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Name: Class:

Date: Total Possible Marks: 569


LEAN SIX SIGMA GREEN BELT COURSE
Please use a pencil to complete the test. Print your name on the Name line
above. Read the instructions for each section carefully. When you have
completed the test, place your test face down on your desk and raise your
hand.
1. Quality improvement or self improvement study groups composed of 10. An award established by the U.S. Congress in 1987 to raise
a small number of employees (10 or fewer) and their supervisor? awareness of quality management and recognize U.S. companies
A. Benchmark Team C. Balridge Team that have implemented successful quality management systems.
B. Statistical Process D. Quality Circles A. Six Sigma Award C. Baldrige Award
Control B. ASQ Award D. Dewey Quality
2. The application of statistical techniques to control a process. Award
A. ISO 9000 C. Reengineering 11. The Ford purchasing department in 1988 started a new process
B. Quality improvement D. Statistical process called the _____________ initiative that was designed to work with
control (SPC) external manufacturing suppliers from new design concept to launch
3. A set of international standards on quality management and quality of new vehicles.
assurance developed to help companies effectively document the A. supplier quality C. planning for quality
quality system elements to be implemented to maintain an efficient improvement D. advanced product
quality system. Focuses on definitions. B. advanced quality quality planning
A. ISO 9000 C. ISO 9002 planning
B. ISO 9001 D. ISO 9004 12. Ford had developed a planning for quality process using ASQ’s
4. A set of international standards on quality management and quality advanced quality planning (AQP) and wanted to improve supplier
assurance developed to help companies effectively document the quality delivered to the automotive assembly plants. This effort was
quality system elements to be implemented to maintain an efficient instrumental in the development of what is now called
quality system. Focuses on requirements. _______________, used in the automotive industry.
A. ISO 9000 C. ISO 9002 A. supplier for quality C. Total Quality
B. ISO 9001 D. ISO 9004 improvement Management
B. advanced quality D. Advanced Product
5. A set of international standards on quality management and quality systems Quality Planning
assurance developed to help companies effectively document the
quality system elements to be implemented to maintain an efficient 13. Which company pioneered, developed and presented the
quality system. Focuses on continuous improvement. methodology called Six Sigma, which was considered a key for
A. ISO 9000 C. ISO 9002 them to achieve the Malcolm Baldrige National Quality Award in
B. ISO 9001 D. ISO 9004 1988?
A. General Electric C. Motorola
6. A set of international standards on quality management and quality
assurance developed to help companies effectively document the B. Ford D. ISO
quality system elements to be implemented to maintain an efficient 14. In the early days, a Six Sigma process was described as +/-3
quality system. Focuses on model for quality assurance in standard deviation (Cp=1.0). The ford requirement was Cpk>1.33
production, installation and servicing. for ongoing processes and Cpk>________ for startup processes.
A. ISO 9000 C. ISO 9002 A. 2.00 C. 1.75
B. ISO 9001 D. ISO 9004 B. 1.50 D. 1.67
7. A breakthrough approach involving the restructuring of an entire 15. __________ is a structured and disciplined process designed to
organization and its processes. deliver perfect products and services on a consistent basis. It aims at
A. Six Sigma C. Reengineering improving the bottom line by finding and eliminating the causes of
B. Restructuring D. Reorganization mistakes and defects/deficiencies in business processes.
A. Lean C. DMAIC
8. An improvement process in which a company measures its
performance against that of best-in-class companies, determines B. Six Sigma D. TQM
how those companies achieved their performance levels, and uses 16. _______ defines the steps a Six Sigma practitioner is expected to
the information to improve its own performance. follow, starting with identifying the problem and ending with the
A. matching C. benchmarch implementation of long-lasting solutions.
B. correlation D. comparison A. Lean C. DMAIC
B. Six Sigma D. TQM
9. A management concept that helps managers at all levels monitor
their results in their key areas. 17. Six Sigma quality performance means ________ defects per million
A. Balridge C. Strategic opportunities (accounting fro a 1.5 sigma shift in the mean).
B. Balanced Measurement A. 3.4 C. 4.6
Scorecard D. Strategic B. 6.0 D. 7.8
Management 18. __________ is a structured and disciplined process designed to
deliver perfect products and services on a consistent basis. It aims at
improving the bottom line by finding and eliminating the causes of
mistakes and defects/deficiencies in business processes.
A. Lean C. DMAIC
B. Six Sigma D. TQM

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19. ____________ focuses on reducing process variation and 27. From where did the concept of total quality control originate from?
enhancing process control. A. Philip Crosby C. Armand
A. Lean C. DMAIC B. W. Edwards Feigenbaum
B. Six Sigma D. TQM Deming D. Kaoru Ishikawa
20. ____________ focuses on driving out waste (non-value added 28. ___________ published four books, is credited with developing the
activities) and promotes work standardization and value stream cause and-effect diagram, and was instrumental in establishing
mapping. quality circles.
A. Lean C. DMAIC A. Philip Crosby C. Armand
B. Six Sigma D. TQM B. W. Edwards Feigenbaum
21. His key contribution is to work with top-level management teams to Deming D. Kaoru Ishikawa
recognize the need for quality and to author in the 2006 the book 29. Quality first, consumer orientation, the next process is your
"The Ice Cream Maker". customer, using facts and data to make presentations, respect
A. Philip Crosby C. Armand humanity, high focus on internal customers and cross functional
B. W. Edwards Feigenbaum management concepts came from whom?
Deming D. Dr. Subir A. Philip Crosby C. Armand
Chowdhury B. W. Edwards Feigenbaum
22. The author who believes on the following: (1) Problems can be Deming D. Kaoru Ishikawa
prevented through continuous improvement-getting it right the first 30. Key contribution of this person includes the first handbook dedicated
time; (2) Quality must be the responsibility of every individual in all to understanding and practical applications of FMEA, development
organizations; (3) Quality must be the responsibility of every of Six Sigma to present time and the book "FMEA from Theory to
individual in all organizations; (4) Everyone has a stake in quality; Practice".
(5) Quality is a balance of people power and process power, A. Joseph M. Juran C. Doran Shainin
where “people power” takes into account the role of the quality B. D. H. Stamatis D. Walter Shewhart
mindset; and (6) Improving quality using a cookie-cutter managerial 31. He worked at the Hawthorne plant of Western Electric where he
approach does not work. developed and used control chards. He is considered the father of
A. Philip Crosby C. Armand statistical quality control and the Plan-Do-Check-Act (PDCA) cycle.
B. W. Edwards Feigenbaum A. W. Edwards C. Walter Shewhart
Deming D. Dr. Subir Deming D. Genichi Taguchi
Chowdhury B. D.H. Stamatis
23. Dr. Chowdhury authored the book "The Power of LEO: The 32. He popularized the use of fractional factorial design of experiments,
Revolutionary Process for Achieving Extraordinary Results". LEO concept of robustness and the use of orthogonal arrays. His
refers to? contribution also is the loss function which is used to measure
A. Listen, Enrich, C. Love, Expand, financial loss to soceity resulting from poor quality, offline quality
Optimize Observe control and innovations in the statistical design of experiments.
B. Learn, Explore, D. Learn, Expand, A. W. Edwards C. Walter Shewhart
Observe Observe Deming D. Genichi Taguchi
24. The originator of the ZERO DEFECTS CONCEPT, who wrote 14 B. D.H. Stamatis
books, including Quality is Free, Quality without Tears, Let's Talk 33. He developed many industrial statistical tools that collectively have
Quality and Leading, and outlined the 14 steps to quality become the _______ system of Quality Improvement of RED "X".
improvement as noted in the Certified Manager of Also he developed the lot plot, reliability service monitoring, pre-
Quality/Organizational Excellence Handbook. control (for control charts), component search, operation search,
A. Subir Chowdhurry C. W. Edwards tolerance parallelogram, overstress testing, B vs. C, paired
B. Philip Crosby Deming comparisons, isoplot, variable search, randomized sequencing,
D. Armand resistant limit transform and rank order ANOVA.
Feigenbaum A. Dorian Shainin C. Walter Shewhart
25. The author of "Fourteen Points" in the book "Out of Crisis" and the B. D.H. Stamatis D. Genichi Taguchi
"Seven Deadly Disease". 34. It is a series of steps designed to produce products and/or services.
A. Subir Chowdhurry C. W. Edwards A. procedures C. algorithm
B. Philip Crosby Deming B. instructions D. process
D. Armand
35. Diagram that depicts inputs, path that material or information follows
Feigenbaum
and outputs.
26. He is known for many quality processes, which led the Japanese in A. value stream map C. process view
1950 to create a prize attributed to his name. He advocated that all B. flowchart D. control chart
managers need to have a "system of profound knowledge", 36. These steps constitute the cycle used by six sigma practitioners to
consisting of four parts: (1) appreciation of a system; (2) knowledge manage problem solving projects.
of variation; (3) theory of knowledge; and (4) knowledge of A. DMASV C. DMADV
psychology. B. DMADOV D. DMAIC
A. Subir Chowdhurry C. W. Edwards
B. Philip Crosby Deming 37. In DMAIC, D refers to ____________.
D. Armand A. Design C. Define
Feigenbaum B. Designate D. Discuss
38. In DMAIC, M is _________.
A. Measure C. Measurements
B. Meaning D. Meeting

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39. In DMAIC, A is _______. 52. Who said the following, “Changes creep up on us week by week, a
A. Assess C. Analyze little bit at a time. Over a year or two, there are 50 or 100 of these
B. Analysis D. Action bits, which amounts to quite a bit. The skills of the men have not
40. In DMAIC, I is ____________. necessarily kept pace, and we wake up to the existence of a wide
A. Integrate C. Institute gap.”
B. Improve D. Impart A. Deming C. Shewhart
B. Juran D. Crosby
41. In DMAIC, C is ________.
A. Conclude C. Conceptualize 53. In the system of profound knowledge, the part that refers to the
B. Concur D. Control understanding of the overall processes involving suppliers,
producers and customers (or recipients) of goods and services,
42. which is today called as the process approach refers to
_____________.
A. appreciation of a C. theory of
system knowledge
B. knowledge of D. knowledge of
variation psychology
54. In the system of profound knowledge, the part that refers to the the
range and causes of variation in quality and use of statistical
sampling in measurements (understanding that variation exists and
how it is recognized is _____________.
A. appreciation of a C. theory of
system knowledge
The picture below is an example of a __________. B. knowledge of D. knowledge of
A. Arrows and paths C. Process Flowchart variation psychology
B. Critical flow D. Process Map 55. In the system of profound knowledge, the part that refers to concepts
43. Designed to implement a process or more commonly a set of of human nature, i.e. golden rule, maslow hierarchy, etc. is
processes. They make certain that process inputs are in the right _____________.
place at the right time so that each step of the process has the A. appreciation of a C. theory of
resources it needs. It is responsible for collecting and analyzing system knowledge
data from the processes and other sources that will help in the B. knowledge of D. knowledge of
continual improvement of process output. variation psychology
A. business system C. output 56. In the system of profound knowledge, the part that refers to the
B. input D. feedback concepts explaining knowledge and the limits of what can be known
44. Juran Trilogy is based on three managerial processes, namely: is _________.
A. Plan, Perform, C. Quality Planning, A. appreciation of a C. theory of
Check Quality Perform, system knowledge
B. Quality Planning, Quality Check B. knowledge of D. knowledge of
Quality Control and D. Quality Check, variation psychology
Quality Quality Assurance, 57. Organizational goals must be consistent with the long term strategies
Improvement Quality of the enterprise. One technique is a planning process in which a
Improvement company develops up to four vision statements that indicate where
45. In SIPOC, S refers to ________. the company should be in the next five years. This is called?
A. System C. Supplying A. long term planning C. corporate annual
B. Share D. Suppliers B. hoshin planning planning
46. In SIPOC, I refers to _________. D. system
A. incoming C. Inputs management
B. income D. interfere 58. A set of processes that make up an enterprise.
47. In SIPOC, P refers to _________. A. subprocesses C. procedures
A. Procedure C. People B. portfolio D. system
B. Process D. Perform 59. Operating a system less than its best is called
48. In SIPOC, O refers to ___________. A. suboptimization C. marginal operation
A. Output C. On Flow B. partial operation D. partiality
B. Outcome D. Out Flow 60. The sum of the product of profit and probability is called the
49. In SIPOC, C refers to _________. ____________.
A. Create C. Customers A. Expected Profit C. Probable Profit
B. Choose D. Client B. Total Risk D. Expected Monetary
Value
50. This is used especially to help define the boundaries of what is to be
studied.
A. value stream C. flowchart
B. SIPOC D. process map
51. The red bead experiment is attributed to ______.
A. Deming C. Shewhart
B. Juran D. Crosby

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61. The process for capturing customer related information which is 70.
proactive and continuously innovative in order to capture stated,
unstated and anticipated customer requirements, needs and desires;
of which the goal is to achieve customer loyalty and to build
customer relationships.
A. User Experience C. Customer
B. Voice of Customer Feedback
D. Client Survey
62. The _________ is not only a measurement system but also a
management system that enables organizations to focus on both
internal business processes and external outcomes in order to
continuously improve strategic performance and results. It
transforms strategic planning from an academic exercise into the
never center of the enterprise. It is usually based on brainstorming
approach.
A. Voice of Customer C. Operations Metrics
B. Strategic D. Balanced
Management Scorecard
63. Who coined the system "balanced scorecard"?
A. Kaplan, Norton C. Ishikawa, Taguchi
B. Deming, Crosby D. Shewhart, Deming The figure below is the _______.
64. It is a visual representation that gives personnel a quick and easy A. Lean House C. Six Sigma House
way to view their company's performance in real time. B. Kaizen House D. TPS House
A. Scoreboard C. Scoreboard or 71. It is defined by the customer, based on their perception of the
B. Dashboard Dashboard usefulness and necessity of a given product or service.
D. Operational Metrics A. muda C. muri
65. The _______ is a quantifiable measurement, which is agreed to B. mura D. value
beforehand, that reflects the critifcal success factors of a department 72. Some activities performed in operations do not change the form or
or group within your organization. function of the product or service, and the customer is not willing to
A. key performance C. key process pay for these activities. These activities are labeled as ________.
indicator indicator A. value adding C. waste
B. process D. all of the above B. non-value-added D. muda
performance 73. Rework is an example of ______.
indicator A. value adding C. waste
66. Who is usually credited with creating the concept of lean? B. non-value-added D. muda
A. Ford Motor C. Toyota 74. "The Toyota Way" has how many principles?
Company D. GE A. 10 C. 14
B. Motorola B. 12 D. 16
67. Three concepts are fundamental to understanding lean thinking. 75. It is a workplace organization method that can help improve the
What are they? efficiency and management of operations by removing unneeded
A. 5S, Kaizen, Quality C. value, waste and items, arrange the required items, cleaning of work area,
B. process, people creating value developing checklists and continuing the efforts in doing so.
and prevention without waste A. 5S C. 7S
D. Purpose, process, B. 6S D. all of the above
perfection 76. This involves developing checklists, standards, and work
68. It is centered on making obvious what adds value by reducing instructions to keep the work area in a clean and orderly condition.
everything else. A. Sort | Seiri D. Standardize |
A. six sigma C. reengineering B. Set in order | Seiton Seiketsu
B. efficiency D. lean C. Shine | Seiso E. Sustain | Shitsuke
69. The ______ is much more than lean and involves the developing of 77. This involves cleaning of work area and equipment.
a culture in an organization that promotes the continual improvement A. Sort | Seiri D. Standardize |
philosophy and the development of all people in the organization. B. Set in order | Seiton Seiketsu
A. Muda C. Lean C. Shine | Seiso E. Sustain | Shitsuke
B. Toyota Production D. Lean Six Sigma 78. This is the most difficult sequence in 5S. Maintaining the efforts and
System (TPS) continuing them through support from management and
empowerment of employees.
A. Sort | Seiri D. Standardize |
B. Set in order | Seiton Seiketsu
C. Shine | Seiso E. Sustain | Shitsuke
79. Removing unneeded items, discard immediately never-used items.
A. Sort | Seiri D. Standardize |
B. Set in order | Seiton Seiketsu
C. Shine | Seiso E. Sustain | Shitsuke

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80. Arrange the required and rarely required items for ease of 90. Japanese term for change for improvement, continuous
accessibility improvement, the good change, or improving processes through
A. Sort | Seiri D. Standardize | small incremental steps.
B. Set in order | Seiton Seiketsu A. Just-in-Time (JIT) C. Kaikaku
C. Shine | Seiso E. Sustain | Shitsuke B. Kaizen D. Kanban (Pull
81. It is a visual feedback system usually of red, yellow and green System)
stacked lights at the work site that indicates the production status at 91. A system is best controlled when material and information flows into
any given time. It alerts operators and supervisors that assistance and out of the process in a smooth and rational manner. If process
may be needed. inputs arrive before they are needed, unnecessary confusion,
A. Bottlenecks C. A3 inventory, and costs generally occur. If process outputs are not
B. Continuous Flow D. Andon synchronized with downstream processes, delays, disappointed
82. Operations where work-in-process smoothly flows through the customers, and associated costs may occur.
system with minimal (or no) buffers between steps of the operation. A. Just-in-Time (JIT) C. Kaikaku
A. Bottlenecks C. A3 B. Kaizen D. Kanban (Pull
B. Continuous Flow D. Andon System)
83. This tool was originally named after a paper and used to publish 92. This card is a visual indicator that indicates the quantity to be
problem solving. The technique is used to give management a replenised once the minimum level is reached.
quick overview of key topics/issues of a project on one sheet of A. jidoka cards C. andon cards
paper. B. kanban cards D. count card
A. Bottlenecks C. A3 93. It refers to many activities aimed at improving something at a short
B. Continuous Flow D. Andon duration and also referred to as kaikaku.
84. It means "The real Place!". It is a philosophy that reminds us to get A. kaikaku kaizen C. kaizen event
out of our offices and spend time on the operations floor - the place B. kaizen event or blitz D. kaizen blitz
where the real action occurs. It is also called as "management by 94. Refers to unevenness.
walking around". A. Muda C. Muri
A. Gemba C. Hoshin Kanri B. Mura D. Mudra
B. Heijunka D. Jidoka 95. Refers to waste.
(Autonomation) A. Muda C. Muri
85. It is otherwise known as policy deployment or quality function B. Mura D. Mudra
deployment (QFD), its purpose is to align the goals of the company 96. Refers to overburden or unreasonableness.
with the plans of the middle management and the work performed on A. Muda C. Muri
the operations floor. It ensures that progress toward strategic goals B. Mura D. Mudra
is consistent and thorough and has the benefit of elimination of waste
that comes from poor communication and inconsistent direction. 97. This is one of the several measures available to track performance
A. Gemba C. Hoshin Kanri of the operation and is meant to be a benchmark for continual
B. Heijunka D. Jidoka improvement efforts. The product of Availability, Performance and
(Autonomation) Quality is called as ________.
A. TQM C. Overall Equipment
86. A form of production scheduling that purposely produces in much B. APQ Effectiveness
smaller batches by sequencing (mixing) product/service variants D. TPS
within the same process. This tends to reduce lead times and lower
inventory levels. 98. It is a japanese term for mistake proofing or error proofing and is a
A. Gemba C. Hoshin Kanri method used to prevent errors.
B. Heijunka D. Jidoka A. Poka-Yoke C. Kanri
(Autonomation) B. Jidoka D. Hoshin
87. Within the TPS process, the concept is "why have a human do what 99. The goal of ______ is to provide a rapid and effective way of
a machine can do better", especially in the tedious, repetitive jobs converting an operating process from running the current product to
that can cause injury over time. running the next product. This is rapid changeover.
A. Gemba C. Hoshin Kanri A. Single Digit Minute C. Poka-Yoke
B. Heijunka D. Jidoka B. Single Minute D. SMED
(Autonomation) Exchange
88. Who identified 23 stages between purely manual and fully 100. It is a tool that defines the interaction between man and machine in
automated work systems? He also believed that 90% of the benefits producing a part. It has three components: standard time, standard
of full automation could be gained by autonomation or "automation inventory and standard sequence.
with a human touch". A. Taktzeit C. Theory of
A. Shino Himaru C. Ishikawa B. Standard Work Constraints
B. Mura Mudi D. Shigeo Shingo D. Total Productive
Maintenance
89. Juran refers to as big change or breakthrough improvement.
A. Just-in-Time (JIT) C. Kaikaku 101. It sets the pace of industrial manufacturing lines so that production
B. Kaizen D. Kanban (Pull cycle times can be matched to customer demand rates.
System) A. Takt Time C. Theory of
B. Standard Work Constraints
D. Total Productive
Maintenance

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102. It is a problem solving methodology that focuses on the weakest link 111. Goldratt introduced a squad of soldiers walking in single file as an
in a chain of processes. analogy of a string of production processes. As the first soldier
A. Taktzeit C. Theory of moves forward he receives unprocessed material, the fresh ground.
B. Standard Work Constraints Each succeeding soldier performs another process by walking on
D. Total Productive that same ground. As the last soldier passes over the ground, it
Maintenance becomes finished goods. So the individual processes are moving
over fixed material rather than the other way around. This
103. Required for reliable manufacturing or servicing of equipment.
describes what?
Partnering with maintenance technicians and line workers to help
each other reduce machine downtime. It includes activities, such as, A. Theory of C. Goldratt Method
Constraint D. Drum-Buffer-Rope
changing oil at required frequency, tightening loose parts, watching
for any visible or audible symptoms of failure. B. Kaizen
A. Taktzeit C. Theory of 112. The waste or muda that is described as follows: making more than
B. Standard Work Constraints is needed or making it earlier or faster than is needed by the next
D. Total Productive process is the principal symptom of this muda. This is also describe
Maintenance as excess in WIP or work-in-process.
A. Excess motion C. Overproduction
104. This provides visual identification of the status of material and
B. Inventory D. Waiting
information throughout the value stream. Example of these are (1)
providing status of material in/out at a raw material warehouse, 113. The waste or muda that is described as follows: delayed shipments,
showing units produced, units to complete order and total produced long setup time or missing people, waiting results in waste of
by shift or day on production display board and indicating machine resources and perhaps more importantly, demoralization of
status with red, yellow and green lights on the machine. personnel.
A. visual marking C. visual display A. Excess motion C. Overproduction
B. dashboard D. visual factory B. Inventory D. Waiting
105. 114. The waste or muda that is described as follows: poor workplace
106. In theory constraint five steps to system improvement, this requires layout, awkward positioning of supplies and equipment resulting to
to find the process that limits effectiveness of the system. If ergonomic problems, time wasted searching for or moving supplies
throughput is the concern, then the constraint will often have work- or equipment.
in-process (WIP) awaiting action. A. Excess motion C. Overproduction
A. Identify D. Elevate B. Inventory D. Waiting
B. Exploit E. Repeat 115. The waste or muda that is described as follows: this is considered
C. Subordinate waste if the raw materials, finished goods or work-in-process are
107. In theory constraint five steps to system improvement, this requires maintained, conts are incurred for environmental control, record
to adjust the rates of other processes in the chain to match that of the keeping, storage and retrieval and so on.
constraint. A. Excess motion C. Overproduction
A. Identify D. Elevate B. Inventory D. Waiting
B. Exploit E. Repeat 116. This is the most unfortunate waste which includes suppressing of
C. Subordinate ideas and low morale.
108. In theory constraint five steps to system improvement, if the system A. excess C. overprocessing
rate needs further improvement, the constraint may require movement/transport D. lost creativity
extensive revision. This step could mean investment in additional ation
equipment or new technology. B. defect correction
A. Identify D. Elevate 117. This waste is non-value added because the efforts may have been
B. Exploit E. Repeat prevented if equipments are maintained, the quality system is
C. Subordinate established, there is training, and the product design is appropriate.
109. In theory constraint five steps to system improvement, if the steps A. excess C. overprocessing
have improved the process to the point where it no longer the movement/transport D. lost creativity
constraint, the system rate can be further improved by doing these ation
steps with the new constraint. B. defect correction
A. Identify D. Elevate 118. Forming a manufacturing cell that form C shape, is a solution to this
B. Exploit E. Repeat waste.
C. Subordinate A. excess C. overprocessing
110. In theory constraint five steps to system improvement, this step movement/transport D. lost creativity
requires to use kaizen or other methods to improve the rate of ation
constraining process. B. defect correction
A. Identify D. Elevate 119. This is the most unfortunate waste which includes suppressing of
B. Exploit E. Repeat ideas and low morale.
C. Subordinate A. excess C. overprocessing
movement/transport D. lost creativity
ation
B. defect correction

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120. This is used to identify value added processes and steps or 132. This phase link the design to the voice of customer. Identify
processes that produce waste, including excess inventory, unused customer and product requirements. Establish business case.
space, test inspection, rework, transportation and storage. Identify technical requirements, critical to quality (CTQ) variables,
A. value stream map C. process map and specification limits. Roles and responsibilities and milestones.
B. flowchart D. process chart A. Identify C. Optimize
121. It is the series of activities that an organization performs, such as B. Design D. Validate
order, design, produce and deliver products and services. Often 133. This phase develops detailed design elements to predict
starts from a supplier's supplier and ends at the customer's performance and optimize design. Design for robust performance
customer. and reliability, error proofing, establish statistical tolerance, etc.
A. value stream map C. lean enterprise A. Identify C. Optimize
B. value stream D. Rother and Shook B. Design D. Validate
122. This visual illustration uses simple graphics and icons to illustrate the 134. This phase emphasize CTQ variables and attributes i.e. concept
movement of material, information, inventory, work-in-process, design, FMEA, technical requirement, design parameters,
operators and so on. procurement, DOE.
A. value stream map C. lean enterprise A. Identify C. Optimize
B. value stream D. value stream B. Design D. Validate
analysis 135. This requires a combination of technical and competitive product
123. This can help uncover hidden wastes within the organization that is management analysis, specifying the design criteria most valued by
performed after value stream mapping. the industry and customer. In addition, there are expectations
A. value stream map C. lean enterprise imposed by regulators, partners, and other stakeholders.
B. value stream D. value stream A. Design D. Design
analysis B. Measure E. Verify
C. Analyze
124. Another term for value stream map.
A. value stream map C. lean enterprise 136. The statistical and investigative approaches use for six sigma
B. value stream D. value chain happens in this phase
diagram A. Design D. Design
B. Measure E. Verify
125. An organization that effectively uses lean thinking and applies lean
C. Analyze
tools to reduce waste throughout the value stream and offer value to
their customers is called a what organization? 137. Ensuring the outcome fulfills the design objectives and usually done
A. value stream map C. lean enterprise with a traceability matrix linking the design objectives to the design
B. value stream D. Rother and Shook outputs.
A. Design D. Design
126. Value chain diagram is described in detail by whom?
B. Measure E. Verify
A. value stream map C. lean enterprise
C. Analyze
B. value stream D. Rother and Shook
138. It is the study of risk and it has grown into multidisciplinary fields of
127. DFSS stands for? study with many resulting risk methodologies. It shows what might
A. DMAIC for Six C. Define, Forecast, happen, good or bad, that will influence and affect what happens at
Sigma Solve, Standardize
work and it is used to identify severity, probability, containment and
B. Design for Six D. Definition for Six mitigation. It is in form of a table.
Sigma Sigma
A. Risk Analysis C. FMEA
128. It is a business or engineering strategic process that focuses on B. Risk Register D. Risk Planning
proactive design quality rather than reactive design quality. It is also 139. FMEA came from FMECA. What is C in FMECA?
a systematic process to create produceable designs by reducing A. Critical C. Consequence
and managing variation in order to meet the customer's expectations B. Crisis D. Criticality
of quality performance.
A. DFSS C. DCOV 140. The US Military first issues what we now know as FMEA on Nov. 9,
B. IDOV D. DCOV 1949 on a document Procedures for Performing a Failure Mode,
Effects and Criticality Analysis. What is this document?
129. Things that you cannot control in the manufacturing process or how A. P-1692 C. P-1629
the customers use your product are referred to as _______. B. P-1269 D. P-2691
A. constraints C. independent
B. variables parameters 141. ISO document for risk management.
D. noise A. ISO 31000 C. ISO 14029
B. ISO 21000 D. ISO 9001
130. Person who defined IDOV as a four phase process.
A. Woodford C. Breyfogle 142. This rating corresponds to each effect the failure mode can cause.
B. Rotter D. Shock A. Occurence C. Detection
B. Severity D. Risk Priority
131. Person who defined DMADV and said that DMADV is appropriate Number
instead of the DMAIC approach when a product or process is not in
existence and one needs to be developed or the current 143. This rating corresponds to the likelihood or frequency at which the
product/process exists and has been optimized but still doesn't meet cause can occur.
customer and/or business needs. A. Occurence C. Detection
A. Woodford C. Breyfogle B. Severity D. Risk Priority
B. Rotter D. Shock Number

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144. Correspondss to the ability to detect the occurence of the failure 155. Are those who have a vested interest in the process and/or its
mode. products and outputs. Generally includes customers, suppliers,
A. Occurence C. Detection employees, investors and communities.
B. Severity D. Risk Priority A. Stakeholders C. Subject matter
Number B. Process owners experts
145. The product of severity, occurence and detection. D. team members
A. Occurence C. Detection 156. Another term for process owners.
B. Severity D. Risk Priority A. Stakeholders C. Subject matter
Number B. Process experts
146. The product of severity and occurence. accountables D. team members
A. Occurence C. Criticality 157. This is used to translate customer requirements statements into
B. Severity D. Risk Priority product features, performance measures, or opportunities for
Number improvement.
147. If severity is 8, Occurence is 2 and Detection is 9. Determine the A. Project Quality C. Quality Standard
RPN. Function Deployment
A. 16 C. 18 B. Customer D. Quality Function
B. 144 D. 72 Satisfaction Survey deployment
148. The _________ outlines several aspects of the project to ensure 158. This is also called the house of quality and provides a process for
that the project team and key stakeholders understand what needs planning new or redesigned products and services. This process
to be done, what resources (for example, people, financial, tools requires that a team discover the needs and desires of their
and equipment, infrastructure) are anticipated, and when things will customer and study the organization's response to these needs and
be completed. desires.
A. Project Outline C. Project information A. QFD C. PQI
B. Project Charter D. Project Plan B. QFI D. QQF
149. Benchmarking that compares similar functions, typically outside the 159. This is a document stating the purpose of the project and it serves as
organization's industry and provides ample opportunities to seek out an informal contract that helps the team stay on track with the goals
benchmarking partners. of the organization.
A. Internal C. Functional A. Project Schedule C. Project Charter
B. Competitive D. Collaborative B. Business Case D. Project Plan
150. Benchmarking that refers to the cooperation between various 160. Part of the project charter which states what needs to be improved.
functions or organizations to achieve benchmarking results. This A. Problem Statement D. Scope
benchmarking may permit access to specific benchmarking partners B. Purpose E. Results
that may not exist with the other types of benchmarking. C. Benefits
A. Internal C. Functional 161. Part of the project charter that provides project limitations in terms of
B. Competitive D. Collaborative budget, time and other resources.
151. Benchmarking where forces an organization to take an external A. Problem Statement D. Scope
perspective. B. Purpose E. Results
A. Internal C. Functional C. Benefits
B. Competitive D. Collaborative 162. Part of the project charter which defines the criteria and metrics for
152. Benchmarking that provides easy access to other departments project success- including the baseline measures and improvement
within the same company. expectations.
A. Internal C. Functional A. Problem Statement D. Scope
B. Competitive D. Collaborative B. Purpose E. Results
C. Benefits
153. The recognition/identification and consideration of all the various
individual elements that interrelate with a common purpose toward a 163. Part of the project charter establishes the goals and objectives of the
whole function of a unit is considered _______. It is about using team.
tools and methods available to understand what is being done at a A. Problem Statement D. Scope
specific operation and how that activity affects tasks and products B. Purpose E. Results
further downstream and how prior tasks and products affect the C. Benefits
process being reviewd. 164. It is a disciplined approach to monitoring how and when a project
A. Systems Thinking C. Interrational Plot will be accomplished, with recognition of the system that the project is
B. Process Thinking D. Process behavior working in.
charts A. Project Execution C. Project Planning
154. Are those who have responsibility for the execution and Approach D. Project Closure
implementation of specific process. They are usually formally B. Monitoring and
recognized in this role through related documentation, i.e. Control
procedures, work instructions, documentation approval authority, 165. SWOT analysis, RPN, FMEA, Expected profit are tools for?
through their job/position description, or through the organization A. risk analysis C. six sigma
chart. B. planning D. project
A. Stakeholders C. Both stakeholder
B. Process owners and process owner
D. team members

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166. An _______ highlights key tasks, the time to accomplish the tasks, 175. This is a graphical analysis tool that allows the user to display the
flow paths (serial or parallel) and so on. It can provide top level factors involved in a given situation to clearly illustrate the various
overview or detailed data depending on project need. causes affecting the item to be investigated.
A. PERT C. Activity Network A. Ishikawa Diagram C. Feather Diagram
B. CPM Diagram B. Fishbone Diagram D. Cause-and-effect
D. Schedule Diagram
167. It is founded on the idea that solid planning helps prevent surprises 176. These are used to observe or review a process, usually during
and saves valuable resources. Anything that is to be done can be execution of the process and pre-categorize potential outcomes for
first thought out, or written plans can actually be made to lay out a data collection using sets of words, tally lists, or graphics.
pattern or blueprint of what you are going to do. It is a process A. customer feedback C. check sheet
where we first look at the parameters of what we are going to do. B. Ishikawa Diagram D. flowchart
A. Advanced Product C. Quality Planning 177. It is a picture of the separate steps of a process in sequential order,
Planning D. Affinity Diagram including materials or service entering or leaving the process (inputs
B. Advanced Quality and outputs), decisions that must be made, people who become
Planning involved, time involved at each step and/or process measurements.
168. The first step is to brainstorm to obtain two to three dozen A. customer feedback C. check sheet
responses. Each response is clearly written on sticky note paper. B. Ishikawa Diagram D. flowchart
The next step is to move the notes 178. It is a method or process of finding out what the customer actually
around until they fall into five to 10 natural groups. Some suggest thinks of your products or services.
this be done in silence with all team members participating, as they A. customer feedback C. check sheet
prefer. If a note gets moved back and forth between two groups B. Ishikawa Diagram D. flowchart
several times, a duplicate may be made so that one can be placed
in each group. The next step is to find a name for each group. This 179. _____________ is a graph used to study how a process changes
over time.
may take several iterations before team consensus is reached. The
last step is to draw lines containing all the notes in a group with the A. focus groups C. gantt chart
group name. B. force field analysis D. control chart
A. Auditing C. Benchmarking 180. _____________ is used to graphically display a project’s key
B. Affinity Diagram D. Brainstorming activities and the duration associated with those activities.
A. focus groups C. gantt chart
169. _________ is the process of looking at one system(s) and applying
the concepts observed to another system. This usually involves B. force field analysis D. control chart
some give and take between 181. _____________ starts with listing the goal and there after listing the
the organization. driving forces and restraining forces.
A. Auditing C. Benchmarking A. focus groups C. gantt chart
B. Affinity Diagram D. Brainstorming B. force field analysis D. control chart
170. ___________ is an independent assessment of processes and/or 182. _____________ are an attempt to improve the depth and
projects against established plans and goals. accuracy of customer responses. These generally provide more
A. Auditing C. Benchmarking accurate answers with more
B. Affinity Diagram D. Brainstorming depth than other techniques.
A. focus groups C. gantt chart
171. ________ is the auditor’s preparation phase to ensure familiarity
with the item being audited, to schedule the audit, and to notify the B. force field analysis D. control chart
auditee. 183. _____ are counted and cannot have fractions or decimals. These
A. audit planning C. audit report are used when you are determining only the presence or absence
B. audit performance D. audit closure of something: success or failure, accept or reject, correct or not
correct.
172. ________ is the phase where the auditor gathers the evidence of
performance through interviews, observations and so on. This A. variable data C. in control
phase also includes reconciliation to ensure the validity of any B. attributes data D. out of control
potential findings (that is, noncompliances or nonconformances) or 184. _____ are measured on a continuous scale. For example, time,
opportunities for improvement. weight, distance or temperature.
A. audit planning C. audit report A. variables data C. in control
B. audit performance D. audit closure B. attributes data D. out of control
173. ________ is the audit phase which includes drafting the report, 185. _____ are measured on a continuous scale. For example, time,
which summarizes the audit scope, activities, and results and the weight, distance or temperature.
generation of associated corrective actions (findings) or preventive A. variables data C. in control
actions (opportunities) for improvement. B. attributes data D. out of control
A. audit planning C. audit report 186. Are used to identify cause-and-effect relationships. A typical
B. audit performance D. audit closure application would begin with the listing of a half dozen to a dozen
174. This audit phase includes any necessary follow up activities to concerns, one to a note sheet, arranged in no particular order
ensure that action plans are implemented and effective in eliminating around the perimeter of a flipchart or a whiteboard.
their associated causes. A. interrelationship C. matrix diagram
A. audit planning C. audit report digraphs D. multivoting
B. audit performance D. audit closure B. interviews

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187. typically used to discover and illustrate relationships between two 198. Is a tree diagram that is used to illustrate anticipated problems and
groups of items The items in one group are listed across the top of list possible solutions. It may be used as a dynamic document to be
the chart, and the items in the other group are listed down one side. updated as the project proceeds.
The team examines each square in the matrix and enters one of A. Problem solving C. Prioritization Matrix
three symbols or leaves it blank depending on the relationship B. Multivoting D. Process Decision
between the items in the row and column represented by the Program Chart
square. 199. 8D is _______?
A. interrelationship C. matrix diagram A. Eight Decisions C. Eight Description
digraphs D. multivoting Approach Approach
B. interviews B. Eight Discipline D. 8D Problem Solving
188. This is also a type of brainstorming but with limited team vocal Approach
interaction. This technique has its application when some group
200. The eight in 8D is _______?
members are much more vocal then others, to encourage equal
A. Check corrective C. Stop future
participation from all members, or with controversial or sensitive
action. problems.
topics, and so on. This technique helps to alleviate peer pressure
B. Congratulate team. D. Describe the
and reduces the impact of such pressure on the generation of ideas.
problem.
No verbal interactions are allowed during the session. The
members’ ideas are collected and posted in a space where all can 201. Is the path from start to finish that requires the most time.
read them. The members may also read the ideas aloud one by A. PERT C. PDPC
one in a round-robin format. B. CPM D. Critical Path
A. multivoting C. PDCA 202. Who said the following: 100% Inspection is only 80% effective,
B. nominal group D. SDCA “Collectively, these inspector errors result in a performance of about
technique 80 percent accuracy."
189. _______________ is an improvement cycle methodology that has A. Ishikawa C. Shewhart
evolved since 1939, starting with Shewhart and updated by B. Deming D. Juran
Deming, with iterations of the model by Ishikawa and the Japanese 203. ________ in sampling is when every part that could be measured
Quality Circle movement. The model is a simple circle divided into has an equal chance or probability of actually being selected by the
four quadrants. operator.
A. PDCA C. PCDA A. Selection C. Universality
B. SDCA D. PSDCA B. Randomness D. Fairness
190. Return to the plan step if the results are unsatisfactory, or 204. _____________ are those outside the enterprise who receive
standardize the solution if the results are satisfactory. process outputs.
A. Plan C. Check A. external suppliers C. external customers
B. Do D. Act B. internal suppliers D. internal customers
191. Evaluate the results. 205. _____________ to a process are those outside the enterprise that
A. Plan C. Check provide process inputs, including materials, purchased parts,
B. Do D. Act contracted services, electrical power, and so on.
192. Implement a solution. A. external suppliers C. external customers
A. Plan C. Check B. internal suppliers D. internal customers
B. Do D. Act 206. _____________ ___________ to a process are departments or
193. Define a problem and hypothesize possible causes and solutions. processes inside the enterprise that provide process inputs.
A. Plan C. Check A. external suppliers C. external customers
B. Do D. Act B. internal suppliers D. internal customers
194. In PDSA by Deming, what is S? 207. _____________ are those inside the enterprise who receive
A. Standardize C. Sequence process outputs.
B. Systematize D. Study A. external suppliers C. external customers
B. internal suppliers D. internal customers
195. In SDCA, what is S?
A. Standardize C. Sequence 208. ________________ help to break a general topic into a number of
B. Systematize D. Study activities that contribute to it. This is accomplished through a series of
steps, each one digging deeper into detail than the previous one.
196. A ____________ is used to aid in deciding between options. For
example, The team determines by consensus the criteria against A. tree diagram C. tool review
which the options will B. written surveys D. feedback
be measured (for example, requirements document) and the 209. Measures the project’s performance in dollar terms (for example, the
relative importance of each of the criteria items. In the example, the ratio of value earned [budgeted cost of work performed] versus the
criteria and their relative importance are compatibility (.25), cost actual cost of work performed). A ratio of 1 or higher is the desirable
(.30), ease of use (.40), and training time (.05). condition.
A. Problem solving C. Prioritization Matrix A. SLOC C. cost performance
B. Multivoting D. Process Decision B. Schedule index
Program Chart performance index D. cost measure index
197. A3, 8D, SPS are all examples of ? 210. Measure of the project’s efficiency to schedule as expressed in the
A. Problem solving C. Prioritization Matrix ratio of earned value to planned value
B. Multivoting D. Process Decision A. SLOC C. cost performance
Program Chart B. Schedule index
performance index D. cost measure index

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211. __________ is usually a measure of how the process is executing 221. Six sigma teams must be?
against some established goals or statistical measure. A. cross functional C. with management
A. Defects per Unit C. Defects per Million B. same organization D. top to bottom
(DPU) Opportunities 222. Based on B. W. Tuckmann's Developmental Sequence in Small
B. Process (DPMO) Groups, this is a stage in team formation that the team has
Performance D. Rolled Throughput developed ability to solve problems and large amount of work gets
Yield (RTY) accomplished.
212. ___________ applies to the yield from a series of processes and is A. Forming D. Performing
found by multiplying the individual process yields. B. Storming E. Transitioning
A. Defects per Unit C. Defects per Million C. Norming F. Recognition
(DPU) Opportunities 223. Based on B. W. Tuckmann's Developmental Sequence in Small
B. Process (DPMO) Groups, this is a stage in team formation when disagreements start to
Performance D. Rolled Throughput slow down the team.
Yield (RTY) A. Forming D. Performing
213. __________ is calculated as the total number of defects divided by B. Storming E. Transitioning
the total number of products produced in some time period (for C. Norming F. Recognition
example, per day). 224. Based on B. W. Tuckmann's Developmental Sequence in Small
A. Defects per Unit C. Defects per Million Groups, this is a stage in team formation that members agree on
(DPU) Opportunities mutually acceptable ideas to move forward.
B. Process (DPMO) A. Forming D. Performing
Performance D. Rolled Throughput B. Storming E. Transitioning
Yield (RTY) C. Norming F. Recognition
214. _____________ is the ratio of tolerance to six sigma, or the upper 225. What type of leadership style is appropriate during norming stage?
specification limit (USL) minus the lower specification limit (LSL) A. Directing C. Supporting
divided by six sigma. B. Coaching D. Delegating
A. Cp C. Cr 226. What type of leadership style is appropriate during forming stage?
B. Cpk D. process capability A. Directing C. Supporting
index B. Coaching D. Delegating
215. _____________ is the lesser of the USL minus the mean divided 227. What type of leadership style is appropriate during performing
by three sigma (or the mean) minus the LSL divided by three sigma. stage?
A. Cp C. Cr A. Directing C. Supporting
B. Cpk D. process capability B. Coaching D. Delegating
index
228. What type of leadership style is appropriate during storming stage?
216. _____________ is the ratio of 1 divided by Cp. A. Directing C. Supporting
A. Cp C. Cr B. Coaching D. Delegating
B. Cpk D. process capability
229. Who is responsible? Provide coaching and mentoring and work
index
with champions and process owners for the selection of projects.
217. Used when top management or the executive sponsor of the project A. Champion C. Master Black Belt
is providing instructions, communicating policies, or providing B. Process Owner D. Executive Sponsor
feedback on project 230. Who is responsible? Set direction and priorities for the six sigma
performance. organization, allocation of resources for projects, set six sigma
A. Top-down flow C. Horizontal vision, overall objectives for the program, initiate incentive
B. Bottom-Up flow communication programs, reward successful projects?
D. Communication A. Champion C. Master Black Belt
delivery B. Process Owner D. Executive Sponsor
218. When a line operator or front desk personnel want to provide 231. Who is responsible? Approve changes/support change
feedback to the management, or a team member wants to management, implement change, ensure that improvements are
communicate to the executive sponsor of the project, what sustained and provide process knowledge.
communication occurs. A. Champion C. Master Black Belt
A. Top-down flow C. Horizontal B. Process Owner D. Executive Sponsor
B. Bottom-Up flow communication
D. Communication 232. Who is responsible? Approve completed projects, remove barriers,
delivery determine project selection criteria, allocate resources for the
projects.
219. This is more effectively used in “flatter” organizations. This is very A. Champion C. Master Black Belt
effective and quicker to get results. B. Process Owner D. Executive Sponsor
A. Top-down flow C. Horizontal
233. Who is responsible? Lead and manage Six Sigma projects, provide
B. Bottom-Up flow communication
net present value, return on investments, monitor project closely,
D. Communication follow DMAIC process.
delivery
A. Black Belt C. Project Team
220. In six sigma projects, a team usually comprises 5 to 9 members. But B. Green Belt Member
what is considered ideal size? D. Yellow Belt
A. 6 C. 8
B. 7 D. 9

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234. Who is responsible? Lead smaller projects with moderate savings 246. Sampling based on criteria such as by machine, stream, lot or
and ROI, support six sigma projects with higher ROI, identify and setting and picking random samples from the group.
report barriers hindering the success of the project. A. Random C. Stratified
A. Black Belt C. Project Team B. Sequential D. Sampling
B. Green Belt Member 247. The purpose of this statistics is to present data in a way that will
D. Yellow Belt facilitate understanding.
235. Who is responsible? Support and contribute to six sigma projects, A. Inferential Statistics C. Historical Statistics
participate in charter definition, help collect data where responsible, B. Descriptive Statistics D. Experimental
follow DMAIC process, provide inputs to GB and BB and process Statistics
owners during project 248. The purpose of this statistics is to analyze data from a sample to
A. Black Belt C. Project Team predict properties of the population from which the sample was
B. Green Belt Member drawn.
D. Yellow Belt A. Inferential Statistics C. Historical Statistics
236. Who is responsible? New to the world of six sigma who follows the B. Descriptive Statistics D. Experimental
dmaic process, support management and teams as needed, make Statistics
suggestions for future projects, use process and tools in the 249. Provides numerical data information about the contents of the cells in
workplace a frequency distribution.
A. Black Belt C. Project Team A. Tally C. Stem and Leaf Plot
B. Green Belt Member B. Frequency D. Box and Whisker
D. Yellow Belt distribution Plot
237. Time used to generate a large number of ideas 250. Provides a pictorial view of the minimum, maximum, median and
A. Brainstorming C. Evaluation Phase interquartile range in one graph.
B. Creative phase D. Cause and Effect A. Tally C. Stem and Leaf Plot
238. Time where the ideas generated are looked at for usefulness or B. Frequency D. Box and Whisker
applicability distribution Plot
A. Brainstorming C. Evaluation Phase 251. Provides a pictorial view of numerical data about location and
B. Creative phase D. Cause and Effect spread.
239. The consolidated ideas are numbered or identified by an A. Tally C. Stem and Leaf Plot
alphabetical letter, and the team members are asked to prioritize the B. Frequency D. Box and Whisker
top five or 10 items that can be of significant influence on the distribution Plot
problem. The team members are given five to 10 minutes to
252. Used to count defect quantity and provides visual idea of the
prioritize, and the results are tabulated.
distribution of shape.
A. Brainstorming C. NGT
A. Tally C. Stem and Leaf Plot
B. Multivoting D. Affinity Diagram
B. Frequency D. Box and Whisker
240. __________ are very useful where the product is large (for distribution Plot
example, automobiles) and opportunities for defects are numerous.
It is difficult to explain in words the type and location of defects, and it 253. It is constructed much like a tally column except that the last digit of
the data value is recorded instead of the tally mark.
can save time at the repair or rework station.
A. Scatter Diagram C. stem-and-leaf plot
A. Pictorial Chart C. Affinity Chart
B. Run Chart D. Box-plot
B. Measles Chart D. Defect Chart
254. Developed by Professor John Tukey of Princeton University, uses
241. It is used to display the degree of the relationship between
the high and low values of the data as well as the quartiles.
variables, causes and effects, and so on. The degree is often
expressed as strong (¤), medium (¢), and weak (r) or numerically, A. Scatter Diagram C. stem-and-leaf plot
9 for strong, 3 for medium, and 1 for weak. B. Run Chart D. Box-plot
A. Relationship C. Flowchart 255. Detects possible correlation or association between two variables or
Diagram D. Control Chart cause and effect.
B. Matrix Diagram A. Scatter Diagram C. stem-and-leaf plot
B. Run Chart D. Box-plot
242. Length, weight, temperature are examples of what kind of data?
A. continuous C. locational 256. It is constructed to test whether random data come from a normal
B. discrete D. scale probability distribution.
A. Scatter Diagram C. Normal Probability
243. Number of paint runs per batch of painted parts, number of valves
B. Weibull Plots plots
that leaked or number of voids in glass are examples of what data?
D. Box-plot
A. continuous C. locational
B. discrete D. scale 257. Used mainly used for reliability data when the underlying
distribution is unknown. It can be used to estimate the shape
244. Sampling that has equal probability of getting picked.
parameter and mean time between failures (MTBF), or failure rate.
A. Random C. Stratified
A. Scatter Diagram C. Normal Probability
B. Sequential D. Sampling
B. Weibull Plots plots
245. Used in destructive testing and reliability testing applications where D. Box-plot
higher cost is involved in testing the unit. The samples are tested
one by one until the desired results are reached.
A. Random C. Stratified
B. Sequential D. Sampling

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258. Weibull distributions with beta <1 have a failure rate decreasing with 271. When the process variation is significantly lower than the width of
time. This is known as? the specification (upper limit-lower limit), then we call the process a
A. Useful life | random C. Useful or random ________ process.
failure period failure A. precise C. stable
B. Wear-out failure D. infant mortality or B. accurate D. capable
early failure 272. _________________ is the ability of the process to meet the
259. Weibull distributions with beta >1 have a failure rate increasing with expected specifications.
time. This is known as? A. Process Stability C. Process Accuracy
A. Useful life | random C. Useful or random B. Process Capability D. Process Linearity
failure period failure 273. _____ is particularly useful if we have a batch process like oven
B. Wear-out failure D. infant mortality or baking, spray painting, heat treatment, group therapy, and so on. If
early failure in earlier experiments
260. Weibull distributions with beta of close to 1 or 1. This is known as? it is proven that the part selected at random from a batch is
A. Useful life | random C. Useful or random representative of the group, we can pick random samples, average
failure period failure the measurements of the samples,
B. Wear-out failure D. infant mortality or and plot them as one data point of a subgroup.
early failure A. Random Sampling C. Subgroup Sampling
B. Systematic Sampling D. Interval Sampling
261. Is an area of statistical study that explores the variation in
measurement data due to several factors. 274. _______ can be used when performing individual moving range
A. Measurement C. Stability SPC monitoring by sampling every nth part. This is typically applied
System Analysis D. Repeatability when parts are coming out of a conveyor line. In a transactional
B. Calibration process situation such as a banking mortgage transaction, sampling
every nth customer might be used to assess service quality.
262. Drift in average measurements of an absolute value A. Random Sampling C. Subgroup Sampling
A. Measurement C. Stability B. Systematic Sampling D. Interval Sampling
System Analysis D. Repeatability
275. _____ approach of sampling is the typical approach used for
B. Calibration
plotting X- and R charts or X- and s charts.
263. Drift in absolute value over time. A. Random Sampling C. Subgroup Sampling
A. Measurement C. Stability B. Systematic Sampling D. Interval Sampling
System Analysis D. Repeatability
276. ________ variation is also called shift-to-shift variation, occurs as
B. Calibration change over time.
264. Variation in measurement when measured by one appraiser on the A. positional C. cyclical
same equipment in the same measurement setting at the same time. B. temporal D. variation
A. Measurement C. Stability 277. ________ variation is called within-part variation and refers to
System Analysis D. Repeatability variation of a characteristic on the same product.
B. Calibration A. positional C. cyclical
265. Accuracy of measurement at various measurement points of B. temporal D. variation
measuring range in the equipment. 278. ________ variation is also called part-to-part or lot-to-lot variation.
A. Reproducibility C. Repeatability A. positional C. cyclical
B. Linearity D. Bias B. temporal D. variation
266. “Closeness” to the true value, or to an accepted reference value. 279. _____________ is finding a relationship between two or more sets
A. Reproducibility C. Repeatability of data. It measures the strength (strong, moderate, weak) and
B. Linearity D. Accuracy direction (positive, negative) of the relationship between variables.
267. _________ (difference between absolute value and true value) with A. determination C. correlation
respect to a standard master at various measurement points of the B. causation D. casual chain
measuring range. 280. _____________ “if a change in X produces a change in Y, the X is
A. Reproducibility C. Repeatability said to be a cause of Y.” One may also observe, however, that
B. Linearity D. Bias there is a W that caused X, a V that caused W, a U that caused V,
268. “Closeness” of repeated readings to each other. A random error and so on.
component of the measurement system. A. determination C. correlation
A. Reproducibility C. Repeatability B. causation D. casual chain
B. Bias D. Precision 281. _____________ provides both the strength and direction of the
269. “_________ is the measurement resolution, scale limit, or smallest relationship between the independent and dependent variables.
detectable unit of the measurement device and standard. It is an A. determination C. correlation
inherent property of gage design and reported as a unit of B. causation D. correlation
measurement or classification." coefficient
A. Discrimination C. Priority 282. _________ is used in hypothesis tests to decide whether to reject a
B. Selection D. Precision null hypothesis or fail to reject a null hypothesis. It is the probability
270. The number of data categories is often referred to as the of obtaining a test statistic that is at least as extreme as the actual
__________ since it describes how many classifications can be calculated value, if the null hypothesis is true.
reliably distinguished given the observed process variation.” A. z value C. p value
A. Precision ratio C. Accuracy ratio B. t test D. F value
B. Discrimination ratio D. Measurement ratio

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283. This type of error results when the null hypothesis is rejected when 294. ________ organizes the experiment to have treatment
it is actually true. For example, incoming products are good but combinations done in a chance manner, improving statistical validity.
were labeled A. experimental design C. planned grouping
defective. This type of error is also called a (alpha) error and or pattern D. randomization
referred to as the producer’s risk (for sampling). B. experimental error
A. Type I C. Type III 295. The variation in the response variable when levels and factors are
B. Type II D. Type IV held constant. __________ must be subtracted to determine the
284. This type of error results when the null hypothesis is not rejected true effect of an
when it actually should have been rejected. For example, incoming experiment.
products are defective, but labeled good. This type of error is also A. experimental design C. planned grouping
called b (beta) error and referred to as the consumer’s risk (for or pattern D. randomization
sampling). B. experimental error
A. Type I C. Type III
296. ________ is the formal experiment plan that includes the
B. Type II D. Type IV responses, factors, levels, blocks, and treatments, and the use of
285. __________ is a statistical method for comparing several population planned grouping, randomization, and replication.
means. We draw a simple random sample (SRS) from each A. experimental design C. planned grouping
population and use the data to test the null hypothesis that the or pattern D. randomization
population means are all equal. B. experimental error
A. t-test C. ANOVA
297. _________ repeats observations or measurements to increase
B. z-test D. Tukey
precision, reduce measurement errors, and balance unknown
286. __________ are two-dimensional classification tables with rows and factors.
columns containing original frequencies or count data that can be A. replication C. variables
analyzed to determine whether the two variables are independent B. repetition D. effects
or have significant association.
298. ______ is a process of running the experimental trials under the
A. Contingency C. Frequency table
same setup of machine parameters.
function D. Stat Matrix
A. replication C. variables
B. Contingency table
B. repetition D. effects
287. __________________ implies a descriptive measure calculated
299. _________ repeats observations or measurements to increase
using population data. Usually, an assumption is made when
precision, reduce measurement errors, and balance unknown
performing a hypothesis test that the
factors.
data are a sample from a certain distribution, commonly referred to
A. replication C. variables
as the normal distribution.
B. repetition D. effects
A. nonparametric test C. descriptive test
B. parametric test D. hypothesis test 300. An experimental design uses ________ to determine whether or
not setting a factor at a particular level has a significant impact on the
288. __________________ implies that there is no assumption of a process.
specific distribution for the population.
A. replication C. variables
A. nonparametric test C. descriptive test
B. repetition D. effects
B. parametric test D. hypothesis test
301. These are variables that can be changed as required, and their
289. A factor is the variable controlled by the experimenter, and could values do not represent a problem requiring explanation in an
be viewed as a stimulus: one of the controlled or uncontrolled
analysis but are simply taken as given. These variables in an
variables whose influence on
experiment is most commonly an input and does not have
a response is studied in an experiment.
interactions with other variables.
A. Factor C. Treatment
A. dependent C. response
B. Level D. Block
B. independent D. nonresponse
290. A _________ is a single level assigned to a single factor or These are variables that can be changed as required, and their
302.
experimental unit during the experimental run, for example,
values do not represent a problem requiring explanation in an
pressure at 200 psi.
analysis but are simply taken as given. These variables in an
A. Factor C. Treatment experiment is most commonly an input and does not have
B. Level D. Block interactions with other variables.
291. A. dependent C. response
A. Factor C. Treatment B. independent D. nonresponse
B. Level D. Block
303. _______ are defined as an estimate of the effect of a factor
292. A ___________ refers to the settings or possible values of a factor independent of any other means.
in an experimental design throughout the progress of the A. main effects C. interactions
experiment. B. average main D. fisher
A. Factor C. Treatment effects
B. Level D. Block
304. __________ occur when the effect of one input factor on the output
293. ________ is a practice done to promote uniformity within blocks and depends on the level of another input factor.
minimize the effect of unwanted variables. A. main effects C. interactions
A. experimental design C. planned grouping B. average main D. fisher
or pattern D. randomization effects
B. experimental error

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305. _________ is a structured, organized method that is used to 318. ________ are factorial experiments that express factor levels in
determine the relationship between the different factors (X’s) affecting percentages adding up to 100 percent.
a process and the output of that process (Y) A. nested designs C. mixture designs
A. SPC C. DOE B. response surface D. confounding
B. experiment D. PCS 319. ________ provides contour diagrams or maps of how the factors
306. Who first developed the design of experiment? He is a renowned influence the response and direction for optimization of variable
geneticist and mathematician who worked at the Rothamsted settings.
Experimental Station in England and worked at the effects of different A. nested designs C. mixture designs
fertilizers on various crops. B. response surface D. confounding
A. Deming C. Fisher 320. _______ is a factor that is or could be controlled.
B. Juran D. Shewhart A. independent C. response variable
307. The independent variables that the experimenter controls are called variable D. confounding
control factors or ________. B. dependent variable
A. signal factors C. system factors 321. _______ is a factor that is affected by a change in the independent
B. noise factors D. manipulation factors variables.
308. These experiments are appropriate when only one factor is A. independent C. response variable
analyzed. variable D. confounding
A. factorials C. blocked factorials B. dependent variable
B. completely D. fractional factorials
322. _______ refers to the variables influenced by the other factors, for
randomized
which experimental objectives are created.
309. ______ are appropriate when investigating several factors at two A. independent C. response variable
or more levels, and interaction is necessary. variable D. confounding
A. factorials C. blocked factorials B. dependent variable
B. completely D. fractional factorials
323. Pull together those who know the process, are technically skilled
randomized
and able to solve the problem, and have authority within the
310. ______ reduce the number of runs and use blocking to run the organization to deploy the changes. Assign a champion to drive the
experiment in subsets. team to complete the steps.
A. factorials C. blocked factorials A. Use a team C. Start and check
B. completely D. fractional factorials approach. interim actions.
randomized B. Describe the D. Define and check
311. ______ reduce the combinations of factors and levels required to problem. root causes.
be run, while resulting in a close estimate to the full factorial. 324. This refers to the contingency and troubleshooting steps needed to
A. factorials C. blocked factorials control the effects and potential escalation of the problem under
B. completely D. fractional factorials review.
randomized A. Use a team C. Start and check
312. ______ experiments are used to investigate a primary factor while approach. interim actions.
controlling the interactions and effects of other variables. B. Describe the D. Define and check
A. randomized blocks C. partially balanced problem. root causes.
B. balanced incomplete incomplete blocks 325. After exploring potential root causes, conduct tests or experiments to
blocks D. latin/youden square isolate the most direct causes. Conduct additional reviews to confirm
313. ______ are appropriate when all the treatments can not be the correct root cause or investigate potential interactions leading to
accommodated within a block. potential problem recurrence.
A. randomized blocks C. partially balanced A. Use a team C. Start and check
B. balanced incomplete incomplete blocks approach. interim actions.
blocks D. latin/youden square B. Describe the D. Define and check
problem. root causes.
314. ______ investigate a single factor when material or environment
can be blocked. 326. Use quality techniques and methods to describe the problem and its
A. randomized blocks C. partially balanced impacts in objective and traceable terms. This will support the
B. balanced incomplete incomplete blocks prioritization and urgency of the resolutions and actions.
blocks D. latin/youden square A. Use a team C. Start and check
approach. interim actions.
315. ______ expand on the balanced incomplete blocks if the
B. Describe the D. Define and check
experiment requires a larger number of blocks.
problem. root causes.
A. randomized blocks C. partially balanced
B. balanced incomplete incomplete blocks 327. Confirm whether the corrective actions deployed adequately
blocks D. latin/youden square address the problem without creating unintended side effects or
disruptions.
316. ________ are appropriate when studying relative variability
instead of mean effects. A. Check corrective C. Stop future
action. problems.
A. nested designs C. mixture designs
B. Start permanent D. Congratulate the
B. response surface D. confounding
corrective action. team.
317. ________ exists when there is an external variable that correlates
directly with either an independent or dependent variable.
A. nested designs C. mixture designs
B. response surface D. confounding

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328. Make the necessary modifications to those portions of the 337. The goal of ________ is to augment a work activity in a manner
management systems covering similar areas and domains in order that prevents errors from being committed in the completion of a
to prevent the same issues from recurring (that is, extend additional process step. It is achieved by limiting or restricting ways to
controls for procurement of raw materials to purchasing of finished complete a task to ensure accuracy and compliance.
goods and contracting of third-party services). A. visual factory C. kanban
A. Check corrective C. Stop future B. kaizen D. poka-yoke
action. problems. 338. Improves system control by assuring timely movement of products
B. Start permanent D. Congratulate the and information, ensuring material and information flow into and out
corrective action. team. of the process in a smooth and rational manner. If process inputs
329. Give credit and recognition to those who contributed to the solution arrive before they are needed, unnecessary confusion, inventory,
and successful deployment. This will reinforce maintenance and and costs generally occur. If process outputs are not synchronized
stimulate future involvement in improvement activities. with downstream processes, the results often are delays,
A. Check corrective C. Stop future disappointed customers, and associated costs.
action. problems. A. visual factory C. kanban
B. Start permanent D. Congratulate the B. kaizen D. poka-yoke
corrective action. team. 339. The lean journey requires a continuous series of incremental
330. ________ is a methodology used to analyze a problem and put a improvements. This is called?
solution in place so that the problem does not happen again. A. visual factory C. kanban
A. problem definition C. structured problem B. kaizen D. poka-yoke
B. root cause analysis analysis 340. The ________ strives to make problems visible, notify employees
D. corrective and of current operating conditions, and communicate process goals.
preventive action Charts placed prominently
331. _________ are the conditions that create the failure mode or in the workplace show trends displaying quality, delivery, downtime,
problem. productivity, and other measures. Production and schedule boards
A. cause C. 4S advise employees on
B. cause and effect D. 5 Whys current conditions. Similar steps can be made in non-factory
diagram environments (for example, services, education) to continuously
keep all participants informed.
332. _________ diagram is a tool used to identify the many potential A. visual factory C. kanban
causes for an effect, or the problem. B. kaizen D. poka-yoke
A. cause C. 4S
341. _______ improves the maintenance practices for equipment and
B. cause and effect D. 5 Whys
infrastructure, and enables the prediction and/or prevention of
diagram
anticipated failure.
333. _________ is used to quantify and prioritize the impacts of causes A. TPM C. TP
(X) on effects (Y) through numerical ranking B. TQM D. PMS
A. Relational matrix C. failure mode and
342. ______ is a term describing the systematization of how a part is
B. Root cause tree effect analysis
processed, and includes man-machine interactions and studies of
D. response flow human motion. is a precise description of each work activity,
checklist
specifying cycle time, takt time, the work sequence of specific tasks,
334. This is a diagram that visually shows the connection between the and the minimum inventory of parts on hand needed to conduct the
failure effects and the potential root causes and core problems. This activity.
hybrid approach combines the fishbone and 5 whys methods, A. production capacity C. standard work
providing the ability to analyze interactions among causes chart D. SW Analysis Chart
A. Relational matrix C. failure mode and B. SW Combination
B. Root cause tree effect analysis table
D. response flow
343. ______ shows the work elements and their sequence. Each
checklist
element is broken down into individual times, including operator and
335. Recognize and evaluate the potential failure of a product/process machine.
and the effects of that failure. Identify actions that could eliminate or A. production capacity C. standard work
reduce the chance of the chart D. SW Analysis Chart
potential failure occurring. Document the entire process. This B. SW Combination
process is in? table
A. Relational matrix C. failure mode and
344. ______ can be used as rationalization of a process layout. It
B. Root cause tree effect analysis
provides a visual aid to an employee in training. The chart should
D. response flow include the work/cell layout, process steps, and times. It is also a
checklist
good chart for highlighting quality and safety items and defining
336. Pull systems operate consistently with _______'s Law, which defines standardized work-in-process.
a relationship between lead time, throughput, and work-in-process A. production capacity C. standard work
(WIP). By reducing WIP inventory levels throughout the enterprise, chart D. SW Analysis Chart
pull systems reduce lead times, resulting in more rapid delivery and B. SW Combination
satisfaction of customer demand table
A. Juran C. Deming
B. Little D. Shewart

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345. ______ is used to determine the capacity of machines/humans in a 354. ____________ are the actions taken to reduce or eliminate the root
process. Its purpose is to identify bottlenecks within the process. causes of problems that are preventing you from reaching your
A. production capacity C. standard work goals. _________ are typically identified by team members for the
chart D. SW Analysis Chart purpose of eliminating waste (muda), unevenness (mura), and/or
B. SW Combination unreasonableness (muri).
table A. poka-yoke C. one-piece flow
B. countermeasures D. right sized
346. ______ charting offers process development based on
equipment
understanding the customer’s needs and studying how those needs
are met. It highlights the need to serve internal customers in order 355. __________ flow refers to the concept of moving one workpiece at
to satisfy external customers. The process identifies who receives or a time between operations within a work cell. The goals are to make
is affected by the outputs of the process. It aids in clarifying the one part at a time, to make that part correctly all the time, and to
process, including its specific requirements. produce without unplanned interruptions and lengthy queue times.
A. SIPOC C. process capability A. poka-yoke C. one-piece flow
B. process stability D. process capacity B. quick D. right sized
sheet changeover/setup equipment
reduction
347. ______ is a measure that describes how well a process can meet
a given target. In simple terms, this represents a comparison of the 356. It is a process for changing over production equipment from one
voice of the customer (VOC) with the voice of the process (VOP). part to another in as little time as possible. The overall goal is to
A. SIPOC C. process capability reduce the time devoted to it so that more time is available to
B. process stability D. process capacity produce a wider variety of products.
sheet A. poka-yoke C. one-piece flow
B. quick D. right sized
348. ______ is a common lean tool used to calculate and understand
changeover/setup equipment
the capacity of the equipment in a particular work area based on the
reduction
following example inputs: Machine time per piece, manual time per
piece (operator time of activity performed while the machine is not 357. ______ is highly capable, easy to maintain (therefore available to
producing product), total cycle time per piece (calculated as machine produce whenever needed), quick to change over, easy to move,
time per piece manual time per piece), number of pieces before a and designed to be installed in small increments of capacity to
tool change is needed, time required to perform a tool change, tool facilitate capital and labor linearity.
change time per piece (calculated as time to perform tool change / A. poka-yoke C. one-piece flow
number of pieces before a tool change is needed), available time B. quick D. right sized
per shift (reported in units similar to the other timerelated measures). changeover/setup equipment
A. SIPOC C. process capability reduction
B. process stability D. process capacity 358. _______ is the linking of manual and machine operations into the
sheet most efficient combination of resources to maximize value-added
349. It is the ability, or rate, at which work is processed through a system. content while minimizing waste
It can be stated as the measure of how well the processes within a A. cellular flow C. kanban
system are linked and work together. B. jidoka D. source inspection
A. work flow C. flowcharting 359. Sign or signboard.
B. work flow analysis D. flow analysis charts A. cellular flow C. kanban
350. It is the evaluation of flow in a system and how the efficiency and B. jidoka D. source inspection
effectiveness of the flow can be improved 360. ________ is a quality inspection that a buyer performs at a
A. work flow C. flowchart vendor’s location before material is received or shipped.
B. work flow analysis D. flow analysis charts A. cellular flow C. kanban
351. A ______ is a visual representation of a sequentially ordered set of B. jidoka D. source inspection
tasks. A ______ can be constructed from a list of tasks by writing 361. _______ is the linking of manual and machine operations into the
each task on a small piece of paper and organizing them most efficient combination of resources to maximize value-added
sequentially. The resulting collection of sequentially ordered content while minimizing waste
activities is the foundation of it. A. cellular flow C. kanban
A. work flow C. flowchart B. jidoka D. source inspection
B. work flow analysis D. flow analysis charts
362. ________ is a quality inspection that a buyer performs at a
352. This illustrates sequential activities that take place within a value vendor’s location before material is received or shipped.
stream, showing where value is being created and where potential A. cellular flow C. kanban
wastes exist. It identify activities that add value and those that create B. jidoka D. source inspection
waste.
A. value stream C. current state 363. ________ is a technique that can significantly reduce the time taken
mapping D. takt time to switch from producing one product to producing another.
B. line balancing A. setup time C. OTED
B. EOQ D. SMED
353. _______ is used to ensure continuous work flow through the
process by making each subprocess close to takt time. 364. ________ is the total elapsed time from the last piece of one
product made from one process to the first good piece of the next
A. value stream C. current state
product produced by another process.
mapping D. takt time
A. setup time C. OTED
B. line balancing
B. EOQ D. SMED

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365. "The real place" 380. The six sigma level is 6, what is the short term Cpk?
A. kaizen C. kaikaku A. 1.33 C. 1.67
B. kairin D. gemba B. 2.00 D. 2.33
366. "Innovation" 381. The six sigma level is 6, what is the long term Cpk?
A. kaizen C. kaikaku A. 1.17 C. 1.5
B. kairin D. shitsuke B. 1.83 D. 0.5
367. It is the measure of where the center of your distribution lies. It is the 382. It is an estimate of the dispersion that you would observe in the
sum of all observations divided by the number of observations. distribution of sample means, if you continued to take samples of the
A. average C. median same size from the population.
B. mean D. mode A. variance C. variance
368. What is the mean of 2, 3, 10, 5, 4, 4, 3, 3, 1, 2, and 3? B. SE Mean D. quartile
A. 4.632 C. 4.532 383. The ________ is the smallest value in a data set.
B. 2.456 D. 3.636 A. maximum C. optimum
369. It is the midpoint of the data set: half the observations are above it, B. least D. minimum
half are below it. 384. It is the range of the middle 50% of the values and is calculated by
the formula Q3 - Q1.
A. mean C. median A. first quartile C. 25th percentile
B. mode D. quartile B. third quartile D. interquartile range
370. What is the median of 2, 3, 10, 5, 4, 4, 3, 3, 1, 2, and 3? 385. It equals the data value at position (N+1)/4.
A. 4 C. 5 A. first quartile C. 75th percentile
B. 3 D. 2 B. third quartile D. interquartile range
371. It is a measure of how far the observations in a sample deviate from 386. It equals the data value at position 3(N+1)/4.
the mean. It is analogous to an average distance (independent of A. first quartile C. 25th percentile
direction) from the mean. B. third quartile D. interquartile range
A. median C. quartile
387. A _______ displays data that have been summarized into intervals.
B. 95% confidence D. standard deviation It can be used to assess the symmetry or skewness of the data.
372. If the data are normally distributed, then the standard deviation and A. histogram C. boxplot
mean can be used to determine what proportion of the observations B. individual value D. SPC chart
fall within any given range of values. For example, 95% of the chart
values in a normal distribution fall within +/- _____ standard
deviations of the mean. 388. Use this plot to examine the dispersion and concentration of the
data. Each circle represents one observation.
A. 1 C. 3
A. histogram C. boxplot
B. 2 D. 4
B. individual value D. SPC chart
373. If the data are normally distributed, then the standard deviation and chart
mean can be used to determine what proportion of the observations
fall within any given range of values. For example, 68% of the 389. ________ summarize information about the shape, dispersion and
values in a normal distribution fall within +/- _____ standard center of your data. They can also help you spot outliers.
deviations of the mean. A. median C. first quartile
A. 1 C. 3 B. third quartile D. boxplot
B. 2 D. 4 390. In a boxplot, what represents the middle line?
374. If the data are normally distributed, then the standard deviation and A. median C. first quartile
mean can be used to determine what proportion of the observations B. third quartile D. boxplot
fall within any given range of values. For example, 99.7% of the 391. In a boxplot, what represents the top edge?
values in a normal distribution fall within +/- _____ standard A. median C. first quartile
deviations of the mean. B. third quartile D. boxplot
A. 1 C. 3 392. In a boxplot, what represents the bottom edge?
B. 2 D. 4 A. median C. first quartile
375. If the sigma level is 6, what is the sigma (with 1.5 sigma shift)? B. third quartile D. boxplot
A. 2.5 C. 4.5 393. If your data is symmetric, the measures of central tendency (mean
B. 3.5 D. 5.5 and median) will be roughly the same. True or false?
376. If the sigma level is 6, what is the DPMO? A. true B. false
A. 0.019 C. 233 394. the measures may be pulled toward the more extreme
B. 3.4 D. 6210 observations. Of the measures, the mean is least influenced by
377. If the sigma level is 6, what is the percent defective? extreme values and the median is most influenced. True or false?
A. 6.7% C. 0.023% A. true B. false
B. 0.62% D. 0.00034% 395. If the distribution is positively skewed, what is the best way to
378. If the sigma level is 6, what is the percentage yield? descrive the center of the data?
A. 6.7% C. 0.023% A. mean C. mode
B. 0.62% D. 0.00034% B. median D. variance
379. The six sigma level is 6, what is the percentage yield? 396. 95.44% of the values will be within +/- _____ standard deviations
A. 93.3% C. 99.977% of the mean (between -2 and 2).
B. 99.38% D. 99.99966% A. 2 C. 3
B. 1.96 D. 2

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397. In the data 2, 3, 10, 5, 4, 4, 3, 3, 1, 2, 3, determine the sum of the 411. Kurtosis whose value is close to 0 indicate what?
squared deviations. A. normally peaked C. sharper distribution
A. 2.378 C. 55.546 data D. none of the above
B. 5.655 D. 0.717 B. flatter distribution
398. In the data 2, 3, 10, 5, 4, 4, 3, 3, 1, 2, 3, determine the standard 412. Kurtosis whose value is -2.32 indicate what?
error of the mean. A. normally peaked C. sharper distribution
A. 2.378 C. 55.546 data D. none of the above
B. 5.655 D. 0.717 B. flatter distribution
399. In the data 2, 3, 10, 5, 4, 4, 3, 3, 1, 2, 3, determine the standard 413. Kurtosis whose value is +2.45 indicate what?
deviation. A. normally peaked C. sharper distribution
A. 2.378 C. 55.546 data D. none of the above
B. 5.655 D. 0.717 B. flatter distribution
400. In the data 2, 3, 10, 5, 4, 4, 3, 3, 1, 2, 3, determine the first quartile 414. This test procedure is used to make inferences about a population
(Q1). mean based on the mean of a random sample. It is used when you
A. 2 C. 4 know the standard deviation of a population.
B. 3 D. 5 A. 1-Sample Z C. 2-Sample t
401. In the data 2, 3, 10, 5, 4, 4, 3, 3, 1, 2, 3, determine the third quartile B. 1-Sample t D. Paired t
(Q3). 415. In a 1-Sample Z test, it was tested based on confidence level of 0.05
A. 2 C. 4 that the mean fat content is 16.6, standard deviation of 2.066, SE
B. 3 D. 5 Mean of 0.721, Z value of 2.22 and p-value of 0.027. The
402. In the data 2, 3, 10, 5, 4, 4, 3, 3, 1, 2, 3, determine the interquartile reference value based on previous study was 15. Is the mean of
range (IQR). 16.6 statistically equal to 15?
A. 2 C. 4 A. Yes C. Maybe
B. 3 D. 5 B. No D. No answer
403. A _______ is an interval used to estimate a population parameter 416. John would like to know the relationship between two variables.
from sample data. What graph should he use?
A. point estimate C. confidence interval A. matrix plot C. bubble plot
B. error margin D. population interval B. scatterplot D. stem-and-leaf
404. The Anderson-Darling normality test is used to determine whether 417. Run charts can be used to monitor process changes associated with
the data is normal. Consilder that the 0.10 is the level of a particular characteristic over time. Use a run chart to look for
significance, and the test yields a p-value of 0.008. Do you think evidence of patterns in your process data and perform two tests for
that the distribution is normal? non-random behavior.
A. normal C. cannot be
B. skewed determined 418. __________ can be used to monitor process changes associated
D. either normal or with a particular characteristic over time. Use it to look for evidence
skewed of patterns in your process data and perform two tests for non-
405. The Anderson-Darling normality test is used to determine whether random behavior.
the data is normal. Consilder that the 0.10 is the level of A. symmetry C. pareto chart
significance, and the test yields a p-value of 0.30. Do you think that B. Ishikawa D. run chart
the distribution is normal? 419. What graph is to use when you want to separate the vital few
A. normal C. cannot be problems from the trivial many?
B. skewed determined A. symmetry C. pareto chart
D. either normal or B. Ishikawa D. run chart
skewed 420. A _______- is a bar chart that graphically ranks your defects from
406. This refers to the lack of symmetry. largest to smallest, which can help you prioritize quality problems
A. kurtosis C. dispersion and focus improvement efforts on areas where the largest gains can
B. symmetry D. skewness be made.
A. symmetry C. pareto chart
407. This refers to how sharply peaked a distribution is.
B. Ishikawa D. run chart
A. kurtosis C. dispersion
B. symmetry D. skewness 421. A manager at an amusement part are concerned about long wait
times for a new ride. In a brainstorming meeting, they identified 22
408. The skewness of a distribution is -2.11. This is? possible causes. What should they draw after?
A. symmetric C. right skew | left
A. symmetry C. pareto chart
B. left skew | right modal
B. cause and D. run chart
modal D. not sure effect/Ishikawa
409. The skewness of a distribution is +2.11. This is?
A. symmetric C. right skew | left
B. left skew | right modal
modal D. not sure
410. The skewness of a distribution is close to zero. This is?
A. symmetric C. right skew | left
B. left skew | right modal
modal D. not sure

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422. The diagram below is skewed to the ? 430. John has conducted a research. He has a subgroup size of less
than nine and wants to determine whether the process is in control.
What chart should he use?
A. Xbar-R Chart C. I-MR Chart
B. Xbar-S Chart D. U Chart
431. John has conducted a research. He has a subgroup size of greater
than nine and wants to determine whether the process is in control.
What chart should he use?
A. Xbar-R Chart C. I-MR Chart
B. Xbar-S Chart D. U Chart
432. John has conducted a research. He has a subgroup size of one
and wants to determine whether the process is in control. What
chart should he use?
A. Xbar-R Chart C. I-MR Chart
A. left C. middle B. Xbar-S Chart D. U Chart
B. right D. none
433. John wants to assess the normality of the data and to compare the
423. The diagram below is skewed to the ? distributions assuming the within-subgroup variation and overall
variation. What graph should he use?
A. I-MR chart C. Capability
B. Xbar-R Histogram
D. Xbar-S
434. In the data below, it can be assumed that the data are normally
distributed. True or false?

A. left C. middle
B. right D. none
424. A laboratory is doing a preliminary study on a new variety of corn A. True B. False
that may require less fertilizer than other varieties. They are 435. It is how different the mean is from the reference value.
interested in determining the relationship between Variety and A. delta C. linearity
amount of Fertilizer and its effect on Yield. The two factors are B. difference D. bias
Variety and Fertilizer; the response is Yield. What graph is 436. The gage bias is -0.05. It indicates that the gage?
necessary to show a "look" preliminary at the data? A. overestimates C. zero
A. pareto C. symmetry plot B. underestimates D. none
B. ishikawa D. multi-vari chart
437. The gage bias is +0.05. It indicates that the gage?
425. A company wants to assess the calcium content in vitamin capsules. A. overestimates C. zero
You take a random sample of 50 observations and record their B. underestimates D. none
calcium content. The data are known to be right-skewed. The
statistician wants to transform the data to a normal distribution. What 438. ______ which measures how accurate your measurements are
should he use? through their expected range.
A. loglogistic transform C. Johnson A. Linearity C. bias
B. box transform transformation B. R^2 D. delta
D. lognormal transform 439. Which of the following best describes the DMAIC process?
If the process is able to produce products or services that conform to A. a terminating series C. a supply chain
426.
of steps that is theory management
specifications, it is said to be?
performed just once system
A. stable C. standard
B. a feedback based D. DMAIC is not a
B. capable D. compliant
improvement process
427. What chart is to use if a researcher wants to determine if the process that is
proportion of defectives per sample is in control? performed
A. R Chart C. P Chart continuously
B. U Chart D. S Chart
440. The name "Six Sigma" comes from the Greek letter sigma which
428. What chart is to use if a researcher wants to determine if the number represents the arithmetical average of a data set (the mean). True
of defects per unit measurement is in control? or False?
A. R Chart C. P Chart A. True B. False
B. U Chart D. S Chart
441. The six sigma hierarchy uses a system of which of the following to
429. What chart is to use if a researcher wants to determine if the denote rank and responsibility?
process is in control? A. colored cards C. alphanumeric call
A. Xbar Chart C. P Chart B. a progressive signs
B. U Chart D. S Chart series of shapes D. colored belts

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442. Discrete data is data that can be measured on a continuum scale 451. The pull production system method of manufacture seeks to alleviate
and can be infinitely divided. True or false? which of the following challenges normally associated with traditional
A. True B. False push methods?
443. Binary data is best described as which of the following? A. long line downtimes C. large, inflexible
A. pass/fail C. yes/no due to line batch sizes
B. true/false D. all of the above changeovers D. all of the above
B. buffer inventory and
444. Which of the following best describes the Six Sigma interpretation of surplus stock to
a business process? correct for demand
A. x factors such as C. the y factor output fluctuations
output generate y generates the x
factors such as input factors input and 452. Process mapping should be done as a business activity and offers
and processes processes no additional value.
B. x factors such as D. x factors do not A. true B. false
input and processes impact the business 453. SIPOC is which of the following?
generate the y process, only y A. service, C. suppliers,
factor output factors do infrastructure, infrastructures,
445. Which of the following best describes a data collection plan? process, overtime, process, outputs,
A. it is not important C. it is not important customers customers
because data is because collection B. suppliers, inputs, D. SIPOC is none of
always available measures are at the process, outputs, the above
B. it is very important to discretion of customers
ensure consistent production staff 454. Which of the following best describes the process of value stream
and accurate results D. it is important mapping?
because planning A. a complex mapping C. an independent
leads to goal process that audit of a production
accomplishment displays all inputs facility
446. Which of the following are considered statistically sound sampling for a process D. a mapping process
methods? B. a low-cost method of for administrative
A. judgment & C. random & understanding functions
convenience convenient customer needs
B. pace & precision D. random & 455. Which of the following is not an element of the 5S method?
systematic A. sort C. select
447. Standard deviation is helpful for which of the following reasons? B. segregate D. standardize
A. it is a measure of C. it is expressed in 456. When calculating the time based metric PCE (process cycle
central tendency real units efficiency), which of the following best describes process lead time?
B. it is a measure of D. it is expressed in A. a scheduled period C. a calculated value
variation the form "units" of production derived from a
B. the amount of time in process map
448. The lean production system identifies three overarching sources of
a process that is D. a calculated value
waste designated muda, muri, and mura. What do these three
committed to adding reached using
concepts represent?
value Little's Law
A. motion, C. waste, unevenness
transportation and and overburden 457. Total productive maintenance (TPM) is a structured and
defective production D. training, correction comprehensive program designed to accomplish which of the
B. waste, cost and and utilization following?
futility A. reduce C. increase production
unscheduled staff competency in
449. Which of the following is a DOWNTIME source of waste?
downtime due to process functions
A. motion C. overprocessing
equipment failure D. better match product
B. transport D. all of the above
B. increase scheduled offerings with
450. Kaizen is a core principle of the Lean production system. How does downtime so that it customer needs
Kaizen impact an organization? can be better
A. kaizen is a system of C. kaizen is a line planned for
manufacturing best change solution
practices D. kaizen is a method 458. Rapid setup methods are beneficial to the production process in
B. kaizen is a system of of tool selection which of the following ways?
continuous A. an increase in C. a decrease in batch
improvement production flexibility sizes resulting in
B. a shorter line less inventory
changeover times D. all of the above
459. Which of the following VOC data collection methods can be used to
gather quantifiable data instead of qualitative?
A. focus groups C. point of use
B. surveys observations
D. interviews

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460. Surveys should be used alone when gathering VOC data. 468.
A. true B. false
461. Which of the following best describes critical to quality requirements
A. the total value C. the determining
added time within a criteria in judging
process process inputs
B. the standard D. the parameters of a
deviation of a process that indicate
process from its which production
intended result outputs meet
customer specs and
which do not
462. The PCED equation is best suited to determine which characteristics
of a process
A. adherence to C. identifying areas Which statement(s) are correct about the Pareto Chart shown here
customer specs where staff may be
for the DOE analysis? (Note: There are 2 correct answers)
B. the role that a better implemented
A. The factors to keep C. The factors to keep
subprocess has in to reduce waste
in the mathematical in the mathematical
contributing to PCE D. identifying the voice model with a 5% model are E, D,
of the customer
alpha risk are BE, DE, BD and B with
463. Why is a pairwise comparison a necessary follow up to an ANOVA AB, A and AD an alpha risk equal
analysis? B. It is unknown from to 2.06
A. because ANOVA C. because ANOVA this graph how D. The effects to keep
analyses dont analyses don't many factors were in the mathematical
account for variation identify specific data in the Experimental model are E, D,
B. because ANOVA points of variation Design DE, BD and B with
analyses are D. pairwise an alpha risk equal
inconclusive comparisons aren't to 0.05
necessary when
performing ANOVA 469. All the data points that represent the total set of information of interest
analyses is called the ________________.
A. Sample C. Frame
464. For her injection molding project a Belt needed to track the B. Spread D. Population
percentage of defectives of a particular sample set so she used a
470. What does a variance inflation factor (VIF) of 5 indicate?
___________ to display the data?
A. Medium C. No multicollinearity
A. Individual Chart C. P Chart multicollinearity D. Small
B. C Chart D. Xbar Chart
B. Large multicollinearity
465. Z distribution is the simplest normal distribution with the mean equal multicollinearity
to ______ and standard deviation equal to ________?
A. Mean=0 and C. Mean=1 and 471. Screening experiments are the proper choice when a Belt is faced
Standard Standard with the situation of highly Fractional Factorial Designs.
Deviation=1 Deviation=0 A. True B. False
B. Mean=1 and D. Mean=0 and 472. An operator checks that all boxes being packed contain enough
Standard Standard products to fill the box. However, each box getting filled has a
Deviation=1 Deviation=0 different number of products in it.
This is a Reproducibility problem, not a Repeatability problem.
466. The ________ metric is your critical measure, it’s the reason for
A. True B. False
your project, it’s your beacon. This metric is the single most
important thing to understand in order for you to be successful. 473. Which of these statements is true with respect to p-values?
A. Secondary B. Primary A. For p-values higher D. All of the above
than 0.05, E. None of the above
467. The data analysis technique that separates more important factors, alternative
typically in a ratio of 80:20, is ________?
hypothesis is
A. X-Y Diagram C. Data Spreadsheet accepted
B. Fishbone Diagram D. Pareto Analysis
B. At 95% confidence
level, a p-value less
than 0.05 indicates
a statistically
significant difference
between the
samples being
compared
C. For p-values less
than 0.05, null
hypothesis is
rejected

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474. Mistake-proofing is: 480. Which of these statements is correct in view of Lean principles?
A. A method of C. Part of statistical A. Waste is any non- C. Process cycle
identifying potential process control. value added activity efficiency is an
defects. D. A technique for in a process that indicator of the time
B. A means of eliminating errors should be eliminated taken by value
responding to by making it B. The lower the added activities as
defects before they impossible to make number of steps in a the percentage of
leave the facility. mistakes in the process, the higher the total process
process. the velocity of the time
process D. All of the above
475. Using this data calculate the percentage of DPU. Data: 763 defects,
18,000 units. 481. Of the various types of data shown which is NOT representative of
A. 5.72 C. 2.12 Variable Data.
B. 3.42 D. 4.24 A. Three employees C. Car burned 2.7
476. wore hard hats gallons of gasoline
B. Child’s height is 4 D. Train was going
foot 3 inches 140 kilometers per
hour
482. _________ is when more products are produced than are required
by the next function or customer.
A. Motion C. Conveyance
B. Over Processing D. Over Production
483. The Normal Distribution is considered to be the most important
distribution in statistics and, among other things is defined as having
a total area under the curve of 1, is mounded and symmetrical and
the Mean, Median and Mode are _____________. Please choose
the correct answer.
For the data shown here which statement(s) are true? (Note: There
A. All evenly divisible C. Within 10% of each
are 2 correct answers).
by 3 other
A. If we wanted to C. With 95%
B. The same number D. Twice the Standard
compare the Central confidence, we
Deviation
Tendencies of these cannot conclude if
three samples we the samples are 484. One of the primary deliverables from performing a SIPOC is to
would use the one from three Normal begin to understand which outputs have the greatest affect on the
way ANOVA test. Distributions. customer most valued inputs.
B. If we wanted to D. With greater than A. False B. True
compare the Central 95% confidence, 485. Which of these statements is not correct with respect to roles in a
Tendencies of these we conclude the Lean Six Sigma program?
three samples we samples are from A. Both Roles are C. Roles are mutually
could use Mood’s Non-normal mutually exclusive exclusive
Median test. Distributions. and Roles are D. Roles are strictly in
477. Kanban system is a ______ driven system? strictly in line with line with the
A. Analysis C. Business the organization organization
B. Pull D. Push hierarchy hierarchy
B. Only Roles are
478. The contents of the high-level process map include: mutually exclusive
A. None of the above. C. Schedule factors,
B. Customer outputs, process 486. The Greek letter “sigma” is used by mathematicians to signify
requirements, steps, inputs, and _____________.
outputs, process suppliers. A. Standard Deviation C. Numerical Average
steps, costs, and D. Customer B. Data Spread D. Curve Width
suppliers. requirements, 487. The null hypothesis generally presumes:
outputs, process A. The need for C. No change, or the
steps, inputs, and immediate action. status quo.
suppliers. B. The need for new D. The essential
479. Which of the following is a measure of variation? process technology. leadership of the
A. The upper C. The standard Six Sigma project
specification limit deviation team.
B. The lower D. Both The upper 488. A ___________ is used primarily to track the stability of the average
specification limit specification limit value of a metric of interest.
and The lower A. Xbar-R Chart C. C Chart
specification limit B. NP Chart D. I-MR Chart

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489. A valid Multiple Linear Regression (MLR) is characterized by all of 494. Which of the following statements are goals of rational subgrouping?
these except _______________________. A. Maximize the C. Maximize the
A. The Residuals from C. The X’s (inputs) are likelihood of likelihood of
MLR analysis have assumed to be detecting common detecting special
to be Normally independent of cause variation cause variation
Distributed each other B. Identify the changes D. Reflect the variation
B. MLR is conducted D. It is an assumption in the product between sub
based on a that the X’s (inputs) groups
deliberate form of are not correlated to
495. A Belt working in a supply chain environment has to make a
experimentation each other
decision to change suppliers of critical raw materials for a new
490. A characteristic of properly executed SPC includes which of the product upgrade.
following: The purchasing manager is depending on the Belt’s effort requiring
A. Immediate response C. Plotting the that the average cost of an internal critical raw material component
to an out of control response from the be less than or equal to $2,800 in order to stay within budget.
indication process at the end
B. Creation of Out of of the day and then Using a sample of 55 first article components, a Mean of the new
Control Action Plans analyzing for out of product upgrade price of $2,240 and a Standard Deviation of $120
before using an control conditions was estimated.
SPC Chart in the and taking actions if Based on the data provided, the Z value for the data assuming a
process still out of control Normal Distribution is?
D. After a action to an A. 8.28 C. 4.67
out of control B. 2.33 D. 6.48
indication of 496. Measurement systems analysis is needed because:
violating the 3 sigma A. Different personnel C. Calibration cannot
limits, the next data making a eliminate all
point is just within measurement using measurement
the 3 sigma limits so the same equipment errors
another action was may report different D. All of the above
taken to further values
reduce the B. Inaccurate
response measurements may
491. A Belt working in a supply chain environment has to make a lead to erroneous
decision to change suppliers of critical raw materials for a new analysis
product upgrade. The purchasing manager is depending on the 497. When conducting a Hypothesis Test using Continuous Data the
Belt’s effort requiring that the average cost of an internal critical raw proper sample size is influenced only by the extent to which we
material component be less than or equal to $3,800 in order to stay need to assess a Difference to be detected but not the inherent
within budget. Using a sample of 38 first article components, a Mean variation in the process.
of the new product upgrade price of $3,680, and a Standard A. True B. False
Deviation of $120 was estimated. In order to increase the Long
Term Z value to 5, what is the maximum long term variation in 498.
pricing the Belt can accept for his upgraded critical raw material
component?
A. $48 C. $24
B. $12 D. $6
492. Failure mode A : RPN = 450, S = 9, O = 5, D = 10,
Failure mode B : RPN = 450, S = 5, O = 9, D = 10.
Which of these two modes should get higher priority?
A. Failure mode A : C. Failure mode B :
RPN = 450, S = 9, RPN = 450, S = 5,
O = 5, D = 10 O = 9, D = 10
B. None of the above D. Both Failure mode
A : RPN = 450, S =
9, O = 5, D = 10
and Failure mode B A Lean Six Sigma project is attempting to reduce inventory days.
: RPN = 450, S = 5, The Process Capability will be monitored as part of the Control
O = 9, D = 10 Phase to track the sustainability of the improvement. Which
493. Which is the correct Defects per Million Opportunities (DPMO) distribution type is best used for performing the Capability Analysis?
calculation? A. Weibull Distribution D. Logistic Distribution
A. (D/U*O)*1,000,000 B. (O/D)*1,000,000 B. Normal Distribution E. Gaussian
Where D=Defects, Where D=Defects, C. Exponential Distribution
U=Units, O=Opportunities Distribution
O=Opportunities 499. To understand the CTQ attributes of a product or service, we need
to get?
A. FMEA C. SIPOC
B. SOD D. VOC

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500. The 5S approach utilized by a Belt to separate necessary from 508.
unnecessary items and frequently used items from infrequently used
items is known as?
A. Sustaining C. Shining
B. Sorting D. Standardizing
501. Accuracy can be assessed in several ways and a fairly accurate
means of measurement is visual comparison.
A. True B. False
502. Customers make their decisions based on Features, Integrity (of the
seller) Delivery and ___________?
A. Color C. Season
B. Expense D. None
503. When a Belt decides to use written procedures and visual controls to
improve the consistency of the tasks that must occur in the process
he is improving he has utilized the _________________ activity of Review the analysis shown here. Which statements are true about
5S. the process? (Note: There are 3 correct answers).
A. Sustaining C. Standardizing A. The majority of the D. The initial focus for
B. Sorting D. Straightening process is closer to this project would
504. In a hypothetical situation, if all part to part variation, measurement the lower be to determine
variation and other extraneous causes of variation were removed specification limit. why the thicknesses
from a process, what would be left? B. The process has are so frequently
A. Product spread C. Time to time more problems with too low.
B. Nothing it would all variation Variation than E. This process is
be eliminated. D. Inherent process Centering. described with the
variation C. The process follows Weibull Distribution.
a non-normal
505. Which of the following represents the information we are trying to distribution with the
achieve by seeking input from our customers in determining what is given data.
important to them?
A. CTQ's C. Price sensitivities 509. A project team should ideally have:
B. Primary interests D. Quality features A. Six to seven team C. Both Six to seven
506. When a Belt creates a Process Map she will use a members team members and
__________________ to depict a decision point requiring a Yes or B. None of the above Representation from
No decision. all key stakeholders
A. Square C. Circle D. Representation from
B. Rectangle D. Diamond all key stakeholders
507. How do we summarize discrete data? 510. Which of the following best describe Six Sigma?
A. Counts and C. Nominal technique A. Metric, C. A measure for
proportion D. Measures of Methodology, variance
B. Center, Location locations Management D. A measure for
and Spread System standard deviation
B. A Philosophical
business system
511. You have a unit with five opportunities. If any opportunity is bad, the
whole unit is bad-binomial distribution. You want to use SPC to
monitor this unit. What control chart would you use?
A. The IMR chart C. The X-bar R chart
B. The U chart D. The P chart
512. Which is not a characteristic of a successful team?
A. Common goals C. Complacency exists
B. Mutual Respect D. Team member
diversity
513. The Japanese born function of a Kaizen event utilizes a specific,
step-by-step approach meant to bring about major changes to a
process.
Please choose the correct answer.
A. False B. True
514. Some of the core concepts of Lean is to concentrate effort on
removing waste, improving flow, and achieving ___________
A. Sales C. Inventory
B. Downtime D. Pull
515. If in an experiment all possible variable pairs sum to zero the design
is Orthogonal.
A. False B. True

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516. ________ is a continuous probability distribution which arises in the 527. In a Fishbone Diagram the 6M’s stand for Methods, Measurements,
analysis of variance or test of equality between two variances? Machine, Man, Mother Nature and ____________
A. Z Distribution C. Normal Distribution A. Merger C. Materials
B. F Distribution D. Z-test B. Medical D. Management
517. Which principle of the 5S methodology is about avoiding falling back 528. The purpose of a Pareto chart is:
to the old ways of cluttered and unorganized work environment? A. To identify ways in C. To provide a
A. Sorting C. Standardizing which a subprocess structure for finding
B. Sustaining D. Shining or product the causes of an
518. A ________ is a graphical representation of a process flow characteristic can effect.
A. Primary Metric C. Macro Map fail. D. To provide a
B. Control Chart D. Process Map B. To create a shared quantitative view
view of the process. used to identify a
519. In a MSA, what knowledge needs to be obtained focus area.
A. How big is the D. What are the
measurement sources of 529. Why is the following not a well written problem statement? During
system variability? measurement 2015 the average cycle time for a Detroit factory product named
B. Is the measurement system variability? “AK23” was too slow. The goal of this project is to reduce “Ak23”
system capable of E. Is the measurement cycle time.
making the required system stable over A. The metric target or C. There is timeline
measurement for time? goal is not identified associated with the
this project or B. There is no metric project goal
process? baseline D. The gap to goal
C. All answers are and cost of poor
correct quality is identified
520. Which of these items are not part of what is necessary for successful 530. Which hypothesis test is used to check whether the population of our
Kaizens? interest is normally distributed?
A. Good lighting C. Analysis tools A. Shapiro-Wilk test C. Anderson t- test
B. Operator support D. Management B. Jarque=Bera test D. Marck willson test
support 531. Which of these are examples of business metrics or Key
521. A natural logarithmic base is not required for which of these Performance Indicators commonly referred to as KPI’s?
distributions for probability calculations? A. No. of Units D. Cycle Time
A. Normal C. Weibull Reworked E. Defects
B. Poisson D. Binomial B. Labor Hours
C. All of these answers
522. Famous Quality Guru are correct
A. Juran C. Ushunia
B. Gert Scheeder D. Ichinowa 532. A concept that addresses the consistency of process workers is
called ________?
523. What are Discrete Data? A. Visual Factory C. Supervising
A. Height C. Yes/No/Sometimes B. Standard Operating D. Performance
B. Neutral D. Weight Procedures Drivers
524. Which of these statements is true with respect to a X-bar R chart?
533. Which of the following approaches is used to determine differences
A. It is independent of C. An X bar chart between population sets?
when and where measures the
A. Hypothesis test C. Screening design of
the samples are average of the sub-
B. Process capability experiments
picked up from in groups
analysis D. Optimization design
the process D. The two charts of experiments
B. A R chart measures measure one and
the range between the same thing, 534. In a Variable Gage R&R, the acceptable % contribution of variation
the sub-groups though in a different attributable to Repeatability and Reproducibility should be less than
way _____%
A. 30 C. 10
525. When it comes to Control, one of the most effective means of
B. 1 D. 90
eliminating defects is to…
A. Design defect C. Train personnel 535. Measurement __________ is defined as the difference between the
prevention into the often and observed and the expected values for a given set of data.
product or process thoroughly A. Breadth C. Range
B. Keep a Six Sigma D. Have each process B. Linearity D. Bias
project going on the consist of no more 536. When variation is removed from the output of a process then the
process at all times than five steps process customer can have more confidence in the experience that
526. What is the best way to establish if you have accomplished a Six results from the process.
Sigma design? A. True B. False
A. FMEA D. QFD
B. Y = f(x) E. Project goal
C. HO>0.05 F. CTQ

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537. The relationship between a response variable and one or more 547. A quality control function was introduced to catch defects before
independent variables is investigated and modeled by use of shipment to the customer. The cost of this quality control function is
__________________. an example of:
A. Analysis of Variance C. Critical X's Definition A. Cost related to C. Cost related to
(ANOVA) D. Baldridge prevention production
B. X-Y Matrix Assessment B. Cost related to D. Cost related to
538. Appropriate measures means that measurements are obligation detection
______________. 548. The _______ is the most frequently occurring value in a distribution
A. Relevant D. All of these answers of data.
B. Contextual are correct A. Median C. Mean
C. Representative E. Sufficient B. Center Point D. Mode
539. 549. 5S Sorting: Items used weekly should be kept _______?
A. In a remote location C. In a storage area
B. In a local location D. Within arm's reach
550. SPC is used to identify the ____ cause variation?
A. Normal C. Actual
B. Special D. Common
551.

Data sets A and B in Figure show high levels of correlation.


A. False B. True
540. When a Belt implements an improvement that is automated thus
requiring no particular understanding for use he has applied which
Lean tool?
A. None C. Mistake Proofing
B. Kaizen Event D. 5S The graphic below depicts a situation where the measurements are:
541. Which tool has as its objective as the identification of various potential A. Precise C. Accurate and
causes or factors influencing a process output? B. Accurate Precise
A. Pareto Chart C. Fishbone Diagram D. Neither Accurate or
B. Impact Study D. FMEA Precise
542. Kaizens or Kaikakus and Six Sigma projects are intended to create 552. The purpose of a failure modes and effects analysis (FMEA) is:
incremental process improvements versus breakthrough, significant A. To create a shared C. To relate the
improvements. view of the process. customer CTQs to
A. True B. False B. To identify ways in measurable
543. What is an X measure? which a subprocess subprocesses or
A. Process C. Output Measure or product product
Performance D. Input Measure characteristic can characteristics
Measure fail. D. To provide a
B. Quality Measure quantitative view
used to identify a
544. The _____________ Distribution would be the most desirable for
focus area.
modeling the number of stitch defects in a portion of fabric.
A. Exponential C. Poisson 553. What is the problem solving model based on?
B. Extended D. Weibull A. Originally LEAN C. Theory from 1798
545. Statistical Difference is the magnitude of difference or change (TPC) D. Scientific Methods
required to distinguish between a true difference, brought about by B. Statistics
change or improvement, and one that could have occurred by 554. How might you display central location on a nominal scale?
chance. A. None of These C. Mean
A. True B. False B. Median D. Mode
546. Variation in measurements made by different appraisers using the 555. Select all that are components of a control plan?
same measuring instrument when measuring identical objects is A. Key Metrics D. Work Breakdown
referred to as? B. Measurements Structure
A. Repeatability C. Linearity C. Mitigation Actions E. Data Limitations
B. Bias D. Reproducibility
556. What test is used with an attribute Y and 3 X’s?
A. 2 sample T-test D. 1 sample T-test
B. ANOVA E. Chi-Square
C. 2 Proportion F. F-test or Levene

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557. Two variables have a correlation coefficient of 0.75. Which of these 565. Which of the following are ways in which you might deal with
statements is true in this regard? multicollinearity?
A. The slope of the line D. The variables are A. Remove the C. Increase the sample
of the equation that highly correlated variable with low size
represents the E. Only The slope of multicollinearity and D. Remove the
correlation is 0.75 the line of the high p-value variable with high
B. One of the variables equation that B. Decrease the mulitcollinearity and
is the cause of the represents the sample size high p-value
other variable correlation is 0.75
566. Which of the following are ways in which you might deal with
C. All of the above and The variables
multicollinearity?
are highly
A. Remove the C. Increase the sample
correlated
variable with low size
558. If a project yields monthly savings of $4,000 beginning 4 months multicollinearity and D. Remove the
after implementation, training costs are $2,000 and the improvement high p-value variable with high
requires an initial investment of $42,000, what is the payback period B. Decrease the mulitcollinearity and
in months, before money costs and taxes? sample size high p-value
A. 11 D. 10.5 567. An operator is measuring the distance between two points. Which is
B. 8 E. 14.5 most likely to be influenced by the operator?
C. 15 A. Calibration of the C. Accuracy of the
559. Which is not indicative of statistical inference? instrument measurement
A. Using C. Using sampling B. All of these answers D. Precision of the
representative analysis to make are correct measurement
sampling to draw population
conclusions about predictions 568.
an entire population D. Estimating
B. Estimating population
population parameters using
parameters the inverted w
sampling method
560. For a process having an average throughput of 7,200 units per
hour, what is the average Cycle Time per unit in seconds?
A. 0.32 D. 2
B. 0.42 E. 0.34
C. 0.5
561. If extreme outliers exist in a dataset, this would warrant the use of
__________ to illustrate the center location.
A. Mean and Mode C. Mode
B. Mean D. Median
562. The equation Y=f(X) is at the core of Six Sigma methodology. Which
of these statements is not correct?
A. Y is an independent C. Y is a dependent
variable and X is a variable and X is an
dependent variable independent
B. Y should be variable
controlled and X D. Both Y is an
should be monitored independent
variable and X is a From the variance F-test shown above, which of these conclusions
dependent variable is/are valid?
and Y should be A. There are not D. The variance
controlled and X enough data points between the class
should be to make any score distribution is
monitored statistical not significantly
conclusions different
563. A ___________ problem in the Measurement System suggests that B. This test applies E. This test applies
there is a lack of consistency in the measurement over time. only to Normal only to Non-normal
A. Magnitude C. Linearity Distributed data at Data at 99 %
B. Bias D. Stability 99 % confidence confidence
564. Production Line 1 is able to complete 500 units per shift. Production C. The variance
Line 2 is able to finish 1,500 units per shift. Production Line 2 is 3 between the class
times faster than Production Line 1. This analysis is an example of score distribution is
______________ Scale Data. significantly different
A. Ordinal C. Interval
B. Nominal D. Ratio

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569. All of the following are benefits of control plans except?
A. Plans actions to D. Measures process
mitigate possible performance,
out-of-control stability and
conditions capability
B. Coordinates E. Helps to analyze
ongoing team and and eliminate
individual potential x's
involvement F. Standardizes
C. Ensures compliance processes and work
with changes procedures
through auditing
and corrective
actions

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