Lemone/Burke/Bauldoff/Gubrud, Medical-Surgical Nursing 5Th Edition Test Bank

LeMone/Burke/Bauldoff/Gubrud, Medical-Surgical Nursing 5th Edition Test Bank
Chapter 47
Question 1
Type: MCMA
A 40-year-old male has reported to the clinic with complaints of impotence. The nurse is reviewing the patient’s
health history. Which patient statements should the nurse further investigate?
Standard Text: Select all that apply.
1. “I take medications to help me sleep several times per week.”
2. “I had the mumps when I was a boy.”
3. “I had a vasectomy 4 years ago.”
4. “I have had diabetes for several years.”
5. “My wife has a history of cervical cancer.”
Correct Answer: 1, 4
Rationale 1: The causes of impotence may be related to medication use, performance anxiety, or chronic disease
processes. The patient who takes tranquilizers or medications for sleep may experience impotence.
Rationale 2: Having the mumps may result in male infertility, not impotence.
Rationale 3: Having a vasectomy results in sterility, not impotence.
Rationale 4: Diabetes mellitus over time may cause vascular damage, resulting in impotence.
Rationale 5: The presence of cervical cancer in a partner is not linked to impotence.
Global Rationale: The causes of impotence may be related to medication use, performance anxiety or chronic
disease processes. The patient who takes tranquilizers or medications for sleep may experience impotence.
Diabetes mellitus over time may cause vascular damage, resulting in impotence. Having the mumps may result in
male infertility, not impotence. Having a vasectomy results in sterility, not impotence. The presence of cervical
cancer in a partner is not linked to impotence.
Cognitive Level: Analyzing

Client Need: Physiological Integrity
Client Need Sub: Physiological Adaptation
QSEN Competencies: I.A.1. Integrate understanding of multiple dimensions of patient centered care

Copyright 2015 by Pearson Education, Inc.
AACN Essentials Competencies: IX.1. Conduct comprehensive and focused physical, behavioral, psychological,
spiritual, socioeconomic, and environmental assessments of health and illness parameters in patients, using
developmentally and culturally appropriate approaches
NLN Competencies: Context and Environment; Practice; conduct population-based transcultural health
assessments and interventions
Nursing/Integrated Concepts: Nursing Process: Assessment
Learning Outcome: 5. Identify manifestations of impairment in the male and female reproductive systems and
breasts.
MNL Learning Outcome: 13.6.1. Explain the risk factors and pathophysiology of disorders of testes/scrotum
and testicular cancer.
Page Number: 1540
Question 2
Type: MCSA
The nurse is collecting data from a couple experiencing infertility. The male partner, age 52, asks why
information about his mother’s pregnancy is important. How should the nurse respond?
1. “Collecting information about a patient’s immediate family is required.”
2. “Medication exposure during pregnancy may impact the long-range fertility of the woman’s male children.”
3. “If your mother experienced infertility, you are at a higher risk for infertility.”
4. “Although the greater concerns relate to the female’s mother, we collect information on both of you to create a
more balanced picture.”
Correct Answer: 2
Rationale 1: Data is collected to ensure a complete picture of the patient’s past and current history and is
incorporated into the assessment and subsequent treatment plans. This response, however, does not meet the
patient’s need for clarification.
Rationale 2: Men born to women treated during pregnancy with diethylstilbestrol (DES), a drug used in the
1940s and 1950s to prevent miscarriage, may have congenital deformities of the urinary tract as well as reduced
semen levels.
Rationale 3: The possible infertility of the male partner’s mother would not impact his current ability to father
children.
Rationale 4: Both the male and female will need to provide a comprehensive history in the assessment period.
Neither partner’s history is of greater importance at this point.
Global Rationale: Men born to women treated during pregnancy with diethylstilbestrol (DES), a drug used in the
1940s and 1950s to prevent miscarriage, may have congenital deformities of the urinary tract as well as reduced
semen levels. Data is collected to ensure a complete picture of the patient’s past and current history and is
incorporated into the assessment and subsequent treatment plans. This response, however, does not meet the
patient’s need for clarification. The possible infertility of the male partner’s mother would not impact his current
ability to father children. Both the male and female will need to provide a comprehensive history in the
assessment period. Neither partner’s history is of greater importance at this point.
Cognitive Level: Applying

Client Need: Health Promotion and Maintenance
Client Need Sub:
AACN Essentials Competencies: IX.4. Communicate effectively with all members of the healthcare team,
including the patient and the patient’s support network
Nursing/Integrated Concepts: Nursing Process: Implementation
Learning Outcome: 2. Identify specific topics for consideration during a health history interview of the patient
with health problems of the reproductive system and breasts.
Page Number: 1540
Question 3
Type: MCHS
The nurse is instructing a patient who is beginning diagnostic tests for prostate cancer. Where should the nurse
pinpoint the location of the prostate gland? Place an X at the location of the prostate gland on the figure.
Correct Answer:

Rationale: The prostate gland is located just below the urinary bladder. It consists of two lobes on either side of
the urethra just below the urinary bladder.
Global Rationale:

Client Need Sub: Reduction of Risk Potential
AACN Essentials Competencies: IX.7. Provide appropriate patient teaching that reflects developmental stage,
age, culture, spirituality, patient preferences, and health literacy considerations to foster patient engagement in
their care
Learning Outcome: 1. Describe the anatomy, physiology, and functions of the male and female reproductive
systems, including the breasts.
MNL Learning Outcome: 13.7.1. Explain the incidence, risk factors, and pathophysiology for male reproductive
disorders.
Page Number: 1538
Question 4
Type: MCHS
The nurse is conducting a class for adolescent boys concerning reproduction and sperm production. Place an X on
the structure in which sperm is produced.

Correct Answer:
Rationale: The male testes are responsible for the production of sperm.
Global Rationale:

Client Need Sub:
their care
Page Number: 1538
Question 5
Type: MCMA
The nurse is performing an assessment of a female patient’s breasts. Which findings indicate the need for further
assessment?
1. The breasts are not the same size.
2. The breasts do not display prominent veins.
3. The nipples are flat.
4. The breasts are reddened.

5. There is an area of dimpled skin.
Rationale 1: It is normal for the breasts to differ in size.
Rationale 2: The absence of prominent veining is normal.
Rationale 3: The nipples are usually everted but may normally be inverted or flat.
Rationale 4: Reddened skin of the breast indicates the possible presence of a malignancy.
Rationale 5: Dimpling and abnormal contours should be further evaluated.
Global Rationale: Reddened skin of the breast indicates the possible presence of a malignancy. Dimpling and
abnormal contours should be further evaluated. It is normal for the breasts to differ in size. The absence of
prominent veining is normal. The nipples are usually everted but may normally be inverted or flat.

breasts.
MNL Learning Outcome: 13.1.2. Differentiate the manifestations of benign breast disorders and breast cancer.
Page Number: 1549

Question 6
Type: MCSA
A patient is scheduled to have a vaginal examination and a Pap smear. Which patient statement indicates
understanding of the nurse’s instruction concerning the test and preparation?
1. “I cannot bathe for 36 hours prior to the examination.”
2. “I should not douche the day before my exam.”
3. “My period will not be a reason to defer my vaginal examination.”
4. “My physician will use Vaseline to lubricate the speculum and prevent discomfort.”
Correct Answer: 2
Rationale 1: Tub baths should be avoided for 24 hours prior to the test.
Rationale 2: The patient should be advised not to douche for 24 hours prior to the test.
Rationale 3: Menstruation and vaginal infections may warrant postponement of the testing.
Rationale 4: Vaseline is not water soluble and should not be used on the speculum if cells are going to be
obtained for testing.
Global Rationale: The patient having a vaginal exam in which cells will be taken for testing will have a series of
instructions to follow. The patient should be advised not to douche for 24 hours prior to the test. Tub baths should
be avoided for 24 hours prior to the test. Menstruation and vaginal infections may warrant postponement of the
testing. Vaseline is not water soluble and should not be used on the speculum if cells are going to be obtained for
testing.

AACN Essentials Competencies: IX.9. Monitor client outcomes to evaluate the effectiveness of
psychobiological interventions
Nursing/Integrated Concepts: Nursing Process: Evaluation
MNL Learning Outcome: 13.5.3. Examine the diagnosis and treatment of cancer of the female reproductive
system.
Page Number: 1552
Question 7
Type: MCSA
An adolescent patient has come to the clinic for her first vaginal examination. Which speculum should the nurse
prepare for this examination?
1. Graves speculum
2. Pederson speculum
3. Killian speculum
4. Vienna speculum
Correct Answer: 2
Rationale 1: The Graves speculum is used for the adult woman.

Rationale 2: The Pederson speculum is narrower and is used for adolescents or adult women who are virgins,
have never had a baby, or are postmenopausal with vaginal atrophy.
Rationale 3: The Killian speculum is used to examine the nasal passages.
Rationale 4: The Vienna speculum is used to examine the nasal passages.
Global Rationale: The Pederson speculum is narrower and is used for adolescents or adult women who are
virgins, have never had a baby, or are postmenopausal with vaginal atrophy. The Graves speculum is used for the
adult woman. The Killian and Vienna specula are used to examine the nasal passages.

Nursing/Integrated Concepts: Nursing Process: Planning
system.
Page Number: 1552
Question 8
Type: MCSA
A pregnant patient overhears the examiner referring to a positive Hegar sign and asks what this means. Which
response by the nurse best explains this sign?
1. Hegar sign refers to the softening of the lower uterine segment during pregnancy.
2. Hegar sign refers to the skin changes noted in early pregnancy.
3. Hegar sign refers to the softening of the cervix during the early stages of pregnancy.
4. Hegar sign refers to the changes in color of the vaginal mucosa during pregnancy.
Correct Answer: 1
Rationale 1: During pregnancy the lower uterine segment or isthmus softens in response to hormonal changes.
This phenomenon is referred to as Hegar sign.
Rationale 2: Skin changes during pregnancy include linea nigra and chloasma, not Hegar sign.

Rationale 3: A softening of the cervix during pregnancy is known as Goodell sign.
Rationale 4: The change in color of the vaginal mucosa during pregnancy is known as Chadwick sign.
Global Rationale: Hegar sign refers to a softening of the lower uterine segment or isthmus during pregnancy.
Skin changes during pregnancy may include linea nigra or chloasma, not Hegar sign. Softening of the cervix
during pregnancy is referred to as Goodell sign. Changes in color of the mucous membranes of the vagina during
pregnancy are referred to as Chadwick sign.

Client Need Sub:
MNL Learning Outcome: 13.4.4. Utilize the nursing process in care of client.
Page Number: 1551
Question 9
Type: MCSA
During the bimanual examination of a patient’s uterus, the nurse notes that the uterus is tilted toward the back.
What should the nurse explain to the patient about this finding?
1. The uterus of a patient who has carried a child to term is frequently in a tilted-back position.
2. The uterus may be tilted backward (retroverted) or angled backward (retroflexed).
3. The uterus of a patient with fibroid tumors frequently tilts back under the weight of the tumors.
4. The backward tilt of the uterus is consistent with pregnancy in the second or third trimester.
Correct Answer: 2
Rationale 1: This anatomical positioning of the uterus is not related to pregnancy.
Rationale 2: The uterus may be tilted backward (retroverted) or angled backward (retroflexed).
Rationale 3: This anatomical positioning of the uterus is not related to the presence of fibroid tumors.
Rationale 4: This anatomical positioning of the uterus is not related to pregnancy.

Global Rationale: The uterus may be tilted backward (retroverted) or angled backward (retroflexed).This
anatomical positioning of the uterus is not related to pregnancy or the presence of fibroid tumors.

Client Need Sub:
Page Number: 1551
Question 10
Type: MCMA
The nurse is conducting a presentation to a group of women concerning menopause. Which statements by a
participant indicate an understanding about the process?
1. “Lubrication for intercourse will not be as necessary after menopause.”
2. “My risk for vaginal infections declines as my estrogen levels decrease during menopause.”
3. “My uterus will shrink in size after menopause.”
4. “My skin will thicken after menopause.”
5. “I should start practicing Kegel exercises.”
Rationale 1: The loss of estrogen is responsible for the reduction of vaginal lubrication. Patients experiencing this
loss may require lubricants to promote comfort during sexual intercourse.
Rationale 2: The vaginal dryness associated with menopause raises the risk for vaginal infections.
Rationale 3: The uterus shrinks in size during menopause.
Rationale 4: The skin thins during menopause.
Rationale 5: Weakening of the pelvic floor muscles may contribute to involuntary incontinence.

Global Rationale: The loss of estrogen during menopause results in numerous changes. The uterus shrinks in
size, and weakening of the pelvic floor muscles may contribute to involuntary incontinence. The loss of estrogen
is responsible for the reduction of vaginal lubrication. Patients experiencing this loss may require lubricants to
promote comfort during sexual intercourse. The vaginal dryness associated with menopause raises the risk for
vaginal infections. The skin thins with menopause.

Client Need Sub:
Learning Outcome: 4. Describe normal variations in reproductive assessment findings for the older adult.
MNL Learning Outcome: 13.4.2. Differentiate the manifestations of dyspareunia, orgasmic dysfunction, and
menopause.
Page Number: 1543, 1549
Question 11
Type: MCSA
The nurse is scheduling a hysterosalpingogram test for a patient. When planning the test, which information from
the patient’s history will the nurse need?
1. the date of the patient’s LMP
2. the number of past pregnancies the patient has had
3. the type of contraceptive being used by the patient and her partner
4. the patient’s age at menarche
Correct Answer: 1
Rationale 1: The hysterosalpingogram is performed to assess the uterus and fallopian tubes for abnormalities.
The test is performed on days 7 to 9 after the menstrual period. Knowledge of the patient’s last menstrual period
(LMP) will be useful when planning the test.
Rationale 2: The test is often used as a diagnostic test for patients experiencing infertility, but the number of past
pregnancies is not relevant to scheduling the test.
Rationale 3: The test is often used as a diagnostic test for patients experiencing infertility, but the type of
contraceptive being used is not relevant to scheduling the test.

Rationale 4: The test is often used as a diagnostic test for patients experiencing infertility, but the age at
menarche is not relevant to scheduling the test.
Global Rationale: The hysterosalpingogram is performed to assess the uterus and fallopian tubes for
abnormalities. The test is performed on days 7 to 9 after the menstrual period. Knowledge of the patient’s last
menstrual period (LMP) will be useful when planning the test. The test is often used as a diagnostic test for
patients experiencing infertility, but the number of past pregnancies, contraceptive being used, and age at
menarche are not relevant to scheduling the test.

Client Need Sub:
MNL Learning Outcome: 13.3.3. Examine the diagnosis and treatment of endometriosis and structural
abnormalities.
Page Number: 1546
Question 12
Type: MCSA
A patient is scheduled to have an endometrial biopsy. After the nurse provides education concerning the test,
which patient statement indicates an understanding of the procedure?
1. “I may need a strong pain medication for the first several days after the test.”
2. “I may not have a regular menstrual cycle for 3 to 6 months after the test.”
3. “If I have bleeding after the procedure I can use junior-size tampons.”
4. “I should avoid sexual intercourse in the days following the procedure.”
Correct Answer: 4
Rationale 1: The procedure may be uncomfortable, but the pain should not require the use of strong analgesics
for several days afterwards.
Rationale 2: The menstrual cycle may be interrupted, but not for an extended period of time.
Rationale 3: The patient will likely have vaginal bleeding in the days after the procedure. Pads are indicated for
any vaginal bleeding. Tampons are contraindicated.
Rationale 4: The endometrial biopsy is performed to identify endometrial hyperplasia or cancerous cells. The
patient will likely have vaginal bleeding in the days after the procedure and is instructed to avoid intercourse
while bleeding.
Global Rationale: The endometrial biopsy is performed to identify endometrial hyperplasia or cancerous cells.
The patient will likely have vaginal bleeding in the days after the procedure and is instructed to avoid intercourse
while bleeding. The procedure may be uncomfortable, but the pain should not require the use of strong analgesics
for several days afterwards. The menstrual cycle may be interrupted, but not for an extended period of time. Pads
are indicated for any vaginal bleeding. Tampons are contraindicated.

abnormalities.
Page Number: 1546
Question 13
Type: MCSA
The nurse is assisting with the vaginal examination of a 33-year-old patient. A nontender mass at the
posterolateral portion of the labia majora is noted. What should the nurse suspect is occurring with the patient?
1. a rectocele
2. a fistula
3. a Bartholin cyst
4. a cyst of Skene’s gland
Correct Answer: 3
Rationale 1: A rectocele is a protrusion of the rectal wall into the vaginal canal.
Rationale 2: A fistula results is an opening between two anatomically separate organs.
Rationale 3: The Bartholin gland is located at the posterolateral labia majora. This gland provides lubrication to
the female genitalia. A swelling in this area is consistent with the diagnosis of Bartholin’s cyst.

Rationale 4: Skene’s glands are located on the anterior vaginal walls.
Global Rationale: The Bartholin gland is located at the posterolateral labia majora. This gland provides
lubrication to the female genitalia. A swelling in this area is consistent with the diagnosis of Bartholin’s cyst. A
rectocele is a protrusion of the rectal wall into the vaginal canal. A fistula is an opening between two anatomically
separate organs. Skene’s glands are located on the anterior vaginal walls.

breasts.
abnormalities.
Page Number: 1551
Question 14
Type: MCSA
The nurse is discussing concerns with an 18-year-old female patient who reports feeling two nonpainful
ulcerations on her labia. The patient asks if they might be herpes simplex. What response by the nurse is
indicated?
1. “Those spots do sound consistent with herpes simplex.”
2. “Have you been having sex with new partners?”
3. “Herpes lesions are usually painful.”
4. “The lesions you describe are most consistent with genital warts.”
Correct Answer: 3
Rationale 1: The patient’s description is not consistent with herpes simplex. Herpes lesions are typically painful.
Rationale 2: It will be important to assess the patient’s sexual activity, but this line of questioning does not
address the patient’s most immediate questions and concerns.
Rationale 3: The patient’s description is not consistent with herpes simplex. Herpes lesions are typically painful.
Nonpainful ulcerations are suggestive of syphilis.

Rationale 4: Genital warts present as fleshy, nonpainful growths.
Global Rationale: The patient’s description is not consistent with herpes simplex. Herpes simplex lesions are
typically painful. Nonpainful ulcerations are suggestive of syphilis. It will be important to assess the patient’s
sexual activity, but this line of questioning does not address the patient’s most immediate questions and concerns.
Genital warts present as fleshy, nonpainful growths.

breasts.
abnormalities.
Page Number: 1551
Question 15
Type: MCSA
The nurse is performing a breast examination on a 22-year-old female patient and notes that the nipples are
pointing in different directions. What action is indicated?
1. The findings should be documented as normal.
2. The nurse will need to question the patient to determine if she is breastfeeding.
3. The finding will need to be reported for follow-up hormone level assessments.
4. The finding will need to be reported for further testing to rule out a malignancy.
Correct Answer: 4
Rationale 1: This finding is not normal.
Rationale 2: Breastfeeding would not affect the direction in which the nipples point.
Rationale 3: Hormone levels may be associated with nipple discharge but not with asymmetry in their direction.
Rationale 4: The nipples should point in the same direction. Asymmetry in direction may indicate the presence of
a malignancy.

Global Rationale: The nipples should point in the same direction. Asymmetry in direction may indicate the
presence of a malignancy. This finding is not normal. Breastfeeding would not affect the direction in which the
nipples point. Hormone levels may be associated with nipple discharge but not with asymmetry in their direction.

breasts.
abnormalities.
Page Number: 1549
Question 16
Type: MCSA
The nurse is conducting a follow-up call to a patient who had an exploratory laparoscopic surgical procedure 36
hours ago. The patient reports feeling shoulder pain. How should the nurse respond?
1. “The surgical table is famous for causing patients shoulder pain after procedures.”
2. “You are likely not sleeping well, which can lead to shoulder discomfort.”
3. “This pain is caused by the gases used during the surgical procedure.”
4. “This pain should go away soon.”
Correct Answer: 3
Rationale 1: The surgical table is not the most likely source of the patient’s discomfort.
Rationale 2: The patient may not be sleeping well in the days after surgery, but this is not the most logical reason
for the shoulder discomfort.
Rationale 3: When performing laparoscopic surgery, the physician uses carbon dioxide to raise the organs and
improve visualization. This often results in shoulder discomfort during the postoperative period.
Rationale 4: The pain will subside, but this response does not address the educational needs of the patient.
Global Rationale: When performing a laparoscopic surgery the physician uses carbon dioxide to raise the organs
and improve visualization. This often results in shoulder discomfort during the postoperative period. The surgical
table is not the most likely source of the patient’s discomfort. The patient may not be sleeping well in the days
after surgery, but this is not the most logical reason for the shoulder discomfort. The pain will subside, but this
response does not address the educational needs of the patient.

AACN Essentials Competencies: IX.8. Implement evidence-based nursing interventions as appropriate for
managing the acute and chronic care of patients and promoting health across the lifespan
abnormalities.
Page Number: 1546
Question 17
Type: MCSA
A patient who had a laparoscopic surgical procedure has called the clinical facility with complaints of vaginal
discharge. What action should the nurse take first?
1. document the complaint
2. notify the physician
3. ask the patient to come to the clinic immediately
4. check if the patient has been prescribed an antibiotic
Correct Answer: 1
Rationale 1: After a laparoscopic surgery, the patient may experience a small amount of vaginal bleeding or
discharge. This discharge should be managed with perineal pads. The complaint is normal and should be
documented and the patient provided with the needed education.
Rationale 2: There is no need at this time to contact the physician to report normal findings.
Rationale 3: There is no need at this time to have the patient seen at the clinic.
Rationale 4: There is no indication that the patient has an infection.
Global Rationale: After a laparoscopic surgery, the patient may experience a small amount of vaginal bleeding
or discharge. This discharge should be managed with perineal pads. The complaint is normal and should be
documented and the patient provided with the needed education. There is no need at this time to contact the
physician to report normal findings or for the patient to be seen immediately at the clinic. There is no indication
the patient has an infection.

AACN Essentials Competencies: IX.8. Implement evidence-based nursing interventions as appropriate for
managing the acute and chronic care of patients and promoting health across the lifespan
abnormalities.
Page Number: 1546
Question 18
Type: MCMA
The nurse provides aftercare teaching to a patient recovering from a colposcopy. Which patient statement
indicates an understanding of the information?
1. “I will need to avoid heavy lifting for the next 4 weeks.”
2. “I should douche at the end of 1 week to remove vaginal discharge.”
3. “I can take ibuprofen for pain if needed.”
4. “I will have some light vaginal discharge.”
5. “I will report a temperature elevation to the physician’s office.”
Correct Answer: 3, 4, 5
Rationale 1: The colposcopy is a minor procedure to manage cervical dysplasia. The procedure is performed in
the physician’s office. The patient does not need to avoid heavy lifting for weeks.
Rationale 2: Vaginal discharge is anticipated after the procedure. Perineal pads should be used to manage the
discharge. Douching and tampons are to be avoided.
Rationale 3: The colposcopy is a minor procedure to manage cervical dysplasia. The procedure is performed in
the physician’s office. The patient may experience some mild discomfort, for which an NSAID such as ibuprofen
may be taken.

Rationale 4: Vaginal discharge is anticipated after the procedure. Perineal pads should be used to manage the
discharge.
Rationale 5: Temperature elevations may signal the presence of an infection and must be reported to the
physician.
Global Rationale: The colposcopy is a minor procedure to manage cervical dysplasia. The procedure is
performed in the physician’s office. Vaginal discharge is anticipated after the procedure. Perineal pads should be
used to manage the discharge. The patient may experience some mild discomfort, for which an NSAID such as
ibuprofen may be taken. Temperature elevations may signal the presence of an infection and must be reported to
the physician. The patient does not need to avoid heavy lifting for weeks. Douching and tampons are to be
avoided.

system.
Page Number: 1545
Question 19
Type: MCSA
A female patient tells the nurse that it was discovered that her inability to become pregnant is due to her
husband’s choice of underwear. What should the nurse consider about this patient’s statement regarding sperm
production?
1. Tight male underwear inhibits sperm production.
2. Tight male underwear impedes blood flow to the penis.
3. Tight underwear may increase heat in the genital area.
4. The patient is repeating an “old wives’ tale.”
Correct Answer: 3
Rationale 1: Sperm production is not directly related to underwear sizing.
Rationale 2: Sperm is not produced in the penis.

Rationale 3: The optimum temperature for sperm production is approximately 2 to 3 degrees below body
temperature.
Rationale 4: There is truth in the patient’s statement, so this is not an “old wives’ tale.”
Global Rationale: The optimum temperature for sperm production is approximately 2 to 3 degrees below body
temperature. Sperm production is not directly related to underwear sizing. Sperm is not produced in the penis.
There is truth in the patient’s statement, so this is not an “old wives’ tale.”

Client Need Sub:
Client Need Sub:
MNL Learning Outcome: 13.6.3. Examine the diagnosis and treatment of disorders of testes/scrotum and
testicular cancer.
Page Number: 1538
Question 20
Type: MCSA
A male patient was born with only one testis. The nurse realizes that this patient might:
1. need testosterone replacement therapy.
2. be sterile.
3. need estrogen replacement therapy.
4. have a normal level of sperm production.
Correct Answer: 1
Rationale 1: The testes produce sperm and testosterone. With one testis, there is a reduction in testosterone and
sperm production.
Rationale 2: The patient will not be sterile if the remaining testicle is producing sperm.
Rationale 3: Estrogen replacement will not be indicated in the absence of a testicle.
Rationale 4: The level of sperm production is not known without testing.
Global Rationale: The testes produce sperm and testosterone. With one testis, there is a reduction in produced
testosterone and sperm production. The patient will not be sterile if the remaining testicle is producing sperm.
Estrogen replacement will not be indicated in the absence of a testicle. The level of sperm production is not
known without testing.

Client Need Sub:
testicular cancer.
Page Number: 1538
Question 21
Type: MCSA
A male patient has an infection of the epididymis. The nurse recognizes that this infection might cause what
reduction in the patient’s body?
1. testosterone production
2. mature sperm
3. blood flow to the penis
4. ability to sustain an erection
Correct Answer: 2
Rationale 1: An infection in the epididymis does not impact testosterone production.
Rationale 2: The epididymis is the final area for the storage and maturation of sperm.
Rationale 3: An infection in the epididymis does not impact blood flow to the penis.
Rationale 4: An infection in the epididymis does not impact the ability to sustain an erection.
Global Rationale: The epididymis is the final area for the storage and maturation of sperm. An infection in the
epididymis does not impact testosterone production, blood flow to the penis, or the ability to sustain an erection.

breasts.
testicular cancer.
Page Number: 1538
Question 22
Type: MCSA
The analysis of a patient’s semen indicates the patient could have difficulty impregnating his wife. This patient’s
semen likely contains what volume of sperm per milliliter?
1. 150 million
2. 100 million
3. 50 million
4. 5 million
Correct Answer: 4
Rationale 1: The total ejaculate of a healthy male contains from 20 to 150 million sperm per milliliter.
Rationale 4: The total ejaculate of a healthy male contains from 20 to 150 million sperm per milliliter. A sperm
count of 5 million would likely not result in pregnancy.
Global Rationale: The total ejaculate of a healthy male contains from 20 to 150 million sperm. Sperm count of 5
million would likely not result in pregnancy.
Client Need Sub:
breasts.
testicular cancer.
Page Number: 1538
Question 23
Type: MCSA
An analysis of a patient’s sperm shows the sperm are not developing motility. Which body structure should the
nurse suspect is not functioning at the optimal level in this patient?
1. prostate
2. epididymis
3. scrotum
4. penis
Correct Answer: 2
Rationale 1: The prostate does not play a role in the development of motility of the sperm.
Rationale 2: The epididymis is the final area for the storage and maturation of sperm.
Rationale 3: The scrotum does not play a role in the development of motility of the sperm.
Rationale 4: The penis does not play a role in the development of motility of the sperm.
Global Rationale: The epididymis is the final area for the storage and maturation of sperm. The prostate,
scrotum, and penis do not play a role in the development of motility of the sperm.

testicular cancer.
Page Number: 1538
Question 24
Type: MCSA
A male patient’s PSA (prostate-specific antigen) level is elevated. The nurse realizes that this patient will
probably need which diagnostic test to accurately diagnose the presence or absence of cancer?
1. abdominal x-ray
2. biopsy
3. CT scan
4. small bowel examination
Correct Answer: 2
Rationale 1: An abdominal x-ray would not definitively diagnose the presence of prostate cancer.
Rationale 2: Prostate cancer is diagnosed and monitored by measuring prostate-specific antigen (PSA). The
prostate may be examined by a prostate biopsy to accurately diagnose cancer.
Rationale 3: A CT scan would not definitively diagnose the presence of prostate cancer.
Rationale 4: A small bowel examination would not definitively diagnose the presence of prostate cancer.
Global Rationale: Prostate cancer is diagnosed and monitored by measuring prostate-specific antigen (PSA). The
prostate may be examined by a prostate biopsy to accurately diagnose cancer. A CT scan, small bowel
examination, or abdominal x-ray would not definitively diagnose the presence of prostate cancer.

breasts.
MNL Learning Outcome: 13.7.3. Examine the diagnosis and treatment of male reproductive disorders.
Page Number: 1539
Question 25
Type: MCSA
A 40-year-old male patient is concerned with his inability to have an erection since he was prescribed an
antispasmodic for a muscular back injury and hydrocortisone cream to manage a chronic integumentary condition.
What should the nurse suspect this patient is experiencing?
1. side effect of the antispasmodic medication
2. age-related erectile dysfunction
3. side effect of the hydrocortisone cream
4. result of the muscular back injury
Correct Answer: 1
Rationale 1: Antispasmodic medication may cause problems with sexual function.
Rationale 2: A male at the age of 40 does not routinely experience erectile dysfunction.
Rationale 3: Hydrocortisone cream is not identified as a medication that may cause problems with sexual
function.
Rationale 4: There is no indication that the patient has any neurological deficits from the muscular back injury.
Global Rationale: Antispasmodic medication may cause problems with sexual function. Hydrocortisone cream is
not identified as a medication that may cause problems with sexual function. A male at the age of 40 does not
routinely experience erectile dysfunction. There is no indication that the patient has any neurological deficits from
the muscular back injury.

Client Need Sub: Pharmacological and Parenteral Therapies
breasts.
Page Number: 1540
Question 26
Type: MCMA
The nurse is preparing to examine a male patient’s reproductive organs. What should the nurse do in preparation
for this examination?
1. secure a private examination room
2. use clean hands for the examination
3. ask the patient to lie down on the exam table
4. ask the patient to empty his bladder
5. make sure the room temperature is cool
Rationale 1: The nurse ensures that the examining room is warm and private.
Rationale 2: The nurse puts on gloves before beginning and wears them throughout the examination.
Rationale 3: The assessment may be done with the patient sitting or standing.
Rationale 4: The patient is asked to empty his bladder, remove his clothing, and put on a gown or drape.
Rationale 5: A cool temperature may be uncomfortable for the patient who is undressed.
Global Rationale: The nurse ensures that the examining room is warm and private and asks the patient to empty
his bladder, remove his clothing, and put on a gown or drape. The assessment may be done with the patient sitting
or standing. The nurse puts on gloves before beginning and wears them throughout the examination. A cool
temperature may be uncomfortable for the patient who is undressed.

Client Need Sub:
Page Number: 1541
Question 27
Type: MCSA
A female patient complains of severe menstrual cramps. Which uterine structure should the nurse recognize is
responsible for the patient’s complaint?
1. perimetrium
2. myometrium
3. endometrium
4. cervix
Correct Answer: 2
Rationale 1: The perimetrium is a serous layer and does not have muscle that can contract and cause pain.
Rationale 2: The myometrium is the middle layer and makes up most of the uterine wall. This layer has muscle
fibers that run in various directions and allow contractions during menstruation or childbirth and expansion as the
fetus grows.
Rationale 3: The endometrium is the innermost layer that is shed during menstruation and does not have muscle
that can contract and cause pain.
Rationale 4: The cervix is the pathway between the vagina and the uterus and is not the area of muscle
contraction that causes menstrual cramps.
Global Rationale: The myometrium is the middle layer and makes up most of the uterine wall. This layer has
muscle fibers that run in various directions and allow contractions during menstruation or childbirth and
expansion as the fetus grows. Neither the perimetrium, a serous layer, nor the endometrium, the innermost layer
that is shed during menstruation, has muscle that can contract and cause pain. The cervix is the pathway between
the vagina and the uterus and is not the area of muscle contraction that causes menstrual cramps.


MNL Learning Outcome: 13.4.1. Explain the causes and pathophysiology of dyspareunia, orgasmic
dysfunction, and menopause.
Page Number: 1543-1544
Question 28
Type: MCSA
A female patient tells the nurse that she has been taking special vitamins to “increase the production of eggs” so
that she can get pregnant. The nurse realizes that this patient is:
1. being proactive in her attempts to become pregnant.
2. a healthy female and should not worry.
3. anxious about nothing.
4. misinformed.
Correct Answer: 4
Rationale 1: Special vitamins will not help increase the production of eggs.
Rationale 2: The patient might have other health issues that hinder her ability to become pregnant.
Rationale 3: The patient might have other health issues that hinder her ability to become pregnant.
Rationale 4: A woman’s total number of ova is present at birth. The nurse needs to explain this to the patient and
then further evaluate the types of vitamins the patient has been taking. The patient might have other health issues
that hinder her ability to become pregnant.
Global Rationale: A woman’s total number of ova is present at birth. The nurse needs to explain this to the
patient and then further evaluate the types of vitamins the patient has been taking. The patient might have other
health issues that hinder her ability to become pregnant. Special vitamins will not help increase the production of
eggs.

Client Need Sub:

Page Number: 1544
Question 29
Type: MCSA
A young female patient tells the nurse that she has a “thin, runny discharge” from her vagina every month, about
halfway through her menstrual cycle. What should the nurse realize this patient is describing?
1. normal changes in cervical mucus
2. evidence of a blocked vaginal gland
3. sexual arousal response
4. evidence of a sexually transmitted infection
Correct Answer: 1
Rationale 1: In the menstrual cycle, as the maturing follicle begins to produce estrogen around days 6 to 14, the
proliferative phase begins. The amount of cervical mucus produced near the time of ovulation increases. Cervical
mucus changes to a thin, crystalline substance and forms channels to help the sperm move up into the uterus.
Rationale 2: Symptoms of a blocked vaginal gland are not evident.
Rationale 3: This is not an indication of a sexual arousal response.
Rationale 4: Changes in cervical mucus are not an indication of a sexually transmitted infection.
Global Rationale: In the menstrual cycle, as the maturing follicle begins to produce estrogen around days 6 to 14,
the proliferative phase begins. The amount of cervical mucus produced near the time of ovulation increases.
Cervical mucus changes to a thin, crystalline substance and forms channels to help the sperm move up into the
uterus. Symptoms of a blocked vaginal gland are not evident. Changes in cervical mucous are not an indication of
a sexually transmitted infection or of a sexual arousal response.

Client Need Sub:

Page Number: 1544
Question 30
Type: MCMA
During an assessment, the patient asks why the nurse is “feeling her armpit.” How should the nurse respond?
1. “I’m counting the ribs.”
2. “Don’t you feel your own armpits?”
3. “Breast tissue extends into this area.”
4. “I’m assessing hair distribution in this area.”
5. “The armpits should be part of a breast self-exam.”
Rationale 1: Counting the ribs is unnecessary.
Rationale 2: This response does not address the patient’s question.
Rationale 3: The nurse palpates all sections of both axillae for enlarged nodes.
Rationale 4: Hair distribution would be assessed by visualization, not palpation.
Rationale 5: The nurse should explain breast self-exam (BSE) to the patient.
Global Rationale: The nurse palpates all sections of both axillae for enlarged nodes. The nurse should explain
breast self-exam (BSE) to the patient. The nurse is not counting the ribs or assessing hair distribution. The nurse
needs to answer the patient’s question rather than ask another question.

Client Need Sub:
Page Number: 1550
Question 31
Type: MCSA
During an assessment of a female patient’s internal genitalia, the nurse feels a bulge along the posterior vaginal
wall. The nurse recognizes that this finding is considered:
1. a prolapsed uterus.
2. a cystocele.
3. a rectocele.
4. a blocked gland.
Correct Answer: 3
Rationale 1: Protrusion of the cervix or uterus into the vagina indicates uterine prolapse.
Rationale 2: Bulging of the anterior vaginal wall and urinary incontinence would suggest a cystocele.
Rationale 3: Bulging of the posterior wall suggests a rectocele.
Rationale 4: The vagina does not contain glands but rather is lubricated by mucus-producing cells. Skene’s and
Bartholin glands are located between the labia in the vestibule.
Global Rationale: Bulging of the posterior wall suggests a rectocele. Bulging of the anterior vaginal wall and
urinary incontinence would suggest a cystocele. Protrusion of the cervix or uterus into the vagina indicates uterine
prolapse. The vagina does not contain glands but rather is lubricated by mucus-producing cells. Skene’s and
Bartholin glands are located between the labia in the vestibule.

breasts.
MNL Learning Outcome: 13.2.2. Differentiate the manifestations of female reproductive system cysts, polyps,
and benign tumors.
Page Number: 1551
Question 32
Type: MCSA
A female patient is scheduled for an ultrasound to examine the uterus. How should the nurse instruct the patient to
prepare for the test?
1. Take a laxative the night before the test to clear the colon of feces.
2. Restrict fluids prior to the day of the test.
3. Take no food or fluids after midnight the day before the test.
4. Increase fluid intake and do not void until after the test.
Correct Answer: 4
Rationale 1: Clearing the colon of feces is not necessary, as the colon does not obstruct the view of the uterus.
Rationale 2: The patient should not be instructed to restrict fluids.
Rationale 3: Restricting food intake would not assist in viewing the uterus.
Rationale 4: For an abdominal ultrasound, the patient should be instructed to increase the intake of fluids and not
to void until the test is completed. This ensures a full bladder to lift the pelvic organs higher in the abdomen and
improve visualization.
Global Rationale: For an abdominal ultrasound, the patient should be instructed to increase the intake of fluids
and not to void until the test is completed. This ensures a full bladder to lift the pelvic organs higher in the
abdomen and improve visualization. Restricting food intake and clearing the colon of feces are not necessary, as
the colon does not obstruct the view of the uterus.

their care

abnormalities.
Page Number: 1547
Question 33
Type: MCSA
An older female patient complains about the growth of hair on her chin. The nurse understands that this complaint
is consistent with which age-related change?
1. increased estrogen production
2. increased production of luteinizing hormone
3. decreased estrogen production
4. decreased production of follicle-stimulating hormone
Correct Answer: 3
Rationale 1: Postmenopausal women experience a reduction in estrogen production.
Rationale 2: Luteinizing hormone does not affect hair growth in females.
Rationale 3: The normal reduction in estrogen production associated with aging causes changes throughout the
body, including loss of skin tone and growth of facial hair.
Rationale 4: FSH levels do not influence hair growth.
Global Rationale: The normal reduction in estrogen production associated with aging causes changes throughout
the body, including loss of skin tone and growth of facial hair. Postmenopausal women experience a reduction in
estrogen production. The levels of luteinizing hormone and FSH do not influence hair growth.

Client Need Sub:
Learning Outcome: 4. Describe normal variations in reproductive assessment findings for the older adult.
MNL Learning Outcome: 13.4.2. Differentiate the manifestations of dyspareunia, orgasmic dysfunction, and
menopause.
Page Number: 1549
Question 34
Type: MCHS
The nurse is planning to assess for an inguinal hernia during the physical assessment of a male patient. Place an X
on the area that the nurse should palpate for an inguinal hernia.
Correct Answer:
Rationale: When performing an assessment of external genitalia in males, the inguinal and femoral area should
be palpated and inspected for bulges. The patient should be asked to bear down and cough as the nurse palpates
for bulges in the area. A bulge that increases with coughing and straining suggests a hernia.
Global Rationale:
Client Need Sub:
Page Number: 1541
Question 35
Type: MCHS
The nurse is preparing to assess a female patient’s reproductive system. Place an X on the area that is the
perineum.

Correct Answer:
Rationale: The perineum is the area between the vaginal opening and the anus.
Global Rationale:

Client Need Sub:
Page Number: 1544
Question 36
Type: MCMA
During a health history the nurse becomes concerned that a male patient is at risk for cancer of the reproductive
organs. What genetic information about this patient caused the nurse’s concern?
1. The patient’s mother has arthritis.

2. The patient’s father had prostate cancer.
3. The patient’s brother was treated for testicular cancer.
4. The patient was treated for cryptorchidism as a young child.
5. The patient’s uncle has been diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus.
Rationale 1: A family history of arthritis does not increase the patient’s risk of developing cancer of the
reproductive organs.
Rationale 2: Several diseases of the male reproductive system have a genetic component. During the health
assessment interview, it is especially important to ask about a family history of prostate cancer. Although the
exact genetic predisposition in some men for prostate cancer is unknown, many studies have identified a family
history as a major risk factor.
assessment interview, it is especially important to ask about a family history of testicular cancer, which is a risk
factor for cancer of the testes.
assessment interview, it is especially important to ask about a family history of testicular or prostate cancer.
Cryptorchidism can be a risk factor for testicular cancer.
Rationale 5: A family history of type 2 diabetes mellitus does not increase the patient’s risk of developing cancer
of the reproductive organs.
Global Rationale: Several diseases of the male reproductive system have a genetic component. During the health
assessment interview, it is especially important to ask about a family history of testicular or prostate cancer.
Although the exact genetic predisposition in some men for prostate cancer is unknown, many studies have
identified a family history as a major risk factor. A family history of testicular cancer is a risk factor for cancer of
the testes. Cryptorchidism can be a risk factor for testicular cancer. A family history of arthritis or type 2 diabetes
mellitus does not increase the patient’s risk of developing cancer of the reproductive organs.

Learning Outcome: 3. Give examples of genetic disorders of the male and female reproductive systems and
breasts.
MNL Learning Outcome: 13.6.2. Differentiate the manifestations of disorders of testes/scrotum and testicular
cancer.
Page Number: 1540
Question 37
Type: MCMA
After genetic testing it is determined that a male patient is missing the sex-determining region Y gene (SRY).
What manifestations should the nurse expect to assess in this patient?

1. balanitis
2. minimal libido
3. negative sperm production
4. no secondary sex characteristics
5. changes in bone and muscle structure
Correct Answer: 2, 3, 4, 5
Rationale 1: Balanitis, or inflammation of the glans, is associated with bacterial or fungal infections.
Rationale 2: Men who are missing the SRY often have altered testicular development. Testosterone, the primary
androgen produced by the testes, promotes libido (sexual desire).
androgen produced by the testes, is essential for spermatogenesis.
androgen produced by the testes, is essential for the development and maintenance of secondary sex
characteristics.
androgen produced by the testes, promotes the growth of muscles and bone.
Global Rationale: Men who are missing the SRY often have altered testicular development. Testosterone, the
primary androgen produced by the testes, is essential for the development and maintenance of secondary sex
characteristics and for spermatogenesis. It also promotes the growth of muscles and bone and libido (sexual
desire). Balanitis (inflammation of the glans) is associated with bacterial or fungal infections.

breasts.
MNL Learning Outcome: 13.6.2. Differentiate the manifestations of disorders of testes/scrotum and testicular
cancer.
Page Number: 1538, 1540
Question 38
Type: MCMA
A female patient is informed that she has the BRCA1 gene. On which health problems should the nurse focus
when assessing this patient?
1. asthma
2. fibromyalgia
3. heart disease
4. breast cancer
5. ovarian cancer
Rationale 1: Having the BRCA1 gene does not increase a woman’s risk of developing asthma.
Rationale 2: Having the BRCA1 gene does not increase a woman’s risk of developing fibromyalgia.
Rationale 3: Having the BRCA1 gene does not increase a woman’s risk of developing heart disease.
Rationale 4: There is a clear genetic link for some cases of both breast and ovarian cancer. One breast cancer
susceptibility gene, BRCA1, increases a woman’s risk for having breast cancer at some point in her life.
Rationale 5: There is a clear genetic link for some cases of both breast and ovarian cancer. One breast cancer
susceptibility gene, BRCA1, increases a woman’s risk for having ovarian cancer at some point in her life.
Global Rationale: There is a clear genetic link for some cases of both breast and ovarian cancer. One breast
cancer susceptibility gene, BRCA1, increases a woman’s risk for having breast or ovarian cancer at some point in
her life. Having the BRCA1 gene does not increase the risk of developing asthma, fibromyalgia, or heart disease.

breasts.
MNL Learning Outcome: 13.1.1. Explain the risk factors, causes, and pathophysiology of benign breast
disorders and breast cancer.
Page Number: 1547
Question 39
Type: MCMA
The nurse is preparing to assess a female adolescent diagnosed with Turner syndrome. What findings should the
nurse expect because of this genetic disorder?

1. webbed neck
2. muscle atrophy
3. short stature
4. facial hair growth
5. lack of sexual development
Rationale 1: Turner syndrome is a disorder in a female caused by complete or partial absence of one of the two X
chromosomes. The disorder is characterized by a webbed neck.
Rationale 2: Muscle atrophy is not a manifestation of Turner syndrome.
chromosomes. The disorder is characterized by short stature.
Rationale 4: Facial hair growth is not a manifestation of Turner syndrome.
chromosomes. The disorder is characterized by a lack of sexual development at puberty.
Global Rationale: Turner syndrome is a disorder in a female caused by complete or partial absence of one of the
two X chromosomes. The disorder is characterized by short stature, a webbed neck, and a lack of sexual
development at puberty. Muscle atrophy and facial hair growth are not manifestations of Turner syndrome.

breasts.
Page Number: 1547
Question 40
Type: MCMA
The nurse is concerned that a male patient may have breast cancer. What did the nurse assess to make this clinical
decision?
1. a painless nodule in the testis

2. enlarged supraventricular nodes
3. femoral bulge that increases with coughing
4. tender disk of breast tissue behind the areola
5. hard, irregular, fixed nodule in the nipple area
Rationale 1: A painless nodule in the testis is associated with testicular cancer.
Rationale 2: Enlarged supraclavicular nodes may indicate metastasis.
Rationale 3: A femoral bulge that increases with coughing or straining suggests a hernia.
Rationale 4: A tender disk of breast tissue behind the areola indicates gynecomastia.
Rationale 5: A hard, irregular, fixed nodule in the nipple area suggests carcinoma.
Global Rationale: Enlarged supraclavicular nodes may indicate metastasis. A hard, irregular, fixed nodule in the
nipple area suggests carcinoma. A painless nodule in the testis is associated with testicular cancer. A femoral
bulge that increases with coughing or straining suggests a hernia. A tender disk of breast tissue behind the areola
indicates gynecomastia.

breasts.
Page Number: 1541


Lemone/Burke/Bauldoff/Gubrud, Medical-Surgical Nursing 5Th Edition Test Bank

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Lemone/Burke/Bauldoff/Gubrud, Medical-Surgical Nursing 5Th Edition Test Bank

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LeMone/Burke/Bauldoff/Gubrud, Medical-Surgical Nursing 5th Edition Test Bank

Standard Text: Select all that apply.

1. “I take medications to help me sleep several times per week.”

2. “I had the mumps when I was a boy.”

3. “I had a vasectomy 4 years ago.”

4. “I have had diabetes for several years.”

5. “My wife has a history of cervical cancer.”

Rationale 3: Having a vasectomy results in sterility, not impotence.

Rationale 5: The presence of cervical cancer in a partner is not linked to impotence.

Cognitive Level: Analyzing

LeMone/Burke/Bauldoff/Gubrud, Medical-Surgical Nursing 6th Edition Test Bank

1. “Collecting information about a patient’s immediate family is required.”

Cognitive Level: Applying

LeMone/Burke/Bauldoff/Gubrud, Medical-Surgical Nursing 6th Edition Test Bank

Cognitive Level: Applying

LeMone/Burke/Bauldoff/Gubrud, Medical-Surgical Nursing 6th Edition Test Bank

Cognitive Level: Applying

Standard Text: Select all that apply.

1. The breasts are not the same size.

2. The breasts do not display prominent veins.

3. The nipples are flat.

4. The breasts are reddened.

LeMone/Burke/Bauldoff/Gubrud, Medical-Surgical Nursing 6th Edition Test Bank

Rationale 1: It is normal for the breasts to differ in size.

Rationale 2: The absence of prominent veining is normal.

Rationale 5: Dimpling and abnormal contours should be further evaluated.

Cognitive Level: Analyzing

1. “I cannot bathe for 36 hours prior to the examination.”

2. “I should not douche the day before my exam.”

3. “My period will not be a reason to defer my vaginal examination.”

Cognitive Level: Analyzing

Rationale 1: The Graves speculum is used for the adult woman.

LeMone/Burke/Bauldoff/Gubrud, Medical-Surgical Nursing 6th Edition Test Bank

Rationale 3: The Killian speculum is used to examine the nasal passages.

Rationale 4: The Vienna speculum is used to examine the nasal passages.

Cognitive Level: Applying

2. Hegar sign refers to the skin changes noted in early pregnancy.

LeMone/Burke/Bauldoff/Gubrud, Medical-Surgical Nursing 6th Edition Test Bank

Cognitive Level: Analyzing

2. The uterus may be tilted backward (retroverted) or angled backward (retroflexed).

Rationale 1: This anatomical positioning of the uterus is not related to pregnancy.

Rationale 4: This anatomical positioning of the uterus is not related to pregnancy.

LeMone/Burke/Bauldoff/Gubrud, Medical-Surgical Nursing 6th Edition Test Bank

Cognitive Level: Applying

Standard Text: Select all that apply.

1. “Lubrication for intercourse will not be as necessary after menopause.”

3. “My uterus will shrink in size after menopause.”

4. “My skin will thicken after menopause.”

5. “I should start practicing Kegel exercises.”

Rationale 3: The uterus shrinks in size during menopause.

Rationale 4: The skin thins during menopause.

LeMone/Burke/Bauldoff/Gubrud, Medical-Surgical Nursing 6th Edition Test Bank

Cognitive Level: Analyzing

1. the date of the patient’s LMP

2. the number of past pregnancies the patient has had

4. the patient’s age at menarche

LeMone/Burke/Bauldoff/Gubrud, Medical-Surgical Nursing 6th Edition Test Bank

Cognitive Level: Applying

4. “I should avoid sexual intercourse in the days following the procedure.”

Cognitive Level: Analyzing

4. a cyst of Skene’s gland

Rationale 2: A fistula results is an opening between two anatomically separate organs.

LeMone/Burke/Bauldoff/Gubrud, Medical-Surgical Nursing 6th Edition Test Bank