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Scadd63xqfidq7xov6ah Signature Poli 141026005448 Conversion Gate01
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A. double sugars
B. disaccharides
C. single sugars
D. polysaccharides
• What are described as the "building
blocks of Protein"?
A. Fiber
B. Lipids
C. Amino Acids
D. Nutrients
• (CH2O)n is the molecular formula for
which type of macromolecules?
A. Proteins
B. Lipids
C. Carbohydrates
D. Nucleic Acid
• Which macromolecule does not
dissolve in water?
A. proteins
B. lipids
C. carbohydrates
D. nucleic acids
• What type of organic substances are
fats?
A. nucleic acid
B. carbohydrate
C. protein
D. lipids
• What are the monomers of lipids?
A. Amino acids
B. Simple sugars
C. Fatty acids and glycerol
D. Nucleic acids
• Which of the following is a polymer?
A. nucleic acid
B. fatty acid
C. Amino acid
D. Glycerol
• Proteins are ____ made of amino
acid ____ .
A. monomers; polymers
B. polymers; polypeptides
C. polymers; monomers
D. monomers; molecules
• Which of the following is NOT a
polysaccharide?
A. Glycogen
B. Starch
C. Sucrose
D. Cellulose
• What are used in animals as a source of
quick energy that can be stored in the
liver and muscles ?
A. Proteins
B. Nucleic acids
C. Carbohydrates
D. Lipids
• Fats that have fatty acids with only single
covalent bonds in their carbon skeletons
are
A. saturated
B. unsaturated
C. found in plants instead of animals
D. liquid at room temperature
• Sugars, starches, and cellulose belong
to which major class of biological
molecules?
A. Nucleic acids
B. carbohydrates
C. lipids
D. polypeptides
• Plants like sugar cane and sugar beets store
the energy as simple sugars. Other plants,
like corn and potatoes, store the energy as
more complex sugars called?
A. carbohydrates
B. calories
C. starches
D. cellulose
• This biological macromolecule is
responsible for controlling the activity of the
cell, and it stores and transports genetic
information.
A. Carbohydrate
B. Nucleic acid
C. Water
D. Glucose
• In this type of structure, most of carbonyl
groups of peptide bonds forms a hydrogen
bond with the amide nitrogen of another
peptide bond four amino acids further down
the polypeptide chain:
A. Alpha-helix
B. Beta-sheet
C. Beta-turn
D. Quaternary
• Lipids are used by the body to perform all
of the following functions EXCEPT:
A. a cation Isoelectric
B. nonpolar point of
alanine is
C. a zwitterions 6.00
D. an anion
• The term “SALTING IN” refers to?
A. Primary structure
B. Secondary structure
C. Tertiary structure
D. Quaternary structure
• Which of the following amino acids are
more likely to be found in a protein’s
interior away from aqueous solvent
molecules?
• A Ionic bonds.
• B Covalent bonds.
• C Van der Waals forces.
• D Hydrogen bonds
• Two types of β-pleated sheets can be
called:
A. Primary structure
B. Secondary structure
C. Tertiary structure
D. Motif structure
• Some parts of a protein that have a specific
chemical structure and function are called
protein
A. chemicals
B. domains
C. subunits
D. enzymes
• One of the following is NOT usually a
force that helps to hold the monomer
units of a quaternary protein together?
A. Peptide bonds
B. Disulfide bonds
C. Salt bonds
D. Hydrophobic interactions
What is the quaternary structure of a protein?
Do all proteins have quaternary structure?
A. Hb
B. Hb (O2)
C. Hb (O2)2
D. Hb (O2)3
• If a person breathes into a paper bag, you
would expect their blood CO2 to
A. dehydration
B. denaturation
C. deamination
D. hydrolysis
Sample questions
• At a pH >pI of a given protein, that protein
becomes ______, at the pH<pI of that
same protein, it becomes _______.
• (a) Arginine
• (b) Proline
• (c) Histidine
• (d) Lysin
• The bonds in protein structure that are
not broken on denaturation.
A. C A. deoxyribose
B. T B. ribose
C. U C. glucose
D. G D. none of the above
• What is the role of hydrogen bonds in
the structure if DNA?
A messenger acid is 336 nucleotides With what mRNA codon would the
long, including the initiator and tRNA in the diagram be able to
termination codons. The maximum form a codon-anticodon base
number of amino acids in the pairing interaction?
protein translated from this mRNA
is:
• A. 3'-AUG-5'
• A 999
• B. 3'-GUA-5'
• B 630
• C. 3'-CAU-5'
• C 330
• D. 3'-UAC-5'
• D 111
• E. 3'-UAG-5'
• E 110
Sample questions for the nucleic acid section
A. 40-55 ℃
B. 35-40 ℃
C. 25-30 ℃
D. 15-20 ℃
• An allosteric activator
A. products
B. substrates
C. proteins
D. complex
• The location on an enzyme where
binding occurs is known as the
A. action point
B. enzyme
C. binding location
D. active site
• Enzymes catalyze reactions by
A. Oxidoreductases
B. Transferases
C. Hydrolases
D. Ligases
• At the end of a chemical reaction
k1
A B + C
k-1
v= k1 [A]
1st order reaction (rate dependent on concentration of 1 reactant)
v= k-1[B][C]
2nd order reaction (rate dependent on concentration of 2 reactants)
A. Curve A
B. Curve B
C. Curve C
D. Curve D
• Which of the following statements about
allosteric enzymes is CORRECT?
A. Calcitonin
B. Calsequestrin
C. Calmodulin
D. Calcitriol
Non-covalent Interactions
Protein-Protein Interactions
• Calmodulin (CALcium MODULted proteIN)
– Binding of Ca++ to calmodulin changes its
shape and allows binding and activation of
certain enzymes
Sample questions
• Which statement is false about covalent modification?
• A) It is reversible.
• B) It is slower than allosteric regulation.
• C) It is irreversible.
• D) Phosphorylation is a common covalent modification.
Sample questions
Protein kinases are enzymes that act on other enzymes by
adding phosphates groups. When the enzyme is
phosphorylated, it changes its activity (it becomes more
or less active, depending on the enzyme). This
regulatory mechanism of enzymatic activity is called:
• A) Allosteric Control
• B) Competitive inhibition
• C) Covalent Modification
• D) Isozymes Modification
• E) Zymogen activation
Glycolysis
Sample questions
• Glycolytic pathway regulation involves
• A. allosteric stimulation by ADP
• B. allosteric inhibition by ATP
• C. feedback, or product, inhibition by ATP
• D. all of the above
A. oxygen
B. ATP
C. lactate
D. carbon dioxide
gluconeogenesis
Sample questions
• There are four enzymes of gluconeogenesis that
circumvent the irreversible steps in glycolysis. When
starting with the substrate pyruvate or lactate they are
• A. Hexokinase, phosphofructokinase-1,
phosphofructokinase-2 and pyruvate kinase
• B. Pyruvate carboxylase, phosphoenolpyruvate
carboxykinase, fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase, and
glucose-6-phosphatase
• C. Glycerol kinase, glycerol-3-phosphate
dehydrogenase, fructose-2,6-bisphosphatase, and
glucose-6-phosphatase
• D. Amino transferase, phosphoenolpyruvate
carboxykinase, fructose-2,6-bisphosphatase, and
glucose-6-phosphatase
Sample questions
• The enzymes that remove phosphate groups during the
process of gluconeogenesis and circumvent two of the
three irreversible reactions of glycolysis are
Biotin: prosthetic
group -> carrier
for CO2
A. chloroplasts
B. ribosomes
C. nucleus
D. mitochondria
• Which of the following is not present
during the TCA cycle?
A. NADH
B. O2
C. CO2
D. ATP
• Which of the following is a list of the stages in
the correct order?
A. Krebs Cycle
B. Alcohol Fermentation
C. Lactic Acid Fermentation
D. Glycolysis
• Which of the following is an aerobic
product of pyruvate catabolic
metabolism?
• A lactate
• B ethanol.
• C acetyl CoA
• D glucose.
• Someone had hypoglycemic coma after he
injected himself with a large dose of insulin. All
of the following contributed to his coma EXCEPT
A. Insulin inhibited gluconeogenesis in the liver
B. Insulin activated glycogen phosphoryalse in
the liver
C. Insulin increased Glut4 in the muscle
membrane
D. Insulin inhibited the mobilization of free fatty
acid from adipose and the entrance into liver
mitochondria
• The insulin to glucagon ratio is low as it usually is in both
Type I and Type II diabetics. During and immediately
after a high carbohydrate meal, you would expect
A. Is inhibited by glucose
B. Is inhibited by insulin
C. Uses activated glycogen phosphorylase
D. Is inhibited by high cAMP
• Epinephrine:
A. cytosol
B. air
C. mitochondrion
D. nuclear
• During the fasting state, the release of fatty
acids from adipose tissue is increased. At least
part of the signal for this release is carried by
A. chloroplasts
B. ribosomes
C. nucleus
D. mitochondria
• The main purpose of the electron transport
chain is to:
A. Is anaerobic
B. Requires AMP
C. Requires the electron transport system
D. Is not dependent upon development of
a proton gradient
• Where are the proteins of the electron
transport chain located?
A. cytosol
B. mitochondrial outer membrane
C. mitochondrial inner membrane
D. mitochondrial matrix
• The ATP synthase responsible for most of the
ATP synthesis in the body is located:
A. oxygen
B. a molecule of carbon dioxide
C. a molecule of water
D. ADP
• A mitochondrion is producing ATP at a constant
rate and, then, a chemical uncoupler is added.
Compared to before the uncoupler was added:
2 e−
I Q III IV uncoupler
+ + cyt c
4H 4H 2H+ H+
Intermembrane Space
• A. keto-sugars
• B. either acetyl CoA or acetoacetyl CoA
• C. pyruvate or citric acid cycle
intermediates
• D. none of the above
Sample question
N
HN
Synthesis of adenine
and guanine nucleotides N N
Aspartate + GTP
Ribose-P
IMP dehydrogenase
IMP NAD+
GDP
A.S.
synthetase NADH
NH N
HN
N
N N
O N
Ribose-P
N H
N
• Glutamine, Adenylosuccinate
Ribose-P
xanthine monophosphate
in GMP A.S.
lyase
used AMP N
N
production N N
Ribose-P
H2N N
Ribose-P
AMP GMP
DNA replication
Sample questions
• Both strands of DNA serve as
templates concurrently in
• A. replication
• B. excision repair
• C. mismatch repair
• D. none of these
• Proofreading activity to maintain the fidelity of
DNA synthesis
• A. Helicase
• B. DNA gyrase
• C. Topoisomerases
• D. DNA ligase
• The replication of chromosomes by eukaryotes occurs in
a relatively short period of time because
• A. Trasformation
• B. Transcription
• C. Translation
• D. Replication
• Which of the following enzyme adds
complementary bases during replication?
• A. Helicase
• B. Synthesase
• C. Replicase
• D. Polymerase
• Which of the following enzymes unwind short stretches
of DNA helix immediately ahead of a replication fork?
• A. DNA polymerases
• B. Helicases
• C. Single-stranded binding proteins
• D. Topoisomerases
• Which DNA polymerase removes RNA primers
in DNA synthesis?
• A. Polymerase I
• B. Polymerase II
• C. Polymerase III
• D. none of these
DNA polymerases are specialized for different roles in
the cell
• Enzyme, responsible for proofreading base
pairing is
• A. DNA polymerase
• B. Telomerase
• C. Primase
• D. DNA ligase
• DNA helicase is used to
• A. Depurination
• B. Formation of thymine dimers
• C. Single strand break
• D. Dehydration
What is the function of DNA polymerase?
Explain how a DNA molecule contains the
information necessary to produce copies of itself.
• A. RNA polymerase
• B. DNA ligase
• C. DNA polymerase
• D. RNA ligase
• Which of the following is a product of
transcription?
• A. mRNA
• B. tRNA
• C. rRNA
• D. all of these
• Recognition/binding site of RNA
polymerase is called
• A. receptor
• B. promoter
• C. facilitator
• D. terminator
• An mRNA transcript of a gene
contains
• A. a start codon
• B. a stop codon
• C. a terminator
• D. all of these
• The components found in all prokaryotic
transcription terminators is
• A. a poly-U region
• B. Rho factor
• C. a hairpin structure
• D. none of these
• Where in the cell is the DNA transcribed into
mRNA?
• A. Cytoplasm
• B. Nucleus
• C.Golgi
• D.Cell cytoskeleton
• Which of the following does NOT happen during hnRNA
processing?
• A. Ribosome
• B. Nucleus
• C. Endoplasmic reticulum
• D. Chromosome
Sample questions
• The structure in a bacterium that
indicates an active site for protein
synthesis is
• A. a chromosome.
• B. a cell membrane,
• C. a flagellum.
• D. a polysome.
Sample questions
• Which of the following is not
necessary for protein synthesis to
occur, once transcription is
completed?
• A. tRNA
• B. Ribosomes
• C. mRNA
• D. DNA
Sample questions
• A. the peptide is ‘passed’ from the tRNA in the P-site to the tRNA in
the A-site.
• B. incoming tRNAs must first bind to the E-site.
• C. initiation begins with the binding of the ribosomal SSU to the
poly-A tail of the mRNA.
• D. the mRNA is translated by one ribosome at a time.
• The nucleolus of the nucleus is the site
where:
• A. proteins
• B. RNA
• C. both (a) and (b)
• D. lipids
• Which is required for protein synthesis?
• A. tRNA
• B. mRNA
• C. rRNA
• D. All of these
• In the genetic code there are:
• A. binds to rRNA
• B. binds to an amino acid
• C. binds to the Shine Dalgarno sequence
• D. binds to an mRNA codon
• Initiation of eukaryotic translation begins when
the:
• A. Glycine
• B. Proline
• C. Thymine
• D. Methionine
• The growing polypeptide chain is released
from the ribosomes when
• A. carbohydrate.
• B. DNA molecule.
• C. RNA molecule.
• D. protein molecule.
• What would be the effect of a mutation in the
operator that blocked the lac repressor binding?
• A. operator
• B. upregulator
• C.repressor
• D.transcriptor
• Which level of primary control in eukaryotic
gene activity involves processing early RNA
transcripts to mRNA and control of the rate at
which mRNA leaves the nucleus?
• A. transcriptional control
• B. translational control
• C. posttranscriptional control
• D. posttranslational control
• An enhancer site is
• A. part of an operon.
• B. found only in prokaryotes.
• C. located at a distance from the gene it
affects.
• D. an attachment site for RNA
polymerase.
Cell growth and carcinogenesis
Sample questions
• The event(s) which does not occur during
interphase, is/are
• A. Chromatin condenses
• B. Protein Synthesis
• C. Organelles replication
• D. DNA replication
The Cell
Cycle
• 2 major
phases
– Interphase
– Mitosis
• At the center of the cell cycle control
system is Cdk, a protein that
• TTGATC
List at least 3 non-covalent
interactions in the biomolecules
• Assist folding
• Protect aggregation
• Some times keep protein unfolded until
synthesis is complete.
Explain the difference between reversible denaturation and
irreversible denaturation of proteins.
• zwitterion
Hemoglobin is an allosteric protein that
can exist in two states: R (relaxed) and
T (taut). ____ state binds oxygen
tighter.
• R (relaxed)
The change in oxygen affinity with pH is known as
the Bohr effect. Hemoglobin oxygen affinity is ____
(increased/decreased) as the acidity increases.
• Reduced or decreased
Proteins that recognize and bind to a
particular antigen with very high
specificity belong to a group of serum
proteins called ______.
• Immunoglobulins or antibodies
What is the shape of the oxygen hemoglobin
dissociation curve?
How does the shape of the curve relate to
the cooperative binding of O2?
• Nucleic acids
The maximal UV absorbance of nucleic
acids and proteins are at the wavelength of
___ nm and ___ nm, respectively.
• 260, 280
The sugar groups in the nucleic acids are
___ (D/L) ribose while the residues in the
protein are ___ (D/L) amino acids.
• D, L
Polymer of nucleotides linked in a
direction from ribose carbon ___ (3’/5’)
to carbon ___ (3’/5’) by ______bonds.
• histone
DNA binding proteins bind DNA in two ways:
sequence-specific binding and non-sequence
specific binding. Please list two example of non-
sequence specific binding proteins.
• ATP, ATP
What is the purpose of glucagon?
• Kinase
Name two molecules that carries electrons
from glycolysis and Krebs Cycle to the
electron transport system.
• Hexokinase or Glucokinase
• Phosphofructokinase 1 or PFK-1
• Pyruvate Kinase
Hexokinase is allosterically inhibited by its product Glucose
6 phosphate. The hexokinase in the liver is called
glucokinase. However, glucokinase is not subject to product
inhibition by glucose-6-phosphate. What the benefit of this
characteristics of glucokinase?
• Eight, seven
Why can acetone be detected on
breath of diabetic patients?
• Acetone breath in diabetics is caused by an
excess production of ketone bodies.
• Glucose is abundant in blood, but uptake by
cells in muscle, liver, and adipose cells is low.
Cells, metabolically starved, turn to
gluconeogenesis and fat/protein catabolism
• However, due to excess gluconeogenesis,
oxaloacetate is low, so acetyl-CoA from
fat/protein catabolism does not go to TCA, but
rather to ketone body production.
High cholesterol diet leads to ____
(promotion/repression) of LDL receptor synthesis.
• repression
Chylomicrons are vesicles found in the blood and lymphatic
fluid where they serve to transport lipid from the intestine to
the liver and to adipose tissue. Of what are the chylomicrons
composed? List at least 3 components.
• Triglycerides
• Cholesterols
• lipoproteins
• phospholipids
• Cholesteryl ester
What is the effect of epinephrine and
glucagon on triglyceride metabolism?
• Transamination
• Deamination
Disposal of ammonia from amino acid metabolism
as _____ in most tissues especially in the brain
and kidneys, as _____ in the liver, and as _____
in the skeletal muscles.
• Glucogenic, ketogenic
Dietary nucleotides _____ (do/do not)
contribute energy as an energy source
material and _____ (are/are not)
incorporated into RNA or DNA.
• De novo, salvage
The purine synthesis is _____ by PRPP,
_____ by IMP, _____ by AMP, and _____by
GMP. Fill the blank with activated or
inhibited.
• Activated, Inhibited,
Inhibited, Inhibited,
What are the carbohydrate and fat
metabolic events occurred in liver
during fasting?
• RNA primer
Eukaryotic chromosomal DNA molecules have
special nucleotide sequences at their ends called
______.
• telomeres
Why is DNA replication semi-
discontinuous?
replication transcription
template double strands single strand
substrate dNTP NTP
primer yes no
Enzyme DNA polymerase RNA polymerase
product dsDNA ssRNA
base pair A-T, G-C A-U, T-A, G-C
• Template, coding
What is asymmetric transcription?
5' 3'
3' 5'
The mRNA start codon is ___ in
most cases.
• AUG
Deoxyribonucleotides are formed from
their corresponding _____.
• ribonucleotides
Explain mRNA splicing
• During splicing, introns are removed from
the strand, and the exons that remain are
assembled into a finished strand of mRNA
that is ready for translation.
What is the consequence of
frameshift mutation?
• Frameshift mutations result in all
subsequent reading frames (codons)
being shifted by one or two nucleotides.
These shifted frames will code for different
amino acids than before, and will result in
the creation of a malfunctioning protein.
The GUU GUA transition still codes for
Val and it therefore called to be ______
mutation.
• nonsense
The insertion or deletion of a nucleotide
into a gene results in a _____ mutation.
• frameshift
An incoming aminoacyl-tRNA enters
the ribosome at the ___ site.
• A
____ are synthesized as inactive precursors
that require proteolysis for activation.
• zymogen or proenzyme
In the operon system, tryptophan acts
as a ____ by binding the trp repressor.
• Co-repressor