Atomic Energy Central School No.4 Rawatbhata: MCQ Examination August (2020-2021)

ATOMIC ENERGY CENTRAL SCHOOL NO.
4 RAWATBHATA
MCQ Examination August (2020-2021)
CLASS 12 - ENGLISH CORE

English
Time Allowed: 40 minutes Maximum Marks: 40
1. Why was the peddler not used to warm welcomes, such as the old man's or Edla's, in general? [1]
(The Rattrap)
a) Because he always robbed others b) Because he was regarded as a lowly

being
c) Because he never asked for help d) Because he did not treat others
properly
2. In the prose The Rattrap, what do you understand by the character sketch of Edla [1]
Willmansson?
a) She is extremely cruel b) She is a generous and kind-hearted

person
c) She wears a face of being good d) She is a person of low regards

3. What did the host and the guest play after dinner at the little gray cottage in The Rattrap? [1]
a) A game of cards named mjölis b) A game of cards named Sueca
c) A game of cards named Kille d) A game of cards named Vändtia

4. "You may be sure, Captain, that you will be allowed to leave us just as freely as you came. Only [1]
please stay with us over Christmas Eve."
Who made this statement?
a) Edla b) Ironmaster
c) Peddler d) Old man

5. Why did Edla request her father to let the stranger stay at their place for Christmas Eve in The [1]
Rattrap?
a) She felt it would be rude to send b) She thought he might create trouble
away a person who was invited outside if they make him leave
c) She planned to hand him over to the d) She wanted to give him work during
police after Christmas Christmas
6. Why did the old man quit his job as a crofter from the Ramsjö Ironworks? (The Rattrap) [1]
a) Because he was not doing well b) Because he was unable to do day

labour being aged
c) Because he was unable to go to work d) Because he was fired by the

ironmaster
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7. In the prose The Rattrap, why did the peddler refer to himself as the Captain in the letter? [1]
a) He wished to behave as a true b) He was the Captain

captain
c) He wanted to be a Captain someday d) He disguised himself as the Captain

8. Why was the peddler welcomed happily by the old man at his cottage in the prose The [1]
Rattrap?
a) The old man was happy to get a b) The old man wanted to trap him
companion
c) Because the old man knew him d) Because the old man had invited him
9. Who is the author of the text The Rattrap? [1]
a) Louis Fischer b) Anees Jung
c) Selma Lagerlöf d) A. R. Barton

10. In The Rattrap, how much did the old man earn as his payment by providing his cow's milk to [1]
the creamery?
a) Twenty kronor b) Thirty kronor
c) Thirteen kronor d) Forty kronor

11. Why was the ironmaster determined to take the peddler to his place? [1]
a) Because he wanted to have a b) Because he wanted to help his old

companion to talk to in his loneliness friend
c) Because he wanted to punish him for d) Because he wanted to hand him over
stealing to the police
12. In the prose The Rattrap, why did it give the peddler unwonted joy to think ill of the world? [1]
a) Because the world was a bad place b) Because everyone despised the
world
c) Because the world thought ill of him d) Because the world had never been
kind to him
13. With whom the old man live in his cottage? [1]
a) He lived with his wife. b) He lived with his servant.
c) He lived alone there. d) He lived with his children.

14. In The Rattrap, what does the author mean by the phrase to keep body and soul together? [1]
a) The peddler's struggle to find the b) The peddler's intention to stay away
right path in the woods from the authorities
c) The peddler's struggle to stay alive d) The peddler's struggle to find a

shelter
15. Who was described as wicked according to the poet in the poem, An elementary school [1]
classroom in a slum?
a) The governors b) The slum children
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c) Shakespeare d) The visitors
16. What is the theme of the poem ‘An Elementary School Classroom in a Slum’? [1]
a) poverty b) social injustice and class inequality.
c) social structure of the society d) education

17. What impression do you get from the physical appearance of the slum children? [1]
a) They seemed malnourished b) They lacked enthusiasm
c) They were exhausted d) All of these

18. According to a poet who could have a positive impact on the lives of the slum children? [1]
a) The visitors b) All of these
c) The inspectors d) The governors

19. “History is theirs whose language is the sun.” ..Which poetic device is used in this line? [1]
a) alliteration b) personification
c) metaphor d) simile
20. What does the poet appeal to break in the poem, An elementary school classroom in a [1]
slum?
a) Shackles of poverty b) Social atrocities
c) All of these d) Barriers in their path of progress

21. What does the poet want for the slum children? [1]
a) he wants the authorities to look after b) social equality and justice

their needs
c) jobs in good companies d) food and shelter

22. What is the message conveyed in the poem "An Elementary School Classroom in a Slum"? [1]
a) develop art, culture and literature in b) progress and development between

the society. two different gropus of the society.
c) breaking the barrier between rich d) contrast between two incompatible

and poor. worlds.
23. Who composed the poem, A thing of beauty? [1]
a) Robert Frost b) Pablo Neruda
c) Stephen Spender d) John Keats

24. The loveliness of a thing of beauty ________ with the passage of time. (A Thing of Beauty) [1]
a) Increases b) Vanishes
c) Diminishes d) Gets divided

25. How do ‘daffodils’ and ‘rills’ enrich the environment? [1]
a) they provide us water for irrigation. b) Daffodils spread the fragrance.
c) They give greenery around us and d) animals drink water from the
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cool the environment. streams.
26. What does the bower provide to mankind? (A thing of beauty) [1]
a) Pleasant dreams b) Good health
c) All of these d) Sound sleep

27. ______ removes the pall from our dark spirits. [1]
a) snowfall b) nature
c) flowery wreath d) sunshine

28. What is seen to be growing extensively in the mid forest bushes? (A thing of beauty) [1]
a) Musk roses b) Wild roses
c) Musk melons d) Red roses

29. How has the poet defined a thing of beauty? [1]
a) Pain forever b) Joy forever
c) Sorrow forever d) Pride forever

30. Why do we weave a flowery band? (A thing of beauty) [1]
a) To gift it b) To connect with the earth
c) To sell it d) To wear it
31. Why did Hana help Dr Sadao in treating the wounded enemy soldier? [1]
a) Because she liked the American b) As Dr. Sadao was not perfectly
soldier skilled
c) Because Hana was an impeccable d) Because she was persuing nursing

wife
32. Why did Dr. Sadao treat the wounded enemy soldier? [1]
a) Because once this American soldier b) He wanted to create a new

was his friend in America experience
c) Being a doctor, it was his duty d) So that he could earn money from
the enemy soldier
33. How did the servants react when Dr Sadao told them about the wounded American soldier? [1]
a) Impressed by Dr. Sadao b) Very aggressive
c) Started hating Sadao's family d) Shocked and terrified

34. Why did Sadao Hoki go to America? [1]
a) In search of new friends b) To study surgery and medicine
c) To explore America d) To settle in America

35. For what reason the messenger was sent to Dr. Sadao's house by the old General? [1]
a) The old General was in pain b) The general was missing Dr. Sadao
c) The general wanted Dr. Sadao to d) The general wanted Dr. Sadao to be
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leave the place immediately arrested
36. Why did Sadao wait to fall in love with Hana? [1]
a) He wanted to know her financial b) He wanted to make sure that she

condition first was Japanese first.
c) He was not having feelings for her d) He wanted to test her loyalty first
earlier
37. What did Dr. Sadao do to get rid of the man? [1]
a) By throwing the American into the b) By making complaint against the

ocean American
c) By secretly sending the American to d) By killing the American

an isolated with essential things
38. Why did Sadao tell the general about the enemy? (American man) [1]
a) He was very much scared of the b) So that he would get reward for it
American man
c) So that his own family would not be d) Because he was not able to operate
harmed by the Japanese army him
39. Why did Sadao and Hana not marry in America? [1]
a) It was Sadao's dream to get married b) Sadao wanted Hana to change her
in Japan religion
c) Hana didn't like that d) He wanted his father's permission

country(America) and blessings.
40. What help did Dr. Sadao seek from Hana while operating on the wounded man? [1]
a) To give medicines on time b) To clean the wounds regularly
c) To bring the towels and give d) To give food to the patient

anesthesia to the patient
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ATOMIC ENERGY CENTRAL SCHOOL NO.4 Rawatbhata
MCQ Examination September (2020-2021)
CLASS 12 - हद कोर
Hindi Core
1. रघुवीर सहाय क कौन सी क वता आधु नक हद क वता क एक मह वपूण रचना मानी जाती है ? [1]
a) कै मरे म बंद अपा हज b) आ मह या के व
c) एक समय था d) रामदास
2. कै मरे म बंद अपा हज क वता म अपा हज को अपा हज कहना मी डयाकम क कस बात को दशाता है? [1]
a) संवेदनशीलता b) दानवीरता
c) सहनशीलता d) संवेदनहीनता
3. कै मरे म बंद अपा हज क वता म फू ली ई आँख क त वीर दखाने का या ता पय है? [1]
a) पीड़ा क अ भ b) गुम राह करना
c) खुश ी क अ भ d) आँख दखाना

4. कै मरे म बंद अपा हज क वता के अनुस ार काय म का मु य उ े य या था? [1]
a) क णा जगाना b) ू रता दखाना
c) सहायता करना d) े रत करना

5. रघुवीर सहाय क क वता 'कै मरे म बंद अपा हज' कस का सं ह से संक लत है? [1]
a) लोग भूल गए ह b) आ मह या के व
c) एक समय था d) सी ढ़य पर धूप
6. रघुवीर सहाय कस स तक के क व है? [1]
a) थम स तक b) तार स तक
c) तीसरा स तक d) सरा स तक
7. कै मरे म बंद अपा हज क वता के अनुस ार काय म म अपा हज को लाने से या होगा? [1]
a) सहायता b) रोचकता बढ़े गी
c) ू रता d) संवेदनशीलता
8. रघुवीर सहाय क मृ यु कहाँ ई थी? [1]
a) आगरा b) द ली
c) वा लयर d) भोपाल
9. कै मरे म बंद अपा हज क वता के अनुस ार कसी क पीड़ा को टे ल ी वजन पर दखाने वाले का वभाव कै सा होना चा हए? [1]
a) कारोबारी b) संवेदनशील
c) ू र d) संवेदनहीन
10. कै मरे म बंद अपा हज क वता म हम समथ श मान कसके लए यु कया गया है? [1]
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a) सा ा कारकता/ म डयाकम b) एक आम आदमी
c) अपा हज d) रदशन
11. रघुवीर सहाय ने क वता को या दया है? [1]
a) कहानीपन और नाटक य वैभव b) सहज शैल ी
c) बातचीत d) बेल ौस भाषा

12. कै मरे म बंद अपा हज क वता म सा ा कारकता के मु कान म या छपा आ है? [1]
a) धैय b) दद
c) ंय d) क णा
13. कै मरे म बंद अपा हज क वता म रदशन पर अपा हज को या माना जाता है? [1]
a) एक श मान b) एक मेह मान
c) एक मह वपूण d) दशन क व तु
14. मु बोध ने अपनी क वता सहष वीकारा है म खलते ए चेह रे क तुल ना कससे क है? [1]
a) मुस काता चाँद b) ममता
c) झरना d) धरती
15. मु बोध कस आंदोलन के अगुआ क व थे? [1]
a) ग त वाद b) नयी क वता
c) वेद युग d) छायावाद

16. सहष वीकारा है क वता म प रवे त श द का या अथ है? [1]
a) रमणीय य b) आ मीयता
c) गुफा d) चार ओर से घरा आ

17. 'सहष वीकारा है' क वता म क व अपनी य से या दंड माँग रहा है? [1]
a) य से वमु होने का b) य से मलने का
c) एकाक पन म जीने का d) आ मश पाने का

18. सहष वीकारा है क वता म क व ने कसम लापता होने क बात क है? [1]
a) चाँदनी म b) झरने म
c) पानी के सोते म d) धुएं के बादल म

19. सहष वीकारा है म सहष वीकारना का या अथ है? [1]
a) खुश ी खुश ी वीकार करना b) वीकार नह करना
c) वीकारना d) सुख और ख
20. मु बोध क सबसे लंबी रचना या है? [1]
a) वपा b) काठ का सपना
c) अँधेरे म d) सहष वीकारा है

21. 'सहष वीकारा है' क वता म क व या भूल ना चाहता है? [1]
a) ेयसी के खले ए चहरे को b) भीतर क स रता
c) गरीबी d) वचार वैभव
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22. मु बोध के अनुस ार संवेदना कै सी होनी चा हए? [1]
a) जा त और अपलक b) गरीबी
c) ममता का बादल d) गंभीर अनुभव

23. सहष वीकारा है क वता म गुह ा श द का या अथ है? [1]
a) बादल b) गुफा
c) बल d) झरना
24. एक सा ह यक क डायरी कसक रचना है? [1]
a) मु बोध b) रघुवीर सहाय
c) के दारनाथ सह d) आलोकध वा
25. 'रहने क रमणीय उजेल ा अब' पं म 'रमणीय उजेल ा' कसके समान है? [1]
a) चाँद के b) नेह क नरंतरता
c) आ मीयता d) पू णमा क चाँदनी

26. सहष वीकारा है क वता म मु बोध ने कसमे नहाने क बात कही है? [1]
a) अमाव या b) झरना
c) बा रश d) पानी
27. फणी र नाथ रेणु क मृ यु कहाँ ई थी? [1]
a) इलाहाबाद b) कलक ा
c) पटना d) कानपुर
28. "जीते रहो, बहा र ! तुम ने म क लाज़ रख ली।"- यह कथन कसने कससे कहा था? [1]
a) राजा साहब ने लु न से b) राज पं डत ने चाँद सह से
c) बादल सह ने चाँद सह से d) मैनेज र ने लु न से

29. पहलवान क ढोलक कहानी के अनुस ार यामनगर के महाराज कसको दरबार म रखने क बात कर रहे थे? [1]
a) मैनेज र साहब b) बादल सह
c) लु न सह d) चाँद सह
30. पहलवान क ढोलक कहानी म ढोलक क धुन चट् - गड़-धा का कस अथ म योग कया गया है? [1]
a) वाह बहा र b) वाह प े
c) उठा पटक दे d) मत डरना

31. "अरे या करोगी रोककर, ल हन ! जो गया सो चला गया, वह तु हारा नह था, वह जो है उसको तो देख ो। -यह कथन कसका [1]
है?
a) लु न पहलवान का b) मैनेज र साहब का
c) राजा साहब का d) बादल सह का

32. पहलवान क ढोलक कहानी म शेर के ब चे क उपा ध कसको ा त थी? [1]
a) लु न सह b) चाँद सह
c) बादल सह d) मैनेज र साहब

33. पहलवान क ढोलक कहानी के अनुस ार राजा साहब क जगह नए राजकु मार का आना या है? [1]
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a) एक ष ं b) पूरी व था का पलट जाना
c) एक सम या d) स ा प रवतन
34. न न म से कौन सा रेणु का उप यास है? [1]
a) वनतुल सी क गंध b) ठु म री
c) द घतपा d) नेपाली ां त कथा

35. पहलवान क ढोलक कहानी म पहलवान क ढोलक ने महामारी के समय लोग क कस कार सहायता क ? [1]
a) आ म व ास देकर b) उपचार करके
c) मारकर d) और बीमार करके

36. न न म से कौन सा रेणु का सं मरण है? [1]
a) आ दम रा क महक b) वनतुल सी क गंध
c) मैल ा आँचल d) नेपाली ां त कथा

37. पहलवान क ढोलक कहानी के अनुस ार कसान के ब चे कस कारण से कु ती नह कर सकते थे? [1]
a) समय का अभाव b) नापसंद होने के कारण
c) गरीबी के कारण d) अहंकार के कारण

38. रेणु ारा ल खत कौन सा कहानी सं ह नह है? [1]
a) ढु म री b) द घतपा
c) अ नखोर d) आ दम रा क महक
39. 'पहलवान क ढोलक' कहानी म पहलवान का गु कौन था? [1]
a) बादल सह b) ढोल
c) याम सह d) चाँद सह
40. लु न के माता- पता उसे कस उ म अनाथ बना कर चल बसे थे? [1]
a) आठ वष b) दस वष
c) नौ वष d) यारह वष
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ATOMIC ENERGY CENTRAL SCHOOL NO.4 RAWATBHATA
CLASS 12 - MATHEMATICS
Mathematics
General Instructions:
Please do not switch over other screen during quiz.

Please do not refresh the page during the quiz.
4 2
⎧
⎪
x −5x +4
x ≠ 1, 2 [1]
⎪ |(x−1)(x−2)|
1. Let f (x) = ⎨
6 , x = 1
Then, f(x) is continuous on the set
⎪
⎩
⎪
12 , x = 2
a) R - {2} b) R
c) R - {1} d) R - {1 - 2}
2. Let f(x) =|x - 1|, then [1]
a) f (x + y) = f (x) + f(y) b) f(|x|) = |f(x)|
c) f(x2) = (f(x))2 d) f (x) is not derivable at x = 1.

2
3. If y = sin
−1
(
1−x
) , then
dy
= [1]
2
1+x dx
a) b)
2 2
− 2 2
1+x 2−x
c) d)
2 1
2 2
1+x 2−x
x −x
4. If y =
e −e
x −x
, then
dy
is equal to [1]
e +e dx
a) 1 + y2 b) None of these
c) 1 - y2 d) y2 + 1
−−−−−
5. The derivative of sec−1 ( 2x
1
) with respect to √1 + 3x at x =
−1
[1]
2 3
+1
a) 0 b)
1
c) does not exist d) 1
3
2
6. If x =
2
t ,y = t
3
then
d y
is [1]
dx2
3 3
a) 2
b) 4
3 3
c) 2t
d) 4t
7. The derivative of f(x) = | x | at x = 0 is [1]
a) 1 b) – 1
c) All of these d) None of these

8. The set of points where the function f(x) = x|x| is differentiable is [1]
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a) (−∞, 0) ∪ (0, ∞) b) [0, ∞]
c) (0, ∞) d) (−∞, ∞)
[1]
dy
9. If x sin (a + y) = sin y, then is equal to
dx
2
sin a
a) sin(a+y)
b) sin (a+y)
sin a
sin a
c) d)
sin(a+y)
2
sin (a+y) sin a
10. If x = acos3t, y = asin3t, then

dy
is equal to [1]
dx
a) – tan t b) cosec t
c) cos t d) cot t
−−− −−−− dy
11. If y = √sin x + y then is equal to [1]
dx
a) cos x
b) sin x
2y−1 1−2y
c) cos x
d) sin x
1−2y 2y−1
12. If y = a + bx2, a, b arbitrary constants, then [1]

2 2
a) x
d y
−
dy
+ y = 0
b) x
d y
= 2xy
2 2
dx dx dx
2 2
c) d y
= 2xy
d) x
d y
= y1
2 2
dx dx
13. In case of strict increasing functions, slope of the tangent and hence derivative is [1]
a) either positive or zero b) zero
c) positive d) negative
14. If y = (sin-1 x)2, then (1 - x2) y2 is equal to [1]
a) -xy1 + 2 b) none of these
c) xy1 + 2 d) xy1 - 2
15. If f(x) = |loge x|, then [1]
a) f’(1) = –1 b) f’(1) = 1
c) f’(1–) = –1 d) f’(1+) = 1
16. If y =
2
tan
−1
(
a−b
tan
x
) , a > b > 0, then [1]
√a2 − b2 a+b 2
−b sin x −1
a) y2 =
2
b) y1 =
a+b cos x
(a−b cos x)
b sin x 1
c) y2 = 2
d) y1 =
(a+b cos x) a−b cos x
−1
17. If f(x) =
sin x
, then (1 - x2) f"(x) - xf(x) = [1]
√1−x2
a) none of these b) 0
c) 1 d) -1
2
18. If y = a sin mx + b cos m x, then

d y
is equal to [1]
2
dx
2/5
a) my1 b) None of these
c) -m2y d) m2y
19.
d
{ tan
−1
(
cos x
)} equal [1]
dx 1+sin x
a) -1 b) 1
c) -1/2 d) 1/2
20. f(x) = |loge |x||, then [1]
a) f(x) is continuous and differentiable b) f(x) is continuous for all x in its

for all x in its domain domain but differentiable at x = ± 1
c) none of these d) f(x) is neither continuous nor

differentiable at x = ± 1
21. The function f(x) = cos x -2 λx is monotonic decreasing when [1]
a) λ > 2 b) λ < 1/2
c) λ > 1/2 d) λ < 2
22. Let f (x) =x3, then f (x) has a [1]
a) point of inflexion at x = 0 b) local maxima at x = 0
c) none of these d) local minima at x = 0
23. The point on the curve y = 12x - x2 where the slope of the tangent is zero will be [1]
a) (6, 36) b) (0, 0)
c) (3, 9) d) (2, 16)
24. If s = t3 - 4t2 + 5 describes the motion of a particle, then its velocity when the acceleration [1]
vanishes, is
a) 16/9 unit /sec b) -32/3 unit/sec
c) -16/3 unit/sec d) 4/3 unit/sec

25. A man of height 6 ft walks at a uniform speed of 9 ft/sec from a lamp fixed at 15 ft height. The [1]
length of his shadow is increasing at the rate of
a) 15 ft/sec b) 6ft/sec
c) 9ft/sec d) none of these
26. The function f(x) = cot -1 x +x increases in the interval [1]
a) 0 , ∞ b) -∞ ,∞
c) (1 ,∞) d) -1 , ∞
27. Let f(x) = x3 + ax2 + bx + 5 sin x2 be an increasing function on the set R. Then, a and b satisfy [1]
a) a
2
− 3b + 15 > 0 b) a>0 and b>0
c) a
2
− 3b + 15 < 0 d) a
2
− 3b − 15 > 0
28. If the radius of a sphere is measured as 9 m with an error of 0.03 m, then find the [1]
3/5
approximate error in calculating the surface area
a) 1.16π m
2
b) 1.08π
2
m
c) 2.16π m
2
d) None of these
29. Function f(x) = x3 - 27 x + 5 is monotonically increasing when [1]
a) x ≤ −3 b) |x| > 3
c) x < -3 d) |x| ≥ 3
30. The curve y = a is inclined at 45 to the X – axis at (0, 0) but it touches X – axis [1]
3 2 ∘
x + bx + c x
at (1, 0) , then the values of a, b, c, are given by
a) a = 1, b = – 2, c = 1 b) a = 1, b = 1, c = – 2
c) a = – 2, b = 1, c = 1 d) a = – 1, b = 2, c = 1.
31. The function f(x) = 2x3 - 3x2 - 12x + 4, has [1]
a) one maxima and one minima b) no maxima or minima
c) two points of local minimum d) two points of local maximum

32. Function f(x) = loga x is increasing on R , if [1]
a) a < 1 b) 0 < a < 1
c) a > 1 d) a> 0
33. The equation of the normal to the curve y = sinx at (0, 0) is [1]
a) x – y = 0 b) x = 0
c) x + y = 0 d) y = 0
34. The minimum value of f(x) = 3x4 - 8x3 - 48x + 25 on [0, 3] is [1]
a) 25 b) 16
c) -39 d) None of these

−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−− −
−−−−−−−− − −−−
35. If
−− −−−
y = √sin x + √sin x + √sin x+ … ∞ then
dy
=? [1]
dx
a) sin x
b) cos x
(2y−1) (y−1)
c) d) None of these
cos x
(2y−1)
2
sin ax
, when x ≠ 0 [1]
36. If the function f(x) = { x2
is continuous at x = 0 then k = ?
k, when x = 0
a) -4 b) a
c) -2 d) a2
x
37. f(x) = is increasing in [1]
( x2 +1)
a) None of these b) (−1, ∞)
c) (−∞, −1) ∪ (1, ∞) d) (-1, 1)
38. If y = tan-1 (sec x + tan x) then

dy
= ? [1]
dx
4/5
a) None of these b)
1
−1
c) 1 d)
2
dy
39. If x = a(cos θ + θ sin θ) and y = a(sin θ − θ cos θ) = ? [1]
dx
a) a cot θ b) cot θ
c) tan θ d) a tan θ
40. Let x, y be two variables and x > 0, xy = 1 then minimum value of x + y is [1]
a) 2 b)
1
2
2
c) d) 1
1
3
3
5/5
CLASS 12 - PHYSICS
Physics
1. Kirchhoff's first law, i.e., ΣI = 0 at a junction, deals with the conservation of [1]
a) Energy b) Momentum
c) Angular momentum d) Charge

2. A potentiometer has a uniform wire of length 10m and resistance 5 ohms. The potentiometer [1]
is connected to an external battery of emf of 10V and negligible internal resistance and a
resistance of 995 ohms in series. The potential gradient along the wire is
a) 1 mV/cm b) 5 mV/cm
c) 1 mV/m d) 5 mV/m
3. If the electric current in a lamp decreases by 5%, then the power output decreases by [1]
a) 20% b) 25%
c) 5% d) 10%
4. Which of the following characteristics of electrons determines the current in a conductor? [1]
a) Both drift velocity and thermal b) Neither drift nor thermal velocity.
velocity.
c) The thermal velocity alone. d) Drift velocity alone.

5. Potentiometer is [1]
a) none of these b) basically a long piece of uniform

wire
c) basically a loop of uniform wire d) basically a pair of uniform wires

6. The resistance of a metallic conductor increases due to [1]
a) Change in dimensions of the b) Change in carrier density

conductor
c) Increase in the number of collisions d) Increase in the rate of collisions

between the carriers between the carriers and vibrating
atoms of the conductor
7. Mobility is defined as [1]
a) the number of charges in motion per b) the magnitude of the drift velocity
unit electric field per unit voltage
c) the magnitude of the drift velocity d) the magnitude of the drift velocity
per unit charge per unit electric field
1/6
8. A Wheatstone bridge is balanced for four resistors R1, R2, R3 and R4 with a Lechlanche cell [1]
between A and C and a galvanometer between B and D. The positions of the cell and the
galvanometer are interchanged. The balance will
a) Change and can be obtained by b) decrease by about 9%

changing R1
c) Change and can be obtained by d) Not change

changing R4
9. A battery is connected with a potentiometer wire. The internal resistance of the battery is [1]
negligible. If the length of the potentiometer wire is kept same and radius is doubled then how
does potential gradient vary?
a) Potential gradient becomes half b) None of these
c) Potential gradient does not change d) Potential gradient becomes two

times
10. A piece of copper and another of germanium are cooled from room temperature to 80K. The [1]
resistance of
a) each of them increases b) each of them decreases
c) copper increases and that of d) copper decreases and that of

germanium decreases germanium increases
11. The instrument for the accurate measurement of the e.m.f. of a cell is [1]
a) A potentiometer b) An ammeter
c) A voltmeter d) A slide wire bridge

12. To get maximum current in a resistance of 3 ohm, one can use n rows of m cells (connected in [1]
series), connected in parallel. If the total number of cells is 24 and the internal resistance of a
cell is 0 ⋅ 5 ohm, then
a) m = 2, n = 12 b) m = 12, n = 2
c) m = 6, n = 4 d) m = 8, n = 3
13. The wire of the potentiometer has resistance 4 ohms and length 1 m. It is connected to a cell of [1]
e.m.f. 2 volts and internal resistance 1 ohm, if a cell of e.m.f. 1.2 volt is balanced by it, the
balancing length will be
a) 60 cm b) 50 cm
c) 90 cm d) 75 cm
14. According to Kirchhoff’s Loop Rule, [1]
a) The absolute sum of changes in b) The algebraic sum of changes in

potential around any closed loop potential around any closed loop
must be zero. must be zero.
c) The algebraic sum of changes in d) The algebraic sum of changes in

potential around any closed loop potential around any closed loop
2/6
must be positive. must be negative.
15. Drift is the random motion of the charged particles within a conductor, [1]
a) along with a very slow net motion in b) along with accelerated motion in the
the opposite direction of the field direction of the field
c) along with a decelerated motion in d) along with zero motion in the

the direction of the field direction of the field
16. A uniform electric field and a uniform magnetic field are produced, pointed in the same [1]
direction. When an electron is projected with its velocity pointed in the same direction,
a) the electron velocity will decrease in b) the electron velocity will increase in
magnitude magnitude
c) the electron will turn to its left d) the electron will turn to its right
17. A wire of length 2m carries a current of 1 ampere is bend to form a circle. The magnetic [1]
moment of the coil is
a) b)
π
2π
4
c) 1
π
d) π
18. The magnetic field due to a current-carrying circular loop of radius 3 cm at a point on the axis [1]
at a distance of 4 cm from the centre is 54 μT. What will be its value at the centre of the loop?
a) 125 μT b) 75 μT
c) 250 μT d) 150 μT
19. A galvanometer of resistance 25Ω is shunted by a 2.5Ω wire. The part of total current Io that [1]
flows through the galvanometer is given by
a) b)
I 2 I 4
= =
I0 11 I0 11
3
c) I
I0
=
1
11
d) I
I0
=
11
20. An ammeter has resistance R0 and range I. What resistance should be connected in parallel to [1]
it with increase the range to nI?

Ro
a) None of these b)
n
Ro Ro
c) d)
n−1 n+1
21. The electric current in a circular coil of two turns produces a magnetic induction of 0.2 T at its [1]
centre. The coil is unwound and is rewound into a circular coil of four turns. The magnetic
induction at the centre of the coil now is, in tesla
a) 0.8 b) 0.4
c) 0.6 d) 0.2
22. The scale of a galvanometer of resistance 100Ω contains 25 divisions. It gives a deflection of [1]
one division on passing a current of 4 × 10 −4
A . The resistance in ohms to be added to it so
that it may become a voltmeter of range 2.5 volt is
a) 100 b) 250
3/6
c) 300 d) 150
23. Two long parallel wires P and Q are held perpendicular to the plane of the paper with distance [1]
of 5 m between them. If P and Q carry current of 2.5 A and 5A respectively in the same
direction, then the magnetic field at a point half way between the wire is
μ
a) √3μ0
b)
0
π
π
3μ0 μ
c) d)
0
2π 2π
24. If only 2% of the current is to pass through a galvanometer of resistance G, then resistance of [1]
shunt will be
a) 50G b) 49G
c) G
d) G
50 49
25. If electron velocity is 2^ ^

j and it is subjected to magnetic field of 4k , then its
i + 3^ [1]
a) none of these b) speed will change
c) both path will change and speed will d) path will change
change
26. The SI unit of magnetic pole strength is [1]
a) ampere metre2 b) ampere metre-2
c) ampere per metre d) ampere metre

27. A wire of length L is bent to form a ring of single loop and current is flown through it. The [1]
magnetic field at its centre is B. If the same wire is bent to form two loops and same current is
flowing, the new B’ at its centre will be
a) B b) B
c) 4B d) 2B
28. A wire is perpendicular to the plane of the paper. A ring of compass needles surrounds the [1]
wire in the plane of the paper with center of ring being the center of the wire. Initially there is
no current in the wire. What happens after a steady dc current is established in the wire?
a) The needles become parallel to each b) Some needles become parallel to

other each other while others are
uneffected
c) Nothing happens d) The needles become tangential to the

ring
29. A long wire carries a steady current. It is bent into a circle of one turn and the magnetic field [1]
at the centre of the coil is B. It is then bent into a circular loop of n turns. The magnetic field at
the centre of the coil will be
a) nB b) 2n B
2
c) 3n B
2
d) 2
n B
30. An electron having energy 10 eV is circulating in path of radius 0.105 m having magnetic field [1]
of 10-4T. The speed of the electron will be:
4/6
a) 1.9 × 10 m/s
6
b) 3.8 × 10
12
m/s
c) d)
12 6
1.9 × 10 m/s 3.8 × 10 m/s
31. Two infinitely long wires carry currents in opposite directions. Then the field at a point P [1]
lying midway between them is
a) twice the field due to each wire b) square of the field due to each wire
alone alone
c) zero d) half of the field due to each wire

alone
32. The ratio of magnetic induction on the axis of a straight long current carrying solenoid at a [1]
point on end to that at the centre of solenoid is
–
a) 1 : 1 b) √2 :1
c) 2 : 1 d) 1 : 2
33. A particle having charge 100 times that of an electron is revolving in a circular path by radius [1]
0.8 m with one rotation per second. The magnetic field produced at the centre is:
a) b)
−16 17
10 μ0 10 μ0
c) d)
−15 −17
10 μ0 10 μ0
34. A voltmeter has range V. What resistance should be connected in series with it to increase its [1]
range to nV? Initial resistance is R0.
R0
a) b) (n - 1)R0
n
c) nR0 d) (n + 1)R0
35. A galvanometer having 30 divisions has a current sensitivity of 20 μA/div. It has a resistance [1]
of 25 ohm. How will you convert it into an ammeter measuring upto 1 ampere. Find the shunt
to be used.
a) 0.30 Ω b) 0.15 Ω
c) 0.015 Ω d) 0.030 Ω
36. A wire of given length is first bent in one loop and the next time it is bent in three loops. If the [1]
same current is passed in both the cases, the ratio of the magnetic field induction at their
centres will be
a) 1:9 b) 9:1
c) 1:3 d) 1:4
37. If number of turns, area and current through a coil is given by n, A and i respectively, then its [1]
magnetic moment will be
a) n2iA b) ni A
−
−
c) niA2 d) ni√A
38. The magnetic field in a circular loop of diameter 0.1 m carrying a current of 1 A is [1]
a) b)
−5 −5
3. 8 × 1 0 T 4. 4 × 1 0 T
5/6
c) d)
−5 −5
1.25 × 10 T 2. 8 × 1 0 T
39. Protons move parallel to each other with equal speeds 3 × 105 ms-1. The ratio of magnetic and [1]
electric force between them is
a) 10
−6
b) 1
c) d)
−3 −9
10 10
40. An electron is shot into a liquid placed in a uniform magnetic field, in a plane perpendicular [1]
to magnetic field, then
a) trajectory is an inward winding b) its revolution frequency decreases

spiral
c) the kinetic energy of electron d) the trajectory of electron is circular

remains same
6/6
CLASS 12 - CHEMISTRY
Chemistry
1. A gaseous substance dissolves in the water giving a pale blue solution which decolorizes [1]
KMnO4 and oxidizes KI to I2:
a) HNO3 b) H2O5
c) N2O3 d) NH3
2. Bond dissociation enthalpy of E—H (E = element) bonds is given below. Which of the [1]
compounds will act as strongest reducing agent?
Compound NH3 PH3 AsH3 SbH3
Δdiss (E—H)/kJ mol-1 389 322 297 255
a) NH3 b) SbH3
c) PH3 d) AsH3
3. Affinity for hydrogen decreases in the group from fluorine to iodine. Which of the halogen [1]
acids should have highest bond dissociation enthalpy?
a) HI b) HCl
c) HBr d) HF
4. On heating ammonium dichromate and barium azide separately we get [1]
a) N2O with ammonium dichromate b) N2O with ammonium dichromate

and N2 with barium azide and NO2 with barium azide
c) N2 with ammonium dichromate and d) N2 in both cases

NO with barium azide
5. A black compound of manganese reacts with a halogen acid to give greenish yellow gas. When [1]
excess of this gas reacts with NH3 an unstable trihalide is formed. In this process the oxidation
state of nitrogen changes from ________.
a) -3 to 0 b) - 3 to +5
c) – 3 to +3 d) 0 to -3
6. Which of the following statements is wrong? [1]
a) Covalency of nitrogen in N2O5 is b) NO2 is paramagnetic in nature.
four.
c) d) Single N–N bond is stronger than the
1/6
PH3 can act as a ligand in the single P–P bond.
formation of coordination compound

with transition elements.
7. How many moles of oxygen are obtained by heating 8 mol of potassium chlorate? [1]
a) 28 b) 8
c) 16 d) 12
+
8. In the preparation of compounds of Xe, Bartlett had taken O2 PtF
−
6
as a base compound. This [1]
is because
a) both O2 and Xe have almost same b) both O2 and Xe have the same size.
ionisation enthalpy.
c) both O2 and Xe have the same d) both Xe and O2 are gases.
electron gain enthalpy.

9. On addition of conc. H2SO4 to a chloride salt, colourless fumes are evolved but in case of [1]
iodide salt, violet fumes come out. This is because:
a) HI is of violet colour b) HI gets oxidized to I2
c) H2SO4 reduces HI to I2 d) HI changes to HIO3
10. Which of the following elements does not show allotropy? [1]
a) Arsenic b) Antimony
c) Nitrogen d) Bismuth
11. Which of the following is thermally the most stable? [1]
a) H2O b) H2Se
c) H2S d) H2Te
12. Pure N2 is prepared in the laboratory by heating a mixture of: [1]
a) NH4Cl and NaOH b) NH4OH and NaCl
c) NH4Cl and NaNO3 d) NH4Cl and NaNO2
13. Ozone can be detected by using [1]
a) Sodium b) Sulphur
c) Silver d) Mercury
14. Hot conc. H2SO4 acts as a moderately strong oxidising agent. It oxidises both metals and [1]
nonmetals. Which of the following element is oxidised by conc. H2SO4 into two gaseous
products?
a) C b) Zn
c) S d) Cu
15. Which of the following is isoelectronic pair? [1]
2/6
a) b) ClO2, BrF
− +
BrO , BrF
2 2
c) ICl2, ClO2 d) CN-, O

3
16. On heating with concentrated NaOH solution in an inert atmosphere of CO2, white [1]
phosphorus gives a gas. Which of the following statement is incorrect about the gas?
a) It is more basic than NH3. b) It is highly poisonous and has smell

like rotten fish.
c) Its solution in water decomposes in d) It is less basic than NH3.

the presence of light.
17. N2O3 is: [1]
a) A basic oxide and the anhydride of b) An acidic oxide and anhydride of

HNO2. HNO2.
c) A neutral oxide and the anhydride of d) An acidic oxide and the anhydride of
HNO3. H2N2O2.
18. Xenon difluoride has _____ shape. [1]
a) Linear b) Trigonal
c) Angular d) Pyramidal
19. Of the following hydrides which is the strongest reducing agent? [1]
a) PH3 b) AsH3
c) BiH3 d) NH3
20. Which of the following oxides reacts with both HCl and NaOH? [1]
a) ZnO b) N2O5
c) CO2 d) CaO
21. Assertion: Xenon forms fluorides. [1]

Reason: Because 5d-orbitals are available for valence shell expansion.
a) Both assertion and reason are b) Both assertion and reason are
CORRECT and reason is the CORRECT CORRECT but, reason is NOT THE
explanation of the assertion. CORRECT explanation of the
assertion.
c) Assertion is CORRECT but, reason is d) Assertion is INCORRECT but, reason

INCORRECT. is CORRECT.
22. Assertion: Ozone is a powerful oxidising agent in comparison to O2. [1]
Reason: Ozone is diamagnetic but O2 is paramagnetic.
explanation of the assertion.
3/6
CORRECT explanation of the
assertion.

23. Assertion: F2 has low reactivity. [1]
Reason: F-F bond has low bond dissociation enthalpy.
assertion.

24. Assertion: Iodine dissolves in aqueous solution of potassium iodide. [1]
Reason: Potassium iodide behaves as an organic solvent and therefore, dissolves non-polar
iodine.
assertion.

25. Assertion: F - F bond in the F2 molecule is strong. [1]
Reason: F atom is small in size.
assertion.

26. Electronic configuration of Fe3+ is: [1]
a) [Ar] 4s23d3 b) [Ar] 3d5
c) [Ar] 4s23d6 d) [Ar] 4s23d4
27. Which of the following is paramagnetic as well as coloured ion? [1]
a) Ti4++ b) Cu+
c) Sc3+ d) Cu2+
28. The yellow colour of the chromate changes to orange on acidification due to the formation of: [1]
a) Cr O 2- b) Cr2O3
2 7
4/6
c) CrO2 d) CrO42-
29. Ni2+ in traces can be tested using [1]
a) Dimethylglyoxime b) Potassium ferrocyanide
c) Ammonium sulphocyanide d) Sodium nitroprusside

30. A reduction in the atomic size with an increase in atomic number is characteristic of the [1]
elements of:
a) radioactive series b) d–block
c) f-block d) high atomic masses

31. The magnetic nature of elements depends on the presence of unpaired electrons. Identify the [1]
configuration of transition element, which shows highest magnetic moment.
a) 3d2 b) 3d5
c) 3d7 d) 3d8
32. Haemoglobin and chlorophyll contain: [1]
a) Fe and Mg b) Fe and Mn
c) Fe and Co d) Mg and Fe
33. Interstitial compounds are formed when small atoms are trapped inside the crystal lattice of [1]
metals. Which of the following is not the characteristic property of interstitial compounds?
a) They retain metallic conductivity. b) They have high melting points in

comparison to pure metals.
c) They are chemically very reactive. d) They are very hard.

34. A blue solution of copper sulphate becomes darken when treated with the excess of ammonia. [1]
This is because:
a) Ammonia is a stronger ligand than b) All of these

water.
c) Ammonia molecules replace water d) Ammonia forms a stable complex

molecules in the solution. ion [Cu(NH3)4]2+ with Cu2+ ions.
35. The most stable ion is [1]
a) Fe2+ b) Mn2+
c) Cr2+ d) All are equally stable
36. Generally transition elements form coloured salts due to the presence of unpaired electrons. [1]
Which of the following compounds will be coloured in solid state?
a) Cu2Cl2 b) Ag2SO4
c) CuF2 d) ZnF2
37. Assertion: Ionisation of transition metals involve loss of ns electrons before (n – 1) d [1]
electrons.
5/6
Reason: Filling of ns orbitals take place before the filling of (n – 1)d orbitals.
a) Both assertion and reason are b) Both assertion and reason

CORRECT and reason is the CORRECT areCORRECT but, reason is NOT THE
assertion.

INCORRECT is CORRECT
38. Assertion: Tungsten has very high melting point. [1]
Reason: Tungsten is a covalent compound.
assertion.

39. Assertion: TiCl4 is colourless compounds. [1]
Reason: Ti4+ has no unpaired electron.
a) Both assertion and reason are b) Both assertion and reason

CORRECT and reason is the CORRECT areCORRECT but, reason is NOT THE
assertion.

INCORRECT is CORRECT
40. Assertion: There is a continuous decrease in size among lanthanoids. [1]
Reason: Lanthanoids show lanthanoid contraction.
assertion.

6/6
CLASS 12 - BIOLOGY
Biology
1. The correct sequence of gene expression is: [1]

A. Formation of the primary transcript
B. Regulation of splicing
C. Transport of mRNA from the nucleus to the cytoplasm
D. Translation
a) C > D > A > B b) A > B > C > D
c) B > C > A > D d) D > C > B > A

2. The net electric charge on DNA and histones is: [1]
a) zero b) both negative
c) both positive d) negative and positive, respectively

3. Gel electrophoresis is used for _______. [1]
a) Isolation of DNA molecule b) Cutting of DNA into fragments
c) Separation of DNA fragments d) Construction of recombinant DNA by

according to their size joining with cloning vectors
4. Single nucleotide polymorphism (SNPs) revolutionize the process of finding chromosomal [1]
locations for:
a) Treatment of sex-linked genes b) Hybridization
c) Disease-associated sequences and d) Fingerprinting

tracing human history
5. Which of the following are the functions of RNA? [1]
a) All of these b) It carries amino acids to ribosomes.
c) It is a constituent component of d) It is a carrier of genetic information

ribosomes. from DNA to ribosomes synthesising
polypeptides.
6. For DNA fingerprinting, the DNA is obtained from: [1]
a) WBCs, hair root cells, and body b) Hair root cells only
secretion
c) White blood corpuscles only d) Body secretion only

7. In biochemical genetics the term gene is being replaced by [1]
a) Anticodon b) Genome
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c) Template d) Cistron
8. Both deoxyribose and ribose belong to a class of sugars called: [1]
a) polysaccharides b) pentoses
c) trioses d) hexoses
9. Satellite DNA is useful tool in [1]
a) Genetic engineering b) Forensic science
c) Organ transplantation d) Sex determination

10. Removal of RNA polymerase III from nucleoplasm will affect the synthesis of: [1]
a) t-RNA b) m-RNA
c) r-RNA d) hn-RNA
11. Which of the following statements is correct about the role of regulatory proteins in [1]
transcription in prokaryotes?
a) They can act both as activators and b) They only increase expression.
as repressors.
c) They only decrease expression. d) They interact with RNA polymerase

but do not affect the expression.
12. To initiate translation, the mRNA first binds to: [1]
a) The smaller ribosomal sub-unit b) The larger ribosomal sub-unit
c) No such specificity exists d) The whole ribosome

13. Human genome project can leads to revolutionary new ways to: [1]
a) Study the mechanism of disease b) Diagnose, treat, and prevents

development. thousands of disorder that affect
human beings.
c) Study HIV disease development. d) Developing genome project of other

animals.
14. If the sequence of nitrogen bases of the coding strand of DNA in a transcription unit is 5' - A T [1]
G A A T G - 3', the sequence of bases in its RNA transcript would be:
a) 5' - C A U U C A U - 3' b) 5' - G U A A G U A - 3'
c) 5' - A U G A A U G - 3' d) 5' - U A C U U A C - 3'

15. Select the two correct statements out of the four (A–D) given below about lac operon. [1]
A. Glucose or galactose may bind with the repressor and inactivate it.
B. In the absence of lactose, the repressor binds with the operator region.
C. The z-gene codes for permease.
D. This was elucidated by Francois Jacob and Jacque Mono.
The correct statements are:
a) B and D b) A and B
c) A and C d) B and C
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16. With regard to mature mRNA in eukaryotes: [1]
a) exons and introns do not appear in b) exons appear but introns do not
the mature RNA. appear in the mature RNA.
c) both exons and introns appear in the d) introns appear but exons do not
mature RNA. appear in the mature RNA.
17. H-bonds between Cytosine and Guanine are [1]
a) 1 b) 2
c) 3 d) 4
18. Process used for amplification or multiplication of DNA for finger printing is [1]
a) Sesslerisation b) Southern blotting
c) Polymerase chain reaction d) Northern blotting

19. The human chromosome with the highest and least number of genes in them are respectively: [1]
a) Chromosome 21 and Y b) Chromosome 1 and Y
c) Chromosome X and Y d) Chromosome 1 and X

20. The technique of DNA fingerprinting was initially developed by [1]
a) S. Mond b) Alec Jefferys
c) Robert Sanford d) D.Pollard

21. The promoter site and the terminator site for transcription are located at: [1]
a) 3' (downstream) end and 5' b) 5' (upstream) end and 3'
(upstream) end, respectively of the (downstream) end, respectively of
transcription unit the transcription unit
c) the 5' (upstream) end d) the 3' (downstream) end

22. In lac operon, lactose is the substrate for enzyme beta-galactocidase and its regulates: [1]
a) Only switching of OFF of the operon b) Switching ON and OFF of the operon
c) Neither switching ON or OFF of d) Only switching ON of the operon

operon
23. In human beings 99.9% of genome sequence are same in all individuals only 0.1% of genome [1]
differ that:
a) make every individual similar in b) make every individual genetically

phenotypic appearance. similar.
c) make every individual unique in d) make a genetic variation for

phenotypic appearance. evolution.
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24. The fact that a purine base always pairs through hydrogen bonds with a pyrimidine base in [1]
the DNA double helix leads to:
a) the semiconservative nature b) uniform length in all DNA
c) the antiparallel nature d) uniform width throughout DNA

25. Removal of introns and joining of exons in a defined order during transcription is called [1]
a) Splicing b) Inducing
c) Looping d) Slicing
26. Write and the codon for anticodon on the t-RNA [1]
a) AGU b) UGU
c) UGA d) ACU
27. What does X represent in the following diagram: [1]
a) Released tertiary protein b) Released polypeptide chain
c) Released secondary protein d) Released 3D protein molecule

28. Typically DNA content of about 100000 cells or 1 microgram is required for DNA [1]
fingerprinting. If the sample obtained is less it is increased by:
a) Transcription of DNA in cells b) Elimination of DNA in cells
c) Translation of DNA in cells d) Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) by

amplification process
29. A nucleoside differs from a nucleotide. It lacks the: [1]
a) hydroxyl group b) base
c) sugar d) phosphate group

30. Human genome project was 13 year project co-ordinated by [1]
a) Bhabha atomic research centre, b) U.S.Department of energy only

India
c) U.S.Department of energy and d) Welcome Trust (U.K)

National institute of health
31. Assertion: Regulation of lac operon by a repressor is referred to as negative regulation. [1]
Reason: Lac operon is under the control of positive regulation as well.
a) Both assertion and reason are b) Assertion is correct but reason is
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correct incorrect
c) Both assertion and reason are d) Assertion is incorrect but reason is

incorrect correct
32. Assertion: Genetic map up of an organism or individual lies in the DNA sequence. [1]
Reason: If two individual differs, then their DNA sequence should also be different.
a) Both assertion and reason are b) Assertion is correct but reason is

correct incorrect
c) Assertion is incorrect but reason is d) Both assertion and reason are

correct incorrect
33. State true or false: [1]
AUG codes for methionine (Met) and act as a start Codon.
34. State true or false: [1]
DNA being stable mutates at a slower rate.
35. Fill in the blanks: [1]
A typical nucleosome contains ________ base pairs of DNA helix.
Cytosine, Uracil, and Thymine are ________.
A+T = G+C given by ________.
Chromatin that stains dark and more densely packed are called ________.
Adenine and Guanine are ________.
A nitrogenous base linked to the pentose sugar through ________ linkages.
5/5
CLASS 12 - COMPUTER SCIENCE

Computer Science
Full form of NSF Net is [1]

1.
a) National Software Foundation b) National Science Foundation
Network Network
c) NetworkSocietal Framework d) Network Software Foundation

Network Network
2. Which one of the following is not an application example of Networking: [1]
a) Taking print of a file using pen b) Saving admission application online

drive
c) Transferring software installation in d) Copying of a file from remote

a system from another system system
Which one of the following is an application example of WAN: [1]

3.
a) A passenger book flight ticket thru b) A network of 2 computers in a
airline site City
c) A manager sanctions request sent d) A network of 2 computersin a lab

thru clerks in a bank.
Information will sent over internet by splitting it into smaller groups and [1]
transmitting them individually, is a _________________method:
4.
a) Circuit Switching Method b) All of these
c) Packet Switching Method d) Message Switching Method
Bandwidth can be measured in__unit [1]

5.
a) All of these b) KHz
c) MHz d) GHz
6. Which one is most suitable networking cable in high electrical/electronic environment: [1]
a) Fiber b) Coaxial
c) Twisted Pair d) Shielded Twisted Pair
Networking cables will connect/inserted into computer system in which interface: [1]
7.
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a) RJ45 b) Ethernet Card
c) Motherboard d) Modem
High data attenuation will occur in [1]

8.
a) LAN b) PAN
c) MAN d) WAN
High data transfer speed will be in [1]

9.
a) PAN b) WAN
c) MAN d) LAN
If distance between two computers are more than cable capacity, which of the [1]
following device will be used:
10.
a) Modem b) Router
c) Bridge d) Repeater
To connect two or more systems in a network, which of the following device will be [1]
used:
11.
a) Modem b) Repeater
c) None of these d) Switch
To connect a PC system in wireless network, which of the following device should be [1]
in system:
12.
a) Ethernet Card b) Wifi Card
c) Sim Card d) NIC
Which of the following topology used short cable length [1]

13.
a) Ring b) Tree
c) Mesh d) Star
Fiber optics posses following properties [1]

14.
a) All of the mentioned b) Immune electromagnetic
interference
c) Very less signal attenuation d) Very hard to tap
Physical or logical arrangement of network is [1]

15.
a) None of the mentioned b) Topology
c) Networking d) Routing
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16. Protocols are? [1]
a) Logical communication channels for b) Physical communication channels

transferring data sued for transferring data

c) Agreements on how communication d) None of above

components and DTE's are to
communicate
Data communication system spanning states, countries, or the whole world is [1]
17.
a) LAN b) PAN
c) MAN d) WAN
What is internet? [1]

18.
a) none of the mentioned b) a vast collection of different
networks
c) interconnection of local area d) a single network

networks
If two of your mobile are connected in thru Bluetooth, it is an example of: [1]
19.
a) WAN b) MAN
c) PAN d) LAN
Which of this is not a guided media? [1]

20.
a) Wireless LAN b) Copper wire
c) Coaxial cable d) Fiber optical cable
Which protocol is used to browse web site contents on a client system? [1]
21.
a) HTTP b) PPP
c) TELNET d) OSI
22. DNS is the abbreviation of [1]
a) Dynamic Name System b) Domain Network Service
c) Domain Name System d) Dynamic Network System
Network congestion occurs [1]

23.
a) When connection between two b) When a system terminates
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nodes terminates
c) A case of traffic overloading d) None of the mentioned
What is the meaning of Bandwidth in Network? [1]

24.
a) Connected Computers in the b) None of Above
Network
c) Class of IP used in Network d) Transmission capacity of a

communication channels
25. What is a Firewall in Computer Network? [1]
a) An operating System of Computer b) A web browsing Software

Network
c) A system designed to prevent d) The physical boundary of Network

unauthorized access
26. A web cookie is a small piece of data [1]
a) none of the mentioned b) sent from root server to all

servers
c) sent from a website and stored in d) sent from user and stored in the
user’s web browser while a user is server while a user is browsing a
browsing a website website
URL stands for [1]

27.
a) unique resource locator b) uniform reference label
c) uniform resource locator d) unique reference label
Dynamic web page [1]

28.
a) generates on demand by a b) both (a) and (b)
program or a request from
browser
c) none of the mentioned d) is same every time whenever it

displays
What is a web browser? [1]

29.
a) all of the mentioned b) it enables user to access the
resources of internet
c) a program that can display a web d) a program used to view html

page documents
30. FTP, a protocols to [1]
a) Transfer the content from webserver b) Transfer files from client to server
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to client on request of url without third party intervene
c) Transfer the server content to client d) Transfer the content of client

thru browser computer to server in unidirectional
way
Exynosrelated to [1]
31.
a) IBM b) Media tek
c) Samsung d) Snapdragon
Differencebetween http and https is [1]

32.
a) TLS b) SSS
c) SSL d) NONE
To receive emails which protocol works [1]

33.
a) BOTH b) POP
c) WMA d) SMTP
Which hosting service provides high security and control over site: [1]
34.
a) Dedicated Hosting b) Cloud Hosting
c) VPS Hosting d) Shared Hosting
.org domain suffix means [1]

35.
a) Original b) none
c) Organization d) On register of government
Which one is having tags/commands on user’s needs [1]

36.
a) VB b) XML
c) HTML d) JAVA
Content reserved/protected thru IPR [1]

37.
a) Copyright b) Patent
c) Trademark d) All
Which Virus not requires any carrier [1]

38.
a) Trojan Horse b) Spyware
c) Malware d) Worm
Which one is not a virus [1]

39.
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a) WORM b) MALWARE
c) SPYWARE d) COOKIES

Which one of the following is not a requirement to connect in a Network: [1]

40.
a) RJ-45 b) Network Interface Card
c) Cables d) Graphic card
6/6
ATOMIC ENERGY CENTRAL SCHOOL NO.4 Rawatbhata
CLASS 12 - PHYSICAL EDUCATION

Online Multiple Choice Question September-2020
General Instructions:
All questions are compulsory.
1. Cognitive Disability is [1]
a) Impairment of Brain b) Argumentative Behaviour
c) Cannot do Physical work d) Limb not working

2. Which of the following is not a Disability Etiquettes? [1]
a) Talk diectly b) Donnot lean on Chair
c) Helping without giving Identity d) offer to help

3. The need of Special Children is [1]
a) All the above b) Activity according to the need
c) Motivate to Participate d) Simple and Easy rule

4. ODD patient do not show sign of [1]
a) Calmness b) Irritation
c) Vindictiveness d) Anger
5. Cognitive Behavior therapy is used in [1]
a) ASD b) ODD
c) OCD d) ADHD
6. Which of the following is not a factor affecting Motor Development in Children? [1]
a) Parent & Heredity b) Regular exercise
c) Nutritious Food d) Peer Group

7. Which of the following activity is good for development in Early Childhood Children? [1]
a) Fun Games b) FootBall
c) VolleyBall d) Athletics
8. Later Childhood stage is between. [1]
a) 7-12 yrs. b) 1-2 yrs.
c) 13-19 yrs. d) 2-6 yrs.

9. Main Cause of Kyphosis is- [1]
a) Wrong sleeping posture b) Wrong footwear
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c) Wrong sitting posture d) Wrong walking style
10. Any kind of impairment or permanent reduction in the physical or mental capacity is called [1]
_______.
a) Disease b) Disorder
c) Discomfort d) Disability
11. Which of the following is NOT part of strategies to make physical activities accessible to [1]
Children with special needs?
a) Assistive technology b) Creating special classrooms
c) Inclusive classrooms d) Professional courses

12. Child is not able to adjust within society is suffering from [1]
a) ASD b) ADHD
c) ODD d) OCD
13. Which of the following is NOT a disorder? [1]
a) Having only one leg b) Hyper activity
c) Too much sensitivity to cleanliness d) Overeating

14. Children suffering from dyslexia and speech disorders are said to have _______. [1]
a) Physical disability b) Intellectual disability
c) Permanent disability d) Cognitive disability

15. The common symptoms of this disorder are hyperactivity, trouble focusing on a task, very [1]
short span of attention and missing details. It is ________.
a) ASD b) SPD
c) ADHD d) OCD
16. Expended from of ADHD [1]
a) Automatic disability high defect b) Automatic deficit hyper discorder
c) Attention deficit hyperactivity d) Attention disorder of hypoactive

disorder defict
17. The symptoms of _________ are difficulty in communication and interaction with people. [1]
a) ASD b) ODD
c) ADHD d) OCD
18. SPD’s expended form is [1]
a) Sensory processing Disorder b) Sensory processing department
c) Special poilce department d) Special processing Disorder

19. Repeated Action are called [1]
a) ADHD b) ASD
c) OCD d) ODD
2/4
20. Expended form of ODD is [1]
a) Opposite different disorder b) Obessive defect disability
c) Oppositional defiant disorder d) Opposite different disability

21. The symptoms of ___________ are people doing repetitive behaviours, performing routine tasks [1]
over and again or having certain thoughts repeatedly.
a) ODD b) ASD
c) ADHD d) OCD
22. In this deformity, there is no arch in the foot and the foot is completely flat. It is _______. [1]
a) Short foot b) Plain foot
c) Normal foot d) Flat foot

23. Which development is motor development [1]
a) Sense Organs b) Postural deformity
c) Disorder development d) Bones & muscles

24. Abnormal Curve of spine at front is called [1]
a) Lordosis b) Scoliosis
c) KnockKnees d) Kyphosis
25. Which of the following is NOT part of four stages of motor development in children? [1]
a) Later childhood b) Infanthood
c) Adulthood d) Early childhood

26. ________ is a postural deformity in which both the knees touch of overlap each other in normal [1]
standing position.
a) Shock Knee b) Lock Knee
c) Weak Knee d) Knock Knee

27. __________ uses the larger muscles of the skeleton or group of larger muscles too maintain [1]
posture and balance.
a) Healthy motor development b) Strong motor development
c) Fine motor development d) Gross motor development

28. Measurement of a Test is [1]
a) Instrument to collect Data b) Scientific Score
c) Subjective test d) Questionare

29. __________ uses the smaller muscles of the hand, feet and face for more precise activities. [1]
a) Fine motor development b) Gross motor development
c) Strong motor development d) Healthy motor development

30. This test helps to measure the number of different muscle groups with regard to their strength [1]
and flexibility. It is ________.
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a) AAHPER b) Krous-Weber Test
c) Back scratch test d) Chair stand test

31. _______ is a part of the senior fitness test protocol and is designed to test the functional fitness [1]
of seniors.
a) Harvard Step Test b) Six Minute Walk Test
c) One hour Walk Test d) 50 Meter Walk Test

32. Rikli and Jones senior citizen test was developed in [1]
a) 2000 b) 2002
c) 2001 d) 1990
33. The formula to measure BMI (Body Mass Index) is [1]
a) Weight + Height b) Weight × Height
c) Weight/Height d) Height/Weight
34. Athlete speed (Acceleration) is measured [1]
a) Sit and Reach b) 4 × 10 m shuttle Run
c) 50 m standing start d) Modified push-ups (Girls)

35. Which of the following is NOT part of General Motor Fitness test? [1]
a) 50 Yard Dash b) Push-ups
c) Shuttle Run d) Kraus Weber Test

36. Measurment of the field of Six minute walk test [1]
a) 20 × 5 yards b) 15 × 10 yards
c) 16 × 18 yards d) 16 × 12 yards

37. Weight of the dumbbell for men in Arm curl up test [1]
a) 10 lbs b) 8 lbs
c) 5 lbs d) 6 lbs
38. ________ is used to test cardiovascular fitness. [1]
a) AAHPER b) Shuttle Run Test
c) Rockport Test d) Kraus Weber Test

39. Which of the following is assessed by eight-foot up and go test? [1]
a) Walking speed, Coordination and b) Physiology fitness

agility
c) Upper body strength d) Lower body flexibility

40. Back Scratch test is to check the [1]
a) Shoulder Flexibility b) Shoulder Pain
c) Shoulder Joint d) Shoulder Strength
4/4
Solution
Class 12 - English Core
English
1. (b) Because he was regarded as a lowly being
Explanation: The peddler was generally met with sour faces and most of the time was not welcomed by
people at all because he was considered as a lowly being dressed in rags.
2. (b) She is a generous and kind-hearted person
Explanation: Going through the prose, one could observe the innate generosity and kindness that has been
expressed by the character sketch of Edla Willmansson.
3. (a) A game of cards named mjölis
Explanation: The old man was very happy to have company. The cottage was occupied only by him, so, he
was delighted to have someone to talk to, share his food with and pass some time without being lonely.
Hence, in a lively spirit, the host and the guest played a game of card named mjölis after dinner till
bedtime.
4. (a) Edla
Explanation: Edla made this statement because she wanted peddler to stay with them for Christmas.
5. (a) She felt it would be rude to send away a person who was invited
Explanation: Edla told her father that it would be unworthy of them to send away a person whom they
themselves have invited over for Christmas. She said that she wanted him to have a day where he could be
at peace, without any fear of getting arrested or punished, to enjoy just one day in the whole year with
them, so, she convinced her father to let the peddler stay with them for Christmas.
6. (b) Because he was unable to do day labour being aged
Explanation: The old man told his guest that in his days of prosperity he used to work as a crofter at the
Ramsjö Ironworks but had resigned from work since he was unable to do day labour due to his age.
7. (a) He wished to behave as a true captain
Explanation: The peddler wasn't used to the respect he had received from the ironmaster's family and
especially from his daughter. He didn't want her to think low of him and wished to behave like a true
captain as he had been referred to, believing that he should never be a cause for her embarrassment.
Hence, he referred to himself as a captain by doing what a captain should have done.
8. (a) The old man was happy to get a companion
Explanation: The peddler knocked at the door of a little grey cottage and asked for a night's shelter to
sleep. He was not refused and was welcomed at the cottage warmly by the owner who was an old man. The
man lived alone in the cottage and so was happy to get a companion, someone to talk to in his loneliness.
9. (c) Selma Lagerlöf
Explanation: The text has been written by a Swedish writer, Selma Lagerlöf. Her stories have been
translated into many languages.
10. (b) Thirty kronor
Explanation: The old man was a crofter at the Ramsjö Ironworks but was no longer able to do day labour.
Hence, his only source of living was his cow which used to provide milk for the creamery, and the
peddler was informed that the old man had received thirty kronor as his payment for the same in the
previous month.
11. (b) Because he wanted to help his old friend
Explanation: The ironmaster had mistaken the peddler to be an old acquaintance. Observing the state
where the peddler was, the ironmaster was determined to take him to his place in order to help him
recover. The ironmaster wanted to cherish old memories with him on the festive occasion.
12. (d) Because the world had never been kind to him
Explanation: The world had never been very kind to him and so it gave him an unwanted joy to think ill of
the world.
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13. (c) He lived alone there.
Explanation: The old man lived alone without his wife or children in his cottage.
14. (c) The peddler's struggle to stay alive
Explanation: The phrase has been used by the author to portray the peddler's struggle to stay alive in a
world where he was not welcomed by people.
15. (c) Shakespeare
Explanation: Shakespeare was described as wicked by the poet for he always depicted a glorious world
full of fantasies and riches which was in sharp contrast with the ground reality of the slum children. This
word of Shakespeare could lure the young poverty-stricken children towards crime.
16. (b) social injustice and class inequality.
Explanation: In this poem Stephen Spender deals with the theme of social injustice and class inequalities.
He presents the theme by talking of two different and incompatible worlds. The world of the rich and the
‘civilized’ has nothing to do with the world of narrow lanes and cramped holes. The gap between these two
worlds highlights social disparities and class inequalities.
17. (d) All of these
Explanation: The poet has captured the dismal state of the slum children. He has portrayed them as
exhausted and unambitious souls who were weighed down by their legacy of poverty. They were
physically and mentally bogged down by the social atrocities.
18. (b) All of these
Explanation: The poet reflected the crucial role that can be played by the affluent class in bringing a
change in the gloomy world of the slum children. All these people can break the social barriers and help in
the upliftment and betterment of the shackled world of the children.
19. (c) metaphor
Explanation: Metaphor is a comparison between two objects with the intent of giving clearer meaning to
one of them. Those who create history are people whose ideas and language can motivate, move, inspire
and influence millions of people. In order to be effective, their language must have the warmth and power
of the Sun.
20. (c) All of these
Explanation: The poet craftily focused on the dismal state of life of the slum children. He urged to break
all the barriers in their path of growth and success by providing them with equal opportunities and good
education. It is our moral responsibility to liberate these children.
21. (a) he wants the authorities to look after their needs
Explanation: The poet wants the people in authority to realize their responsibility towards the children of
the slums. All sort of social injustice and class inequalities be ended by eliminating the obstacles that
confine the slum children to their ugly and filthy surroundings. Let them study and learn to express
themselves freely. Then they will share the fruit of progress and prosperity and their lives will change for
the better.
22. (d) contrast between two incompatible worlds.

Explanation: Stephen Spender conveys the message of social justice and class equalities by presenting two
contrasting and incompatible worlds. He provides a way out. For achieving any significant progress and
development the gap between the two worlds must be abridged. This can be done only by breaking the
barriers that bind the slum children in dark, narrow, cramped holes and lanes. Let them be made mentally
and physically free to lead happy lives. Only then art, culture and literature will have relevance for them.
23. (d) John Keats
Explanation: The poem was written by John Keats, a renowned British romantic poet. The poem is an
excerpt from his poem 'Endymion: A Poetic Romance'.
24. (a) Increases
Explanation: According to the poet, an instance of beauty never fades away. It has a perennial source and
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makes a lasting impression on the human minds. It is eternal and has the power to heal and rejuvenate
mankind.
25. (c) They give greenery around us and cool the environment.
Explanation: The simplest things of nature like daffodils ,bloom among the green surroundings and make
it look beautiful. The rills or small streams of clear water help the atmosphere to cool during the hot
summer season.They also bring respite to our eyes .
26. (c) All of these
Explanation: A bower refers to a pleasant and peaceful place under the shade of a tree. It provides the
passersby with peace and security under its shade. It enables them to have a sound sleep and good health.
27. (b) nature
Explanation: The nature in the form of tree ,the sun,the moon,flowers ,rivers and everything else that
brings solace and comfort to the eyes of the beholder ,can remove the pall of gloom from our lives.
28. (a) Musk roses
Explanation: The poet captured the beautiful musk roses that grew abundantly in the mid-forests and
portrayed them as an instance of beauty which has a long-lasting imprint on the human mind. The
beautiful and fragrant roses enhance the beauty of the forest and create a serene atmosphere that gives
immense pleasure to the onlooker.
29. (b) Joy forever
Explanation: The poet craftily focused on the intransient nature of beautiful things which provide us with
immense joy and pleasure without diminishing in value.
30. (b) To connect with the earth
Explanation: The poet highlighted that we weave a string of flowers or memories every morning, which
provides us with support and motivation to live our lives to the fullest instead of burdening ourselves with
pain and suffering. The flowery band binds us to our lives.
31. (c) Because Hana was an impeccable wife
Explanation: Hana was an impeccable wife and stood by her husband in all his
decisions. She helped Dr Sadao when he was operating upon the enemy.
32. (c) Being a doctor, it was his duty
Explanation: Dr Sadao treated the American prisoner of war because as a doctor, he was trained to save
lives. He could not have let the injured soldier die even though he was his national enemy, as
that would have been against his professional ethics.
33. (d) Shocked and terrified
Explanation: When Dr Sadao informed his servants about the prisoner, all were shocked and terrified.
The gardener remarked that his master should not save the wounded man as nature had tried to
kill him twice.
34. (b) To study surgery and medicine
Explanation: Sadao Hoki went to America to study surgery and medicine as it was the wish of his father.
35. (a) The old General was in pain
Explanation: The old General was in pain and therefore, Dr Sadao was informed and called immediately
to aid him.
36. (b) He wanted to make sure that she was Japanese first.
Explanation: He had waited to fall in love with her until he was sure that she was Japanese. He was afraid
that his father would have never accepted an American as Sadao's wife.
37. (c) By secretly sending the American to an isolated with essential things
Explanation: The doctor decided to get rid of the American by secretly sending him to an isolated place
with food, water, clothes, blanket, and a flashlight which was owned by the doctor himself.
38. (c) So that his own family would not be harmed by the Japanese army
Explanation: Dr Sadao told everything to the general about the man he had operated upon for the sake of
his own family. So, he told everything, about the American prisoner of war, to the general so that his own
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family would not be harmed by the Japanese army because that was the time of war between America and
Japan.
39. (d) He wanted his father's permission and blessings.
Explanation: Sadao did not marry Hana heedlessly in America because he wanted his father's permission
and blessings. He respected his father, who believed in culture.
40. (c) To bring the towels and give anesthesia to the patient
Explanation: Dr Sadao sought Hana's help while operating on the wounded white man by asking her to
bring in the towels. He also told her to give anaesthesia to the patient.
4/4
Solution
Class 12 - हद कोर
Hindi Core
1. (d) रामदास
Explanation: रघुवीर सहाय क क वता 'रामदास' आधु नक हद क वता क मह वपूण रचना म से एक है।
2. (d) संवेदनहीनता
Explanation: क वता म अपा हज को अपा हज कहना मी डयाकम क संवेदनहीनता को दशाता है। कसी अपा हज को अपा हज कहना एक
ू र मान सकता का प रचायक है।
3. (a) पीड़ा क अ भ
Explanation: क वता म फूली ई आँख दखाकर अपा हज क पीड़ा क अ भ से है। इस पीड़ा को टे ली वजन पर दखने म मी डया का ही
अपना फायदा है।
4. (a) क णा जगाना
Explanation: क वता के अनुसार काय म का मु य उ े य क णा जगाना था। ले कन क णा जगाने का काय म एक ू र मान सकता वाला
काय म बन गया।
5. (a) लोग भूल गए ह
Explanation: रघुवीर सहाय क क वता 'कै मरे म बंद अपा हज' लोग भूल गये ह का सं ह से संक लत है।
6. (d) सरा स तक
Explanation: अ ेय ारा संपा दत सरा स तक के क वय म रघुवीर सहाय भी स म लत थे।
7. (b) रोचकता बढ़े गी
Explanation: क वता के अनुसार काय म क रोचकता को बढ़ाने के लए अपा हज को लाया जाता है, ता क उनका वसाय बढ़ सके ।
8. (b) द ली
Explanation: रघुवीर सहाय क मृ यु 30 दस बर, 1990 को द ली म ई थी।
9. (b) संवेदनशील
Explanation: टे ली वजन पर कसी क पीड़ा को दखाने वाले को संवेदनशील होना चा हए। परंतु अपने कारोबार को बढ़ाने के लए वे
संवेदनहीन और ू र हो जाते ह। उ ह उस को ला कर दशक को अपनी ओर आक षत करना होता है।
10. (a) सा ा कारकता/ म डयाकम
Explanation: क वता म सा ा कारकता के लए हम समथ श मान का योग कया गया है।
11. (a) कहानीपन और नाटक य वैभव
Explanation: रघुवीर सहाय ने ह द क वता को कहानीपन और नाटक य वैभव दया है।
12. (c) ं य
Explanation: क वता के अनुसार सा ा कारकता के मु कान म एक ं य छपा आ है, जो उस अपा हज के त होता है।
13. (d) दशन क व तु
Explanation: क वता के अनुसार रदशन पर अपा हज मा एक दशन क व तु है, जससे के वल कारोबार हो सकता है। वहाँ उसके लए
कोई सहानुभू त नह है।
14. (a) मुसकाता चाँद
Explanation: मु बोध ने अपनी क वता म खलते ए चेहरे क तुलना मुसकाते चाँद से क है। क व कहता है क जस कार चाँद रात भर धरती
पर मुसकाता है, उसी कार तु हारा खलता आ चेहरा है।
15. (b) नयी क वता
Explanation: मु बोध नयी क वता आंदोलन के अगुआ क व थे। छायावाद और व छं दतावाद के बाद नयी क वता का आगमन आ था।
16. (d) चार ओर से घरा आ
Explanation: क वता म यु प रवे त श द का अथ है - चार ओर से घरा आ
17. (a) य से वमु होने का
Explanation: 'सहष वीकारा है' क वता म क व मु बोध अपनी य से वमु होने का दं ड मांग रहा है।
18. (d) धुएं के बादल म
Explanation: 'सहष वीकारा है' क वता म क व ने अपने लए दं ड क मांग क है, जसमे वह धुएं के बादल म लापता हो जाना चाहता है।
19. (a) खुशी खुशी वीकार करना
Explanation: सहष वीकारना का अथ खुशी-खुशी वीकार करना है।
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20. (c) अँधेरे म
Explanation: मु बोध क सबसे लंबी क वता "अँधेरे म" है। यह क वता पहली बार 1964 म का शत ई थी।
21. (a) ेय सी के खले ए चहरे को
Explanation: क व अपने ेय सी के खले ए चेहरे को हमेशा के लए भूलना चाहता है ता क उसके जीवन से कु छ ख कम हो सके ।
22. (a) जा त और अपलक
Explanation: मु बोध के अनुसार संवेदना जा त और अपलक होनी चा हए। ऐसा उ ह ने अपनी क वता 'सहष वीकारा है' के मा यम से कहा
है।
23. (b) गुफा
Explanation: क वता म यु गुहा श द का अथ गुफा है। क वता म क व पाताल के अँधेरे गुफा म लापता होना चाहता है।
24. (a) मु बोध
Explanation: 'एक सा ह यक क डायरी' मु बोध क रचना है। ये आलोचना वधा क रचना है।
25. (b) नेह क नरंतरता
Explanation: रमणीय उजेला का अथ नेह क नरंतरता है।
26. (a) अमाव या
Explanation: क वता म क व अमाव या के अंधकार म नहाने क बात कर रहा है । वो उस अंधकार म डू ब जाना चाहता है।
27. (c) पटना
Explanation: फणी र नाथ रेणु क मृ यु 11 अ ैल, 1977 को बहार के पटना म ई थी।
28. (a) राजा साहब ने लु न से
Explanation: फणी र नाथ रेणु क कहानी 'पहलवान क ढोलक' म यह कथन लु न ने चांद सह को दं गल म हराने के बाद, राजा साहब ने लु न
से कहा था।
29. (d) चाँद सह
Explanation: मेले क कु ती म चाँद सह का परा म दे खते ए यामनगर के महाराज ने चाँद सह को अपने दरबार म थान दे ने का नणय लया
था।
30. (d) मत डरना
Explanation: कहानी म उपरो धुन का अथ मत डरना है। इस धुन का योग लु न को डर से बचाने के लए कया गया है।
31. (a) लु न पहलवान का
Explanation: फणी र नाथ रेणु क कहानी पहलवान क ढोलक म यह कथन लु न पहलवान का है जो ल हन से कहा गया था।
32. (b) चाँद सह
Explanation: पाठ के अनुसार 'शेर के ब चे' क उपा ध चाँद सह को मली थी। उसने कु ती म सारे पहलवान को हराकर ये उप ध ा त क थी।
33. (b) पूरी व था का पलट जाना
Explanation: कहानी के अनुसार पुराने राजा क जगह नए राजकु मार का आना पूरी व था के बदल जाने का तीक है। यह कोई सामा य स ा
प रवतन नह है।
34. (c) द घतपा
Explanation: द घतपा रेणु का एक उप यास है, जसमे इ ह ने म हला के उ पीड़न को च त करके उजागर कया है।
35. (a) आ म व ास दे क र
Explanation: कहानी म महामारी के समय पहलवान क ढोलक ने मरते ए लोग को आ म व ास दया, उ ह ढाढ़स बँधाया। इससे तड़पकर
मरने वाले भी एक सुकू न के साथ मरे।
36. (b) वनतुलसी क गंध
Explanation: वनतुलसी क गंध फणी रनाथ रेणु का सं मरण है, जो 1984 म का शत आ था।
37. (c) गरीबी के कारण
Explanation: कहानी के अनुसार जन गरीब कसान के पास खाने के लए दो व क रोट न हो, वे कस आहार के आधार पर कु ती करगे।
गरीबी के कारण कसान के ब चे कु ती नह कर सकते थे।
38. (b) द घतपा
Explanation: फणी र नाथ रेणु जी का द घतपा कहानी सं ह नह है।
39. (b) ढोल
Explanation: पहलवान ने अपना गु ढोल को ही बनाया था।
40. (c) नौ वष
Explanation: लु न पहलवान जब नौ वष का था, तब उसके माता - पता का वगवास हो गया था।
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Solution
Class 12 - Mathematics
Mathematics
1. (b) R
Explanation: Since x = 1, and x = 2 satisfy the numerator of the given rational function, therefore the
factors in the denominator are cancelled with the corresponding factors in the numerator. Hence the
function is defined at every real number and therefore is continuous at every point.
2. (d) f (x) is not derivable at x = 1.
Explanation: Here, f (x) = |x − 1| x ∈ R. So f (x) is not derivable when x - 1 = 0 i.e. at x = 1
3. (a) − 2
2
1+x
2
1−x
Explanation: y = sin
−1
(
2
)
1+x
Put, x = tan θ ⇒ θ = tan

−1
x
2
−1 1−tan θ
y = sin ( 2
)
1+tan θ
y = sin-1(cos 2θ )
−1 π
y = sin [sin( − 2θ)]
2
π
y = − 2θ
2
π −1
y = − 2 tan x
2
dy 2
= − 2
dx 1+x
4. (c) 1 - y2
x −x x −x x −x x −x x −x 2 x −x 2
x −x
dy d e −e (e +e )(e +e )−(e −e )(e −e ) (e +e ) (e −e )
Explanation: = ( x −x
)= 2
= 2
− 2
= 1− y
2
dx dx e +e x −x x −x x −x
(e +e ) (e +e ) (e +e )
5. (c) does not exist

1 −−−− −
Explanation: Put, u = sec
−1
( 2
) and v = √1 + 3x
2 x +1
dv 1
⇒ = × 3
dx 2 √1+3x
−1 dv
But at x = does not exist
3 dx
1
Hence, derivative of sec −1 ( 2
)
2 x +1
−−−− −
with respect to √1 + 3x does not exist.
3
6. (d) 4t
Explanation: We have, x = 2
t ,y = t
3
dx dy
2
∴ = 2t and = 3t
dt dt
dy dy/dt 2
3t 3
∴ = = = t
dx dx/dt 2t 2
On further differentiating w.r.t. x, we get

2
d y 3 d dt
2
= ⋅ t⋅
dx 2 dt dx
3 1 dt 1
= ⋅ [∵ = ]
2 2t dx 2t
3
=
4t
7. (d) None of these

d x
Explanation: f ′ (x) = dx
(|x|) = which does not exist at x = 0 .
,
|x|
8. (d) (−∞, ∞)
Explanation: We have f(x) = x|x|
Where
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2
⎧ −x , x < 0
⎪
f (x) = ⎨ 0, x = 0
⎩
⎪ 2
x , x > 0
We have –x2 and x2 which

being polynomial functions are continuous and differentiable.
The only possible point of non-differentiability can be x =0.
LHD at x =0,
f (x)−f (0) f (0−h)−f (0)
lim = lim
− x−0 0−h−0
x→0 h→0
2
(0−h ) −(0)
= lim = 0
−h
h→0
RHD at x =0,
f (x)−f (0) f (0+h)−f (0)
lim = lim
+ x−0 0+h−0
x→0 h→0
2
(0+h ) −(0)
= lim = 0
h
h→0
∵ LHD = RHD = f(0)

∴ f(x) is differentiable at x =0.
2
sin (a+y)
9. (b) sin a
sin y
Explanation: x sin(a + y) = sin y ⇒ x =
sin(a+y)
sin(a+y) cos y−sin y cos(a+y)

dx
⇒ = 2
dy sin (a+y)
sin(a+y−y)
sina
= 2
= 2
sin (a+y) sin (a+y)
2
dy sin (a+y)
⇒ =
dx sin a
10. (a) – tan t

dy
2
dy 3asin t cos t
Explanation:
dt
= dx
= 2
= − tan t
dx 3acos t(− sin t)
dt
cos x
11. (a) 2y−1
Explanation: ∵ y = (sin x + y)
1/2
dy 1 d
−1/2
∴ = (sin x + y) ⋅ (sin x + y)
dx 2 dx
dy dy
1 1
⇒ = ⋅ ⋅ (cos x + )
dx 2 12 dx
(sin x+y)
dy dy
1 1/2
⇒ = (cos x + ) [∵ (sin x + y) = y]
dx 2y dx
dy cos x
1
⇒ (1 − ) =
dx 2y 2y
dy cos x 2y cos x
∴ = ⋅ =
dx 2y 2y−1 2y−1
2
d y
12. (d) x 2
= y1
dx
Explanation: y = a + bx2
dy
= 2bx
dx
2
d y
2
= 2b
dx
2
d y 1 dy
⇒ 2
=
dx x dx
2
d y dy
⇒ x 2
=
dx dx
13. (a) either positive or zero

Explanation: If f is strictly increasing function , then f ‘ (x) can be 0 also. For example, f(x) = x3 is strictly
increasing, but its derivative is 0 at x = 0. As another example, take f(x) = x + cosx; here f ‘(x) = 1 – sinx,
which is either +ve or 0 and the function x + cos x is strictly increasing.
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14. (c) xy1 + 2
Explanation: y = (sin-1 x)2
−1 1
y1 = 2 sin ×
√1−x2
−−−− −
2
⇒ √1 − x y1 = 2 sin-1 x
Again differentiating w.r.t. to x we get
−−−− − x 2
√1 − x2 y2 − y1 =
√1−x2 √1−x2
⇒ (1 - x2) y2 = xy1 + 2
15. (c) f’(1–) = –1

− log e x, 0 < x < 1
Explanation: Given that f (x) = { }
log e x, x ≥ 1
Differentiability at x =1,
LHD at x =1,
f (x)−f (1) f (1−h)−f (1)
lim = lim
− x−1 1−h−1
x→1 h→0
log 1−h
= lim = −1
−h
h→0
RHD at x =1,
f (x)−f (1) f (1+h)−f (1)
lim = lim
+ x−1 1+h−1
x→1 h→0
log(1+h)
= lim = 1
h
h→0
So, f’(1+) = 1 and f’(1–) = –1

b sin x
16. (c) y2 =
2
(a+b cos x)
b sin x
Explanation: y2 = 2
(a+b cos x)
2 a−b
Hint: Take A =
2
, and B =
√a2 −b a+b

17. (c) 1
−1
sin x
Explanation: f (x) =
√1−x2
−−−− −
⇒ √1 − x
2
f(x) = sin-1x
Differentiating both sides we get,
−−−− − x 1
√1 − x2 f ′ (x) − f (x) =
√1−x2 √1−x2
⇒ (1 - x2) f'(x) - x f(x) = 1
18. (c) -m2y

Explanation: y = a sin mx + b cos mx ⇒ y1 = am cos mx − bm sin mx
2 2
⇒ y2 = −a m sin mx − bm cos mx
2 2
⇒ y2 = − m (a sin mx + b cos mx) = − m y
19. (c) -1/2

cos x
Explanation: y = tan
−1
(
1+sin x
)
2 x 2 x
cos −sin
−1 2 2
y = tan ( )
2
x x
(cos +sin )
2 2
x x x x
(cos +sin )(cos −sin )
2 2 2 2
−1
y = tan ( 2
)
x x
(cos +sin )
2 2
x x
cos −sin
−1 2 2
y = tan ( x x )
cos +sin
2 2
3/8
x
1−tan
−1 2
y = tan ( x
)
1+tan
2
π x
y = −
4 2
dy 1
= −
dx 2
20. (b) f(x) is continuous for all x in its domain but differentiable at x = ± 1
Explanation: Given that the f(x) = |log|x|| where
⎧ −x, −∞ < x < −1
⎪ ⎫
⎪
⎪
⎪ ⎪
⎪
−x, −1 < x < 0
|x| = ⎨ ⎬
⎪ x, 0 < x < 1 ⎪
⎪
⎩ ⎪
⎭
⎪ ⎪
x, 1 < x < ∞
⎧ log(−x), −∞ < x < −1

⎪ ⎫
⎪
⎪
⎪ ⎪
⎪
⎪ ⎪
log(−x), −1 < x < 0
log |x| = ⎨ ⎬
⎪ log x, 0 < x < 1 ⎪
⎪
⎪ ⎪
⎪
⎩
⎪ ⎭
⎪
log x, 1 < x < ∞
⎧ log(−x), −∞ < x < −1 ⎫

⎪
⎪ ⎪
⎪
⎪
⎪ ⎪
⎪
− log(−x), −1 < x < 0
| log |x|| = ⎨ ⎬
⎪ − log x, 0 < x < 1 ⎪
⎪
⎪ ⎪
⎪
⎩
⎪ ⎭
⎪
log x, 1 < x < ∞
We can see that function is continuous for all x. Now, checking the points of non differentiability.
LHD at x =1,
f (x)−f (1) f (1−h)−f (1)
lim = lim
− x−1 1−h−1
x→1 h→0
log(1−h)−log 1
= lim = −1
−h
h→0
RHD at x =1,
f (x)−f (1) f (1+h)−f (1)
lim = lim
+ x−1 1+h−1
x→1 h→0
log(1+h)−log 1
= lim = 1
h
h→0
∵ LHD ≠ RHD
So, function is not differentiable at x =1.

LHD at x =-1,
f (x)−f (−1) f (−1−h)−f (−1)
lim = lim
− x−(−1) −1−h−(−1)
x→−1 h→0
log(−1−h)−log(−1)
= lim = −1
−h
h→0
RHD at x =-1,
f (x)−f (−1) f (−1+h)−f (−1)
lim = lim
+ x−1 (−1)+h−(−1)
x→−1 h→0
log(−1+h)−log(−1)
= lim = 1
h
h→0
∵ LHD ≠ RHD
So, function is not differentiable at x =-1.

At x =0 function is not defined.
∴ Function is not differential at x = 0 and ±1.
21. (c) λ > 1/2

Explanation: λ > 1/2
22. (a) point of inflexion at x = 0

Explanation: Given f(x) = x3
f'(x) = 3x2
For point of inflexion, we have f'(x) = 0
′ 2
f (x) = 0 ⇒ 3x = 0 ⇒ x = 0
4/8
Hence, f(x) has a point of inflexion at x = 0.
But x = 0 is not a local extremum as we cannot find an interval I around x = 0 such that
f (0) ≥ f (x) or f (0) ≤ f (x) f or all xϵI
23. (a) (6, 36)

Explanation: y = 12x - x2
Slope of the tangent = 0
dy
= 0
dx
12 - 2x = 0
⇒ x = 6
y = 12x - x2
⇒ y = 36
Point on curve is (6, 36)

24. (c) -16/3 unit/sec
Explanation: s = t
3
− 4t
2
+ 5
ds 2
v = = 3t − 8t
dt
2
d s
a = 2
= 6t − 8
dt
Given that a = 0
4
6t − 8 = 0 ⇒ t =
3
4
velocity at t = 3
2 −16
4 4
⇒ v = 3( ) − 8( ) =
3 3 3
25. (b) 6ft/sec

Explanation:
15 u+v
=
6 u
15 v
⇒ = + 1
6 u
v 3
⇒ =
u 2
2v
⇒ u =
3
du 2 dv
⇒ =
dt 3 dt
du 2
⇒ = × 9 = 6f t/sec
dt 3
26. (b) -∞ ,∞
Explanation: (−∞, ∞)
−1
f (x) = cot x+ x
′ −1
f (x) = 2
+ 1
1+x
2
−1+1+x
= 2
1+x
2
x
= 2
≥ 0, ∀x ∈ R
1+x
So, f (x) is increasing on (−∞, ∞)
5/8
27. (c) a2 − 3b + 15 < 0
Explanation: a2 − 3b + 15 < 0
28. (c) 2.16π m2

Explanation: Given, radius of the sphere is 9 m
Error in the measurement of radius = Δr = 0.03 m
We have Surface area of a sphere = S = 4πr2
dS
Now, dS =( ) △r = 8πr△r = 8π.9 × 0.03 = 2.16π m
2
dr
29. (d) |x| ≥ 3

Explanation: |x| ≥ 3
30. (a) a = 1, b = – 2, c = 1
Explanation: y = a x3 + bx
2
+ cx
dy
2
⇒ = 3a x + 2bx + c.
dx
At ( 0 , 0) , slope of tangent =tan 45∘ = 1.⇒ c = 1. At ( 1 ,0 ) , slope of tangent = 0.⇒3a+2b+c=0. From this,we
get ,3a+2b=-1........(1)
Also, when x = 1 , y = 0 , therefore , a + b + c = 0 . From this,we get, a+b=-1.......(2)
From(1) and (2),we get,
a=1 ,b= -2 and c =1
31. (a) one maxima and one minima
Explanation:
We have, f(x) = 2x3 - 3x2 - 12x + 4
f'(x) = 6x2 - 6x - 12
f'(x) = 0
⇒ 6(x2 - x - 2) = 0
⇒ 6(x + 1) (x - 2) = 0
⇒ x = -1 and x = 2
The sign scheme of f'(x) is a shown in the following figure
From the figure, s = -1 is point of local maxima and x = 2 is point of local minima.
So, f(x) has one maxima and one minima.
32. (c) a > 1
Explanation: a > 1
33. (c) x + y = 0
dy
Explanation: Since , = cos x, therefore , slope of tangent at ( 0 , 0 ) = cos 0 = 1
dx
and hence slope of normal at ( 0 , 0 ) is - 1 .

Equation of normal at (0,0) is,
y - 0 = slope of normal × ( x - 0)
y = -1(x)
x+y=0
34. (c) -39
Explanation: Given function,
f(x) = 3x4 - 8x3 - 48x + 25
F'(x) = 12x3 - 24x2 - 48 = 0
F'(x) = 12(x3 - 2x2 - 4) = 0
Differentiating again, we obtain
F''(x) = 3x2 - 4x = 0
x(3x - 4) = 0
4
x = 0 or x = 3
6/8
Putting the value in equation, we obtain
f(x) = -39
cos x
35. (c)
(2y−1)
Explanation: Given:
−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−− −
−−−−−−− −
−−−−
−−−
−−
⇒ y = √sin x + √sin x + √sin x+
We can write it as
−− −− −−−
⇒ y = √sin x + y
Squaring we get
⇒ y2 = sin x + y
Differentiating with respect to x,we get
dy dy
⇒ 2y = cos x +
dx dx
dy cos x
⇒ =
dx (2y−1)
36. (d) a2
Explanation: Given,F(x) is continuous at x = 0.
2
sin ax
⇒ f (x) = lim x→0 2
x
2 2
sin ax a
⇒ f (x) = lim x→0 2
× 2
x a
2
sin ax 2
⇒ f (x) = lim x→0 ( ) × a
ax
⇒ f(x) = a2
∴ k = a2
37. (d) (-1, 1)
x
Explanation: We have,⇒ f (x) = 2
x +1
2 2
′ x −2 x +1
⇒ f (x) = 2
x +1
2
′ x −1
⇒ f (x) = − 2
x +1
⇒ for critical points f'(x) = 0

when f'(x) = 0
We get x = 1 or x = -1
When we plot them on number line as f'(x) is multiplied by -ve sign we get
For x > 1 function is decreasing
For x < -1 function is decreasing
But between -1 to 1 function is increasing
∴ Function is increasing in ( -1, 1)
1
38. (b) 2
Explanation: Given that y = tan-1 (sec x + tan x)

1+sin x
Hence, y = tan
−1
(
cos x
)
x x x x
Using cos x = cos
2
− sin
2
, sin x = 2 sin cos and cos2 θ + sin 2 θ = 1
2 2 2 2
x 2
x
2 x 2 x x x ⎛ (cos 2 + sin ) ⎞
cos +sin +2 sin cos 2
Hence, y −1 −1
2 2 2 2
= tan ( x 2 x
) = tan ⎜ ⎟
2 x x x x
cos −sin
2 2 (cos −sin )(cos +sin )
⎝ 2 2 2 2 ⎠
x
x
cos 2 + sin
−1 2
⇒ y = tan ( x x )
cos −sin
2 2
x
Dividing by cos 2 in numerator and denominator, we obtain
x
1+tan
−1 2
y = tan x
1−tan
2
π 1+tan x
Using tan( 4 + x) =
1−tan x
, we obtain
−1 π x π x
y = tan tan( + ) = +
4 2 4 2
7/8
Differentiating with respect to x, we
dy 1
=
dx 2
39. (c) tan θ

Explanation: x = a(cos θ + θ sin θ) ,we get
dx
∴ = a(− sin θ + sin θ + θ cos θ)
dθ
dθ 1
⇒ =
dx aθ cos θ
y = a(sin θ − θ cos θ) ,we get

dy
∴ = a(cos θ − (cos θ + θ(− sin θ))
dθ
dy
⇒ = acos θ − acos θ + θ asin θ
dθ
dy
⇒ = aθ sin θ
dθ
dy dy dθ
⇒ = ×
dx dθ dx
dy 1
⇒ = aθ sin θ ×
dx aθ cos θ
dy
⇒ = tan θ
dx
40. (a) 2
Explanation: Given xy = 1. To find minimum value of x + y
1
⇒ y= x
1
f(x) = x + x
1
⇒ f'(x) = 1 - 2
x
To find local maxima or minima we have

f'(x) = 0
1
1- 2
=0
x
⇒ x = ± 1 ⇒ y =± 1
But given that x > 0 ⇒ x = 1, y = 1
2
f"(x) = 3
x
f"(1)= 2 > 0
function has minima at x = 1
f(1) = 2.
8/8
Solution
Class 12 - Physics
Physics
1. (d) Charge
Explanation: Charge
2. (d) 5 mV/m
Explanation: The total resistance is the sum of the resistance of the potentiometer and the external
resistance.
R = Rpot + Rext = 5 + 995 = 1000 ohms
E 10
The current through the potentiometer wire I =
R
=
1000
= 0.01A
The potential drop across the potentiometer wire is

V = I × Rpot
⇒ V = 0.01 × 5
V = 0.05V
The potential gradient = (potential drop across the potentiometer wire) / (length of the potentiometer wire)
0.05
=
10
−3
= 5 × 10 V /m
= 5 mV/m
3. (d) 10%
Explanation: Power, P = I2R
2
P2 I2
⇒ = [ ]
P1 I1
2
P2 0.95×0.95I
⇒ = [ 2
] = 0.9025
P1 I
P2
∴ Decrease in power = (1 − ) × 100
P1
Power decrease ≈ 10%

4. (d) Drift velocity alone.
Explanation: As I = Anevd’ So current I ∝ vd
Although I also depend on n, the number of free electrons which increases on increasing temperature
which makes more collision between electrons increases the resistance or decrease the current and we
obtain a large amount of current even drift velocity is small because electron no. Density is very large.
5. (b) basically a long piece of uniform wire
Explanation: Potentiometer is a long wire of uniform cross section made of manganin.It is actually a wire
with high resistivity (ρ) with uniform cross-sectional area A. Thus, throughout the wire, it has uniform
resistance.
6. (d) Increase in the rate of collisions between the carriers and vibrating atoms of the conductor
Explanation: When temperature increases, the thermal speed of the electrons increases as well as, the
amplitude of vibration of the positive ions inside the metal conductor also increase, about their mean
positions. Thus, the collisions between the electrons and the positive metal ions become more frequent and
this decreases the relaxation time, t, leading to an increase in the resistivity of the conductor.
7. (d) the magnitude of the drift velocity per unit electric field
Explanation: Mobility is defined as the drift velocity acquired by the charge per unit electric field strength.
Faster the particle moves in a given electric field, strength greater is the mobility.
vd
μ =
E
8. (d) Not change

Explanation: Let initially arrangement is as follow,
1/6
For this balanced condition is given as
R1 R2
= ..........(i)
R4 R3
If position of cell and galvanometer are interchanged, i.e cell across B and D and galvanometer between A
and C then balanced condition is given by
R2 R3
= ........(ii)
R1 R4
Rearranging equation (ii)

R2 R1
=
R3 R4
Hence balance point remains same.

9. (c) Potential gradient does not change
V
Explanation: Potential gradient =
I
If internal resistance of a battery is negligible then it does not affect equivalent resistance of potentiometer
so potential gradient of potentiometer remains unchanged.
10. (d) copper decreases and that of germanium increases
Explanation: Copper is a conductor and we know that for conductors, resistance is directly proportional to
temperature. Therefore on decreasing temperature resistance also decreases.
Whereas, germanium is a semiconductor and for semiconductors, resistance is inversely proportional to
temperature. So on decreasing temperature resistance increases.
11. (a) A potentiometer
Explanation: A potentiometer
12. (b) m = 12, n = 2
Explanation: m = 12, n = 2
13. (d) 75 cm
Explanation: If the battery has e.m.f E, resistance of the potentiometer is R and the internal resistance of
the battery is r, then the current I flowing in the potentiometer wire is given by,
E
I =
(R+r)
2
I =
(4+1)
I = 0.4 A
The potential difference V across the potentiometer
V = I × R
⇒ V = 0.4 × 4
V = 1.6V
The potential gradient = ( potential drop across the potentiometer)/ length of the potentiometer wire)
V
=
l
1.6
=
1
⇒ Potential gradient = 1.6V/m

The emf of the cell
E1 = (P otential gradient × Balancing length)
E1 1.2
⇒ L = =
Potential gradient 1.6
L = 0.75 m
or L = 75 cm
14. (b) The algebraic sum of changes in potential around any closed loop must be zero.
Explanation: Kirchhoff’s loop rule is based on the principle of conservation of energy. Since work done in
2/6
transporting a charge in a closed loop is zero. The algebraic sum ( since potential differences can be both
positive and negative) of potential differences around any closed loop is always zero.
15. (a) along with a very slow net motion in the opposite direction of the field
Explanation: The electrons in a conductor have random velocities and when an electric field is applied,
they suffer repeated collisions and in the process move with a small average velocity, opposite to the
direction of the field. This is equivalent to positive charge flowing in the direction of the field.
16. (a) the electron velocity will decrease in magnitude
Explanation: The force experienced by an electron in a combined action of magnetic and electric fields is
⃗ ⃗ ⃗
F = −e ( v ⃗ × B + E ) .
Since the electron moves in the same direction of the magnetic field, it experiences no force due to the
magnetic field.
⃗
−e ( v ⃗ × B) = 0 .
The electron is not deflected from its straight line path. The total force on the electron, F ⃗ = ⃗
−e ( E ) .
It experiences a force opposite to the direction of the electric field and to its direction of motion. The
electron suffers retardation and its velocity decreases.
17. (c) π1
Explanation: I = 1 A
L = 2 = 2 πr ⇒ r = 1
π
1
Now, M = I × A = I × πr
2
= π
18. (c) 250 μ T

Explanation: The magnetic field at the centre of a coil of radius R and number of turns N , carrying a
current I is
μ NI
0
B0 =
2R
At a point distance x from the coil, the field is

2
μ NI R
0
Bx = 3
2 2
2(R +x ) 2
3 3
2 2 2 2
B0 (R +x ) 2 (3 +4 ) 2 3
5
= 3
= 3
= ( )
Bx R 3 3
3
5
B0 = ( ) × 54μT = 250μT
3
19. (c) I
=
1
I0 11
Explanation:
Io ×2.5 25 1
I = = Io × = × Io
(25+2.5) 275 11
I 1
⇒ =
I0 11
Ro
20. (c)
n−1
Explanation: If the shunt resistance be S, then I R0 = (nI − I ) S

R0
Therefore, S =
n−1
21. (a) 0.8

μ NI
Explanation: We know that, B =
0
2r
3/6
If the number of turns is doubled the radius is halved. Therefore,
μ0 (2N)I
′
B = = 4B = 4 × 0.2 = 0.8T
2(r/2)
22. (d) 150

V
Explanation: R = Ig
− G
V = 2.5 V ; G = 100 Ohm ; Ig = 0.01 A
On solving we get,
R = 150 Ohm
μ
23. (d)
0
2π
Explanation:
B#t = BQ − BP
μ
0 .2
= (iQ − iP )
4π r
μ μ
0 2 0
= × (5 − 2.5) =
4π 2.5 2π
G
24. (d) 49
Explanation: If Ig is the current through the galvanometer of resistance G and I is the total current
through it, Ig G = (I − Ig ) S ,
Ig
where S is the shunt resistance S = G .
I−Ig
2
Since Ig =
100
I = 0.02I
Ig
0.02I 2 G
∴ S= G = G = G =
I−Ig I−0.02I 98 49
25. (d) path will change

Explanation: As magnetic force always act perpendicular to the direction of motion, so path or direction
will change without any change in speed.
26. (d) ampere metre
Explanation: ampere metre
27. (c) 4B
Explanation: The radii of the coils in two cases are R1 and R2.
R1
Then, L = 2πR1 = 2 × 2πR2 ⇒ R2 =
2
μ I μ nI μ 2I μ I
and B ′
0 0 0 0
∴ B = = = R1
= 4 = 4B
2R1 2R2 2R1
2( )
2
28. (d) The needles become tangential to the ring

Explanation: The current carrying wire has a magnetic field around it and the lines of force are in the
form of concentric circles with their centers on the wire. Magnetic force acts along the tangent to the circle
i.e. along the direction of magnetic field.
29. (d) n2 B
Explanation: If the length of the wire is L and the radii of the coils in two cases be R1 and R2. Then,
R1
L = 2πR1 = n × 2πR2 ⇒ R2 =
n
μ I
Now B =
0
2R1
μ nI μ nI μ I
and B ′ 2 2
0 0 0
= = R
= n = n B
2R2 1 2R1
2( )
n
6
30. (a) 1.9 × 10 m/s
2
mv
Explanation: Bqv =
r
4/6
2E
Bqv =
r
−19
2E 2×10×1.6×10
v = =
rBq −4 −19
0.105×10 ×1.6×10
6
= 1.9 × 10 m/s
31. (a) twice the field due to each wire alone

Explanation: When two wires carry currents in the opposite direction, the magnetic field lines at any
point midway between them have the same direction. The magnitudes of the fields add up. If the current in
the wires are the same, the magnetic field at the midpoint will have twice the magnitude of the field
produced by each wire.
32. (c) 2 : 1
Explanation: A solenoid is equivalent to a bar magnet.
For points at distances greater than the length of the solenoid, the field along the axis of the solenoid is
μ
2m
and along the perpendicular bisector or equatorial line is
0
Baxial = 3
4π x
μ
0 m
Bequatorial =
4π x3
Baxial 2
Therefore, B =
1
eq uatorial
−17
33. (d) 10 μ0
q
Explanation: I = t = q× frequency
Now, q = 100e = 1.6 × 10−17 C
So, I = 1.6 × 10−17 × 1 = 1.6 × 10−17 A
Given: r = 0.8 m
μ I
Thus, B =
0
2r
−17
= 10 μ0
34. (b) (n - 1)R0

Explanation: For a range V, the current flowing is I, and V = IR0
If a resistance R is connected in series, the range of the voltmeter increases to nV.
V
nV = I (R0 + R) = (R0 + R)
R0
nR0 = R0 + R
R = (n - 1)R0
35. (c) 0.015 Ω

Explanation: The value of each division is 20μA. The range of the galvanometer Ig = 20 × 30 = 600μA
To convert it into an ammeter of range I = 1A, a shunt S is connected in parallel to it.

Ig −6
600×10
S = G = −6
× 25 = 0.015Ω
I−Ig 1−600×10
36. (a) 1:9

Explanation: If the wire has length L, when it is coiled into a coil of 1 turn of radius r, L = 2πr
When it is coiled into a coil of 3 turns of radius r’, L = 3 × 2πr′

′ ′
2πr = 3 × 2πr ; r = 3r
μ I
The magnetic field in the first case, B =
0
2πr
5/6
μ nI 3μ I μ I
and in the second case, B′
0 0 0
= ′
= r = 9
2πr 2π 2πr
3
B 1
So, ′
=
9
B
37. (b) ni A
Explanation: The magnetic moment associated with a coil carrying current is given by the product of its
area and the current through it.
M = niA
38. (c) 1.25 × 10−5 T
μ I −7
4π×10 ×1
Explanation: B =
0
=
2r 0.1
−6
= 12.56 × 10
−5
= 1.25 × 10 T
39. (a) 10−6

Explanation: The ratio of the forces is equal to
μ 2
Fm 0 v
= ×
Fe 4π 1/4πε 0
−7
10 10 −6
= 9
× 9 × 10 = 10
9×10
40. (a) trajectory is an inward winding spiral

Explanation: When the electron is shot into a magnetic field it describes a circular path due to magnetic
2
mv Ber
Lorentz force. Bev =
r
;v =
m
;v ∝ r
When the electron passes into a liquid, its velocity reduces progressively due to the frictional forces
experienced in the liquid. As the velocity decreases, the radius also decreases and the path of the electron
deviates from being circular and becomes an inward spiral, The kinetic energy of the electron also
Be
decreases. The revolution frequency ν =
2πm
remains constant as it is independent of the velocity of the
particle.
6/6
Solution
Class 12 - Chemistry
Chemistry
1. (c) N2O3
Explanation: N2O3, which has a deep blue colour N2O3+H2O→HNO3+HNO2
2HNO2 → N2O3 + H2O
Here, HNO2 decolorizes KMnO4 and HNO3 oxidizes KI to I2.
2. (b) SbH3
Explanation: As the bond dissociation energy decreases reducing nature increases. Therefore, SbH3 will
act as the strongest reducing agent due to minimum bond enthalpy.
3. (d) HF
Explanation: As the size of the halogen atom increases the bond length between halogen and hydrogen
decreases. Hence, bond dissociation enthalpy increase. Therefore, HF has the highest bond dissociation
enthalpy.
4. (d) N2 in both cases
Explanation: (NH4)2Cr2O7 ⟶ N2 + Cr2O3 + 4H2O
Ba(N3)2 ⟶ 3N2 + Ba
N2 is form both the cases
5. (c) – 3 to +3
Explanation: MnO2 + 4HCl ⟶ MnCl2 + 2H2O + Cl (greenish yellow gas)
When excess Cl2 reacts with NH3 the products are NCl3 and HCl
NH3 + 3Cl2 ⟶ NCl3 + 3HCl
Oxidation state change from -3 to +3.
6. (d) Single N–N bond is stronger than the single P–P bond.
Explanation: Nitrogen forms pπ - pπ multiple bonds and the bond strength is very high single N - N bond
is weaker than the single P - P bond due to the smaller size of N as compared to P.
7. (d) 12
Explanation: 2KClO3 → 2KCl + 3O2
2mol of KClO3 gives 3 mol of O3.
8 × 3
So 8 mol of potassium chlorate will yield = 2
= 12 mol of O2.
8. (a) both O2 and Xe have almost same ionisation enthalpy.

Explanation: Bartlett had taken O2 Pt as a base compound because O2 and Xe both have almost same
ionization enthalpy i.e O2 (1175KJmol-1) and Xe(1170KJmol-1). The ionization enthalpies of noble gases are
the highest in their respective periods due to their stable electronic configurations.
9. (b) HI gets oxidized to I2
Explanation: HI formed during the reaction is oxidized to I2 which is violet in colour.
2NaCl + H2SO4 ⟶ Na2SO4 + 2HCl
In the case of iodine, the halogen acid obtained (HI) is oxidized to free iodine and HI reduce H2SO4 to SO2.
H2 S O 4
2NaI + H2SO4 ⟶ Na2SO4 + 2HI −−−−→ 2H2O + SO2 + I2
10. (c) Nitrogen

Explanation: Nitrogen does not show allotropy due to its weak N-N single bond.
Therefore, the ability of the nitrogen to form a polymeric structure or more than the one structure
becomes less. Hence, nitrogen does not show allotropy.
1/4
11. (a) H2O
Explanation: The stability of hydrides decreases down the group so the most stable is H2O. The thermal
stability decreases as the atomic mass increases. Water dissociates at 20000C while tellurium hydride, H2Te
decomposes at room temperature. This is due to an increase in the bond length of M-H (M- O, S, Se, Te).
Thus the thermal stability decreases as the atomic size increases. As with the increase in atomic size, the
bond length also increases which decreases the thermal stability.
12. (d) NH4Cl and NaNO2
Explanation: Nitrogen gas can be prepared in the laboratory by heating a mixture of ammonium chloride
and sodium nitrite in a test tube over a Bunsen burner.
NH4Cl+ NaNO2 →heat N2 + 2H2O + NaCl
13. (d) Mercury

Explanation: Ozone is detected by using Hg.
When ozone is passed through mercury, it loses its meniscus and sticks to the glass due to the formation of
the mercurous oxide. This is called the tailing of mercury.
2Hg(s) + O3 (g) → Hg2O (s)+ O2(g)
14. (a) C
Explanation:
CO2 and SO2 are two gaseous products formed by oxidation Carbon by conc. H2SO4.
− +
15. (a) BrO 2 , BrF 2
Explanation: Isoelectronic pair have same number of electrons therefore,
−
BrO2 = 35 + 2 × 8 + 1 = 52
+
BrF
2
= 35 + 9 × 2 - 1 = 52
16. (a) It is more basic than NH3.
Explanation: P4 + 3N aOH + 3H2 O → P H3 + 3N a H2 P O2
(Phosphine)
Phosphine gas PH3 is less basic than NH3.
17. (b) An acidic oxide and anhydride of HNO2.

Explanation: N2O3 + H2O → 2HNO2
It is also called nitrous anhydride or nitrogen sesquioxide.
18. (a) Linear
Explanation: CN=0.5(V+M-C+A) For XeF2 CN = 5 .So shape will be linear and structure will be trigonal
bipyramidal. Xenon and the two fluorine atoms lie in a straight line while the three equatorial positions
are occupied by three lone pairs of electrons. Hence it has a linear shape.
19. (c) BiH3

Explanation: The reducing character of the hydrides of Group 15 elements increases from NH3 to
BiH3(Bismuthine) because the reducing character depends upon the stability of the hydride. The greater
the instability of hydride, the greater is its reducing character. Since the BiH3 is least stable (because the
size of a central atom is greatest and therefore its tendency to form stable covalent bond with small
2/4
hydrogen atom decreases, as a result, the bond strength decreases) in this series, BiH3 is a strongest
reducing agent.
20. (a) ZnO
Explanation: ZnO is an amphoteric oxide. it reacts with both acid and base. With HCl, it forms zinc
chloride and water and with NaOH, it forms sodium zincate and water.
ZnO(s) + 2HCl(l) → ZnCl2(s) + H2O(l)
ZnO(s) + 2NaOH(l) → Na2ZnO2(s) + H2O
21. (a) Both assertion and reason are CORRECT and reason is the CORRECT explanation of the assertion.
Explanation: Both assertion and reason are CORRECT and reason is the CORRECT explanation of the
assertion.
22. (b) Both assertion and reason are CORRECT but, reason is NOT THE CORRECT explanation of the assertion.
Explanation: Both assertion and reason are CORRECT but, reason is NOT THE CORRECT explanation of the
assertion.
23. (d) Assertion is INCORRECT but, reason is CORRECT.
Explanation: Assertion is INCORRECT but, reason is CORRECT.
24. (c) Assertion is CORRECT but, reason is INCORRECT.
Explanation: Assertion is CORRECT but, reason is INCORRECT.
25. (d) Assertion is INCORRECT but, reason is CORRECT.
Explanation: Assertion is INCORRECT but, reason is CORRECT.
26. (b) [Ar] 3d5

Explanation: Atomic number of Fe is 26 and it's electronic configuration is [Ar] 3d6 4s2. When we remove
3 electrons, it becomes [Ar] 3d5.
27. (d) Cu2+

Explanation: Cu2+ has an electronic configuration of [Ar] 3d9 with the presence of one unpaired electron
which is responsible for paramagnetism with a magnetic moment of 1.8 - 2.2. It shows a blue colour due to
the d-d transition of this unpaired electron in the visible region.
28. (a) Cr2O72-
Explanation: Chromate ion (CrO42-) changes to dichromate ion (Cr2O72- ) on acidification.
2 CrO42- + 2 H+ → Cr2O72- + H2O
29. (a) Dimethylglyoxime

Explanation: Ni2+ forms complex with DMG which is red in colour.
30. (c) f-block

Explanation: In f-block elements with an increase in atomic number, atomic radii decrease smoothly due
to lanthanide contraction.
31. (b) 3d5

Explanation: The greater the number of the unpaired electrons, the higher will be its value of the
magnetic moment. Since 3d5 has 5 unpaired electrons hence highest magnetic moment as compared to
others.
−−−−−−−
μ = √5(5 + 2)
−−
= √35
= 5.95 BM
3/4
32. (a) Fe and Mg
Explanation: Haemoglobin contains Fe and Chlorophyll contains Mg.
33. (c) They are chemically very reactive.
Explanation: Interstitial compounds are chemically inert not reactive.
34. (b) All of these
Explanation: Ammonia forms a stable dark blue coloured complex ion [Cu(NH3)4]2+ with Cu2+ ions by
replacing water molecule ligands.
35. (b) Mn2+

Explanation: For Manganese, +2 is the most stable oxidation state because of d5 configuration.
36. (c) CuF2
Explanation: Cu2+ has 1 unpaired electron in CuF2 molecule, hence it is coloured in solid state.
37. (b) Both assertion and reason areCORRECT but, reason is NOT THE CORRECT explanation of the assertion.
Explanation: Both assertion and reason areCORRECT but, reason is NOT THE CORRECT explanation of the
assertion.
38. (c) Assertion is CORRECT but, reason is INCORRECT.
Explanation: Assertion is CORRECT but, reason is INCORRECT.
assertion.
assertion.
4/4
Solution
Class 12 - Biology
Biology
1. (b) A > B > C > D
Explanation: The correct sequence of events involving gene expression includes the formation of the
primary transcript, regulation of splicing, transport of mRNA from the nucleus to the cytoplasm, and
translation.
2. (d) negative and positive, respectively
Explanation: There is a set of positively charged, basic proteins called histones. The negatively charged
DNA is wrapped around the positively charged histone octamer to form a structure called a nucleosome.
3. (c) Separation of DNA fragments according to their size
Explanation: Gel electrophoresis is used to separate macromolecules like DNA, RNA and proteins. DNA
fragments are separated according to their size. Proteins can be separated according to their size and their
charge (different proteins have different charges).
This is an important tool to study the genome of an individual.
4. (c) Disease-associated sequences and tracing human history
Explanation: Scientists have identified about 1.4 million locations where single base DNA differences
(SNPs) occur in human. This information is helpful in finding chromosomal locations for disease-associated
sequences and human history.
5. (a) All of these
Explanation: There are three types of RNA - mRNA, tRNA, and rRNA. mRNA carries information from DNA
to proteins. tRNA acts as an adapter molecule and carries amino acids during translation. rRNA has
catalytic properties and it is a part of the ribosome while catalyzing the process of translation.
6. (a) WBCs, hair root cells, and body secretion
Explanation: DNA fingerprinting is a method used to identify an individual from a sample of DNA by
looking at unique patterns in their DNA.
DNA is extracted from a biological sample. STR analysis is incredibly sensitive so it only needs a tiny
amount of someone’s DNA to produce an accurate result. As a result, the DNA can be extracted from a
wider range of biological samples, including blood, saliva and hair and body secretion, etc.
7. (d) Cistron
Explanation: In biochemical genetics, the term gene is being replaced by cistron. Cistron is a segment of
DNA consisting of a stretch of deoxyribonucleotides which code for a biochemical controlling another
cistron.
8. (b) pentoses
Explanation: A nucleotide has three components – a nitrogenous base, a pentose sugar (ribose in case of
RNA, and deoxyribose for DNA), and a phosphate group.
9. (b) Forensic science
Explanation:
Satellite DNA consists of very large arrays of tandemly repeating, non-coding DNA. Satellite DNA is
the main component of functional centromeres, and form the main structural constituent of
heterochromatin.
It is a useful tool in forensic science as the density of DNA differs in from each other. It is used to
identify the individuals form the other.
10. (a) t-RNA
Explanation: During transcription of m-RNA, removal of RNA polymerase III from the nucleoplasm will
affect the synthesis of t-RNA. The t-RNA transfers the amino acids to the site of translation to form the
protein.
11. (a) They can act both as activators and as repressors.
Explanation: The RNA polymerase is only capable of catalyzing the process of elongation. It associates
1/4
transiently with initiation-factor (σ) and termination-factor (ρ) to initiate and terminate the transcription,
respectively. The initiation factor and the termination factor are regulatory proteins.
12. (a) The smaller ribosomal sub-unit
Explanation: When the small subunit encounters an mRNA, the process of translation of the mRNA to
protein begins.
13. (b) Diagnose, treat, and prevents thousands of disorder that affect human beings.
Explanation: The Human Genome Project (HGP) is an international thirteen-year project that began on
October 1990. It is important because it uses information from DNA to develop new ways to diagnose, treat,
cure, or even prevent the thousands of diseases that afflict humankind.
14. (c) 5' - A U G A A U G - 3'
Explanation: The base sequence of a coding strand of DNA molecule in a transcription unit and mRNA
molecule is always the same just thymine is replaced by uracil in mRNA.
15. (a) B and D
Explanation: In lac operon, Francois Jacob and Jacque Mono elucidated that in absence of lactose the
repressor binds with the operator gene and forms the particular protein to express itself.
16. (b) exons appear but introns do not appear in the mature RNA.
Explanation: The primary transcribed RNA contains both the exons and the introns and is non-functional.
Hence, it is subjected to a process called splicing where the introns are removed and exons are joined in a
defined order. hnRNA undergoes additional processing called as capping and tailing. In capping an
unusual nucleotide (methyl guanosine triphosphate) is added to the 5'-end of hnRNA. In tailing, adenylate
residues (200-300) are added at 3'-end in a template-independent manner. It is the fully processed hnRNA,
now called mRNA, that is transported out of the nucleus for translation.
17. (c) 3
Explanation: In DNA molecules nitrogenous base of complementary strands binds with hydrogen bonds.
In cytosine and guanine there are 3 hydrogen bonds and in adenine and thymine, the number of hydrogen
bond is 2.
18. (c) Polymerase chain reaction
Explanation: Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is a wonderful technology for amplifying DNA. It allows you
to take a specific region of DNA on the chromosome and through the use of primers, copy back and forth,
only a particular desired segment, making two, then four, then eight, then sixteen, and so on, up to millions
of copies.
It is possible to start from the DNA segment of a single cell and produce enough of it for use in DNA typing
or fingerprinting.
19. (b) Chromosome 1 and Y
Explanation: Chromosome 1 has most genes (2968), and the Y has the fewest (231).
20. (b) Alec Jefferys
Explanation: Sir Alec John Jeffreys, CH FRS (born 9 January 1950 in Oxford, Oxfordshire, England) is a
British geneticist, who developed techniques for DNA fingerprinting and DNA profiling which is now used
worldwide in forensic science to assist police detective work and to resolve paternity and immigration
disputes.
He is a professor of genetics at the University of Leicester, and he became an honorary freeman of the City
of Leicester on 26 November 1992.
In 1994, he was knighted for services to genetics.
21. (b) 5' (upstream) end and 3' (downstream) end, respectively of the transcription unit
Explanation: Although promotor and terminator genes are present on template strand which confer that
promoter gene is present at 3' end and terminator gene is present at 5' end. But all the notation during
transcription are made with respect to the coding strand and hence it is said that the promotor gene is
present at 5' end and terminator gene is present at 3' end.
22. (b) Switching ON and OFF of the operon
Explanation: In lac operon, lactose is the substrate for enzyme beta-galactocidase and it regulates
switching ON and OFF of the operon. Hence, lactose is called the inducer.
2/4
23. (c) make every individual unique in phenotypic appearance.
Explanation: Genome variations are differences in the sequence of DNA from one person to the next.
In human’s 99.9% of the base sequences of DNA are same and are referred to as Bulk genomic DNA.
The difference lies in the remaining 0.1%. It is these differences which make every individual unique in
their phenotypic appearance. This DNA has small stretches of repetitive sequences. They are referred as
Repetitive DNA.
24. (d) uniform width throughout DNA
Explanation: The bases in two strands are paired through hydrogen bond (H-bonds) forming base pairs
(bp). Adenine forms two hydrogen bonds with Thymine from the opposite strand and vice-versa. Similarly,
Guanine is bonded with Cytosine with three H-bonds. As a result, always a purine comes opposite to a
pyrimidine. This generates approximately uniform distance between the two strands of the helix.
25. (a) Splicing
Explanation: The mRNA produced by transcription of DNA consists of exons and introns. The removal of
introns and joining of exons to obtain mature mRNA is called splicing. It is followed by capping and tailing.
26. (a) AGU
Explanation: The codon for anticodon UCA on t-RNA is AGU. U bonds with A and G bonds with U in RNA. t-
RNA carries specific amino acids to form protein molecules.
27. (b) Released polypeptide chain
Explanation: The figure shown above represents the translation process in which protein is produced.
Ribosome provides the site for protein synthesis and t-RNA brings the amino acids. The ‘x’ is the
polypeptide chain produced.
28. (d) Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) by amplification process
Explanation: Amplification is a mechanism leading to multiple copies of a chromosomal region within a
chromosome arm.
The DNA amplification technique of the polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is a laboratory method for
creating multiple copies of small segments of DNA.
29. (d) phosphate group
Explanation: A nitrogenous base is linked to the OH of 1' C pentose sugar through an N-glycosidic linkage
to form a nucleoside, such as adenosine or deoxyadenosine, guanosine or deoxyguanosine, cytidine or
deoxycytidine, and uridine or deoxythymidine.
When a phosphate group is linked to OH of 5' C of a nucleoside through phosphoester linkage, a
corresponding nucleotide (or deoxynucleotide depending upon the type of sugar present) is formed.
30. (c) U.S.Department of energy and National institute of health
Explanation: The Human Genome Project was a 13-year-long, publicly funded project initiated in 1990
with the objective of determining the DNA sequence of the entire euchromatic human genome within 15
years.
It was co-ordinated by U. S. Department of Energy and the National Institute of health.
At any given time, approximately 200 labs in the United States were funded by either the National
Institutes of Health or the U.S. Department of Energy to support these efforts.
Later on, the Welcome trust of the U.K becomes the major partner of this project.
31. (a) Both assertion and reason are correct
Explanation: An operon is a cluster of coordinately regulated genes. It includes structural genes (generally
encoding enzymes), regulatory genes (encoding, e.g. activators or repressors), and regulatory sites (such as
promoters and operators).
The type of control is defined by the response of the operon when no regulatory protein is present.
The inducer–repressor control of the lac operon is an example of negative control, in which expression is
normally blocked.
In contrast, the CAP-cAMP system is an example of positive control, because the expression of the lac
operon requires the presence of an activating signal.
32. (a) Both assertion and reason are correct
Explanation: DNA sequencing is the process of determining the precise order of nucleotides within a DNA
molecule. It includes any method or technology that is used to determine the order of the four bases—
3/4
adenine, guanine, cytosine, and thymine- in a strand of DNA.
Genetic map up of an organism or individual lies in the DNA sequence. If two individual differs, then their
DNA sequence should also be different.
33. (a) True
Explanation: True
34. (a) True
Explanation: True
35. 1. 200
36. 1. Pyrimidine
37. 1. Erwin Chargaff
38. 1. Heterochromatin
39. 1. Purines
40. 1. N-glycosidic
4/4
Solution
Class 12 - Computer Science
Computer Science
1. (b)
National Science Foundation Network
Explanation: ---
2. (a)
Taking print of a file using pen drive
Explanation: -
3. (a) A passenger book flight ticket thru airline site
Explanation: ---
4. (c)
Packet Switching Method
Explanation: --
5. (a) All of these
Explanation: --
6. (a)
Fiber
Explanation: --
7. (b)
Ethernet Card
Explanation: -
8. (d)
WAN
Explanation: -
9. (a) PAN
Explanation: --
10. (d)
Repeater
Explanation: --
11. (d)
Switch
Explanation: --
12. (b)
Wifi Card
Explanation: -
13. (a) Ring
Explanation: -
14. (a) All of the mentioned
Explanation: -
15. (b) Topology
Explanation: -
16. (c) Agreements on how communication components and DTE's are to communicate

Explanation: -
17. (d)
1/3
WAN
Explanation: ----
18. (b)
a vast collection of different networks
Explanation: -
19. (c)
PAN
Explanation: -
20. (a)
Wireless LAN
Explanation: --
21. (a)
HTTP
Explanation: -
22. (c)
Domain Name System
Explanation: --
23. (c)
A case of traffic overloading
Explanation: -
24. (d)
Transmission capacity of a communication channels
Explanation: -
25. (c) A system designed to prevent unauthorized access
Explanation: -
26. (d)
sent from user and stored in the server while a user is browsing a website
Explanation: -
27. (c)
uniform resource locator
Explanation: -
28. (a)
generates on demand by a program or a request from browser
Explanation: -
29. (b)
it enables user to access the resources of internet
Explanation: -
30. (b) Transfer files from client to server without third party intervene
Explanation: -
31. (c)
Samsung
Explanation: -
32. (a)
TLS
Explanation: -
33. (b)
POP
Explanation: -
34. (a)
2/3
Dedicated Hosting
Explanation: -
35. (c)
Organization
Explanation: -
36. (b)
XML
Explanation: -
37. (d)
All
Explanation: -
38. (d)
Worm
Explanation: -
39. COOKIES (d)
Explanation: -
40. (d)
Graphic card
Explanation: -
3/3
Solution
Class 12 - Physical Education
Online Multiple Choice Question September-2020

1. (a) Impairment of Brain
Explanation: Impairment of Brain
2. (c) Helping without giving Identity
Explanation: Helping without giving identity
3. (a) All the above
Explanation: all the above
4. (a) Calmness
Explanation: calmness
5. (c) OCD
Explanation: OCD
6. (d) Peer Group
Explanation: Peer Group
7. (a) Fun Games
Explanation: Fungames
8. (a) 7-12 yrs.
Explanation: 7-12 yrs
9. (c) Wrong sitting posture
Explanation: Wrong sitting posture
10. (d) Disability
Explanation: Disability
11. (b) Creating special classrooms
Explanation: Creating special classrooms
12. (b) ADHD
Explanation: ADHD
13. (a) Having only one leg
Explanation: Having only one leg
14. (d) Cognitive disability
Explanation: Cognitive disability
15. (c) ADHD
Explanation: ADHD
16. (c) Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder
Explanation: Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder
17. (a) ASD
Explanation: ASD
18. (a) Sensory processing Disorder
Explanation: Sensory processing Disorder
19. (d) ODD
Explanation: ODD
20. (c) Oppositional defiant disorder
Explanation: Oppositional defiant disorder
21. (d) OCD
Explanation: OCD
1/2
22. (d) Flat foot
Explanation: Flat foot
23. (d) Bones & muscles
Explanation: Bones & muscles
24. (d) Kyphosis
Explanation: Kyphosis
25. (c) Adulthood
Explanation: Adulthood
26. (d) Knock Knee
Explanation: Knock Knee
27. (d) Gross motor development
Explanation: Gross motor development
28. (b) Scientific Score
Explanation: Instrument
29. (a) Fine motor development
Explanation: Fine motor development
30. (b) Krous-Weber Test
Explanation: Krous-Weber Test
31. (b) Six Minute Walk Test
Explanation: Six Minute Walk Test
32. (c) 2001
Explanation: 2001
33. (c) Weight/Height
Explanation: Weight/Height
34. (c) 50 m standing start
Explanation: 50 m standing start
35. (d) Kraus Weber Test
Explanation: Kraus Weber Test
36. (a) 20 × 5 yards
Explanation: 20 x 5 yards
37. (b) 8 lbs
Explanation: 8 lbs
38. (c) Rockport Test
Explanation: Rockport Test
39. (a) Walking speed, Coordination and agility
Explanation: Walking speed, Coordination and agility
40. (a) Shoulder Flexibility
Explanation: Shoulder Flexibility
2/2

Atomic Energy Central School No.4 Rawatbhata: MCQ Examination August (2020-2021)

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Atomic Energy Central School No.4 Rawatbhata: MCQ Examination August (2020-2021)

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ATOMIC ENERGY CENTRAL SCHOOL NO.

CLASS 12 - ENGLISH CORE

a) Because he always robbed others b) Because he was regarded as a lowly

a) She is extremely cruel b) She is a generous and kind-hearted

c) She wears a face of being good d) She is a person of low regards

a) A game of cards named mjölis b) A game of cards named Sueca

c) A game of cards named Kille d) A game of cards named Vändtia

c) Peddler d) Old man

a) Because he was not doing well b) Because he was unable to do day

c) Because he was unable to go to work d) Because he was fired by the

a) He wished to behave as a true b) He was the Captain

c) He wanted to be a Captain someday d) He disguised himself as the Captain

a) Louis Fischer b) Anees Jung

c) Selma Lagerlöf d) A. R. Barton

a) Twenty kronor b) Thirty kronor

c) Thirteen kronor d) Forty kronor

a) Because he wanted to have a b) Because he wanted to help his old

a) He lived with his wife. b) He lived with his servant.

c) He lived alone there. d) He lived with his children.

c) The peddler's struggle to stay alive d) The peddler's struggle to find a

a) The governors b) The slum children

a) poverty b) social injustice and class inequality.

c) social structure of the society d) education

a) They seemed malnourished b) They lacked enthusiasm

c) They were exhausted d) All of these

a) The visitors b) All of these

c) The inspectors d) The governors

a) Shackles of poverty b) Social atrocities

c) All of these d) Barriers in their path of progress

a) he wants the authorities to look after b) social equality and justice

c) jobs in good companies d) food and shelter

a) develop art, culture and literature in b) progress and development between

c) breaking the barrier between rich d) contrast between two incompatible

a) Robert Frost b) Pablo Neruda

c) Stephen Spender d) John Keats

c) Diminishes d) Gets divided

a) they provide us water for irrigation. b) Daffodils spread the fragrance.

a) Pleasant dreams b) Good health

c) All of these d) Sound sleep

c) flowery wreath d) sunshine

a) Musk roses b) Wild roses

c) Musk melons d) Red roses

a) Pain forever b) Joy forever

c) Sorrow forever d) Pride forever

a) To gift it b) To connect with the earth

c) Because Hana was an impeccable d) Because she was persuing nursing

a) Because once this American soldier b) He wanted to create a new

a) Impressed by Dr. Sadao b) Very aggressive

c) Started hating Sadao's family d) Shocked and terrified

a) In search of new friends b) To study surgery and medicine

c) To explore America d) To settle in America

a) He wanted to know her financial b) He wanted to make sure that she

a) By throwing the American into the b) By making complaint against the

c) By secretly sending the American to d) By killing the American

c) Hana didn't like that d) He wanted his father's permission

a) To give medicines on time b) To clean the wounds regularly

c) To bring the towels and give d) To give food to the patient

a) कै मरे म बंद अपा हज b) आ मह या के व

a) पीड़ा क अ भ b) गुम राह करना

c) खुश ी क अ भ d) आँख दखाना

a) क णा जगाना b) ू रता दखाना

c) सहायता करना d) े रत करना

a) सहायता b) रोचकता बढ़े गी