1.The volume of a sphere is 8 times that of another sphere.

What is the ratio of their surface

areas ?

A. 8 : 1
B. 4 : 1
C. 2 : 1
D. 4 : 3

Answer ||| B

Solution ||| Let the radii of two spheres are R1 and R2 respectively. Then;

Required ratio of the surface areas

Hence Option B is correct

2.The ratio between the ages of A and B is 2:5. After 8 years, their ages will be in the ratio
1:2. What is the difference between their present ages ?

A. 20 years
B. 22 years
C. 24 years
D. 25 years
Answer ||| C

Solution ||| let the present ages of A and B are 2x years and 5x years respectively. Then as per
question

Difference between their present ages = 5x – 2x = 3x = 3×8 = 24 years

Hence Option C is correct

3.If instead of every fourth year, every second year is a leap year then what will be the day on
1st January 2051 if 31st December 2020 is a Saturday.

A. Monday
B. Tuesday
C. Wednesday
D. Thursday

Answer ||| C

Solution ||| Days from December 31st 2020 to 1st January 2051
15 leap years + 15 regular years + 1 day
(365+366)*15 + 1 = 10965 + 1 day = 10966 days
10966 days = 1566 weeks + 4 days
4th day from Saturday will be a Wednesday.

Hence, option C is the correct answer.

4.When iron rusts, its weight …..

A. decreases
B. increases
C. remains the same
D. first increases and then decreases

Answer ||| B

Solution ||| Corrosion or rusting is the deterioration of a metal. When the metal corrode, an
oxide will form on the surface exposed to the corrosive medium (water, air). The weight of
iron rust increases, due to the increased weight of oxygen which has combined with the iron.
For example: iron + oxygen Fe2O3 or Fe3O4 that weight more than Fe.
Note: The oxides are not so adherent to the metal surface and so maybe at first there is an
increase in weight but the final result is a loss of metal and weight.

5.In the following question, from the given alternative words, select the word which
cannot be formed using the letters of the given word.

Passenger

A. Anger
B. Pass
C. Page
D. Pain

Answer ||| D

Solution ||| Option D, i.e. Pain, has letter i that is not available in the given word Passenger,
Hence Pain cannot be made using the letters of the given word
Other options have letters that are available in the given word.
Thus option D cannot be made.

Hence, option D is the correct answer.

6.Select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives.

ABDE : FGIJ :: IJLM : ?

A. NOQR
B. NOPQ
C. NMOP
D. NPQR

Answer ||| A

Solution ||| The pattern is to pick up the next letter and then jump +2 to pick up the next two
adjacent letters
Like after A take B (next alphabet) and B+2=D and then collect the next letter i.e. E
Now pick up the next letter to begin i.e. after E, F would come
Similarly, after F pick up G, then jump 2 to pick up I and then take the next letter i.e. J
Now here, start with I, pick up J then jump 2 to reach L and then pick up M
Now pick up the next letter to begin i.e. after M, N would come
N, pick up O, jump 2 to pick up Q and then pick up R
So our answer is NOQR
Hence A
7.A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones
that will complete the series.

DGN, GKS, JOX, MSC, ?

A. QWH
B. PWG
C. PXI
D. PWH

Answer ||| D

Solution ||| In the first letter we add 3, in second letter we add 4 and third letter we add 5,
First letter of series,
D+3 = G, G+3 = J, J+3 = M, M+3 = P
Second letter of series,
G+4 = K, K+4 = O, O+4 = S, S+4 = W
Third letter of series,
N+5 = S, S+5 = X, X+5 = C, C+5 = H
So ? = PWH
So, the correct answer is option D.

8.A person can row downstream 20 km in 2 hours and upstream 4 km in 2 hours. What is the
speed of the current?

A. 2 km/hour
B. 2.5 km/hour
C. 3 km/hour
D. 4 km/hour

Answer ||| D

Solution ||| Let speed of boat and current be x and y.

According to question,

….. (i)

……… (ii)
Adding (i) and (ii) we get

⇒
From (i)
Thus speed of current be 4 km/hr
Hence option (d)

9.A boy points a lady and tells she is the mother-in-law of only one son of the grandmother of
the son of the sister of my father. How is that lady related to that boy?

A. Mother
B. grandmother
C. aunty
D. Sister
E. Cousin

Answer ||| B

Solution |||

From the information given in the question,

Clearly, the lady is the grandmother of that boy.

Hence, option B is the correct response.

10.How many unpaired electrons are there in Carbon atom?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

Answer ||| B

Solution |||

• Carbon is the sixth element with a total of 6 electrons.

• There are two unpaired electrons in Carbon atom

• According to Hund's rule, the first two electrons will go in the 1s orbital, the next 2
in 2s orbital and the left 2 unpaired in 2p orbital.

11.Which of following is not a noble gas?

A. Hydrogen
B. Helium
C. Argon
D. Radon

Answer ||| A

Solution |||

* Noble gases are all odorless, colorless, monatomic gases with very low chemical reactivity.

* Helium, neon, argon, krypton, xenon & radon are boble gases.

* Hydrogen is not a noble gas.

12.Which of the following is type of Active Transport?

A. Antiport Pumps

B. Symport Pumps

C. Endocytosis

D. All of the above

Answer ||| D

Solution |||

The Active Transport is movement of ions or molecules across a cell

membrane into a region of higher concentration with the help of enzymes and
requiring energy.
There are 4 types of Active Transport:-
a) Antiport Pumps
b) Symport Pumps
c) Endocytosis
d) Exocytosis

13.Where does the process of glycolysis occur?

A. Cytosol
B. Nucleus
C. Mitochondrial outer membrane
D. Mitochondrial inner membrane

Answer ||| A

Solution |||

• Glycolysis occurs in cellular compartment of Cytosol.

• Both phases of glycolysis occur in the cytosol of the cell.

• The products of glycolysis are moved for further processing into the mitochondria.

• The conversion of glucose to pyruvate is a cytosolic reaction.

14.In a certain group, 80% of the people are male and 35% of the total group members are
marrieD. If three-eighth of the males are married, what fraction of females is single?

A.

B.

C.

D.

Answer ||| B

Solution |||

Let the group consist of 100 members.

Hence, there are 80 males and 20 females in the group.

Number of married males =

Total married people in the group = 35% of 100 = 35

number of married couples = 35 – 30 = 5

And number of single females = 20 – 5 = 15

Required fraction =

15.A farmer sells wheat through APMC followed by a distributer then a wholesaler and
finally retailer whose mark-ups are 20%, 15%, 25% and 25% respectively. If the farmer
directly sells to the customer at the same final rate, what is his approximate profit percentage?

A. 125%
B. 105%
C. 135%
D. 115%

Answer ||| D

Solution |||

Let the C.P for the farmer = Rs. 1

Rate through intermediaries for customer = 1 x 1.2 x 1.15 x 1.25 x 1.25 = 2.156

Farmer sales at the same price his profit = 2.156 – 1 = 1.156

Profit percentage of customer =

16.Which type of blood cells play important role in hypersensitivity?

A. Basophils
B. Platelets
C. Red Blood cells
D. B & T Cells

Answer ||| D

Solution |||

• T-cells recognise and kill virus-infected cells directly & B-cells make antibodies, which
circulate and bind to antigens.
• The immune system is an integral part of human protection against disease, but the
normally protective immune mechanisms can sometimes cause detrimental reactions in the
host. Such reactions are known as hypersensitivity reactions.

• Hypersensitivity is mediated by antibodies formed by T and B cells. Such as Antibody IgM,

Antibody IgG, Antibody IgE etc.

17.Rh factor of blood groups was dicovered by ______.

A. Weiner and Treviranus

B. Landsteiner and Demock
C. Landsteiner and Johnson
D. Landsteiner and Wiener

Answer ||| D

Solution |||

• Rh factor of blood groups was dicovered by Landsteiner and Wiener in 1937.

• The term "Rh" was originally an abbreviation of "Rhesus factor."

•Since that time a number of distinct Rh antigens have been identified, but the first and most
common one, called RhD, causes the most severe immune reaction and is the primary
determinant of the Rh trait.

18.Lipases that are used in fat digestion is secreted by which organ?

A. Kidney
B. Lung
C. Pancreas
D. Stomach

Answer ||| C

Solution |||

• Lipases that are used in fat digestion is secreted by Pancreas.

• Lipases performs vital role:

a) In digestion.

b) In transport and processing of dietary lipids.

c) In Biotechnology as Biocatalysts.

d) In alternate energy strategies to convert vegetable oil into fuel.

• Blood tests for lipase may be used to help investigate and diagnose acute pancreatitis and
other disorders of the pancreas.

19.Air bladder as a respiratory organ is found in ______.

A. Bony Fish
B. Insects
C. Orthopaedic
D. Mammals and Birds

Answer ||| A

Solution |||

• Air bladder is also known as swim bladder is internal gas filled organ which helps in
respiration in bone fish.

• It is situated in the body cavity just below the kidney and above the stomach and intestine.

• Fishes with a hydrostatic form of swim bladder can control their depth by regulating the
amount of gas in the bladder.

• Cartilaginous fish, such as sharks and rays, do not have swim bladders. Most of them can
control their depth only by swimming.

20.Who first crystallized TMV(Tobacco Mosaic Virus)?

A. Theodor O. Diener
B. John Satre
C. Hippocrates
D. Wendell Stanley

Answer ||| D

Solution |||

• Wendell Stanley was first crystallize a Virus in 1935.

• It was an accomplishment for which he was awarded a share of the 1946 Nobel Prize in
Chemistry. Stanley’s Nobel award was the first ever bestowed on a virologist.
• Wendell Stanley carried out his ground breaking research on TMV at the Rockefeller
Institute.

21.Who is father of Botany and Zoology respectively?

A. Theophrastus and Francis Galton

B. Theophrastus and Aristotle
C. Aristotle and Robert hooke
D. Edward Jenner and Linnaeus

Answer ||| B

Solution |||

• The father of Botany and Zoology are Theophrastus and Aristotle respectively.

• Botany is a branch of biology, which is the study of all living plant.

• Zoology is the branch of biology that studies the animal kingdom, including the structure,
embryology, evolution, classification, habits, and distribution of all animals in ecosystem.

• Other Information:

a) Francis Galton is the father of Eugenics.

b) Robert Hooke is the father of Cytology.

c) Edward Jenner is the father of Immunology.

d) Linnaeus is the father of Modern Botany.

22.Special Drawing Rights is a foreign exchange reserve created by -

A. World Bank

B. IMF

C. RBI

D. Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC)

Answer ||| B
Solution |||

The SDR is an international reserve asset, created by the IMF in 1969 to supplement its
member countries’ official reserves. So far SDR 204.2 billion (equivalent to about US$291
billion) have been allocated to members, including SDR 182.6 billion allocated in 2009 in the
wake of the global financial crisis. The value of the SDR is based on a basket of five
currencies—the U.S. dollar, the euro, the Chinese renminbi, the Japanese yen, and the British
pound sterling.

The SDR was created as a supplementary international reserve asset in the context of the
Bretton Woods fixed exchange rate system. The collapse of Bretton Woods system in 1973
and the shift of major currencies to floating exchange rate regimes lessened the reliance on
the SDR as a global reserve asset. Nonetheless, SDR allocations can play a role in providing
liquidity and supplementing member countries’ official reserves, as was the case with the
2009 allocations totaling SDR 182.6 billion to IMF members amid the global financial crisis.

The SDR serves as the unit of account of the IMF and some other international organizations.
It is neither a currency nor a claim on the IMF. Rather, it is a potential claim on the freely
usable currencies of IMF members. SDRs can be exchanged for these currencies.

23.Secretariat of ASEAN is located at -

A. Phnom Penh, Cambodia

B. Jakarta, Indonesia
C. Manila, Philippines
D. Singapore

Answer ||| B

Solution |||

The Association of Southeast Asian Nations, or ASEAN, was established on 8 August 1967
in Bangkok, Thailand, with the signing of the ASEAN Declaration (Bangkok Declaration) by
the Founding Fathers of ASEAN, namely Indonesia, Malaysia, Philippines, Singapore and
Thailand.

Brunei Darussalam then joined on 7 January 1984, Viet Nam on 28 July 1995, Lao PDR and
Myanmar on 23 July 1997, and Cambodia on 30 April 1999, making up what is today the 10
Member States of ASEAN.

ASEAN aims to promote collaboration and cooperation among member states, as well as to
advance the interests of the region as a whole, including economic and trade growth. It has
negotiated a free trade agreement among member states and with other countries such as
China, as well as eased travel in the region for citizens of member countries.

In 2015, it established the ASEAN Economic Community (AEC), a major milestone in the
organization’s regional economic integration agenda. The AEC envisions the bloc as a single
market with free flow of goods, services, investments and skilled labour, and freer movement
of capital across the region.

True to its original mission, the organization strives towards peace and stability in the region:
members have signed a treaty pledging not to develop nuclear weapons, and most have
agreed to a counter-terrorism pact, which includes sharing intelligence and easing the
extradition process of terror suspects.

If ASEAN were a country, it would be the seventh-largest economy in the world, with a
combined GDP of $2.6 trillion in 2014. By 2050 it's projected to rank as the fourth-largest
economy.

Home to more than 622 million people, the region has a larger population than the European
Union or North America. It also has the third-largest labour force in the world, behind China
and India.

India and the 10-member ASEAN have agreed to initiate a review of the bilateral free trade
agreement (FTA) in goods to make it “more user-friendly, simple and trade facilitative”. The
initial framework agreement was signed on 8 October 2003 in Bali, Indonesia and the final
agreement was on 13 August 2009. The free trade area came into effect on 1 January 2010.

24.Shark Repellents, Poison Pills, Black Knight and White Knight are term related to -

A. Merger and Acquisition

B. Pharmacy
C. Pesticides
D. Stock Market

Answer ||| A

Solution |||

An attempt of acquiring the majority share in a firm by another firm is called Takeover Bid.
There are various term to show the tactics applied in such bid, they are

Shark Repellents- is strategy used by the firm to avoid takeovers. They are also known as
‘Porcupine Provision’. Here takeovers are repelled by adding clauses and amendments in the
charter of the firm such that if any company tries to take over such clauses are activated and
prevent the takeover by making the takeover un favourable due to higher take over cost. It
includes poison pills
Poison Pills- This is one the strongest strategy used by the target firm to deter the offers
made by acquisitioning firm. As the name shows poison pills cannot be swallowed easily. In
order to avoid acquisition, target firm keep such pills in their capital structure that triggers
only when a firm tries to take over the other. Upon such trigger, these pills react in such a
way that it increases the cost of capital of target firm to make it undesirable for the acquirer
and turning it into a matter of loss instead of profit.

Black Knight and White Knight- Black knights are hostile companies that tend to take over
the other company. Whereas white night is a friendly company that comes in between the
acquirer and target firm to save target firm from hostile takeover.

25.Marginal Standing Facility is related to

A. Monetary Policy
B. Fiscal Policy
C. Credit Rationing Tool
D. Government Subsidies

Answer ||| A

Solution |||

The Marginal Standing Facility was introduced by the Reserve Bank of India in its monetary
policy for the fiscal year 2011-12. It refers to the penal rate at which the banks are able to
borrow overnight funds from RBI. It is the last resort for banks once they exhaust all
borrowing options including the Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF)* by pledging
government securities. Since it is a penal rate, is always fixed above the repo rate. MSF
represents the upper band of the interest corridor with repo rate at the middle and reverse repo
as the lower band

MSF was introduced for commercial banks to borrow from RBI in certain emergency
conditions when inter-bank liquidity dries up completely and there is volatility in the
overnight interest rates. To curb this volatility, RBI allowed them to pledge Government
Securities (G-secs) and get more funds from RBI at a rate higher than the repo rate.

* Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF) is the primary instrument of Reserve Bank of India for
modulating liquidity and transmitting interest rate signals to the market. It refers to the
difference between the two key rates viz. repo rate and reverse repo rate.

26.The light reaction takes place in which part of the plant?

A. Stomata
B. Cytoplasts
C. Plastomer
D. Thylakoid of Chloroplast

Answer ||| D

Solution |||

• The light reaction takes place in Thylakoid membranes of Chloroplast.

• It takes place in presence of vital green pigment known as Chlorophyll.

• Light energy is converted to chemical energy during the first stage of photosynthesis, which
involves a series of chemical reactions known as the light-dependent reactions.

• The light dependent reactions lead to formation of two most important elements- ATP and
NADPH.

• ATP is energy storing molecule and NADPH is reduced electron carrier.

27.A and B are two taps which can fill a tank individually in 10 minutes and 20 minutes
respectively. However, there is a leakage at the bottom, which can empty a filled tank in 40
minutes. If the tank is empty initially, how much time will both the taps take to fill the tank
with leakage?

A. 2 minutes
B. 4 minutes
C. 5 minutes
D. 8 minutes

Answer ||| D

Solution |||

Let total capacity of tank = LCM (10, 20, 40) = 40 units

Efficiency of tap A = 4

Efficiency of tap B = 2

Efficiency of leakage = -1 (as it is doing reverse work)

So net efficiency of all three pipes = 4 + 2 – 1 = 5

Total time taken to fill the tank = 40/5 = 8 minutes

28.Inter Tropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ) is a

A. Low pressure zone located near equator

B. High pressure zone located near equator
C. Low pressure zone located near Tropic of Cancer
D. High pressure zone located near Tropic of Cancer

Answer ||| A

Solution |||

The Inter Tropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ) also known as Doldrums is a low pressure zone
located near the equator where trade winds converge, and so, it is a zone where air tends to
ascend. One should remember that it is not the Equator.

The ITCZ forms due to these 2 reasons:

* Earth’s tilted Axis (23.5°) and

* Earth’s revolution around the sun

29.If

where x, y, z are natural numbers, then what is z equal to?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. Cannot be determined due to insufficient data
Answer ||| B

Solution |||

We have to form LHS = RHS.

Then, we compare the values.

Now, comparing LHS to RHS-

30.Which of the following committees is/are related to financial inclusion in India?

1) Nachiket Mor Committee

2) Rangarajan Committee

3) Neeraj Kumar Gupta Committee

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer ||| A

Solution |||

Financial Inclusion refers to giving financial services at an affordable cost to the vast section
of society and dis-advantaged sections of people.

Financial Inclusion helps the vulnerable group, low-income group and weaker section of the
society to develop income, acquire capital, and manage risk to come out from poverty.

In 2006, the Government of India constituted a committee on financial inclusion under the Dr
C Rangarajan. The committee was to study the pattern of exclusion of certain people from
financial services and barriers which are hindering them from accessing the credit and
services. Also, to review the international experience regarding financial inclusion and give
the recommendation and mechanism to strategise the financial inclusion for the country.

In 2013, RBI constituted the committee under the chairmanship of Nachiket Mor. It was
basically the committee to give recommendation on comprehensive financial services for
small business and households having a low income.

31.Which are the two main components of syngas?

A. Carbon Dioxide and Sulphur

B. Sulphur and Hydrogen
C. Nitrous and Sulphur oxides
D. Hydrogen and Carbon Monoxide

Answer ||| D
Solution |||

● Hydrogen and Carbon Monoxide are two main components of syngas.

● Syngas is produced as a result of gasification of a carbon-containing fuel.

● The gasification process is used to convert any material that has carbon to longer
hydrocarbon chains.

● Syngas is also an intermediate in creating synthetic petroleum to use as a lubricant or fuel.

● Syngas are used in production of wide varieties of fertilizers, chemicals etc.

32.White blood cells are also known as ________.

A. Erythrocyte
B. Leukocytes
C. Thrombocytes
D. None of these

Answer ||| B

Solution |||

* White blood cells are also known as Leukocytes.

* They help from protecting against diseases.

* The normal white cell count is usually between 4 × 109/L and 1.1 × 1010/L.

* Decrease in the White Blood cells is called Leukopenia.

33.Which of the following is NOT correctly matched–

Organization ; Established by

A. Indian Association ; Surendranath Banerjee and Ananda Mohan Bose

B. Poona Sarvajanik Sabha ; Atama Ram Pandukar and Devendranath Tagore.
C. Madras Mahajan Sabha ; M Viraraghavachari and G Subramaniya Iyer
D. Bombay Presidency Association ; Jaggannath Shankersheth

Answer ||| B

Solution |||
Indian Association founded in 1876 by Surendranath Banerjee and Anand Mohan Bose is
considered to be the first Nationalist Organization.

Poona Sarvajanik Sabha founded on 2nd April 1870 by Justice Mahadev Govind Ranade was
a socio-political organization based in Poona.

Madras Mahajana Sabha was established by S. Ramaswami Mudaliar, P. Anandacharlu, M

Viraraghavachari and G Subramaniya Iyer in 1884. Its first conference was held on
December 29, 1884

Bombay Presidency Association was founded on the lines of Indian association on

26th August 1852 by Jagannath Shankersheth. It was first of its kind organization in Bombay
Province and aimed to address Public grievances.

34.Sound moves with higher velocity if

A. Pressure of the medium is decreased.

B. Temperature of the medium is increased
C. Humidity of the medium is increased.
D. Both (b) and (c)

Answer ||| D

Solution |||

Speed of sound increases directly with temperature.

also, with the increase in humidity, density decreases and speed of sound is inversely
proportional to density.

Hence, speed will increase with increase in humidity.

So, option D is correct.

35.If the door of a running refrigerator in a closed room is kept open, what will be the net
effect on the room?
A. It will cool the room
B. It will heat the room
C. It will make no difference on the average
D. It will make the temperature go up and down

Answer ||| B

Solution |||

The room would get warmer!

Think of a refrigerator as a device that transfers heat from inside a box to its surroundings.
The room around a refrigerator is warmed as it receives the heat removed from inside the
box.

If you leave the door open, heat is merely recycled from the room into the refrigerator, then
back into the room. A net room temperature increase would result from the heat of the motor
that would be constantly running to move energy around in a circle. It would be like hooking
up a water pump to remove water from your basement and routing the discharge tube back to
the basement.

So, option B is correct.

36.Ball bearing are used in bicycles, cars, etc. because

A. The actual area of contact between the wheel and axle is increased.
B. The effective area of contact between the wheel and axle is increased.
C. The effective area of contact between the wheel and axle is decreased.
D. None of the above statements is correct.

Answer ||| C

Solution |||

Ball bearing are used in bicycles, cars, etc. because the effective area of contact between the
wheel and axle is reduced. As ball bearings are spherical in shape , When these move they are
not dragged, they roll in any direction. With a little effort (force and energy) these can be
moved. The friction force that causes these to move is ROLLING friction and is minimum as
compared to static friction and dynamic friction.

* Ball bearings allow any direction of movement,

* The friction associated is least and the effort required to move them is also very less.

* The Loss of energy in moving the ball bearings is also the least.
So, option C is correct.

37.If a light body and heavy body have equal momentum. Then

A. The lighter body have greater energy than the heavier body
B. The lighter body has lesser kinetic energy than the heavier body
C. The kinetic energy of the lighter body is equal to the heavier body
D. The kinetic energy of both the bodies are independent of momentum

Answer ||| A

Solution |||

Then K.E =

K.E

As it is given that the momentum of the two bodies are equal. Then,

K.E

Hence , the lighter body have more kinetic energy than the heavier body.

So, option A is correct.

38.During summersault, a swimmer bends his body to

A. Increase moment of inertia

B. Decease moment of inertia
C. Decrease the angular momentum
D. Reduce the angular velocity

Answer ||| B

Solution |||
A swimmer bends his body to decrease moment of inertia. This is because during a
somersault, a full rotation is to be performed in a limited amount of time. Thus because
moment of inertia is lesser, the body rotates faster and hence able to complete the
summersault successfully.

So, option B is correct.

39.Interference is possible in

A. Light wave only

B. Sound wave only
C. Both light wave and sound wave
D. Neither light nor sound wave

Answer ||| C

Solution |||

* Interference is a phenomenon in which two waves superimpose to form a resultant wave of

greater, lower, or the same amplitude.

* Interference effects can be observed with all types of waves, for example, light, radio,
acoustic, surface water waves, gravity waves, or matter waves

Hence, interference is wave phenomenon shown by both the light waves and sound waves.

So, option C is correct.

40.Consider the following given statements regarding the Government of India Act, 1919:

1) At the Central level, there were in total 8 members in Viceroy's executive council, out of
which 4 were Indians.

2) At the Council of State, i.e. Upper house had members both male and women with a tenure
of 3 years.

3) There was a Universal Adult Suffrage given during the elections by this Act.

Which among the following above statements is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. All are correct
D. All are incorrect
Answer ||| D

Solution |||

The Government of India Act, 1919 was the British Parliament act that aims to raise the
participation by the Indians in the administration of their own country. The act was grounded
on the recommendations of a report given by Edwin Montagu, the then Secretary of State for
the country, and Lord Chelmsford, India's Viceroy between 1916-192A. Therefore, the
constitutional reforms set forth by this act are called the Montagu-Chelmsford reforms or the
Montford reforms.

At Central government level:

Executive:

• Governor-General was the chief executive authority.

• There were two lists for the administration, i.e. central and provincial.

• The provincial list was with the provinces while the centre took control of the central list.

• From the total of the six members of the Viceroy's executive council, three were to be
Indian members.

Council of State (i.e. Upper House)

• Only male members having a tenure of 5 years.

• The legislators could also ask questions and also vote a part of the budget.

• Only 25 percent of the budget was subject to vote.

• Rest remains non-votable.

• A bill must be passed in both the houses before it resulted as a law.

• There were 3 measures to resolve any deadlock between both the houses – joint committees,
joint conferences and joint sittings.

People who possess the voting right

• The franchise was very much restricted and there was no universal adult suffrage.

• Voters must have paid land revenue of Rs.3000 or have a property with rental value or have
taxable income.

• They must possess previous experience in the legislative council.

• They must be members of a university senate.

• They must hold certain offices in the local bodies.

• They must hold some specific titles.

41.Which of the following was not recommended by the Nehru report, 1928?

A. Dominion status to India

B. Advocated joint electorate but rejected the separate electorates for Muslims
C. It recommended 19 fundamental rights which did not include equal rights for women
D. Responsible government both at the centre and in the provinces.

Answer ||| C

Solution |||

Following are the important recommendations of the Nehru Report,1928: 1) Dominion status
to India. 2) There will be a provincial council which will be headed by the governor, and the
governor would work on the advice of it. 3) It also recommended a complete separation of
state from religion.4) 19 fundamental rights were recommended, which included equal rights
for women and universal adult suffrage.5) It rejected separate electorates but agreed on the
joint electorate in which there would be reservation for Muslims.

42.Consider the following statements regarding Theosophical Society:

1. Its headquarter was located in Varanasi.

2. Theosophical Society was only based on 'Universal brotherhood'.

3. The theosophists worked for the abolition of caste and untouchability.

Which among the following above statements is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 3 only
D. 1 and 3 only

Answer ||| C

Solution |||

The Theosophical Society was established by Madame Blavatsky and Col. Olcott in the year
1875 in New York. It was only in the year 1879 that this ideology gained its roots in the
Indian culture. Society was crystallized in the Madras Presidency with its headquarters based
in the Adayar. The movement was got popularised by Annie Besant in India. Theosophy was
based on three principles:

* Universal brotherhood.

* The study of the comparative religion and also of the philosophy.

* Investigations into the natural laws which made to understand the unexplained mystic laws.

The Theosophists respected all the religions. They were opposed to conversions and also
believed in the transmigration of the soul and occult mysticism. Theosophical Society was
also an integral part of the revival of Hinduism in India, which even brought about a certain
degree of social solidarity.

The theosophists even worked for the abolition of caste, untouchability and also believed in
the philosophy of assimilation. They seriously worked towards social acceptability and
integration of the marginalized sections of the society. They tried to improve the conditions
of the socially excluded by encouraging them to take up mainstream education. Considering
this, Annie Besant also set up several educational societies and propagated the need to
expand modern education.

43.Which among the following given statements about the spread of French Revolution ideas
to other parts of Europe is incorrect?

A. Many new clubs were established, one of them were Jacobins club of John Locke.
B. French armies travelled in various places to spread the idea of the French Revolution.
C. England and France were the first countries in Europe to emerge as independent nation-
states.
D. Frederic Sorrieu prepared the painting 'The Dream of Worldwide democratic and social
Republics-the pact between the nations. '

Answer ||| A

Solution |||

The French Revolution was a historical event and inspired people all over Europe. It spread
the ideas of liberty, equality and fraternity and generated the spirit of the nationalism. The
feeling of the brotherhood and oneness inspired people. Nations began to be formed by those
who shared a common history. England and France were among the first countries in Europe
to emerge as independent nation-states.

French Revolution established the ideology of democracy, unity and freedom in the French
political history. This French Revolution also spread its ideologies in many other countries,
especially in European countries. Napoleon Bonaparte played an important role to spread the
French revolution ideologies in the European countries, during his Europe conquering time
period.
The idea of the French Revolution spread in Europe in the following ways -

• Many new clubs were established, One of them were Jacobins club of Maximillian
Robespierre.

• Women too formed several new clubs, and one of them was the society of revolutionary.

• French armies travelled in various places to spread the idea of the French Revolution.

• Folk songs & Folk tales were read and written in large quantity by the people to spread the
feeling of the nationalism.

• Frederic Sorrieu, which was a French artist, prepared the painting 'The Dream of
Worldwide democratic and social Republics-the pact among the nations. 'which spread the
idea of the French Revolution.

44.Consider the following statements regarding the Sufi Movement:

1) The important among the twelve Silsilas of Sufi saints were the Chisti and Suhrawardi
Silsilas.

2) The word ‘Shara’ in the Sufi orders stood for the Islamic culture.

Which among the following above statements is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both are correct
D. Both are incorrect

Answer ||| A

Solution |||

The word Sufi denotes wool. The preachers from Arabia wore wool to protect themselves
from the dust winds. The Sufi movement was believed to have begun in the Persian countries
against the highly puritan Islamic culture.

With time, it spread into India and adopted various things such as yogic postures, dance and
music into it, and turned itself into a pantheistic movement. The Sufi orders were of two
types, i.e. Ba -Shara and Be - Shara, where the word ‘Shara’ stood for the Islamic law. The
former obeyed the laws, whereas the latter was more liberal.

The saints combined themselves into twelve Silsilas or orders. The important among all these
12 silsilas were the Chisti, and Suhrawardi silsilas, both of them belonged to the ba-shara
order.
The Chisti Silsila was initiated by Khwaja Moinuddin Chisti who came to India around the
period of 1192. None of his records remains, and he was widely recognized through the
writings of his disciples and followers. The most popular of the Chisti saints was Nizamuddin
Auliya and Naziruddin chirag-i-Delhi. They combined freely with the people of low classes,
even Hindus. The chistis did not want anything to do with the money or administration. They
led simple austere lives.

45.The alloy of mercury is called as____

A. Trona
B. Amalgam
C. Vitriol
D. Verdigris
E. None of the above/More than one of the above

Answer ||| B

Solution |||

* The alloy of mercury is known as Amalgam.

* Mercury can form amalgams with gold, silver, zinc and cadmium.

* Through those amalgams, mercury can be used to extract gold from rocks.

* Other common mercury compounds (not alloys) include

o Mercuric chloride (HgCl2) — a highly poisonous salt

o Mercurous chloride (Hg2Cl2), also known as calomel – an antiseptic used to kill bacteria

o Mercuric sulfide (HgS) is used to make a red paint pigment called vermilion, and

o Mercuric oxide (HgO) is used to make mercury batteries.

46.Study the given pattern carefully and select the number that can replace the question mark
(?) in it.

A. 360
B. 248
C. 170
D. 299

Answer ||| B

Solution |||

The pattern is:

Row 1:

25 × 1 + 13 × 2 + 20 × 3 = 25 + 26 + 60 = 111

Row 2:

19 × 1 + 30 × 2 + 11 × 3 = 19 + 60 + 33 = 112

Row 3:

60 × 1 + 45 × 2 + 18 × 3 = 60 + 90 + 54 = 204

Row 4:

42 × 1 + 70 × 2 + 22 × 3 = 42 + 140 + 66 = 248

Hence, option B is the correct answer.

47.___________is a bad thermal conductor.

A. Glass
B. Silver
C. Copper
D. Aluminium

Answer ||| A

Solution |||

● Glass is a bad thermal conductor.

● The thermal conductivity of a material is a measure of its ability to conduct heat.

● Diamond is the best thermal conductor.

48.At what rate per annum will 32000 yield a compound interest of 5044 in 9 months interest
being compounded quarterly ?

A. 20 %
B. 32 %
C. 50 %
D. 80 %

Answer ||| A

Solution ||| the sum of the amount and C.I.

If the rate of interest is r % annualy, then quarterly rate of interest is

Time

So,

49.The average of cube of n natural numbers:

A.

B.

C.
D.

Answer ||| C

Solution ||| the cube of n natural numbers are

We know that the sum of the such numbers

Now the average

50.Which of the following metal has the highest density?

A. Iridium
B. Lithium
C. Caesium
D. Vermilion

Answer ||| A

Solution |||

● Iridium has high density among metals.

● A very hard, brittle, silvery-white transition metal of the platinum group.

● Osmium is the densest metal with a density of 22.59 g/cm3.

51.Among the following which is NOT a luminous object?

A. sun
B. electric lamp
C. candle
D. moon

Answer ||| D

Solution |||
Non-luminous object do not emit their own light outside. Moon and other planets are called
as non-luminous objects because they do not emit their own light but glow by the reflecting
light of the sun.

Candle, sun and electric lamp gives out the own energy, so all of it is the luminous object.

52.An artificial satellite of a circular orbit of radius ‘R’ has its time period ’ T’. what is the
radius of the orbit in which the time period is 8T ?

A. 2 R
B. 3 R
C. 4 R
D. 5 R

Answer ||| C

Solution |||

53.Nuclear sizes are expressed in a unit named

A. Fermi
B. Angstrom
C. Newton
D. Tesla

Answer ||| A

Solution |||

Nuclear sizes are expressed in a unit called "Fermi" which is a unit of length equal to a
metre (one femtometre), used in nuclear physics. It is similar to the diameter of a proton.
54.Match the following list:

A. a-1 b-3 c-4 d-2

B. a-1 b-4 c-3 d-2
C. a-2 b-4 c-3 d-1
D. a-2 b-3 c-4 d-1

Answer ||| D

Solution |||

Colour of an opaque object Reflection

Colour observed through a coloured glass Transmission

Bending of the image of a rod dipped in water partially Refraction

Shining observed when one steps on an earthworm Fluorescent

Reflection of Light is a phenomenon of change of wavefront in which the light rays bounce
off an object at the same angle as it hit the surface. Due to this, we get to see the colours of a
different object.

Transmission is the movement of electromagnetic waves (visible light, ultraviolet, radio

waves, etc.) through a material. It can be absorbed by the surface of the material.

Refraction is the phenomenon when a light ray passes from one medium to another medium;
it slightly changes its direction. The image tends to be bent slightly.

Fluorescent is the emission of radiation caused by the excitement of atoms in a material

which is then re-emitted almost immediately.

55.Bombay Presidency Association was founded by:

A. KT Telang, Pherozshah Mehta and Badruddin Tyabji

B. GK Gokhale, BG Tilak, MN Roy
C. Rabindranath Tagore, Dwarkanath Tagore, Abanindranath Tagore
D. Mahatma Gandhi, JL Nehru, BR Ambedkar
Answer ||| A

Solution |||

Bombay Presidency Association was founded by KT Telang, Pherozshah

Mehta and Badruddin Tyabji, who were also popularly called the three brothers-in-law.
They represented three different communities of Bombay, Hindu, Muslims and Parsis,
respectively.

Association was formed in 1885.

Hence, A is the correct option.

56.The first public Telegram service in India was started in which year?

A. 1853
B. 1854
C. 1855
D. 1856

Answer ||| B

Solution |||

Before the advent of the electric telegraphy, the word ‘telegraph’ had been used for the
semaphore signalling (i.e., optical telegraph).

The first telegraph receiver which was used in the trial was a galvanoscope of Dr
O'Shaughnessy's design and it was manufactured in India. When the experiment was
considered to be a success a year later on, the Governor-General of India, i.e., Lord
Dalhousie, sought permission from that of the Court of Directors of the Company for the
construction of the telegraph lines from the Calcutta to Agra, from Agra to Bombay, from
Agra to Peshawar, and from Bombay to Madras, extending in almost over 3,050 miles and
involving the forty-one offices.

The permission was soon got granted; the first Telegraph Act for the country was the British
Parliament's Act XXXIV of the year 1854. When the public telegrams service was first
established in the year 1855, the charge was fixed at Rs. 1 for every sixteen words (involving
the address) for every four hundred miles of the transmission. By the year 1855, all the
proposed telegraph lines had been completed and were being used to deliver the paid
messages.

57.Match the following in Column I (Anglo-Maratha War) with Column II (Treaties formed
after the War)
A. 1-a, 2-b, 3-c
B. 1-a, 2-c, 3-b
C. 1-b, 2-a, 3-c
D. 1-c, 2-c, 3-a

Answer ||| C

Solution |||

The First Anglo-Maratha War (1775–82) begun with British support for Raghunath Rao’s bid
for the office of Peshwa (i.e. the chief minister) of the confederacy. The British were got
defeated at Wadgaon in January 1779, but they continued to fight against the Marathas until
the result of the Treaty of Salbai (in May 1782); the only British gain was the island of the
Salsette which was adjacent to the Bombay.

The Second Anglo-Maratha War (1803–05) was happened by the Peshwa Baji Rao II’s defeat
by the Holkars (one of the highest Maratha clans) and his obtaining of British protection by
the Treaty of Bassein in December 1802. The Sindhia and the Bhonsle families both
contested the agreement, but they both were defeated, respectively, at Laswari and at Delhi
by Lord Lake and at Assaye and Aragon by Sir Arthur Wellesley (later considered as the
Duke of Wellington). The Holkar clan then got joined in, and the Marathas were then left
with a free hand in the regions of central India and Rajasthan.

The Third Anglo-Maratha War (1817–18) was the result of an invasion of Maratha territory
in the course of operations against the Pindari robber bands by the British governor-general,
Lord Hastings. The Peshwa's forces, accompanied by those of the Bhonsle and Holkar, rose
against the British (November 1817), but the Sindhia remained neutral. Peshwa Baji Rao II,
Yashwant Rao Holkar & Appa Sahib Bhonsle got defeated in this battle. The defeat was quite
swift, followed by the pensioning of the Peshwa and the annexation of his territories,
therefore completing the supremacy of the British in India.

58.Assertion (A): The farmers in lieu of the patta were certain of their landholdings and also
knew how much rent was to be paid.

Reason (R): The Permanent Settlement system was of temporary nature.

A. Both A & R are individually true, and R is the correct explanation of A

B. Both A & R are individually true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
C. A is true, but R is false
D. A is false, but R is true
Answer ||| C

Solution |||

As the permanent nature of the Permanent settlement system, there was a sense of protection
for everyone. The company knew the total amount it would get in revenue. The landlord even
was also assured of the amount. At the result, the farmers even, in lieu of the patta were quite
certain of their holdings and also knew how much amount of rent was to be paid.

The responsibility of taking care of the farmers fell upon the Indian landlord’s shoulders.
Being sons of the soil, they could able to reach the far corners of the areas and also
understand the local customs very well.

Since the permanent settlement was of the permanent nature, the Zamindars would have an
engross in the land improvement, which results in the improving of the revenue.

The Permanent Settlement of the Bengal was brought into result by the British East India
Company presided by the Governor-General Lord Cornwallis in the year 1793. This was
primarily an agreement between the zamindars and the company to fix the land revenue.

59.Which law of thermodynamics introduces the concept of entropy?

A. First Law
B. Second Law
C. Third Law
D. Fourth Law

Answer ||| B

Solution |||

● The second law of thermodynamics introduces the concept of entropy.

● It states that the total entropy of an isolated system can never decrease over time and is
constant if and only if all processes are reversible.

● The concept of entropy was first introduced in 1850 by Clausius.

60.Which of the following determined the absolute value of charge on an electron ?

A. JJ Thomson
B. Rutherford
C. RA Millikan
D. James Chadwick
Answer ||| C

Solution |||

● RA Millikan determined the absolute value of charge on an electron.

● The absolute value of charge on electrons was determined by Ammoniacal silver

nitrate.

● Electrons are the negatively charged particles of atoms discovered by J.J. Thomson.

61.What is the internal resistance of a dry cell ?

A. Equal to that of electrolytic cell

B. Larger than that of electrolytic cell
C. Smaller than that of electrolytic cell
D. Zero

Answer ||| B

Solution |||

● The internal resistance of a dry cell is Larger than that of an electrolytic cell.

● It is simply the resistance from one terminal of the cell to the other terminal.

● It will depend upon:

1) Cell chemistry

2) Temperature

3) Dimensions of the cell

62.Which of the following is not the objective of the PESA Act, 1996?

A. To protect the interest and rights of tribal communities

B. Financing of infrastructural project under Border Road Organization (BRO)
C. Socio - Economic development of tribal community
D. Democratic decentralization

Answer ||| B

Solution |||
Panchayats (Extension to Scheduled Areas) Act 1996 or PESA is a law enacted by the Centre
to cover the scheduled areas, which are not covered in the 73rd amendment or Panchayati Raj
Act of the Indian Constitution.

It was enacted on December 24, 1996 to enable Gram Sabhas to govern their natural
resources and protect the local culture in a democratic manner.

* The Gram Sabha to protect the rights, traditions, and culture of the tribal communities

* The Gram Sabha to manage & protect common properties based on their traditional systems
of management and protection.

* The Gram Sabha to have the rights over the minor forest produce; control over tribal land;
and control over money-lending to tribals, development of the tribal areas and communities.

* In the schedule areas, there will be a minimum of 50% seat reservation for Scheduled
Tribes (STs) at all the tiers of Panchayat.

* The act ensured the expansion of democratic decentralization of power in local self-
governance and provided the impetus to socio-economic development and advancement of
tribal communities.

63.Consider the following statements regarding the Collegium System:

1). The collegium system was born through the Three Judges cases.

2). It is a system of appointment of the Supreme Court and High Court judges.

3). India also have NJAC for the appointment of judges in higher judiciary.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. All are correct

Answer ||| A

Solution |||

The system judges of the Supreme Court/High Courts are appointed and transferred is called
“Collegium System. The Collegiums System of the appointment of judges was born through
“three judges case".This system is in practice since October 28, 1998.

The Collegium System is a system under which appointment judges to Supreme Court, high
court and transfers of judges of the High Courts and Apex Court are decided by a forum of
the Chief Justice of India and the four senior-most judges of the Supreme Court.' There is
nowhere mention of the Collegium either in the original Constitution of India or in successive
amendments.

India don’t have the National Judicial Appointment Commission (NJAC) for the appointment
of judges in the higher judiciary, rather uses the collegium system. Supreme court quashed
the constitutional amendment related to NJAC, citing it as a threat to the independence of the
judiciary.

64.Which of the following in Indian Preamble correctly defines the meaning of – ‘The
achievement of socialist ends through democratic means’

A. Secularism
B. Socialism
C. Republic
D. Soverign

Answer ||| B

Solution |||

Socialism: Socialism is the achievement of socialist end through democratic means.

Democratic socialism holds faith in a 'mixed economy' where both public and private sectors
co-exist side by side'. Notably, the Indian brand of socialism is the 'democratic socialism' and
not a 'communistic socialism' (also known as 'state socialism')

As the Supreme Court says, the 'Democratic socialism aims to end poverty, ignorance,
disease and inequality of opportunity. Indian socialism is a blend of Marxism and Gandhism,
leaning heavily towards Gandhian socialism'.

Even before the term was added by the 42nd Amendment in the year 1976, the Constitution
had a socialist content in the form of certain Directive Principles of State Policy.

65.Which among the following given statement regarding the National population Register
(NPR) is incorrect?

A. NPR is a list of the usual resident of the country.

B. It is organized by the Office of the RGI (Registrar General of India) under the Home
Ministry.
C. The NPR (National Population Register) updation exercise will be undertaken alongside
Census 2031.
D. The NPR is being prepared under the provisions of the Citizenship Act 1955.

Answer ||| C
Solution |||

The NPR is a list of ‘usual residents of the country’. A ‘usual resident of the country’ is one
who has been residing in a local area for at least the last six months, or intends to stay in a
particular location for the next six months.

The NPR (National Population Register) updation exercise will be undertaken alongside the
Census 2021. It will be organized by the Office of the Registrar General of India (RGI) under
the Home Ministry. Only Assam state will not be included, given the presently completed
National Register of Citizens (NRC).

The NPR is being prepared under the provisions of the Citizenship Act of 1955 and the
Citizenship (Registration of Citizens and Issue of National Identity Cards) Rules of 2003. It is
mandatory for every ‘usual resident of India’ to register in the NPR.

66.Consider the following statement regarding Model code of conduct (MCC) and state,
which among the following is incorrect.

A. MCC is a set of guidelines issued by Election Commission during elections.

B. MCC has statutory backing under RPA act, 1951
C. The MCC is functional from the date on which the election schedule is announced until
the date of the result announcement.
D. The origins of the MCC lay in the Assembly elections of Kerala in the year 1960.

Answer ||| B

Solution |||

The MCC (Model Code of Conduct): It is a set of guidelines issued by the Election
Commission (EC) to regulate political parties and candidates prior to elections. The MCC is
functional from the date on which the election schedule is announced until the date of result
announcement.

It helps EC to conduct free and fair elections to the Parliament and State Legislatures.

Evolution:The origins of the MCC lay in the Assembly elections of Kerala in 1960 when the
State administration prepared a ‘Code of Conduct’ for political actors. It was in 1991 after the
EC decided to enforce the MCC more strictly.

Legal Sanction:

Though MCC doesn’t have any statutory backing, it has come to acquire strength in the past
decade because of its strict enforcement by the Election Commission.Certain provisions of
the MCC may be enforced through invoking corresponding provisions in other statutes such
as the Indian Penal Code of 1860, Code of Criminal Procedure of 1973, and the
Representation of the People Act 1951.In the year 2013, the Standing Committee on
Personnel, Public Grievances, Law and Justice, recommended making the MCC legally
binding and recommended that the MCC be made a part of the RPA 1951.

67.Consider the following statement and state which among the following regarding the
Scheduled Areas is correct?

A. There is no provision for Tribes Advisory Council.

B. President is empowered to declare any area as schedule area.
C. Scheduled Areas are mentioned under Article 320.
D. Schedule VII of the Constitution describes the provisions related to scheduled areas.

Answer ||| B

Solution |||

Article 244 of the Indian Constitution defines the Scheduled Areas as the areas defined so by
the President of India and are mentioned in the 5th schedule of the Constitution. In India,
there are ten states having the scheduled areas. The areas inhabited by that of the socially and
educationally backward ‘Aboriginals’ are known as Scheduled Areas.

Criteria for the Scheduled Area’s declaration:

* Prominent numbers of the tribal population, i.e. when the tribal people are in majority in an
area.

* Compactness & reasonable size of the area.

* A viable administrative entity like a district, block/taluk.

* An economic backwardness of the area as compared to that of the neighbouring areas.

Scheduled area:

The President is empowered to declare an area as the Scheduled Area. With the consultation
of the Governor of the state, the President can alter, add, diminish the boundary of a
Scheduled Area

Both the Centre and the State have their roles to play in the administration of the areas. While
the Governor of the state has to report annually to the President over the management of such
area, the Centre gives directions to the state regarding the administration of such areas. A
Tribes Advisory Council is a must for the states having scheduled areas.

There are 10 states having scheduled areas:

* Andhra Pradesh

* Chhattisgarh
* Gujarat

* Himachal Pradesh

* Jharkhand

* Madhya Pradesh

* Maharashtra

* Odisha

* Rajasthan and

* Telangana

68.Consider the following statements with respect to VETO power of the President -

1). Article 111 governs the veto power of the President.

2). He can not exercise his veto over Constitutional Amendment Bill

3). He can not exercise suspensive veto over Money Bill.

Which of the following above statements is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. All are correct

Answer ||| D

Solution |||

Article 111 in India’s Constitution governs the Veto powers of the President over the bills.
When a Bill is passed by the Parliament, it is presented to the President for his assent, and the
President shall declare

* His assents to the Bill

* Withholds assent therefrom

* The President of India may return the Bill to the Houses with a message for
reconsideration.
However, if the Houses of the Parliament re-enact the Bill with or without amendments and
present it to the President for assent, the President shall not withhold assent. For a Bill to
become an Act, the President must give his assent.

In India, the President of India has three veto powers, i.e.

* Absolute- The President can refuse to assent, which constitutes an absolute veto.

* Suspensive – exercise this veto when he returns bill to Parliament for reconsideration.

* Pocket- The President can also take no action indefinitely on a bill, sometimes referred to
as a pocket veto.

69.Consider the following below statements regarding the electoral college of President:

1). The electoral college consists of members of Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, and all State
Assemblies only.

2). Nominated member of Union Territory of Delhi and Puducherry does not take part in the
election of President.

Which of the following above statements is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 2
D. All are correct

Answer ||| B

Solution |||

Indian President:

Article 52 of the Indian Constitution states that there shall be a president of India. . The
executive power of the union will be vested in the President.

The India’s President is the nominal head of state and also the first citizen of India. The
President is also the Commander-in-Chief of the Indian Armed Forces. The President is the
constitutional head of the parliamentary system of the government. The real power vests with
the council of ministers.

Election of the President

The system of Election of the President of India is done by Proportional Representation by

Means of Single Transferable Vote.
The President is elected by the electoral college of

(i) elected members of both House of the Parliament, ie. Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha

(ii) elected members of state legislatures

(iii) elected members of the legislative assemblies of the Delhi and Puducherry.

Tenure: Elected for five years and also can serve any number of times.

Removal: Article 61 says that the President can be removed from the post for violation of the
Constitution. This impeachment can be moved in either House of Parliament.

70.State which of the following statement regarding the Disqualification of the Members of
Parliament is correct?

A. The Constitution of India has mentioned in Article 123 regarding the disqualification of
Member of Parliament.
B. A member is subjected to disqualification if he Votes in the House according to any
direction issued by the political party.
C. The question of whether a member is subject to the disqualification in a defection case is
decided by Speaker (or Chairman) of the House.
D. A member who is elected as an independent candidate shall not be disqualified if he/she
joins any political party after his election.

Answer ||| C

Solution |||

The question whether a member is subject to disqualification in all other matters except under
Tenth Schedule is decided by the President. However, the President should obtain the opinion
of the Election Commission before taking such kind of decision.

The Constitution of India has provided in the Article 102 that a member of Parliament will be
disqualified for membership if:

* He or she holds any office of profit under the Union or state government (except that of a
minister or any other office exempted by Parliament)

* He or she is of the unsound mind and stands so declared by a court.

* He or she is an undischarged insolvent.

* He or she has terminated to be a citizen of India.

* He or she gets disqualified under any other law by the Parliament

Apart from Article 102, the Tenth Schedule to Constitution provides for disqualification of
the members on the ground of defection. Defection signifies to the desertion of one’s party in
favour of an opposing one. As per the provisions in the 10th Schedule, a member may be
disqualified if he/she:

* Voluntarily gives up the membership of his/her political party which gave him a ticket to
contest and win

* Votes/abstains from voting in the House opposite to any direction issued by the political
party to which he belongs unless such voting or abstention has been condoned by the political
party within fifteen days.

* A member who is elected as an independent candidate shall be disqualified if he/she joins

any political party after his election.

* However, a nominated member is allowed to join a political party provided he/she joins
such a political party of his choice within a time period of six months. After that period,
joining a political party would lead to defection and disqualification.

71.Consider the following statements:

Statement 1: Rajya sabha cannot reject or amend the money bill

Statement 2: Rajya Sabha has limited powers in case of a money bill

Select the correct code from given below:

A. Both the statement 1 & 2 are individually true, and statement 2 is the correct explanation
of statement 1
B. Both the statement 1 & 2 are individually true, and statement 2 is not the correct
explanation of statement 1
C. Statement 1 is true but the statement 2 is false
D. Statement 2 is true but the statement 1 is false

Answer ||| A

Solution |||

There are four types of Bills, namely

Constitution Amendment Bills: These are the Bills that seek to amend the Constitution. A
Constitution Amendment Bill should be passed by both the Houses of Parliament. For
passing the bill, It requires a simple majority of that House, and a two-thirds majority of all
members present and voting. Further, if the Bill deals with the matters like the election of the
President and Governor, the judiciary,executive and legislative powers of the Centre and
states etc., it must be ratified by at least half of the state legislatures.
Money Bills: A Bill is said to be the Money Bill if it only contains provisions related to
taxation, borrowing of money by the government, expenditure from or receipt to the
Consolidated Fund of India. The Money Bill can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha, on the
President’s recommendation. It should be passed in Lok Sabha by the simple majority of all
members present and voting. After this, it may be sent to the Rajya Sabha for its
recommendations. If such recommendations are not given within fourteen days, it will be
deemed to be passed by the Parliament.

Financial Bills:

A Bill which contains some provisions related to taxation and expenditure and other
provisions related to any other matter is known as a Financial Bill. Therefore, if a Bill merely
includes expenditure by the government, and addresses other issues, it will be a financial bill.
The Financial Bill can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha, on the recommendation of the
President. The Bill should be passed by both the Houses of Parliament after the President has
recommended that it be taken up for consideration in each House.

Ordinary Bills: All other Bills apart from money and financial bills, are called ordinary
bills.An Ordinary Bill can be introduced in either House of Parliament. It should be passed by
both the Houses by a simple majority of all the members present and voting.

72.Which of the following features of the Indian Constitution have been borrowed from the
Government of India Act, 1935:

1. Federalism

2. Panchayati System

3. Judicial System

Choose the correct option from the following:

A. 1 & 3 Only
B. 1 & 2 Only
C. 2 & 3 Only
D. All of the Above

Answer ||| A

Solution |||

Features borrowed from Government of India Act, 1935:

* Federal Scheme

* Office of Governor
* Judiciary

* Public Service Commissions

* Emergency provisions

73.Which of the following rights to freedom is most restricted in nature:

A. Right to freedom of movement

B. Right to freedom of speech, thought and expression
C. Right to reside and settle in any part of territory of India
D. Right to assemble peacefully and without arms

Answer ||| B

Solution |||

74.Which of the following fall under the definition of State as defined by Article 12 of the
Indian Constitution:

1) The Parliament
2) Government of any state of India

3) Judiciary

4) Central Public Sector Enterprises

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2 and 4 only

Answer ||| D

Solution |||

Part 3 of the Constitution of India provide protection against the powers of ‘State’. The
definition of State as under Article 12 consists of:

* The central Government and the Parliament of India.

* Governments of state and legislature of states.

* All local authorities like municipalities, panchayats, district boards, improvement trusts,
etc.

* Any other authorities including statutory or non-statutory authorities like LIC, ONGC,
SAIL, etc.

Recently, NGOs which receive funding from the government have also been brought under
the purview of ‘State’ as defined under Article 12, according to a judgement of the Supreme
Court.

75.Arrange the following Indian states in chronological order of their year of formation:

1. Goa

2. Haryana

3. Manipur

4. Mizoram

Choose the correct option:

A. 2-3-4-1
B. 3-2-1-4
C. 3-2-4-1
D. 2-4-1-3

Answer ||| A

Solution |||

AaM GuNaH Hi Meg ManTri Si MiArG

A = Andhra Pradesh (1953)

M = Maharashtra (1960)
Gu = Gujarat (1960)
Na = Nagaland (1963)
H = Haryana (1966)
Hi = Himanchal Pradesh (1971)
Meg = Meghalaya (1972)
Man = Manipur (1972)
Tri = Tripura (1972)
Si = Sikkim (1975)
Mi = Mizoram (1987)
Ar = Arunanchal Pradesh (1987)
G = Goa (1987)

76.Which of the following features are unitary features of Indian Constitution:

1. Single citizenship

2. Rigidity of Constitution

3. Integrated Judiciary

4. Separation of Union, State and Concurrent lists

Select the correct options –

A. 1 & 3 Only
B. 2 & 4 Only
C. 3 & 4 Only
D. All of the Above

Answer ||| A

Solution |||
India is a ‘quasi-federal state with a unitary tilt’; in other words, India is a ‘federal state with
a unitary bias’. It is a unique feature, exclusive to India and Canada.

So, any feature that represents the division of power or representation of states is considered a
federal feature, while any feature that gives more power to the centre is considered a unitary
feature, the opposite of federalism. Some example of Unitary features are:

1. A strong Centre

2. Single Constitution

3. Single citizenship

4. Flexibility of Constitution

5. Integrated Judiciary,

6. Appointment of state governor by the Centre,

7. All-India services,

8. Emergency provisions

77.Consider the following statements regarding Speaker of the Lok Sabha:

1. A member from the Lok Sabha is nominated by the President as the Speaker.

2. He can disqualify a member for cases of defection.

Select the correct option from the following:

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer ||| B

Solution |||

The Speaker is elected by the members of the Lok Sabha from amongst themselves, usually
after the first meeting or as soon as possible. The President fixes the date of election of the
Speaker.

The Speaker has the following powers:

* Maintaining order and decorum of the House for the efficient conduct of business and
proceedings.

* Within the House, he is the final interpreter of provisions of – The Constitution, Rules of
Procedure of Lok Sabha and the parliamentary precedents.

* He does not vote on a matter under normal circumstances. However, if there is a tie in the
House on a matter, he can exercise his vote to resolve the matter.

* In case of a Joint Sitting of both the Houses of Parliament, the Speaker of Lok Sabha
presides over the sitting and not the Chairman of Rajya Sabha.

* The Speaker decides which bill has to be categorised as a Money Bill. His decision is final
in the Parliament, but in Aadhaar Bill case, the Supreme Court held that his decision is
subject to judicial review.

* The Speaker has the final authority to decide whether or not to disqualify a sitting member
of the Lok Sabha on the grounds of defection. However, this power has also been brought
under Judicial Review.

* He is the chairman of the Business Advisory Committee, Rules Committee and General
Purpose Committee. He is also responsible for appointing the chairman of all parliamentary
committees and supervises their functioning.

78.Which of the following statements regarding Private Members Bill:

1) It can only be moved by a minister of the ruling government.

2) If it is not passed by Rajya Sabha within 28 days, it is deemed to be passed on to the

President for assent.

Select the correct option -

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer ||| D

Solution |||

A private members bill is a bill which is introduced by any member of Parliament, who is not
a minister. The Private Member Bill reflects the stand of the opposition in the House. The
member who introduces a private bill has to seek the permission of the House at least one
month prior to its introduction. The chances of passage of a private member bill is very low,
and its rejection does not have any bearing on the confidence of the ruling government in the
Lok Sabha. The drafting of this bill has to be done by the member introducing it.

79.Consider the following statements regarding Daylight Saving Time (DST):

1) The DST (Daylight Saving Time) is the practice of resetting the clocks ahead by an hour in
the spring, and behind by an hour in the autumn.

2) India follows the Daylight Saving Time.

3) The DST is meant to save energy.

Select the correct code from below:

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. All are correct

Answer ||| C

Solution |||

• The DST is the practice of resetting clocks ahead by an hour in spring, and behind by an
hour in autumn (or fall).

• During these months, countries that follow this system get an extra hour of daylight in the
evening.

• As the spring to fall cycle is opposite in the Northern and Southern Hemispheres, DST lasts
from March to October/November in Europe and the US, and from September/October to
April in New Zealand and Australia.

• Dates for this switch, which happens twice a year (in the spring and autumn) are decided
beforehand.

• The DST is in practice in some 70 countries, including those in the European Union.

• India doesn’t follow the DST; since countries near the Equator do not experience high
variations in daytime hours between seasons.

• The DST is meant to save energy.

• The rationale behind setting clocks ahead of the standard time, usually by 1 hour during
springtime, is to ensure that the clocks show a later sunrise and later sunset — in effect a
longer evening daytime.
• Individuals will wake an hour earlier than the normal, complete their daily work routines an
hour earlier, and have an extra hour of daylight at the end.

80.Consider the following statements regarding trade winds and westerlies:

1) The directions of the Westerlies are similar to the trade winds.

2) The Trade winds are the surface winds in low latitudes, representing the low-level airflow.

3) Westerlies become the south-westerlies in the northern hemisphere and the north
westerlies in the southern hemisphere.

4) The Westerlies blow out from the Subtropical High-Pressure belts.

Select the correct code:

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 3 and 4 only
C. 3 and 4 only
D. 1 and 4 only

Answer ||| B

Solution |||

Trade winds:

The Trade wind blows out from the Subtropical High-Pressure belts. In the northern
hemisphere, they blow towards that of the equatorial low and known as North East Trade
Winds. In the Southern hemisphere, they blow towards that of the equatorial low and become
the South East Trade winds. This implies that Trade winds blow from Northeast towards the
equator in Northern hemisphere and South East Towards equator in the southern hemisphere.

The Trade winds are the most regular winds of all kinds on earth. They blow with the great
force and inthe constant direction because of this reason they are preferred by the sailors. The
trade winds bring the heavy rainfalls and sometimes contain the intense depressions.

The Trade winds are the surface winds in low latitudes, representing the low-level airflow.
Back in the history, two large belts of winds were discovered blowing toward the equator
known as North-East and Southeast trade winds. The word trade in those days considered to
advance the steadily and was synonymous with the efficient sailing. The trade winds make
way for the sailing vessels to advance steadily—and, of course, to make the patterns of
international trade. However, one must note that the trade winds are not steady in the
force/direction, but they do trend in the general direction of south-west and northwest.

Westerlies:
The Westerly’s direction are opposite to the trade winds, and because of this reason they are
also known as antitrade winds. The Westerlies blow in the middle latitudes between 30 & 60
degrees latitude and originate from the high-pressure area in the horse latitudes towards the
poles. Under the Coriolis force effect,they become the south-westerlies in the northern
hemisphere and Northern westerlies in the southern hemisphere.

Generally, Westerlies are the strongest in the winter hemisphere and at times when the
pressure is lower over the poles, while they are weakest in the summer hemisphere and when
pressures are higher over the poles. The westerlies are also associated with the ‘extra-
tropical’ cyclones which refer to the fact that this type of cyclone generally occurs outside of
the tropics, in the middle latitudes of the planet, where the Westerlies steer the system
typically from west to east. Whenever there is a joining of the cold and the denser polar
winds and warm and light westerlies, there are many variations in the weather. The velocity
of the westerlies increases the southward, and they become stormy.

81.With how many countries Red sea shares its border?

A. 6
B. 5
C. 7
D. 4

Answer ||| A

Solution |||

The six countries bordering with the Red Sea are:

Eastern shore:

• Saudi Arabia

• Yemen

Western shore:

• Egypt

• Sudan

• Eritrea

• Djibouti

The Red Sea is the seawater inlet of the Indian Ocean, lying between Africa & Asia. The
connection to the ocean is in the south via the Bab el Mandeb strait and the Gulf of Aden. To
the north of the Red Sea lie the Sinai Peninsula, the Gulf of Aqaba, and the Gulf of Suez. The
sea is underlain by that of the Red Sea Rift which is part of the Great Rift Valley.

82.Which among the below statements regarding Cumulonimbus clouds is incorrect?

A. The upper portion in the cumulonimbus clouds is usually smoothed, fibrous/striated.

B. The Cumulonimbus clouds form hail & tornadoes.
C. The Cumulonimbus clouds come under the category of low clouds.
D. None of the above

Answer ||| C

Solution |||

About Cumulonimbus clouds:

• The thunderstorm cloud, this is a dense and heavy cloud in the form of a mountain or
massive tower. The upper portion is usually smoothed, fibrous/striated, and nearly always get
flattened in the shape of an anvil or vast plume.

• Under the base of this type of cloud which is often very dark, there are usually low ragged
clouds that may or may not merge with the base.

• Cumulonimbus clouds also produce hail and tornadoes.

83.In which among the following ways Gulf stream and Kuroshio current are similar?

A. Both the Gulf stream and Kuroshio current are warm currents.
B. Both the Gulf stream and Kuroshio current are eastern boundary current.
C. Both A & B
D. Neither A nor B

Answer ||| A

Solution |||

Eastern boundary currents, occur in tropical and subtropical latitudes at the eastern margins
of the oceans. These currents are generally cold, shallow, and broad in comparison to western
boundary currents. The Eastern boundary currents are: the California Current off North
America, the Peru or Humboldt Current off South America, the Canary Current off northern
Africa, and the Benguela Current off southern Africa

The Gulf Stream, which flows from the Caribbean to the Grand Bank of Newfoundland, is
one of the first currents to have been studied scientifically, because of its importance for
transatlantic shipping. Its temperature drops from 25° to 2°C during its course as it warms the
ocean and releases heat and water vapour into the atmosphere.

Like the Kuroshio Current, its counterpart in the Pacific Ocean, the Gulf Stream is a warm,
western boundary current formed by easterly winds. It is very turbulent and exhibits sharp
variations in direction, speed and temperature. The Agulhas and Brazil Currents in the
Southern Hemisphere are similar.

84.Consider the following statements regarding Rubber plantation:

1) The Rubber plantation requires 100 to 150 cm of rainfall.

2) The soil type for Rubber plantation is rich well-drained alluvial soil.

Select the correct code from below:

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 & 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer ||| B

Solution |||

About Rubber:

Temperature: Above 25°C with a moist and humid climate.

Rainfall: More than 200 cm.

Soil Type: Rich well-drained alluvial soil.

Top Rubber Producing States: Kerala > Tamil Nadu > Karnataka.

It is an equatorial crop, but under special conditions, it is also grown in tropical and sub-
tropical areas.

Rubber is an important industrial raw material.

Rubber Plantation Development Scheme and Rubber Group Planting Scheme are examples of
government-led initiatives for rubber.

85.Assertion (A): The Peninsular rivers are ideal for navigation.

Reason (R): The Peninsular rivers are not perennial in nature, and the presence of sharp
bends & waterfalls hinders the navigational activities.

A. Both A & R are individually true, and R is the correct explanation of A

B. Both A & R are individually true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
C. A is true, but R is false
D. A is false, but R is true

Answer ||| D

Solution |||

The Peninsular rivers are not ideal for navigation as these are not perennial rivers, and the
presence of sharp bends, hills and waterfalls hinders navigational activities.

The main peninsular rivers of India include the Godavari, Krishna, Narmada, Cauvery, Tapti,
Narmada, Mahanadi, and Damodar. Most among these rivers originate in the Western Ghats
and drain a large part of central and south India. These peninsular rivers are seasonal, but
they carry a significant volume of water fed by rainfall. The Mahanadi, Krishna,Godavari,
Cauvery flow eastwards and drain into the Bay of Bengal. The Tapti and Narmada flow the
westwards and enter into the Arabian Sea.

86.Which among the following statements regarding the Richter scale is incorrect?

A. Charles F. Richter developed the Richter scale for measuring the strength of earthquakes
in the 1930s.
B. The Moment Magnitude Scale, i.e. Mw scale, is now generally referred to as the Richter
scale.
C. The Richter scale is only effective for the regional earthquakes no greater than M5
D. None of the above

Answer ||| D

Solution |||

• Charles F. Richter developed the Richter magnitude scale (ML) for measuring the strength
(amount of energy released) of earthquakes in the 1930s.
• Because of the several shortcomings of the ML scale, seismologists now use the moment
magnitude scale (Mw).

• Both the scales are logarithmic and are scaled to have roughly comparable numeric values.

• The Moment magnitude scale Mw scale is now generally referred to as the Richter scale.

• Under the Richter magnitude scale, an increase of one step corresponds to about 32 times
increase in the amount of energy released, and an increase of two steps corresponds to 1,000
times increase in energy.

• Thus, an earthquake of Mw of 7.0 releases about 32 times as much energy as one of 6.0 and
nearly 1,000 times (~ 32 X 32) one of 5.0.

• Richter scale is only sufficient for regional earthquakes no greater than M5. The moment
magnitude scale is more effective for large earthquakes.

87.Arrange the following National parks in south India from north to south direction:

1) Madumalai National Park

2) Periyar National Park

3) Bandipur National Park

4) Bannerghatta National Park

Select the correct code from below:

A. 2, 1, 4, 3
B. 2, 4, 3, 1
C. 4, 3, 1, 2
D. 4, 1, 3, 2

Answer ||| C

Solution |||

The correct order from north to south direction is:

I. Bannerghatta National Park

II. Bandipur National Park

III. Madumalai National Park

IV. Periyar National Park

Bannerghatta National Park: Located 22 km away from Bangalore, the Bannerghatta National
Park is an asylum for a large variety of flora and fauna. Spread over a massive area of around
104.27 sq. km, this national park in South India was established in the year 1971..

Bandipur National Park: Bandipur National Park in Karnataka was once the hunting grounds
of the Maharaja of the Mysore. It was later set up as a reserve in the year 1974, and these
deciduous forests rich in wildlife and flora have become a popular tourist attraction since
then. Bandipur is neighbours with the Nagarhole and the Wayanad Wildlife sanctuaries.

Madumalai National Park: Madumalai National Park is a part of the Madumalai Wildlife
Sanctuary, located at a distance of 150 kilometres from Coimbatore, in the Nilgiri District of
Tamil Nadu. It connects the Western Ghats to the Eastern Ghats and owes its popularity to
the fact that it’s home to many vulnerable and endangered animal and bird species. The
neighbouring states of Kerala and Karnataka both have their borders adjacent to this national
park in South India.

Periyar National Park: Periyar National Park in Kerala, is popular for its tiger reserve. It is
even known for the elephant reserve. This park is located in the Western Ghats, immersed in
the luxuriant greenery.

88.Which among the following letter code represent tropical wet and dry climate according to
the Koeppen climatic classification type?

A. Af
B. Am
C. Aw
D. Dw

Answer ||| C

Solution |||

Below is the Koeppen climatic classification:

89.Consider the following statement regarding the land use pattern in India:

1) The rate of increase in area is the highest under ‘non-agricultural uses’ land.

2) Share of Current Fallow land has decreased in between 1950-51 and 2014-15.

Select the right code from below:

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer ||| A

Solution |||

The reclassification of land resources was adopted in March 1950. Under it, land in India is
classified into nine different categories:

(i) forests

(ii) barren and unculturable land

(iii)land put to non-agricultural uses

(iv) culturable wastes

(v) permanent pasture and another grazing land

(vi) miscellaneous tree crops and groves not included in the net area own

(vii) current fallows

(viii) other fallows

(ix) net area sown

Changes in Land Use Pattern in India :

Spatial and temporal changes have been noted in the land use pattern in India since the post-
independent era.

• Four categories have undergone increases, while four have registered declines. Share of area
under forest, area under non-agricultural uses, current fallow lands and net area sown have
shown an increase.

• The four categories that have registered a decline are barren and wasteland, culturable
wasteland, area under pastures and tree crops and fallow lands.

• The rate of increase is the highest in case of area under non-agricultural uses. This is due to
the changing structure of Indian economy, which is increasingly depending on the
contribution from industrial and services sectors and expansion of related infrastructural
facilities.

• The increase in net area sown is a recent phenomenon due to use of culturable waste land
for agricultural pupose.

• As the pressure on land increased, both from the agricultural and non-agricultural sectors,
the wastelands and culturable wastelands have witnessed decline over time

90.Which of the following is the main causes of ozone layer depletion?

A. Emission of greenhouse gases

B. Emission of CFC's
C. Cyclonic storms
D. Global migration

Answer ||| B

Solution |||

Ozone layer depletion is the thinning and distortion of the ozone layer present in the
stratosphere of atmosphere.Chlorofluorocarbons are the most abundant ozone-depleting
substances in the world widely used.

The main causes for the depletion of the ozone layer are:
CFCs: Chlorofluorocarbons are the main cause of ozone layer depletion. Spray aerosols,
refrigerators, air-conditioners, etc. release CFC. The molecules of CFC in the stratosphere are
broken down by the ultraviolet radiations and release chlorine atoms. These atoms react with
ozone and deplete the ozone layer.

Unregulated Rocket Launches: unregulated launching of rockets result in much more

depletion of the ozone layer than the CFCs.

Nitrogenous Compounds: nitrogenous compounds such as NO2, NO, N2O highly deplete the
ozone layer.

Natural Causes: certain natural processes such as Sun-spots and stratospheric winds also
deplete ozone in smaller quantities. The volcanic eruptions are also responsible for the
depletion of the ozone layer.

In order to protect the ozone layer, the Montreal Protocol was proposed in 1987 to stop the
use, production of ozone-depleting substances and minimize their concentration in the
atmosphere to protect the ozone layer of the earth and heal the ozone layer to its normal state.

91.Consider the following statements regarding the iron and steel industries in India :

1) Over time iron and steel industries started shifting towards coastal areas.

2) Near ports, steel can be easily imported and exported.

Select the correct code from below:

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer ||| C

Solution |||

Over time, iron and steel industries started shifting towards coastal regions such as
Vishakapatnam in India, Osaka-Kobe in japan, cities such as Detroit and Chicago etc.

The major reasons for the shift were:

1. Near ports from where the steel can be easily imported and exported

2. Depletion of coal resources in the mainland changed economics.

The major factors influencing the locations of Iron and steel industries are :
• Raw material: Mostly large integrated steel plants are located close to the source of raw
materials. Eg: Concentration of Iron and steel industry in Chota Nagpur region-Presence of
Iron ore in this region.

• Markets: As its heavy & bulky transportation cost is high. Therefore nearness to market is
important in order to minimize transportation cost. Visakhapatnam steel plant located near
the coast has an excellent import-export facility.

• Labour: Availability of cheap labour is also important. Eg: Rourkela plant, Odisha; Bhilai
steel plant in Chattisgarh, mostly in Chota Nagpur region

• Availability of electricity: Mostly hydro. Eg: Bokaro steel plant on banks of river Damodar,
Vishweshwaraya steel plant, Kar near river Bhadra.

92.State, which of the following is incorrectly matched:

National Highways - Connecting areas

A. NH-1 - Delhi to Amritsar

B. NH-2 - Delhi to Calcutta
C. NH-3 - Agra to Mumbai
D. NH-8 - Delhi to Calcutta

Answer ||| D

Solution |||

NH-8 Connects: Delhi-Jaipur-Ajmer-Udaipur-Ahmedabad-Vadodara-Mumbai

National Highways (NH) plays a vital role in inter-state movements and transportation of
passengers and goods. The total length of National Highways as of March 2019, is 132499
Kms. NH constitutes only 2 percent of the road network in India, and the National Highways
are responsible for carrying about 40 percent traffic.

Facts about National Highways in India:

• National Highways Authority of India (NHAI) is an autonomous authority to develop,

maintain, and manage the National Highways of India. Central Government has the power to
notify any highway as the National Highway.

• Ministry of Road Transport and Highways is responsible for the development of National
Highways.

• NH 44 is the longest national highway in India, running over 3745 Km from Srinagar to
Kanyakumari.

• NH 47A in Kerala, is the shortest highway of India, having a length of 6 Kms.

93.Arrange the following capital cities from East to West.

1) Bern

2) Minsk

3) Sofia

4) Stockholm

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 1, 2, 3, 4
B. 2, 4, 1, 3
C. 2, 3, 4, 1
D. 3, 2, 4, 1

Answer ||| C

Solution |||

The capital cities from east to west are: Minsk (Belarus), Sofia (Bulgaria), Stockholm
(Sweden) and Bern (Switzerland).
94.Consider the following statements:

1) Karnataka is the sole producer of felsite and one of the leading producers of iron ore,
chromite, dolomite, dunite, kyanite and shale.

2) Karnataka hosts the country's 79% Vanadium ore and 72% Magnetite (iron ore).

Select the correct statements using the code given below:

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer ||| C

Solution |||

• Karnataka is the principal gold producing State in the country. It is the sole producer of
felsite and one of the leading producers of iron ore, chromite,dolomite, dunite, kyanite and
shale.
• Karnataka hosts the country's 79% vanadium ore and 72% iron ore (magnetite).

• Gold, iron ore, manganese ore and limestone are the important minerals produced in
Karnataka. The value of minor minerals production was estimated at ` 1,321 crore for the
year 2017-18.

95.Which of the following is the correct chronological order of abundance of elements in the
Earth’s crust by mass?

A. Sodium, Silicon, Aluminium, Iron

B. Oxygen, Silicon, Aluminium, Iron
C. Oxygen, Sodium, Silicon, Aluminium
D. Sodium, Calcium, Magnesium, Silicon

Answer ||| B

Solution |||

96.Consider the following statements:

1) The Nubra River is a left-bank tributary of the Shyok River.

2) The three principal tributaries of the Shyok river are: Nubra, Saltoro, and Hushe river.

Select the correct statements using the code given below:

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer ||| B

Solution |||

• Shyok river is a tributary of the Indus river which originates from the Siachen glacier and
flows through India and Pakistan before joining Indus.
• The three principal tributaries of the Shyok river are: Nubra (right bank tributary), Saltoro,
and Hushe river.

97.Consider the following statements about the Ural mountain range:

1) The Ural mountain range forms part of the conventional boundary between Europe and
Asia.

2) The western slope of the Ural Mountains predominantly has Karst topography.

3) Mt. McKinley is the highest peak of the Ural mountain range.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer ||| A

Solution |||

• The Ural mountain range is located in Russia. It was formed due to collision of
supercontinent Laurussia and weak continent Kazakhstania.

• The eastern side of the Ural mountain range is considered as the natural boundary between
Asia and Europe. The western slope of the Urals has karst topography.

• Mt. Narodnaya is the highest peak of the Ural mountain range.

98.Arrange the following phases in a Business cycle in the correct order of their occurrences.

1). Depression

2). Recovery

3). Recession

4). Boom

Choose the correct option.

A. 1 2 3 4
B. 2 4 3 1
C. 4 2 1 3
D. 4 1 2 3

Answer ||| B

Solution |||

99.Which of the given statements about MIGA is/are correct?

1). Its objective is to ensure investors from non-political and commercial risks in
developing countries.

2). It was formed in 1988.

3). India is not a member of MIGA.

4). It is headquartered in New York.

A. 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 1 and 4 only
D. 2 Only

Answer ||| D

Solution |||

* MIGA was established in 1988 as an investment insurance facility to encourage confident

investment in developing countries.

* Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency (MIGA) is a member of the World Bank Group
and is headquartered in Washington, D.C.
* It promotes investment in developing countries by providing insurance against political
risk and non-commercial risk.

* It’s objective is to remove poverty and support economic growth by promoting FDIs in
developing countries.

* India is a member of four constituents of World Bank group MIGA, IBRD, IDA, and
IFC but not ICSID.

100.Arrange the given Indian states in the descending order of their GSDPs.

1). Gujarat

2). Karnataka

3). Rajasthan

4). Uttar Pradesh

Choose the correct option.

A. 1 2 3 4
B. 2 4 1 3
C. 4 2 1 3
D. 4 1 2 3

Answer ||| D

Solution |||

101.Consider the following statements regarding Land reforms in India.

1). Redistribution of surplus land largely failed in India.

2.) Abolition of middlemen like landlords was one of the successful outcomes of land
reforms.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. Only 1
B. Only 2
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer ||| C

Solution |||

Land reform was the policy to reform the ownership and regulation of land in India.
Land reforms constituted:

* Abolition of intermediaries (rent collectors under the pre-Independence land revenue

system)

* Tenancy regulation (to improve the contractual terms including the security of tenure)

* A ceiling on landholdings (to redistributing surplus land to the landless)

* Attempts to consolidate the disparate landholdings.

India did poorly on redistribution (except in few states like West Bengal) while the abolition
of intermediaries was largely successful.

102.Consider the following statements regarding Bottleneck inflation.

1). It occurs when demand remains the same while the supplies fall significantly.

2). It is considered as a type of demand-pull inflation.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. Only 1
B. Only 2
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer ||| C

Solution |||

* Bottleneck inflation takes place when supply falls substantially, and demand remains at
the same level.

* This creates excess demand in the economy as the supply cannot match with it, and thus
prices rise.
* Such situations arise due to supply-side accidents, hazards or mismanagement.

* It comes under demand-pull inflation.

103.Consider the following statements regarding the I.N.A.trials :

1). Around ten courts-martial were held.

2). Legal advocates who lead the trials were – Nehru, Tez Bahadur Sapru, Kailash Nath Katju
etc.

State which among the above statements is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None

Answer ||| C

Solution |||

I.N.A. had around 43,000 recruits, out of which many perished, but 16000 were captured.
Detention camps had been organized in Jhingergacha and Nilganj near Calcutta, Kirkee near
Pune, Attock, Multan and at Bahadurgarh near Delhi for these prisoners.

The officers of the I.N.A. were held to court-martial at the Red Fort in Delhi starting from
November 1945 and May 1946. Around 10 courts-martial were held in I.N.A. trial. The first
of these was the court-martial of Colonel P.K. Sahgal, Colonel Gurubaksh Singh Dhillon and
Major General Shah Nawaz Khan. Legal advocates Nehru, Sapru, Kailash Nath Katju,
Bhulabhai Desai etc. advocated the I.N.A. officers.

They were sentenced to death, but high pressure from the political parties from India, Army
Chief Claude Auchinleck was forced to commute the sentences of the three defendants in the
first trial.

104.State which among the following is incorrect regarding market reform of Allauddin
Khilji?

A. The market reforms aim to control inflation and maintain a large army.
B. Ziauddin Barani record shows 3 types of Market.
C. Shahna-i- mandi were the officers who inspected the Market.
D. Barids were the head of the Market.
Answer ||| D

Solution |||

Alauddin Khilji's market reforms were oriented towards achieving administrative and
military

efficiency, necessity and public welfare. Alauddin Khilji implemented price control measures
for a wide variety of market goods. Foreign traveller "Barani"states that Alauddin wanted to
reduce the prices so that low salaries were acceptable to his soldiers, and thus, to maintain a
large army.

According to Barani, Alauddin set up three markets in Delhi:

* First - for food-grains

* Second - for and expensive items such as sugar, ghee, oil, dry fruits etc.

* Third - for horses, slaves and cattle.

He issued a set of seven regulations which came to be known as market control measures.
The Sultan fixed the prices of all commodities from grain to cloths, slaves, cattle, etc.

To ensure that goods were sold at regulated prices in the market ,Alauddin appointed market
supervisors and spies and received independent reports from them.

A controller of Market (Shahna -i-Mandi), intelligence officers (Barids) and secret spies
(Munhiyan) were appointed. The grain merchants were placed under the Shahna-i-mandi.

105.State which among the following is incorrect regarding the Chalukyas ?

A. Pulkeshin –I founded the Chalukya empire.

B. The empire flourished from the 6th century A .D to 12th century A .D .
C. Group of temples at Pattadakal are situated in the state of Tamil Nadu.
D. Both B & C

Answer ||| C

Solution |||

The Chalukyas ruled the parts of Southern and Central India between the period from 6th
century A.D. to 12th century A.D. Pulakesin I ( 543 AD – 566 AD) Founded the empire with
his capital at Vatapi.

There were three distinct- related Chalukyan dynasties:

Badami Chalukyas: They were the earliest Chalukyas with their capital at Badami (Vatapi) in
Karnataka. They ruled from mid-6th. Their decline started after the death ofPulakesin II in
642 AD.

Eastern Chalukyas: Emerged after the death of Pulakesin II in Eastern Deccan with capital at
Vengi. They ruled till the 11th century.

Western Chalukyas: Descendants of the Badami Chalukyas, they emerged in the late 10th
century and ruled from Kalyani (modern-day Basavakanlyan).

The temples under the Chalukyas are a marvellous example of the Vesara style of
architecture( It is a combination of Dravida and Nagara styles). Aihole temple, Group of
temples at Pattadakal are great examples. Pattadakkal is a UNESCO World Heritage site
situated in the state of Karnataka. There are ten temples at Pattadakal.

106.Match the following column I with column II and select the correct answer using the
code given below:

Philosophical school Founder

1). Vaisheshika a. Kanada

2). Post- Mimansa b. Badarayana

3). Nyaya Darshana c.Gautama

4). Yoga Darshana d. Patanjali

Code:

A. 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d

B. 1-b, 2-a, 3-c, 4-d
C. 1-b, 2-c, 3-a, 4-d
D. 1-c, 2-b, 3-a, 4-d

Answer ||| A

Solution |||

Hindu philosophy is categorized into 6 Orthodox and 3 Heterodox philosophies. The

Orthodox school of philosophy/ Aastika school believes in the authority of Vedas, while the
Heterodox school of philosophy, popularly known as Nastika school rejects the principle of
the authority of Vedas. The ultimate aim of these philosophies is to help in attaining salvation
through various means.

Six Orthodox Schools of Hindu Philosophy

* Nyaya: The Nyaya school follows a scientific and a rational approach for attaining
salvation. Gautama is the founder of this school.

* Sankhya: Sankhya is the oldest of all philosophies and propounded by the sage Kapila.

* Yoga: Patanjali is the founder of the Yoga school of philosophy. Methods of the discipline
of body and mind through meditative codes are the way of salvation.

* Vaisheshika: Vaisheshika school deals with metaphysics. It was founded by the sage
Kanada.

* Purva Mimamsa: It is based on sage Jaimini's Mimamsa Sutras.

* Uttara Mimamsa /Vedanta: Vedanta school is the school of philosophy that believes that the
world is unreal, and the only reality is Brahman. Uttara Mimamsa is based on Upanishads.

The great scholar Badarayana(500-200 B.C) initiated the efforts to simplify the Upanishadic
philosophy. Badarayana is also known as Ved Vyasa. He was the first scholar to take up the
challenging task of systemizing the immensely vast philosophical doctrines of the
Upanishads. The result of his efforts was one of the most illustrious works on Vedanta.

107.Consider the following statements regarding the Rakhigarhi site of IVC:

1). The site is located in the Hisar district of Haryana.

2). Excavations at this site are Famous for 11 mounds.

3). Rakhigarhi is one of the largest and oldest Indus sites.

Which among the above statement(s) is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. All of the above

Answer ||| D

Solution |||

Rakhigarhi:

Rakhigarhi, in Haryana’s Hisar district, became an archaeological hotspot when Amarendra

Nath, former director of the Archaeological Survey of India (A.S.I.), undertook excavations
at the site in 1997. It is a 5,000 year-old site—the site located in the Sarasvati river plain,
some 27 km from the seasonal Ghaggar river.
Excavations of the fire altar, 11 mounds, parts of a city wall, drainage structures, copper and
seals, as well as a hoard of semi-precious beads were found.

According to the Global Heritage Fund, Rakhigarhi is one of the largest and oldest Indus
sites. On February 2020, Union Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman announced that the site
of Rakhigarhi would be developed as an important archaeological and historical site.

108.The Headquarters of the Eastern Naval Command of the Indian Navy is located at which
of the following places?

A. Vishakhapatnam
B. Kochi
C. Thiruvananthapuram
D. Chennai

Answer ||| A

Solution |||

The Headquarters of the Southern Naval Command is located at Kochi. There are only three
Commands of the Indian Navy.

109.Which one of the following statements is most appropriate about ‘Exercise Kavach’?

A. It is a military exercise of the Indian Army only.

B. It is a joint military exercise involving the Indian Army and the Indian Navy only.
C. It is a joint military exercise involving the Indian Army, the Indian Navy, and the Indian
Air Force only.
D. It is a joint military exercise involving the Indian Army, the Indian Navy, the Indian Air
Force, and also the Indian Coast Guard.

Answer ||| D

Solution |||

About Exercise Kavach:

• Participation: Indian Army, Indian Air Force, and Indian Navy.

• The Indian Coast Guard will also be included in the large scale Joint Military exercise

• The exercise includes the organized use of maritime surveillance assets, air and maritime
strikes, air defence, submarine, and landing operations.

• The joint force would execute multi-domain, high-intensity offensive and defensive
manoeuvres in the Andaman Sea and Bay of Bengal.

• The tri-services exercise aims to fine-tune joint war-fighting capabilities and Standard
Operating Procedures (SOPs) towards enhancing operational synergy.

• Importance: The exercise will assess all agencies' preparedness to cope with an asymmetric
challenge. Asymmetrical threats are a force's unorthodox techniques and tactics.

110.Soli Sorabjee passed away recently, He was a……………..

A. Former Comptroller and Auditor General of India

B. Former Attorney General of India
C. Former Governor of RBI
D. Former Chairman of SEBI

Answer ||| B

Solution |||

Former Attorney General of India and renowned jurist Soli Sorabjee passed away. Serving as
a legal professional for nearly seven decades, Sorabjee occupied the highest office of the
attorney general of India twice — first from 1989-90 and then from 1998-2004.

From 1998-2004, he was also the Chairman of the UN sub-committee on the Protection and
Promotion of Human Rights.

111.Who recommended that India should be a ‘Country of Particular Concern’ for Religious
Freedom in 2020?

A. UNHCR
B. UNDP
C. USCIRF
D. UNFPA

Answer ||| C
Solution |||

The U.S. Commission on International Religious Freedom (USCIRF) has recommended for
the second year in a row that the US Government put India on a list ‘Country of
Particular concern (CPC)’ in 2020.

In addition to India, USCIRF in its non-binding report recommended the State Department to
add three more countries to the list: Russia, Syria and Vietnam.

112.International Labour Day is observed on …………………….

A. 1st April
B. 2nd May
C. 1st May
D. 30th April

Answer ||| C

Solution |||

May 01 is the International Day of Workers or International Labour Day dedicated to workers
across the world.

The day, also called May Day, is also observed as a public holiday in many countries. Labour
Day in India is celebrated as Antarrashtriya Shramik Diwas.

Labour Day has its origins in the labour union movement in the United States in the 19th
Century. In 1889, the Marxist International Socialist Congress adopted a resolution for a
great international demonstration in which they demanded that the workers should not be
made to work for more than 8 hours a day.

113.Who has inaugurated ‘The National Conference on Agriculture for Kharif Campaign-
2021’ on 30th April, 2021?

A. Arjun Munda
B. Piyush Goyal
C. Harsh Vardhan
D. Narendra Singh Tomar

Answer ||| D

Solution |||
Union Minister of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare Shri Narendra Singh Tomar inaugurated
‘The National Conference on Agriculture for Kharif Campaign-2021’ on 30th April, 2021.

The conference was organized to interact with the States on challenges & strategies for
effective crop management during the ensuing Kharif season.

The share of agriculture in GDP increased from 17.8% in 2019-20 to 19.9% in 2020-21 as per
Economic Survey 2020-21.

Shri Tomar announced the setting of higher production targets of food grains to 307 million
tonnes for the year 2021-22.

114.Who has launched a WhatsApp helpline number for providing emergency medical
assistance to pregnant women?

A. NCW
B. NIC
C. MoHFW
D. WCD

Answer ||| A

Solution |||

The National Commission for Women (NCW) has launched a WhatsApp helpline number for
providing emergency medical assistance to pregnant women. The number is 9354954224.

Expectant mothers from across the country can reach out to the Commission through this
number which will be functional round the clock.

115.Which are the 2 Indian Companies that were listed among the TIME Magazine’s first-
ever list of 100 most influential companies in 2021?

A. TCS & Jio Platforms

B. Byju’s & Jio Platforms
C. Byju’s & Bharti Airtel
D. Byju’s & Reliance Trends

Answer ||| B

Solution |||
Reliance Industry Limited’s technology wing Jio Platforms and e-learning startup Byju’s
have made it to the 'TIME100 Most Influential Companies', which is a new list and an
expansion of the TIME100 franchise.

The magazine has listed RIL’s Jio Platform for “leading digital transformation” in India.

The magazine has credited Byju’s for expanding e-learning in India. The company founded
by Byju Raveendran has seen a sharp rise in popularity in 2020 as demand for online learning
rose in the middle of the pandemic.

Byju’s has also been credited for getting a foothold in markets outside India including the
US, UK, Indonesia, Mexico and Brazil.

116.Recently India agreed to establish a new annual 2+2 dialogue, involving the External
Affairs Minister and Defence Ministers, with which country?

A. Russia
B. UK
C. France
D. China

Answer ||| A

Solution |||

Prime Minister Narendra Modi and President Vladimir Putin agreed to establish a new annual
India-Russia 2+2 dialogue, involving the External Affairs Minister and Defence Ministers of
the two nations.

New Delhi’s move to launch the 2+2 dialogue with Moscow is apparently aimed at striking a
balance between India’s growing strategic convergence with the United States in the Indo-
Pacific region and its long-standing defence partnership with Russia.

Russia now has become part of a small group of countries with whom India has 2+2 dialogue
of foreign and defence ministers. India has such mechanisms with the US, Japan and
Australia.

117.Recently S&P Global Ratings has lowered India’s GDP growth forecast to how much
percent for FY22?

A. 11 %
B. 9.8 %
C. 10 %
D. 12 %
Answer ||| B

Solution |||

S&P Global Ratings has lowered the GDP growth forecast of the Indian economy to 9.8
percent for the financial year 2021-22 (FY22). S&P in March 2021 had expected an 11%
GDP growth forecast for India for FY22.

118.Which of the following is an anti-radiation missile tested by India recently?

A. Rudram-1
B. BrahMos
C. Agni
D. Nag

Answer ||| A

Solution |||

Rudram 1, a tactical anti-radiation missile that the Indian Air Force can launch from its
Sukhoi-30MKI fighter jets to take out enemy radars and surveillance systems, was
successfully tested recently. The missile can travel at up to 2 Mach, which is twice the speed
of sound.

The new generation weapon was developed by the Defence Research and Development
Organisation. It was tested at the interim test range Balasore, off the coast of Odisha in the
Bay of Bengal.

119.The 720 MW Mangdechhu Hydroelectric project funded by the Indian government

recently won Brunel Medal for excellence in civil engineering. The project is located in:

A. Sikkim
B. Bhutan
C. Nepal
D. Arunachal Pradesh

Answer ||| B

Solution |||

Mangdechhu hydroelectric power project is located on the bank of Mangdechhu river in

Trongsa, Central Bhutan and it is a 720 MW run of the river power plant.
This project is funded by the Indian govt. through a 70% loan and 30% grant. Most of the
electricity generated by this plant is used to meet the requirements of Bhutan and surplus is
exported to India.

120.‘Sir Creek’ separates which Indian state from Pakistan?

A. Gujarat
B. Rajasthan
C. Punjab
D. Jammu Kashmir

Answer ||| A

Solution |||

Sir Creek or Ban Ganga is a 96 km long tidal estuary in the marshlands of the Indus River
delta and falls into the Arabian sea. This acts as the border between Gujarat state and Sindh
province of Pakistan.

121.Indian Airline company GoAir has been renamed as………………….

A. Go World
B. Go India
C. Go Fly
D. Go First

Answer ||| D

Solution |||
After 15 years, Wadia Group-owned GoAir has rebranded itself as 'Go First' as the airline
focuses on an ultra-low-cost business model.

The Go First as ULCC (ultra-low-cost carrier) would operate single aircraft type across its
fleet, which currently has both Airbus A320 and A320Neos (new engine option) planes in
operation.

Go First, founded as GoAir, is an Indian ultra-low-cost airline based in Mumbai,

Maharashtra. It is owned by the Indian business conglomerate Wadia Group. It commenced
operations in November 2005.

122.Which state launched 'AYUSH Ghar Dwar' wellness programme for COVID-19
patients?

A. Himachal Pradesh
B. Uttar Pradesh
C. Rajasthan
D. Madhya Pradesh

Answer ||| A

Solution |||

AYUSH Department has launched a state-wide wellness programme 'AYUSH Ghar Dwar'
for COVID-19 patients, in Solan district, Himachal Pradesh.

The Ayush Ghar Dwar program is being launched by AYUSH Vibhag Himachal Pradesh in
collaboration with the Art of Living Organization.

The initiative aims to provide a Holistic Healthcare Approach through AYUSH to ensure not
only physical but also mental, social and spiritual wellbeing to COVID patients through
AYUSH.

123.Recently the Ministry of Tribal Affairs signed MoU with which company for digital
transformation of Tribal Schools?

A. HCL
B. TCS
C. Microsoft
D. Google

Answer ||| C

Solution |||
The Ministry of Tribal Affairs (MTA) inked a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with
Microsoft to support the digital transformation of schools such as Eklavya Model Residential
Schools (EMRS) and Ashram Schools, among others under the Ministry at an online event
‘Empowering Youth For Success’.

Microsoft will make Artificial intelligence (AI) curriculum available to tribal students in both
English and Hindi at all EMRS schools under the Ministry to skill educators and students in
next-generation technologies including Artificial Intelligence.

124.Which of the following kit has been approved by ICMR for the purpose of home
testing for symptomatic patients (COVID-19)?

A. CoviWin
B. CoviIndia
C. CoviTest
D. CoviSelf

Answer ||| D

Solution |||

MyLab Discovery Solutions, the Pune-based company, has developed India’s first self-use
Rapid Antigen Test Kit ‘CoviSelf’ for COVID-19.

The Indian Council of Medical Research, ICMR has approved the ‘CoviSelf’ kit for the
purpose of home testing for COVID-19.

The self-use test can be used by symptomatic individuals and immediate contacts of
confirmed cases as per ICMR guidelines.

125.Operation Polo, carried out by Indian armed forces is associated with

the annexation of which princely state into the Indian Union?

A. Junagarh
B. Goa
C. Hyderabad
D. Travancore

Answer ||| C

Solution |||
Indian Armed Forces carried out Operation Polo to end the rule of Nizams
in Hyderabad in September 1948 and incorporated Hyderabad into the
Indian Union. As per Sunderlal Committee appointed by Jawaharlal Nehru,
around 30,000-40,000 peoples lost their lives.