AMAN TILAK

[ PRESENTS ]

UDAAN 1 HOUR NEET mini TEST

SYLLABUS
Physics - Mathematical Tools
Chemistry - Mole Concept
Biology - Living World + Biological Classification

S.No. Subject(s) No. of Mark(s)* Type of

Questions *(Each Question Carries 04 (Four) marks) Question(s)
1 PHYSICS 15 60 MCQ
( Multiple
2 CHEMISTRY 15 60 Choice
3 BIOLOGY 30 120 Questions)
TOTAL MARKS 240
Note : Correct option marked will be given (4) marks and Incorrect option marked will be minus
one (-1) mark. Unattempted / Unanswered Questions will be given no marks.

The Important points to note :

1. Each question carries 04 (four) marks and, for each correct answer candidate will get 04 (four) marks.
2. For each incorrect answer, 01 (one) mark will be deducted from the total score.
3. To answer a question, the candidate has to find, for each question, the correct answer / best option.
4. NEET 2021 New Pattern + 4 -1 Marking | Total Marks : 240

Dr. Jyotsana | Dr. Ashwani | Dr. Rajat | Dr. Praveen | dr. piyush | er. nikhil | dr. sudhir
 1 HOUR NEET mini TEST
PHYSICS
Time : 1 hour
Marking Scheme : ( +4 , -1)

Q1. The position of a body moving along x-axis at time t is given by x = (𝒕𝟐 – 4t + 6) m. The
distance travelled by body in time interval t = 0 to t = 3 s is
(a) 5 m (b) 7 m (c) 4 m (d) 3 m

Q2. If v is the velocity of a body moving along x-axis, then acceleration of body is
𝑑𝑣 𝑑𝑣 𝑑𝑢 𝑑𝑥
(a) (b) v (c) x (d) v
𝑑𝑥 𝑑𝑥 𝑑𝑥 𝑑𝑣

Q3. The position of a particle moving along x-axis is given by x = 10t – 2𝒕𝟐 . Then the time (t) at
which it will momently come to rest is
(a) 0 (b) 2.5s (c) 5 s (d) 10 s

Q4. If the displacement of a particle varies with time as √𝒙 = 𝒕 + 𝟕, then

(a) Velocity of the particle is inversely proportional to t
(b) Velocity of the particle is proportional to 𝑡 2
(c) Velocity of the particle is proportional to √𝑡
(d) The particle moves with constant acceleration

Q 5. The initial velocity of a particle is u (at t = 0) and the acceleration a is given by α𝒕𝟑/𝟐 . Which
of the following relations is valid?
3α𝑡 3
(a) v = u + α𝑡 3/2 (b) v=u+ 2
3
2α𝑡 3/2
(c) v=u+ 5
(d) v=u+ α𝑡 2

Q6. The position x of particle moving along x-axis varies with time t as x = Asin (ωt) where A and
ω are positive constants. The acceleration a of particle varies with its position (x) as
(a) a = Ax (b) a=-𝜔2 𝑥
(c) a = A ω x (d) a=𝜔2 𝑥A

Q7. A particle moves in a straight line and its position x at time t is given by 𝒙𝟐 = 2+ t. Its
Acceleration is given By
−2 1 1 1
(a) 𝑥3
(b)- 4𝑥3 (c)- 4𝑥 2 (d)𝑥 2
Q8. The position of a particle moving along x-axis given by x = (– 2𝒕𝟑 + 3𝒕𝟐 +5)m. The acceleration
of particle at the instant its velocity becomes zero is
(a) 12 m/𝑠 2 (b) –12 m/𝑠 2
(c) –6 m/𝑠 2 (d) Zero

Q9. The initial velocity of a particle moving along x-axis is u (at t = 0 and x = 0) and its acceleration
a is given by a = kx. Which of the following equation is correct between its velocity (v) and
position (x)?
(𝑎) 𝑣 2 – 𝑢2 = 2kx (𝑏) 𝑣 2 = 𝑢2 + 2k𝑥 2
(c) 𝑣 2 = 𝑢2 + k𝑥 2 (d) 𝑣 2 + 𝑢2 =2k𝑥

Q10. The velocity v of a body moving along a straight line varies with time t as v = 2𝒕𝟐 𝒆−𝒕 , where
v is in m/s and t is in second. The acceleration of body is zero at t =
(a) 0 (b) 2 s (c) 3 (d) Both (1) & (2)

𝒕𝟐
Q11. The velocity of a body depends on time according to the equation v= 𝟏𝟎 + 𝟐𝟎 . The body is
undergoing
(a) Uniform acceleration (b) Uniform retardation
(c) Non-uniform acceleration (d) Zero acceleration

Q12. A body starts from origin and moves along x-axis so that its position at any instant is x = 4𝒕𝟐
– 12t where t is in second and v in m/s. What is the acceleration of particle?
(a) 4 m/𝑠 2 (b) 8 m/𝑠 2 (c) 24 m/𝑠 2 (d) 0 m/𝑠 2

Q13. A particle moves a distance x in time t according to equation x = (t + 5)−𝟏 . The acceleration
of particle is proportional to
2
(a) (Velocity)3/2 (b) (Distance)3/2 (c) (Distance)−2 (d)(Velocity)3

Q14. The displacement x of a particle varies with time t as x = 𝒂𝒆−∝𝒕 + 𝒃𝒆βt , where a, b, α and
β are positive constants. The velocity of the particle will
(a) Go on decreasing with time (b) Be independent of β
(c) Drop to zero when α and β (d) Go on increasing with time

Q15. Motion of a particle is given by equation, s = (3𝒕𝟑 + 7𝒕𝟐 + 14t + 8) m. The value of acceleration
of the particle at t = 1 s is
𝑚2
(a) 10 𝑚/𝑠 2 (b) 32 𝑚/𝑠 2 (c) 23 𝑚/𝑠 2 (d) 16 𝑠
 CHEMISTRY
Time : 1 hour
Marking Scheme : ( +4 , -1)

Q16. Total number of atoms in 196 amu H2SO4 are :

(1) 14 NA (2) 14 (3) 7 NA (4) 7

Q17. Which has maximum number of atoms :

(1) 24 g of C (12) (2) 56 g of Fe (56) (3) 27 g of Al (27) (4) 108 g Ag (108)

Q18. The number of atoms in 558.5 g of Fe (at wt.= 55.85) is :

(1) Twice that in 60 g carbon (2) 6.022 × 1022
(3) Half in 8 g He (4) 558.5 × 6.023 × 1023

Q19. The density of liquid mercury is 13.6 g/cm3. How many moles of mercury are there in 1 litre
of the metal ? (Atomic mass of Hg = 200.)
(1)68 mole (2)69 mole (3)70 mole (4)71 mole

Q20. How many moles of potassium chlorate need to be heated to produce 11.2 litre oxygen at
N.T.P.
1 1 1 2
(1) mol (2) mol (3) mol (4) mol
2 3 4 3

Q21. The molality of the solution containing 20% w/w solution of NaOH is :
(1) 4.5 m (2) 6.25 m (3) 0.3 m (4) 1 m

Q22. An aqueous solution of ethanol has density 1.025 g/mL and it is 2M. What is the molality of
this solution ?
(1) 1.79 (2) 2.143 (3) 1.951 (4) None of these.

Q23. The oxidation states of Sulphur in the anions SO32-, S2O42- and S2O62- follow the order
(1) S2O62- < S2O42 < SO3 (2) S2O42- < SO32- < S2O62-
(c) SO32- < S2O42- < S2O62- (4) S2O42- < SO32- < S2O62-

Q24. In the reaction X – + XO3– + H+ ⎯⎯→ X2 + H2O, the molar ratio in which X – and XO3–
react is :
(1) 1 : 5 (2) 5 : 1 (3) 2 : 3 (4) 3 : 2
Q25 In the reaction xHI + yHNO3 ⎯⎯→ NO + 2 + H2O, upon balancing with whole number
coefficients :
(1) x = 3, y = 2 (2) x= 2, y = 3 (3) x = 6, y = 2 (4) x = 6, y = 1

Q26. The average oxidation state of Fe in Fe3O4 is :

(1) – 8/3 (2*) 8/3 (3) 2 (4) 3

Q27. When a mixture of 10 mole of SO2 , 15 mole of O2 was passed over catalyst , 8 mole of SO3
was formed. How many mole of SO2and O2 did not enter into combination ?
(1) 2 moles of SO2, 11 moles of O2 (2) 3 moles of SO2, 11.5 moles of O2
(3) 2 moles of SO2, 4 moles of O2 (4) 8 moles of SO2, 4 moles of O2

Q28. 500 mL of a glucose solution contains 90 g of glucose. The concentration of the solution is
(1) 0.1 M (2) 1.0 M (3) 0.2 M (4) 2.0 M

Q29 How many mole of Zn(FeS2) can be made from 2 mole zinc, 3 mole iron and 5 mole sulphur.
(1) 2 mole (2) 3 mole (3) 4 mole (4) 5 mole

Q30 The volume of gas at NTP produced by 100g of CaC2 with water
CaC2 + H2O ⎯⎯→ Ca(OH)2+ C2H2
(1) 70 litre (2) 35 litre (3) 17.5 litre (4) 22.4 litre
 BIOLOGY
Time : 1 hour
Marking Scheme : ( +4 , -1)

Q31. The living organisms can be unexceptionally distinguished from the non-living things on the
basis of their ability for
(1) interaction with the environment and progressive evolution
(2) reproduction
(3) growth and movement
(4) responsiveness to touch.

Q32. Biological organisation starts with

(1) cellular level (2) organismic level
(3) atomic level (4) submicroscopic molecular level.

Q33. In majority of higher animals and plants, _____ and _____ are mutually exclusive events.
(1) growth; nutrition (2) nutrition; consciousness
(3) growth; reproduction (4) reproduction; consciousness

Q34. Non-living objects-

1. Grows from external surface by collecting substance on it.
2. Grows from internal surface like living.
3. Do not grow at all.
Which of the followings option is correct?
(1) Only 1 correct (2) Only 2 correct (3) Only 3 correct (4) All 1, 2, 3 correct

Q35. The sum total of all the chemical reactions occurring in our body is known as
(1) metabolism (2) growth (3) regeneration (4) reproduction

Q36. ICBN stands for

(1) International Code of Botanical Nomenclature
(2) International Congress of Biological Names
(3) Indian Code of Botanical Nomenclature
(4) Indian Congress of Biological Names.

Q37. Biosystematics aims at

(1) the classification of organisms based on broad morphological characters
(2) delimiting various taxa of organisms and establishing their relationships
 (3) the classification of organisms based on their evolutionary history and establishing their
phylogeny on the totality of various parameters from all fields of studies
(4) identification and arrangement of organisms on the basis of their cytological
characteristics.

Q38. The book ‘Genera Plantarum’ was written by

(1) Engler and Prantl (2) Bentham and Hooker
(3) Bessey (4) Hutchinson.

Q39. The term “New Systematics” was introduced by

(1) Bentham and Hooker (2) Linnaeus
(3) Julian Huxley (4) A.P. de Candolle.

Q40. Families are characterized on which of the following features of plant species?
(1) External morphology (2) Anatomy of parts
(3) Vegetative and reproductive parts (4) Seasonal similarities and variations

Q41. The order generally ends with

(1) ales (2) aceae (3) eae (4) none of these

Q42. Select the correct classification for the given plant.

Division Class Order Family

(1) Plantae Angiospermae Asterales Asteraceae
(2) Angiospermae Dicotyledonae Asterales Asteraceae
(3) Angiospermae Dicotyledonae Polymoniales Compositae
(4) Dicotyledonae Asteraceae Asterales Compositae

Q43. Which is the odd one in the following series?

(1) sapiens (2) americana (3) rotundus (4) Hemidactylus
Q44. Match the items given in column I with those in column II and select the correct option given
below.
Column I Column II
A. Herbarium (i) It is a place having a collection of preserved plants and animals.
B. Key (ii) A list that enumerates methodically all the species found in an
area with brief description aiding identification
C. Museum (iii) Is a place where dried and pressed plant specimens mounted on
sheets are kept.
D. Catalogue (iv) A booklet containing a list of characters and their alternates which
are helpful in identification of various taxa.
A B C D
(1) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(2) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(3) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

Q45. Which one of the taxonomic aids can give comprehensive account of complete compiled
information of any one genus or family at a particular time?
(1) Taxonomic key (2) Flora (3) Herbarium (4) Monograph

Q 46. Mode of feeding in free living protozoan, is

(a) Holozoic (b) Saprozoic (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these

Q 47. Osmoregulation in 𝑷𝒂𝒓𝒂𝒎𝒆𝒄𝒊𝒖𝒎 is a function of

(a) Contractile vacuole (b) Trichocysts (c) Cytopyge (d) Cytostome

Q 48. Plasmodium
(a) Is a malarial parasite (b) Is a filarial parasite
(c) Cause sleeping sickness (d) Causes food poisoning

Q 49. Which of the following is a non-hypal unicellular fungus ?

(a) Yeast (b) Puccinia (c) Ustilago (d) Alternaria

Q 50. Cell wall of fungi is made up of

(a) Fungal cellulose (b) Hemicellulose
(c) Fungal Chitin (d) Both (a) and (c)

Q 51. Insectivorous plants are principally

(a) Autotrophic (b) Heterotrophic (c) Parasitic (d) Pathogenic
Q 52. Plants have a/an.... in their life cycle
(a) Sexual phase only (b) Asexual phase onl
(c) Alternation of generations (d) Haplontic

Q 53. Which of the following protist release toxins that may even kill fishes and other marine
animal ?
(a) Euglena (b) Gonyaulax (c) Paramecium (d) Plasmodium

Q 54. Retroviruses have genetic material

(a) DNA only (b) RNA only
(c) DNA or RNA only (d) Either DNA or RNA only

Q 55. Viruses did not find a place in classification since

(a) They are not truely living (b) They are non-cellular
(c) They are obligate parasite (d) They are pathogenic

Q 56. Bacteria differ from plants in that they do not have

(a) DNA (b) RNA (c) Cell Wall (d) A well define nucleus

Q 57. Bacterial flagella do not show ATPase activity and 9+2 organization. These are chemically
formed of
(a) Flagellin (b) Pilin (c) Tubulin (d) Bacterin

Q 58. Substances secreted by bacteria are

(a) Proteins (b) Toxins (c) Interferons (d) Antibiotics

Q 59. Some bacteria thrive extreme environment conditions such as absence of oxygen, high salt
concentration, high temperature and acidic pH. Identify the type of bacteria
(a) Cyanobacteria (b) Eubacteria (c) Archaebacteria (d) Mycobacteria

Q 60. Citrus canker is a

(a) Viral disease (b) Bacterial disease
(c) Fungal disease (d) Protozoan disease
UDAAN INDIA mini TEST SERIES