1. You are performing a preschool examination on your patient.

You have just taken his vital

signs, height, and weight. Which phase of the nursing process do these activities describe?
a. Assessment
b. Planning
c. Implementation
d. Evaluation
2. What activities are performed during the assessment phase of the nursing process?
a. Identifying actual/potential health problems
b. Determining short- and long-term goals
c. Establishing patient outcomes
d. Collecting data
3. You are working as a community health nurse, teaching a drug awareness program to fifth-
grade students at a local school. Which level of preventive healthcare does this situation
exemplify?
a. Primary
b. Secondary
c.Tertiary
4. You are working in home care, caring for a hospice patient. Which level of preventive
healthcare does this situation exemplify?
a. Primary
b. Secondary
c.Tertiary
5. In which situation would a focused assessment be most appropriate?
a. New admission scheduled for a total knee replacement
b. Patient admitted with chest pain
c. College student health exam
d. New employee physical exam
6. When obtaining a health history, what would be the appropriate distance between you and
the patient?
a. 0–18 inches
b. 1–2 feet
c. 3–4 feet
d. 5–12 feet
7. Which of the following is the best example of an open-ended question?
a. Are you having chest pain?
b. What does the pain feel like?
c. Do you have pain in your arm?
d. Did you take any medications?
8. You are obtaining an admission history, and you say, “As you were saying, you came to the
hospital for …” This statement is an example of:
a. Redirecting
b. Restating
c. Focusing
d. Reflection
9. Which of the following tasks are performed during the working phase of an interview?
a. Explaining purpose of the interview
b. Collecting data
c. Setting the time frame
d. Summarizing data
10. You are performing a cardiac assessment on your patient and you think you hear a murmur,
but you are not sure. What would be the best way to validate your finding?
a. Listen again
b. Check the patient chart
c. Have colleague or physician listen
d. Ask family member if patient has murmur

1. Which part of the assessment provides the most subjective data?

A) Health history
B) Physical assessment
C) Review of medical records
D) Medication record

2. Data for the health history are gathered from:

A) The patient's chart.
B) A physical assessment.
C) Laboratory tests.
D) A discussion with the patient.

3. The purpose of the health history is to identify:

A) Actual health problems.
B) Potential health problems.
C) Discharge needs.
D) All of the above.

4. The best question to begin a complete health history with is:

A) “What problem brought you here today?”
B) “How old are you?”
C) “Have you had any difficulty breathing?”
D) “What childhood illnesses have you had?”

5. The purpose of taking the family history is to identify:

A) Functional or dysfunctional family dynamics.
B) Support systems.
C) Familial or genetically linked health disorders.
D) Rehabilitation needs.

6. Which data are part of the past health history?

A) Health beliefs
B) Surgeries
C) Genetically linked diseases
D) Age of siblings

7. It is appropriate to use the focused health history when a patient:

A) Is in respiratory distress.
B) Presents for a follow-up appointment.
C) Is in acute pain.
D) All of the above.

8. What is the minimum amount of time that should be allotted for a complete health
history?
A) 15 minutes
B) 30 minutes
C) 45 minutes
D) 60 minutes

9. The purpose of the nursing health history is to determine:

A) The patient's response to the health problem.
B) The extent of the health problem.
C) Which medications are appropriate to alleviate the health problem.
D) All of the above.

10. Which setting is the best place to gather data for a health history?
A) Waiting room
B) Hallway
C) Patient's room
D) On the way to surgery

11. Choose the best body position for the nurse to have while obtaining the health history:
A) Leaning over the bed.
B) Standing at the bedside.
C) Sitting on the bed.
D) Sitting on a chair at the bedside.
13. The “P” in the mnemonic “PQRST” stands for:
A) Pain.
B) Purpose.
C) Precipitating.
D) Pinpoint.

14. An appropriate tool to use when assessing level of pain in young children is to:
A) Ask them to point to where it hurts.
B) Ask them to describe the pain on a scale from 0 to 10.
C) Ask them to draw a picture of the hurt.
D) Ask then to use a FACES scale to describe the pain.

15. What is the purpose of taking a past health history?

A) To identify chronic health problems
B) To list health factors from the past that may affect current health problems
C) To identify additional health risks caused by pre-existing conditions
D) All of the above

16. Which theorist defined cognitive developmental stages?

A) Jean Piaget
B) Abraham Maslow
C) Erik Erikson
D) Sigmund Freud

17. A patient's health practices and beliefs are part of the:

A) Psychosocial profile.
B) Current health problem.
C) Past health problem.
D) Developmental considerations.

18. Asking a patient about her or his occupation is important to assist in identifying:
A) Insurance coverage.
B) Possible health risks.
C) Genetic mutations.
D) Developmental tasks.
20. All of the following guidelines apply when documenting a health history except:
A) Being accurate and objective.
B) Writing in complete sentences with proper punctuation.
C) Using standard medical abbreviations.
D) Dating and signing documentation.

15. When describing the expansion of the depth and scope of nursing assessment over the
past several decades, what would the nurse identify as being the primary force?
A) Documentation
B) Informatics
C) Diversification
D) Technology

16. A group of nurses is reviewing information about the potential opportunities for nurses
who have advanced assessment skills. When discussing phenomena that have contributed to
these increased opportunities, what should the nurses identify?
A) Expansion of health care networks
B) Decrease in client participation in care
C) The shrinking cost of medical care
D) Public mistrust of physicians

17. A nurse has documented the findings of a comprehensive assessment of a new client.
What is the primary rationale that the nurse should identify for accurate and thorough
documentation?
A) Guaranteeing a continual assessment process
B) Identifying abnormal data
C) Assuring valid conclusions from analyzed data
D) Allowing for drawing inferences and identifying problems

18. A nurse has received a report on a client who will soon be admitted to the medical unit
from the emergency department. When preparing for the assessment phase of the nursing
process, what should the nurse do first?
A) Collect objective data.
B) Validate important data.
C) Collect subjective data.
D) Document the data.

23. A nurse is completing an assessment that will involve gathering subjective and objective
data. Which assessment technique will best allow the nurse to collect objective data?
A) Inspection
B) Therapeutic communication
C) Interviewing
D) Active listening

1. The steps in the nursing process include:

A) Assessment, strategic planning, negotiating, implementation, and evaluation.
B) History, planning, goal setting, and evaluation.
C) Current medical history, past medical history, and review of systems.
D) Assessment, diagnosis, planning, implementation, and evaluation.

2. Which of the following statements best describes the assessment step in the nursing
process?
A) Data are analyzed to identify actual and potential health problems.
B) This step sets the tone for the rest of the nursing process.
C) This step involves setting goals and outcomes.
D) The patient's response is assessed based on set outcome criteria.

3. After gathering data, the nurse should:

A) Formulate potential nursing diagnoses.
B) Formulate actual nursing diagnoses.
C) Cluster the data into categories.
D) Make a plan.

4. Which step ensures that the assessment data are correct before proceeding with the
nursing process?
A) Clustering data
B) Validation
C) Implementation
D) Evaluation

5. A preoperative patient is a two-pack-a-day smoker. What type of nursing diagnosis does

the patient have related to airway problems during and after surgery?
A) Actual
B) Potential
C) Possible
D) Collaborative

6. Which diagnosis is a wellness diagnosis?

A) Body image disturbance
B) Risk for aspiration
C) Ineffective breastfeeding
D) Health-seeking behaviors

7. Planning should occur after:

A) Nursing diagnoses are prioritized.
B) Nursing diagnoses are identified.
C) Goals are set.
D) Evaluation has occurred.

8. Nursing actions are carried out during which step of the nursing process?
A) Assessment
B) Planning
C) Implementation
D) Evaluation

9. The nursing process uses which of the following approaches to problem solving?
A) Trial-and-error
B) Reflexive thinking
C) Intuition
D) Scientific method

10. What types of skills are most important in performing a physical assessment?
A) Psychomotor
B) Interpersonal
C) Ethical
D) Affective

17. During the initial assessment interview, the nurse should allow for how much personal
space?
A) 0–18 inches
B) 18 inches–3 feet
C) 4–12 feet
D) 12 or more feet

18. When utilizing an interpreter while taking the history, the nurse should realize:
A) The interview may take additional time.
B) Confidential content may not be covered.
C) Relatives are the best interpreters.
D) Children are the best interpreters.

19. A 25-year-old female patient complains of acute pain in her abdomen. The nurse
touches her arm and she recoils. The nurse should recognize that touch:
A) Increases pain sensation.
B) Is offensive to most individuals.
C) Is very personal and should be avoided.
D) Is interpreted differently by each culture.

20. Restating the patient's main idea demonstrates that the nurse:
A) Is unclear about the patient's main complaint.
B) Is hard of hearing.
C) Is giving instructions.
D) Understands the patient's concerns.

21. Which of the following statements best demonstrates empathy?

A) “Ouch! I bet that hurts.”
B) “I understand that is painful.”
C) “Be brave. It will only hurt for a second.”
D) “On a scale from 1 to 10, how much does that hurt?”

22. Joe Keller, age 70, is brought to the emergency room with the chief complaint of chest
pain for the past hour. Which question would be most useful in eliciting Mr. Keller's chief
complaint?
A) Are you having chest pain?
B) Is the chest pain sharp?
C) Does the chest pain radiate to your arm?
D) What does the pain feel like?

23. What is the most effective way to assess the severity of Mr. Keller's pain?
A) Ask him what it feels like.
B) Ask him what makes it feel better.
C) Ask him to rate the pain on a scale of 0 to 10, with 10 being the worst.
D) Ask him what makes it feel worse.

24. Which type of question would be most effective in obtaining a patient's perception of
his or her problem?
A) Open-ended question
B) Closed-ended question
C) Leading question
D) Probing question

25. During the interview, a patient states that she or he doesn't use many drugs. The nurse's
best response to this statement is:
A) “Tell me about the drugs you use now.”
B) “To some people, six or seven is not many.”
C) “Do you mean legal drugs or illegal ones?”
D) “What kind of drugs are you talking about?”

26. During the interview, a patient tells the nurse that he rarely sleeps more than 4 hours a
night and hasn't experienced any problems because of lack of sleep. An appropriate response
by the nurse is:
A) “Okay, I see.”
B) “That can't be true, is it?”
C) “That's awful. Anyone needs more sleep than that.”
D) “Did I understand that you sleep only 4 hours every night?”

27. During a routine examination, your client expresses concern about breast cancer. You
determine that she has health-seeking behaviors related to breast cancer. Which phase of the
nursing process does this statement describe?
A) Assessment
B) Planning
C) Nursing diagnosis
D) Implementation

28. What type of nursing diagnosis would need further supportive data for validation?
A) Actual
B) Impending
C) Potential
D) Possible

29. A collaborative diagnosis differs from others in that a collaborative diagnosis needs:
A) Further data to support diagnosis
B) Both medical and nursing interventions
C) Only medical interventions
D) Preventative measures
32. During which phase of the nursing process do you develop patient outcomes?
A) Assessment
B) Nursing diagnosis
C) Planning
D) Implementation

5. A nurse has gathered the necessary equipment for the physical assessment of an adult
client. It would be most appropriate for a nurse to use a centimeter-scale ruler for which
measurement?
A) Mid-arm circumference
B) Client's height
C) Skin lesion size
D) Pupillary size

6. The nurse is preparing to assess an older adult client's near vision. The nurse would use
which piece of equipment for the assessment?
A) Newspaper
B) Snellen E chart
C) Ophthalmoscope
D) Penlight

8. The nurse is examining an older adult client. The nurse would use a goniometer for
which assessment?
A) Extremity edema
B) Joint flexion/extension
C) Two-point discrimination
D) Vibratory sensation

10. The nurse is preparing to perform a physical examination on a female client who has
been transferred to the medical unit from the emergency department. The nurse should begin
the collection of objective data with which examination?
A) Head and neck examination
B) Palpation of lymph nodes
C) Breast examination
D) Vital signs

1. Physical assessment provides which type of data?

A) Subjective
B) Objective
C) Past medical history
D) Current medical history

2. When is it appropriate to utilize the focused physical assessment?

A) During the initial assessment for a yearly exam
B) On admission to the hospital for surgery
C) On admission of a patient in acute respiratory distress
D) All of the above

3. Anthropometrical measurements include:

A) Height and weight.
B) Blood pressure and temperature.
C) Pulse and respirations.
D) All of the above.

4. Mercury thermometers and sphygmomanometers have been replaced by other

equipment in many healthcare settings. This is because of:
A) Difficulty with calibration,
B) Difficulty with sterilization,
C) Mercury toxicity,
D) Poor results,

5. The correct method for taking an adult's temperature, using a tympanic thermometer, is
to:
A) Pull the helix up and back.
B) Pull the helix down and back.
C) Pull the helix horizontally to straighten the ear canal.
D) Not move the canal out of normal anatomical position.

6. The average length of a stethoscope is 22 to 27 inches. If the tubing is longer, the sound
will be:
A) Louder.
B) Softer.
C) Higher pitched.
D) Lower pitched.
1. A nurse is completing the intake assessment of an older adult who has just relocated to
a long-term care facility. Which nursing action would be most important to ensure accurate
data when gathering the resident's information?
A) Documenting the data
B) Validating the data
C) Identifying client support systems
D) Determining client needs

2. A nurse is assessing a female client whose worsening sciatica has prompted her to seek
care. Which client statement would the nurse most likely need to validate?
A) “I don't generally have problems with pain.”
B) “I feel very weak and tired right now.”
C) “I've had two caesarean deliveries.”
D) “My mother died of breast cancer in her 60s.”

4. When describing the importance of documenting initial assessment data to a group of

new nurses, what would the nurse emphasize as the primary reason?
A) Health care institutions have established policies regarding documentation.
B) Incorrect conclusions may be made without documentation of the nurse's opinions.
C) It satisfies legal standards established by health care organizations and institutions.
D) It becomes the foundation for the entire nursing process.

5. A nurse has documented the nursing history and physical examination of a client. This
health information is best described as which of the following?
A) Subjective data and objective data
B) Interpretation and inference
C) Observation and inspection
D) Data and results
2. Which section of the health history can be documented as a genogram?
a. Chief complaint
b. Past health history
c. Family history
d. Current health status

4. When obtaining a family history, who does not need to be included in the genogram?
a. Spouse
b. Siblings
c. In-laws
d. Aunts/uncles

5. What is the purpose of the review of systems in the health history?

a. Identify actual problems
b. Determine cause of current problem
c. Identify current/past health of systems
d. Validate current symptoms

9. What part of the health history identifies the source and reliability?
a. Biographical data
b.Current health status
c. Chief complaint
d.Past medical history

1. What would you tell a patient who is about to undergo FBS test?
a. The patient should fast for 8 hours before the test. All diabetes mellitus
(DM) medications are withheld until the test is completed.
b. The patient should eat a regular meal but refrain from ingesting sugarbeverages.
c. The patient should eat a regular meal, including ingesting sugarbeverages.
d. The patient should eat a bland meal and refrain from ingesting sugarbeverages.

5. What does the transcutaneous bilirubin meter measure?

a. It is a handheld meter that helps determine if the newborn has jaundice.
b. It measures the level of bilirubin by being placed on the skin.
c. It measures the level of bilirubin in a newborn.
d. All of the above.

10. What is done if a patient is anxious about being placed in a CT scanner?

a. Administer a sedative per order.
b. Cancel the test.
c. Wait for a calmer moment to administer the test.
d. Tell the patient to behave like an adult.
16. What should be done with the fi rst urine during a 24-hour urine collection?
a. It should be refrigerated.
b. It should be stored in a gallon container.
c. It should be discarded.
d. All of the above

17. Why is a perfusion CT ordered?

a. To determine osteoporosis
b. To assess the results of the KUB
c. To determine blood supply to the brain
d. None of the above

18. What is a fi rst-pass scan?

a. Captures images of blood going through the heart and lungs for the first time
b. A type of cardiac blood pool scan
c. A procedure that uses a radioactive tracer
d. All of the above

20. Why stop taking Coumadin before a bone biopsy?

a. Coumadin increases coagulation time, thereby increasing the risk of bleeding during the
procedure.
b. Coumadin decreases coagulation time, thereby increasing the risk of bleeding during the
procedure.
c. Coumadin has a negative reaction to anesthetic administered during the procedure.
d. Coumadin has a negative reaction to the antibiotic that is administered following the
procedure.

21. What does the total thyroxine test measure?

a. The total amount of thyroxine that is missing from the patient
b. The amount of thyroxine that is not bound to globulin
c. The amount of thyroxine that is attached to globulin and that is not bound to globulin
d. All of the above

25. What might you suspect if the patient’s urine is cloudy?

a. The patient is dehydrated.
b. The patient has taken Pepto-Bismol.
c. Bacterial infection.
d. The patient is overhydrated.

26. What hormone does the renin cause to be released?

a. Aldosterone
b. Cortisol
c. Phenytoin
d. Dexamethasone

32. Aside from renal failure, what would a high BUN level indicate?
a. Shock
b. Urinary tract blockage
c. Respiratory tract bleeding
d. All of the above

33. What is the function of an MRA?

a. Assess the speed, direction, and flow of blood
b. Assess fluid content of the brain
c. Assess changes in the brain chemistry
d. All of the above

34. Why should you assess if the patient has taken antibiotics before testing for
potassium?
a. Taking antibiotics indicates that the patient has a bacterial infection.
b. Some antibiotics contain potassium.
c. Patients who take antibiotics always have higher than normal levels of potassium.
d. Patients might vomit during the test.

35. What must be assessed before administering the BUN test?

a. Age of the patient
b. If the patient has taken diuretics
c. If the patient has ingested meat
d. All of the above

38. Why is not the Mantoux skin test used to diagnose tuberculosis?
a. A positive result indicates that the patient has developed antibodies to
Mycobacterium tuberculosis antigen possibly from a previous exposure to M tuberculosis.
b. A negative result indicates that the patient has not developed antibodies to M tuberculosis
antigen; however the immune system can take up to 10 weeks to develop the antibodies
following the infection.
c. Diagnosis is made using an X-ray.
d. All of the above.

39. What test measures creatinine in 24-hour urine sample?

a. Creatinine clearance test
b. Creatinine level test
c. BUN: creatinine level test
d. None of the above

46. The spirometry test measures

a. The amount of gasses that cross the alveoli per minute
b. The patient’s airway responses to allergens
c. Volume and capacity of the lungs
d. None of the above

56. Why is a pillow placed under the patient’s shoulders during a thyroid gland
biopsy?
a. This prevents the patient from moving during the procedure.
b. This causes the thyroid gland to be pushed backward.
c. This causes the thyroid gland to be pushed forward.
d. This assures that the patient’s airway is open during the procedure.

84. Why is the fructose level in semen measured?

a. Fructose prevents sperm motility
b. Fructose provides energy for sperm
c. Fructose reduces sperm count
d. Fructose increase semen volume

85. Why would the uric acid blood test be ordered?

a. To assess treatment for hypouricemia
b. To screen for uric acid kidney stones
c. To assess for inflammation
d. To assess for infection

80. A PET scan helps the healthcare provider diagnose

a. Transient ischemic attack
b. Multiple sclerosis
c. Cancer
d. All of the above

88. Why would the prothrombin time test be ordered?

a. Risk for bleeding
b. Therapeutic level of Coumadin
c. Vitamin K defi ciency
d. All of the above
89. Why is oxytocin administered during a contraction stress test?
a. To lower blood press of the fetus
b. To stop contractions
c. To induce contractions
d. To keep the fetus from moving
MATCHING TYPE

1. a. The patient fasts for 8 hours. All DM medications are withheld until the
test is completed.
2. b. Rest for 30 minutes.
3. d. All of the above.
4. a. Avoid eating and drinking except for water 12 hours before the test is
administered.
5. d. All of the above.
6. a. Assesses bladder function.
7. a. Glucophage may react with contrast material.
8. d. All of the above.
9. a. It removes the outer layer of skin enabling new skin to grow.
10. a. Administer a sedative per order.
11. b. By using the salivary gland scan.
12. a. Troponin and CPK-MB.
13. a. Renin.
14. a. The carcinoembryonic antigen is normally present during fetal
development and is terminated at birth. It is present if there is a tumor.
608 Nursing Lab and Diagnostic Tests Demystifi ed
15. a. The patient has arthritis.
16. c. It should be discarded.
17. c. To determine blood supply to the brain.
18. d. All of the above.
19. b. May have Tay-Sachs disease.
20. b. Coumadin decreases coagulation time, thereby increasing the risk of
bleeding during the procedure.
21. c. The amount of thyroxine that is attached to globulin and that is not
bound to globulin.
22. a. FSH test.
23. c. To encourage healing.
24. c. Prolactin levels are normally high when the patient fi rst awakens.
25. c. Bacterial infection.
26. a. Aldosterone.
27. b. To determine if the DM patient has been maintaining adequate blood
glucose level for the previous 120 days.
28. a. To assess patients’ ability to see distances when they are unable to read.
29. c. Dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry.
30. d. All of the above.
31. a. A sedative may invalidate the test results because it might slow down
respiration.
32. d. All of the above.
33. a. To assess the speed, direction, and fl ow of blood.
34. b. Some antibiotics contain potassium.
 35. d. All of the above.
36. a. Skin patch test.
37. a. The patient is at high risk for breast cancer and the MRI provides high,
detailed views of the patient’s breasts.
38. d. All of the above.
39. a. Creatinine clearance test.
40. a. The patient might have diffi culty excreting the contrast material.
41. d. All of the above.
42. d. All of the above.
Medical Tests and Procedures Demystifi ed 609
43. a. This test identifi es heterophil antibodies that form between 2 and 9
weeks after the patient becomes infected.
44. c. Total hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy.
45. b. Tracer material helps map the route through which cancer cells spread
from the cancer site through the lymphatic system.
46. c. Volume and capacity of the lungs.
47. a. Allen test.
48. d. All of the above.
49. b. To generate an image of the heart that is not obstructed by bone.
50. c. Bacterial vaginosis.
51. a. Depend on the patient’s age, height, sex, weight, and race.
52. a. The entire skin lesion is removed.
53. d. All of the above.
54. b. Will not show symptoms of carbon monoxide poisoning.
55. a. The upper segment of the vagina collapses and extends outside the vagina.
56. c. This causes the thyroid gland to be pushed forward.
57. b. Metabolic alkalosis.
58. a. A radioactive tracer being injected into a blood vessel.
59. b. A needle is inserted through the urethra to remove samples of prostate
tissue.
60. c. Tenaculum clamp.
61. c. Metabolic acidosis.
62. b. Lung scan.
63. c. Identifi es the anti-cardiolipin antibodies.
64. a. Carbon monoxide test.
65. a. An ambulatory electrocardiogram.
66. a. A procedure performed to assess for testicular cancer.
67. c. Breast lift.
68. a. Measures the ejection fraction of the heart.
69. b. If there is a suspicious result on a mammogram.
70. c. Determines the presence of H pylori in the stomach.
71. b. The tracer is likely to pass to the baby in breast milk.
610 Nursing Lab and Diagnostic Tests Demystifi ed
72. c. The number of particles of substances that are dissolved in the serum.
 73. a. A sputum cytology studies cells contained in the sputum and a sputum
culture identifi es microorganism in the sputum.
74. a. To assess the velocity and direction of blood fl owing through the penis.
75. a. Does not have to have a full bladder for the test.
76. c. Fetal blood cells are being attacked by the mother’s antibodies.
77. a. To screen for anemia.
78. a. The patient has arthritis.
79. a. To measure the eardrum’s response to pressure and sound.
80. d. All of the above.
81. a. Pilocarpine helps to draw sweat from the newborn.
82. c. Sterile water is inserted into the bladder using a urinary catheter.
83. c. A score that compares the patient’s bone mineral density with that of
people his/her own age, sex, and race.
84. b. Fructose provides energy to sperm.
85. b. To screen for uric acid kidney stones.
86. d. Otoacoustic emissions test.
87. a. The time necessary for semen to liquefy.
88. d. All of the above.
89. c. To induce contractions.
90. b. Have a full bladder before the test.
91. a. Sonogram.
92. b. Speech reception/Word recognition.
93. a. Highlights growths found during a testicle examination.
94. a. The fontanelles are closed.
95. d. All of the above.
96. d. All of the above.
97. b. Notify the healthcare provider.
98. d. Assess the patient’s overall health.
99. b. The snap gauge consisting of a fi lm is placed around the penis. The fi lm
snaps when the patient has erection.
100. a. Higher risk of infection following surgery
Identifying Data A. Includes patient’s thoughts and feelings about the illness
Reliability B. Risk factors
Chief Complaint(s) C. May include a genogram
Present Illness D. Establishes source of referral
Past History E. Documents personal/social history and daily living routines
Family History F. One or more major symptoms or concerns
Review of Systems G. Systemic documentation of presence or absence of common
symptoms
Health Patterns H. Varies according to the patient’s memory, trust, and mood

What hormone signals the adrenal glands to release aldosterone?

a. Renin
b. Cortisol
c. Phenytoin
d. Dexamethasone

What test helps diagnose precocious puberty?

a. FSH test
b. AFP
c. hCG
d. Inhibin A

What hormone does the renin cause to be released?

a. Aldosterone
b. Cortisol
c. Phenytoin
d. Dexamethasone

What allergy test requires that an allergen-containing pad be applied to the

patient’s skin?
a. Skin patch test
b. Skin prick test
c. Intradermal test
d. Q patch test

What test measures creatinine in 24-hour urine sample?

a. Creatinine clearance test
b. Creatinine level test
c. BUN:creatinine level test
d. None of the above

What test is performed before drawing an arterial blood sample?

a. Allen test
b. Collection test
c. Acid-alkaline test
d. None of the above

What is used to hold the cervix in place during an endometrial biopsy?

a. Braca clamp
b. Spectrum clamp
c. Tenaculum clamp
d. Braca2 clamp

What test is performed if the healthcare provider suspects pulmonary

emboli?
a. Bronchoscopy
b. Lung scan
c. Pulmonary function test
d. Thoracotomy

What test measure carboxyhemoglobin level in the blood?

a. Carbon monoxide test
b. Total carbon dioxide test
c. Arterial blood gases
d. None of the above

What test is performed to determine if the patient has sensorineural hearing

loss?
a. Pure-tone audiometry
b. Speech reception/Word recognition
c. Whispered speech test
d. Otoacoustic emissions test

The type of data that can be described only by the person experiencing it is
[subjective;objective;summative]

[INTERVIEW;interview;Interview] planned, purposeful conversation between a nurse and a patient.

[Nursing diagnosis;NURSING DIAGNOSIS;Nursing Diagnosis] is the statement of a patient’s

potential or actual alteration of health status.

[Planning;planning;PLANNING] is the phase of the nursing process that involves determining

beforehand the strategies or course of actions to be taken before implementation of nursing care.
[nursing care plan;Nursing Care Plan;Nursing care plan;NURSING CARE PLAN] is a written
summary of the care that a patient is to receive. It is the “blueprint” of nursing process

During [Assessment;assessment;ASSESSMENT ] subjective and objective data gathered initially during

the health history and physical examination and the additional information collected on a daily basis.
[Nonverbal communication;NONVERBAL COMMUNICATION;nonverbal communication ] occurs
continuously and provides important clues to feelings and emotions

[Active listening;active listening;ACTIVE LISTENING ] is closely attending to what the patient is

communicating

[Guided questioning;GUIDED QUESTIONING;guided questioning ] is an option for expanding and

clarifying the patient’s story

[VALIDATION;validation;Validation] acknowledging the legitimacy of the patient’s emotional

experience