EXCITABLE TISSUES

INTRODUCTION IN PHYSIOLOGY

1. The clear, structureless gel in a cell is its

a) nucleoplasm
b) protoplasm
c) cytoplasm
d) neoplasm
e) cytosol

2. Cell membranes
a) contain relatively few protein molecules
b) are impermeable to fat-soluble substances
c) in some tissues permit the transport of glucose at a greater rate in the
presence of insulin
d) are freely permeable to electrolytes but not to proteins
e) have a stable composition throughout the life of the cell

3. Most cellular membranes are made by

a) the cytoskeleton
b) enzymes in the peroxisomes
c) the endoplasmic reticulum
d) phospholipids

4. The primary force moving water molecules from the blood plasma to the
interstitial fluid is
a) active transport
b) cotransport with H+
c) facilitated diffusion
d) cotransport with Na+
e) filtration

5. The Na/K pump is

a) a peripheral protein
b) an integral protein
c) a G protein
d) a glycolipid
e) a phospholipid

6. Which of the following processes could occur only in the plasma

membrane of a living cell?
a) facilitated diffusion
b) simple diffusion
c) filtration
d) active transport
e) osmosis

7. Cells specialized for absorption of matter from the ECF are likely to show
an abundance of
a) lysosomes
b) microvilli
c) mitochondria
d) secretory vesicles
e) ribosomes

8. Osmosis is a special case of

a) pinocytosis
b) carrier-mediated transport
c) active transport
d) facilitated diffusion
e) simple diffusion

9. Matter can leave a cell by any of the following means except

a) active transport
b) pinocytosis
c) an antiport
d) simple diffusion
e) exocytosis

10.Membrane carriers
a) are not proteins
b) do not have binding sites
c) are not selective for particular ligands
d) change conformation when they bind a ligand
e) do not chemically change their ligands

11.The glucose are transported by

a) a Na+ concentration gradient
b) special transporter
c) a Ca2+gradient
d) pump
e) hormones

12.Second messengers
a) are substances that interact with first messengers outside cells
b) are substances that bind to first messengers in the cell membrane
c) are hormones secreted by cells in response to stimulation by another
hormone
d) mediate the intracellular responses to many different hormones and
neurotransmitters
e) are not formed in the brain

13.When a hormone cannot enter a cell, it activates the formation of a/an

a) kinase inside the cell
b) kinase outside the cell
c) other hormone
d) neurotransmitter

14.The function of membrane adenylyl cyclase in a cell is

a) to activate a G protein
b) to remove phosphate groups from ATP
c) to activate kinases
d) to bind to the first messenger
e) to add phosphate groups to enzymes

15.Which of the following is involved in the regulation of apoptosis?

a) glucose-6-phosphatase
b) adenylyl cyclase
c) nitric oxide synthase
d) aquaporin 2
e) cystein proteases (caspases)

16.Proteins that are secreted by cells are

a) not synthesized on membrane-bound ribosomes
b) initially synthesized with a signal peptide or leader sequence at their C
terminal
c) found in vesicles and secretory granules
d) moved across the cell membranes by endocytosis
e) secreted in a form that is larger than the form present in the endoplasmic
reticulum

17.Which of the following acts directly on the nucleus to produce physiologic

effects?
a) IL-1β
b) growth hormone
c) ghrelin
d) dopamine
e) estradiol

18.Contribution of normal concentration of plasma glucose to total plasma

osmolality Graiter, Same or Less (GSL) contribution of normal
concentrations of plasma Na+ to total plasma osmolality
a) G
b) S
c) L

19.Concentration of Ca2+ in intracellular fluid Graiter, Same or Less (GSL)

concentration of Ca2+ in interstitial fluid
a) G
b) S
c) L

20.True or false? Voltage gates in the plasma membrane open or close in

response to changes in the electrical charge difference across the
membrane.
a) true
b) false

21.True or false? The force exerted on a membrane by water is called osmotic

pressure.
a) true
b) false

22.True or false? A concentrated solution that causes a cell to shrink is

hypertonic to the cell.
a) true
b) false

23.True or false? A concentrated solution that causes a cell to shrink is

hypotonic to the cell.
a) true
b) false

24.True or false? Fusion of a secretory vesicle with the plasma membrane,

and release of the vesicle’s contents, is called exosytosis.
a) true
b) false

25.True or false? Fusion of a secretory vesicle with the plasma membrane,

and release of the vesicle’s contents, is called endosytosis.
a) true
b) false

26.True or false? An ion gate in the plasma membrane that opens or closes
when a chemical binds to it is called a/an ligand gated channel.
a) true
b) false
 27.True or false? If a cell were poisoned so it could not make ATP, osmosis
through its membrane would cease.
a) true
b) false

28.True or false? Material can move either into a cell or out by means of
active transport.
a) true
b) false

29.True or false? A cell’s second messengers serve mainly to transport solutes

through the membrane.
a) true
b) false

30.True or false? Some membrane channels are peripheral proteins.

a) true
b) false

31.True or false? The plasma membrane consists primarily of protein

molecules.
a) true
b) false

32.True or false? Human cells swell or shrink in any solution other than an
isotonic solution.
a) true
b) false

33.True or false? Osmosis is not limited by the transport with specific

transporters.
a) true
b) false

34.The Na/K pump is

a) a peripheral protein
b) an integral protein
c) a G protein
d) a glycolipid
e) a phospholipid

35.Which of the following statements about the Na+, K+-ATPase is true?

a) it pumps 2 Na+ out of the cell and 3 K+ into the cell for each ATP it
hydrolyzes
b) in most cells, it pumps Na+ and K+ against only electrical gradients
c) it is driven by being phosphorylated by ATP

36.Which of the following processes could occur only in the plasma

membrane of a living cell?
a) facilitated diffusion
b) simple diffusion
c) filtration
d) active transport
e) osmosis

37.Which of the following statements about active transport processes is true?

a) they always transport the transported substance against a gradient of
electrical potential
b) they do not require metabolic energy
c) the energy for secondary active transport is provided by the gradient of
electrochemical potential of another solute
d) only primary active transport will be inhibited by metabolic poisons

38.Cells specialized for absorption of matter from the ECF are likely to show
an abundance of
a) lysosomes
b) microvilli
c) mitochondria
d) secretory vesicles
e) ribosomes

39.Osmosis is a special case of

a) pinocytosis
b) carrier-mediated transport
c) active transport
d) facilitated diffusion
e) simple diffusion

40.Matter can leave a cell by any of the following means except

a) active transport
b) pinocytosis
c) an antiport
d) simple diffusion
e) exocytosis

41.Membrane carriers
a) are not proteins
b) do not have binding sites
c) are not selective for particular ligands
d) change conformation when they bind a ligand
e) do not chemically change their ligands

42.The glucose are transported by

a) a Na+ concentration gradient
b) special transporter
c) a Ca2+gradient
d) pump
e) hormones

43.Select the single best answer. Which of the following statements about ion
channels in neuron is true?
+
a) K channels show significant voltage inactivation
b) Na+ channels have an activation gate and an inactivation gate
c) the activation gate and the inactivation gate of the Na+ channel respond with
similar kinetics

44.Second messengers
a) are substances that interact with first messengers outside cells
b) are substances that bind to first messengers in the cell membrane
c) are hormones secreted by cells in response to stimulation by another
hormone
d) mediate the intracellular responses to many different hormones and
neurotransmitters
e) are not formed in the brain

45.When a hormone cannot enter a cell, it activates the formation of a/an

a) kinase inside the cell
b) kinase outside the cell
c) other hormone
d) neurotransmitter

46.The function of membrane adenylyl cyclase in a cell is

a) to activate a G protein
b) to remove phosphate groups from ATP
c) to activate kinases
d) to bind to the first messenger
e) to add phosphate groups to enzymes

47.Which of the following is involved in the regulation of apoptosis?

a) Glucose-6-phosphatase
b) Adenylyl cyclase
c) Nitric oxide synthase
d) Aquaporin 2
e) cystein proteases (caspases)
 48.Proteins that are secreted by cells are
a) not synthesized on membrane-bound ribosomes
b) initially synthesized with a signal peptide or leader sequence at their C
terminal
c) found in vesicles and secretory granules
d) moved across the cell membranes by endocytosis
e) secreted in a form that is larger than the form present in the endoplasmic
reticulum

49.Which of the following acts directly on the nucleus to produce physiologic

effects?
a) IL-1β
b) Growth hormone
c) Ghrelin
d) Dopamine
e) Estradiol

MEMBRANE POTENTIAL

50.Membrane potential is
a) a difference in electric potential between inner and outer surface of the cell
membrane
b) a difference in electric potential between on the inner surface of the cell
membrane
c) a difference in electric potential between on the outer surface of the cell
membrane

51.The main reasons of membrane potential creation under appropriate

conditions are all of the following EXCEPT
a) concentration difference of ions across the cell membrane
b) presence of Ca++ ions inside of the cell
c) selectively ion’s permeability of membrane
d) action of membrane Na+/K+ pump

52.Describe the concentration differences between outside and inner surface

of cell membrane for K+ and Na+
a) [K+]out > [K+]in; [Na+]out > [Na+]in
b) [K+]in > [K+]out; [Na+]in > [Na+]out
c) [K+]in > [K+]out; [Na+]out > [Na+]in

53.Describe the cell membrane permeability (P) for differenr ions at rest stage
a) PK+ > PNa+
b) PNa+ > PK+t
c) PK+ = PNa+
 54.The diffusion potentials of the cell AT REST STAGE are caused mostly
by
+
a) K diffusion into the cell
b) K+ diffusion out the cell
c) Na+ diffusion into the cell
d) Na+ diffusion out the cell

55.Na+/K+ pump is electrogenic because it adds –4 mv to the membrane

potential by
a) transport of 2 K+ and 3 Na+ across the cell membrane
b) transport of 3 K+ and 2 Na+ across the cell membrane
c) transport of 3 K+ across the cell membrane
d) transport of 2 Na+ across the cell membrane

56.A typical neuron has a resting membrane potential of about

a) +30mV
b) +120mV
c) -30 mV
d) -70 mV

57.Excitable tissues include all of the following EXCEPT

a) muscle tissue
b) connective tissue
c) nervous tissue
d) epithelial (secretory cells) tissue

58.Results of action potential may be

a) muscle contraction
b) hormone secretion
c) nerve signal
d) all are correct
e) nothing is correct

59.The successive stages of the action potential are all of follows EXCEPT
a) resting stage
b) depolarization stage
c) refractory stage
d) repolarization stage

60.Depolarization is names also as

a) upstroke
b) threshold
c) overshoot

61.The sequense phases of action potential is

a) depolarization, resting stage, repolarization
b) resting stage, depolarization, repolarization
c) repolarization, depolarization, resting stage

62.At resting stage the muscle cell membrane more permeable for
a) Na+
b) K+
c) Ca++

63.At depolarization stage the muscle cell membrane more permeable for
a) Na+
b) K+
c) Cl-

64.At the repolarization stage the muscle cell membrane begins more
permeable for
a) Na+
b) K+
c) Ca++

65.Threshold potential is
a) membrane repolarization which is necessary to return membrane to resting
potential
b) membrane depolarization up to positive level transmembrane potential
difference
c) membrane depolarization which is necessary for initiation action potential

66.Choose the MOST COMPLETE answer. During action potential there are
changes in the excitability of the cell including
a) absolute refractery period, after-depolarization, after-hyperpolarization
b) relative refractery period, after-depolarization, after-hyperpolarization
c) absolute refractery period, relative refractery period, after-depolarization,
after-hyperpolarization

67.Correct sequence in change of excitability is

a) relative refractery period, after-hyperpolarization, absolute refractery period,
after-depolarization,
b) after-depolarization, after-hyperpolarization, absolute refractery period,
relative refractery period,
c) absolute refractery period, relative refractery period, after-depolarization,
after-hyperpolarization
68.The absolute refractory period (ARP) is the period in which AP can be
elicited only if the inward Na+ current is greater than usual. Is it true or
false?
a) true
b) false

69.The absolute refractory period (ARP) is the period in which another action
potential cannot be elicited. Is it true or false?
a) true
b) false

70.The relative refractory period begins at the end of ARP and coincides with
period of repolarization. Is it true or false?
a) true
b) false

71.Choose two correct answers. Excitability is lowest during the next phase
of action potential
a) depolarization
b) repolarization
c) after-depolarization
d) after-hyperpolarization

72.Choose two correct answers. Excitability is highest during

a) local depolarization (depolarization until threshold level)
b) depolarization (upstroke)
c) repolarization
d) after-depolarization
e) after-hyperpolarization

MUSCLE CONTRACTION

73.Choose the MOST correct answer. The hole sceletal muscle

a) consists of myofibrils
b) consists of muscle fascicles
c) are formed only by contractile proteins

74.Choose the most correct answer. Sceletal muscle cell –

a) consists of muscle fascicles
b) is multinuclear cell, contain myofibrils
c) are formed only by contractile proteins

75.Muscle contractile proteins include all of following EXCEPT

a) actin
b) myosin
c) troponin F
d) nebulin
e) titin
f) nebulette

76.Choose the correct answer. Myofibrills –

a) are organazed in sarcomers
b) are multinuclear cells

77.Which of these is not a part of the actin myofilament?

a) actin
b) tropomyosin
c) troponin C, I, T
d) troponin G

78.Which of these locations have the ability to break down ATP?

a) actin
b) head of myosin molecule
c) troponin
d) tropomyosin

79.Ca++ in cytoplasm of muscular cell binds to

a) troponin I
b) tropomyosin
c) troponin I
d) troponin C
e) troponin T

80.Troponin C binds with

a) actin
b) Ca++
c) tropomyosin
d) all of these

81.Which of these units contain overlapping actin and myosin myofilaments

a) A band
b) H zone
c) I band
d) M line
e) Z disc

82.Which of these units contain the Z disk?

a) A band
b) H zone
c) I band
d) M line

83.Which of these regions shorten(s) during skeletal muscle contraction?

a) A band
b) H zone
c) I band

84.In the neuromuscular junction the axon is also called the

a) postsynaptic membrane
b) presynaptic terminal
c) synaptic cleft
d) synaptic vesicle

85.Given these events

1) acetylcholine is released from synaptic vesicles
2) an action potential reaches the presynaptic terminal
3) Ca2+ ions diffuse into the cell
4) acetylcholine is secreted from the presynaptic terminal by exocytosis
Choose the arrangement that lists the events in the order they occur when an
action potential of a motor neuron reachs the end of axon
a) 1234
b) 1342
c) 2134
d) 2314
e) 3214

86.Given these events

1) acetylcholine binds to receptors on the postsynaptic membrane
2) acetylcholinesterase breaks down acetylcholine
3) choline is reabsorbed by presynaptic membrane
4) depolarization of postsynaptic membrane occurs
5) ligand-gated Na+ ion channels open
Choose the arrangement that lists the events in the order they occur when
acetylcholine has been released into synaptic cleft
a) 1,2,3,4,5
b) 1,5,4,2,3
c) 2,1,3,4,5
d) 4,3,2,1,5
e) 5,4,1,2,3

87.The drug atropine blocks neurotransmitter receptors on the postsynaptic

terminal of the neuromuscular junction. This causes
a) flaccid paralysis
b) spastic paralysis
c) no change in muscle function

88.The enlarged areas of the sarcoplasmic reticulum near the T tubules are the
a) sarcolemma
b) sarcomeres
c) terminal cisternae
d) troponin molecules
e) tropomyosin molecules

89.L-type of Ca2+ channels in sceletal muscle cells are

a) ryanodine receptors, ligand-gated channel
b) dihydropiridine receptors, ligand-gated
c) dihydropiridine receptors, voltage-gated

90.Ca2+ channels inside of sceletal muscle cells are

a) ryanodine receptors of SR
b) dihydropiridine receptors of T-tubules

91.Given these events

1) action potential travels along the sarcolemma
2) T tubules undergo depolarization
3) voltage-gated Ca2+ ion channels in sarcoplasmic reticulum open
4) Ca2+ ions diffuse into the sarcoplasm
5) Ca2+ ions bind to troponin molecules
Choose the arrangement that lists these events in the order they occur following
a single stimulation of a skeletal muscle cell
a) 1,2,3,4,5
b) 1,3,5,4,2
c) 2,1,3,4,5
d) 3,1,5,2,4
e) 4,5,12,3

92.The binding sites for the cross‐bridges are located on

a) actin
b) myosin
c) troponin

93.When muscle contracts upon stimulation, calcium ions bind to troponin C,

which exposes the binding sites for the myosin cross‐bridges to attach to
a) actin
b) myosin
c) troponin

94.When the cross‐bridges bind to actin, they will pivot in such a manner to
cause the actin filaments to slide. This pivoting action causes the actin
filaments to slide
a) farther apart
b) close together
c) along myosin
 95.Calcium ions are released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum to initiate
muscle contraction and are reabsorbed upon muscle relaxation. Which of
the following occurs if calcium ions are not completely reabsorbed?
a) the next contraction will be greater
b) the next contraction will be weaker
c) there won't be next contraction

96.Calcium ions will cause the troponin/tropomyosin complex to move in

such a manner as to expose the actin binding sites. The calcium ions are
released from the
a) sarcomer
b) sarcoplasmatic reticulum
c) presynaptic vesicles of the axon

97.ATP is required for muscles to contract. Which of the following

statements is false?
a) ATP is used to get cross-bridges to bind actin
b) ATP is used to get cross-bridges to disconnect from actin
c) ATP is used to get troponin-tropomyosin complex to move in such a manner
to expose the brinding sites

98.During muscle contraction, which of these processes requires ATP?

a) transport of calcium ions into the sarcoplasmic reticulum
b) release of cross-bridges
c) active transport of Na+ and K+ ions
d) all of these

99.Cross bridges form during muscle contraction when myosin comes in

contact with active sites on
a) troponin molecules
b) tropomyosin molecules
c) calcium ions
d) acetylcholine molecules
e) actin molecules

100. Given these events

1) active sites on actin myofilament are exposed
2) actin myofilament slides over myosin myofilament
3) Ca2+ion binds to troponin
4) myosin heads move
5) cross bridges form
Choose the arrangement that lists the correct order in which they occurduring a
single stimulation of a skeletal muscle
a) 4,3,2,1,5
 b) 3,1,5,4,2
c) 3,2,5,4,1
d) 2,4,3,5,1
e) 1,2,3,4,5

101. For cross bridge release, it is necessary

a) a tropomyosin molecule binds to actin
b) to hydrolise the ATP
c) Ca2+ ions bind to myosin
d) a troponin I release in plasma

102. Which of these is (are) required for the relaxation of a muscle fiber?
a) ATP
b) Ca2+ ion uptake into the sarcoplasmic reticulum
c) acetylcholinesterase activity
d) no additional stimulation of the neuron
e) all of these

103. A motor unit is

a) all the fibers in one muscle
b) all the fibers in one fasciculus
c) all the muscle fibers innervated by a single motor neuron
d) all the nerves that innervate one muscle fiber

104. Even though each muscle fiber responds in all-or-none fashion, a whole
muscle can contract with varying force because of
a) different threshold values of each fiber
b) total tetanus of the muscle
c) multiple motor unit summation
d) rigor mortis
e) the lag phase of contraction

105. Multiple-wave summation is caused by

a) stimuli of increasing size
b) increasing number of nerves stimulated
c) increasing frequency of stimuli
d) complete relaxation between stimuli
e) a subthreshold stimulus

106. Which of these processes results in an increase in the force of contraction

of a whole muscle
a) multiple motor unit summation
b) multiple wave summation
c) treppe
d) all of these
107. A muscle contraction in which the muscle produces an increasing tension,
but the length remains constant is a(n)
a) isometric contraction
b) isotonic contraction
c) concentric contraction
d) excentric contraction

108. The most common type of fatigue is

a) muscular fatigue
b) psychological fatigue
c) synaptic fatigue
d) sarcoplasmic reticulum fatigue

109. The source of Ca2+ for sceletal muscle contraction is

a) sarcoplasmatic reticulum
b) interstitial fluid
c) mitohondria

110. Fast-twitch muscle fibers

a) are more resistant to fatigue than slow-twitch fibers
b) have a richer blood supply than slow-twitch fibers
c) have a larger amount of stored glycogen than slow-twitch fibers
d) have more mitochondria than slow-twitch fibers
e) have more myoglobin than slow-twitch fiber

111. Which of these characteristics is typical of a slow-twitch muscle fiber

a) large number of mitochondria
b) few capillaries
c) low myoglobin content
d) largely anaerobic
e) b, c, and d

112. Which of these is part of the contraction process of smooth muscle

a) calcium ions bind to troponin
b) caveolae bind with calcium to produce cross bridges
c) troponin and tropomyosin are moved
d) calcium ions bind to calmodulin, which activates an enzyme

113. Which of these is correctly matched

a) multiunit smooth muscle – spontaneous contractions
b) visceral smooth muscle – contracts when stretched
c) multiunit smooth muscle – numerous gap junctions
d) autorhythmic
e) all of these
114. Visceral smooth muscle
a) responds in an all-or-none fashion to action potentials
b) has slow waves of depolarization and repolarization
c) requires a stimulus from a neuron or hormone
d) produces strong contractions that only last for a few milliseconds