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BOW Guru Antra Goal: Anand Prakash
BOW Guru Antra Goal: Anand Prakash
BOW
GURU ANTRA
GOAL
Get a Chance to Learn from India’s Best Teachers & Crack JEE ADVANCED 2021
Anand Prakash
Co-Founder, Vedantu
IIT- Roorkee
Our Previous EKLAVYANs
& Their Achievements
https:/ courJOIN
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Study Materials
• Sample Papers
Instructions:
Q. No. 1 to 9 are multiple choice questions having only one alternative correct. For each
question you will be awarded 3 marks if you select the options corresponding to the correct
answer ONLY and zero (0) marks if no option is selected. In all other cases, Minus one (-1)
marks will be awarded in this section.
Q. No. 10 to 15 are based on the passages given below. Each question has only one correct
answer and answer should be marked based on the information given in the passage. For
each question you will be awarded 3 marks if you select the options corresponding to the correct
answer ONLY and zero (0) marks if no option is selected. In all other cases, Minus one (-1)
marks will be awarded in this section.
Questions number 16 to 19 are Assertion–Reason type questions. For each question you will be
awarded 3 marks if you select the options corresponding to the correct answer ONLY and zero
(0) marks if no option is selected. In all other cases, Minus one (-1) marks will be awarded in this
section.
SECTION – I – PHYSICS
Question 1: The shown figure represents a wave front AB which passes from air to another transparent
medium and produces a new wave front CD after refraction. The refractive index of the medium is
(PQ is the boundary between air and the medium).
Options:
sin 1
(a)
sin 4
sin 2
(b)
sin 3
cos 1
(c)
cos4
cos4
(d)
cos 1
1
Question 2: A negative test charge is moving near a long straight current carrying wire. A force will
act on the test charge in a direction parallel to the direction of the current, if the motion of the charge
is in a direction
Options:
(a) perpendicular to both the direction of current and wire and the direction towards wire.
(b) towards wire
(c) opposite to that of current
(d) the same as that of current
Question 3: A beam of electrons striking a copper target produces X-rays. Its spectrum is as shown.
Keeping the voltage same if the copper target is replaced with a different metal, the cut-off
wavelength and characteristic lines of the new spectrum will change in comparison with old as
Options:
(a) Both cut-off wavelength and characteristic lines will remain unchanged.
(b) Both cut-off wavelength and characteristic lines will be different.
(c) Cut-off wavelength will be different while characteristic lines will remain unchanged.
(d) Cut-off wavelength will remain unchanged while characteristic lines will be different.
Question 4: A straight uniform metal rod of length 3l is bent through right angle as shown. The bent
rod is then placed on a rough horizontal table. Alight string is attached to the vertex of the right angle. The
string is then pulled horizontally so that the rod translates at constant velocity. Then the angle which
the side 2l makes with string is
Options:
(a) – tan-1 1/4
(b) – tan-1 1/2
(c) – sin-1 1/4
(d) – sin-1 1/2
Question 5: Two identical capacitor C1 and C2 are connected in series with a battery. They are fully
charged. Now a dielectric slab is inserted between the plates of C2. The potential difference across
C1 will
2
Options:
(a) decrease
(b) remain same
(c) increase
(d) depend on internal resistance of the cell
Question 6: Three masses of small size are attached by light inextensible strings of various lengths to a
point O on the ceiling. All of the masses swing round in horizontal circles of various radii with the
same angular frequency (one such circle is drawn in the shown figure). Then pick up the correct
statement.
Options:
(a) All masses revolve in the same horizontal plane.
(b) The vertical depth of each mass below point of suspension from ceiling is different.
(c) All the particles must have same mass.
(d) The radius of horizontal circular path of each mass is same.
Question 7: A rectangular metal plate has dimensions of 10 cm × 20 cm. A thin film of oil separates
the plate from a fixed horizontal surface. The separation between the rectangular plate and the
horizontal surface is 0.2 mm. An ideal string is attached to the plate and passes over an ideal
pulley to a mass m. When m = 125 gm, the metal plate moves at constant speed of 5 cm/s across the
2 2
horizontal surface. Then the coefficient of viscosity of oil in dyne-s/cm is (Use g = 1000 cm/s )
Options:
(a) 2.5
(b) 50
(c) 25
(d) 5
3
Question 8: A stone is projected at an angle 45° with horizontal. A bee follows the trajectory of the
stone at a constant speed equal to the initial speed of stone. Neglect air resistance for motion of stone.
Then the magnitude of acceleration of bee at the topmost point of trajectory is (g is acceleration due to
gravity)
Options:
(a) 2g
(b) g / 2
(c) g
(d) 2g
Question 9: Consider the circuit containing resistors and an ideal battery. Potential difference Va – Vb is
equal to (where points ‘a’ and ‘b’ are as shown)
Options:
(a) 5 V
(b) – 10 V
(c) – 5 V
(d) – 12.5 V
SECTION – II – PHYSICS
Question 1: A fan operates at 200 volt (DC) consuming 1000 W when running at full speed. It’s internal
wiring has resistance 1 . When the fan runs at full speed, its speed becomes constant. This is because the
torque due to magnetic field inside the fan is balanced by the torque due to air resistance on the blades of
the fan and torque due to friction between the fixed part and the shaft of the fan. The electrical power going
into the fan is spent (i) in the internal resistance as heat, call it P1 (ii) in doing work against internal
friction and air resistance producing heat, sound etc., call it P2. When the coil of fan rotates, an emf is
also induced in the coil. This opposes the external emf applied to send the current into the fan. This
emf is called back-emf, call it ‘e’. Answer the following questions when the fan is running at full speed.
The value of power ‘P2’ is
Options:
(a) 200 W
(b) 25 W
(c) 10000 W
(d) 975 W
Question 2: A fan operates at 200 volt (DC) consuming 1000 W when running at full speed. It’s internal
wiring has resistance 1 . When the fan runs at full speed, its speed becomes constant. This is because the
torque due to magnetic field inside the fan is balanced by the torque due to air resistance on the blades of
4
the fan and torque due to friction between the fixed part and the shaft of the fan. The electrical power going
into the fan is spent (i) in the internal resistance as heat, call it P1 (ii) in doing work against internal
friction and air resistance producing heat, sound etc., call it P2. When the coil of fan rotates, an emf is
also induced in the coil. This opposes the external emf applied to send the current into the fan. This
emf is called back-emf, call it ‘e’. Answer the following questions when the fan is running at full speed.
The current flowing into the fan and the value of back emf ‘e’ is
Options:
(a) 1 A, 0 volt
(b) 5 A, 195 volt
(c) 5 A, 200 volt
(d) 200 A, 5 volt
Question 3: A fan operates at 200 volt (DC) consuming 1000 W when running at full speed. It’s internal
wiring has resistance 1 . When the fan runs at full speed, its speed becomes constant. This is because the
torque due to magnetic field inside the fan is balanced by the torque due to air resistance on the blades of
the fan and torque due to friction between the fixed part and the shaft of the fan. The electrical power going
into the fan is spent (i) in the internal resistance as heat, call it P1 (ii) in doing work against internal
friction and air resistance producing heat, sound etc., call it P2. When the coil of fan rotates, an emf is
also induced in the coil. This opposes the external emf applied to send the current into the fan. This
emf is called back-emf, call it ‘e’. Answer the following questions when the fan is running at full speed.
The value of power ‘P1’ is
Options:
(a) 200 W
(b) 975 W
(c) 1000 W
(d) 25 W
5
Question 5: A sinusoidal wave is propagating in negative x-direction in a string stretched along x-
axis. A particle of string at x = 2m is found at its mean position and it is moving in positive y direction at
t = 1 sec.
The amplitude of the wave, the wavelength and the angular frequency of the wave are 0.1 meter, /4
meter and 4 rad/sec respectively.
The speed of particle at x = 2m and t = 1 sec. is
Options:
(a) 0.6 m/s
(b) 0.2 m/s
(c) 0
(d) 0.4 m/s
Question 1: (A) If both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation of
assertion.
(B) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(C) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(D) If assertion is false but reason is true.
Assertion : A parallel beam of light is incident on a thin convex lens and is also parallel to the
principal axis of convex lens as shown. The magnitude of deviation of each ray of this beam produced by
given convex lens is different.
Reason : A thin convex lens can be assumed to be made of prisms of small angles The magnitude of
deviation produced by prism of small angle for small angles of incidence depends on angle of prism.
Each ray of the beam in situation of statement-1 is incident on a prism of different angles, hence the
magnitude of deviation for each ray is different.
Options:
(a) A
6
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
Question 2: (A) If both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation of
assertion.
(B) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(C) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(D) If assertion is false but reason is true.
Assertion : Two particles undergo rectilinear motion along different straight lines. Then the centre of
mass of system of given two particles also always moves along a straight line.
Reason : If direction of net momentum of a system of particles (having nonzero net momentum) is
fixed, the centre of mass of given system moves along a straight line.
Options:
(a) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) D
Question 3: (A) If both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation of
assertion.
(B) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(C) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(D) If assertion is false but reason is true.
Assertion : A pendulum made of an insulated rigid massless rod of length l is attached to a small
sphere of mass m and charge q. The pendulum is undergoing oscillations of small amplitude having
time period
T. Now a uniform horizontal magnetic field B out of plane of page is switched on. As a result of this
change, the time period of oscillations does not change.
Reason : A force acting along the rod on the bob of a simple pendulum (such that tension in string
is never zero) does not produce any restoring torque on the bob about the hinge.
Options:
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
Question 4: (A) If both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation of
assertion.
(B) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
7
(C) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(D) If assertion is false but reason is true.
Assertion : An ideal gas is enclosed within a container fitted with a piston. When volume of this
enclosed gas is increased at constant temperature, the pressure exerted by the gas on the piston
decreases.
Reason : In the above situation the rate of molecules striking the piston decreases. If the rate at
which molecules of a gas having same average speed striking a given area of the wall decreases, the
pressure exerted by gas on the wall decreases.
Options:
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
SECTION – I – CHEMISTRY
Question 1: Which of the following is correct regarding solutions of sodium metal in liquid
ammonia.
Options:
(a) When NH4Cl solid is added to such a solution NaCl is precipitated
(b) The solutions are generally blue, good conductors of electricity and conductivity decreases as
temperature is raised
(c) The solutions are paramagnetic but paramagnetic character decreases as concentration of solution
is increased
(d) all the above are correct
8
Question 3: For the cell (at 1 bar H2 pressure) Pt/H2(g) H X (m1), NaX(m2), NaCl(m3)/AgCl/Ag/Pt
mHX .mC1−
it is found that the value of E – E° + RTF-1 n approaches 0.2490 in the limit of zero
mX−
1 –1 –1
concentration. Calculate n for the acid HX at 27°C. (R = 8.3 Jmole K , F = 96500C)
Ka
Options:
(a) 96.5
(b) 19.3
(c) 4.825
(d) 9.65
Question 4: During the titration of 100 ml of a weak monobasic acid solution using 0.1 M NaOH,
the solution became neutral at 40 mL addition of NaOH and equivalence point was obtained at 50
mL NaOH addition. The Ka of the acid is (log 2 = 0.3)
Options:
–7
(a) 3 × 10
–7
(b) 4 × 10
–7
(c) 1 × 10
–7
(d) 2 × 10
Options:
(a)
(b)
(c)
9
(d)
Question 7: A scarlet compound ‘A’ is treated with concentrated HNO3 to give a chocolate brown-
black precipitate ‘B’. The precipitate is filtered and the filtrate is neutralised with NaOH. Addition
of KI to the resulting solution gives a yellow precipitate ‘C’. The precipitate B on warming with
concentrated HNO3 in the presence of Mn(NO3)2 produces a pink coloured solution due to the
formation of ‘D’. The compound ‘B’ can be
Options:
(a) PbO
(b) Ag2CrO4
(c) Pb3O4
(d) PbO2
10
Options:
(a) Both compound (I) and (II) have same configurational nomenclature ‘R’
(b) The compound (I) may show racemisation due to enolisation
(c) The compound (I) is enolisable.
(d) The asymmetric carbon atom has not undergone any inversion during the reaction
SECTION – II – CHEMISTRY
Question 1: Both the C – H and C – X bonds are breaking in the transition state of E2
reactions. The rate of E2 reaction is of second order. The rate shows primary isotopic (deuterium)
effect, i.e. if C – H is replaced by C – D, the rate of reaction decreases sharply. The rate is also
corelated with nucleofugality i.e. the ability of leaving group to leave. With a better nucleofuge, the rate of
reaction increases. This is called the element effect.
The element effect is also observed in E1cb reactions in which the second step is rate determining
and elimination of first order w.r.t. conjugate base is observed. For E1cb reaction KH/KD 1,
therefore proton abstraction is not involved in the rate determing step. In D2O the incorporation of
Deuterium at C – H in the substrate is found many times faster than rate of elimination, in E1cb
reaction. In E1 reaction only nucleofuge departs in slow step and a carbocation intermediate is
formed.
Consider the following statement, “In 80% aqueous ethanol, t-Butyl iodide solvolyses 100 times as
rapidly as t-Butylchloride, but the ratio of elimination to substitution products is the same for chloride
and iodide.”
This statement indicates that
Options:
(a) Only the nucleofuge departs in the slow step.
(b) The nucleofugality order is Cl = I
(c) For elimination product, C – H and C – X are eliminated in the same step.
(d) The percentage of substitution product is equal to percentage of elimination product.
Question 2: Both the C – H and C – X bonds are breaking in the transition state of E2
reactions. The rate of E2 reaction is of second order. The rate shows primary isotopic (deuterium)
effect, i.e. if C – H is replaced by C – D, the rate of reaction decreases sharply. The rate is also
corelated with nucleofugality i.e. the ability of leaving group to leave. With a better nucleofuge, the rate of
reaction increases. This is called the element effect.
The element effect is also observed in E1cb reactions in which the second step is rate determining
and elimination of first order w.r.t. conjugate base is observed. For E1cb reaction KH/KD 1
therefore proton abstraction is not involved in the rate determing step. In D2O the incorporation of
Deuterium at C – H in the substrate is found many times faster than rate of elimination, in E1cb
11
reaction. In E1 reaction only nucleofuge departs in slow step and a carbocation intermediate is
formed.
For the given compounds I and II the rate of elimination by EtO /EtOH shows KH/KD = 7.1.
What is true about this reaction
Options:
(a) Only H (or D) is eliminated in rate determining step.
(b) The reaction intermediate is resonance stabilized.
(c) Both C – H and C – Br bonds are breaking simultaneously in transition state.
(d) Only Br is eliminated in rate determining step.
Question 3: Both the C – H and C – X bonds are breaking in the transition state of E2
reactions. The rate of E2 reaction is of second order. The rate shows primary isotopic (deuterium)
effect, i.e. if C – H is replaced by C – D, the rate of reaction decreases sharply. The rate is also
corelated with nucleofugality i.e. the ability of leaving group to leave. With a better nucleofuge, the rate of
reaction increases. This is called the element effect.
The element effect is also observed in E1cb reactions in which the second step is rate determining
and elimination of first order w.r.t. conjugate base is observed. For E1cb reaction KH/KD 1
therefore proton abstraction is not involved in the rate determing step. In D2O the incorporation of
Deuterium at C – H in the substrate is found many times faster than rate of elimination, in E1cb
reaction. In E1 reaction only nucleofuge departs in slow step and a carbocation intermediate is
formed.
Observe the given reaction.In this reaction KH/KD 1. What is not true about this reaction
Options:
(a) In EtO /EtOH the rate of reaction will be faster as compared to EtO /EtOD
Question 4: Colligative property measurement is one of the techniques used in the measurement
of chemical quantities with reasonable accuracy.
If a 40.65 gm sample of K2SO4 and BaSO4 is dissolved in 900 gm of pure water to form a solution ‘A’ at
57°C, its vapour pressure is found to be 39.6 torr while vapour pressure of pure water at 57°C is 40 torr.
Density of solution A is 1.24 gm/ml.
In a different experiment of pure BaSO4 is mixed with water at 57°C it gives the osmotic rise of 4.05 ×
–5
10 atm.
(R = 0.082 Lt.-atm/mol-K ; K = 39, Ba = 137, S = 32, O = 16)
12
Boiling point elevation of solution A is (Kb water = 0.54 K-kg/mol)
Options:
(a) 0.05 K
(b) 0.04 K
(c) 0.3 K
(d) 0.1 K
Question 5: Colligative property measurement is one of the techniques used in the measurement
of chemical quantities with reasonable accuracy.
If a 40.65 gm sample of K2SO4 and BaSO4 is dissolved in 900 gm of pure water to form a solution ‘A’ at
57°C, its vapour pressure is found to be 39.6 torr while vapour pressure of pure water at 57°C is 40 torr.
Density of solution A is 1.24 gm/ml.
In a different experiment of pure BaSO4 is mixed with water at 57°C it gives the osmotic rise of 4.05 ×
–5
10 atm.
(R = 0.082 Lt.-atm/mol-K ; K = 39, Ba = 137, S = 32, O = 16)
Solubility product of BaSO4 in water at 57°C is
Options:
–13
(a) 3.125 × 10
–12
(b) 2.25 × 10
–13
(c) 5.625 × 10
–19
(d) 5 × 10
Question 6: Colligative property measurement is one of the techniques used in the measurement
of chemical quantities with reasonable accuracy.
If a 40.65 gm sample of K2SO4 and BaSO4 is dissolved in 900 gm of pure water to form a solution ‘A’ at
57°C, its vapour pressure is found to be 39.6 torr while vapour pressure of pure water at 57°C is 40 torr.
Density of solution A is 1.24 gm/ml.
In a different experiment of pure BaSO4 is mixed with water at 57°C it gives the osmotic rise of 4.05 ×
–5
10 atm.
(R = 0.082 Lt.-atm/mol-K ; K = 39, Ba = 137, S = 32, O = 16)
Percentage of K2SO4 in the sample is
Options:
(a) 78.74%
(b) 65.75%
(c) 71.34%
(d) 60.35%
Question 1: (A) If both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation of
assertion.
13
(B) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(C) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(D) If assertion is false but reason is true.
Assertion: The compound (I) hydrolyses with much faster rate than (II)
Reason : The sulphur atom provides anchimeric assistance (neighbouring group participation)
–
so removal of Cl and attack of nucleophile both become easier and faster.
Options:
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
Question 2: (A) If both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation of
assertion.
(B) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(C) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(D) If assertion is false but reason is true.
Assertion: Rate of solvolysis of (II) is faster than (I).
Reason: The carbocation intermediate of (II) formed in solvolysis reaction is stabilized by resonance and
hyperconjugation.
Options:
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
Question 3: (A) If both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation of
assertion.
(B) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(C) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(D) If assertion is false but reason is true.
Assertion : In (R3Si)2O (disilyl ether) Si–O–Si bond angle lies between 140°-180° and (Ph3Si)2O
has bond angle 180°.
14
Reason : Due to increased electronic overlapping (p -d ) and steric repulsion.
Options:
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
Question 4: (A) If both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation of
assertion.
(B) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(C) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(D) If assertion is false but reason is true.
Assertion : A gas with higher critical temperature is adsorbed more than a gas with lower critical
temperature on the same adsorbent.
Reason : Higher critical temperature implies that the gas is more easily liquefiable.
Options:
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
SECTION – I – MATHEMATICS
2 2
Question 3: Radius (R < 4) of a circle which touches the circle x + y = 16 externally and angle
–1
between the direct common tangents is tan (24/7) is
Options:
15
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 1/2
(d) 3
Question 4: If n/7, n N is a non terminating and is a recurring decimal rational number. After
decimal at some stage, digits start repeating in groups continuously. If smallest such group has r
digits, then
Options:
(a) Maximum value of r is 6
(b) Maximum value of r is 9
(c) Maximum value of r is 3
(d) Maximum value of r is 7
Answer: (a)
Question 5: A is a set containing n different elements, a subset P of A is chosen at random. The set A is
reconstructed by replacing the elements of P and a subset Q of A is chosen at random. The number
of ways of choosing P and Q so that P Q = A is
Options:
n
(a) 4
n
(b) 3
n n
(c) C2.2
n
(d) 2
2
Question 6: All the three vertices of an equilateral triangle lie on the parabola y = x and one of its sides
has a slope of 2, then sum of x-coordinates of the three vertices of triangle is
Options:
(a) –3/22
(b) 3/22
(c) 3/11
(d) 6/11
x [x]
Question 7: Number of solutions for x between 3 and 15 if [t]dt = t dt , where [.] represents greatest
0 0
integer function, is
Options:
(a) 11
(b) infinitely many
(c) 12
(d) 13
16
Question 8: A die is rolled three times. Let E1 denotes the event of getting a number larger than the
previous number each time and E2 denotes the event that the numbers (in order) form an increasing AP
then
Options:
10
(a) P(E1 ) = P(E2 )
3
(b) P(E2 ) P(E1 )
3
(c) P(E2 E1 )=
10
1
(d) P(E2 / E1 )=
36
th
Question 9: For a series, magnitude of n term and sum of first n terms are equal. If first term is 1,
then seventh term is
Options:
1
(a) 7
2
1
(b) 6
2
200
(c) −
409
1
(d) − 6
2
SECTION – II – MATHEMATICS
Question 1: Let a point P whose position vector is r = xiˆ + yjˆ + zkˆ is called Lattice point if x, y, z
N. If atleast two of x, y, z are equal then this Lattice point is called isosceles Lattice point. If all
x, y, z are equal then this Lattice point is called equilateral Lattice point.
Area of triangle formed by the isosceles Lattice points lying on the plane r = (iˆ + ˆj + kˆ) = 4 is
Options:
3
(a) 2
2
3
(b)
2
(c) 2 2
(d) 2
17
Question 2: Let a point P whose position vector is r = xiˆ + yjˆ + zkˆ is called Lattice point if x, y, z
N. If atleast two of x, y, z are equal then this Lattice point is called isosceles Lattice point. If all
x, y, z are equal then this Lattice point is called equilateral Lattice point.
The number of Lattice points on the plane r = (iˆ + ˆj + kˆ) = 10 are
Options:
(a) 84
(b) 120
(c) 36
(d) 45
Question 3: Let a point P whose position vector is r = xiˆ + yjˆ + zkˆ is called Lattice point if x, y, z
N. If atleast two of x, y, z are equal then this Lattice point is called isosceles Lattice point. If all
x, y, z are equal then this Lattice point is called equilateral Lattice point.
If a Lattice point is selected at random from Lattice points which satisfy r = (iˆ + ˆj + kˆ) 11, then
the probability that the selected Lattice point is equilateral given that it is isosceles Lattice point is
Options:
1
(a)
23
1
(b)
22
5
(c)
22
2
(d)
33
f(r)
r =1
n
Cr is
Options:
(a) 0
n–2
(b) n(n – 1)2
n– 1
(c) n.2
n–1 n–2
(d) n.2 + n(n – 1)2
18
Question 6: If f : (0, ) → (0, ) is an into function satisfying f(xf(y)) = x2ya (a R)
Value of a is
Options:
(a) 2
(b) 1
(c) 4
(d) 2
Question 1: (A) If both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation of
assertion.
(B) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(C) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(D) If assertion is false but reason is true.
Assertion: Let f : R – {1, 2, 3} → R be a function defined by
1 2 3
f(x) = + + . Then f is many-one function.
x −1 x − 2 x − 3
Reason : If either f’(x) > 0 or f’(x) < 0, x domain of f, then y = f(x) is one-one function.
Options:
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
Question 2: (A) If both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation of
assertion.
(B) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(C) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(D) If assertion is false but reason is true.
x
Assertion : Let f(x) be an even function which is periodic, then g(x) = f(t)dt is also periodic.
a
Reason : If (x) is a differentiable and periodic function, then ’(x) is also periodic.
Options:
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
Question 3: (A) If both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation of
assertion.
19
(B) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(C) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(D) If assertion is false but reason is true.
x +1
Assertion : If x = n Cn −1 +n +1 Cn −1 + n +2Cn −1 + ........ + 2n Cn −1 , then is integer.
2n + 1
Reason : n Cr + n Cr −1 = n +1Cr and n C r is divisible by n if n and r are co- prime.
Options:
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
Question 4: (A) If both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation of
assertion.
(B) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(C) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(D) If assertion is false but reason is true.
Assertion : Let a, b , c & d are position vectors of four points A, B, C & D and
3a − 2b + 5c − 6d = 0 then points A, B, C and D are coplanar.
( )
Reason: Three non zero, linearly dependent co-initial vectors PQ, PR & PS are coplanar.
Options:
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
Answer Key
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4. a 4. c 4. b
5. d 5. c 5. d
6. b 6. c 6. c
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