunner of the axial skeleton.
umbilical cord
D. the neural plate is induced by the
notochordal process and associated
mesoderm
E. the uteroplacental circulation is
established
21. During development, the B. is correct.

notochordal process: The notochordal process extends from
the primitive node up to the prochordal
A. arises from involuting endodermal plate. It develops into the notochord,
cells around which the vertebral column
B. extends from the prochordal plate to forms. The notochord is not
the primitive node endodermal, and does not induce the
C. is involved in the induction of the primitive gut. It persists in the adult
primitive gut only as the nucleus pulposus of the
D. becomes the appendicular skeleton intervertebral discs.
22. The following organs are derived E. is correct.

from mesoderm EXCEPT: The suprarenal or adrenal medulla is
actually a part of the sympathetic
A. skeletal musculature nervous system. Therefore, it is a
B. musculature of blood vessels derivative of neural crest cells, and
C. cardiac musculature neural crest cells are ectodermal in
D. suprarenal cortex origin.
E. suprarenal medulla
6 of 33 6/14/2016 1:19 PM
23. Somites: E. is correct.

Somites differentiate into sclerotomes,
A. differentiate into myotomes which myotomes and dermatomes. The
give rise to skeletal muscle in trunk and sclerotomes give rise to the vertebrae.
limbs The myotomes give rise to skeletal
B. differentiate into sclerotomes which muscle of the trunk and limbs. The
give rise to vertebrae dermatomes give rise to the dermal
C. arise from segmentation of the skin component. The skeletal muscle of
paraxial mesoderm the face arises from the pharyngeal
D. differentiate into myotomes which arches.
give rise to skeletal muscle of the limbs
24. Almost all of the internal organs are B. is correct

well laid down at _____ months. By the end of the embryonic period at
about two months of the development
A. 1 almost all of the internal organs are
B. 2 well established. This is important, in
C. 3 that most malformations occur within
D. 4 the first two months, while the internal
E. 5 organs are being formed. The rest of
the gestational period allows for growth
and maturation.
25. Which of the following structures C. is correct.

does not turn under onto the ventral The buccopharyngeal membrane, heart,
surface of the embryo during folding of pericardial cavity and septum
the head? transversum all end up as ventral
structures in the embryo, whereas the
A. prochordal plate notochord remains dorsal. Remember,
B. heart though, that before the folding of the
C. notochord embryo, the heart begins its
D. pericardial cavity development extraembryonically in a
E. septum transversum region anterior to the prochordal plate.
26. When the amount of amniotic fluid B. is correct.

exceeds two liters, the condition is Polyhydramnios is a condition of excess
called: amniotic fluid exceeding 1.5 liters. It is
often caused by failure of the fetus to
A. oligohydramnios drink the normal amount of amniotic
B. polyhydramnios or hydramnios fluid, and may be due to anencephaly,
C. amniotitis esophageal atresia, or an upper GI tract
D. bag of waters blockage. Oligohydramnios, too little
E. hydrogravida amniotic fluid, may indicate urinary
problems.
7 of 33 6/14/2016 1:19 PM
27. The wall of the chorionic sac is B. is correct.

composed of: The outer layer of chorionic sac is the
cytotrophoblast shell; the sac is lined
A. cytotrophoblast and with extraembryonic mesoderm of
syncytiotrophoblast somatic type, because it does not
B. two layers of trophoblast lined by contact the yolk sac; lining the
extraembryonic somatic mesoderm intervillous space is syncytium. Later,
C. trophoblast and exocoelomic the amniotic sac pushes up against and
membrane fuses to the chorionic sac, obliterating
D. extraembryonic splanchnic the chorionic cavity.
mesoderm and both layers of
trophoblast
28. The most distinctive characteristic E. is correct.

of a primary chorionic villus is its: All chorionic villi possess an outer layer
of syncytiotrophoblast. The
A. outer syncytiotrophoblastic layer cytotrophoblast shell is a feature of the
B. cytotrophoblastic shell mature chorion. Extraembryonic
C. extraembryonic somatic mesodermal somatic mesoderm forms the core of
core secondary villi, becoming tertiary with
D. bushy appearance vascular development. Primary villi, at
E. cytotrophoblastic core 14 days, are syncytial processes with a
core of cytotrophoblast.
29. Chorionic villi are designated as C. is correct.

secondary chorionic villi when they: All chorionic villi possess an outer layer
of syncytiotrophoblast. The
A. contact the decidua basalis cytotrophoblast shell is a feature of the
B. are covered by syncytiotrophoblast mature chorion. Extraembryonic
C. develop a mesenchymal core somatic mesoderm forms the core of
D. give rise to branch villi secondary villi, becoming tertiary with
E. none of the above vascular development. Primary villi, at
14 days, are syncytial processes with a
core of cytotrophoblast.
30. When chorionic villi become C. is correct

vascularized they are called _____ villi. As secondary chorionic villi become
vascularized, they become known as
A. branch tertiary villi. Maturation of the villi
B. stem involves thinning of the placental
C. tertiary barrier, so that only a thin layer of
D. anchoring syncytium, extracellular matrix and
E. mature endothelium separates maternal and
fetal blood.
8 of 33 6/14/2016 1:19 PM
31. The most important region of the D. is correct.

decidua for the nourishment of the The placenta is made of maternal
conceptus is the decidua ___________. tissue, the decidua basalis, and fetal
tissue, the chorion frondosum or
A. frondosum bushy/villous chorion. The smooth
B. capsularis chorion or chorion laeve is covered by
C. parietalis decidua capsularis, which disappears as
D. basalis the fetus grows and smooth chorion
E. laeve pushes up against he decidua
parietalis.
32. The intervillous space contains all D. is correct

of the following substances EXCEPT: Maternal blood cells find their way
through the dark intervillous space with
A. oxygen electrolytes, oxygen and other good
B. carbon dioxide things, and they carry away bad things
C. maternal blood cells like carbon dioxide and fetal waste
D. fetal blood products. However, fetal blood does
E. electrolytes not normally enter the intervillous
space but is separated from it by the
placental barrier.
33. The portion of the decidua which A. is correct

does not survive until the end of Chorion frondosum and the decidua
pregnancy is the: basalis make up the placenta. Chorion
laeve, or smooth chorion, is covered by
A. capsularis decidua capsularis. As the fetus and
B. basalis chorion enlarge the chorion laeve
C. laeve pushes against the decidua parietalis
D. parietalis and the capsularis disappears.
E. frondosum
34. Which of the following is NOT a B. is correct.

component of the mature placental In the last half of pregnancy, the
barrier? cytotrophoblast and extraembryonic
mesoderm layers are lost from the
A. the endothelial lining of fetal placental barrier, leaving only
capillaries syncytium, capillary basement
B. the cytotrophoblast membrane and capillary endothelium
C. the syncytiotrophoblast between maternal and fetal
D. the basement membrane of fetal circulations.
capillaries
E. all of the above are part of the
mature placental barrier
9 of 33 6/14/2016 1:19 PM
35. Failure of the brain to grow may E. is correct.

result in: If the brain does not grow, neither will
the skull. This results in microcephaly.
A. plagiocephaly Premature closure of cranial sutures is
B. craniostenosis called craniostenosis. Early sagittal
C. acrocephaly suture fusion causes scaphocephaly or
D. scaphocephaly a long skull. Early coronal fusion causes
E. microcephaly acrocephaly or tower skull. Asymmetric
fusions produce plagiocephaly.
36. Somitomeres, paraxial mesoderm B. is correct.

cranial to the somites, give rise to Somitomeres provide myotomal tissue
much of the skeletal muscle in the head for skeletal muscle development to the
EXCEPT: head. Muscles of somitomere origin
include the extrinsic eye muscles, the
A. extrinsic muscles of the eye muscles of facial expression and the
B. temporalis tongue muscles muscles of mastication, of which
C. muscles of facial expression temporalis is one. Tongue muscles and
D. muscles of mastication the muscles of the larynx are from
somitic myotomes.
37. The sphenoid bone is derived from A. is correct.

which portion of the embryonic skull? The skull consists of two parts, the
neurocranium, which forms the vault
A. cartilaginous neurocranium protecting the brain, and the
B. membranous neurocranium viscerocranium, which forms the bones
C. cartrilaginous viscerocranium of the face. The base of the skull, of
D. membranous viscerocranium which sphenoid is part, develops from
E. branchial cartilage the cartilaginous neurocranium because
it forms by endochondral ossification.
Skull vault is membranous.
38. The notochord is replaced by the: B. is correct.

The notochord is the forerunner of the
A. ependyma vertebral column. As it is replaced by
B. nucleus pulposus the vertebral column, it degenerates.
C. spinal canal All that remains of the notochord in the
D. dorsal roots adult is the nucleus pulposus in the
E. spinal cord intervertebral discs, surrounded by the
sclerotome-derived annulus fibrosus.
10 of 33 6/14/2016 1:19 PM
39. The intraembryonic coelom located D. is correct.

cranial to the oropharyngeal membrane The cardiogenic region lies cranial to
becomes the: the prochordal plate and its
descendant, the oropharyngeal
A. oral cavity membrane. The heart tubes form on
B. cranial foregut the endoderm side of intraembryonic
C. stomodeum coelom in the cardiogenic region.
D. pericardial cavity Following the head and lateral body
E. nasal cavity folding, heart and its portion of
intraembryonic coelom called
pericardial cavity lie in the chest.
40. The derivatives of the embryonic D. is correct.

ventral mesentery include the following The ligamentum teres hepatis is a
structures EXCEPT: remnant of the fetal umbilical vein.
Although it is contained within the
A. hepatoduodenal ligament ventral mesentery, it is not a derivative
B. hepatogastric ligament of it.
C. falciform ligament
D. ligamentum teres hepatis
E. lesser omentum
41. The following peritoneal ligaments A. is correct.

are derived wholly or in part from the Splenorenal, gastrosplenic and
embryonic dorsal mesogastrium gastrocolic ligaments are derived from
EXCEPT: the dorsal mesogastrium, while
transverse mesocolon fuses with dorsal
A. hepatogastric ligament mesogastrium. The nepatogastric
B. splenorenal or lienorenal ligament ligament, on the other hand, is derived
C. gastrosplenic or gastrolienal from the ventral mesentery.
ligament
D. gastrocolic ligament
E. transverse mesocolon
42. After folding of the head region, E. is correct.

the structure lying just caudal to the The septum transversum is the
pericardial cavity is the: diaphragm's earliest progenitor. After
folding of the head region brings the
A. developing heart heart and its coleom region ventrally,
B. connecting stalk the septum transversum is the
C. primitive streak structure that lies immediately caudal
D. liver to it. Liver is not a bad guess, but
E. septum transversum remember that the diaphragm lies
between it and the thorax in the adult.
11 of 33 6/14/2016 1:19 PM
43. The hypobranchial eminence B. is correct.

contributes to formation of: Hypobranchial eminence forms the
posterior third of the tongue. It is
A. anterior portion of the tongue served by the nerve of the 3rd branchial
B. posterior portion of the tongue arch, glossopharyngeal. Tongue
C. musculature of the tongue musculature arises from occipital
D. epiglottis somites and is innervated by CN XII,
E. palatine tonsil hypoglossal. Epiglottis arises as an
epiglottic swelling on the 4th arch.
Palatine tonsil is from the 2nd pouch.
44. The fact that general and special C. is correct

sensory information from the posterior Hypobranchial eminence forms the
part of the tongue is carried by posterior third of the tongue. It is
glossopharyngeal nerve indicates that served by the nerve of the 3rd branchial
this part of tongue is from branchial arch, glossopharyngeal, or cranial nerve
arch _____. IX. Glossopharyngeal carries general
sense and the special sense of taste
A. I fromthis part of the tongue. In anterior
B. II tongue, trigeminal does general and
C. III facial does special sense.
D. IV
E. VI
45. Myoblasts from the occipital E. is correct.

myotomes are believed to give rise to Most of the muscles of the head arise
the muscles of the: from the somitomeres located cranial
to the occipital somites. Occipital
A. eye myotomes supply muscle for tongue,
B. face and are innervated by cranial nerve XII,
C. ear hypoglossal.
D. jaw, for mastication
E. tongue
12 of 33 6/14/2016 1:19 PM
46. As a resident in pediatrics, you are C. is correct.

called to see a newborn who has a This type of cleft is a failure of fusion,
unilateral cleft lip and a unilateral cleft or secondary rupture of the union, of
of the primary palate. This condition is maxillary prominence with medial nasal
most likely the result of: prominence. If the palatine shelves or
processes of maxillary prominences
A. failure of fusion of the mandibular rupture or fail to fuse, a midline defect
prominences of the secondary palate will result.
B. failure of fusion of the medial nasal
processes
C. failure of fusion of the maxillary
prominence with the medial nasal
prominence
D. failure of fusion of the lateral
palatine processes with the nasal
septum
E. failure of fusion of the paired lateral
palatine processes.
47. Which of the following structures is D. is correct.

NOT part of the first branchial arch? Mandibular and maxillary processes are
both from first arch, as are malleus and
A. malleus incus bones of the ear.
B. mandibular process Sphenomandibular ligament is the
C. sphenomandibular ligament remnant of the perichondrium of
D. stylohyoid ligament Meckel's cartilage, around which the
E. maxillary process mandible forms. Second arch cartilage
gives rise to stapes, styloid process,
stylohyoid ligament, lesser horns and
upper part of hyoid.
49. Which structures are derived from E. is correct.

the intermaxillary segment of the The intermaxillary segment gives rise
embryonic face? to the philtrum, the upper incisors, the
anterior portion of the upper jaws, and
A. philtrum the primary palate, which lies
B. anterior portion of the palate anteriorly.
C. anterior portion of the upper jaws
D. upper incisor teeth
13 of 33 6/14/2016 1:19 PM
50. The nasolacrimal groove separates B. is correct.

the: The nasolacrimal groove lies between
the maxillary swelling or prominence
A. mandibular and maxillary swellings and the lateral nasal swelling. This
B. lateral nasal swelling and maxillary groove ultimately forms the
swelling nasolacrimal duct and lacrimal sac. In
C. medial nasal swelling and maxillary the adult, it is the passage used by
swelling tears to travel from the eye to inferior
D. first and second branchial arches meatus of the nasal cavity, to make
E. otic and optic vesicles your nose run when you cry.
51. Many facial malformations are B. is correct

believed to be due to: Proper migration of neural crest cells
into the face area is vitally important to
A. a failure of the oral membrane to facial development. Neural crest tissue
rupture will form much of the facial skeleton.
B. a failure to neural crest cells to
migrate into the facial processes
C. a failure in growth of the head fold
D. an abnormal persistence of the
pharyngeal clefts
52. The foramen cecum of the adult C. is correct.

tongue: The foramen cecum on the tongue is
the point from which the thyroid gland
A. marks the point of embryonic evaginated and began its journey down
evagination of the thymus gland into the neck. It lies at the apex of the
B. divides the tongue into two parts, an V-shaped terminal sulcus, which
anterior one-third and a posterior divides the tongue into anterior 2/3rds,
two-thirds from the lateral lingual swellings and
C. marks the point of embryonic truberculum impar, and posterior
evagination of the thyroid gland 1/3rd, from the copula.
D. develops into taste buds
E. has no embryologic significance
53. Each pharyngeal arch includes: E. is correct.

The pharyngeal arches have their own
A. derivatives of ectodermal neural mesodermal core, giving rise to
crest cells cartilaginous and muscular
B. an aortic arch artery components, cranial nerve components,
C. a mesodermal core from paraxial vascular components and derivatives of
mesoderm neural crest cells, which supplement
D. a cranial nerve much of the connective tissue of the
E. all of the above face.
14 of 33 6/14/2016 1:19 PM
54. Which of the following are B. is correct.

associated with the 2nd pharyngeal The stapes, styloid process, stylohyoid
arch? ligament, lesser horn of hyoid and
upper part of hyoid body all come from
A. the malleus bone 2nd arch. The nerve of the 2nd arch is
B. facial nerve CN VII or facial nerve, and the muscles
C. glossopharyngeal muscle are stapedius, stylohyoid, posterior
D. the lower portion of the hyoid bone belly of digastric and the muscles of
E. anterior belly of digastric facial expression.
55. Branchial cysts or lateral cervical A. is correct

cysts: Lateral cervical cysts are remnants of
the cervical sinus, which forms when
A. are found along the anterior border the 2nd arch grows over the 3rd and
of the sternocleidomastoid muscle 4th arches. The cysts are found along
B. are formed from a rupture of the the anterior border of the
membrane between pharyngeal sternocleidomastoid muscle, usually
pouches and branchial clefts just below the angle of the jaw. They
C. are remnants of the thyroglossal have nothing to do with the rupture or
duct anything.
D. are found in front of the ear
56. The heart is derived from: A. is correct

The heart tubes form within the
A. splanchnic mesoderm cardiogenic region cranial to the
B. somatic mesoderm oropharyngeal membrane and beneath
C. septum transversum the intraembryonic coelom. If it is
D. intermediate mesoderm beneath the intraembryonic coelom,
E. paraxial mesoderm then it lies toward the yolk sac and
must be splanchnic mesoderm. Somatic
mesoderm would be the other side, or
roof, of the intraembryonic coelom.
57. The most superior part of the B. is correct.

inferior vena cava is derived from: The vitelline veins, as they pass
through the developing liver, break up
A. left vitelline vein into hepatic sinusoids. When the left
B. right vitelline vein sinus horn regresses, blood is shunted
C. right umbilial vein from the left vitelline vein to the right,
D. left umbilical vein which enlarges and ultimately forms
E. sinus venosus the posthepatic portion of the inferior
vena cava.
15 of 33 6/14/2016 1:19 PM
58. The embryonic origin of the E. is correct

ligamentum arteriosum is from the: The sixth arch is the pulmonary arch,
from which pulmonary arteries are
A. second arch artery derived. On the left side, this arch
B. third arch artery maintains its connection with the dorsal
C. fourth arch artery aorta. In the fetus, this connection is
D. fifth arch artery patent and is called the ductus
E. sixth arch artery arteriosus. Postnatally, it closes and
persists as the ligamentum arteriosum.
59. The following are true statements C. is correct.

with regard to the fetal circulation In the placenta, there is no anastomosis
EXCEPT: between the maternal and fetal vessels.
Maternal blood from the spiral arteries
A. Since the fetal liver is a hemopoietic enters the cotyledons, where it bathes
organ, it is large and well supplied with the villi from the fetus. This all occurs
oxygenated blood. without anastomosis.
B. Fetal brain receives relatively pure
arterial blood.
C. Fetal and maternal blood vessels
anastomose in the placenta
D. In early developmental stages, one
pulmonary vein buds from the left
atrium of the heart.
E. Foramen primum of the interatrial
septum closes after the formation of
the foramen secundum.
60. Each of the following statements D. is correct.

are correctly paired EXCEPT: The right umbilical vein totally
disappears. The definitive umbilical
A. right vitelline vein - inferior vena vein is the left one. After birth, it closes
cava and becomes the ligamentum teres
B. left vitelline vein - liver sinusoids hepatis.
C. right anterior cardinal vein - part of
superior vena cava
D. right umbilical vein - definitive
umbilical vein
E. left sinus horn - coronary sinus
16 of 33 6/14/2016 1:19 PM
61. The following embryonic structures E. is correct.

are involved in the formation of the The left sinus horn regresses during
definitive right atrium EXCEPT: development to form coronary sinus.
Oblique vein of left atrium, from left
A. primitive atrium common cardinal, drains to it. Coronary
B. right sinus venosus sinus drains blood from the heart into
C. left sinus venosus the right atrium.
D. right sinus horn
E. left sinus horn
62. Each of the following ligaments in B. is correct.

the adult are derived from fetal blood Median umbilical ligament, attaching to
vessels EXCEPT: upper part of bladder, is a remnant of
the urachus, which itself was a remnant
A. medial umbilical ligament of the allantois. The allantois was a
B. median umbilical ligament connection between the urinary bladder
C. round ligament of the liver and the yolk sac, not a fetal blood
(ligamentum teres hepatis) vessel.
D. ligamentum venosum
E. ligamentum arteriosum
63. Of the following the one most A. is correct.

closely associated with the ligamentum The ligamentum teres hepatis is the
teres hepatis is: remnant of the umbilical vein after the
umbilical vein closes at birth. It can be
A. umbilical vein found in the falciform ligament, a
B. umbilical artery ventral mesentery derivative.
C. vitelline vein
D. 3rd aortic arch
E. 6th aortic arch
64. Of the following, the one most C. is correct.

closely associated with the portal vein The protal vein forms when an
is: anastomotic network around the
duodenum forms one vessel. This
A. umbilical vein anastomotic network is from the veins
B. umbilical artery of the gut, the vitelline veins.
C. vitelline vein
D. 3rd aortic arch
E. 6th aortic arch
17 of 33 6/14/2016 1:19 PM
65. The sinus venosus: C. is correct.

The left sinus horn regresses and
A. has a right horn which persists in the persists as the main vein of the heart,
adult as the coronary sinus the coronary sinus, whose valve arises
B. has a left venous valve which from the inferior part of the right
develops into the valve of the coronary venous valve. The right sinus horn is
sinus incorporated into the right atrium,
C. forms the smooth-walled portion of where it forms the smooth-walled part.
the adult right atrium The portal vein does not send blood to
D. receives blood directly from the the sinus venosus.
portal vein
66. Ostium secundum defect: E. is correct.

An ostium secundum defect is a large
A. is characterized by a large opening opening between the atria that can be
between left and right atria caused either by excessive resorption
B. may be caused by excessive of the septum primum or inadequate
resorption of septum primum development of the septum secundum.
C. may be caused by inadequate Depending on the size of the defect,
development of septum secundum there can be shunting of the blood
D. may be accompanied by intracardiac between the atria.
shunting of blood
67. In the development of the heart: A. is correct.

Left horn of sinus venosus forms
A. the coronary sinus is formed from coronary sinus and left common
the left horn of the sinus venosus cardinal vein becomes oblique vein of
B. the oblique vein of the left atrium is the left atrium. The right sinus valve
formed from the left posterior cardinal becomes the valve of the coronary
vein sinus and the valve of inferior vena
C. the valve of the coronary sinus is cava. Left sinus valve becomes part of
formed from the left sinus valve interatrial septum.
D. the valve of the inferior vena cava is
formed from the left sinus valve
68. The mesenchymal cells which D. is correct.

aggregate to form blood islands are Angioblasts are the cells that form the
called: blood islands. These blood islands then
develop into the blood cells and the
A. hemoblasts endothelium of the blood vessels. This
B. mesoblasts early blood cell and blood vessel
C. fibroblasts formation occurs first in the
D. angioblasts extraembryonic mesoderm of the yolk
E. none of the above sac, chorion and connecting stalk.
18 of 33 6/14/2016 1:19 PM
69. Closure of the foramen primum C. is correct.

results from fusion of the: The septum primum and the
endocardial cushions fuse to close the
A. septum secundum and the fused foramen primum. Subsequently,
endocardial cushions perforations in the upper part of the
B. septum secundum and the septum septum primum coalesce to form the
primum foramen secundum. It is this foramen
C. septum primum and the fused that closes postnatally when left atrial
endocardial cushions pressure equals right atrial pressure.
D. septum primum and the septum
spurium
E. septum primum and the sinoatrial
valves
70. The most common type of cardiac C. is correct.

septal defect is: Although the most common ATRIAL
septal defect is the secundum type
A. muscular type ventricular septal ASD, the overall most common cardiac
defect, or VSD septal defect is the membranous type
B. secundum type atrial septal defect, VSD.
or ASD
C. membranous type VSD
D. primum type ASD
E. sinus venosus
71. The fetal left atrium is mainly A. is correct.

derived from the: The primitive pulmonary vein becomes
incorporated into the wall of the fetal
A. primitive pulmonary vein left atrium, forming most of it. The
B. primitive atrium original left atrium becomes a
C. right pulmonary vein trabeculated atrial appendage called
D. sinus venarum the left auricle, because it resembles an
E. sinus venosus "ear" on the heart.
72. The fetal right atrium is mainly E. is correct.

derived from: The right sinus horn of the sinus
venosus enlarges and forms the fetal
A. primitive pulmonary vein right atrium. The left sinus horn
B. primitive atrium regresses to form the main vein
C. right pulmonary vein draining the heart muscle, the coronary
D. sinus venarum sinus. The original right atrium
E. sinus venosus becomes the right auricle and also part
of right atrium anterior to the crista
terminalis.
19 of 33 6/14/2016 1:19 PM
73. The remnant of the first aortic arch C. is correct.

artery is: First arch becomes maxillary; 2nd arch
remnants are stapedial and hyoid
A. stapedial artery arteries; 3rd arch becomes common
B. internal carotid artery and proximal internal carotid arteries;
C. maxillary artery 4th arch becomes proximal right
D. common carotid artery subclavian and part of arch of aorta;
E. the 1st arch artery regresses without 6th arch becomes proximal pulmonary
remnants arteries and ductus arteriosus.
74. The aortic sac: B. is correct.

The aortic sac receives blood from the
A. is the area immediately distal to the truncus arteriosus and sends it into the
ventricles aortic arch arteries which branch from
B. is connected to the dorsal aorta via it and connect it to the paired dorsal
the aortic arch arteries aortae. Aortic sac becomesthe proximal
C. is preserved as the region of the part of aortic arch and the
semilunar valves in the adult heart brachiocephalic trunk. Semilunar valves
D. is also known as the truncus arise from the walls of truncus
arteriosus arteriosus.
75. The crista terminalis is derived E. is correct.

from: This is pretty picky. Cristal terminalis is
the ridge on the inner surface of the
A. right horn of the sinus venosus right atrium that demarcates the
B. left horn of the sinus venosus smooth walled part derived from sinus
C. primitive atrium venosus and the pectinate muscle-
D. AV canal containing part from primitive right
E. Right cusp of the valve of the sinus atrium. It marks where the right cusp of
venosus the sinoatrial valve was before the sinus
became part of atrium.
76. The region of the atrioventricular C. is correct.

canal develops into: With a name like atrioventricular canal,
you might hope it would become
A. the semilunar valves something to do with the
B. the atrial septum atrioventricular valves. The single canal
C. the mitral and tricuspid valves is divided by the ingrowth of the
D. the base of the ventricle endocardial cushions. The right
E. the trabeculated portion of the right atrioventricular valve is the tricuspid,
atrium while the left AV valve is bicuspid,
known as the mitral valve.
20 of 33 6/14/2016 1:19 PM
77. Meckel's diverticulum is an adult D. is correct.

remnant of the: Vitelline duct is a connection between
embryonic midgut and yolk sac, from
A. urachus which gut developed. As development
B. hindgut proceeds, vitelline duct normally
C. pars cystica regresses. If it does not, it may persist
D. vitelline duct as a Meckel's diverticulum, a vitelline
E. dorsal pancreatic duct duct cyst, an umbilical/vitelline fistula,
or a fibrous cord connecting gut to
umbilicus.
78. The following events in the D. is correct.

development of the abdominal cavity The rapid growth of the liver has
are greatly affected by the rapid growth considerable effect on the development
of the liver: of the ventral mesentery, and it
promotes the herniation of the midgut
A. urorectal septum formation by occupying space in the abdominal
B. dorsal mesentery morphogenesis cavity. It does not affect urorectal
C. formation of inferior recess of lesser septum formation or the inferior recess
sac of the lesser sac.
D. herniation of midgut loop
79. The embryonic foregut E. is correct

differentiates into all or part of the: Derivatives of embryonic foregut
include pharynx, esophagus, lungs and
A. liver respiratory tract, stomach, the part of
B. ventral pancreas the duodenum cranial to the hepatic
C. esophagus diverticulum, the pancreas, liverand gall
D. lung bladder.
80. Abnormal intestinal rotation during C. is correct.

fetal development may produce the Abnormal rotation of the intestinal loop
following: causes it to return to the abdomen in a
different order, with the colon being
A. congenital umbilical hernia the first to return to the gut. This
B. annular pancreas positions things backwards, and the
C. infarction and gangrene gut may twist abnormally. Such twisting
D. diaphragmatic hernia or volvulus can obstruct the blood
E. Meckel's diverticulum or diverticulum supply to the gut, resulting infarction
ilei and gangrene.
21 of 33 6/14/2016 1:19 PM
81. All of us has "suffered" which one B. is correct.

of the following types of hernia? The herniation of the midgut out
through the umbilicus is a normal event
A. inguinal in development. However, the intestinal
B. umbilical contents may fail to return to the
C. lumbar abdomen, resulting in an omphalocele.
D. diaphragmatic Viscera may herniate later through the
E. femoral weak umbilical region, and this is a true
umbilical hernia.
82. In the digestive system: B. is correct.

Return of the intestinal loops to the
A. failure of the intestinal loops to abdomen occurs toward the end of the
return into the abdominal cavity forms third month. Failure to do so results in
Meckel's diverticulum an omphalocele. Stenosis of the gut is
B. an omphalocele would most likely most common in the duodenum. An
develop around the 10th-12th week of annular pancreas results when the left
gestation portion f the ventral pancreas migrates
C. stenosis of the gut most frequently in a direction opposite normal.
occurs in the large intestine
D. an annular pancreas is caused by a
failure in normal migration of the
dorsal pancreas
83. In the development of the gut: ...
A. the celiac trunk represents the blood

supply to the midgut
B. the early embryo maintains a
connection between the midgut and the
yolk sac via the allantois
C. muscle, connective tissue and blood
vessels in the gut wall are derived from
splanchnic mesoderm
D. the primitive gut tube is in open
communication with the amniotic cavity
22 of 33 6/14/2016 1:19 PM
84. The liver: E. is correct.

Liver develops from an endodermal
A. receives blood from the placenta via hepatic diverticulum, but also contains
the umbilical vein which runs in the mesodermal hemopoietic and
falciform ligament connective tissue. Blood from the
B. forms as a diverticulum from the placenta reaches liver via the left
foregut endoderm umbilical vein but by-passes the
C. contains hemopoietic and connective sinusoids through the ductus venosus.
tissue cells derived from mesoderm of The sinusoids are derived from the
the septum transversum vitelline veins.
D. contains hepatic sinusoids derived
from the vitelline veins
85. In the development of the midgut: D. is correct.

The midgut rotates in a
A. the superior mesenteric artery is the counterclockwise direction around
axis for clockwise rotation of the superior mesenteric artery. Persistence
midgut loop of the vitelline duct may cause a
B. the persistence of part of the vitelline vitelline fistula or cyst. Omphalocele
duct leads to urachal fistala results from a failure of midgut to
C. a vitelline cyst may result from return to the abdominal cavity, while
abnormal remodeling of the vitelline congenital umbilical hernia is a later
veins herniation of gut through abdominal
D. an omphalocele is not synonymous wall.
with congenital umbilical hernia
86. A persistence of the vitelline duct E. is correct.

may result in: If the vitelline duct remains patent,
there will be an umbilical or vitelline
A. ileal diverticulum fistula, leaking meconium or fetal feces
B. Meckel's diverticulum at the umbilicus. Partial closure of
C. Vitelline cyst vitelline duct may result in a vitelline
D. Umbilical fistula cyst or a Meckel's/ileal diverticulum.
E. All of the above The latter are found on the
anti-mesenteric side of ileum within 2
feet of cecum.
23 of 33 6/14/2016 1:19 PM
87. The terminal dilated part of the A. is correct.

hindgut is called the: The folding of the embryo brings the
allantois and the hindgut into
A. cloaca association. The dilated terminal part of
B. yolk stalk the hindgut is called the cloaca, and it
C. allantois communicates with the allantois. Later
D. cecum in development the cloaca is divided by
E. coelom the urorectal septum into the primitive
urogenital sinus and the anorectal
canal.
88. The tracheoesophageal septum C. is correct.

separates the: Pharynx is the common food/air tube,
so it would not be wise to put a septum
A. laryngotracheal tube and between pharynx and esophagus or
nasopharynx trachea. However, the lungs bud from
B. esophagus and nasopharynx the foregut as an anterior diverticulum
C. laryngotracheal tube and esophagus between the 4th and 6th branchial
D. laryngotracheal tube and oropharynx arches, explaining why superior
E. esophagus and oropharynx laryngeal and recurrent laryngeal
nerves from vagus innervate larynx.
89. The omental apron of the greater D. is correct.

omentum: The omental apron is the portion of the
greater omentum, continuous with
A. communicates with the peritoneal gastrocolic ligament, which hangs from
cavity via the epiploic foramen of the transverse colon. Early in
Winslow development, it is an open sac,
B. becomes retroperitoneal in the adult communicating with the lesser sac or
C. has the ascending colon located omental bursa. The walls of the sac are
within its superior boundary two layers of peritoneum, forming a
D. is a quadruple layer of peritoneum quadruple layer when the bag fuses.
E. is lost during embryonic
development
90. Which duct is NOT associated with B. is correct.

urinary system development? The paramesonephric duct arises along
the urogenital ridge, separate from the
A. ureteric bud urinary system. In the female, the
B. paramesonephric duct paramesonephric duct develops into
C. Wolffian duct the uterine tubes, uterus and upper
D. pronephric duct part of the vagina.
E. mesonephric duct
24 of 33 6/14/2016 1:19 PM
91. The penile urethra is derived from A. is correct.

the: The penile urethra, all but navicular
portion, develops from the urogenital
A. urogenital sinus sinus. The urogenital sinus also
B. pelvic part of the vesicourethral canal produces the urinary bladder, prostate
C. phallic part of the vesicourethral and bulbourethral glands.
canal
D. cloaca
E. mesonephric duct
92. The structure dividing the cloaca D. is correct.

into two parts is the: The urorectal septum divides the cloaca
into the urogenital sinus and rectum,
A. distal retention band during the second month of
B. transverse septum development.
C. urogenital sinus
D. urorectal septum
E. cloacal membrane
93. After the sinovaginal bulbs have C. is correct.

proliferated and fused, they form a The sinovaginal bulbs are evaginations
solid core of endodermal cells known from the urogenital sinus in the female.
as the: They proliferate, fuse, and form the
vaginal plate, which then canalizes to
A. sinus tubercle form the lumen of vagina.
B. prostatic utricle
C. vaginal plate
D. uterovaginal primordium
E. vault of the vagina
94. The embryonic origin(s) of the labia A. is correct.

minora is/are: The labia minora develop from the
urethral or urogenital folds. In the
A. urethral folds male, the urethral folds ultimately fuse,
B. genital tubercle forming the ventral aspect of the penis.
C. genital swellings The labia majora and the scrotum arise
D. sinovaginal bulbs from the genital folds or swellings.
E. cloacal membrane
25 of 33 6/14/2016 1:19 PM
95. The embryonic origin(s) of the A. is correct.

penile urethra is/are: The labia minora develop from the
urethral or urogenital folds. In the
A. urethral folds male, the urethral folds ultimately fuse,
B. genital tubercle enclosing the penile or spongy urethra.
C. genital swellings However, the urethra passing through
D. sinovaginal bulbs the glans is formed by canalization of
E. cloacal membrane the glandular plate.
96. The embryonic origin(s) of the C. is correct.

scrotum is/are: The scrotum in the male and the labia
majora arise from the genital swellings
A. urethral folds or folds. Cloacal membrane is
B. genital tubercle subdivided into the urorectal
C. genital swellings membrane and anal membrane by the
D. sinovaginal bulbs urogenital septum. These membranes
E. cloacal membrane should rupture during the 9th week.
97. The following structures are directly E. is correct.

or indirectly derived from the The prostate is derived from the
mesonephric or Wolffian duct EXCEPT: urogenital sinus, with no contribution
from the mesonephric ducts. Ureteric
A. part of the epididymis bud, from mesonephric duct, gives rise
B. part of the kidney to the collecting system of the kidney.
C. part of the urinary bladder A portion of the mesonephric ducts
D. seminal vesicles becomes incorporated into the trigone
E. prostate region of the bladder. Seminal vesicles
bud from the mesonephric duct.
98. The following structures are the E. is correct.

derivatives of the primitive urogenital The ejaculatory ducts are derivatives of
sinus EXCEPT: the mesonephric ducts. All of the
others have at least some contribution
A. most of the urinary bladder fromthe urogenital sinus.
B. male urethra
C. female urethra
D. lower vagina
E. ejaculatory ducts
26 of 33 6/14/2016 1:19 PM
99. The derivatives of the Wolffian duct B. is correct.

include each of the following except: Gartners duct, like the appendix of the
epididymis, holds more importance to
A. longitudinal duct of Gartner National Board examiners than anyone
B. round ligament of uterus else. It is a vestigial remnant of the
C. ductus deferens mesonephric duct in the female. The
D. duct of the epididymis round ligament of the uterus is derived
E. ejaculatory duct from the gubernaculum, rather than the
mesonephric duct.
100. Of the following, the one most C. is correct.

closely associated with the oviduct is: Paramesonephric ducts give rise to the
oviducts or uterine tubes, uterus and
A. mesonephric tubules upper portion of the vagina. In males,
B. mesonephric duct the prostatic utricle and the appendix
C. paramesonephric duct of the testis are vestigial remnants of
D. genital swellings the paramesonephric ducts.
E. urogenital sinus
101. Of the following, the one most A. is correct.

closely associated with the efferent The efferent ductules of the testes are
ducts of the testes is: the only functional derivatives of the
mesonephric tubules.
A. mesonephric tubules
B. mesonephric duct
C. paramesonephric duct
D. genital swellings
E. urogenital sinus
102. Of the following, the one most E. is correct.

closely associated with the vestibule in In the male, the urogenital sinus gives
the female is: rise to the urinary bladder, all but distal
urethra, prostate and bulbourethral
A. mesonephric tubules glands. In the female, it gives rise to
B. mesonephric duct the urinary bladder, urethra, lower part
C. paramesonephric duct of vagina, vestibule, urethral and
D. genital swellings paraurethral glands and greater
E. urogenital sinus vestibular glands.
27 of 33 6/14/2016 1:19 PM
103. Of the following, the one most E. is correct.

closely associated with the urethra in In the male, the urogenital sinus gives
the female is: rise to the urinary bladder, prostate,
bulbourethral glands and all but distal
A. mesonephric tubules urethral. In the female, it gives rise to
B. mesonephric duct the urinary bladder, urethra, lower part
C. paramesonephric duct of vagina, vestibule, urethral and
D. genital swellings paraurethral glands and greater
E. urogenital sinus vestibular glands.
104. Which of the following E. is correct.

associations are correct? Ureteric bud gives rise to everything
from collecting ducts through ureters.
A. renal pelvis - ureteric bud Derivatives of UG sinus include bladder
B. ureter - ureteric bud and urethra of both sexes, prostate and
C. urethra - urogenital sinus bulbourethral glands, lower vagina and
D. median umbilical ligament - urachus urethral, paraurethral and vestibular
E. all of the above are correct lands. Allantois becomes urachus,
which then becomes median umbilical
ligament.
105. Embryologically, each uriniferous E. is correct.

tubule consists of two parts which Everything from Bowman's capsule to
become confluent at the junction of the distal convoluted tubule develops
the: from the metanephric cap. Everything
from the collecting tubules through the
A. ascending limb of Henle's loop and ureter develops from the ureteric bud.
the distal convoluted tubule Therefore the junction between the two
B. renal corpuscle and the proximal occurs between the distal convoluted
convoluted tubule tubule and the collecting tubule.
C. descending and ascending limbs of
the loop of Henle
D. proximal convoluted tubule and the
loop of Henle
E. distal convoluted tubule and the
collecting tubule
106. The ureteric bud appears as an E. is correct.

outgrowth from the: The ureteric bud is an outgrowth of the
mesonephric duct. It forms the ureter,
A. metanephric mass renal pelvis, calyces and collecting
B. lateral plate mesoderm ducts
C. urogenital sinus
D. allantoic duct
E. mesonephric duct
28 of 33 6/14/2016 1:19 PM
107. The paramesonephric ducts in A. is correct.

female embryos give rise to the: The paramesonephric ducts in the
female develop in the uterine tubes, the
A. uterine tubes and uterus uterus and the upper 1/3 of the vagina.
B. epoohoron The epoophoron come fromthr
C. inferior fifth of the vagina mesonephric tubules. The lower portion
D. round ligament of the uterus of the vagina develops from the
E. ovarian ligament urogenital sinus. The round ligament
and the ovarian ligament are from the
gubernaculum.
108. Which of the following gives rise B. is correct.

to the labia majora? Labia majora arise from the genital
swellings. Their counterpart in the male
A. genital folds is the scrotum, which also arises from
B. genital swellings the genital swellings. The genital
C. genital tubercle tubercle forms the distal end of penis
D. urorectal gold and most of clitoris.
E. inguinal fold
109. The optic nerve is derived from E. is correct.

what embryonic tissue? The optic nerve is derived from nervous
tissue, therefore ectoderm, but not
A. neural crest neural crest. Optic sulci of the neural
B. head mesenchyme folds forming the forebrain send out
C. endoderm the optic vesicles, which then develop
D. mesoderm into the optic cups connected to
E. ectoderm forebrain by the optic stalk. The optic
stalk becomes the optic nerve.
110. Neural crest cells differentiate E. is correct.

into: Neural crest cells give rise to the
peripheral parts of the autonomic
A. postganglionic sympathetic cell nervous system, which includes all
bodies sympathetic and parasympathetic
B. cells of the inferior mesenteric ganglia. Neural crest cells form all
ganglion sensory ganglia of the peripheral
C. adrenal medullary cells nervous system. Neural crest cells also
D. cells of the enteric plexus populate the adrenal medulla.
29 of 33 6/14/2016 1:19 PM
111. Of the following, the item most B. is correct.

closely associated with the regulation The hypothalamus of the diencephalon
of visceral and endocrine functions is: is the control center for visceral and
endocrine functions.
A. telencephalon
B. diencephalon
C. mesencephalon
D. metencephalon
E. myelencehalon
112. Of the following, the item most D. is correct.

closely associated with the pons is: The metencephalon differentiates into
the cerebellum, the coordination center
A. telencephalon for posture and movement and the
B. diencephalon pons, which serves as a neural relay
C. mesencephalon center.
D. metencephalon
E. myelencephalon
113. Of the following, the one most A. is correct.

closely associated with the cerebrum is: The cerebrum arises from the
telencephalon. Telencephalon, the most
A. telencephalon rostral part of the brain vesicles,
B. diencephalon develops from the prosencephalon as
C. mesencephalon lateral outgrowths, the cerebral
D. metencephalon hemispheres and an intermediate area,
E. myelencephalon the lamina terminalis. Lamina
terminalis develops into the
commissures connecting the
hemispheres.
114. Of the following, the one most B. is correct.

closely associated with the 3rd ventricle The 3rd ventricle lies within the
is: thalamic area in the diencephalon. The
lateral ventricles are cavities of the
A. telencephalon forebrain cerebral vesicles, from
B. diencephalon telencephalon. The 4th ventricle lies
C. mesencephalon within the metencephalon.
D. metencephalon
E. myelencephalon
30 of 33 6/14/2016 1:19 PM
115. Cerebrospinal fluid: E. is correct.

Cerebrospinal fluid is produced by
A. is produced in choroid plexuses ependymal cells of the choroid plexus.
B. circulates in the ventricular system of It circulates within the ventricles of the
the brain and in the subarachnoid brain, the central canal of the spinal
spaces cord and the subarachnoid space. It is
C. re-enters the venous blood at the resorbed into the venous system via
arachnoid arachnoid granulations. If flow is
D. granulations blocked, CSF accumulates and creates
E. blockage of its circulation can lead to hydrocephalus.
internal or external hydrocephalus
F. all of the above are correct
116. In the development of the nervous C. is correct.

system: There are initially 3 brain vesicles:
prosencephalon, mesencephalon and
A. there are five primary brain vesicles rhombencephalon. The pros- and
B. during the 5th week, each brain rhombencephalon divide into 2 parts.
vesicle subdivides into 2 parts The pontine flexure is opposite to the
C. the pontine flexure is in a direction mesencephalic and cervical flexures.
opposite the mesencephalic and The marginal layer contains the nerve
cervical flexure fibers arising from the neuroblasts.
D. neural epithelial cells are found in
the marginal layer
117. In the development of the nervous D. is correct.

system: The sulcus limitans is a lateral,
longitudinal groove dividing basal and
A. the sulcus limitans is found in the alar plates. The infundibulum is an
diencephalon outpouching of the hypothalamic
B. the infundibulum is an outgrowth of region that becomes neurohypophysis.
the telencephalon that develops into Sensory nuclei lie dorsal to the sulcus
the neurohypophysis limitans. Internal ear is from thickened
C. sensory nuclei in the hindbrain lie surface ectoderm (otic placode) near
ventral to the sulcus limitans rhombencephalon.
D. the inner ear is derived from surface
ectoderm
31 of 33 6/14/2016 1:19 PM
118. In the development of the nervous E. is correct.

system: The neural groove forms the neural
plate when lateral parts of the plate
A. the neural groove forms from the elevate to form neural folds. Neural
neural plate folds are composed of neuroepithelium
B. the neural folds are composed of which gives rise to neuroblasts,
neuroepithelial cells gliablasts and ependymal cells. After
C. the neural tube maintains temporary the neural tube forms, it maintains
contact with the amniotic cavity via contact with the amniotic cavity via
neuropores cranial and caudal neuropores.
D. neuroepithelial cells give rise to both
neuroblasts and glia blasts
119. With respect to the nervous D. is correct.

system, which of the following is NOT The nerve supply travels with the
correct: muscle, indicating its origin and
migration path. Rathke's pouch, from
A. a muscle's nerve supply can be used which the anterior pituitary is formed,
as an indicator of its level of origin and is from oral ectoderm. Sulcus limitans
path of migration divides motor and sensory areas.
B. Rathke's pouch is an outgrowth of Sensory nuclei in the hindbrain lie
oral ectoderm that becomes the dorsal to the motor nuclei.
anterior lobe of the hypophysis
C. the sulcus limitans marks the
boundary between motor and sensory
areas
D. sensory nuclei in the hindbrain lie
ventral to motor nuclei
120. Congenital absence of neural crest E. is correct.

cells could result in: Neural crest cells form all sensory and
autonomic ganglia, Schwann cells,
A. absence of sympathetic chain meninges of the brain and spinal cord,
ganglia adrenal medulla, pigment cells of the
B. facial malformations skin and connective tissues of the head
C. absence of adrenal medulla and neck, including odontoblasts for
D. absence of pigment cells dentin of the teeth.
32 of 33 6/14/2016 1:19 PM
121. The brain flexure which develops A. is correct.

between the metencephalon and the The pontine flexure occurs between the
myelencephalon is called the: metencephalon, which forms the pons
and cerebellum, and the
A. pontine myelencephalon, which forms the
B. hindbrain medulla. The two other flexures, the
C. cervical cephalic and the cervical, flex in a
D. cephalic direction opposite that of the pontine.
E. midbrain
33 of 33 6/14/2016 1:19 PM

Embryology QNS

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Description:

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

Embryology QNS

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

Embryology Practice Questions with Answers flashcards | Quizlet https://quizlet.com/3472776/embryology-practice-questions-with-answers...

Like this study set? Create a free account to save it.

1. The part of the sperm containing D. is correct.

2. The ovulated mammalian oocyte is D. is correct.

3. The seven-day blastocyst: C. is correct.

4. Haploid nuclei that fuse at E. is correct.

5. The first week of human E. is correct.

6. During implantation, the blastocyst: E. is correct.

7. Capacitation of the sperm: D. is correct.

8. The early stages of cleavage are D. is correct.

9. The most common site for D. is correct.

10. With the light microscope, the zona E. is correct.

11. The amniotic cavity develops: C. is correct.

12. During the second week of A. is correct.

13. The first two intraembryonic germ B. is correct.

14. The blastocoele becomes the: C. is correct.

15. The bilaminar germ disc: C. is correct.

16. The primitive streak first appears at C. is correct.

17. Which of the following structures is B. is correct.

18. Cells from the primitive streak DO E. is correct.

19. The primitive streak: D. is correct.

20. In the third week of human D. is correct.

21. During development, the B. is correct.

22. The following organs are derived E. is correct.

23. Somites: E. is correct.

24. Almost all of the internal organs are B. is correct

25. Which of the following structures C. is correct.

26. When the amount of amniotic fluid B. is correct.

27. The wall of the chorionic sac is B. is correct.

28. The most distinctive characteristic E. is correct.

29. Chorionic villi are designated as C. is correct.

30. When chorionic villi become C. is correct

31. The most important region of the D. is correct.

32. The intervillous space contains all D. is correct

33. The portion of the decidua which A. is correct

34. Which of the following is NOT a B. is correct.

35. Failure of the brain to grow may E. is correct.

36. Somitomeres, paraxial mesoderm B. is correct.

37. The sphenoid bone is derived from A. is correct.

38. The notochord is replaced by the: B. is correct.

39. The intraembryonic coelom located D. is correct.

40. The derivatives of the embryonic D. is correct.

41. The following peritoneal ligaments A. is correct.

42. After folding of the head region, E. is correct.

43. The hypobranchial eminence B. is correct.

44. The fact that general and special C. is correct

45. Myoblasts from the occipital E. is correct.

46. As a resident in pediatrics, you are C. is correct.

47. Which of the following structures is D. is correct.

49. Which structures are derived from E. is correct.

50. The nasolacrimal groove separates B. is correct.

51. Many facial malformations are B. is correct

52. The foramen cecum of the adult C. is correct.

53. Each pharyngeal arch includes: E. is correct.

54. Which of the following are B. is correct.

55. Branchial cysts or lateral cervical A. is correct

56. The heart is derived from: A. is correct

57. The most superior part of the B. is correct.

58. The embryonic origin of the E. is correct

59. The following are true statements C. is correct.

60. Each of the following statements D. is correct.

61. The following embryonic structures E. is correct.

62. Each of the following ligaments in B. is correct.