BASIC VIROLOGY

DIRECTIONS (Questions 159–192): Select the ONE lettered answer

that is BEST in each question.

159. Viruses enter cells by adsorbing to specific sites on the outer

membrane of cells. Each of the following statements regarding

this event is correct EXCEPT:

(A) The interaction determines the specific target organs for

infection.

(B) The interaction determines whether the purified genome of

a virus is infectious.

(C) The interaction can be prevented by neutralizing antibody.

(D) If the sites are occupied, interference with virus infection

occurs.

160.

Many viruses mature by budding through the outer membrane

of the host cell. Each of the following statements regarding

these viruses is correct EXCEPT:

(A) Some of these viruses cause multinucleated giant cell

formation.

(B) Some new viral antigens appear on the surface of the host

cell.

(C) Some of these viruses contain host cell lipids.

(D) Some of these viruses do not have an envelope.

161. Biochemical analysis of a virus reveals the genome to be composed

of eight unequally sized pieces of single-stranded RNA, each of

which is complementary to viral mRNA in infected cells. Which

one of the following statements is UNLIKELY to be correct?

(A) Different proteins are encoded by each segment of the viral

genome.
(B) The virus particle contains a virus-encoded enzyme that can

copy the genome into its complement.

(C) Purified RNA extracted from the virus particle is infectious.

(D) The virus can acquire new antigens via reassortment of its

RNA segments.

162. Latency is an outcome particularly characteristic of which one

of the following virus groups?

(A) Polioviruses

(B) Herpesviruses

(C) Rhinoviruses

(D) Influenza viruses

163.

Each of the following statements concerning viral serotypes is

correct EXCEPT:

(A) In naked nucleocapsid viruses, the serotype is usually determined by the outer capsid proteins.

(B) In enveloped viruses, the serotype is usually determined by

the outer envelope proteins, especially the spike proteins.

(C) Some viruses have multiple serotypes.

(D) Some viruses have an RNA polymerase that determines the

serotype.

164. The ability of a virus to produce disease can result from a variety of mechanisms. Which one of the
following mechanisms is

LEAST likely?

(A) Cytopathic effect in infected cells

(B) Malignant transformation of infected cells

(C) Immune response to virus-induced antigens on the surface

of infected cells

(D) Production of an exotoxin that activates adenylate cyclase

165. Which one of the following forms of immunity to viruses would

be LEAST likely to be lifelong?

(A) Passive immunity

(B) Passive–active immunity

(C) Active immunity

(D) Cell-mediated immunity

166.

Which one of the following statements concerning alpha, beta,

and gamma interferons is LEAST accurate?

(A) Interferons inhibit a broad range of viruses, not just the virus

that induced the interferon.

(B) Interferons are synthesized only by virus-infected cells.

(C) Interferons induce the synthesis of a protein kinase that

phosphorylates an elongation factor, thereby inactivating

protein synthesis.

(D) Interferons induce the synthesis of a ribonuclease that

degrades viral mRNA.

167.

You have isolated a virus from the stool of a patient with diarrhea and shown that its genome is
composed of multiple pieces

of double-stranded RNA. Which one of the following is LEAST

LIKELY to be true?

(A) Each piece of RNA encodes a different protein.

(B) The virus encodes an RNA-directed RNA polymerase.

(C) The virion contains an RNA polymerase.

(D) The genome integrates into the host chromosome.

168. A temperate bacteriophage has been induced from a new pathogenic strain of Escherichia coli that
produces a toxin. Which one

of the following is the MOST convincing way to show that the

phage encodes the toxin?

(A) Carry out conjugation of the pathogenic strain with a nonpathogenic strain.

(B) Infect an experimental animal with the phage.

(C) Lysogenize a nonpathogenic strain with the phage.

(D) Look for transposable elements in the phage DNA.

169.

Each of the following statements concerning retroviruses is correct EXCEPT:

(A) The virion carries an RNA-directed DNA polymerase

encoded by the viral genome.

(B) The viral genome consists of three segments of doublestranded RNA.

(C) The virion is enveloped and enters cells via an interaction

with specific receptors on the host cell.

(D) During infection, the virus synthesizes a DNA copy of its

RNA, and this DNA becomes covalently integrated into host

cell DNA.

170. A stock of virus particles has been found by electron microscopy to contain 108

particles/mL, but a plaque assay reveals only

105

plaque-forming units/mL. The BEST interpretation of these

results is that:

(A) Only one particle in 1000 is infectious.

(B) A nonpermissive cell line was used for the plaque assay.

(C) Several kinds of viruses were present in the stock.

(D) The virus is a temperature-sensitive mutant.

171. Reasonable mechanisms for viral persistence in infected individuals include all of the following
EXCEPT:

(A) Generation of defective-interfering particles

(B) Virus-mediated inhibition of host DNA synthesis

(C) Integration of a provirus into the genome of the host

(D) Host tolerance to viral antigens

172. Each of the following statements concerning viral surface proteins is correct EXCEPT:

(A) They elicit antibody that neutralizes infectivity of the virus.

(B) They determine the species specificity of the virus–cell

interaction.

(C) They participate in active transport of nutrients across the

viral envelope membrane.

(D) They protect the genetic material against nucleases.

173.

Each of the following statements concerning viral vaccines is

correct EXCEPT:

(A) In live, attenuated vaccines, the virus has lost its ability to

cause disease but has retained its ability to induce neutralizing antibody.

(B) In live, attenuated vaccines, the possibility of reversion to

virulence is of concern.

(C) With inactivated vaccines, IgA mucosal immunity is usually

induced.

(D) With inactivated vaccines, protective immunity is due mainly

to the production of IgG.

174. The major barrier to the control of rhinovirus upper respiratory

infections by immunization is:

(A) The poor local and systemic immune response to these viruses

(B) The large number of serotypes of the rhinoviruses

(C) The side effects of the vaccine

(D) The inability to grow the viruses in cell culture

175. The feature of the influenza virus genome that contributes

MOST to the antigenic variation of the virus is:

(A) A high G + C content, which augments binding to nucleoproteins

(B) Inverted repeat regions, which create “sticky ends”

(C) Segmented nucleic acid

(D) Unique methylated bases

176.

Which one of the following is the BEST explanation for the

selective action of acyclovir (acycloguanosine) in herpes simplex virus (HSV)-infected cells?

(A) Acyclovir binds specifically to viral receptors only on the

surface of the HSV-infected cell.

(B) Acyclovir is phosphorylated by a virus-encoded phosphokinase only within HSV-infected cells.

(C) Acyclovir selectively inhibits the RNA polymerase in the

HSV virion.

(D) Acyclovir specifically blocks the matrix protein of HSV,

thereby preventing release of progeny HSV.

177.

Each of the following statements concerning interferon is correct EXCEPT:

(A) Interferon inhibits the growth of both DNA and RNA viruses.

(B) Interferon is induced by double-stranded RNA.

(C) Interferon made by cells of one species acts more effectively

in the cells of that species than in the cells of other species.

(D) Interferon acts by preventing viruses from entering the cell.

178.

Each of the following statements concerning the viruses that

infect humans is correct EXCEPT:

(A) Only viruses with a negative polarity RNA genome have a

polymerase in the virion.

(B) The purified nucleic acid of some viruses is infectious, but at

a lower efficiency than the intact virions.

(C) Some viruses contain lipoprotein envelopes derived from the

plasma membrane of the host cell.

(D) The nucleic acid of some viruses is single-stranded DNA and

that of others is double-stranded RNA.

179. Which one of the following statements about virion structure

and assembly is CORRECT?

(A) Most viruses acquire surface glycoproteins by budding

through the nuclear membrane.

(B) Helical nucleocapsids are found primarily in DNA viruses.

(C) The symmetry of virus particles prevents inclusion of any

nonstructural proteins, such as enzymes.

(D) Enveloped viruses use a matrix protein to mediate interactions between viral glycoproteins in the
plasma membrane

and structural proteins in the nucleocapsid.

180.

Each of the following statements concerning viruses is correct

EXCEPT:

(A) Viruses can reproduce only within cells.

(B) The proteins on the surface of the virus mediate the entry of

the virus into host cells.

(C) Neutralizing antibody is directed against proteins on the

surface of the virus.

(D) Viruses replicate by binary fission.

181.

Viruses are obligate intracellular parasites. Each of the following statements concerning this fact is
correct EXCEPT:

(A) Viruses cannot generate energy outside of cells.

(B) Viruses cannot synthesize proteins outside of cells.

(C) Viruses must degrade host cell DNA in order to obtain

nucleotides.

(D) Enveloped viruses require host cell membranes to obtain

their envelopes.

182.
Each of the following statements concerning lysogeny is correct

EXCEPT:

(A) Viral genes replicate independently of bacterial genes.

(B) Viral genes responsible for lysis are repressed.

(C) Viral DNA is integrated into bacterial DNA.

(D) Some lysogenic bacteriophages encode toxins that cause

human disease.

183.

Each of the following viruses possesses an outer envelope of

lipoprotein EXCEPT:

(A) Varicella-zoster virus

(B) Papillomavirus

(C) Influenza virus

(D) Human immunodeficiency virus

184.

Which one of the following viruses possesses a genome of

single-stranded RNA that is infectious when purified?

(A) Influenza virus

(B) Rotavirus

(C) Measles virus

(D) Poliovirus

185.

Each of the following viruses possesses an RNA polymerase in

the virion EXCEPT:

(A) Hepatitis A virus

(B) Smallpox virus

(C) Mumps virus

(D) Rotavirus

186. Each of the following viruses possesses a DNA polymerase in

The virion EXCEPT:

(A) Human immunodeficiency virus

(B) Human T-cell lymphotropic virus

© Epstein–Barr virus

(C) Hepatitis B virus

187.

Each of the following viruses possesses double-stranded nucleic

Acid as its genome EXCEPT:

(A) Coxsackie virus

(B) Herpes simplex virus

© Rotavirus

(C) Adenovirus

188.
Regarding viroids, which one of the following statements is the

MOST accurate?

(A) They are defective viruses that are missing the DNA coding

For the matrix protein.

(B) They consist of RNA without a protein or lipoprotein outer

Coat.

© They cause tumors in experimental animals.

(C) They require an RNA polymerase in the particle for replication to occur.

189.

Each of the following statements about both measles virus and

Rubella virus is correct EXCEPT:

(A) They are RNA enveloped viruses.

(B) Their virions contain an RNA polymerase.

© They have a single antigenic type.

 (C) They are transmitted by respiratory aerosol.

190.

Each of the following statements about both influenza virus and

Rabies virus is correct EXCEPT:

(A) They are enveloped RNA viruses.

(B) Their virions contain an RNA polymerase.

© A killed vaccine is available for both viruses.

(C) They each have a single antigenic type.

191.

Each of the following statements about both poliovirus and rhinoviruses is correct EXCEPT:

(A) They are nonenveloped RNA viruses.

(B) They have multiple antigenic types.

© Their virions contain an RNA polymerase.

(C) They do not integrate their genome into host cell DNA.
192.

Each of the following statements about human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is correct EXCEPT:

(A) HIV is an enveloped RNA virus.

(B) The virion contains an RNA-dependent DNA polymerase.

© A DNA copy of the HIV genome integrates into host cell

DNA.

(C) Acyclovir inhibits HIV replication.

Answers (Questions 159–192)

DIRECTIONS (Questions 193–211): Select the one lettered option

That is MOST CLOSELY associated with the numbered items. Each lettered option may be selected once,
more than once, or not at all.

Questions 193–196

(A) DNA enveloped virus

(B) DNA nonenveloped virus

© RNA enveloped virus

(C) RNA nonenveloped virus

193.

Herpes simplex virus

194.

Human T-cell lymphotropic virus

195. Human papillomavirus

196. Rotavirus

Questions 197–201

(A) Attachment and penetration of virion

(B) Viral mRNA synthesis

© Viral protein synthesis

(C) Viral genome DNA synthesis

€ Assembly and release of progeny virus

197.

Main site of action of acyclovir

198. Main site of action of amantadine

199.

Function of virion polymerase of influenza virus

200. Main site of action of antiviral antibody

201.

Step at which budding occurs

Questions 202–206

(A) Poliovirus

(B) Epstein–Barr virus

© Prions

(C) Hepatitis B virus

€ Respiratory syncytial virus

202.

Part of the genome DNA is synthesized by the virion polymerase.

203.

The translation product of viral mRNA is a polyprotein that is

Cleaved to form virion structural proteins.

204.

It is remarkably resistant to ultraviolet light.

205. It causes latent infection of B cells.

206.

An envelope protein induces the formation of giant cells.

Questions 207–211

(A) Hepatitis A virus

(B) Hepatitis B virus

© Hepatitis C virus
 (C) Hepatitis D virus

207. Enveloped DNA virus that is transmitted by blood

208. Enveloped RNA virus that has the surface antigen of another

Virus

209. Enveloped RNA virus that is the most common cause of non-A,

Non-B hepatitis

210. Nonenveloped RNA virus that is transmitted by the fecal–oral

Route

211. Purified surface protein of this virus is the immunogen in a

Vaccine

Answers (Questions 193–211)

193. (A)

194. ©

195. (B)

196. (D)
197. (D)

198. (A)

199. (B)

200. (A)

201. €

202. (D)

203. (A)

204. ©

205. (B)

206. €

207. (B)

208. (D)

209. ©

210. (A)
211. (B)

159. (B)

160. (D)

161. ©

162. (B)

163. (D)

164. (D)

165. (A)

166. (B)

167. (D)

168. ©

169. (B)

170. (A)

171. (B)

172. ©
173. ©

174. (B)

175. ©

176. (B)

177. (D)

178. (A)

179. (D)

180. (D)

181. ©

182. (A)

183. (B)

184. (D)

185. (A)

186. ©
187. (A)

188. (B)

189. (B)

190. (D)

191. ©

192. (D)

DIRECTIONS (Questions 212–275): Select the ONE lettered answer

that is BEST in each question.

212.

Which one of the following outcomes is MOST common following a primary herpes simplex virus
infection?

(A) Complete eradication of virus and virus-infected cells

(B) Persistent asymptomatic viremia

(C) Establishment of latent infection

(D) Persistent cytopathic effect in infected cells

213. Each of the following pathogens is likely to establish chronic or

latent infection EXCEPT:

(A) Cytomegalovirus

(B) Hepatitis A virus

(C) Hepatitis B virus

(D) Herpes simplex virus

214.

Each of the following statements regarding poliovirus and its

vaccine is correct EXCEPT:

(A) Poliovirus is transmitted by the fecal–oral route.

(B) Pathogenesis by poliovirus primarily involves the death of

sensory neurons.

(C) The live, attenuated vaccine contains all three serotypes of

poliovirus.

(D) An unimmunized adult traveling to countries where there is

a known risk of being infected with poliovirus should receive

the inactivated vaccine.

215. Which one of the following strategies is MOST likely to induce

lasting intestinal mucosal immunity to poliovirus?

(A) Parenteral (intramuscular) immunization with inactivated

vaccine

(B) Oral administration of poliovirus immune globulin

(C) Parenteral immunization with live vaccine

(D) Oral immunization with live vaccine

216. Each of the following clinical syndromes is associated with

infection by picornaviruses EXCEPT:

(A) Myocarditis/pericarditis

(B) Hepatitis

(C) Mononucleosis

(D) Meningitis

217. Each of the following statements concerning rubella vaccine is

correct EXCEPT:

(A) The vaccine prevents reinfection, thereby limiting the spread

of virulent virus.

(B) The immunogen in the vaccine is killed rubella virus.

(C) The vaccine induces antibodies that prevent dissemination

of the virus by neutralizing it during the viremic stage.

(D) The incidence of both childhood rubella and congenital

rubella syndrome has decreased significantly since the

advent of the vaccine.

218. Each of the following statements concerning the rabies vaccine

for use in humans is correct EXCEPT:

(A) The vaccine contains live, attenuated rabies virus.

(B) If your patient is bitten by a wild animal (e.g., a skunk) the

rabies vaccine should be given.

(C) When the vaccine is used for postexposure prophylaxis,

rabies immune globulin should also be given.

(D) The virus in the vaccine is grown in human cell cultures, thus

decreasing the risk of allergic encephalomyelitis.

219. Each of the following statements concerning influenza is

correct EXCEPT:

(A) Major epidemics of the disease are caused by influenza A

viruses rather than influenza B and C viruses.

(B) Likely sources of new antigens for influenza A viruses are the

viruses that cause influenza in animals.

(C) Major antigenic changes (shifts) of viral surface proteins are

seen primarily in influenza A viruses rather than in influenza B

and C viruses.

(D) The antigenic changes that occur with antigenic drift are due

to reassortment of the multiple pieces of the influenza virus

genome.

220. Each of the following statements concerning the prevention and

treatment of influenza is correct EXCEPT:

(A) The inactivated influenza vaccine contains H1N1 virus, whereas

the live, attenuated influenza vaccine contains H3N2 virus.

(B) The vaccine is recommended to be given each year because

the antigenicity of the virus drifts.

(C) Oseltamivir (Tamiflu) is effective against both influenza A

and influenza B viruses.

(D) The main antigen in the vaccine that induces protective antibody is the hemagglutinin.

221.

A 6-month-old child develops a persistent cough and a fever.

Physical examination and chest X-ray suggest pneumonia.

Which one of the following organisms is LEAST likely to cause

this infection?

(A) Respiratory syncytial virus

(B) Adenovirus

(C) Parainfluenza virus

(D) Rotavirus

222.

A 45-year-old man was attacked by a bobcat and bitten repeatedly about the face and neck. The animal
was shot by a companion and brought back to the public health authorities. Once

you decide to immunize against rabies virus, how would you

proceed?

(A) Use hyperimmune serum only

(B) Use active immunization only

(C) Use hyperimmune serum and active immunization

(D) Use active immunization and follow this with hyperimmune

serum if adequate antibody titers are not obtained in the

patient’s serum

223. Each of the following statements concerning mumps is correct

EXCEPT:

(A) Mumps virus is a paramyxovirus and hence has a singlestranded RNA genome.
(B) Meningitis is a recognized complication of mumps.

(C) Mumps orchitis in children prior to puberty often causes

sterility.

(D) During mumps, the virus spreads through the bloodstream

(viremia) to various internal organs.

224. Each of the following statements concerning respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) is correct EXCEPT:

(A) RSV has a single-stranded RNA genome.

(B) RSV induces the formation of multinucleated giant cells.

(C) RSV causes pneumonia primarily in children.

(D) RSV infections can be effectively treated with acyclovir

225. The principal reservoir for the antigenic shift variants of influenza virus appears to be:

(A) People in isolated communities such as the Arctic

(B) Animals, specifically pigs, horses, and fowl

© Soil, especially in the tropics

(C) Sewage

226.

The role of an infectious agent in the pathogenesis of kuru was

BEST demonstrated by which one of the following observations?

(A) A 16-fold rise in antibody titer to the agent was observed.

 (B) The viral genome was isolated from infected neurons.

© Electron micrographs of the brains of infected individuals

Demonstrated intracellular structures resembling paramyxovirus nucleocapsids.

(C) The disease was serially transmitted to experimental animals.

227.

A 64-year-old man with chronic lymphatic leukemia develops

Progressive deterioration of mental and neuromuscular function. At autopsy the brain shows enlarged
oligodendrocytes

Whose nuclei contain naked, icosahedral virus particles. The

MOST likely diagnosis is:

(A) Herpes encephalitis

(B) Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease

© Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis

(C) Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy

€ Rabies
228. A 20-year-old man, who for many years had received daily

Injections of growth hormone prepared from human pituitary glands, develops ataxia, slurred speech,
and dementia. At

Autopsy the brain shows widespread neuronal degeneration, a

Spongy appearance due to many vacuoles between the cells, no

Inflammation, and no evidence of virus particles. The MOST

Likely diagnosis is:

(A) Herpes encephalitis

(B) Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease

© Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis

(C) Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy

€ Rabies

229. A 24-year-old woman has had fever and a sore throat for the

Past week. Moderately severe pharyngitis and bilateral cervical

Lymphadenopathy are seen on physical examination. Which one

Of the following viruses is LEAST likely to cause this picture?

(A) Norovirus

(B) Adenovirus

© Coxsackie virus

(C) Epstein–Barr virus

230.

Scrapie and kuru possess all of the following characteristics

EXCEPT:

(A) A histologic picture of spongiform encephalopathy

(B) Transmissibility to animals associated with a long incubation

Period

© Slowly progressive deterioration of brain function

(C) Prominent intranuclear inclusions in oligodendrocytes

231.

Each of the following statements concerning subacute sclerosing panencephalitis is correct EXCEPT:

(A) Immunosuppression is a frequent predisposing factor.

(B) Aggregates of helical nucleocapsids are found in infected

Cells.

© High titers of measles antibody are found in cerebrospinal

Fluid.

(C) Gradual progressive deterioration of brain function occurs.

232.

The slow virus disease that MOST clearly has immunosuppression as an important factor in its
pathogenesis is:

(A) Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy

(B) Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis

© Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
 (C) Kuru

233.

You think your patient may be in the “window period” of

Hepatitis B virus (HBV) infection because his blood tests for

HBs antigen and anti-HBs antibody are negative. Which one of

The following additional tests is MOST useful to establish that

He has been infected with HBV and is in the “window period.”

(A) HBe antigen

(B) Anti-HBc antibody

© Anti-HBe antibody

(C) Delta antigen

234.

Which one of the following is the MOST reasonable explanation

For the ability of hepatitis B virus to cause chronic infection?

 (A) Infection does not elicit the production of antibody.

(B) The liver is an “immunologically sheltered” site.

© Viral DNA can persist within the host cell.

(C) Many humans are immunologically tolerant to HBs antigen.

235.

The routine screening of transfused blood has greatly reduced

The problem of post-transfusion hepatitis. For which one of the

Following viruses has screening eliminated a large number of

Cases of post-transfusion hepatitis?

(A) Hepatitis A virus

(B) Hepatitis C virus

© Cytomegalovirus

(C) Epstein–Barr virus

236. A 35-year-old man addicted to intravenous drugs has been a

Carrier of HBs antigen for 10 years. He suddenly develops acute

Fulminant hepatitis and dies within 10 days. Which one of the following laboratory tests would
contribute MOST to a diagnosis?

(A) Anti-HBs antibody

(B) HBe antigen

© Anti-HBc antibody

(C) Anti-delta virus antibody

237.

Which one of the following is the BEST evidence on which to

Base a decisive diagnosis of acute mumps disease?

(A) A positive skin test

(B) A fourfold rise in antibody titer to mumps antigen

© A history of exposure to a child with mumps

(C) Orchitis in young adult male

238.

Varicella-zoster virus and herpes simplex virus share many

Characteristics. Which one of the following characteristics is

NOT shared?

(A) Inapparent disease, manifested only by virus shedding, is

Common

(B) Persistence of latent virus after recovery from acute disease

© Vesicular rash

(C) Linear, double-stranded DNA genome

239. Herpes simplex virus and cytomegalovirus share many features.

Which one of the following features is LEAST likely to be shared?

(A) Important cause of morbidity and mortality in the newborn

(B) Congenital abnormalities due to transplacental passage

(C) Important cause of serious disease in immunosuppressed Individuals

(D) Mild or in apparent infection

240. The eradication of smallpox was facilitated by several features

Of the virus. Which one of the following contributed LEAST to

Eradication?

(A) It has one antigenic type.

(B) Inapparent infection is rare.

© Administration of live vaccine reliably induces immunity.

(C) It multiplies in the cytoplasm of infected cells.

241.

Which one of the following statements concerning infectious

Mononucleosis is the MOST accurate?

(A) Multinucleated giant cells are found in the skin lesions.

(B) Infected T lymphocytes are abundant in peripheral blood.

© Isolation of virus is necessary to confirm the diagnosis.

(C) Infectious mononucleosis is transmitted by virus in saliva.

242. Which one of the following statements about genital herpes is

LEAST accurate?

(A) Acyclovir reduces the number of recurrent disease episodes

By eradicating latently infected cells.

(B) Genital herpes can be transmitted in the absence of apparent

Lesions.
© Multinucleated giant cells with intranuclear inclusions are

Found in the lesions.

(C) Initial disease episodes are generally more severe than recurrent episodes.

243. There are several influenza vaccines administered in the United

States. Regarding these vaccines, which one of the following

Statements is LEAST accurate?

(A) One of the vaccines contains purified peptide subunits of

Neuraminidase produced in yeast.

(B) One of the vaccines is an inactivated vaccine consisting of

Formaldehyde-treated influenza virions.

© One of the vaccines contains a temperature-sensitive mutant

Of influenza virus that replicates in the nose but not in the

Lungs.

(C) Influenza vaccines contain influenza A and B strains but not

C strains.

244. Which of the following is the MOST common lower respiratory

Pathogen in infants?

(A) Respiratory syncytial virus

(B) Adenovirus

© Rhinovirus

(C) Coxsackie virus

245. Which of the following conditions is LEAST likely to be caused

By adenoviruses?

(A) Conjunctivitis

(B) Pneumonia

© Pharyngitis

(C) Glomerulonephritis

246.

Regarding the serologic diagnosis of infectious mononucleosis,

Which one of the following is CORRECT?

(A) A heterophil antibody is formed that reacts with a capsid

Protein of Epstein–Barr virus.

(B) A heterophil antibody is formed that agglutinates sheep or

Horse red blood cells.

© A heterophil antigen occurs that cross-reacts with Proteus

OX19 strains.

(C) A heterophil antigen occurs following infection with

Cytomegalovirus.

247. Herpes simplex virus type 1 (HSV-1) is distinct from HSV-2 in

Several different ways. Which one of the following is the LEAST

Accurate statement?

(A) HSV-1 causes lesions above the umbilicus more frequently

Than HSV-2 does.

(B) Infection by HSV-1 is not associated with any tumors in

Humans.

© Antiserum to HSV-1 neutralizes HSV-1 much more effectively than HSV-2.

(C) HSV-1 causes frequent recurrences, whereas HSV-2 infection rarely recurs.

248.

Which one of the following statements about the src gene and

Src protein of Rous sarcoma virus is INCORRECT?

(A) The src protein inactivates a protein encoded by p53, a tumor

Suppressor gene.

(B) The src protein is a protein kinase that preferentially phosphorylates tyrosine in cellular
proteins.

© The src protein is required to maintain neoplastic transformation of infected cells.

(C) The viral src gene is derived from a cellular gene found in

Many vertebrate species.

249.

Each of the following statements supports the idea that cellular proto-oncogenes participate in
human carcinogenesis

EXCEPT:

(A) The c-abl gene is rearranged on the Philadelphia chromosome in myeloid leukemias and
encodes a protein with

Increased tyrosine kinase activity.

(B) The N-myc gene is amplified as much as 100-fold in many

Advanced cases of neuroblastoma.

© The receptor for platelet-derived growth factor is a transmembrane protein that exhibits
tyrosine kinase activity.

(C) The c-Ha-ras gene is mutated at specific codons in several

Types of human cancer.

250.

Each of the following statements concerning human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is correct
EXCEPT:

(A) Screening tests for antibodies are useful to prevent transmission of HIV through transfused
blood.

(B) The opportunistic infections seen in AIDS are primarily the

Result of a loss of cell-mediated immunity.

© Zidovudine (azidothymidine) inhibits the RNA-dependent

DNA polymerase.

(C) The presence of circulating antibodies that neutralize HIV is

Evidence that an individual is protected against HIV-induced

Disease.

251.

Which one of the following statements concerning viral meningitis and viral encephalitis is
CORRECT?

(A) Herpes simplex virus type 2 is the leading cause of viral Meningitis.

(B) Herpes simplex virus type 1 is an important cause of viral Encephalitis.

(C) The spinal fluid protein is usually decreased in viral Meningitis.

(D) The diagnosis of viral meningitis can be made by using the India ink stain on a sample of
spinal fluid.
 252. Each of the following statements is correct EXCEPT:

(A) Coxsackie viruses are enteroviruses and can replicate in both

The respiratory and gastrointestinal tracts.

(B) Influenza viruses have multiple serotypes based on hemagglutinin and

neuraminidase proteins located on the envelope

Surface.

© Flaviviruses are RNA enveloped viruses that replicate in animals as well as humans.

(E) Adenoviruses are RNA enveloped viruses that are an important cause of sexually
transmitted disease.

253.

Which one of the following statements concerning the prevention of viral disease is
CORRECT?

(A) Adenovirus vaccine contains purified penton fibers and is

Usually given to children in conjunction with polio vaccine.

(B) Coxsackie virus vaccine contains live virus that induces IgA,

Which prevents reinfection by homologous serotypes.

© Flavivirus immunization consists of hyperimmune serum

Plus a vaccine consisting of subunits containing the surface

Glycoprotein.

(C) One of the influenza virus vaccines contains killed virus that

Induces neutralizing antibody directed against the

Hemagglutinin.

254. Each of the following statements concerning hepatitis C virus

(HCV) and hepatitis D virus (HDV) is correct EXCEPT:

(A) HCV is an RNA virus that causes post-transfusion hepatitis.

(B) HDV is a defective virus that can replicate only in a cell that

Is also infected with hepatitis B virus.

© HDV is transmitted primarily by the fecal–oral route.

(C) People infected with HCV commonly become chronic carriers of HCV and are
predisposed to hepatocellular

Carcinoma.

255.

Each of the following statements concerning measles virus is

Correct EXCEPT:

(A) Measles virus is an enveloped virus with a single-stranded

RNA genome.

(B) One of the important complications of measles is

Encephalitis.

© The initial site of measles virus replication is the upper respiratory tract, from which it
spreads via the blood to the skin.

(C) Latent infection by measles virus can be explained by the

Integration of provirus into the host cell DNA.

256.

Each of the following statements concerning measles vaccine is

Correct EXCEPT:

(A) The vaccine contains live, attenuated virus.

(B) The vaccine should not be given at the same time as the

Mumps vaccine because the immune system cannot respond

To two viral antigens given at the same time.

© Virus in the vaccine contains only one serotype.

(C) The vaccine should not be given prior to 15 months of age

Because maternal antibodies can prevent an immune

Response.

257.

Each of the following statements concerning rubella is correct

EXCEPT:

(A) Congenital abnormalities occur primarily when a pregnant

Woman is infected during the first trimester.

(B) Women who say that they have never had rubella can, nevertheless, have neutralizing
antibody in their serum.

© In a 6-year-old child, rubella is a mild, self-limited disease

With few complications.

(C) Acyclovir is effective in the treatment of congenital rubella

Syndrome.

258. Each of the following statements concerning rabies and rabies

Virus is correct EXCEPT:

(A) The virus has a lipoprotein envelope and single-stranded

RNA as its genome.

(B) The virus has a single antigenic type (serotype).

© In the United States, dogs are the most common reservoir.

(C) The incubation period is usually long (several weeks) rather

Than short (several days).

259. Each of the following statements concerning arboviruses is

Correct EXCEPT:

(A) The pathogenesis of dengue hemorrhagic shock syndrome is

Associated with the heterotypic anamnestic response.

(B) Wild birds are the reservoir for encephalitis viruses but not

For yellow fever virus.

© Ticks are the main mode of transmission for both encephalitis viruses and yellow fever
virus.

(C) There is a live, attenuated vaccine that effectively prevents

Yellow fever.

260.

Each of the following statements concerning rhinoviruses is

Correct EXCEPT:

(A) Rhinoviruses are picornaviruses (i.e., small, nonenveloped

Viruses with an RNA genome).

(B) Rhinoviruses are an important cause of lower respiratory

Tract infections, especially in patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.

© Rhinoviruses do not infect the gastrointestinal tract because

They are inactivated by the acid pH in the stomach.

(C) There is no vaccine against rhinoviruses because they have

Too many antigenic types.

261.

Each of the following statements concerning herpes simplex

Virus type 2 (HSV-2) is correct EXCEPT:

(A) Primary infection with HSV-2 does not confer immunity to

Primary infection with HSV-1.

(B) HSV-2 causes vesicular lesions, typically in the genital area.

© HSV-2 can cause alterations of the cell membrane, leading to

Cell fusion and the formation of multinucleated giant cells.

(C) Recurrent disease episodes due to reactivation of latent

HSV-2 are usually more severe than the primary episode.

262.

Each of the following statements concerning Epstein–Barr virus

Is correct EXCEPT:

(A) Many infections are mild or inapparent.

(B) The earlier in life primary infection is acquired, the more

Likely the typical picture of infectious mononucleosis will be

Manifest.

© Latently infected lymphocytes regularly persist following an

Acute episode of infection.

(C) Infection confers immunity against second episodes of infectious mononucleosis.

263. Each of the following statements regarding rotaviruses is correct

EXCEPT:

(A) The rotavirus vaccine contains recombinant RNA polymerase as the immunogen.

(B) Rotaviruses are a leading cause of diarrhea in young Children.

(C) Rotaviruses are transmitted primarily by the fecal–oral route.

(D) Rotaviruses belong to the reovirus family, which have a
double-stranded, segmented RNA genome.
264. Each of the following statements concerning the antigenicity of
influenza A virus is correct EXCEPT:
(A) Antigenic shifts, which represent major changes in antigenicity, occur infrequently
and are due to the reassortment
of segments of the viral genome.
(B) Antigenic shifts affect both the hemagglutinin and the
neuraminidase.
(C) The worldwide epidemics caused by influenza A virus are
due to antigenic shifts.
(D) The protein involved in antigenic drift is primarily the internal ribonucleoprotein.
265. Each of the following statements concerning adenoviruses is
correct EXCEPT:
(A) Adenoviruses are composed of a double-stranded DNA
genome and a capsid without an envelope.
(B) Adenoviruses cause both sore throat and pneumonia.
(C) Adenoviruses have only one serologic type.
(D) Adenoviruses are implicated as a cause of tumors in animals
but not humans.
266. Each of the following statements concerning the prevention of
viral respiratory tract disease is correct EXCEPT:
(A) To prevent disease caused by adenoviruses, a live entericcoated vaccine that causes
asymptomatic enteric infection is
used in the military.
(B) To prevent disease caused by influenza A virus, an inactivated vaccine is available for
the civilian population.
(C) There is no vaccine available against respiratory syncytial
virus.
(D) To prevent disease caused by rhinoviruses, a vaccine containing purified capsid
proteins is used.
267.
Each of the following statements concerning herpesvirus
latency is correct EXCEPT:
(A) Exogenous stimuli can cause reactivation of herpesvirus
replication in latently-infected cells.
(B) During latency, antiviral antibody is not demonstrable in the
sera of infected individuals.
(C) Reactivation of latent herpesviruses is more common in
patients with impaired cell-mediated immunity than in
immunocompetent patients.
(D) Herpesvirus genome DNA persists in latently infected cells.
268. Each of the following statements concerning rhinoviruses is
correct EXCEPT:
(A) Rhinoviruses are the most common cause of the common
cold.
(B) Rhinoviruses grow better at 33°C than at 37°C; hence they
tend to cause disease in the upper respiratory tract rather
than the lower respiratory tract.
(C) Rhinoviruses are members of the picornaviruses family and
hence resemble poliovirus in their structure and replication.
(D) The immunity provided by the rhinovirus vaccine is excellent because there is only
one serotype.
269.
Which one of the following statements concerning poliovirus
infection is CORRECT?
(A) Congenital infection of the fetus is an important
complication.
(B) The virus replicates extensively in the gastrointestinal tract.
(C) A skin test is available to determine prior exposure to the
virus.
(D) Oseltamivir is an effective preventive agent.
270.
Each of the following statements concerning yellow fever is correct
EXCEPT:
(A) Yellow fever virus is transmitted by the Aedes aegypti mosquito in the urban form of
yellow fever.
(B) Infection by yellow fever virus causes significant damage to
hepatocytes.
(C) Nonhuman primates in the jungle are a major reservoir of
yellow fever virus.
(D) Acyclovir is an effective treatment for yellow fever.
271.
Which one of the following statements concerning mumps is
CORRECT?
(A) Although the salivary glands are the most obvious sites of
infection, the testes, ovaries, and pancreas can be involved as
well.
(B) Because there is no vaccine against mumps, passive immunization is the only means
of preventing the disease.
(C) The diagnosis of mumps is made on clinical grounds because
the virus cannot be grown in cell culture and serologic tests
are inaccurate.
(D) Second episodes of mumps can occur because there are two
serotypes of the virus and protection is type-specific.
272.
Many of the oncogenic retroviruses carry oncogenes closely
related to normal cellular genes, called proto-oncogenes. Which
one of the following statements concerning proto-oncogenes is
INCORRECT?
(A) Several proto-oncogenes have been found in mutant form in
human cancers that lack evidence for viral etiology.
(B) Several viral oncogenes and their progenitor proto-oncogenes
encode protein kinases specific for tyrosine.
(C) Some proto-oncogenes encode cellular growth factors and
receptors for growth factors.
(D) Proto-oncogenes are closely related to transposons found in
bacteria.
273.
Each of the following statements concerning human immunodeficiency virus is correct
EXCEPT:
(A) The CD4 protein on the T-cell surface is one of the receptors
for the virus.
(B) There is appreciable antigenic diversity in the envelope glycoprotein of the virus.
(C) One of the viral genes codes for a protein that augments the
activity of the viral transcriptional promoter.
(D) A major problem with testing for antibody to the virus is its
cross-reactivity with human T-cell lymphoma virus type I.
274.
Each of the following statements concerning human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is
correct EXCEPT:
(A) Patients infected with HIV typically form antibodies against
both the envelope glycoproteins (gp120 and gp41) and the
internal group-specific antigen (p24).
(B) HIV probably arose as an endogenous virus of humans
because HIV proviral DNA is found in the DNA of certain
normal human cells.
(C) Transmission of HIV occurs primarily by the transfer of
blood or semen in adults, and neonates can be infected at the
time of delivery.
(D) The Western blot test is more specific for HIV infection than
the ELISA is.

275.
Each of the following statements concerning hepatitis A virus
(HAV) is correct EXCEPT:
(A) The hepatitis A vaccine contains inactivated HAV as the
immunogen.
(B) HAV commonly causes asymptomatic infection in children.
(C) The diagnosis of hepatitis A is usually made by isolating
HAV in cell culture.
(D) Gamma globulin is used to prevent hepatitis A in exposed
persons.
Answers (Questions 212–275)
212. (C)
213. (B)
214. (B)
215. (D)
216. (C)
217. (B)
218. (A)
219. (D)
220. (A)
221. (D)
222. (C)
223. (C)
224. (D)
225. (B)
226. (D)
227. (D)
228. (B)
229. (A)
230. (D)
231. (A)
232. (A)
233. (B)
234. (C)
235. (B)
236. (D)
237. (B)
238. (A)
239. (B)
240. (D)
241. (D)
242. (A)
243. (A)
244. (A)
245. (D)
246. (B)
247. (D)
248. (A)
249. (C)
250. (D)
251. (B)
252. (D)
253. (D)
254. (C)
255. (D)
256. (B)
257. (D)
258. (C)
259. (C)
260. (B)
261. (D)
262. (B)
263. (A)
264. (D)
265. (C)
266. (D)
267. (B)
268. (D)
269. (B)
270. (D)
271. (A)
272. (D)
273. (D)
274. (B)
275. (C)
DIRECTIONS (Questions 276–294): Select the ONE lettered option
that is MOST closely associated with the numbered items. Each lettered
option may be selected once, more than once, or not at all.
Questions 276–279
(A) Yellow fever virus
(B) Rabies virus
(C) Rotavirus
(D) Rubella virus
(E) Rhinovirus
276. Diarrhea
277.
Jaundice
278. Congenital abnormalities
279. Encephalitis
Questions 280–284
(A) Bronchiolitis
(B) Meningitis
(C) Pharyngitis
(D) Shingles
(E) Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis
280. Adenovirus
281.
Measles virus
282.
Respiratory syncytial virus
283. Coxsackie virus
284. Varicella-zoster virus
Questions 285–289
(A) Adenovirus
(B) Parainfluenza virus
(C) Rhinovirus
(D) Coxsackie virus
(E) Epstein–Barr virus
285. Causes myocarditis and pleurodynia
286. Grows better at 33°C than 37°C
287. Causes tumors in laboratory rodents
288.
Causes croup in young children
289.
Causes infectious mononucleosis
Questions 290–294
(A) Hepatitis C virus
(B) Cytomegalovirus
(C) Human papillomavirus
(D) Dengue virus
(E) St. Louis encephalitis virus
290. It is implicated as the cause of carcinoma of the cervix.
291. Wild birds are an important reservoir.
292. It is an important cause of pneumonia in immunocompromised
patients.
293.
Donated blood containing antibody to this RNA virus should
not be used for transfusion.
294.
It causes a hemorrhagic fever that can be life-threatening.
Answers (Questions 276–294)
276. (C)
277. (A)
278. (D)
279. (B)
280. (C)
281. (E)
282. (A)
283. (B)
284. (D)
285. (D)
286. (C)
287. (A)
288. (B)
289. (E)
290. (C)
291. (E)
292. (B)
293. (A)
294. (D)

PARASITOLOGY
DIRECTIONS (Questions 326–352): Select the ONE lettered answer
that is BEST in each question.
326. Children at day care centers in the United States have a high rate
of infection with which one of the following?
(A) Ascaris lumbricoides
(B) Entamoeba histolytica
(C) Enterobius vermicularis
(D) Necator americanus
327.
The main anatomic location of Schistosoma mansoni adult
worms is:
(A) Lung alveoli
(B) Intestinal venules
(C) Renal tubules
(D) Bone marrow
328.
In malaria, the form of plasmodia that is transmitted from mosquito to human is the:
(A) Sporozoite
(B) Gametocyte
(C) Merozoite
(D) Hypnozoite
329. Which one of the following protozoa primarily infects
macrophages?
(A) Plasmodium vivax
(B) Leishmania donovani
(C) Trypanosoma cruzi
(D) Trichomonas vaginalis
330. Each of the following parasites has an intermediate host as part
of its life cycle EXCEPT:
(A) Trichomonas vaginalis
(B) Taenia solium
(C) Echinococcus granulosus
(D) Toxoplasma gondii
331. Each of the following parasites passes through the lung during
human infection EXCEPT:
(A) Strongyloides stercoralis
(B) Necator americanus
(C) Enterobius vermicularis
(D) Ascaris lumbricoides
332. Each of the following parasites is transmitted by flies EXCEPT:
(A) Schistosoma mansoni
(B) Onchocerca volvulus
(C) Trypanosoma gambiense
(D) Loa loa
333. Each of the following parasites is transmitted by mosquitoes
EXCEPT:
(A) Leishmania donovani
(B) Wuchereria bancrofti
(C) Plasmodium vivax
(D) Plasmodium falciparum
334.
Pigs or dogs are the source of human infection by each of the
following parasites EXCEPT:
(A) Echinococcus granulosus
(B) Taenia solium
(C) Ascaris lumbricoides
(D) Trichinella spiralis
335. Each of the following parasites is transmitted by eating inadequately cooked fish or
seafood EXCEPT:
(A) Diphyllobothrium latum
(B) Ancylostoma duodenale
(C) Paragonimus westermani
(D) Clonorchis sinensis
336.
Laboratory diagnosis of a patient with a suspected liver abscess
due to Entamoeba histolytica should include:
(A) Stool examination and indirect hemagglutination test
(B) Stool examination and blood smear
(C) Indirect hemagglutination test and skin test
(D) Xenodiagnosis and string test
337.
Each of the following statements concerning Toxoplasma gondii
is correct EXCEPT:
(A) Toxoplasma gondii can be transmitted across the placenta to
the fetus.
(B) Toxoplasma gondii can be transmitted by cat feces.
(C) Toxoplasma gondii can cause encephalitis in immunocompromised patients.
(D) Toxoplasma gondii can be diagnosed by finding trophozoites
in the stool.
338.
Each of the following statements concerning Giardia lamblia is
correct EXCEPT:
(A) Giardia lamblia has both a trophozoite and a cyst stage in its
life cycle.
(B) Giardia lamblia is transmitted by the fecal–oral route from
both human and animal sources.
(C) Giardia lamblia causes hemolytic anemia.
(D) Giardia lamblia can be diagnosed by the string test in which
a weighted string is swallowed and passes into the upper GI
tract.
339.
Each of the following statements concerning malaria is correct
EXCEPT:
(A) The female Anopheles mosquito is the vector.
(B) Early in infection, sporozoites enter hepatocytes.
(C) Release of merozoites from red blood cells causes periodic
fever and chills.
(D) The principal site of gametocyte formation is the human
gastrointestinal tract.
340.
Each of the following statements concerning Trichomonas vaginalis is correct EXCEPT:
(A) Trichomonas vaginalis is transmitted sexually.
(B) Trichomonas vaginalis can be diagnosed by visualizing the
trophozoite.
(C) Trichomonas vaginalis can be treated effectively with
metronidazole.
(D) Trichomonas vaginalis causes bloody diarrhea.
341.
Which one of the following agents can be used to prevent
malaria?
(A) Mebendazole
(B) Chloroquine
(C) Inactivated vaccine
(D) Praziquantel

342. Each of the following statements concerning Pneumocystis carinii is correct

EXCEPT:

(A) Pneumocystis carinii infections primarily involve the respiratory tract.

(B) Pneumocystis carinii can be diagnosed by seeing cysts in

Tissue.

© Pneumocystis carinii infections are symptomatic primarily in

Immunocompromised patients.

(C) Pneumocystis carinii symptomatic infections can be prevented by administering

penicillin orally.

343.

Each of the following statements concerning Trypanosoma

Cruzi is correct EXCEPT:

(A) Trypanosoma cruzi is transmitted by the reduviid bug.

(B) Trypanosoma cruzi occurs primarily in tropical Africa.

© Trypanosoma cruzi can be diagnosed by seeing amastigotes

In a bone marrow aspirate.

(C) Trypanosoma cruzi typically affects heart muscle, leading to

Cardiac failure.
344. Each of the following statements concerning sleeping sickness

Is correct EXCEPT:

(A) Sleeping sickness is caused by a trypanosome.

(B) Sleeping sickness is transmitted by tsetse flies.

© Sleeping sickness can be diagnosed by finding eggs in the

Stool.

(C) Sleeping sickness occurs primarily in tropical Africa.

345. Each of the following statements concerning kala-azar is correct

EXCEPT:

(A) Kala-azar is caused by Leishmania donovani.

(B) Kala-azar is transmitted by the bite of sandflies.

© Kala-azar occurs primarily in rural Latin America.

(C) Kala-azar can be diagnosed by finding amastigotes in bone

Marrow.

346.

Each of the following statements concerning Diphyllobothrium

Latum is correct EXCEPT:

(A) Diphyllobothrium latum is transmitted by undercooked fish.

(B) Diphyllobothrium latum has operculated eggs.

© Diphyllobothrium latum causes a megaloblastic anemia due

To vitamin B12 deficiency.

(C) Diphyllobothrium latum is a tapeworm that has a scolex with

A circle of hooks.

347.

Each of the following statements concerning hydatid cyst disease is correct EXCEPT:

(A) The disease is caused by Echinococcus granulosus.

(B) The cysts occur primarily in the liver.

© The disease is caused by a parasite whose adult form lives in

Dogs‘ intestines.

(C) The disease occurs primarily in tropical Africa.

348.

Each of the following statements concerning Schistosoma haematobium is correct

EXCEPT:

(A) Schistosoma haematobium is acquired by humans when cercariae penetrate the

skin.

(B) Snails are intermediate hosts of S. haematobium.

© Schistosoma haematobium eggs have no spine.

(C) Schistosoma haematobium infection predisposes to bladder

Carcinoma.

349. Each of the following statements concerning hookworm infection is correct

EXCEPT:

(A) Hookworm infection can cause anemia.

(B) Hookworm infection is acquired by humans when filariform

Larvae penetrate the skin.

© Hookworm infection is caused by Necator americanus.

(C) Hookworm infection can be diagnosed by finding the trophozoite in the stool.

350.

Each of the following statements concerning Ascaris lumbricoides is correct EXCEPT:

(A) Ascaris lumbricoides is one of the largest nematodes.

(B) Ascaris lumbricoides is transmitted by ingestion of eggs.

© Both dogs and cats are intermediate hosts of A. lumbricoides.

(C) Ascaris lumbricoides can cause pneumonia.

351.

Each of the following statements concerning Strongyloides

Stercoralis is correct EXCEPT:

(A) Strongyloides stercoralis is acquired by ingestion of eggs.

(B) Strongyloides stercoralis undergoes a free-living life cycle in

Soil.

© Migrating larvae of S. stercoralis induce a marked

Eosinophilia.

(C) Strongyloides stercoralis produces filariform larvae.

352.

Each of the following statements concerning trichinosis is correct EXCEPT:

(A) Trichinosis is acquired by eating undercooked pork.

(B) Trichinosis is caused by a protozoan that has both a trophozoite and a cyst stage in
its life cycle.

© Trichinosis can be diagnosed by seeing cysts in muscle

Biopsy specimens.

(C) Eosinophilia is a prominent finding.

Answers (Questions 326–352)

326. ©

327. (B)

328. (A)

329. (B)

330. (A)

331. ©

332. (A)

333. (A)

334. ©

335. (B)

336. (A)

337. (D)

338. ©

339. (D)

340. (D)

341. (B)
342. (D)

343. (B)

344. ©

345. ©

346. (D)

347. (D)

348. ©

349. (D)

350. ©

351. (A)

352. (B)

DIRECTIONS (Questions 353–386): Select the ONE lettered

Option that is MOST closely associated with the numbered items.

Each lettered option may be selected once, more than once, or not

At all.

Questions 353–360

(A) Dracunculus medinensis

(B) Loa loa

© Onchocerca volvulus

(C) Wuchereria bancrofti

€ Toxocara canis
353. Causes river blindness

354. Transmitted by mosquito

355. Acquired by drinking contaminated water

356.

Treated by extracting worm from skin ulcer

357.

Transmitted by the bite of a deer fly or mango fly

358. Causes visceral larva migrans

359. Causes filariasis

360. Acquired by ingestion of worm eggs

Questions 361–372

(A) Giardia lamblia

(B) Plasmodium vivax

© Taenia saginata

(C) Clonorchis sinensis

€ Enterobius vermicularis

361.

A trematode (fluke) acquired by eating undercooked fish

362.

A cestode (tapeworm) acquired by eating undercooked beef

363.

A nematode (roundworm) transmitted primarily from child to

Child

364. A protozoan transmitted by mosquito

365. A protozoan transmitted by the fecal–oral route

366. Primarily affects the biliary ducts

367. Causes diarrhea as the most prominent symptom

368. Causes perianal itching as the most prominent symptom

369. Causes fever, chills, and anemia

370. Can be treated with metronidazole

371. Can be treated with mebendazole or pyrantel pamoate

372. Can be treated with chloroquine and primaquine

Questions 373–386

(A) Entamoeba histolytica

(B) Plasmodium falciparum

© Taenia solium

(C) Paragonimus westermani

€ Strongyloides stercoralis

373. A cestode (tapeworm) acquired by eating undercooked pork

374. A nematode (roundworm) acquired when filariform larvae

Penetrate the skin

375. A protozoan transmitted by the fecal–oral route

376. A trematode (fluke) acquired by eating undercooked crab meat

377. A protozoan that infects red blood cells

378. Laboratory diagnosis based on finding eggs in sputum

379. Causes cysticercosis in humans

380. Chloroquine-resistant strains occur

381.

Autoinfection within humans, especially in immunocompromised patients

382.

Causes blackwater fever

383. Causes bloody diarrhea and liver abscesses

384. Produces “banana-shaped” gametocytes

385. Produces cysts with four nuclei

386. Has a scolex with suckers and a circle of hooks

Answers (Questions 353–386)

353. ©

354. (D)

355. (A)

356. (A)

357. (B)

358. €

359. (D)

360. €

361. (D)
362. ©

363. €

364. (B)

365. (A)

366. (D)

367. (A)

368. €

369. (B)

370. (A)

371. €

372. (B)

373. ©

374. €

375. (A)

376. (D)

377. (B)

378. (D)

379. ©

380. (B)

380. €

382. (B)

383. (A)
384. (B)

385. (A)

386. ©