BASTY

TECHNICAL and CRAFTSMAN

EXAM BOOK

Jhester Sebastian
jhester
BASTY
 TECH 1
11. Which of the following material has nearly zero
1. The meter which measure voltage is known as temperature coefficient of resistance
a. Avometer a. Silver
b. Voltmeter b. Aluminum
c. Ampere-meter c. Manganin
d. Multimeter d. Copper

2. The meter used for measuring power of the circuit is 12. The practical unit of measuring capacity of a condenser is
called a. Ergs
a. KWh meter b. Joules
b. Wattmeter c. Coulombs
c. Multimeter d. Farad
d. Ammeter
13.Two heaters of rating 1 kw, 250 V are connected in series
3. The meter used for measuring potential difference of a across 250 V supply, the power taken by the heaters will
circuit is called be
a. Voltmeter a. 2 kw
b. Ammeter b. ½ kw
c. Energy meter c. ¼ kw
d. Ohmmeter d. 1 kw

4. Electric battery is device that 14. Three resistances of values 8Ω, 12Ω, and 24Ω are
a. Generate energy by chemical action connected in parallel across 12V, the total resistance of the
b. Converts mechanical energy into electrical energy circuit will be
c. Converts heat energy into electrical energy a. ¼ Ω
d. Converts sound energy into electrical energy b. 44 Ω
c. 4 Ω
5. The unit of m.m.f. is d. 24 Ω
a. Volts
b. Ergs 15. The supply required to charge a lead acid is
c. Amp.turns a. AC
d. Coulombs b. DC
c. Pulsating DC
6. Energy consumed by heater of rating 1000W by d. Either AC or DC
operating it for a period of 2 hours will be
a. 1 kw-hr 16. In a parallel resonant circuit at resonant frequency, the
b. 2.5 kw-hr line current is
c. 2 kw-hr a. Max
d. 4 kw-hr b. Min
c. Zero
7. With the reduction of frequency, the inductive reactance d. None of the above
of the circuit will
a. Decreases 17. Two alternating quantities are added
b. Increases a. Arithmetically
c. Remains the same b. Graphically
d. None of the same c. Vectorially
d. Geometrically
8. The unit of inductance is
a. Ohm 18. A 100 V is applied to a circuit resistance of 10 Ω, the
b. Mho power dissipated by the resistance will be
c. Farad a. 100 w
d. Henry b. 1000 watts
c. 500 watts
9. The force tending to move the electricity is called d. 1500 w
a. Potential difference
b. Current 19. If the frequency of the pure inductive circuit is half, the
c. Resistance current of the circuit will be
d. E.m.f. a. Same
b. Doubled
10. The meter which measure current is known as c. Halved
a. Voltmeter d. Four times
b. Ohm-meter
c. Avometer
d. Ammeter
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20. The color of positive (+) plate of a battery after charging d. Iron
of will be 30. The e.m.f. of a dry cell is
a. Black a. 1.08 V
b. Chocolate b. 2.0 V
c. Grayish c. 1.2 V
d. Yellowish d. 1.5 V

21. When a high resistance is connected in parallel with a 31. With the increase of frequency, the capacitive reactance
low resistance, the combined resistance is of the circuit
a. Higher than low resistance a. Decreases
b. Lower than the higher resistance b. Increases
c. Between the value of high and low resistance c. Remains the same
d. Less than the lower resistance d. None of the above

22. Which of the following material is used for making 32. Two condenser of capacity 32microFarad each are
permanent magnet? connected in parallel with a third condenser of same
a. Brass capacity in series, the total capacity will be
b. Steel a. 32microFarad
c. Soft iron b. 64microFarad
d. Copper c. 96microFarad
d. 48microFarad
23.The power factor of a R-L-C circuit which XL>XC is
a. Lagging 33. The specific gravity of the electrolyte is measured by
b. Leading a. Hydrometer
c. Zero b. Barometer
d. Unity c. Lactometer
d. Cell tester
24. When the switch of an electro-magnetic circuits is
switch off, the sparking at the switch contacts will occur, 34. The watt-hour efficiency is always
because the circuit has high a. More than ampere-hour efficiency
a. Capacitance b. equal to ampere-hour efficiency
b. Resistance c. less than ampere-hour efficiency
c. Inductance d. none of these
d. Reluctance
35. With the increase in cross-sectional area of the
25. Active elements in a lead acid battery is conductor, the value of resistance
a. Sulfuric acid a. Increases
b. Caustic potash b. Decreases
c. Manganese dioxide c. Remains the same
d. Nitric acid d. Become zero

26. During discharge of a battery 36. In an AC inductive circuit, condenser is used

a. The voltage of cell decreases a. For decreasing the power factor
b. The voltage of cell increases b. For improving the power factor
c. Voltage does not change c. For keeping the power factor constant
d. No effect of battery d. For decreasing the current in the circuit

27. Which cell is known as storage cell? 37. The color of plates of a battery after discharging will be
a. Primary cell a. Black
b. Dry cell b. Chocolate
c. Secondary cell c. Grayish
d. Laclanche cell d. Yellowish

28. Nichrome wire is commonly used for 38. The meter which measure resistance is known as
a. Heating element a. Ohm
b. Filament lamps b. Ampere
c. Fluorescent tube c. Volt
d. Motor winding d. Ohm-meter

29. Which of the following material posses the least specific 39. Electrolyte used in Lead-acid battery is
resistance a. Increases
a. Copper b. Decreases
b. Aluminum c. Remains the same
c. Silver d. Fluctuate

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40. The capacity of a battery is expressed in 49. Power taken by a resistance of 20Ω with a flow of 10
a. Ampere-hour amp current is
b. Ampere-volt a. 1 kW
c. Percentage b. 1.5 kW
d. Volts c. 2.5 kW
d. 2kW
41.What will be the capacity of four capacitors of equal
capacity when connected in series 50. Power factor of a pure capacitive circuit is
a. 4C a. Zero
b. C/4 b. Lagging
c. C c. Leading
d. 3/4C d. Unity

42. Paper condenser is a type of 51. Specific resistance of a conductor depends upon
a. Variable condenser a. Composition of the conductor
b. Electrolytic condenser b. Length of the conductor
c. Fixed condenser c. Area of cross-section of the conductor
d. None of these d. Resistance of the conductor

43. Three resistance of values 8Ω, 12Ω, and 24Ω are 52. Which of the following is a primary cell?
connected in parallel across 100 V supply, the value of a. Lead acid cell
potential difference across each resistance will be b. Alkaline cell
a. Different c. Daniel cell
b. Same d. Laclanche cell
c. Less than 100 V
d. More than 100 V 53.Average e.m.f. per cell of lead acid cell is
a. 1.08 V
44. In pure inductive circuit, the current will b. 2.2 V
a. Lag by 90 c. 1.2 V
b. Lead by 90 d. 1.5 V
c. Remains in phase
d. Makes some angle with the voltage 54. With the increase of temperature, the resistance of
carbon
45. A current is said to be alternating when a. Increases
a. Magnitude of current changes with time b. Becomes zero
b. Magnitude and direction of current changes with time c. Remains constant
c. Magnitude of current remains constant through out d. Decreases
the period
d. The direction of current changes with time 55. The meter used for measuring electrical energy is called
a. KWh meter
46. Megger is a combination of b. Wattmeter
a. Motor and generator c. Multimeter
b. Generator and ammeter d. Ammeter
c. Generator and voltmeter
d. Generator and ohm meter 56. Two lamps of rating 60 W, 100 V and 100 W, 100 V are
connected in series across 200 V supply. The current
47. A man holds both the terminals of a 500 V megger, but drawn by both the lamps will be
still safe due to a. Different
a. High voltage b. Same
b. Very low current c. High current by 100 W lamp
c. High resistance of the body d. High current by 60 W lamp
d. Low resistance of the body
57. Active elements of Alkaline battery are
48. Four heaters of rating 1 kw, 250 V each are available. a. Lead peroxide and sponge lead
How you will connect them for maximum heat? b. Nickel hydrate and iron oxide
a. All in series c. Manganese oxide and carbon
b. With two parallel pairs in series d. Lithium oxide and carbon
c. All in parallel
d. One pair in parallel with other two in series 58. Two resistances of 4Ω and 6Ω are connected in parallel
across 12V supply, the total resistance of the circuit will
be
a. 10 Ω
b. 2.4 Ω

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 c. 4.2Ω d. Steel core with current passing around it
d. 5/12Ω
59.With the increase in temperature, the resistance of copper
a. Decreases 69. Which of the following material has the lowest
b. Increases resistivity
c. Becomes zero a. Copper
d. Remains constant b. Iron
c. Aluminum
60. Which of the megger is better for testing installation d. Steel
a. Battery operated
b. Generator operated 70. A current of 5A flow through a conductor against a
c. Integrated circuit operated potential difference of 200V. The power dissipated will be
d. Motor operated a. 1000 W
b. 1.1 W
61. In a single phase AC motor, condenser is used c. 2000 W
a. For splitting the phase d. 100 W
b. Minimizing the radio interference
c. Minimizing the losses 71. On testing an electric iron on megger, the reading of the
d. Minimizing the current megger in infinity. This indicates
a. Short circuit of the heating element
62. The ratio of voltage and current in a closed circuit b. Short circuit of the supply terminal
remains c. Loose terminal connections
a. Varies d. Open circuit of the heating element
b. Increases
c. Constant 72. With the increase in length of conductor, the value of
d. Decreases resistance
a. Decreases
63. The color of negative(-) plate of a battery after charging b. Increases
will be c. Remains the same
a. Black d. Becomes zero
b. Chocolate
c. Grey 73. Three resistance of 6Ω each are connected in parallel
d. Yellowish across 6 V supply, the total resistance of the circuit will be
a. 18Ω
64. In a pure capacitive circuit, the voltage will b. 12Ω
a. Lag by 90 c. 6Ω
b. Lead by 90 d. 2Ω
c. Remains in phase
d. Makes some angle with the voltage 74. With the rise of temperature, the temperature coefficient
of resistance
65. Mica or ceramic condenser is a type of a. Increases
a. Variable condenser b. Remains constant
b. Electrolytic condenser c. Becomes zero
c. Fixed condenser d. Decreases
d. None of these
75. The power factor of a purely inductive circuit is
66. Megger is used for measuring a. Zero
a. Low resistance b. Lagging
b. High resistance c. Leading
c. Medium resistance d. Unity
d. Very low resistance
76. The unit measuring resistance is
67. Three resistance of 1Ω, 2Ω, and 3Ω respectively are a. Ohm
connected in series across a battery of 6 volts, the total b. Ampere
resistance of the circuit will be c. Volt
a. 8Ω d. Milli-volt
b. 6Ω
c. 4Ω 77. Electro-motive force(emf) can produces by
d. 2Ω a. Chemical action
b. Electro-magnetic action
68. The electromagnet is made of c. Heating thermo junction
a. Soft iron core d. Magnetic action
b. Soft iron core with current passing around it
c. Steel core

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78. The meter used for measuring current of an electrical 88. Which of the following material has a negative
circuit is called temperature coefficient
a. Voltmeter a. Aluminum
b. Ammeter b. Iron
c. Potentiometer c. Carbon
d. Multimeter d. Nichrome

79. The power factor of a purely resistive circuit is 89. The capacity of a battery depends upon
a. Zero a. Rate of discharge
b. Lagging b. It is current dependent
c. Leading c. Ampere-hour
d. Unity d. Temperature

80. For transmission lines, voltage is measured in 90. The rate of movement of charge through any conductor
a. Volts is known as
b. Kilo-volts a. Voltage
c. Micro-volts b. Current
d. Milli-volts c. Resistance
d. e.m.f.
81. Which efficiency of the battery is more?
a. Watt-hour efficiency 91.what will be the capacity of four capacitors of equal
b. Ampere-hour efficiency capacity when connected in parallel
c. Overall efficiency a. 4C
d. None of these b. 3/4C
c. C/4
82. The condition of the battery can be determined by d. C
a. Voltmeter
b. Ammeter 92. Megger can be used for testing
c. High rate discharger ohmmeter a. Open circuit
b. Open and short circuit both
83. If there is an angle between two alternating quantities, c. Short circuit
the two alternating quantities are said to be d. High resistance circuit only
a. In phase
b. Out of phase 93. In a primary battery
c. Leading a. Chemical action is reversible
d. Lagging b. Chemical action is irreversible
c. No chemical action take place
84. The meter constant of a single phase Energy meter d. Chemical action take place
installed in a house is 4800 rev/KWh, if 5 lamps of 100W
each are connected in the circuit. The number of rev/min 94. A 2-pole alternator runs at 3000 rpm, it will generate
will be Frequency
a. 40 a. 50Hz
b. 80 b. 100Hz
c. 120 c. 1500Hz
d. 160 d. 3000Hz

85.Which of the following insulator is most affected by heat 95. The method of charging lead acid cell(commercially)is
a. P.V.C a. Constant current method V
b. Mica b. Constant voltage method
c. Paper c. Constant resistance method
d. Leatheriod d. None of these

86. The unit of electrical energy is 96. For testing the earth fault on an Electric Kettle, the
a. Watt megger in infinity. This indicates
b. Kilowatt-hour a. Open circuit
c. Kilowatt b. Live terminal touching with the body
d. Joule c. Neutral terminal touching with the body
d. Anyone of the terminal touching with the body
87. The electrolyte used in Edison cell is
a. Sulfuric acid 97. In a secondary battery
b. Nitric acid a. Chemical action is reversible
c. Potassium hydroxide b. Chemical action is irreversible
d. Nickel hydrate
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c. No chemical action take place 62. C
d. Chemical action take place 63. C
64. B
TECH 1 ANSWER 65. C
1. B 66. B
2. B 67. B
3. A 68. B
4. A 69. A
5. A 70. A
6. C 71. D
7. A 72. B
8. D 73. D
9. D 74. A
10. D 75. B
11. C 76. A
12. C 77. B
13. B 78. B
14. C 79. D
15. B 80. B
16. B 81. B
17. C 82. C
18. B 83. B
19. B 84. A
20. B 85. A
21. D 86. B
22. B 87. C
23. A 88. C
24. C 89. A
25. A 90. B
26. A 91. A
27. C 92. B
28. A 93. B
29. C 94. A
30. D 95. B
31. A 96. A
32. D 97. B
33. A
34. C
35. B
36. B
37. C
38. D
39. B
40. A
41. B
42. C
43. B
44. A
45. B
46. D
47. B
48. C
49. D
50. C
51. A
52. C
53. B
54. D
55. A
56. B
57. B
58. B
59. B
60. B
61. A
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 TECH 2
10. What type of windings are placed on reciprocation-
1. Which of the following parts of an AC motor driven generators to dampen speed fluctuations
corresponds to the armature of a DC motor a. Compound
a. The field coils b. Amortisseur
b. The stator c. Shunt
c. The rotor d. Not necessary due to flywheel
d. The armature
11. Which of the following would cause one bar of a
2. When would you ground an electric hand tool commutator to blacken
a. When it is a DC machine a. A grounded coil
b. When it is an AC machine b. A shorted coil
c. Any machine that operates on over 100 volts c. An open coil
d. Only when working on wet steel plates d. Any of the above

3. Which of the following insulator is most affected by heat 12. Static electricity is produced by
a. P.V.C. a. Chemical reaction
b. Mica b. Friction
c. Paper c. Induction
d. Leatheriod d. Both friction and induction

4. It is placed so as to cut the section of the circuit which is 13. Where conductors must be maintained while energized
enlarged, allowing the rest of the circuit to remain and cannot be touched by hands, they are handled on the
energized. ends of the stick called
a. Fuse link a. .insulated sticks
b. Fuse remover b. Hot sticks
c. Fuse cut-out c. Covered sticks
d. Fuse separator d. Rubberized sticks

5. Which of the following is the distinguishing feature of a 14. The function of the depolarizer in a carbon-zinc cell is
shunt motor that
a. It has a high starting torque a. It converts the produced hydrogen into water
b. A load will not affect it if running at high speed b. It prevents the fast chemical action on the zinc
c. It has a stable speed through a wide load range container
d. It will not drop in speed if overloaded c. It synthesizes the decomposed electrolyte
d. Its absorbs the oxygen produced in the cell
6. A high mica between commutator bars is removed by
a. Removing 15. On pin insulators, the conductors are usually tied to the
b. Burning tap or side groove of the insulator by means of a piece of
c. Undercutting wire called a
d. Chiseling a. Messenger
b. Loop wire
7. The purpose of staggering brushes is to c. Pin wire
a. Even out the load d. Tie wire
b. Prevent the uneven wear on the commutator
c. Reduce chattering 16. In case of loose fittings of the capacitor plates, its series
d. Cover more area on the commutator for more power equivalent resistance will
a. Increase
8. Which of the following is not a good conductor of b. Decrease
electricity c. Tremendously high
a. Copper d. Tremendously low
b. Mica
c. Silver 17. Before taking an AC generator off the board that is
d. Aluminum operating in parallel with others, you should
a. Reduce the voltage
9. Which of the following acts as a depolarizer in a dry b. Reduce field excitation
cell? c. Reduce steam input with governor mechanism
a. Carbon powder d. Close in on the throttle
b. Manganese dioxide
c. Ammonium chloride 18. A “universal” motor must be a
d. Zinc chloride a. Series-wound motor
b. Shunt-wound motor
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 c. Compound-wound motor d. Switchyard
d. A or C

19. The advantage of DC motors over AC motors is the fact 28. In parallel plate capacitor, a dielectric slab is introduced,
that they the potential difference between plates will
a. Require less maintenance a. Decrease
b. Offer a better means of controlling speed b. Remain the same
c. Are less expensive c. Increase
d. Can be started across the line d. Becomes zero

20.Damp armature windings will cause 29. Grooves around the circumference of a commutator
a. Reduced voltage indicate
b. Reduced current a. Improper brushes
c. Overheating b. High mica
d. Increased resistance c. Improper brush staggering
d. Open armature circuit
21. A type of clamp used that would hold under all ordinary
conditions but would slip at something like one half the 30. Sparking and grooving of commutator may be caused by
maximum conductor tension in case of a break. a. Overload
a. Suspension clamp b. Incorrect
b. Sliding clamp c. Wrong type of brushes
c. Trunnium type clamp d. Any of the above
d. Releasing clamp
31. A type of clamp designed to give an almost completely
22. Which of the following parts of an AC motor flexible connection by supporting the clamp on a pivot,
corresponds to the field of a DC motor approximately on the axis of the conductor, thus any
a. The stator vibration on the conductor tends to be transmitted through
b. The field coils the clamp.
c. The rotor a. Dead end
d. The armature b. Slip
c. Trunnion
23. What instrument is used to measure the contact d. Releasing
resistance of circuit breakers?
a. Multimeter 32. Which of the following material has a negative
b. Breaker meter temperature co-efficient
c. Ohmmeter a. Aluminum
d. Ducter b. Iron
c. Carbon
24. Paper condenser is a type of d. Nichrome
a. Variable condenser
b. Electrolytic condenser 33. Which of the following will cause generator brushes to
c. Fixed condenser burn
d. None of these a. Brushes not in neutral plane
b. Generator overloaded
25. The SELSYN motor derives its name from c. Weak brush springs
a. The inventor’s name d. All of the above
b. A trade brand name
c. The abbreviation of self-synchronous 34. The capacitor, commonly used for ceiling fan motors has
d. None of these above a value of 2.3 microfarad. The type of capacitor used is
generally
26. If the field control rheostat on a DC generator is a. Paper condenser
considerably off its normal setting, the most likely would b. Electrolytic capacitor
be c. Parallel plate with mica dielectric
a. Prime mover not at right speed d. None of these
b. Voltage too high
c. Overload 35. Protection against reversal of power and overload can be
d. Open field coil obtain at the same time by the use of
a. Distance relay
27. What do you call the complete insulated, compact, b. Directional overcurrent relay
switching equipment c. Differential relay
a. Switchboard d. Phase unbalance relay
b. Panel board
c. Switchgear

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 45. When operating alternators in parallel and the load is
36. What kind of transformer used and is part of kw-hr unequal, the correct procedure is to
meters to make sure that the voltage and current are in a. Change the frequency
quadrature? b. Change speed of prime mover
a. Quadrature transformer c. Decrease field excitation
b. Reactive transformer d. Increase field excitation
c. Current transformer
d. Phase shifting transformer 46. When resistance is increased in a shunt motor field, the
speed
37. It is the process of shaving or cutting a pole to receive a. Decreases
the cross arms. It consists of cutting a slightly concaved b. Remains the same
recess ½ inch in depth so that the arm cannot rock. c. Increases
a. Pole shaving d. None of the above
b. Gaining
c. Roofing 47. The safest solvent to use for cleaning electric motor is
d. Slabbing a. Carbon tetrachloride
b. Diluted muriatic acid
38. A synchronous motor is excited with c. Carbon dioxide
a. A synchronizer d. Trichloride ethylene
b. AC current
c. DC current 48. In AC inductive circuit, condenser is used
d. 3-phase current a. For decreasing the power factor
b. For improving the power factor
39. An insulating lining for the hole in the transformer tanks c. For keeping the power factor constant
through which the conductor must pass d. None of these
a. Bushing
b. Shoe 49. Most generators will withstand an overload of
c. Busway a. 30%
d. Raceway b. 25%
c. 50%
40. If a motor caught on fire, the first thing to do is d. 35%
a. Use a CO2 extinguisher on it
b. Use a dry chemical extinguisher it 50. Which of the following would cause sparking at the
c. Secure the motor brushes
d. Slow down the motor until it cool off a. High mica
b. Dirty commutator
41. Interpoles(commutating) are connected in compound DC c. Grooved commutator
generators in d. Any of the above
a. Series with the series field
b. Series with the armature 51. One type of distribution transformer is CSP transformer,
c. Series with the shunt field CSP means
d. Series with the series and shunt fields a. Conventional-self-protected
b. Controlled-self-protected
42. The specific resistance of mica is c. Completely-self-protected
a. Very high d. Constrained-self-protected
b. Zero
c. Very low 52. Motor leads are insulated by
d. Low a. Using heat-resistance enamel
b. Using heat-resistance varnish
43. If it becomes necessary to operate a motor at a slight c. Using heat-resistance white lead
overload for a short period of time, you should d. Using heat-resistance red lead
a. Install larger fuses
b. Check bearing and motor temperatures frequently 53. Which of the following is not a type of transformer
c. Call the chief engineer bushing?
d. Jump the over-load relay a. Inductor type bushing
b. Solid porcelain bushing
44. Which of the following would cause a generator to fail c. Oil filled bushing
to build up d. Capacitor type bushing
a. Field connections reversed
b. Speed too low 54. With the increase in cross sectional area of conductor,
c. Machine short-circuited the value of resistance
d. Any of the above a. Decreases
b. Increases
c. Remains the same
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 d. None of these
55. Which of the following is not a type of armature 64. Which of the following types of capacitor care should be
winding? taken about the correct polarity while connecting it in a
a. Lap circuit
b. Ring a. Paper capacitor
c. Wave b. Mica capacitor
d. Progressive c. Ceramic capacitor
d. Electrolytic capacitor
56. Which of the following material has the lowest
resistivity 65.Which of the following material possesses the least
a. Copper specific resistance
b. Aluminum a. Copper
c. Iron b. Silver
d. Lead c. Aluminum
d. Iron
57. The advantage of the iron-nickel battery over the lead
acid battery is that 66. With the increase in length of conductor, the value of
a. The cell voltage of the iron nickel battery is higher resistance
b. It has a much higher efficiency a. Decreases
c. It needs less maintenance b. Increases
d. It is much cheaper c. Remains the same
d. None of these
58. While charging accumulators, one should
a. Connect and disconnect them with the supply on 67. The kind of ammeter can monitor current without the
b. Keep in a well-ventilated space need of breaking the circuit for connection purposes.
c. Check the acid level with a lighted match a. Wireless ammeter
d. Short the cells to see if they are fully charged b. Dynamometer
c. Clamp ammeter
59. Advantage of DC motors over AC motors is that they d. Hook-out ammeter
a. Have higher allowable speeds
b. Can lift heavier loads 68. A universal series motor can be operated on
c. Have better speed control over a wide range a. DC only
d. Have a longer life b. AC 3-phase current only
c. AC or DC
60. Which of the following will not cause a hot motor d. AC current only
bearing
a. insufficient lubrication 69. If the polarity of a DC line is reverses, the connecting
b. loose brushes motors will
c. overload a. Stop
d. all of the above b. Increase in speed
c. Be reversed
61. new brushes are lifted by d. Rotate in the same direction
a. Drawing sandpaper between the brush and
commutator 70. An open armature coil can be detected by
b. Drawing crocus cloth between brush and commutator a. An increase in motor speed
c. Drawing emery cloth between brush and commutator b. A decrease in motor speed
d. Using a half round file to shape them c. Sparking at the brushes
d. A ring of fire running around the commutator
62. Armature coils are laminated to
a. Increase the lines of force 71. With the increase in temperature, the insulating property
b. Increase the magnetism of insulator
c. Cut down on losses by eddy currents a. Weakens
d. Decrease heat losses b. Gains
c. Remains the same
63. What instrument is used to evaluate the insulation d. None of these
condition for high voltage system?
a. Megger 72. On suspension type insulators, conductors are usually
b. Hi-pot tester held in place by a clamp or ____.
c. Ohmmeter a. Dip
d. Ducter b. Bracket
c. Shoe
d. Tie wire

11
73. With the increase in temperature, the value of resistance 83.In a fluorescent tube, condenser is used
of copper a. For splitting the phase
a. Decreases b. To minimize the time taken to emit light
b. Increases c. To minimize the radio interference
c. Remains the same d. To reduce the circuit current
d. None of these
84. To test a generator’s overspeed trip you would
74. Series motor drive their load through a. Put under load and let it trip itself out
a. Chain drives b. Do not touch it except in emergency
b. Belt drives c. Bring up to full load, allow to trip out, then reset
c. Pulley drives d. Bring up speed slowly, trip out. Reset while running
d. Direct couplings
85. The density of the acid in a lead acid battery gives an
75. Interpoles are connected in indication of
a. Series with the armature a. Eventual damages caused to the plates
b. Parallel with the armature b. The level of the acid
c. Parallel with the series field c. The emf of the battery
d. Series with the shunt field d. The charge of the battery

76. A generator interpole always has the same polarity as the 86. The choice of type of supports for overhead construction
a. Pole following it of transmission lines depends on the following, except
b. Pole preceding it a. Terrain to be crossed
c. Opposite main pole b. Size of conductors
d. None of the above c. Economy and atmospheric elements
d. Equipment to be carried
77. The counter EMF of a motor is zero when the
a. Motor is rated speed 87. The practical unit of measuring capacity of a condenser
b. Motor is almost up to rated speed is
c. Armature is not turning a. Ergs
d. Armature just begins to turn b. Joules
c. Coulombs
78. What is the unit of charge d. Farad
a. Volt-ampere (VA)
b. Farad(F) 88. Which of the following material has nearly zero
c. Henry(H) temperature co-efficient of resistance
d. Coulomb(c) a. Silver
b. Aluminum
79. Which of the following will not cause a generator to c. Manganin
vibrate? d. Copper
a. Misalignment
b. Loose bolts 89. In a single AC motor, condenser is used
c. Loose pigtails a. For splitting the phase
d. Faulty speed governor b. Minimizing the radio interference
c. Minimizing the losses
80. Which of the following would cause a hot bearing d. Minimizing the current
a. Poor alignment
b. Overload 90. The unit of resistance is
c. Bearings too tight a. Ohm
d. All of the above b. Volt
c. Ampere
81. Specific resistance of a conductor depends upon d. Watt
a. Composition of conductor
b. Length of conductor 91. DC shunt motor speed is increased by
c. Cross sectional area of conductor a. Shifting brushes
d. Resistance of conductor b. Cutting-out rheostat resistance in shunt field
c. Cutting-in rheostat resistance in shunt field
82. The direction of rotation of a split-phase induction motor d. None of the above
can be reversed by
a. Reversing the starting winding leads 92. A bank of condenser across the load of the factory is
b. Reversing the main winding leads used
c. Reversing the leads of one phase a. For improving the power factor
d. Reversing any two leads b. For reducing the power factor
c. For improving the fluctuations
d. For quick starting of the motors
12
93.Which precaution is to be dept in mind to avoid accidents
during battery charging?
a. Explosive oxy-hydrogen gas is formed in case of
overcharging
b. During charging, poisonous chlorine gas is formed
c. Anesthetic nitrous oxides are formed during
overcharging
d. Due to heating up, the acid boils and can spill out of
the battery

94. An “exciting current” is one that is required to

a. Build up a dead circuit
b. Create a magnetic field
c. Excite a synchronous motor
d. Build up the voltage in a battery

95. Synchronous converters are used to

a. Change AC to DC
b. Change DC to AC
c. Change synchronous to induction
d. Change induction to synchronous

96. With the rise of temperature, the temperature co-efficient

of resistance
a. Increases
b. Remains constant
c. Becomes zero
d. Decreases

97. A commutator is made of

a. Copper bars
b. Bronze bars
c. Nickel bars
d. Steel bars

98. Mica or ceramic condenser is a type of

a. Fixed condenser
b. Variable condenser
c. Electrolytic condenser
d. None of these

99. With the increase in temperature, the value of resistance

of carbon
a. Decreases
b. Increases
c. Remains the same
d. None of these

13
 63. B
64. D
TECH 2 ANSWER: 65. B
1. B 66. B
2. C 67. C
3. A 68. C
4. C 69. D
5. C 70. D
6. C 71. A
7. B 72. C
8. B 73. B
9. B 74. D
10. B 75. A
11. A 76. B
12. B 77. C
13. B 78. D
14. A 79. C
15. D 80. D
16. A 81. A
17. C 82. A
18. A 83. C
19. B 84. D
20. C 85. D
21. C 86. C
22. C 87. D
23. D 88. C
24. C 89. A
25. C 90. A
26. A 91. C
27. C 92. A
28. A 93. A
29. C 94. B
30. D 95. A
31. C 96. D
32. C 97. A
33. D 98. A
34. A 99. A
35. B
36. D
37. B
38. C
39. A
40. C
41. B
42. C
43. B
44. D
45. B
46. C
47. D
48. B
49. B
50. D
51. C
52. B
53. A
54. A
55. D
56. A
57. B
58. B
59. C
60. B
61. A
62. C
14
TECH 3
1. A DC motor can be easily identify by 10. Imbalance in shaft of the induction motor occurs due to
a. Winding a. Overheating of the winding
b. Commutator b. Air gap is not uniform
c. Size of conductor c. Slip rings
d. Yoke d. Rugged construction

2. Which of the following methods of speed control is not 11. In an overloaded motor main danger arise due to
affected through stator side a. Winding getting overheated
a. Change of number of poles b. Busbars getting heated
b. Change of rotor resistance c. Starter getting damaged
c. Change of supply voltage frequency d. Bearings getting overheated
d. Change of supply voltage
12. By looking at which part of the motor, it can be easily
3. The purpose of providing dummy coils in a generator is confirmed that a particular motor is invariably used
a. To enhance flux density a. Frame
b. To amplify voltage b. Commutator
c. To provide mechanical balance for the rotor c. Shaft
d. To reduce eddy currents d. Stator

4. The running winding of a single phase motor on testing with 13. If the load was suddenly release from a series motor, it
megger is found to be grounded. Most probable location of would
the ground will be a. Speed up
a. At the end connections b. Slow down
b. At the end terminals c. Stop
c. Anywhere on the winding inside a slot d. Continue to operate at the same speed
d. At the slot edge where coil enters or comes out of
the slot 14. The purpose of the commutator and brushes on DC
generator is to
5. The term “cogging” is associated with a. Change AC to DC current
a. Three phase transformers b. Change DC to AC current
b. Compound generators c. Neutralize armature reaction
c. DC series motors d. Carry current to outside circuit
d. Induction motors
15. To reverse the rotation of a 3-phase AC motor, reverse
6. In a universal motor, the most common cause of brush a. Any two of three leads
sparking is b. The field leads
a. Open armature winding c. The armature leads
b. Shorted armature winding d. The field and armature leads
c. Shorted field winding
d. High commutator mica 16. A series-wound motor is used to run a pump driven with a
belt. If the belt breaks, the motor will
7. To reverse the rotation of a DC motor, reverse a. Overspeed and run out of control
a. The field leads b. Stop
b. The armature leads c. slow down
c. The field or armature leads d. keep running at the same speed
d. Any of the above
17. which of the following can be used to control the speed of a
8. If residual magnetism of a shunt generator is destroyed DC motor
accidentally, it may be restored by connecting its shunt a. Thermistor
field b. Thyratron
a. In reverse c. Thyristor
b. To a battery d. Transistor
c. To earth
d. To an alternator 18. A DC compound-wound generator that has a voltage drop
from no-load to full load is said to be
9. If the rotor is open in a squirrel cage motor, it a. Under-compounded
a. Will run at very high speed b. Flat-compounded
b. Will run at very slow speed c. Over-compounded
c. Will not run d. Over-flat-compounded
d. Will make noise

15
 c. Its start the motor
d. None of the above
19. In any rotating machine that part which houses the 29. Which of the following materials would you use to clean
conductors and in which emf induced is to be utilized is called a commutator
a. Rotor a. Sandpaper
b. Field b. Oilcloth
c. Stator c. Emery cloth
d. Armature d. Monk’s cloth

20. Short circuit test on transformers is conducted to determine 30. Which of the following acts as a protection against high
a. Hysteresis losses voltage surges due to lighting and switching
b. Copper losses a. Horn gaps
c. Core losses b. Thermal overload relays
d. Eddy current losses c. Breather
d. Conservator
21. If a single-phase motor runs hot the probable cause cannot
be 31. Which of the following insulating materials can
a. Blown fuses withstand the highest temperature safely
b. High voltage a. Cellulose
c. Low voltage b. Mica
d. Shorted stator coils c. Asbestos
d. Glass fiber
22. Which of the following motors would you select for
vacuum cleaners 32. If the load is removed from a series motor, the speed will
a. Reluctance motor a. Decrease
b. Universal motor b. Remains the same
c. Hysteresis motor c. Increase
d. Repulsion motor d. None of the above

23. The type of DC motor used for high-starting torque and 33. An auto transformer is used in the motor-starting circuit
low-starting current is the to
a. Squirrel-cage motor a. Limit the current
b. Compound wound motor b. Reduce the voltage
c. Wound-rotor motor c. Control the speed
d. Synchronous motor d. Increase the voltage

24. Commutator segments are made of 34. Which one of the following is not the function of pole
a. Zinc shoes in a DC machine
b. Brass a. To reduce eddy current loss
c. Copper b. To support the field coils
d. Nickel c. To spread out flux for better uniformity
d. To reduce the reluctance of the magnetic path
25. If the load was removed from a series-wound motor, it
would 35. The speed of a DC series motor is
a. Slow down a. Proportional to the armature current
b. Stop b. Proportional to the square of the armature current
c. Speed up c. Proportional to the field current
d. Remain at the same speed d. Inversely proportional to the armature current

26. Field excitation where required is always supplied from 36.If the rotor circuit of a squirrel-cage induction motor is
a. A source of direct current open, the rotor will
b. An alternator a. Run at very high speed
c. A magnet b. Run at very low speed
d. Selenium rectifier c. Make a noise
d. Not run
27. The crawling in the induction motor is caused by
a. Low voltage supply 37. What will happen if the back emf of a DC vanishes
b. High loads suddenly
c. Harmonics developed in the motor a. The motor will stop
d. Improper design of the machine b. The motor will continue to run
c. The armature may burn
d. The motor will run noisy
28. For starting a DC motor a starter is required because
a. It limits the speed of the motor
b. It limits the starting current to a safe value
16
 c. Increase the speed of prime mover
d. Check armature insulation resistance
38. Excitation for an AC generator can be taken from a 48. Transformer breaths in when
a. Battery a. Load on it increases
b. Separate exciter b. Load on it decreases
c. Converter c. Load remains constant
d. Any of the above d. None of the above

39. Part of the transformer which is most subject to damage 49. Failure of a generator to build up could be caused by
overheating is a. Speed of prime mover too slow
a. Iron core b. Field connections reversed
b. Winding insulation c. Brushes set improperly
c. Transformer tank d. Any of the above
d. Copper winding
50. A DC generator that has a voltage rise from no-load is
40. For ceiling fans generally the single phase motor used is said to be
a. Capacitor-start type a. Under-compounded
b. Split-phase type b. Flat-compounded
c. Permanent capacitor type c. Over-compounded
d. Capacitor start and run type d. Over-flat-compounded

41. The chemical used in breather for transformer should 51. The function of conservator in a transformer is
have the quality of a. To project against internal fault
a. Ionizing air b. To reduce copper as well as core losses
b. Absorbing moisture c. To cool the transformer oil
c. Cleansing the transformer oil d. To take care of the expansion and contraction of
d. Cooling the transformer oil transformer oil due to variation of temperature of
surroundings
42. In a shaded-pole motor, rotating magnetic field is
produced by using 52. Which of the following groups of motors are DC motors
a. Salient poles a. Compound and synchronous
b. Shading coils b. Series and induction
c. Copper windings c. Series, shunt and compound
d. A capacitor d. Induction and synchronous

43. The core used in high frequency transformer is usually 53. Which of the following is most economical method of
a. Copper core starting a single-phase induction motor
b. Air core a. Inductance-start method
c. Cast iron core b. Split-phase method
d. Mild steel core c. Resistance-start method
d. Capacitance-start method
44. Which motor is normally free from mechanical and
magnetic vibrations 54. Most of the fractional horsepower motors have either
a. Split-phase motor a. Hard and annealed bearings
b. Reluctance motor b. Ball or roller bearings
c. Hysteresis motor c. Soft and porous bearings
d. Shaded pole motor d. Plain oar sleeve bearings

45. Starters are used with DC motors because
a. These motors have high starting torque
b. These motors are not self-starting
c. Back emf of these motors is zero initially
d. To restrict armature current as there is no back emf
while starting
46. In a shaded-pole motor, the direction of rotation is from
a. Shaded pole to main pole
b. Main pole to shaded pole
c. Depends on supply line polarity
d. None of the above
47. If a self excited DC generator after being installed, fails
to build up on its first trail run, the first thing to do is to
a. Reverse the field connections
b. Increases the field resistance
55. If a DC shunt motor is working at no load and if shunt
field circuit suddenly opens
a. Nothing will happen to the motor
b. This will make armature to take heavy current
c. This will result in excessive speed, possibly destroying
armature due to excessive centrifugal stresses
d. Motor will run at very slow speed
56. In DC shunt motors as load is produced
a. The speed will increase abruptly
b. The speed will increases in proportion to reduction in
load
c. The speed will remain almost constant
d. The speed will reduce
17
57. A capacitor-start single phase induction motor is 66. if the speed of a DC shunt motor is increased the back
switched on to supply with its capacitor replaced by an emf of the motor will
inductor of equivalent reactance value. It will a. Decrease
a. Start and then stop b. Increase
b. Start and run slowly c. Remain same
c. Start and run at rated speed d. Become zero
d. Not start at all
67. As the load of a series motor increases, the speed will
58. If a single phase induction motor runs slower than a. Increase
normal, the most likely defect is b. Decrease
a. Worn bearings c. Remains the same
b. Short-circuit in the winding d. None of the above
c. Open-circuit in the winding
d. None of the above 68. The hum in a transformer is mainly attributed to
a. Load changes
59. The speed of a universal motor is usually reduce by using b. Oil in the transformer
a. Gearing c. Magnitostriction
b. Brakes d. Mechanical vibrations
c. Belts
d. Chains 69. The noise resulting from vibrations of laminations by
magnetic forces, is termed as
60. If the load was suddenly released from a shunt motor, it a. Magnetostrication
would b. Boo
a. Speed up c. Hum
b. Slow down d. Zoom
c. Stop
d. Continue to operate at the same speed 70. A common method of cooling a power transformer is
a. Natural air cooling
61. If the load was removed from a shunt-wound motor, it b. Air blast cooling
would c. Oil cooling
a. Slow down d. Any of these
b. Stop
c. Speed up 71.The changes in volume of transformer cooling oil due to
d. Remain at the same speed variation of atmospheric temperature during day and night
is taken care of by whish part of transformer
62. If the speed of a DC shunt motor is increased, the back a. Conservator
emf of the motor will b. Bushings
a. Increase c. Breather
b. Decrease d. Buchholz relay
c. Remains the same
d. Become zero 72. The direction of rotation of universal motor can be
reversed by reversing the flow of current through
63. The chemical used in breather is a. Armature winding
a. Asbestos fiber b. Field winding
b. Silica sand c. Either armature winding or field winding
c. Sodium chloride d. None of these
d. Silica gel
73. Materials use for construction of transformer core is
64. Field winding of a DC series motor is usually provided usually
with thick wire a. Wood
a. To provide large flux b. Copper
b. To reduce the use of insulating material c. Aluminum
c. As it carries large load current d. Silicon steel
d. In order to reduce eddy current
74. Another name for AC generator is
65. The motor used for the compressors is a. A dynamometer
a. DC series motor b. A dynamotor
b. Shaded pole motor c. An alternator
c. capacitor-start capacitor run motor d. Any of these
d. reluctance motor
75. The stator frame in an induction motor is used
a. To protect the whole machine
b. To ventilate the armature
c. As a return path for the flux
d. To hold the armature stampings/stator
18
76. Which of the following is not found in AC generators 86. Most widely used insulating and cooling transformer
a. Slip rings liquid is
b. Commutator a. Mineral oil
c. Brushes b. Askarel
d. Field coils c. None of the above
d. Water
77. Oil impregnated paper condenser bushing is generally
used on transformers operating at 87. A shunt motor would be best suited for
a. 132 kV a. Constant speed results
b. 33 kV b. An anchor windlass
c. 66 kV c. A cargo winch
d. 11 kV d. Any of the above

78. The function of breather in a transformer is 88. If a DC motor is connected across the AC supply it will
a. To provide oxygen inside the tank a. Run at normal speed
b. To cool the coils during reduce load b. Not run
c. To cool the transformer oil c. Run at lower speed
d. To arrest flow of moisture when out-side air inters the d. Burn due to heat produced in the field winding by
transformer eddy current

79. A DC compound-wound generator that does not change 89. Which of the following method of speed control of DC
speed with variations in load is said to be machine will offer minimum efficiency
a. Under-compounded a. Voltage control method
b. Flat-compounded b. Field control method
c. Over-compounded c. Armature control method
d. Over-flat-compounded d. All above methods

80. If residual magnetism is present in a DC generator, the 90. The purpose of a breather in a transformer is to
induce emf at zero speed will be a. Provide cooling to the winding
a. Zero b. Take insulating oil from the conservator
b. Small c. Provide insulation to the winding
c. The same as rated voltage d. Extract moisture from the air
d. High
91. In which single-phase motor, the rotor has no teeth or
81. The color of fresh dielectric oil for a transformer is winding
a. Dark brown a. Split-phase motor
b. Pale yellow b. Reluctance motor
c. White to grey c. Hysteresis motor
d. Colorless d. Universal motor

82. If the capacitor or a single-phase motor is short-circuited 92. Which of the following is not a fitting of a transformer
a. The motor will not start a. Commutator
b. The motor will burn b. Conservator
c. The motor will run in reverse direction c. Breather
d. The motor will run in the same direction at reduced d. Buchholz’s relay
rpm
93. If the field of a DC shunt motor gets opened while motor
83. The purpose of a commutator is to is running
a. Keep constant voltage a. The speed of motor will be reduced
b. Rectify armature current b. The armature current will reduce
c. Convert magnetic lines of force to flux c. The motor will attain dangerously high speed
d. Keep a constant amperage d. The motor will continue to run at constant speed

84. The noise and tooth pulsation losses can be minimized 94. During starting of an induction motor hums, the probable
by using cause could be
a. Large number of narrow slots in stator a. Open circuit
b. Large number of open slots in stator b. Unequal phase resistance
c. Small number of narrow slots in stator c. Inter-turn short circuit of rotor
d. Small number of open slots in stator d. Any of the above

85. The overheating of an induction motor

a. Overloading
b. Loss of ventilation
c. Low supply voltage
d. Any of the above
19
 95. The type of AC motor used for high-starting torque and
low-starting current is the
a. Squirrel-cage motor
b. Compound-wound motor
c. Wound-rotor motor
d. Synchronous motor

96.In DC generators, current to the external circuit from

armature is given through
a. Commutator
b. Solid connection
c. Slip rings
d. None of the above

97. Which of the following parts of a transformer is likely to

suffer maximum damage due to excessive temperature rise
a. Winding insulation
b. Copper winding
c. Core laminations
d. Dielectric strength of oil

98. The material for commutator brushes is generally

a. Mica
b. Cast iron
c. Copper
d. Carbon

99. For which of the following applications a DC motor is

preferred over an AC motor
a. Low speed operation
b. High speed operation
c. Variable speed operation
d. Fixed speed operation

100. Simple porcelain bushings are used for transformers up

to
a. 11 kV
b. 400 kV
c. 132 kV
d. None of the above

20
 53. D
TECH 3 ANSWER 54. D
1. B 55. C
2. B 56. C
3. C 57. D
4. D 58. A
5. D 59. A
6. C 60. D
7. C 61. D
8. B 62. A
9. C 63. D
10. B 64. C
11. A 65. C
12. B 66. B
13. A 67. B
14. A 68. C
15. A 69. C
16. A 70. C
17. C 71. A
18. A 72. C
19. D 73. D
20. C 74. C
21. A 75. C
22. B 76. B
23. B 77. A
24. C 78. D
25. C 79. B
26. A 80. A
27. C 81. B
28. B 82. A
29. A 83. B
30. A 84. A
31. B 85. D
32. C 86. A
33. B 87. A
34. A 88. D
35. D 89. C
36. D 90. D
37. C 91. C
38. D 92. A
39. B 93. C
40. A 94. A
41. B 95. C
42. B 96. A
43. B 97. A
44. C 98. D
45. D 99. C
46. B 100. A
47. A
48. B
49. D
50. C
51. D
52. C

21
 TECH 4

1. In squirrel cage induction motors, the rotor slots are usually 9. Which of the following motor will have relatively higher
given slight skew in order to power factor
a. reduce magnetic hum a. Split phase motor
b. reduce windage losses b. Capacitor start motor
c. reduce eddy currents c. Shaded pole motor
d. reduce accumulation of dirt and dust d. capacitor run motor

2. The term “clogging” is associated with 10.The correct procedure when rigid conduit is connected to an
a. induction motors outlet box should be
b. compound generators a. Locknut on the outside and a bushing on the inside
c. DC series motors b. locknut on the inside and bushing on the outside
d. Three phase motors c. locknut and bushing on the outside
d. locknut and bushing on the inside
3. In repulsion motors by shifting the position of brushes
a. Only speed can be controlled 11.which of the following method of starting an induction motor,
b. speed and direction of rotation can be controlled does not result is reduces voltage applied to the motor while
c. speed, direction of rotation and torque can be controlled starting
d. none of the above a. auto-transformer starting
b. start-delta starter
4. When a star-delta starter is used with three phase induction c. DOL starter
motor d. All of the above
a. Starting current reduces but starting torque increases
b. Starting current increases but starting torque reduces 12.The important reminders in making a good soldered
c. both starting current as well as starting torque reduces connection between two stranded wires which is less important
d. both starting current as well as starting torque increases a. Wire must be clean carefully
b. before twisting the two wire together, apply solder to each
5. In a capacitor start single phase motor, when capacitor is strand
replaced by a resistance c. before soldering, twist the wires together
a. The motor will consume less power d. use enough heat making the solder flow freely
b. Toque will increase
c. Motor will run in reverse direction 13.Single phase capacitor start motors, single voltage, non-
d. motor will continue to run in same direction reversible with magnetic switch are commonly used in
a. Refrigerators
6. Electricians must make sure that his tools are in excellent b. toys
condition because c. ceiling fans
a. A good work requires good tools d. cranes
b. Defective tools will cause delay in work
c. defective tools may cause accidents 14.Galvanized conduit is made of
d. it can be readily used if there is a job opportunity a. Zinc
b. aluminum
7. Why is that tinning rubber insulated twisted cable is c. iron
necessary? d. brass
a. it will make the strands stronger
b. chemical reaction between rubber and cooper is prevented 15.If the motor of 5000 rpm is desired which of the following
c. it will increase conductivity of conductor motor will be the obvious choice
d. to meet PEC requirements a. Reluctance motor
b. Hysteresis motor
8. The purpose of using a friction type when wrapping a splice c. universal motor
with rubber and friction tape is to d. capacitor start and run motor
a. Give extra insulation
b. Provide a moisture proof seal
16.which of the following type of wrench that is not used to
c. protect the rubber
connect rigid metal conduit
d. increase the required thickness
22
 a. chain d. 1000 mm
b. strap
c. box end
d. stills-on
17.In a split phase motor, the running winding should have 25.Motorized hand tools generally use
a. Low resistance as well as low inductance a. Capacitor start motor
b. High resistance as well as high inductance b. Shaded pole motor
c. low resistance and high inductance c. Reluctance motor
d. high resistance and low inductance d. universal motor

18.Which of the following single phase motor that is reversible 26.When using start delta starter which of the following is
a. Reluctance motor reduced during starting
b. Resistance start split phase motor a. Current
c. capacitor start split phase motor b. Volt-ampere
d. none of the above c. Power factor
d. kW of motor
19.The strap wrenches is used instead of the stills-on wrench in
tightening a conduit coupling in order to avoid 27.In a capacitor start motor any reduction in the value of
a. breaking the conduit capacitance is likely to result in reduced
b. bending the conduit a. Speed
c. destroying the threads b. RPM
d. damaging the outside finish c. vibration
d. starting torque
20.Where practicable, dissimilar metals in contact anywhere in
the system shall be avoided in order to eliminate 28.A capacitor-start single phase induction motor is switched on
a. Eddy currents to supply with its capacitor replaced by an inductor of
b. Hysteresis equivalent reactance value. It will
c. galvanic action a. not start
d. subeck effect b. start and run
c. start and the stall
21. When all the three phases of an induction motor burn out, d. burn
the probable cause could be
a. Single phasing 29.The crawling is an induction motor is caused by
b. Unbalanced supply a. Low voltage supply
c. Overload b. High loads
d. Unbalance load c. Improper design of machine
d. harmonics developed in the motor
22.Which of the following single phase motor that is suitable for
timing and control purposes 30.which of the following motor that is preferred for tape
a. Universal motor recorder
b. Series motor a. shaded pole motor
c. Repulsion motor b. two value capacitor motor
d. reluctance motor c. hysteresis motor
d. universal motor
23.All of the following can cause overheating of a single phase
motor except 31.Electrical faults in a motor occur most commonly in its
a. Overloads a. Motor winding
b. high voltage supply b. control equipment
c. worn out bearings c. commutator
d. shorted windings d. brushes

24.Conductors must have a clearance from windows, porches, 32.Lubricant used for ball bearing is usually
fire escapes of not less than a. Graphite
a. 800 mm b. Mineral oil
b. 900 mm c. Grease
c. 1100 mm d. molasses
23
 b. Anger drill
c. star drill
d. burnisher
33.What will an electrician use to determine whether the raceway
is truly vertical? 41.which of the following plugs driven into holes in masonry,
a. Meter stick concrete, plasters, or similar materials should not be used
b. Transit level a. plastic
c. Plumb bob b. wooden
d. level c. metal
d. leather
34.In a capacitor start and run motors the function of the
running capacitor is series with the auxiliary winding is 42.Galvanized conduit has a finish exterior and interior of
a. To improve torque a. Zinc
b. Reduce fluctuations in torque b. Aluminum
c. Increase overload capacity c. Copper
d. improve power factor d. Steel

35. What is the probable cause if the fuse becomes hot under 43.A pump induction motor is switch on to a supply 30% lower
normal condition than its rated voltage. The pump runs. What will eventually
a. High fuse rating happen? It will
b. Low fuse rating a. Stall immediately
c. Too much tension in the fuse clips b. Stall after sometime
d. pressure of fuse clip is insufficient c. Continue to run at lower speed without damage
d. get heated and consequently get damaged
36.A wound rotor induction motor can be distinguished from
squirrel cage induction motor by the 44.In soldering two conductor together, the least important thing
a. Presence of cooling fan to do is to
b. Size of rotor shaft a. Apply sufficient heat
c. presence of slip rings b. Make sure that the conductors are clean
d. type of starter c. use plenty of solder
d. use the proper flux
37.To protect the conductors from abrasion when they enter a
box, you have to use an approved____ 45.A universal motor can run on
a. hickey a. either AC or DC
b. bushing b. DC only
c. washer c. AC only
d. fish tape d. None of the above

38.Which type of capacitor is preferred for capacitor start and 46.In shaded pole motors, the necessary phase splitting is
run motor produced by
a. Air capacitor a. Induction
b. Ceramic capacitor b. Resistance
c. paper capacitor c. Inductance
d. electrolytic capacitor d. capacitive

39.Which of the following has the highest breakdown strength 47.which of the following motor can be used for unity power
and longest life compared to other insulating materials? factor
a. Wool cloth a. shaded-pole motor
b. impregnated paper b. schrage motor
c. rubber c. capacitor run motor
d. thermoplastic d. hysteresis motor

40. The tool that is commonly used when cutting holes in 48.In replacing this type of fuse, a fuse puller is used
masonry a. Cartridge
a. Router drill b. Plug
c. Bar
24
 d. round a. Run for about 5 minutes
b. Run for about 1 minute
c. picked up about 50 to 70 percent of rated speed
49.When cutting large stranded conductors, a hacksaw blade d. picked up about 10 to 25 percent of the rated voltage
with fine teeth rather than coarse teeth is used because
a. Coarse blade overheats the conductors 57. By pushing and pulling the rotor shaft of a motor, we can
b. Fine blade equally bends check its
c. Coarse blade easily breaks a. end play
d. pulling of strands is avoided b. side play
c. firmness of mounting
d. free shaft movement
50.Imbalance in the shaft of induction motor may occur due to
a. non-uniform air gap 58. What is the usual cause for breaking a drill when drilling into
b. slip rings a steel I-beam?
c. poor quality of insulation a. Slow drill speed
d. any of the above b. more cutting oil on bit
c. heavier pressure on the bit
d. dull drill bit
51.During star delta starting of induction motor, during star
connection the voltage applied to each phase is
59.When working on high voltage equipment, an electrician
a. 1/3 of the normal voltage
before wearing the rubber gloves should make sure that the
b. Square root 3 of the normal voltage
gloves are
c. 1 divided by the square root of 3 of the normal voltage
a. Cleaned both outside and inside
d. 1 divided by 3 times square root of 3 of the normal voltage
b. Waxed both outside and inside
c. tested to withstand high voltage
52.Which of the following is not a type of file d. powered both outside and inside
a. Hexagonal
b. Mill
60.When skinning a small wire, the insulation must be “penciled
c. Half round
down” instead of slicing across the cross-section to
d. bastard
a. Give more space for splice
b. Shorten time in splicing
53.The vertical clearance of service drop conductors shall be c. decrease the danger of nicking the wire
maintained for a distance of not less than___ mm in all d. trying of braid is prevented
direction from the edge of the roof
a. 1000 61.Electrician should not use diagonal lineman plies when
b. 1200 cutting __ wire
c. 1500 a. Bronze
d. 900 b. Copper
c. aluminum
54.The operation of repeated starting and stopping of an d. steel
induction motor for exact positioning of the driven equipment
is called 62.When a DC series motor is connected to AC supply excessive
a. Jogging eddy currents will be produced in
b. Balancing a. yoke
c. Plugging b. yoke and field cores
d. crawling c. yoke, field cores and stator
d. yoke, field cores, stator and rotor shafts
55.It is necessary to increase the wire size when re-routing
conduit over a greater distance in order to 63.In shaded pole single phase motor, the revolving field is
a. Compensate for current produced by the use of
b. compensate for voltage drop a. Inductive
c. increase the resistance b. Resistor
d. increase the strength of the conductors c. capacitor
d. shading coils
56.A centrifugal switch is used to disconnect starting winding
hen motor has 64.The power factor of a single phase induction motor is usually
25
 a. Unity
b. Always leading
c. Unity to .8 lagging 73.In an induction motor when the number of stator and rotor
d. lagging slots is equal and the motor refuses to start, the phenomenon
65.To remove the rough edges after cutting a conduit, both ends is termed as
of the conduit should be a. Crawling
a. Brushed b. Short-circuiting
b. Sanded c. cogging
c. varnished d. humming
d. burnished or reamed
74.which of the following is an advantage for rubber
66.When threading conduit, cutting fluid is used so that insulation
a. Formation of electrolytic pocket is prevented a. good at very high temperature
b. Metal chips are wash away b. long lasting
c. Formation of rust is prevented c. does not absorb moisture
d. finish of thread is improved d. not damage by oil

67.If any two phases for an induction motor are interchanged 75.Two of the power supply terminals to a 3-phase induction
a. The motor will burn motor interchanged during reconnection after maintenance of
b. The motor will not run the motor. When put back into service, the motor will
c. The motor will run at reduced speed a. Fail rotate
d. the motor will run in reverse direction b. Rotate in the same direction as it was prior to maintenance
c. rotate in the reverse direction to that prior to maintenance
68.If the capacitor of a single phase motor is short-circuited d. burn out
a. The motor will burn
b. the motor will not start 76.Stranded wire before being placed under a screw head should
c. the motor will run in reverse direction be
d. the motor will run in the same direction at reduce rpm a. twisted together tightly
b. sanded
69.What is used to fasten a box to a terra cotta c. burnished
a. rawl plug d. oiled
b. box fastener
c. steel plug 77.If a particular application needs high speed and high starting
d. wooden plug torque, then which of the following motor will be preferred
a. Shaded pole type motor
70. Never continuously overload a conductor because it will b. Capacitor start motor
cause c. Capacitor start and run motor
a. deterioration of insulation d. universal motor
b. raceway damage
c. shrinking of conductor 78. The pressure applied to the hacksaw when cutting a metal
d. smelting of conductor conduit should be on the
a. forward stroke only
71.Use a tap tool when b. return stroke only
a. Tapping wires c. none of these
b. Reaming raceways d. any of these
c. cutting internal threads
d. cutting external threads 79.which of the following is the unexcited single phase
synchronous motor
72.In a universal motor the width of the brush is nearly a. reluctance motor
a. Half the width of commutator segment b. AC series motor
b. Equal to the width of the commutator segments c. universal motor
c. equal to the width of the two commutator segments d. repulsion motor
d. equal to the width of four commutator segments

26
80.If the ceiling fan, when switched on, runs at slow speed in the 88.In electrical constructing mica is commonly used for
reverse direction, it can be concluded that a. Suspension insulators
a. capacitor is ineffective b. Insulating heating cord
b. winding has burnt out c. Panel board
c. bearings are worn out d. commutator bar separator
d. none of the above
89.What is used to cut a rigid conduit?
81.In case a DC series motor is connected to AC supply of same a. 3-wheel pipe cutter
rms value, it is likely to result in b. Chisel and ream the ends
a. Burning of winding c. hack saw and reamed the ends
b. Dangerously high speed operation d. any of the above
c. Leading power factor
d. excessive sparking and poor efficiency 90.In no case shall the point of attachment of the service drop
conductors to a building or other structure be less than__
82.For bending small size conduit the tool to be used is a above finish grade
a. bender a. 2900
b. hickey b. 3500
c. growler c. 3100
d. mandrel d. 3200

83.When cutting wire-mold use a 91.All of the following are not found in a shaded pole motor
a. Cutter except
b. Nipper a. Centrifugal switch
c. chisel b. Commutator
d. hacksaw c. Rotor
d. capacitor
84.Wearing of shoe that have sponge rubber sole is not
advisable for electrician while working because they are
92.When soldering conductor, acid is not considered a good flux
a. Easily worn out
because it
b. Not water proof
a. Is expensive
c. Not properly insulated
b. May burn your skin
d. easily punctured when stepping on nail
c. is corrosive
d. is does not conduct
85. In case of high speed universal motor which of the
following needs more attention
93.The purpose of using locknuts sometimes in making electrical
a. Insulation in rotor
connection on studs
b. balancing of rotor
a. Several wires can be connected
c. air gap
b. Tighter connection
d. end play
c. loosening of connection due to vibration is presented
d. connection is easier to check
86.It is type of hacksaw with fine teeth used to cut raceways
a. tube saw
94. What is used to sharpen an electrician’s knife?
b. diagonal saw
a. Bakelite
c. knife saw
b. carborundum
d. sabre saw
c. graphite
d. sharpening stone
87.A motor rated to run at 440V is running on normal voltage.
Suddenly the voltage is dropped to 340V. The motor will
95.To compensate for thermal expansion and contraction,
a. Stop immediately
raceways are provide with
b. Run in reverse direction
a. expansion joints
c. heat up excessively
b. contraction joint
d. draw reduced current
c. buckling fittings
d. thermal fittings

27
 96.Which of the following single phase motor that has a
commutator
a. Capacitor start motor
b. Capacitor run motor
c. Split phase motor
d. repulsion motor

97.Service using copper conductors shall have sufficient capacity

and shall not be smaller than
a. 5.5 mm2
b. 8.0mm2
c. 14 mm2
d. 22 mm2

98.A fluorescent lamp that blinks on and off repeatedly will

cause
a. The force too much
b. The damage of the starter
c. Damage of the lamp
d. damage of the ballast

99.According to the Code, the connection of a ground clamp to a

grounding electrode shall be
a. Accessible
b. Reachable
c. With-in sight
d. visible

100. Which of the following cannot be the cause of overheating of

a three phase induction motor
a. Overloading
b. To frequent starting and stopping
c. high voltage supply
d. staling of rotor

28
TECH 4 ANSWER: 51. C
1. A 52. A
2. A 53. A
3. B 54. A
4. C 55. B
5. D 56. C
6. C 57. A
7. B 58. B
8. C 59. C
9. D 60. C
10. B 61. D
11. C 62. B
12. B 63. D
13. C 64. D
14. C 65. D
15. C 66. D
16. C 67. D
17. C 68. B
18. C 69. A
19. A 70. A
20. C 71. C
21. C 72. C
22. D 73. C
23. B 74. C
24. A 75. C
25. D 76. A
26. A 77. D
27. D 78. A
28. A 79. C
29. D 80. A
30. C 81. D
31. B 82. B
32. C 83. D
33. D 84. D
34. D 85. B
35. D 86. A
36. C 87. C
37. B 88. D
38. C 89. C
39. B 90. C
40. C 91. C
41. B 92. C
42. A 93. C
43. D 94. B
44. C 95. A
45. A 96. D
46. A 97. B
47. B 98. D
48. A 99. A
49. D 100. C
50. A
29
 TECH 5 b. 1.5,5.5
c. 8,22
1. Receptacle for heating, air- d. 22,24
conditioning, and refrigeration equipment shall be
located on the same level and within___ m from the 9. Conduit bodies enclosing 14
equipment mm2 conductors or smaller shall have a cross-sectional
a. 10 area __ the cross-sectional area of the largest conduit to
b. 15 which it is attached
c. 20 a. Equal
d. 23 b. 125 percent
c. Not less than twice
2. Ungrounded conductors shall d. 150 percent
have an ampacity of not less than: ___ for one-family
dwelling with six or more 2-wire circuits, ___ for one 10. Ground fault protection of
family dwelling with an initial net computed load of 10 equipment shall be provided for a feeder disconnected___
kVA or more ___ for other loads amperes or more solidly grounded wye system greater than
a. 100A, 60A, 40A 250 volts to ground but not exceeding 600 volts phase-to-
b. 100A, 60A, 50A phase
c. 100A, 50A, 30A a. 750
d. 100A, 60A, 20A b. 1000
c. 12500
3. A column pole or narrow d. 1500
base structure of wood, steel or other material supporting
overhead conductors by means of arms or bracket 11. Type MV is a single, or multi-
a. Overhead conductor solid dielectric insulated cable rated___ volts or
b. Cleat higher
c. Mast a. 2001
d. Extension pole b. 5501
c. 4001
4. Aerial cable shall have a d. 3001
clearance of not less than___ mm above floor areas
accessible to pedestrian traffic, and not less than __mm 12. Clamps shall make contact
above floor areas accessible to vehicular traffic with the ground rod for a distance of
a. 3000, 4000 a. 38 mm
b. 3100, 4300 b. 30 mm
c. 3200, 4200 c. 42 mm
d. 3300, 4500 d. 50 mm

5. The unit lighting for a 13. Where more than one

dwelling unit expressed in watts per square meter shall be electrode is used, each electrode of one grounding
a. 20 watts system(including that used for lightning rods) shall no be
b. 25 watts less than__ mm from any other electrode of another
c. 24 watts grounding system
d. 30 watts a. 1900
b. 2000
6. Non-metallic surface c. 1520
extension shall be secured in place by approve means of d. 1800
intervals not exceeding__ mm
a. 100 14. Service-entrance cables that
b. 150 are not approved for mounting in contact with a building
c. 200 shall be mounted on insulating supports installed at interval
d. 250 exceeding __mm and in such a manner than __mm from the
surface over which they pass
7. Flat cable assemblies shall a. 4500,50
have conductors of___ mm2 special stranded wires. b. 4000,100
a. 3.5 c. 4200,60
b. 5.5 d. 4000,35
c. 2.0
d. 8.0 15. A factory assembly of one or
more conductors, each individually insulated and enclosed
8. In no case shall the grounding in a loose fit. Non-metallic flexible conduit as an integrated
conductor be smaller than__ mm2 copper or ___mm2 gas spacer cable rated 0-600 volts
aluminum a. Type MV
a. 8,14 b. Type FC

30
 c. Type IGS a. 40
d. Type FCC b. 50
c. 60
d. 75

23. Overhead conductors for

festoon lighting shall not be smaller than __mm2
a. 2.0
16. Type MI cable shall be b. 3.5
securely supported at intervals not exceeding ___mm by c. 5.5
straps, staples, hangers, or similar fittings to designed and d. 8.0
installed as not to damage the cable 24. For the kitchen, small
a. 1500 appliance load in dwelling occupancies, the code requires
b. 1600 not less than
c. 1800 a. Two 20A circuits
d. 2000 b. Two 15A circuits
c. Two 30A circuits
17. For a dwelling unit having a d. Two 40A circuits
floor area of more than 150 sq. meters, the feeder and
service loads with ___% demand factor on the air- 25. Intermediate supports of aerial
conditioning load and lighting load cable shall be provided at not more than __meter intervals.
a. 75 a. 4
b. 80 b. 5
c. 90 c. 6
d. 100 d. 7

18. Service drop conductors 26. The service or feeder capacity

where not in excess of 600 volts nominal, shall have a necessary to provide for six% KW household electric
vertical clearance of ___mm above residential properly and clothes dryer is
driveways and those commercial areas not subject to truck a. 30500 kW
traffic b. 28500 kW
a. 4600 c. 27500 kW
b. 4200 d. 25000 kW
c. 5000
d. 5500 27. When using optional
calculation method for dwelling unit service, all other loads
19. When individual open above the initial 10 kW is to be assessed at
conductors are used on not over 600 volts nominal, and the a. 10%
distance between conductors is 150mm, the maximum b. 40%
distance between supports shall be __mm c. 30%
a. 2000 d. 25%
b. 2500
c. 2700 28. The underground service
d. 3100 conductors between the street main and the first point of
connection to the service conductor in a terminal box
20. In each dwelling unit, the a. Service entrance conductor
feeder load shall be computed at __volt-ampere for each b. Service lateral
two-wire small appliance branch circuit c. Service drop
a. 1500 d. Service raceway
b. 1000
c. 1200 29. For the kitchen small
d. 2000 appliance load in dwelling occupancies the code requires no
less than
21. The grounding conductor for a. Two 20-amp circuits
secondary circuits of instrument transformers and for b. One 15-amp circuit
instrument cases shall not be smaller than __mm2 copper of c. Two 15-amp circuits
__mm2 aluminum d. One 20-amp circuits
a. 3.5,8.0
b. 5.5,8.0 30. Bends in type MI cable shall
c. 3.5,5.5 be so made as not to damage the cable. The radius of the
d. 5.5,22 inner edge of any bend shall no be __times the cable
diameter
22. When using optional a. 7
calculation method for a dwelling unit service, all other b. 6
load above the initial 10 kW is to be assessed at __ % c. 5
31
 d. 8 a. 3/8 sq.m
b. ¼ sq.m
31. For services exceeding 600 c. ½ sq.m
volts nominal service entrance conductors shall not be d. ¾ sq.m
smaller than __mm2 unless in cable
a. 5.5 39. Cable suspended over work
b. 8.0 benches, not accessible to pedestrian traffic shall have a
c. 14 clearance of not less than __mm above floor
d. 22 a. 3000
b. 2000
c. 2200
d. 2500

32. Underground sets of

conductors, size __mm2 or larger running to the same
location and connected together at their supply end but not 40. Ungrounded service-entrance
connected together at their load end shall be considered to conductors shall have an ampacity of not less than
be one service lateral __amperes for one-family dwelling with six or more 2-wire
a. 50 branch circuits
b. 38 a. 60 80
c. 60 b. 100
d. 80 c. 150

33. The radius of the core of the 41. Which of the following is not
inner edge of any bend shall not be less than __ times the an exception on the code provisions that a building served
diameter of the type AC cable shall be supplied by only one set of service drop
a. 7 a. For fire pumps
b. 6 b. For emergency electrical system
c. 5 c. For air conditioners and water heaters
d. 8 d. For multiple occupancy building

34. Supports of rigid non-metallic 42. For installations to supply

conduit having and outside diameter of 160 mm shall have only limited loads of a single branch circuit, the service
a maximum spacing between supports of __mm disconnecting means shall have a rating not less than
a. 1500 __amperes
b. 1800 a. 15
c. 2100 b. 20
d. 2400 c. 30
d. 50
35. Type FCC can be used in
a. Outdoors or in wet location 43. A type of cable identified for
b. Any hazardous location underground use, having a moisture resistant covering, but
c. Damp location not required to have a flame-retardant covering
d. Residential, institutional and hospital buildings a. SE
b. USE
36. Conductors supports in open c. SNM
wiring shall be installed within __mm from a tap or splice, d. UP
within __mm of a dead-end connection to a rosette, lamp
holder or receptacle 44. Where a feeder supplies
a. 150,300 continuous loads or any combination of continuous and
b. 120,250 noncontinuous load, the rating of the over-current device
c. 150,250 shall not less than the noncontinuous load plus __% of the
d. 200,300 continuous load
a. 125
37. It is a fabricated assembly of b. 150
insulated conductors in a flexible metallic enclosure c. 110
a. Type AC cable d. 115
b. Type MV cable
c. Type NM cable 45. Service entrance cables shall
d. Type NMC cable be supported by straps and other approved means within
__mm of every service head, gooseneck, or connection to a
38. Code requires that the raceway or enclosure at intervals not exceeding __mm
minimum area exposed surface offered by a plate electrode a. 350,700
shall be b. 350,760
32
 c. 360,760 a. 2000
d. 360,700 b. 2500
c. 3100
46. The conductor between the d. 3300
surge arrester and the line and the grounding connection
shall not be smaller than __mm2 copper or aluminum 54. Branch circuits larger than
a. 14 __amperes shall supply only non-lighting outlet loads
b. 5.5 a. 50
c. 8.0 b. 30
d. 22 c. 40
d. 60
47. For a one family dwelling the
service disconnecting means shall have a rating of not less 55. A single grounding electrode
than __amperes is permitted when the resistance to ground does not exceed
a. 60 __ohms
b. 50 a. 15
c. 40 b. 30
d. 100 c. 20
d. 25
48. For show window lighting, a
load of not less than __volt-amperes shall be included for 56. The use of type AC cable is
each meter of show window measured horizontally along prohibited in the following except
its base a. Motion picture studios
a. 500 b. In dry location, for under plaster extension
b. 450 c. Where exposed to corrosive fumes or vapors
c. 600 d. In theaters and similar location
d. 400
57. Rigid non-metallic shall be
49. Service drop conductors securely fastened within __mm of each box, cabinet, or
where not in excess of 600 volts nominal, shall have a other termination
vertical clearance of __mm over public streets, parking a. 800
areas subject to traffic, and driveways on other than b. 900
residential areas c. 950
a. 4600 d. 1000
b. 5500
c. 5000 58. Ground fault protection of
d. 5300 equipment shall be provide for solidly grounded wye
electrical services of more than __to ground but not
50. In some cases, copper exceeding __phase to phase for each service disconnecting
conductors are coated in order to prevent means rated 1000 amperes or more
a. Heating a. 150 volts, 600 volts
b. Chemical reaction b. 240 volts, 600 volts
c. Short circuit c. 120 volts, 480 volts
d. Capacitive reactance d. 110 volts, 480 volts

51. For range of 8.75 kW or more 59. Grounding conductors shall

the minimum branch circuit rating shall be __amperes not be connected by
a. 30 a. Pressure-connector
b. 40 b. Clamps
c. 20 c. Welding
d. 50 d. Soldered fitting

52. The unit lighting load for 60. Connection between a

dwelling unit, expressed in volt-amperes per square meter conductive or inductive metal object and an element of a
shall be lightning protection system to accomplish electrical
a. 16 continuity between the two
b. 28 a. Interlink
c. 24 b. Messenger
d. 8 c. Connector
d. Bonding
53. Service drop conductors
where not in excess of 600 volts nominal, shall have a 61. The overhead service
vertical clearance form ground of __mm at electric service conductors from the last pole or aerial support to and
entrance to buildings or above area or sidewalk accessible including the splices, if any connecting to the service
only to pedestrians entrance conductors at the building or other structure
33
 a. Service cable b. 30
b. Service conductors c. 20
c. Service lateral d. 15
d. Service drop
70. The minimum size of a copper
62. The grounding electrode shall equipment grounding conductor required for equipment
be of connected to a 40 ampere circuit
a. Copper a. 16 sq.m
b. Aluminum copper-clad b. 10 sq.m
c. Aluminum c. 14 sq.m
d. Any of these d. 12 sq.m

63. All 125V or 250V single 71. For hallways, of 3000 mm or

phase, 15A or 20A receptacles installed within __mm of a more in length at least __receptacle is required
kitchen sinks to serve counter top surfaces should have a. 1
ground fault circuit interrupter protection for person b. 2
a. 1800 c. 3
b. 2000 d. 4
c. 2500
d. 2200 72. Support of rigid non-metallic
conduit having an outside diameter of 110 mm shall have a
64. For open wiring on insulators, maximum spacing between supports of __mm
flexible metallic tubing used must be continuous in lengths a. 1500
not exceeding ___mm and secured to the surface by straps b. 1800
at intervals exceeding__ mm c. 2100
a. 4500, 1500 d. 2400
b. 4000, 1300
c. 500, 1300
d. 4000, 1000
65. The load for household
electric clothes dryers in a dwelling unit(s) shall be __volt
amperes or the nameplate rating, whichever is larger, for 73. The voltage between
each dryer served ungrounded conductors used in FCC systems shall not
a. 4000 exceed __volts
b. 3000 a. 110
c. 5000 b. 220
d. 4500 c. 300
d. 440
66. According to the Code, metal
enclosures for grounding electrode conductors shall be 74. Conductors within __mm
a. Isolated from the floor shall be considered exposed to physical
b. Rigid conduit damage
c. Not permitted a. 1500
d. Electrically continuous b. 2000
c. 2500
67. Fixed electric space heating d. 1000
loads shall be computed at __% of the total connected load
a. 80 75. For installations consisting of
b. 100 not more than two 2-wire branch circuits, the service
c. 115 disconnecting means shall have a rating of not less than__
d. 70 amperes
a. 15
68. Service drop conductors b. 20
passing over a roof of a building shall be securely c. 30
supported by substantial structures. Where practicable, such d. 40
supports shall be __of the building.
a. On the side 76. The minimum diameter of a
b. At the back steel ground electrode is
c. At the top a. 8 mm
d. Independent b. 12 mm
c. 14mm
69. For branch circuit rate less d. 16mm
than 40 amperes, tap conductors shall have an ampacity not
less than __amperes 77. Appliance outlets installed in
a. 40 a dwelling unit for specific appliances, such as laundry
34
 equipment’s, shall be installed within __mm of the intended b. 300
location of the appliance c. 80
a. 1200 d. 350
b. 1500
c. 1800 85. The minimum size of
d. 2000 underground service lateral conductors shall be __ mm2
copper of __mm2 aluminum or copper clad aluminum
78. It is a factory assembly of one a. 8.0, 14
or more conductors, each individually insulated and b. 5.5, 8.0
enclosed in a metallic sheath of interlocking tapes or a c. 3.5, 8.0
smooth corrugated tube d. 5.5, 14
a. Type MI
b. Type MC 86. Where the voltage between
c. Type AC conductors does not exceed 300 volts, and the roof has a
d. Type SNM slope of not less than 00mm in 300 mm, a reduction of
clearance to __mm shall be permitted
79. Ground terminals (rods) shall a. 2000
not be less than __ in diameter and __long b. 2200
a. 12.5 mm, 2200 mm c. 1500
b. 13.5 mm, 2500 d. 1000
c. 2.0 mm, 2600 mm
d. 12.7 mm, 2400 mm 87. For services, exceeding 600
volts nominal service entrance conductors in cable shall not
80. For receptacle outlets, each be smaller than __mm2
single or multiple receptacle on one strap shall be a. 5.5
considered at not less than __volt amperes b. 8.0
a. 180 c. 14
b. 200 d. 22
c. 225
d. 250 88. Flat cable assemblies shall
consists of either __conductors. Which of the following is
not correct
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 6
81. In which of the following
conditions type NM cable can be installed 89. Grounding conductors not an
a. Where exposed to corrosive fumes integral part of a cable assembly shall not be smaller than
b. In exposed and concealed works normally in dry location __mm2 copper or __mm2 aluminum
c. Where embedded in masonry, concrete, adobe fill-in a. 14,22
plaster b. 8,22
d. In a shallow case of masonry, concrete, adobe and c. 5.5,22
covered with plaster on similar finish d. 8,14

82. __ of service entrance 90. Direct grade level access is

conductors are taps from the main service conductors run to defined as being located not more than __mm above the
service equipments grade level and being readily accessible
a. Overhead feeders a. 1800
b. Subset b. 2000
c. Branch service drop c. 2500
d. Tie service drop d. 2200

83. It is an assembly of parallel 91. Two or more services shall be

conductors formed integrally with an insulating material permitted where the capacity are in excess of __amperes at
web designed for field installation in metal surface raceway a supply voltage of 600 volts or less
a. Type FC a. 2000
b. Type TC b. 1500
c. Type UF c. 2500
d. Type FCC d. 3000

84. In kitchens and dining areas of 92. In each dwelling unit, the unit
dwelling units, a receptacle outlet shall be installed at each feeder load shall be computed at __volt-amperes for each 2-
corner space wider than __mm wire small appliance branch circuit
a. 250 a. 1500
35
 b. 1800 b. 4200
c. 1200 c. 4350
d. 2000 d. 4600

93. To provide for small 100. The rating of a branch circuit

appliance load in dwelling units, the feeder should be serving continuous loads such as store lighting and similar
computed at load shall not be less than the non-continuous load plus
a. 1500 watts __percent of the continuous load
b. 2000 watts a. 100
c. 1200 watts b. 110
d. 1000 watts c. 120
d. 125
94. Non-metallic extensions shall
not be used in the following, except
a. In unfinished basement attics, or roop spaces
b. Where subject to corrosive vapors
c. When exposed and in dry location
d. Where run through a floor of partition

95. Aluminum, copper clad

aluminum or copper conductors of size __mm or larger,
comprising each phase, neutral, or grounded circuit
conductor shall be permitted to be connected in parallel
a. 50
b. 60
c. 38
d. 30

96. Exposed runs of type AC

cable shall closely follow the surface of the building finish
or on running boards except of its length is not more than
___mm of terminals where flexibility is necessary
a. 450
b. 500
c. 550
d. 600

97. For services not over 600 volts

nominal service conductors shall have a vertical clearance
__mm from the roof surface
a. 2000
b. 3000
c. 2500
d. 2200

98. On constructing sites a box

shall not be required for splices or junction connections
where the circuit conductor are
a. Multiconductor cord
b. Cable assemblies
c. Open conductors
d. Any of these

99. Service drop conductors

where voltage is limited to 600 volts to ground shall have a
vertical clearance of __mm over residential property and
driveways and those commercial areas not subject to truck
traffic
a. 3700
36
 21. C
22. A
23. B
24. A
25. C
26. C
27. B
28. C
29. D
30. C
31. B
32. A
33. C
34. D
35. C
36. A
37. A
38. B
39. D
40. B
41. C
42. A
43. B
44. A
45. C
46. A
47. D
48. C
49. B
50. B
51. B
52. C
53. C
TECH 5 ANSWER: 54. A
1. D 55. D
2. A 56. B
3. C 57. B
4. B 58. A
5. C 59. D
6. C 60. D
7. B 61. D
8. A 62. D
9. C 63. A
10. B 64. C
11. A 65. C
12. A 66. D
13. A 67. B
14. A 68. D
15. C 69. D
16. C 70. C
17. D 71. A
18. A 72. C
19. C 73. C
20. A 74. B
37
 75. C c. 20
76. D d. 25
77. C 4. An ideal
78. B transformer
79. D a. Windings have no resistance
80. A b. Core has no losses
81. B c. Core has infinite permeability
d. All of these
82. B
83. A 5. Ambient
84. B temperature is define as the
85. B a. Short circuit temperature of the conductor
86. D b. Maximum heat the insulation can withstand
c. Temperature of the area surrounding the
87. A conductor
88. D d. Insulating rating of conductor
89. A
90. B 6. The kVA
91. A ratings of an ordinary 2-winding transformer is increased
when connected as an auto transformer because
92. A
a. Transformation ratio is increased
93. A b. Secondary voltage is increased
94. C c. Energy is transferred both inductively and
95. A conductively
96. D d. Secondary current is increased
97. C
7. In class II,
98. D division I, metal pipe should be
99. A a. Welded
100. D b. All of these
c. Riveted and soldered
d. Bolted and soldered

8. For use on
system over 600 volts nominal, the length of the box for
straight pulls shall not be less than __times the outside
diameter, or sheath, or the largest shielded or dead
covered conductor or cable entering the box
a. 36
TECH 6 b. 48
c. 42
1. The d. 30
maximum operating temperature of type TW conductor is
____ degrees Celsius
a. 60
b. 75
c. 85
d. 90

2. An
auxiliary gutter shall not extend greater distance than 9. A neutral
__mm beyond the equipment which it supplements conductor which carries only the unbalance from other
a. 7500 conductors as in the case of normally balanced circuits of
b. 9100 three or more conductors shall
c. 9500 a. Counted as 1
d. 8200 b. Counted as 2
c. Counted as 3
3. The sum of d. Not be counted
the cross-sectional areas of all the contained conductors
at any cross-section of an auxiliary gutter shall not 10. Where metal
exceed__ percent of the cross-sectional area of the plugs or plates are used with non-metallic cabinets or cut-
auxiliary gutters out boxes, they shall be recessed at least __mm from the
a. 10 outer surface
b. 15 a. 4.8
38
 b. 5.0
c. 6.4 18. For type V-
d. 6.8 cables, the minimum size shall be __sq.mm
a. 3.5
11. Doors of b. 5.5
cabinets and cut-out boxes shall have an air space of at c. 8.0
least __mm between any energized metal post. d. 14.0
a. 25
b. 10 19. No outlet
c. 15 box shall have an external depth of less than __mm
d. 18 a. 16
b. 12
12. Metal boxes c. 18
not made of sheet steel, die cast or permanent mold d. 24
aluminum, brass or bronze, shall have a wall thickness not
less than __mm 20. The main
a. 1.6 purpose of using core in the transformer is to
b. 2.4 a. Decrease iron losses
c. 2.8 b. Prevent eddy current losses
d. 3.2 c. Eliminate magnetic hysteresis
d. Decrease reluctance of the common magnetic circuit
13. The panels of
switchboards shall be made of __ non-combustible materials 21. In Class I,
a. Waterproof Division 1 and 2, sealing compounds shall not have a
b. Fireproof melting point of less than
c. Raintight a. 75°C
d. Moisture resistant b. 50°C
c. 66°C
14. In all types d. 93°C
of concealed wiring installed in buildings of all types of
construction, boxes used for ceiling outlets are 22. Solid
a. Square aluminum conductors 8.0 sq. mm and 3.5 sq. mm shall be
b. Round made of an AA-___ series electrical grade
c. Hexagonal a. 5000
d. Octagonal b. 7000
c. 8000
15. The d. 9000
maximum operating temperature of type TFE conductor is
___ degrees Celsius 23. In walls of
a. 90 concrete, tile, or other non-combustible material, cabinets
b. 120 shall be so installed so that the front edge of the cabinet
c. 175 will not set back of the finished surface more than ___ mm
d. 250 a. 4.8
b. 5.0
16. Sheet steel c. 6.4
boxes not over 1640 cu.cm. in size shall be made from d. 6.8
steel not less than __mm thick
a. 1.2 24. A series
b. 1.4 motor is best suited for driving
c. 1.6
d. 1.8 25. __ boxes
shall be used by conduits or connectors requiring the use
of locknuts and bushing are to be connected to to the side
of the box
a. Square
b. Round
17. Where non-
c. Octagonal
metallic sheathed cable is used, the cable assembly shall
extend into the box no less than __mm through a non- d. Masonry box/gang
metallic sheathed cable knock-out opening
a. 6.4
b. 5.8
c. 6.8 26. What
d. 5.4 conductors size comprising each phase, neutral or

39
 grounded conductors are permitted to be connected in 34. The maximum
parallel no. of 8 sq.mm conductors permitted in 100x32 square outlet
a. 38 sq. mm or larger box is
b. 38 sq. mm or smaller a. 5
c. 50 sq. mm or larger b. 6
d. 20 sq. mm or smaller c. 7
d. 8
27. Sealing 35. For type MI
compound is employed in mineral insulated cable in a conductor, the maximum operating temperature is ____°C
Class I location for the purpose of a. 65
a. Excluding moisture b. 75
b. Preventing passage of gas and vapor c. 85
c. Limiting extent of possible explosion d. 90
d. Preventing escape of insulating powder
36. An enclosed
28. No-load test designed either for surface or flush mounting and provided
on a transformer is carried out to determine with a frame, mat or trim in which a swinging door or doors
a. Copper loss are or may be hung
b. Magnetizing current a. Cabinet
c. Magnetizing current and no-load loss b. Switchboard
d. Efficiency of the transformer c. Panel-board
d. Metallic box
29. In which
wiring method, non metallic boxes over 1640 cubic 37. A conductor
centimeters are permitted? having one or more layer of non-conducting material that are
a. Metal raceways not considered as electrical insulation
b. Open wiring insulators a. Bare
c. Non metallic sheathed cable b. Insulated
d. Rigid non metal conduit c. Isolated
d. Covered
30. Unless
otherwise specified conductors mentioned in the PEC shall 38. Bends in type
be of the following, except SNM cable( Shielded Non-metallic sheathed cable) must be
a. Copper such that the inner radius shall not be less than __times the
b. Aluminum clad cable diameter
c. Aluminum a. 4
d. Copper clad b. 5
c. 6
31. Locations d. 7
where combustible fibers are stored are designated as
a. Class III, Division 1 39. The distance
b. Class III, Division 2 between raceway entries enclosing the same conductor shall
c. Class II, Division 1 not be less than __ times the trade diameter of the larger
d. Class II, Division 2 raceway
a. Five
32. In walls or b. Six
ceiling, concrete, tile or other non combustible material, boxes c. Seven
and fittings shall be installed that the front edge of the box or d. Eight
fitting will not set back out of the finished surface more than
__mm 40. A transformer
a. 4.5 transforms
b. 5.6 a. Frequency
c. 6.4 b. Voltage
d. 6.8 c. Current
d. Voltage and current
33. For
aluminum bars in auxiliary gutters, the current carried 41. If the
continuously shall not exceed ___ampere per sq. cm conductors voltage rating range from 2001 to 5000 volts, the
section of the conductors minimum conductor size shall be __ sq. mm
a. 109 a. 3.5
b. 113 b. 8.0
c. 115 c. 14
d. 120 d. 22

40
42. Auxiliary a. 10
gutters shall not contain more than __ current carrying b. 15
conductors at any cross section c. 20
a. 15 d. 30
b. 20
c. 25 50. The dc series
d. 30 motor should never be switched on at no-load because
a. The field current is zero
43. For raceways b. The machine does not pickup
20mm thread size or larger containing conductors 22sq. mm or c. The speed becomes dangerously high
larger the length of boxes in straight pulls shall not be less d. It will take too long to accelerate
than __ times the trade diameter of the larger raceway
a. 8 51. In straight pulls
b. 5 the length of the box shall not be less than the__ times the
c. 4 thread diameter of the largest raceway
d. 10 a. 5
44. For cabinets b. 6
and cut-out boxes constructed of sheet steel, the metal c. 7
thickness shall not be less than __mm uncoated d. 8
a. 1.20
b. 1.35 52. The maximum
c. 1.55 number of over-current devices in a lighting and appliance
d. 1.65 branch circuit panel board shall not exceed
a. 30
45. Their shall be b. 36
an air space of at least __mm between walls, back, gutter c. 42
partition, of the metal or door of any cabinet or cut-out box d. 48
and the nearest exposed current carrying parts of devices
mounted within cabinet where the voltage does not exceed 250 53. The main
volts. This spacing shall be increased to at least __mm for 251 purpose of open-circuit test on a transformer is to determine
to 600 V nominal its
a. 12,24 a. Copper loss
b. 13,26 b. Core loss
c. 12,18 c. Total loss
d. 13,20 d. Insulation resistance

46. Corners joints 54. In Class III,

of auxiliary gutter shall be made tight and where assembly is Division 2, locations generators, motors, and other rotating
held together by rivets or bolts shall be spend not more than electrical machinery should be totally
__mm apart a. Enclosed fan-cooled
a. 100 b. Any of these
b. 150 c. Enclosed non-ventilated
c. 200 d. Enclosed pipe-ventilated
d. 300
55. A shunt DC
47. The savings in motor works on AC mains
Cu achieved by converting a 2-winding transformer into an a. Unsatisfactorily
autotransformer is determined by b. Satisfactorily
a. Voltage transformation ratio c. Not at all
b. Load on the secondary d. None of these
c. Magnetic quality of core material
d. Size of the transformer core 56. Other than at
points of support, there shall be an air space of at least__ mm
48. At relatively between the base of the device and the wall of any metal
light loads, transformer efficiency is low because cabinet or cut-out box in which the device is mounted
a. Secondary output is low a. 1.5
b. Transformer losses are high b. 2.5
c. Fixed loss is high in proportion to the output c. 2.0
d. Cu loss is small d. 1.75

49. Instrument, pilot 57. When load is

lights, potential transformers, and other switchboard devices removed, __motor will run at the highest speed
with potential coils shall be provided by a circuit that is a. Shunt
protected by standard overcurrent devices rated up to b. Commulative compound
__amperes c. Differential compound
41
 d. Series b. Ceiling
c. Lowest portion of the wall
58. The primary d. Gas pipes
reason why open-circuit test is performed on the low voltage
winding of the transformer is that it 66. With two
a. Draws sufficiently large no-load current for convenient conductors installed in a conduit, up to what percent of its
reading cross section the conduit can be filled to?
b. Requires least voltage to perform the test a. 25%
c. Needs maximum power input b. 31%
d. Involves less core loss c. 42%
d. 63%
59. In pull boxes or
junction boxes having any dimension over __mm, all 67. Conduit bodies
conductors shall be cabled or racked up in an approved enclosing 1sq. mm conductors or smaller should have a cross-
manner sectional area__ the cross-sectional area of the largest conduit
a. 1400 or tubing to which it is attached
b. 1600 a. Equal to exactly 1.5 times
c. 1800 b. Not less than twice
d. 1500 c. Not less than twice of
d. Exactly twice
60. A typical
warning notice in aircraft hangers:” WARNING-KEEP___ 68. Plaster, dry-
METERS CLEAR OF A AIRCRAFT ENGINES AND FUEL board surfaces that are broken or incomplete shall be required
TANK AREAS” so that their will be no gaps or open spaces greater than __mm
a. 3.5 at the edge of the box or fitting
b. 1.0 a. 3.2
c. 2.0 b. 3.6
d. 1.5 c. 3.8
61. The current d. 4.0
carried continuously in bare copper bars in auxiliary gutters
shall not exceed__ amperes per sq. cm cross-section of the 69. In Class I,
conductors hazardous locations, the minimum thickness of the sealing
a. 125 compound shall not be less than
b. 155 a. 10mm
c. 160 b. 12mm
d. 110 c. 16mm
d. 18mm
62. Boxes intended 70. A clearance of
to enclosed flush devices shall have an internal depth of not not less than __mm shall be secured between any bare current-
less than __mm carry metal parts and any metal surface within an auxiliary
a. 20 gutter
b. 24 a. 26
c. 28 b. 18
d. 30 c. 32
d. 12
63. Gutters shall be
supported throughout their entire length at suitable intervals 71. Locations
preferably not exceeding __mm where combustible dust is normally in the air are designated as
a. 1000 a. Class II, division 1
b. 1200 b. Class I, division1
c. 1375 c. Class II, division 2
d. 1500 d. Class III, Division 2

64. The maximum 72. Conductors

no. of 14 sq. mm conductors permitted in 100x40 square outlet shall not be installed in locations where the operating
box is temperature will exceed that specified by the code for the type
a. 4 of __used
b. 6 a. Insulation
c. 5 b. Wiring
d. 7 c. Conductors
d. Installation
65. Outlet boxes
used whose gas outlet are present shall be fastened to the __as 73. When there are
to be mechanically secured 7 through 9 conductors in a raceway or cable, the ampacity
a. Wall near the outlet reduction factor is __%
42
 a. 90 a. 35
b. 80 b. 40
c. 70 c. 55
d. 60 d. 45

74. The ordinary 82.

efficiency of a given transformer is maximum when Transformer are rated in KVA instead of KW because
a. It runs at half full-load a. Load power factor is often not known
b. It runs at full load b. KVA is fixed whereas KW depends on load p.f.
c. Its Cu loss equals iron loss c. Total transformer loss depend on volt ampere
d. It runs slightly overload d. It has become customary

75. The letter 83. The

W of type THW conductor means maximum no. of 2.0 sq. mm conductors permitted in a
a. Wet 100x32 round or octagonal outlet box is
b. Water a. 5
c. Moisture b. 6
d. Weather c. 7
d. 8
76. If the
impedance triangles of two transformers operating in 84. In Class II
parallel are not identical in shape and size, the two location where electrically conducting dust is present
transformer will flexible connection at motors could be made with
a. Share the load unequally a. Liquid-tight flexible metal conduit
b. Get heated unequally b. Flexible metal conduit
c. Have a circulatory secondary current even when c. Type AC armored cable
unloaded d. Hard usage cord
d. Run with different power factor
85. In Class II,
77. Which of division 1 location which of the following approved
the following methods is approved for Class I, Division 1 wiring methods where installed shall be supported in a
hazardous location manner to avoid tensile stress at termination fittings
a. Any of these a. All of these
b. Threaded rigid metal conduit b. Type MI cable
c. Threaded steel intermediate metal conduit c. Threaded rigid metal conduit
d. MI cable with termination fittings d. Threaded steel intermediate metal conduit

78. The 86. In

maximum operating temperature type THW conductor is performing short circuit test of a transformer
__°C a. The high voltage side usually short circuited
a. 65 b. The low voltage side usually short circuited
b. 75 c. Any side is short circuited with preference
c. 90 d. None of these
d. 150
79. For angle 87. Which of
on U pulls on systems over 600 volts nominal, the distance the following rotating electrical machinery is not
between each cable or conductor entry inside the box and permitted to be installed in Class III locations
the opposite wall of the box shall not be less than__ times a. Splash proof type
of the outside diameter of the largest cable or conductor b. Totally enclosed fan cooled
a. 36 c. Totally enclosed pipe-ventilated
b. 38 d. Totally enclosed non-ventilated
c. 40 88. In Class II,
d. 42 Division 1 locations, no transformer or capacitors shall be
installed in location where dust from __may be present
80. For type MI a. Any of these
conductor, the insulated material used is b. Magnesium
a. Propylene c. Aluminum
b. Magnesium oxide d. Aluminum bronze powder
c. Paper
d. Ethylene 89. Where
angle on U pulls are made the distance between each
81. The raceway inside the box and opposite wall shall not be less
ampacity of 8.0 sq. mm type TW single insulated, rated 0- than __times the trade diameter of the larger raceway.
2000V in free air conductor based on ambient temperature a. Five
of 30°C is __amperes b. Six
43
 c. Seven 97. A motor
d. Eight enclosure so designed and constructed to contain sparks or
flashes that may ignite the surroundings gas vapor
90. A a. Explosion proof
transformer having 1000 primary turns is connected to a b. Fire proof
250 VAC supply. For a secondary voltage of 400V, the c. Non-ignitable
number of turns should be d. Air cooled
a. 1600
b. 250 98. In
c. 400 switchboards. The conduit of raceways, including their
d. 1250 fittings, shall not rise more than __mm above the bottom
of the enclosure
91. Store rooms a. 60
and similar areas adjacent to aircraft hangers but b. 70
effectively isolated shall be designed as c. 75
a. Non-hazardous d. 80
b. Class I, Division 2
c. Class II, Division 1 99. Where
d. Class II, Division 2 installed in raceways, conductors of size __sq. mm and
larger shall be stranded.
92. In Class II, a. 3.5
Division 2 locations transformers containing Askarel and b. 8
rated in excess of 25kVA shall have an air space of not c. 5.5
less than __mm between the transformer cases and any d. 14
combustible material
a. 100 100. Which of
b. 150 the following is not a basic element of a transformer?
c. 120 a. Core
d. 180 b. Primary winding
c. Secondary winding
93. The d. Mutual flux
maximum no. of 5.5 sq. mm conductors permitted in a
100x40 round or octagonal outlet box is 101. For
a. 5 conductors having a voltage rating up to 2000 volts, the
b. 6 minimum size of copper conductors shall be__ mm
c. 7 a. 2.0
d. 8 b. 8.0
c. 5.5
94. When there d. 8.0
are 6 conductors in a raceway or cable the ampacity
reduction factor is __percent
a. 70
b. 80
c. 90
d. 95

95. Within an
auxiliary gutter, the conductors, including splices and taps,
shall not fill the gutter to more than __percent of its area
a. 25
b. 33
c. 50
d. 75

96. When
computing the box capacity in cubic cm, 3 equipment
conductors are counted as __conductor(s)
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3 TECH 6 ANSWER
d. 4 1. A
2. B

44
3. C 57. D
4. D 58. A
5. C 59. C
6. C 60. D
7. B 61. B
8. B 62. B
9. D 63. D
10. C 64. A
11. A 65. D
12. D 66. B
13. D 67. C
14. D 68. A
15. D 69. C
16. C 70. A
17. A 71. A
18. B 72. A
19. B 73. C
20. D 74. C
21. D 75. C
22. C 76. D
23. C 77. A
24. 78. B
25. B 79. A
26. C 80. B
27. A 81. C
28. C 82. C
29. A 83. B
30. B 84. A
31. B 85. B
32. C 86. B
33. A 87. A
34. B 88. A
35. D 89. B
36. A 90. A
37. D 91. A
38. B 92. B
39. B 93. B
40. D 94. B
41. B 95. D
42. D 96. A
43. A 97. A
44. B 98. C
45. B 99. B
46. D 100. D
47. A 101. A
48. C
49. B
50. C
51. D
52. D
53. B
54. B CRAFTSMAN 1
55. A 1. “Concealed” as applied to electrical wiring means;
a. Rendered inaccessible by the structure or finish of the
56. C building
45
 b. Rendered inaccessible by the structure or finish of the a. Storage
building b. Maintenance and repair of equipment
c. Admitting close approach c. Testing purposes
d. Inspection or servicing
2. A feeder is;
a. A circuit conductor between the final overcurrent 10. In all cases where there are live parts normally exposed on
device protecting the circuit and the outlet the front of switchboards or motor control centers, the
b. A branch circuit that supplies several outlets working space in front of such equipment shall not be less
c. All circuit conductors between the service equipment, than;
the source of a separately derived system, or other a. 1 foot
power supply source and the final branch-circuit b. 3 feet
overcurrent device. c. 4 feet unless adequate protection is provided
d. A device for generating electricity d. 18 inches

3. A bonding jumper is; 11. Ampacity is defined as;

a. A branch circuit that supplies only one utilization a. The electromotive force required to cause electrons to
equipment flow in conductors
b. A reliable conductor to ensure the required electrical b. The amount of power in a circuit
conductivity between metal parts required to be c. The current, in amperes, that a conductor can carry
electrically connected. continuously under the conditions of use without
c. An adhesive used to insulate conductors exceeding its temperature rating
d. Capable of being operated without exposing operator d. The voltage rating of any appliance
to contact with live parts
12. “Approved” as used in the NEC means;
4. In locations where electric equipment would be exposed to a. Acceptable to the authority having jurisdiction
physical damage, the following must be provided; b. Acceptable only when specified in local ordinances
a. Warning signs c. Okay for use in hazardous locations
b. Sufficient headroom d. Usable only for inside work
c. Working space
d. Enclosures or guards 13. A bare conductor is one with;
a. Several layers of thermoplastic insulation
5. To provide access to the working space about electric b. Only one layer of insulation
equipment, the following number of entrances of sufficient c. A covering that is not recognized by the NEC as
size must be provided; electrical insulation
a. 3 d. No covering or insulation whatsoever
b. 2
c. 1 14. Which of the following anchors may not be used to secure
d. 4 electrical equipment to masonry walls?
a. Lead anchors approved for the weight of the equipment
6. Externally operable means; b. Toggle bolts
a. Capable of being operated from the outside of a c. Threaded studs “shot” into the masonry
building d. Wooden plugs driven into holes in the masonry for
b. An apparatus enclosed in a case holding wood screws(not correct)
c. Capable of being operated without exposing the
operator to contact with live parts 15. A device designed to open and close a circuit by
d. Surrounded by a case nonautomatic means and to open the circuit automatically
on a predetermined overcurrent without damage to itself
7. What must be provided for in all working spaces above when properly applied within its rating is called a;
service equipment? a. Nonfusible disconnect switch
a. A water faucet to flush operator’s eyes b. Time-delay fuse
b. A drinking fountain c. Circuit breaker
c. Illumination d. Motor running overcurrent protector
d. A wash basin
16. A conductor encased within material of composition or
8. Parts of electric equipment which in ordinary operation thickness that is recognized by the NEC as electrical
produce arcs, sparks, flames, or molten metal shall be insulation is known as;
enclosed or separated and isolated form; a. A bare conductor
a. All other electrical equipment b. A covered conductor
b. All combustible material c. A concealed conductor
c. Electric lighting d. An insulated conductor
d. All working spaces

9. Working space in rooms containing electrical equipment 17. A separate portion of a conduit or tubing system that
shall not be used; provides access through a removable cover(s) to the
46
 interior of the system at a junction of two or more sections a. A hose
of the system or at a terminal point of the system is defined b. A raceway
as a; c. A receptacle
a. Conduit body d. A panelboard
b. Conduit junction 25. A contact device installed at an outlet for the connection of
c. Conduit intersection an attachment plug is called;
d. Conduit T-connector a. A terminator
b. A junction box
18. Which of the following describes cleaning and lubricating c. An overcurrent protection device
compounds that can cause severe damage to many plastic d. A receptacle
insulating materials?
a. Deteriorating agents 26. A compartment or chamber to which one or more air ducts
b. Cooling agents are connected and which forms part of the air distribution
c. Splicing agents system is a;
d. Heating agents a. Plenum
b. duct
19. Which circuits must not be connected to any system c. fan-coil unit
containing trolley wires with a ground return? d. air valve
a. Ground wires
b. Grounding conductors 27. The NEC definition of “qualified Person” is one who;
c. Circuits for lighting and power a. Has been elected by the inspection office
d. Ungrounded trolley wires b. Has skills and knowledge related to the construction
and operation of electrical equipment and installations
20. The minimum headroom of working spaces about service and has received safety training to recognize and avoid
equipment, switchboards, panelboards, or motor control the hazards involved.
centers shall be at least; c. Has served two years apprenticeship training with a
a. 6 ½ feet labor organization
b. 8 feet d. Has a college degree in electrical engineering or
c. 5.75 feet electrical technology
d. 10 feet
28. When a component used on an electrical wiring system has
21. Indoor electrical installations over 600 volts that are open been constructed or treated to prevent rain from interfering
to unqualified persons shall be made with; with the successful operation of the apparatus under
a. Open switchgear with readily accessible live parts specified test conditions, it is known as;
b. Metal-enclosed equipment a. Raintight
c. Provisions to enclose the equipment within a barrier b. Readily accessible
less than 8 feet high c. Rainproof
d. The approval of both the I.B.E.W. and the I.E.S. d. Rated-load component
22. The entrance provided to give access to the working space 29. When an enclosure has been constructed so that exposure to
about electric equipment rated over 600 volts must not be a beating rain will not result in the entrance of water under
less than; specified test conditions, the enclosure is known as;
a. 6 feet x 6 feet a. Rainproof
b. 24 feet x 6 feet b. Drip-proof
c. 2 feet x 6 feet c. Raintight
d. 2 feet x 6 ½ feet d. Multioutlet assembly

23. Where switches, or other equipment operating at 600 volts, 30. A point on the wiring system at which current is taken to
nominal, or less, are installed in a room or enclosure where supply utilization equipment is known as;
there are exposed energized parts or wiring operating at a. An outlet
over 600 volts, the high-voltage equipment shall be b. A wall switch
effectively separated from the space occupied by the low- c. A load center
voltage equipment by a suitable; d. A motor-control center
a. Warning sign
b. Partition, fence or screen
31. The agency that publishes the NEC is abbreviated;
c. Voltage-reducing transformer
a. (NFPA) The National Fire Protection Association
d. firewall
32. A raceway system is an enclosed channel designed for
holding;
a. Wires, cables or busbars
b. Automotive equipment
c. Spark-plug wires
24. An enclosed channel designed expressly for holding wires,
d. Equipment for high-speed autos
cables, or busbars is called;
47
33. A large single panel, or assembly of panels, on which are 41. Which of the following qualifying terms indicate that a
mounted switches, overcurrent and other protective devices circuit breaker can be set to trip at various values of
will fall under the definition of; current, time, or both, within a predetermined range?
a. General-use switch a. Accessible
b. Thermal protector b. Adjustable
c. Switchboard c. Setting
d. cutout d. concealed

34. Any electric circuit that controls any other circuit through a 42. The ratio of the maximum demand of a system, or part of a
relay is called a; system, to the total connected load of the system or the part
a. Remote-control circuit of the system under consideration is known as;
b. Power circuit a. Percentage
c. Overload relay b. Duty cycle
d. Motor control circuit c. Rated-load current
d. Demand factor
35. Any electric circuit that energizes signaling equipment is
known as; 43. Electric parts that are not suitably guarded, isolated, or
a. Low-voltage branch circuit insulated and are capable of being inadvertently touched or
b. Multiwire circuit approached nearer than a safe distance by a person are
c. Signaling circuit known as;
d. feeder circuit a. Exposed
b. Externally operable
36. A device which, by insertion in a receptacle, establishes c. Accessible
connection between the conductor of the attached flexible d. Dead front
cord and the conductors connected permanently to the
receptacle is called one of the following; 44. A device intended for the protection of personnel that
a. Female plug functions to de-energize a circuit or portion thereof within
b. Circuit breaker an established period of time when a current to ground
c. Controller exceeds the values established for a class A device.
d. Attachment plug a. Grounding electrode device
b. Ground-fault circuit-interrupter (GFCI)
37. A device that establishes a connection between two or c. Guarded protector
more conductors by means of mechanical pressure and d. Thermal cutout
without the use of solder is called;
a. An explosionproof connector with seal-offs 45. The NEC uses the term “isolated” to mean;
b. A pressure connector a. Not readily accessible to persons unless special means
c. A wire nut for access are used
d. A shrink connector b. Grouped together
c. Identifiable by means of color coding or nameplate
38. A continuous load is a load where the maximum current is d. nearby
expected to continue for a certain length of time. This time
is; 46. Accessories such as locknuts, bushing, etc. are known as;
a. One hour or more a. Connectors
b. Two hours or more b. Conduit bodies
c. Three hours or more c. Fittings
d. Four hours or more d. Ground clips

39. What is a branch circuit called that supplies a number of 47. An arrangement of incandescent lamps or electric
outlets for lighting and appliances? discharge lighting to call attention to certain features such
a. An appliance branch circuit as the shape of a building is called;
b. An individual branch circuit a. Festoon lighting used for outdoor parties and to
c. A general purpose branch circuit highlight other outdoor function
d. a multiwire branch circuit b. Outline lighting
c. High-intensity discharge lighting such as normally
used at intersections or highways
40. A device used to govern, in some predetermined manner,
d. Decorative lighting inside a building
the electric power delivered to an electric apparatus is
called a;
a. Controller 48. Operation of equipment in excess of normal, full-load
b. Heater rating is known as;
c. Governor a. Hot load
d. Motor starter b. Under current
c. Overload
d. periodic duty

48
49. The value of current, time, or both at which an adjustable 57. What is the name of an electrical load where the wave shape
circuit breaker is set to trip is known as; of the steady-state current does not follow the wave shape of
a. Inverse time the applied voltage?
b. Ampacity a. Linear
c. Automatic b. Parallel load
d. Setting c. Nonlinear load
d. Series load
50. Which of the following must not be allowed to come in 58. How many access entrances are required to working space
contact with interior parts of electrical equipment? about electrical equipment rated 1200 amperes or more and
a. Busbars over 6 feet wide?
b. Wiring terminals a. One
c. Abrasives b. Two, one at each end of the area
d. insulators c. Three, one on each of three sides
d. Four, one on each four side
51. How tall must a wall, screen, or fence be that encloses an
outdoor electrical installation over 600 volts to deter access 59. When the electrical equipment exceeds 6 ½ feet in height,
by unqualified persons? what is the required minimum headroom?
a. 5 feet a. One foot higher than the top of the highest piece of
b. 6 feet equipment
c. 7 feet b. Not less than the height of the equipment
d. 8 feet c. 6 inches more than the height of the equipment
d. 4 feet more than the height of the equipment
52. Entrance to all rooms or other enclosures containing
exposed live parts operating at over 600 volts, nominal, 60. Where must branch circuits and feeders be identified?
shall be; a. At the disconnecting means
a. Elevated 30 feet above ground b. At the point where they terminate
b. Painted yellow with black and blue stripes c. At both the point where they originate and the point
c. Kept unlocked for immediate serving where they terminate
d. Kept locked d. Midway between the outlet and overcurrent protective
device
53. The NEC definition for a “bathroom” is an area containing
one or more of the following: toilet, tub, or shower, and at 61. What is the minimum depth of clear working space at
least one; electrical equipment rated above 75 kV classified as
a. Vent-through-roof Condition 1?
b. Hand dryer a. 3 feet
c. Electric heater b. 5 feet
d. Basin c. 6 feet
d. 8 feet
54. Which of the following best describes festoon lighting?
a. A string of outdoor lights that is suspended between
two points
b. A 600 volt lighting system used in power plants
c. Low voltage lighting used on billboards
d. Underwater lighting in pools and ponds

55. What is the term used to describe an enclosing case that

will not allow dust to enter under specified test conditions?
a. Dustproof
b. Dust prevention
c. Dusttight
d. explosionproof

56. What is an assembly of one or more enclosed sections

having a common power supply (bus) and principally
containing motor control units called?
a. Main distribution panel
b. Motor control center
c. motor load center
d. selector-switch control center

49
 CRAFTSMAN 1 53. D
101. 54. A
1. A 55. C
2. C 56. B
3. B 57. C
4. D 58. B
5. C 59. B
6. C 60. A
7. C 61. D
8. B
9. A
10. B
11. C
12. A
13. D
14. D
15. C
16. D
17. A
18. A
19. C
20. A
21. B
22. D
23. B
24. B
25. D
26. A
27. B
28. C
29. C
30. A
31. A
32. A
33. C
34. A
35. C
36. D
37. B
38. C
39. C
40. A
41. B
42. D
43. A
44. B
45. A
46. C
47. B
48. C
49. D
50. C
51. C
52. D
50
 CRAFTSMAN 2 7. An incandescent lamp has a resistance of
104 ohms when 2 amperes of current flow. What is the
voltage?
a. 240 volts
b. 208 volts
c. 120 volts
d. 12 volts

8. What current is drawn by a 277-volt

flourescent lamp with 8 ohms reactance?
a. 20.52 amperes
b. 60.75 amperes
c. 34.62 amperes
d. 10.30 amperes

1. The circuit in Figure 2-2 shows the

resistors R2 and R3 connected in parallel, but resistor R1 is
in series with both the battery and the parallel combination of
R2 and R3. What is the total resistance of R2 and R3?
a. 40 Ω
b. 10 Ω
c. 20 Ω
d. 30 Ω

2. Now we know that the total combined

resistance of R2 and R3 is 10 ohms. What is the total
resistance of the entire circuit in figure 2-2?
a. 15 Ω 9. If the impedance Z of the circuit
b. 20 Ω impedance triangle in Figure 2-3 is 5 ohms and angle A is
c. 45 Ω 30°, what is the value of the inductive reactance (XL)?
d. 5 Ω a. 2.5 Ω
b. 6.75 Ω
3. Assuming the battery in Figure 2-2 is 30 c. 3.2 Ω
volts, what is the total current in the circuit? d. 12.3 Ω
a. 1 ampere
b. 2 amperes 10. What is the minimum general lighting load
c. 3 amperes permitted by the NEC in a 4500 square foot warehouse?
d. 4 amperes a. 1005 volt-amperes
b. 1125 volt-amperes
4. According to Kirchoff’s voltage law, which c. 1750 volt-amperes
of the following Ohm’s law equations may be used to find d. 1243 volt-amperes
the voltage drop across a resistor?
a. Voltage drop = R 11. What is the minimum general lighting load
b. Voltage drop = I/R permitted in a 1500 square foot single-family dwelling as
c. Voltage drop = E/R specified in Table 220.12 of the 2005 NEC?
d. Voltage drop = W/I a. 4500 volt- amperes
b. 3500 volt- amperes
5. A 120-volt circuit has an electric heater c. 7350 volt- amperes
connected with a current rating of 7.5 amperes. What is the d. 2130 volt- amperes
resistance in ohms of the connected pure resistance load
a. 8 Ω 12. The voltage per turn for a transformer is
b. 10 Ω 1.25 volts. What is the voltage of the transformer if it has 192
c. 16 Ω turns?
d. 20 Ω a. 12 volts
b. 240 volts
6. An ohmmeter shows the resistance of a c. 120 volts
240-volt electric heater to be 19.5 ohms. What current flows d. 24 volts
through this heater?
a. 10.5 amperes 13. A 50 kVA, three-phase, delta-to-wye
b. 6.75 amperes connected, 480/120-208 volt transformer is used to supply a
c. 3.2 amperes lighting load. What is the rated line current on the primary
d. 12.3 amperes side?
a. 45.54 amperes
51
 b. 50.41 amperes b. 2.5%
c. 60.21 amperes c. 3%
d. 124.7 amperes d. 4%

14. A 50 kVA, three-phase, delta-to-wye

connected, 480/120-208 volt transformer is used to supply
abalanced lighting load will have what line-current rating on
the secondary?
a. 60.21 amperes 22. A voltage drop of 7.2 volts is found on a
b. 138.95 amperes 240-volt circuit. What percent is the voltage drop?
c. 152.73 amperes a. 1%
d. 176.54 amperes b. 2%
c. 3%
15. A 480/277 volt, Y-connected transformer is d. 4%
used to supply a balanced 277-volt, single-phase lighting load
of 40,000 watts. What size transformer (kVA) should be used? 23. A voltage drop of 19.2 volts has been
a. 10 kVA determined on a 480-volt circuit. What percent is the voltage
b. 20 kVA drop?
c. 40 kVA a. 2%
d. 50 kVA b. 2.5%
c. 4%
16. What is the maximum allowable wattage d. 5%
that can be connected to a 240-volt, 20-ampere, single-phase
circuit feeding residential electric heaters? 24. If a 120-volt circuit feeds six 80-watt
a. 3840 watts fluorescent lamps, what current is drawn if the power factor is
b. 4000 watts 0.91?
c. 432o watts a. 4.4 amperes
d. 1920 watts b. 3.2 amperes
c. 2.57 amperes
17. An electric oven is rated at 2000 watts d. 4.7 amperes
when connected to a 460-volt circuit. What is the resistance of
the heating element? 25. Ca;culate the minimum volt- ampere
a. 50.3Ω capacity of a 155000 square foot school.
b. 75.2Ω a. 225 kVA
c. 105.8Ω b. 155 kVA
d. 120.7Ω c. 375 kVA
d. 465 kVA
18. What is the approximate wattage of a 240-
volt motor with a resistance of 28 ohms? 26. A store building 50 feet by 60 feet uses
a. 1780 watts fluorescent lighting fixtures to illuminate the interior. If each
b. 2057 watts fixture is to illuminate 60 square feet, how many light fixtures
c. 3640 watts will have to be installed?
d. 1045 watts a. 30
b. 40
19. The minimum allowable number of 120- c. 50
volt, 15-ampere, 2-wire lighting branch circuits required for a d. 60
residence 70 feet by 30 feet are:
a. 2 27. An electric heating element has an
b. 4 energized resistance of 30 ohms and is connected to a 120-volt
c. 3 circuit. How much current will flow in the circuit?
d. 5 a. 2 amperes
b. 4 amperes
20. A voltage drop of 3 volts has been c. 6 amperes
determined on a 120-volt circuit. What percent is the voltage d. 8 amperes
drop?
a. 2% 28. How many watts of heat are being
b. 2.5% produced by an electric heating element which has an
c. 3% energized resistance of 30 ohms and is connected to a 120-volt
d. 5% circuit?
a. 550 watts
21. A voltage drop of 8.31 volts has been b. 480 watts
determined on a 277-volt lighting circuit. What percent is the c. 225 watts
voltage drop? d. 400 watts
a. 2%
52
29. A 240-volt circuit has a current flow of 20 36. A dual-voltage three-phase motor draws a
amperes. How much resistance (ohms) is connected to the current of 45 amperes when connected to a 240-volt, three-
circuit? phase circuit. How much current will the same motor draw if
a. 3 Ω connected to a 480-volt, three-phase circuit?
b. 6 Ω a. 11.3
c. 9 Ω b. 22.5
d. 12 Ω c. 30.4
d. 45

30. An electric motor has an apparent

resistance of 17 ohms. If a current of 7 amps is flowing
through the motor, what is the connected voltage?
a. 118 volts 37. A synchronous motor has an excitation
b. 119 volts voltage of 125 volts with a maximum rotor current of 10
c. 120 volts amperes. What is the resistance of the motor?
d. 121 volts a. 10.1 Ω
b. 11.5 Ω
31. A 240-volt air-conditioning compressor c. 12.5 Ω
has an apparent resistance of 8 ohms. How much current will d. 13.4 Ω
flow in the circuit?
a. 10 amperes 38. The primary transformer is connected to
b. 20 amperes 120-volts. There are 30 volts on the secondary with a
c. 30 amperes resistance of 5 ohms. How much current will flow in the
d. 40 amperes primary of the transformer?
a. 50 amperes
32. How many watts of power are being used b. 75 amperes
by a 240-volt air-conditioning compressor which has an c. 1.25 amperes
apparent resistance of 8 ohms and draws 30 amperes of d. 1.5 amperes
current?
a. 5000 watts 39. What current flows in a 60 Hz 120-volt
b. 6500 watts circuit with a capacitance of 10uf(10 microfarads)?
c. 7000 watts a. .452 amperes
d. 7200 watts b. .555 amperes
c. 1.12 amperes
33. A 4160-watt electric heater is connected to d. .786 amperes
a 208-volt single-phase, 2-wire circuit. What is the current
flow in the circuit? 40. What is the total resistance in a 2-wire
a. 19 amperes circuit, 30 feet in length, utilizing No. 10 AWG THWN
b. 22 amperes conductors?
c. 18 amperes a. .050 Ω
d. 20 amperes b. .060 Ω
c. .070 Ω
34. What is the minimum size THW conductor d. .080 Ω
allowed to carry the load of a 4160-watt electric heater which
is connected to a 208-volt single-phase, 2-wire circuit which 41. If a 2-wire circuit, 30 feet in length,
draws 20 amperes of current? utilizing No. 10 AWG THWN conductors is connected to a
a. No. 14 AWG 240-volt source and feeds a load drawing 24 amperes with a
b. No. 12 AWG total resistance of .060 ohms, what is the amount of voltage
c. No. 10 AWG drop?
d. No. 8 AWG a. 2.24 volts
b. 3.24 volts
35. A clamp-on ammeter has three turns of c. 1.44 volts
wire wrapped around the movable jaw. If the meter is d. 0.44 volts
indicating a current of 15 amperes, how much current is
actually flowing in the circuit? 42. If a 2-wire circuit, 30 feet in length,
a. 5 amperes utilizing No. 10 AWG THWN conductors is connected to a
b. 10 amperes 240-volt source and feeds a load drawing 24 amperes with a
c. 25 amperes total resistance of .060 ohms and a voltage drop og 1.44 volts,
d. 45 amperes how many volts in the circuit actually reach the load?
a. 240 volts
53
 b. 241.44 volts 48. What current flows in a 120-volt, 60 Hz
c. 242.44 volts circuit connected to a coil with an inductance of .7 henrys and
d. 238.56 volts an inductance reactance of 263.9 ohms?
a. .0455 amperes
43. A circuit consisting of two No. 14 AWG b. .455 amperes
conductors is run from the panelboard to aload 100 feet away. c. 4.55 amperes
If the K factor is 10.4 and No. 14 wire is equal to 4107 d. 45.5 amperes
circular mils, what is the total resistance of the circuit?
a. 50.6 Ω 49. What is the impedance (Z) in a circuit with
b. .506 Ω 40 ohms resistance (R) and 30 ohms inductive reactance
c. 506 Ω (XL)?
d. 5.06 Ω a. 20 Ω
b. 30 Ω
c. 40 Ω
d. 50 Ω

50. What is the power factor of a circuit with

400 watts true power, 300 vars reactive power, and 500
watts(volt-amperes) of apparent power?
a. .5
44. A circuit consisting of two No. 14AWG b. .6
conductors is run from the panelboard to a load 100 feet away. c. .7
If the K factor is 10.4 and No. 14 wire is equal to 4107 d. .8
circular mils with a total resistance of the circuit equal to .506
ohms, what is the voltage drop if the current is 24 amperes at
240 volts?
a. 12.144 volts
b. 1.214 volts 51. What is the power factor of a 120-volt
c. .1214 volts circuit feeding an AC induction motor drawing 10 amperes of
d. .0121 volts current with a true power of 720 watts and an apparent power
of 1200 volt-amperes?
45. A circuit consisting of two No. 14AWG a. .2
conductors is run from the panelboard to a load 100 feet away. b. .4
If the K factor is 10.4 and No. 14 wire is equal to 4107 c. .6
circular mils with a total resistance of the circuit equal to .506 d. .8
ohms, the current is 24 amperes at 240 volts and the voltage
drop is 12.144 volts, how much voltage actually reaches the 52. What is the reactive power of a 120-volt
load in the circuit? circuit feeding an AC induction motor drawing 10 amperes of
a. 240 volts current with a true power of 720 watts and an apparent power
b. 237.8 volts of 1200 volt-amperes?
c. 227.9 volts a. 960 vars
d. 217.8 volts b. 1150 vars
c. 1225 vars
46. A circuit consisting of two No. 14AWG d. 1300 vars
conductors is run from the panelboard to a load 100 feet away.
If the K factor is 10.4 and No. 14 wire is equal to 4107 53. What is the capacitive reactance of a 120-
circular mils with a total resistance of the circuit equal to .506 volt circuit feeding an AC induction motor drawing 10
ohms, the current is 24 amperes at 240 volts and the voltage amperes of current with a true power of 720 watts, an apparent
drop is 12.144 volts, what is the percentage of voltage drop in power of 1200 volt-amperes and the reactive power of 960
the circuit? vars?
a. .0843 or about 8% a. 10 Ω
b. .0721 or about 7% b. 15Ω
c. .0607 or about 6% c. 20Ω
d. .0506 or about 5% d. 25Ω

47. What is the inductance reactance in a 120- 54. What amount of capacitance is needed to
volt, 60 Hz circuit connected to a coil with an inductance of .7 correct the power factor of a 120-volt circuit feeding an AC
henrys? induction motor drawing 10 amperes of current with a true
a. 2.639 Ω power of 720 watts, an apparent power of 1200 volt-amperes,
b. 26.39 Ω the reactive power of 960 vars and the capacitive reactance 15
c. 263.9 Ω ohms?
d. .2639 Ω a. .01768 farads
b. .001768 farads
c. .0001768 farads
d. .00001768 farads
54
 c. 44.5 kW
55. What is the total resistance of a series d. 48.5 kW
circuit with resistors of 5 ohms, 3 ohms, 12 ohms, and 9
ohms? 62. A department store is illuminated with 215
a. 20Ω fluorescent lighting fixtures and connected to a 120-volt
b. 21Ω supply. Each lighting unit draws 2.2 amperes making the total
c. 29Ω current load equal to 473 amperes. Using a power factor of0.8
d. 23Ω and the total power of the lighting load equal to 45.4 kW, what
would be the electric bill be for an 8-hour day if the energy
56. What is the resistance of a parallel circuit costs 10 cents per kWh?
with resistors of 30 ohms and 50 ohms? a. $31.45
a. 22.50 ohms b. $35.67
b. 18.75 ohms c. $36.32
c. 6.85 ohms d. $38.40
d. 10.55 ohms
63. A warehouse requires 60 kW of general
57. Circuit A is a series circuit with resistors illumination using 150 watt incandescent lamps connected to a
of 5 ohms, 3 ohms, 12 ohms, and 9 ohms and circuit B is a 120-volt source. What is the current drawn by each lamp?
parallel circuit with resistors of 30 ohms and 50 ohms. If the a. 1.50 amperes
two circuits were combined forming a series-parallel circuit, b. 1.25 amperes
what would be the total resistance? c. 1 ampere
a. 47.75Ω d. .75 ampere
b. 52.25Ω
c. 10.25Ω
d. 18.75Ω

58. What is the total resistance of a series

circuit with four Christmas lights connected, each of which
has a resistance of 3 ohms? 64. A warehouse requires 60 kW of general
a. 2Ω illumination using 150 watt incandescent lamps connected to a
b. 4Ω 120-volt source. How many 20-ampere branch circuits are
c. 6Ω required to feed the lamps if the circuits are to be kept at 80%
d. 12Ω of their maximum rating?
a. 30
59. A 12-volt battery supplies a total load of b. 31
10 amperes. What would the amperage be if the battery c. 32
voltage dropped 10% and the load resistance remained the d. 33
same?
a. 1.2 amperes 65. What number of 150-watt lamps are
b. 9 amperes required to total 60,000 watts?
c. 10.5 amperes a. 100
d. 12.5 amperes b. 200
c. 300
60. A department store is illuminated with 215 d. 400
fluorescent lighting fixtures and connected to a 120-volt
supply. Each lighting unit draws 2.2 amperes. How many 20- 66. An apartment complex consist of 20
ampere branch circuits are necessary to feed these fixtures if apartments, each with an area of 900 square feet. Each is also
each branch circuit must not exceed 80% of the branch circuit equipped with an 11 kW electric range. The power supply is
rating? 120/240-volt, single-phase, three-wire. The NEC calls for a
a. 16 minimum lighting load of 3 volt-amperes per square foot.
b. 18 What is the total lighting and appliance load for each
c. 20 apartment?
d. 30 a. 10,945 volt-amperes
b. 11,945 volt-amperes
61. A department store is illuminated with 215 c. 12,945 volt-amperes
fluorescent lighting fixtures and connected to a 120-volt d. 13,945 volt-amperes
supply. Each lighting unit draws 2.2 amperes making the total
current load equal to 473 amperes. If the lighting units have a 67. An apartment complex consist of 20
power factor of 0.8, what is the total power of the lighting apartments, each with an area of 900 square feet. Each is also
load? equipped with an 11 kW electric range. The power supply is
a. 41.4 kW 120/240-volt, single-phase, three-wire. The NEC calls for a
b. 45.4 kW minimum lighting load of 3 volt-amperes per square foot.
55
 Using this information, the total lighting and appliance load c. 200 amperes
for each apartment is 11,945 volt-amperes. What are the total d. 250 amperes
current requirements for each apartment?
a. 49.77 amperes 74. How many 15-ampere lighting circuits are
b. 50.77 amperes necessary in a mobile home 12 feet by 65 feet
c. 51.77 amperes a. Two 15-ampere circuit
d. 52.77 amperes b. One 15-ampere circuit
c. Six 15-ampere circuits
68. An apartment complex consist of 20 d. For 15-ampere circuits
apartments, each with an area of 900 square feet. Each is also
equipped with an 11 kW electric range. The power supply is
120/240-volt, single-phase, three-wire. The NEC calls for a
minimum lighting load of 3 volt-amperes per square foot.
What is the total calculated load for the building?
a. 70,000 volt-amperes
b. 72,000 volt-amperes
c. 75,000 volt-amperes
d. 77,000 volt-amperes

69. An apartment complex consist of 20

apartments, each with an area of 900 square feet. Each is also
equipped with an 11 kW electric range. The power supply is
120/240-volt, single-phase, three-wire. The NEC calls for a
minimum lighting load of 3 volt-amperes per square foot.
What size electric service is required for the apartment
building?
a. 320.83 amperes
b. 420.83 amperes
c. 520.83 amperes
d. 620.83 amperes

70. A 60 kW incandescent lighting load is

connected to a 120/208-volt, three-phase, 4-wire electric
service. The load is balanced. What is the total current
consumed by this load?
a. 169.50 amperes
b. 160.25 amperes
c. 166.74 amperes
d. 169.24 amperes

71. An industrial building is illuminated with

200.277-volt fluorescent lighting fixtures connected to a
277/480-volt, three-phase, 4-wire, Y-connected supply. If each
fixture draws 1.2 amperes at a power factor of .8, what is the
total load in amperes per single phase?
a. 120 amperes
b. 480 amperes
c. 220 amperes
d. 240 amperes

72. On a 277/480 volt three-phase supply with

a balance load of 240 amperes, what is the current per phase?
a. 70 amperes
b. 80 amperes
c. 90 amperes
d. 100 amperes

73. A group of electric furnaces used in a heat-

treating plant require 60 kW of power at 240 volts, single-
phase. What is the total amperage of these furnaces at unity
power factor?
a. 100 amperes
b. 150 amperes
56
 23. (C) 4%
24. (A) 4.4 amperes
25. (D) 465 kVA
26. (C) 50
27. (B) 4 amperes
28. (B) 480 watts
29. (D) 12 Ω
30. (B) 119 volts
31. (C) 30 amperes
32. (D) 7200 watts
33. (D) 20 amperes
34. (C) No. 10 AWG
35. (A) 5 amperes
36. (B) 22.5
37. (C) 12.5Ω
38. (D) 1.5 amperes
39. (A) .452 amperes
40. (B) .060 Ω
41. (C) 1.44 volts
42. (D) 238.56 volts
43. (B) .506 Ω
44. (A) 12.144 volts
45. (C) 227.9 volts
46. (D) .0506 or about 5%
CRAFTSMAN 2 ANSWER 47. (C) 263.9Ω
1. (B) 10Ω 48. (B) .455 amperes
2. (A) 15Ω 49. (D) 50Ω
3. (B) 2 amperes 50. (D) .8
4. (A) Voltage drop= I/R 51. (C) .6
5. (B) 16Ω 52. (A) 960 vars
6. (D) 12.3 53. (B) 15Ω
7. (B) 208 volts 54. (C) .0001768 farads
8. (C) 34.62 amperes 55. (C) 29Ω
9. (A) 2.5 Ω 56. (B) 18.75Ω
10. (B) 1125 volt-amperes 57. (A) 47.75Ω
11. (A) 4500 volt-amperes 58. (D) 12Ω
12. (B) 240 volts 59. (B) 9 amperes
13. (C) 60.21 amperes 60. (D) 30
14. (B) 138.95 amperes 61. (B) 45.4 kW
15. (C) 40 kVA 62. (C) $36.32
16. (A) 3840 watts 63. (B) 1.25 amperes
17. (C) 105.8 Ω 64. (C) 32
18. (B) 2057 watts 65. (D) 400
19. (B) 4 66. (B) 11,945 volt-
20. (B) 2.5% amperes
21. (C) 3% 67. (A) 49.77 amperes
22. (C) 3%
57
 68. (D) 77,000 volt- 20-ampere circuit using two No. 12 AWG conductors with
THW insulation?
amperes a. 14 amps
69. (A) 320.83 amperes b. 15 amps
c. 16 amps
70. (C) 166.74 amperes d. 20 amps
71. (D) 240 amperes
72. (B) 80 amperes 5. A 30-ampere branch
circuit may supply fixed lighting units in:
73. (D) 250 amperes a. A dwelling
74. (A) Two 15-ampere b. Any occupancy other than dwelling units when
heavy-duty lampholders are used
circuits c. Any type of occupancy
d. Any occupancy other than dwelling units when
standard-duty lampholders are used

6. Branch circuits in two-

family or multifamily dwellings required for the purpose of
central lighting, central alarm, signal, communications, or
other needs for public or commercial areas shall:
a. Be rated over 30 amperes for any application or
purpose
b. Terminate in one of the dwelling unit’s panelboards
c. Be rated over 50 amperes
d. Not be supplied from a dwelling unit’s panelboard

7. EMT must be supported

within what distance from an outlet box, junction box, device
box, cabinet, conduit body or other terminations?
a. 3 feet
b. 4 feet
c. 5 feet
d. 6 feet

CRAFTSMAN 3
1. The cross-sectional area
of three or more THW conductors in a conduit must not
exceed what percent of the cross-sectional area of the
conduit?
a. 30%
8. Receptacles installed in
b. 40%
guest rooms in hotels, motels and similar occupancies:
c. 50%
a. Are not subject to NEC regulations
d. 60%
b. Must be spaced according to NEC Section 210.52
c. May be located conveniently for permanent
2. What is the minimum
furniture layout
size THW copper conductor that may be used on a 30-
d. May be installed only if prior approval is given by
ampere branch circuit?
the local inspection authority
a. No. 14 AWG
b. No. 12 AWG
9. All 125-volt, single-
c. No. 10 AWG
phase, 15-or-20-ampere outlets installed in bathrooms of
d. No. 8 AWG
dwelling units always require:
a. Twist-lock receptacles
3. Heavy-duty type
b. Ground-fault circuit-interrupter (GFCI) protection
lampholders are required on branch-circuits having a rating
c. Non-grounded receptacles
in excess of:
d. Waterproof receptacle covers
a. 20 amperes
b. 30 amperes
10. The NEC allows wall-
c. 40 amperes
switch controlled receptacles in dwelling units in lieu of
d. 15 amperes
lighting outlets in all habitable rooms except:
a. Basement and attic
4. What is the maximum
b. Living and family rooms
continuous load (in amperes) that can be used on a 240-volt,
c. Bedrooms
58
 d. Kitchen and bath a. 8 kW
b. 9 kW
11. Insulated conductors of c. 10 kW
No. 6 or smaller intended for use as grounded conductors in a d. 11 kW
circuit must be either of the following colors:
a. Blue or black 19. A 20-ampere laundry
b. Red or black circuit is always required in each:
c. White, gray or have three continuous white stripes on a. Industrial wash room
other than green insulation b. Commercial utility room
d. Orange or yellow c. Dwelling unit
d. Metal unit
12. Holes in wood studs for
cables must be drilled in the center of the stud and a distance 20. How many receptacles
from the nearest edge of not less than: are required in a residential hallway 12 feet in length?
a. ½ inch a. 1
b. 1 inch b. 2
c. 1-1/4 inches c. 3
d. 1-1/2 inches d. 4

13. Direct buried conductors 21. How many receptacle

and cables emerging from grade shall be protected by an outlets are required in a residential garage?
enclosure or raceway a distance above ground of no less than: a. 4
a. 6 feet b. 3
b. 8 feet c. 2
c. 10 feet d. 1
d. 12 feet
22. In what location must a
14. Cable tray systems must 125-volt single-phase, 15-or 20-ampere receptacle be installed
not be used for the servicing of heating, air conditioning and refrigeration
a. For power and control applications equipment?
b. For service-entrance systems a. All apartment buildings
c. For signal cables b. One-and two-family-dwellings
d. In hoistways c. Commercial buildings
d. All locations
15. EMT shall be supported
at least every: 23. A 125-volt single-phase,
a. 4 feet 15-or 20-ampere receptacle installed for the servicing of
b. 8 feet heating, air conditioning and refrigeration equipment, other
c. 10 feet than for one- and two-family dwelling units, must be installed
d. 15 feet within what distance from the equipment?
a. 25 feet
b. 50 feet
c. 75 feet
d. 100 feet

16. The total equivalent

bend in rigid conduit between pull points (outlet to outlet,
fitting to fitting, or outlet to fitting) shall not exceed: 24. On what side of the
a. 3 quarter bends (270”) equipment disconnecting means must a 125-volt single-phase,
b. 4 quarter bends (360”) 15-or 20-ampere receptacle installed for the servicing of
c. 5 quarter bends (450”) heating, air conditioning and refrigeration equipment, not be
d. 6 quarter bends (540”) connected?
a. On the line side
17. When a branch circuit b. At the equipment controls
feeds both noncontinuous and continuous loads, the circuit c. On the load side
must be sized to accommodate 100% of the noncontinuous d. At the main panelboard
load plus what percent of the continuous load?
a. 110% 25. How many lighting
b. 115% outlets must be installed at or near heating, air-conditioning,
c. 120% and refrigeration equipment in attics or crawl spaces?
d. 125% a. 1
b. 2
18. The branch-circuit load c. 3
for a single 12-kilowatt (12kW) electric range in a dwelling is: d. 4
59
 overcurrent device shall not be less than the noncontinuous
26. How must the lighting load plus what percent of the continuous load?
outlets be controlled if the lighting outlets are installed at or a. 100%
near heating, air-conditioning, or refrigeration equipment in b. 110%
attics or crawl spaces? c. 125%
a. From the load side of the HVAC equipment d. 150%
b. With a motor control
c. By a switch 34. Where a feeder
d. With a 30-amp safety switch conductor supplies continuous loads, the rating of the
overcurrent device shall not be less than the noncontinuous
27. Where must the wall load plus 125% of the continuous load. What is one exception
switch be located for lighting outlets which are installed at or to this rule?
near heating, air-conditioning, or refrigeration equipment in a. Where the overcurrent devices are listed for operation at
attics or crawl spaces? 100%
a. Mounted on the HVAC equipment b. Where the overcurrent devices are listed at 75%
b. At the point of entry to the area c. Where the overcurrent devices are listed at 80%
c. At the main disconnect d. Where no overcurrent devices are provided
d. At least 5 feet from the equipment
35. What is the minimum
28. Feeders containing a load per each linear foot that must be allowed for show
common neutral are permitted to supply how many sets of 3- window lighting?
wire feeders? a. 100 volt-amperes
a. 1 or 2 b. 200 volt-amperes
b. 5 or 6 c. 300 volt-amperes
c. 3 or 4 d. 400 volt-amperes
d. 2 or 3
36. What percent of fixed
29. Feeders containing a electric space heating loads must be used in calculating the
common neutral are permitted to supply how many sets of 4- total connected load on a branch circuit or feeder?
wire feeders? a. 100%
a. 2 b. 125%
b. 3 c. 150%
c. 4 d. 200%
d. 5
37. In four 12 kW electric
30. Feeders containing a ranges are used in a four-unit apartment complex, what is the
common neutral are permitted to supply how many sets of 5- total kW rating that must be used for all of these ranges in
wire feeders? calculating the electric service?
a. 1 a. 17 kW
b. 2 b. 18 kW
c. 3 c. 20 kW
d. 4 d. 48 kW

31. Service conductors run 38. If a 40 unit apartment

above the top level of a window shall be permitted to be less complex has a 12 kW electric range in each unit, what is the
than the ___equipment. total kW rating for all the rangers that must be used in
a. 3-foot calculating the electric service?
b. 6-foot a. 45 kW
c. 8-foot b. 50 kW
d. 10-foot c. 55 kW
d. 60 kW

39. What demand factor is

allowed for a commercial kitchen with one electric appliance?
a. 65%
32. Which one of the b. 70%
following voltages is not standard? c. 80%
a. 120/277 d. 100%
b. 480Y/277
c. 120/240
d. 600Y/347

33. Where a feeder

conductor supplies continuous loads, the rating of the

60
40. When outside overhead
wiring is used, with no messenger cable, what is the minimum
size copper wire allowed for spans up to 50 feet?
a. No. 6 AWG
b. No. 8 AWG 48. The equipment
c. No. 10 AWG grounding conductor contacts of receptacles and cord
d. No. 10 AWG connectors must be grounded by:
a. Connection to the equipment grounding conductor
41. When outside overhead b. Aluminum ground clips
wiring is used, with no messenger cable, what is the minimum c. Aluminum conductors
size aluminum wire allowed for spans up to 50 feet? d. Aluminum ground clamps
a. No. 6 AWG
b. No. 8 AWG 49. When existing
c. No. 10 AWG nongrounding types of receptacles need replacing, what type
d. No. 12 AWG of receptacle must be used?
a. Receptacles rated for at least 15 amperes
42. When the voltage b. Receptacles rated for at least 20 amperes
exceeds 600 volts, what is the minimum copper wire size c. Twist-lock receptacles
allowed for outside overhead wiring? d. Grounding-type receptacles
a. No. 6 AWG
b. No. 8 AWG 50. When receptacles are
c. No. 10 AWG connected to circuits having different voltages, frequencies, or
d. No. 12 AWG types of current (ac or dc) on the same premises, what
precautions must be taken?
43. Where outdoor pendant- a. One type must have a means of disconnection from the
type lampholders have terminals that puncture conductor circuit when another type is used
insulation to make contact with the conductor, what type of b. Each receptacle must be tagged for the use intended
wire must the conductor be? c. None of the receptacles are allowed to be used without
a. Copper-plated solid steel proper supervision
b. Copper-clad solid aluminum d. The attachment plugs must be of a design so they are not
c. Stranded interchangeable
d. Solid copper
51. What location requires
44. What is the minimum all 15-and 20-ampere receptacles to be protected with a
size conductor allowed for festoon lighting? ground-fault circuit-interrupter?
a. No. 8 AWG a. Those installed within 6 feet of a residential kitchen sink
b. No. 10 AWG b. Those installed in hotel and motel bathrooms, rooftops
c. No. 12 AWG and kitchen
d. No. 14 AWG c. Those installed in residential bathrooms
d. All of these areas
45. Receptacles installed on
15-and 20-ampere branch circuits must always be of what 52. Which one of the
type? following is not allowed to supply branch circuits?
a. Duplex receptacles a. A 277-volt circuit
b. Grounding type b. A 120-volt circuit
c. Twist-lock receptacles c. Autotransformer if the circuit is without a grounded
d. Three-prong type conductor of the required type
d. A buck-and-boost transformer
46. What is the maximum
voltage allowed to supply listed electric-discharge lighting in 53. According to the NEC, as
residences, hotels, motels and similar occupancies? applied to electrical wiring systems, what constitutes a
a. 120 volts bathroom?
b. 240 volts a. An area with shower curtains
c. 277 volts b. An area with sinks
d. 480 volts c. An area with a basin and either a toilet, tub or shower
d. An area that contains a water faucet
47. Receptacles and cord
connectors that have equipment grounding conductor contacts 54. What is the maximum
must have those contacts: load allowed by the NEC for cord-or plug-connected load to a
a. Energized 15-ampere receptacle?
b. Connected to an equipment grounding conductor a. 10 amperes
c. Polished and free of corrosion b. 12 amperes
d. Checked monthly c. 14 amperes
d. 16 amperes

61
55. What is the maximum 63. When conductors are
load allowed by the NEC for cord- or plug-connected load to a paralleled, they are:
20-ampere receptacle? a. Joined their full length
a. 10 amperes b. Electrically separated at both ends to form two separate
b. 12 amperes conductors
c. 14 amperes c. Electrically joined at both ends to form a single conductor
d. 16 amperes d. Electrically connected at one end only

64. AFCIs must be installed

on all branch circuits supplying what areas?
a. Bedrooms
56. What is the minimum b. Living rooms
rating allowed for a single receptacle connected to a branch c. Family rooms
circuit? d. All of the above
a. Not less than that of the branch circuit
b. Not less than 85% of the branch circuit rating
c. Not less than 90% of the branch circuit rating
d. Not less than 70% of the branch circuit rating 65. What is the minimum
size copper wire that can be used on a 600-volt system?
57. The minimum branch- a. 14 AWG
circuit rating for household electric ranges with a rating of b. 12 AWG
8.75 kW or more is: c. 10 AWG
a. 30 amperes d. 8 AWG
b. 40 amperes
c. 50 amperes 66. The maximum
d. 60 amperes overcurrent protection allowed on No. 14 AWG copper wire
when used in a raceway for branch circuits is:
58. What is the minimum a. 30 amperes
rating for heavy-duty lampholders if not of the admedium b. 20 amperes
type? c. 15 amperes
a. 550 watts d. 10 amperes
b. 660 watts
c. 750 watts 67. The maximum
d. 770 watts overcurrent protection allowed on No. 12 AWG copper wire
when used in a raceway for branch circuits is:
59. Temporary wiring used a. 30 amperes
on a construction project must be removed: b. 20 amperes
a. Two weeks before the completion of the project c. 15 amperes
b. Within six months after the completion of the project d. 10 amperes
c. One week before completion of the construction
d. Immediately upon completion of the construction 68. The maximum
overcurrent protection allowed on No. 10 AWG copper wire
60. All temporary 125-volt, when used in a raceway for branch circuits is:
single-phase, 15, 20, and 30-ampere receptacle outlets must be a. 30 amperes
provided with: b. 20 amperes
a. Twist-lock plugs c. 15 amperes
b. Four-prong plugs d. 10 amperes
c. Ground-fault circuit-interrupters
d. Five-prong plugs 69. Which of the following
locations prohibits the use Type MI cable?
61. When installed in a a. For residential branch circuits
raceway, what size conductors must be stranded? b. Where exposed to excessive moisture
a. No. 12 AWG and larger c. Where exposed to destructive corrosive conditions
b. No. 8 AWG and larger d. Where exposed to low temperature
c. No. 10 AWG and larger
d. No. 2 AWG and smaller 70. Electrical nonmetallic
tubing (ENT) may not be used:
62. What is the minimum a. In any hazardous locations
size conductor that may be connected in parallel? b. For the support of fixtures and other equipment
a. 1/0 kcmil c. Where subject to ambient temperatures exceeding those
b. 2/0 kcmil for which the tubing is listed
c. 3/0 kcmil d. All of the above
d. 4/0 kcmil
71. Splices in an ENT system
may be made only at:
62
 a. Connectors a. A steel plate or bushing
b. Junction boxes b. Duct tape
c. The beginning of an ENT system c. The raceway must be installed in PVC rigid conduit
d. 12 inches from outlet boxes d. The installation must be removed and installed elsewhere

72. Where practicable, 80. Where a cable or

dissimilar metals in contact anywhere in the system shall be raceway wiring method is installed through holes bored in
avoided to eliminate the possibility of __. wooden floor joists, rafters, or studs and the hole is less than
a. Hysteresis 1-1/4 inches from the nearest edge of the wood member and
b. Specialty gravity where steel plates are used to protect a cable or wiring
c. Galvanic action method, what is the required minimum thickness of the plate?
d. Resistance a. 1/32 inch
b. 1/16 inch
73. Type MC (metal-clad) c. 1/8 inch
cable shall not be used in: d. 3/8 inch
a. Residential occupancies
b. Industrial applications 81. Which of the following
c. Commercial applications locations require GFCI protection for all 125-volt, 15 and 20-
d. Areas where the cable is exposed to corrosive conditions ampere receptacles?
a. In residential attics
b. Within 7 feet of a residential wet bar
74. Type NMC cable may be c. A bathroom in a commercial establishment with a wash
used in: basin and toilet
a. Storage battery rooms d. Garage receptacles that are not readily accessible
b. Dry or moist locations
c. Hazardous (classified) locations
d. Theaters, auditoriums or similar places of assembly 82. Which of the following
must be installed at or near equipment requiring servicing such
75. Power and control tray as HVAC equipment in attics or crawl spaces?
cable (Type TC) may not be used in: a. Three duplex receptacles, all with GFCI protection
a. Areas where the cable will be exposed to physical damage b. Lighting fixture with pull-chain switch
b. Outdoor areas when supported with messenger cable c. Low-voltage transformer to service control components
c. Circuits intended for signal circuits d. At least one switch-controlled lighting outlet
d. Circuits used for power and lighting
83. With at least one switch-
76. What is the minimum controlled lighting outlet installed at or near equipment
size IMC conduit allowed for electrical systems for building requiring servicing such as HVAC equipment in attics or
construction? crawl spaces, where must the switch be located?
a. 2 inches a. At the usual point of entry to the area containing the
b. 1 inch equipment
c. ¾ inch b. Within 6 feet of the equipment being serviced
d. ½ inch c. In another room separated by one lockable door
d. In a metal housing with provisions for locking
77. What is the maximum
continuous load (in amperes) that can be used on a 240-volt, 84. What is the maximum
20-ampere circuit using two No. 12 AWG conductors with size rigid metal conduit allowed for electrical construction?
THW insulation when the circuit is supplied by an assembly a. 2 inches
together with its overcurrent device that is listed for b. 4 inches
continuous operation at 100 percent of its rating? c. 6 inches
a. 12 amperes d. 8 inches
b. 15 amperes
c. 16 amperes 85. The NEC defines
d. 20 amperes “unfinished basement” as portions or areas of the basement:
a. Intended as habitable rooms
78. What is an AFCI? b. Limited to storage or work areas
a. Ampere faulting capacitor insulator c. Limited to reaction only
b. Alternate fire collector interrupter d. Used for storing vehicles
c. Appliance and fixture circuit identification
d. Arc-fault circuit-interrupter 86. Which of the following
locations requires ground-fault circuit-interrupter protection
79. Where a cable or for personnel on all 125 volt, single-phase, 15 and 20-ampere
raceway wiring method is installed through holes bored in receptacles?
wooden floor joists, rafters, or studs and the hole is less than a. Installed less than 4 feet, 6 inches above the floor inside
1-1/4 inches from the nearest edge of the wood member, what the building
protection must be provided? b. Installed in an attic stairway
63
 c. Installed outdoors
d. Installed within 8 feet of kitchen sink

87. Appliance receptacle

outlets installed for a specific appliance must be installed
within how many feet of the intended location of the
appliance?
a. 6 feet
b. 8 feet
c. 10 feet
d. 12 feet

CRAFTSMAN 3 ANSWER:
1. (B) 40%
2. (C) No. 10
AWG
3. (A) 20
amperes
4. (C) 16 amps
5. (B) any
occupancy other than dwelling units when heavy-duty
lampholders are used
6. (D) not be
supplied from a dwelling units panelboard
7. (A) 3 feet
8. (C) may be
located conveniently for permanent furniture layout
9. (B) ground-
fault circuit interrupter (GFCI) protection
10. (D) kitchen
and bath
11. (C) white,
gray or have three continuous while stripes on other than
green insulation
12. (C) 1-1/4
inches
13. (B) 8 feet
14. (D) in
hoistways
15. (C) 10 feet
16. (B) 4
quarter bends (360”)
17. (D) 125%
18. (A) 8 kW

64
19. (C) dwelling 52. (C)
unit Autotransformer if the circuit is without a
20. (A) 1 grounded conductor of the required type
21. (D) 1 53. (C) An area
22. (D) all with a basin and either a toilet, tub or shower
locations 54. (B) 12
23. (A) 25 feet amperes
24. (C) On the 55. (D) 16
load side amperes
25. (A) 1 56. (A) Not less
26. (C) By a than that of the branch circuit
switch 57. (B) 40
27. (B) at the amperes
point of entry to the area 58. (C) 750
28. (D) 2 or 3 watts
29. (A) 2 59. (D)
30. (B) 2 immediately upon completion of the construction
31. (A) 3-foot 60. (C) Ground-
32. (A) 120/277 fault circuit-interrupters
33. (C) 125% 61. (B) No. 8
34. (A) where AWG and larger
the overcurrent devices are listed for operation at 62. (A) 1/0 kcmil
100% 63. (C)
35. (B) 200 volt- Electrically joined at both ends to form a single
amperes conductor
36. (A) 100% 64. (D) All of the
37. (A) 17 kW above
38. (C) 55 kW 65. (A) 14 AWG
39. (D) 100% 66. (C) 15
40. (C) No. 10 amperes
AWG 67. (B) 20
41. (B) No. 8 amperes
AWG 68. (A) 30
42. (A) No. 6 amperes
AWG 69. (C) Where
43. (C) Stranded exposed to destructive corrosive conditions
44. (C) No. 12 70. (D) All of the
AWG above
45. (C) 71. (B) Junction
Grounding type boxes
46. (A) 120 volts 72. (C) Galvanic
47. (B) action
Connected to an equipment grounding conductor 73. (D) areas
48. (A) where the cable is exposed to corrosive conditions
connection to the equipment grounding conductor 74. (B) Dry or
49. (D) moist locations
grounding-type receptacles 75. (A) areas
50. (D) The where the cable will be exposed to physical
attachment plugs must be of a design so they are damage
not interchangeable 76. (D) ½ inch
51. (D) All of 77. (D) 20
these areas amperes
78. (D) Arc-fault
circuit-interrupter
65
79. (A) A steel a. Service clearance
plate or bushing b. Service lateral
c. Parallel connection
80. (B) 1/16 inch d. Weatherhead
81. (C) A
bathroom in a commercial establishment with a 6. In a balanced three-phase, 4-wire system, the current in the
wash basin and toilet neutral conductor:
82. (D) At least a. In the same as in the other conductors
one switch-controlled lighting outlet b. Is lower than in the other conductors
c. Is higher than in the other conductors
83. (A) At the d. Will not flow when all loads are exactly balanced
usual point of entry to the area containing the
equipment 7. On a 240-volt, single-phase, 3 wire system, the neutral
84. (C) 6 inches conductor will:
85. (B) Limited a. Never carry current even if the other conductors carry
to storage or work areas current
b. Never carry current larger than the difference between the
86. (C) Installed current in the two ungrounded (“hot”) conductors
outdoors c. carry current equal to the current between phases
87. (A) 6 feet d. carry current equal to one-half the current between phases

CRAFTSMAN 4

1. The overhead conductors, through which electrical service is

supplied, between the last power company pole and the 8. The unit used to measure current is the:
building or other support used for the purpose are called: a. Ohm
a. Service entrance b. Ampere
b. Service-entrance conductors c. Watt
c. Service drop d. coulomb
d. Service-entrance equipment
9. The minimum allowable current rating of 3-wire service-
2. The conductors and equipment for delivering electric energy entrance conductors for a one-family dwelling is:
from the power company to the wiring system of the premises a. 60 amperes
served is called a: b. 100 amperes
a. Service c. 125 amperes
b. Service-entrance conductors d. 150 amperes
c. Service drop
d. Service-entrance equipment 10. The minimum allowable current rating of 3-wire service-
entrance conductors for a one-family dwelling with an initial
3. The conductors between the point of termination of the net computed load of 10 kVA or more is:
overhead service drop or underground service lateral and the a. 60 amperes
main disconnecting device in a building are known as: b. 100 amperes
a. service c. 125 amperes
b. Service conductors d. 150 amperes
c. Service drop
d. Service-entrance equipment 11. What is the smallest copper wire size allowed for service-
entrance conductors?
4. The necessary equipment connected to the load end of the a. No. 10 AWG
service conductors to a building or other structure and b. No. 8 AWG
intended to constitute the main control and cutoff of the c. No. 12 AWG
supply is known as: d. No. 4 AWG
a. Service entrance
b. Service-entrance conductors 12. The smallest grounded or neutral conductor for an electric
c. Service drop service using 1100 kcmil copper conductors is:
d. Service equipment a. 2/0 copper
b. 3/0 copper
5. The underground conductors through which service is c. 1/0 copper
supplied between the power company’s distribution facilities d. No. 4 AWG copper
and the first point of their connection to a building or area
service facilities located at the building or other support used 13. What is the smallest aluminum or copper-clad wire size
for the purpose are known as: allowed for service-entrance conductors?
a. No. 10 AWG
66
 b. No. 12 AWG which the conductors may be reached, must have a minimum
c. No.6 AWG clearance of:
d. No. 4 AWG a. 8 feet
b. 10 feet
14. The name given to a system or circuit conductor that is c. 12 feet
intentionally grounded is: d. 16 feet
a. Grounding conductor
b. Bonding conductor 22. Service-drop conductors, when not in excess of 300 volts,
c. High-leg conductor that pass over residential driveways and commercial areas
d. Grounded or neutral conductor such as parking lots and drive-in establishments not subject
to truck traffic must have a clearance of at least:
15. To measure the area of a dwelling to determine the lighting a. 8 feet
load, the following dimensions are used: b. 10 feet
a. The floor area computed from the inside dimensions c. 12 feet
b. The cubic feet of each room d. 16 feet
c. The floor area computed from the outside dimensions
d. The area six inches from the inside walls 23. Service-drop conductors, when not in excess of 600 volts,
that pass over public streets, alleys, roads, parking lots,
16. What is the smallest copper wire size allowed for service- agricultural, or other areas subject to truck traffic must have a
entrance conductors supplying loads consisting of limited loads minimum clearance of:
of a single branch circuit? a. 10 feet
a. No. 10 AWG b. 12 feet
b. No.12 AWG c. 15 feet
c. No. 4 AWG d. 18 feet
d. No. 6 AWG

17. The allowable number of service disconnects can consist of

up to: 24. Service-drop conductors, when not in excess of 600 volts, that
a. Three pass over residential property, driveways, and those
b. Four commercial areas not subject to truck traffic must have a
c. Five minimum clearance of:
d. Six a. 10 feet
b. 12 feet
c. 18 feet
18. Service conductors that pass over a flat roof must have what
d. 15 feet
clearance from the highest point of roof over which they
pass?
a. 4 feet 25. Multiconductor cables used for service drops must be attached
b. 6 feet to buildings or other structure by:
c. 8 feet a. Tie wire
d. 10 feet b. Fittings approved for the purpose
c. 16d nails or larger
19. Where the voltage between conductors does not exceed 300 d. Tapcons
and the roof has a slope of not less than 4 inches in 12 inches,
the minimum clearance of service conductors is: 26. Service drop conductors and service-entrance conductors must
a. 3 feet be:
b. 4 feet a. Guarded
c. 5 feet b. Arranged so that water will not enter
d. 6 feet c. Waterproof
d. dustproof
20. Where the voltage between conductors does not exceed 300,
and not more than 6 feet of service conductors pass over not 27. Service-entrance cable must be supported within what distance
more than 4 feet of the overhang portion of the roof, and the from the service head?
conductors terminate in a through-the-roof raceway or other a. 12 inches
approved support, the clearance of service conductors above b. 18 inches
the roof is reduced to not less than: c. 24 inches
a. 6 inches d. 36 inches
b. 12 inches
c. 18 inches 28. Service-entrance cable must be supported at intervals of:
d. 24 inches a. 2 feet
b. 2-1/2 feet
21. Service-drop conductors, when not in excess of 150 volts to c. 3 feet
ground, that pass over residential sidewalks, finished grade d. 4-1/2 feet
(the ground), or over any platform or any projection from
67
29. What clearance must service conductors have from windows, service-entrance in a 120/240-volt, single-phase load with a
doors, porches, fire escapes, or similar locations? demand load of 36 kVA?
a. 1 foot a. 1 inch
b. 2 feet b. 1-1/4 inch
c. 3 feet c. 1-1/2 inch
d. 4 feet d. 2 inch

30. When installing a service head, the conductors of different 38. When using 2-1/2 inch rigid steel conduit for a through-the-
potential should be: roof 120/240 volt service mast, what is the minimum distance
a. Brought out through separately bushed openings the conduit can protrude above the roof?
b. Brought out through the same bushed openings a. 18 inches
c. Brought out through the same unbushed openings b. 24 inches
c. 36 inches
31. Metal enclosures for service conductors and equipment must: d. 48 inches
a. Never be grounded
b. Be grounded 39. What is the minimum size copper grounding electrode
c. Be coated with non-conductive material conductor allowed on an electric service utilizing No.3/0
d. Be constructed of at least 38 gauge steel copper current-carrying conductors?
a. No. 8 AWG
32. What size service is required for a 120/240 volt, single-phase b. No. 6 AWG
load with a demand load of 36 kVA? c. No. 4 AWG
a. 60 amperes d. No. 2 AWG
b. 100 amperes
c. 150 amperes
d. 200 amperes

33. What size copper THW conductors are required for the
service load in a 120/240-volt, single-phase load with a 40. The main service disconnecting means should be located:
demand load of 36 kVA? a. At or near the point where the service-entrance conductors
a. 1/0 enter the building
b. 2/0 b. At least 20 feet from the point where the service-entrance
c. 3/0 conductors enter the building
d. 4/0 c. At least 30 feet from the point where the service-entrance
conductors enter the building
34. What size rigid steel conduit is required to contain three d. At least 50 feet from the point where the service-entrance
conductors of 1/0 THW wire which has a current-carrying conductors enter the building
capacity of 150 amperes when the ambient temperature is
75°C or below? 41. The NEC requires that all circuits over 150 volts to ground
a. 1-1/2 inch containing fuses have a disconnecting means located:
b. 2 inch a. Outside
c. 2-1/2 inch b. On supply side of all fuses
d. 3 inch c. On load side of all fuses
d. Where convenient
35. What percentage of fill allowed in a conduit with three
conductors? 42. The general lighting load for residential services is calculated
a. 30% at:
b. 40% a. 1 watt per square foot
c. 50% b. 2 watts per square foot
d. 60% c. 3 watts per square foot
d. 4 watts per square ffot
36. If THHN copper conductors are used for the service-
entrance in a 120/240-volt, single-phase load with a demand 43. Residential small appliance circuit are calculated at:
load of 36 kVA, what size is required? a. 1500 watts each
a. No. 4AWG b. 2000 watts each
b. No. 3 AWG c. 2500 watts each
c. No. 2 AWG d. 3000 watts each
d. No.1 AWG
44. All metal enclosures for service conductors and equipment
37. What size electrical metallic tubing(EMT) is required to must be:
contain THHN copper service conductors used for the a. Watertight
68
 b. Painted c. 150 amperes
c. Locked d. 200 amperes
d. Grounded
52. What size aluminum SE cable is required for 120/240-volt
45. Mobile home service equipment shall not be rated less than: single-phase residential electric service with a total load of 30
a. 50 amperes kVA and 125 amperes?
b. 60 amperes a. No. 2 AWG
c. 100 amperes b. No. 1 AWG
d. 200 amperes c. No. 1/0 AWG
d. No. 2/0 AWG
46. What is the ampacity of the conductors required for a
120/208-volt, three-phase, 4-wire commercial service with a 53. What is the maximum distance that an SE cable strap can be
load of 72 kVA? from either the service head or the meter base?
a. 150 amperes a. 10 inches
b. 200 amperes b. 12 inches
c. 250 amperes c. 18 inches
d. 300 amperes d. 24 inches

47. What size aluminum THW conductors are required for a 54. What is the maximum distance allowed between cable
120/208-volt, three-phase, 4-wire commercial service with a straps when installing Type SE cable when used as service-
load of 72 kVA and 200 amperes? entrance conductors?
a. 1/0 kcmil a. 1 foot
b. 3/0 kcmil b. 2-1/2 feet
c. 4/0 kcmil c. 3 feet
d. 250 kcmil d. 4 feet

55. When a single-family dwelling has an initial load of 10 kVA

or above, the minimum service rating is:
a. 60 amperes
b. 100 amperes
c. 125 amperes
d. 150 amperes
48. What size rigid steel conduit is required for 250 kcmil
aluminum THW service conductors of a 120/208-volt, three-
56. If the phase-to-neutral voltage in a three-phase, 4-wire Y-
phase, 4-wire commercial service with a load of 72 kVA and
connected service is 240 volts, the phase voltage will be
200 amperes?
approximately:
a. 2 inch
a. 460 volts
b. 2-1/2 inch
b. 480 volts
c. 3 inch
c. 415 volts
d. 4 inch
d. 425 volts
49. Using 2-1/2 inch conduit for four 250 kcmil THW service 57. The service grounding conductor is sized by the rating of:
conductors of a 120/208-volt, three-phase, 4-wire a. The overcurrent protective device
commercial service with a load of 72 kVA and 200 amperes, b. The service-entrance conductors
what is the maximum distance between supports if the c. The supply transformer
conduit is a straight run? d. The load to be served
a. 2 feet
b. 4 feet 58. A 400-ampere electric service is normally metered with a
c. 8 feet combination of a watt-hour meter and:
d. 16 feet a. Current transformers
b. VAR meters
50. What is the maximum distance for a required support for c. Capacitors
rigid steel conduit from the service head? d. Ammeter
a. 3 feet
b. 2 feet 59. A 120/240-volt residential electric service requires No.2 AWG
c. 4 feet copper for the ungrounded conductors. What is the minimum
d. 5 feet size neutral conductor allowed?
a. No.10 AWG
51. What is the required ampacity of conductors serving a b. No.8 AWG
120/240-volt single-phase residential electric service with a c. No.6 AWG
total load of 30 kVA? d. No.4 AWG
a. 100 amperes
b. 125 amperes
69
60. When two to six fused switches or circuit breakers are used as c. A single metal underground water pipe used in
the “main” in an electric service, they must be: conjunction with a driven ground rod
a. Grouped and marked to indicate the load served d. A single plastic underground water pipe
b. Grouped but left unmarked
c. Marked 69. A single electrode with a resistance to ground of more than
d. Grouped 25ohms is approved as a grounding electrode system only if:
a. The ground rod is driven into ground 8 feet or more
61. In a multiple-occupancy building, each occupant shall: b. It is supplemented by one additional electrode
a. Not have access to the occupant’s service disconnecting c. The made electrode is constructed of aluminum
means d. The made electrode is constructed of copper
b. Have access to the occupant’s service disconnecting means
c. Have access to all occupant’s service disconnecting means 70. If an interior metal water pipe is used as a grounding
d. Have complete access to all electrical equipment electrode, what is the maximum distance from the pipe’s
point of entrance into the building that the grounding
62. Although enclosed, a service disconnecting means must still conductor must be attached?
be: a. Within 5 feet
a. Locked securely b. Within 10 feet
b. Always kept unlocked c. Within 15 feet
c. Locked only while operable d. Within 20 feet
d. Manually or power operable
71. What is the minimum size neutral conductor allowed on a
63. The service disconnecting means for a two-circuit installation high-impedance grounded neutral system, carrying a load of
shall not be less than: 30 amperes, where the conditions of maintenance and
a. 15 amperes supervision assure that only qualified persons will service the
b. 20 amperes installation?
c. 30 amperes a. No. 10 AWG copper
d. 60 amperes b. NO. 8 AWG copper
c. No. 6 AWG copper
64. A means must be provided to disconnect the grounded d. No. 4 AWG copper
conductor from the premises wiring. One approved method is:
a. A terminal with pressure connectors 72. How must wire terminals be arranged and located in
b. A ground clamp on a grounding electrode panelboards?
c. A wire trough a. So the installer must reach across ungrounded lines
d. A cablebus b. So they are not readily accessible
c. So they may not be tampered with or changed
65. Service conductors shall not be connected to the service d. So it will not be necessary for service personnel to reach
disconnecting means with: across or beyond an uninsulated ungrounded line bus to
a. Pressure conectors make connections
b. Clamps
c. Solder only 73. Which of the following may not be used as a grounding
d. Approved conductor terminators electrode?
a. Metallic cold-water pipe
66. What is the minimum allowed rating for the service b. Driven ground rod
disconnect of a single circuit installation? c. Underground metallic gas pipe
a. 15 amps d. A grounding ring consisting of No.2 AWG bare copper
b. 20 amps
c. 30 amps 74. If the following grounding electrodes are available on the
d. 10 amps premises, how many of them must be bonded together: metal
underground water pipe, metal frame of the building, concrete-
67. Immediately before service conductors enter the bushed encased electrode, ground ring, ground plate, and a ground rod?
holes in a service head, what should be provided for the a. Only one may be used
conductors? b. Two must be used
a. Drip loops c. At least three must be bonded together
b. Solderless connectors d. All available electrodes must be bonded together
c. Weatherproof connectors
d. Soldered connectors

68. Which of the following arrangement is an approved

grounding electrode system?
a. A single underground water pipe
b. An indoor metal water pipe fed by PVC pipe from a
deep well

70
 9. B)
100 amperes
10. B)
100 amperes
11. B)
No. 8 AWG
12. A)
2/0 copper
13. C)
No. 6 AWG
14. D)
Grounded or neutral conductor
15. C)
The floor area computed from the outside
dimensions
16. B)
No. 12 AWG
17. D)
six
18. C) 8
feet
19. A) 3
feet
20. C)
18 inches
21. B)
10 feet
22. C)
12 feet
23. D)
18 feet
24. D)
15 feet
25. B)
CRAFTSMAN 4 ANSWER:
Fittings approved for the purpose
1. B) 26. B)
Service drop Arranged so that water will not enter
2. A) 27. A)
service 12 inches
3. B) 28. B)
Service conductors 2-1/2 feet
4. D) 29. C) 3
service equipment feet
5. B) 30. A)
service lateral Brought out through separately bushed openings
6. D) 31. B)
will not flow when all loads are exactly balanced Be grounded
7. B) 32. C)
Never carry current larger than the difference 150 amperes
between the current in the two ungrounded (“hot”) 33. A)
conductors 1/0
8. B) 34. A)
ampere 1-1/2 inch

71
35. B) 61. B)
40% Have access to the occupant’s service
36. D) disconnecting means
No. 1 AWG 62. D)
37. B) Manually or power operable
1-1/4 inch 63. C) 30
38. A) amperes
18 inches 64. A) A
39. C) terminal with pressure connectors
No. 4 AWG 65. C)
40. A) Solder only
At or near the point where the service-entrance 66. A) 15
conductors enter the building amps
41. B) 67. A)
On supply side of all fuses Drip loops
42. C) 3 68. C) A
watts per square foot single metal underground water pipe used in
43. A) conjunction with a driven ground rod
1500 watts each 69. B) It
44. D) is supplemented by one additional electrode
Grounded 70. A)
45. C) Within 5 feet
100 amperes 71. B) No.
46. B) 8 AWG copper
200 amperes 72. D) So
47. D) it will not be necessary for service personnel to
250 kcmil reach across or beyond an uninsulated
48. B) 2- ungrounded line bus to make connections
1/2 inch 73. C)
49. D) 16 Underground metallic gas pipe
feet 74. D) All
50. A) 3 available electrodes must be bonded together
feet
51. B) 125
amperes
52. C)
No. 1/0 AWG
53. B) 12
inches
54. B) 2-
1/2 feet
55. B) 100
amperes
56. C)
415 volts
57. B)
The service-entrance conductors
58. A)
Current transformers
59. B) No.
8 AWG CRAFTSMAN 5
60. A) 1. All m
Grouped and marked to indicate the load served equipment must be:
a. Grounded

72
 b. Ungrounded b. 30%
c. Made from 10 gauge steel or above c. 40%
d. PVC (plastic) d. 50%

2. 10. The w
highest voltage to ground in a: operating at 480 volts with exposed live parts on one side and
a. Delta-wye system grounded parts on the other side is:
b. High-leg delta-connected system a. 1 foot
c. Wye-wye system b. 2 feet
d. Scott connection c. 3 feet 6 inches
d. 4 feet
3.
of: 11. A 200
a. 100 amperes panelboard may be protected by two main breakers with a
b. 180 amperes combined rating of:
c. 160 amperes a. 150 amperes
d. 200 amperes b. 175 amperes
c. 200 amperes
4. d. 225 amperes
neutral bar only when the panelboard is used as:
a. Motor-control feeders 12. Panel
b. Low-voltage feeders switches must be protected not in excess of:
c. Service equipment a. 30 amperes
d. Machinery feeders b. 150 amperes
c. 200 amperes
5. d. 225 amperes
be at:
a. Each group of computers 13. Panel
b. The principal exit door the same individual patient vicinity must be bonded together
c. Each piece of electronic equipment with copper conductors not smaller than:
d. The main service entrance a. No. 12 AWG
b. No. 10 AWG
6. c. No. 8 AWG
excluding the mains, allowed in a lighting and appliance d. No. 6 AWG
panelboard?
a. As many as needed to provide adequate 14. The p
overcurrent protection a. Moisture-resistant, noncombustible material
b. No greater than the number necessary for safety b. Raintight material
c. A number not to exceed the number for which it c. Impact-resistant material
was designed, rated, and listed d. Waterproof material
d. 44
15. How
7. a. Snug, but not tight
AWG, may be identified by: b. Loose
a. A continuous white or neutral gray outer finish c. Rigidly
b. Three continuous white stripes on other than green d. Horizontal to the floor
insulation
c. Distinctive white markings encircling the 16. The m
conductor at its terminations panelboard instrument circuits is:
d. All of the above a. 10 amperes
b. 20 amperes
8. c. 15 amperes
conductor for a 200-ampere circuit is: d. 30 amperes
a. No. 3 AWG
b. No. 6 AWG 17. When
c. No. 8 AWG a. Energized
d. No. 10 AWG b. De-energized
c. Warning tags installed
d. Insulated

9.
a. 20%
73
18. c. C
panelboard being fed with paralleled pairs of 2/0 conductors d. D
entering the enclosure through the wall opposite the
terminals?
a. 6 inches 25. Refer
b. 7 inches used?
c. 8 inches a. Flush-mounted
d. 9 inches b. PVC plastic
c. Surface-mounted
19. d. 10 gauge sheet metal
a straight pull?
a. Eight times the cross sectional area of the smallest 26. How
conductor lighting in the panelboard schedule in Figure 5-3?
b. Four times the cross sectional area of the largest a. 12
conductor b. 10
c. Not less than eight times the diameter (trade size) of the c. 7
largest raceway d. 5
d. Six times the trade diameter of the largest raceway
27. What
20. for the water heater in Figure 5-3?
less, and at over 600 amperes at 251 to 600 volts, shall be a. 15 amperes
opened only under what condition? b. 20 amperes
a. When switches are fully loaded c. 30 amperes
b. When switches are isolated d. 40 amperes
c. In case of fire
d. Under no load 28. How
panelboard schedule in figure 5-3?
21. a. 10
a. Cabinets b. 12
b. Enclosures designed for the purpose c. 14
c. Cutout boxes d. 16
d. Any of these
29. The
22. operating at 480 volts with exposed live parts on one side and
enclosures? no live or grounded parts on the other side of the working
a. Live-front space must be a minimum of:
b. Dead-front a. 3 feet
c. Gray-colored front b. 3.5 feet
d. Gray-colored front with yellow stripes c. 4 feet
d. 5 feet
23.
be: 30. What
a. Isolated from each other for a bonding conductor between equipment grounding
b. Separately bonded terminal busses of normal and essential branch-circuit
c. In physical contact with each other panelboards in health care facilities?
d. None of the above a. No. 10 AWG insulated aluminum
b. No. 12 AWG insulated copper
c. No. 10 AWG insulated copper
d. No 12 AWG insulated aluminum

31. What
conductor in a conduit with 5 other current carrying
conductors?
a. 170 amps
b. 150 amps
c. 136 amps
d. 200 amps

32. Wha
24. panelboard to prevent installing more overcurrent devices
characteristics of an a electric panelboard. To which panel than the number for which the panelboard is rated?
number or letter does the schedule refer? a. A warning sign
a. A b. A highly visible tag
b. B c. A padlock

74
 d. Physical means a. 6-1/2 inches
b. 7 inches
c. 7-1/2 inches
d. 8 inches

33.
number of overcurrent devices are counted in one 2-pole 41. What
circuit breaker? top and bottom of a panelboard that has two 3/0 conductors
a. 1 connected to each busbar or terminal in the panelboard?
b. 2 a. 6-1/2 inches
c. 3 b. 7 inches
d. 4 c. 7-1/2 inches
d. 8 inches
34.
using one 3-pole circuit breaker? 42. Wha
a. 1 top and bottom of a panelboard that has three 3/0 conductors
b. 2 connected to each busbar or terminal in the panelboard?
c. 3 a. 6-1/2 inches
d. 4 b. 7 inches
c. 7-1/2 inches
35. d. 8 inches
panelboard contains 181 pole circuit breakers. What is the
maximum number of 2-pole circuit breakers that may be 43. All sw
installed in the panelboard? normal operation, must be so located that they may be
a. 10 operated from:
b. 11 a. A cat walk
c. 12 b. A power pole
d. 13 c. An inaccessible location
d. A readily accessible place
36.
that may be used to protect a lighting and appliance 44. What
panelboard on the supply side? safety switch or circuit breaker may be located above the
a. None floor or working platform under normal working conditions?
b. 1 a. 4-1/2 feet
c. 2 b. 5 feet
d. 3 c. 6 feet
d. 6 feet 7 inches
37.
set-screw in a neutral? 45. On bu
a. Only on branch circuits breakers may be located at the same level as the busway
b. Only on relays mounted on switchboards provided:
c. When the terminal is identified as allowing more than a. A suitable means is provided to operate the device from
one conductor a step ladder
d. It is never permitted b. A suitable means is provided to operate the device from
floor level
38. c. A suitable means is provided to operate the device from
accessible handhole not less an extension ladder
a. 2 x 6 inches d. Another disconnect switch is provided at the working
b. 3 x 4 inches platform
c. 2 x 4 inches
d. 4 x 8 inches 46. When
each grounded conductor must be terminated in an individual
39. terminal that is not also used for another conductor unless:
for the protection of panelboard instrument circuits? a. Terminal is identified for use with more than one
a. 30 amperes conductor
b. 20 amperes b. Conductors are under No. 2 AWG
c. 15 amperes c. Conductors are under No. 4 AWG
d. 10 amperes d. Not permitted under any situation

40. 47. What

top and bottom of a panelboard that has one 3/0 conductor snap switches, receptacles, and similar devices in an
connected to each busbar in the panelboard? enclosure?
a. 120 volts
75
 b. 240 volts b. ¾ inch
c. 300 volts c. 1 inch
d. 480 volts d. 1-1/4 inches

48.
be marked on the switch as well as:
a. Current and voltage rating 56. The
b. Voltage and wattage rating current-carrying parts to ground in a panelboard with voltage
c. Current and resistance rating not exceeding 250 volts is:
d. Voltage and resistance rating a. ½ inch
b. ¾ inch
49. c. 1 inch
in: d. 1-1/4 inches
a. Series
b. Parallel 57. The m
c. Line with the load conductors in free air when the voltage does not exceed 600
d. None of the above volts is:
a. 1 inch
50. b. 2 inches
be: c. 3 inches
a. Raintight d. 4 inches
b. Waterproof
c. Weatherproof 58. The
d. Rainproof current-carrying part and ground is:
a. 1 inch
51. b. 2 inches
surface-mounted, current carrying parts of opposite polarity c. 3 inches
in a panelboard with voltage not exceeding 125 volts is: d. 4 inches
a. ¼ inch
b. ½ inch 59. May
c. ¾ inch used as junction boxes?
d. 1 inch a. Yes, in all conditions
b. No, in all conditions
52. c. Under certain conditions
current-carrying parts(not exceeding 125 volts) of opposite d. None of the above
polarity where held in free air is:
a. ¼ inch 60. Whic
b. ½ inch AWG or larger conductor enters a panelboard?
c. ¾ inch a. A bonding jumper
d. 1 inch b. A ground clip
c. An insulated bushing
53. d. An identification lag
surface-mounted, current carrying parts to ground in a
panelboard with voltage not exceeding 125 volts is: 61. When
a. ¼ inch panelboard, what condition would not require an insulating
b. ½ inch bushing?
c. ¾ inch a. When the conductors are secured with tie-straps
d. 1 inch b. When the conductors are correctly tagged
c. When No. 6 AWG or larger wire is used
54. d. When the conductors are separated from the fitting by
surface-mounted, current carrying parts of opposite polarity insulating material
in a panelboard with voltage not exceeding 250 volts is:
a. ½ inch 62. May
b. ¾ inch material be used to secure a raceway to a panelboard?
c. 1 inch a. Yes
d. 1-1/4 inches b. No
c. Under certain conditions
55. d. None of the above
current-carrying parts(not exceeding 250 volts) of opposite
polarity where held in free air is: 63. Wher
a. ½ inch corrosion?
76
a. Outside only 42. D) 8 inches
b. Inside only 43. D) A readily accessible place
c. Both inside and outside
d. None of the above
44. D) 6 feet 7 inches
45. B) A suitable means is provided to operate
the device from floor level
46. A) Terminal is identified for use with more
than one conductor
47. C) 300 volts
CRAFTSMAN 5 ANSWER:
1. A) Grounded 48. A) Current and voltage rating
2. B) High-leg delta-connected system 49. B) Parallel
3. D) 200 amperes 50. C) Weatherproof
4. C) Service equipment 51. C) ¾ inch
5. B) The principal exit door 52. B) ½ inch
6. C) A number not exceed the number for which it 53. B) ½ inch
was designed, rated, and listed 54. D) 1-1/4 inches
7. D) All of the above 55. B) ¾ inch
8. B) No. 6 AWG 56. A) ½ inch
9. A) 20% 57. A) 1 inch
10. C) 3 feet 6 inches 58. A) 1 inch
11. C) 200 amperes 59. C) Under certain conditions
12. C) 200 amperes 60. C) An insulated bushing
13. B) No. 10 AWG 61. D) When the conductors are separated from
14. A) Moisture-resistant, noncombustible the fitting by insulating material
material 62. B) No
15. C) Rigidly 63. C) Both inside and outside
16. C) 15 amperes
17. B) De-energized
18. A) 6 inches
19. C) Not less than eight times the diameter
(trade size) of the largest raceway
20. D) Under no load
21. D) Any of these
22. B) Dead-front
23. C) In physical contact with each other
24. A) A
25. A) Flush-mounted
26. D) 5
27. C) 30 amperes
28. B) 12
29. A) 3 feet
30. C) No. 10 AWG insulated copper
31. C) 136 amps
32. D) Physical means
33. B) 2
34. C) 3
35. B) 11
36. C) 2
37. C) when the terminal is identified as allowing
more than one conductor
38. C) 2 x 4 inches
39. C) 15 amperes
40. A) 6-1/2 inches
41. A) 6-1/2 inches
77
 9. A noontime-delay fuse protects a circuit with all motor loads
with the largest motor drawing a full-load current of 40
amperes, and two other motors drawing a full-load current of
15 amperes each. What fuse size should be used?
a. 100 amperes
b. 150 amperes
c. 175 amperes
d. 250 amperes
CRAFTSMAN 6
1. the highest current rating of an Edison-base plug fuse is:
10. When using a time-delay fuse to protect a circuit with no
a. 30 amperes
motor load, the fuse size must be at least:
b. 60 amperes
a. 80% of the continuous load
c. 100 amperes
b. 100% of the continuous load
d. 200 amperes
c. 125% of the continuous load plus 100% of the
noncontinuous load
2. Edison-base plug fuses may be used only in:
d. 150% of the continuous load plus 125% of the
a. New work
noncontinuous load
b. Existing installation under specified conditions
c. Motor control panels
11. Conductors may be tapped, without overcurrent protection
d. Motor circuits
at the tap, to a feeder or transformer secondary if certain
conditions are met. If the ampacity of the tap conductor is not
3. Which of the following is a nonstandard ampere rating for a
less than the combined computed loads on the circuits supplied
plug fuse?
by the tap conductor, the length of the tap conductor cannot
a. 15 amperes
exceed:
b. 20 amperes
a. 5 feet
c. 30 amperes
b. 10 feet
d. 35 amperes
c. 15 feet
d. 25 feet
4. The maximum size fuse allowed to protect a No. 14 AWG
THW conductor is:
12. Where must an overcurrent device be located in a circuit?
a. 10 amperes
a. At the point where the conductor receives its supply
b. 15 amperes
b. At the last outlet on the circuit
c. 20 amperes
c. On the line side of the electric meter
d. 25 amperes
d. At the first fitting or connector in the circuit
5. When a circuit breaker trips, its operating handle will be in
which of the following positions?
a. Closed (energized) positions
b. Open position
c. Half-way between the ON and OFF positions
d. No change

6. Plug fuses of 15 ampere and lower rating must be identified

by what type of window configuration?
a. Round
b. Hexagonal
c. Square
13. The fuse in Figure 6-2 is known as:
d. Octagonal
a. Edison-base plug fuse
b. Type S plug fuse
7. Which of the following conductors need overcurrent
c. Edison-base cartridge fuse
protection on a residential electric service?
d. Nonrenewable cartridge fuse
a. Grounded conductor
b. Bonding conductor
c. Ungrounded conductors
d. Equipment grounding conductor

8. A circuit feeding three single-phase motors with full-load

current ratings of 40, 20 and 20 amperes, respectively, requires
the following dual-element time-delay fuse size:
a. 110 amperes
b. 150 amperes
c. 200 amperes
d. 250 amperes
78

14. The fuse in Figure 6-3 is known as:
a. Despard plug fuse
b. Type S plug fuse
c. Dual-element time-delay plug fuse
d. Renewable cartridge fuse
15. The fuse in Figure 6-4 is known as:
a. Dual-element time-delay cartridge fuse
b. Type S plug fuse
c. Nontime-delay cartridge fuse
d. Nonrenewable cartridge fuse
16. The fuse in Figure 6-5 is known as:
a. Dual-element time-delay cartridge fuse
b. Type S plug fuse
c. Type S fuse adapter
d. Nonrenewable cartridge fuse
17. The fuse clips in Figure 6-6 are known as:
a. Class A fuse rejection clips
b. Type D fuse rejection clips
c. Class R fuse rejection clips
d. Nonrenewable cartridge-fuse clips
18. If a multiwire branch circuit supplies line-to-line loads, the
branch-circuit protective device must open each:
a. Ungrounded conductor simultaneously
b. Grounded conductor
c. Ungrounded conductor individually
d. Bonding conductor
19. The largest standard rating for fuses and inverse time circuit
breakers is:
a. 1000 amperes
b. 1600 amperes
c. 1200 amperes
d. 6000 amperes
20. To meet NEC regulations, fuses or circuit breakers
connected in parallel must be:
a. Assembled by the electrcian or technician on the job
b. Encased in a PVC housing
c. Factory assembled in parallel
d. Rated over 200 amperes
21. Supplementary overcurrent devices shall:
a. Be required to be readily accessible and within sight of the
equipment
b. Not be required to be readily accessible
c. Not be allowed under any conditions
d. Be connected only in parallel or series-parallel
configurations
22. One combination that is considered by the NEC to be
equivalent to an overcurrent trip unit is:
a. Pole-mounted transformer and overcurrent relay
b. Submersible transformer and overcurrent relay
c. Autotransformer and overcurrent relay
d. Current transformer and overcurrent relay
23. When a fuse or circuit breaker is used for circuit protection,
the fuse or overcurrent trip unit shall be connected:
a. In series
b. In series and parallel
c. In parallel
d. In tandem
24. At what point must a branch-circuit overcurrent protection
device be placed in an electrical system?
a. At the equipment ground location
b. Where the conductor being protected receives its supply
c. At a tap on the conductor being protected
d. At the outlet where power is consumed
25. The rating of the overcurrent protective device for a circuit
supplying a hermetic motor-compressor must be at least what
percent of the nameplate rated-load current?
a. 50%
b. 75%
c. 115%
d. 150%
26. A multiwire branch circuit protected by fuses may supply
only:
a. Half line to line loads and half line to neutral loads
b. Half line to neutral loads to full or trip line to other loads
c. Line to line loads
d. Line to neutral loads
79

27. what is the minimum interrupting rating of an unmarked
branch-circuit fuse?
a. 5,000 amperes
b. 10,000 amperes
c. 15,000 amperes
d. 20,000 amperes
28. A feeder tap less than 25 feet long does not require
overcurrent protection at the tap if the ampacity of the tap
conductor is at least:
a. 50% of the feeder conductor
b. 40% of the feeder conductor
c. 33-1/3% of the feeder conductor
d. 20% of the feeder conductor
29. When designing or installing circuits for diagnostic
equipment in health care facilities, what is the minimum
percentage allowed for the momentary ampacity of the
equipment when sizing branch-circuit conductors and the
overcurrent protection?
a. 25%
b. 50%
c. 75%
d. 100%
30. The rated ampacity of conductors and overcurrent devices
of a feeder for two or more branch circuits supplying X-ray
equipment for non-medical or non-dental use must not be less
than 100% of the momentary demand rating of the two largest
pieces of X-ray equipment plus what percent of the momentary
ratings of other X-ray apparatus?
a. 5%
b. 10%
c. 15%
d. 20%
31. What is the maximum overcurrent device rating for each
resistance welder connected to an electrical system?
a. Not over 100% of the rated primary current of the welder
b. Not over 200% of the rated primary current of the welder
c. Not over 300% of the rated primary current of the welder
d. Not over 400% of the rated primary current of the welder
32. What is the maximum overcurrent device rating that may be
used for each AC transformer or DC rectifier arc welder?
a. Not over 100% of the rated primary current of the welder
b. Not over 200% of the rated primary current of the welder
c. Not over 300% of the rated primary current of the welder
d. Not over 400% of the rated primary current of the welder
33. Each autotransformer 600 volts, nominal, or less shall be
protected by an individual overcurrent device. How must this
device be connected in relation to the autotransformer?
a. In parallel with each ungrounded input conductor
b. In parallel with each grounded conductor
c. In series with each ungrounded input conductor
d. In series with each grounded conductor
34. Each autotransformer 600 volts, nominal, or less shall be
protected by an individual overcurrent device connected in
series with each ungrounded input conductor. Such overcurrent
devices must have a rating not exceeding a certain percentage
of the rated full-load input current of the autotransformer. What
is this percentage?
a. 110%
b. 125%
c. 150%
d. 200%
35. If an autotransformer has afull-load input current of 40
amperes, what is the maximum overcurrent protection device
rating allowed?
a. 45 amperes
b. 50 amperes
c. 60 amperes
d. 70 amperes
36. In an autotransformer, overcurrent devices shall not be
installed:
a. In parallel with the output conductors
b. In parallel with the shunt winding
c. In series with the output conductors
d. In series with the shunt winding
37. A grounding autotransformer is used to create a three-
phase, 4-wire distribution system from a three-phase, 3-wire
ungrounded system. At what percent must the overcurrent
device be set to trip in case of an overload?
a. 100% of the transformer’s continuous current per phase or
neutral rating
b. 110% of the transformer’s continuous current per phase or
neutral rating
c. 125% of the transformer’s continuous current per phase or
neutral rating
d. 150% of the transformer’s continuous current per phase or
neutral rating
38. what must the continuous neutral current rating be for an
autotransformer used to create a three-phase, 4-wire
distribution system from a three-phase, 3-wire ungrounded
system?
a. It must be sufficient to handle the minimum neutral
unbalanced load
b. It must be sufficient to handle the maximum possible
neutral unbalanced load
c. It must be sufficient to handle 75% of the neutral
unbalanced load
d. It must be sufficient to handle 50% of the unbalanced load
39. What is the maximum overcurrent rating that may be used
for dimmer controls for stage lighting in theaters?
a. 100% of the dimmer rating
b. 110% of the dimmer rating
c. 125% of the dimmer rating
d. 150% of the dimmer rating
40. If a dimmer control is rated at 2000 watts on a 120-volt
single-phase circuit, what is the maximum overcurrent
protection allowed for this dimmer?
a. 15 amperes
80
b. 20 amperes 48. If the allowable current rating of a busway is 46 amperes,
c. 30 amperes what is the maximum allowable rating of the overcurrent
d. 40 amperes device?
a. 40 amperes
41. What is the maximum overcurrent protection allowed on b. 50 amperes
circuits feeding stage equipment such as footlights, border c. 60 amperes
lights, etc? d. 70 amperes
a. 15 amperes
b. 20 amperes 49. Omission of overcurrent protection is permitted at points
c. 30 amperes where busways are reduced in size, provided that the smaller
d. 40 amperes busway length does not exceed what distance?
a. 10 feet
42. What is the minimum branch circuit and maximum b. 20 feet
overcurrent protection rating for a circuit supplying a c. 30 feet
household electric range rated at 8-3/4 kW or more? d. 50 feet
a. 20 amperes
b. 30 amperes
c. 40 amperes
d. 50 amperes

43. What is the minimum number of circuits allowed to feed a

household-type appliance with surface heating elements having
a maximum demand of more than 60 amperes? 50. Omission of overcurrent protection is permitted at points
a. 1 where busways are reduced in size, provided that the smaller
b. 2 busway length does not exceed 50 feet. In order to comply with
c. 3 NEC regulations, what must be the current rating of the smaller
d. 4 buswa?
a. One-third the rating or setting of the overcurrent device next
44. What is the maximum overcurrent protection allowed for back on the line
each of the circuits which feed a household-type appliance b.Half the rating of the overcurrent device next back on the line
with surface heating elements having a maximum demand of c. Three-fourths the rating or setting of the overcurrent device
more than 60 amperes? next back on the line
a. 30 amperes d. Two-thirds the rating or setting of the overcurrent device
b. 40 amperes next back on the line
c. 50 amperes
d. 60 amperes 51. What type of overcurrent device is required on a busway
system where a branch circuit or subfeeder is tapped from the
45. What is the maximum rating of overcurrent devices used to main busway?
protect circuits feeding infrared lamp heating appliances in a. Internally operable circuit breaker
commercial and industrial applications? b. Internally operable fusible switch
a. 30 amperes c. Externally operable circuit breaker or externally operable
b. 40 amperes fusible switch
c. 50 amperes d. None is required
d. 60 amperes
52. When overcurrent devices such as externally operable
46. How must direct-current conductors used in electroplating circuit breaker(s) or externally operable fusible switch(s) are
systems be protected? mounted out of reach and contain disconnecting means, what
a. Fuses or circuit breakers provisions must be provided for operating the disconnecting
b. A current-sensing device that operates a disconnecting means from the floor?
means a. Ropes
c. Other approved means by the authority having jurisdiction b. Chains
d. Any of the above C. Sticks
d. Any of the above
47. Where the allowable current rating of a busway does not
correspond to a standard rating of overcurrent device, what 53. When the allowable ampacity of a cablebus system does not
rating is permitted? correspond to standard rating of overcurrent protection
a. The next lower rating devices, what size overcurrent device is permitted?
b. No overcurrent protection is required a. The next lower standard size
c. The next higher rating b. The next higher standard size
d. None of the above c. A device not exceeding 80% of the cablebus rating
d. A device not exceeding 75% of the cablebus rating

81
54. If a cablebus system is rated at 94 amperes, ahat is the b. An overcurrent device must be provided in series for every
maximum allowable overcurrent protection device rating? conductor that is intentionally grounded
a. 90 amperes c. No overcurrent device is permitted in series with any
b. 95 amperes conductor that is intentionally grounded
c. 100 amperes d. An overcurrent device must be provided both in series and
d. 105 amperes parallel for every conductor that is intentionally grounded

55. Mobile home disconnecting means shall be located not less 63. No ovecurrent device is permitted in series with any
than__ above finished grade or working platform. conductor that is intentionally grounded. What is the exception
a. 8 feet to that rule?
b. 6 feet a. Where the overcurrent device opens all conductors of the
c. 4 feet circuit, including the grounded conductor, and is so designed
d. 2 feet that no pole can operate independently
b. When used on a three-phase, 4-wire circuit
56. The branch-circuit conductors to one or more units of a data c. Where each pole may be operated independently
processing system shall have an ampacity of what percent of d. None of the above
the total connected load?
a. 200 64. Which of the following means of identifying a grounded
b. 125 conductor No. 6 AWG or smaller is not permitted?
c. 100 a. White outer finish
d. 80 b. Gray outer finish
c. Three white stripes on other than green insulation
d. Natural gray outer finish

57. Circuit breakers used as switches for high intensity 65. Where must overcurrent devices in non-power-limited fire
discharge lighting (HID) must be listed and marked: alarm circuits be located?
a. Listing and marking not required a. At the load on the circuit
b. HID b. At the main service panel
c. Intensity rated c. At the point where the conductor to be protected receives its
d. SWD supply
d. None of the above
58. A circuit breaker with a slash rating of 120/240 volts is
rated for what voltage to ground? 66. What is the smallest standard plug-fuse rating for use on
a. 120 volts to ground residential 120-volt branch circuits?
b. 240 volts to ground a. 10 amperes
c. Any voltage up to 240 b. 12 amperes
d. None of these c. 15 amperes
d. 20 amperes
59. A circuit breaker with a slash rating of 120/240 volts is
permitted to be installed in which of the following systems? 67. In general, feeder and branch-circuit conductors must be
a. Solidly-grounded system protected by overcurrent-protective devices connected:
b. Ungrounded system a. Within 2 feet of the point where the conductors receive their
c. Ungrounded system in RV parks supply
d. All of these b. Within 4 feet of the point where the conductors receive their
supply
60.Where a power supply enters a recreational vehicle, what is c. At the immediate point where the conductors receive their
the maximum distance the supply may run inside the vehicle supply
before it must be provided with overcurrent protection? d. Within 12 feet of the point where the conductors receive
a. 6 inches their supply
b. 8 inches
c. 10 inches 68. Branch-circuit overcurrent devices are not permitted in
d. 18 inches which of the following areas?
a. In residential or motel bathrooms
61. Constant voltage generators, except ac generator exciters, b. In residential unfinished basements
must be protected from overloads by: c. In motel utility rooms
a. Inherent design d. In shops containing motor-driven tools
b. Circuit breakers
c. Fuses
d. Any of the above

62. What overcurrent requirements are specified for grounded

conductors?
a. An overcurrent device must be provided in parallel for
every conductor that is intentionally grounded
82
 28. c) 33-1/3% of the feeder conductor
29. b) 50%
30. d) 20%
31. c) Not over 300% of the rated primary
current of the welder
32. b) Not over 200% of the rated primary
current of the welder
33. c) In series with each ungrounded input
conductor
34. b) 125%
35. b) 50 amperes
36. d) In series with the shunt winding
37. c) 125% of the transformer’s continuous
current per phase or neutral rating
38. b) It must be sufficient to handle the
maximum possible neutral unbalanced load
39. c) 125% of the dimmer rating
40. b) 20 amperes
41. b) 20 amperes
42. c) 40 amperes
CRAFTSMAN 6 ANSWER: 43. b) 2
1. a) 30 amperes 44. c) 50 amperes
2. b) Existing installation under specified 45. c) 50 amperes
conditions 46. d) Any of the above
3. d) 35 amperes 47. c) The next higher rating
4. b) 15 amperes 48. b) 50 amperes
5. c) Half-way between the ON and OFF 49. d) 50 feet
positions 50. a) One-third the rating or setting of the
6. b) Hexagonal overcurrent device next back on the line
7. c) Ungrounded conductors 51. c) Externally operable circuit breaker or
8. a) 110 amperes externally operable fusible switch
9. b) 150 amperes 52. d) Any of the above
10. c) 125% of the continuous load plus 100% 53. b) The next higher standard size
of the noncontinuous load 54. c) 100 amperes
11. b) 10 feet 55. d) 2 feet
12. a) At the point where the conductor 56. b) 125
receives its supply 57. b) HID
13. a) Edison-base plug fuse 58. a) 120 volts to ground
14. c) Dual-element time-delay plug fuse 59. a) Solidly-grounded system
15. c) Nontime-delay cartridge fuse 60. d) 18 inches
16. a) Dual-element time-delay cartridge fuse 61. d) Any of the above
17. c) Class R fuse rejection clips 62. c) No overcurrent device is permitted in
18. a) Ungrounded conductor simultaneously series with any conductor that is intentionally
19. d) 6000 amperes grounded
20. c) Factory assembled in parallel 63. a) Where the overcurrent device opens all
21. b) Not be required to be readily accessible conductors of the circuit, including the
22. d) Current transformer and overcurrent grounded conductor, and is so designed that no
relay pole can operate independently
23. a) In series 64. d) Natural gray outer finish
24. b) Where the conductor being protected 65. c) At the point where the conductor to be
receives its supply protected receives its supply
25. c) 115% 66. c) 15 amperes
26. d) Line to neutral loads 67. c) At the immediate point where the
27. b) 10,000 amperes conductors receive their supply
83
 68. a) In residential or motel bathrooms c. No. 18 AWG
d. No. 20 AWG

7. What is the minimum wire size allowed for pendant

conductors supplying mogul-base or medium-base screw-
shell lampholders?
a. No. 12 AWG
b. No. 14 AWG
c. No. 16 AWG
d. No. 18 AWG

8. What is the minimum wire size allowed for pendant

conductors supplying intermediate or candelabra-base
lampholders?
a. No. 12 AWG
b. No. 14 AWG
c. No. 16 AWG
d. No. 18 AWG

CRAFTSMAN 7
1. What is the maximum weight, in pounds, of a lighting 9. When pendant conductors are longer than a certain length,
fixture when supported only by the screw shell of the they must be twisted together. What is this length?
lampholder? a. 1 foot
a. 2 pounds b. 2 feet
b. 4 pounds c. 3 feet
c. 6 pounds d. 4 feet
d. 8 pounds
10. Which of the following is an acceptable marking method
2. What are the maximum dimensions of a lighting fixture for the grounding conductor on a grounding-type receptacle?
that may be supported only by the screw shell of the a. A white-colored round-headed terminal
lampholder? b. A tag with 14-inch high letters
a. 12 inches c. An orange dot
b. 16 inches d. A green-colored hexagonal-headed or – shaped terminal
c. 18 inches screw or nut
d. 20 inches
11What type of fixture wires are required when the wires are
3. Flexible cords shall be so connected to devices and to mounted on chains supporting a lighting fixture?
fittings that__ will not be transmitted to joints or terminals. a. Solid conductors only
a. Tension b. Stranded conductors only
b. Shock c. Either solid or stranded
c. Heat d. Compressed aluminum conductors only
d. Voltage
12. Flexible cords used for cord-connected showcase lighting
4. What is the maximum weight of a lighting fixture that is must be of what type?
supported only by an outlet box? a. Light-duty type
a. 6 pounds b. Extra hard-service type
b. 10 pounds c. Hard-service type
c. 25 pounds d. None of the above
d. 50 pounds
13. Normally, a lighting fixture must not be used as a raceway
5. To what portion of a lampholder must the grounded for circuit conductors except when:
conductor be connected? a. The fixtures are designed for end-to-end assembly to form a
a. The base continuous raceway or fixtures connected together by
b. The screw shell recognized wiring methods shall be permitted to carry through
c. The outlet box conductors of a two-wire or multiwire branch circuit supplying
d. The pull chain the future
b. The fixtures are listed as a raceway
6. What is the smallest size fixture wire allowed? c. One additional two-wire branch circuit separately supplying
a. No. 14 AWG one or more of the connected fixtures described in Answer B
b. No. 16 AWG shall be permitted to be carried through the fixture
84
d. All of the above c. Zinc
d. PVC (plastic)
14. Branch circuit conductors installed within 3 inches of an
electric-discharge fixture ballast must have insulation with a 23. Auxiliary lighting equipment, not installed as part of the
temperature rating no lower than: lighting fixture, must be installed in what type of enclosure?
a. 90°C (194°F) a. Porcelain
b. 30°C (86°F) b. Glass
a. 150°C (302°F) c. Metal
d. 40°C (104°F) d. PVC (plastic)

15. Electric-discharge lighting fixtures must be plainly marked 24. How must a branch circuit supplying a domestic water
with their electrical rating. This marking must include the heater with a capacity of 120 gallons or less be sized?
voltage, frequency, and: a. 100% of its nameplate rating
a. Wattage b. 110% of its nameplate rating
b. Current rating c. 125% of its nameplate rating
c. Resistance d. 150% of its nameplate rating
d. All of the above
25. If a gallon water heater has a nameplate rating of 4500
16. What type of lining must be provided in wiring watts and fed by a 2-wire, 240-volt circuit, what is the
compartments of all nonmetallic lighting fixtures? minimum size NM cable conductors that can be used?
a. Glass a. No. 14 AWG
b. Plastic b. No. 12 AWG
c. Porcelain c. No. 10 AWG
d. Metal d. No. 8 AWG

17. Which of the following types of lampholders are approved

for installation in wet or damp location? 26. What is the maximum overcurrent protection that can be
a. Weatherproof provided for the circuit in which a 60 gallon water heater with a
b. Mogul-base type nameplate rating of 4500 watts, fed by a 2-wire, 240-volt
c. Intermediate base type with explosionproof fittings circuit using No. 10 AWG NM cable conductors?
d. Candelabra type a. 20 amperes
b. 30 amperes
18. Isolated ground receptacles shall be identified by: c. 40 amperes
a. An orange triangle d. 50 ampere
b. A green dot
c. A permanent seal 27. What is the maximum size infrared heating lamp allowed to
d. Standard lugs be used with medium-base, unswitched porcelain type
lampholders?
19. What is the maximum incandescent-lamp wattage that may a. 100 watts
be used on medium base lampholders? b. 200 watts
a. 100 watts c. 300 watts
b. 200 watts d. 400 watts
c. 300 watts
d. 400 watts 28. Wall-mounted ovens and counter-mounted cooking units
are permitted to be:
20. What is the minimum spacing required between recessed a. Cord-and plug-connected
portions of a non-Type IC rated lighting fixture and b. Permanently connected
combustible materials, other than at the points of support? c. Both A and B
a. ¼ inch d. Neither A or B
b. ½ inch
c. 1 inch 29. What is the maximum permitted weight of a ceiling fan
d. 2 inches mounted directly to an outlet box?
a. 75 pounds
21.Incandescent lighting fixtures must be marked to indicate b. 70 pounds
the maximum size lamp permitted. This marking is indicated c. 40 pounds
in: d. 35 pounds
a. Amperes
b. Total resistance 30. When the branch-circuit overcurrent device serves as a
c. Wattage disconnecting means for a permanently connected appliance,
d. Watt-hours what is the maximum volt-ampere rating allowed for the
appliace?
22. Which of the following is an approved insulating material a. 120 volt-amperes
for lampholders of the screw-shell type? b. 220 volt-amperes
a. Porcelain c. 240 volt-amperes
b. Copper d. 300 volt-amperes
85

31. What is the maximum horsepower allowed on permanantly
connected appliances that use the branch-circuit overcurrent
protection means as a disconnect?
a. 1/8 horsepower
b. ¼ horsepower
c. ¾ horsepower
d. 1 horsepower
32. The maximum horsepower allowed on permanently
connected appliances that use the branch-circuit overcurrent
protection means as a disconnect is 1/8 horsepower. When an
appliance exceeds the maximum ratings, what is one
requirement that will still allow the appliance to be
disconnected by the branch-circuit overcurrent protection
means?
a. The switch or circuit breaker is out of sight of the appliance
b. Double-pole circuit breakers are used
c. Only single-pole circuit breakers are used
d. The switch or circuit breaker is within sight of the appliance
33. Name another condition that permits permanently
connected appliances to utilize the branch-circuit overcurrent
protection device as a means of disconnecting the appliance.
a. The device must be capable of being locked in the open
(off) position
b. The device must be a fuse block
c. The device must be enclosed in a metal housing
d. The device must be of the circuit braker type
34. If an external switch or circuit breaker is used for the
disconnecting means for a permanently installed appliance
containing a motor over 1/8 horsepower, where must the
switch or circuit breaker (disconnecting means) be locked?
a. On a sheet of plywood firmly secured to a masonry wall
b. On a masonry wall
c. Out of sight of the appliance
d. Within sight of the appliance
35. What is the maximum overcurrent protection rating
allowed on infrared heating lamps used on commercial or
industrial applications?
a. 40 amperes plus 125% of the amperage above 100 amperes
b. 50 amperes
c. 60 amperes
d. 100 amperes plus 125% of the amperage above 100
amperes
36. Each electric appliance must be provided with a nameplate
giving the identifying name and rating of the appliance in:
a. Volts and watts
b. Volts and amperes
c. Either A or B
d. Neither A or B
37. Under what condition must the frequency be given on the
nameplate of an electric appliance?
a. When the appliance is designed for use in foreign countries
b. When the appliance contains resistance heating elements
only
c. When the appliance is designed for a specific frequency
d. When the appliance contains heating elements, indicating
lights, built-in frequency meter, as well as instrumental
controls for operation
38. Where electric space heating equipment is supplied by
more than one power source, how must the disconnecting
means be installed?
a. Installed in separate locations
b. On a plywood panel
c. Grouped and marked
d. On a masonry wall
39.When the branch-circuit overcurrent protection device is
used as the disconnecting means for fixed electric space
heating with an integral electric motor, what is the maximum
horsepower rating the motor can have?
a. 1/8 horsepower
b. ¼ horsepower
c. ½ horsepower
d. 1 horsepower
40. When branch-circuit overcurrent protection is used for
motor-driven electric space heating equipment with a motor
rated over 1/8 horsepower, name one requirement for the
installation to comply with the NEC.
a. The overcurrent device is not capable of being locked open
b. The overcurrent device is within sight of the heater
c. The heater does not exceed 300 volt-ampere
d. The heater does not exceed 4000 watts
41. What is the maximum overcurrent protection allowed for
the protection of resistance-type electric space heating
equipment?
a. 40 amperes
b. 50 amperes
c. 60 amperes
d. 70 amperes plus an additional 150% if motor driven
42. Each unit of fixed electric space heating equipment must be
provided with a nameplate giving the identifying name and the
normal rating in:
a. Volts and watts
b. Volts and amperes
c. Either A and B
d. Neither A nor B
43. What is the maximum distance (interval) that electric
heating cable is to be secured during installation?
a. 12 inches
b. 14 inches
c. 15 inches
d. 16 inches
44. By definition, what are duct heaters?
a. Any heater mounted in the air stream of a forced-air system
where the air moving unit is not provided as an integral part of
the equipment
b. An electric heater that is an integral part of a wall-mounted
forced-air heater
86
c. Any electric heater that is designed for use in wet or damp a. 4 inches
locations b. 6 inches
d. Any heater that is mounted along the baseboard of a room c. 8 inches
d. 12 inches
45.What is the maximum wattage allowed per linear foot of
heating cable embedded in concrete? 54. Each factory-assembled deicing or snow-melting heating
a. 10 watts unit must be legibly marked with its permanent identification
b. 12-1/2 watts symbol, catalog number, and ratings in volts and watts. What is
c. 16-1/2 watts the maximum distance from the end of the cable that these
d. 20 watts markings can appear?
a. 1 inch
46.What is the minimum spacing between runs of concrete b. 2 inches
embedded heating cable? c. 3 inches
a. 1 inch d. 4 inches
b. 2 inches
c. 3 inches 55. Unless provisions are made for expansion and contraction,
d. 4 inches heating elements and assemblies for fixed outdoor deicing
systems shall not be installed where:
47. On what basis must the branch-circuit conductors and a. They can be seen
overcurrent protective devices be calculated for an electode- b. They bridge expansion joints
type boiler? c. The amperage exceeds 10 amperes
a. 100% of the total load, not including motors d. They are fed with more than 120 volts
b. 125% of the total load, including motors
c. 125% of the total load, not including motors
d. 150% of the total load, including all electrical connections

48.How must the ampacity of branch-circuit conductors and 56. What are two means of securing heating cables for outdoor
overcurrent protective devices sized for outdoor electric deicing deicing applications?
or snow-melting equipment? a. Rigid conduit straps
a. 100% of the total load b. Frames and spreaders
b. 110% of the total load c. EMT straps
c. 120% of the total load d. NM staples
d. 125% of the total load
57. Which is an approved method for protecting the leads for
49. On cord-and plug-connecting deicing equipment, the plug heating cables as they leave a concrete or asphalt surface?
itself may be used as the disconnecting means provided: a. Rigid metal conduit
a. The equipment does not exceed 480 volts b. Intermediate conduit
b. The equipment does not exceed 240 volts c. Rigid nonmetallic conduit
c. The equipment does not exceed 150 volts to ground d. All of the above
d. The equipment does not exceed 277 volts to ground

50.What is the maximum wattage permitted for embedded

deicing and snow-melting resistance-type heating units?
a. 100 watts per square foot
b. 120 watts per square foot
c. 150 watts per square foot
d. 200 watts per square foot

51. What are the requirements for nonheating leads if they are
to be embedded in masonry or asphalt in the same manner as
heating cables?
a. They must be under 50 volts
b. The leads must encased in a nonmetallic sheath
c. They must be provided with a grounding sheath or braid
d. None of the above

52. Insulating bushings must be used in asphalt or masonry in a

deicing or snow-melting system, where:
a. Leads enter conduit or tubing
b. The voltage exceeds 460 volts
c. Leads change wire size
d. The amperage exceeds 45 amperes

53. What is the minimum length of free nonheating lead where

it enters a junction box for and embedded heating system?
87
 32. d) The switch or circuit breaker is within
sight of the appliance
33. a) The device must be capable of being
locked in the open (off) position
34. d) Within sight of the appliance
35. b) 50 amperes
36. c) Either A or B
37. c) When the appliance is designed for a
specific frequency
38. c) Grouped and marked
39. a) 1/8 horsepower
40. b) The overcurrent device is within sight
of the heater
41. c) 60 amperes
42. c) Either A and B
43. d) 16 inches
44. a) Any heater mounted in the air stream
of a forced-air system where the air
moving unit is not provided as an
integral part of the equipment
45. c) 16-1/2 watts
CRAFTSMAN 7 ANSWER:
1. c) 6 pounds 46. a) 1 inch
2. b) 16 inches 47. c) 125% of the total load, not including
3. a) Tension motors
4. d) 50 pounds 48. d) 125% of the total load
5. b) The screw shell 49. c) The equipment does not exceed 150
6. c) No. 18 AWG volts to ground
7. b) No. 14 AWG 50. b) 120 watts per square foot
8. d) No. 18 AWG 51. c) They must be provided with a
9. c) 3 feet grounding sheath or braid
10. d) A green-colored hexagonal-headed or – 52. a) Leads enter conduit or tubing
shaped terminal screw or nut 53. b) 6 inches
11. b) Stranded conductors only 54. c) 3 inches
12. c) Hard-service type 55. b) They bridge expansion joints
13. d) All of the above 56. b) Frames and spreaders
14. a) 90°C (194°F) 57. d) All of the above
15. b) Current rating
16. d) Metal
17. a) Weatherproof
18. a) An orange triangle
19. c) 300 watts
20. b) ½ inch
21. c) Wattage
22. a) Porcelain
23. c) Metal
24. c) 125% of its nameplate rating
25. c) No. 10 AWG
26. b) 30 amperes
27. c) 300 watts
28. c) Both A and B
29. b) 70 pounds
30. d) 300 volt-amperes
31. a) 1/8 horsepower
88
 5. Some kilowatt-hour meters have five or more dials like the
one shown in Figure 8-2. In a five-dial meter, what amount
does the very left-hand dial count?
a. Hundreds
b. Tens
c. Thousands
d. Ten thousands
CRAFTSMAN 8
1. The quantity of electricity used by the consumer is
measured by a device called:
a. Ohmmeter
b. Power factor meter
c. Watt-hour meter
d. Ammeter

2. Which direction do the dials on a kilowatt-hour meter

move?
a. Clockwise
b. Counterclockwise
c. Neither answer A or B
d. Both A and B are correct 6. What is the reading of the kilowatt-hour meter in Figure
8-3?
a. 22,179
b. 33,179
c. 34,179
d. 35, 179

7. Electricity is sold by the:

a. Ampere hour
b. Kilowatt hour
3. By what quantity does the dial farthest to the right in c. Volt hour
Figure 8-1 count kilowatt hours? d. None of the above
a. Singly
b. By tens 8. If a three-phase circuit is not balanced, how many single-
c. By hundreds phase wattmwters are necessary to measure the power in the
d. By thousands circuit?
a. 1
4. What is the reading of the meter in Figure 8-1? b. 2
a. 1,2,3,9 or 1239 kilowatt hours c. 3
b. 2,1,3,9 or 2139 kilowatt hours d. 4
c. 2,2,3,9 or 2239 kilowatt hours
d. 1,1,2,8 or 1128 kilowatt hours 9. How many wattmeters are necessary to measure the power
in a balanced thre-phase, Y-connected circuit?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
89
 b. Current multiplier
10. If a completely balanced Y-connected, three-phase load c. Phase-sequence indicator
shows a power reading of 7 kilowatt hours using a single d. Current transformer
wattmeter, what is the total power of the circuit?
a. 20 kilowatt hours 19. What is another way to multiply the current reading on an
b. 21 kilowatt hours ammeter’s scale when a current multiplier is not available?
c. 22 kilowatt hours a. Wrap several loops of a single circuit conductor around
d. 23 kilowatt hours the hook of the clamp-on ammeter
b. Try to calculate the current by some other means
11. What is the name of a direct-indicating instrument for c. Use a magnifying glass to read the meter’s scale
measuring resistance? d. None of the above
a. Voltmeter
b. Wattmeter
c. Ohmmeter
d. Ammeter

12. A measuring instrument consisting of an enclosure

containing resistance coils with convenient plugs or switches
for placing coils of various resistance in and out of a
balancing circuit is called a:
a. Volt-ohm-ammeter
b. Voltmeter
c. Current transformer
d. Wheatstone bridge

13. The power factor of a system or circuit is:

a. The ratio of true power to apparent power
b. The ratio of impedance to reactance
c. The relationship of volts and ohms
d. None of the above
20. The ammeter in Figure 8-4 shows three turns of wire
14. An instrument used to show the difference in phase and wrapped around the ammeter’s hook. If the actual current
frequency between the voltages of two alternators is called: drawn by the motor is 5 amperes, what will the meter reading
a. Tachometer be?
b. Synchroscope a. 5 amperes
c. Light meter b. 10 amperes
d. None of the above c. 15 amperes
d. 20 amperes
15. An instrument used to indicate or record the speed of a
machine in revolutions per minute (rpm) is called: 21. How should a voltmeter be connected in a circuit to take
a. Frequency meter a voltage reading under normal conditions?
b. Footcandle meter a. In series
c. Tachometer b. In parallel
d. Synchroscope c. In series/parallel
d. None of the above
16. Modern ac power systems must be closely regulated to a
constant frequency – within 1%. What is the name of the 22. If a voltage test is made at the main disconnect on a
very sensitive instrument used to measure these small 120/240-volt, three-phase, 4-wire delta system, what should
variations? the voltage be between any two ungrounded conductors?
a. Frequency meter a. 120 volts
b. Footcandle meter b. 208 volts
c. Tachometer c. 240 volts
d. Synchroscope d. 250 volts
17. Which of the following instruments are used to measure 23. If a voltage test is made at the main disconnect on a
temperatures? 120/240-volt, three-phase, 4-wire delta system, what will the
a. Resistance thermometer voltages be between the grounded conductor and any
b. Radiation-pyrometer ungrounded conductor?
c. Thermocouple thermometer a. 120 volts
d. All of the above b. 208 volts
c. 240 volts
18. When taking low-current readings with a clamp-on d. 120 volts on two phases
ammeter, what device is normally used to help get a more
accurate reading on the ammeter scale?
a. Frequency meter
90
24.If the service at the main disconnect on a 120/240-volt, b. Less than one
three-phase, 4-wire delta system is supplied by a utility c. Difficult to determine
company and the voltage reading at the main service d. At unity
equipment is below 230 volts, who is usually responsible for
correcting the low-voltage problem? 31. The first step in solving a low-voltage problem on a
a. The building’s owners circuit is to leave the voltmeter leads connected across the
b. The utility company line, and then begin:
c. The building’s tenants a. Connecting additional loads to the circuit
d. The NFPA b. Disconnecting loads to the circuit
c. Both A and B
25. If a voltage reading is taken between any two ungrounded d. Neither A nor B
conductors on a 120/208-volt, three-phase, 4-wire Y-Y-
connected electric service, what should the normal voltage 32. A DC voltmeter may be used to measure a low resistance
reading be? in a de-energized AC circuit when the voltmeter is used in
a. 120 volts conjunction with:
b. 208 volts a. A megger
c. 240 volts b. An ammeter
d. 250 volts c. A known resistance
d. A current transformer
26. On a 120/208-volt, three-phase, 4-wire Y-Y-connected
electric service, what is the voltage between the grounding 33. A tachometer’s output is calibrated in:
conductor and any phase conductor? a. fps
a. 120 volts b. foot pounds
b. 208 volts c. cfm
c. 240 volts d. rpm
d. 120 volts on two of the phases and approximately 190
volts on the remaining phase

27. If a voltage reading is taken at the main service 34. Which of the following is a good indication that an open
disconnect on a 120/208-volt, three-phase, 4-wire Y-Y- circuit exists?
connected electric service and found to be approximately 208 a. A high voltage reading
volts between any two ungrounded conductors, but the same b. No voltage reading
voltage test shows only 190 volts at the last outlet on the c. A low voltage reading
circuit, where does the fault lie? d. None of the above
a. With the utility company
b. With the building’s interior wiring 35. One visual test that may be made on a clear, incandescent
c. With the power company’s transformer lamp to see if it is good or not is to:
d. None of the above a. Look for a broken element
b. Look for a corroded base
28. If voltage readings are taken on a three-phase,4-wire, c. Look for discolored glass
240-volt, delta-connected electric service and two of the d. None of the above
phases show a reading of 230 volts between phase and
ground and the third shows a reading of only 50 volts 36. One way to test a frosted incandescent lamp is with a
between phase and ground, what is the probable cause of this testing instrument, and when no means of electric current is
problem? available:
a. Load too great a. With an ohmmeter
b. Incorrect wire size b. With a wattmeter
c. Incorrect transformer settings c. With a power factor meter
d. A partial ground or ground fault d. All of the above

29. When cartridge fuses are tested with a voltmeter, they 37. When testing a load center with the main disconnect open
should be tested: (panel de-energized) using an ohmmeter, a blown or faulty
a. Phase-to-phase on the line side fuse would give a reading of:
b. Diagonally with one lead on the line side of one fuse and a. 0 ohms
the load side of an adjacent fuse b. 17 ohms
c. Phase-to-phase on the load side c. Infinity
d. None of the above d. 70 ohms

30. In a DC circuit, the ratio of watts to volt-amperes is 38. When testing a load center with the main disconnect open
always: (panel de-energized) using an ohmmeter, if the ohmmeter
a. Greater than one
91
showed any resistance at all on the scale, the conclusion b. A change in electrical value
would be: c. An overload
a. The fuse is good d. None of the above
b. The fuse is partially good
c. The fuse is bad 47. One way test electrical measuring instruments for
d. The fuse is partially bad accuracy is to:
a. Compare the instrument under test with another similar
39. The basic definition of a short circuit is: instrument of known accuracy
a. An undesired current path that does not bypass the load b. Test the instrument on an electric circuit
b. An undesired current path that allows current to bypass c. Compare the instrument under test with another similar
the load instrument, if they both show about the same reading, both
c. A desired current path that does not bypass the load are correct
d. A desired current path that bypasses the load d. None of the abov

40. When testing conductor insulation with a megger, it is
desirable to have the instrument’s voltage:
a. Slightly lower than the peak value of the rated ac voltage
b. The same as the rated ac voltage
c. Slightly higher than the peak value of the rated ac voltage
d. No more than 80% of the ac voltage
41. Name the three types of instruments suitable for making
insulation tests at two or more voltages.
a. Ammeter, ohmmeter, voltmeter
b. Power-factor meter, tachometer, and ohmmeter
c. Hand-driven, motor-driven, and rectifying meggers
d. Watt-hour meter, power-factor meter, and tachometer
48. To test an ammeter for accuracy, another ammeter of
known accuracy can be connected in the circuit with the
ammeter under test. How should these ammeters be
connected?
a. In parallel
b. One in series, the other in parallel
c. In series with each other
d. None of the above

42. Most meggers provide a range in voltage from:

a. 0 to 50 volts
b. 500 to 1000 volts
c. 0 to 500 volts
d. 500 to 5000 volts

43. In general, what are the three basic electrical faults?

a. Ground fault, partial ground fault, and open circuit
b. Short circuit, open circuit, and change in electrical value
c. Open circuit, incomplete circuit, and ground fault
d. Short circuit, ground fault, and partial ground fault

44. The nature of a problem on a circuit protected by a plug 49. One type of test circuit is shown in Figure 8-6. If the ten
fuse can often be determined by the appearance of the fuse: 100-watt lamps are connected to a 118-volt source, what
a. Base should the reading of both ammeters be?
b. Enclosure a. 6.47 amperes
c. Window b. 8.47 amperes
d. Terminal conductor c. 10.47 amperes
d. 12.47 amperes
45. If a plug fuse window appears clear and the element is
merely broken, the probable cause of the fuse blowing is: 50. What is the purpose of the independent switches in
a. A short circuit Figure8-6?
b. A change in electrical value a. To allow each lamp to be cut off to change the bulb
c. An overload b. To prevent electrical shock
d. None of the above c. To vary the load on the circuit so the ammeters will show
different readings
46. If a plug-fuse window is blackened or discolored, the d. None of the above
most probable cause of the fuse blowing is:
a. A short circuit
92
 22. c) 240 volts
23. d) 120 volts on two phases
24. b) The utility company
25. b) 208 volts
26. a) 120 volts
27. b) With the building’s interior wiring
28. d) A partial ground or ground fault
29. b) Diagonally with one lead on the line side
of one fuse and the load side of an adjacent fuse
30. d) At unity
31. b) Disconnecting loads to the circuit
32. c) A known resistance
33. d) rpm
34. b) No voltage reading
35. a) Look for a broken element
36. a) With an ohmmeter
37. c) Infinity
38. a) The fuse is good
39. b) An undesired current path that allows
current to bypass the load
40. c) Slightly higher than the peak value of the
rated ac voltage
41. c) Hand-driven, motor-driven, and
rectifying meggers
42. d) 500 to 5000 volts
43. b) Short circuit, open circuit, and change in
electrical value

CRAFTSMAN 8 ANSWER:
1. c) Watt-hour meter 44. c) Window
2. d) Both A and B are correct 45. c) An overload
3. a) Singly 46. a) A short circuit
4. d) 1,1,2,8 or 1128 kilowatt hours 47. a) Compare the instrument under test with
5. d) Ten thousands another similar instrument of known accuracy
6. a) 22,179 48. c) In series with each other
7. b) Kilowatt hour 49. b) 8.47 amperes
8. c) 3 50. c) To vary the load on the circuit so the
9. a) 1 ammeters will show different readings
10. b) 21 kilowatt hours
11. c) Ohmmeter
12. d) Wheatstone bridge
13. a) The ratio of true power to apparent
power
14. b) Synchroscope
15. c) Tachometer
16. a) Frequency meter
17. d) All of the above
18. b) Current multiplier
19. a) Wrap several loops of a single circuit
conductor around the hook of the clamp-on
ammeter
20. c) 15 amperes
21. b) In parallel

93
 5. A “disconnecting means” that must be visible from a motor
location must not be farther than:
a. 25 feet
b. 75 feet
c. 50 feet
d. 80 feet

6. A 20-ampere AC snap switch may disconnect a 2-

horsepower motor with a maximum full-load current of:
a. 16 amperes
b. 10 amperes
c. 20 amperes
d. 18 amperes

7. Live parts of motors must be guatrded if they operate at or

over:
a. 150 volts
b. 50 volts
c. 100 volts
d. 75 volts

8. The smallest size conduit allowed to enclosed motor

terminals from a junction box is:
a. ½ inch
b. 1 inch
c. 1-1/2 inch
d. 3/8 inch

9. Motor controller enclosures must be grounded:

a. At all voltages
b. If above 600 volts
c. If above 50 volts
d. If 240 volts or more
CRAFTSMAN 9
1. A motor controller that also serves as a disconnecting means:
a. Shall open all ungrounded conductors to the motor
10. A branch circuit is supplying a single hermetic refrigerant
simultaneously
motor-compressor for an air conditioning unit in a single-
b. Shall not be required to open all conductors
family dwelling. The hermetic refrigerant motor-compressor
c. Shall open only grounded conductors
rated-load current is 18 amperes. If a 30-ampere fuse will not
d. Shall open only one current-carrying conductor
carry the motor compressor’s starting current, the maximum
rating of the branch-circuit overcurrent protective device may
2. The branch-circuit overcurrent device may serve as the
be increased to:
controller for stationary motors rated less than:
a. 35 amperes
a. 20 horsepower
b. 40 amperes
b. 1/8 horsepower
c. 45 amperes
c. 15 horsepower
d. 50 amperes
d. 5 horsepower
11. The minimum size liquidtight flexible metal conduit
3. A disconnecting means for a 2300-volt motor must be
(LFMC) for general use is:
capable of being locked in the:
a. 3/8 inch
a. Closed position
b. ¾ inch
b. Open and closed positions
c. ½ inch
c. Open position
d. 1-1/2 inch
d. On position
12. Which of the following statements about liquidtight flexible
4. Each continuous-duty motor rated at more than what
metal conduit (LFMC) is/are correct?
horsepower must be protected against overload by an
I. Liquidtight flexible metal conduit shall not be used where
approved method?
subject to physical damage.
a. 1/8 horsepower
II. Liquidtight flexible metal conduit shall be used only with
b. ½ horsepower
listed fittings.
c. ¼ horsepower
a. I only
d. 1 horsepower
b. II only
c. Both I and II
d. Neither I nor II
94
 amperes, the setting of an overload device in the circuit is
13. The conductors of a feeder supplying two(2) continuous based on a current of:
duty motors, one rated 7-1/2 horsepower, 240 volts dc, and a. 100 amperes
one rated 10 horsepower, 240 volts DC shall have a current b. 125 amperes
rating not less than: c. 80 amperes
a. 56 amperes d. 150 amperes
b. 74 amperes
c. 77 amperes 21. Conductors supplying two or more motors must have an
d. 84 amperes ampacity equal to the sum of the full-load current rating of all
the motors plus what percent of the highest rated motor in the
14. A motor disconnecting means must: group?
a. Disconnect only the motor a. 25%
b. Disconnect only the controller b. 50%
c. Disconnect both the motor and controller c. 75%
d. Disconnect the motor d. 100%

15. If a conductor is covered, it is:
a. Encased with an insulation recognized by the Code
b. Encased with an outer covering not recognized as electrical
insulation by the Code
c. Effectively isolated from ground faults
d. Covered with a material of a composition and thickness
recognized by UL
22. What may the locked-rotor current be assumed to be for
small motor-compressors not having the locked-rotor current
marked on the nameplate?
a. 2 times the rated load current
b. 4 times the rated load current
c. 6 times the rated load current
d. 8 times the rated load current

16. Open motors with commutators shall be located so sparks 23. What is the maximum overcurrent protective device
cannot reach adjacent combustible material, but this: allowed on a 480-volt branch circuit with several small
a. Is only requires for over 600 volts motors connected-all of which are under 1 horsepower and
b. Does not prohibit these motors from a Class I location the maximum load of each motor is 5 amperes?
c. Shall not prohibit these motors on wooden floors a. 10 amperes
d. None of these b. 15 amperes
c. 20 amperes
d. 30 amperes

17. The branch-circuit conductors supplying a motor that draws

40 amperes and operates for three hours or more must have 24. A 240-volt single-phase room air conditioner shall be
an ampacity not less than: considered as a single-phase motor unit if its rating is not
a. 40 amperes more than:
b. 50 amperes a. 20 amperes
c. 60 amperes b. 30 amperes
d. 70 amperes c. 40 amperes
d. 50 amperes
18. If no other information is given, a continuous-duty motor
that draws 100 amperes must be protected by an overload 25. Unless identified for a different value, motor control circuit
device rated at not more than: devices with screw-type pressure terminals used with No. 14
a. 125 amperes AWG or smaller copper conductors must be torqued to a
b. 150 amperes minimum pound-inch value. What is this value?
c. 140 amperes a. 2 pound-inches
d. 115 amperes b. 5 pound-inches
c. 7 pound-inches
19. The branch-circuit overcurrent device may serve as the d. 9 pound-inches
disconnecting means for motor-driven appliances rated not
over: 26. What must be used at all openings in an enclosure, conduit
a. ½ horsepower box, or barrier where wires pass through the opening in
b. 1 horsepower motor circuits?
c. ¾ horsepower a. A locknut
d. 1/8 horsepower b. An approved metallic fitting
c. A bushing
20. A power factor correction capacitor connected on the load d. A “red-head”
side of the overload device of a motor reduces the line
current by 20%. If the full-load current of the motor is 100

95
27. A protective device for limiting surge voltages by
discharging or bypassing surge current, and also preventing
continued flow of follow current, is called:
a. A surge arrestor
b. An auto fuse
c. A ground-fault circuit-interrupter
d. A surge bypass
28. A phase converter is an electrical device that:
a. Converts single-phase power to 3-phase electrical power
b. Reverses the rotation of single-phase motors
c. Converts three-phase electrical power for the operation of
equipment that normally operates from a single-phase
electrical supply
d. Reverses the rotation of three-phase motors
29. When using a phase converter for a fixed load, the single-
phase conductors must have an ampacity not less than what
percentage of the full-load current rating of the motor or
other load being served where the input and output voltages
are the same?
a. 300%
b. 250%
c. 150%
d. 175%
30. For continuous duty, the conductors connecting the
secondary of a wound-rotor AC motor to its controller must
have an ampacity not less that what percent of the full-load
secondary current of the moto?
a. 100%
b. 110%
c. 125%
d. 130%
31. If a motor uses a cord and plug as a disconnect, the
attachment plug must be rated for:
a. Horsepower
b. Resistance
c. Voltage only
d. None of the above
32. If three three-phase motors are connected to a 120/240-volt
single- to three-phase converter, and each motor has a full-
load current rating of 8 amperes, what is the minimum
amperage rating of the conductors feeding the phase
converter?
a. 30.7 amperes
b. 60 amperes
c. 70.8 amperes
d. 81.5 amperes
33. In a 3-wire, three-phase AC system feeding a motor, with
one conductor grounded, where must fuses for motor
overload protection be inserted in the circuit?
a. A fuse must be inserted in each ungrounded conductor and
also in the grounded conductor
b. No fuses are required for motor overload protection
c. A fuse must be inserted only in each ungrounded conductor
d. None of the above answer are correct
34. What other protection is required on motor overload relays
and other devices that are not capable of opening short
circuits or ground faults?
a. They must be protected by an autotransformer
b. They must be protected with plug fuses only
c. They mest be protected with cartridge fuses only
d. They must be protected with overcurrent devices
35. When two disconnecting means are utilized, one for
disconnecting the motor and motor controller from the circuit
and the other for disconnecting the motor control circuit from
its power supply, where must these two disconnects be
located?
a. Within sight of each other
b. Withnin 50 feet of each other
c. Immediately adjacent to each other
d. None of the above
36. By difinition, what is a motor controller?
a. A device used to troubleshoot motors
b. A device or group of devices that serves to govern the
electric power delivered to the apparatus to which it is
connected
c. A device containing overcurrent protection for the motor
d. An assembly of enclosed sections having a common power
bus, to purposely introduce a delay in tripping action
37. Every motor controller must be capable of starting and
stopping a motor. It must also be capable of:
a. Interrupting the locked-rotor current of the motor
b. Providing overcurrent protection
c. Detecting variances in the circuit voltage
d. Providing ground-fault protection
38. An autotransformer motor starter must be so designed that it
has at least:
a. An “ON” position, nothing else required
b. Two starting positions
c. An “OFF” position
d. Three starting position
39. An autotransformer motor starter must be so designed that it
has an “OFF” position. What other design considerations are
required of an autotransformer?
a. It must be designed so that it cannot be de-energized without
the proper key
b. It must be designed so that it cannot rest in the starting
position
c. It must be designed so that it rest in the starting position at all
times
d. All of these
40. Motor-starter rheostat for DC motors operated from a
constant voltage supply be equipped with automatic devices
that will interrupt the power supply before the speed of the
motor falls to a certain level. What is this speed?
a. One-half its normal value
b. One-third its normal value
c. Three-fourths its normal value
96
d. Two-thirds its normal value
41. What is the minimum number of conductors a motor
controller must open?
a. Only the grounded conductor
b. Enough ungrounded conductors to stop the motor
c. All ungrounded conductors
d. No conductors need to be opened
42. How many motors connected to acircuit in excess of 600
volts are allowed to be connected to each motor controller?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
43.Where one side of the motor control circuit is grounded, the
motor control circuits should be arranged so that what type of
ground in the remote control device will not start the motor?
a. An intentional ground
b. A low-voltage ground
c. An isolated ground
d. An accidental ground
44. A disconnecting means for a motor or phase converter must
plainly indicate:
a. The machines being fed
b. Whether it is in open (OFF) or closed(ON) position
c. The phase rotation of the machine being fed
d. The date of installation
45. What must be the ampere rating be for a disconnecting
means for a motor circuit rated 600 volts, nominal, or less?
a. 100% of the motor nameplate current
b. At least 125% of the full-load current rating of the motor
c. At least 115% of the full-load current rating of the motor
d. At least 150% of the full-load current rating of the motor
46. How many disconnecting means are required for electric
motors receiving electrical energy from more than ane
source?
a. A disconnecting means is required for each source of
electrical energy
b. One disconnect and a motor controller for each source of
electrical energy
c. One disconnect must be provided for all sources
d. Two disconnect must be provided for each voltage source
47. What are the jobs required of motor-circuit overcurrent
protection?
a. Interrupt overloads
b. Interrupt fault currents
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
48. Exposed live parts of motors and motor controllers
operating at 50 volts or more between terminals must be
guarded against accidental contact by a suitable enclosure, or
as follows:
a. By installation on a suitable balcony or gallery that is
inaccessible to qualified personnel
b. By installation in a room or enclosure that is accessible only
to qualified persons
c. By elevation of at least 8 feet above the floor
d. All of the above
49. When the frame of a stationary motor is not grounded and
complies with NEC regulations, what provisions must be
made?
a. It must be permanently and affectively insulated from the
ground
b. It must be installed so that it can receive no energy from the
source
c. The electrical energy must be less than 100 volts
d. The electrical energy must be less than 120 volts
50. The frames of all portable motors over a certain voltage
must be guarded or grounded. What is this voltage?
a. 100 volts
b. 120 volts
c. 150 volts
d. 220 volts
51. What is the minimum size disconnecting means allowed for
a hermetic refrigerant motor-compressor?
a. 100% of the nameplate rated-load current
b. 115% of the nameplate rated-load current
c. 125% of the nameplate rated-load current
d. 130% of the nameplate rated-load current
52. Where must the disconnecting means for an air-
conditioning or refrigerating apparatus be located?
a. Within sight of the apparatus
b. Out of sight
c. At least 6 feet away from the equipment
d. At least 12 feet away from the equipment
53. Branch-circuit conductors supplying a single motor-
compressor must have an ampacity not less than what percent
of the motor-compressor rated-load current?
a. 100%
b. 115%
c. 125%
d. 150%
54. Each motor-compressor must be protected against overload
and failure to start by which of the following means:
a. A separate overload relay that is responsive to motor-
compressor current
b. A thermal protector integral with the motor-compressor
c. A fuse or inverse time circuit breaker
d. Any of the above
55. A room air conditioner is considered to be a single motor
unit in determining its branch-circuit requirements when the
following conditions are met:
a. It is cord- and plug-connected and its rating is not more than
40 amperes and 250 volts, single phase
b. The rating of the branch-circuit short-circuit and ground-
fault protective device does not exceed the ampacity of the
branch-circuit conductors or the rating of the receptacle,
whichever is less
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c. Total rated-load current is shown on the room air-conditioner 18. d) 115 amperes
nameplate rather than individual motor currents 19. d) 1/8 horsepower
d. All of the above
20. c) 80 amperes
56. If a single motor-compressor has a nameplate rated-load 21. a) 25%
current of 34.5 amperes and this is greater than the branch- 22. c) 6 times the rated load current
circuit conductors, rounded off to the closet whole number? 23. b) 15 amperes
a. 36 amperes 24. c) 40 amperes
b. 38 amperes
c. 43 amperes
25. c) 7 pound-inches
d. 48 amperes 26. c) A bushing
27. a) A surge arrestor
57. A single motor-compressor has a nameplate rated-load 28. a) Converts single-phase power to 3-phase
current of 34.5 amperes and this is greater than the branch- electrical power
circuit selection current. What is the minimum rating for a
disconnecting means, rounded off to the closest whole
29. b) 250%
number? 30. c) 125%
a. 30 amperes 31. a) Horsepower
b. 35 amperes 32. b) 60 amperes
c. 40 amperes 33. a) A fuse must be inserted in each
d. 50 amperes
ungrounded conductor and also in the grounded
58. If a replacement motor-compressor draws 38.7 amperes, conductor
what is the minimum rating for a disconnect means? 34. d) They must be protected with overcurrent
a. 44.5 amperes devices
b. 50.1 amperes 35. c) Immediately adjacent to each other
c. 60.7 amperes
36. b) A device or group of devices that serves to
d. 70 amperes
govern the electric power delivered to the
59. Which of the following are recognized types of phase apparatus to which it is connected
converters? 37. a) Interrupting the locked-rotor current of
a. Shaded-pole the motor
b. Rotary and static 38. c) An “OFF” position
c. Compound-wound
d. Split-phase 39. b) It must be designed so that it cannot rest in
the starting position
40. b) One-third its normal value
41. b) Enough ungrounded conductors to stop the
motor
CRAFTSMAN 9 ANSWER:
1. a) Shall open all ungrounded conductors to 42. a) 1
the motor simultaneously 43. d) An accidental ground
2. b) 1/8 horsepower 44. b) Whether it is in open (OFF) or closed(ON)
3. c) Open position position
4. d) 1 horsepower 45. c) At least 115% of the full-load current
5. c) 50 feet rating of the motor
6. a) 16 amperes 46. a) A disconnecting means is required for
7. b) 50 volts each source of electrical energy
8. d) 3/8 inch 47. c) Both A and B
9. a) At all voltages 48. d) All of the above
10. b) 40 amperes 49. a) It must be permanently and affectively
11. c) ½ inch insulated from the ground
12. c) Both I and II 50. c) 150 volts
13. c) 77 amperes 51. b) 115% of the nameplate rated-load current
14. c) Disconnect both the motor and controller 52. a) Within sight of the apparatus
15. b) Encased with an outer covering not 53. c) 125%
recognized as electrical insulation by the Code 54. d) Any of the above
16. c) Shall not prohibit these motors on wooden 55. d) All of the above
floors 56. c) 43 amperes
17. b) 50 amperes 57. c) 40 amperes?
98
58. a) 44.5 amperes d. The ungrounded conductors
59. b) Rotary and static
5. In Class I, Division 1 locations, a conduit to a splice box
must be sealed if the trade size is:
a. 1 inch or larger
b. 2-1/2 inches or larger
c. 2 inches or larger
d. ½ inch or larger

6. The external surface of totally enclosed motors of Types (2)

or (3) shall never have an operating temperature (in degrees
Celsius) in excess of what percentage of the ignition
temperature of the gas or vapor involved in its operation?
a. 75%
b. 80%
c. 100%
d. None of these

7. In a Class I location, a pendant fixture with a rigid stem

longer than 12 inches must be braced:
a. 12 inches from the top
b. Not more than 12 inches from the lower end of the fixture
c. 16 inches from the top
d. On the stem

8. A dust-ignitionproof enclosure supplied by a horizontal

raceway does not require a raceway seal if the conduit length
is at least:
a. 10 feet
b. 5 feet
c. 8 feet
d. 12 feet

9. Motors in Class II, Division 1 locations must be identified

for Class II, Division 1 locations, or be:
a. Totally enclosed
b. Totally enclosed pipe-ventilated
c. Explosionproof
d. Air ventilated
CRAFTSMAN 10
1. Conduit in hazardous locations must be made:
a. Sealed 10. When a flexible cord supplies a pendant fixture in a Class II
b. Bonded location, it must be listed for:
c. Wrenchtight a. Class II
d. Snug b. Extra-hard usage
c. Hard usage
2. Locations where easily ignitable fibers are stored are: d. Normal usage
a. Class I, Division 1
b. Class II, Division 1 11. In Class III locations, pendant fixtures must be braced or
c. Class III, Division 1 have a flexible connector if the stem is longer than:
d. Class III, Division 2 a. 6 inches
b. 10 inches
3. All fixed boxes, fittings and joints shall be made c. 24 inches
explosionproof in: d. 12 inches
a. Class I, Division 1 locations
a. Class II, Division 2 locations 12. In a garage, unenclosed equipment that may produce arcs or
a. Class II, Division 1 locations sparks must be placed at least what height above the floor?
a. Class III, Division 1 locations a. 10 feet
b. 18 inches
4. The disconnecting means for a 120/240-volt circuit for a c. 16 feet
gasoline dispenser must disconnect: d. 12 feet
a. The neutral
b. All conductors 13. Which circuit is one in which a spark or thermal effect is
c. The grounded conductor incapable of causing ignition of a mixture of flammable or
combustible material in air under prescribed test conditions?
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a. Intrinscally safe might also cause simultaneous failure of electric equipment is
b. Low voltage classified as a:
c. Hazard-proof a. Class I, Division 1 location
d. Explosion-proof b. Class I, Division 2 location
c. Class II, Division 1 location
14. The hazardous area near a gasoline fill-pipe from an d. Class II, Division 2 location
underground tank with loose fill extends horizontally:
a. 10 feet 21. When using flexible metal conduit or liquidtight flexible
b. 20 feet metal conduit in hazardous areas where permitted, what must
c. 5 feet be provided to ensure equipment grounding?
d. 6 feet a. The metal jacket on the flexible metal conduit is sufficient
b. A ground rod driven at each piece of equipment
15. The Class I, Division 2 location in a remote outdoor c. A separate bonding jumper
gasoline dispensing device extends from the base upward for: d. All of the above
a. 18 inches
b. 3 feet 22. When surge arrester are installed in hazardous locations,
c. 4 feet what type of enclosure must be provided?
d. 6 feet a. A PVC (plastic) junction box
b. An enclosure identified for the location
16. Equipment used in hazardous (classified) locations must be c. 4 x 4 junction box
marked to show the Class, Division, Groupe, and operating d. A handy box
temperature or temperature class referenced to a temperature
of: 23. When installing 480-volt dry-type transformers in Class II,
a. 30°C ambient Division 2 locations, the transformers must be installed in
b. 40°C ambient vaults unless:
c. 50°C ambient a. Their windings and terminal connections are enclosed in a
d. 60°C ambient light metal housing and operating at 600V or less
b. They are rated above 10 kVA
17. A location in which flammable gases, flammable liquid- c. They are rated below 10 kVA
produced vapors, or combustible liquid- produced vapors are d. They are enclosed in a properly ventilated housing
or may be present in the air in quantities sufficient to produce
explosive or ignitible mixtures is classified as a: 24. Where flexible cords are used in Class II, Division 1
a. Class IV location locations, they must:
b. Class III location a. Have THHN insulation
c. Class II location b. Be listed for extra-hard usage
d. Class I location c. Be approved for hard usage
d. Have TW insulation

18. A hazardous location in which ignitible concentrations of 25. Flexible cord connectors used in Class II, Division 2
flammable liquid-produced vapors or combustible liquid- locations are required to have:
produced vapors can exist under normal operating conditions a. A drip pan
is classified as a: b. A warning label
a. Class I, Division 1 location c. Suitable seals
b. Class I, Division 2 location d. An orange tape at each termination point
c. Class II, Division 1 location
d. Class II, Division 2 location 26. When resistors and resistance devices are installed in Class
II locations, what type of enclosures must be provided for
19. A hazardous location in which ignitible concentrations of them?
flammable gases, flammable liquid-produced vapors, or a. Dustproof only
combustible liquids above their flash points may exist b. Ventilated
frequently because of repair or maintenance operations or c. Waterproof
because of leakage is classified as a: d. Dust-ignitionproof
a. Class I, Division 1 location
b. Class I, Division 2 location 27. Besides rigid metal conduit, rigid nonmetallic conduit,
c. Class II, Division 1 location intermediate metal conduit, and EMT, which of the following
d. Class II, Division 2 location cables are allowed in Class III, Division 1 locations?
a. Type NM cable
20. A hazardous location in which breakdown or faulty b. Type AC cable
operation of equipment or processes might release ignitible c. Type MI cable
concentrations of flammable gases, flammable liquid- d. Type SE cable
produced vapors or combustible liquid-produced vapors, and
100
28. Lighting fixtures installed in Class III, Division 1 and 2
that may be exposed to physical damge must be protected by: 36. Any pit or depression below floor level of an aircraft
a. Using lower wattage lamps hangar is classified as:
b. A suitable guard a. Class I, Division 1 or Zone 1
c. Smaller lamps a. Class I, Division 2 or Zone 2
d. By elevating the lamps 8 feet or more above floor level a. Class II, Division 1
a. Class II, Division 2
29. When installing conduit in Class III locations, the locknut-
bushing and double-locknut types of contacts shall: 37. The entire area of an aircraft hangar, including any
a. Be used for all such installations adjacent and communicating areas not suitably cut off from
b. Be approved for bonding purposes if fitted with a fiber the hangar, shall be classified as a Class I, Division 2 or Zone
bushing 2 location up to a level of how many inches above the floor?
c. Not be depended upon for bonding purposes a. 6 inches
d. Used exclusively on rigid metal conduit for bonding b. 8 inches
purposes c. 12 inches
d. 18 inches
30. Conduits, cable trays, and open wiring used on
intrinsically safe systems shall be identified by permanently 38. Areas within 5 feet horizontally from aircraft power plants
affixed labels. Such labels shall be visible after installation. or aircraft fuel tanks are classified as Class I, Division 2 or
What is the maximum distance allowable between labels? Zone 2 locations. How far vertically does this area extend?
a. 5 feet a. 5 feet above finished floor
b. 10 feet b. 5 feet above cockpit
c. 20 feet c. 5 feet above the upper surface of wings and of engine
d. 25 feet enclosures
d. 5 feet above propeller blades
31. What’s the closest distance allowed for conductors and
cables of intrinsically safe circuits (not in raceways or cable 39. Which of the follwing fixed wiring systems is not allowed
trays)? in aircraft hangars outside Class I locations?
a. 2 inches a. Metallic raceways
b. 4 inches b. Type MI cable
c. 12 inches c. Type AC cable
d. 18 inches d. Type TC cable

32. What color is used to identify instrinsically safe 40. When aircraft is stored in a hangar, what provisions must
conductors? be provided for the aircraft’s electrical system?
a. Green a. It must remains energized
b. Blue b. Circuit breakers must be closed
c. Yellow c. It must be arranged to change all batteries
d. Black

33. Which of the following wiring methods are allowed for 41. How far above floor level must all electric equipment on
fixed wiring above Class I locations? aircraft energizers be located?
a. Type MI cable a. 8 inches
b. Type TC cable b. 10 inches
c. Type MC cable c. 12 inches
d. All of the above d. 18 inches

34. Electrical equipment installed above Class I locations, but 42. Flexible cords for aircraft energizers must be approved for
lees than 12 feet above floor level and that may produce the type of service and be rated for:
sparks or hot metal particles, must be of what type? a. Hard usage
a. Ventilated b. Extra-hard usage
b. Open squirrel-cage motors with cast-iron guards c. Medium duty
c. Totally enclosed d. light duty
d. None of the above
43. Flexible cords for aircraft energizers must be approved for
35. What must be provided on all 125-volt (110-120 volt) the type of service, be rated for extra-hard usage and must
circuits that are installed in commercial garages where also contain:
electrical automotive diagnostic equipment, electrical hand a. An equipment grounding conductor
tools, or portable lighting devices are to be used? b. A separate bonding jumper
a. Seal-offs c. At least two equipment grounding conductors
b. Ground-fault circuit-interrupter protection for personnel d. All of the above
c. A continuous bonding jumper
d. None of the above
101
44. Which of the following may not be used for fixed wiring
in bulk storage plants above Class I locations? 52. Circuits classified as life safety branch and critical branch
a. Metal raceways of the emergency electrical system in health care facilities
b. PVC Schedule 80 rigid nonmetallic conduit with proper must be:
joints a. Installed in the same raceways with normal branch circuits
c. Type SE cable b. Installed parallel with normal circuits
d. Type MI cable c. Kept entirely independent of all other wiring and
equipment
45. The interior of paint spray booths and rooms are classified d. None of the above
as which hazardous area, according to the NEC?
a. Class I or Class II, Division 1 53. What is the minimum number of power sources for
b. Class I or Class II, Division 2 essential electrical systems in health care facilities?
c. Class I or Class II, Division 3 a. 1
d. Class I or Class II, Division 4 b. 2
c. 3
46. Adjacent areas to paint spray booths that are cut off from d. 4
Class I or Class II locations by tight partitions without
communicating openings are classified as: 54. Which of the following is not approved as an alternate
a. Class I power source for essential electrical systems in health care
b. Hazardous areas facilities?
c. Division 3 areas a. Generator
d. Unclassified areas b. Self-contained battery integral with the equipment
c. Battery system
47. Which one of the following wiring methods is approved d. Solar powered equipment
for fixed wiring above Class I or Class II locations in spray
booth areas? 55. Where must the alternate power for a health care facility
a. Type AC cable be located?
b. Type NM cable a. 2 feet from main
c. Type SE cable b. On the premises
d. Type MI cable c. In vaulted ceiling
d. Remote location
48. What means of grounding the terminals of receptacles
(over 100 volts) is required in areas used for patient care in 56. In a health care facility, receptacles supplied from the
health care facilities? emergency system shall:
a. An insulated aluminum wire a. Not be utilized
b. A bare copper conductor b. Have distinctive markings
c. An insulated equipment grounding copper conductor c. Have 30 amp ratings
d. A bare aluminum conductor d. Be installed in hallways and bathrooms

49. The panelboard serving patient care areas must have the
equipment grounding terminal busses bonded together with
an insulated continuous copper conductor not smaller than:
a. No. 12 AWG
b. No. 10 AWG
c. No. 8 AWG
d. No. 6 AWG

50. What is the minimum number of branch circuits allowed at

each patient bed location?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

51. What is the minimum number of receptacles required at

each patient bed location in critical care areas of health care
facilities?
a. 2
b. 4
c. 6
d. 8
102
 20. a) Class I, Division 1 location
21. c) A separate bonding jumper
22. b) An enclosure identified for the location
23. a) Their windings and terminal connections
are enclosed in a light metal housing and
operating at 600V or less
24. b) Be listed for extra-hard usage
25. c) Suitable seals
26. d) Dust-ignitionproof
27. c) Type MI cable
28. b) A suitable guard
29. c) Not be depended upon for bonding
purposes
30. d) 25 feet
31. a) 2 inches
32. b) Blue
33. d) All of the above
34. c) Totally enclosed
35. b) Ground-fault circuit-interrupter
protection for personnel
36. a) Class I, Division 1 or Zone 1
37. d) 18 inches
38. c) 5 feet above the upper surface of wings
and of engine enclosures
39. c) Type AC cable
40. c) It must be arranged to change all
batteries
41. d) 18 inches
42. b) Extra-hard usage
43. a) An equipment grounding conductor
44. c) Type SE cable
45. a) Class I or Class II, Division 1
46. d) Unclassified areas
CRAFTSMAN 10 ANSWER:
1. c) Wrenchtight
2.d) Class III, Division 2 47. d) Type MI cable
3. a) Class I, Division 1 locations 48. c) An insulated equipment grounding
4. b) All conductors copper conductor
5. c) 2 inches or larger 49. b) No. 10 AWG
6. b) 80% 50. b) 2
7. b) Not more than 12 inches from the lower 51. c) 6
end of the fixture 52. c) Kept entirely independent of all other
8. a) 10 feet wiring and equipment
9. b) Totally enclosed pipe-ventilated 53. b) 2
10. b) Extra-hard usage 54. d) Solar powered equipment
11. d) 12 inches 55. b) On the premises
12. d) 12 feet 56. b) Have distinctive markings
13. a) Intrinscally safe
14. a) 10 feet
15. a) 18 inches
16. b) 40°C ambient
17. d) Class I location
18. a) Class I, Division 1 location
19. a) Class I, Division 1 location
103
 4. What is the maximum length allowed for cords supplying
signs in a dry location?
a. 16 feet
b. 12 feet
c. 15 feet
d. 8 feet

5. What is the smallest size conductor permitted for wiring

neon secondary circuits rated at 1000 volts or less?
a. No. 14 AWG
b. No. 12 AWG
c. No. 16 AWG
d. No. 18 AWG

6. In wet locations, which of the following must be used to

close the opening between neon tubing and a receptacle?
a. A listed cap
b. Silicon sealant
c. Electrical tape
d. None of the above

7. The installation of equipment having an open current

voltage exceeding 1000 volts is not allowed in which of the
following occupancies?
a. A commercial supermarket or grocery store
b. A multifamily dwelling
c. An industrial iron works
d. A shopping mall parking lot

8. Which of the following wiring methods is suitable for

underfloor wiring in a computer room?
a. Rigid conduit
b. Electrical metalic tubing
c. Electrical nonmetallic tubing
d. All of the above

CRAFTSMAN 11

1. Switches or similar devices controlling a transformer in a 9. Lighting fixtures above a spa or hot tub without GFCI
sign must have a rating based on what percentage of the protection must be installed at a minimum height of:
transformer in a sign must have a rating based on what a. 5 feet
percentage of the transformer’s ampere rating? b. 2 feet
a. 100% c. 10 feet
b. 200% d. 12 feet
c. 125%
d. 300% 10. In general, overhead conductors must not pass directly
over a pool or horizontally within how many feet of the inside
2. A branch circuit supplying fluorescent lamps in a sign must walls of the pool?
not be rated more than: a. 5 feet
a. 20 amperes b. 18 feet
b. 15 amperes c. 10 feet
c. 30 amperes d. 3 feet
d. 40 amperes
11. Utility-owned low-voltage communication, radio and
3. Wood used for decoration on a sign must not be closer to a television coaxial cables may pass directly over a pool if at a
lampholder than: minimum height of:
a. 6 inches a. 18 feet
b. 1 foot b. 14 feet
c. 3 inches c. 16 feet
d. 2 inches d. 10 feet

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12. A typical wet-niche fixture must be installed below the a. Name and address
water line at least: b. Voltage, frequency and maximum rated load in amperes
a. 12 inches c. Phone number for service
b. 15 inches d. Required conductor size and cord assembly information
c. 18 inches
d. 24 inches 21. The source of power for electrically-operated pipe organs
must be:
13. The smallest bonding conductor permitted for pool a. A capacitor-start motor
equipment is: b. From storage batteries only
a. No. 14 AWG c. A 4500-watt generator
b. No. 6 AWG d. A transformer type rectifier
c. No. 8 AWG
d. No. 12 AWG 22. What is the maximum allowable DC voltage for a
transformer-type rectifier that is the power source for an
14. The smallest permitted equipment grounding conductor electricity-operated pipe organ?
from a junction box to a panelboard supplying poolside a. 25 volts
equipment is: b. 30 volts
a. No. 12 AWG c. 125 volts
b. No. 14 AWG d. 240 volts
c. No. 8 AWG
d. No. 6 AWG 23. What NEC rating is given a piece of X-ray equipment with
a rating based on an operating interval of 5 minutes or longer?
15. The maximum voltage between conductors for lighting a. Long-time rating
fixtures in pools and fountains is: b. Medium-time rating
a. 120 volts c. Short-time rating
b. 150 volts d. Miniature-time rating sometimes called ultra-time rating
c. 300 volts
d. 480 volts 24. Branch-circuit conductors and overcurrent protective
devices shall have at least the following percentage of x-ray
16. Branch circuits feeding neon tubing installations must not equipment’s momemtary rating:
be rated in excees of: a. 50%
a. 10 amperes b. 100%
b. 20 amperes c. 120%
c. 15 amperes d. 150%
d. 30 amperes

17. Which of the following connecting cables is permitted for 25. Branch-circuit conductors and overcurrent protective
use in connecting data processing systems to a branch circuit? device for x-ray equipment shall have at least the following
a. Computer/data processing cable and attachment plug cap percentage of the equipment’s long-time rating in all cases,
b. Small appliance connection cord except where otherwise specified in the NEC:
c. Flexible cord 25 feet long with an attachment plug cap a. 50%
d. Cord-set assembly b. 100%
c. 125%
18. Power cables installed under raised floors in computer d. 150%
rooms are:
a. Not subject to requirements of the NEC 26. Which is the minimum size fixture wire permitted for the
b. Not allowed control and operating circuits of X-ray and auxiliary
c. Not required to be secured in place equipment?
d. Allowed only if secured in place a. No. 12
b. No. 14
19. Information technology equipment shall be bonded to the c. No. 18
system in accordance with NEC Article 250 or: d. No. 22
a. Be double insulated
b. Be triple insulated 27. Which one of the following locations generally prohibits
c. Have the grounding prong cut off of all plugs the use of heating equipment?
d. Not be used at all a. Dwellings
b. Industrial structures
20. Each unit of an electronic computer supplied by a branch c. Commercial buildings
circuit must be supplied with a manufacturer’s nameplate with d. Hazardous locations
the following information:
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28.An assembly of electrically interconnected electrolytic cells 20. b) Voltage, frequency and maximum rated
supplied by a source of direct-current power is known as: load in amperes
a. Cell line
b. Intercell
21. d) A transformer type rectifier
c. Cellular circuit 22. b) 30 volts
d. Electrolytic cellular communication 23. a) Long-time rating
24. a) 50%
25. b) 100%
26. c) No. 18
27. d) Hazardous locations
28. a) Cell line

CRAFTSMAN 11 ANSWER:
1. b) 200%
2. a) 20 amperes
3. d) 2 inches
4. c) 15 feet
5. d) No. 18 AWG
6. a) A listed cap
7. b) A multifamily dwelling
8. d) All of the above
9. d) 12 feet
10. c) 10 feet
11. d) 10 feet
12. c) 18 inches
13. c) No. 8 AWG
14. a) No. 12 AWG
15. b) 150 volts
16. d) 30 amperes
17. d) Cord-set assembly
18. c) Not required to be secured in place
19. a) Be double insulated

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 4. Capacitor circuit conductors must have an ampacity at least
what percent of the rated current of the capacitor?
a. 135%
b. 125%
c. 115%
d. 80%

5. A capacitor operating at 300 volts must be discharged to

what voltage within 1 minute after it is disconnected from its
supply?
a. 230 volts
b. 120 volts or less
c. 50 volts or less
d. 24 volts or less

6. Dry-type transformers installed indoors and rated 112-1/2

kVA or less must have a minimum separation from
combustible material of:
a. 6 inches
b. 8 inches
c. 10 inches
d. 12 inches

7. Unless specified otherwise in the NEC, the term “fire

resistant” means a construction having a minimum fire rating
of:
a. ½ hour
b. 1 hour
c. 2 hours
d. 3 hours

8. Dry-type transformers installed outdoors must have a:

a. Raintight enclosure
b. Weatherproof enclosure
c. Waterproof enclosure
d. Liquidtight enclosure

CRAFTSMAN 12

1. In cases where an oil-insulated transformer installation

presents a fire hazard, Which of the following safeguards must 9. What must be provided in each ungrounded conductor for
be used according to the degree of hazard? each capacitor bank?
a. Space separator a. A disconnect and overcurrent protection
b. Fire-resistant barriers b. A disconnect only
c. Automatic fire suppression systems c. Overcurrent protection only
d. Any of the above d. None of these answer

2. Dry-type transformers rated over 35,000 volts must be 10. Each transformer over 600 volts must be protected by an
installed: individual overcurrent device on the primary side. Where
a. Underground fuses are used, the continuous current rating must not exceed
b. At least 50 feet above floor level what percent of the rated primary current of the transformer in
c. In a vault an unsupervised location?
d. Pole-mounted only, with an adequate working platform a. 115%
b. 125%
3. Potential transformers installed indoors require: c. 150%
a. No overcurrent protection d. 300%
b. Primary fuses
c. Secondary fuses only 11. Name the three parts of a very basic transformer.
d. A vault a. Fuses, conductors, and housing
b. Core, primary and secondary windings
c. Three shunt windings
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d. Core, taps, and one winding c. Using four voltmeters connected in parallel and one
ammeter connected in series
12. AN autotransformer must have a continuous neutral d. Using a power-factor meter in conjunction with a watt-
current rating, in a 4-wire system, sufficient to handle: hour meter
a. The minimum neutral unbalanced load
b. The minimum neutral balanced load 19. When a capacitor contains a certain amount of flammable
c. The maximum possible neutral unbalanced load liquid, it must be enclosed in a vault or an outdoor fenced
d. The maximum neutral balanced load in the system enclosure. What amount of flammable liquid qualifies a
capacitor for this condition?
13. The NEC requires that a fault sensing system be installed a. Over 2 gallons
that will cause the opening of a main switch or common-trip b. Over 3 gallons
overcurrent device for a three-phase, 4-wire autotransformer c. Over 4 gallons
system. The sensing system is to guard against: d. Over 5 gallons
a. Internal faults only
b. Single-phasing and internal faults 20. The rating or setting of an overcurrent device used on each
c. Single-phasing only ungrounded conductor for each capacitor bank 600 volts or
d. Neither of these less shall be rated:
a. As high as practicable
14. Name the three basic types of iron core transformers: b. As low as practicable
a. Open, closed, and shell c. The same as motor overload protection
b. Auto, open, and closed d. Over 300%
c. Encased, housed, and magnetic
d. Single, two and three phase 21. A thermal barrier must be provided if the space between
resistors and reactors and any combustible material is less
15. What is the main purpose of transformer taps? than:
a. Adjust the wattage a. 12 inches
b. Adjust the voltage b. 16 inches
c. Change from step-up to step-down mode c. 18 inches
d. Adjust the power factor d. 24 inches

16. In reference to transformers, voltage warning, mechanical 22. How must resistors and reactors rated over 600 volts,
protection, and enclosures are all examples of which of the nominal, be installed to protect personnel from accident
following? contact with energized parts?
a. Grounding a. Use overcurrent protection
b. Tie circuit control b. Turn off current when personnel are in the area
c. Guarding c. Use warning signs
d. Parallel operation d. Isolate or elevate them

17. Each autotransformer, 600 volts nominal or less, shall be

protected by an individual overcurrent device installed in
series with each ungrounded input conductor. Such devices
shall be rated or set at not more than what percent of the rated
full-load input current of the autotransformer?
a. 125%
b. 150%
c. 200%
d. 250%
18. A fault-sensing system that will cause the opening of a
main switch or common-trip overcurrent device for a three-
phase, 4-wire transformer system must be provided to guard
against single-phasing or internal faults. Name one method
that will accomplish this requirement.
a. Using two subtractive-connected donut-type current
transformers installed to sense and signal when an unbalanced
of 50% or more of rated current occurs in the line
b. Using three ammeters connected in series and one
voltmeter connected in parallel
23. If there is no overcurrent protection on the secondary side,
the rating of the primary overcurrent protective device for a
480-volt transformer with a rated primary current of 100
amperes should not exceed:
a. 100 amperes
b. 250 amperes
c. 125 amperes
d. 200 amperes
24. Indoor installations of dry-type transformers greater than
112.5 kVA must be in an approved transformer room unless:
a. The transformer is rated with Class 155 insulation or
higher and separated from combustibles with appropriate
barriers
b. The transformer is rated at 75°C or lower
c. The transformer is rated at more than 35,000 volts
d. The transformer’s primary is 2100 volts or less

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25. Dry-type transformers must be readily accessible except 14. a) Open, closed, and shell
for: 15. b) Adjust the voltage
a. Those rated at 601 volts or more and located in the open
on walls, columns, or structures
16. c) Guarding
b. Those with a full-load current rating of 250 amperes or 17. a) 125%
less 18. a) Using two subtractive-connected donut-
c. Those with a full-load current rating of 125 amperes or type current transformers installed to sense and
less signal when an unbalanced of 50% or more of
d. Those rated at 600 volts or less and located in the open on
walls, columns, or structures
rated current occurs in the line
19. b) Over 3 gallons
26. Which of the following dry-type transformers must be 20. b) As low as practicable:
installed in a vault when the transformer is located inside a 21. a) 12 inches
building? 22. d) Isolate or elevate them
a. Transformers rated over 15,000 volts
b. Transformers rated over 25,000 volts
23. c) 125 amperes
c.. Transformers rated over 35,000 volts 24. a) The transformer is rated with Class 155
d. Any transformer installed indoors insulation or higher and separated from
combustibles with appropriate barriers
25. d) Those rated at 600 volts or less and
located in the open on walls, columns, or
structures
26. c) Transformers rated over 35,000 volts

CRAFTSMAN 12 ANSWER:

1. d) Any of the above

2. c) In a vault
3. b) Primary fuses
4. a) 135%
5. c) 50 volts or less
6. d) 12 inches
7. b) 1 hour
8. b) Weatherproof enclosure
9. a) A disconnect and overcurrent protection
10. d) 300%
11. b) Core, primary and secondary windings
12. c) The maximum possible neutral
unbalanced load
13. b) Single-phasing and internal faults
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