Zibage June 2.0

Zibage Online Review
Test for Module 1 View Answers

Module 2
Module 3
Module 4
Module 5
Module 6
Module 1
1. Which of the following is the drug of choice to combat systemic

acidosis?
A. K2CO3
B. KHCO3
C. Na2CO3
D. NaHCO3
2. The aluminum silicate possesses antidiarrheal property:

A. attapulgite
B. bentonite
C. calamine
D. kaolin
E. pumice
3. Fehling's & Benedict's reagent, used to determine the presence of

reducing sugars contain which salt:
A. CaSO4
B. NiSO4
C. CuSO4
D. MgSO4
E. SrSO4
4. All of the following ions are present in the intracellular fluid except:
A. K+
B. Na+
C. Mg2+
D. HPO4-2
5. Amalgams are alloys of:
A. iron
B. copper
C. mercury
D. zinc
6. Most abundant and essential of all elements:

A. hydrogen
B. nitrogen
C. oxygen
D. silicon
7. A substance which takes up water or moisture but does not dissolve is:
A. dehydrating agent
B. deliquescent
C. efflorescent
D. hygroscopic
8. To kill microorganism in inanimate objects we simply used:

A. antiseptic
B. corrosive
C. disinfectant
D. sterilization
9. Which of the following is a native of hydrous magnesium silicate:

A. talc
B. pumice
C. kaolin
D. bentonite
10. Laughing gas is for _____ preparation

A. sedative
B. anesthetic
C. protective
D. antacid
11. Heavy water is:

A. H2O2
B. D2O
C. T3O
D. H2O
12. Benzalkonium chloride is a germicidal surfactant which is rendered

inactive in the presence of:
A. organic acid
B. gram negative organism
C. soaps (anion agents)
D. inorganic salts
13. Dimercaprol (BAL) acts as an antidote by a process called:

A. oxidation
B. reduction
C. chelation
D. absorption
E. adsorption
14. The following will react with water to form basic solution:
A. sulfur trioxide
B. ammonia
C. nitrogen dioxide
D. carbon dioxide
15. Science that deals with the methods of extracting the metal from their
ores:
A. thermochemistry
B. mineralogy
C. electrochemistry
D. metallurgy
16. Irritative phenomenon to the skin and mucus membrane exhibited by

rashes and headaches when excessive amount of Iodine is administered:
A. Hyperiodism
B. Iodism
C. Hypoiodism
D. Any of the given
E. None of the above
17. Which of the following Group 0 elements is recovered from the

radioactive decay of radium:
A. helium
B. radon
C. krypton
D. argon
18. Which of the following elements imparts a characteristic violet color to

non-luminous flame?
A. sodium
B. ferric
C. potassium
D. copper
19. The solubility of a chemical in a given solvent is influenced by many

factors. Which of the following physicochemical constants may not be useful
in predicting the solubility of a chemical?
A. pH of a solution
B. dielectric constants
C. pKa of the chemical
D. solubility parameters
E. valence
20. A disease found in Japan caused by drinking water contaminated with
cadmium:
A. Minamata disease
B. Itai-itai disease
C. Crohn's disease
D. Addison's disease
21. Different nuclides having the same mass number:

A. isotopes
B. isotones
C. isomer
D. isobars
22. What is the effect of adding NH4Cl to a solution of NH4OH?

A. increased [OH-] conc.
B. decreased [OH-] conc.
C. increased NH4OH conc.
D. conc. of NH4OH remains the same
23. This ion produces violet color to the non-luminous flame.

A. calcium
B. sodium
C. barium
D. potassium
24. A dentrifice which contains formalin and reduces the sensitivity of

teeth to heat and cold.
A. Sensodyne
B. Pumice
C. Thermodent
D. None of the above
25. Mechanism of antibacterial action of potassium permanganate
solutions.
A. protein precipitation
B. astringent
C. halogenation
D. oxidation
26. White precipitate is also known as:

A. calomel
B. ammoniated mercury
C. calcium oxide
D. zinc sulfide
27. Radioactive strontium is used as a:

A. diagnostic for thyroid function
B. diagnostic to scan bones
C. media for kidney imaging
D. suppressant for aplastic anemia
28. Antimony potassium tartrate is no longer used as an emetic because it

is:
A. unstable
B. too reactive in vivo
C. insoluble
D. toxic
29. What solution is used to differentiate Group I cations?

A. ammonium sulfide
B. hydrogen sulfide
C. hydrochloric acid
D. ammonium hypophosphate
30. In what concentration of silver nitrate is used as wet dressing for

persons suffering from third degree burns?
A. 1%
B. 0.5%
C. 5%
D. 1.5%
31. Stabilizer used for silver protein compounds:

A. disodium calcium EDTA
B. penicillamine
C. all of the above
D. none of these
32. Continued use of hydrogen peroxide as mouth wash may cause:

A. green tongue
B. black tongue
C. hairy tongue
D. scaly tongue
33. Addition of diphenylcarbazide reagent to this cation produces a violet-

red color.
A. Magnesium
B. Potassium
C. Calcium
D. Barium
34. Dithizone test for zinc forms:

A. red color extractable
B. green color extractable
C. white precipitate
D. yellow precipitate
35. Vleminckx's solution is prepared by boiling sublimed sulfur and:

A. lime
B. a and d
C. calcium carbonate
D. calcium oxide
36. Metallic or black phosphorus is heating phosphorus with:

A. Lead
B. Sodium
C. Potassium
D. Manganese
37. Equal amounts of two isomers are called:

A. Levorotatory
B. Dextrorotatory
C. Racemic mixture
D. Optically active
38. Reduction occurs in:

A. Cathode
B. Anode
C. Both
D. None of these
39. Magnesium nitrate reagent contains:

A. MgCl2
B. Mg(OH)2
C. NH4Cl
D. All of the above
40. Insoluble phosphates:

A. Al
B. Ca
C. K
D. Pb
41. Reverse of hydration:
A. deliquescence
B. efflorescence
C. hygroscopy
D. drying
42. It decolorizes potassium permanganate and iodine solutions:

A. peroxides
B. thiocyanates
C. thiosulfates
D. dichromates
43. Element name signifies "sons of the earth":

A. Zirconium
B. Tantalum
C. Titanium
D. Platinum
44. Priestly discovered oxygen and called it:

A. oxygen
B. empyreal air
C. mephitic air
D. dephlogisticated air
45. Mercury thermometers for use at elevated temperatures have space

containing:
A. helium
B. nitrogen
C. gallium
D. xenon
46. First radioactive element discovered by Curie:

A. uranium
B. polonium
C. radium
D. technetium
47. It was once used as an antileukemic agent.

A. antimony potassium tartrate
B. titanium dioxide
C. potassium arsenite solution
D. sodium thiocyanate
48. Employed as systemic acidifier:

A. sodium bicarbonate
B. ammonium chloride
C. calcium chloride
D. b and c
49. Chalcogens are:

A. Group V
B. Group III
C. Group IV
D. Group VI
50. Dimethylglyoxime reagent is specific for:

A. magnesium
B. nickel
C. cobalt
D. copper
51. Concentration of bentonite in Bentonite Magma preparation is:

A. 10%
B. 5%
C. 15%
D. 2.5%
52. Fuller's earth is:
A. hydrated aluminum magnesium silicate
B. floridin
C. aluminum magnesium silicate
D. b and c
53. Scandium was once known as:

A. eka-boron
B. eka-gallium
C. eka-aluminum
D. gadolinite
54. Hatchett's Brown is:

A. Cuprous citrate
B. Cuprous chloride
C. Ammonium chloride
D. Potassium chlorate
55. Movement of an object against some force:

A. work
B. energy
C. free energy
D. b and c
56. Which of the following is/are characteristics of an ideal antiseptic?

o I. rapid and sustained lethal action against microorganisms
o II. retain activity in the presence of body fluids
o III. high surface tension
o I, II and III
o I and III only
o II and III only
o I and II only
o I only
EEE. The factors that contribute to an extremely long serum half-life of
Sterile Ceftriaxone Disodium, USP
o I. high fraction of protein binding in the plasma

o II. slow urinary excretion
o III. it is not metabolized in vivo
o I only
o II only
o I and II
o I and III
o III only
EEE. Macrolide antibiotics have these common characteristics:
o I. large lactone ring

o II. ketone group
o III. a glycosidically linked amino sugar
o IV. an asymmetric carbon atoms in the acylamidopropanediol
chain.
o I only
o II only
o I - III
o II and III
o I-IV
EEE. It is used primarily for treating polycythemia vera:

o Hexamethylamine
o Asparaginase
o Tamoxifen
o Pipobroman
o Hydroxyurea
FFF. An antiviral drug which is useful in the prevention but not the
treatment of influenza caused by Influenza A virus:
o Amantadine
o Idoxuridine
o Trifluridine
o Vidarabine
o Acyclovir
GGG. Recommended for the management of adult patients with

symptomatic HIV infection who have history of confirmed Pneumocystis
carinii pneumonia:
o Amantadine
o Zidovudine
o Idoxuridine
o Trifluridine
o Vidarabine
HHH. Mechanism of action of Thiabendazole:

o irreversibly blocks glucose uptake in susceptible heminths
o inhibits the helminth-specific enzyme fumarate reductase
o prevention of conversion of inosine monophosphate to xanthine
monophosphate
o irreversibly inactivates ornithine decarboxylase
o exerts anticholinergic effect causing paralysis and expulsion by
peristalsis
III. The chemical CH3CH2COOCH3 is an example of what type of

organic compound?
o Ketone
o Ester
o Ether
o Aldehyde
o Acid anhydride
JJJ. Stearic acid salts are useful in the drug industry as tablet
lubricants. What is the chemical formula of stearic acid?
o CH3(CH2)6COOH
o CH3(CH2)8COOH
o CH3(CH2)12COOH
o CH3(CH2)14COOH
o CH3(CH2)16COOH
KKK. Which of the following compound is considered as a Grignard

Reagent?
o CH3CH2OH
o CH3Li
o CH3MgCl
o NaHSO3
o HCN
LLL. Which of the following drugs is also known as 1,3-

dimethylxanthine?
o Theophylline
o Caffeine
o Theobromine
o Pentoxifylline
o Doxofylline
MMM. Which of the following drugs useful for attention-deficit

hyperactivity disorder is commercially available as the threo-racemate form,
which is about 400 times more potent than its erythro-racemate form?
o Phenmetrazine
o Amphetamine
o Methylphenidate
o Phentermine
o Fenfluramine
NNN. Which of the following agents is considered as a selective

reversible inhibitor of MAO-A (RIMA)?
o Pargyline
o Isocarboxazid
o Selegiline
o Tranylcypromine
o Moclobemide
OOO. Which of the following drugs is an anion-exchanger?

o Colestipol
o Nicotinic acid
o Sitosterol
o Probucol
o Clofibrate
PPP. Which functional moiety in the Aspirin molecule is responsible for

irreversibly inhibiting the cyclo-oxygenase enzyme of platelets leading to
inhibition of platelet aggregation?
o carboxylate
o salicylate
o acetyl
o phenyl
o thiol
QQQ. Which portion of the general structure of the local anesthetics is

important in the ability of the drug to penetrate through the cell membrane
of the axon?
o Lipophilic center
o Ester group
o Amide group
o Hydrophilic center
o Bridge alkyl group
RRR. The first clinically useful muscarinic antagonists have
conformations resembling acetylcholine and can be represented by the
structural formula given below:
Which of the following moieties is an absolute necessity for the

antimuscarinic activity?
o R1 and R2 being carbocyclic or heterocyclic
o X moiety being an ester functional group
o X substituent being an ether oxygen and the amine nitrogen
being 2 carbons
o N substituent being a quarternary amine
o Distance between the ring substituted carbon
SSS. Clinically useful inhibitors of the Angiotensin Converting Enzyme

(ACE inhibitors) contain which of the following zinc-binding moieties?
o I. Sulfhydryl
o II. Dicarboxylate
o III. Phosphonate
o I only
o III only
o I and II
o II and III
o I, II, and III
EEE. The generic name of new Merthiolate is:

o Chorhexidine gluconate
o Thimerosal
o Mexachlorophene
o Benzalkonium chloride
FFF. Mechanism of action of Quinolones:

o injury to plasma membrane
o inhibition of DNA gyrase
o protein synthesis inhibition
o production of toxic free radicals
GGG. Mechanism of action of Mebendazole:
o paralysis due to excessive loss of calcium
o unknown mechanism of action
o decreased glucose uptake
o phagocytic attack on worms
HHH. A necessary precursor of visual pigment is:

o tocopherol
o retinal
o ergosterol
o retinol
III. Barbiturates containing a sulfur atom are usually:

o short acting
o intermediate acting
o long acting
o ultra short acting
JJJ. Zantac is:

o cimetidine
o famotidine
o ranitidine
o nizatidine
KKK. Which of the following actions of histamine is not blocked by H1

antagonist:
o increase in salivary excretion
o increase in gastric secretions
o vasodilation
o itchiness
LLL. Liquefied phenol, USP:
o phenol containing 10% water
o phenol as surgical antiseptic
o carbol-fuchsin solution
o treatment of tinea infection
MMM. The drug used in all types of tuberculosis is:

o ethambutol
o cycloserin
o streptomycin
o isoniazid
o p-aminosalicylic acid
NNN. A very common adverse reaction of alkylating agents used in the

treatment of cancer:
o alopecia
o miosis
o mydriasis
o ataxia
OOO. A loop or high-ceiling diuretic:

o Furosemide
o Sorbitol
o Spirinolactone
o Hydrochlorothiazide
PPP. The generic name of Nubain:

o Nalbuphine
o Naloxone
o Pentazocine
o Methadone
QQQ. One of the reasons why aminoglycosides are frequently
combined with other antibiotics in treating certain infections is to:
o prevent drug infections
o prevent drug emergence of resistant bacteria
o increase renal excretion
o increase oral absorption
o decrease systemic toxicities
RRR. The scientist who can lay claim to the title of Father of
Chemotherapy:
o Robert Koch
o Joseph Lister
o Paul Ehrlich
o Alexander Fleming
o Giuseppe Brotzu
SSS. Long term use of tetracyclines in pregnant women should be

avoided due to several reasons. Which of these is not true?
o they chelate calcium ions
o they may predispose to discoloration of deciduous teeth in the
infant
o they are toxic to the fetus and may cause abortion
o they can cause yellow atrophy of the liver in the mother
o they get deposited in growing bones
TTT. Class I antiarrhythmic drugs result in decrease in heart rate of

the accelerated heart and usually reduce the rate of conduction of cardiac
impulse. They include the following, except:
o quinidine
o procainamide
o disopyramide
o phenytoin
o amiodarone
UUU. Which of the following drugs does not reduce blood cholesterol
level?
o clofibrate
o epinephrine
o dextrothyroxine
o cholestyramine
o colestipol
VVV. A monoamine oxidase inhibitor used as an antidepressant drug:

o amitryptiline
o thioridazine
o clozapine
o tranylcypromine
o fluoxetine
WWW. An antibiotic most commonly used in topical preparations:

o clotrimazole
o vidarabine
o griseofulvin
o bacitracin
o foscarnet
XXX. This is the process utilized by Florey and Chain in isolating

penicillin:
o freeze-drying
o extraction
o chromatography
o x-ray
o distillation
YYY. Which is not a chelating agent?

o 8-Methoxyquinoline
o 8-Mercaptoquinoline
o 8-Hydroxyquinoline
o 4-AZA-Oxime
ZZZ. Also known as solvent shift:

o facilitated transport
o ion-pair transport
o bulk transport
o passive diffusion
o none of the above
AAAA. Agents that facilitate the evacuation of bowels:

o anti-motility agents
o cathartics
o astringents
o antacids
o none of the above
BBBB. A bright red dye that was found to create remarkable cures
of streptococcal infections:
o prontosil
o methyl red
o both
o none
CCCC. A dye used in vital nerve staining:

o malachite green
o gentian violet
o methylene blue
o basic fuchsin
DDDD. Pharmacologic effects of the classic antihistamines include all of

the following, except:
o sedation with low doses
o inhibition of gastric acid secretion
o an antipruritic effect
o drying of salivary and bronchial secretion
EEEE. An example of a commercial product that is pro-drug:

o Lasix
o Geocillin
o Morphine
o Valium
Designed as an online review tool.
Z's Online Reviewer β.

01

Module 1
Module 3
Module 4
Module 5
Module 6
Module 2
1. Which of the following structures is/are present in the nucleus?

A. nuclear membrane
B. nucleoli
C. chromatin
D. all of the above
2. Which carbon in the sugars is responsible for the difference between the two
nucleic acids?
A. carbon-1
B. carbon-2
C. carbon-3
D. none of the above
3. DNA polymerase type has a 5' to 3' polymerase activity and 3' to 5'
proofreading exonuclease activity:
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV
4. Which of the following is/are point mutations?

A. insertion
B. deletion
C. transition
D. all of the above
E. only A and B
5. The result of a point mutation that occurs when UCA(coding for serine) is
converted to UCU (also coding for serine) is called:
A. nonsense mutation
B. missense mutation
C. silent mutation
D. any of the above
6. Glutamine and asparagine amino acids are:

A. acidic
B. basic
C. neutral
D. nonpolar
7. One way of classifying proteins is through their physical properties. Which of

the following is soluble in-water and salt solutions, and has no distinctive amino
acids.
A. prolamine
B. globulin
C. albumin
D. histones
8. Casein in milk and ovovitellin in egg yolk. Are examples of what type of
conjugated proteins?
A. phosphoproteins
B. nucleoproteins
C. glycoproteins
D. chromoproteins
9. What diet would be you advice the child's mother with PKU to give to her
baby?
A. rich in tyrosine, lacks phenylalanine
B. equal quantities of tyrosine and phenylalanine
C. rich in phenylalanine, lacks tyrosine
D. regular infant formula
10. What important neurotransmitter uses tryptophan as its precursor?
A. histamine
B. acetylcholine
C. norepinephrine
D. serotonin
11. This immunoglobulin is responsible for mediating hypersensitivity by causing

the release of mediators from mast cells and basophils upon exposure to antigens
or allergens.
A. IgA
B. IgG
C. IgD
D. IgE
12. This term refers to an intact enzyme with bound co-factor.

A. holoenzyme
B. apoenzyme
C. zymogen
D. prosthetic group
13. This test is used to identify the presence of peptide linkages.

A. Ninhydrin
B. Biuret
C. Hopkin's Cole
D. Sakaguchi
14. In all phosphorylation reactions, this metal is an essential cofactor.

A. Cu
B. Fe
C. Mg
D. Al
15. This is the main pathway for carbohydrate catabolism in all human tissues.
A. Glycolysis
B. Glycogenolysis
C. Fructose catabolism
D. Galactose catabolism
16. Which of the following enzymes converts hydrogen peroxide to water?
A. superoxide dismutase
B. catalase
C. cytochrome reductase
D. cytochrome oxidase
17. Which of the following statements is true when fats and fixed oils are heated
strongly?
A. fats liquefy
B. oils become less viscous
C. decomposition occurs accompanied by the production of acrid
flammable vapors
D. saponification occurs
18. These are lipids that contain carbohydrate (galactose or glucose), one fatty
acid and sphingosine, but no phosphoric acid or glycerol.
A. cerebrosides
B. gangliosides
C. cytolipins
D. any of the above
19. This is the deposition of lipid plaques on the lining of the arteries.
A. Atherosclerosis
B. Gaucher's disease
C. Tay Sach's disease
D. Hyperlipoproteinemia
20. The type of enzyme inhibition reaction whereby the inhibitor competes with
substrate at the active site:
A. competitive inhibition
B. noncompetitive inhibition
C. reversible inhibition
D. incomplete inhibition
21. Milk curdling enzyme present in gastric juice of infants:

A. pepsin
B. rennin
C. trypsin
D. maltase
22. Insulin is usually classified as:

A. protein
B. enzyme
C. hormone
D. carbohydrates
23. The deficiency of this hormone causes diabetes mellitus:

A. progesterone
B. testosterone
C. insulin
D. glucagons
24. Protein digestion starts in the:

A. mouth
B. stomach
C. intestine
D. pancreas
25. The conversion of an amino acid to sugar is:

A. gluconeogenesis
B. glycolysis
C. glycogenesis
D. glycogenolysis
26. Glucose, amino acid and fatty acid enter the citric acid cycle by their
conversion into:
A. pyruvate
B. acetyl CoA
C. acetoacetyl CoA
D. palmitic acid
27. A synthetic DNA is called:
A. replicated DNA
B. plasmid
C. Gene
D. recombinant DNA
28. The process of producing fats from acetyl Co-A is called:

A. glycolysis
B. lipogenesis
C. glycogenolysis
D. glucogenesis
29. The positive indication for the presence of glycerol in acrolein test:
A. yellow colored solution
B. black markings in filter paper
C. silver mirror formed in the test tube
D. play of colors from blue to shades of red
30. A mixed triglyceride contains:

A. three similar fatty acids esterified with glycerol
B. two similar fatty acids esterified with glycerol
C. three different fatty acids esterified with glycerol
D. all of the above choices
31. The reagent present in Molisch test which is responsible for the dehydration
reaction:
A. sodium carbonate
B. magnesium stearate
C. sulfuric acid
D. NaOH
32. The following proteins are present in egg white, except:

A. ovomucin
B. ovoglobulin
C. albumin
D. osseomucoid
33. Transamination is:
A. conversion of amino acid to hydroxy acid
B. loss of ammonia from amino acid
C. conversion of amino acids to keto acids
D. formation of ammonium salt from ammonia
34. The amino acid that is an important precursor of hemoglobin is:

A. alanine
B. proline
C. glycine
D. cysteine
35. When starches are heated , they produce:

A. sugars
B. glycogen
C. dextrins
D. disaccharides
36. The monosaccharide most rapidly absorbed from the small intestine is:
A. glucose
B. fructose
C. mannose
D. galactose
37. A normal value of glucose in the blood:

A. 100 to 200 mg%
B. 80-120 mg%
C. 50-75 mg%
D. 200-300 mg%
38. The principal site of glucose production in the human body is the :
A. blood
B. liver
C. pituitary gland
D. small intestine
39. Glycolipids found in high concentrations in the brain and nerve cells
especially in the myelin sheath:
A. lecithin
B. cephalins
C. cerebrosides
D. sphingolipids
40. The sugar that yields only glucose when hydrolyzed is:
A. galactose
B. maltose
C. fructose
D. sucrose
41. This test detects the presence of two or more peptide bonds:
A. Ninhydrin
B. Fehling's
C. Tollen's
D. Biuret
42. Photosynthesis is a process involved in the manufacture of

A. carbohydrates
B. fats
C. proteins
D. all of the above
43. The biochemical function of hemoglobin is:

A. defense
B. regulatory
C. structural
D. oxygen transport
44. Hydrolysis of nucleoproteins will yield:

A. Nucleic acids and histones
B. nucleic acid and sugar
C. nucleic acid and purines
D. nucleic acid and pyrimidines
45. The steps of central states:

A. replication, translation and transcription
B. replication, transcription and transmission
C. replication, transcription and translation
D. transcription, translation and replication
46. In the secondary structure of RNA:

A. adenine will always pair with thymine
B. cytosine will always pair with thymine
C. cytosine will always pair with uracil
D. adenine willialways pair with uracil
47. Amino acid at an isoelectric point exists as:

A. acid
B. base
C. zwitterions
48. Normal pH of the blood:

A. 7.4 - 7.45
B. 6.6 - 6.9
C. 5.5 - 6.6
D. 4.8 - 8
49. Known as good cholesterol:

A. HDL
B. ergocalciferol
C. ACTH
D. LDL
50. What is the stage of glucose oxidation that requires oxygen?

A. anaerobic
B. aerobic
C. catabolic
D. anabolic
51. This is the final step in the preparation of drugs for the commercial market,
consisting of the removal of extraneous matter.
A. Packaging
B. Preservation
C. Garbling
D. Harvesting
52. Natural relationship existing among plants and among animals.

A. taxonomy
B. morphology
C. phylogeny
D. classification
53. Which of the following pairs is correct?

A. reserpine-hypotensive
B. sambong-stomachic
C. bayabas-diuretic
D. lagundi-analgesic
54. A pharmaceutic aid in the preparation of collodion and flexible collodion.

A. methylcellulose phthalate
B. soluble guncotton
C. powdered cellulose
D. cellulose acetate
55. Which of the following is a source of sucrose?

A. Acer saccharum
B. Bos taurus
C. Prunus cerasus
D. Sorbus aucuparia
56. This is an example of microbial gum.
A. pectin
B. guar gum
C. acacia
D. dextran
57. Which anthraquinone glycoside is not employed as cathartic?

A. Chrysazin
B. Rheum
C. Buckthorn bark
D. Chrysarobin
58. What insect produces the excresence Nutgall?

A. Quercus infectoria
B. Cantharis vesicatoria
C. Cynips tinctoria
D. Rhus chinensis
59. What is the primary form of vitamin D encountered in zoologic species?

A. cholecalciferol
B. ergocalciferol
C. dihydrotachysterol
D. 7-dehydrocholesterol
60. Which of the following methods is suitable in obtaining small amounts of

volatile oils in plant parts such flower petals?
A. expression
B. enfleurage
C. ecuelle
D. destructive distillation
61. The dental analgesic that is chemically, 4-allyl-2-methoxyphenol is commonly

known as:
A. myrosin
B. sinigrin
C. eugenol
D. salicin
62. Which of the following sources of volatile oils is used as an antianxiety and
sleep aid?
A. feverfew
B. gingko
C. valerian
D. taxol
63. It is also known as may apple or mandrake and is employed as an antimitotic

and caustic.
A. podophyllum
B. jalap
C. eriodictyon
64. Example(s) of commercial stearoptenes.

A. thymol
B. camphor
C. menthol
D. all of the above
E. A and B
65. A skeletal muscle relaxant from South American Arrow poison:

A. tubocurarine chloride
B. atracurium besylate
C. physostigmine
D. sanguinarine
E. berberine
66. Which of the following statements is true regarding decaffeinized coffee?

A. It normally contains 0.08% of caffeine.
B. It normally contains 0.8% of caffeine.
C. It has a higher price than ordinary caffeine.
D. Both A and C
E. Both B and C
67. Which of the following is the carcinogenic constituent found in "nganga"?
A. tannin
B. glycoside
C. alkaloid
D. volatile oil
68. Idioblasts are cells containing a large amount of _____.

A. calcium silicate crystals
B. calcium chloride crystals
C. calcium oxalate crystals
D. calcium sulfate crystals
69. Groups of compounds that makes wood become darker in color:

A. resins
B. tannins
C. all of the above
70. Anthraquinone derivatives are often colored:

A. red
B. orange
C. orange-red
D. blue
71. _____ is a vesicating principle from Spanish flies.

A. Cantharidin
B. Picrocrocin
C. Crocin
D. Picretin
72. Tannins are characterized as:

A. amorphous, polyhydroxy-phenolic compounds
B. possessing an astringent taste
C. none of the above
D. A and B only
E. all of the above
73. Volatile oils are isolated by _____.
A. solvent extraction
B. destructive distillation
C. steam distillation
D. all of the above
E. none of the above
74. Isoprenoids are composed of _____.

A. steroids
B. carotenoids
C. rubber
D. all of the above
75. Resins are classified as:

A. basic resin
B. acid resin
C. neutral resin
D. mixed resin
76. Everything is true about pyroxylin, except:

A. obtained by the action of nitric and sulfuric acids in cotton
B. a mixture of cellulose nitrates
C. a pharmaceutic aid
E. all of the above
77. Cellulose, lignin and suberin are regarded as:

A. Pharmaceutically active constituents
B. Pharmacologically active constituents
C. Inert constituents
D. Active constituents
78. The milk left after separation of the cream.

A. Butter
B. Butter milk
C. Skimmed milk
D. Condensed milk
79. The excrescence obtained from the young twigs of Quercus infectoria.
A. Tannic acid
B. Quercetin
C. Nutgall
D. Psoralens
80. The following statements pertain to Morphine, except:

A. The most important of the opium alkaloids.
B. The molecule contains an aldehyde and ketone group.
C. Morphine is a phenanthrene.
D. Morphine is classed as narcotic analgesics
81. Ergosterol is:

A. Principal sterol in soybeans
B. Known as pro vitamin D2
C. Widely distributed throughout the plant kingdom
D. One of the chief constituents of lanolin
82. It is locally called "maguey":

A. Enatada phaseoloides (L.) Merr.
B. Nerium indicum Mill.
C. Cassia alata L.
D. Aloe vera L.
E. Agave cantala Rox
83. Sandalwood Oil is obtained from which plant part?

A. fruit
B. dried, unripe fruit
C. rhizome
D. heartwood
E. dried, root bark
84. Tangled oil is obtained from which plant part?
A. leaf and flowering tops
B. leaves
C. flower buds
D. fruit
E. dried, unripe fruit
85. The given scientific name of this local poisonous plant: "kasuy"

A. Aleurites moluccana (L.) Will
B. Calophyllum inophyllum L.
C. Jatropha curcas L.
D. Anacardium occidantale L.
E. Colocasia esculenta (L.) Schott and Endl.
86. Which plant material is associated with "Yam"?

A. amygdalin
B. emodin
C. steroidal saponin
D. mannihotoxin
E. sinigrin
87. A substance obtained from the lipid fraction of soybeans and can be used as
a precursor for steroidal hormones.
A. cholesterol
B. ergosterol
C. prostaglandin
D. stigmasterol
88. If Indian hemp is cannabis; then black Indian hemp is:

A. convallaria
B. podophyllum
C. benzoin
D. apocymine
E. red squill
89. These are lipid metabolites formed in the body of animals from unsaturated
fatty acids of the diet:
A. carnauba
B. bayberry
C. copaiba balsam
D. prostaglandin
E. lanolin
90. In the enfleurage method, the fatty product impregnated with the floral odor
is called:
A. absolutes
B. terpenes
C. concretes
D. pomade
91. Chemical classes of sapogenin include/s the following:

A. steroid
B. triterpenoid
C. a and b
92. Specific glycoside obtained from Coccus cacti:

A. carminic acid
B. tannic acid
C. ratanhiaphenol
D. bergapten
93. A type of extraction used in the preparation of tincture or fluidextracts:

A. percolation
B. digestion
C. infusion
D. maceration
94. The polyglucan used as a plasma expander and is formed from sucrose by
the action of the enzyme transglucosylase:
A. inulin
B. dextran
C. gelatin
D. hetastarch
95. Plant sources of tropane alkaloids except:

A. belladonna
B. stramonium
C. hyoscyamus
D. senna
96. The following are differences of hydrolyzable from non-hydrolyzable tannins

except:
A. hydrolyzable tannins form blue-black precipitates with ferric chloride
B. non-hydrolyzable tannins decolorize potassium permanganate
C. hydrolyzable tannins show no visible result with bromine water
D. none of the above choices
97. Contact insecticide:

A. rotenone
B. pyrethrin
C. nicotine
D. all of the above
98. The non-sugar portion of a glycoside is known as:

A. glycone
B. genin
C. inactive portion
D. active
99. Constituent of Claviceps purpurea employed as a uterine muscle relaxant.

A. Pilocarpine
B. Ergotoxine
C. Ergotamine tartarate
D. Ergonovine maleate
100. A method of evaluating plants according to the type of constituent present:

A. pharmacological
B. pharmaceutical
C. morphological
D. chemical

01
Module 1
Module 2
Module 4
Module 5
Module 6
Module 3
1. Gastric Emptying time is increased by which drug/s?

o I. Scopolamine
o II. Pilocarpine
o III. Nicotine
o I only
o III only
o I and III
o II and III
o I, II, and III
B. An 8 year old girl is on 800mg Carbamazepine and 50 mg Phenytoin daily.

Additional medication was prescribe her. Initially she was given 500mg
Erythromycin and later 1000mg daily. Within 2 days she began experience
balancing difficulties, ataxia, drowsiness, lethargy, and diplopia. This is mainly due
to:
o increased metabolism of Carbamazepine by Erythromycin
o increased metabolism of Phenytoin by Erythromycin
o increased metabolism of Erythromycin
o decreased metabolism of Carbamazepine by Erythromycin
o decreased metabolism of Phenytoin by Erythromycin
C. Most drugs are largely absorbed in the upper part of the small intestine and
drugs which alter the rate at which the stomach empties its contents can affect
absorption. Which of the following statements is/are true?
o I. Propantheline increases gastric emptying and increases Paracetamol

absorption.
o II. Metoclopramide increases gastric emptying and increases
paracetamol absorption.
o III. Benzhexol reduces the absorption of Chlorpromazine.
o I only
o III only
o I and II
o II and III
o I, II, and III
B. A pregnant woman should be advised to abstain from ingesting

ethanol in any form because:
o I. Children born to alcoholic mothers usually are underdeveloped and

exhibit mental retardation
o
o II. Cardiovascular aberrations including CHF and craniofacial
abnormalities have been documented as patterns of malformations in infants born
to chronic alcoholic women.
o III. Any alcohol exposure can be harmful to an unborn child.
o I only
o II only
o I and II
o I & III
o I, II and III
B. What is the pregnancy category of Lansoprazole, a proton pump

inhibitor?
o A
o B
o C
o D
o X
C. Which of the following statements is/are true for Glucocorticoids?
o I. These drugs decrease the hypoglycemic activity of insulin and OHAs.

o II. These drugs may precipitate hypokalemia with Amphotericin B.
o III. These drugs decrease the ulcerogenic effects of NSAIDs.
o I only
o II only
o I and III
o II and III
o I, II, and III
B. This has been associated with the use of Zafirlukast and Montelukast:
o Gray syndrome
o Tumor Lysis syndrome
o Churg-Strauss syndrome
o Herxheimer Reaction
C. Anaphylaxis is a:
o Type A ADR
o Type B ADR
o Type E ADR
o Type F ADR
D. A drug-induced hypersensitivity reaction caused by sulfonamides:

o Parkinson's disease
o Steven-Johnson's syndrome
o hypertension
o contact dermatitis
E. Which of the following does not cause a therapeutic incompatibility?

o errors in pricing
o dosage form errors
o prescription writing errors
o errors of storage and suppl
F. How many grains are there in 5.0 g of strychnine sulfate?
o 10.4 gr
o 20.4 gr
o 77.2 gr
o 0.99 gr
G. Degradation of drugs or excipient molecules can be brought about by

light, either room light or sunlight:
o solvolysis
o oxidation
o photolysis
o polymerization
H. Violation on the part of the pharmacist in generic dispensing, except:

o adequately inform the buyer about available products that meet the
prescription
o failure to record and file the prescription filed
o imposing a particular branded or product to the buyer
o failure to report to the nearest DOH office cases of incorrect
prescriptions within 3 months after receipt of such prescriptions
I. Benzalkonium chloride is incompatible with:

o soap
o cationic agent
o a and b
o none of the above
J. Allergic reactions that are due to a person's immune response:

o hypersensitivity
o idiosyncracy
o synergy
o potentiation
K. Aspirin combines with Phenylsalicylate resulting to:

o melting
o non-homogenous mixture
o turbid solution
o moist mass
L. Clindamycin is closely related to which if the following in effective

spectrum?
o chloramphenicol
o tobramycin
o kanamycin
o lincomycin
o it is unique in spectrum
M. pH is:
o not temperature
o a measure of acidity
o the same as pOH
o high for acids
o none of the above
N. Spans and tweens are:

o highly polymerized mannuronic acid anhydrides
o phospholipids
o polyoxyalkalene derivatives
o glycosides
o none of the above
O. Which of the following is not a naturally occurring emulsifier?

o acacia
o cholesterol
o gelatin
o veegum
o tragacanth
P. A primary disadvantage of ethylene glycol as a solvent in oral

preparations is its:
o potential toxicity
o lack of solvent action
o very limited miscibility
o high cost
o high viscosity
22. Which of the following best describes the neonates?

A. those who are 1 month to 1 year of age
B. those who are 1 year to 12 years of age
C. those who are 12 to 16 years of age
D. those between 1 day and 1 month of age
E. those born before 37 weeks of gestational age
23. Refers to the force exerted on the ventricular muscle at the end of diastole
that determines the degree of muscle fiber stretch.
A. Frank-Starling mechanism
B. Afterload
C. Cardiac Output
D. Preload
E. Decompensation
24. With which antibiotics does antibiotic antagonism occur when given within 1
hour of Penicillin administration?
A. Tetracycline and Cephalosporins
B. Aminoglycosides and Macrolides
C. Carbapenems and Vancomycin
D. Erythromycin and Chlorampenicol
E. Carbenicillin and Isoniazid
25. Which of the following anticonvulsive drugs has a higher incidence of kidney
stones?
A. Phenytoin
B. Ethosuximide
C. Topiramate
D. Carbamazepine
E. Phenobarbital
26. A slowly progressive degenerative neurological disease characterized by

tremors, rigidity, bradykinesia and postural.
A. Cerebral palsy
B. Multiple sclerosis
C. Schizophrenia
D. Parkinson's disease
E. Disease epilepsy
27. Which one of the following is not an objective parameter?

A. vertigo
B. urine output
C. bilirubin
D. hemoglobin
E. ejection fraction
28. Which of the following is the fundamental moral principle on which all ethical,
behavior is based?
A. do good and avoid evil
B. do what is best for society as a whole
C. obey all national laws
D. maintain patient confidentiality
E. obey all local laws
29. Tetracycline antibiotics may stain children's teeth between the ages of:
A. one month in utero and three years
B. six month in utero and eight years
C. birth and ten years
D. one and half years
30. As a health care team member, the pharmacist provide drug information to
physicians and other health professionals aimed at:
A. selecting the most appropriate therapeutic agents for drug therapy
B. providing needed drugs and supplies
C. providing drug information to the physician
D. provide in-service education informally on rounds
31. Is the act of transmitting facts, feelings and meaning by word, gestures or
other actions:
A. counseling
B. communication
C. consulting
D. all of these
32. Generally, the presence of the impaired renal function or overt renal failure in
a patient reduce his requirements for:
A. all drugs
B. drugs that are reabsorbed from the kidney tubules
C. drugs that are directly excreted or which are actively metabolized by
the liver and are excreted by the kidney
D. b and c
33. A patient wearing shoes with toes and other areas cut-out may suggest a
history of what disease:
A. photosensitivity
B. gout
C. recent weight loss
34. Control of congestive heart failure can be achieved by:

A. reduction of cardiac workload
B. control of excessive salt and water retention
C. both of the above
35. An important potential complication of corticosteroid therapy is:

A. dissemination of local infection
B. masking symptoms of an infection
C. increased susceptibility to infection
D. all of the above
36. Large overdose of acetaminophen is likely to cause:

A. tinnitus
B. hepatic necrosis
C. agranulocytosis
D. renal tubular acidosis
E. seizures
37. Stenosis refers to:
A. hardening of tissue with a loss of elasticity
B. inflammation of the sternum
C. inflammation of the vertebrae
D. narrowing or stricture of a duct or canal
E. stoppage of blood flow in a part of the body
38. The anti-emetic effect of which of the following drugs is the result of
increasing the rate of gastric emptying?
A. amitriptyline
B. benztropine
C. codeine
D. metoclopramide
E. aluminum hydroxide gel
39. The administration of the same dose of active ingredient in different galenic
forms:
A. always lead to the same therapeutic effect
B. does not necessarily lead to the same therapeutic effect
C. always lead to different therapeutic effect
40. Aplastic anemia is a serious toxic effect, which particularly occurs after a
course of treatment with which of the following antibiotics?
A. Penicillin
B. Lincomycin
C. Chloramphenicol
D. Tetracycline
E. Chlortetracycline
41. Inflammation of the bladder:

A. Urethritis
B. Cystitis
C. Prostatitis
D. Pyelonephritis
E. Urinitis
42. The following are often seen in patients receiving chemotherapy for cancer,
except:
A. oral ulcerations
B. delayed wound healing
C. increased susceptibility to infection
D. Alopecia
E. Elevated white cell count
43. Gastrointestinal activity may be modified by which of the following types of

drugs?
A. Cathartics
B. Opiates
C. Parasympathomimetics
D. Ganglionic blocking agents
E. all of the above
44. In schizophrenic syndrome there is primarily:

A. increased cholinergic activity
B. decreased cholinergic activity
C. increased Dopaminergic activity
D. Decreased dopaminergic activity
45. The most common complication of TPN is:

A. Catheter sepsis
B. Hyperglycemia, Metabolic acidosis
C. Air embolism
46. Most widely used diuretic for congestive heart failure:

A. thiazide
B. Loop diuretic
C. Furosemide
47. Physical and emotional stress can trigger the production of

A. Asthma
B. Angina pectoris, congestive heart failure
C. all of the above
48. Treatment of sexually transmitted diseases:
A. 1. Penicillin
B. 2. Tetracycline
C. 3. Erythromycin
D. 4. Spectinomycin
A. 1 and 3 are correct

B. 2 and 4 are correct
C. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
D. all are correct
E. all are wrong
W. The following are calcium antagonists, except:

A. Nifedipine
B. Felodipine
C. Nicardipine
D. None
X. Stimuli for mast cell histamine release:

A. Opioids
B. Neurotransmitters
C. Peptides
D. All
Y. Regular use of sublingual nitrates (Nitroglycerin) is likely to result in:

A. Peptic ulcer
B. Tolerance
C. Respiratory impairment
Z. Pancuronium bromide is used as a pre-anesthetic medication:

A. To increase muscle relaxation
B. To increase duration of action
C. To enhance rapidity of action
AA. Purulent boils in the ear are usually caused by species of:
A. Aspergillus
B. Candida
C. Pseudomonas
D. Staphylococcus
E. Streptococcus
BB. Which of the following should not be used in patients who are allergic
to aspirin?
A. Florinal
B. Darvocet-N
C. Butazolidin-Alka
D. Motrin
E. Mygesic
CC. Components of scientific inquiry include:

A. Determining if the patient is allergic to medication
B. Determining if the patient knows why he is taking the medication
C. Determining if the patient
D. Determining if the patients takes someone else medicine
E. All
DD. Lithium:
A. Dysmenorrhea
B. Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia
C. Manic Episodes
D. High BP
E. Ca Channel Blocker
EE. The blood concentration of which of the following cations would

normally rise if a patient become hypophosphatemic?
A. Sodium
B. Magnesium
C. Potassium
D. iron
E. Calcium
FF. Represents a group of medication that are placed in the nursing
station at which there may be no direct charge to the patient:
A. Charge floor stock system
B. Non-charge floor stock system
C. all of the above
59. Which of the following is/are rue regarding intradermal injection?

o I. used to check for circulating antibodies to the injected antigen
o II. intradermal skin test is usually read at 24, 36, and 48 hours
o III. a reddened area of induration of 5 mm or greater usually indicates
an intact immune system
o I, II and III only

o I and II only
o I and III only
o I only
o III only
HHH. The most important human nutrient required for tissue synthesis, repair,
transport of body nutrients and waste, and maintenance of immune function.
o Carbohydrate
o Protein
o Fats
o Electrolytes
o Water
III. Pre-clinical studies in animals that determine the relative safety in humans
and monitor parameters that will be used in clinical trials.
o Pharmacologic studies
o Pharmacodynamic studies
o Toxicologic studies
o Pharmacokinetic studies
o Biogenetic studies
JJJ. The abbreviation "ss" means:

o without
o symptom
o suppository
o one-half
o immediately
KKK. Which of the following is not an anti-asthma preparation?

o Terbutaline
o Salbutamol
o Prednisolone
o Nifedipine
o Theophylline
LLL. During chickenpox, measles or smallpox outbreak, this department would be

very busy:
o dermatology
o infectious disease
o pediatric
o neurology
MMM. Drugs approved by the Pharmacy & Therapeutics Committee may be

classified into the following categories, except:
o specialized formulary drug
o investigational drug
o drug approved on a conditional trial period
o formulary drug
o non-formulary drug
NNN. First president of PSHP:

o Rosario Capistrano Tan
o Lourdes Echauz
o Violeta Alvarez
o Marcelia Itturalde
o Siopin Co
OOO. The hospital which is affiliated with a university:

o Philippine Heart Center
o Quezon Institute
o San Lazaro Hospital
o National Kidney Institute
o Philippine General Hospital
PPP. It serves as a guide to the hospital-pharmacist in the development and

o formulary system
o P & TC
o pharmacy procedural manual
o patient's medication profile
o secondary care
QQQ. An extension of the main hospital pharmacy:

o satellite pharmacy
o clinic
o both an and b
o none of the above
RRR. The leading and major organization of hospital pharmacists in the country:
o PSHP
o AMA
o ASHP
o PPHA
SSS. Total parenteral nutrition is administered through:

o subclavian vein
o Femoral artery
o none of the above
o both a and b
TTT. It shows the flow of authority and services on hand:

o pharmacy procedural manual
o hospital pharmacy
o organizational chart
o journal
UUU. Additives of TPN are:
o electrolytes and vitamins
o antibiotics and fats
o amino acids and anesthetics
o none of the above
VVV. Pharmacists monitoring drug therapy would typically be checking all of the
following except:
o proper utilization of drug
o drug interactions
o allergy contraindications
o appropriate diagnosis
o none
WWW. Under the administrative organization chart, the central sterile supply fall
under the:
o clinical services
o ambulatory services
o adverse drug reaction
o all of the above
o none of the above
XXX. Blood pressure is determined by:
o 1. palpation
o 2. percussion
o 3. auscultation
o 4. inspection
o 1, 2, 3, 4
o 1, 3
o 2, 4
o 1, 2,3
HHH. IV medications may be administered as:

o infusion
o bolus
o Piggyback
o saddleback
o a, b and c
III. All of these are possible indication s for the use of ibuprofen, except:
o dental pain
o dysmenorrhea
o rheumatoid arthritis
o bursitis
o acne
JJJ. Another name for regular insulin is:

o isophane insulin
o crystalline zinc insulin
o protamine zinc insulin
o NPH
o Semilente
80. If a vial of Gentamycin contains 80 mg of drug in 2 mL, how many mcg of

the drug are present in 0.02 mL
A. 800
B. 350
C. 26
D. 655
E. 260
81. 250mg of Amoxicillin is added to 500 mL of D5W and the rate of

administration is 25mg per hour. What should be the rate of flow in drops per
minute if the infusion set delivers 15 drops/mL?
A. 12.50 drops/min
B. 13.00 drops/min
C. 13.50 drops/min
D. 14.00 drops/min
E. 14.50 drops/min
82. How many pints of high alcoholic elixir is required to prepare the same
amount of elixir?
A. 5.9
B. 3.4
C. 7.2
D. 4.7
E. 6.4
83. What is the dose for a ten-month-old baby if the average adult dose of
Amoxicillin is 250 mg?
A. 16.55 mg
B. 12.12 mg
C. 18.77 mg
D. 16.67 mg
E. 17.11 mg
84. A disinfectant concentrate for surgical instruments contains 8% (w/v) of a

quaternary ammonium compound. What is the percentage strength of a solution
resulting from the addition of 60 mL of the concentrate to 2 liters of water?
A. 0.02%
B. 0.5%
C. 0.35%
D. 0.1%
E. 0.25%
85. If an injection contains 0.5% w/v of Diltiazem HCl, calculate the number of
milligrams of the drug in 25 mL of injection.
A. 125.0 mg
B. 124.5 mg
C. 125.5 mg
D. 123.0 mg
E. 124.0 mg
86. Prof. Julien Constantino has been taking 0.6 g of Aspirin daily. If he has
taken a total of 12,600 mg of Aspirin, how many days has he been taking this
medicine?
A. 2 weeks
B. 21 days
C. 12 days
D. 2 ½ weeks
E. 18 days
87. How much of a substance is needed to prepare 1000 mL of a 1:10,000

solution?
A. 0.1 g
B. 10 g
C. 0.01 g
D. 1g
88. The pharmacist prepares a 200 mcg dose of the anti-hypertensive drug
Clonidine (Catapres). If each tablet equals 0.1 mg, the pharmacist should give the
patient:
A. ½ tab
B. 2 tabs
C. 5 tabs
D. 2 ½ tabs
E. 5 ½ tabs
89. The prescribed reference dose for Cefaclor (Ceclor) is 40 mg/kg. If your
patient weighs 11 kg, what dose should you give?
A. 0.0436 g
B. 2000 g
C. 3.64 mg
D. 440 mg
E. 400 mg
90. Zinc chloride is a three-ion electrolyte, dissociating 80% in a certain

concentration. Calculate its dissociation factor (i):
A. 2.6
B. 1.6
C. 2.9
D. 3
91. Sudafed cough syrup contains 0.09 g of dextromethorphan hydrobromide in

each fluidounce. How many milligrams of this agent would be present in each
teaspoonful dose?
A. 10 mg
B. 12 mg
C. 15 mg
D. 20 mg
92. A sunscreen lotion contains 5 g of methyl salicylate (sp gr 1.045) per 1000
mL. How many milliliters of methyl salicylate should be used in preparing 1 gallon
of the lotion?
A. 189.25 mL
B. 197.77 mL
C. 181.10 mL
D. 190 mL
93. Paregoric acid contains the equivalent pf 0.4% opium. How many mg of
opium are represented in a tablespoon dose of equal parts of paregoric and
kaopectate?
A. 20 mg
B. 25 mg
C. 15 mg
D. 30 mg
E. 28 mg
94. An instrument for measuring temperature, or intensity of heat:

A. barometer
B. thermometer
C. pycnometer
D. spectrophotometer
95. The dose that can kill the patient:

A. lethal dose
B. toxic dose
C. therapeutic dose
D. maintenance dose
96. A child weighing 25 lbs is to receive 5 mg of phenytoin per kg of body weight

daily as anticonvulsant. How many mL of pediatric phenytoin suspension containing
30 mg per 5 mL should this child receive?
A. 1.5 mL
B. 5.5 mL
C. 7.5 mL
D. 6.5 mL
E. 9.47 mL
97. How many capsules of an antibiotic are needed to provide 25 mg/kg/day for
6 days for a man weighing 180 lbs if one capsule contains 250 mg of the antibiotic?
A. 49
B. 59
C. 58
D. 39
E. 45
98. A formula for a dermatological cream calls for 15 g of an emulsive blend

consisting of Tween 20 and Span 40. If the required HLB is 11.70 how many grams
of each emulsifier should be used in emulsifying the cream?
A. 5 g Tween 20 and 10 g Span 40
B. 7.5 g Tween 20 and 7.5 g Span 40
C. 2.5 g Tween 20 and 12.5 g Span 40
99. How many mL of a syrup having asp gr of 1.350 should be mixed with
3000mL of a syrup having a sp gr of 1.250 to obtain a product having a sp gr of
1.310?
A. 3500mL
B. 4500mL
C. 4600mL
D. 5500mL
100. How many grams of reserpine would be required to prepare 10,000 tablets,
each containing 250 mg of reserpine?
A. 2.5
B. 2500
C. 250
D. 25

01
Module 1
Module 2
Module 3
Module 5
Module 6
Module 4
1. Which of the following findings may be consistent with an overdose of or

accidental exposure to an organophosphate?
A. Constipation
B. Mydriasis
C. Peripheral vasodilatation
D. Emesis
E. Decreased sweating
2. Which side effect of Chlorthalidone is prominent especially among the elderly

when Chlorthalidone is given at a dose of at least 50mg/day and significantly
reduced when doses are maintained below 50mg/day?
A. Hyperuricemia
B. Hyperglycemia
C. Increase in serum LDL
D. Allergic reactions
E. Hyponatremia
3. Which of the following side effects is/are common to the three drugs:
Hydralazine, Diazoxide, and Minoxidil?
A. Hypertrichosis
B. Glucose intolerance
C. Reflex tachycardia
D. Lupus-like side effect
E. Dyslipidemia
4. Which of the following nitrovasodilators may induce conversion of

hemoglobin to methemoglobin (methemoglobinemia) which can lead to cyanosis?
A. Nitroglycerin
B. Isosorbide mononitrate
C. Isosorbide dinitrate
D. Tetraethyl trinitrate
E. Amyl nitrite
5. What is the most important role of beta-blockers in the management of
angina pectoris?
A. Causes coronary artery vasodilatation thus useful in the management
of acute anginal attacks
B. Dilates the epicardial coronary vessels thus useful in patients with
ongoing Prinzmetal angina
C. Reduces myocardial oxygen demand by reducing the total peripheral
resistance making it useful for chronic stable angina pectoris
D. Reduces myocardial oxygen demand by reducing myocardial
contractility making it useful for chronic stable angina
E. Reduces myocardial oxygen demand by decreasing myocardial
perfusion time making it useful for all types of angina pectoris
6. Which of the following statements on pharmacokinetic parameters must be

considered for patients taking Digoxin?
A. In about 10% of patients, use of antibiotics can lead to increased oral
bioavailability
B. Renal clearance of the drug is inversely proportional to the creatinine
clearance
C. Half-life is long, at about 168 hours due in part to extensive
enterohepatic recirculation
D. Hepatic metabolism accounts for more than 80% of the elimination of
the drug
E. It is primarily distributed within the intravascular space due to its high
protein binding
7. Which of the following conditions may augment the effect of Digitalis

glycosides in myocardial tissues?
A. I. Concurrent use of Captopril

B. II. Reduced oxygenation of myocardial tissues
C. III. Concurrent administration of Calcium Gluconate
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and III
D. II and III
E. I, II, and III
B. What is the active metabolite of Hydroxyzine which is also available as

an H1-antihistamine without significant sedating side-effect?
A. Fexofenadine
B. Astemizole
C. Cetirizine
D. Loratadine
E. Terfenadine
C. Which of the following eicosanoids is a product of the metabolism of

Arachidonic acid by the cyclooxygenase enzyme?
A. Leukotrienes
B. Isoprostanes
C. Epoxides
D. Lipoxins
E. Prostaglandins
D. Which of the following mechanisms may play a role in the anti-

inflammatory effect of Aspirin?
A. I. Decreased synthesis of prostaglandins

B. II. Inhibition of neutrophil migration and adherence
C. III. Stabilize lysosomes of neutrophils
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and III
D. II and III
E. I, II, and III
B. Which of the following agents is currently used as the first-line

DMARDs in the management of Rheumatoid Arthritis?
A. Hydroxychloroquine
B. Auranofin
C. Penicillamine
D. Azathioprine
E. Methotrexate
C. In the management of an acute gouty attack, which of the following

statements is/are correct?
A. I. Uricosuric agents are given at the onset of an acute attack to reduce
the duration of the episode
B. II. Indomethacin is preferred for the management of the pain of an
acute attack
C. III. Colchicine relieves the pain and inflammation of an acute attack in
12-24 hours
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and III
D. II and III
E. I, II, and III
B. Tolerance is an expected consequence with chronic use of most of the

available Opioids. Which of the following effects of Opioids is tolerance NOT
observed?
A. Respiratory depression
B. Analgesia
C. Euphoria
D. Constipation
E. Sedation
C. Which of the following agents is classified as a partial agonist of opioid

receptors?
A. Meperidine
B. Methadone
C. Levallorphan
D. Fentanyl
E. Nalbuphine
D. Which of the following is an anticoagulant is produced by recombinant

DNA technology from the gene that encodes the natural anticoagulant derived from
medicinal leeches?
A. Dicumarol
B. Hirudin
C. Lepirudin
D. Heparin
E. Dalteparin
E. When regular heparin is used subcutaneously, which of the following
statements is correct?
A. There is no need to monitor activity in most cases
B. Monitoring of activity must be done on a weekly instead of daily basis
C. Monitoring of activity must be done using aPTT
D. Monitoring of activity must be done regularly using the PT value
E. Monitoring of activity must be done using the platelet count
F. Which of the following mechanisms may lead to inhibition of platelet

aggregation?
A. I. Activation of antithrombin III

B. II. Thromboxane synthesis inhibition
C. III. Guanylyl cyclase inhibition
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and III
D. II and III
E. I, II, and III
B. Patients on statins are generally advised to take the medications at

night. What is the basis for this?
A. Maximal absorption occurs at night
B. Maximal cholesterol de-novo synthesis occurs at night
C. Minimize postural hypotension expected with Statins
D. Minimize syncopal attacks with the first dose of Statins
E. LDL release occurs at night
C. Which of the following drugs used for seizure disorders is most

commonly associated with cosmetic changes making the drug less desirable to use
among adolescents, school-age children, and women?
A. Lamotrigine
B. Gabapentin
C. Phenobarbital
D. Phenytoin
E. Valproic acid
D. Which of the following local anesthetics can predispose to the
development of methemoglobinemia when given in large doses during regional
anesthesia?
A. Procaine
B. Lidocaine
C. Cocaine
D. Tetracaine
E. Prilocaine
E. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome which resembles malignant

hyperthermia is more commonly seen with which of the following agents?
A. Mesoridazine
B. Promazine
C. Loxapine
D. Haloperidol
E. Sertindole
F. Which of the following agents can produce the so-called serotonin

syndrome when given to a patient already on Phenelzine?
A. I. Venlafaxine
B. II. Buspirone
C. III. Fluoxetine
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and III
D. II and III
E. I, II, and III
B. Penicillins classified as ureidopenicillins have extended spectrum of

activity against gram-negative bacteria compared to the natural and other
semisynthetic penicillins. Which of the following organisms are the ureidopenicillins
effective against?
A. I. Enterococci
B. II. Klebsiella pneumoniae
C. III. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and III
D. II and III
E. I, II, and III
B. Which of the following agents inhibits protein synthesis by binding at

the 23S ribosomal RNA and preventing the formation of the ribosome complex that
initiates protein synthesis?
A. Aminoglycosides
B. Chloramphenicol
C. Linezolid
D. Tetracyclines
E. Macrolides
C. What is the physiologic dose of glucocorticosteroid?

A. Hydrocortisone dose less than 10-20 mg/day
B. Hydrocortisone dose greater than 10-20 mg/day
C. Prednisone dose ranging from 10-20 mg/day
D. Prednisone dose less than 10-20 mg/day
E. Prednisolone dose less than 10-20 mg/day
D. Coordinate body movement and posture to help maintain body

equilibrium:
A. cerebrum
B. brainstem
C. cerebellum
D. none
E. Used prophylactically in treating manic depressive patients and in the

treatment of manic episodes:
A. anti-psychotics
B. lithium salts
C. anxiolytic drugs
D. all
F. An anti-platelet drug:
A. Dipyridamole
B. Urokinase
C. Heparin
D. all
G. Which of the following is an inhibitory amino acid?

A. Glutamate
B. Aspartate
C. GABA
D. none of these
H. When MAOI is taken with tyramine containing food it can result to

serious consequences such as:
A. hypertensive crisis
B. cerebral stroke
C. insomnia
D. a and b only
E. all
I. A drug useful in febrile seizure:

A. Diazepam
B. Trimethadione
C. Phenobarbital
D. Valproic acid
J. Leukopenia has been reported with chronic abuse of

A. diethyl ether
B. bupivacaine
C. droperidol
D. nitrous oxide
K. The most common adverse effect associated with the use of

antihistamnines is:
A. sedation
B. urticaria
C. hypotension
D. tinnitus
L. Dopamine:
A. cholinergic agonist
B. adrenergic agonist
C. antiacetylcholinesterase agent
D. anticholinergic agent
M. Measures the safety and usefulness of the drugs:

A. half life
B. volume of distribution
C. therapeutic index
D. total body clearance
N. Mechanism of action of Erythromycin:

A. inhibit the synthesis of bacterial cell wall
B. prevent PABA to form folic acid
C. inhibit protein synthesis
D. alter cell membrane permeability
O. A patient is being treated with nighttime sedative. Which alteration in

warfarin dosage is indicated?
A. a decrease because its metabolism has been inhibited
B. a decrease because its excretion has been reduced
C. an increase because its GIT absorption has been impaired
D. an increase because its metabolism has been stimulated
P. The following are antidotes for Morphine poisoning:

A. Naloxone
B. Naltrexone
C. both a and b
Q. Vitamin K deficiency state:

A. alopecia
B. hemorrhage
C. scurvy
R. Which of the following penicillin/s is/are penicillinase-resistant?
A. methicillin
B. cloxacillin
C. oxacillin
D. all of the above
S. The following are anti-psychotic drugs:

A. Chlorpromazine
B. Trifluoperazine
C. Thiothixine
D. All of the above
T. Both oxytocin and vasopressin increase:

A. constriction of uterine blood vessels
B. constriction of coronary blood vessels, thereby reducing cardiac output
C. water reabsorption with equal effectiveness in diabetes insipidus
D. uterine contractility
U. The side effects of steroids diminish when the drug is given via:
A. IV
B. oral
C. inhalation
D. subcutaneous
E. rectal
V. The following drugs are used as bronchodilators, except:

A. calcium channel blockers
B. anti-cholinergic agents
C. adrenergic drugs
D. xanthine alkaloids
E. all of the above
W. This drug is a mainstay for the acute treatment of migraine:

A. ergotamine
B. ketanserin
C. cyprophentadine
D. none of these
X. This dusting powder is not used as a lubricant for surgical gloves since
it may produce granulomas:
A. talc
B. zinc oxide
C. starch
D. all of the above
E. none of the choices
Y. Each of the following drugs produces a reflex increase in sympathetic

activity and tachycardia as side effects, except:
A. clonidine
B. nitroglycerine
C. diazoxide
D. hydralazine
Z. Which of the following anti-emetic compounds is most likely to produce

jaundice and parkinsonism when used for prolonged periods?
A. dimenhydrinate
B. chlorpromazine
C. meclizine
D. diphenidol
AA. These drugs increase the metabolism of quinidine:

A. phenytoin
B. rifampin
C. barbiturates
D. all of the above
BB. Which class of drugs most closely relates to tadycardia, hypotension,

increased airway resistance, and congestive heart failure as its adverse effects?
A. cardiac glycosides
B. calcium channel blockers
C. ACE inhibitors
D. b-blockers
E. nitrites and nitrates
CC. Initiates and control male sexual development and maintains the
integrity of the male's reproductive system:
A. Testosterone
B. Insulin
C. Corticotropin
D. Estradiol
E. Vasopressin
DD. A class of plant alkaloids that is widely used to treat migraine is:
A. vinca alkaloids
B. digitalis glycosides
C. stramonium alkaloids
D. ergot alkaloids
E. belladonna alkaloids
EE. Carbamazepine is the drug of choice for:

A. parkinsonism
B. psychomotor seizures
C. petit mal epilepsy
D. NOTA
E. AOTA
FF. The action of heparin is terminated by:

A. coumarin
B. indanediones
C. insulins
D. sulfonamides
E. protamine SO4
GG. Propoxyphene napsylate has the advantage over the hydrochloride in

that it is:
A. more potent
B. less toxic
C. more stable
D. more readily absorbed
E. more readily eliminated
HH. Beta-interferon is used to treat:

A. adult onset of diabetes
B. hypertension
C. cardiac insufficiency
D. multiple sclerosis
E. ulcers
II. Methylphenidate is used to treat:

A. fatigue
B. hyperkinesis disorder
C. anxiety
D. depression
E. obesity
JJ. Halazone is used primarily for:

A. wound irrigation
B. treating acne
C. burn debridement
D. disinfection of drinking water
E. cold sores
59. Drugs with mechanism of action that involves Tubulin-binding leading to loss
of function of the structural protein include:
A. Cyclosporine
B. Neostigmine
C. Colchicine
D. Glibenclamide
E. Metformin
60. Stimulation of Beta-adrenoceptor, a G-protein-linked receptor involves

generation of a secondary messenger known as:
A. IP3
B. cGTP
C. DAG
D. cAMP
E. Calcium ions
61. For drugs that are given at constant rate, the time to reach steady state
concentration is dependent on:
A. Rate of administration
B. Biologic half-life
C. Volume of Distribution
D. Peak plasma concentration achieved
E. Amount of the drug in the body
62. Cimetidine, Ketoconazole, and Allopurinol share a common pharmacokinetic

property that predisposes patients taking other drugs concomitantly with any of
these agents to toxicity. What is this property?
A. inhibition of tubular secretion
B. increased systemic absorption
C. protein binding displacement
D. enzyme induction
E. enzyme inhibition
63. The preganglionic fibers of the sympathetic nervous system originate from
which roots?
A. Cranial Nerves III, VII, IX, X
B. Sacral roots S1-S4
C. Cervical roots C1 -C7
D. Thoracolumbar roots
64. What is the amino acid precursor in the synthesis of catecholamines?

A. phenylalanine
B. glycine
C. tyrosine
D. tryptamine
E. glutamic acid
65. In the biosynthesis of Norepinephrine, what step is considered as rate-

limiting?
A. Active uptake of tyrosine
B. Conversion of tyrosine to dihydroxyphenylalanine
C. Conversion of DOPA to Dopamine
D. Uptake of Dopamine in presynaptic storage vesicles
E. Conversion of Norepinephrine to Epinephrine
66. Which of the following substances exert a negative feedback control on

Tyrosine Hydroxylase which serves as the mechanism for moment-to-moment
regulation of the rate of catecholamine synthesis?
A. Dopamine
B. Acetylcholine
C. DOPA
D. Epinephrine
E. Norepinephrine
67. Reserpine, an alkaloid from Rauwolfia, can lower the blood pressure and
depress the CNS. What enzyme or part of the biosynthetic pathway is inhibited by
Reserpine to bring about these effects?
A. DOPA decarboxylase
B. Storage of catecholamines in the presynaptic vesicles
C. Release of Norepinephrine from presynaptic terminals
D. MAO enzyme
E. Uptake-1 mechanism
68. A site in the biophase to which drug molecules can be bound is:
A. fluid compartment
B. unit membrane
C. receptor
69. A branch of science which deals with physical and chemical properties of the
drug substance, the dosage form, and the biological effectiveness of a drug or drug
product upon administration is:
A. pharmacology
B. pharmacokinetics
C. biopharmaceutics
D. pharmacy
70. Biliary excretion principle:
A. through the bile duct into the duodenum
B. major portion of the bile is excreted
C. as metabolite
D. any of the above
71. Cumulative urinary excretion is often used in pharmacokinetic and clinical

studies in man and animals to learn about the disposition of the drugs and to
determine the following:
A. Ka
B. fraction of drug absorbed
C. % of drug absorbed
D. all of the above
72. A term defined as the combination of a drug molecule with a receptor:

A. antagonism
B. intrinsic activity
C. affinity
73. The systematized dosage schedule of therapy:

A. dose size
B. loading dose
C. dosage form
D. dosage regimen
74. The final elimination from the body's systemic circulation via the kidney into
the urine, via bile, and saliva into intestines and into feces, via sweat, via skin, via
milk:
A. metabolism
B. distribution
C. absorption
D. excretion
75. Agonist and antagonist to bind to different receptors and have opposite
pharmacologic actions:
A. partial
B. competitive
C. noncompetitive
D. chemical
76. A disadvantage of inert diluents for powders as a s dosage form is:

A. adsorbs onto the active drug substance
B. high cost
C. drugs may not be released immediately
D. a and c
77. One of the current major problems in drug therapy is:

A. patients non compliance with prescribed regimen
B. wrong environment
C. lack of info
D. high incidence of diseases
78. Comparative bioavailability involves the determination of the relative

bioavailability of an active drug in:
A. one formulation
B. two formulations
C. one inactive drug present
D. two excipients present
79. Chemical variation:

A. change the structure of the pharmaceutic ingredient to increase the
pharmacologic response
B. change the structures of the active ingredient to increase
pharmacologic activity
C. both
D. none
80. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Lente Insulin?
o I. It is a mixture of 30% semilente and 70% ultralente Insulin
o II. It is also known as NPH Insulin
o III. It is an intermediate-acting Insulin preparation
o I only
o II only
o I and III
o II and III
o I, II, and III
CCCC. In which individuals should biguanides be avoided as part of therapy for DM

because of increased risk of lactic acidosis?
o I. Chronic alcoholics
o II. Coronary artery disease
o III Chronic hepatitis
o I only
o II only
o I and III
o II and III
o I, II, and III
CCCC. Which of the following agents may be useful for eradicating a carrier
state of Entamoeba histolytica?
o I. Metronidazole
o II. Diloxanide furoate
o III. Iodoquinol
o I only
o II only
o I and III
o II and III
o I, II, and III
CCCC. Which of the following factors predispose to increased intestinal Lead

absorption?
o I. Increased dietary calcium

o II. Iron deficiency
o III. Ingestion on an empty stomach
o I only
o II only
o I and III
o II and III
o I, II, and III
CCCC. Milk may be used to dilute ingested toxicants. Which of the following
ingested poisons may be managed initially by the administration of milk?
o I. Hypochlorite
o II. Corrosive acids
o III. Fluoride
o I only
o II only
o I and III
o II and III
o I, II, and III
CCCC. An example of a Phase l Reaction in the metabolism of substances

is/are:
o oxidation
o hydrolysis
o reduction
o all of the above
DDDD. Toxic substance found in "tulingan" tuna:

o sourine
o venerupin
o gemblid
o potassium bromate
EEEE. Convulsions caused by drug poisoning are commonly associated with:

o diazepam
o strychnine
o phenobarbital
o chlorpromazine
FFFF. Side effects frequently seen with benzodiazepines, except:
o ataxia
o drowsiness
o seizures
o none of these
GGGG. A botanical insecticide:

o malthion
o pyrethrum
o parathrion
o none of these
HHHH. Tetracyclines tend to form complexes with the following, except:

o belladonna
o calcium ions
o magnesium ion
o iron ions
IIII. The first toxic symptoms of digitalis poisoning is:

o gastrointestinal irritation
o undue depression of heart rate
o flushing of skin
o cerebral excitement
o colored vision
JJJJ. Example of poison which exhibits both local and remote types of
effects.
o arsenic
o cantharides
o both a and b
o none of the above
KKKK. Substance intended to prevent, destroy, repel or mitigate rats, mice,

etc.
o herbicides
o hematocides
o rodenticides
o molluscides
LLLL. Metallic poisons are classified as:

o corrosive poison
o irritant poison
o cerebral neurotic poison
o all
MMMM. A warfare gas:

o phosgene
o COCl2
o Sarin
o all of the above
NNNN. Exposures at any time during pregnancy poses a high risk of

congenital structural abnormalities:
o tretinoin
o cyclophosphamide
o carbamazepine
o tamoxifen
OOOO. Nicotinic acid produces which of the ff. effects:

o decreases VLDL clearance
o Increases VLDL production
o increases VLDL clearance
o none of these
PPPP. The following antidotes could be used to treat carbamate insecticide

poisoning, except:
o atropine
o pralidoxime
o physostigmine
o all of these
QQQQ. The most effective antidote for Arsenic, Gold and Mercury poisoning,
which is a metal complexing agent:
o Normal Saline
o Dimercaprol
o Atropine
o Lead
o Neostigmine
RRRR. Antidote for Iodine poisoning:

o Acetylcysteine
o Weak acid
o Starch
o Activated charcoal
o Calcium gluconate

01
Module 1
Module 2
Module 3
Module 4
Module 6
Module 5
1. A method of filling liquids wherein the product is pumped, at constant

pressure, through an orifice of constant diameter and size. The fill amount is
measured by the stroke of the piston:
A. Volumetric
B. Gravimetric
C. Constant Level
2. It refers to the addition of an active in an unstable pharmaceutical

preparation, to compensate for the loss during manufacture:
A. Chemical modification of the drug
B. Manufacturing Overages
C. Manufacturing Allowances
D. All of the above
3. This equipment produces finely divided particles by spraying a mist of liquid

through a heated chamber, drying immediately and collecting the dried powders in
a clean receptacle:
A. Micronization
B. Homogenization
C. Freeze-drying
D. Spray-drying
4. A non-thermal form of sterilization, which is used in the reduction of air-

borne microbes, produced by mercury vapor lamps. This method has poor
penetration capability:
A. Ultraviolet radiation
B. Ionization radiation
C. Inspissation
D. Tyndallization
5. This raw material can be used a tablet diluent, disintegrant and binder:
A. Avicel
B. Lactose
C. Celutab
D. Cornstarch
6. An equipment, which delivers a reliable and uniformly mixed dried product,

without the necessity for pre-mixing. It produces a dry granulation from a wet
powder mix:
A. Tray Dry Oven
B. Tablet Deduster
C. Granulator/Fluid Bed Dryer
D. All of the above
7. Strip-sealed tablets are evaluated for:

A. Clarity
B. Thickness
C. Hardness
D. Leakers
8. It is a Zwitterionic type of an aerosol propellant:

A. Oleic acid
B. Phosphatidylcholine
C. Cetyl pyridinium chloride
D. Sorbitan trioleate
9. What is a "running powder"?

A. Powder blend with improved lubrication
B. Combination of a disintegrant and a lubricant
C. Combination of a disintegrant and a binder
D. Powder combination to improve flow
E. Combination of a glidant and a binder
10. The records to be controlled by Quality Control should be:

A. master formula
B. inventory records
C. returned goods
D. production records
E. in-process records
11. A protective colloid added to a suspension formulation is to:
A. allow for fast sedimentation
B. improve drainage
C. allow active constituent to easily separate
D. allow solution of the sediment
E. for easy measurement of final volume of the preparation
12. The more preferred type of suspension is the flocculated one due to:
A. elegant in appearance
B. forms a hard cake upon standing
C. no need of shaking before use
D. not easy to resuspend
E. easy resuspendability
13. Colorants are added to formulations for:

A. meeting BFAD requirements
B. trying which of them is suitable for the product
C. satisfying the request of Marketing department
D. research during manufacturing
E. aesthetic purpose
14. Stokes Monsanto tester of tablets is to measure:

A. thickness
B. friability
C. hardness
D. disintegration
E. dissolution
15. Insoluble powders for ophthalmic preparations must be:

A. less than 200 microns in particle size
B. pyrogen-free
C. give preservative action
D. impalpable to the touch
E. less than 100 microns size
16. A manufacturer who produces the products of a company without
manufacturing facilities is a/an:
A. Ethical manufacturer
B. Proprietary manufacturer
C. Biological manufacturer
D. Toll manufacturer
17. Storage conditions for capsules

A. 35-50% RH
B. 21-25°C
C. AOTA
D. NOTA
18. Invert sugar has the tendency to darken in color due to:
A. levulose
B. sucrose
C. glucose
D. lactose
19. Advantages of plastic containers over glass, except:

A. lightness in weight
B. permeability
C. lower transportation
D. resistance to impact
20. Uneven distribution of colors on the surface of tablets is:

A. peeling
B. mottling
C. capping
D. lamination
21. Property of tablet granulations to obtain good tablets:

A. compressibility
B. fluidity
C. normal distribution of fines
D. AOTA
22. Aspilet tablets for children are:
A. sublingual
B. buccal
C. chewable
D. soluble
23. These are quality assurance functions, except:

A. product forecasting
B. auditing, and control of all manufacturing documents before and after
production
C. CGMP monitoring
D. environmental control
24. Single unit container include the following, except:

A. sachets
B. collapsible tubes
C. strip packages
D. blister packs
25. Multiple dose containers include:

A. vials
B. cartridges
C. ampules
D. pre-filled syringe
26. The disintegration medium for plain uncoated tablet is:

A. Simulated Gastric Fluid TS
B. Simulated Intestinal Fluid TS
C. Distilled Water
D. a&c
27. Content uniformity is used to ensure which of the following qualities in tablet
products
A. disintegration
B. potency
C. purity
D. toxicity
28. Poorly manufactured tablets may have small pinholes on the surface, this
defect is called:
A. mottling
B. picking
C. capping
D. compacting
29. In the preparation of effervescent tablet, the most important ingredients

necessary to give the effervescent effects are:
A. NaHCO3 and Citric acid
B. Citric acid and Tartaric acid
C. Na2CO3 and Tartaric acid
D. a&c
30. Yellow Ointment USP is ___ EXCEPT:

o I. also called "Simple Ointment"
o II. has Yellow wax and Petrolatum as the main ingredients
o III. bleached and purified wax obtained from the honeycomb of the
bee, Apis mellifera
o I only
o I and II
o I and III
o III only
o I, II, and III
EE. The use of ophthalmic ointments and gels offers the following advantage/s:
o I. provides extended residence time on the surface of the eye

o II. blurring of vision can be encountered
o III. increases the bioavailability for absorption into ocular tissues
o I only
o III only
o I and III
o II and III
o I, II, and III
EE. Rectal absorption is affected by both physiologic and physicochemical

factors. Physiologic factors would include:
o I. pH
o II. colonic contents
o III. lack of buffering capacity
o I only
o III only
o I and III
o II and III
o I, II, and III
EE. Suppositories of which ointment bases are suitable for preparation by

molding?
o I. Cocoa butter
o II. Glycerinated gelatin
o III. PEG
o I only
o III only
o I and III
o II and III
o I, II, and III
EE. The following statement/s is/are true for the application of heat in the
dissolution of some chemicals in a particular solvent:
o I. Many medicinal agents are destroyed at elevated temperatures and

the advantage of rapid solution may be completely offset by deterioration.
o II. Elevated temperatures can not be maintained for pharmaceuticals
and the net effect of heat is simply an increase in the rate of solution rather than
increase in solubility.
o III. Application of heat for calcium salts is highly recommendable.
o I only
o I and II
o I and III
o II and III
o I, II, and III
EE. Certain antibiotics which have insufficient stability in aqueous solutions

are available in dry powder mixtures ready for reconstitution. Examples of these
mixtures would include:
o I. Cloxacillin Na for Oral Solution

o II. Oxacillin Na for Oral Solution
o III. Penicillin V Potassium for Oral Solution
o I only
o I and II
o I and III
o II and III
o I, II, and III
EE. This preparation is an aqueous solution directed against a part or into

a cavity of the body.
o douche
o irrigation
o enema
o gargle
o insufflation
FF. When tinctures are prepared from single vegetable drugs, the amounts
of crude drugs used to prepare 100mL of the tincture generally for potent drugs is:
o 10g
o 20g
o 50g
o 75g
o 100g
GG. Which type of soap form an o/w emulsion?
o I. alkali soap
o II. metallic soap
o III. polyvalent soap
o I only
o II only
o I and III
o I and II
o I, II, and III
EE. Container impervious to air:

o Light-resistant Tight container
o Hermetic container
o Single dose container
o All of the above
FF. Which one of the following solutions should be sterile when dispensed:
o Tinctures
o Opthalmic solutions
o Spirits
o Syrups
o None of the above
GG. Lugol's solution is:

o Strong iodine solution
o Potassium iodine oral solution
o Povidone-iodine solution
o None of the above
HH. Agents used in tablet and capsule formulation to improve flow

properties of powder mixtures except:
o Lactose
o colloidal silica
o Cornstarch
o talc
II. The following are used as colorants in
o Erythrosin
o Caramel
o Yellow mercuric oxide
o Red ferric oxide
JJ. Sterile pharmaceutical preparations that are to be administered

through one for more layers of the skin.
o Enema
o Suppository
o Injections
o Troches
KK. The following products are intended for topical

o Benzelkonium chloride solution
o Lugol's solution
o Aluminum chloride solution
o Golden gargle
LL. Dramamine syrup collodion:

o Povidone-iodine
o Dimenhydrinate syrup
o Saponated oresol solution
o Salicylic acid
MM. Slugging method:

o Rod-shaped or cylindrical troches
o Wafers
o Dry granulation or precompression
o "Flow-regulators"
NN. These are equipment for homogenization except:.

o Colloid mill
o Homogenizer
o Sieve
o Mortar and pestle
OO. Ointments that demonstrate some systemic effect are:
o Epidermic
o Diadermic
o Endodermic
o All of the above
PP. Community Considered a practice of pharmacy

o pharmacy
o Pharmaceutical manufacturing
o Hospital pharmacy
o Wholesaler of RTW clothes
QQ. HLB value needed for oil in water type of emulsion is:
o 8 - 18
o 3-6
o 1-5
o 5-6
RR. Solid dosage forms designed to release the drug slowly for more
sustained action are:
o Timed-release tablets
o Pills
o Extended-action tablets
o A and C
SS. A container that is impervious to air and gas under the usual
conditions of handling is considered to be
o Well-closed
o Hermetically closed
o Tightly closed
o B and C
TT. Jellies are used by physicians as lubricants for:

o Rectal thermometer
o Gloves for surgical use
o Stoppers
o A and B
UU. A new drug has to be approved by the ___ before distribution to the
public.
o BFAD
o BIR
o DOH
o Narcotics Division
VV. A percolation process which sets aSide the first 85% of the percolate
then collects the weak percolate until exhaustion is:
o Process A
o Process B
o Process C
o Process D
WW. The extract with a plastic consistency is known as:

o Pilular
o Powdered
o Semiliquid
o A and B
XX. Use of sterile water in formulations:

o Water for inhalation
o Water for irrigation
o A and B
o For topical solution
59. This is used for relating the effect of the least number of independent
variables (e.g. temperature, pressure and concentration) upon the various phases
that can exist in an equilibrium system containing a given number of components.
A. Le chatelier's principle
B. Gibb's phase rule
C. Triangular planar
D. Phase diagram
60. This is/are example(s) of Intensive properties:
A. I. temperature
B. II. volume
C. III. density
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and III
E. I, II and III
HHH. Which of the following is/are example(s) of an Additive property of a

system:
A. I. refractive index
B. II. solubility
C. III. mass of a solution
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
HHH. The human plasma contains 7.5 mEq/liter of Calcium ions. How many
milligrams of calcium chloride (Mol Wt= 147), are required to prepare a 740 mL
solution having the same calcium plasma concentration?
A. 826.8 mg
B. 413.4 mg
C. 206.7 mg
D. 103.3 mg
III. These are solvents which are capable of accepting protons from the
solute.
A. Protophilic
B. Protogenic
C. Amphiprotic
D. Aprotic
JJJ. pH is defined as:
A. I. negative log of hydrogen ion concentration

B. II. sum of the hydrogen ion concentration and the hydroxyl ion
concentration
C. III. log of the hydrogen ion concentration
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
HHH. Which of the following is the correct unit of expression for a first order
rate constant?
A. time -1
B. concentration -1/ time -1
C. concentration / time
D. concentration / time -1
III. A liquid will rise in a capillary tube when the contact angle is:
A. I. greater than 0° but less than 90°

B. II. greater than 90° but less than 135°
C. III. greater than 90° but less than 180°
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
HHH. The following statement(s) is/are true for an emulsion:
A. I. Thermodynamically stable system

B. II. Consists of at least two immiscible liquid phases
C. III. The dispersed phase is stabilized by a surfactant
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and II
E. II and III
HHH. Which of the following is an example of a water in oil emulsion?

A. butter
B. tragacanth
C. gelatin
D. acacia
III. Type of complexation involved in the formulation of Warfarin sodium

USP.
A. Clathrate formation
B. Monomolecular inclusion
C. Channel lattice type
D. Chelation
JJJ. 0.75% Sodium chloride aqueous solution is

A. hypotonic
B. isotonic
C. hypertonic
D. isoosmotic
KKK. Colligative property/ies:

A. osmotic pressure
B. lowering of vapor pressure
C. elevation of boiling point
D. all of the above
LLL. Mixing a hypertonic solution with red blood cells will cause _____ of
the red blood cells.
A. bursting
B. crenation
C. chelation
D. hemolysis
MMM. Required temperature for the specific gravity determination:

A. 15.56°
B. 30°
C. 25°
D. 20°
NNN. Hydrophilic surfactants can form:

A. w/o emulsions
B. o/w emulsions
C. either a or b
D. neither a nor b
OOO. Dispersed systems possess this property:

A. optical activity
B. solubility
C. thixotropy
D. tonicity
PPP. Density is derived quantity that combines:

A. volume and length
B. mass and weight
C. mass and volume
D. mass and pressure
QQQ. An example of buffer pair:

A. Boric acid — sodium borate
B. Na hydroxide- Ammonium chloride
C. Hydrochloric acid-sodium chloride
D. any of the above
RRR. The temperature at which a pure liquid and solid exist in equilibrium
is:
A. freezing point
B. boiling point
C. melting point
SSS. Interfacial phenomena in pharmacy and medicine are significant

factors that affect the following processes, except:
A. adsorption of drugs onto solid adjuncts
B. penetration of molecules through biologic medium
C. penetration of aqueous solution
D. emulsion formulation and formulation stability
TTT. Relationship between the buffer capacity of the buffer with the molar
concentration of the components is:
A. inversely proportional
B. directly proportional
C. not related
D. equal
UUU. Powder fineness may be measured by:

A. spectroscopy
B. microscopy
C. sieve analysis
D. b and c
VVV. Characteristics of an ideal solution:

A. reaction between substances present during storage
B. heat is evolved upon mixing the ingredients
C. no heat is evolved or absorbed during mixing
D. evaporation takes place upon storage
WWW. Migration of solute from a greater concentration to a lower

concentration:
A. disintegration
B. dissolution
C. diffusion
D. active transport
E. none of the choices
84. If the illness sought to be cured is aggravated by the use of the counterfeit
drug, the punishment to be imposed shall be:
A. imprisonment from 12 years to 15 years
B. life imprisonment
C. fine of 100,000 pesos to 500, 000 pesos
D. A & C only
E. B & C only
85. The Council of Pharmaceutical Education was created for the implementation
of RA 5921. This council is composed of:
A. Secretary of Education
B. BFAD administrator
C. Chairman of Board of Pharmacy
D. A & C only
E. all of the above
86. If found guilty of neglect of duty, incompetence, malpractice or

unprofessional or dishonorable conduct, after having been given the opportunity to
defend himself in an administrative investigation, the Chairman or members of the
Board may be removed by:
A. President of the Philippines
B. Chairman of the Council of Pharmaceutical Education
C. BFAD Administrator
D. PRC Commissioner
E. Civil Service Commissioner
87. This means a method of secret writing that substitutes other letters or
characters for the letter intended, or transposes the letter after arranging them in
blocks or squares.
A. Code
B. Cipher
C. Secret Keys
D. Substitution
88. The Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act of 2002 is:

A. RA 6425
B. RA 9165
C. RA 6675
D. RA 9465
E. RA 5921
89. Substances covered by RA 9165:

A. prescription drugs
B. dangerous drugs
C. controlled precursors and essential chemicals
D. B & C only
E. all of the above
90. Any person who is found guilty of 'planting' any dangerous drug and/or
controlled precursor and essential chemical shall suffer the penalty of:
A. life imprisonment
B. death
C. fine of 100,000 pesos to 500, 000 pesos
D. A & C only
E. all of the above
91. The record for the sale of poisons must be kept for a period of:
A. 5 years
B. 1 year
C. 3 years
D. 2 years
92. "Employee" of a prohibited drug den, dive, or resort include/s:

A. caretaker
B. lookout
C. watchman
D. all of the above
E. A and B only
93. Which of the following is an example of an erroneous prescription?

A. generic name is not legible and brand name is legible
B. brand name is not in parenthesis
C. only generic name is written but it is not legible
D. all of the above
94. This refers to statements regarding the occurrence of potential hazards and
side effects associated with the use of the product and limitation of its use.
A. Precautions
B. Contraindications
C. Warning
95. Any drug which produces insensibility, stupor, melancholy or dullness of mind
with delusion
A. dangerous drug
B. narcotic drug
C. synthetic drug
D. regulated drugs
96. It is a drug the safety and efficacy of which has been demonstrated through
long years of general use and can be found in current USP-NF and other
internationally recognized Pharmacopeia:
A. tried and tested
B. established drug
C. drug for general use
D. investigational drug
97. The source or circumstances of drug production is/are:

A. imported as finished
B. locally manufactured from imported materials
C. locally manufactured from local materials
D. AOTA
98. In the current good manufacturing practice, we usually consider the

A. building
B. personnel
C. equipment
D. AOTA
99. A senior citizen who purchase his medicine for his personal needs is entitled
to a minimum discount of:
A. 10%
B. 30%
C. 20%
D. 15%
100. A pharmacist after filling a prescription containing a poison shall record the ff
except:
A. date of sale
B. name and quantity of poison sold
C. contraindication
D. purpose of purchase

01
Module 1
Module 2
Module 3
Module 4
Module 5
Module 6
1. Complete the reaction: H2C4H4O6 + NaOH →

A. Na2C4H4O6
B. H2O
C. both a and b
D. none of the choices
2. Use of KI in the preparation of iodine solution.
A. solubilizing agent
B. change in pH of the solution
C. as preservative
D. all of the choices
3. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct?
A. I. The utility of starch as indicator is reduced in the presence of

organic solvent.
B. II. The utility of starch as indicator is reduced in the presence of
electrolytes.
C. III. The utility of starch as indicator is reduced at temperature above
25 °C.
A. I only
B. I and II only
C. I, II, and III only
D. I, II, III and IV
B. The use of sodium bicarbonate in the standardization of iodine

solution:
A. increases the solubility
B. as buffer
C. as preservative
D. to prevent bacterial growth
C. Sulfamic acid (H3NSO3) is a primary standard that can be used to

standardize sodium hydroxide. What is the normality if 34.26 mL reacts with
0.3337 g of sulfamic acid. MW = 97
A. 0.304
B. 0.1004
C. 0.1005
D. 0.403
D. Process of measuring the actual quantity of mass, volume, force, etc.

that correspond to an indicated quantity on the scale of an instrument.
A. weighing
B. calibration
C. both a and b
D. none of the choices
E. Also known as Eosin Y.

A. dichlorofluorescein
B. tetrabromophenolpthalein
C. tetrabromofluorescein
D. xylenol orange
F. The gram-equivalent weight of sodium oxalate (MW= 134 g/mole) is:

A. 67
B. 0.067
C. 0.114
D. 0.026
G. Calculate the weight of oxalic acid required to prepare 1000 mL of 0.5

N of the solution. MW= 126
A. 36.5 g
B. 63.5 g
C. 31.5 g
D. 23.5 g
H. The following is/are true about EDTA titration.
A. I. EDTA titration is also known as complexometric titration.

B. II. The equilibrium constant in EDTA titration is called stability
constant.
C. III. For end-point detection, commonly used indicator is called EDTA
indicator.
D. IV. EDTA titration technique includes displacement titration.
A. I only
B. II and III
C. I, II, and III
D. I, II and IV
E. I, II, III and IV
B. Which of the statement/s is/are correct?
A. I. Direct titration of a reducing agent with iodine is called iodometry.

B. II. In iodimetry, an oxidizing agent is added to excess I- to produce
iodine which is then titrated with sodium thiosulfate.
C. III. In iodimetry, starch TS can be added at the beginning of the
titration.
D. IV. In iodometry, starch TS can be added at the beginning of the
titration.
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. IV only
E. I, II, III, and IV
B. To determine the total ash, the sample is incinerated at a temperature

of 675 + - 25 °C. This temperature is represented by:
A. very dull red heat
B. dull red heat
C. white red heat
D. bright red heat
C. Coulometric Titration of water determination is also known as:

A. Method I c
B. Method II
C. Method I a
D. Method III
D. Suppository that does not melt at body temperature is what kind of

defect?
A. major
B. critical
C. minor
D. performance
E. The end point of lodometry using starch TS as indicator is:

A. intense blue color
B. disappearance of blue color
C. greenish-blue color
D. disappearance of green- blue color
F. The First-In First-Out Policy must always be observed to:

A. Assures that the oldest stock is used first
B. Prevent contamination and mix-ups of materials
C. Contain the information regarding the activity of the active ingredient
D. Prevent microbial spoilage
G. A buret with a glass stopcock can be used for:

A. Alcohols
B. Acids
C. Bases
D. Aldehydes
H. The bisulfite method is used in the assay of volatile oils to determine:

A. Aldehyde content
B. Acid content
C. Ester content
D. Phenol content
I. Inspection stations are placed in the following areas, except:

A. Analytical laboratory
B. Manufacturing area
C. Warehouse
D. Packaging area
J. Cross-examination and mix up can happen in the following situations,

EXCEPT:
A. Improperly dispensed components
B. Wrong labels
C. Improper partitioning of production area
D. Components are kept in tightly-sealed containers
K. All of the following are optical devices or instruments, except:
A. pH meter
B. Spectrophotometer
C. Colorimeter
D. Flame photometer
L. In the Statistical Quality Control, the chart used to measure the

variations in the products inspected in the production:
A. Variable chart
B. P-chart
C. Attribute chart
D. B and C
M. The adsorbent in the thin layer chromatography may be as follows,

except:
A. Alumina
B. Silica gel
C. Calcium oxide
D. Silica gel G
N. Constant weight in analytical procedures of drying means that

consecutive weighing after heating and cooling do not differ by:
A. More than 0.25mg
B. More than 0.50mg
C. Not more than 0.255mg
D. Not more than 0.75mg
O. The infrared region of the spectrometer used to identify a substance

has a wavelength range of
A. 200 — 380 nm
B. 380 — 780 nm
C. 780 — 3000 nm
D. 3 —15 µm
26. Two substances reacting upon reaching the end point must have the same:
A. Normality
B. Volume
C. Number of mEq
D. Weight
27. The bacterial structure responsible for selective permeability is:

A. Cell wall
B. Fimbriae
C. Spore
D. Cytoplasmic membrane
28. An amber glass bottle for an oral syrup preparation is considered light
resistant if it allows not more than what percent of light to be transmitted?
A. 10% at any wavelength in the range from 290 to 450 nm
B. 15% at any wavelength in the range from 290 to 450 nm
C. 20% at any wavelength in the range from 290 to 450 nm
D. 25% at any wavelength in the range from 290 to 450 nm
29. Finished product sterilization by autoclaving will destroy pyrogens in the

preparation.
A. all the time
B. most of the time
C. sometime
D. not at all
30. A calibrated volumetric apparatus was calibrated using standards traceable

to:
A. ASTM
B. ATCC
C. NIST
31. Which is not a biological indicator in the validation of a moist heat sterilizer?
A. Bacillus stearothermophilus
B. Bacillus subtilis
C. Bacillus coagulans
32. The following are tablet properties necessary to withstand the mechanical
shocks of manufacture, packaging and shipping, EXCEPT:
A. hardness
B. resistance to weight loss
C. resistance to friability
D. disintegration
33. Content uniformity test is initially conducted in:

A. 10 tablets
B. 20 tablets
C. 15 tablets
D. 5 tablets
34. The test for content uniformity is required for all EXCEPT:
A. film-coated tablets
B. solutions for inhalation
C. suspensions
D. liquid-filled soft capsules
35. Samples of raw materials in the quarantine area will not be subjected to this
test:
A. physical and organoleptic examination
B. leaker test
C. potency assay
D. microbiological test
36. The most widely used chromatographic method in drug analysis is:
A. Gas chromatography
B. Column chromatography
C. High performance liquid chromatography
D. Supercritical fluid chromatography
E. Thin-layer chromatography
37. One twentieth molar solution of sulfuric acid is:

A. 0.05 M
B. 0.1M
C. 0.005 M
D. 0.5M
38. The following are methods of determining the end point in precipitimetry,
EXCEPT:
A. Use of adsorption indicators
B. Cessation of precipitation
C. Formation of turbidity
D. Appearance of turbidity
39. Hexane is the best solvent for extracting:

A. Resins
B. Fats
C. Carbohydrates
D. Acids
40. A concentration expression referring to the number of equivalents of solute

per liter of solution is:
A. Normality
B. Molarity
C. Molality
D. Formality
41. A solution of known concentration used to standardize another solution is:

A. Primary standard
B. Dilute solution
C. Secondary standard
D. B and C
42. The apparatus used to keep samples free from moisture is:
A. Oven
B. Desiccator
C. Furnace
D. Dryer
43. The name of originator who introduced the adsorption dyes as an indicator in
volumetric precipitation method:
A. Volhard
B. Liebig
C. Mohr
D. Fajans
44. In spectrometry, when a test solution is prepared and observed identically

with a reference standard, they are:
A. Isomeric substances
B. Similar solutions
C. Similar preparations
D. B and C
45. In the assay of ascorbic acid by iodimetry, the analyte acts as:
A. Reducing agent
B. Oxidizing agent
C. Acid
D. Base
46. The type of ash where sulfuric acid is used to whiten the ash is:
A. Acid-insoluble ash
B. Sulfated ash
C. Loss on ignition
D. Residue on ignition
47. Region in an electromagnetic spectrum:

A. Visible
B. Infrared
C. Ultraviolet
D. All of the above
48. The reading that must be obtained in a spectrophotometer:

A. Concentration error
B. Absorbance
C. Retention
D. Angular rotation
49. In-process control tablets include the following, EXCEPT:
A. Weight
B. Hardness and thickness
C. Disintegration
D. Bioavailability
50. Caps, bottles, labels and shipping containers are considered as:
A. Active components
B. Drug products
C. Packaging materials
D. Excipients
51. Which of the following virus family is characterized as a single stranded DNA,
non-enveloped virus?
A. Herpesviridae
B. Poxviridae
C. Adenoviridae
D. Parvoviridae
52. Most of the RNA viruses replicate in the cytoplasm. Which of the following
RNA viruses replicate in the nucleus?
A. Retrovirus
B. Togavirus
C. Picornavirus
D. Paramyxovirus
53. One important generalization for RNA viruses is that they are usually
enveloped. Among the RNA viruses there are three which are naked. Which of the
following is/are naked R. viruses?
A. I. Picornavirus
B. II. Reovirus
C. III. Retrovirus
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
ZZ. This organism causes a non-bloody diarrhea.

A. Entamoeha histolytica
B. Giardia lamblia
C. Isospora belli
D. Strongyloides stercoralis
AAA. This is example(s) of organisms that can cross the placenta:
A. I. Rubeola
B. II. Cytomegalovirus
C. III. Leprosy
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
ZZ. This is the malarial species that has a characteristic crescent or

banana shaped gametocytes.
A. P. ovale
B. P. vivax
C. P. malariae
D. P. falciparum
AAA. This is the form of the malarial parasite that is taken up by the
mosquito as it bites on humans.
A. Sporozoites
B. Merozoites
C. Trophozoites
D. Gametocytes
BBB. This is the only form of the Blood-borne flagellates which is non-
flagellated.
A. Promastigote
B. Epimastigote
C. Amastigote
D. Trypomastigote
CCC. This is/are example(s) of Nematodes that can cause infection by

penetrating intact skin:
A. I. Necator americanus
B. II. Trichuris trichuria
C. III. Enterobius vermicularis
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
ZZ. This is the drug of choice for flukes.

A. Thiabendazole
B. Ivermectin
C. Mebendazole
D. Praziquantel
AAA. This drug is given as the drug of choice for the Bancroftian Filariasis.
A. Diethylcarbamazine
B. Ivermectin
C. Mebendazole
D. Praziquantel
BBB. This was the first vaccine in human used to be made by recombinant
DNA technology.
A. Polio vaccine
B. Rabies vaccine
C. Hepa B vaccine
D. Measles vaccine
CCC. This is a specific stain used for staining nuclei.
A. Feulgen stain
B. Carbolfuchsin
C. Nigrosin
DDD. First proposed the theory of Biogenesis, which states that life must
arise from preexisting life.
A. Louis Pasteur
B. John Tyndall
C. Rudolf Virchow
D. Lazaro Spallanzani
EEE. The following viruses possess RNA polymerase in the virion, except:
A. Hepatitis A virus
B. Smallpox virus
C. Mumps virus
D. Rotavirus
FFF. The following are true about prokaryotes, except:

A. They are relatively small.
B. Their genes are dedicated to essential functions only.
C. They lack autonomous organelles.
D. Their genetic materials are enclosed in a nuclear membrane.
GGG. The time required for a cell to divide or a population to double is

known as:
A. Thermal death time
B. Growth rate constant
C. Generation time
D. Thermal death point
HHH. The number of cases of Filipinos with AIDS has increased

tremendously over the past few years. This is described as:
A. Endemic
B. Epidemic
C. Pandemic
D. Acute
III. The following antibiotics interfere with the synthesis of proteins in
microorganisms, except:
A. Aminoglycosides
B. Tetracyclines
C. Lincomycin
D. Cephalosporins
JJJ. It refers to the killing of many, but not all microorganisms:

A. Sterilization
B. Disinfection
C. Antisepsis
D. Asepsis
KKK. This chemical agent is used extensively in hospitals for the sterilization
of heat sensitive materials. It kills by alkylating both proteins and nucleic acids:
A. Ethylene oxide
B. Formaldehyde
C. Acids and alkalis
D. Hydrogen peroxide
LLL. The single differentiation test between Staphylococcus

epidermidis and Staphylococcus aureus:
A. Gram staining
B. Catalase test
C. Coagulase test
D. Hemolysis test
MMM. The smallest known free-living microorganism is:

A. Viruses
B. Mycoplasma species
C. Rickettsia
D. Chlamydiae
NNN. Visceral larva migrans is acquired by ingesting egg's of a nematode

parasite of:
A. Pig
B. Monkey
C. Dog
D. Cat
OOO. The dog tapeworm that can be accidentally transmitted to humans:

A. Hymenolepsis nana
B. Hymenolepsis diminuta
C. Dipylidium caninum
D. Taenia solium
76. The endotoxin of gram-negative bacteria is associated with:

A. mesosome
B. cytoplasmic membrane
C. capsule
D. cell wall
E.
77. The tolerance of facultative anaerobic bacteria to lethal superoxides when

they are exposed to air is due to:
A. lack of CyP C oxidase
B. presence of CyP C oxidase
C. inability to form the superoxide radical
D. presence of superoxdie dismutase and catalase
78. T-helper cells are important in augmentation of which of the following?
A. I. antibody production
B. II. mixed lymphocyte reaction
C. III. delayed-type hypersensitivity reactions
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
YYY. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct for Natural killer
cells?
A. I. recognize and destroy certain tumor cells

B. II. lyse virus-infected cells
C. III. involve in delayed-type hypersensitivity reactions
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
YYY. Asthma:
A. immediate hypersensitivity
B. cytotoxic antibody
C. immune complex disease
D. delayed type hypersensitivity
E. NOTA
ZZZ. Effective given orally in Microsporum-induced disease of hair:

A. Metronidazole
B. Griseofulvin
C. Nystatin
D. Polymyxin
AAAA. The body louse is the vector for:

A. leptospirosis
B. pinta
C. epidemic relapsing fever
D. meningitis
BBBB. The event that correlates with the presence of fever paroxysm
in Plasmodium vivax malaria is:
A. invasion of hepatocytes by sporozoites
B. invasion of new RBC by merozoites
C. schizont rupture
D. gametocyte formation
CCCC. Corona virus are recognized by club-shaped surface projections that
are 20nm long and resemble solar coronas. These viruses are characterized by their
ability to:
A. infect infants more frequently than adults
B. cause common colds
C. grow well in the usual cultured cell lines
D. agglutinate human red blood cells
DDDD. ECHOviruses are cytopathogenic human viruses that mainly infects

the:
A. respiratory tract
B. central nervous system
C. blood and lymphatic systems
D. intestinal tract
EEEE. A patient's stool examination was found to have small structures

resembling rice grains (proglottids). Which of the following organisms is the most
likely present in the patient's stool?
A. Enterobius vermicularis
B. Ascaris lumbricoides
C. Taenia saginata
D. Trichuris trichuria
FFFF. Most macroparasites are extracellular organisms. Which of the

following is an intracellular parasite?
A. Enterobius
B. Trichinella
C. Strongyloides
D. Ascaris
GGGG. A type of relationship in which one species of organism uses the body
of a larger species as its physical environment and makes use of that environment
to acquire nutrients.
A. Commensalism
B. Mutualism
C. Parasitism
D. Symbiosis
HHHH. The capacity of an organism to produce a toxin is known as:
A. Pathogenicity
B. Virulence
C. Toxigenicity
D. Toxicity
IIII. Dengue virus vector:

A. Plasmodium falciparum
B. Aedes aegypti
C. Anopheles mosquito
JJJJ. The primary site of electron transport system in eukaryotes:

A. Ribosomes
B. Nucleus
C. Cytoplasm
D. Mitochondria
KKKK. Phase in the bacterial growth curve wherein the culture is in the period
of balanced growth:
A. Log phase
B. Lag phase
C. Stationary phase
D. Death phase
LLLL. Organisms that can grow at body temperature:

A. Thermophiles
B. Psychrophiles
C. Acidophiles
D. Mesophiles
MMMM. Compounds that combine with atmospheric moisture to produce highly

acidic rain, snow, hair or fog:
A. Carbon dioxide
B. Sulfur dioxide
C. Nitrogen oxide
D. A and B
E. B and C
NNNN. A trace mineral necessary for heme synthesis, electron transport and
wound healing:
A. Copper
B. Manganese
C. Chromium
D. Zinc
E. None
OOOO. The causative agent of suppurative diseases like pharyngitis and

cellulites and nonsuppurative diseases like rheumatic fever and acute
glomerulonephritis.
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Streptococcus pyogenes
C. Streptococcus pneumonia
D. Staphylococcus epidermidis
E. Streptococcus agalactiae
PPPP. A halophilic coma shaped, gram negative bacteria.

A. Escherichia coli
B. Salmonella typhii
C. Shigella dysenteriae
D. Vibrio cholerae
E. Camphylobacter jejuni
QQQQ. Which of the following best describes the mode of action of endotoxin?
A. Degrades lecithin in cell membranes
B. Inactivates elongation factor-2
C. Blocks release of acetylcholine
D. Causes the release of necrosis factor
RRRR. Five hours after eating fried rice at a restaurant, you and your friends
developed nausea, vomiting and diarrhea. Which of the following organisms is most
likely to be the causative agent?
A. Clostridium perfringens
B. Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli
C. Bacillus cereus
D. Salmonella typhii
SSSS. Viruses are obligate intracellular parasites. The following statements

concerning this fact are correct, except:
A. Viruses cannot generate energy outside the cell.
B. Viruses cannot synthesize proteins outside the cell.
C. Viruses must degrade host cell DNA in order to obtain nucleotides.
D. Enveloped viruses require host cell membranes to obtain their
envelopes.

Zibage June 2.0

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Description:

Original Title

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

Zibage June 2.0

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

Zibage Online Review

Test for Module 1 View Answers

1. Which of the following is the drug of choice to combat systemic

2. The aluminum silicate possesses antidiarrheal property:

3. Fehling's & Benedict's reagent, used to determine the presence of

6. Most abundant and essential of all elements:

8. To kill microorganism in inanimate objects we simply used:

9. Which of the following is a native of hydrous magnesium silicate:

10. Laughing gas is for _____ preparation

11. Heavy water is:

12. Benzalkonium chloride is a germicidal surfactant which is rendered

13. Dimercaprol (BAL) acts as an antidote by a process called:

16. Irritative phenomenon to the skin and mucus membrane exhibited by

17. Which of the following Group 0 elements is recovered from the

18. Which of the following elements imparts a characteristic violet color to

19. The solubility of a chemical in a given solvent is influenced by many

21. Different nuclides having the same mass number:

22. What is the effect of adding NH4Cl to a solution of NH4OH?

23. This ion produces violet color to the non-luminous flame.

24. A dentrifice which contains formalin and reduces the sensitivity of

26. White precipitate is also known as:

27. Radioactive strontium is used as a:

28. Antimony potassium tartrate is no longer used as an emetic because it

29. What solution is used to differentiate Group I cations?

30. In what concentration of silver nitrate is used as wet dressing for

31. Stabilizer used for silver protein compounds:

32. Continued use of hydrogen peroxide as mouth wash may cause:

33. Addition of diphenylcarbazide reagent to this cation produces a violet-

34. Dithizone test for zinc forms:

35. Vleminckx's solution is prepared by boiling sublimed sulfur and:

36. Metallic or black phosphorus is heating phosphorus with:

37. Equal amounts of two isomers are called:

38. Reduction occurs in:

39. Magnesium nitrate reagent contains:

40. Insoluble phosphates:

42. It decolorizes potassium permanganate and iodine solutions:

43. Element name signifies "sons of the earth":

44. Priestly discovered oxygen and called it:

45. Mercury thermometers for use at elevated temperatures have space

46. First radioactive element discovered by Curie:

47. It was once used as an antileukemic agent.

48. Employed as systemic acidifier:

49. Chalcogens are:

50. Dimethylglyoxime reagent is specific for:

51. Concentration of bentonite in Bentonite Magma preparation is:

53. Scandium was once known as:

54. Hatchett's Brown is:

55. Movement of an object against some force:

56. Which of the following is/are characteristics of an ideal antiseptic?

o I. high fraction of protein binding in the plasma

EEE. Macrolide antibiotics have these common characteristics:

o I. large lactone ring

EEE. It is used primarily for treating polycythemia vera:

GGG. Recommended for the management of adult patients with

HHH. Mechanism of action of Thiabendazole:

III. The chemical CH3CH2COOCH3 is an example of what type of

KKK. Which of the following compound is considered as a Grignard

LLL. Which of the following drugs is also known as 1,3-

MMM. Which of the following drugs useful for attention-deficit

NNN. Which of the following agents is considered as a selective

OOO. Which of the following drugs is an anion-exchanger?

PPP. Which functional moiety in the Aspirin molecule is responsible for