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NABARD Grade A 2018 Phase 1 – Quantitative Aptitude 169

1. Direction: Refer to the pie charts to answer a) 620


the given questions. b) 440
c) 680
d) 485
Pie Chart
e) 430

20% 2. The difference between the number of


30%
illiterates in village D and E is
24% approximately what percent of that of the
16%
difference between literates in village D and
10% E?
A B C D E
a) 30
b) 20
c) 35
Above pie chart represent the population of d) 13
villages–A, B, C, D and E in 2015 where, e) 15
Total population of all villages = 18000
3. In Village D, the male to female ratio among
the illiterates is 5 : 3 respectively. Out
Pie Chart
of the illiterates, If ‘X” females and "1.25 X"
males work as farmers and the ratio
24%
14% between males and females who do not work
as farmers is 5 : 2 respectively, what is the
26% value of ‘X’ ?
20%
a) 240
16%
b) 300
c) 360
A B C D E d) 380
e) 280
Above pie chart represents the population
4. The average number of illiterates in Village
of illiterates in respective villages in 2015
D, F and G is 1910. 40% and 30% of the
where,
population of villages F and G respectively are
Total number of illiterates = 40% of Total
illiterate. If the ratio of the population of
population of all villages
Village F and G is 4 : 5 respectively, what is
Total village population = Number of literates
the total population of Villages F and G
+ Number of Illiterates
together?
In 2017, the population of village C remained
a) 10000
the same as that in 2015, but the number of
b) 12256
literates increased by ‘X’. As a result the total
c) 12456
number of literates become 70% more than
d) 13000
that of illiterates. What is the value of ‘X’?

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NABARD Grade A 2018 Phase 1 – Quantitative Aptitude 170

e) 14000
a) If the data in statement I alone is sufficient to
5. In Village A, if the respective ratio between answer the question, while the data in
number of males and females is 17 : 13 and statement II alone is not sufficient to answer
there are 1000 illiterate males in village A, what the question
is the number of male literates in village A ? b) If the data in statement II alone is sufficient to
a) 480 answer the question, while the data in
b) 540 statement I alone is not sufficient to answer
c) 940 the question
d) 1040 c) If the data either in statement I alone or in
e) 1140 statement II alone is sufficient to answer the
question
6. If the volume and curved surface area of a d) If the data in both statements I and II together
cylinder 1232 m3and 704 m2respectively, what are necessary to answer the question
is the total surface area of the cylinder (in m 2)? e) If the data given in both statements I and II
a) 429 together are not sufficient to answer the
b) 521 question.
c) 629
d) 721 8. Direction: In each of the following
e) 781 questions below consists of a question and
two statements numbered I and II given below
7. Find the value of x. it. You have to decide whether the data
provided in the statements are sufficient to
Statement I: A person lent out a sum of Rs. answer the question. Read both the
2400 in the ratio of 5: x in scheme A and statements and give answer:
scheme B, respectively. Scheme A is offering a How long will the tank take to fill up
simple interest of 8% per annum and completely?
Scheme B is offering a simple interest of
3(x+1)% per annum. Interest earned from Statement I: Two taps take 8 hours to fill a
scheme A after 2 years is Rs. 24 more than tank
the interest earned from scheme B after 2 Statement II: One tap can empty the tank in
years. 20 hours

Statement II: A person lent out a sum of Rs. a) If the data in statement I alone is sufficient to
2400 in the ratio of 5: 3 in scheme A and answer the question, while the data in
scheme B, respectively. Scheme A is offering a statement II alone is not sufficient to answer
simple interest of 8% per annum and Scheme the question
B is offering a simple interest of 3(x+1)% per b) If the data in statement II alone is sufficient to
annum. Simple Interest earned from scheme answer the question, while the data in
A after 9 years is equal to the interest statement I alone is not sufficient to answer
earned from scheme B after (x+7) years. the question

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NABARD Grade A 2018 Phase 1 – Quantitative Aptitude 171

c) If the data either in statement I alone or in e) If the data given in both statements I and II
statement II alone is sufficient to answer the together are not sufficient to answer the
question question.
d) If the data in both statements I and II together
are necessary to answer the question 10. Directions: Each of the questions below
e) If the data given in both statements I and II consists of a question and two
together are not sufficient to answer the statements numbered I and II given below it.
question. You have to decide whether the data provided
in the statements are sufficient to answer the
9. Direction: The question given below has few question. Read both the statements and give
statements along with it. You have to answer:
determine which of the statement/s is/are What is A’s monthly income?
sufficient/necessary for answering the
question and mark your answer accordingly: I. A’s monthly income is Rs. 2500 less than B’s
Find the present age of Prashant. monthly income.
II. Ratio of B’s monthly income and C’s monthly
Statement I: Age of Abhishek is average of age income is 2∶1.
of Akshay and Prashant and age of Abhishek is
14 years less than twice the age of himself 4 a) if the data in Statement I alone are sufficient to
years ago. Ratio of present age of Prashant to answer the question, while the data in
Akshay is 7: 4, respectively. Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer
the question.
Statement II: Age of Akshay is 2 years more b) if the data in Statement II alone are sufficient
than half of age of Prashant. Age of Prashant is to answer the question, while the data in
10 years less than the sum of present age of Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer
Akshay and Abhishek. Abhishek is 6 years the question.
younger than Prashant. c) if the data in statement I alone or in Statement
II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
a) If the data in statement I alone is sufficient to d) if the data in both the Statements I and II are
answer the question, while the data in not sufficient to answer the question.
statement II alone is not sufficient to answer e) if the data in both the Statements I and Il
the question together are necessary to answer the question.
b) If the data in statement II alone is sufficient to
answer the question, while the data in 11. Direction: Given question is followed by
statement I alone is not sufficient to answer information given in two statement named
the question as Quantity 1 and Quantity 2. You have to
c) If the data either in statement I alone or in study the information along with the question
statement II alone is sufficient to answer the and compare the value derived from Quantity
question 1 and Quantity 2 then answer the question.
d) If the data in both statements I and II together
are necessary to answer the question

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NABARD Grade A 2018 Phase 1 – Quantitative Aptitude 172

Quantity 1:Find the value of x(6x2+ 17) –(3x2+ Quantity 1:3x2–54x –(27)2= 0
20) = 0 Quantity 2:4x2–450x + 8100 = 0
Quantity 2:Find the value of y(5y2-12) –(9y2-
16) = 0 a) Quantity 1 > Quantity 2
b) Quantity 1 ≥ Quantity 2
a) Quantity 1 > Quantity 2 c) Quantity 1 < Quantity 2
b) Quantity 1≥ Quantity 2 d) Quantity 1 ≤ Quantity 2
c) Quantity 1 <Quantity 2 e) Quantity 1 = Quantity 2 or no relation.
d) Quantity 1≤Quantity 2
e) if x = y or relationship cannot be established Direction (15-18): What should come in place
of the question mark '?' in the following
12. Directions: Find the value of "x" and "y" and number series?
answer accordingly
I. 5x2+ 44x + 32= 0 15. 520, 268, 142, ?, 47.5, 31.75
II. 9y2+ 74y + 77 = 0 a) 81
b) 79
a) x>y c) 83
b) x≥y d) 81.25
c) x<y e) None of these
d) x≤y
e) x = y or relationship between x and y cannot be 16. 520, 268, 142, ?, 47.5, 31.75
established. a) 81
b) 79
13. Directions: In each of these questions, two c) 83
equations (I) and (II) are given. You have to d) 81.25
solve both the equations and give answer e) None of these

Quantity I:16x2+ 28x + 12= 0 17. 4, 1.5, 1.75, ?, 8.5, 35.5


Quantity II:6y2+ 32y + 42 = 0 a) 3.25
b) 2.50
a) Quantity I > Quantity II c) 2.25
b) Quantity I ≥Quantity II d) 3
c) Quantity I< Quantity II e) None of these
d) If Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
e) Quantity I= Quantity II or relationship between 18. 0, 10, 34, 78, 148, ?
x and y cannot be established. a) 250
b) 248
14. Direction: Solve the following question by c) 200
calculating the two quantities and comparing d) 190
them: e) None of these

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NABARD Grade A 2018 Phase 1 – Quantitative Aptitude 173

19. Shobhit is twice as efficient as Rohit and Rohit


is twice as efficient as Mohit. If all of them
working together and complete the work in
20 days, then find in how many days Rohit
and Shobhit working together can complete
that work?
a) (65/3) days
b) (70/3) days
c) (50/3) days
d) (73/3) days
e) (79/3) days

20. P, Q and R started a business by investing


Rs.900, Rs.1300 and Rs.2000 respectively.
After two years they invested another
amounts in the ratio 3 : 1 : 5. After another 1
year, P, Q and R withdrew Rs.200, Rs.400 and
Rs.1000 from the business respectively. Now
the profit earned from the business after 4
years from the start of the business is in the
ratio of 4 : 5 : a and share of P in the profit is
Rs.1200. Find the total profit earned from the
business.
a) Rs. 4100
b) Rs. 5100
c) Rs. 4800
d) Rs. 5400
e) None of these

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NABARD Grade A 2018 Phase 1 – Reasoning 174

Direction (1-5): Read the information given


and answer the following question. 4. Who was born in 1954?
A family has 8 members A, B, C, D, E, F, G and a) F
H. They were born on same date and month b) A
but in different years viz. 1978, 1996, 1949, c) D
1993, 1954, 1989, 1972 and 1982 but not d) C
necessarily in the same order. All the age e) None of these
calculations are done taking 01 July 2018 as a
reference. 5. Who is the youngest member of the family?
A is the oldest member. Two members were a) B
born between A and B. E was born in one of the b) A
even-numbered years after B. H is 2 years older c) D
than that of twice the age of C. Three members d) C
were born between H and F. D was born before e) None of these
G.
6. Direction: In each of the questions below
1. Who is the 3rd
eldest member of the family? are given three statements followed by two
a) H conclusions numbered I & II. You have to
b) B take the given statements to be true even if
c) D they seem to be at variance with commonly
d) E known facts. Read all the conclusions and then
e) None of these decide which of the given conclusions
logically follows from the given
2. Who among the following is younger to E but statements disregarding commonly known
older than C? facts.
I. G
II. Person who born in 1993 Statements:
III. Person who is 29 year old All arrows are feathers.
Some feathers are toys.
a) Only I Some toys are guns.
b) Both I and II
c) Both I and III Conclusions:
d) Both II and III I. Some arrows are guns.
e) All I, II and III II. Some toys are arrows.

3. How many persons are older than E? a) Only Conclusion I follow.


a) 6 b) Only Conclusion II follows.
b) 7 c) Either Conclusion I or II follows.
c) 9 d) Neither Conclusion I nor II follows.
d) 2 e) Both Conclusions I and II follow.
e) None of these

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NABARD Grade A 2018 Phase 1 – Reasoning 175

7. Direction: In each of the questions below


are given three statements followed by two Conclusions:
conclusions numbered I & II. You have to I. Some rivers are stones.
take the given statements to be true even if II. Some rivers are metals.
they seem to be at variance with commonly
known facts. Read all the conclusions and then a) Only Conclusion I follows.
decide which of the given conclusions b) Only Conclusion II follows.
logically follows from the given c) Either Conclusion I or II follows.
statements disregarding commonly known d) Neither Conclusion I nor II follows.
facts. e) Both Conclusions I and II follow.

Statements: 9. Direction: In each of the questions below


All grapes are apples. are given three statements followed by two
All apples are bananas. conclusions numbered I & II. You have to
All bananas are watermelons. take the given statements to be true even if
they seem to be at variance with commonly
Conclusions: known facts. Read all the conclusions and then
I. Some bananas are grapes. decide which of the given conclusions
II. Some watermelons are apples. logically follows from the given
statements disregarding commonly known
a) Only Conclusion I follow. facts.
b) Only Conclusion II follows.
c) Either Conclusion I or II follows. Statements:
d) Neither Conclusion I nor II follows. All tickets arc petals.
e) Both Conclusions I and II follow. No petal is desk.
Some desks are windows.
8. Direction: In each of the questions below
are given three statements followed by two Conclusions:
conclusions numbered I & II. You have to I. Some windows are tickets.
take the given statements to be true even if II. No window is ticket.
they seem to be at variance with commonly
known facts. Read all the conclusions and then a) Only Conclusion I follows.
decide which of the given conclusions b) Only Conclusion II follows.
logically follows from the given c) Either Conclusion I or II follows.
statements disregarding commonly known d) Neither Conclusion I nor II follows.
facts. e) Both Conclusions I and II follow.

Statements: 10. Directions: Answer the following questions by


Some metals are stones. selecting the most appropriate option.
Some stones are hills.
All hills are rivers.

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NABARD Grade A 2018 Phase 1 – Reasoning 176

Which one of the following teaching find which of the conclusion among given
strategies involvement of students in conclusions is/are definitely true and then
teaching the concept of food chain give your answers accordingly.
a) Ask students to copy all examples of different Statements:
food chains written on the black-board V ≤ K < D= S; D < B < O; A ≥ D < T
b) Make play-cards of organism and ask student
groups to arrange them to depict different Conclusions:
food chains I. A > BII. V < T
c) Ask students to explore possible food chains
operating in different habitats a) None is true
d) Ask students to collect related information b) Only I is true
from internet c) Only II is true
d) Both are true
11. Directions: Answer the following questions by e) Can't be determined
selecting the most appropriate option.
In order to separate a mixture of sand and 14. Direction: In the following question
salt, which one of the following four sequences assuming the given statements to be true,
of processes has to be used find which of the conclusion among given
a) Evaporation conclusions is/are definitely true and then
b) Decantation give your answers accordingly.
c) Sedimentation Statements:
d) Sedimentation & evaporation both C ≤ R ≤ N = K ≥ F; Q ≥ K < O; D ≥ L; C ≥ D ≤ T ≥ Z

12. Directions: Answer the following questions Conclusions:


by selecting the most appropriate option. II. C < OII. D < N
A Science teacher administered a test after
teaching the topic on ‘Respiration’ and a) None is true
observed that majority of the students did b) Only I is true
not understand the difference between c) Either I or II is true
respiration and breathing. This could be due d) Can't be determined
to the reason that e) Both are true

a) She was not their class teacher Direction(15-16): Study the following
b) The students could not understand the information and answer the questions.
question correctly Seven Friends P, Q, R, S, T, U and V live on
c) There was usually lot of indiscipline in her class different floors in a building but not necessarily
d) She could not explain the related concept in the same order. The ground floor is
effectively in the class numbered 1 and the floor just above it is
numbered 2 and so on till the topmost floor is
13. Direction: In the following question numbered 7.
assuming the given statements to be true,

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NABARD Grade A 2018 Phase 1 – Reasoning 177

There are two persons between P and V. Q lives ends of the row. There are five persons
on the fifth floor and P lives on an odd- sitting between T and W. X sits exactly in the
numbered floor but not below V. There is only middle of T and W. Two persons sit between
one person between R and U. S does not live on W and Z. Y does not sit at any of the extreme
a floor above R. ends of the row. There are as many persons
sitting between Y and V as many are sitting
15. How many persons live on the floor above between W and Y. V sits at one of the ends and
T? there are 2 people between V and U.
a) One
b) Two 18. Who is sitting exactly in the middle of Z and U?
c) Three a) Y
d) Four b) Z
e) None of these c) U
d) V
16. How many persons live between V and U? e) Cannot be determined
a) Zero
b) One 19. How many persons are sitting in the row?
c) Two a) 20
d) Three b) 21
e) Four c) 24
d) 19
17. How many such pairs of letters are there in the e) 17
word “LAYOUT”, each of which has as many
letters between them in the word (in both 20. How many persons are sitting to the right of
forward and backward Directions) as they Y?
have between them in the English alphabetical a) 7
series? b) 9
a) Three c) 6
b) Four d) 5
c) One e) 8
d) Two
e) Six

Direction (18-20): Read the following


instruction carefully and answer the
questions that follow:
Certain people are sitting in a row facing North.
There are as many people to the right of Z as
there are to the left of Z. Y is third to the left
of U who sits fourth from one of the extreme
ends of the row. T sits at one of the extreme

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NABARD Grade A 2018 Phase 1 – English 178

Direction(1-5): Rearrange the following six 3. Which of the following will be the Last
sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E)and (F) in a proper sentence?
sequence to form a meaningful paragraph, then a) C
answer the questions that follow. b) B
A) A conscious effort by the Delhi government to c) D
involve SMCs in all education reforms has gone a long d) E
way in creating a sense of ownership among parents. e) F
B) An instance was when the government was inviting
schools to organise summer camps for students of 4. Which of the following will be the Third
class VI. SMCs played a pivotal role in convincing the sentence?
schools, teachers and even the students to participate a) C
in the summer camps. b) E
C) Clearly, SMCs in Delhi have come a long way from c) D
being one of the countless bodies that exist on paper, d) B
but never succeed in realising their purpose. e) A
D) Ultimately, 45,000 students across 500 schools
made attested to the success of this initiative, the 5. Which of the following will be the
credit of which should rightly go to the SMCs. Second sentence?
E) The fundamental shift in transforming SMCs in Delhi a) B
government schools started right from its b) E
organisation, with active campaigns held for parents' c) C
elections to the committees. d) D
F) Last year's success has prompted the government to e) A
scale the summer camps which are currently
underway in all its 1024 schools purpose. Direction(6-15): Read the following passage
carefully and answer the questions given
1. Which of the following will be the Second Last below. Certain words are given in bold in the
sentence? passage to help you locate them while
a) B answering some of the questions.
b) F
c) E It is difficult to compare countries because
d) D various factors such as size, culture, history,
e) C geography, natural endowments, geopolitics
and internal polity come into play. There are
2. Which of the following will be the First some goals which can be achieved by smaller
sentence? countries: but sometimes smaller countries
a) C find it difficult to embark upon certain big
b) D technological plans even if they have the funds
c) A because the size of the domestic market is too
d) E small. If we consider the bigger countries, the
e) F

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NABARD Grade A 2018 Phase 1 – English 179

closest comparison to India is China, though levels achieved by the developed countries in
there are many crucial differences. the 1970s or 80s, and by 2020 to the level they
would have attained by the early twenty-first
The Chinese vision is to prepare the country for century. The aim is to bridge the overall gap
entry into the ranks of Moderate-level with the advanced world. There is a special
developed nations by the end of the twenty- emphasis on research and development of high
first century. Acceleration of the nation's technologies that would find defence
economic growth and social development by applications. Some of these technologies are
relying on advances in science and technology critical for improving the features of key
is pivotal in this. conventional weapons. Some technologies are
meant for enhancing future military
Documents describing the Chinese vision state capabilities. Other efforts are aimed at
that science and technology constitute premier maintaining the momentum to develop
productive forces and represent a great capabilities for cutting-edge defence
revolutionary power that can propel economic technologies. They call for unremitting efforts
and social development. It is interesting to note in this regard with the aim of maintaining
that the main lessons the Chinese have drawn effective self-defence and nuclear deterrent
from their past performance is their failure to capabilities and to enable parity in defence,
promote science and technology as strategic science and technology with the advanced
tools for empowerment. They also point to the world.
absence of mechanisms and motivations in
their economic activity to promote 6. Comparison between two countries becomes
dependence on science and technology. difficult because:
Similarly, they hold that their scientific and A. The counties differ in their internal political
technological efforts were not oriented systems.
towards economic growth. As a consequence, B. Each country has its own culture and natural
they conclude a large number of scientific and resources which differ from those of others.
technological achievements were not C. The countries with homogeneous backgrounds
converted into productive forces as they were are many in number.
too far removed from China’s immediate
economic and social needs. The Chinese vision a) A only
is, therefore, aimed at exploiting state-of-art b) B only
science and technology to enhance the nation's c) A and B both
overall power and strength to improve the d) All the three (A), (B) and (C)
people's living standards, to focus on resolving e) None of the above
problems encountered in large-scale industrial
and agricultural production and to effectively 7. Which of the following have been identified by
control and alleviate pressures brought on by the Chinese as their pitfall(s) from their past?
population, resources and the environment. By A. Lack of orientation of Science and Technology
the year 2000, China had aimed at bringing the towards economic growth.
main industrial sectors up to the technological

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B. Lack of mechanisms in their economic activities c) 40-50 years


to promote use of Science and Technology. d) More than 50 years
C. Neglect of Science and Technology as a e) Less than 5 years
strategic measure for empowerment.
11. Which of the following catches the essence of
a) A and B both the passage?
b) B and C both a) Enormous population of the country can be
c) A and C both positively utilized for developments
d) All the three (A), (B) and (C) b) Scientific and technological principles may not
e) None of the above necessarily be instrumental in economic
growth
8. Which of the following was the most possible c) Harmonious development of a country can
outcome of the scientific and technological take place even in the absence of technology
accomplishments of China which didn't come up-gradation
true? d) Economic growth needs to be driven by science
a) To remain dysfunctional and technology
b) To be transformed into productive forces e) Countries should not be compared with each
c) To be utilized for motivating social activities other
d) To be promoted through political will
e) None of the above 12. Choose the word which is most nearly the
SAME in meaning as the word given in bold as
9. Which of the following is/are the expected used in the passage.
result(s) of China’s new visions? Endowments
A. To augment peoples' standard of living.
B. To tackle effectively the pressures brought on a) Powers
by the population. b) Measures
C. To focus on problem solving for industrial and c) Habitats
agricultural production. d) Findings
e) Gifts
a) A and B only
b) B and C only 13. Choose the word which is most nearly the
c) A and C only SAME in meaning as the word given in bold as
d) A only used In the passage.
e) All (A), (B) and (C) Oriented

10. What according to the passage is the gap in a) Aligned


terms of number or years between the b) Tempting
targeted developments in China and in other c) Deciding
developed countries? d) Leaning
a) 5-10years e) Sure
b) 20-30 years

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NABARD Grade A 2018 Phase 1 – English 181

14. Choose the word which in OPPOSITE in 17. Direction: Read the sentence to find out
meaning to the word given in bold as used in whether there is any error in it. The error, if
the passage. any, will be in one part of the sentence. The
Crucial number corresponding to that part will be your
answer. If the given sentence is correct as it is,
a) Central mark the answer as "No error". Ignore the
b) Trivial errors of punctuation if any.
c) Decisive
d) Fundamental The January sun continued in its brilliance and
e) Imperative (1)/ the rhythmic gliding across the crystal
snow, though (2)/ not exhausting, warmed the
15. Choose the word which in OPPOSITE in couple to the point where even (3)/ their
meaning to the word given in bold as used in limited outer cover seemed extreme. (4)/ No
the passage. error (5)
Pivotal
a) (1)
a) Irrelevant b) (2)
b) Unmanageable c) (3)
c) Irreparable d) (4)
d) Inauspicious e) (5)
e) Irritating
18. Direction: Read the sentence to find out
16. Direction: Read the sentence to find out whether there is any error in it. The error, if
whether there is any error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The
any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number corresponding to that part will be your
number corresponding to that part will be your answer. If the given sentence is correct as it is,
answer. If the given sentence is correct as it is, mark the answer as "No error". Ignore the
mark the answer as "No error". Ignore the errors of punctuation if any.
errors of punctuation if any.
As the bed went passed them, the (1)/ doctor
Apotheosis can mean nothing to them who clasped their hands, head bowed (2)/ down
hold (1)/ that a man may be reborn as a god, and were seen praying for (3)/ the baby in a
but (2)/ still needs redemption, and that men touching, respectful way. (4)/ No error (5)
on earth may (3)/ win redemption, if they are
brave enough. (4)/ No error (5) a) (1)
b) (2)
a) (1) c) (3)
b) (2) d) (4)
c) (3) e) (5)
d) (4)
e) (5)

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19. Direction: Read the sentence to find out 21. Direction: In the given question, a part of the
whether there is any error in it. The error, if sentence is printed in bold. Below the sentence
any, will be in one part of the sentence. The alternatives to the bold part are given at (A),
number corresponding to that part will be your (B), (C) and (D) which may help improve the
answer. If the given sentence is correct as it is, sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In
mark the answer as "No error". Ignore the case the given sentence is correct, your answer
errors of punctuation if any. is (E), i.e., "No correction required".

With the current reading being one (1)/ taken Television serial junkies in the United States
from this morning, Delhi's air quality (2)/ makes have been savouring a period drama called The
the city one of the most (3)/ polluted in the Americans – that could well have been called
world right now. (4)/ No error (5) The Russians – since the past four years.

a) (1) a) could well have been called The Russians –


b) (2) since the past four years.
c) (3) b) could well had been called The Russians – for
d) (4) the past four years.
e) (5) c) could well have been called Russians – for the
past four year.
20. Direction: Read the sentence to find out d) could well have been called The Russians – for
whether there is any error in it. The error, if the past four years.
any, will be in one part of the sentence. The e) No correction required
number corresponding to that part will be your
answer. If the given sentence is correct as it is, 22. Direction: In the given question, a part of the
mark the answer as "No error". Ignore the sentence is printed in bold. Below the sentence
errors of punctuation if any. alternatives to the bold part are given at (A),
(B), (C) and (D) which may help improve the
The Maharani of Cooch Behar, Indira (1)/ Devi sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In
loved shoes so much then she ordered a (2)/ case the given sentence is correct, your answer
hundred pairs of shoes to be made for her by is (E), i.e., "No correction required".
the famed (3)/ (and expensive) Italian
shoemaker Salvatore Ferragamo. (4)/ No error The angry bear jumped up against the sides of
(5) the growing tower and left deep claw marks,
which should have been seen to this day up on
a) (1) the rocks.
b) (2)
c) (3) a) may be seen to
d) (4) b) would be seen to
e) (5) c) would have been seen to
d) would see to
e) No correction required

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23. Direction: In the given question, a part of the (B), (C) and (D) which may help improve the
sentence is printed in bold. Below the sentence sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In
alternatives to the bold part are given at (A), case the given sentence is correct, your answer
(B), (C) and (D) which may help improve the is (E), i.e., "No correction required".
sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In
case the given sentence is correct, your answer Sleep deprivation adverse in affects the brain
is (E), i.e., "No correction required". and cognitive function so working becomes
difficult.
The gods tested Hercules’ worthiness to join
them on Mount Olympus by form of task like a) is adversely affect
dangerous missions that no mortal could b) adversely affects
survive. c) adverse effect
d) adverse in effect
a) by tasking him with dangerous missions e) no correction required
b) by giving him task with dangerous missions
c) by giving him dangerous mission tasks 26. Direction: In the given question, a part of the
d) by missioning him dangerous tasks sentence is printed in bold. Below the sentence
e) No correction required alternatives to the bold part are given at (A),
(B), (C) and (D) which may help improve the
24. Direction: In the given question, a part of the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In
sentence is printed in bold. Below the sentence case the given sentence is correct, your answer
alternatives to the bold part are given at (A), is (E), i.e., "No correction required".
(B), (C) and (D) which may help improve the
sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In The infiltrators positioned themselves in key
case the given sentence is correct, your answer locations that gave them a strategic advantage
is (E), i.e., "No correction required". for the start of the conflict.

The indefinite strike was more or less peaceful, a) by the start of


thanks to the heavy military presence and b) during the start of
stringent measure announced for those who c) for the start off
supported it. d) since the start of
e) No correction required
a) measures announced against those
b) measures announced for those 27. Direction: Four statements are given below as
c) measures announced at those A, B, C and D. There may be some errors in the
d) measure announced against those given statement(s). The incorrect statement is
e) no improvement required your answer.

25. Direction: In the given question, a part of the a) India’s environment minister blamed the Delhi
sentence is printed in bold. Below the sentence government and its neighbouring states for
alternatives to the bold part are given at (A), failing in their efforts to check air pollution

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which was six times above the recommended 29. Direction: Four statements are given below as
limit on Thursday, posing severe health risks. A, B, C and D. There may be some errors in the
b) Air pollution in Delhi was six times above the given statement(s). The incorrect statement is
recommend limit on Thursday after which your answer.
India’s environment minister blaming the Delhi
government and its neighbouring states for a) A special investigation team (SIT) is also
failing in their efforts to check air pollution. probing the alleged murder of Tiwari, 38, by
c) Delhi’s air pollution reached six times above constable Prashant Chowdhury, who was
the recommended limit causing the India’s accompanied by another constable Sandeep
environment minister to blame the Delhi Kumar, while Tiwari was going to drop his ex-
government and its neighbouring states for colleague Sana Khan home in the wee hours of
failing to control the air pollution. Saturday.
d) Blame was put on the Delhi government and its b) He has constituted a Special Investigation
neighbouring states for failing to check air Team under IG Lucknow to probe the case. "A
pollution after it reached six times above the murder case has been filed against both the
recommended level. constables. We believe that the cops resorted
e) All are incorrect to aggression which wasn't required," he told
India Today TV.
28. Direction: Four statements are given below as c) The UP government has assured the family of
A, B, C and D. There may be some errors in the fast track proceedings in the case but a Special
given statement(s). The incorrect statement is Investigation Team (SIT) was also constituted
your answer. to probe Tiwari's death.
d) Calling it “murder”, Director General of Police
a) State-run Indian refiner Hindustan Petroleum (DGP) O P Singh constituted a special
said it may resume buying Iranian oil if New investigation team (SIT) headed by IG Lucknow
Delhi secures a waiver from U.S. sanctions, its range Sujeet Kumar and comprising SP Crime
chairman M K Surana said on Thursday. and Lucknow SP (Rural).
b) Hindustan petroleum’s chairman M K Surana e) All are incorrect
said on Thursday that a state run Indian refiner
may resume buying Iranian oil if New Delhi 30. Direction: Four statements are given below as
secures a waiver from U.N. Sanctions. A, B, C and D. There may be some errors in the
c) Hindustan petroleum nay resume buying given statement(s). The incorrect statement is
Iranian oil if New Delhi secures a waiver from your answer.
U.S. sanction, said M K Surana the chairman of
the state run Indian refiner. a) After the struggles of the England series, Virat
d) The chairman of the state run Indian refiner Kohli has taken charge of the Indian team for
Hindustan petroleum M K Surana said that, if the upcoming Test series against England.
New Delhi secures a waiver from U.S. sanction, b) Before the struggles of the England series, Virat
it may resume buying Iranian oil. Kohli will take charge of the Indian team for the
e) All are incorrect upcoming Test series against England.

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c) After the struggles of the England series, Virat Following their engagement in the Baltimore
Kohli will take charge of the Indian team for the Riot, the 6th Massachusetts (Q.37) to
upcoming Test series for England. Washington and then returned to Baltimore to
d) After the struggles of the England series, Virat guard locations within the city as well as the
Kohli had taken charge of the Indian team for Baltimore and Ohio Railroad station at Elkridge,
the upcoming Test series against England. Maryland. Their second term of service (Q.38)
e) All are incorrect nine months from August 1862 to June 1863.
During this time the 6th Massachusetts was
Direction (31-40): In the following passage, attached to the VII Corps and participated in
there are blanks each of which has been several expeditions and actions in the vicinity
numbered. These numbers are printed below of Suffolk, Virginia, most notably the Siege of
the passage and against each five groups of Suffolk and the Battle of Carrsville in April and
words have been suggested, one of which fills May 1863. Private Joseph S.G. Sweatt's bravery
the blanks appropriately. The 6th Regiment at Carrsville (Q.39) him the Medal of Honor.
Massachusetts Volunteer Militia was a (Q.31) The 6th Massachusetts served a third term in
infantry regiment that was activated only for response to the call for troops to defend
civil services in the Union army for three fortifications around Washington. During this
separate terms during the American Civil War. term, which lasted 100 days from July to
The regiment (Q.32) notoriety as the first unit October 1864, the 6th Massachusetts
in the Union army to suffer fatal casualties in garrisoned Fort C. F. Smith was in Arlington,
action during the Civil War in the Baltimore Riot Virginia and (Q.40) Confederate prisoners of
and the first militia unit to arrive in Washington war at Fort Delaware near the mouth of the
D.C. in response to President Abraham Delaware River.
Lincoln's initial call for 75,000 troops. Private
Luther C. Ladd of the 6th Massachusetts is 31. Choose the correct answer from the given
often (Q.33) to as the first Union soldier killed options to fill in the blanks which are
in action during the war. In the years numbered.
immediately preceding the war and during its a) Wartime
first enlistment, the regiment (Q.34) primarily b) Peacetime
of companies from Middlesex County. During c) Mammoth
its first term of service, four out of ten d) Truce
companies of the regiment were from Lowell, e) Exploit
Massachusetts. Colonel Edward F. Jones
commanded the regiment during its first term. 32. Choose the correct answer from the given
He later (Q.35) the 26th Massachusetts and options to fill in the blanks which are
was awarded the honorary grade of brevet numbered.
brigadier general. During its second and third a) Polished
terms of service, the unit was commanded by b) Abducted
Colonel Albert S. Follansbee. The regiment first c) Gained
(Q.36) for a "90-day" term of service which d) Surrendered
lasted from April 16 to August 2, 1861. e) Subdued

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b) Courted
33. Choose the correct answer from the given c) Outnumbered
options to fill in the blanks which are d) Synchronized
numbered. e) Obliterated
a) Contained
b) Sustained 38. Choose the correct answer from the given
c) Composed options to fill in the blanks which are
d) Pondered numbered.
e) Referred a) Began
b) Succeeded
34. Choose the correct answer from the given c) Postponed
options to fill in the blanks which are d) Lasted
numbered. e) Surprised
a) Emptied
b) Consisted 39. Choose the correct answer from the given
c) Enlightened options to fill in the blanks which are
d) Punctuated numbered.
e) Belittled a) Earned
b) Coasted
35. Choose the correct answer from the given c) Perplexed
options to fill in the blanks which are d) Mortified
numbered. e) Imputed
a) Commanded
b) Persuaded 40. Choose the correct answer from the given
c) Enthralled options to fill in the blanks which are
d) Obliged numbered.
e) Performed a) Stole
b) Guarded
36. Choose the correct answer from the given c) Banished
options to fill in the blanks which are d) Entertained
numbered. e) Summed
a) Protected
b) Promoted
c) Enlisted
d) Serviced
e) Engorged

37. Choose the correct answer from the given


options to fill in the blanks which are
numbered.
a) Proceeded

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1. National Rural Livelihood Mission was b) Indore Railway Station (Madhya Pradesh)
launched by which of the following c) Guwahati Railway Station (Assam)
ministries? d) Varanasi Railway Station (Uttar Pradesh)
a) Ministry of Health and Family welfare e) None of these
b) Ministry of Child and Family development
c) Ministry of Home Affairs 6. 'KUSUM' Yojana is related to which of the
d) Ministry of Rural Development following fields?
e) Ministry of Panchayati Raj a) Wind Energy
b) Solar Energy
2. Who among the following renowned English c) Farmer insurance
fiction writer has been awarded with Jnanpith d) Banking System
award, 2018 ? e) Education
a) Kiran Desai
b) Amitav Ghosh 7. What is the theme of 106th edition Indian
c) Arvind Adiga Science Congress-2019?
d) Arundhati Roy a) Science and Technology for Indigenous
e) Ravuri Bharadwaja Development in India
b) Science for shaping the future of India
3. According to the International Monetary Fund c) Planet Earth
(IMF) report, India’s economy projected to d) Future India –Science and Technology
grow at how much percent in 2019? e) Reaching the unreached through science and
a) 7.5% technology
b) 7.4%
c) 7.3% 8. Which committee has been constituted by
d) 7.1% the Union Government to suggest ways for
e) 7.2% doubling farmers’ income by 2022?
a) Arvind Panagariya committee
4. What does 'M' stand for in 'TRIMS'? b) Ashok Dalwai committee
a) Measures c) Amitabh Kant committee
b) Management d) Bibek Debroy committee
c) Million e) None of these
d) Money
e) Market 9. In March 2019, World Bank and
Government of India inked loan
5. Which Indian railway station has become agreement of $250 million for which
the first ever railway station in the Indian programme?
Railways to get an ISO certification (ISO- a) NREPG (National Rural Employment Guarantee
14001) from the National Green Tribunal Programme)
(NGT) for “providing passenger amenities in b) NRHM (National Rural Health Mission)
a clean and green environment”? c) ICDS (Integrated Child Development Services)
a) Gorakhpur Railway Station (Uttar Pradesh)

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d) NRETP (National Rural Economic 14. India tested which of the following long-range
Transformation Project) cruise missiles with sharper terrain hugging
e) SSA (Sarva Siksha Abhiyan) capabilities?
a) Agni VI
10. Hirakud dam is located in which of the b) Nirbhay
following states? c) Tomahawk
a) Jharkhand d) Babur
b) Chhattisgarh e) Shaurya
c) Odisha
d) West Bengal 15. Which of the following cities hosted the
e) Karnataka Madhya Dakshini Festival 2019?
a) Darjeeling
11. 'Jallikattu' is typically practised in the which b) Kolkata
Indian state as a part of Pongal celebrations? c) Gangtok
a) Kerala d) Guwahati
b) Andhra Pradesh e) None of these
c) Tamil Nadu
d) Manipur 16. Kuldip Nayar conferred with the Padma
e) Assam Bhushan award posthumously for 2019. He
was awarded for distinguished service of
12. Which of the following states topped in the high order in which of the following fields?
Khelo India Youth Games (2nd edition) in a) Education
Pune? b) Film
a) Punjab c) Science
b) Assam d) Journalism
c) Haryana e) Medicine
d) Delhi
e) Maharashtra 17. Which of the following states has declared
‘Jackfruit’ as the official fruit of the state?
13. TRIPS is an agreement under WTO. What a) West Bengal
does 'TRIPS' stand for? b) Kerala
a) Trade related investment property Rights c) Karnataka
b) Trade related Aspect of investment property d) Andhra Pradesh
Rights e) None of the above
c) Trade related aspect of Intellectual Property
rights 18. Which Union territory became the first Union
d) Trade related aspect of Intellectual Property territory of India to run completely on
system solar power energy?
e) None of the above a) Delhi
b) Diu
c) Lakshadweep

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d) Puducherry
e) None of these

19. India follows four CPI indices to measure


Inflation at the consumer level. Which of the
following is not one of the four indices?
a) CPI-IW (Industrial Worker)
b) CPI-AL (Agricultural Labourers)
c) CPI-RL(Rural Labourers)
d) CPI-SL (Service Labourers)
e) None of these

20. Who has been elected as first Indian woman


Member of International Tribunal for Law of
the Sea (ITLOS)?
a) Aruna Jayanthi
b) Vinita Bali
c) Neeru Chadha
d) Chitra Ramkrishna
e) None of these

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1. 601 error code identifies a – a) Scrollbar


a) Motherboard problem b) Page up key
b) Floppy drive problem c) Tab key
c) ALU problem d) Home Key
d) Hard disc problem e) Page down key
e) Other than the given options
7. What does 'LSI' stand for?
2. Which of the following is an example of a) Low Scale Integration
telecommunications device? b) Local Scale Integration
a) Printer c) Large scale Integrated
b) Scanner d) Logical Scale Integration
c) Joystick e) Low scale Integrated
d) Window 10
e) Modem 8. What is called the part of CPU which
coordinates all function of computer and other
3. ______ component is used for short - term components?
data storage. a) ALU
a) ROM b) UPS
b) DVD c) Motherboard
c) RAM d) Control unit
d) Hard disc e) Other than the given options
e) Both a and d
9. ______ is a function to return system files and
4. _______ is a shortcut key, used to inserts a settings to an earlier point in time when the
blank field in a word file. system was running properly.
a) Alt + F 9 a) re - access
b) Ctrl + F9 b) Segmenting
c) Shift + F9 c) Retrieve
d) Ctrl + F10 d) Restore
e) Alt + F10 e) Other than the given options

5. Which of the following is an application 10. Which of the following shortcut key is used to
software? Auto sum in Microsoft Excel?
a) Windows-8 a) Alt + Enter
b) Windows - XP b) Alt + Equals
c) Control panel c) Shift + Equals
d) Microsoft Excel d) Tab + Enter
e) Control Panel e) Alt + Space

6. Which key is pressed to move to the beginning 11. If you press _________, the cell in MS-Excel
of a line of text in a document? accepts your typing as its contents?

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a) Tab c) A Brewers
b) Enter d) A Beta test and Beker call
c) Ctrl+Enter e) None of these
d) Alt+Enter
e) None of these 17. Which of the following has the smallest storage
capacity?
12. The standard protocol of the Internet is a) zip disk
____________. b) hard disk
a) Flash c) data cartridge
b) Java d) floppy disk
c) HTML e) CD
d) TCP/IP
e) None of these 18. Which of the following is not a computer
language?
13. Which of the following is not a modifier key? a) High – Level Language
a) Caps lock b) Medium Level Language
b) Ctrl c) Low Level Language
c) Alt d) Machine Language
d) Shift e) None of these
e) None of these
19. Which type of memory gets lost when you
14. What are the two essential parts of the switch off?
computer? a) RAM
a) Keyboard & Mouse b) ROM
b) Printer & Screen c) Cache
c) Hardware & Software d) Dynamic
d) Monitor & Keyboard e) Static
e) None of these
20. What is the name of the program that controls
15. Mouse is a ______________. the computer?
a) output device a) The File Manager
b) browser b) An Application Program
c) software c) A Browser
d) input device d) The Operating System
e) None of these e) The Compiler

16. In the network the individual computers, which


access shared network resources, are known
as–
a) Nodes
b) A Server

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