EXAMINATION QUESTION PAPER

DEPT. OF ACADEMICS

Details
Campus Ahmedabad Date 15/2/2021
Name of Class XI
student
Name of Annual Examination 2020-21 Student
examination Roll No.
Mail ID of
Lata.punjabi@globalindianschool.org
subject teacher
Subject Chemistry
Session 2020-21
Duration 3 Hours
Maximum 70
marks

General Instructions: Read the following instructions carefully.

a) There are 33 questions in this question paper. All questions are compulsory.
b) Section A: Q. No. 1 to 16 are objective type questions. Q. No. 1 and 2 are passage-based questions
carrying 4 marks each while Q. No. 3 to 16 carry 1 mark each.
c) Section B: Q. No. 17 to 25 are short answer questions and carry 2 marks each.
d) Section C: Q. No. 26 to 30 are short answer questions and carry 3 marks each.
e) Section D: Q. No. 31 to 33 are long answer questions carrying 5 marks each.
f) There is no overall choice. However, internal choices have been provided.
g) Use of calculators and log tables is not permitted.
h) Please log in to join Eklavya and switch on the video while writing exam.
i) Students are requested to use minimum A4 size paper. 6. Use black pen and dark HB pencil for writing.
j) On completion of paper, take a clear photograph of answer sheet and mail to respective subject teacher
within 15minutes.
k) Please note the format of file name for uploading paper

Name Surname Class Section Subject e.g.: ananyadas11A chemistry

 SECTION A (OBJECTIVE TYPE)

1. Read the passage given below and answer the following questions: (1x4=4)
Molecular orbitals are formed by the overlap of atomic orbitals. Two atomic orbitals combine to form
two molecular orbitals called bonding molecular orbital (BMO) and anti-bonding molecular orbital
(ABMO). Energy of anti-bonding orbitals is raised above the parent atomic orbitals that have combined
and the energy of the bonding orbitals is lowered than the parent atomic orbitals. Energies of various
molecular orbitals for elements hydrogen to nitrogen increase in the order : σ1s < σ*1s < σ2s < σ*2s <
π2px = π2py < σ2pz < π*2px = π*2py < σ*2pz and for oxygen and fluorine order of energy of molecular
orbitals is given below : σ1s < σ*1s < σ2s < σ*2s < σ2pz < π2px = π2py < π*2px = π*2py < σ*2pz
Different atomic orbitals of one atom combine with those atomic orbitals of the second atom which
have comparable energies and proper orientation. Further, if the overlapping is head on, the molecular
orbital is called ‘Sigma’, (σ) and if the overlap is lateral, the molecular orbital is called ‘pi’, (π). The
molecular orbitals are filled with electrons according to the same rules as followed for filling of atomic
orbitals. However, the order for filling is not the same for all molecules or their ions. Bond order is one
of the most important parameters to compare the strength of bonds.

(i) Which of the following statements is correct?

(a) In the formation of dioxygen from oxygen atoms 10 molecular orbitals will be formed.
(b) All the molecular orbitals in the dioxygen will be completely filled.
(c) Total number of bonding molecular orbitals will not be same as total number of anti-
bonding orbitals in dioxygen.
(d) Number of filled bonding orbitals will be same as number of filled anti bonding orbitals.
(ii) Diamagnetic species are those which contain no unpaired electrons. Which among the
following are diamagnetic?
(a) N2
(b) N2 2–
(c) O2
(d) O2 –
OR
Paramagnetic species are those which contain unpaired electrons in MO. Which among the
following is paramagnetic?
(a) N2
(b) N2 2+
(c) O2 2-
 (d) O2 –

(iii) Which of the following pair is expected to have the same bond order?
(a) O2, N2
(b) O2 +, N2 –
(c) O2 –, N2 +
(d) O2 –, N2
(iv) In which of the following molecules, σ2pz molecular orbital is filled after π2px and π2py
molecular orbitals?
(a) O2
(b) Ne2
(c) N2
(d) F2

2. Read the passage given below and answer the following questions: (1x4=4)
Ionization Enthalpy of elements is the amount of energy that an isolated gaseous atom requires to lose an
electron in its ground state. Losing of electrons results in the formation of cations. The first ionization energy
of element A is the energy required by an atom to form A+ ions. The unit of ionization energy is given as
KJ mol-1.
A (g) → A+ (g) + e–
In the same way, the second ionization energy is nothing but the energy that you need to remove the second
electron from its valence shell. It is explained by the equation given below:
A+ (g) → A2+ (g) + e
The second most outer electron will be more attracted to the nucleus than the first outer electron. Therefore,
the second ionization energy will always be more than the first ionization energy. In the same way, third
ionization enthalpy will be greater than the second one.
• The first ionization enthalpy of elements decreases as we move down in a group. While moving
down in a group, atomic number increases and the number of shells also increases.
• Outermost electrons are far away from the nucleus and thus can be removed easily. The second
factor that decreases the ionization energy is the shielding effect due to an increasing number
of shells as we move down a group.
• As we move from left to right across a period, ionization energy of elements increases. This is due
to the decrease in the size of atoms across a period.
• The valence electrons get closer to the nucleus of an atom as we move from left to right due to
increased nuclear charge. The force of attraction between the nucleus and the electrons increases
 and hence more energy is required to remove an electron from the valence shell.

In these questions Q. No i-iv, a statement of assertion followed by a statement of reason is

given. Choose the correct answer out of the following choices.
(a) Assertion and reason both are correct statements and reason is correct
explanation for assertion.

(b) Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is not correct explanation for
assertion.

(c) Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrong statement.

(d) Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correct statement.

(i) Assertion (A): Boron has a smaller first ionisation enthalpy than beryllium.
Reason (R): The penetration of a 2s electron to the nucleus is more than the 2p electron.

(ii) Assertion (A): First ionisation enthalpy of N is higher than O. Reason

(R): Extra stability of half-filled 2p subshell of O atom.
(iii) Assertion (A): Second IE of all elements are always higher than first IE. Reason (R):
IE of noble gas elements are highest in their respective period.
(iv) Assertion (A) : IE of Alkali metals are lowest in a period. Reason (R) :
The size of Alkali metals are largest in any period.
OR
Assertion (A) : IE in a period increases as we go from left to right. Reason
(R) : In period left to right Zeff decreases and σeff increases.
Following questions (No. 3 -11) are multiple choice questions carrying 1 mark each:
3. Which of the following term is dependent of temperature?
(a) Molarity (b) Molality
(c) Mole fraction (d) Mass percentage
4. Number of atoms of He in 100 u of He (Atomic mass of He is 4 u): (a) 25
(b) 50
(c) 100 (d) 400
OR
The empirical formula and molecular mass of a compound are CH2O and 180 g respectively. What
will be the molecular formula of the compound?
(a) C9H18O9 (b) CH2O
(c) C6H12O6 (d) C2H4O2
 5. Which of the following statements about a compound is incorrect?
(a) A molecule of a compound has atoms of different elements.
(b) A compound cannot be separated into its constituent elements by physical methods of
separation.
(c) A compound retains the physical properties of its constituent elements.
(d) The ratio of atoms of different elements in a compound is fixed.
6. Total number of orbitals associated with third shell will be .
(a) 2 (b) 4
(c) 9 (d) 3
OR
Total number of orbitals having Azimuthal quantum number 3 will be:
(a) 1 (b) 5
(c) 7 (d)3
7. The magnetic quantum number of an atom is related to the
(a) size of the orbital (b) spin angular momentum
(c) orbital angular momentum (d) orientation of the orbital in space

OR
Size of orbital is associated with:
(a) Azimuthal quantum number (b) Spin quantum number
(c) Principal quantum number (d) magnetic quantum number
8. The shape of XeF4 molecule according to VSEPR theory is
(a) Square planar (b) Square pyramid
(c) Tetrahedral (d) Pyramidal
OR
Which molecule have ‘T’ shape
(a) PCl3 (b) XeO3
(c) BH3 (d) BrF3
9. A system absorb 10 kJ of heat at constant volume and its temperature rises from 270 C to 370 C. The value
of ∆ U is

(a) 100 kJ
(b) 10 kJ
(c) 0 kJ
(d) 1 kJ
10. A gas would be most likely to obey the ideal gas law at
(a) Low T and high P (b) High T and high P
(c) Low T and low P (d) High T and low P
 11. Which of the following is not correct?
(a) ∆G is zero for a reversible reaction
(b) ∆G is positive for a spontaneous reaction
(c) ∆G is negative for a spontaneous reaction
(d) ∆G is positive for a non-spontaneous reaction

In the following questions (Q. No. 12 - 16) a statement of assertion followed by a statement of reason is
given. Choose the correct answer out of the following choices.
a) Assertion and reason both are correct statements and reason is correct explanation for assertion.
b) Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is not correct explanation for assertion.
c) Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrong statement.
d) Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correct statement.

12. Assertion (A): The empirical mass of ethene is half of its molecular mass.
Reason (R): The empirical formula represents the simplest whole number ratio of various atoms present
in a compound.

13. Assertion (A): It is impossible to determine the exact position and exact momentum of an electron
simultaneously.
Reason (R): The path of an electron in an atom is clearly defined.
14. Assertion (A): Electron gain enthalpy of Cl is more negative than F atom.
Reason (R): F is more electronegative than Cl atom.
OR
Assertion (A): Size of cation is always smaller than neutral atom.
Reason (R): Cation have stronger Zeff than neutral atom due to less number of electron.

15. Assertion (A): Pi bond is never formed alone. It is formed along with a sigma bond
Reason (R): Pi bond is formed by sideway overlap of p- orbitals only.
16. Assertion (A): ∆H and ∆U are same for the reaction N2 (g) + O2 (g) → 2NO(g)
Reason (R): All the reactants and products are gases.

SECTION B
Questions 17 – 25 are short answer type and carry 2 marks each.
17. Identify the substance oxidized, reduced, oxidizing agent and reducing agent for each of the
following reactions:

Pb (s) + PbO2 (s) + 2H2SO4 (aq) → 2PbSO4 (s) + 2H2O.

18. In an organic compound Carbon, Hydrogen and Oxygen are 60%, 13.33% and 26.66% respectively.
Find molecular formula if the molecular mass of compound is 60.
19. (a) What is the lowest number of n that allows g orbitals to exist?
(b) The velocity associated with a proton moving in a potential difference of 1000
V is 4.37x105 m/s. If the hockey ball of mass 0.1kg is moving with this
velocity, calculate the wavelength associated with this velocity.
OR
a) Using s, p, d notations, describe the orbital with the following quantum numbers.
(i) n= 1, l=0
(ii) n=4, l=3.
b) Among the following pairs of orbitals which orbital will experience the larger effective nuclear
charge?
(i) 2s and 3s
(ii) 4d and 4f.
20. Observe the following graph:

i. Boron has a smaller first ionization enthalpy than beryllium. Give

reason.
ii. Ionization enthalpy of nitrogen is more than oxygen. Justify.
21. (i) Calculate formal charge in each of the oxygen atoms in Ozone molecule.

(ii) Give the change in hybridization of the Al atom in the following reaction:
AlCl3 + Cl- → AlCl4-

22. (a)The shape of PCl5 is trigonal bipyramidal but of ClF3 is ‘T’ shaped, although in both molecules
 central atom has sp3d hybridization, explain.
(b) The dipole moment of CO2 is zero while of SO2 is not zero, why?

OR
Compare the relative stabilities of the following species: O2+2 and N2 – according to MOT.

23. At 25oC and 760 mm of Hg pressure a gas occupies 600mL volume. What will be its pressure at a
height where temperature is 10oC and volume of the gas is 640 mL.
OR

Give two points of differences between Dipole-Dipole forces and Dipole-Induced dipole forces.

24. Write the expression for the equilibrium constant, Kc for each of the following reactions:

i. 2 NOCl (g) 2NO(g) + Cl2

ii. I2 (s) + 5F2 2IF5

25. The following species can act both as Bronsted acids and bases. For each case give the
corresponding conjugate acid and conjugate base. HCO3- and NH3.

SECTION C
Question 26 -30 are Short Answer Type II carrying 3 mark each. (Write answers in brief with
proper explanation).

26. (a) The enthalpy of atomisation for the reaction CH4(g)→ C(g) + 4H (g) is 1665 kJ mol–1. What is
the bond energy of C–H bond?

(b) Use the following data to calculate Δlattice H⊖for NaBr.

Δsub H⊖for sodium metal = 108.4 kJ mol–1
Ionization enthalpy of sodium = 496 kJ mol-1
Electron gain enthalpy of bromine = – 325 kJ mol-1
Bond dissociation enthalpy of bromine = 192 kJ mol-1
Δf H⊖ for NaBr (s) = – 360.1 kJ mol-1

27. Balance the following reaction by any one method of your choice in a proper stepwise manner.
MnO4- (aq) + I- (aq) → MnO2 (s) + I2 (s) (in basic medium).

OR
(a) Define Le Chatelier’s principle.
(b) Derive relationship between Kp and Kc for the reaction given below:

aA+bB cC+dD
(c) How can you maximise the yield of SO3 with respect to temperature and pressure?
2 SO2 (g) + O2 (g) 2 SO3 (g) ΔrHo=-57.2 kJmol-1
 28. Write IUPAC names of the products obtained by the ozonolysis of the following compounds:
(i) Pent-2-ene (ii) 3, 4-Dimethylhept-3-ene (iii) 2-Ethylbut-l-ene

29. (a) Why do alkali metals and their salts impart characteristic colour to an oxidizing flame?
(b) What is the oxidation state of K in KO2? (2+1)
OR
(a) The concentration of hydrogen ion in a sample of soft drink is 3.8x 10-3 M. What is its pH? (1)
(b) At equilibrium, the concentrations of N2=3.0x10-3 M, O2 = 4.2 x 10-3 M and NO = 2.8 x 10-3 M in
a sealed vessel at 800 K. What will be Kc for the reaction? (1)
N2(g) + O2 → 2NO (g)
(c ) Explain in brief how Qc and Qc values help in predicting the direction of the reaction. (1)
30. Mention three reasons for anomalous behaviour of carbon from rest of the members of its group.

SECTION D
Question 31 to 33 are Long answer type carrying 5 marks each.

31. (a) Write the structural formula of: (2)

(i) o-Ethylanisole
(ii) 2,3-Dibromo-1-phenylpentane.

(b) Give a brief account on diagonal relationship between elements considering any one set of
examples. Support your answer with minimum three points. (3)

32. (a) In which C-C bond of CH3CH2CH2Br, the inductive effect is expected to be the least? Give reason.
(b) Define electrophiles and nucleophiles, giving examples. (2)
(c) Give IUPAC names of the following: (2)

(ii)
(i)

33. (a) Draw the cis- and trans-structures for hex-2-ene. Which isomer will have higher boiling point and
why? (2)
(b) Complete the following reactions: (3).
(i) 2CH3CH2Br + 2Na (dry ether) →
(ii) CH3COO- Na+ + NaOH (CaO/∆) →
(iii) CH3CHCCH2 + H2O (acidic media) →
 OR

(a) Give reasons why the following systems are not aromatic? (2)

(i) (ii)

(b) Complete the following reactions: (3)

(i) CH3CH=CH2 + H2O + O (dil. KMnO4,273K) →

(ii) CH2Br-CH2Br + KOH (alcohol) ,(NaNH2) →
(iii)

+ CH3Cl (Anhy. AlCl3) →

THE END
All the Best, give your Best.