Itm WB

Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60
10262_Industrial and Technology Managemant

Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B
1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.
2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.
3) Use of calculator is allowed.
4) Each question carries 1 Mark.
5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.
6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.
7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.
8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.
9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.
10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.
Q.no 1. An advantage of the small firm in the innovation process?
A : Ability to carry out R&D
B : Ability to raise finance
C : Ability of the entrepreneur to carry out multiple tasks
D : Ability of the entrepreneur to act on new ideas or product development
Q.no 2. ________is used to accomplish the project economically in the minimum available time
with limited resources.
A : Project Scheduling.
B : Network Analysis.
C : Budget Analysis.
D : Critical Planning.
Q.no 3. In which type of company the greater personal contacts of partners give more benefits to
the company?
A : Joint-Stock Company
B : Partnership company
C : State ownership
D : Sole Proprietorship
Q.no 4. Someone who improves an existing business can be called
A : an intrapreneur
B : a professional
C : a co-worker
D : a changeling
Q.no 5. what is the other name of Line type of organization?
A : military organization
B : functional organization
C : line and staff organization
D : matrix organization
Q.no 6. Describe the cost unit applicable to the Bicycle industry:
A : per part of bicycle
B : per bicycle
C : per tonne
D : per day
Q.no 7. Choose which of the following is a benefit to the individual while receiving training?
A : Creates an appropriate climate for growth, communication
B : Aids in increasing productivity and/ or quality of work
C : Satisfies a personal needs of the trainer
D : None of the above
Q.no 8. Which of the following is not a target of Total Quality Management:
A : Customer Satisfaction
B : Reducing manpower
C : Continuous Cost Reduction
D : Continuous Operational Improvement
Q.no 9. QFD stands for ______________
A : Quantity for deployment
B : Quality for deployment
C : Quality function deployment
D : Quality for decision
Q.no 10. Business risks can be ______
A : avoided.
B : reduced.
C : ignored.
D : erased.
Q.no 11. 7 A company has decided to invest in outer shape design of bottle in which they would
fill the perfume produced by them, and which is distinctive, and they wish to ensure that they
have sole use.
A : Copy rights
B : Trade mark
C : Patent
D : Industrial designs
Q.no 12. . Fixed cost is a cost:
A : Which changes in total in proportion to changes in output
B : which is partly fixed and partly variable in relation to output
C : Which do not change in total during a given period despise changes in output
D : which remains same for each unit of output
Q.no 13. Kaizen is a ______________ process, the purpose of which goes beyond simple
productivity improvement
A : weekly
B : daily
C : monthly
D : annual
Q.no 14. ______is primarily concerned with the identification of the project demand potential
and the selection of the optimal technology.
A : Techno-economic analysis.
B : Feasibility analysis.
C : Input analysis.
D : Financial analysis.
Q.no 15. Laissez-faire leadership is the direct opposite of autocratic leadership
A : true
B : false
C:
D:
Q.no 16. Which of these factors is not included in environmental scanning?
A : Political and legislative issues
B : Economic factors
C : Technological changes
Q.no 17. Choose the odd man out
A : Acquisitions and mergers
B : Radio and television
C : Former employees
D : Advertisements
Q.no 18. In Which type of business organization the profit earned is enjoyed by the owner of the
business ?
A : Sole Proprietorship
B : State ownership
C : Joint-stock company
D : Public sector undertaking
Q.no 19. Schumpeter considered that innovative entrepreneurs would:
A : Thrive
B : Disappear
C : Be absorbed within large innovative firms
D : Be absorbed within non-innovative firms
Q.no 20. How does training and development offer competitive advantage to an organisation?
A : Removing performance decencies
B : Deficiency is caused by a lack of ability
C : Individuals have the aptitude and motivation to learn
Q.no 21. Decisions which are concerned with policy matters and exercise fundamental influence
on the objectives of the organization are called as ________
A : Organizational decisions.
B : Personal decisions.
C : Routine decisions.
D : Strategic decisions.
Q.no 22. "Quality is defined by the customer" is
A : An unrealistic definition of quality
B : A user-based definition of quality
C : A manufacturing-based definition of quality
D : A product-based definition of quality
Q.no 23. Industries producing complete articles for direct consumption & also processing
industries is called as _______
A : Manufacturing industries.
B : Feeder Industries.
C : Service Industries.
D : Mining or Quarrying.
Q.no 24. _______ is the process of estimating the quantity and quality of people required to meet
future needs of the organisation.
A : Demand forecasting
B : Supply forecasting
C : Environmental forecasting
Q.no 25. Memorandum of association of a firm contains _______
A : rules regarding the internal management of the company.
B : rules regarding the constitution and activities of the company.
C : rules regarding the external management.
D : rules regarding the constitution.
Q.no 26. Why are small businesses important to a country's economy?
A : They give an outlet for entrepreneurs.
B : They can provide specialist support to larger companies.
C : They can be innovators of new products.
D : All the above.
Q.no 27. Scope of industrial management is not the
A : Developing industrial democracy
B : Maintaining healthy trade union
C : Motivation of Workers
D : None of this
Q.no 28. PERT stands for _______________

A : Programme Evaluation and Research Techniques.
B : Project Evaluation and Review Techniques.
C : Programme Evaluation and Review Techniques.
D : Project Evaluation and Research Techniques.
Q.no 29. Cost Unit is defined as:
A : Unit of quantity of product, service or time in relation to which costs may be ascertained or
expressed
B : A location, person or an item of equipment or a group of these for which costs are ascertained and
used for cost control
C : Centres having the responsibility of generating and maximising profits
D : Centres concerned with earning an adequate return on investment
Q.no 30. Which type business organization works on the democratic principles and functions for
the welfare of the public at large ?
B : Limited liabilities Partnership
C : Partnership
D : Co-operative societies
Q.no 31. What is the major issue faced while doing personal planning?
A : Type of information which should be used in making forecasts
B : Types of people to be hired
C : Multiple positions to be filled
D : All of the above
Q.no 32. Processes that operate with "six sigma quality" over the short term are assumed to
produce long-term defect levels below ______________ defects per million opportunities
(DPMO).
A:2
B : 2.4
C:3
D : 3.4
Q.no 33. Abnormal cost is the cost:
A : Cost normally incurred at a given level of output
B : Cost not normally incurred at a given level of output
C : Cost which is charged to customer
D : Cost which is included in the cost of the product
Q.no 34. Every entrepreneur should draw an _______ for his project to ensure the timely
completion of all activities involved in setting up an enterprise.
A : cost structure
B : implementation plan
C : market structure
D : production structure
Q.no 35. Which of the following is a recognized disadvantage of setting up as a start-up as

compared with other routes to market entry?
A : less satisfaction of the owners.
B : less help from various agencies.
C : there are more funds required.
D : there is a high failure rate.
Q.no 36. A ______________ chart can be used to identify the most frequently occurring defect.
A : Pareto
B : Ishikawa
C : Histogram
D : Scatter
Q.no 37. Trademark law protects
A : Words, symbols or devices that differentiate goods or services from one another.
B : Only brand names
C : Names of specific people and places

D : Inventions that feature some sort of utility function
Q.no 38. what refers to systematic arrangement of people working for the organization to achieve
the desired goals?
A : Business
B : management
C : organizational structure
D : administration
Q.no 39. DMAIC is ______________
A : develop, multiply, analyze, improve, check
B : define, muliply, analyze, improve, control
C : define, measure, analyze, improve, control
D : define, manufacture, analyze, improve, control
Q.no 40. One of the disadvantages of a franchise business for a franchisee is ____
A : Lack of independence.
B : Franchise businesses typically have a high failure rate.
C : Lack of brand identity.
D : Training is not normally provided by the franchisor.
Q.no 41. Customs holder normally takes action against infringing goods at the initiative of right
holder.
A : true
B : false
C:
D:
Q.no 42. It is responsibility of Customs officers to seize infringing goods at the time of import
even if the IPR right holder is not interested in enforcing his IPR.
A : true
B : false
C:
D:
Q.no 43. Which of these is a hindrance to effective training?
A : Career planning workshop
B : Aggregate spending on training is inadequate
C : Mentoring
D : Career counselling
Q.no 44. __________ is the process of forecasting an organisations future demand for, and supply
of, the right type of people in the right number.
A : Human Resource Planning
B : Recruitments
C : Human Resource Management
D : Human Capital Management
Q.no 45. Which of the following is a benefit of employee training?
A : Improves morale
B : Helps people identify with organisational goals
C : Provides a good climate for learning, growth and co - ordination
Q.no 46. Which decision in strategy development relates to the methods used in recruitment and
selection?
A : Sources of recruitment
B : Technological sophistication
C : Sequencing the activities in the recruitment process
Q.no 47. Which of the following statements is true?
A : Trademark registrations can be renewed for an unlimited number of ten- year periods
B : Trademark law is intended to protect the owner‟s original work

C : To qualify for federal protection, a mark must be distinctive and have a "secondary meaning."
D : Surnames alone can be trademarked
Q.no 48. In your view, who can be the right holder of IPR?
A : Owner of the intellectual property
B : The successor in title of the owner of intellectual property.
C : A licensee duly authorized by the owner of the intellectual property.
Q.no 49. Which of the following option is not the factor that hinders with the human resource
planning process?
A : Type and quality of forecasting information
B : Time horizons
C : Environmental uncertainties
D : Unite the perspectives of line and staff managers
Q.no 50. What is the role of a Business Angel?
A : To provide small business advice.
B : To provide capital for business development in exchange for a stake in the Business ownership.
C : To set up a franchise business.
D : To assist an entrepreneur to open a lifestyle business.
Q.no 51. Goods or services reach the market place through ________
A : marketing channels.
B : multilevel pyramids.
C : monopolies.
D : multiplication.
Q.no 52. ______________ are the areas that will be covered by the organization's processes
A : Process areas
B : Product Areas
C : Private areas
D : Preset area
Q.no 53. ______ is an objective assessment of an individual's performance against well-defined

benchmarks.
A : Performance Appraisal
B : HR Planning
C : Information for goal identification
Q.no 54. Which of these is the benefit of needs assessment?
A : Assessment makes training department more accountable
B : Higher training costs
C : Loss of business
D : Increased overtime working
Q.no 55. Benefits of Taylor’s theory include
A : wide scope for specialization
B : training
C : planning
D : All the above
Q.no 56. Identify the cost not likely to reduce as a result of better quality
A : Maintenance costs
B : Inspection costs
C : Scrap costs
D : Warranty and service costs
Q.no 57. who's function is Controlling management and Organization by making policies?
A : Organization
B : management
C : Administration
D:
Q.no 58. Innovation can best be defined as _______
A : the generation of new ideas.
B : the evolution of new ideas.
C : the opposite of creativity.
D : the successful exploitation of new ideas.
Q.no 59. A leader should have the ability to take the right decision at the right time
A : Decision – Capabilities
B : Accountability
C : Good Communicator
D : Not Known
Q.no 60. A new venture's business plan is important because _______
A : It helps to persuade others to commit funding to the venture.
B : Can help demonstrate the viability of the venture.
C : Provides a guide for business activities by defining objectives.
D : All the above.
Q.no 1. F.W Taylor is known as ‘Father of Scientific Management’
A : true
B : false
C:
D:
Q.no 2. Quality Trilogy includes
A : Quality planning
B : quality improvement
C : quality control
D : All the three
Q.no 3. Which one is a type of Organizational structure?
A : pyramid type
B : line and staff type
C : Mixed type
D : Delegative type
Q.no 4. Elements of quality management system are ______________
A : organizational structure
B : responsibilities
C : procedures
D : all the three (not sure)
Q.no 5. What is linked with performance appraisal?
A : Job Design
B : Development
C : Job analysis
Q.no 6. _______is a form of financing especially for funding high technology, high risk and
perceived high reward projects.
A : Fixed capital.
B : Current capital.
C : Seed capital.
D : Venture capital.
Q.no 7. The use of informal networks by entrepreneurs to gather information is known as

________
A : Secondary research.
B : Entrepreneurial networking.
C : Informal parameters.
D : Marketing
Q.no 8. All of the following are characteristics of small businesses EXCEPT:
A : Small businesses are independently owned, operated, and financed.
B : Small businesses have fewer than 100 employees.
C : Small businesses emphasize new or innovative practices.
D : Small businesses have little impact on industry.
Q.no 9. Entrepreneurship can best be described as ________
A : a process that requires setting up a business.
B : taking a significant risk in a business context.
C : having a strong vision.
D : a process involving innovation, new products or services, and value creation.
Q.no 10. Quality circles work best if employees are initially trained in ______________
A : Group dynamics
B : Motivation principles
C : Communications
D : All of the three. (Not sure)
Q.no 11. Employee behaves differently when acting as an individual than when as a member of a
group is called
A : Group Dynamics
B : Individual Dynamics
C : Industry Dynamics
D : Person Dynamics
Q.no 12. Conversion cost includes cost of converting……….into……..
A : Raw material, WIP
B : Raw material, Finished goods
C : WIP, Finished goods

D : Finished goods, Saleable goods
Q.no 13. In which form of business organization, the individual entreprenuer supplies the entire
capital, employes,labour?
A : Partnership
B : sole proprietoeship
C : co-operative society
D : Joint Stock company
Q.no 14. The purpose of all good small business strategy is _____
A : to increase turnover.
B : to increase profitability.
C : to achieve competitive advantage.
D : to achieve stated objectives.
Q.no 15. What is Responsiveness of producers or suppliers to change in price of their goods or
services called ?
A : mixed Economy
B : Elasticity of demand
C : Elasticity of supply
D : Elasticity of Quantity
Q.no 16. Kaizen is a Japanese term meaning ______________
A : continuous improvement
B : Just-in-time (JIT)
C : a fishbone diagram
D : setting standards
Q.no 17. The work dynamics implies
A : constant
B : change
C : together
D : divide
Q.no 18. A person owning and running a small firm, is known as ________
A : A manager-owner.
B : An owner-manager.
C : A professional adapter.
D : An enterprise worker.
Q.no 19. Positive external trends or changes that provide unique and distinct possibilities for
innovating and creating value are called.
A : Strengths
B : Opportunities
C : Weaknesses
D : Threats
Q.no 20. which one is method of demand forecasting ?
A : Correlational Analysis
B : Performance Analysis
C:
D:
Q.no 21. Which of the following is a technique of evaluation?
A : Longitudinal or time - series analysis
B : Transfer validity
C : Inter - organisational validity
Q.no 22. While recruiting for non - managerial, supervisory and middle - management positions
which external factor is of prime importance?
A : Political - Legal
B : Unemployment rate
C : Labour market
D : Growth and Expansion
Q.no 23. Applications of Industrial Management is the
A : Planning Function
B : Controlling Function
C : Organizing Function
Q.no 24. The poor quality of selection will mean extra cost on _______ and supervision.
A : Training
B : Recruitment
C : Work quality
Q.no 25. Which branch of economics studies the individual unit like households and industry?
A : Microeconomics
B : mixed economics
C : Macroeconomics
D : Collectivism
Q.no 26. what can be forecasting can be done by Consumer field survey method?
A : Load Forecasting
B : weather forecasting
C : Demad Forecasting
D : Supply forecasting
Q.no 27. What do successful analysers tend to examine?
A : Division and corporate performance evaluation
B : Current performance with past performance
C : Ideal appraisal process

Q.no 28. In a six sigma improvement project the least experienced individuals are:
A : Green Belt
B : Black belts
C : Red Belts
D : Master Black Belts
Q.no 29. Which of these is the purpose of recruitment?
A : Make sure that there is match between cost and benefit
B : Help increase the success rate of the selection process by reducing the number of visibly
underqualified or over qualified job applicants.
C : Help the firm create more culturally diverse work - force
Q.no 30. Firms located on science parks compared to those located off science parks are:
A : More innovative
B : Less innovative
C : No more or less innovative
D : More growth orientated
Q.no 31. External links may provide incentives to:
A : Raise finance
B : Introduce new working practices
C : Introduce improvements to products
D : Attend business exhibitions
Q.no 32. _________ seeks to examine the goals of the organisation and the trends that are likely
to affect these goals.
A : Organisational Support
B : Organisational analysis
C : Person analysis
D : Key skill abilities analysis

Q.no 33. Quality practices must be carried out ______________
A : at the start of the project
B : throuout the life of the project
C : at the end of the project
D : no neeed to carry out quality practices
Q.no 34. Analysers tend to emphasise both ______ and _______ and employee extensive training
programmes.
A : Skill building and skill acquisition
B : Current performance and past performance
C : Strategy and behaviour
Q.no 35. Which of the following is an alternate term used for performance appraisal?
A : Quality and quantity of output
B : Job knowledge
C : Employee assessment
Q.no 36. Which of the following is a learning principle?
A : Recognition of individual differences
B : Schedules of learning
C : Transfer of learning
Q.no 37. These are not the classification of various technologies
A : Appropriate technology
B : Codified technology
C : Tacit technology
D : None of this
Q.no 38. Decisions taken by an entrepreneur on behalf of his enterprise are known as ______
Q.no 39. All of the following represent countries in which the highest level of entrepreneurial
activity was found EXCEPT:
A : Australia
B : Korea
C : Norway
D : Japan
Q.no 40. Which of the following is least likely to influence the timing of new business births?
A : Government policies.
B : Profitability.
C : Consumer expenditure.
D : Weather conditions.
Q.no 41. All aspects of the merger needs _____
A : Controlling
B : Delegating
C : Staffing
D : Managing
Q.no 42. Which of the following is NOT on of the three areas in which the importance of
entrepreneurship can be shown?
A : Innovation
B : Number of new start-ups
C : Job creation and employment
D : bureaucracy
Q.no 43. Large investment is made in fixed assets, the project will be termed as ________
A : Capital Intensive.
B : Labour Intensive.
C : Product Intensive.
D : Market Intensive.
Q.no 44. Good sources of information for an entrepreneur about competitors can be Obtained
from _____________
A : Websites.
B : Product information leaflets.
C : Company reports and published accounts.
D : All the above.
Q.no 45. The granting of cash subsidy on the capital investment is called _________
A : Concessional finance.
B : Quantum of Subsidy.
C : Interest Subsidy.
D : Central Investment Subsidy.
Q.no 46. Price elasticity of demand is the responsiveness of demand to change in which atribute?
A : Price
B : quantity
C : demand
D : time
Q.no 47. The value that customers give up to get the benefits of products or services is classified
as
A : discount
B : value added tax
C : price
D : tax
Q.no 48. Which of these statements best describes the context for entrepreneurship?
A : Entrepreneurship takes place in small businesses.
B : Entrepreneurship takes place in large businesses.
C : Entrepreneurship takes place in a wide variety of contexts.
D : Entrepreneurship does not take place in social enterprises.
Q.no 49. The most likely problem encountered by innovative entrepreneurs in raising finance is:
A : Limited security since R&D is an intangible asset
B : The costs of the patenting system
C : The exhaustion of personal equity in R&D
D : Inability of potential external funders to understand technology
Q.no 50. The term ________denotes bonus or financial aid which is given by a government to an
industry to help it compete with other units.
A : Incentive
B : Subsidy
C : Bounty
D : Concession
Q.no 51. State whether true or false: The work of Administration is determination of goals and
policies of the organization.
A : true
B : false
C:
D:
Q.no 52. Private limited company and public limited company are two types of which Business
organization?
B : Public sector Undertaking
Q.no 53. Which of these is an off - the - job training method?
A : Television
B : Job rotation
C : Orientation training
D : Coaching
Q.no 54. Someone legally appointed to resolve the financial difficulties of an insolvent firm is
called
A : an administrator.
B : a predator.
C : an auditor.
D : a turnaround consultant.
Q.no 55. The three main responsibilities involved with managing an entrepreneurial venture once
its up and running include all of the following EXCEPT:
A : Managing processes
B : Managing people
C : Managing bureaucracy
D : Managing growth
Q.no 56. All of the following costs are likely to decrease as a result of better quality except
______________
A : Customer dissatisfaction costs
C : Maintenance costs
Q.no 57. Management should not take more responsibility
A : better utilization of material
B : good relations between management and worker

C : time and energy
D : None of this
Q.no 58. ______________ is the set of activities that ensures the quality levels of products and
services are properly maintained and that supplier and customer quality issues are properly
resolved.
A : Quality Assurance
B : Quality Planning
C : Quality Control
D : Quality Management
Q.no 59. Which of the list below does not form Intellectual Property?
A : Trade marks.
B : Patents.
C : Tangible assets.
D : Copyright.
Q.no 60. From the strategic point of view, in which three categories can an organisation be
grouped?
A : Defenders
B : Prospectors
C : Analysers
Q.no 1. Which are the type of Technoly?
A : New technology
B : Emerging technology
C : High technology
D : All the above
Q.no 2. Entrepreneurial development is the key to achieve all-round ______ through acceleration
of industrial and entrepreneurial activities.
A : economic development
B : increase in profits
C : shareholders value
D : business development
Q.no 3. ________can be defined as a specifically evolved work plan densed to achieve a specific
objective within a specific period of time.
A : Idea generation.
B : Opportunity Scanning.
C : Project.
D : Strategy.
Q.no 4. Which of the following is not an intellectual property law?
A : Copyright Act, 1957
B : Trademark Act, 1999
C : Patent Act, 1970
D : Customs Act, 1962
Q.no 5. . Responsibility Centre can be categorised into:
A : Cost Centres only
B : Profit Centres only
C : Investment Centres only
D : Cost Centres, Profit Centres and Investment Centres
Q.no 6. Choose which of the following is a benefit to the individual while receiving training?
A : Creates an appropriate climate for growth, communication
B : Aids in increasing productivity and/ or quality of work
C : Satisfies a personal needs of the trainer
Q.no 7. The term “WIPO” stands for:-
A : World Investment policy organization

B : World intellectual property organization
C : Wildlife Investigation and Policing organization
D : World institute for Prevention of organized crime
Q.no 8. HRM is
A : A staff functions
B : A line function
C : A staff function, line function and accounting function
Q.no 9. The rights provided by copyrights are
A : Reproduction of the work in various forms
B : Public performance and translate into other languages
C : Broadcasting by radio or cable
Q.no 10. ______________ is not a process tools for TQM systems
A : Process flow analysis
B : Histograms
C : Plier
D : Control charts
Q.no 11. ______________ are used in six sigma
A : Black belt
B : Green belt
C : Both black belt and green belt
D : None of the Above
Q.no 12. Which branch of economics studies economics in aggregates i.e overall level of
prices,output and employment?
A : Normative economics
B : Macroeconomics
C : Microeconomics
D : mixed economics
Q.no 13. Trade in services includes which of the following?
A : Computer hardware
B : Textiles
C : Insurance
D : Aerospace
Q.no 14. What is the main objective of the recruitment and selection process?
A : Recruit the right candidates
B : Meet the high labour turnover
C : To reduce the costs of recruiting
Q.no 15. In Which type of business organization ,all decisions are taken by one person ,so quick
decision is possible and prompt action can be taken?
A : Public limited Joint-stock Company
B : Sole Proprietoeship
C : State ownership
D : Partnership
Q.no 16. These are the direct methods of Demand Forecasting
A : Consumer Surveys
B : Sample Surveys
C : Expert Opinion
Q.no 17. An entrepreneur into the hosiery business found out the reason his hosiery was not
selling was due to its color. What could be the best source of this information?
A : Supplier.
B : Retailer.
C : Competition.
D : Government bureau.
Q.no 18. Which one of the following is not considered as one of the building blocks of the model
entrepreneur?
A : technical skills.
B : management competencies.
C : business awareness.
D : personal attributes.
Q.no 19. In which type of business organization the profit made goes to the government ?
Q.no 20. Element/s of Cost of a product are:
A : Material only
B : Labour only
C : Expenses only
Q.no 21. Which of the following principles is applicable to trademarks?
A : A trademark should be distinctive
B : A trademark should be capabale of distinguishing goods or services
C : A trademark should not cause confusion with previous trademarks
D : A trademark should not be deceptive
Q.no 22. Who's function are Planning,organizing,controlling,communicating ?
A : business
B : management
C : administration
D : organization
Q.no 23. TQM stands for ______________
A : Total Quality Management
B : Total Quantity Management
C : Total Qualitative Management
D : To question management
Q.no 24. Juran's Quality trilogy emphasizes the roles of quality planning, quality control and
______________
A : Quality Definition
B : Quality enhancement
C : Quality improvement
D : quality maintenance
Q.no 25. An individual who has prior business ownership experience is called a(n)
_________entrepreneur.
A : Novice
B : habitual
C : Serial
D : Portfolio
Q.no 26. Which type of company is supervised by the government to protect the interest of the
share holders?
B : Private limited joint stock company
C : Partnership
Q.no 27. Copyright law applies to forms of expression contained in ______

A : Song lyrics and musical compositions
B : Sculptures and paintings
C : Dramatic and literary works
Q.no 28. Scope of industrial management is not the
A : Developing industrial democracy
B : Maintaining healthy trade union
C : Motivation of Workers
D : None of this
Q.no 29. The rights of a patentee are
A : Sell or distribute
B : License
C : Assign the property to others
Q.no 30. Seed capital assistance _______
A : a long-term assistance.
B : initial assistance
C : a help for the purchase of seeds.
D : a short-term assistance.
Q.no 31. Stage of group Dynamics is
A : Norming
B : Forming
C : storming
D : all of the above
A : Statistical Techniques
B : Simple Correlation
C : Multiple regression analysis
D : None of this
Q.no 33. How performance appraisal can contribute to a firm's competitive advantage?
A : Ensures legal compliances
B : Minimising job dissatisfaction and turnover
C : Improves performance
Q.no 34. _______________implies the availability or otherwise of plant and machinery and
technical know how to produce the product.
A : Economic viability.
B : Financial feasibility.
C : Technical feasibility.
D : Managerial competence
Q.no 35. Why an invention should be patented?
A : Patenting one‟s invention make useful data relating to the invention available to other inventions
for further research and development.
B : It gives legal recognition to the invention.
C : It makes others aware of the fact as to whom does the invention belong
Q.no 36. Assured quality is necessary for building customer confidence
A : correct
B : Correct to some extent
C : Correct to great extent
D : Incorrect
Q.no 37. __________ refers to the learning opportunities designed to help employees grow.
A : Training
B : Development
C : Education
Q.no 38. A ______________ chart can be used to identify the most frequently occurring defect.
A : Pareto
B : Ishikawa
C : Histogram
D : Scatter
Q.no 39. Abnormal cost is the cost:
A : Cost normally incurred at a given level of output
B : Cost not normally incurred at a given level of output
C : Cost which is charged to customer
D : Cost which is included in the cost of the product
Q.no 40. What is the natural perception of people on the process of recruitment and selection?
A : Positive
B : Negative
C : Both positive and negative
Q.no 41. The oldest form of business organization is ______
A : Partnership.
B : sole proprietorship.
C : joint stock company.
D : co-operative undertaking.
Q.no 42. Customs authorities has no role in enforcement of Intellectual property rights.
A : true
B : false
C:
D:
Q.no 43. A new way to process milk so that there is no fat in any cheese made from it
A : Copy rights
B : Trade mark
C : Patent
Q.no 44. Which of the following is a recognized disadvantage of setting up as a start-up as

compared with other routes to market entry?
A : less satisfaction of the owners.
B : less help from various agencies.
C : there are more funds required.
D : there is a high failure rate.
Q.no 45. Idea of new product is tested in potential consumers to determine consumer acceptance
at ________ stage.
A : Concept.
B : Product development.
C : Test marketing.
D : Commercialization.
Q.no 46. what is the measure of responsiveness of demand to the changes in price called?
A : Inelastic demand
D : Cross Elasticity
Q.no 47. Finding ways to reduce _____ is a key responsibility of the management
A : Dissatisfaction
B : Uncertainty
C : Stress
Q.no 48. Who's main principle is Division of work ?
A : Administration
B : Organization
C : Management
D : communication
Q.no 49. DMAIC is ______________
A : develop, multiply, analyze, improve, check
B : define, muliply, analyze, improve, control
C : define, measure, analyze, improve, control
D : define, manufacture, analyze, improve, control
Q.no 50. According to the Scientific management theory, duty of management is
A : to develop a science for each element of man’s work.
B : to select, train, teach and develop each workman
C : to cooperate with the worker so as to ensure all the work is done
D : All the above
Q.no 51. An entrepreneur who owns more than one business at a time is called _________
A : an intrapreneur.
B : a corporate entrepreneur.
C : a portfolio entrepreneur.
D : None of the above.
Q.no 52. Successful defenders use performance appraisal for identifying ____________.
A : Staffing needs
B : Job behaviour
C : Training needs
Q.no 53. Laissez-faire leadership is based on
A : Trust
B : Person
C : Family
D : People
Q.no 54. who's function is Controlling management and Organization by making policies?
A : Organization
B : management
C : Administration
D:
Q.no 55. Quality Circles members are ______________
A : Paid according to their contribution to quality
B : External consultants designed to provide training in the use of Quality tools
C : Always machine operators
D : None of the three
Q.no 56. According to the Scientific management theory the prime duty of management is not to
see that there is equal division of work and responsibility
A : true
B : false
C:
D:
Q.no 57. State whether True or False: Regression analysis method is a statistical method of
demand forecasting.
A : true
B : false
C:
D:
Q.no 58. Primary data is ______
A : the most important data.
B : the data that is collected first.
C : new data specifically collected for a project.
D : data that is collected second.
Q.no 59. The last step of cost based pricing is to
A : set price based on cost
B : convince buyer about products value
C : design a product
D : determine cost of product
Q.no 60. All of the following are popular demographic factors about entrepreneurs that have
been studied EXCEPT:
A : Self-confidence
B : Gender
C : Education
D : Family birth order
Q.no 1. what can be forecasting can be done by Consumer field survey method?
A : Load Forecasting
B : weather forecasting
C : Demad Forecasting
D : Supply forecasting
Q.no 2. Kaizen is a ______________ process, the purpose of which goes beyond simple
productivity improvement
A : weekly
B : daily
C : monthly
D : annual
Q.no 3. The creation of new firms is important because these new firms contribute to economic
development through benefits that include all of the following EXCEPT:
A : Product-process innovation
B : Increased tax revenues
C : Unemployment
D : Social betterment
Q.no 4. Why are small businesses important to a country's economy?
A : They give an outlet for entrepreneurs.
B : They can provide specialist support to larger companies.
C : They can be innovators of new products.
D : All the above.
Q.no 5. A business arrangement where one party allows another party to use a business Name
and sell its products or services is known as ______
A : a cooperative
B : a franchise
C : an owner-manager business.
D : a limited company.
Q.no 6. state whether true or false: in partnership form shares are not allowed to be issued to the
public
A : true
B : false
C:
D:
Q.no 7. ________is used to accomplish the project economically in the minimum available time
with limited resources.
A : Project Scheduling.
B : Network Analysis.
C : Budget Analysis.
D : Critical Planning.
Q.no 8. Every group has its characteristics to which the individual must confirm if he is to
remain member
A : Agriculteral Pattern
B : Nonagriculteral Pattern
C : culture Pattern
D : nonculture Pattern
Q.no 9. The work dynamics implies
A : constant
B : change
C : together
D : divide
Q.no 10. By whom the Management is controlled?
A : Administration
B : functional Organization
C : business
D : Line and staff Organization
Q.no 11. A company wishes to ensure that no one else can use their logo.
A : Copy rights
B : Trade mark
C : Patent
Q.no 12. Human Resource Planning facilitates international expansion strategies.
A : true
B : false
C:
D:
Q.no 13. While recruiting for non - managerial, supervisory and middle - management positions
which external factor is of prime importance?
A : Political - Legal
B : Unemployment rate
C : Labour market
D : Growth and Expansion
Q.no 14. Innovative entrepreneurs face special issues in raising:
A : Development capital
B : Structured capital
C : Human capital
D : Seed capital
Q.no 15. In _______, machines and equipments are arranged in the order or sequence in which
they are to be used for manufacturing the product.
A : Factory Layout
B : Product Layout
C : Process Layout
D : Combined Layout
Q.no 16. Management uses organization to achieve the goals set by the administration.
A : true
B : false
C:
D:
Q.no 17. How does training and development offer competitive advantage to an organisation?
A : Removing performance decencies
B : Deficiency is caused by a lack of ability

C : Individuals have the aptitude and motivation to learn
Q.no 18. Which of these is the main purpose of employee assessment?
A : Making correct decisions
B : To effect promotions based on competence and performance
C : Establish job expectations
Q.no 19. In which form of business organization, the individual entreprenuer supplies the entire
capital, employes,labour?
A : Partnership
B : sole proprietoeship
C : co-operative society
D : Joint Stock company
Q.no 20. Elements of quality management system are ______________
A : organizational structure
B : responsibilities
C : procedures
D : all the three (not sure)
Q.no 21. ___________ express the relationship of applicant inputs to outputs at various decision
points.
A : Number of contacts
B : Yield Ratios
C : Type of contacts
D : Technological sophistication
Q.no 22. A process that is used for identifying and developing internal people with the potential
to fill key business leadership positions in the company is called ______.
A : Highly talented personnel creation

B : Investing in human resources
C : Succession planning
Q.no 23. The kind of pricing strategy in which one product or service is sold for two different
prices without any differences in cost is classified as
A : segmented pricing
B : psychological pricing
C : promotional pricing
D : geographical pricing
Q.no 24. In which form of business, capital is contributed by a large number of persons in form
of shares of different values?
A : Sole propritorship
C : Joint stock company
D : Co-operative society
Q.no 25. "Quality is defined by the customer" is
A : An unrealistic definition of quality
B : A user-based definition of quality
C : A manufacturing-based definition of quality
D : A product-based definition of quality
Q.no 26. Which of the following are the decisions to be made while devising the strategies to hire?
A : Geographic distribution of labour markets comprising job seekers
B : Make or buy employees
C : Sequencing the activities in the recruitment process
Q.no 27. What is linked with performance appraisal?
A : Job Design
B : Development
C : Job analysis
Q.no 28. Production issues should be addressed early
A : correct (not sure)
B : correct to some extent
C : correct to great extent
D : incorrect
Q.no 29. The Markets and Competitors section of a business plan should contain _______
A : A statement of the target market.
B : The size of each market segment.
C : The key characteristics of buyers in each business segment.
D : All the above.
Q.no 30. The _____ and control systems should be altered to support the strategic human
resource function.
A : Appointment
B : Reward
C : Job allotment
Q.no 31. State whether true or False: Government departments are suitable for public utility
services and defence industries .
A : true
B : false
C:
D:
Q.no 32. ______________ is about supplying customers with what they want when they want it.
A : JUT
B : HET
C : JAT
D : JIT
Q.no 33. –––––––– are the charts that identify potential causes for particular quality problems
A : Control Chart
B : Flow chart
C : Cause and Effect Diagram
D : Pareto chart
Q.no 34. Customs law empower customs officers to take action against IPR infringing goods at
the time of import.
A : true
B : false
C:
D:
Q.no 35. For developing new products, the company must know its
A : markets
B : consumers
C : competitors
D : all of above
Q.no 36. How many stages does the recruitment process comprise of?
A:2
B:6
C:9
D:5
Q.no 37. After E.deming, who is considered to have the greatest impact in quality management?
A : Kauro Ishikawa
B : Joseph M. Juran
C : W.E. Deming
D : Genichi Tagucchi
Q.no 38. If any fake goods are being produced in any factory, the Custom officer can seized such
goods.
A : true
B : false
C:
D:
Q.no 39. It is only the right holder, who can tell the officer as to whether the particular imported
goods are infringing or not.
A : true
B : false
C:
D:
Q.no 40. Theory –X can be put forward by
A : Douglas Hall
B : Douglas watt
C : Douglas McGregor
D : Michel Faraday
Q.no 41. Which of the following is a benefit of employee training?
A : Improves morale
B : Helps people identify with organisational goals
C : Provides a good climate for learning, growth and co - ordination
Q.no 42. Management should take more responsibility for planning and supervision
A : true
B : false
C:
D:
Q.no 43. As a new company grows, the entrepreneur will need to _______
A : be responsive to changes in the market.
B : ensure financial controls are maintained.
C : build a management team.
D : all the above.
Q.no 44. The meaning of the acronym HRM is
A : Human Relations Management
B : Humanistic Resource Management
C : Human Resource Management
D : Human Resourceful Management
Q.no 45. Which of the following factors state the importance of the Human Resource Planning?
A : Creating highly talented personnel
B : International strategies
C : Resistance to change and move
Q.no 46. Inspection, scrap, and repair are examples of ______________
A : Internal costs
B : External costs
C : Costs of dissatisfaction
D : Societal costs
Q.no 47. The term ________denotes bonus or financial aid which is given by a government to an
industry to help it compete with other units.
A : Incentive
B : Subsidy
C : Bounty
D : Concession
Q.no 48. What is the major issue faced while doing personal planning?
A : Type of information which should be used in making forecasts
B : Types of people to be hired
C : Multiple positions to be filled
Q.no 49. which is one of the method of demand forecasting?
A : Expert's opinion
B : Performance analysis
C : Inventory management
D : Sales budgeting
Q.no 50. The granting of cash subsidy on the capital investment is called _________
A : Concessional finance.
B : Quantum of Subsidy.
C : Interest Subsidy.
D : Central Investment Subsidy.
Q.no 51. ______ is an objective assessment of an individual's performance against well-defined

benchmarks.
A : Performance Appraisal
B : HR Planning
C : Information for goal identification
Q.no 52. Plan-do-study-act cycle is a procedure to ______________
A : Overall improvement
B : Continuous improvement
C : Permanent improvement
D : Immediate improvement
Q.no 53. State true or false: Vestibule training utilises equipment which closely resemble the
actual ones used on the job
A : true
B : false
C:
D:
Q.no 54. Which of these is not an objective of Cost Accounting?
A : Ascertainment of Cost
B : Determination of Selling Price
C : Cost Control and Cost reduction
D : Assisting Shareholders in decision making
Q.no 55. All of the following costs are likely to decrease as a result of better quality except
______________
A : Customer dissatisfaction costs
C : Maintenance costs
Q.no 56. In Six Sigma, a ______________ is defined as any process output that does not meet
customer specifications
A : error
B : cost
C : quality
D : defect
Q.no 57. Which of the following statements is false?

A : Market segmentation is a useful process for small businesses to undertake.
B : Selling is essentially a matching process.
C : A benefit is the value of a product feature to a customer.
D : It is a good idea for small businesses to compete solely on price.
Q.no 58. A profit centre is a centre
A : Where the manager has the responsibility of generating and maximising profits
B : Which is concerned with earning an adequate Return on Investment
C : Both of the above
D : Which manages cost
Q.no 59. 1. An individual who initiates, creates and manages a new business can be called
A : a leader
B : a manager
C : a professional
D : an entrepreneur
Q.no 60. Management should not take more responsibility
A : better utilization of material
B : good relations between management and worker
C : time and energy
D : None of this
Q.no 1. What do successful analysers tend to examine?
A : Division and corporate performance evaluation
B : Current performance with past performance
C : Ideal appraisal process
Q.no 2. A business arrangement where one party allows another party to use a business name
and sell its products or services is known as ______
A : a cooperative.
B : a franchise.
C : an owner-manager business.
D : a limited company.
Q.no 3. Quality Trilogy includes
A : Quality planning
B : quality improvement
C : quality control
D : All the three
Q.no 4. Which of these factors is not included in environmental scanning?
A : Political and legislative issues
B : Economic factors
C : Technological changes
Q.no 5. HRM is
A : A staff functions
B : A line function
C : A staff function, line function and accounting function
Q.no 6. _______is primarily concerned with the identification, qualification and evaluation of the
project resources.
A : Techno-economic analysis.
B : Feasibility analysis.
C : Input analysis.
D : Financial analysis.
Q.no 7. Which type business organization works on the democratic principles and functions for
the welfare of the public at large ?
B : Limited liabilities Partnership
C : Partnership
Q.no 8. In which type of company the greater personal contacts of partners give more benefits to
the company?
A : Joint-Stock Company
C : State ownership
Q.no 9. An advantage of the small firm in the innovation process?
A : Ability to carry out R&D
B : Ability to raise finance
C : Ability of the entrepreneur to carry out multiple tasks
D : Ability of the entrepreneur to act on new ideas or product development
Q.no 10. Quality circles work best if employees are initially trained in ______________
A : Group dynamics
B : Motivation principles
C : Communications
D : All of the three. (Not sure)
Q.no 11. An individual who has prior business ownership experience is called a(n)
_________entrepreneur.
A : Novice
B : habitual
C : Serial
D : Portfolio
Q.no 12. Promoter is a person who _______

A : takes part in the incorporation of a company.
B : is a director.
C : is a relative of the managing director.
D : works to publicity to the company.
Q.no 13. Which of the following principles is applicable to trademarks?
A : A trademark should be distinctive
B : A trademark should be capabale of distinguishing goods or services
C : A trademark should not cause confusion with previous trademarks
D : A trademark should not be deceptive
Q.no 14. Business risks can be ______
A : avoided.
B : reduced.
C : ignored.
D : erased.
Q.no 15. Schumpeter considered that innovative entrepreneurs would:
A : Thrive
B : Disappear
C : Be absorbed within large innovative firms
D : Be absorbed within non-innovative firms
Q.no 16. The pricing strategy for new product through which revenues are collected from
segments willing to pay higher prices is classified as
A : market skimming pricing
B : market penetration strategy
C : business line pricing
D : product line pricing
Q.no 17. _________ refers to the process of identifying and attracting job seekers so as to build a
pool of qualified job applicants.
A : Selection
B : Training
C : Recruitments
D : Induction
Q.no 18. All of the following are characteristics of small businesses EXCEPT:
A : Small businesses are independently owned, operated, and financed.
B : Small businesses have fewer than 100 employees.
C : Small businesses emphasize new or innovative practices.
D : Small businesses have little impact on industry.
Q.no 19. Entrepreneurship can best be described as ________
A : a process that requires setting up a business.
B : taking a significant risk in a business context.
C : having a strong vision.
D : a process involving innovation, new products or services, and value creation.
Q.no 20. Innovative entrepreneurs may have to pay high insurance premiums due to the:
A : The need to protect patents
B : Greater employee liability
C : Greater customer liability
D : Greater trading risks
Q.no 21. PERT stands for _______________
A : Programme Evaluation and Research Techniques.
B : Project Evaluation and Review Techniques.
C : Programme Evaluation and Review Techniques.
D : Project Evaluation and Research Techniques.
Q.no 22. Decisions which are concerned with policy matters and exercise fundamental influence
on the objectives of the organization are called as ________
Q.no 23. What are the minimum number of people required in partnership type of business ?
A:2
B:3
C:4
D:5
Q.no 24. Someone who improves an existing business can be called
A : an intrapreneur
B : a professional
C : a co-worker
D : a changeling
Q.no 25. Choose the odd man out
A : Acquisitions and mergers
B : Radio and television
C : Former employees
D : Advertisements
Q.no 26. Cost Unit is defined as:
A : Unit of quantity of product, service or time in relation to which costs may be ascertained or
expressed
B : A location, person or an item of equipment or a group of these for which costs are ascertained and
used for cost control
C : Centres having the responsibility of generating and maximising profits
D : Centres concerned with earning an adequate return on investment

Q.no 27. What is Responsiveness of producers or suppliers to change in price of their goods or
services called ?
A : mixed Economy
D : Elasticity of Quantity
Q.no 28. Which branch of economics studies the individual unit like households and industry?
A : Microeconomics
B : mixed economics
C : Macroeconomics
D : Collectivism
Q.no 29. A person owning and running a small firm, is known as ________
A : A manager-owner.
B : An owner-manager.
C : A professional adapter.
D : An enterprise worker.
Q.no 30. Customers are primarily concerned with ______________
A : Communication, courtesy, and credibility of the sales person
B : Competence, courtesy, and security of the sales person
C : Competence, responsiveness, and reliability of the sales person
D : Communication, responsiveness, and cleverness of the sales person
Q.no 31. Customs holder normally takes action against infringing goods at the initiative of right
holder.
A : true
B : false
C:
D:
Q.no 32. Every entrepreneur should draw an _______ for his project to ensure the timely
completion of all activities involved in setting up an enterprise.
A : cost structure
B : implementation plan
C : market structure
D : production structure
Q.no 33. Which one of the following describes unemployment?
A : The number of people who voluntarily choose not to work.
B : The number of people who are jobless and are actively seeking work.
C : The number of people who are not actively seeking work.
D : The number of people actively seeking work who find work.
Q.no 34. Processes that operate with "six sigma quality" over the short term are assumed to
produce long-term defect levels below ______________ defects per million opportunities
(DPMO).
A:2
B : 2.4
C:3
D : 3.4
Q.no 35. Describe the method of costing to be applied in case of Nursing Home:
A : Operating Costing
B : Process Costing
C : Contract Costing
D : Job Costing
Q.no 36. External links may provide incentives to:
A : Raise finance
B : Introduce new working practices
C : Introduce improvements to products

D : Attend business exhibitions
A : Statistical Techniques
B : Simple Correlation
C : Multiple regression analysis
D : None of this
Q.no 38. In your view, who can be the right holder of IPR?
A : Owner of the intellectual property
B : The successor in title of the owner of intellectual property.
C : A licensee duly authorized by the owner of the intellectual property.
Q.no 39. A new way to process milk so that there is no fat in any cheese made from it
A : Copy rights
B : Trade mark
C : Patent
Q.no 40. Which of this is a step in training process?
A : . KSA deficiency
B : Provide proper feedback
C : Obstacles in the system
D : Use of evaluation models
Q.no 41. To provide financial assistance to entrepreneurs the government has set up a number of
______
A : financial advisors.
B : financial intermediaries.
C : Industrial estates.
D : financial institutions.
Q.no 42. Assured quality is necessary for building customer confidence
A : correct
B : Correct to some extent
C : Correct to great extent
D : Incorrect
Q.no 43. "Poka-yoke" is the Japanese term for ______________
A : Card
B : Fool proof
C : Continuous improvement
D : Fishbone diagram
Q.no 44. Which of the following is an „intellectual property‟ as per IPR Laws in India.
A : Original literary work
B : Industrial Design of Maruti800 car
C : Trademark of Tata company
D : All the above
Q.no 45. An individual who has no prior business ownership experience as a business founder,
inheritor of a business, or a purchaser of a business is called a(n)____________ entrepreneur
A : Habitual
B : Novice
C : Serial
D : Portfolio
Q.no 46. In which type of Company the middleman's profit is eliminated since purchase is
directly from producers?
B : Co-operative society
C : Partnership
D : Joint stock company
Q.no 47. Quality practices must be carried out ______________
A : at the start of the project
B : throuout the life of the project
C : at the end of the project
D : no neeed to carry out quality practices
Q.no 48. Which one of the following actions by an entrepreneur is most likely to contribute to
creative destruction?
A : Development of a new product
B : Take-over of a competitor
C : Issuing shares
D : Reducing prices
Q.no 49. Customs authorities has no role in enforcement of Intellectual property rights.
A : true
B : false
C:
D:
Q.no 50. Good sources of information for an entrepreneur about competitors can be Obtained
from _____________
A : Websites.
B : Product information leaflets.
C : Company reports and published accounts.
D : All the above.
Q.no 51. Identify the cost not likely to reduce as a result of better quality
A : Maintenance costs
C : Scrap costs
Q.no 52. Which type of company can be established with minimum 2 to maximum 50 memebers
?
A : Private Limited Joint stock Company
C : Partnership
Q.no 53. Which industrial sector tends to naturally promote small-scale businesses and
Entrepreneurship, and generally has lower barriers to market entry?
A : Service
B : Manufacturing
C : Distribution
D : Agriculture
Q.no 54. Innovation can best be defined as _______
A : the generation of new ideas.
B : the evolution of new ideas.
C : the opposite of creativity.
D : the successful exploitation of new ideas.
Q.no 55. ______________ are the areas that will be covered by the organization's processes
A : Process areas
B : Product Areas
C : Private areas
D : Preset area
Q.no 56. A new venture's business plan is important because _______
A : It helps to persuade others to commit funding to the venture.
B : Can help demonstrate the viability of the venture.
C : Provides a guide for business activities by defining objectives.

D : All the above.
Q.no 57. The UK government has implemented a number of policies to encourage

Entrepreneurship in schools. One such initiative is ______
A : Young Enterprise.
B : Youth venture.
C : Young Business.
D : Young Initiative.
Q.no 58. Primary data is ______
A : the most important data.
B : the data that is collected first.
C : new data specifically collected for a project.
D : data that is collected second.
Q.no 59. Which of these is an off - the - job training method?
A : Television
B : Job rotation
C : Orientation training
D : Coaching
Q.no 60. Which of the list below does not form Intellectual Property?
A : Trade marks.
B : Patents.
C : Tangible assets.
D : Copyright.

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Seat No -

Total number of questions : 60

10262_Industrial and Technology Managemant

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. An advantage of the small firm in the innovation process?

A : Ability to carry out R&D

B : Ability to raise finance

C : Ability of the entrepreneur to carry out multiple tasks

D : Ability of the entrepreneur to act on new ideas or product development

Q.no 4. Someone who improves an existing business can be called

Q.no 5. what is the other name of Line type of organization?

C : line and staff organization

Q.no 6. Describe the cost unit applicable to the Bicycle industry:

A : per part of bicycle

A : Creates an appropriate climate for growth, communication

B : Aids in increasing productivity and/ or quality of work

C : Satisfies a personal needs of the trainer

D : None of the above

Q.no 8. Which of the following is not a target of Total Quality Management:

C : Continuous Cost Reduction

D : Continuous Operational Improvement

Q.no 9. QFD stands for ______________

A : Quantity for deployment

B : Quality for deployment

C : Quality function deployment

D : Quality for decision

Q.no 10. Business risks can be ______

Q.no 12. . Fixed cost is a cost:

A : Which changes in total in proportion to changes in output

B : which is partly fixed and partly variable in relation to output

D : which remains same for each unit of output

Q.no 15. Laissez-faire leadership is the direct opposite of autocratic leadership

Q.no 16. Which of these factors is not included in environmental scanning?

A : Political and legislative issues

D : None of the above

Q.no 17. Choose the odd man out

A : Acquisitions and mergers

B : Radio and television

D : Public sector undertaking

Q.no 19. Schumpeter considered that innovative entrepreneurs would:

C : Be absorbed within large innovative firms

D : Be absorbed within non-innovative firms

A : Removing performance decencies

B : Deficiency is caused by a lack of ability

C : Individuals have the aptitude and motivation to learn

D : None of the above

Q.no 22. "Quality is defined by the customer" is

A : An unrealistic definition of quality

B : A user-based definition of quality

C : A manufacturing-based definition of quality

D : A product-based definition of quality

D : None of the above

Q.no 25. Memorandum of association of a firm contains _______

A : rules regarding the internal management of the company.

B : rules regarding the constitution and activities of the company.

C : rules regarding the external management.