Prestorming 2021 Set 2 - Test 21 Current Affairs Iii Explanation

PRESTORMINGTM 2021
SET 2 - TEST 21 CURRENT AFFAIRS III EXPLANATION
Q.1) Consider the following statements with reference to Right to Recall:
1. 1.It is the process whereby the elected officials can be removed by electorate before the expiry of
their term.
2. It is an example of instrument of indirect democracy.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION
Right to recall is the right of the voters to recall their representative before the expiry of the term, if the
majority of the voters are not satisfied with the performance of the representative. It is based on the
premise that if the voters have the right to vote, then the voters are also entitled to the right to recall.
So statement 1 is correct
It is an example of Direct democracy. The procedure dates back to the ancient Athenian democracy
and is a feature of several contemporary constitutions. So statement 2 is not correct.
ADDITIONAL INFORMATION
Right to recall and Advantages
 The concept of ―Rajdharma‖, wherein the lack of effective governance was a cause for the removal
of a king, has been spoken about since the Vedic times.
 M.N. Roy, in 1944, proposed a shift to a decentralised and devolved form of governance, allowing
for representatives to be elected and recalled.
 The ROPA, 1951, only provides for ―vacation of office upon the commission of certain offences and
does not account for general incompetence of the representatives or dissatisfaction of the electorate
as a ground for vacation‖.
 The Right to Recall also exists at local level bodies in Madhya Pradesh, Bihar and Chhattisgarh.
 A free and fair election is a right of the citizens of the country. When their elected representatives
no longer enjoy the confidence of the people, the people must have a right to remove them.
 Right to Recall is a right that would act as a significant check on corruption along with the ongoing
criminalisation of politics.
Q.2) Which of the following are the instruments of direct democracy?
1. Referendums
2. Citizens‘ initiatives
3. Plebiscite
4. Agenda initiatives
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
EXPLANATION
Direct democracy, also called pure democracy, forms of direct participation of citizens in
democratic decision making, in contrast to indirect or representative democracy. Referendums,
Citizen‘s initiative, Plebiscite and Agenda initiatives are examples of Direct democracy. So option (d)
is correct.
Referendums:
 Referendums give the people a direct vote, which may be binding or advisory, on a specific political,
constitutional or legislative issue that is referred to them by governing institutions such as
presidents, cabinets, parliaments.
Citizens‟ initiatives:
 A direct democracy procedure that allows citizens to initiate a vote of the electorate on a proposal
outlined by those citizens. The proposal may be for a new law, for an amendment to the
constitution, or to repeal or amend an existing law.
Plebiscite:
 Referendums conducted at the discretion of the government have often been called plebiscites.
Agenda initiatives:
 A direct democracy procedure which enables citizens to submit a proposal that must be considered
by the legislature but is not necessarily put to a vote of the electorate.
Q.3) Consider the following statements with reference to Over the Top (OTT) platforms:
1. These are online platforms that curate a range of content and present it on a singular platform.
2. Youtube is an example of OTT platform.
3. OTT platforms have been recently brought under the ambit of the Ministry of Information and
Broadcasting.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 3 only
EXPLANATION
Online Content Curated Platforms are online platforms that curate a range of content and present it
on a singular platform. OCCPs are different from other online platforms like Youtube, Facebook,
Instagram, which provide user-generated content (UGC). So statement 1 not correct.
YouTube is an example of an OTT platform and one of the examples of user-generated content, in
which the content uploaded by the user are subjected to guidelines issued by the platform. So
statement 2 is correct.
Union Government has brought OTT platforms under the ambit of the Ministry of Information and
Broadcasting. This will give the government control over OTT platforms, which were unregulated. So
OTT Platforms –New guidelines
 3 tier mechanism for OTT platforms;

1. OTT and Digital news media have to disclose their details.
2. Grievance redressal system for Digital and OTT platforms.
3. Self-regulatory body headed by retired SC or HC judge.
 The code adopted by the OTTs prohibited five types of content. This includes content that
deliberately and maliciously disrespects the national emblem or national flag, any visual or
storyline that promotes child pornography, any content that maliciously intends to outrage
religious sentiments, content that ―deliberately and maliciously‖ promotes or encourages terrorism
and any content that has been banned for exhibition or distribution by law or court.
Q.4) 4. Consider the following statements with reference to Gambling legislations in India:
1. Gambling and betting are State subjects.
2. Gambling is defined under the Gambling Legislations of states.
3. There are no specific central laws governing online gambling in India.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION
Gambling and betting are State subjects. The Gambling Act is the central enactment that has been
adopted by certain states in India and other states have enacted their own legislation to regulate and
govern gaming/gambling activities within their territory. Goa and Sikkim are the only exceptions
which have allowed gambling and betting in their state, subject to the regulation of their respective
state Governments. So statement 1 is correct.
Gambling is not defined anywhere in the Gambling legislation of States. So statement 2 is not
correct
There are no specific central laws governing online gambling platforms in India. Indian states
formulate their own gambling laws. For example, Maharashtra has banned online gambling by the
Bombay Wager Act. So statement 3 is correct.
Q.5) Which of the following country is not a member of Association of Southeast Asian Nations
(ASEAN)?
(a) Brunei
(b) Philippines
(c) New Zealand
(d) Malaysia
EXPLANATION
New Zealand is not a member country of ASEAN. The members of the ASEAN group are
Brunei, Cambodia, Lao, Malaysia, Philippines Vietnam, Myanmar, Indonesia, Thailand and
Singapore. So option (c) is correct.
ASEAN
 The Association of Southeast Asian Nations was established on 8 August 1967 in Bangkok,
Thailand, with the signing of the ASEAN Declaration (Bangkok Declaration) by the Founding
members of ASEAN namely Indonesia, Malaysia, Philippines, Singapore and Thailand.
objectives
 To promote regional peace and stability and respect for justice and the rule of law in the
relationship among countries of the region and adherence to the principles of the United Nations
Charter.
 To promote active collaboration and mutual assistance on matters of common interest in the
economic, social, cultural, technical, scientific and administrative fields;
Fundamental principles of ASEAN
 Mutual respect for the independence, sovereignty, equality, territorial integrity, and national
identity of all nations;
 The right of every State to lead its national existence free from external interference, subversion or
coercion;
 Non-interference in the internal affairs of one another;
 Settlement of differences or disputes by peaceful manner;
 Renunciation of the threat or use of force; and
 Effective cooperation among themselves.
Q.6) Consider the following statements with reference to BRICS:
1. South Africa was added to BRIC in 2005.
2. New Development Bank was created in the 6th BRICS summit in Brazil.
3. Moscow Declaration was adopted in 2020 BRICS Summit.
(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION
South Africa joined BRIC forum in December 2010, in line with the country‘s foreign policy to
strengthen South-South relations. So statement 1 is not correct.
NDB, a multilateral development bank was set up in the 6 TH BRICS summit at Fortaleza, Brazil, with
the objective of mobilizing resources for infrastructure and sustainable development projects. So
Moscow Declaration was adopted by the 12th BRICS summit 2020 with the theme of Global Stability,
Shared Security and Innovative Growth. So statement 3 is correct.
BRICS
 BRICS is an informal group of states comprising Brazil, the Russian Federation, India, China and
South Africa.
 BRICS has developed cooperations in different areas, such as science and technology, trade
promotion, energy, health, education, innovation and the fight against transnational crime.
 BRICS has developed Tuberculosis Research Network, which aims to introduce quality medicines
and diagnoses at affordable prices.
New Development Bank (NDB)
 The New Development Bank (NDB), created at the Fortaleza Summit (2014), is one of the
grouping's financial and economic cooperation.
 Through the activities of this bank, the mobilization of investment flows in infrastructure and
sustainable development projects in BRICS countries as well as in other emerging economies.
Q.7) Consider the following statements with reference to G20 Nations:
1. G20 does not have a permanent secretariat.
2. India has been a founding member of G20.
3. Sherpa Track of G20 focuses on global economic and financial issues.
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION
The G20 does not have a permanent secretariat, its agenda and activities are established by the
rotating Presidencies, in cooperation with the membership. So statement 1 is correct.
India is one of the founding members of the G20. G20 was established in September 1999 as a forum
of the Finance Ministers and the Central Bank Governors of the 19 major Economies and the EU in
the aftermath of the East Asian Financial Crisis of 1997. So statement 2 is correct.
The Sherpa Track of G20 focuses on non-economic and financial issues, such as development, anti-
corruption and food security. So statement 3 is not correct.
G20
 The G20 is the international forum that brings together the world‘s major economies. Its members
account for more than 80% of world GDP, 75% of global trade and 60% of the population of the
planet.
 Each year, the Presidency invites guest countries, which take full part in the G20 exercise. Several
international and regional organizations also participate, granting the forum an even broader
representation.
 7 Special invitees include non-member countries and institutions: 2 African Countries (Senegal-
Chair of NEPAD; and Guinea - Chair of Africa Union in 2017), Spain, Singapore, Norway,
Netherlands, Vietnam (Chair of Asia Pacific Economic Cooperation (APEC).
 Members (G-8 + 11 emerging economies+ EU): USA, Japan, Germany, UK, France, Italy, Canada,
Russia, Argentina, Australia, Brazil, China, India, Indonesia, Mexico, Saudi Arabia, South Korea,
South Africa and Turkey, and the EU (represented by the President of the European Council and
by the European Central Bank)
Q.8) Consider the following statements with reference to Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO):
1. It is a permanent intergovernmental political, economic and military organization founded in

Shanghai in 2005.
2. Regional Anti-Terrorist Structure (RATS), SCO Business Council and the Secretariat are the three
permanent bodies of SCO.
3. Russian and Mandarin are presently used as official and working languages in the SCO.

(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION
The Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) is a permanent intergovernmental international

organisation, founded in 2001(not 2005) in Shanghai. The SCO's main goals are,
 Strengthening mutual trust and neighbourhood among the member states and joint efforts to
maintain and ensure peace, security and stability in the region; and
 Moving towards the establishment of a democratic, fair and rational new international political
and economic order promoting their effective cooperation in politics, trade, the economy.
So statement 1 is not correct.
The Organisation has two permanent bodies — the Secretariat in Beijing (China) and the Regional
Anti-Terrorist Structure (RATS) in Tashkent. The SCO Business Council is an independent
institution capable of taking advisory decisions and giving expert assessments regarding the
involvement of members of the business communities of the SCO member states in trade, economic
and investment interaction within the framework of the Organisation, it is not a permanent body. So
statement 2 is not correct.
Russian and Mandarin are presently used as official and working languages in the SCO. India‘s
initiative to introduce English as a working language has gained support from Russia and Central
Asian states. So statement 3 is correct.
SCO
 The Heads of State Council (HSC) is the supreme decision-making body in the SCO. It meets once a
year and adopts decisions and guidelines on all important matters of the organisation.
 The SCO Heads of Government Council (HGC) meets once a year to discuss the organisation's
multilateral cooperation strategy and priority areas, to resolve current important economic and
other cooperation issues, and also to approve the organisation's annual budget.
 SCO comprises eight member states, namely the India, Kazakhstan, China, the Kyrgyz Republic,
Pakistan, Russia, Tajikistan, and Uzbekistan;
 SCO has four observer states, namely Afghanistan, Belarus, Iran and Mongolia.
 SCO has six dialogue partners, namely Azerbaijan, Armenia, Cambodia, Nepal, the Republic of
Zurkey, and Sri Lanka.
Q.9) Consider the following statements with reference to Organization of the Petroleum Exporting
Countries (OPEC):
1. OPEC is a permanent intergovernmental organization of 13 oil-exporting nations.
2. India is a part of OPEC+ countries.
3. Asian Premium is the extra charge being collected by OPEC countries from Asian countries when
selling oil.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION
The Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) is a permanent, intergovernmental

Organization, where it has 13 oil Exporting nations as its members. Iraq, Kuwait, Saudi Arabia and
Venezuela were the Founder Members of the Organization. So statement 1 is correct.
India is not that part of OPEC + countries. Non OPEC countries which export oil are called as OPEC +
Countries. The OPEC + countries are Bahrain, Azerbaijan, Brunei, Malaysia, Mexico, Kazakhstan,
Russia, South Sudan and Sudan. So statement 2 is not correct.
Asian Premium is an extra charge being collected by OPEC countries from Asian countries when
selling oil in comparison to western countries. Asian Premium is used by OPEC countries for
discriminating Asian countries and giving crude oil at a subsidized price for Western countries. So
OPEC
 The current OPEC members(13) are Algeria, Angola, Equatorial Guinea, Gabon, Iran, Iraq, Kuwait,
Libya, Nigeria, the Republic of the Congo, Saudi Arabia, the United Arab Emirates and Venezuela.
 In accordance with its Statute, the mission of the Organization of the Petroleum Exporting
Countries (OPEC) is to coordinate and unify the petroleum policies of its Member Countries and
ensure the stabilization of oil markets in order to secure an efficient, economic and regular supply
of petroleum to consumers.
Q.10) Consider the following statements with reference to GST (Compensation to States) Act,
2017:
1. If the annual revenue growth of a State is less than 10%, the State is entitled to receive
compensation.
2. The compensation payable to a State shall be released at the end of every two months period.
3. GST Compensation Cess comprises the cess levied on sin and luxury goods for five years.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION
If the annual revenue growth of a State is less than 14% the State is entitled to receive compensation
for five year period of 2017 – 2022. The compensation is paid through collection made on account of
the cess levy on sin and luxury goods. So statement 1 is not correct.
The compensation payable to a State shall be provisionally calculated and released at the end of
every two months period, and shall be finally calculated for every financial year after the receipt of
final revenue figures, as audited by the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India. So statement 2 is
correct.
Compensation cess comprises the cess levied on sin and luxury goods for five years to compensate the
states for 14 per cent revenue growth as states agreed to subsume their taxes in one common tax pool
with the roll-out of GST from 2017. So statement 3 is correct.
GST Compensation Cess:
 As part of the GST reforms, the Cess has been introduced through the GST (Compensation to
States) Act, 2017.
 It is levied on inter-and intra-State supply of notified goods such as aerated drinks, coal, tobacco,
automobiles for 5 years.
 The proceeds will be distributed to loss-incurring States on the basis of a prescribed formula as
compensation.
Q.11) Consider the following statements with reference to Monetary Policy Committee (MPC):
1. MPC was created by amendment of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949.
2. MPC consists of six members out of which three external members are appointed by Central
Government.
3. The Act adopted year-on-year changes in the Wholesale price Index (WPI) as the measure of
inflation target.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 2 and 3
EXPLANATION
In May 2016, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Act, 1934 was amended to set up the MPC. The Reserve
Bank of India (RBI) is vested with the responsibility of conducting monetary policy. So statement 1 is
not correct.
The amendment of Act, 1934 provides for an empowered six-member monetary policy committee, out
of which three external members are appointed by Central Government. The external members hold
office for 4 years and not eligible for reappointment. So statement 2 is correct.
The amended RBI Act also provides for the inflation target to be set by the Government of India, in
consultation with the Reserve Bank, once in every five years. Accordingly, the Central Government has
notified 4 per cent Consumer Price Index (CPI) inflation as the target for the period from August
5, 2016, to March 31, 2021, with the upper tolerance limit of 6 per cent and the lower
tolerance limit of 2 per cent as the measure of the inflation target. So statement 3 is not correct.
Instruments of MPC
There are numerous direct and indirect instruments used for executing monetary policy, which are as
follows:
 Repo Rate
 Marginal Standing Facility (MSF)
 Statutory Liquidity Ratio
 Reverse repo rate
 Liquidity Adjustment Facility
 Bank Rate
 Open Market Operations
 Market Stabilisation Scheme
Q.12) Consider the following statements with reference to procurement regime in India:
1. Government notifies MSPs annually for 14 kharif, 7 rabi and 2 calendar year season crops.
2. Government notifies Fair and Remunerative Prices (FRP) for sugarcane only.
3. MSP is notified on the recommendation of Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP).
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION
Government notifies MSP for
14 Kharif crops such as paddy, Jowar, Bajra, Maize, Ragi, Tur, Moong, Urad, Cotton, Groundnut,
Sunflower, Soybeans, Nigerseeds and sesamum
7 Rabi crops such as Wheat, Barley, Gram, Masur(lentil), Rapeseed and mustard, Safflower and
Tonia
Two calendar year season crops such as husked coconut and Jute. So statement 1 is correct
Fair and Remunerative Prices (FRP) is a price which sugar mills have to pay for buying Sugarcane
from the farmers. FRP is given only for sugarcane. So statement 2 is correct.
The MSP is fixed on the recommendations of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices
(CACP). The CACP is a statutory body and submits separate reports recommending prices for Kharif
and Rabi seasons. So statement 3 is correct.
MSP
 MSP for major agricultural products is fixed by the Government, each year.
 MSP is a tool which gives a guarantee to the farmers, prior to the sowing season, that a fair
amount of price is fixed to their upcoming crop to encourage higher investment and production of
agricultural commodities.
 The MSP is the minimum guaranteed price offered by the Government.
 In the case of sugarcane, MSP has been assigned a statutory status and as such the announced
price is termed as Fair Remunerative Price (FRP). There is statutory binding on sugar factories to
pay the minimum announced price and all those transactions or purchase at prices lower than this
are considered illegal.
 MSP for the different agricultural crops like food grains, oilseeds, fibre crops, sugarcane and
tobacco are announced by the Government of India before their sowing seasons. This makes it
possible for the farmer to have an idea about the extent of price insurance cover provided by the
government for the crop.
Q.13) Which of the following sectors are added recently to Production Linked Incentive (PLI)
Scheme by the government?
1. Advance Chemistry Cell (AC(C) Battery
2. Pharmaceuticals drugs
3. Specialty Steel
4. Telecom & Networking Products
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
EXPLANATION
Production Linked Incentive (PLI) Scheme by the government includes 13 sectors, with already
existing 3 sectors named (i) Mobile Manufacturing and Specified Electronic Components, (ii) Critical
Key Starting materials/Drug Intermediaries & Active Pharmaceutical Ingredients, and (iii)
Manufacturing of Medical Devices and 10 new key sectors which have been approved by the Union
Cabinet recently in November 2020. Advance Chemistry Cell (AC(C) Battery, Pharmaceuticals drugs,
Specialty Steel, Telecom & Networking Products are recently added to PLI. So option (d) is correct.
New sectors under PLI
Priority Sectors Implementing Ministry/Department

1. Advance Chemistry NITI Aayog and Department of Heavy
Industries
Cell (ACC) Battery
2. Electronic/Technology Products Ministry of Electronics and Information

Technology
3. Automobiles Department of Heavy Industries

& Auto Components
4. Pharmaceuticals drugs Department of Pharmaceuticals
5. Telecom & Networking Products Department of Telecom
6. Textile Products: MMF segment Ministry of Textiles

and technical textiles
7. Food Products Ministry of Food Processing Industries
8. High Efficiency Solar PV Ministry of New and Renewable Energy

Modules
9. White Goods (ACs & LED) Department for Promotion of Industry and
Internal Trade
10. Speciality Steel Ministry of Steel
Q.14) Consider the following statements with reference to CV Raman:
1. He worked as a civil servant in the Indian Finance Department in Calcutta.

2. He founded the Indian Journal of Physics in 1926.
3. India celebrates National Science Day on 28 February of every year to commemorate the discovery
of the Raman Effect by CV Raman.
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION
Raman worked as a civil servant in the Indian Finance Department in Calcutta, rising quickly to a
senior position. In his free time, he researched the physics of stringed instruments and drums. He did
this work at the Indian Association for the Cultivation of Science (IACS). So statement 1 is correct.
He founded the Indian Journal of Physics in 1926 in which he served as editor. So statement 2 is
correct.
National Science Day is celebrated every year on February 28. This day recalls the notable invention
"Raman Effect" by India's greatest scientist C V Raman. Raman effect- change in the wavelength of
light that occurs when a light beam is deflected by molecules. He was awarded the Nobel Prize for this
discovery. So statement 3 is correct.
Q.15) Who among the following were the founding members of All India Trade Union Congress
(AITUC)?
1. Bal Gangadhar Tilak
2. Lala Lajpat Rai
3. Narayan Malhar Joshi
4. Joseph Baptista
5. Diwan Chaman Lall
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
EXPLANATION
The founding of AITUC was part of the workmen struggle to demand a 10-hour working day and
dearness allowance that brought together a wide spectrum of workers. All India Trade Union
Congress (AITUC), the first trade union of India founded by freedom fighters, including Lala Lajpat
Rai, Joseph Baptista, Bal Gangadhar Tilak, Narayana Malhar Joshi, Diwan Chaman Lall. So
option (d) is correct.
AITUC:
 All India Trade Union Congress (AITUC) was founded on October 31 1920
 Lala Lajpat Rai elected as the 1st president od AITUC
 AITUC was influenced by the social Democratic ideas of the British Labour Party.
Q.16) Consider the following statements with reference to Star campaigners of political parties in
India:
1. Star campaigners are nominated by political parties to campaign in a given set of constituencies.
2. List of star campaigners must be communicated to ECI within a week from the election notification
date as per RPA, 1951.
3. A recognised political party can have fifty Star campaigners.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION
A star campaigner is a celebrity vote seeker in an election for a party. This person can be a politician
or even a film star. Star campaigners are nominated by political parties to campaign in a given set of
constituencies. So statement 1 is correct.
Under section 77(1) of RPA 1951, the list of star campaigners must be communicated to CEI and the
Chief Electoral Officer within a week from the election notification dates are announced. So
The recognized political party can have 40-star campaigners and unrecognized political parties can
have 20-star campaigners. Recently due to Covid 19, pandemic ECI revised the norms as a
recognized party to have 30-star campaigners and an unrecognized political party to have 15-star
campaigners. So statement 3 is not correct.
Star campaigners
 Expenditure incurred on campaigning by such notified star campaigners is exempt from being
added to the election expenditure of a candidate.
 However, this only applies when a star campaigner limits herself to a general campaign for the
political party she represents.
 If a candidate or her election agent shares the stage with a star campaigner at a rally, then the
entire expenditure on that rally, other than the travel expenses of a star campaigner, is added to
the candidate‘s expenses.
Q.17) Consider the following statements with reference to Vulture Action Plan 2020-25:
1. It is launched by World Wide Fund for Nature.
2. At least one Vulture Safe Zone is to be established in every State.
3. The sale of veterinary non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) is to be regulated that lead
to death of vultures.
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION
It was launched by M/o Environment Forest and Climate change for the conservation of vultures
across the country. The Action Plan for Vulture Conservation (APVC) in India, 2020-2025 enable
expansion of the Conservation Breeding Programme of vultures by establishing more centres in
different parts of the country. So statement 1 is not correct.
It is proposed to have at least one vulture safe zone in each State for the conservation of the remnant
populations in that State. The vulture safe zone shall be created ensuring a low prevalence of toxic
Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs in an area. This will help in the conservation of vultures
across the country with the participation of people and communities. So statement 2 is correct.
The Centre plans to regulate the sale of veterinary non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
that lead to the death of vultures by allowing their disbursal only on prescriptions and the treatment
of livestock by qualified veterinarians. So statement 3 is correct.
Vulture in India
 India hosts 9 vulture species, 5 of them the highly endangered Gyps species.
 Assam is naturally a suitable habitat for vultures.
 It is home to 6 species, including winter visitors from the Himalayas — the Himalayan and
Eurasian griffons.
 The Vulture Conservation Breeding Centre (VCBC) in Assam at Rani, Guwahati has 104 vultures,
brought in as chicks.
 It has 30 adults and sub-adults: all oriental white-backed and slender-billed.
 These are 2 of the 6 species found in Assam that are old enough to be set free.
 The vulture population in Assam is presently battling toxic chemicals in livestock carcasses, due to
Diclofenac use
There are nine recorded species of vultures in India, they are
 Oriental white-backed - Critically Endangered

 Long-billed - Critically Endangered
 Slender-billed - Critically Endangered
 Red-headed - Critically Endangered
 Egyptian - Endangered
 Himalayan Griffon - Near Threatened
 Bearded Griffon - Near Threatened
 Cinereous Griffon - Near Threatened
 Indian Griffon - Near Threatened
Vulture Action Plan 2020-25:
 Prevent the poisoning of food of vultures, the cattle carcasses, with veterinary NSAIDs, by ensuring
that the sale of veterinary NSAIDs is regulated and is disbursed only on prescription and by
ensuring that treatment of livestock is done only by qualified veterinarians.
 Carry out safety testing of available molecules of veterinary NSAIDs on vultures. The new
molecules should be introduced in the market only after they are proved to be safe following safety
testing on vultures.
 The DCGI must institute a system that automatically removes a drug from veterinary use if it is
found to be toxic to vultures. Such a system would ensure that drugs other than diclofenac that
are toxic to vultures like aceclofenac and ketoprofen are banned for veterinary use.
Q.18) What are the applications of Earth Observation Satellite EOS-01, launched recently?
1. Land and forest mapping
2. Mapping of resources like water/minerals/ fishes.
3. Weather and climate observations.
4. Soil assessment
5. Geospatial contour mapping
(a) 1, 2 and 5 only
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
EXPLANATION
EOS-01 is an earth observation satellite, intended for applications in agriculture, forestry and
disaster management support. Application of the Earth Observation Satellite EOS-01 is Land and
forest mapping, Weather and Climate observations, Soil assessment, Geospatial contour mapping
and Mapping of resources like water/minerals/ fishes. So option (d) is correct.
EOS – 01
 India‘s Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle, in its fifty-first flight (PSLV-C49), successfully launched
EOS-01 along with nine international customer satellites from Satish Dhawan Space Centre
(SDSC) SHAR, Sriharikota on November 07, 2020.
 The nine customer satellites from Lithuania (1), Luxembourg (4) and USA (4) were launched under
a commercial arrangement with NewSpace India Limited (NSIL).
Q.19) Consider the following statements:
1. The pulsars are rapidly rotating neutron stars that emit radio-frequency pulses.
2. They are not magnetic in nature.

3. Pulsars can radiate light in multiple wavelengths.
(a) 3 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION
Pulsars are rotating neutron stars observed to emit pulses of radio waves at very regular intervals
that typically range from milliseconds to seconds. So statement 1 is correct.
Pulsars have very strong magnetic fields which funnel jets of particles out along the two magnetic
poles. Hence they are magnetic in nature. So statement 2 is not correct.
Pulsars can radiate light in multiple wavelengths, from radio waves up to gamma-rays. These beams
of light are notable because they are extremely bright and narrow, and have properties similar to those
of a laser beam. So statement 3 is correct.
PULSARS
 Pulsars are super dense, rapidly spinning neutron stars left behind when a massive star explodes.
 A pulsar emits regular pulses of radio waves like X-rays, Gama rays and have highly intense
magnetic and electric fields.
 Recently NASA has discovered a pulsar PSR J0002hurtling through space at nearly four million
kilometres an hour.
Q.20) Sanitation and Hygiene Fund (SHF) is launched recently by which of the following
organisation?
(a) United Nations
(b) Niti Aayog
(c) Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs
(d) Bill and Melinda Gates Foundation

EXPLANATION
Sanitation and Hygiene Fund (SHF) is launched recently by United Nations. The Sanitation and
Hygiene Fund provides catalytic funding to countries with the heaviest burden and least ability to
respond to health and Hygiene. So option (a) is correct
Sanitation and Hygiene Fund
 The Sanitation and Hygiene Fund is a global financing mechanism to support country-driven
programmes to bring sanitation and hygiene to all.
 It is providing solutions to crisis like sanitation, hygiene and menstrual health.
 Investing in a public-private approach, the fund aims to capitalize on the strengths of its in-
country and global partners.
Q.21) Consider the following statements with reference to Central Information Commission:
1. The Commission consists of a Chief Information Commissioner and not more than five Information
Commissioners (IC).
2. CIC and IC shall not be Member of Parliament or Member of the Legislature of any State or Union
Territory.
3. CIC and IC are eligible for reappointment.
(a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.22) the following statements:
1. Central/State (C/S) Information Commissions are statutory bodies constituted under the Right to
Information (RTI) Act, 2005.
2. They are the final appellate authority for RTI Act.
3. CIC is required to submit annual reports to the President.

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.23) Which of the following persons fall into the category of service voters in India?
1. Members of Armed Forces of the Union
2. Members of forces to which provisions of Army Act, 1950 applies
3. Members of armed police force of a State and serving outside that state
4. Persons who are employed by Government of India in a post outside India.
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
EXPLANATION :
Voters having service qualification are known as Service Voters i.e. they are –
1. member of the Armed Forces of the Union
2. member of a force to which provision of the Army Act 1950 have been made applicable
3. member of an Armed Police Force of a State, and serving outside that state; or
4. a person employed under the Government of India, serving outside India. So option (d) is correct.
Q.24) Consider the following statements with reference to Current process of voting for NRIs:
1. Voting rights for NRIs were introduced only in 2011, through an amendment to the Representation
of the People Act 1950.
2. An NRI can vote in the constituency in her place of residence, as mentioned in the passport, is
located.
3. She can only vote in person and will have to produce her passport in original at the polling station
for establishing identity.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
Voting rights for NRIs were introduced only in 2011, through an amendment to tthe Representation
of the People Act 1950. Only one vote is given for a person. So statement 1 is correct
NRI can only vote in the relevant part of the electoral roll of the constituency where his place of
residence in India as mentioned in his passport is located. So statement 2 is correct.
NRI is allowed to cast his vote in an election in the constituency, in person at the polling station on
the production of his original passport to establish his identity. So statement 3 is correct.
NRI
 An Individual is said to be a non-resident in India if he is not a resident in India and an individual

is deemed to be resident in India in any previous year if he satisfies any of the following conditions:
1. If he is in India for a period of 182 days or more during the previous year; or
2. If he is in India for a period of 60 days or more during the previous year and 365 days or
more during 4 years immediately preceding the previous year.
 The Finance Act, 2020 has introduced new section 6(1A) to the Income-tax Act, 1961. The new
provision provides that an Indian citizen shall be deemed to be resident in India only if his total
income, other than income from foreign sources, exceeds Rs. 15 lakhs during the previous year
Q.25) Which of the following rivers originate from the Tibetan plateau, often called the “Third
Pole”?
1. Indus
2. Irrawaddy
3. Yangtze
4. Salween
5. Mekong
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1, 3 and 5 only
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
(c) 1, 4 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
EXPLANATION
The Tibetan plateau, which holds the Hindu Kush Himalaya (HKH) ice sheet, is known as the world‘s
―Third Pole.‖ The Tibetan plateau has more than 46,000 glaciers, 14.5 percent of the world‘s total.
These glaciers give birth to Asia‘s major river systems the Indus, Sutlej, Brahmaputra, Irrawaddy,
Salween, Mekong, Yangtze, and Yellow Rivers. So option (d) is correct.
Third pole:
 The region that encompasses the Hindu Kush Himalayas mountain range and the Tibetan Plateau
is widely known as the Third Pole because its ice fields contain the largest reserve of fresh water
outside the polar regions.
 It holds the largest number of glaciers and snow after the Arctic and Antarctic.
 Under the International Centre for Integrated Mountain Development (ICIMOD), experts from
different regions have come together to develop the first Hindu Kush Himalayan assessment report,
which was released on January 5, 2019.
Q.26) Which of the following country doesn‟t touch its border with Baltic Sea?
(a) Norway
(b) Sweden
(c) Finland
(d) Poland
EXPLANATION
The Baltic Sea Region (BSR) comprises eight EU Member States. The EU Member States – Denmark,
Sweden, Finland, Estonia, Latvia, Lithuania, Poland and Germany – and Russia are all directly
bordering the Baltic Sea. Norway and Belarus do not share a border with the Baltic Sea. So
option (a) is correct.
Q.27) Which of the following Committee is not related to police reforms?
(a) Ribeiro Committee
(b) Padmanabhaiah Committee
(c) Malimath Committee
(d) None of the above
EXPLANATION
Ribeiro Committee was set up by the Supreme Court. It endorsed the recommendations of the NPC
with certain modifications pertaining to police reforms.
Padmanabhaiah Committee examined the requirements of policing in the new millennium.

Padmanabhaiah Committee on Police Reforms made 154 recommendations pertaining to recruitment,
training, reservation of posts, involvement of the public in crime prevention, recruitment of police
personnel, a delegation of powers to lower ranks in police, the revival of beat system, use of
traditional village functional village functionaries, police patrolling on the national and state.
Malimath Committee made recommendations to reform the criminal justice system and police
system. It was of the view that the present Adversarial System could be improved by adopting some
features of the Inquisitorial System, and recommended that ‗Quest for Truth‘ should be the guiding
principle of the entire criminal justice system.
So option (d) is correct.
Q.28) Arrange the following major ports of India from south to north:
1. Kandla
2. Cochin
3. Tuticorin
4. Paradip
(a) 3-2-4-1
(b) 3-2-1-4
(c) 2-3-1-4
(d) 3-1-2-4
EXPLANATION
Kandla port is located in Gujarat, Cochin port is located in Kerala, Tuticorin located in Tamilnadu
and Paradip located in Odisha.
The order of the given ports from south to north is Tuticorin-Cochin-Paradip- Kandla. So option (a)
is correct.
1. India ranks as the world‘s second largest market in terms of total internet users.
2. India banned over 200 Chinese mobile apps under Section 69A of the Information Technology Act.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION
India ranks as the world‘s second-largest market in terms of total internet users. The number of
internet subscribers in the country increased from FY16 to FY20 to reach 743.19 million in FY20.
India is also the world‘s second-largest telecommunications market. The total subscriber base in the
country stood at 1,173.83 million, as of December 31, 2020. So statement 1 is correct.
In view of the emergent nature of threats, GOI has decided to block 118 mobile apps under Section
69A of the IT act, since in view of the information available they are engaged in activities that are
prejudicial to the sovereignty and integrity of India, defence of India, security of the state and public
order. So statement 2 is not correct.
Section 69A of IT Act:
 Section 69A of the IT Act, 2000, allows the Centre to block public access to an intermediary ―in the
interest of sovereignty and integrity of India, defence of India, security of the State, friendly
relations with foreign states or public order or for preventing incitement to the commission of any
cognisable offence
Q.30) Consider the following statements with reference to Ammonia:
1. Ammonia is a colourless highly reactive and soluble acidic gas.
2.It is a prominent constituent of the nitrogen cycle.
3. The largest source of NH3 emissions is agriculture, including animal husbandry and NH3-based
fertilizer applications.

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION
Ammonia, NH3, is a colourless, pungent, suffocating, highly water-soluble, gaseous compound,

usually produced by the direct combination of nitrogen and hydrogen. It is used chiefly for
refrigeration and in the manufacturing of chemicals. Ammonia is typically a weak base, not acidic. So
When an organism excretes waste or dies, the nitrogen in its tissues is in the form of organic nitrogen
(e.g. amino acids, DNA). Various fungi and prokaryotes then decompose the tissue and release
inorganic nitrogen back into the ecosystem as ammonia in the process known as ammonification.
The ammonia then becomes available for uptake by plants and other microorganisms for growth. In
the Nitrogen cycle, the nitrogen is converted into ammonia by the nitrogen-fixing bacteria called
Azotobacter. Thus ammonia is a prominent constituent of the Nitrogen cycle. So statement 2 is
correct.
The largest source of NH3 emissions is agriculture, including animal husbandry and NH3-based
fertilizer applications. Other sources of NH3 include industrial processes, vehicular emissions and
volatilization from soils and oceans. So statement 3 is correct.
Ammonia:
 Ammonia is an inorganic compound composed of a single nitrogen atom covalently bonded to three
hydrogen atoms
 It is an important source of nitrogen which is needed by plants and animals. Bacteria found in the
intestines can produce ammonia. Ammonia is a colourless gas with a very distinct odour.
 Ammonia is applied directly into soil on farm fields and is used to make fertilizers for farm crops,
lawns, and plants.
 Many household and industrial cleaners contain ammonia.
Q.31) Emissions Gap Report is released by which of the following organisation?
(a)United Nations Environment Programme
(b) IUCN
(c) Germanwatch
EXPLANATION
Emissions Gap Report is released by United Nations Environment Programme. Each year, the
Emissions Gap Report assesses the gap between anticipated emissions and levels consistent with the
Paris Agreement goals of limiting global warming this century to well below 2°C and pursuing 1.5°C.
This difference between ―where we are likely to be and where we need to be‖ is known as the
emissions gap. So option (a) is correct.
United Nations Environment Programme
 The United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) is the global environmental authority that
sets the global environmental agenda, promotes the implementation of the environmental
dimension of sustainable development within the United Nations system, and the protection of the
global environment.
 Headquartered in Nairobi, Kenya.
 The UNEP mission is to provide leadership and encourage partnership in caring for the
environment by inspiring, informing, and enabling nations and peoples to improve their quality of
life without compromising that of future generations.
Q.32) Consider the following statements with reference to State of Food and Agriculture, 2020
released by Food and Agriculture Organization:
1. Socio-economic development contributes to shifting of diets towards more water-intensive foods.
2. Roughly 1/6th of the world‘s population live in severely water-constrained agricultural areas.
3. China‘s annual agricultural water withdrawal is the highest in the world followed by India and the
United States.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION
The report observes that -Socio-economic development is another important driver of increased
demand for water, as it contributes to shifting diets towards more water-intensive foods. For example
meat and dairy products. Healthy diets that include sustainability considerations at the food systems
level can reduce the associated water consumption. So statement 1 is correct
The report observes that -Achieving sustainable development faces a key challenge: 3.2 billion people
live in agricultural areas with high to very high water shortages or scarcity, of whom 1.2 billion
people – roughly one-sixth of the world‘s population live in severely water-constrained agricultural
areas. So statement 2 is correct.
India leads the world in annual agricultural water withdrawals. China and the US are also among the
10 countries with the largest agricultural withdrawals. Globally, the largest water use happens in the
agriculture sector, primarily for irrigation. So statement 3 is not correct.
State of Food and Agriculture
 The State of Food and Agriculture, one of FAO's major annual flagship publications, aims at
bringing to a wider audience balanced science-based assessments of important issues in the field
of food and agriculture.
 Each edition of the report contains a comprehensive, yet easily accessible, overview of a selected
topic of major relevance for rural and agriculture development and for global food security.
FAO
 The Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) is a specialized agency of the United Nations that
leads international efforts to defeat hunger.
 The goal is to achieve food security for all and make sure that people have regular access to enough
high-quality food to lead active healthy lives. Over 194 member states, FAO works in over 130
countries worldwide.
Q.33) Consider the following statements with reference to Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana
(PMKSY):
1. It comes falls the Ministry of Jal Shakti.
2. Per Drop More Crop focusing on micro irrigation systems is one of the two components of PMKSY.
3. Micro Irrigation Fund has been created with National Bank of Agricultural and Rural Development
(NABAR(D) to supplement the PMKSY-PDMC.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION
PMKSY comes falls under the M/o Agriculture and Farmer‘s Welfare, not with Ministry of Jalsakthi.
Department of Agriculture, Cooperation & Farmers Welfare implemented ‗Per Drop More Crop‘ as a
component of Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana (PMKSY- PDMC). The PMKSY- PDMC focuses
on enhancing water use efficiency at the farm level through Micro Irrigation technologies like Drip and
Sprinkler irrigation systems. During the last five years (2015-16 to 2019-20), an area of 46.21 lakh ha
has been covered under Micro Irrigation through PMKSY-PDMC. So statement 2 is correct
Micro Irrigation Fund has been created with NABARD during 2017-18. The objective of the fund is to
facilitate the States in mobilizing the resources for expanding coverage of Micro Irrigation by taking up
special and innovative projects and also for incentivising micro-irrigation beyond the provisions
available under PMKSY-PDMC to encourage farmers to install micro-irrigation systems. So
statement 3 is correct
PMKSY
 Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana (PMKSY) has the vision of assured irrigation access; ―Har
Khet Ko Pani‖ and improving on-farm water use efficiency; ―More Crop Per Drop‖ in a focused
manner with an ―Integrated Value Chain‖ involved in the creation, distribution, management, field
application and extension activities.
Major objectives of the scheme
 Achieve convergence of investments in irrigation at the field level Enhance the physical access of
water on the farm and expand cultivable area under assured irrigation.
 Integration of water source, distribution and its efficient use, to make the best use of water
through appropriate technologies and practices.
 Improve on-farm water use efficiency to reduce wastage and increase availability both in duration
and extent.
 Enhance the adoption of precision irrigation and other water-saving technologies like More crop per
drop.
Q.34) Consider the following statements with reference to Zero Liquid Discharge (ZLD):
1. ZLD is a water treatment process to recirculate all the water back to the process with zero liquid
waste.
2. ZLD system involves technologies for treating water up to the level that can be reused inside the
same Company.
3. ZLD generates zero hazardous solid wastes.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION
ZLD is a water treatment process to recirculate all the water back to the process with zero liquid
waste. The reduction of wastewater economically and producing clean water that is suitable for reuse
is the main focus of ZLD. So statement 1 is correct.
A ZLD treatment system utilizes advanced technological water treatment processes to limit liquid
waste at the end of the industrial process. The treated water is being pumped to holding tanks, where
this recycled water can be stored and reused in the industrial facility. So statement 2 is correct.
ZLD does not generate zero hazardous solid wastes. The solid waste generated in the process of ZLD
may be Hazardous or non-hazardous, it depends on the water used in the treatment which may
contain hazardous chemical substances. So statement 3 is not correct.
Q.35) Which of the following is not the part of Human Development Report released by United
Nations Development Programme (UNDP)?
(a) Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI)
(b) Gender Development Index (GDI)
(c) Gender Inequality Index (GII)
EXPLANATION
Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI), Gender Development Index (GDI), Gender Inequality
Index (GII), Inequality-adjusted Human Development Index (IHDI) and Human Development
Index are part of the Human Development Report released by UNDP. So option (d) is correct.
Human Development Report
 Human Development Report is released by UN Development Programme (UNDP).

 It unveils the Human Development Index (HDI) which measures average achievement in three basic
dimensions of human development,
1. Life expectancy,
2. Education and
3. Per capita income.
Q.36) Consider the following statements with reference to Global Hunger Index 2020:
1. India ranks first in millets and second in rice and wheat production in the world.
2. India has moved away from dependence on food aid to become a net food exporter.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION
India ranks first in millets and second in rice and wheat production in the world. So statement 1 is
correct.
With a five-fold increase in food grain production from 50 million tonnes in 1950-51 to about 250
million tonnes in 2014-15, India has moved away from dependence on food aid to become a net food
exporter. .So statement 2 is correct.
GLOBAL HUNGER INDEX
 The Global Hunger Index (GHI) is a tool designed to measure and track hunger at global, regional,
and national levels.GHI scores are calculated each year to assess progress and setbacks in
combating hunger.
 The GHI is designed to raise awareness and understanding of the struggle against hunger, provide
a way to compare levels of hunger between countries and regions and call attention to those areas
of the world where hunger levels are highest and where the need for additional efforts to eliminate
hunger is greatest.
 GHI is calculated based on four indicators
1. UNDERNOURISHMENT: the share of the population that is under-nourished (that is, whose
caloric intake is insufficient)
2. CHILD WASTING: the share of children under the age of five who are wasted (that is, who have low
weight for their height, reflecting acute undernutrition)
3. CHILD STUNTING: the share of children under the age of five who are stunted that is, who have
low height for their age, reflecting chronic undernutrition
4. CHILD MORTALITY: the mortality rate of children under the age of five in part, a reflection of the
fatal mix of inadequate nutrition and unhealthy environments
Q.37) Consider the following pairs:
1. Channapatna toys - Karnataka
2. Kondapalli toys - Andhra Pradesh
3. Etikoppaka Toys - Kerala
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION
Channapatna toys – These toys are manufactured in the Ramnagara district of Karnataka, which has
received GI tag under the world trade organization.
Kondapalli toys. – They are manufactured in Andhra Pradesh. The toys depict scenes from actual
life, animals, rural folks, deities and characters from the epics.
Etikopakka toys. – They are manufactured in Andhra. Made in the Etikoppaka region of Andhra
Pradesh, these toys are made with lacquer colour and are traditionally known as Etikoppaka toys or
Etikoppaka Bommalu.
So option (a) is correct.
Q.38) Consider the following statements with reference to Jyotiba‟ Govindrao Phule:
1. He and his wife Savitrirao Phule opened the first-ever school for girls at Bhide Wada, Pune.
2. Jyotirao and Savitribai started the first-ever infanticide prohibition home in India called Balhatya
Pratibandhak Griha.
3. He was the first person to coin the term ‗Dalits‘ to apply to all people considered lower caste and
untouchables.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION
Jyotirao and his wide Savitrirao Phule opened the first-ever girl's school at Bhide Wada in Pune. Later
they opened schools for children from Dalit caste-like Mahar and Mang. Savitrirao Phule engaged in
abolishing untouchability and discrimination based on gender. So statement 1 is correct.
Jyotirao and Savitribai started a care centre called Balhatya Pratibandhak Griha the first-ever
infanticide prohibition home founded in India. They also founded Satysodak samaj with the aim of
liberating Bahujan and Shudras (lower caste), protecting them from exploitation and atrocities and
attaining them equal status in the society. So statement 2 is correct.
Jyotirao Phule was the first person to coin the term Dalits, who were called untouchables and lower
caste or outcasts earlier. Dalits occupy the lowest position in the caste hierarchy based on ritual
purity and occupation, and outside the Varna system. Gandhi has given the name Harijans which
was not accepted by Ambedkar. So statement 3 is correct.
Jyotirao Phule
 Jyotirao Phule dedicated his book Gulamgiri (slavery) to the African American movement to end
slavery. He is credited with introducing the Marathi word Dalit as a descriptor for those people
who were outside the traditional caste
Q.39) State of Education Report 2020 was released by which of the following?
(a) UNESCO
(b) Ministry of Education
(c) Niti Aayog

EXPLANATION
State of Education Report 2020 was released by UNESCO. State of Education Report focuses on
technical and vocational education and training (TVET). So option (a) is correct
State of Education Report 2020:
 The report aims to serve as a tool for enhancing and influencing the policies and programs related
to skills development in India. It can be used by TVET practitioners, policymakers, the private
sector and donor agencies for planning future engagements in the TVET sector in India.
Q.40) Consider the following statements with respect to Status of Leopards in India, 2018 Report
released by Ministry for Environment, Forest and Climate Change:
1. There is 60% increase in leopard population compared to the previous estimate (2014).
2. Karnataka has the highest population followed by Madhya Pradesh.
3. Leopard is one of the 4 big cats found in India.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1 and 3
EXPLANATION
India now has 12,852 leopards as compared to the previous estimate of 7910 conducted in 2014
which shows a more than 60% increase in population. So statement 1 is correct.
As per the 2018 report on the status of Leopards the Karnataka has a population of 1783 and
Madhya Pradesh has a population of 3421. Madhya Pradesh has the highest population followed by
Karnataka and Maharashtra. So statement 2 is not correct.
Leopards are one of the 4 big cats in India. The other big cats are Asiatic Lion, Bengal Tiger and Snow
leopard. leopard population in India has seen a 60% growth in the period of 4 years from 2014 to
2018 So statement 3 is correct.
Leopards
 The species status from ‗Near Threatened‘ to ‗Vulnerable‘ by IUCN. It is also listed in Appendix I of
the Convention on International Trade of Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES) and
in Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act 1972 in India providing it with the highest level of
protection.
 Leopard abundance was estimated at the scale of four major tiger conservation landscapes 1)
Shivalik Hills and Gangetic plains, 2) Central India and the Eastern Ghats, 3) the Western Ghats
and, 4) North Eastern Hills and Brahmaputra Flood Plains.
Q.41) Adaptation Gap report is released by which of the following organisation?
(a)United Nations Environment Programme
(b) United Nations Development Programme
(c) World Economic Forum
(d) World Wide Fund for Nature
EXPLANATION
Adaptation Gap report is released by UNEP. The reports aim to inform national and international
efforts to advance climate change adaptation. The fifth edition of the UNEP Adaptation Gap Report
finds that while nations have advanced in planning and implementation, huge gaps remain,
particularly in finance for developing countries and bringing adaptation projects to the stage where
they bring real reductions in climate risks. So option (a) is correct.
Adaptation Gap Report
 The report has a special focus on nature-based solutions – locally appropriate actions that address
societal challenges, such as climate change, and provide human well-being and biodiversity
benefits by protecting, sustainably managing and restoring natural or modified ecosystems.
 Increasing financing and scaling up nature-based solutions will be particularly critical to help
meet the goals of the Paris agreement.
 Adaptation - reducing the fallout among communities and increasing their capacity to deal with
climate-related disasters such as floods and drought - is a pillar of the 2015 Paris accord.
 Adaptation cost includes costs of planning, preparing for, facilitating and implementing adaptation
measures.
 The adaptation cost has also outpaced the growth in adaptation finance and that is the reason for
a maintained Adaptation Finance gap.
 Adaptation Finance refers to the flow of funds to developing countries to help them tide over the
damages caused by weather events from climate change.
 Adaptation Finance Gap is the difference between Adaptation Cost and Adaptation Finance.
 Adaptation costs are higher in developed countries but the burden of adaptation is greater for
developing countries in relation to their gross domestic product (GDP).
Q.42) Consider the following statements with respect to the Non-Proliferation Treaty- NPT:
1. It prohibits the acquisition of nuclear weapons by non-nuclear states.
2. It represents binding commitment in a multilateral treaty to the goal of disarmament by nuclear-

weapon States.
3. India and Israel are party to the treaty.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION
According to Article II of NPT, each non-nuclear-weapon State Party to the Treaty undertakes
 not to receive the transfer from any transferor whatsoever of nuclear weapons or other nuclear
explosive devices or of control over such weapons or explosive devices directly, or indirectly;
 not to manufacture or otherwise acquire nuclear weapons or other nuclear explosive devices;
 and not to seek or receive any assistance in the manufacture of nuclear weapons. So statement
1 is correct.
The Treaty represents the only binding commitment in a multilateral treaty to the goal of
disarmament by the nuclear-weapon States. A total of 191 States have joined the Treaty, including
the five nuclear-weapon States. More countries have ratified the NPT than any other arms limitation
and disarmament agreement, a testament to the Treaty‘s significance. So statement 2 is correct.
India, Israel, Pakistan are not a party to NPT. Nuclear power for civil use is well established in India
and has been a priority since independence in 1947. In 1948 the Atomic Energy Act was passed, and
the Atomic energy Commission set up. Under it, the Department of Atomic Energy was created in
1954. So statement 3 is not correct.
NPT
 The NPT is a landmark international treaty whose objective is to prevent the spread of nuclear
weapons and weapons technology, to promote cooperation in the peaceful uses of nuclear energy
and to further the goal of achieving nuclear disarmament and general and complete disarmament.
 To further the goal of non-proliferation and as a confidence-building measure between States
parties, the Treaty establishes a safeguards system under the responsibility of the International
Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA).
 Safeguards are used to verify compliance with the Treaty through inspections conducted by the
IAEA.
 The Treaty promotes cooperation in the field of peaceful nuclear technology and equal access to
this technology for all States parties, while safeguards prevent the diversion of fissile material for
weapons use.
 All the Parties to the Treaty have the right to participate in, the fullest possible exchange of
equipment, materials and scientific and technological information for the peaceful uses of nuclear
energy.
Q.43) Consider the following statements with respect to Comprehensive Test Ban Treaty:
1. It prohibits all the nuclear explosion in the world.
2. US and China have ratified the treaty.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION
The Comprehensive Nuclear-Test-Ban Treaty (CTBT) bans nuclear explosions by everyone,

everywhere: on the Earth's surface, in the atmosphere, underwater and underground. It also prevents
the huge damage caused by radioactivity from nuclear explosions to humans, animals and plants. So
China and the US have not ratified the treaty, where India was not Signatory to the treaty and not
ratified it. So statement 2 is incorrect.
CTBT
 The CTBT was negotiated in Geneva between 1994 and 1996. 185 countries have signed the
Treaty, of which 170 have also ratified it, including three of the nuclear-weapon States France,
Russia and the United Kingdom.
 44 specific nuclear technology holder countries must sign and ratify before the CTBT can enter into
force.
 Three countries India, Pakistan and Korea have broken the de facto moratorium and tested
nuclear weapons since 1996.
Q.44) Consider the following statements with respect to Fixed Term Employment:
1. As per the Industrial Employment (Standing Order) Act 1946, Fixed-term employment was initially
made available only to Footwear manufacturing sector in 2016.
2. Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Central (Amendment) Rules, 2018 allowed all industries
to hire workers on contract with a fixed tenure.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION
As per the Industrial Employment (Standing Order) Act 1946, Fixed-term employment was initially
made available only to the apparel manufacturing sector in 2016 and then to the Footwear
manufacturing sector in 2017 through amendments. Through Industrial Employment (Standing
Orders) Central (Amendment) Rules, 2018 fixed-term employment was made available to all sectors.
Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Central (Amendment) Rules, 2018 allowed all industries to
hire workers on contract with a fixed tenure, where workmen shall get the same wage rate,
allowances, working hours and all other benefits likewise to permanent workmen. So statement 2 is
correct.
Fixed Term Employment
 Under this, a company or an enterprise hires an employee for a specific period of time.
 The contract can be renewed or terminated according to the performance of the worker.
 The notification does not permit the conversion of permanent posts into FTE.
 Therefore, the move, for now, is aimed at turning contract workers into FTE ones.
Provisions of Fixed Term Employment
 Workmen shall be eligible for all statutory benefits available to a permanent workman
proportionately according to the period of service rendered by him even if his period of employment
does not extend to the qualifying period of employment required in the statute.
 no notice of termination of employment shall be necessary in the case of temporary workman
whether monthly rated, weekly rated or piece rated and probationers or badli workmen.
 The services of a temporary workman shall not be terminated as punishment unless he has been
given an opportunity of explaining the charges of misconduct alleged against him.
Q.45) Consider the following statements with respect to coal in India:
1. India is the world‘s second-largest importer of coal.
2. Indian coal reserves are primarily of Lignite and Bituminous types.
3. Indian coal has lower calorific value and high ash content.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION
India is the fourth largest coal reserves in the world and 2nd largest producer of coal, it does not
export coal, but it is the 2nd largest importer of coal in the world. So statement 1 is correct.
Indian coal reserves are primary of Lignite and Bituminous types. The coal deposits in India primarily
are concentrated in the Gondwana sediments occurring mainly in the eastern and central parts of
Peninsular India, although Gondwana coal deposits also are found to occur in the north-eastern part
of the country mainly in Assam and Sikkim. So statement 2 is correct.
The most significant characteristic of Indian coal is its high ash content, which varies from 35 to 45
per cent, compared with that of coal in other parts of the world, which is around 15 per cent. Indian
coal has high ash content and low calorific value. So statement 3 is correct.
COAL
 Indian coal is classified into two main categories, namely, coking and non-coking. Coking coal is a
type of coal from which, on carbonisation, coke suitable for use in metallurgical industries,
particularly, in Iron and Steel industries can be produced.
 The present import policy of coal allows imports to be carried out freely under Open General
Licence by the consumers themselves considering their needs. Coking coal is imported by Steel
Sector and coke manufacturers mainly on availability and quality consideration.
 Coal-based power stations and cement plants are also importing non-coking coal on consideration
of transport logistics and commercial.
 India became the world‘s second-largest consumer of coal in 2015 – overtaking the United States –
and has continued to grow.
Types of coal found in India
 Anthracite: It is the highest grade of coal containing a high percentage of fixed carbon. It is hard,
brittle, black and lustrous. It is found in smaller quantity in regions of Jammu and Kashmir.
 Bituminous: It is a medium grade of coal having high heating capacity. It is the most commonly
used type of coal for electricity generation in India. Most of the bituminous coal is found in
Jharkhand, Odisha, West Bengal, Chhattisgarh, and Madhya Pradesh.
 Subbituminous: It is black in colour, dull (not shiny) and has a higher heating value than lignite.
 Lignite: It is the lowest grade coal with the least carbon content. It is found in the regions of
Rajasthan, Tamil Nadu, and Jammu & Kashmir.
Q.46) Consider the following statements with reference to World Economic Forum:
1. It is an international not-for-profit foundation organization committed to improving the state of the

world.
2. Great Reset Initiative is related to World Economic Forum.
3. Global Risk Report is released by WEF.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION
The World Economic Forum is the International Organization for Public-Private Cooperation. It was
established in 1971 as a not-for-profit foundation and is headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland. WEF
mission is to improve the state of the world by engaging political, business, cultural and other leaders
of society to shape global, regional and industry agendas. So statement 1 is correct.
Great Reset Initiative is related to WEF. The Great Reset agenda has three main components. The
first would steer the market toward fairer outcomes. The second component of a Great Reset agenda
would ensure that investments advance shared goals, such as equality and sustainability. The third
and final priority of a Great Reset agenda is to harness the innovations of the Fourth Industrial
Revolution to support the public good, especially by addressing health and social challenges. So
Global Risk Report is released by WEF. The 16th edition of the World Economic Forum‘s Global Risks
Report analyses the emerging risks to human health, rising unemployment, widening digital divides,
youth disillusionment, and geopolitical fragmentation. So statement 3 is correct.
WEF
 It is independent, impartial and not tied to any special interests.

 The Forum strives in all its efforts to demonstrate entrepreneurship in the global public interest
while upholding the highest standards of governance.
 The Forum creates impact by gathering leaders from business, government, international
organizations, academia, civil society and youth to work together to drive positive change.
Q.47) “Desert Knight-21”, recently seen in news is a bilateral Air exercise between India and which
country?
(a) France
(b) Russia
(c) USA
(d) Saudi Arabia
EXPLANATION
Indian Air Force and French Air and Space Force (Armée de l'Air et de l'Espace) conducted a bilateral
Air exercise, Ex Desert Knight-21 at Air Force Station Jodhpur. The French side had participated
with Rafale, Airbus A-330 Multi-Role Tanker Transport (MRTT), A-400M Tactical Transport aircraft
and approximately 175 personnel. The Indian Air Force aircraft that participated in the exercise
included Mirage 2000, Su-30 MKI, Rafale, IL-78 Flight Refuelling Aircraft, AWACS and AEW&C
aircraft. So option (a) is correct
India French Exercise
 As part of Indo-French defence cooperation, the Indian Air Force and French Air and Space Force
has held six editions of Air Exercises named 'Garuda', the latest being in 2019 at Air Force Base
Mont-de-Marsan, France
 The exercise is unique as it includes fielding of Rafale aircraft by both sides and is indicative of the
growing interaction between the two premiers Air Forces.
Q.48) Consider the following statements with reference to “ASMI”:
1. It is India‘s first indigenous 9mm Machine Pistol that has been solely developed by DRDO.
2. 3D Printing process has been used in designing and prototyping of various parts.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION
India‘s first indigenous 9mm Machine Pistol has been jointly developed by DRDO and Indian Army.
The pistol was developed to replace the old 9mm pistols in the defence forces. So statement 1 is not
correct.
The 3-dimensional printing process has been used in designing and prototyping various parts. The
machine pistol fires the in-service 9mm ammunition and sports an upper receiver made from
aircraft-grade aluminium and a lower receiver from carbon fibre. So statement 2 is correct
Q.49) Consider the following pairs:
1. Tirthan Wildlife Sanctuary - Uttarakhand
2.Turtle Wildlife Sanctuary - Uttar Pradesh
3.Khaparwas Wildlife Sanctuary - Haryana
Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION
Tirthan Wildlife Sanctuary – It is located in Himachal Pradesh. This sanctuary is connected

to the famous national park- the Great Himalayan National Park. Located at an altitude of
2100 to 4900 m, this wildlife sanctuary has forest type ranging from temperate deciduous to
Alpine ones. The trees common to this region are Oak and Deodar trees
Turtle Wildlife Sanctuary – Kachhua Sanctuary also called as Turtle Sanctuary is in

Varanasi District in Uttar Pradesh. There are different species of tortoise, Ganges dolphin and
other water animals. In the tortoise Sanctuary mainly Aspederites Gangetic (self shell turtles),
Geoclamis, Hamiltonai, Chitra Indica and Lasimous which are carnivorous species and hard-
shelled herbivorous tortoise Pechra, Kachhua, Sundri Kachhua, Kachhua Tentoria, Kachhua
Tongoka are in abundance.
Khaparwas Wildlife Sanctuary - Khaparwas is a designated Bird Sanctuary under the

administrative control of Wildlife Department of Government of Haryana. So option (b) is
correct.
Q.50) Consider the following statements with reference to SAATHEE Portal:
1. It is launched by Ministry of Power.
2. It is developed by Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE).
3. It facilitates real-time monitoring of the progress of implementation of various energy conservation

endeavours at national level.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
EXPLANATION
SAATHEE (State-wise Actions on Annual Targets and Headways on Energy Efficiency) – A portal for
State Designated Agency for state-level activities was launched by the Ministry of Power in
association with BEE. So statement 1 is correct.
It is developed by the Bureau of Energy Efficiency. BEE is a statutory body under the Ministry of
Power which is mandated to implement policy and programmes in energy efficiency and conservation.
So statement 2 is correct.
BEE has developed a Management Information System (MIS) portal namely State-wise Actions on
Annual Targets and Headways on Energy Efficiency (SAATHEE) which will facilitate real-time
monitoring of the progress of implementation of various Energy Conservation endeavours at the State
level. So statement 3 is not correct.
Uses of SAATHEE portal
 It will be useful in capturing the physical and financial status/ progress of Energy Efficiency
activities being implemented by States/ UTs across the country.
 It will facilitate real-time monitoring of the progress of implementation of all the Energy Efficiency
and Energy Conservation endeavours such as demonstration projects, awareness campaigns,
capacity building workshops, etc. being carried out by SDAs at the state level.
 It will also help in decision making, coordination, control, analysis, and implementation and
enforcement of the compliance process for various energy consumers at the pan India level.
Q.51) Consider the following statements with reference to Red Panda:
1.India is home to only one subspecies of Red Panda that is Himalayan Red Panda.
2. It is the state animal of Sikkim.
3. It is classified as Endangered in IUCN red list.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
EXPLANATION
In India, it is found in Sikkim, western Arunachal Pradesh, Darjeeling district of West Bengal and
parts of Meghalaya. Scientists from the ZSI have concluded that India is home to both the (sub)
species, Himalayan red panda and the Chinese red panda and the Siang river in Arunachal Pradesh
split the red panda into these two phylogenetic species. So statement 1 is not correct.
Red Panda is the state animal of Sikkim. It thrives best at 2,200-4,800m, in mixed deciduous and
conifer forests with dense understories of bamboo. So statement 2 is correct.
Listed as Endangered in the IUCN red list of Threatened Species and under Schedule, I of the Indian
Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, the red panda has the highest legal protection at par with other
threatened species. WWF-India has been working since 2005 in the eastern Himalayan region for the
conservation of this species. So statement 3 is correct.
Threats faced by Red Panda:
 Habitat degradation due to excessive extraction of fuelwood is the biggest threat to the red panda
habitat in Sikkim and Western Arunachal Pradesh.
 An increase in the population of feral dogs in the vicinity of the red panda habitat is leading to
predation, especially since a large part of the potential habitat falls outside the Protected Area
network and does not receive adequate legal protection.
 In some areas, the occasional hunting of red pandas by local communities also leads to a decrease
in their population.
Q.52) Consider the following statements with reference to One Planet Summit:
1. It is an event which brings together governments, international organizations, businesses and

NGOs for preservation of biodiversity.
2. It has been co-organized by France, United Nations and World Bank since 2017.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION
One Planet Summit will bring together heads of state and government, leaders of international
organizations, financial institutions, companies and NGOs to demonstrate whether their
commitments are leading to concrete actions to preserve and restore biodiversity and to lead systemic
transformations of our economies. So statement 1 is correct.
France, together with the United Nations and the World Bank, organizing a "One Planet Summit" for
biodiversity in Paris since 2017. The One Planet Summit helps incorporate climate and
environmental challenges into the very core of development models, on a global scale. So statement
2 is correct.
One Planet Summit:
 The Summit programme will focus on the protection of terrestrial and marine ecosystems, the
promotion of agroecology, the mobilization of funding for biodiversity, and the link between
deforestation, species and human health.
 A platform for joint commitment bringing together all the stakeholders, and their willingness to act,
generates many synergies.
Q.53) Consider the following statements with reference to the Geological Survey of India:
1. Geological Survey of India is an attached office to the Ministry of Earth Sciences.
2. It was set up in 1951 primarily to find coal deposits for Railways.
3. Its main functions relate to creation and updation of national geo-scientific information and
mineral resource assessment.
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only
EXPLANATION
GSI, headquartered in Kolkata. Geological Survey of India is an attached office to the Ministry of
Mines not with the Ministry of Earth Sciences. So statement 1 is not correct.
The Geological Survey of India (GSI) was set up in 1851(not in 1951) primarily to find coal deposits
for the Railways. The arrival of Sir Thomas Oldham, Professor of Geology at Trinity College Dublin
and the Chief of Irish Geological Survey at Calcutta on 4th March 1851, marked the beginning of the
continuous period of the Geological Survey of India. So statement 2 is not correct
The main functions of GSI relate to the creation and updation of national geoscientific information
and mineral resource assessment. These objectives are achieved through ground surveys, air-borne
and marine surveys, mineral prospecting and investigations, multi-disciplinary geoscientific, geo-
technical, geo-environmental and natural hazards studies, glaciology, seismotectonic study, and
carrying out fundamental research. So statement 3 is correct.
GSI OBJECTIVES
 Enable and facilitate the providing of objective, impartial and up-to-date geological expertise and
geoscientific information of all kinds, particularly for decision-making for policy, commercial,
economic and societal needs.
 Maintain a leadership role in the geological field and develop partnerships with Central, State and
other institutions, to help create enhanced executional capability and capacity in the field of
geology.
 Coordinate geoscientific activities with stakeholders in all sectors related to geoscience in order to
help sustainably manage our natural resources, including water.
Q.54) The Lakhudiyar caves famous for their cave paintings are situated in which state?
(a) Uttarakhand
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Orissa
(d) Bihar
EXPLANATION
The Lakhudiyar caves famous for their cave paintings are situated in Uttarakhand. Lakhudiyar
means one lakh caves. The paintings here can be divided into three categories: man, animal and
geometric patterns in white, black and red ochre. Humans are represented in stick-like forms. So
option (a) is correct.
Q.55) Consider the following statements with reference to STARS project:
1. It is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme.
2. It covers six Indian states.
3. Project cost is shared between World Bank and participating states.
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only
EXPLANATION
STARS project would be implemented as a new Centrally Sponsored Scheme under the Department of
School Education and Literacy, Ministry of Education. (MOE). So statement 1 is correct.
The project covers 6 States namely Himachal Pradesh, Rajasthan, Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh,
Kerala and Odisha. The identified States will be supported tor various interventions for improving the
quality of education. So statement 2 is correct.
The total project cost of the STARS project is Rs 5718 crore with the financial support of the World
Bank amounting to the US $ 500 million (approximately Rs. 3700 crores) and the rest coming as
State share from the participating States, over a period of 5 years. So statement 3 is correct.
STARS project:
 Strengthening Teaching-Learning and Results for States Program (STARS) is a World Bank„s
initiative for India.
 The project aims to improve the quality and governance of school education in six States.
 It partners with the Samagra Shiksha program to achieve the objective.
 It will focus directly on the delivery of education services at the State, district and sub-
district levels by providing customized local-level solutions.
 It will also help improve learning assessment systems, strengthen classroom instruction
and remediation, facilitate school-to-work transition, and strengthen governance and
decentralised management
 It provides assistance of $500 million for the project.
 It will give special attention to students from vulnerable sections.
 Setting up and support to the National Assessment Centre, PARAKH as an independent and
autonomous institution under the Department of School Education and Literacy, MOE.
 The proposed World Bank support under STARS is primarily in the form of a results-based
financing instrument called Program for Results
 This will ensure major reforms at the State level through a set of disbursement-linked indicators
 A State Incentive Grant (SIG) will be used to encourage States to meet desired project outcomes
Q.56) Consider the following statements with reference to Longitudinal Ageing Study of India
(LASI) Wave-1, India Report:
1. LASI is a national survey of scientific investigation of the health, economic, and social
determinants and consequences of population ageing in India.
2. It was released by Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION
LASI is a full–scale national survey of scientific investigation of the health, economic, and social
determinants and consequences of population ageing in India. It is India‘s first and world‘s largest
survey that is used to create policies for elderly people. So statement 1 is correct.
Ministry of Health & Family Welfare has undertaken the Longitudinal Ageing Study of India,
through the International Institute for Population Sciences, (IIPS), Mumbai, in collaboration with the
Harvard School of Public Health. The report was released by the Ministry of Health and Family
Welfare. So statement 2 is correct.
LASI
 A unique feature of LASI is the coverage of comprehensive biomarkers.

 No other survey in India collects detailed data on health and biomarkers together with information
on family and social network, income, assets, and consumption.
 In medicine, biomarkers mean the measurement of severity or presence of some disease state.
 The LASI, Wave 1 covered a baseline sample of 72,250 individuals aged 45 and above and their
spouses including 31,464 elderly persons aged 60 and above and 6,749 oldest-old persons aged 75
and above from all States and Union Territories (UTs) of India (excluding Sikkim).
Q.57) Which of the following features are found in Indian Mesolithic Cave paintings?
1. Explosion of creativity in the form of numerous motifs, designs.
2. Animals were shown in their natural outlines and humans always in the dynamic action of hunting
or dancing executed in abstract form.
3. These paintings are found in sites of Lakhajoar and Bhimbetka.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only
EXPLANATION
Indian Mesolithic Cave paintings involve an Explosion of creativity in the form of numerous motifs,
designs. The figure has mostly gently flowing fine lines reflecting dynamic actions. So statement 1 is
correct.
Animals are shown in their naturalist outlines while humans figures are static and in abstract form.
Male figures are stick-like while women are bulky. Hunters are shown wearing simple clothes. So
These paintings are found in the sites of Lakhajoar and Bhimbetka. For example, Painting showing a
man being hunted by a beast Bhimbetka and a dancing scene from the Lakhudiyar rock painting
found in Uttarakhand. So statement 3 is correct.
Mesolithic paintings
 During this period the themes multiply but the paintings are smaller in size.
 Hunting scenes predominate. The hunting scenes depict people hunting in groups, armed with
barbed spears, pointed sticks, arrows and bows. In some paintings, these primitive men are shown
with traps and snares probably to catch animals.
 The hunters are shown wearing simple clothes and ornaments. Sometimes, men have been
adorned with elaborate head-dresses, and sometimes painted with masks also. Elephant, bison,
tiger,deer, antelope, leopard, panther, rhinoceros, fish, frog, lizard, squirrel and at times birds are
also depicted. The Mesolithic artists loved to paint animals.
Q.58) Consider the following statements with respect to prehistoric cave paintings:
1. In India the earliest paintings have been reported from the Lower Paleolithic times.
2. No superimposition is found in prehistoric cave paintings.
3. Recently, world‘s oldest known cave painting was found in the limestone cave of Leang Tedongnge,
Indonesia.
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
EXPLANATION
In India, the earliest paintings have been reported from the Upper Palaeolithic times. Remnants of
rock paintings have been found on the walls of the caves situated in several districts of Madhya
Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka and Bihar. So statement 1 is not correct.
Superimposition is found in prehistoric cave paintings. The rock art of Bhimbetka has been classified
into various groups on the basis of style, technique and superimposition. The earliest are in black;
over these are red ochre paintings and the last group comprises white paintings. So statement 2 is
not correct.
World's oldest known cave painting dating back to more than 45,000 years. The cave painting depicts
a wild boar endemic to the Sulawesi island of Indonesia. The painting was found in the Leang
Tedongnge cave. The cave is situated in a remote valley surrounded by limestone cliffs. So
Q.59) A comprehensive plan to eliminate industrially produced artificial trans fats from the global
food supply by 2023 called REPLACE is launched by which of the following?
(a) World Health Organisation
(b) Food and Agricultural Organisation
(c) World Food Programme
EXPLANATION
REPLACE was launched by WHO, a guide for the elimination of industrially-produced trans-fatty acids
from the global food supply. Eliminating trans fats is key to protecting the health and saving lives:
WHO estimates that every year, trans fat intake leads to more than 500,000 deaths of people from
cardiovascular disease. So option (a) is correct.
Trans fatty acids
 Trans fats, or trans-fatty acids, are a form of unsaturated fat.

 They come in both natural and artificial forms.
 Natural, or ruminant, Trans fats occur in the meat and dairy from ruminant animals, such as
cattle, sheep, and goats.
 Industrially produced trans fats are contained in hardened vegetable fats, such as margarine and
ghee, and are often present in snack food, baked foods, and fried foods.
 Manufacturers often use them as they have a longer shelf life than other fats.
 REPLACE provides six strategic actions to ensure the prompt, complete, and sustained elimination
of industrially-produced trans fats from the food supply:
1. Review dietary sources of industrially-produced trans fats and the landscape for required
policy change.
2. Promote the replacement of industrially produced trans fats with healthier fats and oils.
3. Legislate or enact regulatory actions to eliminate industrially produced trans fats.
4. Assess and monitor trans fats content in the food supply and changes in trans fat
consumption in the population.
5. Create awareness of the negative health impact of trans fats among policymakers,
producers, suppliers, and the public.
6. Enforce compliance with policies and regulations.
Q.60) Consider the following statements with reference to Information Technology (Intermediary
Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code) Rules, 2021:
1. Rules 2021 has been framed by the Central Government in the exercise of powers under section 87
(2) of the Information Technology Act, 2000.
2. Rules establish a three tier grievance redressal mechanism for news publishers and OTT Platforms
and digital media.
3. ―Online curated content‖ is not defined in the rules.
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2 and 3 only
EXPLANATION
The Information Technology (Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code) Rules 2021 has
been framed in exercise of powers under section 87 (2) of the Information Technology Act, 2000 and
is the supersession of the earlier Information Technology (Intermediary Guidelines) Rules 2011.
Guidelines Related to Social Media to be Administered by Ministry of Electronics and IT. So
statement 1 is correct
For addressing the grievances made in relation to publishers under this Part, IT Act 2021 provides for
3 tier mechanism
 Level I - Self-regulation by the publishers;
 Level II - Self-regulation by the self-regulating bodies of the publishers;
 Level III - Oversight mechanism by the Central Government.
Online curated contents are defined in the rule as any curated catalogue of audio-visual content,
other than news and current affairs content, which is owned by, licensed to or contracted to be
transmitted by a publisher of online curated content, and made available on demand. So statement
3 is not correct.
Guidelines under Information Technology (Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code)
Rules, 2021:
 Due Diligence To Be Followed By Intermediaries: The Rules prescribe due diligence that must
be followed by intermediaries, including social media intermediaries.
 Grievance Redressal Mechanism: The Rules seek to empower the users by mandating the
intermediaries, including social media intermediaries, to establish a grievance redressal
mechanism for receiving resolving complaints from the users or victims.
 Intermediaries shall appoint a Grievance Officer to deal with such complaints and share the name
and contact details of such officer. Grievance Officer should acknowledge the complaint within 24
hours and resolve it within 15 days from its receipt.
 Ensuring Online Safety and Dignity of Users, Specially Women Users, intermediaries shall
remove or disable access within 24 hours of receipt of complaints of contents that exposes the
private areas of individuals or morphed images. Such a complaint can be filed either by the
individual or by any other person on his/her behalf.
Q.61) In 1921, he edited the newspaper „Forward‟ and later started his newspaper „Swaraj‟. He also
served as the Chief Executive Officer of the Calcutta Municipal Corporation. He authored the
book „The Indian Struggle‟. He took over as the elected President of Haripura session of INC in
1938 in Bardoli district of Gujarat. The freedom fighter described above is:
(a) Chittaranjan Das
(b) Subhas Chandra Bose
(c) Sardar Vallabh bhai Patel
EXPLANATION
Chittaranjan Das founded the newspaper Forward and Subhas Chandra Bose is editor of the
newspaper and later started his own newspaper, Swaraj. In 1923, Bose was elected the President of the
All India Youth Congress and also the Secretary of Bengal State Congress. He also served as the Chief
Executive Officer of the Calcutta Municipal Corporation, with Das as mayor of Calcutta. He was
regarded as a charismatic youth icon in the Indian National Congress. In February 1938 the Indian
National Congress convened for its 51st Session at Haripura, a village in Bardoli District, Gujarat. The
session was attended by over 2,00,000 people. Subash Chandra Bose, the newly minted President of
the Congress Party, presided over the session. So option (b) is correct.
Q.62) Consider the following statements with reference to Sedition (Section 124(A) of IPC:
1. It is a non-bailable offence.
2. A person charged under this law is barred from a government job.
3. In Balwant Singh v. State of Punjab (1995), Supreme Court had clarified that merely shouting
slogans does not amount to sedition.
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2 and 3 only
EXPLANATION
Sedition is a non-bailable offence. Punishment under the law varies from three years imprisonment to
lifetime imprisonment and fine. So statement 1 is correct.
The person charged under this law is barred from a government job and they have to live without a
passport and must present themselves when needed by the court. So statement 2 is correct.
The Supreme Court in the Balwant Singh and Another vs State Of Punjab case, had observed The
casual raising of the slogans, once or twice by two individuals alone cannot be said to be aimed at
exciting or attempting to excite hatred or disaffection towards the Government and it does not
amount to sedition. The person can only be arrested in Sedition where the written or spoken words
have the tendency or intention of creating public disorder or disturbance of law and order. So
Sedition (Section 124(A) of IPC
 Sedition law, or Section 124A, was inserted into the IPC in 1870. The colonial law was derived from
the British Sedition Act of 1661, described as an act for safety and preservation of his Majesties
Person and Government against treasonable and seditious practices and attempts.
 Section 124A of the IPC - "Whoever, by words, either spoken or written, or by signs, or by visible
representation, or attempts to bring into hatred or contempt, or excites or attempts to excite
disaffection towards, the Government established by law in India, shall be punished with
imprisonment for life, to which fine may be added, or with imprisonment which may extend to
three years, to which fine may be added, or with fine.
 In Kedar Nath Singh vs State of Bihar2 (1962), which upheld the validity of sedition.
 In the Kedar Nath judgment, the Supreme Court had held that Section 124A was constitutional
since it imposed a reasonable restriction on Article 19(1)(a).
Q.63) Consider the following statements with reference to pardoning power of President and
Governor:
1. President can pardon sentences inflicted by court martial (military courts) while the governor
cannot.
2. President can pardon death sentence while governor cannot.
3. Governor can‘t suspend, remit or commute a death sentence.
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2 and 3 only
EXPLANATION
Article 72 of the Constitution empower the President to grant pardon to a person who has been tried
and convicted of any offence in all cases where the punishment or sentence is by court-martial,
where the governor does not possess any such power. So statement 1 is correct.
President is the only authority to pardoning the death sentence. Governor cannot pardon the death
sentence. He can pardon, reprieve, respite, remit, suspend or commute the punishment or sentence
of any person convicted of any offence against state law. So statement 2 is correct.
Governor cannot pardon the death sentence, but he can suspend, remit or commute a death
sentence. So statement 3 is not correct.
Q.64) Consider the following statements with reference to benefits provided to a recognized
political party:
1. Exclusive allotment of election symbols to the candidates fielded by the party.
2. It can have a maximum of 20 Star campaigners.

3. It needs only one proposer for filing the nomination.
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION
The Election Commission registers political parties for the purpose of elections and grants them
recognition based on their poll performance. Recognised political get some privilege like allotment of
election symbols to the candidates selected by the party, provision of time for political broadcast on
the state-owned television and radio stations and access to electoral rolls. So statement 1 is
correct.
The recognized political party can have a maximum of 40-star campaigners, where the unrecognized
political party can have a maximum of 20-star campaigners. So statement 2 is not correct.
If the candidate is contesting the election as a candidate set up by a recognised political party, only
one elector of the constituency is required to propose the name of the candidate. If the candidate
contests the election as a candidate set up by a registered unrecognised political party or as an
independent candidate, in that case, 10 electors of the constituency are required to sign the
nomination paper as proposers. So statement 3 is correct.
Q.65) Consider the following statements with reference to Exim Bank of India:
1. It was established under Export-Import Bank of India Act, 1981.
2. It is the apex financial institution for financing, facilitating and promoting India's international
trade.
3. It is regulated by SEBI.
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION
Exim Bank was established by the Government of India, under the Export-Import Bank of India Act,
1981 dealing with export credit, mirroring global Export Credit Agencies. So statement 1 is correct.
It is the apex financial institution for financing, facilitating and promoting India's international trade.
The Bank primarily lends for exports from India including supporting overseas buyers and Indian
suppliers for export of developmental and infrastructure projects, equipment, goods and services
from India. So statement 2 is correct.
It is regulated by RBI not by SEBI So statement 3 is not correct.
Exim bank
 Exim Bank is the principal export credit agency for India.

 The recent infusion of capital into Exim Bank will enable it to increase capital adequacy and
support Indian exports with enhanced ability.
 This will provide support to new initiatives like supporting Indian textile industries, likely changes
in Concessional Finance Scheme.
 The concessional Finance Scheme aims to provide concessional finance for investment in
strategically important projects abroad.
Q.66) Consider the following statements with reference to Extradition process in India:
1. Extradition Act 1962 provides IThe concessionallative basis for extradition.
2. Extradition request can only be made by Ministry of External Affairs.
3. Indian nationals who return to India after committing offences in West Asia/Gulf countries are not
extradited to those countries and are prosecuted in India in accordance with Indian Law.
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION
In India, the extradition of a fugitive from India to a foreign country or foreign country to India is
governed by the provisions of the Indian Extradition Act, 1962. So statement 1 is correct.
The Ministry of External Affairs (MEA), Government of India, is the Central Authority that deals with
Extradition matters, including the processing of extradition requests. Within the Ministry of External
Affairs, Consular, passport and Visa Division is the nodal Division that handles extradition matters.
Indian nationals who return to India after committing offences in West Asia/Gulf countries are not
extradited to those countries. They are liable to be prosecuted in India in accordance with Indian
Law, as bilateral treaties with these countries preclude extradition of own nationals. Oman is
excluded from this. So statement 3 is correct.
Q.67) Consider the following statements with reference to Fifteenth Finance Commission Report:
1. The Commission was chaired by Mr N.K. Singh.
2. This is the first ever Commission to have given recommendations spanning a period of six years.
3. The Commission used the population data of 1971 while making its recommendations.
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION
The Fifteenth Finance Commission was constituted on 27 November 2017 against the backdrop of
the abolition of the Planning Commission which was chaired by Mr N. K. Singh. So statement 1 is
correct.
15th finance commission is the first-ever Commission to have given recommendations spanning a
period of six years from 2020 to 2026. In total, the main report has 117 core recommendations. Vol-
III and IV have numerous suggested reforms for the Union ministries and State governments
respectively. So statement 2 is correct.
The Commission used the population census of 2011 instead of 1971. On horizontal devolution, the
15th finance commission agreed that the Census 2011 population data better represents the present
need of States, as well as reward, the States which have done better on the demographic front. So
statement 3 is not correct
15TH finance commission
 To maintain predictability and stability of resources, especially during the pandemic, the 15 th
finance commission has recommended maintaining the vertical devolution at 41 per cent.
 It has made the required adjustment of about 1 per cent due to the changed status of the
erstwhile State of Jammu and Kashmir into the new Union Territories of Ladakh and Jammu and
Kashmir.
 States‘ share at 41 per cent of divisible pool comes to 42.2 lakh crore for 2021-26 period.
 Based on principles of need, equity and performance, the overall devolution formula is as follows.
Q.68) Consider the following statements with reference to Placer deposits:
1. It is an accumulation of valuable minerals formed by gravity separation from a specific source rock
during sedimentary processes.
2. India is rich in Placer minerals like uranium, thorium, titanium and poly metallic sulphides.
3. They are typically found at 4 to 5 km in water depth.
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.69) Consider the following statements with reference to Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR)
Rules in India:
1. India became the first country to legislate CSR activities under Companies Act 2013.
2. CSR is not applicable to branch and project offices of a foreign company in India.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION
India is the first country in the world to make corporate social responsibility (CSR) mandatory,
following an amendment to the Companies Act, 2013. Section 135 of the Companies Act 2013
provides the threshold limit for applicability of the CSR to a Company. So statement 1 is correct.
As per the CSR Rules, the provisions of CSR are not only applicable to Indian companies but also
applicable to branch and project offices of a foreign company in India. So statement 2 is not
correct.
Threshold limit for applicability of the CSR to a Company
 Section 135 of the Companies Act 2013 provides the threshold limit for applicability of the
CSR to a Company:
(a) the net worth of the company to be Rs 500 crore or more
(b) turnover of the company to be Rs 1000 crore or more
(c) net profit of the company to be Rs 5 crore or more.
Aims of CSR
 Eradicating hunger, poverty and malnutrition, promoting health care including preventive health
care and sanitation including contribution to the ‗Swachh Bharat Kosh‘ set up by the Central
Government for the promotion of sanitation and making available safe drinking water.
 promoting education, including special education and employment enhancing vocation skills
especially among children, women, elderly, and the differently-abled and livelihood enhancement
projects.
Q.70) Consider the following statements with reference to Asset Reconstruction Companies (ARC):
1. Bimal Jalan Committee first envisaged setting up of a central Asset Reconstruction Fund.
2.Asset Reconstruction Company (Indi(a) Ltd or Arcil, was first ARC set up in 2002.
3. They are registered with Reserve Bank of India (RBI) under SARFAESI Act, 2002.
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION
Narasimhan Committee-I first envisaged setting up the ARC, it is not the Bimal Jalan Committee.
Bimal Jalan Committee was set up to review the economic capital framework of the RBI. So
The first Asset Reconstruction Company (India) Ltd or Arcil, was set up in 2002 by four banks: SBI,
ICICI Bank, PNB and IDBI Bank. So statement 2 is correct.
They are registered with the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) under SARFAESI Act, 2002. A Securitisation
Company or Reconstruction Company, which has obtained a certificate of registration issued by the
Reserve Bank of India under Section 3 of the SARFESI Act, can undertake both securitisation and
asset reconstruction activities. So statement 3 is correct.
Asset Reconstruction
 An Asset Reconstruction Company is a specialized financial institution that buys the NPAs or bad
assets from banks and financial institutions so that the bank can clean up their balance sheets.
 Every Securitisation Company or Reconstruction Company s after taking into account the degree of
well-defined credit weaknesses and extent of dependence on collateral security for realisation,
classify the assets into the following categories
(a) Standard assets
(b) Non-Performing Assets.
 The Non-Performing Assets shall be classified further as

(a) Sub-standard asset for a period not exceeding 12 months from the date it was classified as a
non-performing asset;
(b) Doubtful asset if the asset remains a substandard asset for a period exceeding 12 months;
(c) `Loss asset' if the asset is non-performing for a period exceeding 36 months.
 Assets acquired by the Securitisation Company or Reconstruction Company for the purpose of
asset reconstruction may be treated as standard assets during the planning period.
Q.71) Consider the following statements with reference to Agricultural Infrastructure Fund (AIF):
1. It is a Central Sector Scheme, under Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare.
2. It provides short term debt financing facility through interest subvention and credit guarantee.
3. Recently, Agricultural Produce Marketing Committees (APMCs) have become eligible beneficiaries to
utilize AIF.
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 2 only
EXPLANATION
Agricultural Infrastructure Fund is a Central Sector Scheme established by the Department of

Agriculture, Cooperation & Farmers Welfare under the Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare. So
The scheme will provide a medium-long(not short term) term debt financing facility for investment
in viable projects for post-harvest management Infrastructure and community farming assets
through interest subvention and financial support. The duration of the Scheme shall be from FY2020
to FY2029. So statement 2 is not correct.
Recently APMC‘S are included in the eligible beneficiaries to utilize AIF. APMC‘s are provided with a 1
lakh crore financial facility under the AIF to improve the markets. So statement 3 is correct.
AIF
 This fund will be used to build post-harvest storage and processing facilities
 Loans up to 2 crore rupees are given to the farmers by the government.
 It also facilities 3% rebate in interest on loans up to 2 crore rupees for a maximum period of 7
years
 The moratorium for the repayment of the loan amount will to 6 to 24 months.
 This fund is also used by the agri-entrepreneurs to build the warehouse, cold storage facilities and
creation of supply chain.
1.India is the second-largest telecommunications market.
2. Indian pharmaceutical industry is second largest in the world by volume.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION
India is also the world‘s second-largest telecommunications market. The total subscriber base in the
country stood at 1,173.83 million, as of December 31, 2020. India has overtaken the United States to
become the world's second-largest Internet market, with 333 million users, while China has 721
million users. India is one of the largest data consumers globally. It has the highest data usage per
smartphone at an average of 9.8 GB per month. So statement 1 is correct.
India is the 3rd largest pharmaceuticals industry in the world by volume. India ranks 14th in
worldwide in pharmaceutical by value. So statement 2 is not correct.
Production Linked Incentive Scheme (PLI) for Pharmaceuticals.
 The objective of the scheme is to enhance India‘s manufacturing capabilities by increasing

investment and production in the sector and contributing to product diversification to high-value
goods in the pharmaceutical sector.
Q.73) Which of the following is/are major ports of India?
1. Ennore
2. Mormugao
3. Tuticorin
(a) 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION
There are 12 major ports in India. They are Kolkata, Paradip, Vishakhapatnam, Chennai, Ennore,
Tuticorin, Cochin, New Mangalore, Mormugao, JNPT, Mumbai, Kandla. So option (d) is correct.
Major ports in India

Q.74) Consider the following statements with reference to key provisions of Motor Vehicle
(Amendment) Act, 2019:
1. It ensures cashless treatment of road accident victims during golden hour.
2. It sets up a National Road Safety Board that will advise government on road design and motor
vehicle safety.
3. Good Samaritan will be held liable for any civil or criminal action for any injury to or death of an
accident victim.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION
Motor Vehicle (Amendment) Act, 2019 ensures the for cashless treatment of victims of the accident
during the golden hour. Golden hour means the 1st hour after the trauma. So statement 1 is
correct.
Motor Vehicle (Amendment) Act, 2019, constitute a National Road Safety Board. The National Road
Safety Board advises the Central Government or State Government on road safety and traffic
management including, the standards of design, weight, construction, manufacturing process,
operation and maintenance of motor vehicles and safety equipment. So statement 2 is correct.
Good Samaritan shall not be liable for any civil or criminal action for any injury to or death of the
victim of an accident involving a motor vehicle. So statement 3 is not correct.
Motor Vehicle (Amendment) Act, 2019:
 This Amendment is based on the recommendation of the Group of Transport Ministers of the state.
 It has introduced heavy fines for drunken driving, driving without a license and over speeding.
 The act also enables fitness test for the vehicles.
 This Act requires the Central government to constitute a Motor Vehicle Accident Fund to provide a
compulsory insurance cover to all road users in India. It will be used for:
1. Treatment of persons injured in a road accident as per the golden hour scheme.
2. Compensation to the representatives of a person who died in a hit and run accident.
3. To compensate a person who was grievously injured in a hit and run accident
4. To compensate for any individual as prescribed by the Union government.
Q.75) Karlapat Wildlife Sanctuary, recently mentioned in the news, due to the death of elephants,
lies in which of the following state?
(a) Karnataka
(b) Odisha
(c) West Bengal
(d) Rajasthan
EXPLANATION
Karlapat Wildlife Sanctuary is located in the state of Odisha. .Karlapat Wildlife Sanctuary is home to
a plethora of wildlife animals and birds. The sanctuary is rich in wildlife such as leopard, gaur,
sambar, nilgai, barking deer, mouse deer, soft claws Ottawa, a wide variety of birds and reptiles. So
option (b) is correct.
Q.76) Consider the following statements with reference to Marine Turtles in India:
1. Five species of sea turtles are found in Indian waters.
2. Olive Ridley turtles are found in India‘s east coast only.
3. Marine turtles are considered flagship species in various marine habitats such as coral reefs, sea
grass meadows etc.
(a) 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION
Five species of sea turtles are known to inhabit Indian coastal waters and islands. These are the Olive
Ridley, Green, Hawksbill, Loggerhead and the Leatherback turtles. Except for the Loggerhead, the
remaining four species nest along the Indian coast. So statement 1 is correct.
Marine turtles are considered flagship species in various marine habitats such as coral reefs, seagrass
meadows. They consume an of prey, including pufferfish, crustaceans, sponges, tunicates,
seagrasses, and algae. So statement 3 is correct.
Olive Ridley Sea Turtle
 Olive ridley gets its name from its olive coloured carapace, which is heart-shaped and rounded.
 Males and females grow to the same size.
 They are carnivores and feed mainly on jellyfish, shrimp, snails, crabs, molluscs, and a variety of
fish and their eggs.
 These turtles spend their entire lives in the ocean and migrate thousands of kilometres between
feeding and mating.
 Females return to the very same beach from where they first hatched, to lay their eggs.
Q.77) Consider the following statements with reference to Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve:
1. It includes as core areas the Nanda Devi and Valley of Flowers National Parks.
2.Together they encompass a unique transition zone between the mountain ranges of the Zanskar and
Lesser Himalayas.
3. Musk deer and blue sheep are found here.
(a) 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION
Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve, located in the Himalayan Mountains in the northern part of the
country, includes as core areas the Nanda Devi and Valley of Flowers National Parks, which is one of
the World Heritage sites. So statement 1 is correct.
Together they encompass a unique transition zone between the mountain ranges of the Zanskar and
Great Himalaya, not the lesser Himalayas. These meadows harbour a large number of rare and
endangered, native and endemic species. So statement 2 is not correct.
Seven endangered mammal species find refuge in the area such as the snow leopard, Himalayan
black bear, brown bear, musk deer, and bharal/blue sheep. So statement 3 is correct.
Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve
 The Biosphere Reserve includes reserve forests, civil forests, community forests, agricultural land,
grassy slopes, alpine meadows and snow-covered areas.
 The alpine vegetation mainly comprises herbaceous species and scrub communities such as
Rhododendron campanulatum, R. anthopogon and Salix denticulata.
 The unique topography, climate, soil and biogeographical location of the Biosphere Reserve gives
rise to diverse habitats, communities and ecosystems, and a large number of ecologically and
economically important species.
Q.78) Consider the following statements with reference to International Energy Agency (IEA):
1. It was created as a response to the oil crisis of 1973-74.
2. India is an associate member of IEA.
3. World Energy Outlook is released by IEA while India Energy Outlook 2021 is released by Niti
Aayog.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION
Created in 1974 to ensure the security of oil supplies, the International Energy Agency has evolved
over the years. The IEA was created when industrialised countries found they were not adequately
equipped to deal with the oil embargo imposed by major producers that pushed prices to historically
high levels. So statement 1 is correct.
India is one of the associate members of the IEA. The remaining associate member are Brazil,
Morocco, South Africa, China, Indonesia, Singapore, and Thailand. So statement 2 is correct.
WEO is published by IEA. Published every year based on objective data and dispassionate analysis,
The World Energy Outlook (WEO) provides critical analysis and insights on trends in energy demand
and supply. The first WEO was published in 1977. The India Energy Outlook 2021 is a new special
report from the IEA‘s World Energy Outlook series, not by NITI aayog. So statement 3 is not
correct.
IEA
 1The IEA was established as the international forum for energy cooperation on a variety of issues
such as security of supply, long-term policy, information transparency, energy efficiency,
sustainability, research and development, technology collaboration, and international energy
relations.
 The Governing Board is the main decision-making body of the IEA.
 It is composed of energy ministers or their senior representatives from each Member country.
 The Governing Board holds three to four meetings at the Director-General level each year to
discuss global energy developments along with the Agency‘s work with the Executive Director and
other senior Secretariat staff.
 The outcomes of Governing Board meetings are binding on all member countries.
Q.79) Consider the following statements with reference to Atlantic Meridional Overturning
Circulation (AMOC):
1. It is a large system of ocean currents carrying warm surface water from the equator up north, and
sending cold, low-salinity deep water back down south.
2. It works like a giant conveyor belt and is driven by differences in temperature and salt content.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION
The Gulf Stream – also known as the Atlantic Meridional Overturning Circulation (AMOC) – helps to
move heat around the planet. The Gulf Stream System works like a giant conveyor belt, carrying
warm surface water from the equator up north, and sending cold, low-salinity deep water back down
south. So, statement 1 is correct.
The AMOC is a large system of ocean currents, like a conveyor belt, driven by differences in
temperature and salt content. As warm water flows northwards it cools and some evaporation occurs,
which increases the amount of salt. So, statement 2 is correct.
AMOC
 Atlantic Meridional Overturning Current is the large system of ocean currents operating in the
Atlantic Ocean.
 It circulates the waters between the north and the south.
 It ensures the oceans are continually mixed, and heat and energy are distributed around Earth.
 Warming as a result of climate change, the Indian Ocean is causing a series of cascading effects
that are providing AMOC a ―jump-start‖.
Q.80) „„Technology and Innovation Report 2021‟ was released by which of the following
organisation?
(a) UNCTAD
(b) UNESCO
(c) Niti Aayog
(d) World Bank
EXPLANATION
Technology and Innovation Report 2021 has been released by the United Nations Conference on
Trade and Development (UNCTAD), which is a permanent intergovernmental body established by the
United Nations General Assembly in 1964. So option (a) is correct.
Technology and Innovation Report
 It analysed the progress of countries in using frontier technologies, considering their national
capacities related to physical investment, human capital and technological effort.
 Frontier technologies include artificial intelligence, the internet of things, big data, blockchain, 3D
printing, robotics, drones, gene-editing, nanotechnology and solar power.
UNCTAD
 It helps the developing countries to access the global economy more fairly and effectively
 It helps the countries to increase access to digital technologies
 Promote entrepreneurship and innovation and Help local firms move up value chains
 Speed up the flow of goods across borders
Q.81) Consider the following statements with reference to Protection of Children from Sexual
Offences (POCSO) Act, 2012:
1. It is a law for the protection of children under the age of eighteen from the offences of sexI ual
assault, sexual harassment and pornography.
2. It also mandates that the investigation in the cases is to be completed in two months and trial in
six months.
3. It explicitly recognizes grooming.
(a) 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION
The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012 defines a child as any person below the
age of 18 years and provides protection to all children under the age of 18 years from the offences of
sexual assault, sexual harassment and pornography. So statement 1 is correct.
The POCSO Act also mandates that the investigation in the cases is to be completed in two months
and trial in 6 months. So statement 2 is correct.
Child grooming is generally understood as the practice of befriending and forming an emotional bond
with a child by a person with the objective of sexual abuse. Further, section 11(iv) of POCSO states
that a person is said to commit sexual harassment when such person "repeatedly or constantly
follows or watches or contacts a child either directly or through electronic, digital or any other
means" with sexual intent. Thus it does not explicitly recognizes grooming. So statement 3 is not
correct.
Amendment to POSCO ACT 2012
 The act will be amended to introduce the death penalty as a punishment for offences of penetrative
sexual assault and aggravated penetrative sexual assault.
The following cases will be treated as “aggravated offence”.
1. Cases of sexual assault by police officers,

2. by members of the armed forces,
3. by public servants,
4. by relatives,
5. gang-penetrative sexual assault,
6. where the survivor is less than 12 years old and
7. attempt to inject hormones in children to attain early sexual maturity for the purpose of
penetrative sexual assault.
 A hefty fine would be imposed for not deleting, not destroying child pornographic material or not
reporting child pornography.
Q.82) Which of the following is/are potential applications of blockchain technology?
1. Public Service Delivery
2. Chit fund operations administration
3. e-Notary Service
4. eVoting
5. Power distribution
(a) 3 and 4 only
(b) 1, 3 and 5 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) All of the above
EXPLANATION
Applications of Blockchain technology are Public service, chit fund operation administration, e-
Notary Service, eVoting, Power distribution, Banking and finance, Money laundering protection,
Health care, Media, etc., So option (d) is correct.
Blockchain Technology
 Blockchain technology provides a possible solution in handling a large amount of data.

 Blockchain was designed specifically as a back-end for Bitcoin, a cryptocurrency.
 It is a digital public ledger that records every transaction. Once a transaction is entered into the
blockchain, it cannot be erased or modified.
 It can work as a distributed network and safely execute on a wide variety of requirements.
Q.83) Consider the following statements with reference to Right to be Forgotten (RTF):
1. It refers to the ability of individuals to limit, de-link, delete, or correct the disclosure of personal
information on the internet that is misleading, embarrassing, irrelevant, or outdated.
2. Europe's General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) include the "right to be forgotten."
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION
The right to be forgotten refers to the ability of individuals to limit, de-link, delete, or correct the
disclosure of personal information on the internet that is misleading, embarrassing, irrelevant, or
anachronistic. . So statement 1 is correct.
The right to be forgotten appears in Recitals 65 and 66 and Article 17 of Europe‘s General Data
Protection Regulation. It states, ―The data subject shall have the right to obtain from the controller
the erasure of personal data concerning him or her without undue delay and the controller shall have
the obligation to erase personal data without undue delay‖ if one of a number of conditions applies.
―Undue delay‖ is considered to be about a month. So statement 2 is correct.
Right to be Forgotten
In Article 17, the GDPR outlines the specific circumstances under which the right to be forgotten applies.
An individual has the right to have their personal data erased if:
 Personal data is no longer necessary for the purpose an organization originally collected or
processed.
 An organization is relying on an individual‘s consent as the lawful basis for processing the data
and that individual withdraws their consent.
 An organization is relying on legitimate interests as its justification for processing an individual‘s
data, the individual objects to this processing, and there is no overriding legitimate interest for the
organization to continue with the processing.
 An organization is processing personal data for direct marketing purposes and the individual
objects to this processing.
 An organization processed an individual‘s personal data unlawfully.
 An organization must erase personal data in order to comply with a legal ruling or obligation.
 An organization has processed a child‘s personal data to offer their information society services.
Q.84) Consider the following pairs with respect to Space Missions of different countries to MARS:
1. NASA - Curiosity rover
2. EU - Fobos-Grunt
3. Russia - Mars Express
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION
Curiosity rover - NASA's Mars Science Laboratory mission, Curiosity is the largest and most
capable rover ever sent to Mars. It launched on November 26, 2011.
Phobos-Grunt - Russia's Phobos-Grunt mission would have studies Mars‘ moon, Phobos, as well as
return soil samples to Earth in order to determine the origin and evolution of this moon. In addition to
its own mission, Phobos-Grunt also carried China's first interplanetary mission to Mars called
Yinghuo-1. Phobos-Grunt was been Russia's first interplanetary mission since the unsuccessful Mars
96 mission.
Mars Express - NASA is participating in a mission of the European Space Agency and the Italian
Space Agency called Mars Express, which has been exploring the atmosphere and surface of Mars
from polar orbit since arriving at the red planet in 2003. The spacecraft carries a science payload
derived in part from European instruments lost on the ill-fated Russian Mars '96 mission, as well as a
communications relay to support lander missions. So option (a) is correct.
Q.85) Consider the following statements with reference to Genetically Modified (GM) Food crops:
1. Bt cotton is the only genetically modified (GM) crop that has been approved for commercial
cultivation in India.
2. The indigenous transgenic varieties of brinjal hybrids namely Janak and BSS-793 have been
developed by the National Institute for Plant Biotechnology, Indian Council of Agricultural
Research (ICAR).
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION
Bt cotton is the only genetically modified (GM) crop that has been approved for commercial
cultivation in 2002 by the Government of India. Long-term studies were conducted by ICAR on the
impact of Bt cotton which did not show any adverse effect on soil, microflora, and animal health. So
The indigenous transgenic varieties of brinjal hybrids – namely Janak and BSS-793, containing Bt
Cry1Fa1 gene (Event 142) have been developed by the National Institute for Plant Biotechnology,
Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR). Recently the Genetic Engineering Appraisal
Committee (GEAC), MoEF&CC, Govt. of India has again allowed biosafety research field trials of two
new transgenic varieties of indigenously developed Bt Brinjal in eight states during 2020-23 only
after taking a no-objection certificate (NOC) from states concerned and confirmation of the availability
of isolated stretch of land for this purpose. So statement 2 is correct.
Bt cotton
 The first commercial Bt cotton variety was released in the USA by M/S. Monsanto (Bollgard), which
contains the Cry 1Ac gene of Bacillus thuringiensis.
 Bt cotton is commercially grown in several countries like China, Australia, Mexico, South Africa,
Argentina, India, Indonesia, etc. World wide the area under Bt cotton keeps increasing year by
year.
 Bt gene is effective during the early phase of crop growth, the bolls produced in the bottom-most
branches of the plant are retained fully.
Q.86) Consider the following statements with reference to types of Hydrogen:
1. Green Hydrogen is made from renewable sources of energy and no carbon dioxide is emitted in the
process.
2. Blue hydrogen is made from methane and carbon dioxide is emitted into the atmosphere.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION
Green hydrogen is the production of hydrogen from renewable energy through electrolysis. It is a
process that splits water into its basic elements hydrogen and oxygen using an electric current. The
electricity used in the process comes from renewables. It does not release any CO2 in the atmosphere
as oxygen is released in the production. So statement 1 is correct.
Blue hydrogen is derived from natural gas through the process of steam methane reforming (SMR).
SMR mixes natural gas with very hot steam, in the presence of a catalyst, where a chemical reaction
creates hydrogen and carbon monoxide. Additional water is added to the mixture converting the
carbon monoxide to carbon dioxide and creating more hydrogen. The carbon dioxide emissions
produced are then captured and stored underground using Carbon Capture, Utilization and Storage
(CCUS) technology leaving nearly pure hydrogen. So statement 2 is not correct.
1. Nalanda was the first and the most extensive monastery in ancient India built by Kumargupta I.
2. Devapala founded the Vikramshila University in Bihar and revived Nalanda University.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION
The University of Nalanda was established during the era of the Kumaragupta. Nalanda was an
acclaimed Mahavihara, a large Buddhist monastery in the ancient kingdom of Magadha in India. The
site is located about 95 kilometres southeast of Patna near the town of Bihar Sharif and was a centre
of learning from the fifth century CE to1200 CE. It is a UNESCO World Heritage Site. So statement 1
is correct
Vikramashila University was one of the two most important centres of Buddhist learning in India
during the Pala empire, along with Nalanda University. Vikramashila University was established by
King Dharmapala(not Devapala) during the eighth century period in response to a supposed decline
in the quality of scholarship at Nalanda. Bhaktiyar Khilji had destroyed the university in the 12th
Century. So statement 2 is not correct.
Nalanda University
 The Nalanda Mahavihara site is in the State of Bihar, in northeastern India. It comprises the
archaeological remains of a monastic and scholastic institution dating from the 3rd century BCE to
the 13th century CE.
 It includes stupas, shrines, viharas (residential and educational buildings), and important artworks
in stucco, stone, and metal.
 It engaged in the organized transmission of knowledge over an uninterrupted period of 800 years.
 The historical development of the site testifies to the development of Buddhism into a religion and
the flourishing of monastic and educational traditions.
Q.88) Consider the following statements with respect to National Coal Index (NCI):
1. NCI is a price index which reflects the change of price level of coal on a particular month relative to
the fixed base year.
2. Prices of coal from all the sales channels of coal, excluding import, as existing today are taken into
account for compiling the NCI.
3. NCI is composed of a set of 5 sub-indices: 3 for Non-Coking Coal and 2 for Coking Coal.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION
The NCI is a price index that reflects the change of price level of coal on a particular month relative
to the fixed base year. The base year for the NCI is FY 2017-18. The concept and design of the Index,
as well as the Representative Prices, have been developed by the Indian Statistical Institute, Kolkata.
NCI is a price index combining the prices of coal from all the sales channels- Notified Prices, Auction
Prices and includes Import Prices. The amount of revenue share per tonne of coal produced from
auctioned blocks would be arrived at using the NCI by means of a defined formula. So statement 2
is not correct.
NCI is composed of a set of five sub-indices: three for Non-Coking Coal and two for Coking Coal. The
three sub-indices for Non-Coking Coal are combined to arrive at the Index for Non-Coking Coal and
the two sub-indices for Coking Coal are combined to arrive at the Index for Coking Coal. Thus,
indices are separate for Non-coking and Coking Coal. So statement 3 is correct.
Q.89) Consider the following statements with respect to Caracal:
1. It is medium-sized wildcat found in parts of Rajasthan and Gujarat.
2. It is found in India only.
3. National Board for Wildlife included caracal in the list of critically endangered species.
(a) 2 only
(b) 1 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 3 only
EXPLANATION
Caracal is a medium-sized wildcat found currently in three Protected Areas, namely, Ranthambore
National Park and Kailadevi Wildlife Sanctuary in Rajasthan and Narayan Sarovar Wildlife Sanctuary
in Kachchh, Gujarat. Persistent populations outside protected areas remain either unknown or poorly
monitored. So statement 1 is correct.
Caracal is not only found in India, it is also found in South Africa, North Africa, Middle East, and
Central Asia. So statement 2 is not correct.
National Board for Wildlife included Caracal into the list of critically endangered species for taking up
conservation efforts with financial support under Centrally sponsored Scheme-Integrated
Development of Wildlife Habitat. So statement 3 is correct.
Caracals
 The word Caracal means ‗black ears‘ in Turkish. Large, tapering ears with five cm erect tufts of
black hair, used for communication, are the most unique feature of this cat.
 Females are smaller than males.
 The Caracal has a wide habitat tolerance and is widely distributed. They are found in woodlands,
savannahs, and acacia scrub throughout Africa; jungle scrub and deserts in India; and arid, sandy
regions and steppes in Asia.
1. As per Ministry of New and Renewable Energy data, solar outshines wind power in total capacity.
2. India has target of 175 GW of renewable energy by the year 2022, with 100 GW of solar power.
3. Recently, government launched Production Linked Incentive scheme for solar photo voltaic sells.
(a) 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION
In 2016, the total installed capacity of wind power stood at 26,744 MW and solar power capacity was
at 6,763 MW. Currently, the total installed capacity of solar power stood at 38,794 MW (including
34,561 MW of ground-mounted capacity and 4,233 MW of rooftop capacity). However, the total wind
power capacity was 38,684 MW. Solar outshines wind power in total capacity according to data from
the Union Ministry of New and Renewable Energy. So statement 1 is correct.
The Government of India has set a target of installing 175 GW of renewable energy capacity by the
year 2022, which includes 100 GW from solar, 60 GW from wind, 10 GW from bio-power, and 5 GW
from small hydro-power. So statement 2 is correct.
The GOI has approved the Ministry of New & Renewable Energy‘s proposal for the implementation of
the Production Linked Incentive (PLI) Scheme ‗National Programme on High-Efficiency Solar Photo
Voltic Modules‘ for achieving manufacturing capacity of Giga Watt (GW) scale in high-efficiency solar
PV modules, with an outlay of Rs.4,500 crore. This will reduce the import of PV cells and make India
self-reliant. So statement 3 is correct.
Q.91) Which of the following most appropriately describes the word, “Dickinsonia”, recently seen
in the news?
(a) Fossil of earth‟s oldest animal found in Bhimbetka
(b) New mineral discovered by scientists in Uttar Pradesh
(c) Space Mission to Planet Venus by NASA

EXPLANATION
Researchers have discovered three fossils of the earliest known living animal — the 550 million-year-
old ‗Dickinsonia‘ on the roof of the Bhimbetka Rock Shelters, about 40 km from Bhopal. These are
the only Dickinsonia fossils available in the country and are similar to those seen in southern
Australia. So option (a) is correct.
Rock Shelters of Bhimbetka
 Bhimbetka is an archaeological site in the foothills of the Vindhyan Mountains on the southern
edge of the central Indian plateau.
 It is a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
 Within massive sandstone outcrops, there are five clusters of natural rock shelters displaying
paintings that span from the prehistoric Paleolithic and Mesolithic Period through to the historical
period.
 Bhimbetka, which has the oldest-known art in India, is also known as Bhima‘s Lounge (Bhima -
Pandava prince from the Mahabharata).
 It also exhibits the earliest traces of human life in India and evidence of the Stone Age starting at
the site in Acheulian times.
Q.92) Consider the following pairs with reference to places seen in news:
1. Kouchuveli - Tamil Nadu
2. Chittaura Lake - Uttar Pradesh
3. Mandya - Karnataka
(a) 1 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION
Kouchuveli – It is a place in Thiruvananthapuram in the State of Kerala.
Chittaura lake – Located in Uttar Pradesh. Recently PM has laid the foundation stone of
Maharaja Suheldev Memorial and the development work of Chittaura Lake. Maharaja
Suheldev is one of the most revered Hindu heroes and a warrior king from the eleventh
century - known for having mounted a fierce fight against the army of Ghazi Saiyyad Salar
Masud and defeated him.
Mandya - preliminary surveys on the surface and limited subsurface by Atomic Minerals
Directorate for Exploration and Research (AMD), a constituent unit of Department of Atomic
Energy have shown presence of Lithium resources of 1,600 tonnes (inferred category) in the
pegmatites of Marlagalla – Allapatna area, Mandya district, Karnataka.
So option (c) is correct.

.
Q.93) Right to Repair Law, to promote circular economy, has been brought out by which following?
(a) Japan
(b) France
(c) Germany
(d) European Union
EXPLANATION
European Commission has set out a plan to move towards a ‗right to repair‘ for electronics devices,
such as mobile phones, tablets, and laptops. The proposals are part of a circular economy action plan
that‘s intended to deliver on a Commission pledge to transition the bloc to carbon neutrality by 2050.
So, option (d) is correct.
Circular economy
 The circular economy is a model of production and consumption, which involves sharing, leasing,
reusing, repairing, refurbishing, and recycling existing materials and products as long as possible.
In this way, the life cycle of products is extended.
 In practice, it implies reducing waste to a minimum. When a product reaches the end of its life, its
materials are kept within the economy wherever possible. These can be productively used again
and again, thereby creating further value.
 This is a departure from the traditional, linear economic model, which is based on a take-make-
consume-throw away pattern.
 This model relies on large quantities of cheap, easily accessible materials and energy.
Q.94) Consider the following statements with reference to Super Computers:
1. While an ordinary computer does parallel processing, supercomputers does serial processing.
2. PARAM Siddhi is India‘s fastest supercomputer.
3. China's Fugaku is the fastest supercomputer in the world.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION
An ordinary computer does one thing at a time, so it does things in a distinct series of operations;
that's called serial processing. A typical modern supercomputer works much more quickly by
splitting problems into pieces and working on many pieces at once, which is called parallel
processing. So statement 1 is not correct.
PARAM Siddhi is India‘s fastest supercomputer. PARAM Siddhi, the high-performance computing-
artificial intelligence supercomputer established under National Supercomputing Mission at C-DAC
has achieved the global ranking of 63 in the TOP 500 most powerful non-distributed computer
systems in the world released on 16th November 2020. So statement 2 is correct.
Jointly developed by RIKEN and Fujitsu, Japan‟s Fugaku is the fastest supercomputer in the world.
Fugaku is the first top-ranked system to be powered by ARM processors and it does not belong to
China. So statement 3 is not correct.
PARAM Siddhi
 Param Siddhi, the high-performance computing-artificial intelligence (HPC-AI) supercomputer

established under National Supercomputing Mission (NSM)
 Param Siddhi Supercomputer is built on the NVIDIA DGX SuperPOD reference architecture
networking along with C-DAC‘s indigenously developed HPC-AI engine.
Q.95) Consider the following statements with reference to Quasars:
1. Quasars are very luminous objects in faraway galaxies that emit jets at radio frequencies.
2. Quasars are believed to produce their energy from massive black holes in the center of galaxies in
which quasars are located.
3. Although quasars are bright, they are not brighter than sun.
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION
Quasars are very luminous objects in faraway galaxies that emit jets at radio frequencies. They are
only found in galaxies that have supermassive black holes which power these bright discs. So
They are to be powered by supermassive black holes which lie at the centre of massive galaxies in
which quasars are located. However, the black holes themselves do not emit visible or radio light –
the light we see from quasars comes from a disk of gas and stars called an accretion disk, which
surrounds the black hole. So statement 2 is correct.
Monster quasar shines 429 trillion times brighter than the sun. Because they‘re far away, we‘re
seeing these objects as they were when our universe was young. The oldest quasar, currently, is
J0313-1806. So statement 3 is not correct
 Quasar, an astronomical object of very high luminosity found in the centres of some galaxies and
powered by gas spiralling at high velocity into an extremely large black hole.
 The brightest quasars can outshine all of the stars in the galaxies in which they reside, which
makes them visible even at distances of billions of light-years. Quasars are among the most distant
and luminous objects known.
Q.96) Consider the following statements with reference to Sounding Rockets:
1. Sounding Rockets are one or two stage solid propellant rockets used for probing the upper
atmospheric regions and for space research.
2. They serve as easily affordable platforms to test prototypes of new components intended for use in
launch vehicles and satellites.
3. ISRO has developed a series of sounding rockets called Rohini series.
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION
Sounding rockets are one or two-stage solid propellant rockets used for probing the upper
atmospheric regions and for space research. ISRO has recently launched a sounding rocket to study
attitudinal variations in the neutral winds and plasma dynamics. So statement 1 is correct.
They also serve as easily affordable platforms to test or prove prototypes of new components or
subsystems intended for use in launch vehicles and satellites. The sounding rocket stays between 40
km to 160 km in the atmosphere. So statement 2 is correct.
In 1975, ISRO developed series of sounding rockets in the name called Rohini series. RH-75, with a
diameter of 75mm was the first Indian sounding rocket, which was followed by RH-100 and RH-125
rockets. So statement 3 is correct.
Sounding Rockets:
Operational sounding Rockets
 Currently, operational sounding rockets include three versions namely RH-200, RH-300-Mk-II, and
RH-560-Mk-III.
 These cover a payload range of 8 to 100 kg and an apogee range of 80 to 475 km.
Q.97) Food Waste Index Report 2021 was released recently by which of the following organisation?
(a)United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)
(b) Food and Agricultural Organisation (FAO)
(c) World Bank
(d) United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)
EXPLANATION
Food Waste Index Report 2021 was released recently by UNEP. It presents the most comprehensive
food waste data, analysis, and modelling to date, generating a new estimate of global food waste.
Country-level food waste estimates have also been calculated. So option (a) is correct.
Key findings of Food waste Index Report 2020
 This report estimates that around 931 million tonnes of food waste were generated in 2019, 64 per
cent of which came from households, 26 per cent from food service, and 13 per cent from retail.
 Household per capita food waste generation is found to be broadly similar across country income
groups, suggesting that action on food waste is equally relevant in high, upper-middle, and lower-
middle-income countries.
Q.98) Consider the following statements with Gram Unnatjyoti by Affordable LEDS for All (UJALA)
Programme:
1. It is launched by Ministry of Power.
2. Under the programme, LED bulbs with 3 years of warranty will be given to rural consumers on
submission of working incandescent bulbs.
3. Scheme has no government support or subsidy and it will be financed entirely through carbon
credits.
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION
UJALA is the world‘s largest domestic lighting project. Gram Unnatjyoti by Affordable LEDs for All
(UJALA) Programme is implemented by Energy Efficiency Services under the Ministry of Power. So
Under the program, 7 watt and 12-Watt LED bulbs with 3 years warranty will be given to rural
consumers against submission of working Incandescent bulbs. The Gram Ujala program will be
implemented in villages of the 5 districts only and consumers can exchange a maximum of 5 LED
bulbs. So statement 2 is correct.
Gram Ujala program will be financed entirely through carbon credits and will be the first such
program in India. Under the United Nations‘ Clean Development Mechanism, the scheme will claim
carbon credits. Carbon credit is certificates generated by projects or activities that reduce, avoid, or
destroy greenhouse gases. So statement 3 is correct.
Unnat Jyoti by Affordable LEDs for All(UJALA)
 Unnat Jyoti by Affordable LEDs for All(UJALA) provides LED bulbs that consume less energy when
compared to ordinary bulbs.
 It aims to reduce energy consumption in lighting which helps DISCOM to manage the demand for
energy
 Encourages domestic manufacturing of LED light by Make in India initiative.
1. Elephants have the longest gestation period of all mammals.
2. Asian elephants found in India are larger than African elephants.
3. Asian elephants are listed as vulnerable in IUCN Red List.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION
Elephants have the longest gestation period of about 640 – 660 days, approximately 95 weeks or up
to 23 months. So statement 1 is correct.
There are wide differences between African and Asian Elephants. For example, Asian elephants are
smaller in size and have small ears when compared to African Elephants. Tusks of the Asian
Elephant are smaller than the African Elephants. So statement 2 is not correct.
The Asian Elephant is listed as Endangered in the IUCN Red List. It is largely threatened by the loss
of habitats and poaching. So statement 3 is not correct.
Asian Elephant Habitation
 Asian elephants have three subspecies such as Indian, Sumatra, and Sri Lankan
 In India, the Asian elephant was once widely distributed throughout the country, including in
states like Punjab and Gujarat.
 Currently, they are found in four fragmented populations, in south, north, central and northeast
India.
 Female Elephants are more sociable than males, females form herds which is headed by the eldest
female Elephant.
Q.100) Consider the following statements with reference to Aluminium-air batteries:
1. They are significantly cheaper, lighter and more energy-dense alternative than Lithium-ion
batteries.
2. Unlike other batteries, aluminium plate in an aluminium-air battery can be recycled and
traded directly for industrial uses.
3. They can be recharged at a faster pace than lithium-ion batteries.
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION
These batteries are said to be a lower cost, lighter, and more energy-dense alternative to lithium-ion
batteries, which are currently in use in India. These batteries can be used for electric vehicles and
stationary storage, as well as hydrogen storage solutions. So statement 1 is correct.
Aluminium plates in the aluminium-air battery are converted into aluminium trihydroxide over time
and that aluminium can be reclaimed from aluminium trihydroxide or even traded directly for
industrial uses. So statement 2 is correct.
Aluminium-air batteries cannot be recharged like lithium-ion batteries. So, large-scale use of these
battery-based vehicles requires several battery swapping stations. So statement 3 is not correct.
 The aluminum-air battery consists of an aluminium anode in an electrolyte solution of potassium

hydroxide and uses oxygen from the air as the cathode
 Aluminium air battery is more energy efficient when compared to lithium-ion batteries
 After using aluminium in the batteries, they are removed and used in other industries
 An aluminium-air battery is considerably lighter than a comparable lithium-ion battery.
 The major drawback of the aluminium-air is they can‘t be recharged like lithium-ion batteries,
which needs several battery swapping stations
 Indian Oil Corporation Ltd. has entered into a joint venture with Israel-based battery technology
start-up Phinergy to develop aluminium-air technology-based battery systems.

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PRESTORMINGTM 2021

SET 2 - TEST 21 CURRENT AFFAIRS III EXPLANATION

Q.1) Consider the following statements with reference to Right to Recall:

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Right to recall and Advantages

Q.2) Which of the following are the instruments of direct democracy?

Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 4 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 1, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only

2. Youtube is an example of OTT platform.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

OTT Platforms –New guidelines

 3 tier mechanism for OTT platforms;

1. Gambling and betting are State subjects.

2. Gambling is defined under the Gambling Legislations of states.

3. There are no specific central laws governing online gambling in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(c) New Zealand

Fundamental principles of ASEAN

Q.6) Consider the following statements with reference to BRICS:

1. South Africa was added to BRIC in 2005.

3. Moscow Declaration was adopted in 2020 BRICS Summit.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

New Development Bank (NDB)

Q.7) Consider the following statements with reference to G20 Nations:

1. G20 does not have a permanent secretariat.

2. India has been a founding member of G20.

3. Sherpa Track of G20 focuses on global economic and financial issues.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

1. It is a permanent intergovernmental political, economic and military organization founded in

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

The Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) is a permanent intergovernmental international

So statement 1 is not correct.

1. OPEC is a permanent intergovernmental organization of 13 oil-exporting nations.

2. India is a part of OPEC+ countries.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

The Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) is a permanent, intergovernmental

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

GST Compensation Cess: