1) Each Question Carries 2 Marks. 2) Every Correct Answer Has Weightage of 2 Marks

KIET GROUP OF INSTITUTIONS
(KIET SCHOOL OF PHARMACY)

B. Pharm, 6thSemester
Online PUE-1 Examination, (2020-2021) Even Semester
(MEDICINAL CHEMISTRY-III) (BP601T)
Duration: 60 minutes Max. Marks:
100
NOTE:
1) Each question carries 2 marks.
2) Every correct answer has weightage of 2 marks
(100x2=200)
Q. No. Question Marks CO BL
1 Identify the sugar present in the peptidoglycan layer of gram positive 2 1 1
bacteria?
a N-acetylglucosamine
bN-acetylmuramic acid
c Both of above
d None of above
2 Show the naturally occurring penicillins out of following? 2 1 1
a. 6-Aminopenicillanic acid
b. Benzyl penicillin
c. Phenoxymethyl penicillin
d. All of the above
3 Relate nucleus which is present in beta lactam antibiotics? 2 1 2
a. Azetidinone
b. Diazetidinone
c. Pyrrolidine
d. Imidazoline
4 Identify the percentage absorption of intact amoxicillin? 2 1 1
a. 15-30
b. 30-50
c. 60-73
d. 75-90
5 Select the mode of action of Clavulanic acid? 2 1 1
a. Beta – lactamase inhibitors

b. Cell wall synthesis inhibitors
c. Inhibit protein synthesis
d. Inhibit DNA synthesis
6 Identify the macrolide is used in treatment of Clostridium difficile 2 2 1

associated diarrhoea?
a. Azithromycin
b. Erythromycin
c. Fidaxomicin
d. All the above
Locate the antibiotic trades under the name Biaxin? 2 2 1

7
a. Azithromycin
b. Telithromycin
c. Erythromycin
d. Clarithromycin
8 Predict the macrolide is used to treat lung infections 2 2 5
a. Azithromycin
b. Erythromycin
c. All the mentioned choices
d. Clarithromycin
9 Identify the macrolide does not inhibit CYP3A4? 2 2 1
a. Azithromycin
b. Telithromycin
c. Erythromycin
d. Clarithromycin
10 Mark the selection of side effects associated with Chloramphenicol. 2 2 1
a. Grey baby syndrome
b. Blood dyscrasias
c. Aplastic anaemia
d. All of the given options
11 Mechanism of action of isoniazid is shown by which of the following 2 3 1
a. Inhibition of Protein synthesis
b. Inhibition of nucleic acid synthesis
c. Inhibition of RNA synthesis
d. Inhibition of ADP synthesis
12 Select the antimycobacterial agent having pyrazine as basic 2 3 3

heterocyclic ring
a. Pyrazine
b. Ethambutol
c. Isoniazid
d. Pyrimethamine
13 Identify functional group is present in isoniazid. 2 3 1
a. Carboxamide
b. Carbonyl group
c. Carboxylic group
d. Carbohydrazide
14 Which of the following antitubercular drug is also used in treatment 2 3 1

of leprosy.
a. Ethambutol
b. Diazepam
c. Haldol
d. Isoniazid
15 Identify thecharacterstic feature of second line antitubercular drug. 2 3 1
a. High efficacy, High potency, Less side effect
b. Low efficacy, High potency, Less side effect
c. High efficacy, Low potency, Less side effect
d. Low efficacy, Low potency, More side effect
16 Mark the derivative of adamantine. 2 4 1
a. Didanozine
b. Rimantadine
c. Gancyclovir
d. Foscarnet
17 Evaluate which of the following is not used for the treatment of tinea 2 4 5
pedis.
a. Clotrimoxazole
b. Ciclopirox
c. Nystatin
d. Terbinafine
18 Select an antibiotic having amoebicidal activity? 2 4 3

a. Dihydrothiazine
b. Tetracyclins
c Carbapenems
d Penicillins
19 Which of the following anthelmintics is a natural product? 2 4 1
a. Ivermectin
b. Emetine
c. Digitalis
d. Quinidine
20 Identify the heterocyclic ring present in Chloroquine is 2 4 1
a. Isoquinoline
b. Quinoline
c. Pyrimidine
d. Quinazoline
21 Show the value for regression coefficient for perfect fit 2 5 1
a. 0.1
b. 1
c. 10
d. 100
22 What does symbol pi represent in QSAR equation 2 5
a. Hydrophobicity of the molecule
b. Electronic effect on the substituent
c. Substituent hydrophobicity constant
d. Measures of steric properties of the substituent

23 Evaluate the representation of symbol P in QSAR 2 5 5
a. PH
b. Partition Coefficient
c. Plasma Concentration
d. Prodrug
24 Ratio of molar concentration of substance in ionised form and 2 5 2

unionised form is called
a. Dissociation Constant
b. Complexation
c. Chelation
d. None of above
25 Select a compound which is capable of forming ring with metal. 2 5 5
a. Heterocyclic ring
b. Legend
c. Chelation
d. All the above
26 Tetracycline inhibition of protein synthesis binds to ......... 2 1 2
a. 16s r RNA
b. 28s rRNA
c. 30 s rRNA
d.40s rRNA
27 Identify the functional group necessary for antibacterial activity of 2 1 1

tetracycline
a. A cis A/B –ring fusion
b. Hydroxyl group at C-12 a

c. Both of above
d. None of above
28 Bacterial resistance to aminoglycosides antibiotics produce by which 2 1 1

enzymes?
a. N-acetylate
b. O-phosphorylate
c. O- adenylate
d. All of above
29 Mark the fungus that get fermented to produce neomycin. 2 1 1
a. Streptomyces fradiae
b. Micromonospora purpura
c. Streptomyces Kanamyceticus
d. Streptomyces tenebrarius
30 Show pharmacophore available in streptomycin? 2 1 1
a. Streptamine
b. 2-deoxystreptamine
c. Spectinamine
d. Streptadine
31 Show the mechanism of action of Trimethoprim 2 4 1
a. Inhibition of dihydropteroate reductase
b. Inhibition of cyclooxygenase
c. Activation of DNA gyrase
d. All the above
32 Analyse which of the following are not short acting sulphonamides 2 4 5

a. Sulphamethoxazole
b. Sulphafuraole
c. Sulphadimidine
d. Sulphapyridine
33 Show the IUPAC name of N4 -7 –chloroquinolin-4-yl- N1, N1- 2 4 1

diethylpentane-1,4-diamine
a. Chloroquine
b. Pamaquine
c. Primaquine
d. Mefloquine
34 Evaluate the antimalarial agent having pyrimidine ring. 2 4 5
a. Mefloquine
b. Pyrimethamine
c. Quinidine
d. Chloroquine
35 Select the Anthelminthic drug which is amide derivative. 2 4 3
a. Praziquantel
b. Mebendazole
c. Piperazine
d. Niclosamide
36 Entecavir is analogue of ....... 2 3 2
a. Guanosine analogue
b. Cytosine analogue
c. Thymine analogue
d. Aniline analogue
37 Mark the drug used as an urinary antiseptic. 2 3 1
a. nalidixic acid
b. ciprofloxacin
c. ofloxacin
d. levofloxacin
38 Show the fluoroquinoline derivative which is used with the 2 3 1

combination of anti tubercular drug.
a. Ofloxacin
b. Moxifloxacin
c. Sparfloxacin
d. All the above
39 Select the fluoroquinoline group facilitate the drug entry into gram 2 3 5
negative bacteria.
a. COOH
b. OH
c. CHO
d. all the above
40 Identify the year in which Ciprofloxacin and its analogues are 2 3 1

introduced?
a. 1975
b. 1977
c. 1980
d. 1990
41 Identify the complex formed by Isoniazid and Pyridoxine 2 2 1
a. Hydrazone
b. Horazone
c. B Complex
d. Chillate
42 Mark the condition in which Vitamin B6 is administered along with 2 2 1

isoniazid
a. Jaundice
b. Diarrhoea
c. Peripheral neuropathy
d. All of them
43 Show causative agent for leprosy 2 2 1
a. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
b. Mycobacterium leprae
c. Clostridium tetani
d. None of above
44 Select the drug that is effective against mycobacteria only. 2 2 5
a. Isoniazid
b. Streptomycin
c. Rifampin
d. Kanamycin
45 Evaluate a drug which is not a derivative of 4-amino quinoline. 2 2 5
a. Hydroxychloroquine
b. Chloroquine
c. Amiodiaquine
d. Primaquine
46 Mark the force that is involved in solubilisation of a compound. 2 5 1
a. Vanderwaals forces
b. Dipole dipole
c. Ionic bond
d All the above
47 Same number of atom or bond with different spatial arrangement are 2 5 5

justified by
a. Optical isomerism
b. Stereo Isomerism
c. Geometric isomerism
d. None of above
48 Different protein subunit in a multiprotein complex are outlined by 2 5 4
a. tertiary structure
b. primary structure
c. secondary structure
d. quaternary structure
49 Select the terms which refers to the molecular modelling 2 5 3

computational method that use quantum physics
a. Quantum mechanics
b. Quantum theory
c. Quantum physics
d. All the above
50 Interpret the agents that act as irreversible inhibitors 2 5 2
a. Statins
b. Protease inhibitors
c. Sulphonamides
d. Penicillins
51 Identify the aminoglycoside present in Amikacin 2 1 1
a. Tobramycin
b. Streptomycin
c. Spectinomycin
d. Kanamycin A
52 Interpret the following antiplatelet drugs as a prodrug. 2 2 2
a. Clopidogrel
b. Tirofiban
c. Aspirin
d. Dipyridamole
53 Mark the earliest discovered prodrug. 2 2 1
a. Prontosil
b. Sulphanilamide
c. Aspirin
d. Salicylic acid
54 Show the prodrugs that are less toxic in mammals than in insects. 2 2 3
a. Acetylcholine
b. Bethanechol
c. Physostigmine
d. Pilocarpine
55 Identify the two main targets currently used in anti HIV therapy. 2 3 1
a. Reverse transcriptase and protease

b. Reverse transcriptase and integrase
c. Protease and integrase
d. The viral glycoprotein gp 120 and gp 41
56 Select an approved drug for hepatitis B in adults , known as 2 3 3
a. Entecavir
b. Delavirdine
c. Efavirenz
d. Tenofovir
57 .Identify an antiprotozoal agentamong the following 2 4 1
a. Metronidazole
b. Proflavine
c. Benzalkonium chloride
d. Nitrofurantoin
58 Mark a benzimidazole derivative among the following? 2 4 1
a. Praziquantel
b. Niclosamide
c. Mebendazole
d. Levamisole
59 Interpret the Strategies that increase the polarity and water solubility 2 5 2
of drug
a. Replacing an aromatic ring
b. Replacing an alkyl group
c. Removing polar functional groups
d. Adding extra alkyl groups

60 Evaluate the method used to increase polarity and water solubility of 2 5 5
drug
a. Replacing the aromatic ring
b. Replacing the alkyl group
c. Removing polar functional group
d. Adding extra alkyl group
61 Select the mechanism of action of sulbactam? 2 1 3
a. Alkylate the active site serine by mimicking the normal substrate
b. Alkylate the active site alanine by mimicking the normal substrate
c. Acylate the active site serine by mimicking the normal

substrate
d. Acylate the active site alanine by mimicking the normal substrate
62 Identify aminoglycoside which is used orally 2 1 1
a. Neomycin
b. Paramomycin
c. Both of above
d. None of above
63 Show the Chiral centres are present in Chloramphenicol 2 2 1
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Four
64 Show the drug which is narrow spectrum antibiotic 2 2 1
a. Penicilin G
b. Chloramphenicol
c. Gentamycin
d. None of these
65 Identify a prodrug among the following 2 2 1
a. Enalapril
b. Clonidine
c. Salmeterol
d. Acetazolamide
66 Select the enzyme inhibited by Ciprofloxacin 2 3 3
a. DNA gyrase
b. DNA polymerase
c. topoisomerase-4
d. none of above
67 Identify a suitable example of second generation fluoroquinoline 2 3 1

derivative.
a. ciprofloxacin
b. ofloxacin
c. levofloxacin
d. all the above
68 Select the correct statement for SAR studies of Isoniazid. 2 3 3
a. Pyridine ring is essential
b. Acid hydrazide group on position 4
c. Substitution on N1 reduces activity
d. All the above

69 Mark the drug in which imidazole ring is present 2 4 1
a. Ciclopirox
b. Butaconazole
c. Griseofulvin
d. Co-trimoxazole
70 Identify a potent inhibitor of Thymidylate synthatase 2 4 1
a. Naftifine
b. 5-Flucytosine
c. Ketoconazole
d. Ciclopirox
71 Select the sulphonamide used in treatment of eye infection. 2 4 3
a. Cotrimoxazole
b. Sulphadiazine
c. Sulphacetamide sodium
d. Sulphamethoxazole
72 Identify the chemical nature of tetracycline? 2 1 1
a. Acidic
b. Basic
c. Neutral
d. Amphoteric
73 Interpret the carbon that involves in the epimerisation reaction of 2 1 2

tetracycline?
a. C-3
b. C-4
c. C-10
d. C-12
74 Mark the disease in which Tetracycline is used 2 1 1
a. Brucellosis
b. Chlamydia
c. Rickettsial infection
d. All the above
75 Interpret the form in which Chloramphenicol is excreted in urine. 2 2 2
a. C1-glucuronides
b. C-2 glucuronides
c. Both of above
d. None of above
76 Interpret the isoelectric pH of tetracycline 2 1 2
a. 5
b.7
c. 8
d. 9
77 Evaluate the following drug which is not a prodrug 2 2 5
a. Dopamine
b. Clopidogrel
c. Cyclophosphamide
d. Acyclovir
78 Predict a prodrug of thiol metabolite. 2 2 3
a. Prednisone
b. Dipivefrine
c. Clopidogrel
d. Fluorouracil
79 Select the antimalarial drug having gametocidal effect is 2 2 3
a. Pyrimethamine
b. Chloroquine
c. Diazepam
d. Pyrazinamide
80 Predict the drug of choice for treatment of malaria. 2 2 3
a. Chloroquine
b. Isoniazid
c. Diazepam
d. Pyrazinamide
81 Identify the mechanism of action of sulphonamides. 2 4 1
b. Inhibition of dihydropteroate synthase
c. Inhibition of cyclooxygenase
d. Activation of DNA gyrase
82 Show the effect if combination of sulphonamide and trimethoprim is 2 4 3

given
a. Decrease the unwanted effects of sulphonamides
b. Increase the antimicrobial activity
c. Decrease the antimicrobial activity
d. Increase the elimination of sulphonamides
83 Interpret the sulphonamide class by which sulphadoxine belongs 2 4 2

a. Ultra short acting sulphonamide
b. Intermediate acting sulphonamide
c. Short acting sulphonamide
d. Long acting sulphonamide
84 Identify the alkaloid used in the treatment of amoebiasis? 2 4 1
a. Metronidazole
b. Diloxanide furoate
c. Emetine hydrochloride
d. Diiodohydroxyquinoline
85 Select the disease whose drug of choice for treatment is 2 4 3

sulphamethoxazole
a. Respiratory tract infection
b. Urinary tract infection
c. Eye infection
d. Pneumonia
86 Mark luminal agents among the following 2 4 1
a. Dapsone
b. Metronidazole
c. Diloxanide furoate
d. Emetine
87 Which of the following statements describes best lead compound? 2 5 1
a. A compound that contains a element lead
b. A compound from research laboratory that is chosen for clinical

and pre clinical studies
c. A molecule that shows some activity or property of interest and

serves as the starting point for development of drug
d. The first compound of the structural class of compounds to reach

market
88 Which of the following statements describes chemical space 2 5 1

correctly.
a. A measure of 3D shape and size of chemical structure
b. The area required for construction of a pharmaceutical production

plant
c. The accessibility of a functional group to a reagent during a

reaction
d. The first compound of structural class of compounds to reach

the market
89 Identify the kind of interactions that are involved in binding a drug to 2 5 1

the binding site of protein
a. predominantly vanderwaals interactions
b. predominantly ionic interactions
c. predominantly hydrogen bonds
d. All the above
90 Identify which of the following side chain that may be important in 2 5 1

binding a drug by ionic bonding
a. aspartate
b. glycine
c. serine
d. valine
91 Fragment based lead discovery involves studying how a series of 2 5 1

small molecules interact with the target binding site. Show the Term
used to donate those molecules are.
a. Isotopes
b. Isomers
c. Aptamers
d. Epitopes
92 Combinatorial chemistry is used at various stages of drug design. 2 5 3

Predict the false statement
a. finding a lead compound
b. optimising a lead compound
c. structure determination of the lead compound
d. structure activity relationship of the lead compound
93 Identify the statements does not define linkers. 2 5 1
a. They link between the molecule and the solid support must be
stable to the reaction condition used in synthesis
b. The link between the molecule and solid support must be easily
cleaved under specific conditions
c. The choice of linkers used depends on the functional groups

available on the first molecule to be attached
d. The linker must be on the outer surface of the resin bead if a

molecule is to become attached to it.
94 Scaffold is described by ........... 2 5 1
a. The lead compound
b. The carbon skeleton of compound
c. The pharmacophore
d. The core structure of a molecule that is common to a series of

compounds
95 Select a characteristic feature of ideal prodrug. 2 2 3
a. Should rapidly transform , Chemically and enzymatically forming

2the active product
b. Should have intrinsic pharmacological activity

c. The vapour pressure should be less and evaporate easily
d. Apart from active product, other metabolic fragments should be

nontoxic
96 Interpret the prodrugs which is also used as Anti- influenza drug. 2 2 2
a. Clopidogrel
b. Oseltamivir
c. Ampicillin
d. Elanapril
97 Identify the asymmetric centres are present in oxytetracycline and 2 1 1

doxycycline?
a. Four
b. Five
c. Six
d. Seven
98 Predict the following as prodrug of 5- Aminosalicylic acid. 2 2 3
a. Cyclophosphamide
b. Fluorouracil
c. Sulfasalazine
d. Mercaptopurine
99 Identify the mechanism of action of Tetracycline 2 1 1
b. Inhibition of Cell wall synthesis
c. Inhibition of DNA synthesis
d. Inhibition of RNA synthesis
100 Mark the disease in which streptomycin is used mainly 2 1 1

a. Gonorrhoea
b. Tuberculosis
c. Leprosy
d. Throat infections
Univ. Roll no:

B. Pharm, 6th Semester
Online PUE Examination, (2020-2021) Even Semester
Duration: 90 minutes Max. Marks: 100
NOTE:
2) No negative marking
(50x2=100)
1 Select the most serious adverse effect associated with 2 1 4
aminoglycosides that can have long-term consequences:
A. Neurotoxicity
B. Nephrotoxicity
C. Ototoxicity
D. Hepatotoxicity
2 Which enzyme class and biological function is targeted by beta- 2 1 1
lactams?
a. MurA and intracellular peptidoglycan precursor synthesis
b. Autolysins and cell wall hydrolysis
c. Transpeptidase and peptidoglycan crosslink formation
during cell wall synthesis
d. Lipopolysaccharides and Gram- outer membrane integrity
3 Tazobactam is used with which drug in the treatment of 2 1 3
Pseudomonas aeruginosa infections?
A. Flucloxacillin
B. Piperacillin
C. Ticarcillin
D. Penicillin V
4 Which of the following statements about clavulanic acid is false? 2 1 3
A. It is a beta-lactamase inhibitor
B. Structurally, it bears a beta-lactam ring
C. It has no intrinsic antibacterial activity
D. None of the given options
5 The antimicrobial activity of penicillin is due to which unit 2 1 1
A. Thiazolidine
B. Beta lactam
C. penicillanic acid
D. None of the options
6 Drug which interferes with bacterial cell wall synthesis is/are 2 1 2
A. Penicillin
B. Cephalosporin
C. Aminoglycoside
D. Penicillin and cephalosporins
7 The action of penicillin requires the presence of cell wall that 2 1 1
contains
A. Proteins
B. Peptidoglycans
C. NAG only
D. Proteoglycans
8 What crucial part of penicillin is involved in mechanism of action 2 1 3
A. Beta lactam
B. Acyl side chain
C. Carboxylic acid
D. Thiazolidine moiety
9 Which is not penicillinase susceptible? 2 1 1
A. Amoxicillin
B. Penicillin G
C. Piperacillin
D. Cloxacillin
10 ……… is aminoglycoside. 2 1 1
Kanamycin
Penicillin
Tetracycline
Cephalosporin
11 Penicillin is degraded by 2 1 2
a. Mineral Acid
b. Dilute acids
c. Enzyme
d. All the given choices
12 Thiazolidine ring is expanded to 6 membered ring in 2 1 2
a. Penicillin
b. Cephalosporins
c. Amikacin
d. Tetracycline
13 An example of acid resistant and penicillinase resistant penicillin is 2 1 1
a. Penicillin-G
b. Penicillin-V
c. Cloxacillin
d. Amoxicillin
14 An example of third generation cephalosporin is 2 1 2
a. Cefuroxime axetil
b. Cefpodoxime
c. Cephalexin
d. Cefepime
15 Beta-lactamase inhibitor is 2 1 1
a. Clavulanic acid
b. Sulbactam
c. Tazobactam
d. All the choices
16 Phenoxymethyl penicillin is 2 1 1
a. Penicillin-G
b. Penicillin-V
c. Penicillin-X
d. All the given options
17 In strong acid solution cephalosporin leads in formation of 2 1 1
………..which makes it inactive.
a) Lactone
b) amide
c) amino
d) lactic acid
18 Chemical degradation of penicillins gives 2 1 4

a) Penicilloic acid
b) Penilloic acid
c) Penicillamine
d) All of the choices
19 Aminoglycosides are also known as 2 1 1
Amino antibiotics
Aminocyclitol antibiotics
glycoside
None of the choices
20 Central ring present in streptomycin is 2 1 1
a) Streptidine
b) Streptacycle
c) Streptamine
d) Deoxystreptamine
21 What do physicochemical properties of a drug molecule effect? 2 2 4
a) Distribution
b) Metabolism
c) Excretion
d) All of the above
22 What converts Protonsil into Sulfanilamide? 2 2 1

a) Azo reductase
b) Esterase
c) Viral thymindine kinase
d) All of the above
23 What is not a reason to use prodrugs? 2 2 3

a) To reduce pain
b) Increase toxicity
c) Avoid an unpleasant taste
d) Alter absorption, distribution and metabolism
24 What drug is used to avoid pain at the point of injection during 2 2 3

parenteral administration?
a) Chloramphenicol
b) Enalaprilic acid
c) Dipivefrin HCl
d) Clindamycin phosphate
25 What is an inactive compound transformed by chemical or metabolic 2 2 1
means to an active product?
a) Acid drugs
b) Prodrugs
c)Polyfunctional drugs
d)All
26 ‘(RS)-N’-(7-chloroquinolin-4-yl)-N,N-diethyl-pentane-1,4- 2 2 2
diamineethanol’ is the IUPAC nomenclature of which drug?
a) Chloroquine
b) Beclomethasone
c)Triptorelin
d)Albuterol
27 The drug chloroquine is mainly used for 2 2 1
a) Treatment of viral symptoms
b) Treatment of AIDS
c)Treatment of malaria
d)All of the above
28 Which of the following species is used for producing erythromycin? 2 2 3

(a) S. erythreus
b)(b) S. griseus
c)(c) S. aureofaciens
d)(d) S. griseoflavus
29 What drug is linked to a pro-moiety because of its bitter taste? 2 2 1

a)Chloramphenicol
b)Enalaprilic acid
c)Dipivefrin HCl
d)Clindamycin phosphate
30 What is a prodrug? 2 2 1
a) An excipient which helps in creating the environment for the
drug-dissolving
b) Chemically drug precursor
c) Excipient of drug formulation
d) A drug which is used by professionals
31 Atovaquinone contains which heterocyclic moiety: 2 2 2
a) pyridine
b) pyrimidine
c) naphthalene
d) morphine
32 Which of the following is an example of a mutual prodrug? 2 2 2
a) Prontosil is the prodrug for sulfanamide
b) Aspirin is the prodrug of salicylic acid
c) Benorylate prodrug for NSAIDs and paracetamol
d) Diesters pro-prodrug for pilocarpic acid
35 Pamaquine is an example of 2 2 1
a. 4-aminoquinoline
b. 8-aminoquinolines
c. imidazoles
d. All the choices
36 Drug of Biguanide category is 2 2 1
a. proguanil
b. Penicillin-V
c. mefloquine
37 Proguanil is also known as………... 2 2 1
A. Chloroguanil
B. Bromoguanil
C. Nitroguanil
38 Prodrugs with two active moieties id known as 2 2 4

Mutual prodrugs
Proprodrug
Hard drug
Soft drug
39 All are macrolides except 2 2 1
Roxithromycin
Lincomycin
Clarithromycin
Erythromycin
40 Find the drug of macrolide category 2 2 1
A. Neomycin
B. doxycycline
C. erythromycin
D. cefotaxime
41 Name a drug which inhibits herpes viruses 2 3 1
A. Fluroquinolones
B. Trimethoprim
C. Zidovudine
D. Acyclovir
42 Which point in the replication cycle appears most easily blocked by 2 3 4

antivirals?
Virus absorption
Virus penetration
Virus RNA and DNA replication
Exit of viruses from the cell
43 1,2,4-triazole is present in 2 3 1
Saquinavir
Acyclovir
Ribavirin
Zalcitabine
3
44 Which of the following is not a first-line drug for treating TB? 2 3 3
a) Isoniazid
b) Rifampicin
c) Cycloserine
d) Pyrazinamide
45 PAS has mechanism of action as 2 3 3
a) Inhibits mycolic acid syntheiss
b) Inhibits folic acid synthesis
c) Inhibits DNA dependent RNA polymerase
d) Makes TB organisms susceptible to reactive oxygen
46 Anti-TB drug derived from natural source is 2 3 1
a) rifampin
b) isoniazid
c) ethionamide
d) pyrazinamide
47 Antiviral drug with no heterocyclic ring is: 2 3 2
a) loviride
b) Nelfinavir
c) troviridine
d) Zidovudine
48 The drug which is metabolized by acetylation is 2 3 1
Rifampicin
Ethambutol
Dapsone
Isoniazid
49 Which of the following is TRUE regarding multi drugtherapy (MDT) 2 3 3
of tuberculosis?
a) Continuous phase is Isoniazid +Rifampicin+pyrazinamide for 2
months
b) Initial phase is Isoniazid + Rifampicin for 4months
c) Initial phase is Isoniazid + Rifampicin +Pyrazinamide +
Ethambutol for 2 months
d) Continuous phase is Dapsone + Rifampicinfor 6 months
50 Which group of FQ structure also facilitate the drug entryinto the G- 2 3 1
bacteria?
a) COOH
b) OH
c) CHO
d) ALL
51 Select the WRONG combination of drug and side effect 2 3 1
a) Isoniazid, optic neuritis

b) Rifampin, orange-red tinge
c) Capreomycin, ototoxicity
d) Pyrazinamide, gout
52 Viral infection mainly takes place outside host 2 3 2
a) true
b) false
c) can be inside or outside
d) none of the options
53 Which of the following is nucleoside derivative? 2 3 2
a) Dilavirdin
b) loviride
c) Didanosine
d) Ribavirin
54 Pyrazinamide is pyrazin-3-carboxamide. 2 3 1
A. True
B. False
55 Isoniazid is a prodrug that is activated on the surface of M. 2 3 1

tuberculosis by
a. katG enzyme to isonicotinic acid
b. katG enzyme to imidazole
c. PPRG enzyme to nitro compound
56 Quinolones act by inhibiting: 2 3 1
A. Cell wall synthesis

B. The action of DNA gyrase
C. Protein synthesis
D. DHFR
57 Which of the following belongs to the category NRTIs? 2 3 4
a) Aciclovir and Iodoxuridine

b) Nevirapine only
c) Iodoxuridine only
d) Delavirdine only
58 The following structure is a synthetic antibacterial agent called 2 3 1
ciprofloxacin.
What is its mechanism of action?
a) Topoisomerase poison
b) Antisense agent
c) Metallating agent
d) Chain terminator
59 2 3 1
Para amino salicylic acid is synthesized from:

a) Salicylic acid
b) Paranitrobenzoic acid
c) Anthranilic acid
d) None of the above
60 2 3 1
What type of ring A and B
a) Quinoline
b) Pyrimidine
c) Purine
d) Naphthalene
61 2 4 4
What type of compound II and IV is?
a) Nucleic acid
b) Amino acid
c) Nucleoside
d) Nucleotide
62 Which statement is correct for Amphotericin-B? 2 4 1
a) It is antiprotozoal drugs and it affects nucleic acid
metabolism
b) It is antifungal antibiotic and it affects permeability
of cell membrane.
c) It affects nucleic acid metabolism.
d) None of the given options
63 Dapsone is: 2 4 3
a) Diamino-diphenyl sulfone and used as antileprotic drug

b) Phenyl sulfone
c) Used as antifungal drug
64 Trimethoprim is a potent and selective inhibitor of microbial 2 4 3
dihydrofolate reductase.
True
False
65 Sulphonamides are structure analogues and competitive agonists of 2 4 1
para-amino benzoic acid (PABA).
True
False
66 Metronidazole is 2 4 2
a) 2-(2-Methyl-5-nitro-1H-imidazol-1-yl)ethanol
b) 2-(5-Methyl-2-nitro-1H-imidazol-1-yl)ethanol
c) 2-(2-Methyl-5-nitro-1H-imidazol-1-yl)propanol
d) 2-(5-Methyl-2-nitro-1H-imidazol-1-yl)propanol
67 Miconazole belongs to the category of 2 4 1
a) Imidazole
b) Triazole
c) Pyrimidine derivative
68 The long acting sulphonamide is: 2 4 3
a) Sulphamethoxazole
b) sulphadiazine
c) sulphadoxime
d) sulphacetamide
69 Example of benzimidazole is 2 4 1
a) pirazine citrate
b) mebendazole
c) metronidazole
d) oxamniquine
70 Replacement of benzene ring in sulphonamide SAR study: 2 4 2
a) increase activity
b) decreases or abolishes activity
c) no change in activity
d) absorption increases
71 Inhibitor of sterol-14-demethylase is: 2 4 1
a) Naftifine
b) 5-fluocytosine
c) Ciclopirox
d) Ketoconazole
72 Cotrimazole is a combination of trimethoprim and …………… 2 4 1
A. Any sulphonamide
B. Sulphamethoxazole
C. Oxazole
D. nitrofurantoin
Roxithromycin
Lincomycin
Clarithromycin
Erythromycin
74 Which antifungal drug contains bis-triazole nucleus? 2 4 1
A. Fluconazole
B. Ketoconazole
C. Clotrimazole
D. All
75 The drug that selectively bind to ß-tubulin inhibiting polymerization, 2 4 1

thus preventing the formation of microtubules and so stopping cell
division is
A. Sulphathiazole
B. Cycloserine
C. Cephalexin
D. albendazole
76 Septran is trade name of 2 4 4
A. Sulphamethoxazole
B. Trimethoprim
C. Cotrimoxazole
D. All the mentioned options
77 Heterocyclic nucleus in sulphadiazine is 2 4 1

A. Piperidine
B. Pyridine
C. Oxadiazole
D. Pyrimidine
78 Mechanism of action of sulphonamides is 2 4 3

A. Inhibition of dihydropteroate reduction
B. Inhibition of dihydropteroate synthesis
C. Inhibition of cyclooxygenase
D. Activation of DNA gyrase
79 N-[(4-aminophenyl)sulfonyl]acetamide is IUPAC name of 2 4 3
A. Sulphacetamide
B. Sulphasalazine
C. Sulphapyridine
D. Sulphadoxime
80 Mechanism of action of trimethoprim is 2 4 1

81 In drug discovery, the compound that has pharmacological or 2 5 2
biological activity likely to be therapeutically useful, but may still
have suboptimal structure that requires modification to fit better to
the target is called-------------------------
A. Lead compound
B. Target enzyme
C. Prodrug
82 Which approach will be suitable for design a drug if ligand is 2 5 1
unknown and protein structure is known?
a) prodrug design
b) Ligand based drug design
c) Computer aided drug design
d) De novo design
83 Method which predicts the preferred orientation of one molecule to a 2 5 3
second when bound to each other to form a stable complex is called--
------.
A. Docking
B. ADME study
C. Toxicology study
84 ---------- is a mathematical relationship between biological activity of 2 5 1
a molecular system.
A. QSAR
B. ADMET
C. Lipinski rule
85 Findout the molecular descriptors for QSAR. 2 5 1
a) Electronic and steric
b) pH
c) solubility
d) partition coefficient
86 In silico is referred to as: 2 5 2
a) Prediction using computational approaches.

b) None of the options.
c) It is very slow process of drug design.
d) All the given options
87 Which of the following functional groups is most likely to 2 5 2
participate in a dipole-dipole interaction?
a) Aromatic ring
b) Ketone
c) Alcohol
d) Alkene
88 Consider the molecule in blue bound to a binding site. Identify the binding 2 5 1
interactions taking place at ii shown in red.
a) Hydrogen bonds
b) Ionic bond
c) Van der Waals interactions
89 Docking techniques include: 2 5 1
a) Shape complementarity and simulation
b) partition coefficient
c) Both the given options
90 Applications of molecular docking is/are: 2 5 1
a) Hit identification
b) Lead optimization
a) None
91 Structure of protein can be obtained by: 2 5 1
A. X ray crystallography
B. NMR
C. Homology modeling
D. All of the given options
92 What is the symbol π in a QSAR equation? 2 5 1
a) the electronic effect
b) the substituent hydrophobicity constant
c) hydrophobicity of the mole
d) steric parameter
93 Calculate the logP value for the structure shown; logP for benzene = 2.13; 2 5 1
π(Cl) 0.73; π(CONH2) -1.49 ?
1.51
1.22
1.71
None of the given options
94 What does MR represent in a QSAR equation? 2 5 1
A Molar refractivity is a steric factor
B Molar refractivity is an electronic factor
C Molar refractivity is a hydrophobic factor
D Molar refractivity is a stereo electronic factor
95 The drugs which are having similar structures and having similar 2 5 3
main pharmacological activity are called
A Structural analogue
B Pharmacological analogue
C Structural and Pharmacological analogue
D All the above
96 Docking performed by keeping both ligand and receptor as stable entity 2 5 1
with restriction of movement
A Rigid docking
B Flexible docking
C Both the above
D None of the above

97 The choice of organic solvent to determine partition coefficient is 2 5 1
A n-Hexane
B n-Butane
C n-Octanol
D Water
98 ………parameters explain the relationship between the shape and 2 5 2
size of the drug
A Hydrophobic parameters
B Steric parameters
C Electronic parameters
D All the above

99 The whole molecule’s Hydrophobicity in QASR is expressed as 2 5 2
a) Log P
b) π
c) σ
d) Es
100 Lipinski rule of drug filter describes the drug likeness behaviour with 2 5 1
c Log P value
A Less than 5
B More than 5
C Less than 10
D More than 10
• CO-course outcome generally refers to traits, knowledge, skill set that a student attains
after completing the course successfully.
• Bloom’s level (BL) - bloom’s taxonomy framework is planning and designing of assessment
of student learning
Univ. Roll no:

Online CT-1 Examination, (2020-2021) Even Semester
NOTE:
2) Every correct answer has weightage of +2 marks and for every wrong answer -0.5 marks will
be deducted.
(50x2=100)
1 Select the most serious adverse effect associated with aminoglycosides 2 1 4
that can have long-term consequences:
A. Neurotoxicity
B. Nephrotoxicity
C. Ototoxicity
D. Hepatotoxicity
2 Macrolides and tetracyclines act as 2 2 2
A. Antibiotics
B. Protein synthesis inhibitors
C. Bacteriostatic
3 Mark the selection that is false: 2 1 1
A. Tetracyclines are not recommended for use in pregnant women
and children due to deposition of the drug in bones and teeth.
B. Tetracyclines generally share the same spectrum of activity but
different pharmacokinetics.
C. Tetracyclines should not be stored long term due to conversion
to toxic compounds.
D. Resistance to tetracyclines is rare.
lactams?
5 Which of the following is a second-generation cephalosporin? 2 1 2
a. Cefaclor
b. Ceftazidime
c. Cephalexin
A. d. Cefotaxime
6 Tazobactam is used with which drug in the treatment of Pseudomonas 2 1 3
aeruginosa infections?
A. Flucloxacillin
B. Piperacillin
C. Ticarcillin
D. Penicillin V
A. Thiazolidine
B. Beta lactam
A. Penicillin
B. Cephalosporin
C. Aminoglycoside
contains
A. Proteins
B. Peptidoglycans
C. NAG only
D. Proteoglycans
A. Beta lactam
B. Acyl side chain
C. Carboxylic acid
A. Amoxicillin
B. Penicillin G
C. Piperacillin
D. Cloxacillin
13 Penicillin G is also known as 2 1 1
A. Benzyl penicillin
B. Phenyl penicillin
C. Phenoxy methyl penicillin
D. Propyl penicillin
14 Cephalothin is 2 1 1
A. Tetracycline
B. Penicillin
C. Cephalosporin
D. Kanamycin
Kanamycin
Penicillin
Tetracycline
Cephalosporin
16 Bactericidal action is shown by 2 1 2
a. Beta lactam antibiotics
b. Antifungal agents
c. Antiviral agents
d. None of the choices
a. Mineral Acid
b. Dilute acids
c. Enzyme
a. Penicillin
b. Cephalosporins
c. Amikacin
d. Tetracycline
19 An example of acid resistant and penicillinase resistant penicillin 2 1 1
is
a. Penicillin-G
b. Penicillin-V
c. Cloxacillin
d. Amoxicillin
b. Cefpodoxime
c. Cephalexin
d. Cefepime
a. Clavulanic acid
b. Sulbactam
c. Tazobactam
d. All the choices
a. Penicillin-G
b. Penicillin-V
c. Penicillin-X
23 23. Amidases catalyse the conversion of the C-6 amide of 2 1 2
Penicillins to
a. An amine
b. An aldehyde
c. An acid
d. None of the options
24 Identify the position of carboxylic acid group in penicillins: 2 1 1
a) C-3
b) C-2
c) C-6
d) C-7
25 C-12 position is a part of keto-enol system in: 2 1 2
a) Macrolide
b) Penicillin
c) Tetracyclines
d) Aminoglycoside antibiotics
26 Inhibition of crosslining of peptidoglycan is the mechanism of action 2 1 3
of:
a) Cephalosporins
b) Penicillins
c) Cephalosporins and Penicillins
d) None
Predict the source of Streptomycin:
27 2 1 1
a) Streptomyces capreolus
b) Streptomyces venezulae
c) Streptomyces orchidaceus
d) Streptomyces griseus
a) Lactone
b) amide
c) amino
d) lactic acid
29 . Dimethyl amino substituent is present in: 2 1 1
Doxycyclin
Minocycline
Methacycline
Demeclocycline
a) Penicilloic acid
b) Penilloic acid
c) Penicillamine
31 In cephalosporins, higher resistance to hydrolysis by beta lactamases 2 1 1
is shown by:
a) The amino group is acylated
b) Replacement of sulphur with oxygen
c) Oxidation of ring sulphur to sulphoxide or sulphone
d) Introduction of C-7 α-methoxy group
32 . The keto-enoltautomerism of ring A in carbon atom 1 and 3 is a 2 1 1
common feature to all biologically active tetracyclines.
a) True
b) False
33 Which of the following is the example of first generation 2 1 1
cephalosporin?
a) Cephalothin
b) Cefamandole
c) Cefotoxime
d) Cefepime
34 Structurally all penicillins have only beta-lactam present in them. 2 1 1
a) True
b) False
Amino antibiotics
glycoside
None of the choices
a) Streptidine
b) Streptacycle
c) Streptamine
d) Deoxystreptamine
37 Aminoglycoside derived from Micromonospora is/are 2 1 1
a. Gentamicin
b. Streptomycin
c. Neomycin
d. Kanamycin
38 Which drug works by binding to ribosomes for inhibiting protein 2 1 2
synthesis
a) Kanamycin
b) Amoxicillin
c) Penicillin
d) Cephalexin
39 Which antibiotic is first active antibiotic for TB 2 1 2
a) Kanamycin
b) Streptomycin
c) Penicillin
d) All given can be options

40 Sterptomycin contain 2 1 2
a) N-methyl-L-glucosamine
b) Streptidine
c) Streptose

41 Streptidine act as 2 1 3
a) Acidic group
b) Basic group
c) Acidic and basic both

42 Two guanidine groups are present in 2 1 2
a) Streptamine
b) Streptose
c) Ribose
d) Streptidine
43 Different components of Kanamycin are 2 1 1
a) Kanamycin A
b) Kanamycin B
c) Kanamycin C

44 Source of Kanamycin is 2 1 2
Streptomyces griseus
Streptomyces kanamyceticus
Micromonospora gresius

45 Which ring is different in Kanamycin A, B and C? 2 1 1
II
III
I and III
46 Kanamycin A, B and C differ in the sugar moieties attached to the 2 2 2
glycosidic oxygen on the ….. position of central ring
a. 1st
b. 2nd
c. 4th
d. 6th
47 Neamine is name of 2 1 1
a. Neomycin A
b. Neomycin B
c. Neomycin C
d. Kanamycin
48 Neomycin is isolated from 2 1 2
Streptomyces fradiae

49 . Neomycin B and C differ only in configuration of amino methyl 2 1 1
group in Neosamine which is linked to ribose unit
True
False
50 Neomycin is too toxic to be used parenterally, limited to 2 1 2
a) Oral use
b) IV use
c) Topical use
d) None of the given form

51 Derive the name of structure 2 1 6
a. Tetracycline
b. Chlortetracycline
c. Roxithromycin
d. minocycline
52 Tetracyclines are derivatives of 2 1 2
a. Octahydronaphthacene
b. Heptahydronaphthacene
c. Octamethoxynaphthacene
d. Dihydronaphthacene
53 Broad spectrum antibiotic is 2 1 1
a. Aminoglycoside
b. Penicillin
c. Tetracycline
d. Erythromycin
54 Epitetracyclines are 2 1 1
a. More active than tetracycline
b. Less active than tetracycline
c. No change in action
d. Prodrug of tetracycline
55 The fusion of A and B ring in tetracycline is 2 1 2
a. Cis
b. Trans
c. Not rotable
d. None of the given options
56 C-2 of tetracycline has which group? 2 1 3
a. Carboxamide
b. Amine
c. Sulphonyl chloride
d. Carboxylic acid
57 Double bond is present in ring B of tetracycline at 2 1 3
a. 11a and 12
b. 10a and 11
c. 6 and 5a
d. None of the mentioned choices
58 Which statement is false for tetracycline? 2 1 1
a. They are teratogenic
b. Cause photosensitivity
c. Enhances absorption of food
d. Inhibit metals by forming chelates
59 Tetracyclines should not be taken with 2 1 2
a. Milk
b. Iron
c. Magnesium
d. All the mentioned choices
60 Tetracycline inhibits protein synthesis by 2 1 1
a. Inhibits initiation and causing misreading
b. Inhibits peptidyl transferase
c. Inhibiting 30S subunit and inhibits binding od aminoacyl
tRNA
d. None of the given choices
61 Design the name of antibiotic in which there is absence of -OH at 6th 2 1 6
position manking it acid stable.
a. Penicillin
b. Doxycycline
c. Tetracycline
62 Tetracycline is derived by fermentation of 2 1 1
a. Streptomyces aureofaciens
b. Streptomyces fradae
c. Streptomyces kanamyceticus
d. Streptomyces rimosus
63 Which drug is basically used in Acne? 2 1 1
a. Benzyl penicillin
b. Tetracycline
c. Kanamycin
64 This is an example of 2 1 1
a. Tetracycline
b. Penicillin
c. Cephalosporin
d. Kanamycin
65 Phototoxicity caused in some tetracycline derivatives is due to 2 1 1
a. C-6 Chlorine
b. C-7 Chlorine
c. C-11 Chlorine
d. Not due to chlorine
66 Tetracycline have ability to undergo epimerization making less active 2 1 2
also called as aging of tetracycline at
a. C-4
b. C-7
c. C-11a
d. C-12
67 Recommend the number of chiral carbons in tetracycline? 2 1 5
a. 4
b. 6
c. 5
d. 10
68 How many chiral carbons are there in oxytetracycline? 2 1 2
a. 4
b. 6
c. 5
d. 10
69 Which antibiotic is contraindicated in for children below age 8 and 2 1 1
in pregnancy?
a. Amoxicillin
b. Tetracycline
c. Diclofenac
d. None of the options given
70 …….functions of tetracycline form stable chelate with polyvalent 2 1 2
metal ions
a. Acidic
b. Basic
c. Lactone
71 In presence of base tetracycline degrade to form inactive form called 2 1 1
a. Rolitetracycline
b. Oxytetracycline
c. Chlortetracycline
d. Isotetracycline
72 Which ring of tetracycline is already appropriately substituted? 2 1 4
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
73 Examine the options for an example of anti-staphylococcal penicillin 2 1 4
is
a. Methicillin
b. Cloxacillin
c. Oxacillin
d. All the mentioned options
74 Aminopenicillin makes penicillins more polar to extend their action 2 1 1
on Gram negative bacteria for example
a. Ampicillin
b. Penicillin-G
c. Carbenicillin
d. oxacillin
75 Demonstrate the term which can be used for beta-lactams 2 1 3
a. Azetidinone
b. Lactone
c. Cyclic amide
d. Cyclic amide and Azetidinone
a. Cephalosporins
b. Penicillins
c. Monobactam
d. Carbepenam
77 Identify the configuration of active penicillin 2 1 3
a. 3S,5R,6R
b. 2S,3R,4R
c. 3R,5S,6S
d. 3S,5S,6S
78 What is the basic nucleus of penicillin? 2 1 1
a. Penam
b. Cepham
c. Penicillanic acid
79 ….. is the active-nucleus of penicillin 2 1 1

a. Penam
b. 6-APA
c. 7-ACA
d. 6-ACA
80 Chemical degradation end product of cephalosporin by acylase and 2 1 1
water is
a. 7-ACA
b. Desacetyl-7ACA
c. Deacetyl-7-ACA lactone
• CO-course outcome generally refer to traits, knowledge, skill set that a student
attains after completing the course successfully.
• Bloom’s level (BL) - bloom’s taxonomy framework is planning and designing of
assessment of student learning

B. Pharm, 6thSemester
Online PUE-1 Examination, (2020-2021) Even Semester
Duration: 60 minutes Max. Marks:
100
NOTE:
2) Every correct answer has weightage of 2 marks
(100x2=200)
1 Identify the sugar present in the peptidoglycan layer of gram positive 2 1 1
bacteria?
bN-acetylmuramic acid
c Both of above
d None of above
2 Show the naturally occurring penicillins out of following? 2 1 1
d. All of the above
3 Relate nucleus which is present in beta lactam antibiotics? 2 1 2
a. Azetidinone
b. Diazetidinone
c. Pyrrolidine
d. Imidazoline
4 Identify the percentage absorption of intact amoxicillin? 2 1 1
a. 15-30
b. 30-50
c. 60-73
d. 75-90
5 Select the mode of action of Clavulanic acid? 2 1 1

6 Identify the macrolide is used in treatment of Clostridium difficile 2 2 1

a. Azithromycin
b. Erythromycin
c. Fidaxomicin
d. All the above
Locate the antibiotic trades under the name Biaxin? 2 2 1

7
a. Azithromycin
b. Telithromycin
c. Erythromycin
d. Clarithromycin
8 Predict the macrolide is used to treat lung infections 2 2 5
a. Azithromycin
b. Erythromycin
d. Clarithromycin
9 Identify the macrolide does not inhibit CYP3A4? 2 2 1
a. Azithromycin
b. Telithromycin
c. Erythromycin
d. Clarithromycin
10 Mark the selection of side effects associated with Chloramphenicol. 2 2 1
b. Blood dyscrasias
c. Aplastic anaemia
11 Mechanism of action of isoniazid is shown by which of the following 2 3 1
12 Select the antimycobacterial agent having pyrazine as basic 2 3 3

heterocyclic ring
a. Pyrazine
b. Ethambutol
c. Isoniazid
d. Pyrimethamine
13 Identify functional group is present in isoniazid. 2 3 1
a. Carboxamide
b. Carbonyl group
c. Carboxylic group
d. Carbohydrazide
14 Which of the following antitubercular drug is also used in treatment 2 3 1

of leprosy.
a. Ethambutol
b. Diazepam
c. Haldol
d. Isoniazid
15 Identify thecharacterstic feature of second line antitubercular drug. 2 3 1
16 Mark the derivative of adamantine. 2 4 1
a. Didanozine
b. Rimantadine
c. Gancyclovir
d. Foscarnet
17 Evaluate which of the following is not used for the treatment of tinea 2 4 5
pedis.
a. Clotrimoxazole
b. Ciclopirox
c. Nystatin
d. Terbinafine
18 Select an antibiotic having amoebicidal activity? 2 4 3

a. Dihydrothiazine
b. Tetracyclins
c Carbapenems
d Penicillins
19 Which of the following anthelmintics is a natural product? 2 4 1
a. Ivermectin
b. Emetine
c. Digitalis
d. Quinidine
20 Identify the heterocyclic ring present in Chloroquine is 2 4 1
a. Isoquinoline
b. Quinoline
c. Pyrimidine
d. Quinazoline
21 Show the value for regression coefficient for perfect fit 2 5 1
a. 0.1
b. 1
c. 10
d. 100
22 What does symbol pi represent in QSAR equation 2 5

23 Evaluate the representation of symbol P in QSAR 2 5 5
a. PH
d. Prodrug
24 Ratio of molar concentration of substance in ionised form and 2 5 2

b. Complexation
c. Chelation
d. None of above
25 Select a compound which is capable of forming ring with metal. 2 5 5
b. Legend
c. Chelation
d. All the above
26 Tetracycline inhibition of protein synthesis binds to ......... 2 1 2
a. 16s r RNA
b. 28s rRNA
c. 30 s rRNA
d.40s rRNA
27 Identify the functional group necessary for antibacterial activity of 2 1 1

tetracycline

c. Both of above
d. None of above
28 Bacterial resistance to aminoglycosides antibiotics produce by which 2 1 1

enzymes?
a. N-acetylate
b. O-phosphorylate
c. O- adenylate
d. All of above
29 Mark the fungus that get fermented to produce neomycin. 2 1 1
30 Show pharmacophore available in streptomycin? 2 1 1
a. Streptamine
c. Spectinamine
d. Streptadine
31 Show the mechanism of action of Trimethoprim 2 4 1
d. All the above
32 Analyse which of the following are not short acting sulphonamides 2 4 5

b. Sulphafuraole
c. Sulphadimidine
d. Sulphapyridine
33 Show the IUPAC name of N4 -7 –chloroquinolin-4-yl- N1, N1- 2 4 1

diethylpentane-1,4-diamine
a. Chloroquine
b. Pamaquine
c. Primaquine
d. Mefloquine
34 Evaluate the antimalarial agent having pyrimidine ring. 2 4 5
a. Mefloquine
b. Pyrimethamine
c. Quinidine
d. Chloroquine
35 Select the Anthelminthic drug which is amide derivative. 2 4 3
a. Praziquantel
b. Mebendazole
c. Piperazine
d. Niclosamide
36 Entecavir is analogue of ....... 2 3 2
c. Thymine analogue
d. Aniline analogue
37 Mark the drug used as an urinary antiseptic. 2 3 1
a. nalidixic acid
b. ciprofloxacin
c. ofloxacin
d. levofloxacin
38 Show the fluoroquinoline derivative which is used with the 2 3 1

a. Ofloxacin
b. Moxifloxacin
c. Sparfloxacin
d. All the above
39 Select the fluoroquinoline group facilitate the drug entry into gram 2 3 5
negative bacteria.
a. COOH
b. OH
c. CHO
d. all the above
40 Identify the year in which Ciprofloxacin and its analogues are 2 3 1

introduced?
a. 1975
b. 1977
c. 1980
d. 1990
41 Identify the complex formed by Isoniazid and Pyridoxine 2 2 1
a. Hydrazone
b. Horazone
c. B Complex
d. Chillate
42 Mark the condition in which Vitamin B6 is administered along with 2 2 1

isoniazid
a. Jaundice
b. Diarrhoea
d. All of them
43 Show causative agent for leprosy 2 2 1
d. None of above
44 Select the drug that is effective against mycobacteria only. 2 2 5
a. Isoniazid
b. Streptomycin
c. Rifampin
d. Kanamycin
45 Evaluate a drug which is not a derivative of 4-amino quinoline. 2 2 5
b. Chloroquine
c. Amiodiaquine
d. Primaquine
46 Mark the force that is involved in solubilisation of a compound. 2 5 1
b. Dipole dipole
c. Ionic bond
d All the above
47 Same number of atom or bond with different spatial arrangement are 2 5 5

justified by
b. Stereo Isomerism
d. None of above
48 Different protein subunit in a multiprotein complex are outlined by 2 5 4
49 Select the terms which refers to the molecular modelling 2 5 3

computational method that use quantum physics
b. Quantum theory
c. Quantum physics
d. All the above
50 Interpret the agents that act as irreversible inhibitors 2 5 2
a. Statins
c. Sulphonamides
d. Penicillins
51 Identify the aminoglycoside present in Amikacin 2 1 1
a. Tobramycin
b. Streptomycin
c. Spectinomycin
d. Kanamycin A
52 Interpret the following antiplatelet drugs as a prodrug. 2 2 2
a. Clopidogrel
b. Tirofiban
c. Aspirin
d. Dipyridamole
53 Mark the earliest discovered prodrug. 2 2 1
a. Prontosil
b. Sulphanilamide
c. Aspirin
d. Salicylic acid
54 Show the prodrugs that are less toxic in mammals than in insects. 2 2 3
a. Acetylcholine
b. Bethanechol
c. Physostigmine
d. Pilocarpine
55 Identify the two main targets currently used in anti HIV therapy. 2 3 1

56 Select an approved drug for hepatitis B in adults , known as 2 3 3
a. Entecavir
b. Delavirdine
c. Efavirenz
d. Tenofovir
57 .Identify an antiprotozoal agentamong the following 2 4 1
a. Metronidazole
b. Proflavine
d. Nitrofurantoin
58 Mark a benzimidazole derivative among the following? 2 4 1
a. Praziquantel
b. Niclosamide
c. Mebendazole
d. Levamisole
59 Interpret the Strategies that increase the polarity and water solubility 2 5 2
of drug

60 Evaluate the method used to increase polarity and water solubility of 2 5 5
drug
61 Select the mechanism of action of sulbactam? 2 1 3

substrate
62 Identify aminoglycoside which is used orally 2 1 1
a. Neomycin
b. Paramomycin
c. Both of above
d. None of above
63 Show the Chiral centres are present in Chloramphenicol 2 2 1
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Four
64 Show the drug which is narrow spectrum antibiotic 2 2 1
a. Penicilin G
b. Chloramphenicol
c. Gentamycin
d. None of these
65 Identify a prodrug among the following 2 2 1
a. Enalapril
b. Clonidine
c. Salmeterol
d. Acetazolamide
66 Select the enzyme inhibited by Ciprofloxacin 2 3 3
a. DNA gyrase
b. DNA polymerase
c. topoisomerase-4
d. none of above
67 Identify a suitable example of second generation fluoroquinoline 2 3 1

derivative.
a. ciprofloxacin
b. ofloxacin
c. levofloxacin
d. all the above
68 Select the correct statement for SAR studies of Isoniazid. 2 3 3
d. All the above

69 Mark the drug in which imidazole ring is present 2 4 1
a. Ciclopirox
b. Butaconazole
c. Griseofulvin
d. Co-trimoxazole
70 Identify a potent inhibitor of Thymidylate synthatase 2 4 1
a. Naftifine
b. 5-Flucytosine
c. Ketoconazole
d. Ciclopirox
71 Select the sulphonamide used in treatment of eye infection. 2 4 3
a. Cotrimoxazole
b. Sulphadiazine
72 Identify the chemical nature of tetracycline? 2 1 1
a. Acidic
b. Basic
c. Neutral
d. Amphoteric
73 Interpret the carbon that involves in the epimerisation reaction of 2 1 2

tetracycline?
a. C-3
b. C-4
c. C-10
d. C-12
74 Mark the disease in which Tetracycline is used 2 1 1
a. Brucellosis
b. Chlamydia
d. All the above
75 Interpret the form in which Chloramphenicol is excreted in urine. 2 2 2
a. C1-glucuronides
b. C-2 glucuronides
c. Both of above
d. None of above
76 Interpret the isoelectric pH of tetracycline 2 1 2
a. 5
b.7
c. 8
d. 9
77 Evaluate the following drug which is not a prodrug 2 2 5
a. Dopamine
b. Clopidogrel
c. Cyclophosphamide
d. Acyclovir
78 Predict a prodrug of thiol metabolite. 2 2 3
a. Prednisone
b. Dipivefrine
c. Clopidogrel
d. Fluorouracil
79 Select the antimalarial drug having gametocidal effect is 2 2 3
a. Pyrimethamine
b. Chloroquine
c. Diazepam
d. Pyrazinamide
80 Predict the drug of choice for treatment of malaria. 2 2 3
a. Chloroquine
b. Isoniazid
c. Diazepam
d. Pyrazinamide
81 Identify the mechanism of action of sulphonamides. 2 4 1
82 Show the effect if combination of sulphonamide and trimethoprim is 2 4 3

given
83 Interpret the sulphonamide class by which sulphadoxine belongs 2 4 2

84 Identify the alkaloid used in the treatment of amoebiasis? 2 4 1
a. Metronidazole
85 Select the disease whose drug of choice for treatment is 2 4 3

sulphamethoxazole
c. Eye infection
d. Pneumonia
86 Mark luminal agents among the following 2 4 1
a. Dapsone
b. Metronidazole
d. Emetine
87 Which of the following statements describes best lead compound? 2 5 1



market
88 Which of the following statements describes chemical space 2 5 1

correctly.

plant

reaction

the market
89 Identify the kind of interactions that are involved in binding a drug to 2 5 1

d. All the above
90 Identify which of the following side chain that may be important in 2 5 1

a. aspartate
b. glycine
c. serine
d. valine
91 Fragment based lead discovery involves studying how a series of 2 5 1

a. Isotopes
b. Isomers
c. Aptamers
d. Epitopes
92 Combinatorial chemistry is used at various stages of drug design. 2 5 3

93 Identify the statements does not define linkers. 2 5 1


94 Scaffold is described by ........... 2 5 1

compounds
95 Select a characteristic feature of ideal prodrug. 2 2 3

2the active product


nontoxic
96 Interpret the prodrugs which is also used as Anti- influenza drug. 2 2 2
a. Clopidogrel
b. Oseltamivir
c. Ampicillin
d. Elanapril
97 Identify the asymmetric centres are present in oxytetracycline and 2 1 1

doxycycline?
a. Four
b. Five
c. Six
d. Seven
98 Predict the following as prodrug of 5- Aminosalicylic acid. 2 2 3
a. Cyclophosphamide
b. Fluorouracil
c. Sulfasalazine
d. Mercaptopurine
99 Identify the mechanism of action of Tetracycline 2 1 1
100 Mark the disease in which streptomycin is used mainly 2 1 1

a. Gonorrhoea
b. Tuberculosis
c. Leprosy
d. Throat infections
Univ. Roll no:

Online PUE Examination, (2020-2021) Even Semester
NOTE:
2) No negative marking
(50x2=100)
1 Select the most serious adverse effect associated with 2 1 4
aminoglycosides that can have long-term consequences:
A. Neurotoxicity
B. Nephrotoxicity
C. Ototoxicity
D. Hepatotoxicity
lactams?
3 Tazobactam is used with which drug in the treatment of 2 1 3
Pseudomonas aeruginosa infections?
A. Flucloxacillin
B. Piperacillin
C. Ticarcillin
D. Penicillin V
A. Thiazolidine
B. Beta lactam
A. Penicillin
B. Cephalosporin
C. Aminoglycoside
contains
A. Proteins
B. Peptidoglycans
C. NAG only
D. Proteoglycans
A. Beta lactam
B. Acyl side chain
C. Carboxylic acid
A. Amoxicillin
B. Penicillin G
C. Piperacillin
D. Cloxacillin
Kanamycin
Penicillin
Tetracycline
Cephalosporin
a. Mineral Acid
b. Dilute acids
c. Enzyme
a. Penicillin
b. Cephalosporins
c. Amikacin
d. Tetracycline
13 An example of acid resistant and penicillinase resistant penicillin is 2 1 1
a. Penicillin-G
b. Penicillin-V
c. Cloxacillin
d. Amoxicillin
b. Cefpodoxime
c. Cephalexin
d. Cefepime
a. Clavulanic acid
b. Sulbactam
c. Tazobactam
d. All the choices
a. Penicillin-G
b. Penicillin-V
c. Penicillin-X
a) Lactone
b) amide
c) amino
d) lactic acid

a) Penicilloic acid
b) Penilloic acid
c) Penicillamine
Amino antibiotics
glycoside
None of the choices
a) Streptidine
b) Streptacycle
c) Streptamine
d) Deoxystreptamine
21 What do physicochemical properties of a drug molecule effect? 2 2 4
a) Distribution
b) Metabolism
c) Excretion
d) All of the above
22 What converts Protonsil into Sulfanilamide? 2 2 1

a) Azo reductase
b) Esterase
d) All of the above
23 What is not a reason to use prodrugs? 2 2 3

a) To reduce pain
24 What drug is used to avoid pain at the point of injection during 2 2 3

parenteral administration?
a) Chloramphenicol
b) Enalaprilic acid
c) Dipivefrin HCl
d) Clindamycin phosphate
25 What is an inactive compound transformed by chemical or metabolic 2 2 1
means to an active product?
a) Acid drugs
b) Prodrugs
c)Polyfunctional drugs
d)All
26 ‘(RS)-N’-(7-chloroquinolin-4-yl)-N,N-diethyl-pentane-1,4- 2 2 2
diamineethanol’ is the IUPAC nomenclature of which drug?
a) Chloroquine
b) Beclomethasone
c)Triptorelin
d)Albuterol
27 The drug chloroquine is mainly used for 2 2 1
b) Treatment of AIDS
c)Treatment of malaria
d)All of the above
28 Which of the following species is used for producing erythromycin? 2 2 3

(a) S. erythreus
b)(b) S. griseus
29 What drug is linked to a pro-moiety because of its bitter taste? 2 2 1

a)Chloramphenicol
b)Enalaprilic acid
c)Dipivefrin HCl
d)Clindamycin phosphate
30 What is a prodrug? 2 2 1
a) An excipient which helps in creating the environment for the
drug-dissolving
31 Atovaquinone contains which heterocyclic moiety: 2 2 2
a) pyridine
b) pyrimidine
c) naphthalene
d) morphine
32 Which of the following is an example of a mutual prodrug? 2 2 2
35 Pamaquine is an example of 2 2 1
a. 4-aminoquinoline
c. imidazoles
d. All the choices
36 Drug of Biguanide category is 2 2 1
a. proguanil
b. Penicillin-V
c. mefloquine
37 Proguanil is also known as………... 2 2 1
A. Chloroguanil
B. Bromoguanil
C. Nitroguanil
38 Prodrugs with two active moieties id known as 2 2 4

Mutual prodrugs
Proprodrug
Hard drug
Soft drug
Roxithromycin
Lincomycin
Clarithromycin
Erythromycin
40 Find the drug of macrolide category 2 2 1
A. Neomycin
B. doxycycline
C. erythromycin
D. cefotaxime
41 Name a drug which inhibits herpes viruses 2 3 1
A. Fluroquinolones
B. Trimethoprim
C. Zidovudine
D. Acyclovir
42 Which point in the replication cycle appears most easily blocked by 2 3 4

antivirals?
Virus absorption
Virus penetration
43 1,2,4-triazole is present in 2 3 1
Saquinavir
Acyclovir
Ribavirin
Zalcitabine
3
44 Which of the following is not a first-line drug for treating TB? 2 3 3
a) Isoniazid
b) Rifampicin
c) Cycloserine
d) Pyrazinamide
45 PAS has mechanism of action as 2 3 3
46 Anti-TB drug derived from natural source is 2 3 1
a) rifampin
b) isoniazid
c) ethionamide
d) pyrazinamide
47 Antiviral drug with no heterocyclic ring is: 2 3 2
a) loviride
b) Nelfinavir
c) troviridine
d) Zidovudine
48 The drug which is metabolized by acetylation is 2 3 1
Rifampicin
Ethambutol
Dapsone
Isoniazid
49 Which of the following is TRUE regarding multi drugtherapy (MDT) 2 3 3
of tuberculosis?
a) Continuous phase is Isoniazid +Rifampicin+pyrazinamide for 2
months
50 Which group of FQ structure also facilitate the drug entryinto the G- 2 3 1
bacteria?
a) COOH
b) OH
c) CHO
d) ALL
51 Select the WRONG combination of drug and side effect 2 3 1

52 Viral infection mainly takes place outside host 2 3 2
a) true
b) false
53 Which of the following is nucleoside derivative? 2 3 2
a) Dilavirdin
b) loviride
c) Didanosine
d) Ribavirin
54 Pyrazinamide is pyrazin-3-carboxamide. 2 3 1
A. True
B. False
55 Isoniazid is a prodrug that is activated on the surface of M. 2 3 1

tuberculosis by
56 Quinolones act by inhibiting: 2 3 1

D. DHFR
57 Which of the following belongs to the category NRTIs? 2 3 4

b) Nevirapine only
d) Delavirdine only
58 The following structure is a synthetic antibacterial agent called 2 3 1
ciprofloxacin.
b) Antisense agent
d) Chain terminator
59 2 3 1

a) Salicylic acid
c) Anthranilic acid
60 2 3 1
a) Quinoline
b) Pyrimidine
c) Purine
d) Naphthalene
61 2 4 4
a) Nucleic acid
b) Amino acid
c) Nucleoside
d) Nucleotide
62 Which statement is correct for Amphotericin-B? 2 4 1
a) It is antiprotozoal drugs and it affects nucleic acid
metabolism
b) It is antifungal antibiotic and it affects permeability
of cell membrane.
63 Dapsone is: 2 4 3

b) Phenyl sulfone
64 Trimethoprim is a potent and selective inhibitor of microbial 2 4 3
dihydrofolate reductase.
True
False
65 Sulphonamides are structure analogues and competitive agonists of 2 4 1
para-amino benzoic acid (PABA).
True
False
66 Metronidazole is 2 4 2
67 Miconazole belongs to the category of 2 4 1
a) Imidazole
b) Triazole
68 The long acting sulphonamide is: 2 4 3
b) sulphadiazine
c) sulphadoxime
d) sulphacetamide
69 Example of benzimidazole is 2 4 1
a) pirazine citrate
b) mebendazole
c) metronidazole
d) oxamniquine
70 Replacement of benzene ring in sulphonamide SAR study: 2 4 2
71 Inhibitor of sterol-14-demethylase is: 2 4 1
a) Naftifine
b) 5-fluocytosine
c) Ciclopirox
d) Ketoconazole
72 Cotrimazole is a combination of trimethoprim and …………… 2 4 1
A. Any sulphonamide
C. Oxazole
D. nitrofurantoin
Roxithromycin
Lincomycin
Clarithromycin
Erythromycin
74 Which antifungal drug contains bis-triazole nucleus? 2 4 1
A. Fluconazole
B. Ketoconazole
C. Clotrimazole
D. All
75 The drug that selectively bind to ß-tubulin inhibiting polymerization, 2 4 1

thus preventing the formation of microtubules and so stopping cell
division is
A. Sulphathiazole
B. Cycloserine
C. Cephalexin
D. albendazole
76 Septran is trade name of 2 4 4
B. Trimethoprim
C. Cotrimoxazole
77 Heterocyclic nucleus in sulphadiazine is 2 4 1

A. Piperidine
B. Pyridine
C. Oxadiazole
D. Pyrimidine
78 Mechanism of action of sulphonamides is 2 4 3

79 N-[(4-aminophenyl)sulfonyl]acetamide is IUPAC name of 2 4 3
A. Sulphacetamide
B. Sulphasalazine
C. Sulphapyridine
D. Sulphadoxime
80 Mechanism of action of trimethoprim is 2 4 1

81 In drug discovery, the compound that has pharmacological or 2 5 2
biological activity likely to be therapeutically useful, but may still
have suboptimal structure that requires modification to fit better to
the target is called-------------------------
A. Lead compound
B. Target enzyme
C. Prodrug
82 Which approach will be suitable for design a drug if ligand is 2 5 1
unknown and protein structure is known?
a) prodrug design
d) De novo design
83 Method which predicts the preferred orientation of one molecule to a 2 5 3
second when bound to each other to form a stable complex is called--
------.
A. Docking
B. ADME study
C. Toxicology study
84 ---------- is a mathematical relationship between biological activity of 2 5 1
a molecular system.
A. QSAR
B. ADMET
C. Lipinski rule
85 Findout the molecular descriptors for QSAR. 2 5 1
b) pH
c) solubility
86 In silico is referred to as: 2 5 2

87 Which of the following functional groups is most likely to 2 5 2
participate in a dipole-dipole interaction?
a) Aromatic ring
b) Ketone
c) Alcohol
d) Alkene
88 Consider the molecule in blue bound to a binding site. Identify the binding 2 5 1
a) Hydrogen bonds
b) Ionic bond
89 Docking techniques include: 2 5 1
90 Applications of molecular docking is/are: 2 5 1
a) None
91 Structure of protein can be obtained by: 2 5 1
B. NMR
92 What is the symbol π in a QSAR equation? 2 5 1
d) steric parameter
93 Calculate the logP value for the structure shown; logP for benzene = 2.13; 2 5 1
π(Cl) 0.73; π(CONH2) -1.49 ?
1.51
1.22
1.71
94 What does MR represent in a QSAR equation? 2 5 1
B Molar refractivity is an electronic factor
C Molar refractivity is a hydrophobic factor
95 The drugs which are having similar structures and having similar 2 5 3
main pharmacological activity are called
D All the above
96 Docking performed by keeping both ligand and receptor as stable entity 2 5 1
with restriction of movement
A Rigid docking
B Flexible docking
C Both the above
D None of the above

97 The choice of organic solvent to determine partition coefficient is 2 5 1
A n-Hexane
B n-Butane
C n-Octanol
D Water
98 ………parameters explain the relationship between the shape and 2 5 2
size of the drug
B Steric parameters
D All the above

99 The whole molecule’s Hydrophobicity in QASR is expressed as 2 5 2
a) Log P
b) π
c) σ
d) Es
100 Lipinski rule of drug filter describes the drug likeness behaviour with 2 5 1
c Log P value
A Less than 5
B More than 5
C Less than 10
D More than 10
• CO-course outcome generally refers to traits, knowledge, skill set that a student attains
after completing the course successfully.
• Bloom’s level (BL) - bloom’s taxonomy framework is planning and designing of assessment
of student learning
QUESTION BANK
PHARMACEUTICAL CHEMISTRY-VII
MEDICINAL CHEMISTRY-III
(BP601T)
UNIT-1
1. What are beta lactam antibiotics?
Classify Anti-HIV drugs.
3. Give synthesis of any two Penicillins.
4. What is the role of sulfamoyl
group in sulfonamides?
5. Give the synthesis of one
sulphonamide drug.
6. Discuss a mechanism of action of
7. Give the
fluroquinolones.
mechanism of action of
8. Write a use of
aminoglycosides.
tetracyclins.
9 Write a note on nomenclature and
stereochemistry of tetracyclins.
10. Discuss a detail
description of SAR of Tetracyclines.
11. Write the
synthesis and mode of action of sulphacetamide and nalidixic acid.
12. Give the
synthesis and mode of action of any four drug from the
Sulphamethoxazole 2) Sulfadiazine 3) Ofloxacin 4) PAS 5) Dapsone 6) Ethambutolfollowing. 1)
13. What are ABetalactamse
inhibitors? Explain their mode of action with
14. What are example.
Cephalosporins? Classify them and discuss their SAR.
15. Give the chemical
name, synthesis and uses of
Doxycycline
and Clotrimazole.
UNIT-2
1. Writea short note on
Antibacterial agents. Give the synthesis of Isoniazid.
2. What are Quinolones? And discuss the
3. What
development of fluoroquinolones.
are Anti malarial Drugs? Discuss the role of Artemisia as Anti malarial.
4. Give the synthesis and uses of Primaquine and Albandazole.
5. Give the synthesis and mode of action
of Diloxanide and
6. Give the synthesis and uses of Pyrimethamine.
7.
chloramphenicol and chloroquin.
What are biguanides? Give the mechanism
of action of
8. Give the mechanism of action of
biguanides.
pyrimethamine and artemether.
9. Write SAR of Quinolones.
10. What are prodrugs?
Explain its application.
UNIT-3
1. Write a short note Antitubercular agents. Give the synthesis of Isoniazid.
on
2. What are antitubercular antibiotics? And discuss the
development
of rifampicin.
Discuss the role of ciprofloxacin.
Anti UT anti-infective agents?
What are
3 and Albandazole.
and uses of Primaquine
4. Give the synthesis Diloxanide and
Pyrimethamine.
mode of action of
and
Give the synthesis
5. nitrofurontoin and acyclovir.
and uses of
6. Give the synthesis action of antiviral agents.
mechanism of
antiviral agents? Give the
7. What a r e and zidovudin.
mechanism of action
of rimantadine
8. Give the
Quinolones.
Write SAR of of action and uses.
9 antitubercular agents? Explain its
Mechanism
10. What are
UNIT-4
of miconazole.
Give the synthesis
antifungal agents.
1. Write a short note
on
of amphoterecin B.
Discuss the development
agents?
What are synthetic antifungal
2. Discuss the role of
metronidazole.
agents?
3. What a r e antiprotozoal tolnafate.
metronidazole and
and uses of
Give the synthesis
mebendazole.
4. diethylcarbamazine
and
and mode of action
of
5. Give the synthesis and sulphamethoxazole.
and uses of sulphacetamide
6. Give the synthesis
Give the mechanism
of action of sulfones.
What are sulfones?
7. inhibitors.
m e c h a n i s m of action of
folate reductase
8. Give the
Write SAR of sulphonamides. of any two drugs.
9. its Mechanism of action and uses
anthelmintic agents? Explain

10. What are
UNIT-5
1. Write a short note on drug design.

parameters used
for QSAR.
2. What are physicochemical
coefficient.
3. What is partition
on Hammet's
electronic parameter.
4. Give the detailed note
Hansch Analysis.
5. Give the detailed note on
6. Give the detailed note on pharmacophore
modelling
in detail.
7. What is docking technique? Explain
on combinatorial chemistry.
8. Give the detailed note
chemistry.
9. Write the application of combinatorial
What are solid phase and solution phase
synthesis.
10.
Univ. Roll no:

Online CT-1 Examination, (2020-2021) Even Semester
NOTE:
2) Every correct answer has weightage of +2 marks and for every wrong answer -0.5 marks will
be deducted.
(50x2=100)
1 Select the most serious adverse effect associated with aminoglycosides 2 1 4
A. Neurotoxicity
B. Nephrotoxicity
C. Ototoxicity
D. Hepatotoxicity
2 Macrolides and tetracyclines act as 2 2 2
A. Antibiotics
C. Bacteriostatic
3 Mark the selection that is false: 2 1 1
to toxic compounds.
lactams?
5 Which of the following is a second-generation cephalosporin? 2 1 2
a. Cefaclor
b. Ceftazidime
c. Cephalexin
A. d. Cefotaxime
6 Tazobactam is used with which drug in the treatment of Pseudomonas 2 1 3
A. Flucloxacillin
B. Piperacillin
C. Ticarcillin
D. Penicillin V
A. Thiazolidine
B. Beta lactam
A. Penicillin
B. Cephalosporin
C. Aminoglycoside
contains
A. Proteins
B. Peptidoglycans
C. NAG only
D. Proteoglycans
A. Beta lactam
B. Acyl side chain
C. Carboxylic acid
A. Amoxicillin
B. Penicillin G
C. Piperacillin
D. Cloxacillin
13 Penicillin G is also known as 2 1 1
14 Cephalothin is 2 1 1
A. Tetracycline
B. Penicillin
C. Cephalosporin
D. Kanamycin
Kanamycin
Penicillin
Tetracycline
Cephalosporin
16 Bactericidal action is shown by 2 1 2
c. Antiviral agents
a. Mineral Acid
b. Dilute acids
c. Enzyme
a. Penicillin
b. Cephalosporins
c. Amikacin
d. Tetracycline
19 An example of acid resistant and penicillinase resistant penicillin 2 1 1
is
a. Penicillin-G
b. Penicillin-V
c. Cloxacillin
d. Amoxicillin
b. Cefpodoxime
c. Cephalexin
d. Cefepime
a. Clavulanic acid
b. Sulbactam
c. Tazobactam
d. All the choices
a. Penicillin-G
b. Penicillin-V
c. Penicillin-X
23 23. Amidases catalyse the conversion of the C-6 amide of 2 1 2
Penicillins to
a. An amine
b. An aldehyde
c. An acid
24 Identify the position of carboxylic acid group in penicillins: 2 1 1
a) C-3
b) C-2
c) C-6
d) C-7
25 C-12 position is a part of keto-enol system in: 2 1 2
a) Macrolide
b) Penicillin
c) Tetracyclines
26 Inhibition of crosslining of peptidoglycan is the mechanism of action 2 1 3
of:
a) Cephalosporins
b) Penicillins
d) None
27 2 1 1
a) Lactone
b) amide
c) amino
d) lactic acid
29 . Dimethyl amino substituent is present in: 2 1 1
Doxycyclin
Minocycline
Methacycline
Demeclocycline
a) Penicilloic acid
b) Penilloic acid
c) Penicillamine
31 In cephalosporins, higher resistance to hydrolysis by beta lactamases 2 1 1
is shown by:
32 . The keto-enoltautomerism of ring A in carbon atom 1 and 3 is a 2 1 1
common feature to all biologically active tetracyclines.
a) True
b) False
33 Which of the following is the example of first generation 2 1 1
cephalosporin?
a) Cephalothin
b) Cefamandole
c) Cefotoxime
d) Cefepime
34 Structurally all penicillins have only beta-lactam present in them. 2 1 1
a) True
b) False
Amino antibiotics
glycoside
None of the choices
a) Streptidine
b) Streptacycle
c) Streptamine
d) Deoxystreptamine
37 Aminoglycoside derived from Micromonospora is/are 2 1 1
a. Gentamicin
b. Streptomycin
c. Neomycin
d. Kanamycin
38 Which drug works by binding to ribosomes for inhibiting protein 2 1 2
synthesis
a) Kanamycin
b) Amoxicillin
c) Penicillin
d) Cephalexin
39 Which antibiotic is first active antibiotic for TB 2 1 2
a) Kanamycin
b) Streptomycin
c) Penicillin

40 Sterptomycin contain 2 1 2
b) Streptidine
c) Streptose

41 Streptidine act as 2 1 3
a) Acidic group
b) Basic group

42 Two guanidine groups are present in 2 1 2
a) Streptamine
b) Streptose
c) Ribose
d) Streptidine
43 Different components of Kanamycin are 2 1 1
a) Kanamycin A
b) Kanamycin B
c) Kanamycin C

44 Source of Kanamycin is 2 1 2

45 Which ring is different in Kanamycin A, B and C? 2 1 1
II
III
I and III
46 Kanamycin A, B and C differ in the sugar moieties attached to the 2 2 2
a. 1st
b. 2nd
c. 4th
d. 6th
47 Neamine is name of 2 1 1
a. Neomycin A
b. Neomycin B
c. Neomycin C
d. Kanamycin
48 Neomycin is isolated from 2 1 2

49 . Neomycin B and C differ only in configuration of amino methyl 2 1 1
group in Neosamine which is linked to ribose unit
True
False
50 Neomycin is too toxic to be used parenterally, limited to 2 1 2
a) Oral use
b) IV use
c) Topical use

51 Derive the name of structure 2 1 6
a. Tetracycline
c. Roxithromycin
d. minocycline
52 Tetracyclines are derivatives of 2 1 2
53 Broad spectrum antibiotic is 2 1 1
a. Aminoglycoside
b. Penicillin
c. Tetracycline
d. Erythromycin
54 Epitetracyclines are 2 1 1
55 The fusion of A and B ring in tetracycline is 2 1 2
a. Cis
b. Trans
c. Not rotable
56 C-2 of tetracycline has which group? 2 1 3
a. Carboxamide
b. Amine
d. Carboxylic acid
57 Double bond is present in ring B of tetracycline at 2 1 3
a. 11a and 12
b. 10a and 11
c. 6 and 5a
58 Which statement is false for tetracycline? 2 1 1
59 Tetracyclines should not be taken with 2 1 2
a. Milk
b. Iron
c. Magnesium
60 Tetracycline inhibits protein synthesis by 2 1 1
c. Inhibiting 30S subunit and inhibits binding od aminoacyl
tRNA
61 Design the name of antibiotic in which there is absence of -OH at 6th 2 1 6
position manking it acid stable.
a. Penicillin
b. Doxycycline
c. Tetracycline
62 Tetracycline is derived by fermentation of 2 1 1
63 Which drug is basically used in Acne? 2 1 1
b. Tetracycline
c. Kanamycin
a. Tetracycline
b. Penicillin
c. Cephalosporin
d. Kanamycin
65 Phototoxicity caused in some tetracycline derivatives is due to 2 1 1
a. C-6 Chlorine
b. C-7 Chlorine
c. C-11 Chlorine
66 Tetracycline have ability to undergo epimerization making less active 2 1 2
a. C-4
b. C-7
c. C-11a
d. C-12
67 Recommend the number of chiral carbons in tetracycline? 2 1 5
a. 4
b. 6
c. 5
d. 10
68 How many chiral carbons are there in oxytetracycline? 2 1 2
a. 4
b. 6
c. 5
d. 10
69 Which antibiotic is contraindicated in for children below age 8 and 2 1 1
in pregnancy?
a. Amoxicillin
b. Tetracycline
c. Diclofenac
70 …….functions of tetracycline form stable chelate with polyvalent 2 1 2
metal ions
a. Acidic
b. Basic
c. Lactone
71 In presence of base tetracycline degrade to form inactive form called 2 1 1
a. Rolitetracycline
b. Oxytetracycline
d. Isotetracycline
72 Which ring of tetracycline is already appropriately substituted? 2 1 4
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
73 Examine the options for an example of anti-staphylococcal penicillin 2 1 4
is
a. Methicillin
b. Cloxacillin
c. Oxacillin
74 Aminopenicillin makes penicillins more polar to extend their action 2 1 1
on Gram negative bacteria for example
a. Ampicillin
b. Penicillin-G
c. Carbenicillin
d. oxacillin
75 Demonstrate the term which can be used for beta-lactams 2 1 3
a. Azetidinone
b. Lactone
c. Cyclic amide
a. Cephalosporins
b. Penicillins
c. Monobactam
d. Carbepenam
77 Identify the configuration of active penicillin 2 1 3
a. 3S,5R,6R
b. 2S,3R,4R
c. 3R,5S,6S
d. 3S,5S,6S
78 What is the basic nucleus of penicillin? 2 1 1
a. Penam
b. Cepham
79 ….. is the active-nucleus of penicillin 2 1 1

a. Penam
b. 6-APA
c. 7-ACA
d. 6-ACA
80 Chemical degradation end product of cephalosporin by acylase and 2 1 1
water is
a. 7-ACA
b. Desacetyl-7ACA
• CO-course outcome generally refer to traits, knowledge, skill set that a student
attains after completing the course successfully.
• Bloom’s level (BL) - bloom’s taxonomy framework is planning and designing of
assessment of student learning
1.keto-enol system at C-12 is present in
tetracyclines
2.which inhibits transpeptidase-Ser-OH?
beta lactams
3.Carboxylic acid is present in penicillin at which position
3rd C
4.Who is regarded as the father of chemotherapy?
Paul Ehrlich
5.Which is the synthetic antibiotic having inhibiting 50S ribosomal subunit?
Chloramphenicol
6.Which antibiotic is bacterial cell wall synthesis inhibitor?
Cephalosporins, penicillin, monobactam
7.Which drugs act by interfering with functioning of cytoplasmic membrane?
Polymyxin, Amphotericin B, Nystatin
8.Which is the beta lactam inhibitor?
Clavulanic acid, Sulbactam, Tazobactam
9.Which antibiotic is protein synthesis inhibitor?
Erythromycin
10.Which antibiotic interferes with nucleic acid biosynthesis?
Rifampin
11.Penicillin was discovered by
Alexander Fleming
12.Which heterocyclic ring is present in chemical synthesis of penicillin?
Thiazolidine
13.Basic ring present in penicillin is
Penam
14.Different derivatives of penicillins are
6-amino penicillanic acid
15.Penicillins are degraded by
Acid, base, penicillinase
16.On acid degradation, penicillin gets converted to
Penillic acid
17.On alkali degradation, penicillin is converted to
Penicilloic acid
18.Identify the structure
Penicillin G
19.Penicillin V is also known as
Phenoxy methyl penicillin
20.Penicillin G is also known as
Benzyl penicillin and natural penicillin
21.Which of the following is penicillinase susceptible?
Phenoxy methyl penicillin
22.Identify
piperacillin
23.Give chemical class
ureido penicillin
24.Penicillins inhibit bacterial cell wall by inhibiting enzyme
transpeptidase
25.Primarilly penicillin’s were effective against strains of
G+
26.Which of the following is prodrug?
Bacampicillin
27.which describe penicillin
Bactericidal, Inhibit cell wall synthesis, cause bacteria to die by cell lysis
28.The stability of benzyl penicillin can be increased by substitution of .... at alpha position of amide function
electron withdrawing group
29.Which is not an extended spectrum penicillin?
Oxacillin
30.identify
Cloxacillin
31. Antibiotics are used to treat infections by
Bacteria
32.Which of the following species is used for producing streptomycin?
S. griseus
33.What is meant by antibiotic resistance?
It means the bacteria have developed antibiotic resistance
34.Which of the following species is used for producing tetracycline?
S. aureofaciens
35.Which of the following antibiotics are most likely responsible for hypotension, itching and other side
effects?
Vancomycin
36.What type of side effect is most commonly observed in beta-lactam antibiotics?
Allergic reaction
37.Which of the following species is used for producing erythromycin?
S. erythreus
38.What drug is linked to a pro-moiety because of its bitter taste?
Chloramphenicol
39.What is an inactive compound transformed by chemical or metabolic means to an active product?
Prodrugs
40.Which of the following effect the outcome of drug molecules?

Where it is absorbed, Its solubility in the stomach, plasma or in aqueous IV, Compatibility with other drugs
41.What enzyme activates Idoxuridine?
Viral thymidine kinase
42.What is not a reason to use prodrugs?
Increase toxicity
43.What drug is used to avoid pain at the point of injection during parenteral administration?
Clindamycin phosphate
44.What do physicochemical properties of a drug molecule effect?
Distribution, Metabolism, Excretion
45.What converts Prontosil into Sulfanilamide?
Azo reductase
46.Which of the following are polyfunctional drugs?
Amoxicillin and Ciprofloxacin
47.Which of the following are used to treat a wide range of infections?
broad-spectrum antibiotics
48.‘(RS)-N’-(7-chloroquinolin-4-yl)-N,N-diethyl-pentane-1,4- diamineethanol’ is the IUPAC nomenclature

of which drug?
Chloroquine
49.The drug chloroquine is mainly used for?
Treatment of malaria
50.Select the second line drugs for the treatment of tuberculosis from the following list
Cycloserine, Streptomycin
51.The drug which is metabolized by acetylation is
Isoniazid
52.Select the drug indicated for extended drug resistance tuberculosis (XDR TB)
Linezolid
53.Which of the following is TRUE regarding multi drug therapy (MDT) of tuberculosis
Initial phase is Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Pyrazinamide + Ethambutol for 2 months

54.A 45 year old male HIV patient suffering was developed tuberculosis infection recently. He is under
HAART therapy with saquinavir as one of the drug in regimen. Which of the following drug is less
preferred to be added in to regimen for tuberculosis
Rifampin
55.Under DOT treatment for tuberculosis, reports that blurred vision and unable differentiate red and green
color. Which of the following drug is likely to produce above effects.
Ethambutol
56.Select the WRONG combination of drug and side effect
Isoniazid, optic neuritis
correct side effects
• Rifampin, orange-red tinge

• Capreomycin, ototoxicity
• Pyrazinamide, gout
57. Choose the WRONG combination of drug and side effect
Cefalexin, ototoxicity
Correct side effects
• Ethambutol, optic neuritis

• Rifampicin, liver damage
• Capreomycin, Deafness
58.which group of FQ structure also facilitate the drug entry into the G- bacteria?
COOH
59.The mechanism of ciprofloxacin by inhibiting
DNA gyrase (Topo-II)
60.Give the example of 2nd generation of FQ
levofloxacin
61.moxifloxacin belongs to which generation of FQ
4th
62.Ciprofloxacin active mainly for
G-ve
63.1st generation FQ having low or poor bioavailability
norfloxacin
64.Give an example of urinary antiseptic
Nalidixic acid
65.which of the following drug act by inhibiting acetyl CoA synthesis and blocks carbohydrate metabolism?
Nitrofurantoin
66.Which is the antiviral drug?
Acyclovir
67.Which medication acts against HIV?
zalcitabine
68.Viral infection mainly takes place outside host
false
69. A drug that is used in influenza is oseltamivir
True
70.Naphthyridine ring is present in
Enoxacin, Nalidixic acid
71.In Norfloxacin COOH group is present at
C-3
72.Order of substitutions at C-6 in FQs is
F>Cl,Br,CH3>CN
73.Name a drug which inhibits herpes viruses
Acyclovir
74.Which point in the replication cycle appears most easily blocked by antivirals?
75.PAS has mechanism of action as
Inhibits folic acid synthesis
76.Antiviral drug with no heterocyclic ring is:

loviride
77.Which of the following belongs to the category NRTIs?
a) Acyclovir and Iodoxuridine
78.Which of the following is nucleoside derivative?
Didanosine
79.Pyrazinamide is pyrazin-3-carboxamide.
false
80.Dapsone is:
Diamino-diphenyl sulfone and used as antileprotic drug
81.Sulfonamides are structural analogue of para-aminobenzoic acid (PABA) and thus act as competitive
antagonists in microbial cells.
True
82.Example of benzimidazole is
mebendazole
83.Clotrimazole is a combination of trimethoprim and ...
Sulphamethoxazole
84.Hexamine is also k/n as
Methanamine and hexamethylenetetramine
85.The activity of Hexamine is due to
formaldehyde
86.Piperazino group at C-7 in FQ
broadens spectrum and increases CNS side effects
87.which of them is difluorinated fluoroquinolones
Sparfloxacin, Lomefloxacin
88.Synthesis of nitrofurantoin requires
a) glycine b) urea c) water d) All
89.Which of the following has imidazolidine moeity

Nitrofurantoin
90.acyclovir is derivative of
guanine
91.which of the following is pyrimidine analogue
Idoxuridine
92.azidothymine is
pyrimidine analogue, nucleoside analogue, Zidovudine
93.Zalcitabine is
2',3'-dideoxycytidine
94.Agents used for inhibiting virus attachment, penetration and early replication are
amantadine, anti-influenza drugs
1 Select the most serious adverse effect associated with aminoglycosides
A. Neurotoxicity
B. Nephrotoxicity
C. Ototoxicity
D. Hepatotoxicity
2 Macrolides and tetracyclines act as
A. Antibiotics
C. Bacteriostatic
3 Mark the selection that is false:

to toxic compounds.
4 Which enzyme class and biological function is targeted by beta
lactams?
5 Which of the following is a second-generation cephalosporin?
a. Cefaclor
b. Ceftazidime
c. Cephalexin
A. d. Cefotaxime
6 Tazobactam is used with which drug in the treatment of Pseudomonas
A. Flucloxacillin
B. Piperacillin
C. Ticarcillin
D. Penicillin V
7 Which of the following statements about clavulanic acid is false?

A. It is a beta
-lactamase inhibitor
B. Structurally, it bears a beta
-lactam ring
8 The antimicrobial activity of penicillin is due to which unit
A. Thiazolidine
B. Beta lactam
9 Drug which interferes with bacterial cell wall synthesis is/are
A. Penicillin
B. Cephalosporin
C. Aminoglycoside
10 The action of penicillin requires the presence of cell wall that contains
A. Proteins
B. Peptidoglycans
C. NAG only
D. Proteoglycans
11 What crucial part of penicillin is involved in mechanism of action
A. Beta lactam
B. Acyl side chain
C. Carboxylic acid
12 Which is not penicillinase susceptible?

A. Amoxicillin
B. Penicillin G
C. Piperacillin
D. Cloxacillin
13 Penicillin G is also known as
14 Cephalothin is
A. Tetracycline
B. Penicillin
C. Cephalosporin
D. Kanamycin
15 ……… is aminoglycoside.
Kanamycin
Penicillin
Tetracycline
Cephalosporin
16 Bactericidal action is shown by
c. Antiviral agents
17 Penicillin is degraded by
a. Mineral Acid
b. Dilute acids
c. Enzyme
18 Thiazolidine ring is expanded to 6 membered ring in
a. Penicillin
b. Cephalosporins
c. Amikacin
d. Tetracycline
19 An example of acid resistant and penicillinase resistant penicillin is
a. Penicillin-G
b. Penicillin-V
c. Cloxacillin
d. Amoxicillin
20 An example of third generation cephalosporin is
b. Cefpodoxime
c. Cephalexin
d. Cefepime
21 Beta-lactamase inhibitor is
a. Clavulanic acid
b. Sulbactam
c. Tazobactam
d. All the choices
22 Phenoxymethyl penicillin is
a. Penicillin-G
b. Penicillin-V
c. Penicillin-X

23. Amidases catalyse the conversion of the C-6 amide of Penicillins to
a. An amine
b. An aldehyde
c. An acid
24 Identify the position of carboxylic acid group in penicillins:
a) C-3
b) C-2
c) C-6
d) C-7
25 C-12 position is a part of keto-enol system in:
a) Macrolide
b) Penicillin
c) Tetracyclines
26 Inhibition of crosslinking of peptidoglycan is the mechanism of action of:
a) Cephalosporins
b) Penicillins
d) None
27.Predict the source of Streptomycin:
28 In strong acid solution cephalosporin leads in formation of ………..which makes it inactive.
a) Lactone
b) amide
c) amino
d) lactic acid
29 . Dimethyl amino substituent is present in:
Doxycyclin
Minocycline
Methacycline
Demeclocycline
30 Chemical degradation of penicillins gives
a) Penicilloic acid
b) Penilloic acid
c) Penicillamine
31 In cephalosporins, higher resistance to hydrolysis by beta lactamases is shown by:
32 . The keto-enoltautomerism of ring A in carbon atom 1 and 3 is a common feature to all biologically
active tetracyclines.
a) True
b) False
33 Which of the following is the example of first generation cephalosporin?
a) Cephalothin
b) Cefamandole
c) Cefotoxime
d) Cefepime
34 Structurally all penicillins have only beta-lactam present in them.

a) True
b) False
35 Aminoglycosides are also known as
Amino antibiotics
glycoside
None of the choices
36 Central ring present in streptomycin is
a) Streptidine
b) Streptacycle
c) Streptamine
d) Deoxystreptamine
37 Aminoglycoside derived from Micromonospora is/are
a. Gentamicin
b. Streptomycin
c. Neomycin
d. Kanamycin
38 Which drug works by binding to ribosomes for inhibiting protein synthesis
a) Kanamycin
b) Amoxicillin
c) Penicillin
d) Cephalexin
39 Which antibiotic is first active antibiotic for TB
a) Kanamycin
b) Streptomycin
c) Penicillin

40 Sterptomycin contain
b) Streptidine
c) Streptose
41 Streptidine act as
a) Acidic group
b) Basic group
42 Two guanidine groups are present in
a) Streptamine
b) Streptose
c) Ribose
d) Streptidine
43 Different components of Kanamycin are
a) Kanamycin A
b) Kanamycin B
c) Kanamycin C
44 Source of Kanamycin is
45 Which ring is different in Kanamycin A, B and C?
II
III
I and III
46 Kanamycin A, B and C differ in the sugar moieties attached to the
a. 1st
b. 2nd
c. 4th
47 Neamine is name of
a. Neomycin A
b. Neomycin B
c. Neomycin C
d. Kanamycin
48 Neomycin is isolated from
49 . Neomycin B and C differ only in configuration of amino methyl group in Neosamine which is linked to
ribose unit
True
False
50 Neomycin is too toxic to be used parenterally, limited to
a) Oral use
b) IV use
c) Topical use
51 Derive the name of structure

a. Tetracycline
c. Roxithromycin
d. minocycline
52 Tetracyclines are derivatives of
53 Broad spectrum antibiotic is
a. Aminoglycoside
b. Penicillin
c. Tetracycline
d. Erythromycin
54 Epitetracyclines are
55 The fusion of A and B ring in tetracycline is
a. Cis
b. Trans
c. Not rotable

56 C-2 of tetracycline has which group?
a. Carboxamide
b. Amine
d. Carboxylic acid
57 Double bond is present in ring B of tetracycline at
a. 11a and 12
b. 10a and 11
c. 6 and 5a
58 Which statement is false for tetracycline?
59 Tetracyclines should not be taken with
a. Milk
b. Iron
c. Magnesium
60 Tetracycline inhibits protein synthesis by
c. Inhibiting 30S subunit and inhibits binding od aminoacyl tRNA
61 Design the name of antibiotic in which there is absence of -OH at 6th position making it acid stable.
a. Penicillin
b. Doxycycline
c. Tetracycline
62 Tetracycline is derived by fermentation of
63 Which drug is basically used in Acne?
b. Tetracycline
c. Kanamycin
64.This is an example of
a. Tetracycline
b. Penicillin
c. Cephalosporin
d. Kanamycin
65 Phototoxicity caused in some tetracycline derivatives is due to
a. C-6 Chlorine
b. C-7 Chlorine
c. C-11 Chlorine
66 Tetracycline have ability to undergo epimerization making less active
a. C-4
b. C-7
c. C-11a
d. C-12
67 Recommend the number of chiral carbons in tetracycline?
a. 4
b. 6
c. 5
68 How many chiral carbons are there in oxytetracycline?
a. 4
b. 6
c. 5
d. 10
69 Which antibiotic is contraindicated in for children below age 8 and
in pregnancy?
a. Amoxicillin
b. Tetracycline
c. Diclofenac
70 …….functions of tetracycline form stable chelate with polyvalent
metal ions
a. Acidic
b. Basic
c. Lactone
71 In presence of base tetracycline degrade to form inactive form called
a. Rolitetracycline
b. Oxytetracycline
d. Isotetracycline
72 Which ring of tetracycline is already appropriately substituted?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
73 Examine the options for an example of anti-staphylococcal penicillin is
a. Methicillin
b. Cloxacillin
c. Oxacillin
74 Aminopenicillin makes penicillins more polar to extend their action on Gram negative bacteria for
example
a. Ampicillin
b. Penicillin-G
c. Carbenicillin
d. oxacillin
75 Demonstrate the term which can be used for beta-lactams
a. Azetidinone
b. Lactone
c. Cyclic amide

77 Identify the configuration of active penicillin
a. 3S,5R,6R
b. 2S,3R,4R
c. 3R,5S,6S
d. 3S,5S,6S
78 What is the basic nucleus of penicillin?
a. Penam
b. Cepham
79 ….. is the active-nucleus of penicillin
a. Penam
b. 6-APA
c. 7-ACA
d. 6-ACA
80 Chemical degradation end product of cephalosporin by acylase and
water is
a. 7-ACA
b. Desacetyl-7ACA
Which nucleus is present in beta lactam antibiotics?
a) Azetidinone
b) Diazetidinone
c)Pyrrolidine
d)Imidazoline
Select the mode of action of Clavulanic acid?
a) Beta – lactamase inhibitors
b) Cell wall synthesis inhibitors
c) Inhibit protein synthesis
d) Inhibit DNA synthesis
Which macrolide is used in treatment of Clostridium difcile associated diarrhoea?
a) Azithromycin
b) Erythromycin
c) Fidaxomicin
d) All the mentioned options
Antibiotic with trade name Biaxin is
a) Azithromycin
b) Telithromycin
c) Erythromycin
d) Clarithromycin
The macrolide is used to treat lung infections
a) Azithromycin
b) Erythromycin
c) Telithromycin
d) Clarithromycin
The macrolide does not inhibit CYP3A4
a) Azithromycin
b) Telithromycin
c) Erythromycin
d) Clarithromycin
Side effects associated with Chloramphenicol

a) Gray baby syndrome
b) Blood dyscrasias
c) Aplastic anaemia
d) All of the given options
Which functional group is present in isoniazid.

a) Carboxamide
b) Carbonyl group
c) Carboxylic group
d) Carbohydrazide
Antimycobacterial agent having pyrazine as basic heterocyclic ring

a) Pyrazine
b) Ethambutol
c) Isoniazid
d) Pyrimethamine
Which of the following antitubercular drug is also used in

treatment of leprosy.
a) Ethambutol
b) Diazepam
c) Haldol
d) Isoniazid
heterocyclic ring present in Chloroquine is

a) Isoquinoline
b) Quinoline
c) Pyrimidine
d) Quinazoline
The value for regression coefcient for perfect ft

a) 1
b) 1.5
c) 0
d) 100
Symbol pi represent in QSAR equation

a) Hydrophobicity of the molecule
b) Electronic effect on the substituent
c) Substituent hydrophobicity constant
d) Measures of steric properties of the substituent
fungus that get fermented to produce neomycin

a) Streptomyces fradiae
b) Micromonospora purpura
c) Streptomyces Kanamyceticus
d) Streptomyces tenebrarius
Anthelmintic drug which is amide derivative

a) Praziquantel
b) Mebendazole
c) Piperazine
d) Niclosamide
condition in which Vitamin B6 is administered along with isoniazid
a) Jaundice
b) Diarrhoea
c) Peripheral neuropathy
d) All of them
Interactions that are involved in solubilization of a compound

a) Vanderwaals forces
b) Dipole dipole
c) Ionic bond
d) All the above
Terms which refers to the molecular modelling computational method that use quantum physics
a) Quantum
b) Quantum theory
c) Quantum mechanics
d) all
main targets currently used in anti HIV therapy.

a) Reverse transcriptase and protease
b) Reverse transcriptase and integrase
c) Protease and integrase
d) None
what can be done to increase the polarity and water solubility of drug
a) Replacing an alkyl group
b) Removing polar functional groups
c) Replacing an aromatic ring
d) none
drug in which imidazole ring is present

a) Ciclopirox
b) Butaconazole
c) Griseofulvin
d) Co-trimoxazole
potent inhibitor of Thymidylate synthatase

a) Naftifne
b) 5-Flucytosine
c) Ketoconazole
d) Ciclopirox
Carbon involved in epimerisation reaction of tetracycline

a) C-4
b) C-1
c) C-10
d) C-3
Alkaloid used in the treatment of amoebiasis

a) Metronidazole
b) Diloxanide furoate
c) Emetine hydrochloride
d) Diiodohydroxyquinoline
Which of the following statements describes best lead compound?
a) A compound that contains a element lead
b) A compound from research laboratory that is chosen for clinical and pre clinical studies
c) A molecule that shows some activity or property of interest and serves as the starting point for
development of drug
d) The first compound of the structural class of compounds to reach
Fragment based lead discovery involves studying how series of small molecules interact with the target
binding site. Show the Term used to donate those molecules are.
a) Isotopes
b) Isomers
c) Aptamers
d) Epitopes
prodrug of 5- Aminosalicylic acid.

a) . Cyclophosphamide
b) Fluorouracil
c) Sulfasalazine
d) Mercaptopurine
disease in which streptomycin is used mainly

a) . Gonorrhoea
b) Tuberculosis
c) Leprosy
d) Throat infections
Which of the following side chain that may be important in binding a drug by ionic bonding
a) aspartate
b) glycine
c) serine
d) valine
Calculate the logP value for the structure meta chlorobenzamide; logP for benzene = 2.13; π(Cl) 0.73;
π(CONH2 -1.49 ?
a) 1.51
b) 1.22
c) 1.71
Source of Streptomycin
b) Streptomyces griseus
c) both
d) all
Dimethylamino substituent is present in

a) Minocycline
b) Methacycline
c) Doxycycline
d) Demeclocycline
What is the symbol π in a QSAR equation?

d) steric parameter
Which of the following is one of the rules in Lipinski's rule of five?

a) A molecular weight equal to 600
b) No more than 10 hydrogen bond donor groups
c) No more than five hydrogen bond acceptor groups
d) A calculated logP value less than +5
Docking techniques include:

a) Shape complementarity
b) simulation
c) Both
d) None
What does symbol P represent in a QSAR equation?

a) Partition coefficient
b) pH
c) polarity
d) plasma concentration
The type of interactions in binding a drug to the binding site of a protein

a) hydrogen bonds
b) van der Waals interactions
c) ionic bonds
d) all
Perfect fit regression coefficient
a) 1
b) 4
c) 10
d) 0
Privileged scaffold
a) scaffold in many drugs having different activities
b) scaffold easily synthesiszed
c) patentable scaffold
d) none
The negative value of σ

a) electron donating
b) electron withdrawing
c) both
d) none
e)
The position of carboxylic acid group in penicillin:
a) C-3
b) C-1
c) C-1
d) All
Antibiotics inhibits peptidoglycan are
a) Cephalosporin
b) Penicillin
c) Both cephalosporin and penicillin
d) Never
The keto-enol system is present in as a part of C-12 position

a) Macrolide
b) Penicillin
c) Tetracyclines
d) All
Clavulanic acid is
a) Penicillins
b) Cephalosporins
c) Beta lactamases inhibitors
d) Fluoroquinolones
The important part of penicillin responsible for its mechanism of action is

a) β-lactam ring
b) Carboxylic acid
c) Acyl side chain
d) Thiazolidine ring
The reaction catalyzed by β-lactamase enzyme is

a) cross linking reaction for cell wall formation
b) hydrolysis of acyl side chain
c) hydrolysis of four membered ring of penicillin
d) biosynthesis of penicillin from amino acids
Grey Baby syndrome is due to

a) Penicillin
b) Erythromycin
c) Chloramphenicol
d) Streptomycin
Chlorquine is:
a) 4-amino quinoline
b) 4,6- diamino quinoline
c) Mefloquinine derivative
Atovaquinone has:
a) pyridine
b) pyrimidine
c) naphthalene
d) morphine
The term prodrug

a) Albert
b) Einstein
c) Donal
Antimalarial drug are

a) chloroguanide
b) pyrimethamine
c) trimethoprim
d) All the choices
Antimalarial drug as pyrimidine derivative is

a) Pyrimethamine
b) Chloroquine
c) Diazepam
d) Pyrazinamide
The C-7 position of Gatifloxacin contain

a) Piperazine
b) any
c) none
d) 3,5-dimethylpiperazine
The order of activity of which substituent is best among cyclopropyl, cyclobutyl and methylamino
a) Cyclopropyl
b) Cyclobutyl
c) Methylamino
d) All
What is the mechanism of action of PAS?

a) Inhibits mycolic acid synthesis
Early urinary tract antiinfective agent with naphthyridine nucleus is

a) Ciprofloxacin
b) Moxifloxacin
c) Nalidixic acid
d) Norfloxacin
N-1 and C-8 as oxazine moiety is present in

a) ciprofloxacin
b) gatifloxacin
c) ofloxacin
d) all
Quinolones inhibits
a) lipids
b) peptidoglycan
c) DNA gyrase enzyme
d) All at a time
Not having purine nucleus
a) Ribavirin
b) Adefovir
c) Ganciclovir
d) Loviride
Antiviral drug with no heterocyclic nucleus is.

a) Zidovudine
b) Loviride
c) Saquinavir
d) Acyclovir
Benzimidazole is present in
a) A pirazine citrate
b) B mebendazole
c) C metronidazole
d) D oxamniquine
Replacement of benzene ring in sulphonamide SAR study

b) abolishes activity
c) none
d) increases penetration
Imidazole is present in
a) Butaconazole
b) Co-trimoxazole
c) Ciclopirox
d) Griseofulvin
Sterol-14-α inhibitor is
a) Naftifine
b) 5-fluocytosine
c) Ketoconazole
d) Ciclopirox
Antifungal antibiotic is
a) Naftifine
b) 5-fluocytosine
c) Ketoconazole
d) Nystatin
The bis-triazole antifungal

a) Fluconazole
b) Ketoconazole
c) Butaconazole
d) Itraconazoley
Pyrimidine is not present in the structure

a) Dapsone
b) Sulfadoxime
c) Sulfadiazine
d) Pyrimethamine
Docking techniques include

a) Shape complementarity
b) simulation
c) both
Select the most serious adverse effect associated with aminoglycosides that can have long-term consequences:
a. Neurotoxicity
b. Nephrotoxicity
c. Ototoxicity
d. Hepatotoxicity
Macrolides such as clarithromycin are frequently used in treatment of:
e. Intraabdominal infections
f. Respiratory tract infections
g. Urinary tract infections
h. Brain abscesses
Mark the selection that is false:
i. Tetracyclines are not recommended for use in pregnant women and children due to deposition of the
drug in bones and teeth.
j. Tetracyclines generally share the same spectrum of activity but different pharmacokinetics.
k. Tetracyclines should not be stored long term due to conversion to toxic compounds.
l. Resistance to tetracyclines is rare.
Which enzyme class and biological function is targeted by beta-lactams?
A) MurA and intracellular peptidoglycan precursor synthesis

B) Autolysins and cell wall hydrolysis
C) Transpeptidase and peptidoglycan crosslink formation during cell wall synthesis
D) Lipopolysaccharides and Gram- outer membrane integrity
Which of the following is a second-generation cephalosporin?

a. Cefaclor
b. Ceftazidime
c. Cephalexin
d. Cefotaxime
Tazobactam is used with which drug in the treatment of Pseudomonas aeruginosa infections? a. Flucloxacillin
b. Piperacillin
c. Ticarcillin
d. Penicillin V
Which of the following statements about clavulanic acid is false?

a. It is a beta-lactamase inhibitor
b. None of the above
c. Structurally, it bears a beta-lactam ring
d. It has no intrinsic antibacterial activity
The antimicrobial activity of penicillin is due to which unit

a. Thiazolidine
b. Beta lactam
c. penicillanic acid
Drug which interferes with bacterial cell wall synthesis is/are

a. Penicillin
b. Cephalosporin
c. Aminoglycoside
d. Penicillin and cephalosporins
The action of penicillin requires the presence of cell wall that contains
a. Proteins
b. Peptidoglycans
c. NAG only
d. Proteoglycans
What crucial part of penicillin is involved in mechanism of action

a. Beta lactam
b. Acyl side chain
c. Carboxylic acid
d. Thiazolidine moiety
Which is not penicillinase susceptible?

a. Amoxicillin
b. Penicillin G
c. Piperacillin
d. Cloxacillin
Penicillin G is also known as

b. Phenyl penicillin
c. Phenoxy methyl penicillin
d. Propyl penicillin
Cephalothin is
a. Tetracycline
b. Penicillin
c. Cephalosporin
d. Kanamycin ……… is aminoglycoside.
a. Kanamycin
b. Penicillin
c. Tetracycline
d. Cephalosporin
Bactericidal action is shown by

c. Antiviral agents
Penicillin is degraded by
a. Mineral Acid
b. Dilute acids
c. Enzyme
Thiazolidine ring is expanded to 6 membered ring in

a. Penicillin
b. Cephalosporins
c. Amikacin
d. Tetracycline
An example of acid resistant and penicillinase resistant penicillin is

a. Penicillin-G
b. Penicillin-V
c. Cloxacillin
d. Amoxicillin
An example of third generation cephalosporin is

b. Cefpodoxime
c. Cephalexin
d. Cefepime
Beta-lactamase inhibitor is
a. Clavulanic acid
b. Sulbactam
c. Tazobactam
d. All
Phenoxymethyl penicillin is
a. Penicillin-G
b. Penicillin-V
c. Penicillin-X
Amidases catalyse the conversion of the C-6 amide of Penicillins to

a. An amine
b. An aldehyde
c. An acid
Identify the position of carboxylic acid group in penicillins:
a) C-3
b) C-2
c) C-6
C-12 position is a part of keto-enol system in:
a) Macrolide
b) Penicillin
c) Tetracyclines
Inhibition of crosslining of peptidoglycan is the mechanism of action of:

a) Cephalosporins
b) Penicillins
d) None

In strong acid solution cephalosporin leads in formation of ………..which makes it inactive. a) Lactone
b) amide
c) amino
d) lactic acid
Dimethyl amino substituent is present in:

a) Doxycyclin
b) Minocycline
c) Methacycline
d) Demeclocycline
Chemical degradation of penicillins gives

a) Penicilloic acid
b) Penilloic acid
c) Penicillamine
a) All of the choices
1 Identify the sugar present in the peptidoglycan layer of gram positive

bacteria?
b N-acetylmuramic acid
c Both of above
d None of above
2 Show the naturally occurring penicillins out of following?

d. All of the above
3 Relate nucleus which is present in beta lactam antibiotics?

a. Azetidinone
b. Diazetidinone
c. Pyrrolidine
d. Imidazoline
4 Identify the percentage absorption of intact amoxicillin?

a. 15-30
b. 30-50
c. 60-73
d. 75-90
5 Select the mode of action of Clavulanic acid?

6 Identify the macrolide is used in treatment of Clostridium difficile

a. Azithromycin
b. Erythromycin
c. Fidaxomicin
d. All the above
7 Locate the antibiotic trades under the name Biaxin?

a. Azithromycin
b. Telithromycin
c. Erythromycin
d. Clarithromycin
8 Predict the macrolide is used to treat lung infections

a. Azithromycin
b. Erythromycin
d. Clarithromycin
9 Identify the macrolide does not inhibit CYP3A4?

a. Azithromycin
b. Telithromycin
c. Erythromycin
d. Clarithromycin
10 Mark the selection of side effects associated with Chloramphenicol.

b. Blood dyscrasias
c. Aplastic anaemia
11 Mechanism of action of isoniazid is shown by which of the following
12 Select the antimycobacterial agent having pyrazine as basic

heterocyclic ring
a. Pyrazine
b. Ethambutol
c. Isoniazid
d. Pyrimethamine
13 Identify functional group is present in isoniazid.

a. Carboxamide
b. Carbonyl group
c. Carboxylic group
d. Carbohydrazide
14 Which of the following antitubercular drug is also used in treatment

of leprosy.
a. Ethambutol
b. Diazepam
c. Haldol
d. Isoniazid
15 Identify thecharacterstic feature of second line antitubercular drug.

16 Mark the derivative of adamantine.

a. Didanozine
b. Rimantadine
c. Gancyclovir
d. Foscarnet
17 Evaluate which of the following is not used for the treatment of tinea
pedis.
a. Clotrimoxazole
b. Ciclopirox
c. Nystatin
d. Terbinafine
18 Select an antibiotic having amoebicidal activity?

a. Dihydrothiazine
b. Tetracyclins
c Carbapenems
d Penicillins
19 Which of the following anthelmintics is a natural product?

a. Ivermectin
b. Emetine
c. Digitalis
d. Quinidine
20 Identify the heterocyclic ring present in Chloroquine is

a. Isoquinoline
b. Quinoline
c. Pyrimidine
d. Quinazoline
21 Show the value for regression coefficient for perfect fit

a. 0.1
b. 1
c. 10
d. 100
22 What does symbol pi represent in QSAR equation

23 Evaluate the representation of symbol P in QSAR

a. PH
d. Prodrug
24 Ratio of molar concentration of substance in ionised form and

b. Complexation
c. Chelation
d. None of above
25 Select a compound which is capable of forming ring with metal.

b. Legend
c. Chelation
d. All the above
26 Tetracycline inhibition of protein synthesis binds to .........

a. 16s r RNA
b. 28s rRNA
c. 30 s rRNA
d.40s rRNA
27 Identify the functional group necessary for antibacterial activity of

tetracycline
c. Both of above
d. None of above
28 Bacterial resistance to aminoglycosides antibiotics produce by which

enzymes?
a. N-acetylate
b. O-phosphorylate
c. O- adenylate
d. All of above
29 Mark the fungus that get fermented to produce neomycin.

30 Show pharmacophore available in streptomycin?

a. Streptamine
c. Spectinamine
d. Streptadine
31 Show the mechanism of action of Trimethoprim

d. All the above
32 Analyse which of the following are not short acting sulphonamides

b. Sulphafuraole
c. Sulphadimidine
d. Sulphapyridine
33 Show the IUPAC name of N4 -7 –chloroquinolin-4-yl- N1, N1-diethylpentane-1,4-diamine

a. Chloroquine
b. Pamaquine
c. Primaquine
d. Mefloquine
34 Evaluate the antimalarial agent having pyrimidine ring.

a. Mefloquine
b. Pyrimethamine
c. Quinidine
d. Chloroquine
35 Select the Anthelminthic drug which is amide derivative.

a. Praziquantel
b. Mebendazole
c. Piperazine
d. Niclosamide
36 Entecavir is analogue of .......

c. Thymine analogue
d. Aniline analogue
37 Mark the drug used as an urinary antiseptic.

a. nalidixic acid
b. ciprofloxacin
c. ofloxacin
d. levofloxacin
38 Show the fluoroquinoline derivative which is used with the

a. Ofloxacin
b. Moxifloxacin
c. Sparfloxacin
d. All the above
39 Select the fluoroquinoline group facilitate the drug entry into gram
negative bacteria.
a. COOH
b. OH
c. CHO
d. all the above
40 Identify the year in which Ciprofloxacin and its analogues are

introduced?
a. 1975
b. 1977
c. 1980
d. 1990
41 Identify the complex formed by Isoniazid and Pyridoxine

a. Hydrazone
b. Horazone
c. B Complex
d. Chillate
42 Mark the condition in which Vitamin B6 is administered along with

isoniazid
a. Jaundice
b. Diarrhoea
d. All of them
43 Show causative agent for leprosy

d. None of above
44 Select the drug that is effective against mycobacteria only.

a. Isoniazid
b. Streptomycin
c. Rifampin
d. Kanamycin
45 Evaluate a drug which is not a derivative of 4-amino quinoline.

b. Chloroquine
c. Amiodiaquine
d. Primaquine
46 Mark the force that is involved in solubilisation of a compound.

b. Dipole dipole
c. Ionic bond
d All the above
47 Same number of atom or bond with different spatial arrangement are

justified by
b. Stereo Isomerism
d. None of above
48 Different protein subunit in a multiprotein complex are outlined by

49 Select the terms which refers to the molecular modelling computational method that use quantum
physics
b. Quantum theory
c. Quantum physics
d. All the above
50 Interpret the agents that act as irreversible inhibitors
a. Statins
c. Sulphonamides
d. Penicillins
51 Identify the aminoglycoside present in Amikacin

a. Tobramycin
b. Streptomycin
c. Spectinomycin
d. Kanamycin A
52 Interpret the following antiplatelet drugs as a prodrug.

a. Clopidogrel
b. Tirofiban
c. Aspirin
d. Dipyridamole
53 Mark the earliest discovered prodrug.

a. Prontosil
b. Sulphanilamide
c. Aspirin
d. Salicylic acid
54 Show the prodrugs that are less toxic in mammals than in insects.
a. Acetylcholine
b. Bethanechol
c. Physostigmine
d. Pilocarpine
55 Identify the two main targets currently used in anti HIV therapy.
56 Select an approved drug for hepatitis B in adults , known as

a. Entecavir
b. Delavirdine
c. Efavirenz
d. Tenofovir
57 .Identify an antiprotozoal agentamong the following

a. Metronidazole
b. Proflavine
d. Nitrofurantoin
58 Mark a benzimidazole derivative among the following?

a. Praziquantel
b. Niclosamide
c. Mebendazole
d. Levamisole
59 Interpret the Strategies that increase the polarity and water solubility
of drug
60 Evaluate the method used to increase polarity and water solubility of

drug
61 Select the mechanism of action of sulbactam?

substrate
62 Identify aminoglycoside which is used orally

a. Neomycin
b. Paramomycin
c. Both of above
d. None of above
63 Show the Chiral centres are present in Chloramphenicol

a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Four
64 Show the drug which is narrow spectrum antibiotic

a. Penicilin G
b. Chloramphenicol
c. Gentamycin
d. None of these
65 Identify a prodrug among the following

a. Enalapril
b. Clonidine
c. Salmeterol
d. Acetazolamide
66 Select the enzyme inhibited by Ciprofloxacin

a. DNA gyrase
b. DNA polymerase
c. topoisomerase-4
d. none of above
67 Identify a suitable example of second generation fluoroquinoline

derivative.
a. ciprofloxacin
b. ofloxacin
c. levofloxacin
d. all the above
68 Select the correct statement for SAR studies of Isoniazid.

d. All the above
69 Mark the drug in which imidazole ring is present

a. Ciclopirox
b. Butaconazole
c. Griseofulvin
d. Co-trimoxazole
70 Identify a potent inhibitor of Thymidylate synthatase

a. Naftifine
b. 5-Flucytosine
c. Ketoconazole
d. Ciclopirox
71 Select the sulphonamide used in treatment of eye infection.

a. Cotrimoxazole
b. Sulphadiazine
72 Identify the chemical nature of tetracycline?

a. Acidic
b. Basic
c. Neutral
d. Amphoteric
73 Interpret the carbon that involves in the epimerisation reaction of

tetracycline?
a. C-3
b. C-4
c. C-10
d. C-12
74 Mark the disease in which Tetracycline is used

a. Brucellosis
b. Chlamydia
d. All the above
75 Interpret the form in which Chloramphenicol is excreted in urine.

a. C1-glucuronides
b. C-2 glucuronides
c. Both of above
d. None of above
76 Interpret the isoelectric pH of tetracycline

a. 5
b.7
c. 8
d. 9
77 Evaluate the following drug which is not a prodrug

a. Dopamine
b. Clopidogrel
c. Cyclophosphamide
d. Acyclovir
78 Predict a prodrug of thiol metabolite.

a. Prednisone
b. Dipivefrine
c. Clopidogrel
d. Fluorouracil
79 Select the antimalarial drug having gametocidal effect is

a. Pyrimethamine
b. Chloroquine
c. Diazepam
d. Pyrazinamide
80 Predict the drug of choice for treatment of malaria.

a. Chloroquine
b. Isoniazid
c. Diazepam
d. Pyrazinamide
81 Identify the mechanism of action of sulphonamides.

82 Show the effect if combination of sulphonamide and trimethoprim is

given
83 Interpret the sulphonamide class by which sulphadoxine belongs
84 Identify the alkaloid used in the treatment of amoebiasis?

a. Metronidazole
85 Select the disease whose drug of choice for treatment is

sulphamethoxazole
c. Eye infection
d. Pneumonia
86 Mark luminal agents among the following

a. Dapsone
b. Metronidazole
d. Emetine
87 Which of the following statements describes best lead compound?

market
88 Which of the following statements describes chemical space correctly.

plant
reaction
the market
89 Identify the kind of interactions that are involved in binding a drug to

d. All the above
90 Identify which of the following side chain that may be important in
a. aspartate
b. glycine
c. serine
d. valine
91 Fragment based lead discovery involves studying how a series of

a. Isotopes
b. Isomers
c. Aptamers
d. Epitopes
92 Combinatorial chemistry is used at various stages of drug design.

93 Identify the statements does not define linkers.

94 Scaffold is described by ...........

compounds
95 Select a characteristic feature of ideal prodrug.

2the active product
nontoxic
96 Interpret the prodrugs which is also used as Anti- influenza drug.
a. Clopidogrel
b. Oseltamivir
c. Ampicillin
d. Elanapril
97 Identify the asymmetric centres are present in oxytetracycline and

doxycycline?
a. Four
b. Five
c. Six
d. Seven
98 Predict the following as prodrug of 5- Aminosalicylic acid.

a. Cyclophosphamide
b. Fluorouracil
c. Sulfasalazine
d. Mercaptopurine
99 Identify the mechanism of action of Tetracycline

100 Mark the disease in which streptomycin is used mainly

a. Gonorrhoea
b. Tuberculosis
c. Leprosy
d. Throat infection
1 Select the most serious adverse effect associated with aminoglycosides that
can have long-term consequences:
A. Neurotoxicity
B. Nephrotoxicity
C. Ototoxicity
D. Hepatotoxicity
2 Which enzyme class and biological function is targeted by beta- lactams?
c. Transpeptidase and peptidoglycan crosslink formation during cell wall synthesis
3 Tazobactam is used with which drug in the treatment of Pseudomonas aeruginosa

infections?
A. Flucloxacillin
B. Piperacillin
C. Ticarcillin
D. Penicillin V
4 Which of the following statements about clavulanic acid is false?
5 The antimicrobial activity of penicillin is due to which unit
A. Thiazolidine
B. Beta lactam
6 Drug which interferes with bacterial cell wall synthesis is/are
A. Penicillin
B. Cephalosporin
C. Aminoglycoside
7 The action of penicillin requires the presence of cell wall that contains
A. Proteins
B. Peptidoglycans
C. NAG only
D. Proteoglycans
8 What crucial part of penicillin is involved in mechanism of action

A. Beta lactam
B. Acyl side chain
C. Carboxylic acid
9 Which is not penicillinase susceptible?
A. Amoxicillin
B. Penicillin G
C. Piperacillin
D. Cloxacillin
10 ……… is aminoglycoside. Kanamycin
Penicillin Tetracycline Cephalosporin
11 Penicillin is degraded by
a. Mineral Acid
b. Dilute acids
c. Enzyme
12 Thiazolidine ring is expanded to 6 membered ring in
a. Penicillin
b. Cephalosporins
c. Amikacin
d. Tetracycline
13 An example of acid resistant and penicillinase resistant penicillin is
a. Penicillin-G
b. Penicillin-V
c. Cloxacillin
d. Amoxicillin
14 An example of third generation cephalosporin is
b. Cefpodoxime
c. Cephalexin
d. Cefepime
15 Beta-lactamase inhibitor is
a. Clavulanic acid
b. Sulbactam
c. Tazobactam
d. All the choices
16 Phenoxymethyl penicillin is
a. Penicillin-G
b. Penicillin-V
c. Penicillin-X
17 In strong acid solution cephalosporin leads in formation of
a) Lactone
b) amide
c) amino
d) lactic acid
18 Chemical degradation of penicillins gives

a) Penicilloic acid
b) Penilloic acid
c) Penicillamine
19 Aminoglycosides are also known as Amino antibiotics
glycoside
None of the choices
20 Central ring present in streptomycin is
a) Streptidine
b) Streptacycle
c) Streptamine
d) Deoxystreptamine
21 What do physicochemical properties of a drug molecule effect?
a) Distribution
b) Metabolism
c) Excretion
d) All of the above
22 What converts Protonsil into Sulfanilamide?
a) Azo reductase
b) Esterase
d) All of the above
23 What is not a reason to use prodrugs?

a) To reduce pain
24 What drug is used to avoid pain at the point of injection during parenteral administration?
a) Chloramphenicol
b) Enalaprilic acid
c) Dipivefrin HCl
Clindamycin phosphate
25 What is an inactive compound transformed by chemical or metabolic means to an active
product?
a) Acid drugs
b) Prodrugs c)Polyfunctional drugs d)All
26 ‘(RS)-N’-(7-chloroquinolin-4-yl)-N,N-diethyl-pentane-1,4- diamineethanol’ is the

IUPAC nomenclature of which drug?
a) Chloroquine
b) Beclomethasone c)Triptorelin d)Albuterol
27 The drug chloroquine is mainly used for

b) Treatment of AIDS c)Treatment of malaria
d)All of the above
28 Which of the following species is used for producing erythromycin?

(a) S. erythreus
b)(b) S. griseus
29 What drug is linked to a pro-moiety because of its bitter taste?

a)Chloramphenicol b)Enalaprilic acid c)Dipivefrin
HCl d)Clindamycin phosphate
30 What is a prodrug?
a) An excipient which helps in creating the environment for the drug-dissolving
31 Atovaquinone contains which heterocyclic moiety:
a) pyridine
b) pyrimidine
c) naphthalene
d) morphine
32 Which of the following is an example of a mutual prodrug?
35 Pamaquine is an example of
a. 4-aminoquinoline
c. imidazoles
d. All the choices
36 Drug of Biguanide category is
a. proguanil
b. Penicillin-V
c. mefloquine
37 Proguanil is also known as………...
A. Chloroguanil
B. Bromoguanil
C. Nitroguanil
38 Prodrugs with two active moieties id known as

Mutual prodrugs
Proprodrug Hard drug Soft drug
39 All are macrolides except Roxithromycin

Lincomycin Clarithromycin
Erythromycin
40 Find the drug of macrolide category
A. Neomycin
B. doxycycline
C. erythromycin
D. cefotaxime
41 Name a drug which inhibits herpes viruses
A. Fluroquinolones
B. Trimethoprim
C. Zidovudine
D. Acyclovir
42 Which point in the replication cycle appears most easily blocked by antivirals?
Virus absorption Virus penetration
43 1,2,4-triazole is present in Saquinavir

Acyclovir
Ribavirin
Zalcitabine
3
44 Which of the following is not a first-line drug for treating TB?
a) Isoniazid
b) Rifampicin
c) Cycloserine
d) Pyrazinamide
45 PAS has mechanism of action as
46 Anti-TB drug derived from natural source is
a) rifampin
b) isoniazid
c) ethionamide
d) pyrazinamide
47 Antiviral drug with no heterocyclic ring is:
a) loviride
b) Nelfinavir
c) troviridine
d) Zidovudine
48 The drug which is metabolized by acetylation is Rifampicin
Ethambutol Dapsone
Isoniazid
49 Which of the following is TRUE regarding multi drugtherapy (MDT) of tuberculosis?

a) Continuous phase is Isoniazid +Rifampicin+pyrazinamide for 2 months
50 Which group of FQ structure also facilitate the drug entryinto the G- bacteria?
a) COOH
b) OH
c) CHO
d) ALL
51 Select the WRONG combination of drug and side effect

52 Viral infection mainly takes place outside host
a) true
b) false
53 Which of the following is nucleoside derivative?
a) Dilavirdin
b) loviride
c) Didanosine
d) Ribavirin
54 Pyrazinamide is pyrazin-3-carboxamide.
A. True
B. False
55 Isoniazid is a prodrug that is activated on the surface of M. tuberculosis by

56 Quinolones act by inhibiting:

D. DHFR
57 Which of the following belongs to the category NRTIs?

b) Nevirapine only
d) Delavirdine only
58 The following structure is a synthetic antibacterial agent called ciprofloxacin.
b) Antisense agent
d) Chain terminator
59

a) Salicylic acid
c) Anthranilic acid
60
a) Quinoline
b) Pyrimidine
c) Purine
d) Naphthalene
61
a) Nucleic acid
b) Amino acid
c) Nucleoside
d) Nucleotide
62 Which statement is correct for Amphotericin-B?
a) It is antiprotozoal drugs and it affects nucleic acid metabolism
b) It is antifungal antibiotic and it affects permeability of cell membrane.
63 Dapsone is:

b) Phenyl sulfone
64 Trimethoprim is a potent and selective inhibitor of microbial dihydrofolate
reductase.
True
False
65 Sulphonamides are structure analogues and competitive agonists of para-amino benzoic
acid (PABA).
True
False
66 Metronidazole is
67 Miconazole belongs to the category of
a) Imidazole
b) Triazole
68 The long acting sulphonamide is:
b) sulphadiazine
c) sulphadoxime
d) sulphacetamide
69 Example of benzimidazole is
a) pirazine citrate
b) mebendazole
c) metronidazole
d) oxamniquine
70 Replacement of benzene ring in sulphonamide SAR study:
71 Inhibitor of sterol-14-demethylase is:
a) Naftifine
b) 5-fluocytosine
c) Ciclopirox
d) Ketoconazole
72 Cotrimazole is a combination of trimethoprim and ……………
A. Any sulphonamide
C. Oxazole
D. nitrofurantoin
73 All are macrolides except Roxithromycin
Lincomycin Clarithromycin Erythromycin
74 Which antifungal drug contains bis-triazole nucleus?
A. Fluconazole
B. Ketoconazole
C. Clotrimazole
D. All
75 The drug that selectively bind to ß-tubulin inhibiting polymerization, thus preventing the
formation of microtubules and so stopping cell division is
A. Sulphathiazole
B. Cycloserine
C. Cephalexin
D. albendazole
76 Septran is trade name of
B. Trimethoprim
C. Cotrimoxazole
77 Heterocyclic nucleus in sulphadiazine is

A. Piperidine
B. Pyridine
C. Oxadiazole
D. Pyrimidine
78 Mechanism of action of sulphonamides is

79 N-[(4-aminophenyl)sulfonyl]acetamide is IUPAC name of
A. Sulphacetamide
B. Sulphasalazine
C. Sulphapyridine
D. Sulphadoxime
80 Mechanism of action of trimethoprim is

81 In drug discovery, the compound that has pharmacological or biological activity likely to be
therapeutically useful, but may still have suboptimal structure that requires modification
to fit better to
the target is called
A. Lead compound
B. Target enzyme
C. Prodrug
82 Which approach will be suitable for design a drug if ligand is unknown and protein
structure is known?
a) prodrug design
d) De novo design
83 Method which predicts the preferred orientation of one molecule to a second when bound to
each other to form a stable complex is called--
.
A. Docking
B. ADME study
C. Toxicology study
84 ---------- is a mathematical relationship between biological activity of a molecular system.
A. QSAR
B. ADMET
C. Lipinski rule
85 Findout the molecular descriptors for QSAR.

b) pH
c) solubility
86 In silico is referred to as:

87 Which of the following functional groups is most likely to participate in a
dipole-dipole interaction?
a) Aromatic ring
b) Ketone
c) Alcohol
d) Alkene
88 Consider the molecule in blue bound to a binding site. Identify the binding
a) Hydrogen bonds
b) Ionic bond
89 Docking techniques include:

90 Applications of molecular docking is/are:
a) None
91 Structure of protein can be obtained by:
B. NMR
92 What is the symbol π in a QSAR equation?
d) steric parameter
93 Calculate the logP value for the structure shown; logP for benzene = 2.13;
π(Cl) 0.73; π(CONH2) -1.49 ?
1.51
1.22
1.71
94 What does MR represent in a QSAR equation?
B Molar refractivity is an electronic factor C Molar refractivity is
a hydrophobic factor
95 The drugs which are having similar structures and having similar main pharmacological
activity are called
D All the above
96 Docking performed by keeping both ligand and receptor as stable entity with restriction of
movement
A Rigid docking B Flexible docking C
Both the above
D None of the above
97 The choice of organic solvent to determine partition coefficient is A n-Hexane

B n-Butane
C n-Octanol
D Water
98 ………parameters explain the relationship between the shape and

size of the drug
B Steric parameters
D All the above

99 The whole molecule’s Hydrophobicity in QASR is expressed as
a) Log P
b) π
c) σ
d) Es
100 Lipinski rule of drug filter describes the drug likeness behaviour with c Log P value
A Less than 5 B More than 5 C Less
than 10 D More than 10
1. Most potent narcotic antagonist is

a) Nalorphine
b) Naltrexone
c) Naloxone
d) Levorphanol
2. Which of the followings is a phenathrene derivative?

a) Fentanyl
b) Morhine
c) Methadone
d) Pentazocine
3. Which of the followings opioid analgesics is a strong mu recepator agonist?

a) Pentazocine
b) Naloxone
c) Buprenorphine
d) Morphine
4. Which one Is the pure opioid antagonist among the followings ?

a) Nalorphine
b) Nalbuphine
c) Naloxone
d) Levallorphan
5. The drug naloxone

a) Produces morphine like activity
b) Produces respiratory depression
c) Induces constipation
d) Precipitates withdrawal systoms in morphine addicts
6. Which of the followings opioids analgesics is used in obstetric labor?
a) Fentanyl
b) Pentazocine
c) Meperidine
d) Buprenorphine
7. Which of the followings NSAIDs is a selective COX-2 inhibator ?

a) Diclofenac
b) Celecoxib
c) Indomethacin
d) Piroxicam
9. NSAID primarily promotes as an analgesic, not as an anti- inflammatory agent

a) Naproxen
b) Ibuprofen
c) Ketorolac
d) Piroxicam
10. Most of non-narcotic analgesic have

a) Anti-inflammatory effect
b) Analgesiceffect
c) Antipyretic effect
d) All of the above
11. Which of the followings ring is presenrt is sulindac ?

a) Indol
b) Indene
c) Isoxazole
d) Furan
12. Non-narcotic analgesic are all of the followings drugs EXPECT

a) Parecetamol
b) Acetylsalicylic acid
c) Butorphanol
d) Ketorolac
13. Non-narcotic analgesic are maninaly effective against pain associated with
a) Inflammation or tissue damage
b) Trauma
c) Myocardial infarction
d) Surgery
15. Ibuprofen is a
a) 2-(4-propylphenyl)propionic acid
b) 2-(4-isobytylphenyl)propionic acid
c) 2-(4-ethylphenyl)propionic acid
d) 2-(4-hexylphenyl)propionic acid
16. Which of the followings Sympathomimetics acts indirectly

a) Epinephrine
b) NE
c) Ephedrine
d) Methoxamine
17. Chemically alpha methyldopa is

a) 2-methyl-3 hydroxy-2-tyrosine
b) 6-methyl-4 hydroxy-2-tyrosine
c) 3-methyl-2 hydroxy-2-tyrosine
d) 3-hydroxy-α-methyl-2-tyrosine
18. DOPA is an important natural amino acid and precursor in the biosynthesis of
a) Nor-adrenaline
b) Adrenaline
c) Methyldopa
d) Dopamine
19. Catecholamine includes ther followings EXPECT

a) Norepinephrine
b) Ephedrine
c) Isoproternol
d) Epinephrine
20. Aromatic nucleus present in Propranolol

a) Naphthalene
b) Benzene
c) Anthracene
d) Pyridine
22. Propranolol is uded In the tretement all of the followings disease EXPECT
a) CVS disease
b) Hyperthyroidism
c) Migraine
d) Broncial asthma
23. β1 receptor stimulationm includes all of the followings effect EXPECT
a) Increase in heart ncontractility
b) Bronchodilation
c) Tachycardia
d) Increase in conduction velocity in the atrioventricular node
24. Salbutamol is synthesized from

a) Phenyl acetontrile
b) 4-Hydroxy propiophenone
c) Methyl salicylate
d) Mesitylene derivative
26. Indicate the location of M2 cholinorecepator type

a) Heart
b) Gland
c) Smooth muscle
d) Endothelium
27. Atropine contains

a) One asymmetric carbon
b) Three asymmetric carbon
c) Two asymmetric carbon
d) Four asymmetric carbon
28. Acetylcholine is not used in clinical practice beacause

a) It is very toxic
b) The doses require are very high
c) it is very rapidly hydrolyzed
d) it is very costly
29. Muscarine recepoator are located as

a) Autonomic ganglia
b) Skeletal muscle neuromuscular junction
c) Autonomic effector cells
d) Sensory carotid sinus baroreceptor zone
30. Indicate a reversible cholinsterase inhibator

a) Isoflurophate
b) Carbacol
c) Physostigamine
d) Parathion
31. What is often the first symptom of Parkinson disease
a) Headache
b) Nausea
c) Shaking of a hand or foot
d) Turning of the head
32. How is Parkinson disease treated?

a) Medicine
b) Surgery
c) Radiation
d) a and b
33. Which of the following beta-blockers is beta-1 selective with vasodilatation?

a) Propanolol
b) Carvedilol
c) Nebivolol
d) Atenolol
34. Which medication should be prescribe to all anginal patient to treat a acute attack ?
a) Isosorbide dinitrile
b) Nitroglycerin
c) Nifidepine
d) Parecetamol
35. Which of the followings precessor of nitroglycrine synthesis ?

a) Glycerol
b) Glycol
c) Glucose
d) Gluctiol
36. The calcium channel blocker belongs to diphenyl alkylamine category is

a) Diltizepam
b) Verapamil
c) Bepridil
d) Nitrendipine
37. The calcium channel blocker nifedipine is derivative of

a) Diaminopropranol ether
b) Diphenyl alkylamine
c) Benzothiazepine
d) Dihydropyridine
38. Which of the followings drugs is used in the tretement for the treatement of Glaucoma
a) Timolol
b) Atenolol
c) Propranolol
d) None of theses
39. Which of the followings drugs is ACE inhibitor

a) Timolol
b) Losartan
c) Gaunabenz
d) Lisinorpril
40. Heterocycles present in strcture of timolol is ?

a) Morpholin and thiadiazole
b) Thiadiazole and pyrrazole
c) Morpholin and oxadiazole
d) Oxadiazole and piperdine
41. Ther followings substance are considered to be a related to as an Eicosanoids

a) Prostaglandins
b) Leukotrienes
c) Thromboxanes
d) All of above
42. True about prostacycline

a) Vasoconstriction
b) Aggregation of Platelets
c) Decrease BP
d) Synthesis from vascular endothelium
43. QSAR study of Medicinal chemisrty Q stand for

a) Qualitative
b) Quantitative
c) Both
d) Quantum
44. Which of the following statements best describes a lead compound?
a) A compound that contains the element lead.
b) A compound from the research laboratory that is chosen to go forward for preclinical
and clinical trials
c) A molecule that shows some activity or property of interest and serves as the
starting point for the development of a drug
d) The first compound of a structural class of compounds to reach the marke
45. How many people will be selected for phase I trial?

a) The whole market will be under surveillance
b) 300-3000 people
c) 20-300 people
d) 20-50 people
46. In which of the followings phase of clinical trials healthy normal human volunteers
participate
a) Phase I
b) Phase II
c) Phase III
d) Phase IV
47. Meaning of P in QSAR equation stands for .

a) Permeability (b)
b) Partition coefficient
c) Porosity
d) Purity
48. QSAR stands for

a) Qualitative structure activity relationship
b) Quantitative structure action relationship
c) Quantitative structure activity relationship
d) Qualitative structure activity relativity
49. Clinical trials are performed on

a) Animals
b) Humans
c) Both
50. Combinatorial chemistry or parallel synthesis can be useful at various stages of the drug
design / development process. Which of the following is NOT such a stage?
a) Finding a lead compound
b) Optimising a lead compound
c) structure determination of the lead compound
d) structure-activity relationships of the lead compoun
51. What is the name of the process by which compounds related to a promising compound are made
on a larger scale?
a) Computational chemistry
b) Combinational chemistry
c) Lead optimisation
d) Improvement
52. Which of the following statements is true?

a) Parallel synthesis involves the synthesis of a large number of compounds using the same
reaction sequence, where there is a mixture of compounds in each reaction vessel.
b) Parallel synthesis involves the synthesis of a large number of compounds using the
same reaction sequence, where there is a different, single compound formed in each
reaction vessel.
c) Combinatorial synthesis involves the synthesis of a large number of compounds using a
variety of different synthetic routes to produce a mixture of compounds in each reaction
vessel.
d) A parallel synthesis carried out in a specified number of vessels will produce more
compounds than a combinatorial synthesis.
53. Structure which is used as the starting point for drugs design and development
a) Active Compunds
b) Pharmacophore
c) Lead compound
d) Orphagn drug
54. Indicate cholinestrease activator.

a) Pralidoxime
b) Edrophonium
c) Pilocrapine
d) Isofluorophate
55. The meachinsm of atropine action is

a) Competitive ganglion blockade
b) Competitive muscarinic blockade
c) Competitive Neuromuscular blockade
d) Non- Competitive Neuromuscular blockade
56. Parasympathomimetic drugs causes
a) Bronchodilation
b) Mydriasis
c) Bradycardia
d) Constipation
57. Most widely drug used for motion sickness is

a) Atropine
b) Hyoscyamine
c) Hyoscine
d) None of these
59. Which of the followings alpha -2- adrenorecetor agonist used in treatement of Hypertension
a) Clonidine
b) Methyldopa
c) Both a & b
d) None of above
60. Which of the followings is also used in the management of cyanide poisoning ?
a) isosorbide dinitrate
b) Amyl nitrate
c) Nitroglycerin
d) isosorbide mononitrate
1) The term chemotherapy is used for__________.

a. Treatment of CVS disease
b. Treatment of CNS disease
c. Treatment of disease caused by infective organism
d. Treatment of respiratory disease
Ans. – c
2) Who is regarded as father of chemotherapy?
a. Paul Ehrlich
b. Alexander Fleming
c. Gerhard Domagk
d. None of the above
Ans. – a
3) Which is (are) the narrow spectrum antibiotic(s)?
a. Penicillin
b. Streptomycin
c. Erythromycin
d. All of the above
Ans. – d
4) Which is narrow spectrum antibiotic?
a. Gentamycin
b. Penicillin G
c. Chloramphenicol
d. Aminoglycoside antibiotic
Ans. – c
5) Which is the synthetic antibiotic?
a. Cephalothin
b. Chloramphenicol
c. Tetracycline
d. Penicillin G
Ans. – b
6) Which antibiotic is bacterial cell wall synthesis inhibitor?
a. Cephalosporins
b. Macrolide antibiotics
c. Amino glycoside antibiotic
d. All of the above
Ans. – a
7) Which antibiotic interfere in functioning of cytoplasmic membrane?
a. Polymixins
b. Amphotericin B
c. Nystatin
d. All of the above
Ans. – d
8) Which antibiotic is protein synthesis inhibitor?
a. Penicillin
b. Cephalosporin
c. Erythromycin
d. Rifampin
Ans. – c
9) Which antibiotic interfere with nucleic acid biosynthesis?
a. Lincomycin
b. Rifampin
c. Tetracycline
d. Streptomycin
Ans. – b
10) Penicillin was discovered by scientist ______________.
a. Paul Ehrlich
c. Gerhard Domagk
Ans. – b
11) Which heterocyclic ring is present in the chemical structure of penicillin?
a. Thiazolidine
b. Pyrrolidine
c. Pyrazolidine
d. Thiazole
Ans. – a
12) Which basic ring is present in penicillins?
a. Cepham ring
b. Penam ring
c. Cephem ring
Ans. – b
13) Different penicillins are derivatives of_____________.
a. 6 – nitro penicillanic acid
b. 7- amino penicillanic acid
c. 6- amino penicillanic acid
d. 7- nitro penicillanic acid
Ans. – c
14) Penicillins are degraded by_________.
a. Acid
b. Alkali
c. penicillinase
d. All of the above
Ans. – d
15) On acid degradation, penicillin is converted in to____________.
a. Penicilloic acid
b. Penillic acid
c. Penilloic acid
d. Penicillamine
Ans. – b
16) On alkali degradation, penicillin is converted in to_____________.
a. Penicilloic acid
b. Penillic acid
c. Penilloic acid
d. Penicillamine
Ans. – a
17) Identify the given structure of penicillin.
a. Penicillin V
b. Penicillin G
c. Methicillin
d. Cloxacillin
Ans. – b
18) Which penicillin is a penicillinase susceptible?
a. Methicillin
b. Cloxacillin
c. Oxacillin
d. Phenoxy methyl penicillin
Ans. – d
19) Penicillin V is also known as_____________.
a. Phenoxy methyl penicillin
c. Cloxacillin
d. Carbenicillin
Ans. – a
20) Penicillin G is also known as________________.
b. Natural penicillin
c. Both (a) & (b)
Ans. – c
21) Identify the structure of penicillin.
a. Ampicillin
b. Methicillin
c. Cloxacillin
d. Oxacillin
Ans. – b
22) Identify the chemical class of the given penicillin.
a. Amino penicillin
b. Carboxy penicillin
c. Ureido penicillin
Ans. – a
23) Which is the extended spectrum penicillin?
a. Cloxacillin
b. Ticarcillin
c. Penicillin G
d. Penicillin V
Ans. – b
24) Identify the given structure of penicillin
a. Carbenicillin
b. Ampicillin
c. Cloxacillin
d. Bacampicillin
Ans. – c
25) Identify the chemical class of given penicillin
a. Amino penicillin
Ans. – b
a. Ampicillin
b. Oxacillin
c. Ticarcillin
d. Amoxicillin
Ans. – d
27) Which is not the extended spectrum penicillin
a. Azlocillin
b. Ticarcillin
c. Oxacillin
d. Carbenicillin
Ans. – c
a. Piperacillin
b. Azlocillin
c. Mezlocillin
d. Ampicillin
Ans. – a
29) Give the chemical class of the given penicillin.
a. Amino penicillin
Ans. – c
30) Which is the beta lactamase inhibitor?
a. Clavulanic acid
b. Salbactam
c. Tazobactam
d. All of the above
Ans. – d
31) Penicillins interfere with synthesis of_____.
a. Bacterial cell wall
b. Bacterial protein
c. Nucleic acid
d. All of the above
Ans. – a
32) Penicillins inhibit bacterial cell wall by inhibiting enzyme______.
a. Penicillinase
b. Transpeptidase
c. Lactamase
d. Amidase
Ans. – b
33) In penicillins, beta lactam ring is fused with
a. Thiazolidine
b. Piperidine
c. Pyrrolidine
d. Pyrimidine
Ans. – a
34) Penicillin can be derived from __________________.
a. Penicillium notatum
b. Penicillium crysogenum
c. Both (a) & (b)
Ans. – c
35) Primarily penicillins are effective against strains of__________.
a. Gram negative bacteria
b. Gram positive bacteria
c. Both (a) & (b)
Ans. – b
36) The stability of benzyl penicillin can be increased by substitution of_________at alpha position of
amide function.
a. Electron donating group
b. Electron withdrawing group
c. Electron releasing group
Ans. – b
37) Which of the following statements about penicillin is false?
a. Ticarcillin is resistant to beta lactamase
b. Penicillins are bacteriostatic in effect
c. Penicillin V is available in oral, i.v. and i.m. route
d. All of the above
Ans. – b
38) Which of the following penicillin drugs is a prodrug?
a. Ticarcillin
b. Bacampicillin
c. Ampicillin
d. Carbenicillin
Ans. – b
39) Which does not describe Penicillins?
a. Bactericidal
b. Inhibit cell wall synthesis
c. Broad spectrum
d. Cause bacteria to die from cell lysis
Ans. – c
40) Which is not a penicillinase resistant penicillin?
a. Ampicillin
b. Amoxicillin
c. Penicillin G d. Penicillin V
Ans. – c
Q.1. Basic Nucleus of Cephalosporins and Penicillins is
a) Lactone
b) thiazole Ring
c) Lactam ring
d) Beta lactam Ring
Q.2. Benzylpenicillin is the chemical name for which of the following penicillin?
a) Penicillin G
b) Penicillin V
c) Penicillin F
d) Phenethicilin
Q.3. Structurally all penicillins have only beta lactam present in them.
a) True
b) False
c) They don’t have any ring
Q.4. Patients with penicillin allergies are frequently allergic to another class of antibiotics. Which one?
a) Fluoroquinolones
b) Macrolides
c) Aminoglycosides
d) Cephalosporins
Q.5. Cell-wall biosynthesis is inhibited by antibiotics by inhibiting the biosynthesis of which of the following?
a) lipopolysaccharide
b) peptidoglycan
c) cellulose
d) proteins
Q.6. Streptomycin is produced by which of the following organisms?

a) Stretomyces noursei
b) Streptomyces nodosus
c) Streptomyces griseus
d) Streptomyces fradiae
Q.7. Which of the following does not affect the activity of penicillin?
a) bile
b) hydrochloric acid
c) cysteine
d) Saliva and bile both
Q.8. Antibiotic produced by Streptomyces rimosus is

a) chlortetracycline
b) tetracycline
c) oxytetracycline
d) doxycycline
Q.9. What reaction is catalysed by a β-lactamase enzyme?
a) The final cross-linking reaction to form the bacterial cell wall
b) The hydrolysis of the acyl side chain from penicillin structures
c) The hydrolysis of the four-membered ring present in penicillins
d) The biosynthesis of the penicillin structure from the amino acids valine and cysteine
Q.10. Which of the following statements is true regarding the above structure?
a) There is no electron withdrawing group on the side chain, and so it is acid sensitive.
b) It can be taken orally.
c) It is more active than penicillin G.
d) It has a broader spectrum of activity compared to penicillin G.
Q.11. What is the target for clavulanic acid?
a) β-lactamase
b) L-ala racemase
c) The transpeptidase enzyme
d) Penicillin acylase
Q.12. Which is the Broad spectrum

antibiotic
a) Erythromycin
b) Streptomycin
c) Penicillin
d) All of the above
Q.13. which is correct about acid and alkali degradation of penicillin

a) Acid- penillic acid/ alkali- Penicillonic acid
b) Acid- Penicillonic acid / alkali- penillic acid
c) Acid- Penicillonic acid / alkali- no degradation
d) none of the above
Q.14. Which is the beta lactamase inhibitors

a) Clavulanic acid
b) Tazobactam
c) Sulbactam
d)All the above
Q.15. Aminoglycosides are most effective against which kind of microorganism?

a) Aerobic gram-negative bacteria
b) Anaerobic gram-negative bacteria
c) Aerobic gram-positive bacteria
d) Anaerobic gram-positive bacteria
Q.16. Aminoglycosides work by irreversibly binding to the …….. ribosomal subunit.
a) 50s
b) 30s
c) both
d) none
Q.17. Which of the following drugs is NOT an aminoglycoside?

a) Streptomycin
b) Neomycin
c) Amikacin
d) Azithromycin
Q.18. Chemically tetracycline is a derivative of

a) Purine
b) pyrimidine
c) Octahydro naphthacene
d) phenanthrene
Q.19. Chemically Cephalosporin is
a) 7 Amino acid
b) 7- aminocephalosporanic acid
c) 5-cephalosporanic acid
d) 6-amino acid
Q.20. Which of the following structures represents the correct labelling system of tetracyclines?
a) Structure A
b) Structure B
c) Structure C
d) Structure D
Q.21. which is not act by inhibition of protein synthesis
b) streptomycin
c) Minocycline
d) Penicillin
Q.22. Cephalosporins have which ring system

a) Beta lactam joind to 5 membered thiazolidine ring
b) Beta lactam joind to 6 membered dihydrothiazine ring
c) Beta lactam joind to 5 membered carbocyclic ring
d) Beta lactam not fused to any ring
Q.23. examples of Ureido penicillins are.

a) Mezlocillin & Piperacillin
b) Carbenicillin & Ticarcillin
c) Ampicillin & Becampicillin
d) none
Q.24. example of Monobactam antibiotic is .

a) Ampicillin & Becampicillin
b) Aztreonam & Tigemonam
c) Sulbactam & Avibactam
d) Carbenicillin & Ticarcillin
Q.25. Aminoglycosides contains ?
a) Aminohexsose or pentose sugars

b) 1,3 diaminocyclohexane ring containing 1,3 diamino inositol
c) Glycosidic linkage btween aglycon and sugar part
d) All of the above
Q.1. Basic Nucleus of Macrolide antibiotics is
a) Macrocyclic Lactone (A spiroketal group)
b) Microcyclic Lactone
c) Lactam ring
d) Beta lactam Ring
Q.2. What is correct about Macrolide antibiotics ?

a) natural and semi synthetic agents
b) Contains a large 14-16 memberd macrolide lactone ring
c) contains deoxysugars like cladinose & desosamine
d) all of the above
Q.3. Which is correct?

a) Clarithromycin is semi synthetic 14 membered macrolide
b) Erythromycin is natural14 membered macrolide
c) Azithromycin is semi synthetic 15 membered macrolide
d) All of the above
Q.4. Which of the following antibiotics is a macrolide?

a) Chloramphenicol
b) Doxycycline
c) Erythromycin
d) Streptomycin
Q.5. Which of the following inhibits protein synthesis by combining with the 50S subunit ribosome?
a) Streptomycin
b) Tetracycline
c) Chloramphenicol
d) Penicillin
Q.6. Where do macrolides exhibit their mechanism of action?

a) 50S Ribosomal Unit
b) mRNA Synthesis
c) Cell Wall
d) 30S Ribosomal Unit
Q.7. Chloramphenicol consist of?
a) a para nitrophenyl
b) dichloroacidamide side chain
c) 1,3 propanediol
d) all of the above
Q.8. as per SAR studies 1,3 propanediol moiety should present in which configuration in
Chloramphenicol
a) L erythro configuration
b) D erythro configuration
c) D threo configuration
d) none
Q.9. Erythromycin is unstable in acidic medium because ?

a) C-6 OH group attackes on C9 ketone and give hemiketal intermediate
b) dehydration prevents retention of active drug
c) C-12 OH group attackes on C9 and give spiroketal (inactive)
d) all of the above
Q.10. Which of the following statements is true regarding the Clindamycin
a) It repalced lincomycin dure to improved side effect profile.

b) Act by inhibiting bacterial protein synthesis by binding at 50s ribosomal subunit
c) It has alpha D galacto octopyranoside and pyrrolidine.
d) all of the above
Q.11. According to SAR studies of Clindamycin
a) it is obtain by replacing 7 (R)- OH of Lincomycin to 7-(S)-Cl group

b) 7-(S)-Cl group has stronger activity that &-(R) Cl or OH or sulpher
c) it is also k/a &-Chloro, & deoxy Lincomycin
d) All of the above
Q.12. What is a prodrug?

a) An excipient which helps in creating the environment for the drug-dissolving
Q.13. Which of the following will be a pharmaceutical application of prodrugs?
a) Enhancement of bioavailability
b) Reduction of toxicity
c) Improvement of odour
d) Site-specific drug delivery
e) All of the above
Q.14. Which of the following will be the pharmacokinetic application of prodrugs?

a) Improvement of taste
b) Improvement of odour
c) Site-specific drug delivery
d) Reduction in GI irritation
Q.15. How improvement of a drug in case of taste

is done?
a) Injecting the drug so no taste related problems
b) Reducing the drug solubility in the saliva
c) Lower affinity for the taste receptors and making the drug sweet
d) Reducing drug solubility in saliva and lower affinity for taste receptors (Example: Chlorampenicol palmitate)
Q.16. Prodrugs with two active compounds are known as
a) Mixed type prodrugs

b) Pro-prodrugs
c) Bioprecursors
d) Mutual prodrug
Q.17. Which of the following is an example of a mutual prodrug?

Q.18. Which of the following is not a characteristic of ideal prodrug?
a) Should rapidly transform, chemically and enzymatically forming the active product
b) Should have intrinsic pharmacological activity
c) The vapour pressure should be less and evaporate easily
d) Apart from an active product, other metabolic fragments should be nontoxic
Q.19. Diazepam is an example of

a) Mutual prodrug
b) Tripartite prodrug
c) Bio precursor prodrug
Q.20. Following Prodrug of Mitomycin C is an example of
a) Mutual prodrugs
b) Pro-prodrugs
c) Bioprecursors
d) Polymeric Prodrug
Q.21. Which is the infective form of the malaria parasite?

a) Oocyst
b) Sporozoite
c) Bradyzoite
d) Tachyzoite
Q.22. Trophozoites, schizonts, and gametocytes of all the malarial parasites are seen in the peripheral blood smear
except;
a) P. falciparum
b) P. malariae
c) P. ovale
d) P. vivax
Q.23. Starting material for synthesis of antimalarial drug Primaquine is

a) 4-Amino 6-methoxy quinoline
c) Pentamine
b) Phenol
d) Hexamine
Q.24. ........... is the 8-amino quinolone derivative antimalarial drug.

a) Doxycycline
b) Quinidine
c) Chloroquine
d) Primaquine
Q.25. Starting material for synthesis of antimalarial drug chloroquinine is
a) 3-Chloro aniline
b) Pentamine
c) Phenol
d) Hexamine
Q.25. Starting material for synthesis of antimalarial drug chloroquinine is

a) 3-Chloro aniline
b) Pentamine
c) Phenol
d) Hexamine
Q.26. Which is Wrong

a) Amodiaquine, Chloroquine is 4-amino Quinolines Antimalarials
b) Pamaquine is 8-amino Quinolines Antimalarials
c) Proguanil is 8-amino Quinolines Antimalarials
d) Proguanil is Biguanide Antimalarials
Q.1. What is the causative organism of tuberculosis?

a) Mycobacterium Bacillus
b) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
c) Mycobacterium infections
d) Mycobacterium leprae
Q.2. The BCG vaccine is administered for immunity against

(a) Malaria
(b) Tuberculosis
(c) Jaundice
(d) Hepatitis
Q.3. A combination of medications which are applied to treat tuberculosis is

(a) to generate a better response
(b) to decrease the resistance of the entity to the
treatment
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these
Q.4. Select the second line drugs for the treatment of tuberculosis from the following list
(a) P,R
(b) P,Q,R
(c) P,Q,S
(d) Q,S
Q.5. Mechanism of action: Isoniazid (INH)
a) Competitive Inhibitor With PABA
b) Mycolic Acid Synthesis Inhibitor
c) Inhibits RNA Polymerase (Binds To The Polymerase.
d) Blocks Protein Synthesis Like Chloramphenicol
Q.6. Aminoglycoside agent useful in management of tuberculosis

a) Ethambutol (Myambutol)
b) Streptomycin
c) Isoniazid (INH)
d) Cycloserine
Q.7. Mechanism of Action: PAS (para-aminosalicyclic acid)

a) PABA competitor and inhibition of folate synthesis
b) Protein Synthesis Inhibitor
c) DNA Polymerase Inhibitor
d) Inhibitor of cell wall synthesis
Q.8. Mechanism of action: rifampin (Rimactane)

a) PABA competitor
b) Mcolic Acid Synthesis
c) Inhibits RNA Synthesis By Binding To DNA Dependent RNA Polymerase
d) None Of The Above
Q.9. Most suitable Starting material for synthesis of Isoniazid is…..?

a) Ethyl isonicorinate
b) Pyridine
c) 4- Picoline / Isonicotinic acid
d) Ethyl alcohol
Q.10. N-acetylisoniazid is the major metabolite of isoniazid produced by acetylation by

a) Hydrazine
b) Isomerase
c) betalactamase
d) N-acetyl transferase
Q.11. According to SAR studies of Isoniazid?

a) Pyridine ring is essential
b) Acid hydrazide group on position 4
c) Substitution on N1 reduces activity
d) All of the above
Q.12. ………………. Antibiotic was symthesised from actinomycetes Streptomyces mediteranei
a) Rifabutin
b) Cycloserin
c) Isoniazid
d) Rifampicin
Q.13. Which of the following was the first therapeutically useful quinolone antibaterial agent?
a) Ciprofloxacin
b) Enoxacin
c) Ofloxacin
d) Nalidixic acid
Q.14. Which enzymes are the target for the quinolone antibacterial agents?
a) Proteases
b) Kinases
c) Topoisomerases
d) Transpeptidases
Q.15. Which region of the fluoroquinolone skeleton is involved in binding interactions with DNA in the ternary
complex formed between DNA, toposiomerase and the drug?
a) Region A
b) Region B
c) Region C
d) Region D
Q.16. Which of the following structures would be a feasible intermediate for the synthesis of fluoroquinolones
having antibacterial activity?
a) Structure A
b) Structure B
c) Structure C
d) Structure D
Q.17. Which of the following diagrams has the correct numbering system for fluoroquinolones?
a) Diagram A
b) Diagram B
c) Diagram C
d) Diagram D
Q.18. The molecule shown is:
a) Levofloxacin
b) Ofloxacin
c) Nalidixic acid
d) Ciprofloxacin
Q.19. According to SAR studies of Quinolones:
a) Position 6 Substitution Helps In Cell Wall Penetration

b) Position 7 Substitution Give Spectrum Of Activity
c) Carboxylic Acid At Position 3 Is Pharmacophore
d) N1 Substitution enhance Potency
e) All Of The Above
Q.20. Basic nucleus present in Nalidixic acid is
a) Quinoline
c) 17-Naphthyridine
b) Isoquinoline
d) 1,8-Naphthyridine
Q.21. What is the mechanism of action of fluoroquinolones?

a) Alteration of cell membrane permeability.
b) Inhibition of bacterial cell synthesis.
c) Inhibition of DNA gyrase
d) Inhibition of phospholipase-C
Q.22. Starting compound for synthesis of Nitrofurantoin is

a) Hydrazine
c) Phenylhydrazine
b) Ammonia
d)Semicarbazone
Q.23. Which is an inhibitor of viral protease
a) Saquinavir
c) Acyclovir
b) Nevirapine
d) Zaicitabine
Q.24. is a derivative of Adamantane
a) Didarosine
b) Gancyclovir
c) Vidarabine
d) Rimantadine
Q.25. Which point in the replication cycle appears most

easily blocked by antivirals?
a) Virus absorption
b) Virus penetration
c) Virus RNA and DNA replication
d) Exit of viruses from the cell
Q.26. All of the following antiviral drugs are the analogs of nucleosides except?
a) Zidovudine
b) Didanosine
c) Acyclovir
d) Saquinavir
Q.1. Which of the following is the Polyene Derivative antifungal agent
a) Amphotericin B
b) Nystatin
c) Haymycin
d) all of above
Q.2. Which of these molecules is present in fungal cell membranes but not in animal cell membranes?
a) Cholesterol
b) Beta-glucan
c) Ergosterol
d) Fluconazole
Q.3. Antifungal with Heterocyclic Benzofuran Derivative is
a) Amphotericin B
b) Nystatin
c) Haymycin
d) Griseofulvin
Q.4. Imidazole Derivatives antifungal is

a) Cotrimoxazole
b) Econazole
c) Ketoconazole
d) All of the above
Q.5. Which of the following is triazole derivative antifungals

a) Itraconazole
b) Fluconazole
c) Voriconazole
d) Miconazole
e) a,b,c
Q.6. Terbinafine & Naftifine are antifungal agents of class

a) Antimetabolites
b) Benzofuran Derivative
c) Triazole Derivative
d) Allyl Amine Derivative
Q.7. Antifungal polyene macrolide that preferentially binds to fungal ergosterol which alters cellular permeability.
a) Ketoconazole
b) Amphotericin B
c) Miconazole
d) Grisefulvin
Q.8. Which class of antifungal drugs work by inhibiting squalene epoxidase?

a) Azoles
b) Allylamines
c) Polyenes
d) None
Q.9. Which of these antifungal drugs inhibits microtubules?

a) Griseofulvin
b) Amphotericin B
c) Ketoconazole
d) Flucytosine
Q.10. An azole most commonly used for topical treatment of candidiasis:

a) Amphotericin B
b) Clotrimazole
c) Griseofulvin
d) None of the Above
Q.11. Mechanism of Action of Itraconazole?

a) Inhibit ergosterol synthesis
b) Abnormal M Phase configuration
c) Inhibit synthesis of fungal pyrimidine
d) Create pore in Fungal cell wall
Q.12. Which of the following statements correctly pair the antifungal drugs with their likely mechanisms of action?
a) Amphotericin B - inhibits thymidylate synthetase
b) Griseofulvin - interferes with microtubule function
c) Miconazole - inhibits DNA dependent RNA polymerase
d) Nystatin - inhibits ergosterol synthesis
Q.13. Which of the following is an antifungal drug that acts by inhibiting enzyme Lanosterol 1-demethylase of
cytochrome p-450?
a) Terconazole
b) Fluconazole
c) Both a & b
d) None
Q.14. Which of the following statements best explains the mechanism of antifungal action of azoles?
a) Formation of artificial pores in the fungal membrane
b) Inhibition of fungal mitosis
c) Inhibition of squalene synthesis
d) Inhibition of conversion of lanosterol to ergosterol
Q.15. Starting compound for synthesis of Miconazole is
a) Hydrazine
c) Phenylhydrazine
b) 2,4 Dichloro acetophenone
d)Semicarbazone
Q.16. Starting compound for synthesis of Tolnafate is

a) Phenol & Thiophosgene
c) Phenylhydrazine
d) Naphthol & Thiophosgene
Q.17. According to SAR studies of Tolnaftate which is correct?
a) Methyl group on Phenyl ring is essential

b) Substitution of methyl group with hydrogen or OH does not alter activity
c) Removal of naphthyl group or tolyl group reduces activity
d) All of the above
Q.18. Amebiasis caused by which protozoa:

a) Trypanosoma gambiense
b) Giardia intestinalis
c) Toxoplasma gondii
d) Plasmodium falciparum
e) Entamoeba histolytica
a) Trypanosoma gambiense- African sleeping sickness

b) Giardia intestinalis- Giardiasis
c) Toxoplasma gondii- Toxoplasmosis
d) Plasmodium falciparum- Malaria
Q.19. Antiamoebics are

a) Antiprotozoal agents
b) Used to treat Amebiasis
c) treat infection by Entamoeba histolytica
d) All Of The Above
Q.20. Which one is not a Nitroimidazole derivative of antiamoebic agent

a) Tinidazole
c) Metronidazole
b) Ornidazole
d) Emetine  EmetineIt is a alkaloid
Q.21. Tissue Antiamobeic agents are

a) Tinidazole
c) Metronidazole
b) Secnidazole
d) All of the above
Q.22. Luminal Antiamobeic agents are
a) Pentamidine
c) Eflornithine
b) Atovaquone
d) All of the above
Q.23. Which Possible MOA of Metronidazole

a) Inhibition of protein syntheis
c) Cell wall degradation
b) Formation of cytotoxic derivatives
d) All of the above
Q.24. Satrting material for metronidazole synthesis is

a) Glyoxal, ammonia & acetaldehyde
b) Ethane-1,2diamine
c) Both
d) Only glyoxal
Q.25. Inhibition of protein synthesis is MOA of ?

a) Iodoquinol
b) Pentanidine
c) Atovaquone
d) Eflornithine
e) Diloxanide
a) Iodoquinol- chelating ferrous ions

b) Pentanidine- inhibition of polyamine synthesis by inhibiting S adenosyl-L-methionine decarboxylase
c) Atovaquone- Inhibits Mitrocondrial Eelectron transport, ATP, nucleic acid synthesis
d) Eflornithine- catalytic inhibitor of ornithine decarboxylases
Q.26. Eflornithine is a/an analog of……
a) Naphthalene
b) Isatin
c) Ornithine
d) Imidazoline
Q.1. Which Anthelmintics is benzimidazole derivative?
a) Diethyl carbamazine
b) Oxamniquine
c) Niclosamide
d) Mebendazole
a) Diethyl carbamazine - Piperazine derivative

b) Oxamniquine – Quinoline derivative
c) Niclosamide- benzamide derivative
Q.2. Which of the following are pathogenic helminthes ?

a) Nematodes (Round worm)
b) Trematodes (flukes)
c) Cestodes (tape worms)
d) All of the above
Q.3. Anthelmintic with Heterocyclic isoquinoline Derivative is

a) Albendazole
b) Thiabendazole
c) Oxamniquine
d) Praziquentel
Q.4. Satarting material for synthesis of Diethylcarbamzine is

a) N-methyl-Piperazine
b) Phosgene/ Diethylcarbomoyl chloride
c) Both a & b
d) none
Q.5. methyl N-(6-benzoyl-1H-benzimidazol-2-yl) carbamate is IUPAC name of

b) Oxamniquine
c) Niclosamide
d) Mebendazole
Q.6. Drug of choice for Ascariasis is

a) Piperazine citrate
b) Niclosamide
c) Mebendazole
d) Albendazole
Q.7. The Anthelmintic Activity of Albendazole is due to:

a) Inhibition of Nucleic acid Synthesis
b) Binding with Protein -Beta-Tubulin
c) Activation of Haem-Polymerase
d) Inhibition of DNA Gyrase
Q.8. What is the mechanism of action of Niclosamide?

a) Increasing cell membrane permeability for calcium, resulting in paralysis, dislodgement and death of helminthes.
b) Inhibiting oxidative phosphorylation in some species of helminthes.
c) Blocking acetylcholine transmission at the myoneural junction and paralysis of helminthes.
d) Inhibiting microtubule synthesis in helminthes and irreversible impairment of glucose uptake.
Q.9. What is the mechanism of action of Mebendazole?
a) Increasing cell membrane permeability for calcium, resulting in paralysis, dislodgement and death of helminthes.
b) Inhibiting oxidative phosphorylation in some species of helminthes.
c) Blocking acetylcholine transmission at the myoneural junction and paralysis of helminthes.
d) Inhibiting microtubule synthesis in helminthes and irreversible impairment of glucose uptake.
Q.10……………… blocks acetylene transmission at the myoneural junction and paralysis of helminthes.
a) Niclosamide
c) Diethylcarbamazine
b) Mebendazole
d) Levamisole
Q.11. Which of the following is a natural drug which binds to GABA mediated Cl ion channels of Microfilaria, which
causes increased permeabilit, hyperpolarisationy & death of helmenthics ?
a) Albendazole
b) Thiabendazole
c) Ivermectin
d) Praziquentel
Q.12. Structurally Ivermectin is?

a) 22,23-dihydroavermectin B1a
b) 22,23-dihydroavermectin B1b
c) It is a 80:20 both a & b
Q.13. Starting material for synthesis of Mebendazole is

b) Diethylcarbomoyl
c) Both a & b
d) 4-chloro benzophenone
Q.14. Sulphonamides are the derivatives of

a) Sulphacetamide
b) Sulphadiazine
c) Sulphamethoxazole
d) Sulphanilamide
Q.15. ………………is metabolic product of Prontosil

a) Sulphanilamide
b) Mefenide
c) Trimethoprim
d) Dapsone
Q.16. Starting compound for synthesis of Sulfacetamide is

a) 4-aminobenzene-sulphonyl Cl
b) Sulphanilamide
c) May a) or b)
d) none
Q.17. which is true about sulphonamides?
a) Generic name for para amino benzene sufonamides
b) 1st effective class of antibacterial drugs used systemically
c) found as metabolic product of prontosil
d) All of the above
Q.18. Both N1 & N4 subsituted sulphonamide is
a) Sulphadiazine
b) Sulphacetamide
c) Prontosil
d) Succinyl sulphothiazole
Q.19. According to SAR studies of sulfonamides which is correct:

a) Sulphanilamide skeleton is essential
b) replacement of para amino group loss in activity
c) Sulphur of sulfonyl group must directly attached to benzene
d) Heterocyclic aromatic substitution at N1 give potent compunds
e) All Of The Above
Q.20. Trimethoprim is derivative of
a) Pyridine
b) diaminopyrimidine
c) Methoxazole
d) Isoxazole
Q.21. …………….is a short acting sulphonamide

a) Sulphamethizine
b) Sulphaphenazole
c) Sulphamethoxine
d) Sulphamethoxazole
Q.22. Sulphonamides block synthesis of

a) DFA
b) PABA
c) THFA
d) DHFA
Q.23. The following general structure is representative of sulphonamides. Which of the following statements is true
for active sulphonamides?
a) R1 can be H or an alkyl group

b) R2 must be hydrogen
c) The aromatic ring is essential
d) The sulphonamide functional group can be replaced with an ester
Q.24. Starting material for Sulfamethoxazole synthesis is

a) Acetanilide with Chloro sulphonic acid
b) ammonia & acetaldehyde
c) Ethane-1,2diamine
d) none
Q.25. Which of the following is Folate reductase Inhibitor?

a) Trimethoprim
b)Cotrimoxazole
c) Both
d) None
Q.26. Cotrimoxazole is combination of

a) Trimethoprim & Sulphadiazine
b) Trimethoprim & Sulphamethoxazole
c) Sulphanilamide & Suiphamethoxazole
d) Dapsone & Sulphamethoxazole
Q.27. Through reduction process, Sulphasalazine metabolized into salycylic acid.

a) Sulphamethoxine
b) Sulphaphenazole
c) Sulphapyridine
d) Dapsone
Q.28. Dapsone is a
a) ACE inhibitor
b) COX inhibitor
c) Ergosterol synthesis inhibitor
d) Folic acid synthesis inhibitor
Q.29. Which sulpha drug acts as a prodrug?

a) Succinyl sulphathiazole
b) Phthalyl sulphathiazole
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of these
Q.1. Identification of a new chemical entity as a potential therapeutic agent (From Hit to Lead) Is known as
a) Drug development
b) Drug discovery
c) Both of above
d) None of above
Q.2. The process of bringing a new pharmaceutical drug to the market once the lead compound has been Identified
through the process of drug discovery. (From Lead to NDA) Is known as
a) Drug development
b) Drug discovery
c) Both of above
d) None of above
Q.3. Natural products or derivatives or synthetic

substances with good binding ability in Drug
discovery Is known as
a) Lead
b) NDA
c) IND
d) Hit
Q.4. Compound with good activity and selectivity in screening during drug discovery is known as
a) Hit
b) NDA
c) IND
d) Lead
Q.5. Which of the following statements best describes a lead compound?

a) A compound that contains the element lead
b) A compound from the research laboratory that is chosen to go forward for preclinical and clinical trials
c) A molecule that shows some activity or property of interest and serves as the starting point for the development
of a drug.
d) The first compound of a structural class of compounds to reach the market.
Q.6. Identification of a lead nucleus depends on the consideration of ……..

a) Molecular structure
b) Geometry of receptor
c) Drug receptor interaction
d) Observed biological responses
e) All of the above
Q.7. Drug design may be considered as an integrated whole approach which essentially involves which step/steps
a) Chemical synthesis,
b) Evaluation for activity-spectrum,
c) Toxicological studies,
d) Metabolism of the drug
e) All of the above
Q.8. The ‘drug discovery process’ may be categorized into four distinct heads, namely : (i) Target identification and
selection, (ii) Target optimization, (iii) Lead identification, and (iv) Lead optimization.
a) True
b) False
c) These are drug development process
d) Only I & ii are true
Q.9. Major types of drug design are….

a) Ligand-based drug design
b) Structure-based drug design
c) Both a & b
Q.10. Which of the following approach is considered under the ‘Ligand based drug designing’ ?
a) Molecular docking
b) Pharmacophore modeling
c) QSAR Modeling
d) Both b & c
Q.11. Which of the following method used for virtual

screening
a) ADMET analyses
b) QSAR modeling
c) Pharmacophore modeling
d) All of the above
Q.12. Drug Discovery is a process of finding

a) Disease etiology
b) Target identification
c) Lead discovery/optimization
d) All of Above
Q.13. Drug discovered accidentally or by unexpected results/ action is called as:

a) The serendipitous pathway
b) The screening pathway
c) The chemical modification pathway
d) The rational pathway
Q.14. Lipinski’s rule of five is used for

a) Docking
b) Similarity search
c) Drug likeness
d) Dynamics simulation
Q.15. The biological activity of most drugs is related

to a combination of physicochemical properties.
This statement is relevant to:
a) Hammett's substituent constant
a) Hansch analysis
b) Tafts steric constant
c) Free Wilson analysis
Q.16. DYLOMMS (Dynamic Lattice-Oriented Molecular
Modeling System) is related to:
a) 2D-QSAR
b) SAR
c) 3D-QSAR
d) None
Q.17. What does the symbol P represent in a QSAR equation?

a) pH
b) Plasma concentration
c) Partition coefficient
d) Prodrug
Q.18. What is the symbol π in a QSAR equation?

a) The hydrophobicity of the molecule
b) The electronic effect of a substituent
c) The substituent hydrophobicity constant
d) A measure of the steric properties for a substituent
Q.19. What does MR represent in a QSAR equation?

a) Molar refractivity is a stereoelectronic factor
b) Molar refractivity is an electronic factor
c) Molar refractivity is a hydrophobic factor
d) Molar refractivity is a steric factor
Q.20. What does a negative value of σ signify for a substituent?

a) It is electron withdrawing
b) It is electron donating
c) It is neutral
d) It is hydrophobic
Q.21. Which of the following statements is untrue when comparing 3D QSAR with conventional QSAR?
a) Only drugs of the same structural class should be studied by 3D QSAR or QSAR.
b) 3D QSAR has a predictive quality unlike QSAR.
c) Experimental parameters are not required by 3D QSAR, but are for QSAR.
d) Results can be shown graphically in 3D QSAR, but not with QSAR.
Q.22. A Hansch analysis is being carried out in order to relate biological activity to σ and π. Which of the following
substituents would best suit the study?
a) SO2NH2, CONH2, CH3SO2, CH3CO, CN
b) NH2, OH, F, Cl CF3
c) NO2, CO2H, F, OCH3, NMe2
d) SO2NH2, Br, NMe2, NH2, CF3SO2
Q.23. Calculate the logP value for the structure shown; logP for benzene = 2.13; π(OH) -0.67; π(CH3) 0.52.
a) 3.32
b) 0.94
c) 1.98
d) 2.13
Q.24. The measure value of the electron withdrawing or electron donating ability of a substituent is known as:
b) Hansch analysis
c) Tafts steric constant
d) Free Wilson analysis
Q.25. The negative value of π indicates that substituents is:

a) More hydrophobic than halogen
b) More hydrophobic than hydrogen
c) less hydrophobic than halogen
d) less hydrophobic than hydrogen
Q.26. CoMFA method is used for

a) 4D-QSAR
b) 3D-QSAR
c) 5D-QSAR
d) None
Q.27. When both ligand and receptor are flexible. The ligandattach flexibly at the active site of receptor to maximize
attaching forces between them. This type of docking is known as:
a) Induced fit docking
b) Lock and key docking
c) Ensemble docking
d) Rigid docking
Q.28. Virtual Screening is also called as..

a) Silico drug design
b) Serendipity drug design
c) Rational drug design
Q.29. Multiple protein structures are utilized as an ensemble for docking with ligand in one of the following
technique
c) Ensemble docking
d) Rigid docking
Q.30. The docking combined with a scoring function can be used to quickly screen large databases of potential drugs
in silico to identify molecules that are likely to bind to protein target of interest. This method is helpful for:
a) Lead optimization
b) Bioremediation
c) Drug-DNA interaction
d) Hit identification
Q.31. The techniques that hold a lot of prospective in target identification (generally proteins/enzymes), target
validation, understanding the protein is called as..
a) Cheminformatics
b) Bioinformatics
c) Docking
Q.32. Force field energy estimation is most often used for
a) Ligand flexibility
b) Receptor flexibility
c) Scoring function
d) Search space
Q.33. Protein-ligand docking software consists of two main components which works together are
a) Fragment based algorithm and Scoring function
b) Search algorithm and Genetic algorithm
c) Fragment based algorithm and Genetic algorithm
d) Search Aigonthm and Scoring function
Q.34. Rigid docking includes:

a) Molecular shape representation
b) Surface patch matching
c) Filtering and scoring
d) All of above
Q.35. Combinatorial chemistry or parallel synthesis can be useful at various stages of the drug design / development
process. Which of the following is NOT such a stage?
a) finding a lead compound
b) optimising a lead compound
d) structure-activity relationships of the lead compound
Q.36. Solid phase synthesis is frequently used in combinatorial chemistry. What is meant by solid phase synthesis?
a) reactions are carried out without solvent
b) reagents and reactants are attached to a solid phase support
c) reagents are used in the solid phase
d) molecules are constructed on a solid phase support
Q.37. There are several advantages of solid phase synthesis over conventional synthesis. Which of the following
statements is NOT an advantage?
a) excess reagents can be used to force the equilibrium of a reaction to products
b) impurities and by products are easily removed
c) intermediates do not need to be isolated and purified
d) structures can be strongly linked to the solid support such that they cannot be removed
Q.38. Which of the following statements regarding linkers is wrong?

a) the link between the molecule and the solid support must be stable to the reaction conditions used in the
synthesis
b) the link between the molecule and the solid support must be easily cleaved under specific conditions
c) the choice of linker used depends on the functional groups available on the first molecule to be attached
d) the linker must be on the outer surface of the resin bead if a molecule is to become attached to it
Multiple Choice Questions
1. The advantage (s) of erythromycin estolate over erythromycin
a) Less bitter taste b) Acid stable in stomach
c) Good absorption profile d) All the above
2. Example for Mannich-base prodrug is
a) Hetacillin b) Pivampicillin
c) Rolitetracycline d) Valacyclovir
3. Example of Schiff-base prodrug is
a) Fosphenytoin b) Progabide
c) Vigabatrine d) Pivampicillin
4. Conversion of carboxylic acid group of indomethacin to its amide derivatives
a) Selectively inhibits COX-2 enzyme b) Reduces gastric irritation
c) Both a and b d) None of the above
5. Methenamine is prodrug of
a) Formaldehyde b) Mechlorethamine
c) Metaprolol d) Mannitol
6. Example of mutual prodrug is
a) Estramustine b) Sulphasalazine
c) Sultamacillin d) All the above
7. Example of bioprecursor prodrug is
a) Cyclophosphamide b) Pivampicillin
c) Progabide d) Becampicillin
8. Primary metabolite of cyclophosphamide is
a) Aldophosphamide b) Ketophosphamide
c) Hydroxyphosphamide d) Carboxyphosphamide
9. Active metabolite of 5-fluorouracil is
a) 5-fluoro-2’-deoxyuridylic acid monophosphate
b) 5-fluoro-2’, 3’-dideoxyuridylic acid
c) 5-fluorouracil monophosphate
d) 5-fluorouracil triphosphate
10. Among the following which is not a prodrug
a) Omeprazole b) Valacyclovir
c) Alprazolam d) Propranolol
Solution
1. d 2. c 3. b 4. c 5. a 6. d 7. a
8. c 9. A 10. d
MCQ of Penicillin
Note: The option in bold is correct answer
1) The term chemotherapy is used for__________.
a. Treatment of CVS disease
b. Treatment of CNS disease
c. Treatment of disease caused by infective organism
d. Treatment of respiratory disease
2) Who is regarded as father of chemotherapy?
a. Paul Ehrlich
c. Gerhard Domagk
3) Which is (are) the narrow spectrum antibiotic(s)?
a. Penicillin
b. Streptomycin
c. Erythromycin
d. All the above
4) Which is the narrow spectrum antibiotic?
a. Gentamycin
b. Penicillin G
c. Chloramphenicol
d. Aminoglycoside antibiotic
5) Which is the synthetic antibiotic?
a. Cephalothin
b. Chloramphenicol
c. Tetracycline
d. Penicillin G
6) Which antibiotic is bacterial cell wall synthesis inhibitor?
a. Cephalosporins
b. Macrolide antibiotics
c. Amino glycoside antibiotic
d. All of the above
7) Which antibiotic interfere in functioning of cytoplasmic membrane?
a. Polymixins
b. Amphotericin B
c. Nystatin
d. All of the above
8) Which antibiotic is protein synthesis inhibitor?
a. Penicillin
b. Cephalosporin
c. Erythromycin
d. Rifampin
9) Which antibiotic interfere with nucleic acid biosynthesis?
a. Lincomycin
b. Rifampin
c. Tetracycline
d. Streptomycin
10. Penicillin was discovered by scientist…….
a. Paul Ehrlich
c. Gerhard Domagk
11) Which heterocyclic ring is present in the chemical structure of penicillin?
a. Thiazolidine
b. Pyrrolidine
c. Pyrazolidine
d. Thiazole
12) Which basic ring is present in penicillins?
a. Cepham ring
b. Penam ring
c. Cephem ring
13) Different penicillins are derivatives of_____________.
a. 6 – nitro penicillanic acid
b. 7- amino penicillanic acid
c. 6- amino penicillanic acid
d. 7- nitro penicillanic acid
14. Penicillin is degraded by……
a. Acid
b. Alkali
c. Penicillinase
d. All the above
15. On acid degradation, penicillin is converted into……
a. Penicilloic acid
b. Penillic acid
c. Penilloic acid
d. Penicillamine
16) On alkali degradation, penicillin is converted into_____________.
a. Penicilloic acid
b. Penillic acid
c. Penilloic acid
d. Penicillamine
a. Penicillin V
b. Penicillin G
c. Methicillin
d. Cloxacillin
18. Which penicillin is a penicillinase susceptible?
a. Methicillin
b. Cloxacillin
c. Oxacillin
d. Phenoxy methyl penicillin
19. Penicillin V is also known as
a. Phenoxy methyl penicillin
c. Cloxacillin
d. Carbenicillin
20) Penicillin G is also known as________________.
b. Natural penicillin
c. Both (a) & (b)
21) Identify the structure of antibiotic.
a. Ampicillin
b. Methicillin
c. Cloxacillin
d. Oxacillin
22) Identifythe chemical class of the given penicillin.

a. Aminopenicillin
b. Carboxypenicillin
c. Ureidopenicillin
23. Which is extended spectrum penicillin?
a. Cloxacillin
b. Ticarcillin
c. Penicillin G
d. Penicillin V
a. Carbenicillin
b. Ampicillin
c. Cloxacillin
d. Bacampicillin
25) Identify the chemical class of given penicillin
a. Amino penicillin
26. Identify the given structure of penicillin
a. Ampicillin
b. Oxacillin
c. Ticarcillin
d. Amoxicillin
27. Which is not the extended spectrum penicillin?
a. Azlocillin
b. Ticarcillin
c. Oxacillin
d. carbenicillin
a. Piperacillin
b. Azlocillin
c. Mezlocillin
d. Ampicillin
29) Give the chemical class of the given penicillin.

a. Amino penicillin
30) Which is β-lactamase inhibitor?
a. Clavulanic acid
b. Salbactam
c. Tazobactam
d. All the above
31) Penicillins interfere with synthesis of……..
a. Bacterial cell wall
b. bacterial protein
c. Nucleic acid
d. All the above
32) Penicillins inhibit bacterial cell wall by inhibiting enzyme______.
a. Penicillinase
b. Transpeptidase
c. Lactamase
d. Amidase
33) In penicillins, beta lactam ring is fused with
a. Thiazolidine
b. Piperidine
c. Pyrrolidine
d. Pyrimidine
MCQ of Antibiotics
1. Which of the following statements is untrue?

a) A bacterial cell is prokaryotic whereas an animal cell is eukaryotic.
b) A bacterial cell has a cell wall whereas an animal cell does not.
c) Bacterial and animal cells both have a well-defined nucleus.
d) Bacteria may contain enzymes that are not present in animal cells.
2. Which of the following is the general mechanism of action for erythromycin?
a) Inhibition of a metabolic enzyme
b) Inhibition of cell wall synthesis
c) Disruption of protein synthesis
d) Inhibition of nucleic acid transcription and replication
3. Which of the following statements is true regarding the properties of benzyl penicillin?
a) It is a bacteriostatic agent.
b) It is active over a wide range of bacterial species.
c) It is resistant to β-lactamases.
d) Certain individuals may have an allergic response to it.
4. What crucial feature of penicillin is involved in its mechanism of action?
a) Carboxylic acid
b) β-lactam ring
c) Acyl side chain
d) Thiazolidine ring
5. What reaction is catalysed by a β-lactamase enzyme?
d) The biosynthesis of the penicillin structure from the amino acids valine and cysteine
6. The following structure (methicillin) was important penicillin that was introduced in the 1960s to counter the
threat of penicillin-resistant strains of S. aureus.
Which of the following statements is true regarding the above structure?

a) There is no electron withdrawing group on the side chain, and so it is acid sensitive.
d) It has a broader spectrum of activity compared to penicillin G.
7. Which of the following statements is accurate in explaining why Gram negative bacteria are generally more
resistant to penicillins than Gram positive bacteria?
a) Gram negative bacteria have a thicker cell wall
b) Gram negative bacteria have an outer hydrophilic membrane that acts as an extra barrier
c) Gram negative bacteria can concentrate β-lactamase enzymes in the periplasmic space
d) Gram negative bacteria produce smaller quantities of transpeptidase enzyme
8. What role does the acetoxy group at the 3-position of cephalosporins have in enhancing antibacterial activity?
a) It acts as a steric shield and masks enzymatic attack at the β-lactam ring.
b) It acts as a good leaving group when the β-lactam ring is opened.
c) It takes part in a transesterification reaction with the carboxylic acid group at position 4.
d) It increases the reactivity of the β-lactam ring by neighbouring group participation.
9. The following structure (cefalexin) is a first generation cephalosporin.
Which of the following statements is true for the methyl substituent at position 3?
a) It is a good leaving group
b) It is generally good for activity
c) It is good for oral activity
d) It acts as a steric shield
10. What is the target for clavulanic acid?
a) The transpeptidase enzyme
b) L-ala racemase
c) β-lactamase
11. Which of the following antibiotics is a macrolide?

a) Chloramphenicol
b) Doxycycline
c) Erythromycin
d) Streptomycin
12. Which of the following antibiotics is a tetracycline?
a) Chloramphenicol
b) Doxycycline
c) Erythromycin
d) Streptomycin
13. Which of the following antibiotics is responsible for Gray Baby Syndrome?
a) Chloramphenicol
b) Doxycycline
c) Erythromycin
d) Streptomycin
14. The following structure is a synthetic antibacterial agent.
To which group of compounds does the structure belong?

a) Aminoacridines
b) Aminoglycosides
c) Fluoroquinolones
d) Tetracyclines
15. Dimethylamino substituent is present in
a) Doxycycline
b) Minocycline
c) Methacycline
d) Demeclocycline
15. Streptomycin is obtained from
16 A macrolide antibiotics do not have
a) A large lactone ring
b) A glycosidically- linked amino sugar
c) A spiroketal group
d) A ketone group
17. In cephalosporins, higher resistance to hydrolysis by β-lacatamases is shown when
d) Introduction of C-7 α- methoxy group
18. Chloramphenicol is obtained from
19. The antibiotic with an imine functionality is
a) Ampicillin
b) Roxithromycin
c) Doxycycline
d) Chloramphenicol
20. The naturally occurring tetracyclines contain
a) α -C-4 dimethylamino substituents
b) α -C-3 dimethylamino substituents
c) α -C-3-C4 keto-enol group
d) α -C-3 dihydro substituents
21. One of the following statements on the amino function in penicillins is FALSE:
a) The C-6 amine moiety is necessary for antibacterial activity
b) Sulphonation improves antibacterial activity
c) Acylation of amine functionality improves activity
d) Carboxamido derivetization is well tolerated
22. The cephalosporin antibiotic with a cyano-methyl side chain is
a) Cephalexin
b) Cefadroxil
c) Cefamandole
d) Cephacetrile
24. C-12 position is a part of the keto-enol system in
a) Macrolide antibiotics
b) Penicillins
c) Tetracyclines
25. The penicillin has carboxylic acid group placed at
a) C-3
b) C-2
c) C-6
d) C-7
26. Agents that acts directly on the cell membrane of the organisms affecting permeability of
a) Penicillin
b) Nystatin
c) Tetracycline
d) Erythromycin
27. Which is not a penicillinase resistant penicillin?
a. Ampicillin
b. Amoxicillin
c. Penicillin G
d. Penicillin
28. Which does not describe Penicillins?
a. Bactericidal
b. Inhibit cell wall synthesis
c. Broad spectrum
d. Cause bacteria to die from cell lysis
29. The stability of benzyl penicillin can be increased by substitution of_________at alpha position of amide
function.
a. Electron donating group
b. Electron withdrawing group
c. Electron releasing group
30. Primarily penicillins are effective against strains of__________.
a. Gram negative bacteria
b. Gram positive bacteria
c. Both (a) & (b)
31. Penicillin can be derived from __________________.
a. Penicillium notatum
b. Penicillium crysogenum
c. Both (a) & (b)
32. Patients with penicillin allergies are frequently allergic to another class of antibiotics. Which one?
a) Cephalosporins
b) Macrolides
c) Aminoglycosides
d) Fluoroquinolones
33. Which of the following penicillin drug is profdrug
a) Ticarcillin
b) Bacampicillin
c) Ampicillin
d) Carbenicillin
34. What is the correct IUPAC nomenclature for ‘penicillin G’?
a) (2S,5R,6R)-3,3-dimethyl-7-oxo-6-[(2-phenylacetyl)amino]-4-thia-1-azabicyclo[3.2.0]heptane-2-ethanol.
b) (2S,5R,6R)-3,3-dimethyl-7-oxo-6-[(2-phenylacetyl)amino]-4-thia-1-azabicyclo[3.2.0]heptane-2-
carboxylic acid.
c) (2S,5R,6R)-3,3-dimethyl-7-oxo-6-[(2-phenylacetyl)amino]-4-thia-1-azabicyclo[3.2.0]heptane-2-sulphonic
acid.
d) (2S,5R,6R)-3,3-dimethyl-7-oxo-6-[(2-phenylacetyl)amino]-4-thia-1-azabicyclo[3.2.0]heptane-2-acety
chloride.
35. Which type/s of ring/s are present in the Penicillin?
a) Pyrolle ring
b) Imidazol ring and thiazolidine ring
c) β-lactam ring and thiazolidine ring
d) β-lactam ring and pyrolle ring
36. Penicillin is obtained from
a) bacteria
b) fungi
c) virus
d) protozoa
37. Penicillin is effective for
a) gram positive bacteria
b) gram negative bacteria
c) both gram positive and gram negative bacteria
d) acid-fast bacteria
38. Which statement/s is/are correct?
I. Penicillin is effective on gram negative bacteria
II. Beta lactam ring of penicillin binds with DD-transpeptidase of bacteria
III. Penicillin g is obtained from a fungi.
a) I,II and III are correct
b) II and III are correct
c) II is incorrect
d) Only I is correct
39. The reactivity of the Beta-lactam ring of penicillin dependent on
a) Nitrogen atom
b) Hydrogen atom
c) Carbon atom
d) Oxygen atom
40. Oxidation of δ-(L-α-aminoadipyl)-L-cysteine-D-valine (ACV) tripeptide gives
a) Penicillin
b) Amoxicillin
c) Isopenicillin
d) L-alanine
41 Which of the following species is used for producing tetracycline?
a) S. venezuelae
b) S. griseus
c) S. aureofaciens
d) S. griseoflavus
MCQ of Antitubercular Drugs
Note: The option in bold represents correct answer.
1. The causative of tuberculosis is

a) Virus
b) Bacterium
c) Malnutrition
d) Protozoan
2. The first person who discovered Mycobacterium tuberculosis was
a) Louis Pasteur
b) Robert Koch
c) Edward Jenner
3. Which of these is the culture medium for Mycobacterium tuberculosis?
a) Wilson blair medium
b) Löwenstein–Jensen medium
c) Mac Conkey’s medium
4. For Tuberculosis, the drugs used to combat it are
a) Streptomycin, Pyrazinamide
b) Isoniazid, Rifampicin
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of these
5. The BCG vaccine is administered for immunity against
a) Malaria
b) Tuberculosis
c) Jaundice
d) Hepatitis
6. A combination of medications which are applied to treat tuberculosis is
a) to generate a better response
b) to decrease the resistance of the entity to the treatment
c) both (a) and (b)
d) none of these
7. This is the reason why diagnosing tuberculosis is turning challenging
a) disease takes years to become active
b) symptoms are irregular, they appear and then vanish
c) symptoms are not very obvious and prominent always
d) both (b) and (c)
8. The causative of Tuberculosis produces Tuberculin, it is a/an
a) Enzyme
b) Hormone
c) Endotoxin
d) Exotoxin
9. This is the main symptom of Tuberculosis
a) Liquid formation
b) Tubercle formation
c) both (a) and (b)
d) None of these
10. Diagnosis of tuberculosis is done by
a) Emulator and antiformin method
b) Concentration method
c) Petroff’s method
d) All of the above
11. Drug in common use against tuberculosis include
a) Vancomycin
b) Artemisinin
c) Chloramphenicol
d) Isoniazid
12. The pathogens generally most sensitive to chemotherapy are
a) Bacteria
b) RNA viruses
c) Protozoa
d) Fungi
13. Who makes the active components of medicines?
a) Pharmacists
b) Chemists
c) Doctors
d) Pharmacologists
14. You can usually tell if a drug is a natural product because:
a) its structure is very simple
b) its structure contains lots of chiral centres and is very complex
c) you can't tell just by looking at its structure
15. What is a semi-synthetic drug?
a) A drug isolated from nature and used without any further modification
b) A drug made entirely in a lab from scratch
c) The structure of a drug half-way through its preparation
d) A drug which has been part-made by nature and part-made in a lab
16. Ethambutol act by a inhibiting the synthesis of –
a) Arabino galactone
b) Mycolic acid
c) DNA dependent RNA polymerase enzyme
d) polymerase enzyme RNA dependent RNA polymerase enzyme
17. 2--Ethyl thio isonicotonmide is IUPAC name of –
a) Ethionamide
b) Isoniazid
c) Pyrazinamide
d) Suphonamides
18. Pyrazinamide is act by---
a) By decreasing the pH of medium of M. tuberculosis
b) By inhibiting mycolic acid synthesis
c) Inhibiting DNA dependent RNA polymerase rnzyme
d) By cell lysis
19. Isoniazid, Rifampin, Ethambutol, Pyrazinamide is used in combination in case of –
a) HIV patient suffering from T.B.
b) Pregnant lady suffering from T.B.
c) Liver patient suffering from T.B.
d) Diabetes
20. Rifampin is a derivative of ----
a) Rifamycin -B
b) Gentamicin- B
c) Paracetamol
d) Ibuprofen
21. Isoniazid is metabolized by which mechanism—
a) Oxidation
b) Acetylation
c) Glucoronidization
d) Sulphate conjugates
22. Mycobacterium tuberculosis is a—
a) Aerobic &gram positive bacteria
b) Aerobic & gram negative bacteria
c) Anaerobic &gram positive bacteria
d) Anaerobic & gram negative bacteria
23. IUPAC name of isoniazid (INH)
a) Pyrazine-4- carbohydrazide
b) Pyridine-4- carbohydrazide
c) Pyrimidine-4- carbohydrazide
d) Pyridine-4-caboxamide
24. Name the drug containing pyrazine ring
a) Para amino salicylic acid
b) Pyrazinamide
c) Isoniazid
d) Ethambutol
25. Major side effect of INH
a) Crystalluria
b) Peripheral neuropathy
c) Liver damage
d) Metabolic syndrome
26. Which of the following drug belong to First line
a) Ethionamide
b) Ethambutol
c) Triacetazone
d) Isoniazid
27. Functional froup present in INH
a) Carboxamide
b) Carbonyl group
c) Carboxylic acid
d) Carbohydrazide
28. Heterocyclic ring present in INH
a) Pyrimidine
b) Pyrazine
c) Imidazole
d) Pyridine
29. Select the anti-TB drug among the given.
a) Salicylic acid
b) Acetyl Salicylic acid
c) p-amino salicylic acid (PAS)
d) Methyl salicylic acid
30. Which of this anti-TB drug is also active against leprosy?
a) Ethambutol
b) Diazepam
c) Haldol
d) Isoniazid
31. First line antitubercular drugs are having…
a) High efficacy, High potency, Less side effect
b) Low efficacy, High potency, Less side effect
c) High efficacy, low potency, Less side effect
d) Low efficacy, Low potency, Less side effect
32. Second line antitubercular drugs are having…
a) High efficacy, High potency, Less side effect
b) Low efficacy, High potency, Less side effect
c) High efficacy, low potency, Less side effect
d) Low efficacy, Low potency, Less side effect
33. INH and Pyridixine form a complex called
a) Hydrazone
b) Horazone
c) B complex
d) Chillate
34. Characteristic of Mycobacterium tuberculosis are
a) Gram positive, acid fast, slow growing
b) Gram negative, acid fast, slow growing
c) Gram positive, non acid fast, slow growing
d) Gram positive, acid fast, fast growing
35. Which of this antitubercular is aprodrug?
a) INH
b) Pyrazinamide
c) Both a) & b)
d) None of them]
36. Salicylic acid derivative belonging to anti-TB is
a) Salicylic acid
b) Acetyl Salicylic acid
c) p-amino salicylic acid (PAS)
d) Methyl salicylic acid
37. Pyrazinamide contain………as a functional group
a) Carboxamide at first position
b) Carboxamide at second position
c) Carboxamide at third position
d) Carboxamide at fourth position
38. The drug which is metabolized by acetylation is

a) Rifampicin
b) Ethambutol
c) Dapsone
d) Isoniazid
39. Which of the following is TRUE regarding multi drug therapy (MDT) of tuberculosis?
a) Continuous phase is Isoniazid + Rifampicin+pyrazinamide for 2 months
b) Initial phase is Isoniazid + Rifampicin for 4 months
c) Initial phase is Isoniazid + Rifampicin + Pyrazinamide + Ethambutol for 2
months
d) Continuous phase is Dapsone + Rifampicin for 6 months
40. The conversion of amide to thioamide is achieved with
a) Thiourea
b) Phosphorus trisulphide
c) Phosphorus pentasulphide
d) Ammonium thiocynate
1. Which of the following diagrams has the correct numbering system for fluoroquinolones?
a) Diagram A
b) Diagram B
c) Diagram C
d) Diagram D
2. Which of the following was the first therapeutically useful quinolone antibaterial agent?
a) Ciprofloxacin
b) Enoxacin
c) Ofloxacin
d) Nalidixic acid
3. Which of the following structures is ciprofloxacin?
a) Structure A
b) Structure B
c) Structure C
d) Structure D
4. Which enzymes is the target for the quinolone antibacterial agents?

a) Topoisomerases
b) Kinases
c) Proteases
d) Transpeptidases
5. Which amino acid residue in topoisomerases is responsible for the temporary splitting of
DNA strands?
a) Phenylalanine
b) Tyrosine
c) Serine
d) Aspartate
6. Which region of the fluoroquinolone skeleton is involved in binding interactions with DNA
in the ternary complex formed between DNA, toposiomerase and the drug?
a) Region A
b) Region B
c) Region C
d) Region D
7. Which of the following fluoroquinolones is chiral?
a) Structure A
b) Structure B
c) Structure C
d) Structure D
8. Which of the following structures would be a feasible intermediate for the synthesis of
fluoroquinolones having antibacterial activity?
a) Structure A
b) Structure B
c) Structure C
d) Structure D
9. The N-1 position of norfloxacin, ciprofloxacin and lomefloxacin contain
a) Ethyl, cyclopropyl and ethyl
b) Cyclopropyl, methyl and ethyl
c) Methyl, ethyl and cyclopropyl
d) Piperazine, methyl and ethyl
10. The C-7 position of gatifloxacin contains
a) Piperazine
b) 4-methylpiperazine
c) 3, 5-dimethylpierazine
d) 3- methylpiperzine
11. Fluoroquinolones are indicated for all of the following except:
a) Urinary tract infection
b) Tuberculosis
c) Bone infection
d) Bronchial ashthma
12. The order of reactivity of I) cyclopropyl, II) methyl amino, and III) cyclobutyl at N-1
position of quinolone is
a) 1>II>III
b) I>III>II
c) II>III>I
d) III.I>II
13. One of the following is not a side effect of fluoroquinolones
a) Phototoxicity
b) Ototoxicity
c) Convulsion
d) Arthralgia
14. Which term best describes the mechanism of action for fluoroquinolones?
a) Alkylating agent
b) Antisense agent
c) Chain cutter
d) Topoisomerase poison
15. The following structure is a synthetic antibacterial agent called ciprofloxacin.
b) Metallating agent
c) Chain terminator
d) Antisense agent
16. Ciprofloxacin is synthesized by reaction of magnesium diethyl malonate with
a) α- naphthol
b) β-naphthol
c) Benzoic acid derivative
d) 4,7-dichloroquinoline
17. Nitrofurantoin is synthesized by reaction of chloroacetic acid with
a) α- naphthol
b) β-naphthol
c) Benzoic acid derivative
d) hydrazine
1. Which of the following drugs inhibit herpes viruses?
a) Amantadine
b) Acyclovir
c) Oseltamivir
d) Azidothymidine
2. Why are drug combinations essential for HIV?
a) Single drugs are not completely inhibitory
b) Mutations negate the effect of one drug
c) Combinations of antibiotics are effective versus TB
d) The virus cannot mutate vs a combination
3. Which point in the replication cycle appears most easily blocked by antivirals?
a) Virus absorption
4. It is unlikely that a 'cure' of HIV is possible with current drugs because:
a) Even in combination current drugs do not completely block viral replication
b) They do not penetrate to cells
c) They cannot block viral transcription from integrated viral DNA
d) They cannot penetrate to the CNS
5. Choose the following correct combination of drug and virus:
a) Amantadine versus influenza B
b) Daclatasvir versus hepatitis C
c) Zidovudine versus hepatitis B
d) Saquinavir versus influenza A
6. Which of the following antiviral drug is used to treat influenza A?
a) Dextran sulfate
b) Amantadine
c) Ganciclovir
d) Cidofovir
7. Which of the following is used to treat eye infection?
a) Rimantadine
b) Ganciclovir
c) TFT (Trifluoro thymidine)
d) ACV
8. Which of the following is not used in the HIV-1 treatment?
a) Delavirdine
b) Zidovudine
c) Rimantadine
d) Stavudine
9. Which of the following is used to treat CMV (cytomegalovirus) infections?
a) Foscarnet
b) Saquinavir
c) Ritonavir
d) Nelfinavir
10. Which of the following is used to treat poxvirus?
a) Zalcitabine
b) Cidofovir
c) Penciclovir
d) Zanamivi
11. Which of the following is used to treat genital herpes infections?
a) Penciclovir
b) Pleconaril
c) Oseltamivir
d) Efavirenz
12. Which of the following is easily blocked by antivirals?
a) Virus penetration
b) Nucleic acid replication
c) Virus absorption
d) Removal of the virus from the cell
13. Why antiviral drugs cannot cure HIV?
a) They do not block viral replication
b) They cannot block viral translation
c) They cannot block viral transcription
d) They do not penetrate the cells
14. Which of the following cannot be treated by antiviral drugs?
a) Tuberculosis
b) Smallpox
c) Hepatitis
d) Warts
15. The antiviral drug with no heterocyclic ring system is
a) Nelfinavir
b) Loviride
c) Troviridine
d) Zidovudine
16. The antiviral drug that is a thiazole analogue is
a) Nelfinavir
b) Ritonavir
c) Saquinavir
d) Loviride
17. One of the following does not possess purine nucleus
a) Gancyclovir
b) Ribavirin
c) Adefovir
d) Didanosine
18. The phosphonate drug is
a) Abacavir
b) Adefovir
c) Acyclovir
d) Ribavirin
19. In this drug, the carbocyclic ring is attached to the base instead of sugar
a) Efavirenz
b) Zidovudine
c) Abacavir
d) Nevirapine
20. Zalcitabine is an analogue of
a) Pyrimidine
b) Pyridine
c) Oxazole
d) Pyrrole
21. Didanosine is nucleoside analogue of
a) Guanosine
b) Thymine
c) Cytidine
d) Adenosine
22. Amantadine is used in the treatment of
a) Influenza A
b) Influenza B
c) Both
23. Which of the following antiviral drug belongs to Protease inhibitor
a) Lamivudine
b) Nevirapine
c) 5-Fluorouracil
d) Saquinavir
24. Type of rings present in the structure of ritonavir?
I. Thiazole
II. Pyrimidine
III. Benzene
IV. Cyclohexane
a) I, III
b) II, IV
c) III, IV
d) II
25. An example of drug from class HIV protease inhibitor?
a) Melphalan
b) Ritonavir
c) Clobazam
d) Pentobarbital
26. Number of chiral centers present in the structure of ritonavir is?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
27. Ribavirin acts as a/an?
a) Alkylating agent
b) Mutagen
c) Enzyme inhibitor
d) Agonist
28. Which amongst the following is a therapeutic use of drug ribavirin?
a) Treatment of hepatitis C
b) Treatment of anxiety
c) Treatment of influenza
d) Treatment of HIV
MCQ of Antiprotozoal Agents
1. The drug of choice for the treatment of extraluminal amoebiasis is
a) Iodoquinol
b) Metronidazole
c) Diloxanide
d) Tetracycline
2. All are uses of metronidazole except
a) Amoebiasis
b) Giatdiasis
c) Trichomonas vaginitis
d) Malaria
3. Pentamidine is a first line drug for the following disease
a) Toxoplasmosis
b) Pneumocystis carinli pneumonia
c) Actinomycosis
d) Leishmaniasis
4. Drug Used for the treatment of an asymptomatic intestinal form of amebiasis
a) Chloroquine
b) Diloxanide
c) Emetine
d) Doxycycline
5. Amoebiasis is known as
a) Amoebic dysentery
b) Helminth infection
c) Fungal infection
d) None of them
6. Protozoan parasite responsible for amoebiasis is
a) Entamoeba histolytica
b) Entamoeba coli
c) Entamoeba subtilis
d) Entamoeba chrysogenum
7. Antiprotozoal agent that has nitroimidazole nucleus in its chemical structute
a) Emetine
b) Diloxanide
c) Atovaquone
d) Ornidazole
8. Identify the given chemical structure
a) Pentamidine
b) Eflornithine
c) Atovaquone
d) Iodoquinol
9. Etofamide belongs to the chemical class
a) Nitroimidazole derivative
b) Dichloroacetamide derivative
c) Halogenated -8-hydroxyquinoline
11. Identify the given chemical structure
a) Pentamidine
b) Eflornithine
c) Diloxanide
d) Iodoquinol
12. Metronidazole is synthesized by reaction of ethanal with
a) Ammonia
b) Glyoxal
c) Ammonia and Glyoxal
d) Glycerine and Glyoxal
13. The correct chemical structure of atovaquone is
a)
b)
c) d)
14. Excystation is…………..
a) Formation of trophozoites
b) Formation of cyst from trophozoites
c) Both of them
d) None of them
15. Which of the given is NOT antiamoebic drug
a) Metronidazole
b) Diloxanide
c) Dapsone
16. Which of the following alkaloid used in treatment of amoebiasis?
a) Metronidazole
b) Diloxanide
c) Emetine
17. Antiamoebic used in intestinal as well asextraintestinal amoebiasis are
a) Nitroimidazole derivative
b) Alkaloids
c) Antibiotics
d) Halogenated quinolines
18. IUPAC name of metronidazole is
a) 2-(2-methyl-5-nitro-1H-imidazol-1-yl)ethan-1-ol
b) 3-(2-methyl-5-nitro-1H-imidazol-1-yl)ethan-1-ol
c) 4-(2-methyl-5-nitro-1H-imidazol-1-yl)ethan-1-ol
d) 5-(2-methyl-5-nitro-1H-imidazol-1-yl)ethan-1-ol
MCQ of Antifungal Agents
1. Name the drug belonging to topical azoles class
b) Cotrimoxazole
c) Ketoconazole
d) Terbenafine
2. Fungal infections are known as
a) Cystalluria
b) Hansen’s disease
c) Mycotic Infection
d) Mendel disease
3. Name the antifungal from allylamine class
b) Cotrimoxazole
c) Ketoconazole
d) Terbenafine
4. Itraconazole is from
a) Triazole class
b) Topical Azoles
c) Allylamines
d) Antibiotics
5. Griseofulvin is
a) Triazole class
b) Topical azoles
c) Benzfuran heterocycle containing antifungal
d) Antibiotics
6. Which of this is not an antifungal among the given
a) Anidulafungin
b) Acetyl salicylic acid
c) Voriconazole
d) Miconazole
7. Select the polyene antibiotic among the given
a) Anidulafungin
b) Natamycin
c) Voriconazole
d) Miconazole
8. Drug used in treatment of mycoses is
a) Tolnaftate
b) Cotrimoxazole
c) Fluconazole
d) All of them
9. All are mycoses except
a) Leprosy
b) Athletes foot
c) Ringworm infection
d) Candidiasis
10. Candidiasis is
a) Fungal stomach in stomach
b) Fungal stomach in intestine
c) Fungal stomach on skin
d) None of them
11. Nystatin is derived from
a) Streptomyces nodosus
b) Streptomyces noursei
c) Streptomyces griseous
d) None of them
12. Nystatin act by
a) Binding to ergosterol of fungal cell membrane shows fungicidal action
b) Binding to cholesterol
c) Binding to alcohol of fungal cell membrane
d) None of them
13. Types of fungal infections are
a) Contagious, non systemic
b) Non Contagious, systemic
c) Non Contagious, non systemic
d) Both a) & b)
14. One of the following consists of imidazole nucleus in its structure
a) Ciclopirax
b) Butaconazole
c) Griseofulvin
d) Co-trimoxazole
15. A potent inhibitor of thymidylate synthase is
a) Naftifine
b) 5- Fluocytosine
c) Ciclopirox
d) Ketoconazole
16. Inhibitor of sterol-14-α-demethylase is
a) Naftifine
b) 5- Fluocytosine
c) Ciclopirox
d) Ketoconazole
17. Antifungal antibiotic is
a) Naftifine
b) 5- Fluocytosine
c) Nystatin
d) Nafimidone
18. The mechanism of action of naftifine is
a) Inhibits sterol-14-α-demethylase
b) Inhibits squalene epoxidase
c) Inhibits thymidylate synthase
d) Inhibits microtubule formation
19. The antifungal with bis-triazole nucleus is
a) Ketoconazole
b) Butaconazole
c) Fluconazole
d) Clotrimazole
20. Which class of antifungal drugs works by inhibiting squalene epoxidase?
a) Allylamines
b) Echinocandins
c) None of the Above
d) Polyenes
21. Nystatin belongs to which class of antifungal drugs?
a) Polyenes
b) Allylamines
c) Echinocandins
d) Thiocarbamate
22. Which antifungal drug class work by targeting glucans?
a) Echinocandins
b) Polyenes
c) None of the Above
d) Allylamines
23. Which antifungal drug – used only in the treatment of dermatophyte infections – works by
inhibiting mitosis in fungal cells?
a) Caspofungin
b) Fluconazole
c) Tolnaftate
d) Griseofulvin
24. The drug shown is called…………... What sort of drug is it?
a) Ketoconazole, An antifungal agent

b) Tolnaftate, An antibacterial agent
c) Echinocandins, An anticancer agent
d) Nafimidone, An antiviral agent
25. Ketoconazole isn't really a ketone. What is the functional group containing the carbonyl
(C=O)?
a) Ester
b) Aldehyde
c) Acid anhydride
d) Amide
26. Which enzyme combination is involved in ergosterol biosynthesis?
a) Lanosterol 14alpha demethylase and Squalene epoxidase
b) Lanosterol epoxidase and Squalene16alpha demethylase
c) Lanosterol epoxidase and Squalene14alpha demethylase
d) Lanosterol 16alpha demethylase and Squalene epoxidase
27. Which of the following is not true about β-1,3-glucans?
a) They are small polymers of UDP-glucose (a nucleotide sugar)
b) They are synthesized by β-1,3-glucan synthase
c) They form a fibrous network on the inner surface of the cell wall
d) They make up 50 - 60% of the dry weight of the fungal cell wall
28. The mode of action of Polyenes involve:
a) Loss of membrane integrity and influx of Ca+
b) Inhibition of reproductive function
c) Binds to ergosterol
d) Destruction of pore-like molecular aggregates
29. Which of these is not a Polyene?
a) Terbinafine
b) Nystatin
c) Amphotericin B
d) None
30. What is an Allylamines mode of action?
a) Inhibit ergosterol synthesis via Lanosterol epoxidase
b) Inhibit ergosterol synthesis via Squalene 14alpha demethylase
c) Inhibit ergosterol synthesis via Squalene epoxidase
d) Inhibit ergosterol synthesis via Lanosterol 14alpha demethylase
31. Which of the following is an example of an Allylamine?
a) Terbinafine
b) Amphotericin B
c) Nystatin
d) Fluconazole
32. Allylamines have poor activity against:
a) Cryptococcus spp
b) Dermatophytes
c) Aspergillus spp.
d) Candida spp
33. What is the mode of action in Echinocandins?
a) Inhibition of protein synthesis
b) Inhibition of β-1,3-glucan synthase
c) Formation of pore-like molecular aggregates
d) Inhibit ergosterol synthesis
34. Which of the following is true of 5-fluorocytosines mechanism of action?
a) It inhibits DNA synthesis
b) It is converted into 5-fluorouracil which is incorporated into fungal RNA
c) It inhibits protein synthesis
d) All of the above
35. Echinocandins are not active against:
a) Cryptococcus spp
b) Aspergillus
c) Candida spp.
d) None
36. Terbinefine is an example of which class of antifungal?
a) Polyene
b) Anti-metabolite
c) Azole
d) Allyamine
37. Amphotericin B and Nystatin are both examples of which class of antifungal?
a) Azoles
b) Allyamines
c) Anti-metabolites
d) Polyenes
38. Amphotericin B causes decrease level of?
a) Na
b) Ca
c) K
d) Mg
MCQ of Sulphonamides and Sulphones
1. Trimethoprim acts by……………………….in bacteria

a) Inhibiting DHFRase
b) Inhibiting protein
c) Inhibiting cell wall
d) Inhibiting cell membrane
2. Unwanted effect of sulphonamide is…………….
a) Anaphylactic shock
b) Peripheral neuritis
c) Crystalluria
d) Black water fever
3. Sulphonamide used in eye infection
a) Sulphmethoxazole
b) Sulphadiazine
c) Sulphadimethoxine
d) Sulphacetamide
4. Sulphonamide used in treatment of burn infection
a) Sulphmethoxazole
b) Sulphadiazine
c) Silver sulphadiazine
d) Sulphacetamide
5. Sulphamethoxazole is a …….
a) Short acting drug
b) Long acting drug
c) Short to intermediate acting drug
d) Mixed acting drug
6. Cotrimaxazole is the combination of
a) Trimethoprim and sulphamethoxazole
b) Trimethoprim and sulphadiazine
c) Trimethoprim and mefedine
d) Pyrimethamine and sulphadiazine
7. Drug containing pyrimidine ring is…………….
b) Sulphadiazine
c) Mefedine
d) Sulphamethoxine
8. Sulphonamides containing isoxazole ring is
a) Sulphadiazine
b) Sulphamethoxazole
c) Sulphacetamide
d) Sulphaguanidine
9. Sulphonamides containing acetyl group is
a) Sulphadiazine
c) Sulphacetamide
d) Sulphaguanidine
10. Sulphonamides containing guanidine moiety is
a) Sulphadiazine
c) Sulphacetamide
d) Sulphaguanidine
11. Sulphonamide act by
a) Competitive inhibitors of PABA
b) Non competitive inhibition
c) Copetitive stimulation
d) None of them
12. ………………………..Need folic acid from diet
a) Humans
b) Animals
c) Birds
d) Microrganism
13. Sulphonamides are ……………………..in nature
a) Bacteriocidal
b) Bacteristatic
c) Bacteriomatic
d) Bacteriovatic
14. ………………………………….is N4 substituted sulphonamides
a) Sulphadiazine
c) Succinyl sulphonamide
d) Sulphagunidine
15. Sulphonemide used in urinary tract infection is
a) Sulphadiazine
b) Cotrimaxazole
d) Sulphagunidine
16. ……………………………..is the suffix used in nomenclature of sulphonamides
a) Sulphadiazine
b) Sulphanilamide
d) Sulphagunidine
17. Cotrimaxazole is…………………..
a) Synergistic combination of sulpha and trimethoprim
b) Synergistic combination of sulphamethoxazole and trimethoprim
c) Synergistic combination of sulphamethoxazole and triethoprim
d) Synergistic combination of sulphamethoxazole and triethoprim
18. Cotrimaxazole contains…………………..
a) (5) part of sulpha and (2) part of trimethoprim
b) (5) part of of sulphamethoxazole and (1) part of trimethoprim
c) (1) part of of sulphamethoxazole and (1) part of triethoprim
d) (5) part of of sulphamethoxazole and (5) part of triethoprim
19. Sulphonamides act by…………..
a) Malic acid synthesis inhibition in bacteria
b) Folic acid synthesis in bacteria
c) Folic synthesis inhibition in bacteria
d) Folic synthesis inhibition in humans
20. Reason of combination of cotrimaxazole is…….
a) Single drug resistance
b) Single drug has more resistance
c) Single dose needs higher dose
d) All of them
21. Intermediate acting sulphonamide is…
a) Sulphadiazine
c) Sulphaguanidine
d) Sulphacetamide
22. Long acting sulphonamide is…
a) Sulphadiazine
b) Sulphamethoxine
c) Sulphaguanidine
d) Sulphacetamide
23. All are N1 substituted except
a) Sulphadiazine
c) Sulphaguanidine
d) Succynyl sulphathiazole
24. 4-amino-N-(pyrimidin-2-yl)benzene-1-sulfonamide is the IUPAC name of
a) Sulphacetamide
b) Sulphadiazine
c) Sulphapyridine
d) Sulphadoxine
25. Given the following are long acting sulphonamide except
a) Sulphadimethoxine
b) Sulphadoxin
c) Sulphadiazine
d) Sulphadimethoxy pyridazine
25. 4-Amino-N-(5-methyl-1,2-oxazol-3-yl)benzenesulfonamide is the IUPAC name of
b) Sulphadiazine
c) Sulphapyridine
d) Sulphadoxine
26. Given the following are short acting sulphonamide except
b) Sulphafuraole
c) Sulphadimidine
d) Sulphapyridine
27. Heterocyclic nucleus present in sulphadiazine
a) Piperidine
b) Pyridine
c) Oxazole
d) Pyrimidine
28. The half life of intermediate acting sulphonamide is
a) Less than 5 Hr
b) More than 24 Hr
c) Less than 10 Hr
d) 10 Hrs to 24 Hrs
29. Combination of sulphonamide with trimethoprim
a) Decreases the unwanted effects of sulphonamides
b) Increase the antimicrobial activity
c) Decrease the antimicrobial activity
d) Increase the elimination of sulphonamide
30. IUPAC name of sulphacetamide is
a) N-(4-aminobenzenesulfonyl)acetamide
b) N-(3-aminobenzenesulfonyl)acetamide
c) N-(4-nitrobenzenesulfonyl)acetamide
d) N-(4-chlorobenzenesulfonyl)acetamide
31. Topically used sulphonamide is
a) Sulphadoxine
c) Silver sulphadiazine
d) Dapsone
34. Which one is a diamino diphenyl sulphone derivative?
a) Trimethoprim
b) Cotrimoxazole
c) Pyrimethamine
d) Dapsone
35. Dapsone is used primarily for the treatment of
a) Tuberculosis
b) Leprosy
c) Malaria
d) Urinary tract infection
36. Treatment of malaria is achieved with the combination of pyrimethamine with all of the
following except
a) Sulphadoxine
b) Dapsone
c) Trimethoprim
d) Cotrimoxazole
a) Sulphanilamide is soluble in water
b) Sulphonamides retain in urine before excretion
c) The terminal amino function is not required for activity
d) Sulphonamides are useful for antitubercular activity
38. Which of the following statements is true for sulphonmides?
a) The amino and sulphonyl groups on the benzene ring should be in 1, 4 position.
b) The N4 amino group could be modified to produce prodrug, which is converted to
free amino function in vivo.
c) Replacement of benzene ring by other ring systems decreases or abolishes the
activity.
d) All of them
39. Which of the following statements is not true for sulphonmides?
a) Exchange of the –SO2NH group by –CONH reduces the activity
b) Substitution of heterocyclic aromatic nuclei at N1 yield highly potent compound
c) N1-disbstitution in general leads to inactive compound
d) The terminal amino function is not required for activity
40. Which of the following structures is sulphamethazine
a) b)
c) d)
41. Which of the following structures is sulphamethizole
a) b)
c) d)
42. Which of the following structures is sulphamethoxazole
a) b)
c)
d)
43. Identify the given structure of sulphonamide
a) Sulphadoxine
b) Dapsone
c) Sulphacetamide
d) Cotrimoxazole
44. In general, sulphonamides are synthesized by reaction of…………with chlorosulphonic acid
a) Para amino benzoic acid

b) Acetanilide
c) Guanidine
d) Acetic anhydride
MCQ of Antimalarial Agents
1. Which of the following can be used in pregnancy to treat malaria

a) Pyrimethamine
b) Chloroquine
c) Diazepam
d) Pyrazinamide
2. Antimalarial drug belonging to pyrimidine derivative is
a) Pyrimethamine
b) Chloroquine
c) Diazepam
d) Pyrazinamide
3. The antimalarial drug having gemetocidal effect is
a) Pyrimethamine
b) Chloroquine
c) Diazepam
d) Primaquine
4. The antimalarial drug having schizonticidal effect is
a) Pyrimethamine
b) Chloroquine
c) Diazepam
d) Primaquine
5. Which of the following is the drug used in treatment of malaria?
a) Chloroquine
b) Isoniazid
c) Diazepam
d) Pyrazinamide
6. All the given drugs are 4-aminoquinoline derivativesexcept
a) Hydroxychloroquine
b) Chloroquine
c) Amodiaquine
d) Primaquine
7. Malaria is caused due to
a) Plasmodium vivax
b) Plasmodium falciparum
c) Plasmodium malaria
d) All of the above
8. Why only female anopheles mosquito is responsible for malaria?
a) To obtain blood needed to nurture their egg
b) They can only bite
c) Male cannot bite
d) Male can lead to another disease
9. Which of the following is a disease of tropical and subtropical region?
a) Tuberculosis
b) Malaria
c) Gonorrhoea
d) Syphilis
10 Malaria is transmitted from
a) Bite of bee
b) Bite of female anopheles mosquito
c) Bite of house fly
d) Bite of rodents
11. Benign malaria attack is caused due to
a) Plasmodium vivax
d) Plasmodium ovale
12. Malignant malaria attack is caused due to
a) Plasmodium vivax
d) Plasmodium ovale
13. Forms of malaria parasite are
a) Schizonts
b) Erythocytes
c) Merozoite
d) Trophozoite
14. Sexual lifecycle of malaria parasite is known as
a) Sporogony
b) Schizogony
c) Zygomany
d) Aagami
15. Asexual lifecycle of malaria parasite is known as
a) Sporogony
b) Schizogony
c) Zygomany
d) Aagami
16. Exoerythrocytic form of malaria parasite occurs predominantly in
a) Hepatocytes
b) Mast cells
c) Liver cells
d) Both a) & c)
17. ……………………………..belongs to 9-aminoacridine class
a) Pentaquine
b) Chloroquine
c) Isopentaquine
d) Quinacrine
18. ……………………………..belongs to 8-aminoquinoline class
a) Pentaquine
b) Chloroquine
c) Isopentaquine
d) Quinacrine
19. ……………………………..belongs to biguanides & dihydrotriazines class
a) Pentaquine
b) Proguanil
c) Amodiaquine
d) Quinacrine
20. Chloroquine act by
a) Inhibiting mycolic acid synthesis
b) Inhibiting hemozoin formation
c) Inhibiting benzoin formation
d) DHFR inhibition
21. ……………………………..belongs to diaminopyrimidine class
a) Artesunate
b) Pyrimethamine
c) Atovaquone
d) Proguanil
22. ……………………………..is a sesquiterpene lactone
a) Pentaquine
b) Artesunate
c) Artemether
d) Both a) & b)
21. ……………………………..belongs to naphthaquinones class
a) Artesunate
b) Pyrimethamine
c) Atovaquone
d) Proguanil
22. ……………………………..is a cinchona alkaloid
a) Chloroquine
b) Pamaquine
c) Amodiaquine
d) Quinine
23. Correct sequence for True and False for the given statements related with the SAR of
drug chloroquine:
 Nitrogen of the amine attached with the chloroquine entity is responsible for the acidic
nature of the drug.

 There is no major role of having the secondary alkyl group attached with the carbon
next to the amino group near the chloroquine entity.

 Tertiary amine at the terminal is not so important for the activity of the drug.
 Small electron withdrawing group at 7th position of the quinoline ring is important for
the inhibition of hmozoin formation.

a) FFTF
b) FTFT
c) FTTT
d) TFFT
24. Chloroquine can be synthesized by reaction of 4-diethylamino-1-methylbutylamine with?
a) 4,7-dichloroquinoline
b) α-naphthol
c) ß-naphthol
25. ‘(RS)-N’-(7-chloroquinolin-4-yl)-N, N-diethyl-pentane-1,4 diamineethanol’ is the IUPAC
nomenclature of which drug?
a) Chloroquine
b) Beclomethasone
c) Triptorelin
d) Albuterol
26. Correct steps for the mechanism of action of the drug Chloroquine?
I. Inhibition of the parasite heme polymerase.
II. Destruction of parasite
III. Accumulation of ß-hematin in parasite.
a) II – I – III
b) I –III – II
c) III – II – I
d) II – III – I
27. Pamaquine can be synthesized by reaction of glycerol with?
a) 4,7-dichloroquinoline
b) 2-nitro-4-methoxy aniline
c) 4,5, 7-dichloroquinoline
d) 2-nitro4, 5-dimethoxy aniline
28. Identify the structure of pamaquine
a) b)
c)
d)
29. Identify the structure of Chloroquine
a) b)
c) d)
30. Quinacrine is a derivative of
a) 4-quinoline methanol
b) Sesqueterpene lactone
c) Biquanides & dihydrotriazines
d) 9-amino acridine
31. Amodiaquine is a derivative of
a) 4-quinoline methanol
b) 4-aminoquinolone
c) 8-aminoquinolone
d) Biquanides & dihydrotriazines
32. The heterocyclic ring present in chloroquine is
a) Isoquinoline
b) Quinoline
c) Pyrimidine
d) Quinazoline
33. IUPAC nameof pamaquine is
a) N-ethyl-N'-(6-methoxyquinolin-8-yl)pentane- 1,4-diamine
b) N,N-diphenyl-N'-(6-methoxyquinolin-8-yl)buane- 1,4-diamine
c) N,N-diethyl-N'-(6-methoxyquinolin-8-yl)pentane- 1,4-diamine
d) N,N-diethyl-N'-(6-propoxyquinolin-8-yl)pentane- 1,4-diamine
34. The basic ring present in antimalarial agent atovaquone is…
a) Naphthypyridine
b) Naphthaquinone
c) Trioxane
d) Guanidine
35. The 4, 4-diethyl amino-1-methyl butyl amino is side chain of which of the following
agent?
a) Chloroquine
b) Primaquine
c) None of the above
d) Both a) & b)
MCQ of Unit V (Various physiochemial parameters used in QSAR)
1. Which of the following physicochemical properties is least commonly considered in QSAR studies?
a) Hydrophobicity
b) Electronic influence of substituents
c) Dipole moment
d) Size of substituents
2. What term is used to describe the process by which the best line is fitted through a set of data points on a
graph?
a) Linear fitting analysis by the least squares method
b) Linear regression analysis by the least squares method
c) Linear fitting assessment by the least squares method
d) Linear regression assessment by the least squares method
a) Hydrophobic compounds have a high value of P.
b) Hydrophilic compounds have a high value of P.
c) Acidic compounds have a high value of P.
d) Basic compounds have a high value of P.
4. How is π measured?
a) It is measured by calculating molecular dimensions using relevant molecular modelling software.
b) It is measured by comparing the dissociation constants of two weak acids.
c) It is measured by subtracting the logP value of an analogue bearing the substituent from the log P
value of the parent compound lacking the substituent.
d) It is measured by subtracting the logP value of the parent compound lacking the substituent
from the log P value of an analogue bearing the substituent.
Justification: A positive value of π indicates that a substituent is more hydrophobic than hydrogen. A
negative value of π indicates that a substituent is less hydrophobic than hydrogen.
a) A positive value of π indicates that a substituent is larger than H.
b) A positive value of π indicates that a substituent is more electron donating than H.
c) A positive value of π indicates that a substituent is more hydrophobic than H.
d) A negative value of π indicates that a substituent is more hydrophobic than H.
Justification: A positive value of π indicates that a substituent is more hydrophobic than hydrogen. A
negative value of π indicates that a substituent is less hydrophobic than hydrogen. π has nothing to do
with a substituent's size or electronic character.
6. What is the distinction between logP and π?
a) logP is a measure of the overall pH of a molecule, whereas π is a measure of the hydrophobicity of a
substituent.
b) logP is a measure of the overall hydrophobicity of a molecule, whereas π is a measure of the
hydrophobicity of a substituent.
c) π is a measure of the overall hydrophobicity of a molecule, whereas logP is a measure of the
hydrophobicity of a substituent.
d) logP is a measure of the overall pH of a molecule, whereas π is a measure of the electronic effect of a
substituent.
Justification: Neither logP nor π have anything to do with pH, size or electronic properties
7. What does ES represent in a QSAR equation?
a) The electronic influence of a substituent as an electron withdrawing group
b) The electronic influence of a substituent as an electron donating group
c) The entropy associated with a substituent
d) *Taft's steric factor
Justification: The electronic influence of a substituent is measured by , the Hammett substituent
constant. The measure of a substituent's steric properties is indicated by a variety of methods including
Taft's substituent constant Es. The entropy associated with a substituent is not normally considered in
QSAR equations.
8. What does MR represent in a QSAR equation?
a) Molar refractivity as a steric factor
b) Molar refractivity as an electronic factor
c) Molar refractivity as a hydrophobic factor
d) Molar refractivity as a stereoelectronic factor
Justification: Molar refractivity is a steric factor determined from the index of refraction, the molecular
weight and the density.
9. What does the Hammett substituent constant (σ) measure?

a) The steric effect of a substituent
c) The hydrophobic effect of a substituent
d) The effect on pH of a substituent
Justification: The measure of a substituent's steric properties is indicated by a variety of methods
including Taft's substituent constant Es. The electronic effect of a substituent is measured by σ, the
Hammett substituent constant. The hydrophobic effect of a substituent is measured by the substituent
hydrophobicity constant π.
10. The σm value for a phenol substituent (OH) is 0.12, whereas the σ p value is -0.37. What do σm and σp
stand for?
a) The electronic effect of the phenol substituent at the meta and para positions respectively.
b) The hydrophobic effect of the phenol substituent at the meta and para positions respectively.
c) The steric effect of the phenol substituent at the meta and para positions respectively.
d) The acidic effect of the phenol substituent at the meta and para positions respectively.
Justification: σ is a measure of a substituent's electronic effects. The hydrophobic effect of a substituent
is measured by the substituent hydrophobicity constant π. The measure of a substituent's steric properties
is indicated by a variety of methods including Taft's substituent constant Es. σ is not a measure of a
substituent's effect on acidity.
11. The σm value for a phenol substituent (OH) is 0.12, whereas the σp value is -0.37. Why are σ m and σp
so different?
a) The meta substituent is closer to the rest of the molecule than the para substituent and has a greater
electron withdrawing effect.
b) The meta substituent is closer to the rest of the molecule than the para substituent and has a greater
steric effect.
c) The meta substituent is closer to the rest of the molecule than the para substituent and has a greater
hydrophobic effect.
d) The meta substituent has an inductive effect which makes it electron withdrawing, whereas the
para substituent has a resonance effect which makes it electron donating.
Justification: The Hammett substituent constant has nothing to do with steric or hydrophobic effects.
The meta substituent is closer to the rest of the molecule and has an electron withdrawing effect, but it
does not explain why the para substituent has an electron donating effect.
12. The QSAR equation relating the insecticidal activity of a series of diethyl phenylphosphonates versus σ
is shown below.
What does log (1/C) represent?

a) The concentration
b) The catalytic activity
c) The insecticidal activity
d) The physicochemical property
Justification: concentration is C which is included in the activity term log(1/C). The catalytic activity
has no relevance at all since these compounds are not acting as catalysts. The physiochemical is wrong
since the physicochemical properties are on the right hand side of the equation.
is shown below.
What physicochemical property is beneficial for activity?
a) An electron donating substituent
b) An electron withdrawing substituent
c) A hydrophobic substituent
d) A small substituent
Justification: A positive value of σ will result in good activity and this corresponds to an electron
withdrawing substituent. The Hammett substituent constant has nothing to do with size or
hydrophobicity.
14. What do the factors R and F represent in a QSAR equation?
a) A substituent's steric effect and hydrophobic effect respectively.
b) A substituent's inductive effect and resonance effect respectively.
c) A substituent's resonance effect and inductive effect respectively.
d) A substituent's electronic effect and hydrophobic effect respectively.
Justification: The factors R and F are electronic factors which distinguish a substituent's resonance
electronic effects from its inductive electronic effects. They have nothing to do with hydrophobicity.
15. What is a Craig plot used for?
a) To compare the activities of different compounds having different substituents.
b) To compare the values of a specific physicochemical property for a range of substituents.
c) To compare the values of two specified physicochemical properties for a range of substituents.
d) None of the answers are correct.
Justification: A Craig plot compares the values of two specified physicochemical properties for a range
of substituents. This allows suitable substituents to be chosen for a QSAR study which will demonstrate
a range of values for each physicochemical property, but where the values will not be correlated to each
other.
16. What does CoMFA stand for in 3D QSAR?
a) Compound molecular formula assessment
b) Compound mass field analysis
c) Comparative molecular field analysis
d) Comparative modelling force field analysis
Justification: CoMFA methodology is based on the assumption that drug–receptor interactions are non-
covalent and those changes in biological activity correlate with the changes in the steric and/or
electrostatic fields of the drug molecules.
17. What two physical features (or fields) are most important in 3D QSAR studies?
a) Hydrophobic and steric fields.
b) Electrostatic and steric fields.
c) Hydrophobic and electrostatic fields.
d) Steric field and dipole moment.
Justification: Electrostatic and steric fields are the fields normally used in 3D QSAR studies although it
is possible to have a hydrophobic field.
18. Which of the following is not crucial for 3D QSAR studies?
a) Identification of the active conformation for each molecule
b) Identification of the pharmacophore for each molecule
c) Alignment of each molecule
d) Identification of the target structure
Justification: It is crucial that each molecule in a 3D QSAR study is aligned properly. This requires
knowledge of the active conformation and the pharmacophore. Knowledge of the target structure and
how the molecules bind to it is certainly useful but it is not essential.
19. What is the relevance of a probe atom in 3D QSAR?
1. It is used to position a molecule into a lattice of grid points.
2. It is used to determine the position of the various grid points making up the lattice.
3. It is an atom of the test molecule which is used as a spatial reference point.
4. It is placed at the grid points of a lattice to determine the important properties of a molecule
placed in the lattice.
Justification: The probe atom is a positively charged atom such as a carbon or a proton which is placed
at each grid point of a lattice surrounding the test molecule. It is used to measure the steric and
electronic interactions between it and the test molecule. This in turn allows the calculation of steric and
electronic fields for each molecule in the study.
20. Which of the following figures is an acceptable value for the regression coefficient?
a) 0.01
b) 0.1
c) 0.5
d) 0.95
Justification: A value over 0.90 is an acceptable figure for the regression coefficient.
21. What symbol represents the partition coefficient in a QSAR equation?
a) pH
b) π
c) P
d) σ
Justification: The partition coefficient is a measure of a drug's hydrophobicity and can be measured by
comparing the relative concentrations of the drug in a two phase system of water and octanol. pH is a
measure of hydrogen ion concentration. The symbol π is used to represent the substituent hydrophobicity
constant. The symbol σ is used to represent the Hammett substituent constant.
a) Hydrophilic compounds have a low value of P
b) An electron withdrawing substituent has a low value of P
c) A small substituent has a low value of P
d) A hydrophilic substituent substituent has a low value of P
Feedback: The partition coefficient (P) is a measure of a drug's hydrophobicity and is low for
hydrophilic compounds. The electronic properties and the size of a substituent are measured by the
Hammett substituent constant and a steric constant respectively. The hhydrophilic/hydrophobic property
of an individual substituent is measured by the substituent hydrophobicity constant and not the partition
coefficient. The latter is a measure of the drug's overall hydrophobicity.
23. What symbol represents the substituent hydrophobicity constant in a QSAR equation?
a) pH
b) π
c) P
d) σ
Justification: The hydrophobicity constant is a measure of how hydrophobic an individual substituent
is. The hydrophobicity of the overall molecule is measured by the partition coefficient P or logP. The
electronic effect of a substituent is measured by σ, the Hammett substituent constant. pH is a measure of
hydrogen ion concentration.
24. Given the following log P values, what is the log P value for the disubstituted structure?
a) 1.97
b) 2.01
c) 2.25
d) 2.29
Justification: The log P values demonstrate that the hydrophobicity constants for the substituents
methoxy and fluoro are -0.02 and 0.14 respectively. This means that the log P value of the disubstituted
structure will be 2.13 + (-0.02) + 0.14 = 2.25
25. Which symbol is used to represent Taft's steric factor in a QSAR equation?
a) MR
b) R
c) F
d) ES
Justification: MR is the symbol used to represent molar refractivity as a steric factor R is used to
represent an aromatic substituent's electronic resonance effect. F is used to represent an aromatic
substituent's electronic inductive effect. ES is used to represent Taft's substituent constant.
26. What symbol is used to represent molar refractivity as a steric factor in a QSAR equation?
a) MR
b) R
c) F
d) ES
Justification: MR is the symbol used to represent molar refractivity as a steric factor. R is used to
27. What is measured by the software called Sterimol?
a) The Hammett substituent constant
b) Taft's steric factor
c) The Verloop steric parameter
d) The substituent hydrophobicity constant
Justification: Sterimol is used to measure the Verloop steric parameter. The other constants or factors
can be measured experimentally.
28. What symbol represents the Hammett substituent constant?
a) pH
b) π
c) P
d) σ
Justification: The symbol σ is used to represent the Hammett substituent constant. The partition
coefficient (P) is a measure of a drug's hydrophobicity and can be measured by comparing the relative
concentrations of the drug in a two phase system of water and octanol. pH is a measure of hydrogen ion
concentration. The symbol π is used to represent the substituent hydrophobicity constant.
29. What sort of value of σ would signify an electron donating substituent?
a) Negative value
b) Positive value
c) Zero
d) It is impossible to say
Justification: A negative value of σ signifies an electron donating substituent whereas a positive value
signifies an electron withdrawing substituent. A value close to zero would indicate a neutral electronic
effect.
30. What sort of value of σ would signify an electron withdrawing substituent?
a) Negative value
b) Positive value
c) Zero
effect.
31. What sort of value of σ would signify an aromatic substituent that is neither electron donating nor
electron withdrawing?
a) Negative value
b) Positive value
c) Zero
effect.
is shown below.
What is the value of the regression coefficient?

a) 2.282
b) 0.348
c) 0.976
d) 0.286
Justification: r represents the regression or correlation coefficient. σ represents the Hammett substituent
constant. s is the standard deviation.
is shown below.
What is the value of the standard deviation?

a) 2.282
b) 0.348
c) 0.976
d) 0.286
Justification: r represents the regression or correlation coefficient. σ represents the Hammett substituent
constant. s is the standard deviation.
34. What symbol is used to represent an aromatic substituent's electronic resonance effect in a QSAR
equation?
a) MR
b) R
c) F
d) ES
35. What symbol is used to represent an aromatic substituent's electronic inductive effect in a QSAR
equation?
a) MR
b) R
c) F
d) ES
36. The antibacterial activity of a number of penicillins was found to fit the following QSAR equation:
Which of the following statements is true?

a) The value of the regression coefficient is not acceptable.
b) Activity increases with hydrophobic substituents on the aromatic ring.
c) Activity decreases with hydrophobic substituents on the aromatic ring.
d) Activity decreases with electron withdrawing substituents on the aromatic ring.
Justification: π is a measure of how hydrophobic the substituent X is. The value of π increases for
hydrophobic substituents, but this will have a negative effect in the QSAR equation since it is multiplied
by -0.445. As a result, activity drops as the hydrophobic character of X increases. The value of the
regression coefficient is acceptable since it is above 0.9.
38. The relative sweetness of a variety of compounds was found to fit the following QSAR equation:
Which of the following statements is not true?

a) The value of the regression coefficient is acceptable.
b) Activity increases with hydrophobic substituents on the aromatic ring.
c) Activity increases with electron donating substituents on the aromatic ring.
d) Activity increases with large substituents on the aromatic ring.
Justification: Activity will be best for positive values of π and negative values of σ. This corresponds to
hydrophobic, electron donating substituents. The regression coefficient is greater than 0.9 and is
acceptable. There is no steric factor in the equation and so it is not possible to say whether there is a
steric influence or not.
39. A Hansch analysis is being carried out in order to relate biological activity to σ and π. Which of the
following substituents would best suit the study?
a) F, Cl, Br, I
b) SO2NH2, CONH2, COOH, F, Me
c) SO2NH2, CH3SO2, CN, CF3, SF3
d) CONH2, I, NMe2, OH, NO2

Justification: There is no correlation between the values of σ and π. The substituents also display a
range of values for both σ and π. F, Cl, Br, I is no good since the substituents are from the same quadrant
and are all substituents with a positive value of σ and a positive value of π. SO 2NH2, CONH2, COOH,
F, Me is no good since the values for σ and π are correlated. As π increases, σ decreases. SO 2NH2,
CH3SO2, CN, CF3, SF3 is no good since the substituents have similar values of σ.
40. What is the name of the plot that is used to compare the values of two specified physicochemical
properties for a range of substituents?
a) Topliss plot
b) Hansch plot
c) Craig plot
d) Free-Wilson plot
Justification:A Craig plot compares the values of two specified physicochemical properties for a range
of substituents. This allows suitable substituents to be chosen for a QSAR study which will demonstrate
a range of values for each physicochemical property, but where the values will not be correlated to each
other. The other plots do not exist.
41) Which of the following statements is untrue when comparing 3D QSAR with conventional QSAR?
a) Drugs of the different structural classes can be studied by 3D QSAR but not by QSAR.
b) 3D-QSAR has a predictive quality which QSAR does not.
c) Experimental parameters are required by 3D-QSAR and QSAR.
d) Results can be shown graphically in 3D-QSAR, but not by QSAR.
Justification: Experimental parameters are not required by 3D-QSAR
MCQ of Unit V (Combinatorial Chemistry)
1. Solid phase synthesis is frequently used in combinatorial chemistry. What is meant by solid phase
synthesis?
a) Reactions are carried out without solvent.
b) Reagents and reactants are attached to a solid phase support.
c) Reagents are used in the solid phase.
d) Molecules are constructed on a solid phase support.
Justification: In solid phase synthesis, molecules are constructed on a solid phase support. Reagents
are added in solution.
2. There are several advantages of solid phase synthesis over conventional synthesis. Which of the
following statements is NOT an advantage?
a) Excess reagents can be used to force the equilibrium of a reaction to products.
b) Impurities and by products are easily removed.
c) Intermediates do not need to be isolated and purified.
d) Structures can be strongly linked to the solid support such that they cannot be removed.
Justification: This is not an advantage since it is necessary to remove the product from the solid
support at the end of the synthesis. The structures should however remain attached to the solid
support under the various reaction conditions used in the synthesis
3. The following is an important resin used in combinatorial chemistry:
Identify the resin

a) Wang resin
b) Rink resin
c) Merrifield resin
d) Dihydropyran-functionalised resin
Justification: The Wang resin has a primary alcohol group present to which a molecule can be
attached. The Rink resin contains a primary amino group for this purpose. The Merrifield resin has
an alkyl chloride group and the dihydropyran-functionalised resin has a dihydropyran ring.
4. The following is an important resin used in combinatorial chemistry.
Where does a starting material get bound to this resin?
a) The phenol group
b) The aromatic ring
c) The alcohol
d) The ether
Justification: The primary alcohol is the point of attachment. This is not a phenol group since it is
not directly attached to the aromatic ring. The ether and the aromatic ring are unreactive under the
conditions used.
What functional group needs to be present on a molecule if it is to be attached to this resin?

a) Phenol
b) Alcohol
c) Alkyl halide
d) Carboxylic acid
Justification: The alcohol on the anchor reacts with a carboxylic acid on the first reactant such that
an ester bond links the reactant to the anchor.
What conditions are used to cleave a molecule from this resin?

a) Hydrofluoric acid
b) Piperidine
c) Hydrogen and a palladium charcoal catalyst
d) Trifluoroacetic acid
Justification: Hydrofluoric acid is used to cleave the ester bond linking peptides to the Merrifield
resin. Piperidine is used to deprotect the Fmoc protecting group from primary amines. Hydrogen and
a palladium charcoal catalyst is used to remove benzyl or benzyloxycarbonyl protecting groups.
Trifluoroacetic acid is used to cleave the ester bond linking a molecule to the Wang resin, the amide
bond linking a molecule to a Rink resin and the ketal group linking a molecule to a dihydropyran-
derivatised resin. It is also used to remove several protecting groups.
What functional group is present on a molecule once it is released from this resin?
a) Carboxamide
b) Carboxylic acid
c) Ester
d) Alcohol
Justification: The same functional group that was present initially is regenerated.
Identify the resin

a) Wang resin
b) Rink resin
c) Merrifield resin
d) dihydropyran-functionalised resin
a) The amine group
c) The aromatic ether
d) The methyl ether
Justification: The aromatic rings and the ethers are unreactive under the reaction conditions used.
What functional group needs to be present on a
molecule if it is to be attached to this resin?
a) Phenol
b) Alcohol
c) Alkyl halide
d) Carboxylic acid
Justification: Reaction of a carboxylic acid with the primary amine present on the anchor results in
an amide bond linking the first reactant to the anchor.
What conditions are used to cleave a molecule from this
resin?
b) Piperidine
a) Carboxamide
b) Carboxylic acid
c) Ester
d) Alcohol
Justification: The amino group that was originally part of the linker is transferred to the final
product once it is cleaved from the anchor.
Identify the resin.
a) Wang resin
b) Rink resin
c) Merrifield resin
d) Dihydropyran-functionalised resin
a) The alkene group
c) The acyclic ether
d) The cyclic ether
What functional group needs to be present on a molecule if it is to be attached to this resin?
a) Ether
b) Alcohol
c) Alkyl halide
d) Nitrile
What conditions are used to cleave a molecule from this resin?
b) Piperidine
a) Ether
b) Alcohol
c) Alkyl halide
d) Nitrile
Justification: The functional group that was originally present on the first reactant is restored.
18. The following structure is a protecting group used in peptide synthesis.
What functional group does it protect?
a) Carboxylic acid
b) Amine
c) Alcohol
d) Phenol
Justification: The protecting group is used to protect the amine functional group of amino acids.
What is the name of the protecting group?
a) Tertiary-butyloxycarbonyl
b) Benzyloxycarbonyl
c) Benzyl
d) 9-fluorenylmethoxycarbonyl
Justification:The fluorenyl moiety is the tricyclic system that is present. The other protecting groups
mentioned in the options have a single aromatic ring (benzyloxycarbonyl and benzyl) or no rings at
all (tert-butyloxycarbonyl).
What functional group does it protect?
a) Carboxylic acid
b) Amine
c) Alcohol
d) Phenol
Justification: When the protecting group is added to an amine, a urethane functional group is
formed.
c) Benzyl
Justification: The Tertiary-butyloxycarbonyl group is used to protect amino groups, as are the
benzyloxycarbonyl and 9-fluorenylmethoxycarbonyl groups. The benzyl group is used as a
protecting group for carboxylic acids, alcohols or phenols
What conditions are used to release the protecting group during a solid phase peptide synthesis?
b) Piperidine
Justification: Trifluoroacetic acid is more acidic than acetic acid due to the electron withdrawing
effect of the three fluorine atoms present.
23. The following linker is useful in a process called 'tagging'
Identify the linker
a) Di-amino linker
b) Tagging linker
c) Amino acid linker
d) Safety catch linker
24. The following linker is useful in a process called 'tagging'
What functional groups in the linker molecule are used to attach molecules?
a) The amide groups
b) The aromatic rings
c) The primary amino groups
d) The methanesulfinyl groups
Justification: The linker is known as the safety catch
linker.

c) Nitroveratryloxycarbonyl
What conditions are used to release the protecting group during a solid phase peptide synthesis?
b) Piperidine
c) Light
Justification: The protecting group is a nitro veratryl oxycarbonyl group
27. What is the term used to describe the 3-dimensional space around a molecule when it is in a target
binding site?
a) Stereochemical space
b) Conformational space
c) Configurational space
d) Constitutional space
Justification: The space accessed by a molecule when it is in the binding site will depend on how
flexible the molecule is. This in turn depends on the number of rotatable single bonds that are
present. Conformations refer to the different shapes of a molecule that can be adopted by single bond
rotation.
28. Combinatorial chemistry can be useful at various stages of the drug design / development process.
Which of the following is such a stage?
a) Purifying a lead compound
c) Structure determination of the lead compound
d) Pharmacological testing
Justification: Optimising a lead compound requires the synthesis of a large number of analogues and so
combinatorial chemistry can be important at this stage. The other options do not require compounds to
be synthesised and so there is no need for combinatorial chemistry.
29. There are several advantages of solid phase synthesis over conventional synthesis. Which of the
following statements is untrue?
a) Excess reagents are a problem since it can result in over reaction.
b) Impurities and by products are easily removed.
c) Intermediates do not need to be isolated and purified.
d) Structures can be linked to the solid support such that they are stable to various reaction conditions,
but can be removed easily under certain conditions.
Justification: Excess reagents are frequently used to force an equilibrium reaction to completion. The
excess reagents are also easily removed
30. What term is used for a molecular unit which is attached to the solid support and which contains a
reactive functional group that allows attachment of a starting material?
a) Resin activator
b) Hook
c) Linker
d) Joiner
Justification: The linker or anchor is the overall moiety which is attached to the solid support and
which contains the functional group required to attach the first molecule in the synthetic process.
31. Which of the following statements regarding linkers is wrong?
a) The link between the molecule and the solid support must be stable to the reaction conditions used in
the synthesis.
b) The link between the molecule and the solid support must be easily cleaved under specific
conditions.
c) A linker reacts with a specific functional group when the first molecule is attached. At the end
of the synthesis the molecule departs with a different functional group.
d) It is important that the resin bead swells to allow molecules to access linkers within the bead.
Justification: The statement is true for some linkers but not all. Several linkers will react with a specific
functional group and allow the molecule to have the same functional group when it is removed at the end
of the synthesis.
32. The following structures are protecting groups used in peptide synthesis.
Which of these would you use to protect an amino group?
a) Structure A
b) Structure B
c) Structure C
d) Structure D
Justification: This protecting group is used to protect the amine functional group of amino acids. The
other protecting groups have been used to protect the carboxylic acid group of amino acids.
Which of these would you use to protect a carboxylic acid group?

a) Structure A
b) Structure B
c) Structure C
d) Structure D
Justification: Structure C is a benzyl protecting group which can be used to protect carboxylic acids or
hydroxyl groups. The other protecting groups have been used to protect the amino group of amino acids.
Which of these would you use to protect the side chain of serine?
a) Structure A
b) Structure B
c) Structure C
d) Structure D
Justification: Structure C is a benzyl protecting group which can be used to protect carboxylic acids or
hydroxyl groups. Serine has a primary alcohol in its side chain and so a benzyl protecting group could be
used. The other protecting groups have been used to protect the amino group of amino acids.
Which of these protecting groups can be removed by using piperidine?
a) Structure A
b) Structure B
c) Structure C
d) Structure D
Justification: Structure A can be removed under relatively mild conditions compared to the other
protecting groups shown.
Which of these protecting groups requires the most vigorous conditions for removal?
a) Structure A
b) Structure B
c) Structure C
d) Structure D
Justification: The benzyl group (structure C) requires vigorous conditions such as hydrofluoric acid for
removal. The tertiary butyl and tertiary butyloxycarbonyl groups (structures D and B respectively) can
be removed using trifluoroacetic acid. The 9-fluorenylmethoxycarbonyl group (structure A) can be
removed using piperidine.
a) Parallel combinatorial synthesis involves the synthesis of a large number of compounds using the
same reaction sequence, where there is a mixture of compounds in each reaction vessel.
b) Parallel combinatorial synthesis involves the synthesis of a large number of compounds using
different reaction sequences, where there is a different, single compound formed in each reaction
vessel.
c) Mixed combinatorial synthesis involves the synthesis of a large number of compounds using a
variety of different synthetic routes to produce a mixture of compounds in each reaction vessel
d) A parallel combinatorial synthesis carried out in a specified number of vessels will produce less
compounds than a mixed combinatorial synthesis.
Justification: Parallel combinatorial synthesis will not produce a mixture of compounds in each reaction
vessel. A single synthetic route is used with different reagents. A large number of compounds are
produced with mixtures in each reaction vessel, but a single synthetic route is used with different
reagents. In a parallel synthesis, there is only one product per reaction vessel, whereas a mixed synthesis
generate several products in each reaction vessel.
38. There are several advantages to photolithography. Which of the following statements is untrue regarding
these advantages?
a) It allows miniaturisation of the process.
b) It in involves the use of photolabile protecting groups.
c) It allows spatial resolution of the products.
d) It requires release of the product from the solid phase before detection of active compounds.
Justification: The products are tested when they are still bound to the solid support. To do otherwise
would defeat the whole point of the exercise which is to locate specific products at specific locations of
the plate.
39. Dynamic combinatorial chemistry is an alternative method of producing compounds other than the
classic mix and split method. Which of the following statements is true about dynamic combinatorial
chemistry?
a) The target should be present in the reaction flask.
b) There is no scope for amplification.
c) Active compounds can be identified as they are formed.
d) The reactions involved should be irreversible.
Justification: The process depends on the target being present. The process relies on the presence of the
target to bind active structures that are formed in the reaction vessel. This in turn leads to an
amplification of the active compound. It is necessary to 'freeze' the reaction before identifying active
compounds. The process requires the reactions to be in equilibrium such that active compounds are
amplified.
40. What is meant by conformational space?
a) The volume occupied by a molecule in the binding site.
b) The 3-dimensional space around a molecule when it is in a target binding site.
c) The positions of a molecule where extra substituents could be added without introducing steric strain
within the molecule.
d) The positions of a molecule where extra substituents could be added without introducing bad steric
interactions with the binding site.
Justification: The space accessed by a molecule when it is in the binding site will depend on how
flexible the molecule is. This in turn depends on the number of rotatable single bonds that are present.
Conformations refer to the different shapes of a molecule that can be adopted by single bond rotation.
41. What name is given to the core structure of a series of related compounds?
a) The lead compound
b) The skeleton
c) The scaffold
d) The pharmacophore
Justification: The scaffold is the molecular core that is common to a series of compounds.
42. What term is given to a scaffold that is present in a wide range of drugs with different activities?
a) Privileged
b) Common
c) Preferred
d) Active
Justification: A privileged scaffold is a core structure that is present in many different drugs with
different activities. Examples of privileged scaffold include steroids, benzodiazepines and
benzenesulfonamides.
MCQ of Unit V (Pharmacophore Modeling & Docking Technique)
1. Which of the following terms refers to the molecular modeling computational method that uses equations
obeying the laws of classical physics?
a) Quantum mechanics
b) Molecular calculations
c) Molecular mechanics
d) Quantum theory
2. Which of the following terms refers to the molecular modeling computational method that uses quantum
physics?
a) Quantum mechanics
b) Molecular calculations
c) Molecular mechanics
d) Quantum theory
a) Energy minimization is carried out using quantum mechanics.
b) Energy minimization is used to find a stable conformation for a molecule.
c) Energy minimization is carried out by varying only bond angles and bond lengths.
d) Energy minimization stops when a structure is formed with a much greater stability than the
previous one in the process.
4. Which of the following needs to be known before two drugs can be overlaid to compare their structures?
a) The pharmacophore of each drug
b) The active conformation of each drug
c) Both of the above
d) Neither of the above
a) The most stable conformation of a drug is also the active conformation.
b) The active conformation is the most reactive conformation of a structure.
c) The active conformation is the conformation adopted by a drug when it binds to its target
binding site.
d) The active conformation can be determined by conformational analysis.
6. Which of the following statements is not true of cyclic structures?
a) They are normally more rigid than acyclic structures.
b) They are locked into the active conformation.
c) They are useful in determining the active conformation of a series of related compounds.
d) They are normally more difficult to synthesize than acyclic molecules.
7. What is meant by docking?
a) The process by which two different structures are compared by molecular modeling.
b) The process by which a lead compound is simplified by removing excess functional groups.
c) The process by which drugs are fitted into their target binding sites using molecular
modelling.
d) The process by which a pharmacophore is identified.
8. What is meant by de novo drug design?
a) The synthesis of a compound from simple starting materials.
b) The design of the synthesis required to generate a novel range of structures.
c) The design of a novel drug based on molecular modeling studies of a binding site.
d) The modification of a drug based on molecular modeling studies into how it binds to its target
binding site
9. Which of the following statements is true in de novo drug design?
a) The design of rigid molecules is superior to flexible ones.
b) Molecules should be designed to fit as snugly as possible into the target binding site.
c) Molecules that have to adopt an unstable conformation in order to bind should be rejected.
d) Desolvation energies can be ignored since they are likely to be the same for different molecules
having the same pharmacophore.
10. Which of the following software programmes is used for automated de novo drug design?
a) DOCK
b) LUDI
c) CHEM3D
d) CoMFA
11. Which of the following statements is untrue when using molecular modelling to design a combinatorial
library?
a) Pharmacophore triangles can be used to design a library.
b) The aim is to synthesize the minimum number of structures likely to produce the maximum
number of pharmacophores.
c) Flexible structures should be analyzed before rigid ones.
d) Structures should only be included in the library if they represent at least 10% additional new
pharmacophores compared with the total represented by structures already present in the library.
12. Which of the following operations or calculations would generally be carried out using molecular
mechanics?
a) Molecular orbital energies
b) Energy minimization
c) Electrostatic potentials
d) Transition-state geometries
13. Which of the following operations or calculations would generally be carried out using quantum
mechanics?
a) Energy minimization
b) Identifying stable conformations
c) Partial atomic charges
d) Energy calculations for specific conformations
Justification: Quantum mechanics is used for the calculation of partial atomic charges. The other
calculations or procedures are generally done using molecular mechanics Quantum mechanics is used
for the calculation of partial atomic charges. The other calculations or procedures are generally done
using molecular mechanics
14. Which of the following software programs is not used for drawing 2D chemical structures?
a) ChemDraw
b) ChemWindow
c) Chem3D
d) Isis/Draw
Justification: Chem3D is a general molecular modeling software program.
15. Which of the following software programs is not dedicated to the creation of 3D chemical models?
a) DOCK
b) Alchemy
c) Hyperchem
d) Discovery Studio Pro
Justification: DOCK was one of the early software programs for docking a ligand to a binding site.
16. Which of the following is associated with conformational searching?
a) LUDI
b) DOCK
c) Monte Carlo method
d) CoMFA
Justification: The Monte Carlo method is used in searching for different conformations of a molecule.
LUDI is a software program used in de novo drug design. DOCK is used in docking molecules into
binding site. CoMFA is used in 3D QSAR.
17. Molecular dynamics can be used to search for different conformations of a molecule. Which of the
following statements is false?
a) A variety of different conformations are generated by 'heating' the molecule to 900K.
b) The position and velocity of each atom is measured after each nanosecond of movement
c) The programme treats each atom as a moving sphere
d) Each atom is only allowed to move a fraction of a bond length between each cycle of calculations
Justification: Measurements are calculated after each femtosecond of movement.
18. Which of the following statements regarding molecular mechanics is untrue?
a) It treats atoms as spheres.
b) It treats bonds as rigid features.
c) It is a molecular modeling computational method.
d) It uses equations that obey the laws of classical physics.
Justification: Molecular mechanics involves the use of equations that follow the laws of classical
physics. It treats atoms as spheres and bonds as springs.
19. Which of the following statements regarding quantum mechanics is untrue?
a) It uses quantum physics to calculate molecular properties.
b) It makes the assumption that nuclei are moving independently of each other
c) It makes the assumption that electrons move independently of each other.
d) There are two broad categories - ab initio and semi-empirical
Justification: In quantum mechanics the assumption is made that nuclei are motionless.
a) Energy minimisation is carried out using molecular mechanics
b) Energy minimization is used to find the most stable conformation for a molecule
c) Energy minimization is carried out by varying only bond angles and bond lengths
d) Energy minimization stops when a structure is formed with a much greater stability than the previous
one in the process
Justification: Energy minimization finds a stable conformation for a molecule, but not necessarily the
most stable conformation. Torsion angles are also changed. The minimization stops when there is little
change in energy between one structure and the next - corresponding to a stable conformation.
21. What is meant by a local energy minimum in conformational analysis?
a) It is a localized region of a molecule which is free of steric strain
b) It is the most stable conformation of a structure
c) It is the initial structure that is formed when a 3d model is created, prior to energy minimization
d) It is the closest stable conformation to the starting structure
Justification: The local energy minimum corresponds to the first stable structure which is formed when
energy minimization is carried out. It may or may not be the most stable conformation. The most stable
conformation of a structure is the global energy minimum.
22. What is meant by a global energy minimum in conformational analysis?
a) It is a localised region of a molecule which is free of steric strain.
b) It is the most stable conformation of a structure.
c) It is the initial structure that is formed when a 3D model is created, prior to energy minimization.
d) It is the closest stable conformation to the starting structure.
Justification: The global energy minimum corresponds to the most stable conformation of a molecule.
The closest stable conformation to the starting structure describes a local energy minimum which
corresponds to the first stable structure that is formed when energy minimization is carried out.
23. Which of the following statements regarding structural overlays is false?
a) The two structures to be overlaid should both be in their active conformations.
b) Usually specific pairs of atoms are chosen (one from each molecule) to allow the overlay to take
place.
c) The fitting process normally involves both molecules being rigid and not changing conformation
during the overlay.
d) The overlay is carried out until a maximum value of the root mean square distance between all
the atom pairs is achieved.
Justification: The calculation continues until the root mean square distance is a minimum value.
a) The most stable conformation of a drug is not necessarily the active conformation.
b) The active conformation is the most reactive conformation of a structure.
c) The active conformation is the conformation adopted by a target binding site when it binds a drug.
d) The active conformation can be determined by conformational analysis.
Justification: The active conformation is the conformation that the drug adopts when it bind to the
target binding site. Most drugs do not react with their target binding site, other than to form
intermolecular bonds. Therefore, the active conformation does not need to be a reactive conformation.
Conformational analysis will assess the relative stabilities of different conformations, but it cannot
predict the active conformation.
25. Which of the following statements is not true of cyclic structures?
a) They are normally more rigid than acyclic structures
b) They have fewer possible conformations
c) They are useful in determining the active conformation of a series of related compounds
d) They are easier to synthesize than more flexible acyclic molecules
Justification: Cyclic, rigid structures are generally more difficult to synthesise than acyclic simpler
molecules.
26. What term is used to describe the process by which drugs are fitted into their target binding sites using
molecular modeling
a) Energy minimization
b) Conformational searching
c) Docking
d) Overlaying
Justification: Docking is where a molecular ligand is fitted into its binding site by molecular modeling.
27. What term is used for the design of a novel drug based on molecular modeling studies of a binding site
a) Drug development
c) De novo drug design
d) Drug optimization
Justification: De novo design involves the computer-aided design of a drug based purely on knowledge
of a binding site, and without the benefit of a lead compound.
28. Which of the following statements is false in de novo drug design?
a) The design of flexible molecules is superior to rigid ones.
b) Molecules should be designed to fit as snugly as possible into the target binding site.
c) Molecules that have to adopt an unstable conformation in order to bind should be rejected.
d) Desolvation energies cannot be ignored.
Justification: If a molecule is designed to fit snugly, it leaves mo margin for error. If the molecule does
not bind as predicted, it is unlikely to bind at all. If the molecule is designed such that it does not fill up
the available space, an alternative binding mode might be possible.
29. What is the software LUDI used for?
a) Docking molecules into binding sites
b) Automated de novo drug design
c) Creating 3D models of molecules
d) Conformational analysis
Justification: LUDI is a software programme used for de novo drug design.
30. Which of the following statements is untrue when using molecular modelling to design a combinatorial
library?
a) Pharmacophore triangles can be used to design a library.
b) The aim is to synthesize the maximum number of structures likely to produce the minimum
number of pharmacophores.
c) Rigid structures should be analysed before flexible ones.
d) Structures should only be included in the library if they represent at least 10% additional new
pharmacophores compared to the total represented by structures already present in the library.
Justification: It is the other way round. The aim is to synthesize the maximum number of structures
likely to produce the minimum number of pharmacophores.
31. Which of the following operations or calculations would generally be carried out using molecular
mechanics?
a) Heat of formation for specific conformations
b) Generating different conformations
c) Partial atomic charges
d) Transition-state energies
Justification: Generating different conformations is carried out using molecular mechanics. The other
three operations or calculations are carried out using quantum mechanics.
32. Which of the following operations or calculations would generally be carried out using quantum
mechanics?
a) Studying molecular motion.
b) Generating different conformations.
c) Energy minimization.
d) Transition-state energies.
Justification: Transition state energies can be calculated using quantum mechanics. The other three
operations can be carried ut using molecular mechanics.
33. Which of the following software programmes is not used for drawing 2D chemical structures?
a) ChemDraw
b) LUDI
c) ChemWindow
d) Isis/Draw
Justification: LUDI is a software programme used for de novo drug design.
34. Which of the following software programmes is not dedicated to the creation of 3D chemical models?
a) CAChe
b) CoMFA
c) ChemX
d) Sybil
Justification: CoMFA is a software programme used in 3D-QSAR.
35. Which of the following statements is false regarding Monte Carlo methods of conformational
searching?
a) The Monte Carlo method introduces a bias towards stable conformations.
b) The method has the drawback that the structure becomes stuck in a local energy minimum
'well' and fails to reach the global energy minimum.
c) Energies of randomly created conformations are compared, then further minor modifications are
carried out on the more stable conformations.
d) Random conformations are generated by carrying out bond rotations
Justification: The programme can be used to find global energy conformations since a facility is present
to avoid the structure being stuck in energy 'wells'. At regular intervals, the programme introduces a
large change in conformation to ensure that a structure is moved out of a 'well'.
36. Molecular dynamics can be used to search for different conformations of a molecule. Which of the
following statements is false?
a) A variety of different conformations are generated by 'heating' the molecule to 900K.
b) The position and velocity of each atom is measured after each femtosecond of movement.
c) The programme treats each atom as a moving sphere.
d) Each atom is only allowed to move a bond length between each cycle of calculations.
Justification: Each atom only moves a fraction of a bond length beween each round of calculations.
25 Important MCQs
Unit -1
(With Solutions)
Medicinal Chemistry-III
BP 601T
By
Dr. Parjanya Kumar Shukla
Assoc. Prof. & HOD
Krishnarpit Institute of Pharmacy
Prayagraj, India
Q.1. Basic Nucleus of Cephalosporins and Penicillins is
a) Lactone
b) thiazole Ring
c) Lactam ring
d) Beta lactam Ring
Answer: d) Beta lactam ring

Q.2. Benzylpenicillin is the chemical name for
which of the following penicillin?
a) Penicillin G
b) Penicillin V
c) Penicillin F
d) Phenethicilin
Answer: a) Penicillin G
Explanation: Peniciilin G is also known as Benzylpenicillin which is
natural penicillin and has a basic core of 6-aminopenicillanic acid
different side chain

Q.3. Structurally all penicillins have only beta-
lactam present in them.
a) True
b) False
c) They don’t have any ring
Answer: b ) False
Explanation: All penicillins have a common basic nucleus, a fused beta-
lactam-thiazolidine ring with different side chains that give each its
unique properties.
Q.4. Patients with penicillin allergies are frequently
allergic to another class of antibiotics. Which one?
a) Fluoroquinolones
b) Macrolides
c) Aminoglycosides
d) Cephalosporins
Answer: d) Cephalosporins
Explanation: Due to structural similarities between cephalosporins and
penicillins - they both have a beta-lactam ring.
Q.5. Cell-wall biosynthesis is inhibited by antibiotics by inhibiting
the biosynthesis of which of the following?
a) lipopolysaccharide
b) peptidoglycan
c) cellulose
d) proteins
Answer: b) peptidoglycan
Explanation: Antibiotics exert their microbial effect by inhibiting biosynthesis
of the peptidoglycan polymer, resulting in the inhibition of cell-wall formation.
Q.6. Streptomycin is produced by which of the
following organisms?
a) Stretomyces noursei
b) Streptomyces nodosus
c) Streptomyces griseus
d) Streptomyces fradiae
Answer: c) Streptomyces griseus

Q.7. Which of the following does not affect the activity
of penicillin?
a) bile
b) hydrochloric acid
c) cysteine
d) Saliva and bile both
Ans: d) Saliva and bile both

Explanation: The natural penicillins are inactivated by heat, cysteine, sodium
hydroxide, penicillinase, and hydrochloric acid. They are not affected by the
action of saliva or bile
Q.8. Antibiotic produced by Streptomyces rimosus is
b) tetracycline
c) oxytetracycline
d) doxycycline
Answer: c) oxytetracycline
:
Explanation Antibiotic produced by Streptomyces rimosus is
oxytetracycline whereas Streptomyces aureofaciens produces
chlortetracycline
Q.9. What reaction is catalysed by a β-lactamase enzyme?

d) The biosynthesis of the penicillin structure from the amino
acids valine and cysteine
Answer: c) The hydrolysis of the four-

membered ring present in penicillins
Explanation: The four membered ring is the β-lactam and this is broken
open by β-lactamases.
The hydrolysis of the side chain is catalysed by penicillin acylase.
Q.10. Which of the following statements is true regarding the
above structure?
a) There is no electron withdrawing group on the side chain,

and so it is acid sensitive.
d) It has a broader spectrum of activity compared to penicillin
G.
Answer: a) There is no electron withdrawing group

on the side chain, and so it is acid sensitive
Explanation: There is no electron-withdrawing group, and so the
penicillin is acid sensitive. As a result, it cannot be taken orally.
Q.11. What is the target for clavulanic acid?
a) β-lactamase
b) L-ala racemase
c) The transpeptidase enzyme
Answer: a) β-lactamase
Explanation: Clavulanic acid inhibits the β-lactamase enzyme, and
prevents the enzyme from deactivating penicillins.
Q.12. Which is the Broad spectrum
antibiotic
a) Erythromycin
b) Streptomycin
c) Penicillin
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above

Q.13. which is correct about acid and alkali
degradation of penicillin
a) Acid- penillic acid/ alkali- Penicillonic acid

b) Acid- Penicillonic acid / alkali- penillic acid
c) Acid- Penicillonic acid / alkali- no degradation
Answer: a) Acid- penillic acid/ alkali-

Penicillonic acid
Q.14. Which is the beta lactamase inhibitors
a) Clavulanic acid
b) Tazobactam
c) Sulbactam
d) All the above
Answer: d) All the above

Q.15. Aminoglycosides are most effective against
which kind of microorganism?
a) Aerobic gram-negative bacteria

b) Anaerobic gram-negative bacteria
c) Aerobic gram-positive bacteria
d) Anaerobic gram-positive bacteria
Answer: a) Aerobic gram-negative bacteria
Explanation: Aminoglycosides are primarily effective against

aerobic gram-negative bacteria such as Pseudomonas,
Acinetobacter and Enterobacter.
Q.16. Aminoglycosides work by irreversibly
binding to the …….. ribosomal subunit.
a) 50s
b) 30s
c) both
d) none
Answer: b) 30s
Explanation: aminoglycosides work through irreversible
inhibition of the 30S ribosomal subunit – inhibiting
protein synthesis.
Q.17. Which of the following drugs is NOT an
aminoglycoside?
a) Streptomycin
b) Neomycin
c) Amikacin
d) Azithromycin
Answer: d) Azithromycin
Explanation: Azithromycin belongs to the macrolide class

of drugs. Streptomycin, neomycin and amikacin are all
examples of aminoglycosides.
Q.18. Chemically tetracycline is a derivative of
a) Purine
b) pyrimidine
c) Octahydro naphthacene
d) phenanthrene
Answer: c) Octahydro naphthacene

Q.19. Chemically Cephalosporin is
a) 7 Amino acid
b) 7- aminocephalosporanic acid
c) 5-cephalosporanic acid
d) 6-amino acid
Answer: b) 7- aminocephalosporanic acid

.
Q.20. Which of the following structures represents the correct
labelling system of tetracyclines?
a) Structure A
b) Structure B
c) Structure C
d) Structure D
Answer c) Structure C
Q.21. which is not act by inhibition of protein synthesis
b) streptomycin
c) Minocycline
d) Penicillin
Answer: d) Penicillin
Q.22. Cephalosporins have which ring system
a) Beta lactam joind to 5 membered thiazolidine ring

b) Beta lactam joind to 6 membered dihydrothiazine ring
c) Beta lactam joind to 5 membered carbocyclic ring
d) Beta lactam not fused to any ring
Answer b) Beta lactam joind to 6 membered

dihydrothiazine ring
Explanation: Beta lactam joind to 5 membered thiazolidine ring-
Penicillins, Beta lactam joind to 5 membered carbocyclic ring-
carbopenems, Beta lactam not fused to any ring-
Monobactams
Q.23. examples of Ureido penicillins are.
a) Mezlocillin & Piperacillin

b) Carbenicillin & Ticarcillin
c) Ampicillin & Becampicillin
d) none
Answer: a) Mezlocillin & Piperacillin

Explanation: Carbenicillin & Ticarcillin- carboxy penicillins,
Ampicillin & Becampicillin- amino penicillins
Q.24. example of Monobactam antibiotic is .
a) Ampicillin & Becampicillin

b) Aztreonam & Tigemonam
c) Sulbactam & Avibactam
d) Carbenicillin & Ticarcillin
Answer: b) Aztreonam & Tigemonam

Q.25. Aminoglycosides contains ?
a) Aminohexsose or pentose sugars

b) 1,3 diaminocyclohexane ring containing 1,3 diamino inositol
c) Glycosidic linkage btween aglycon and sugar part
d) All of the above

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26 Important MCQs
Unit -3
(With Solutions)
BP 601T
By
Assoc. Prof. & HOD
Prayagraj, India
Q.1. What is the causative organism of
tuberculosis?
a) Mycobacterium Bacillus
b) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
c) Mycobacterium infections
d) Mycobacterium leprae
Answer: b) Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Q.2. The BCG vaccine is administered for immunity
against
(a) Malaria
(b) Tuberculosis
(c) Jaundice
(d) Hepatitis
Answer: b) Tuberculosis
Q.3. A combination of medications which are
applied to treat tuberculosis is
(a) to generate a better response

(b) to decrease the resistance of the entity to the
treatment
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these
.
Answer: (c) both (a) and (b)
Q.4. Select the second line drugs for the treatment of
tuberculosis from the following list
(a) P,R
(b) P,Q,R
(c) P,Q,S
(d) Q,S
Answer: c) P,Q,S
Explanation: Isoniazid, rifampicin, pyrazinamide and ethambutol are
first line agents for tuberculosis.
Cycloserine, tetracyclines, fluoroquinolones, macrolides,
aminoglycosides, ethionamide and p-aminosalicylic acid act as
second line drugs
Q.5. Mechanism of action: Isoniazid (INH)
a) Competitive Inhibitor With PABA

b) Mycolic Acid Synthesis Inhibitor
c) Inhibits RNA Polymerase (Binds To The Polymerase.
d) Blocks Protein Synthesis Like Chloramphenicol
Answer: b) mycolic acid synthesis inhibitor

Q.6. Aminoglycoside agent useful in management of
tuberculosis
a) Ethambutol (Myambutol)
b) Streptomycin
c) Isoniazid (INH)
d) Cycloserine
Answer: b) Streptomycin
Q.7. Mechanism of Action: PAS (para-aminosalicyclic
acid)
a) PABA competitor and inhibition of folate synthesis

b) Protein Synthesis Inhibitor
c) DNA Polymerase Inhibitor
d) Inhibitor of cell wall synthesis
Answer: a) PABA competitor and

inhibition of folate synthesis
Q.8. Mechanism of action: rifampin (Rimactane)
a) PABA competitor
b) Mcolic Acid Synthesis
c) Inhibits RNA Synthesis By Binding To DNA
Dependent RNA Polymerase
d) None Of The Above
Answer: c) Inhibits RNA synthesis by binding

to DNA dependent RNA polymerase
Q.9. Most suitable Starting material for synthesis of Isoniazid
is…..?
a) Ethyl isonicorinate
b) Pyridine
c) 4- Picoline / Isonicotinic acid
d) Ethyl alcohol
Answer: c) 4- Picoline / Isonicotinic acid

Q.10. N-acetylisoniazid is the major metabolite of isoniazid
produced by acetylation by
a) Hydrazine
b) Isomerase
c) betalactamase
d) N-acetyl transferase
Answer: d) N-acetyl transferase

Q.11. According to SAR studies of Isoniazid-
a) Pyridine ring is essential

b) Acid hydrazide group on position 4
c) Substitution on N1 reduces activity
d) All of the above

Q.12. ………………. Antibiotic was symthesised from
actinomycetes Streptomyces mediteranei
a) Rifabutin
b) Cycloserin
c) Isoniazid
d) Rifampicin
Answer: d) Rifampicin
Q.13. Which of the following was the first
therapeutically useful quinolone antibaterial agent?
a) Ciprofloxacin
b) Enoxacin
c) Ofloxacin
d) Nalidixic acid
Answer: d) Nalidixic acid

Explanation: Nalidixic acid was the first therapeutically useful quinolone
antibacterial agent and was first synthesised in 1962.
Q.14. Which enzymes are the target for the
quinolone antibacterial agents?
a) Proteases
b) Kinases
c) Topoisomerases
d) Transpeptidases
Answer: c) Topoisomerases
Explanation: Topoisomerases are the target for the quinolone

antibacterial agents and are responsible for catalysing the release
of strain in DNA resulting from supercoiling.
Q.15. Which region of the fluoroquinolone skeleton is
involved in binding interactions with DNA in the ternary
complex formed between DNA, toposiomerase and the
drug?
a) Region A
b) Region B
c) Region C
d) Region D
Answer: d) Region D
Explanation: he other regions interact with topoisomerase or

are involved in stacking of the stacking of four molecules of the
drug.
Q.16. Which of the following structures would be a
feasible intermediate for the synthesis of
fluoroquinolones having antibacterial activity?
a) Structure A
b) Structure B
c) Structure C
d) Structure D
Answer: b) Structure B
Explanation: A Friedel Crafts acylation would result in an
intramolecular cyclisation that would result in the desired carbonyl
group at position 4 and the ester substituent at position 3
Q.17. Which of the following diagrams has the correct
numbering system for fluoroquinolones?
a) Diagram A
b) Diagram B
c) Diagram C
d) Diagram D
Answer: a) Diagram A
Q.18. The molecule shown is:
a) Levofloxacin
b) Ofloxacin
c) Nalidixic acid
d) Ciprofloxacin
Answer: d) Ciprofloxacin
Q.19. According to SAR studies of Quinolones:
a) Position 6 Substitution Helps In Cell Wall Penetration

b) Position 7 Substitution Give Spectrum Of Activity
c) Carboxylic Acid At Position 3 Is Pharmacophore
d) N1 Substitution enhance Potency
e) All Of The Above
Answer: e) All Of The Above

Q.20. Basic nucleus present in Nalidixic acid is
a) Quinoline
c) 17-Naphthyridine
b) Isoquinoline
d) 1,8-Naphthyridine
Answer: d) 1,8-Naphthyridine
Q.21. What is the mechanism of action of
fluoroquinolones?
a) Alteration of cell membrane permeability.

b) Inhibition of bacterial cell synthesis.
c) Inhibition of DNA gyrase
d) Inhibition of phospholipase-C
Answer: c) Inhibition of DNA gyrase

Q.22. Starting compound for synthesis of Nitrofurantoin is
a) Hydrazine
c) Phenylhydrazine
b) Ammonia
d)Semicarbazone
Answer: a) Hydrazine
Q.23. Which is an inhibitor of viral protease
a) Saquinavir
c) Acyclovir
b) Nevirapine
d) Zaicitabine
Answer: a) Saquinavir
Explanation: Acyclovir- inhibitor of viral DNA synthesis

Zaicitabine & Nevirapine- non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor
Q.24. is a derivative of Adamantane
a) Didarosine
b) Gancyclovir
c) Vidarabine
d) Rimantadine
Answer d) Rimantadine
Q.25. Which point in the replication cycle appears most
easily blocked by antivirals?
a) Virus absorption
Answer: c) Virus RNA and DNA replication

Q.26. All of the following antiviral drugs are the analogs of
nucleosides except-
a) Zidovudine
b) Didanosine
c) Acyclovir
d) Saquinavir
Answer: d) Saquinavir
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29 Important MCQs
Unit -4 (Part-2)
(Anthelmintics, Sulphonamides & Sulfones)
(With Solutions)
BP 601T
By
Assoc. Prof. & HOD
Prayagraj, India
Q.1. Which Anthelmintics is benzimidazole derivative?
b) Oxamniquine
c) Niclosamide
d) Mebendazole
Answer: d) Mebendazole
a) Diethyl carbamazine - Piperazine derivative
b) Oxamniquine – Quinoline derivative
c) Niclosamide- benzamide derivative
Q.2. Which of the following are pathogenic helminthes
?
a) Nematodes (Round worm)

b) Trematodes (flukes)
c) Cestodes (tape worms)
d) All of the above

Q.3. Anthelmintic with Heterocyclic isoquinoline
Derivative is
a) Albendazole
b) Thiabendazole
c) Oxamniquine
d) Praziquentel
.
Answer: d) Praziquentel
Albendazole & Thiabendazole are benzimidazole derivatives,
Oxamniquine is quinoline derivative
Q.4. Satarting material for synthesis of Diethylcarbamzine
is
b) Phosgene/ Diethylcarbomoyl chloride
c) Both a & b
d) none
Answer: c) both
Q.5. methyl N-(6-benzoyl-1H-benzimidazol-2-yl)carbamate is
IUPAC name of
b) Oxamniquine
c) Niclosamide
d) Mebendazole
Answer: d) Mebendazole
Q.6. Drug of choice for Ascariasis is
a) Piperazine citrate
b) Niclosamide
c) Mebendazole
d) Albendazole
Answer: d) Albendazole
Q.7. The Anthelmintic Activity of Albendazole is due to:
a) Inhibition of Nucleic acid Synthesis

b) Binding with Protein -Beta-Tubulin
c) Activation of Haem-Polymerase
d) Inhibition of DNA Gyrase
Answer: b) Binding with Protein -Beta-Tubulin

Q.8. What is the mechanism of action of Niclosamide?
a) Increasing cell membrane permeability for calcium,

resulting in paralysis, dislodgement and death of
helminthes.
b) Inhibiting oxidative phosphorylation in some species
of helminthes.
c) Blocking acetylcholine transmission at the myoneural
junction and paralysis of helminthes.
d) Inhibiting microtubule synthesis in helminthes and
irreversible impairment of glucose uptake.
Answer: b) Inhibiting oxidative phosphorylation in

some species of helminthes.
Q.9. What is the mechanism of action of Mebendazole?
a) Increasing cell membrane permeability for calcium, resulting

in paralysis, dislodgement and death of helminthes.
b) Inhibiting oxidative phosphorylation in some species of
helminthes.
c) Blocking acetylcholine transmission at the myoneural
junction and paralysis of helminthes.
d) Inhibiting microtubule synthesis in helminthes and
irreversible impairment of glucose uptake.
Answer: d) Inhibiting microtubule synthesis in

helminthes and irreversible impairment of glucose
uptake.
Q.10……………… blocks acetylene transmission at the
myoneural junction and paralysis of helminthes.
a) Niclosamide
c) Diethylcarbamazine
b) Mebendazole
d) Levamisole
Answer: c) Diethylcarbamazine
Q.11. Which of the following is a natural drug which binds
to GABA mediated Cl ion channels of Microfilaria, which
causes increased permeabilit, hyperpolarisationy & death
of helmenthics ?
a) Albendazole
b) Thiabendazole
c) Ivermectin
d) Praziquentel
Answer: c) Ivermectin
Q.12. Structurally Ivermectin is?
a) 22,23-dihydroavermectin B1a
b) 22,23-dihydroavermectin B1b
c) It is a 80:20 both a & b
Answer: c) It is a 80:20 both a & b
Explanation: B1b differ by asingle methyl side chain in place vof ethyl
chain in B1a
Q.13. Starting material for synthesis of Mebendazole is
b) Diethylcarbomoyl
c) Both a & b
d) 4-chloro benzophenone
Answer: d) 4-chloro benzophenone

Q.14. Sulphonamides are the derivatives of
a) Sulphacetamide
b) Sulphadiazine
c) Sulphamethoxazole
d) Sulphanilamide
Answer: d) Sulphanilamide
Q.15. ………………is metabolic product of Prontosil
a) Sulphanilamide
b) Mefenide
c) Trimethoprim
d) Dapsone
Answer: a) Sulphanilamide
Q.16. Starting compound for synthesis of
Sulfacetamide is
a) 4-aminobenzene-sulphonyl Cl
b) Sulphanilamide
c) May a) or b)
d) none
Answer: c) May a) or b)
Q.17. which is true about sulphonamides?
a) Generic name for para amino benzene sufonamides

b) 1st effective class of antibacterial drugs used
systemically
c) found as metabolic product of prontosil
d) All of the above

Q.18. Both N1 & N4 subsituted sulphonamide is-
a) Sulphadiazine
b) Sulphacetamide
c) Prontosil
d) Succinyl sulphothiazole
Answer: d) Succinyl sulphothiazole

Q.19. According to SAR studies of sulfonamides which is
correct:
a) Sulphanilamide skeleton is essential

b) replacement of para amino group loss in activity
c) Sulphur of sulfonyl group must directly attached to benzene
d) Heterocyclic aromatic substitution at N1 give potent compunds
e) All Of The Above
Answer: e) All Of The Above

Q.20. Trimethoprim is derivative of
a) Pyridine
b) diaminopyrimidine
c) Methoxazole
d) Isoxazole
Answer: b) diaminopyrimidine
Q.21. …………….is a short acting sulphonamide
a) Sulphamethizine
b) Sulphaphenazole
c) Sulphamethoxine
d) Sulphamethoxazole
Answer: a) Sulphamethizine
Q.22. Sulphonamides block synthesis of
a) DFA
b) PABA
c) THFA
d) DHFA
Answer: d) DHFA
Q.23. The following general structure is representative of
sulphonamides. Which of the following statements is true for
active sulphonamides?
a) R1 can be H or an alkyl group

b) R2 must be hydrogen
c) The aromatic ring is essential
d) The sulphonamide functional group can be replaced with an
ester
Answer: c) The aromatic ring is essential
a) R1 can be a hydrogen or an acyl group. The latter is removed in the

body by enzyme-catalysed hydrolysis to release a primary amine which
is essential for activity.
b) a variety of groups can be placed at R2.
d) The sulphonamide group is essential for activity.
Q.24. Starting material for Sulfamethoxazole synthesis is
a) Acetanilide with Chloro sulphonic acid

b) ammonia & acetaldehyde
c) Ethane-1,2diamine
d) none
Answer: a) Acetanilide with Chloro sulphonic acid

Q.25. Which of the following is Folate reductase Inhibitor?
a) Trimethoprim
b)Cotrimoxazole
c) Both
d) None
Answer: c) Both
Q.26. Cotrimoxazole is combination of
a) Trimethoprim & Sulphadiazine

b) Trimethoprim & Sulphamethoxazole
c) Sulphanilamide & Suiphamethoxazole
d) Dapsone & Sulphamethoxazole
Answer: b) Trimethoprim & Sulphamethoxazole

Q.27. Through reduction process, Sulphasalazine metabolized
into salycylic acid.
a) Sulphamethoxine
b) Sulphaphenazole
c) Sulphapyridine
d) Dapsone
Answer: c) Sulphapyridine
Q.28. Dapsone is a
a) ACE inhibitor
b) COX inhibitor
c) Ergosterol synthesis inhibitor
d) Folic acid synthesis inhibitor
Answer: d) Folic acid synthesis inhibitor
It is a sulfone
Q.29. Which sulpha drug acts as a prodrug?
a) Succinyl sulphathiazole
b) Phthalyl sulphathiazole
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of these
Answer: c) Both (a) and (b)

Thank You !!

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26 Important MCQs
Unit -4 (Part-1)
(Antifungal & Anti-protozoal Agents)
(With Solutions)
BP 601T
By
Assoc. Prof. & HOD
Prayagraj, India
Q.1. Which of the following is the Polyene Derivative
antifungal agent
a) Amphotericin B
b) Nystatin
c) Haymycin
d) all of above
Answer: d) All of above

All are the antibiotics of polyene derivative
Q.2. Which of these molecules is present in fungal cell
membranes but not in animal cell membranes?
a) Cholesterol
b) Beta-glucan
c) Ergosterol
d) Fluconazole
Answer: b) Ergosterol
Q.3. Antifungal with Heterocyclic Benzofuran
Derivative is
a) Amphotericin B
b) Nystatin
c) Haymycin
d) Griseofulvin
.
Answer: d) Griseofulvin
Q.4. Imidazole Derivatives antifungal is
a) Cotrimoxazole
b) Econazole
c) Ketoconazole
d) All of the above

Q.5. Which of the following is triazole derivative antifungals
a) Itraconazole
b) Fluconazole
c) Voriconazole
d) Miconazole
e) a,b,c
Answer: e) a, b, c,
Miconazole is imidazole derivative

Q.6. Terbinafine & Naftifine are antifungal agents of
class
a) Antimetabolites
b) Benzofuran Derivative
c) Triazole Derivative
d) Allyl Amine Derivative
Answer: d) Allyl Amine Derivative
5 Flucytosine Is antimetabolite (fluorinated pyrimidine derivative),

Griseofulvin is benzofuran derivative, Fluconazole is triazole derivative
Q.7. Antifungal polyene macrolide that preferentially
binds to fungal ergosterol which alters cellular
permeability.
a) Ketoconazole
b) Amphotericin B
c) Miconazole
d) Grisefulvin
Answer: a) Amphotericin B
Explanation: ketoconazole & miconazole inhibits synthesis of ergosterol,

griseofulvin inhibits cell mitosis in fungi
Q.8. Which class of antifungal drugs work by
inhibiting squalene epoxidase?
a) Azoles
b) Allylamines
c) Polyenes
d) None
Answer: b) Allylamines
Naftifine & Terbinafine inhibits fungal enzyme squalene epoxidase thus

lowering the conc. of ergosterol
Q.9. Which of these antifungal drugs inhibits
microtubules?
a) Griseofulvin
b) Amphotericin B
c) Ketoconazole
d) Flucytosine
Answer: a) Griseofulvin
Explanation : Griseofulvin inhibits microtubules formation during cell

mitosis in fungi
Q.10. An azole most commonly used for topical
treatment of candidiasis:
a) Amphotericin B
b) Clotrimazole
c) Griseofulvin
d) None of the Above
Answer: b) Clotrimazole
Q.11. Mechanism of Action of Itraconazole?
a) Inhibit ergosterol synthesis

b) Abnormal M Phase configuration
c) Inhibit synthesis of fungal pyrimidine
d) Create pore in Fungal cell wall
Answer: a) Inhibit ergosterol synthesis

Q.12. Which of the following statements correctly
pair the antifungal drugs with their likely
mechanisms of action?
a) Amphotericin B - inhibits thymidylate synthetase
b) Griseofulvin - interferes with microtubule function
c) Miconazole - inhibits DNA dependent RNA polymerase
d) Nystatin - inhibits ergosterol synthesis
Answer: b) Griseofulvin - interferes with

microtubule function
Q.13. Which of the following is an antifungal drug
that acts by inhibiting enzyme Lanosterol 1-
demethylase of cytochrome p-450?
a) Terconazole
b) Fluconazole
c) Both a & b
d) None
Answer: c) Both a & b

.
Q.14. Which of the following statements best
explains the mechanism of antifungal action of
azoles?
a) Formation of artificial pores in the fungal membrane
b) Inhibition of fungal mitosis
c) Inhibition of squalene synthesis
d) Inhibition of conversion of lanosterol to ergosterol
Answer: d) Inhibition of conversion of

lanosterol to ergosterol
Q.15. Starting compound for synthesis of Miconazole is
a) Hydrazine
c) Phenylhydrazine
d)Semicarbazone
Answer: b) 2,4 Dichloro acetophenone

Q.16. Starting compound for synthesis of
Tolnafate is
a) Phenol & Thiophosgene

c) Phenylhydrazine
d) Naphthol & Thiophosgene
Answer: d) Naphthol & Thiophosgene

Q.17. According to SAR studies of Tolnaftate which is
correct?
a) Methyl group on Phenyl ring is essential

b) Substitution of methyl group with hydrogen or OH does not alter
activity
c) Removal of naphthyl group or tolyl group reduces activity
d) All of the above

Q.18. Amebiasis caused by which protozoa:
a) Trypanosoma gambiense
b) Giardia intestinalis
c) Toxoplasma gondii
d) Plasmodium falciparum
e) Entamoeba histolytica
Answer: e) Entamoeba histolytica
a) Trypanosoma gambiense- African sleeping sickness

b) Giardia intestinalis- Giardiasis
c) Toxoplasma gondii- Toxoplasmosis
d) Plasmodium falciparum- Malaria
Q.19. Antiamoebics are
a) Antiprotozoal agents
b) Used to treat Amebiasis
c) treat infection by Entamoeba histolytica
d) All Of The Above
Answer: d) All Of The Above

Q.20. Which one is not a Nitroimidazole derivative of
antiamoebic agent
a) Tinidazole
c) Metronidazole
b) Ornidazole
d) Emetine
Answer: d) Emetine
It is a alkaloid
Q.21. Tissue Antiamobeic agents are
a) Tinidazole
c) Metronidazole
b) Secnidazole
d) All of the above

Q.22. Luminal Antiamobeic agents are
a) Pentamidine
c) Eflornithine
b) Atovaquone
d) All of the above

Q.23. Which Possible MOA of Metronidazole
a) Inhibition of protein syntheis

c) Cell wall degradation
b) Formation of cytotoxic derivatives
d) All of the above
Answer: c) Formation of cytotoxic derivatives
Explanation: its generally acts on anaerobic microorganisms
.
Q.24. Satrting material for metronidazole synthesis is
a) Glyoxal , ammonia & acetaldehyde

b) Ethane-1,2diamine
c) Both
d) Only glyoxal
Answer c) Both
Q.25. Inhibition of protein synthesis is MOA of ?
a) Iodoquinol
b) Pentanidine
c) Atovaquone
d) Eflornithine
e) Diloxanide
Answer: e) Diloxanide
a) Iodoquinol- chelating ferrous ions

b) Pentanidine- inhibition of polyamine synthesis by inhibiting S-
adenosyl-L-methionine decarboxylase
c) Atovaquone- Inhibits Mitrocondrial Eelectron transport, ATP,
nucleic acid synthesis
d) Eflornithine- catalytic inhibitor of ornithine decarboxylases
Q.26. Eflornithine is a/an analog of……
a) Naphthalene
b) Isatin
c) Ornithine
d) Imidazoline
Answer: c) Ornithine
Thank You !!

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26 Important MCQs
Unit -2
(With Solutions)
BP 601T
By
Assoc. Prof. & HOD
Prayagraj, India
Q.1. Basic Nucleus of Macrolide antibiotics is
a) Macrocyclic Lactone (A spiroketal group)

b) Microcyclic Lactone
c) Lactam ring
d) Beta lactam Ring
Answer: a) Macrocyclic Lactone (A

spiroketal group)
Q.2. What is correct about Macrolide antibiotics ?
a) natural and semi synthetic agents

b) Contains a large 14-16 memberd macrolide lactone ring
c) contains deoxysugars like cladinose & desosamine
d) all of the above
Answer: d) all of the above

Q.3. Which is correct?
a) Clarithromycin is semi synthetic 14 membered macrolide

b) Erythromycin is natural14 membered macrolide
c) Azithromycin is semi synthetic 15 membered macrolide
d) All of the above
Answer: All of the above

Q.4. Which of the following antibiotics is a macrolide?
a) Chloramphenicol
b) Doxycycline
c) Erythromycin
d) Streptomycin
Answer: c) Erythromycin
Q.5. Which of the following inhibits protein synthesis by
combining with the 50S subunit ribosome?
a) Streptomycin
b) Tetracycline
c) Chloramphenicol
d) Penicillin
Answer: c) Chloramphenicol
Explanation: Streptomycin & , tetracyclines - 30s subunit, Penicillins inhibit
cell wall synthesis
Q.6. Where do macrolides exhibit their mechanism of
action?
a) 50S Ribosomal Unit

b) mRNA Synthesis
c) Cell Wall
d) 30S Ribosomal Unit
Answer: a) 50S Ribosomal Unit

Q.7. Chloramphenicol consist of?
a) a para nitrophenyl
b) dichloroacidamide side chain
c) 1,3 propanediol
d) all of the above

Q.8. as per SAR studies 1,3 propanediol moiety
should present in which configuration in
Chloramphenicol
a) L erythro configuration
b) D erythro configuration
c) D threo configuration
d) none
Answer: c) D threo configuration

:
Explanation agents with D threo configuration is most active
agents
Q.9. Erythromycin is unstable in acidic medium because ?
a) C-6 OH group attackes on C9 ketone and give hemiketal

intermediate
b) dehydration prevents retention of active drug
c) C-12 OH group attackes on C9 and give spiroketal
(inactive)
d) all of the above

Q.10. Which of the following statements is true regarding the
Clindamycin
a) It repalced lincomycin dure to improved side effect profile.

b) Act by inhibiting bacterial protein synthesis by binding at 50s
ribosomal subunit
c) It has alpha D galacto octopyranoside and pyrrolidine.
d) all of the above

Q.11. According to SAR studies of Clindamycin-
a) it is obtain by replacing 7 (R)- OH of Lincomycin to 7-

(S)-Cl group
b) 7-(S)-Cl group has stronger activity that &-(R) Cl or
OH or sulpher
c) it is also k/a &-Chloro, & deoxy Lincomycin
d) All of the above

Q.12. What is a prodrug?
a) An excipient which helps in creating the

environment for the drug-dissolving
Answer: b) Chemically drug precursor
Explanation: A prodrug is a chemically manufactured inert drug

precursor which in biotransformation will give the pharmacologically
active drug compound. Prodrugs are inactive when given as a dosage,
but upon biotransformation gives active metabolites.
Q.13. Which of the following will be a
pharmaceutical application of prodrugs?
a) Enhancement of bioavailability
b) Reduction of toxicity
c) Improvement of odour
d) Site-specific drug delivery
e) All of the above
Answer: e) All of the above

Q.14. Which of the following will be the
pharmacokinetic application of prodrugs?
a) Improvement of taste
b) Improvement of odour
c) Site-specific drug delivery
d) Reduction in GI irritation
Answer: c) Site-specific drug delivery
Explanation: Pharmacokinetic applications are such as

enhancement of bioavailability, prevention of presystemic
metabolism, prolongation of the duration of action, reduction of
toxicity, etc.
Q.15. How improvement of a drug in case of taste
is done?
a) Injecting the drug so no taste related problems

b) Reducing the drug solubility in the saliva
c) Lower affinity for the taste receptors and making the
drug sweet
d) Reducing drug solubility in saliva and lower affinity for
taste receptors (Example: Chlorampenicol palmitate)
Answer: d) Reducing drug solubility in

saliva and lower affinity for taste receptors
(Example Chlorampenicol palmitate)
Q.16. Prodrugs with two active compounds are
known as
a) Mixed type prodrugs

b) Pro-prodrugs
c) Bioprecursors
d) Mutual prodrug
Answer: d) Mutual prodrug

Explanation: example Benorylate.
Q.17. Which of the following is an example of a mutual
prodrug?

Answer: c) Benorylate prodrug for NSAIDs and

paracetamol
Q.18. Which of the following is not a characteristic of ideal
prodrug?
a) Should rapidly transform, chemically and enzymatically

forming the active product
b) Should have intrinsic pharmacological activity
c) The vapour pressure should be less and evaporate easily
d) Apart from an active product, other metabolic fragments
should be nontoxic
Answer: c) The vapour pressure should be less and

evaporate easily
Q.19. Diazepam is an example of
a) Mutual prodrug
b) Tripartite prodrug
c) Bio precursor prodrug
Answer: c) Bio precursor prodrug
.
Q.20. Following Prodrug of Mitomycin C is an example of
a) Mutual prodrugs
b) Pro-prodrugs
c) Bioprecursors
d) Polymeric Prodrug
Answer d)
Q.21. Which is the infective form of the malaria parasite?
a) Oocyst
b) Sporozoite
c) Bradyzoite
d) Tachyzoite
Answer: b) sporozoite
Explanation: During a blood meal, a malaria-infected female

Anopheles mosquito inoculates sporozoites into the human
host. Sporozoites infect liver cells and start liver schizogony.
Q.22. Trophozoites, schizonts, and gametocytes of all the
malarial parasites are seen in the peripheral blood smear
except;
a) P. falciparum
b) P. malariae
c) P. ovale
d) P. vivax
Answer: a) (Plasmodium falciparum)
Explanation: Schizogony occurs inside the capillaries of the internal

organs (spleen, liver, and bone marrow) hence only the ring form (but
not the growing trophozoites and schizonts) are found in the peripheral
blood
Q.23. Starting material for synthesis of antimalarial drug
Primaquine is
a) 4-Amino 6-methoxy quinoline

c) Pentamine
b) Phenol
d) Hexamine
Answer: a) 4-Amino 6-methoxy quinoline

Q.24. ........... is the 8-amino quinolone derivative antimalarial
drug.
a) Doxycycline
b) Quinidine
c) Chloroquine
d) Primaquine
Answer: d) Primaquine
chloroquinine is
a) 3-Chloro aniline
b) Pentamine
c) Phenol
d) Hexamine
Answer: a) 3-Chloro aniline

chloroquinine is
a) 3-Chloro aniline
b) Pentamine
c) Phenol
d) Hexamine
Answer: a) 3-Chloro aniline

Q.26. Which is Wrong
a) Amodiaquine, Chloroquine is 4-amino Quinolines Antimalarials

b) Pamaquine is 8-amino Quinolines Antimalarials
c) Proguanil is 8-amino Quinolines Antimalarials
d) Proguanil is Biguanide Antimalarials
Answer: c) Proguanil is 8-amino Quinolines

Antimalarials
Thank You !!

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38 Important MCQs
Unit-5
Drug design, discovery, QSAR, molecular docking Combinatorial Chemistry
(With Solutions)
BP 601T &
BP 807ET (CADD)
By
Assoc. Prof. & HOD
Prayagraj, India
Q.1. Identification of a new chemical entity as a
potential therapeutic agent (From Hit to Lead) Is
known as
a) Drug development
b) Drug discovery
c) Both of above
d) None of above
Answer: b) Drug discovery

Q.2. The process of bringing a new pharmaceutical
drug to the market once the lead compound has been
Identified through the process of drug discovery.
(From Lead to NDA) Is known as
a) Drug development
b) Drug discovery
c) Both of above
d) None of above
Answer: a)Drug development

Q.3. Natural products or derivatives or synthetic
substances with good binding ability in Drug
discovery Is known as
a) Lead
b) NDA
c) IND
d) Hit
Answer: d) Hit
Q.4. Compound with good activity and
selectivity in screening during drug discovery
is known as
a) Hit
b) NDA
c) IND
d) Lead
Answer: d) Lead
Q.5. Which of the following statements best describes a lead
compound?
a) A compound that contains the element lead

b) A compound from the research laboratory that is chosen to
go forward for preclinical and clinical trials
c) A molecule that shows some activity or property of interest
and serves as the starting point for the development of a
drug.
d) The first compound of a structural class of compounds to
reach the market.
Answer: c) A molecule that shows some activity

or property of interest and serves as the starting
point for the development of a drug.
Q.6. Identification of a lead nucleus depends on
the consideration of ……..
a) Molecular structure
b) Geometry of receptor
c) Drug receptor interaction
d) Observed biological responses
e) All of the above

Q.7. Drug design may be considered as an integrated whole
approach which essentially involves which step/steps
a) Chemical synthesis,
b) Evaluation for activity-spectrum,
c) Toxicological studies,
d) Metabolism of the drug
e) All of the above

Q.8. The ‘drug discovery process’ may be categorized into
four distinct heads, namely : (i) Target identification and
selection, (ii) Target optimization, (iii) Lead identification,
and (iv) Lead optimization.
a) True
b) False
c) These are drug development process
d) Only I & ii are true
Answer: a) True
Q.9. Major types of drug design are….
a) Ligand-based drug design

c) Both a & b
Answer: c) Both a & b

Q.10. Which of the following approach is considered under the
‘Ligand based drug designing’ ?
a) Molecular docking
b) Pharmacophore modeling
c) QSAR Modeling
d) Both b & c
Answer: d) Both b & c

Q.11. Which of the following method used for virtual
screening
a) ADMET analyses
b) QSAR modeling
c) Pharmacophore modeling
d) All of the above

Q.12. Drug Discovery is a process of finding
a) Disease etiology
b) Target identification
c) Lead discovery/optimization
d) All of Above

Q.13. Drug discovered accidentally or by unexpected results/
action is called as:
a) The serendipitous pathway

b) The screening pathway
c) The chemical modification pathway
d) The rational pathway
Answer: a) The serendipitous pathway

Q.14. Lipinski’s rule of five is used for
a) Docking
b) Similarity search
c) Drug likeness
d) Dynamics simulation
Answer: c) Drug likeness

Q.15. The biological activity of most drugs is related to a
combination of physicochemical properties. This
statement is relevant to:
a) Hammett's substituent
constant
a) Hansch analysis
b) Tafts steric constant
c) Free Wilson analysis
Answer: b) Hansch analysis

Q.16. DYLOMMS (Dynamic Lattice-Oriented Molecular
Modeling System) is related to:
a) 2D-QSAR
b) SAR
c) 3D-QSAR
d) None
Answer: c) 3D-QSAR
Q.17. What does the symbol P represent in a QSAR equation?
a) pH
b) Plasma concentration
c) Partition coefficient
d) Prodrug
Answer: c) Partition coefficient
The partition coefficient is a measure of a drug's hydrophobicity and

can be measured by comparing the relative concentrations of the
drug in a two phase system of water and octanol.
Q.18. What is the symbol π in a QSAR equation?
a) The hydrophobicity of the molecule

c) The substituent hydrophobicity constant
d) A measure of the steric properties for a substituent
Answer: c) The substituent hydrophobicity

constant
The hydrophobicity of the molecule is measured by logP. The

electronic effect of a substituent is measured by the Hammett
substituent constant (σ). The measure of a substituent's steric
properties is indicated by a variety of methods including Taft's
substituent constant Es.
Q.19. What does MR represent in a QSAR equation?
a) Molar refractivity is a stereoelectronic factor

b) Molar refractivity is an electronic factor
c) Molar refractivity is a hydrophobic factor
d) Molar refractivity is a steric factor
Answer: d) Molar refractivity is a steric factor
Molar refractivity is a steric factor determined from the index of

refraction, the molecular weight and the density.
Q.20. What does a negative value of σ signify
for a substituent?
a) It is electron withdrawing
b) It is electron donating
c) It is neutral
d) It is hydrophobic
Answer: b) It is electron donating
A negative value of σ signifies an electron donating substituent

whereas a positive value signifies an electron withdrawing
substituent. A value close to zero would indicate a neutral
electronic effect.
Q.21. Which of the following statements is untrue when
comparing 3D QSAR with conventional QSAR?
a) Only drugs of the same structural class should be studied by

3D QSAR or QSAR.
b) 3D QSAR has a predictive quality unlike QSAR.
c) Experimental parameters are not required by 3D QSAR, but
are for QSAR.
d) Results can be shown graphically in 3D QSAR, but not with
QSAR.
Answer: a) Only drugs of the same structural

class should be studied by 3D QSAR or
QSAR.
Q.22. A Hansch analysis is being carried out in order to relate
biological activity to σ and π. Which of the following
substituents would best suit the study?
a) SO2NH2, CONH2, CH3SO2, CH3CO, CN

b) NH2, OH, F, Cl CF3
c) NO2, CO2H, F, OCH3, NMe2
d) SO2NH2, Br, NMe2, NH2, CF3SO2
Answer: d) SO2NH2, Br, NMe2, NH2, CF3SO2

They are from different quadrants of the Craig plot shown in fig.
There is no correlation between the values of σ and π. The
substituents also display a range of values for both σ and π.
Q.23. Calculate the logP value for the structure shown;
logP for benzene = 2.13; π(OH) -0.67; π(CH3) 0.52.
a) 3.32
b) 0.94
c) 1.98
d) 2.13
Answer: c) 1.98
The value is obtained by adding the π values for each substituent to

the logP value for benzene.
.
Q.24. The measure value of the electron withdrawing or
electron donating ability of a substituent is known as:

b) Hansch analysis
c) Tafts steric constant
d) Free Wilson analysis
Answer: a) Hammett's substituent constant

Q.25. The negative value of π indicates that substituents is:
a) More hydrophobic than halogen

b) More hydrophobic than hydrogen
c) less hydrophobic than halogen
d) less hydrophobic than hydrogen
Answer: d) less hydrophobic than hydrogen

Q.26. CoMFA method is used for
a) 4D-QSAR
b) 3D-QSAR
c) 5D-QSAR
d) None
Answer: b) 3D-QSAR
3D-QSAR or 3-D QSAR refers to the application of force field

calculations requiring three-dimensional structures of a given
set of small molecules with known activities (training set). ...
The first 3-D QSAR was named Comparative Molecular Field
Analysis (CoMFA) by Cramer et al.
Q.27. When both ligand and receptor are flexible. The ligand
attach flexibly at the active site of receptor to maximize
attaching forces between them. This type of docking is known
as:

c) Ensemble docking
d) Rigid docking
Answer: a) Induced fit docking

Q.28. Virtual Screening is also called as..
a) Silico drug design

b) Serendipity drug design
c) Rational drug design
Answer: a) Silico drug design

Q.29. Multiple protein structures are utilized as an ensemble
for docking with ligand in one of the following technique

c) Ensemble docking
d) Rigid docking
Answer: c) Ensemble docking

Q.30. The docking combined with a scoring function can be
used to quickly screen large databases of potential drugs in
silico to identify molecules that are likely to bind to protein
target of interest. This method is helpful for:
a) Lead optimization
b) Bioremediation
c) Drug-DNA interaction
d) Hit identification
Answer: d) Hit identification

Q.31. The techniques that hold a lot of prospective in target
identification (generally proteins/enzymes), target validation,
understanding the protein is called as..
a) Cheminformatics
b) Bioinformatics
c) Docking
Answer: b) Bioinformatics
Q.32. Force field energy estimation is most often used for
a) Ligand flexibility
b) Receptor flexibility
c) Scoring function
d) Search space
Answer: a) Ligand flexibility

Q.33. Protein-ligand docking software consists of two main
components which works together are
a) Fragment based algorithm and Scoring function

b) Search algorithm and Genetic algorithm
c) Fragment based algorithm and Genetic algorithm
d) Search Aigonthm and Scoring function
Answer: d) Search Aigonthm and Scoring

function
Q.34. Rigid docking includes:
a) Molecular shape representation

b) Surface patch matching
c) Filtering and scoring
d) All of above
Answer: d) All of above

Q.35. Combinatorial chemistry or parallel synthesis can be
useful at various stages of the drug design / development
process. Which of the following is NOT such a stage?
a) finding a lead compound

b) optimising a lead compound
d) structure-activity relationships of the lead compound
Answer: c) structure determination of the

lead compound
Structure determination is an analytical process involving

spectroscopic techniques such as nuclear magnetic
resonance spectroscopy.
Q.36. Solid phase synthesis is frequently used in combinatorial
chemistry. What is meant by solid phase synthesis?
a) reactions are carried out without solvent

b) reagents and reactants are attached to a solid phase
support
c) reagents are used in the solid phase
d) molecules are constructed on a solid phase support
Answer: b) reagents and reactants are

attached to a solid phase support
Q.37. There are several advantages of solid phase synthesis
over conventional synthesis. Which of the following
statements is NOT an advantage?
a) excess reagents can be used to force the equilibrium of a

reaction to products
b) impurities and by products are easily removed
c) intermediates do not need to be isolated and purified
d) structures can be strongly linked to the solid support such
that they cannot be removed
Answer: d) structures can be strongly linked

to the solid support such that they cannot
be removed
Q.38. Which of the following statements regarding linkers is
wrong?
a) the link between the molecule and the solid support must be stable
to the reaction conditions used in the synthesis
b) the link between the molecule and the solid support must be easily
c) the choice of linker used depends on the functional groups available
on the first molecule to be attached
d) the linker must be on the outer surface of the resin bead if a
molecule is to become attached to it
Answer: d) the linker must be on the outer surface of the

resin bead if a molecule is to become attached to it
Most of the linkers are located in the interior of the bead and it is
important that the bead swells in the presence of solvent to allow
access to these sites.
Thank You !!

format

MEDICINAL CHEMISTRY 6 SEM
Multiple Choice Question
1. Most potent narcotic antagonist is

a) Nalorphine
b) Naltrexone
c) Naloxone
d) Levorphanol
2. Which of the followings is a phenathrene derivative?

a) Fentanyl
b) Morhine
c) Methadone
d) Pentazocine
3. Which of the followings opioid analgesics is a strong mu recepator

agonist ?
a) Pentazocine
b) Naloxone
c) Buprenorphine
d) Morphine
4. Which one Is the pure opioid antagonist among the followings ?

a) Nalorphine
b) Nalbuphine
c) Naloxone
d) Levallorphan
5. The drug naloxone

a) Produces morphine like activity
2
b) Produces respiratory depression
c) Induces constipation
d) Precipitates withdrawal systoms in morphine addicts
6. Which of the followings opioids analgesics is used in obstetric

labor?
a) Fentanyl
b) Pentazocine
c) Meperidine
d) Buprenorphine
7. Which of the followings NSAIDs is a selective COX-2 inhibator ?

a) Diclofenac
b) Celecoxib
c) Indomethacin
d) Piroxicam
9. NSAID primarily promotes as an analgesic, not as an anti-
inflammatory agent
a) Naproxen
b) Ibuprofen
c) Ketorolac
d) Piroxicam
10. Most of non-narcotic analgesic have

a) Anti-inflammatory effect
b) Analgesiceffect
c) Antipyretic effect
d) All of the above
11. ) Which of the followings ring is presenrt is sulindac ?

a) Indol
3
b) Indene
c) Isoxazole
d) Furan
12. Non-narcotic analgesic are all of the followings drugs EXPECT

a) Parecetamol
b) Acetylsalicylic acid
c) Butorphanol
d) Ketorolac
13. Non-narcotic analgesic are maninaly effective against pain

associated with
a) Inflammation or tissue damage
b) Trauma
c) Myocardial infarction
d) Surgery
15. Ibuprofen is a
a) 2-(4-propylphenyl)propionic acid
b) 2-(4-isobytylphenyl)propionic acid
c) 2-(4-ethylphenyl)propionic acid
d) 2-(4-hexylphenyl)propionic acid
16. Which of the followings Sympathomimetics acts indirectly

a) Epinephrine
b) NE
c) Ephedrine
d) Methoxamine
17. Chemically alpha methyldopa is
4
a) 2-methyl-3 hydroxy-2-tyrosine
b) 6-methyl-4 hydroxy-2-tyrosine
c) 3-methyl-2 hydroxy-2-tyrosine
d) 3-hydroxy-α-methyl-2-tyrosine
18. DOPA is an important natural amino acid and precursor in the

biosynthesis of
a) Nor-adrenaline
b) Adrenaline
c) Methyldopa
d) Dopamine
19. Catecholamine includes ther followings EXPECT

a) Norepinephrine
b) Ephedrine
c) Isoproternol
d) Epinephrine
20. Aromatic nucleus present in Propranolol

a) Naphthalene
b) Benzene
c) Anthracene
d) Pyridine
22. Propranolol is uded In the tretement all of the followings disease

EXPECT
a) CVS disease
b) Hyperthyroidism
c) Migraine
d) Broncial asthma
5
23. β1 receptor stimulationm includes all of the followings effect
EXPECT
a) Increase in heart ncontractility
b) Bronchodilation
c) Tachycardia
d) Increase in conduction velocity in the atrioventricular node
24. Salbutamol is synthesized from

a) Phenyl acetontrile
b) 4-Hydroxy propiophenone
c) Methyl salicylate
d) Mesitylene derivative
26. Indicate the location of M2 cholinorecepator type

a) Heart
b) Gland
c) Smooth muscle
d) Endothelium
27. Atropine contains

a) One asymmetric carbon
b) Three asymmetric carbon
c) Two asymmetric carbon
d) Four asymmetric carbon
28. Acetylcholine is not used in clinical practice beacause

a) It is very toxic
b) The doses require are very high
c) it is very rapidly hydrolyzed
d) it is very costly
29. Muscarine recepoator are located as
6
a) Autonomic ganglia
b) Skeletal muscle neuromuscular junction
c) Autonomic effector cells
d) Sensory carotid sinus baroreceptor zone
30. Indicate a reversible cholinsterase inhibator

a) Isoflurophate
b) Carbacol
c) Physostigamine
d) Parathion
31. What is often the first symptom of Parkinson disease

a) Headache
b) Nausea
c) Shaking of a hand or foot
d) Turning of the head
32. How is Parkinson disease treated?

a) Medicine
b) Surgery
c) Radiation
d) a and b
33. Which of the following beta-blockers is beta-1 selective with

vasodilatation?
a) Propanolol
b) Carvedilol
c) Nebivolol
d) Atenolol
7
34. Which medication should be prescribe to all anginal patient to
treat a acute attack ?
a) Isosorbide dinitrile
b) Nitroglycerin
c) Nifidepine
d) Parecetamol
35. Which of the followings precessor of nitroglycrine synthesis ?

a) Glycerol
b) Glycol
c) Glucose
d) Gluctiol
36. The calcium channel blocker belongs to diphenyl alkylamine

category is
a) Diltizepam
b) Verapamil
c) Bepridil
d) Nitrendipine
37. The calcium channel blocker nifedipine is derivative of

a) Diaminopropranol ether
b) Diphenyl alkylamine
c) Benzothiazepine
d) Dihydropyridine
38. Which of the followings drugs is used in the tretement for the
treatement of Glaucoma
a) Timolol
b) Atenolol
c) Propranolol
8
d) None of theses
39. Which of the followings drugs is ACE inhibitor

a) Timolol
b) Losartan
c) Gaunabenz
d) Lisinorpril
40. Heterocycles present in strcture of timolol is ?

a) Morpholin and thiadiazole
b) Thiadiazole and pyrrazole
c) Morpholin and oxadiazole
d) Oxadiazole and piperdine
41. Ther followings substance are considered to be a related to as an

Eicosanoids
a) Prostaglandins
b) Leukotrienes
c) Thromboxanes
d) All of above
42. True about prostacycline

a) Vasoconstriction
b) Aggregation of Platelets
c) Decrease BP
d) Synthesis from vascular endothelium
43. QSAR study of Medicinal chemisrty Q stand for

a) Qualitative
b) Quantitative
c) Both
d) Quantum
9
44. Which of the following statements best describes a lead
compound?
a) A compound that contains the element lead.
b) A compound from the research laboratory that is chosen to go
forward for preclinical
and clinical trials
c) A molecule that shows some activity or property of interest and
serves as the
starting point for the development of a drug
d) The first compound of a structural class of compounds to reach the
marke
45. ) How many people will be selected for phase I trial?

a) The whole market will be under surveillance
b) 300-3000 people
c) 20-300 people
d) 20-50 people
46. In which of the followings phase of clinical trials healthy normal

human volunteers
participate
a) Phase I
b) Phase II
c) Phase III
d) Phase IV
47. Meaning of P in QSAR equation stands for ____.

a) Permeability (b)
b) Partition coefficient
c) Porosity
10
d) Purity
48. QSAR stands for

a) Qualitative structure activity relationship
b) Quantitative structure action relationship
c) Quantitative structure activity relationship
d) Qualitative structure activity relativity
49. Clinical trials are performed on

a) Animals
b) Humans
c) Both
50. Combinatorial chemistry or parallel synthesis can be useful at

various stages of the drug
design / development process. Which of the following is NOT such a
stage?
a) Finding a lead compound
d) structure-activity relationships of the lead compoun
51. What is the name of the process by which compounds related to a

promising compound
are made
on a larger scale?
a) Computational chemistry
b) Combinational chemistry
c) Lead optimisation
d) Improvement
11
a) Parallel synthesis involves the synthesis of a large number of
compounds using the same
reaction sequence, where there is a mixture of compounds in each
reaction vessel.
b) Parallel synthesis involves the synthesis of a large number of
compounds using the
same reaction sequence, where there is a different, single
compound formed in each
reaction vessel.
c) Combinatorial synthesis involves the synthesis of a large number of
compounds using a
variety of different synthetic routes to produce a mixture of
compounds in each reaction
vessel.
d) A parallel synthesis carried out in a specified number of vessels will
produce more
compounds than a combinatorial synthesis.
53. Structure which is used as the starting point for drugs design and
development
a) Active Compunds
b) Pharmacophore
c) Lead compound
d) Orphagn drug
54. Indicate cholinestrease activator.

a) Pralidoxime
b) Edrophonium
c) Pilocrapine
d) Isofluorophate
55. The meachinsm of atropine action is

a) Competitive ganglion blockade
b) Competitive muscarinic blockade
12
c) Competitive Neuromuscular blockade
d) Non- Competitive Neuromuscular blockade
56. Parasympathomimetic drugs causes

a) Bronchodilation
b) Mydriasis
c) Bradycardia
d) Constipation
57. Most widely drug used for motion sickness is

a) Atropine
b) Hyoscyamine
c) Hyoscine
d) None of these
59. Which of the followings alpha -2- adrenorecetor agonist used in

treatement of
Hypertension
a) Clonidine
b) Methyldopa
c) Both a & b
d) None of above
60. ) Which of the followings is also used in the management of

cyanide poisoning ?
a) isosorbide dinitrate
b) Amyl nitrate
c) Nitroglycerin
d) isosorbide mononitrate
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KIET GROUP OF INSTITUTIONS

(KIET SCHOOL OF PHARMACY)

2 Show the naturally occurring penicillins out of following? 2 1 1

3 Relate nucleus which is present in beta lactam antibiotics? 2 1 2

5 Select the mode of action of Clavulanic acid? 2 1 1

a. Beta – lactamase inhibitors

6 Identify the macrolide is used in treatment of Clostridium difficile 2 2 1

d. All the above

Locate the antibiotic trades under the name Biaxin? 2 2 1

8 Predict the macrolide is used to treat lung infections 2 2 5

c. All the mentioned choices

10 Mark the selection of side effects associated with Chloramphenicol. 2 2 1

a. Grey baby syndrome

d. All of the given options

11 Mechanism of action of isoniazid is shown by which of the following 2 3 1

a. Inhibition of Protein synthesis

b. Inhibition of nucleic acid synthesis

c. Inhibition of RNA synthesis

d. Inhibition of ADP synthesis

12 Select the antimycobacterial agent having pyrazine as basic 2 3 3

13 Identify functional group is present in isoniazid. 2 3 1

14 Which of the following antitubercular drug is also used in treatment 2 3 1

15 Identify thecharacterstic feature of second line antitubercular drug. 2 3 1

a. High efficacy, High potency, Less side effect

b. Low efficacy, High potency, Less side effect

c. High efficacy, Low potency, Less side effect

d. Low efficacy, Low potency, More side effect

16 Mark the derivative of adamantine. 2 4 1

18 Select an antibiotic having amoebicidal activity? 2 4 3

19 Which of the following anthelmintics is a natural product? 2 4 1

20 Identify the heterocyclic ring present in Chloroquine is 2 4 1

21 Show the value for regression coefficient for perfect fit 2 5 1

22 What does symbol pi represent in QSAR equation 2 5

a. Hydrophobicity of the molecule

b. Electronic effect on the substituent

c. Substituent hydrophobicity constant

d. Measures of steric properties of the substituent

24 Ratio of molar concentration of substance in ionised form and 2 5 2

25 Select a compound which is capable of forming ring with metal. 2 5 5

d. All the above

26 Tetracycline inhibition of protein synthesis binds to ......... 2 1 2

27 Identify the functional group necessary for antibacterial activity of 2 1 1

a. A cis A/B –ring fusion

b. Hydroxyl group at C-12 a

28 Bacterial resistance to aminoglycosides antibiotics produce by which 2 1 1

29 Mark the fungus that get fermented to produce neomycin. 2 1 1

30 Show pharmacophore available in streptomycin? 2 1 1

31 Show the mechanism of action of Trimethoprim 2 4 1

a. Inhibition of dihydropteroate reductase

c. Activation of DNA gyrase

d. All the above

32 Analyse which of the following are not short acting sulphonamides 2 4 5

33 Show the IUPAC name of N4 -7 –chloroquinolin-4-yl- N1, N1- 2 4 1

34 Evaluate the antimalarial agent having pyrimidine ring. 2 4 5

35 Select the Anthelminthic drug which is amide derivative. 2 4 3

36 Entecavir is analogue of ....... 2 3 2

38 Show the fluoroquinoline derivative which is used with the 2 3 1

d. All the above

d. all the above

40 Identify the year in which Ciprofloxacin and its analogues are 2 3 1

41 Identify the complex formed by Isoniazid and Pyridoxine 2 2 1

42 Mark the condition in which Vitamin B6 is administered along with 2 2 1