UNIT I

A steam power plant using Rankine cycle generated steam at 10 bar and 380OC. Condensation occurs
Question at 0.06 bar. Find out turbine work. GIVEN DATA h1=151.5 KJ/kg, h3=3222 KJ/kg, hfg4=2416 2
KJ/kg, h4=2279.9 KJ/kg, x4=0.881
Option A 942 KJ/kg
Option B 1050 KJ/kg
Option C 980 KJ/kg
Option D 1090 KJ/kg
Answer A

A steam power plant using Rankine cycle generated steam at 10 bar and 380OC. Condensation occurs
Question at 0.06 bar. Find out Heat supplied. GIVEN DATA h1=151.5 KJ/kg, h3=3222 KJ/kg, hfg4=2416 2
KJ/kg, h4=2279.9 KJ/kg, x4=0.881
Option A 136 KJ/kg
Option B 942 KJ/kg
Option C 3070 KJ/kg
Option D 1050 KJ/kg
Answer C

In a reheat cycle the steam is supplied at 50 bar & 400 OC to the high pressure turbine and after
expansion upto 12 bar pressure, steam is reheated at constant pressure upto 380 OC in a reheater
further expanding in low pressure turbine upto pressure 0.1 bar. Find net work done if pump work is 5
Question 3
kJ/kg & h1 = 191.8 kJ/kg, h2= 196.8 kJ/kg, h3= 3198 kJ/kg, h4= 2850 kJ/kg, h5= 3225 Kj/kg, h6=
2325kJ/kg & 1 kg of steam flow.

Option A 348 Kj/kg

Option B 1243 kJ/kg
Option C 900 kJ/kg
Option D 3376 kJ/kg
Answer B

In a reheat cycle the steam is supplied at 50 bar & 400 OC to the high pressure turbine and after 3
expansion upto 12 bar pressure, steam is reheated at constant pressure upto 380 OC in a reheater
Question further expanding in low pressure turbine upto pressure 0.1 bar. Find steam rate if pump work is 5
kJ/kg & h1 = 191.8 kJ/kg, h2= 196.8 kJ/kg, h3= 3198 kJ/kg, h4= 2850 kJ/kg, h5= 3225 Kj/kg, h6=
2325kJ/kg & 1 kg of steam flow.
Option A 2.896 kg/kWh
Option B 4.567 kg/kWh
Option C 5.269 kg/kWh
Option D 6.111 kg/kWh
Answer A

Question The Bhopal gas tragedy was caused due to — 1

Option A Radioactive poisoning
Option B Nitrous oxide leakage
Option C Methyl isocyanate (MIC) gas leakage
Option D Acid rain
Answer C

Question The Kyoto Protocol was adopted at the — 1

Option A United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) in 1992
Option B Convention on Biological Diversity
Option C Convention on the Trans-boundary Effects of Industrial Accidents
Option D Third Conference of the UNFCC in 1997
Answer D
Question The process of converting coal into coke is called ___ 1
Option A Coking
Option B Carbonization
Option C Decarbonization
Option D Isomerization
Answer B

Question Only bituminous type of coal can be coked. 1

Option A a) True
Option B b) False
Answer A

Question When coal burns in air then 1

Option A Carbon dioxide is formed
Option B Sulphur dioxide is formed
Option C Carbon monoxide is formed
Option D Hydrogen gas is formed
Answer A

1
Question The Chevron Corporation had to pay a huge fine for oil pollution in the —
Option A Equadorian rainforest
Option B Savannah grasslands
Option C Brazilian rainforest
Option D Amazon basin
Answer A

Question What are cascades? 1

Option A They are the one step separation processes
Option B They are the last part of separation processes
Option C They are an aggregation of stages
Option D They are the starting part of every separation process
Answer C

Question Countercurrent cascades are not prevalent in which process? 1

Option A Crystallization
Option B Distillation
Option C Stripping
Option D Liquid-liquid extraction
Answer A

Question Caking coal with ______ content are used for gas manufacturer. 1
Option A high volatile matter
Option B low volatile matter
Option C high ash content
Option D high moisture content
Answer A

Question In which state does the pulverised coal burns? 1

Option A a) Gaseous
Option B b) Liquid
Option C c) Solid
Option D d) Colloidal
Answer A

Question PCRA stands for 2

Option A a. Public Conservations Research Association
Option B b. Petroleum Conservation Research Association
Option C c. Public Council of Research Association
Option D d. Partial Counting of remaining Amendment
Answer B

Question On what factors does the burning of pulverised coal depends? 1

Option A a) The calorific value of fuel
Option B b) Bulk density
Option C c) Percentage of volatile matter
Option D d) On the texture of coal
Answer C

Question How is the sizing of coal processed? 1

Option A a) By the use of measuring instruments
Option B b) By the use of computer software
Option C c) By crushing and screening
Option D d) By the mass of the coal
Answer C

Question Which of the following is a disadvantage of storing coal for a long period of time? 1
Option A a) Increase in the friability of coal
Option B b) Decrease in its ignition temperature
Option C c) Increase in its calorific value
Option D d) Increase in the proportion of fine
Answer D

Question 54.The reheating of steam is used when the vaporization pressure is ____. 1
Option A a) low
Option B b) high
Option C c) both when low or high
Option D d) always
Answer B

Question Deaerator is a type of open heater. 1

Option A a) true
Option B b) false
Answer A

Question Froth flotation process is used for ____________________ 1

Option A a) Screening of coal
Option B b) Beneficiation of coal
Option C c) Dewatering of coal
Option D d) Mining of coal
Answer B

Question What is the main purpose for a blending of coal? 1

Option A To produce more amount of coal
Option B To produce good quality of coal
Option C To decrease the cost of coal
Option D To produce different types of coal at same time
Answer B
1
Question How do the chances of spontaneous combustion of coal can decrease?
Option A Decrease in the maturity of coal
Option B By washing the coal time to time
Option C Increase in the maturity of coal
Option D By the reducing the quantity of coal
Answer C

Question Which processes do the Rankine cycle contain? 2

Option A two isothermal and two isochoric processes
Option B two isentropic and two isobaric processes
Option C two isentropic and two isothermal processes
Option D two isothermal and two isobaric processes
Answer B

Question Which ideal process is carried out at the turbine in vapour power cycle? 1
Option A reversible adiabatic compression
Option B reversible adiabatic expansion
Option C reversible constant pressure heat addition
Option D reversible constant pressure heat rejection
Answer B

Which is the affecting factor for the fact that turbine work output is more than pump work input in 2
Question vapour power cycle for the same pressure ration?
Option A specific heat added to the working fluid
Option B specific volume of working fluid
Option C both a. and b.
Option D none of the above
Answer B

Question Which of the following statement is true? 2

Option A open heater is also known as contact-type heater
Option B in an open type heater the extracted or bled steam is allowed to mix with the feedwater
Option C in a closed heater, the fluids are not allowed to mix together
Option D all of the mentioned
Answer D

Question .Which of the following is true for a closed heater? 1

Option A a) it requires a single pump regardless of the number of heaters
Option B b) it is costly
Option C c) both of the mentioned
Option D d) none of the mentioned
Answer C

Question The thermal irreversibility should be ____ to improve the performance. 1

Option A a) reduced
Option B b) increased
Option C c) kept constant
Option D d) none of the mentioned
Answer A
 UNIT II

Question A vaccum of 710 mm of Hg was obtained with barometer reading of 755 mm of Hg. Correct the 2
vaccum to standard barometer of 760 mm.
Option A 720 mm of Hg
Option B 715 mm of Hg
Option C 755 mm of Hg
Option D 745 mm of Hg
Answer B

A vaccum of 710 mm of Hg was obtained with barometer reading of 755 mm of Hg. The temperature
Question ofcondenser was 25oC. Determine the pressure of air in the condenser in bar. partial pressure of 3
o
steam at 25 C is 0.03166 bar.
Option A 0.03255 bar
Option B 0.02585 bar
Option C 0.03532 bar
Option D 0.02832 bar
Answer D

The actual vacuum in a condenser is

Question 1
Option A Barometric pressure+ Actual pressure
Option B Gauge pressure—atmospheric pressure
Option C Gauge pressure + atmospheric pressure
Option D None
Answer B

Question The condenser in a steam power plant is placed between the 1

Option A Boiler and turbine
Option B Pump and the boiler
Option C Turbine and the pump
Option D None
Answer C

Question How many number of spray nozzle does each module on spray pond cooling system contains? 1
Option A 1
Option B 2
Option C 3
Option D 4
Answer D

Question Select the disadvantage of cooling pond out of the given? 2

Option A The area required of cooling in a cooling pond is small
Option B Spray losses due to evaporation and windage run high
Option C There is no control over the temperature of cooled water
Option D The cooling efficiency is low compared with cooling water
Answer C
Question How is air produced in mechanical draught cooling tower? 1
Option A Air Tuyeres
Option B Propeller fans
Option C Air blowers
Option D Louvre
Answer B

Question In which type of cooling system are nozzles arranged on different elevation? 1
Option A Single deck system
Option B Double deck system
Option C Natural Flow system
Option D Direct flow system
Answer B

Question Pressure in the condenser of a steam plant is 1

Option A More than atmospheric
Option B Equal to atmospheric
Option C Less than atmospheric
Option D None
Answer C

1
Question Surface condensers and jet condensers of the same cooling capacity are compared
Option A Overall size is bigger of the surface condenser
Option B Sizes are equal
Option C Size of the surface condenser is smaller than the jet condenser
Option D None
Answer A

Question Pressure in the condenser of a steam plant is 1

Option A More than atmospheric
Option B Equal to atmospheric
Option C Less than atmospheric
Option D None
Answer C

Question Condensate can be used as feed water in a 1

Option A Jet condenser
Option B Surface condenser
Option C Both in Jet and Surface condenser
Option D None
Answer B

Question Surface condenser is one in which 1

Option A Steam passes through the tubes and the water is outside
Option B Air passes through the tubes and the water is outside
Option C Water passes through the tubes and the steam is outside
Option D None
Answer C
Question The ratio of actual vacuum to the ideal vacuum in a condenser is called 1
Option A Boiler efficiency
Option B Condenser efficiency
Option C Vacuum efficiency’
Option D None
Answer C

Question The condenser used in thermal power plant is 1

Option A Air cooled
Option B Water Cooled
Option C Evaporative Cooled
Option D None
Answer C

Question What is use of the air pumps in the condenser? 1

Option A Remove water
Option B Air leaking in the condenser and to maintain the vacuum.
Option C Maintain atmospheric pressure and the condenser.
Option D Both (a) & (b).
Answer B

Question Evaporative type of condenser has

Option A Water in pipes surrounded by steam outside. 2
Option B Steam and cooling water mixed to give the condensate.
Option C Steam in pipes surrounded by water.
Option D None of the above.
Answer c

Question What are used in the direct flow system to transverse the pond before uniting at intake? 1
Option A Separators
Option B Filters
Option C Baffle walls
Option D Porous pipes
Answer C

Question In which system is Cooling of hot water is done on tray as step by? 1
Option A Mechanical draught cooling system
Option B Hyperbolic cooling tower
Option C Atmospheric cooling tower
Option D Wet cooling tower
Answer C

Question .How does the flow of air occur in natural draught cooling towers? 2
Option A Natural pressure head density between cold outside air and humid inside air
Option B Variation in pressure of both cold outside air and humid inside air
Option C Due to the given air vents and vacuum ports
Option D Because of difference in the volume of both the of airs
Answer A

Question Centrifugal pump is a_________ 1

Option A Turbomachinery
Option B Flow regulating device
Option C Drafting device
Option D Intercooling device
Answer A
1
Question The main function of nozzle is to __________
Option A Varying temperatures
Option B Pressure variations
Option C Load variations
Option D Heat variations
Answer B

Question Centrifugal pumps are a sub class of dynamic axisymmetric work absorbing turbomachinery. 1
Option A TRUE
Option B FALSE
Answer

Question What is the most effective advantage of gravitational separators? 1

Option A They consume no power
Option B They just need small amount of space for operation
Option C They are cost effective
Option D Time taken for operation is very less
Answer C

Question Which principle does cyclone separator use? 1

Option A Gravitational force
Option B \ Vortex velocity
Option C Inertia
Option D Temperatures of air
Answer C

1
Question What is called when several cyclone separators are operated parallely?
Option A Octa-cyclone
Option B Multi-cyclone
Option C Center-cyclone
Option D Para-cyclone
Answer B

Question What is the work of the baghouse filter? 2

Option A To remove the hot air from furnace
Option B To separate the solid particles from dust produced
Option C To remove dust particles from flue gas
Option D To wash away the contamination of dust on the walls of furnace
Answer C

Question A ‘stroker’ is a power operated fuel ___ mechanism 1

Option A Burning
Option B Feeding
Option C Handling
Option D Storage
Answer B

Question The following is not a pulverized fuel burner. 1

Option A Tangential burner
Option B Turbulent burner
Option C Cyclone burner
Option D Radial burner
Answer B
 UNIT III
Which of the following is not a requirement for site selection of hydroelectric power plant? 1
Question
Option A Availability of water
Option B Large catchment area
Option C Rocky land
Option D Sedimentation
Answer D

The amount of electrical energy that can be generated by a hydroelectric power plant depends 2
Question upon
Option A Head of water
Option B Quantity of water
Option C Specific weight of water
Option D Efficiency of Alternator
Answer B

Question Potential energy of water is used to drive the turbine. 1

Option A True
Option B False
Answer B

Question Hydroelectric power plant is 2

Option A Non-renewable source of energy
Option B Conventional source of energy
Option C Non-conventional source of energy
Option D Continuous source of energy
Answer B

Question Hydroelectric power plant is generally located near load centre. 1

Option A True
Option B False
Answer B

Question Hydroelectric power plant is mainly located in 1

Option A Flat areas
Option B Deserts
Option C Hilly areas
Option D Deltas
Answer C
2
Question Which statement about hydroelectric power plant is wrong?
Option A Efficiency of hydroelectric power plant does not reduce with age
Option B Its construction coast is very high and takes a long time for erection.
Option C It is very neat and clean plant because no smoke or ash is produced.
Meeting rapidly changing load demands is not possible in hydroelectric power plant.
Option D
Answer D

Question Which of the following is not an advantage of hydroelectric power plant? 2

Option A no fuel requirement
Option B low running cost
Option C continuous power source
Option D no standby losses
Answer C

Question Which of the following statement is true about hydroelectric power plant? 1
Option A Hydroelectric power plants are multipurpose.
 Due to non-uniform flow of water frequency control in such plants is very difficult.
Option B
Option C Hydroelectric power plant has high running cost
Option D Water is used as fuel in hydroelectric power plant
Answer A

Which element of hydroelectric power plant prevents the penstock from water hammer 2
Question phenomenon?
Option A Valves and Gates
Option B Draft tubes
Option C Spillway
Option D Surge Tank
Answer D

Question Dam having very wide base as compared to its height is called 1
Option A buttress dam
Option B arch dam
Option C earth dam
Option D solid gravity dam
Answer C

Spillway discharges the overflow water to the downstream side when the reservoir is full. 1
Question
Option A True
Option B False
Answer A

Question Trash racks are built for 2

Option A discharging the water freely from the turbine exit to tailrace
Option B preventing the turbine from ingress of floating and other materials
Option C creating artificial head to store sufficient potential energy of water
Option D controlling the opening of valves
Answer B

Question Penstock in a hydroelectric power plant is 2

Option A a pipe connected to runner outlet
Option B nozzle that release high pressure water on turbine blades
Option C a conduit connecting forebay to scroll case of turbine
Option D a pipe connecting surge tank to dam
Answer C

Question The pressure at the inlet or exit of the draft tube should not be 2
Option A less than one third of atmospheric pressure
Option B greater than one third of atmospheric pressure
Option C less than one atmospheric pressure
Option D greater than one atmospheric pressure
Answer A

Question Draft tube increases the operating head on the turbine. 1

Option A True
Option B False
Answer A

Question Which statement about surge tank is wrong? 2

Option A Ideal location of surge tank is at the turbine inlet
Option B A decrease in load demands cause a rise in water level in surge tank
Option C Surge tanks are totally closed to avoid entry of unwanted objects to penstock
Option D Surge tanks are installed to reduce harm effects of water hammer phenomenon
Answer C

Question Trash racks are located 1

Option A near tailrace
Option B at the entrance of turbine
Option C inside penstock
Option D intake
Answer D

Question What is the function of booms? 1

Option A It supports the dam
Option B It supports the penstock
Option C It divert the Icebergs from flowing into the penstock
Option D To hold the turbine structure
Answer A

Question Pelton turbines are used for 2

Option A medium head applications
Option B low head applications
Option C in steam power plants
Option D for high head applications
Answer D

Question Operating head of Francis turbine is 3

Option A less than 30
Option B less than 70 m
Option C 30 to 200 m
Option D more than 200 m
Answer C

Question Governing mechanism used in case of Pelton wheel turbine is 1

Option A guide vane
Option B nozzle needle
Option C control valve
Option D dam gates
Answer B
1
Question Which turbine has highest speed?
Option A Pelton wheel turbine
Option B Francis turbine
Option C Impulse turbine
Option D Kaplan turbine
Answer D

Why has nuclear energy become an inevitable option for the development of the country? 2
Question
Option A Because less pollution caused by nuclear plant
Option B High efficiency of nuclear energy
Option C Due to acute shortage of other sources of energy
Option D High cost of energy production of other sources
Answer C

How much amount of nuclear energy burnt is equivalent to the energy produced by 3000 tonnes 3
Question of coal?
Option A 1kg
Option B 5kg
Option C 15kg
Option D 20kg
Answer A

Question What is the most attractive part of nuclear energy? 1

Option A Supports countries development
Option B Causes no pollution
Option C Has high efficiency of energy production
Option D Is available in abundance
Answer B

Question Nucleus consists of two sub-particles known as? 2

Option A Nucleotides
Option B Nucleons
Option C Neutrons
Option D Nucleosides
Answer B

Question On which law is the nuclear energy explained? 2

Option A Einstein’s law
Option B Newton’s law
Option C Rutherford law
Option D Mendeleev law
Answer A

Question Number of protons in the nucleus is called 1

Option A Atomic number
Option B Mass number
Option C Electric charge
Option D Periodic number
Answer A

Question The total number of nucleons in the nucleus is called 1

Option A Atomic number
Option B Mass number
Option C Electric charge
Option D Periodic number
Answer B

Question In which of the following process are Neutrons emitted? 1

Option A Inverse beta Decay
Option B Nuclear fission
Option C Spontaneous Fission
Option D Nuclear fusion
Answer B

Question Why neutrons with lower energy should be capable of causing fission? 2
Option A For faster reaction process
Option B For sustained reaction process
Option C For Safety purpose
Option D In order to not waste the nuclear fuel
Answer B

Question What happens when a neutron is absorbed by a nucleus of an atom of U235? 3

Option A Mass number of atom increases
Option B One electron is let out
Option C U236 isotope is formed
Option D Nucleus becomes unstable
Answer C
Question Who invented nuclear fission? 2
Option A Rutherford
Option B Hans Bethe
Option C Otto Hahn
Option D Marie Curie
Answer C

Question Most of the energy released in fission process is in process of 1

Option A Kinetic Energy
Option B Thermal Energy
Option C Light Energy
Option D Heat Energy
Answer A

Question Combining of two light nuclei of low mass to produce a heavy nucleus is called 2
Option A Nuclear fusion
Option B Nuclear fission
Option C Spontaneous fission
Option D Double beta decay
Answer A

Question What type of Reaction takes place in sun? 2

Option A Nuclear fusion
Option B Nuclear fission
Option C Spontaneous fission
Option D Double beta decay
Answer A

Question Fusion reactions are called 2

Option A Thermonuclear
Option B Thermoduric
Option C Thermo Uric
Option D Compound reactions
Answer A

Question Which of the following element is readily available in the ordinary water? 2
Option A Cesium
Option B Thorium
Option C Deuterium
Option D Astatine
Answer C

Question Which nuclear fuel is usually used in thermal nuclear reactor to create fission? 1
Option A U234
Option B U235
Option C U236
Option D U237
Answer B

Which parts function is to reduce the energy of fast neutrons to thermal neutrons in nuclear power 2
Question plant?
Option A Moderator
Option B Coolant circulator
Option C Control rods
Option D Shielding
Answer A
Question What makes the best moderators in nuclear power plant?
Option A Material with low atomic number 1
Option B Materials with low atomic mass
Option C Materials with high atomic number
Option D Materials with high mass number
Answer A

Question What is used in nuclear reactor as a cooling method/device? 1

Option A Coolant
Option B Water jackets
Option C Air cooler
Option D Air vents
Answer A

Question Control rods are made of __________ 2

Option A Cesium 
Option B Cadmium
Option C Tin
Option D Gallium
Answer B
1
Question Shield is made of _________
Option A Iron Metal enclosure
Option B Concrete and water
Option C Ceramics walls
Option D Copper metal
Answer B

Question PWR stands for ________ 1

Option A Power
Option B Partially weathered rock
Option C Pressurized water Reactor
Option D Packaging waste regulations
Answer C

Question LWR stands for _________ 1

Option A Lower water reactor
Option B Line water reactor
Option C Liquefied water reactor
Option D Light water reactor
Answer D

Question CANDU stands for ____________ 1

Option A Canadian Natural Darmstadtium Uranium
Option B Canadian Natural Deuterium Uranium
Option C Canadian Natural Dubnium Uranium
Option D Canadian Natural Dysprosium Uranium
Answer B
 UNIT IV
Question 1 The components of a diesel power plant are 1
Option A  air intake system
Option B exhaust system
Option C  cooling system
Option D  fuel supply system
Option E  all of the above
Answer E 

Question 2 Diesel power plants are mainly used for 1
Option A  peak load
Option B base load
Option C  Emergency
Answer C

Question 3 Unit of specific fuel consumption is  1
Option A  kg/h
Option B kJ/kg 
Option C  kg/kWh
Option D  kg/kJ
Answer C

In an open cycle gas turbine power plant the gases after exapansion are 
Question 4 1
exhausted at 
Option A  below atmospheric pressure
Option B above atmospheric pressure
Option C  at atmospheric pressure
Option D  None of the above
Answer B 

Question 5 A  gas turbine power plant works on  1
Option A  Rankine cycle
Option B Carnot cycle
Option C  Brayton cycle
Option D  None of the above
Answer C 

Question 6 Efficiency of a GTPP is given by 1
Option A   1‐[ (Rp)^‐(ϒ‐1)/ϒ]
Option B 1 + [ (Rp)^‐(ϒ‐1)/ϒ]
Option C  1‐[ (Rp)^‐(ϒ)/(ϒ‐1)]
Option D   1‐[ (Rp)^‐ϒ]
Answer A

Question 7 Work ratio is given by, Wt= turbine work, Wc= Compressor work 1
Option A   (Wt‐Wc)/Wc
Option B (Wt‐Wc)/Wt
Option C  Wt/Wc
Option D  Wc/Wt
Answer B

Question 8 Relative efficiency of a diesel power plant is given by 1
Option A  Actual thermal effy./ Air standard effy.
Option B Mechanical effy./ Air standard effy.
Option C  Air standard effy./ Actual thermal effy.
Option D   Air standard effy./ Mechanical effy.
Answer A

Question 9 Isentropic efficiency of turbine is given by 1
Option A  Actual work/ Isentropic work
Option B  Isentropic work/ Actual work
Option C  None of the above
Answer A 

Question 10 Isentropic efficiency of  compressor  is given by 1
Option A  Actual work/ Isentropic work
Option B  Isentropic work/ Actual work
Option C  None of the above
Answer B

Question 11 Choice of a gas turbine depends most on which of these factors?    1
Option A  Compression ratio
Option B Cut‐off ratio 
Option C  Pressure ratio
Option D  none of the mentioned
Answer C

Question 12 Which of the following is not used in gas turbine power plant?  1
Option A  Compressor
Option B Turbine 
Option C  Combustion chamber
Option D  Condenser
Answer D

Question 13 What is intercooling in gas turbine power plant?     1
Option A  Removal of heat from combustion gas between stages of turbine 
Option B  Removal of heat from compressor between stages of compressor 
Option C  Removal of heat from intake air
Option D  Removal of heat from exhaust air
Answer B

Question 14 The installation time for a gas turbine power plant is __________  1
Option A  Comparatively less than thermal power plant
Option B Comparatively more than thermal power plant
Option C   Equal to thermal power plant 
Option D  Very much longer than thermal power plant
Answer A

Question 15 Which of the following is a type of Gas Turbine Plant?  1
Option A  Single Acting
Option B Double Acting
Option C  Open
Option D  None of the above
Answer C

Question 16 Gas turbine plants are not used   1
Option A  As peak load plants.
Option B  As base load plants.
Option C  As standby power plants. 
Option D   In combination with the steam power plants.
Answer A

Question 17 The compressor has to be started     1
Option A  Before starting the gas turbine. 
Option B After starting the gas turbine. 
Option C   Simultaneously with starting of gas turbine. 
Option D  At any time during the operation.
Answer A 

Question 18 Combined cycle power plants are suitable for?  1
Option A   Base loads.     
Option B  Peak loads.
Option C  Intermediate loads.
Option D  Both base and peak loads.   
Answer D

Question 19 The heating value of gaseous fuels is about  1
Option A  500 kJ/litre
Option B 30 kJ/litre
Option C  100 kJ/litre
Option D  10 kJ/litre
Answer B

In a 4 stroke, 4 cylinder diesel engine, BP=32.5 kW, Mech. Effy.=80%, then 
Question 20 2
IP (kW)is
Option A  40.63
Option B 39.63
Option C  41.83
Option D  42.00
Answer A

Question 21 If BSFC=0.25 kg/kWh, ISFC=0.21 kg/kWh, then Mech. Efficiency is   2
Option A  80%
Option B 82%
Option C  84%
Option D  85%
Answer C

A GTPP has presssure ratio of 5, inlet temp. of compressor is      27 deg C. 
Question 22 2
The temperature after compression is  [take ϒ=1.4]
Option A  200 deg C
Option B 202 deg C
Option C  205 deg C
Option D  202.15 deg C
Answer D

A GTPP has presssure ratio of 6, inlet temp. to the turbine is 627 deg C. 
Question 23 2
The temperature afterexpansion is  [take ϒ=1.4]
Option A  539.4 deg C
Option B 540.4 deg C
Option C  540 deg C
Option D  541.4 deg C
Answer A

In a GTPP ( with usual notations) T1=300 K, T2= 500 K, T3= 1000 K, T4=600
2
Question 24 K, take ϒ=1.4. The compressor work is
Option A  280 kJ/kg
Option B 288 kJ/kg
Option C  270 kJ/kg
Option D  284 kJ/kg
Answer A

In a GTPP ( with usual notations) T1=300 K, T2= 500 K, T3= 1000 K, T4=600
2
Question 25 K, take ϒ=1.4. The turbine  work is
Option A  280 kJ/kg
Option B 388 kJ/kg
Option C  470 kJ/kg
Option D  480 kJ/kg
Answer D

In a GTPP ( with usual notations) T1=300 K, T2= 500 K, T3= 1000 K, T4=600
2
Question 26 K, take ϒ=1.4. The heat supplied is
Option A  500 kJ/kg
Option B 480 kJ/kg
Option C  700 kJ/kg
Option D  680 kJ/kg
Answer C

Question 27 The following is (are) the limitation(s) of gas turbines.   2
Option A  They are not self‐starting
Option B Higher rotor speeds
Option C  Low efficiencies at part loads    
Option D  All of the above
Answer D

The  intermediate temperature T2 for optimum work of GTPP   [T1 is inlet 
Question 28 2
temp. and T3 is maximum temp.] 
Option A  √(T1*T3)
Option B √ (T3/T1)
Option C  T1*T3
Option D  T3/T1
Answer A

The gas turbine power plant mainly uses which among the following 
Question 29 2
fuels? 
Option A  Coal and Peat.    
Option B Kerosene oil and diesel oil and residual oil.  
Option C  Gas oil.
Option D  Natural gas and liquid petroleum fuel. 
Answer D

A GTPP operates between temperature limits of T1= 295 K(Inlet temp. ), 
Question 30 T3=1085 K ( max. Temp.) &  ϒ=1.4, pressure ratio =9.768. The compressor  3
and turbine work  (in kW) are
Option A  270, 525.6
Option B 271, 530.5
Option C  272.1, 521.8
Option D  235, 470
Answer C

Question 31 For an inlet temp.at compressor of 305 K, isentropic effy. of compressor of 3
80 %, pressure ratio of 5 and ϒ= 1.4, the temp. at exit of compressor is   
Option A  500.6 K
Option B 550.6 K
Option C  600.6 K
Option D  527.6 K
Answer D

Question 32 For an inlet temp.at turbine inlet of 1073 K, isentropic effy. of turbine of  3
85 %, pressure ratio of 5.9 and ϒ= 1.38, the temp. at exit of turbine is   
Option A  720.6 K
Option B 720.4 K
Option C  702.6 K
Option D  704.6 K
Answer B
 Unit V

1 Question Wind wind energy is

Option a Arises from temperature difference of the earth's surface
Option b In which conversion of kinetic energy of wind into mechanical and further into to electricity takes place
Option c Wind energy systems are noisy in operation
Option d All the above
Answer d

2 Question wind turbines are used to convert

Option a Wind energy into radiation
Option b Kinetic energy of wind into mechanical energy and further in electrical
Option c Potential energy to kinetic energy and further electrical
Option d None of these
Answer b

3 Question Liquid dominated system Geothermal power plant is also known as

Option a Dry steam steam geothermal plant
Option b Magma resource thermal plant
Option c Wet steam system geothermal plant
Option d Both a & b
Answer c

4 Question The difference between high tide and low tide is known as
Option a EBB range
Option b Oscan range
Option c Tidal range
Option d All of these
Answer c

5 Question Which of the following is NOT true related to wind energy

Option a It is renewable source of energy
Option b It is consistent and steady source
Option c Non polluting source of energy
Option d None of these
Answer b

6 Question What is the purpose of cooling tower in Solar thermal plant

Option a It cools the steam coming from steam turbine
Option b It cool the water coming from condenser for recirculation
Option c It condense the water going to boiler
Option d None of these
Answer b

7 Question India's first Geothermal power plant situated at

Option a Jharkhand, Surajkund
Option b Chhattisgarh, Raipur
Option c Maharashtra, Eklarhare
Option d Jammu & Kashmir, Puga
Answer b

8 Question Which of the following NOT the type of horizontal axis wind mill
Option a Wind mill with two aerodynamic blades
 Option b Multi blade
Option c Dutch type
Option d Creep type
Answer d

9 Question In the horizontal axis aerodynamic blade wind mill rotor blades are continuously flexed due to
Option a Gravitational loads
Option b inertia loads
Option c Unsteady aerodynamic
Option d All of these
Answer d

In horizontal axis aerodynamic blade wind mill components are mounted on bed plate which is
10 Question attached on ________at the top of the tower.
Option a Syntel
Option b Nacelle
Option c Pintel
Option d Shank
Answer c

11 Question Which of the following is False related to flat plate solar collector
Option a Both direct and diffuse radiation can be absorbed
Option b Suitable for heating to temperature below 1000
Option c It consists of insulated box, absorber plate and tubes
Option d All of these
Answer b

12 Question In which of the following higher power coefficient is obtained

Option a Rotor with two blades
Option b Rotor with three blades
Option c Rotor with four blades
Option d Rotor with single blades
Answer c

13 Question In horizontal axis propeller with single blade wind mill

Option a Bending may occurs due to sudden shift in wind direction
Option b Counter weight is attached for balancing
Option c Single long blade is mounted on hub
Option d All the above
Answer d

14 Question In wet steam geothermal power plant, the water temperature must be
Option a Above the critical temperature
Option b Above normal boiling point temperature
Option c Below boiling temperature
Option d None of these
Answer b

15 Question Darrieus rotor type wind mill has

Option a Extremely long blades above 60 m
Option b Two half cylinder facing opposite direction
Option c Curved blades forming cage like structure
Option d None of these
Answer c
16 Question Horizontal axis multi blase type wind mill having which one of the following characteristic
Option a Blades made from metal
Option b Have good power coefficient
Option c Rotors have high strength to weight ratio
Option d All the above
Answer d

17 Question Nacelle is
Option a Part of wind mill on which all components are mounted at the top of the tower
Option b Part which balance the rotor
Option c It is a cover housing that houses all generating components
Option d All the above
Answer c

18 Question Vertical axis wind mill has its blades rotating

Option a An axis parallel to the ground
Option b An axis perpendicular to the ground
Option c An Axis inclined to the ground surface
Option d All the above
Answer b

19 Question Which of the following is/are types of Vertical axis wind mill
Option a Dutch type
Option b Sail type
Option c Pintle type
Option d Savonius type
Answer d

20 Question Darrieus type rotor wind mill falls under which type of category of wind mill
Option a Horizontal axis wind mill
Option b Vertical axis wind mill
Option c Permanently Inclined axis wind mill
Option d None of these
Answer b

21 Question Which of the following is NOT true related to Photovoltic system technology
Option a Convert solar radiations directly into electricity by using suitable material
Option b It is having mechanical moving part so high maintenance required
Option c It is used for small scale to large scale projects
Option d In which semiconductor material is used
Answer b

22 Question Savonius rotor type wind mill can operates at

Option a At highest velocity of wind
Option b Relatively at low velocity of wind
Option c At any velocity of wind
Option d Only at medium range of wind velocity
Answer b

23 Question Which material is used in absorber plate of solar power plant

Option a Copper
Option b Aluminum
Option c Steel
 Option d All of these
Answer d

24 Question Which of the following is true related to 'S'- type rotor wind mill
Option a It is having only one longer blade
Option b It is having two half cylinders facing opposite direction
Option c It is having curved blades attached to hub
Option d None of these
Answer b

25 Question Which of the following is/are advantage/s of Savonius rotor wind mill
Option a It can operate at low wind velocity ranges 8 km/hr
Option b It has lowest system cost
Option c It requires expensive power transmission system
Option d Only a & b
Answer d

26 Question Identify- 1. It eliminates expensive power transmission system from rotor to the axis
2. It requires low cut in speed
3. It can be operates at low wind velocity range
Option a Sail wind mill
Option b Single blade horizontal axis type
Option c 'S' type rotor wind mill
Option d Darrieus type
Answer c

27 Question ________ is also called as high velocity wind mill

Option a Sail wind mill
Option b 'S' rotor type wind mill
Option c Darrieus rotor type wind mill
Option d All of these
Answer c

28 Question Darrieus rotor wind mill has

Option a Small blade area
Option b Rapidly rotating propeller
Option c Minimum bending stresses in its blades
Option d All of these
Answer d

29 Question Identify the exact wind mill

1. It can obstruct large area of wind
2. It has a small blade area
Option a Darrieus rotor wind mill
Option b Savonius rotor wind mill
Option c horizontal axis single blade wind mill
Option d None of these
Answer a

30 Question Wind mills are

Option a A machine for wind energy conversion
Option b Are present in horizontal axis mill
Option c Both a & b
 Option d None of these
Answer c

31 Question Which of the following statement is true related to Darrieus rotor wind mill
Option a Darrieus rotor have multiple blades on it's periphery
Option b Darrieus rotor have three symmetrical aerofoil blades
Option c Both a & b is true
Option d Both a & b is false
Answer b

32 Question In Darrieus type machines

Option a Force in blade is purely tension
Option b Force in blade is purely compressive
Option c Force in blade is alternately tensile and compressive
Option d Purely bending stress produced
Answer a

33 Question 'Rotor Helicoidal' & Rotor 'H' are the rotor type used in
Option a Sail type wind mill
Option b Darrieus type wind mill
Option c Savonius type wind mill
Option d Single blade wind mill
Answer b

34 Question Molton rock chamber system in geothermal plant contains maximum temprature
Option a Up to 100 degree celcius
Option b Below 200
Option c More than 650
Option d Below 600
Answer c

35 Question Wind speed can be measured by

Option a Tachometer
Option b Anemometer
Option c Hexameter
Option d All of these
Answer b

36 Question Which is true related to wind velocity

Option a Wind velocity causes due to movement of air from high pressure to low pressure
Option b Wind velocity is due to temperature difference on earth surface
Option c Only b is true
Option d Both a & b
Answer d

37 Question Solar power plant uses which of the following parameters

Option a Photovoltaic cell
Option b Solar radiations
Option c Both are true
Option d None of these
Answer c

38 Question Which of the following is NOT the component of solar thermal power plant
Option a Steam turbine
 Option b Condenser
Option c Heat exchanger
Option d Anemometer
Answer d

39 Question Identify odd term in the given sequence

Option a Solar collector collect the Solar radiations
Option b Boiler is used to generate steam from heat of solar collector
Option c Steam turbine use the steam produced by boiler to rotate turbine blades
Option d Steam coming from turbine used in cooling tower for recirculation
Answer d

40 Question Which one is true related with Darrieus rotor wind mill
Option a Vertical axis type wind mill
Option b Rapidly rotating propeller type wind mill
Option c Option b is false
Option d Both a & b
Answer d

41 Question Which of the following is type of solar collector

Option a Cylindrical parabolic collector
Option b Flat plate type collector
Option c Parabolloide collector
Option d All of these
Answer d

42 Question In Solar thermal plant Insulation box is having insulation coating of

Option a Glass or Mineral wool
Option b Mineral wool & Mica
Option c Asbestos & Glass
Option d Both b & c
Answer a

43 Question The purpose of Transparent cover on flat plate collector is

Option a It decrease the heat loss
Option b It does not affect incoming solar radiation
Option c It trap the solar energy
Option d All of these
Answer d

44 Question Flat plate collector solar power plant is

Option a High temperature solar power plant
Option b Medium temperature solar power plant
Option c Low temperature solar power plant
Option d All the above
Answer c

45 Question In photovoltaic technology converts solar radiations directly into electricity using ________ materials
Option a Metals
Option b Conductors
Option c Semiconductor
Option d None of these
Answer c
46 Question During the first and last quarters of the Moon's phases ________ tides occurs.
Option a Neap tide
Option b Ebb tide
Option c High tide
Option d Low tide
Answer a

47 Question In India, where is the first tidal power station is situated

Option a Kerala, Kuchipudi
Option b Tamilnadu, Trivandrum
Option c Maharashtra, Trombey
Option d Gujarat, Gulf of Kutch
Answer d

48 Question Ebb tide is also known as

Option a Spring tide
Option b Neap tide
Option c Flood tide
Option d Low tide
Answer d

49 Question Which of the following wind mill type was invented by S.J. Savonius
Option a Sail wind mill
Option b Darrieus type
Option c 'S' type rotor wind mill
Option d Single blade horizontal axis type
Answer c

50 Question In closed cycle MHD system working fluid is

Option a Metal ore
Option b Inert gas
Option c Electron gun
Option d Hydrogen gas
Answer b
 UNIT VI

1. The insulating material used for the commutator segment is generally

(A) Graphite
(B) Carbon
(C) Mica
(D) Insulating varnish
C
2. Copper brushes in D.C. machine are used
(A) Where low voltage and high currents are involved
(B) Where high voltage and small currents are involved
(C) In both of the above cases
(D) In none of the above cases
A
3. For Generating large current on D.C generators which winding is generally preferred
(A) Progressive wave winding
(B) Lap Winding
(C) Retrogressive Lap winding
(D) Current depends on design
B
4. An exciter for a turbo generator is a
(A) Separately excited generator
(B) Shunt generator
(C) Series generator
(D) Compound generator
B
5. The essential condition for parallel operation of two D.C. generators is that they have
(A) Same kW rating
(B) The same operation r.p.m.
(C) The same drooping voltage characteristics
(D) Same percentage regulation
C
6. Two alternator operating in parallel must have same
(a) voltage.
(b) frequency.
(c) phase sequence.
(d) all of the above.
D
7. The generator which gives dc supply to the rotor of an alternator is called
a) Convertor
b) Exciter
c) Inverter
d) Rectifier
B
 8. A circuit breaker is
(A) power factor correcting device
(B) a device to neutralize the effect of transients
(C) a waveform correcting device
(D) a current interrupting device.
D
9. Desired tripping of a circuit breaker is
(A) Manually
(B) Automatically
(C) That it should give warning
(D) None of these
B
10.Low voltage circuit breakers have rated voltage of less than
(A) 220 V
(B) 400V
(C) 1000 V (D) 10,000 V.
C
11.As the speed of an alternator increases, the frequency
(A) Increases
(B) Decreases
(C) Remains constant
(D) May increases or decreases depending on the power factor
A
12.Alternator works on the principle of
(A) Self and mutual induction
(B) Self mutual induction
(C) Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction
(D) Mutual induction
C
13. SF6 gas is
(A) sulphur fluoride
(B) sulphur difluoride
(C) sulphur hexafluorine
(D) sulphur hexafluoride.
D
14. The rating of transformer may be expressed in
.

(A) kW
(B) kVAR
(C) kVA
(D) Horse power.
 C
15. A common method of cooling a power transformer is
(a) natural air cooling
(b) air blast cooling
(c) oil cooling
(d) any of the above
C
16.Power transformers are designed to have maximum efficiency at
(A) nearly full load
(B) 70% full load
(C) 50% full load
(D) no load
A
17. An Isolation Transformer Has Primary to Secondary turns ratio of .
(A) 1 : 2
(B) 2 : 1
(C) 1 : 1
(D) Can be any ratio
C
18. The open circuit test in a transformer is used to measure
(A) Copper loss
(B) Winding loss
(C) Total loss
(D) Core loss
D
19. Which of the following generating station has minimum running cost?
(A) Nuclear.
(B) Hydro.
(C) Thermal.
(D) Diesel.
B
20. The main source of production of biogas is
(a) human waste
(b) wet cow dung
(c) wet livestock waste
(d) all above
D
21. Economiser is used for heating
(A) Feed water
(B) Steam
(C) Air
(D) All of these
A
 22. Hydroelectric power stations are generally located in
(A) plane area.
(B) hilly area.
(C) cold area.
(D) warm area.
B
23. Which of the following power plant usually offer highest maintenance cost?
(A) Nuclear power plants.
(B) Hydro-electric power plants.
(C) Thermal power plants.
(D) Diesel engine power plants
C
24. If the diversity factor of a power station is high then its generation cost is
(A) high.
(B) low.
(C) remain same.
(D) depend on the plan type
B
25. Solar thermal power generation can be achieved by
(A) using focusing collector or heliostates
(B) using flat plate collectors
(C) using a solar pond
(D) any of the above system
D
26.General output power from Wind energy ranges from——-
(A) 20kW to 12MW
(B) 30kW to 5MW
(C) 20kW to 2MW
(D) 10kW to 10MW
B
27.The widely-used fuel in thermal power plants is
(A) Coal
(B) Natural Gas
A
28. What is a load curve?
(A) A plot of load vs current.
(B) A plot of load vs time.
(C) A plot of load vs duration of time.
(D) Total number of units generated vs time.
B
29. What does a load duration curve represent?
(A) The variation of load during different hours of the day.
(B) Average load.
(C) The number of hours for which a particular lasts during the day.
(D) None of the above.
C
30. What is the load factor of a power plant?
a. Greater than unity.
b. Less than unity.
c. Always more than unity.
d. Normally more than unity.
B
31. What is the shape of the load duration curve?
(A) Rectangular shape.
(B) Triangular shape.
(C) Parabolic shape.
(D) Free hand sketch
A
32. What does the area under the load curve represent?
(A) System voltage.
(B) Current.
(C) Energy consumed.
(D) Maximum demand.
C
33. In a separately excited generator supplying rated load the armature reaction:
(A) Is always present
(B) Is always absent
(C) May be sometimes present
(D) None of the above
A
34. What does the highest point on the daily load curve represents?
(A) Peak load.
(B) Maximum demand.
(C) Both (a) & (d).
(D) None of these.
B
35. A D.C. welding generator has
(A) Lap winding
(B) Wave moving
(C) Duplex winding
(D) Any of the above
A
36. Which of the following power plant has least efficiency?
(A) Nuclear power plant.
(B) Hydro power plant.
(C) Steam power plant.
(D) Diesel power plant.
C
37. The modern steam turbines are
(A) impulse turbines
(B) reaction turbines
(C) impulse-reaction turbines
(D) none of the above
C
38. Arc interruption is done by
A) High resistance interruption
B) Low resistance interruption
C) Both (a) and (b)
D) None of these
C
39. Arcing time is the time between
A) Separation of circuit breaker and extinction of arc
B) Separation of circuit breaker and rise of recovery voltage
C) Normal current interruption and arc extinction
D) None of these
A
40. Load curve of a generation is always
(A) Positive slope.
(B) Zero slope.
(C) Negative slope.
(D) Combination of (A), (B) and (C).
D
41. The draught which a chimney produces is called
(A) induced draught
(B) natural draught
(C) forced draught
(D) balanced draught
B
42. The function of protective relay in a circuit breaker is
(A) to each any stray voltages
(B) to close the contacts when the actuating quantity reaches a certain predetermined value
(C) to limit arcing current during the operation of circuit breaker
(D) to provide additional safety in the operation of circuit breaker.

B
43. In a steam power plant, the function of a condenser is
(A) to maintain pressure below atmospheric to increase work output from the prime mover
(B) to receive large volumes of steam exhausted from steam prime mover
(C) to condense large volumes of steam to water which may be used again in boiler
(D) all of the above

D
44. Which of the following circuit breakers has the lowest operating voltage?
(A) SF6 circuit breaker
(B) Air break
(C) Air blast
(D) Minimum oil circuit breaker
B
45. Why are the isolators used?
(A) Break abnormal current
(B) Making under fault conditions
(C) Breaking the circuit under no load condition
(D) None of the above

C
46. What is the power factor tariff?
(A) It considers only maximum demand.
(B) It considers only semi fixed charges and the power factor.
(C) It considers only power factor.
(D) It considers the load factor.
C
47. The tarrif in which power factor is taken as reference
(A) Sliding scale tariff
(B) kVA maximum demand tariff
(C) kW and kVAR tariff
(D) All of these

D
48. Which tariff is also known as the average power factor tariff?
(A) Sliding scale tariff.
(B) kW tariff.
(C) kVAR tariff.
(D) kVA maximum demand tariff.
D
49. For which among the following the current ratings are not required?
 (A) Circuit breakers
(B) Relays
(C) Isolators
(D) Load break switch
C
50. Active power and apparent power are respectively represented by?
(A) kW and kVAR
(B) kVAR and kVA
(C) kVA and kVAR
(D) kW and kVA
D
51. A consumer who consumes more energy should be charged
(A) Less
(B) More

A
52.Which among the following happens in a low power factor?
a. Large kVA rating of the equipment.
b. Greater conductor size.
c. Reduced handling capacity of the system.
d. All of the above.
D
53. What is the making to breaking current ratio for an extra high voltage circuit breaker?
(A) More than 1
(B) Equal to 1
(C) Less than 1
(D) A negative value
A
54. For which among the following consumers is penalty imposed for low power factor?
(A) Residential and commercial consumers.
(B) Industrial consumers.
(C) Agricultural consumers.
(D) All of the above.
B
55. What does the area under the load curve represent?
(A) System voltage.
(B) Current.
(C) Energy consumed.
(D) Maximum demand.
C
56. Which of the following generators will be preferred if they are required to be run in parallel?
(A) Shunt generators
(B) Series generators
(C) Compound generators
(D) None of the above
A
57. Power factor can be improved by connecting which among these?
(A) Static capacitors.
(B) Resistors.
(C) Synchronous condensers.
(D) Both (a) and (c).
D
58. The most suitable location for the power factor improvement device is

(A) Near the electrical appliance which is responsible for the poor power factor.
(B) At the sending end.
(C) At the receiving end in case of transmission lines.
(D) Both (a) and (c).
D
59. What is the breaking capacity of the air blast circuit breaker?
(A) 5000 MVA
(B) 6000 MVA
(C) 7000 MVA
(D) 10000 MVA
C
60. Which of the following material act as coolant in a nuclear power plant?
(A) liquid sodium.
(B) graphite.
(C) beryllium.
(D) all of the above.
A
 Energy Engineering - MCQs with answers
1. Energy is released from fossil fuels when they are___________________
a) Pumped
b) Cooled
c) Burned
d) Pressurized
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Fossil fuels are fuels because they release heat energy when they are burned. They are fossil fuels
because they were formed from the remains of living organisms billions of years ago. Some of the examples of
fossil fuels are coal, oil and natural gas.

2. Oil release sulfur dioxide gas when they burn.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Oil release sulfur dioxide gas when they burn. This sulfur dioxide gas causes breathing problems for
living creatures. Along with the health issue this sulfur dioxide which is emitted from oil also causes acid rain.

3. The most nuclear fuel used in the world is________________

a) Thorium – 232
b) Uranium – 238
c) Uranium – 235
d) Plutonium – 239
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The most used nuclear fuel is Uranium – 235. It is a radioactive metal. Nuclear fuels like Uranium do
not burnt to release energy. Instead, the fuels are involved in nuclear reaction in nuclear reaction in the nuclear
reactor.

4. The blades in wind turbines are connected to________________

a) Nacelle
b) Tower
c) Foundations
d) String
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A nacelle is a cover housing that houses all of the generating components in a wind turbine. Wind
turbines have huge blades mounted on a tall tower. The blades are connected to a nacelle. Thus the nacelle in
wind turbines helps to work the wind turbines.

5. In the production of wave energy which form of energy is used?

a) Potential energy
b) Kinetic energy
c) Solar energy
d) Wind energy
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The water in the sea rises and falls because of waves on the surface. Wave machines use the Kinetic
energy in this movement to drive electricity generators. Wave energy also known as ocean energy. Wave energy
is essentially power drawn from waves.

6. A tidal barrage is a barrier built over a___________________

a) River bed
b) River estuary
c) River end
d) River starting
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A tidal barrage is a barrier built over a river estuary to make use of the kinetic energy in the moving
water. Huge amounts of water move in and out of river mouths each day because of the tides. The barrage
contains electricity generators.

7. In hydroelectricity power_________________
a) Kinetic energy is transferred to potential
b) Potential energy is transferred to kinetic
c) Solar energy is transferred to wind energy
d) Wind energy is transferred to solar energy
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Hydroelectricity power stations use the kinetic energy in moving water. But the water comes from
behind a dam built across a river valley. The water high up behind the dam contains potential energy.

8. Solar panels generate electricity.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Solar panels do not generate electricity. They just heat up water by the external electricity
connection given to them. This solar panels are often located on the roofs of the building where they can receive
heat energy directly from the sun.

9. In order to produce solar energy during sunlight, where the energy is stored in the batteries?
a) Nickel Sulfur
b) Zinc Cadmium
c) Nickel Cadmium
d) Nickel Zinc
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Nickel Cadmium cells offers along service life thereby ensuring a high degree of the economy. In the
PV industry, Nickel Cadmium battery cells are majorly used for the energy storage technology from
manufacturers and users of PV of grid systems.

10. How many forms of fossil fuels are there________________

a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: There are three major forms of fossil fuels they are coal, oil and natural gas. They formed from
organic remains of plants and animals that were converted into coal, oil and natural gas by exposure to heat and
the pressure of the earth’s crust over millions of years.

11. According to WHO, how many premature deaths annually linked to air pollution causing by the burning of
fossil fuels?
a) One million
b) Three million
c) Five million
d) Seven million
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Fossil fuels are not environmental friendly. Burning of fossil fuels result in pollution and can cause
serious environmental concerns. According to WHO, 7 million premature deaths annually linked to air pollution
by the fossil fuels burning.

12. Energy in the form of heat and light is obtained by________________

a) Biomass
b) Fossil fuels
c) Sun
d) Wind
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Energy in the form of heat and light is obtained by sun. Sunlight contains a large amount of energy.
The Sun’s energy warms the planet’s surface, powering titanic transfers of heat and pressure in weather patterns
and ocean currents.

13. SI unit for energy is_____________

a) Watt
b) Kilogram
c) Newton
d) Joule
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: SI unit for energy is joule. Metric unit of measurement for energy or work equal to a force of one
Newton applied through a distance of one meter. One joule is equivalent to 0.737324 ft-lbs. Joule is a SI unit of
work, energy and heat.

14. Trapped heat inside the earth is known as_______________

a) Heat energy
b) Kinetic energy
c) Geothermal energy
d) Thermal energy
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Geothermal energy is the heat from the earth. It’s clean and sustainable. Resources of geothermal
energy range from the ground to water and hot rock. The term geothermal originates from the Greek words.

1. Where does India stand on solar energy production?

a) First
b) Third
c) Fifth
d) Seventh
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Based on total PV installed capacity India ranks seventh in the solar production which is stated by
International Energy Agency (IEA). First position is taken by China, third by Germany, fifth by Italy and seventh by
India with the total production of 9000 MW.

2. India’s position in the Global Wind Energy Council (GWEC) is_________

a) fourth
b) third
c) second
d) first
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: According to Global Wind Energy Council in 2016 India ranked fourth in the Global Wind Power
Installed Capacity Index with cumulative installed wind power generation. This gives the capacity of 28700 MW
with the world’s share of around 6%.

3. Which country leads in the production of biofuel in the world?

a) United States of America
b) Brazil
c) Germany
d) Argentina
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The United States is the largest producer of biofuel in the world, accounting to 42% of global biofuel
production. The United States produced 31 metric tons of oil equivalents, while Brazil which stands second in the
production of biofuel produced 18 million metric tons of oil equivalents.

4. India is placed within the top 25 nations, in terms of oil production in the world.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: India stands in the 24th position in terms of oil production in the world. The total amount of oil
produced in India is 734,180 Barrel per day (bbl/day). Whereas the first three place go to Russia, Saudi Arabia and
United States respectively.

5. The Arab states of the Persian Gulf are known for the production of ___________
a) Coal
b) Copper
c) Gold
d) Petroleum
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The Arab states of the Persian Gulf are the seven states in Arab which border the Persian Gulf,
namely Iraq, Bahrain, Kuwait, Oman, Qatar, Saudi Arabia and UAE. All these Arab states have significant
production of petroleum. There GDP is highly depending on the production of petroleum.
6. India stands in the first position, in the production of coal in the world.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: India stands second position in the production of coal in the world. China stands in the first position
in the production of coal in the world. According to 2016 survey India produces 3,411 million tons of coal,
whereas China produces 7,461 million tons of coal.

7. Which country produces the largest share of electricity generated by nuclear power?
a) India
b) France
c) China
d) Japan
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: France produces the largest share of electricity generated by nuclear power. France accounts 75% of
total electricity produced by nuclear power. India stands in the 27TH position with 306% of total electricity
produced by nuclear power.
8. Total primary energy consumption of fuel in the world is lead by ___________
a) Coal
b) Nuclear
c) Hydro
d) Oil
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Consumption of primary energy of fuel in the world is lead by oil with the consumption of 33%. The
consumption of coal is 30%. The consumption of Nuclear is 4%. The consumption of hydro is 7%.

9. India’s energy consumption growth in 2016 is_________

a) 3.6%
b) 4.6%
c) 2.9%
d) 1.5%
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Many countries energy consumption has seriously slowed overed few years. But India is managed to
increased its consumption growth. One of the main reason for the increase in energy consumption growth in
India is the decision took for continued to support world energy consumption.

10. Which is the world’s biggest oil consuming country?

a) United States of America
b) Japan
c) India
d) China
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The United States is the largest consumer of oil in the world, accounting 20% of global oil
production. The United States consumed 18.5 million barrels of oil per day, while Japan stands third, India in
fourth place and China in second place.
11. State true or false. Nordic countries consumption of energy per capita is among the highest in the world.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Nordic countries are the countries which are situated in Northern Europe and the North Atlantic.
The Nordic countries generate only moderate emission levels of greenhouse gases compared to other developed
countries. This is related to their lower dependency on fossil fuels. However, their consumption of energy per
capita is among the highest in the world.

12. The world’s top consuming country of domestically produced hydroelectricity is ___________
a) India
b) Brazil
c) China
d) Japan
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: China is the largest consumption of hydroelectricity in the world. It consumed 163 million tonnes of
oil-equivalent(mtoe) which is of 6.7% of its total energy consumption. India consumes 25 mtoe, Brazil consumes
90 mtoe, Japan consumes 19 mtoe.

13. India stands first position in the consumption of electricity in the world.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: India stands third position in the consumption of electricity in the world. China stands in the first
position in the consumption of electricity in the world. According to 2016 survey India consumes
1,408,624,400,000 KiloWatt Hours per year(kW-h/yr).

14. India’s total primary energy consumption is ____________

a) 24.3 BTU
b) 19.01 BTU
c) 120 BTU
d) 30.1 BTU
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: According to 2014 estimation India’s total primary energy consumption is 24.3 BTU, China consumes
120 BTU, Japan consumes 19.01 BTU, Russia consumes 30.1 BTU. India’s energy consumption is increasing
exponentially due to the large population of the country.
This set of Energy Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Generation of Wind
Energy”.

1. What does Heating and cooling of the atmosphere generates?

a) Thermo line circulation
b) Radiation currents
c) Convection currents
d) Conduction currents
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Wind energy can be economically used for the generation of electrical energy. Heating and cooling
of the atmosphere generates convection currents. Heating is caused by the absorption of solar energy on the
earth surface.

2. How much is the energy available in the winds over the earth surface is estimated to be?
a) 2.9 X 120 MW
b) 1.6 X 107 MW
c) 1 MW
d) 5MW
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The energy available in the winds over the earth surface is estimated to be 1.6 X 107 MW which is
almost the same as the present day energy consumption. Wind energy can be utilized to run wind mill which in
turn, is used to drive the generators.

3. How much wind power does India hold?

a) 20,000 MW
b) 12,000 MW
c) 140,000 MW
d) 5000 MW
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: India has a potential of 20,000 MW of wind power. Wind power accounts nearly 9.87% of India’s
total installed power generation capacity. Generation of wind power in India mainly account from southern state
of India.

4. What is the main source for the formation of wind?

a) Uneven land
b) Sun
c) Vegetation
d) Seasons
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Wind is free and renewable form of energy, which throughout history has been used to grind grain,
power ships, and pump water. Wind is created when the sun unevenly heat the earth surface.

5. Which country created wind mills?

a) Egypt
b) Mongolia
c) Iran
d) Japan
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The earliest known wind mills were in Persia (Iran). These early wind mills looked like large paddle
wheels. Centuries later, the people of Holland improved the basic design of wind mill. Holland is famous for its
wind mills.

6. “During the day, the air above the land heats up more quickly than the air over water”.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: During the day, the air above the land heats up more quickly than the air over water. The warm air
over the land expands and raises, and the heavier, cooler air rushes in to take its place, creating winds.

7. What happens when the land near the earth’s equator is heated?
a) All the oceans gets heated up
b) Small wind currents are formed
c) Rise in tides
d) Large atmospheric winds are created
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The large atmospheric winds that circle the earth are created because the land near the earth’s
equator is heated more by the sun than the land near the north and south poles. Wind energy is mainly used to
generate electricity.

8. What type of energy is wind energy?

a) Renewable energy
b) Non-renewable energy
c) Conventional energy
d) Commercial energy
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Wind is called a renewable energy source because the wind will blow as long as the shines. Wind
power, as an alternative to burning fossil fuels, is plentiful, renewable, widely distributed, clean, produces no
greenhouse gas emissions during operation, consumes no water, and uses little land.

9. What are used to turn wind energy into electrical energy?

a) Turbine
b) Generators
c) Yaw motor
d) Blades
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Wind turbine blades capture wind energy, a form of mechanical energy, and put it to work turning a
drive shaft, gearbox, and generator to produce electrical energy. Many factors affects wind turbine efficiency
including turbine blade aerodynamics.

10. What is the diameter of wind turbine blades?

a) 320 feet
b) 220 feet
c) 80 feet
d) 500 feet
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Large utility-scale wind turbines can now generate more than a MW of electrical power each and
deliver electricity directly in to the electric grid, these turbines are placed at 200 feet height at the rotor hub and
have blades which are 220 feet or more in diameter .

11. At what range of speed is the electricity from the wind turbine is generated?
a) 100 – 125 mph
b) 450 – 650 mph
c) 250 – 450 mph
d) 30-35 mph
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Wind turbines are designed with cut-in wind speeds and cut-out speeds i.e. the wind speeds when
the turbines start turning or shut off to prevent drive train damage. Typically, maximum electric generations
occurs at speeds of 30-35mph.

12. When did the development of wind power in India began?

a) 1965
b) 1954
c) 1990
d) 1985
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The development of wind power in India began in 1990s. Presently India is the world’s fourth largest
wind power generator. The Indian energy sector has an installed capacity of 32.72 GW. Today India is a major
player in the global wind energy market.

1. How much power does the small scale wind machine generate?
a) 18 KW
b) 2 KW
c) 12 KW
d) 30 KW
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: These might be used on farms remote applications and other places requiring relatively low power.
The generating capacity is up to 2kW. Small scale wind machines lower your electricity bills by 50% – 90%.

2. Which type of wind machines are used at several residence or local use?
a) Large size machines
b) Remote machines
c) Small size machines
d) Medium size machines
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: These wind turbines may be used to supply less than 100 kW rated capacity, to several residences or
local use. These do not require much space they can be installed on roof tops or on some high elevated areas.

3. Which type of wind turbines produce 100 kW or greater?

a) Large machines
b) Small machines
c) Medium machines
d) Remote Machines
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Large wind turbines are those of 100 kW rated capacity or greater. They are used to generate power
for distribution in central power grids. They can have single generator at a single site or multiple generators sited
at several places over an area.
4. Which part of the wind mill acts as a housing for the turbine?
a) Wind Vane
b) Shaft
c) Wind mill head
d) Turbine
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The wind mill head supports the rotor, housing, and rotor bearings. It also has control mechanism
like changing the pitch of the blades for safety devices, tail vane to orient the rotor to face the wind. Its body is
the size of the mini bus.

5. A rotor installed in a fixed orientation with the swept area perpendicular to the pre dominate wind direction is
called ______
a) Nacelle
b) Yaw fixed machines
c) Blades
d) Anemometer
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In the locations with the prevailing wind in one direction, the design of a turbine can be greatly
simplified. The rotor can be installed in a fixed orientation with the swept area perpendicular to the pre
dominate wind direction. This machine is called yaw fixed.

6. How is the action of yaw controlled in small turbines?

a) Tail vane
b) Blades
c) Shaft
d) Yaw motor
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In small turbines, yaw action is controlled by a tail vane while is larger machines a servomechanism
operated by a wind-direction sensor controls the yaw motor keeping the turbine properly oriented.

7. Which part of the wind turbines senses wind speed, wind direction, shaft speed and torque?
a) Turbine blade
b) Shaft
c) Rotor
d) Controller
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The controller senses wind speed, wind direction, shafts speeds and torques, output power and
generator temperature, Control signals are generated with the electrical output corresponding to the wind
energy input.

8. Which type of wind turbine has low RPM?

a) Small wind turbine
b) Large wind turbine
c) Medium wind turbine
d) Remote wind turbine
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The rate of rotation of large wind turbine generators operating at rated capacity or below is
controlled by varying the pitch of the rotor blades. It has low rpm, about 40 to 50. It is necessary to increase
greatly the low rotor rate of turning using transmission mechanism.

9. Why recommendation of fixed ratio gears done for top mounted equipment?
a) Because they are easy install
b) Requires less space
c) Due to its low cost
d) Because of their high efficiency
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Fixed ratio gears are recommended for top mounted equipment because of their high efficiency,
and minimum system risk. For bottom mounted equipment requiring a right angle drive transmission costs can
be reduced on the hub by increasing rotor speed to generator.

10. Which type of generator are made use in wind turbines?

a) Recreational generators
b) Synchronous generator
c) Asynchronous generator
d) Alternator
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Generators may be either constant or variable speed type. Variable speed units are expensive
and/or unproved. Constant speed generator in use are synchronous induction and permanent magnet types.
Synchronous unit is used for large aero generator systems. It is very versatile and has an extensive data base.

11. In which part do we find sensors and actuators?

a) Fixed gears
b) Turbines
c) Control systems
d) Blades
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Control systems involves sensors and actuators. The modern large wind turbine generator requires a
versatile and reliable control system. A control system is used for 1) changing the orientation of the rotor into the
wind. 2) Start up and cut-in of the equipment. 3) Power control of the rotor by varying the pitch of the blades.

12. How many types of supporting tower for wind mill are generally used?
a) 2
b) 4
c) 3
d) 5
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Four types of generating tower are used generally:
1) The reinforced concrete tower
2) The pole tower
3) The built up shell tube tower
4) The truss tower.
13. On what does the selection of supporting structure depends?
a) Length of blades
b) Rotating capacity
c) Capacity of generator
d) Transmission systems
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The type of the supporting structure and its height is related to cost and the transmission system
incorporated. Horizontal axis wind turbines are mounted on towers so as to be above the level of turbulence and
other ground related effects.

14. At what type of location vibrations are more in the wind turbine?
a) Downwind location
b) Up wind location
c) Windward
d) Leeward
View Answer

15. At what type of location vibrations are less in the wind turbines?
a) Windward
b) Leeward
c) Downwind location
d) Upwind Location
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: If the turbine is downwind from the tower, vibrations are less but the blades are subjected to severe
alternating forces as they pass through the tower wake. Downwind rotors are generally preferred for large aero
generators.

1. What is the major problem in nuclear plants?

a) Drawing out energy
b) Fusion of particles
c) Disposal of nuclear waste
d) Handling of fuel
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: One of the major problems in the nuclear power plant is the disposal of waste products which are
highly radioactive. They emit large quantities of γrays and these high energy γ rays destroy all living matter
through which pass.

2. A 400 MW nuclear power station would produce a equivalent radium of _____________

a) 100 tons daily
b) 1000 tons daily
c) 500 tons daily
d) 10 tons daily
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The radio-active products of a 400MW power station would be equivalent to 100 tons of radium
daily and the radioactive effect of this plant product if exposed to atmosphere would kill all the living organisms
within the area of about 100 sq miles.
3. How are moderate active solid wastes disposed?
a) Buried underground
b) Buried under sea
c) Sent to outer space
d) Left out in streams or rivers
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In a nuclear fuel cycle, the solid, liquid and gaseous radioactive wastes are produced at different
stages. These radioactive wastes must be disposed off in such a manner that there is no hazard to the human and
plant life. Moderate active solid wastes are buried in the ground.

4. Moderate liquid nuclear wastes are disposed into ___________

a) Deep pits
b) Buried underground
c) Left into rivers
d) Left into deep oceans
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Moderate liquid wastes after preliminary treatments are discharged in deep pits or day well from
which they sweep out into the surrounding. Certainly liquid wastes are mixed with some kind of other chemical
in order to lower their radioactivity.

5. Which type of disposal of nuclear waste is cheapest and easiest method of all?
a) Ground
b) Air
c) Space
d) Water
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: This is one of the easy and cheapest methods of disposal because soil absorbs radioactive material
easily. This disposal is suitable mostly in areas of low rainfall at points which are high above the ground water
level.

6. How are active liquids of nuclear waste disposed?

a) Stored in concrete tanks and buried underground
b) Stored in concrete tanks and buried in sea
c) Mixed with other chemicals and left into free atmosphere
d) They are reused and burnt away in gaseous fumes
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Active liquids are kept in concrete tanks and these tanks are buried in the ground till their decay of
radio activity. Many times the radio activity increases the temperature of the liquid waste or sometimes these
liquids boil and the activity decreases with time.

7. What are the ways in which most of radio activeness is removed?

a) Infusing them with other metal
b) Neutralizing them by diluting in chemical solutions
c) Storing them
d) Segregating them into small packs
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Most of the radio activeness of waste is removed just by storage. The storage problem is simplified
by separating cersium and strontium which are extremely radioactive. These are generally stored in tanks which
are buried in ground and then disposed in to the sea after 13 years of storage.

8. Can vacated coal mines be used for waste disposal?

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Yes, vacated coal mines can be used for waste disposal. The wastes are disposed in the salt heaps
provided in the mines, because salt is a powerful absorber of radioactive emissions. It will be easy and more
economical method to dispose of liquid waste by freezing.

9. How is High Level solidified nuclear wastes (HLW) stored?

a) Concrete tanks
b) Canisters
c) Packed rock salt
d) Soil bins
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The solidified waste is placed in canisters that are stored in holes formation for thousands of years.
The solidified waste is placed in canisters that are stored in holes drilled in rock salt with a spacing of 10 m to
allow efficient dissipation of energy without exceeding temperature limits of either canister or salt. Each canister
requires 100 m2 of salt for cooling.

10. What is the approx cost of disposing nuclear waste into sea per cubic meter?
a) 50 rs
b) 300 rs
c) 500 rs
d) 1000 rs
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In many places the liquid waste is disposed off to the sea through the pipes carried from the plant to
the point of disposal. While disposing into the sea it should be seen that the activity level should not affect the
marine life. The approximate cost of disposal by this method is 300 rs per cubic meter.

11. Absorption of radioactive element by human, affects their offspring’s.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Absorption of neutron or radioactive element by a tissue nucleus leads to radioactive nucleus which
results change in chemical nature, mal-functioning of cell. Due to this, cell damages leading to genetic
modification. Inhale of radioactive material through air, food and water result radiation hazard.

12. For how many days is radioactive solid waste kept is kept under water at 6m deep for initial cooling?
a) 15 days
b) 50 days
c) 30 days
d) 100 days
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: It is necessary to keep the radioactive solid waste first in the water of 6m depth nearly for 100 days.
It was found that after 100 days cooling of radioactive waste of 28MW plant in water still has a radioactivity
equal to million grams of radium. About 50% radioactive elements disappear during cooling.

13. What are released into biosphere from nuclear power plants?
a) Gaseous effluents
b) Waste Product
c) Smoke
d) The obtained product
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Under normal operation, gaseous effluents are released slowly from the power plants into the
biosphere and become diluted and dispersed harmlessly. Releasing at slow rates gives it time to blow of slowly.

14. Tailings forms are the residues from ____________

a) Uranium
b) Thorium
c) Cadmium
d) Boron
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Tailings are residues from uranium mining and milling operations. They contain low concentration of
naturally occurring radioactive materials. They are generated in large volumes and are stored at the mine or mill
sites.

15. LLW stands for ____________

a) Low Level Water
b) Low Laser width
c) Low Level Waste
d) Loss of Levels in water
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Low Level Waste contains less than 10 nCi per gram of transuranium contaminants containing low
but potentially hazardous concentrations of radioactive materials. These are generated in almost all activities
involving radioactive materials, require little or no shielding.
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

ENERGY ENGINEERING UNIT 1

Apart from geographical location, the amount of power generated in a country depends on
___________
a) Number of power producing plants
b) Annual consumption of power
c) Utilization of natural resources
d) Quantity of requirement
Answer: c
Explanation: Since most of the power produced is from the natural resources, the
estimation of amount of power generated in a country is made by the utilization of its
natural resources. The ‘Annual consumption of power ‘would give you the details of
power utilized for necessities, it is the amount of power utilized out of wholesome
amount of total power produced in the country.

Total power generated is usually contributed by power generated through ____________

a) Hydel power plant, Thermal power plant and solar plant
b) Ocean thermal energy, Wind energy and Hydel power plant
c) Hydel power plant, Geo-thermal plant and Nuclear power plant
d) Hydel power plant, Thermal power plant and nuclear power plan
Answer: d
Explanation: The energy or power produced from hydel power plant, thermal power plant
and nuclear power plant is very abundant compared to any other combinations of power
producing plants. All these three plants have ability to produce the power in thousands of
megawatts in its own standards.

On what factors does hydel plant entirely depend?

a) Vegetation
b) Tropical cycle
c) Amount of Rainfall
d) Hydrological cycle

Answer: d
Explanation: Hydrological cycle is an explanation of the continuous movement of water
above and below earth surface, where as rainfall is not reliable since it varies period to
period. The amount of water above the earth surface and below the earth surface, both are
responsible for the hydrological cycle. ‘Vegetation’ is info about the assemblage of plant
species irrespective of their geographic characteristics.

4. The steam power plant serves as a base plant for ________

a) Nuclear power plant
b) Geothermal power plant
c) Thermal power plant
d) Diesel plant

Answer: a
Explanation: Since power is generated by nuclear power plant and the nuclear plant needs
power to perform its operations. For this purpose steam power plant is used as base power
plant to generate this power. The power produced base plant acts as a fuel to run the
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

nuclear power plant. And all the cost estimation to produce the electricity is made by
considering base load expenses too.

5. What is the primary objective of a steam power plant?

a) To convert one form of energy into another form
b) To produce electricity
c) To provide employment
d) To serve as a base load plant to hydel plant or nuclear plant

Answer: b
Explanation: The primary objective of the steam power plant is to produce electricity and
then serving as base load plant to hydel or nuclear power plant comes as second priority.
Steam power plants produce 86% of electricity. And the efficiency of steam power plant
is typically 33%-48%.
6. A steam power plant works on ___________ cycle.
a) Otto
b) Brayton
c) Hydrological
d) Rankine
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Rankine cycle is a thermodynamic cycle of constant pressure engine that is
to convert heat energy into mechanical work and from that following parts like adjoined
blades and shafts are made to run to produce electricity. Otto cycle is used in automobile
engine and Brayton cycle is used in heat engines & air jet engine.
7. Coal crushers are also known as__________
a) Lather
b) Coal combers
c) Feeder breakers
d) Coal washer
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Coal crushers are also known as feeder breakers since it is elaborated by the
word itself. ‘Feeder’ depicts the following component coal being fed by the hoppers and
‘Breaker’ stands for breaking off into smaller pieces. And this synonym is rarely used.
8. Road transportation of coal is preferred for what type of usage?
a) Small capacity plant
b) Medium capacity plant
c) Large capacity plant
d) Domestic usage areas
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Road transportation of coal is ideal transporting coal directly to point of
consumption. These small capacity plants are usually located in the middle of land.
Trucks and tippers are used to supply coal for this purpose. And also when the plant
doesn’t have railway or shipway accessibility in such areas roadways are only possible
means of transportation.
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

9. Which is the more economical way of transporting coal?

a) Sea or River ways
b) Railways
c) Road transporting
d) By Airlifting
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: We do know shipways are cheaper. But we need another mode of transport
to transfer that coal to the plant area. But in case of railways the tracks can be made to
directly pass through the plant. Hence the railway is more economical compared to any
other means of transport.
10. What is the role of breaker house in coal feeding?
a) To break the coal into smaller pieces
b) To separate different sizes of coal
c) To separate the light dust from the coal
d) To powder the coal
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Because of the brittle nature of the coal, it is a common nature of coal to
emit light dust/coal dust during transportation, mining and machine handling. This dust
needs to be cleared out and it is performed by coal breaker.
11. When coal is being burnt how much % of ash is formed compared to the whole
amount?
a) 10-20%
b) 40-50%
c) 25-35%
d) 4-10%
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The coal available in nature already contains some percent of ash and when
it is burnt. Due to its brittle nature more amount of ash is produced. And coal is one of the
largest types of industrial waste generated. For environmental benefits, this coal ash is
reused as a type of by-product in different types of industries.
12. Why is it important to prefer ash handling systems?
a) Coal ash produced destroys the machinery by entering into them
b) Coal ash produced annually accounts for thousands of tones
c) Coal ash can be reutilized for some other purpose
d) Coal ash affects the health of people working at plants
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Considering the large coal burning capacity plant of modern times, the
amount of ash produced when the coal is burnt is in thousands of tones. It could have an
effect on other subjects too if the proper ash handling methods are not followed. And for
different environmental, economical and product benefits the coal ash is reused by
different types of industries in different ways of its necessity.
13. Large amount of coal is transported by ________
a) railway
b) sea or river ways
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

c) road transportation
d) by airlifting
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The railway is preferred since it is quite economical as well as loading and
unloading of coal is easy. And at stretch tons of coal can be transported by goods train
from one place to another place. Coal is considered as a bulk commodity value which
falls in category of minerals and ores. If roadways are preferred only minimal amount of
load can be transported. But by railway, long distances with huge amount of coal can
transported to any region/part of the country.
14. The coal is fed to the furnace through _________
a) conveyor belt
b) wagon tipper
c) hopper
d) crane
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Hopper is the conical shaped slow coal dispenser to the furnace. It is placed
right above the furnace and a live feeder mechanism is set at end of hopper for a
controlled flow. There is no requirement of any external power/force since this works on
gravity force.
15. Which system consumes less power out of all ash handling systems?
a) Mechanical ash handling system
b) Pneumatic ash handling system
c) Hydraulic ash handling system
d) Steam jet ash handling system
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The mechanical ash handling system consumes less amount of power. Since
the power is required by the conveyor belt to transfer the ash from boiler furnace to over
head bunker which is located at end of the conveyor belt. And in case of pneumatic there
is high power requirement to draw and blow the air at high velocities and high pressures.
16. What is the function of cyclone separators in pneumatic ash handling system?
a) To separate the lighter dust particles
b) To force up the movement of ash through pipes or tubes
c) To draw out the dust from furnace
d) To separate minute coal particles
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Cyclone separators use air to swirl around the ash that has been dispensed
into them. Due to centrifugal action heavier ash settles down, where as lighter dust/ash
particles is collected in hopper and dumped out. The air flows in helical pattern which
makes easy for the heavier dust particle to settle down easily without interrupting the
airflow.
17. Which medium is used to carry ash in the pneumatic ash handling system?
a) Conveyor belt
b) Water trough
c) Air
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

d) Chain belt

Answer: c
Explanation: In pneumatic ash handling system, Air is used to carry ash to long distance
at a capacity of 5 to 30 tonnes per hour. And the air used for this purpose is easily
cleanable and can be exhausted back into atmosphere after the complete filtration
processes.
18. Which system is noisy out of all the following ash handling systems?
a) Steam jet ash handling system
b) Mechanical ash handling system
c) Pneumatic ash handling system
d) Hydraulic ash handling system
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The air is made to pass at very high pressure in order to carry out the ash for
long distance. Since the air is moving at high speed at high velocity in the conveying
pipes, it tends to create a lot of noise by hitting the walls of pipe at swift turns and curves.
19. Which medium is used to carry ash in hydraulic system?
a) Air
b) Water
c) Steam
d) Conveyor
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Water is used as the medium to carry ash at high velocity. Depending on
water pressure the system is divided as Low pressure system and High pressure system.
In low pressure system, sloped sumps are used to move the ash at low velocity and in
high pressure system nozzle sprays used to ram up the speed of ash flow.
20. What would be the amount of distance that a low pressure system could carry the ash?
a) 25m
b) 500m
c) 150m
d) 800m
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Low pressure system moves the ash mixed in water at a distance of 3 to 5
m/s in a sloped pump made of reinforced constituents and this movement is continuous.
So, it has the ability to carry the ash for such long distance. There is no requirement any
auxiliary source to move the ash mixed with water.
21. What is the capacity of low pressure hydraulic ash handling system?
a) 80 tonnes/hour
b) 22 tonnes/hour
c) 50 tonnes/hour
d) 10 tonnes/hour
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The capacity of low pressure hydraulic ash handling system is
50tonnes/hour at a speed of 3m/s. Since the ash produced is mixed in water and dumped,
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

the water has the ability to dissolve and intake more amount of ash. And this mixture is
spread throughout the sump.
22. _________ is used in high pressure hydraulic ash handling system, to quench the ash.
a) Turbines
b) Lubricants
c) Water troughs
d) Nozzle sprays
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: As we know Nozzles are used to increase pressure. Also, they are also used
to quench the ash. The ash falling from the conveyor belt is quenched to make it flow
down through the sump. Water trough is used in order to avoid dust creating from falling
ash from the furnace.
23. Which of the following ash handling system is more suitable for large thermal plants?
a) Steam jet ash handling system
b) Mechanical ash handling system
c) Pneumatic ash handling system
d) Hydraulic ash handling system
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Hydraulic ash handling system is more suitable large thermal plants since its
ash carrying capacity is considerably large. And also it has ability to dissolve the ash in
the water which makes its capacity large. It also has lots of advantages it is clean, dust
free and no noise is produced. The water used can be recycled only for limited amount of
times.
24. What is the important feature of hydraulic ash handling system?
a) It is clean and dustless
b) It can discharge ash for long distances
c) The unhealthy aspect of ordinary ash basement work is eliminated
d) Absence of working parts in contact with ash
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Particularly in hydraulic system the ash is actually quenched in water. So,
there is less chance that ash has any possibility of getting in contact with the machineries.
There is less chances of machine falling into a repair and maintenance is less as compared
to any other type of ash handling system.
25. In hydraulic ash handling system, large quantities of leachate under a positive
pressure head in pond pose a constant threat to ________
a) cause pungent smell
b) the livelihood
c) ground water quality
d) the nearby flora
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Since there is constant gravity pressure that is exerting on the surface of the
ponds or other water bodies where hydraulic ash is dumped. When the same water is
absorbed into the ground, it affects the quality of ground water. This effect indirectly
affects growth of plants and degrades the land around water body making it unusable.
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

26. Which of the following ash handling system is not flexible to re-locate/re-place its
discharging site?
a) Steam jet ash handling system
b) Mechanical ash handling system
c) Hydraulic ash handling system
d) Pneumatic ash handling system
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Since the hydraulic ash handling system involves the usage of liquids, the
discharging sites cannot be re-located/re-placed. Else constructing/developing a new
discharging site is possible but the old one cannot be replaced since it is a wet system. In
case of all other forms of ash handling system it is easy since they are dry system and
they won’t have much of an impact on the following discharging site/land.
27. ___________ and __________ are the common problems on pipeline inner walls
when the slurry contains calcium, magnesium and sulphate ashes.
a) Clogs and Corrosion
b) Scaling and Cracks
c) Pores and Contamination
d) Scaling and Cementation
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Scaling and Cementation are the two main problems caused on the inner
walls of pipeline, when there is contamination of calcium, magnesium and sulphate in the
discharge. Calcium or magnesium contained mixtures have limited solubility. So, they
intend get deposited on the materials.
28. Which of the following ash is suitable for selling?
a) Bed ash
b) Synthetic gypsum
c) Fly ash
d) Clinkers
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Fly ash is sold in the market, which is used in concrete bricks, cement
clinkers, road subbase and as mineral filler in asphaltic concrete. Fly ash is very fine in its
structure, composed mostly of silica made from burning of coal in the furnace or boiler.
And ‘Bed ash’ refers to the ash that’s struck on the walls of boiler which is very coarse in
nature.
29. Which ash handling system can be built up in limited space?
a) Mechanical ash handling system
b) Pneumatic ash handling system
c) Hydraulic ash handling system
d) Steam jet ash handling system
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Steam jet ash handling system can be constructed particularly when there is
a limited amount of space is available because not much amount of space is required for
its setup and operation. Pneumatic and hydraulic ash handling system require huge
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

amount of space for their construction and operation. Steam jet ash handling system is
used in small capacity plants.
30. In what form does the total ash produced in the furnace escapes through the chimney?
a) Fines
b) Aerosols
c) Gas
d) Cinder
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Fines are the particles which vary in the size of 1 to 80 microns. These could
easily get escaped into air via chimneys. About 80% of ash produce is in this range of
microns and everything gets easily escaped into air and the rest is made use for other
possible purposes.
10. What is the capacity of the steam jet ash handling system?
a) 45tonnes/hour
b) 15tonnes/hour
c) 30tonnes/hour
d) 150tonnes/hour
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The capacity of the steam jet ash handling system is limited 15tonnes/hour
since the plant built up is in less space. And it has ability to remove ash through a
horizontal distance of 200m. the operation of this system is noisy since steam jet of high
velocity is produced in such a limited place.
11. What material is used in pipe linings for linking of steam jet system?
a) Nickel alloy
b) Graphite
c) Titanium
d) Copper alloy
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The abrasive particles present in ash cause wear and tear in pipes due to
high speed movement in pipes of steam jet system. Even chilled iron also can be used to
line the pipes to overcome the following problem. And also avoiding bends and turns in
pipes would reduce the damage of pipes.
12. What is the distance up to which steam jet ash handling system is capable of
removing ashes?
a) 200m
b) 50m
c) 75m
d) 350m
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Even though the size of the steam jet ash handling capacity is compact, the
high velocity steam jet can easily remove the ashes up to 200m. Since it is small sized
plant its capability to remove ashes is limited. The moisture of steam also makes the ash
wet and it would gain a light amount of weight which becomes a bit difficult to move ash
at a longer distances.
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

13. What measure to be taken to avoid the noise produced in the pneumatic ash handling
system?
a) Passing ash at slower pace
b) Reducing swift turns and sharp bends
c) Broadening of pipe width
d) Reducing and crushing the size of the ash
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The air and ash mixture moving through the pipe at high pressure tends to
hit the walls at inner side of pipe when there are number of swift turns and sharp bends
made. Avoiding them can reduce the noise up to 50%.
14. Is there any requirement of auxiliary steam producer in the steam jet ash handling
system.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: There is no requirement for any auxiliary steam producing unit since the
steam required is drawn from the boiler present in the system. The steam drawn from the
boiler is pressurized and then utilized. Non-requirement of auxiliary unit is advantageous
as it would cut slack in the expenses of setting up the plant.
15. How much amount of steam is required to remove 1 ton of ash from the steam jet ash
handling system?
a) 100kg
b) 450kg
c) 65kg
d) 200kg
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: 100 kg of steam is required to remove 1 ton of ash. Since the steam let out is
at very high velocity, 1 ton of ash can be easily moved to compare and balancing to its
weight ratio. And this wholesome amount of steam is generated by the boiler present in
the plant.
What type of draught fan is used to draw air from the air heater?
a) Balanced draught fan
b) Induced draught fan
c) Forced draught fan
d) Artificial draught fan
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Forced draught fan is used to draw the air. This is installed near the base of
boiler and air is forced to pass through the furnace, economizer and to the air stack. This
is also called a positive draught system because pressure and air is forced to flow through
the system.
In what form are the products of combustion in steam powered plant?
a) Air products
b) Flue gas
c) Slurry
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

d) Hot water
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The products of combustion are in form of flue gas. Flue gas is the gas
which is exiting to the atmosphere via a flue, which is channel for releasing exhaust gas
from steam power plant. The flue gas is high in the contamination of nitrogen, oxygen
and carbon dioxide. And also it contains a small amount of pollutants, such as soot and
other types of oxides.
How flue gas is made use of in steam power plant?
a) To maintain the constant pressure inside boiler
b) To heat the water in the tubes of boiler
c) To increase or decrease the pressure inside the boiler
d) To remove all unnecessary chemical constituents
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The flue gases are circulated in the furnace to heat the water in tubes. First it
is passed over economizer and then to the pre-heater. And then finally after making
maximum utilization of the flue gas they are exhausted through chimneys.
How is flue gas discharged through the chimneys?
a) By using induced draught fan
b) By using balanced draught fan
c) By using forced draught fan
d) By using mechanical draught fan
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: After extracting maximum possible heat by circulating the flue gas in
furnace. Induce draught fan is used to remove the left over gas via chimney. This is
located near the base of the chimney. The air is sucked in by reducing the pressure below
atmosphere. The draught produced is independent of temperature of hot gases.
What is the purpose of chimney?
a) To provide air ventilation
b) To eliminate noise produced in the system
c) To exhaust flue gases those is induced
d) To help in to suck the air required for system
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Chimneys are actually used to remove exhaust gases or products of
combustion by using induced draught system. Almost all chimneys are constructed by
bricks vertically and at a certain height in order easily release flue gases into atmosphere.
The height of the chimneys shows its ability to transfer flue gases. The deposits of flue
gas contaminations are made on the inner walls of the chimney.
What is the advantage of using flue gas inside a boiler?
a) Heats up boiler water tube quickly
b) Reduces the amount of amount of exhaust
c) Speeds of the process of boiler
d) Reduces the green house of effect
View Answer
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

Answer: d
Explanation: Using flue gas to heat up the water tubes reduces the greenhouse effect
indirectly by making use of its heat to turn the water in water tubes into steam. This will
be used in steam power plant to rotate the turbine and to produce electricity. And also
plant operators can operate at best heat rate efficiency.
How is water pumped into condenser tubes in the steam power plant?
a) Water clarifier plant
b) Draught systems
c) Hydraulic capacity electric motor pump
d) Drawing through water
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The water is pumped into condenser tubes through water clarifier plant.
Clarifier helps in suspending solids from water in order to avoid damages to condenser
tubes. Clarifiers are available in wide varieties of capacities of capacities and shapes
depending on the steam plant.
When is the cooling tower preferred?
a) When there is plenty of water available
b) When there is scarcity of water
c) When the plant is of large capacity
d) When the amount of flue gas produced is very high
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Cooling tower is preferred when there is scarcity of water. Instead of
circulating the water directly, it is sprinkled in the cooling tower to condense the
exhausted steam coming from the turbine. The loss of water due to evaporation is
compensated by supplying water directly from the river.
What type of system is it, when the water is directly is used to condense the steam?
a) Closed system
b) Open system
c) Closed loop system
d) Open loop system
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Water is pumped through the water clarifier plant and is used to circulate
through the condenser in order to condense the steam coming out from the turbine. Water
leaving the condenser is discharged to the downward side of the river. The amount of
water in taken from river, the same amount of water is discharged back to river with the
minimal temperature difference. And this following system is called open system.
How is the amount of cooling required by the steam power plant determined?
a) By the capacity of plant
b) By the amount of exhausted gas
c) By its thermal efficiency
d) By the type of fuel used (coal or uranium)
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The amount of cooling required by the steam power plant is determined by
its thermal efficiency. It has nothing to do whether it is fueled by coal or uranium; neither
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

has it depended on the type of power plant (nuclear, thermal or hydel). Nuclear power
plants have lower thermal efficiency than thermal plants. Higher the thermal plants lower
the water usage for cooling.
How much amount of water does typical 1GWe plant uses for cooling per day?
a) 30 mega litre
b) 45 mega litre
c) 55 mega litre
d) 75 mega litre
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Water is used in a plant to convert it into steam and utilize it for developing
mechanical energy as well as it is used for the cooling of the steam produced. This water
is supplied by the large water bodies like river or big lakes. The amount of utilized from
water body is all discharged back at the end.
What type of system is it when the cooling tower is preferred?
a) Closed system
b) Open system
c) Closed loop system
d) Open loop system
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: When there is a scarcity of water a cooling tower is installed, such system is
known as the closed system. In this system the condensed water is cooled by passing it
through the cooling tower and water is sprinkled over steam. The loss of water due to
evaporation is compensated by supply of water directly from the river.
What is the alternative cooling method for the thermal plant?
a) Wet cooling
b) Evaporation cooling
c) Dry cooling
d) Central air damping
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The alternative way of cooling method is dry cooling. Where in this method
the heat is directly transferred to air via high flow forced drafts [industrial sized fans].
This is less efficient compared to wet cooling method since it uses very high amount of
power to rotate the fans. Dry cooling method is very useful in the desert areas, where
water scarcity is a huge problem.
How can we achieve high thermal efficiency in a power plant?
a) Drawing high output with limited input
b) Decreasing the working temperature
c) Increasing the working temperature
d) Maintain large temperature differential
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The amount of heat discharged to environment depends on the plants
thermal efficiency. High efficiency is achieved by having a large temperature differential.
Irrespective of whether it comes from high internal heat or low temperature external
environment, or both. The thermal efficiency of today’s nuclear power plant is around
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

35% whereas hotter coal burners can reach 40% or more. At last higher thermal
efficiency is required to lower the water usage.
What is the storage used to hold the condensed water?
a) Reservoir
b) Tarn
c) Hot well
d) Basin
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Hot well is used for storage of the condensed water in a power plant. A tank
or reservoir in which hot water is collected before being recirculated, especially
condensed steam about to be returned to a boiler is called Hot well.
Feed water from the hot well is supplied to steam generator by using the _________
a) Sewers
b) Cistern
c) Water trough
d) Feed pump
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Feed pump is used to pump/supply feed water from hot wall to steam
generator. The water may be freshly supplied or returned condensate produced by the
boiler. These pumps are positive displacement generator and are of very high capacity.
Super heater tubes are made up of what type of material?
a) Copper alloy
b) Carbon steel
c) Titanium alloy
d) Iron
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The steam generated in the boiler is superheated in super heater tubes made
of carbon steel for operating at a steam temperature of up to 950°F and carbon
molybdenum steel for operating at steam temperature of 1050°F and stainless steel for
operating temperature of 1200°F. The tubes of super heater have an outside diameter
which ranges from 25mm to 64mm.
By what means the power in the steam power plant is developed?
a) Condenser
b) Electric power system
c) Prime mover
d) Economizer
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The prime move s used to develop power in the steam power plant. The
water is heated, turns into steam and is made to enter into steam turbine. The steam spins
and it drives electric generator connected to it, which generates electricity.
Chemicals are added in the feed water.
a) True
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Chemicals are put into feed water through the chemical feed tank to keep
water within chemical range. These chemicals are mostly oxygen scavengers and
phosphates. The boiler water also has frequent blow downs in order to keep the chloride
content down.
What is the main objective beyond treating feed water?
a) To remove solid particle
b) To prevent damage by scaling
c) To speed up the steaming process
d) To control conductivity
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The main objective to treat feed water is to prevent damage by scaling and
exchange heat without scaling to produce high quality steam. Since a high amount of
water is converted into steam back and forth, there is pretty good chance of scale
formation in the tubes if the water is not treated.
What is the pH value at which the boiler is alkalized?
a) 9.0
b) 5.4
c) 6.9
d) 5.7
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The boiler is alkalized to pH value of 9.0 to reduce oxidization and to
support the formation of a stable layer of magnetite on water side surface of the boiler
protecting from oxidation. And also oxygen scavengers are used to remove residues of
oxides, especially O2 & CO2 [oxygen and carbon dioxide] must be removed. Sodium
hydroxide or ammonia is used for alkalization of the feed water.
What does steam power plant mainly use to generate steam?
a) Boiled water
b) Fresh steam
c) Flue gas
d) Condensed water
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Steam power mainly uses hot products of combustion known as flue gas to
generate steam in a boiler. Heat is generated by burning coal, oil or gas. For this purpose
boiler furnace is designed for firing coal, air or gas. The flue gas is exhausted via chimney
after making maximum utilization of it.
What type of steam is produced in the steam boiler?
a) Low pressure steam
b) High pressure steam
c) Saturated steam
d) Unsaturated steam
View Answer
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

Answer: c
Explanation: The boiler is an integral component of steam engine. A boiler incorporates a
firebox or furnace in order to burn the fuel and generate heat. The generated heat is
transferred to water to make steam. This produced saturated steam at a rate which can
vary according to pressure. The saturated steam thus can produced can either be used
immediately to produce power via turbine.
What is the main purpose of using an economizer in a boiler?
a) To control the process of steam conversion
b) To reduce energy consumption
c) To increase the temperature of boiler
d) To maintain a constant temperature inside a boiler
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Economizer in boilers is used to heat fluids, upto a certain degree not
beyond the boiling point of that fluid. Economizers are named so because they can make
use of enthalpy in fluid stream that are hot, thereby making more useful enthalpy and
improving the boiler’s efficiency.
In what form is the coal used in boiler?
a) Big chunks.
b) Medium size crushed
c) Powder form
d) Mixed with fluid
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The coal used for boiler is in powder form, in order to increase thermal
efficiency. The different types of coal used in boiler are generally bituminous coal, brown
coal and peat. Commonly bituminous coal is most preferred boiler fuel since it has
volatile matter from 8 to 33% and ash content of 5 to 16 %.
Why is air pre-heater used in the boiler?
a) To draw in the atmospheric air
b) To increase thermal efficiency
c) To heat the air to superheated level
d) To heat the air in advance
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: the purpose of the air preheater is to recover the heat from the boiler flue gas
which increases the thermal efficiency of the boiler by reducing the useful heat lost in the
flue gas. As a consequence the flue gases are also conveyed to the flue gas struck at a
lower temperature, allowing simplified design of conveyance system and flue gas stack.
What is the advantage of condensing the steam?
a) To cool down the steam
b) To discharge the same amount of feed water taken
c) Reduces the amount of pollution
d) Reduces the amount of fresh feed water
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The principle advantage of condensing operation is to reduce the amount of
fresh feed water. A condenser is usually installed after the turbine to convert the exhaust
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

steam from the turbine. They convert gaseous steam into liquid state, at a pressure below
atmospheric temperature. Condensing of steam turbine below the atmospheric
temperature, the steam pressure drops between the inlet and exhaust of turbine is
increased, which increases amount of heat available.
How is water dispensed over to the turbine blades?
a) Trough
b) Nozzle
c) Hose
d) Pump
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Nozzle is used to dispense the water over to the turbine blades of steam
turbine. A nozzle is a duct that increases the velocity of the flowing fluid at the expense
of pressure drop. It’s a duct which decreases the velocity of fluid and increases pressure
difference.
In what aspect does the nozzle make changes?
a) Temperature
b) Volume
c) Pressure
d) Density
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Nozzle makes changes in terms of pressure variation. And rest all
factors/terms are unaffected. By decreasing the pressure and increasing the velocity at
other end through convergent-divergent nozzle, the required force or pace can be
achieved to run the blades of turbine.
In presence of which gas is the fuel burnt to generate energy in the form of heat?
a) Oxygen
b) Hydrogen
c) Methane
d) Nitrogen
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The fuel is burnt in the presence of oxygen to generate energy in the form of
heat. This heat energy can be used for electrical power generation in steam power plants
and for propelling ships, automobiles and locomotives, etc.
Which are the main constituents of fuel from given options?
a) Carbon and Nitrogen
b) Oxygen and Hydrogen
c) Carbon and Hydrogen
d) Helium and Oxygen
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Carbon and Hydrogen are the main constituents of a fuel. In addition to
them, fuel also contains sulfur, oxygen and nitrogen in minimal quantities. Depending on
the fuel, the percentage of carbon ranges from 50-95%, hydrogen (H2) 2-6%, oxygen (O2)
2-4%, sulfur (S2) 0.5-3% and Nitrogen (N) 5-7%. A solid fuel may also contain 2-30%
ash. In a fuel carbon, hydrogen and sulfur are combustible elements whereas nitrogen and
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

ash are incombustible elements. Since the major combustible elements in fuel are carbon
and hydrogen it can also be called as Hydrocarbon fuel.
Which fuel is used widely in steam power plants?
a) Oil
b) Gas
c) Coal
d) Petroleum
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Coal is the oldest form of fuel and is still used in a large scale throughout
the world by steam power plants as well as all power generation plants. Coal is a
heterogeneous compound and its constituents are always carbon, hydrogen, oxygen,
sulfur, nitrogen and certain mineral non combustibles.
What is the phenomenon of the formation of coal called?
a) Metamorphism
b) Diagenis’
c) Photosynthesis
d) Protolith
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The phenomenon by which the buried vegetation consisting wood, grass,
shrubs etc, transformed into coal is known as metamorphism. The nature of coal will
depend upon the type of vegetation buried and nature and duration of metamorphism.
There are different types of metamorphism namely contact metamorphism, regional
metamorphism, cataclastic metamorphism, hydrothermal metamorphism, burial
metamorphism and shock metamorphism.
On what basis is the coal classified?
a) Period of formation
b) Depending on capacity to burn
c) Region/area where is it formed
d) Physical and chemical composition
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The coal is classified on the basis of its physical and chemical composition.
The proximate and ultimate analyses are the common tests which are used to find the
commercial value of the coal. The proximate analysis gives characteristics of coal such as
percentage of moisture, ash and volatile matter. Analysis of coal gives an indication about
fusion temperature and heating value of the coal.
What is the use of electrostatic precipitations in steam power plant?
a) To remove the steam
b) To draw the coal powder into boiler
c) To remove the feed water
d) To remove fly ash
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The electrostatic precipitators are extensively used in the steam power plant
for removal of fly ash from the electric utility boiler emission. Since the water inside the
boiler is converted into steam, the fire for converting is fuelled by burning the coal which
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

produces high amount of fly ash, so that the ash’ can be reused. The use of electrostatic
precipitators is growing rapidly because of the new strict air code and environmental
laws. An electrostatic can be designed to operate at any desired efficiency.
Why is ‘make-up water’ added to drum continuously?
a) To remove the impurities in tube
b) To replace the water that has been converted into steam
c) To keep the system cool externally
d) To compensate for water loss trough blow down
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Make-up water is added to compensate for the losses of water incurred by
blow downs or leakages occurring in boiler, and also to maintain desired water level in
boiler steam drum. Blow down and leakages are common since there is continuous flow
of condensate from condenser to boiler.
What causes failure of boiler tube?
a) Heating the tubes, when desired water level is not maintained
b) Induced pressure in the water
c) Over use of boiler
d) Hardness of water
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Hardness of water causes failure of boiler tube. Hard water consists of
calcium and magnesium salts. Hardness in water will form deposits on the tube water
surfaces which will lead to overheating and failure of tubes. Thus the salts have to be
removed from the water.
Fuels are classified as primary and secondary fuel based on the __________
a) Capacity to burn
b) Availability
c) State
d) Occurrence
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Based on the occurrence, fuels are classified as primary fuels and secondary
fuels. A primary fuel is available in nature E.g., wood, peat, lignite, natural gas,
petroleum, etc. A primary fuel is also called as a natural fuel. A secondary fuel is not
available in nature, but it is prepared from primary fuel by artificial means e.g. gasoline,
diesel, coke gas, blast furnace gas, kerosene etc. A secondary fuel is also known as
artificial fuel.
Which fuel is partially carbonized and is considered as a primary stage in coal formation?
a) Coal bitumen
b) Anthracite
c) Peat
d) Lignite
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Peat is partially carbonized and decomposed material formed mainly due the
transformation of buried vegetation. It is considered as the primary stage in the formation
of the coal. It is spongy substance with high moisture content (upto 80%). Hence it has to
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

be dried before use. In dry form, it has a calorific value of about 14560 KJ/kg. It consists
of 58% C; 6.3% H2; 30.8% O2; 0.9% N2 and 4% ash.
Which fuel is called secondary stage in the formation of coal?
a) Lignite
b) Bituminous coal
c) Peat
d) Anthracite
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Lignite is the secondary stage in the formation of coal. It is brown in color
and hence known as brown coal. It is used as a low grade fuel especially for domestic use
and also as a boiler fuel. It is the intermediate stage between bituminous coal and peat. It
has a calorific value of about 12500 kJ/kg. It consists of 66% C; 5% H2; 20% O2; 1% N2;
1% S and 3.5% ash and other incombustible.
Which fuel is commonly available in both caking and Non-caking forms?
a) Lignite
b) Bituminous coal
c) Peat
d) Anthracite
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Bituminous coal is the most commonly used form of coal. It is available in
both caking and non-caking forms. It burns with a yellow flame. It has calorific value of
about 32000 kJ/kg. It consists of 81%C; 5%H2; 8% O2; 1.5% N2; 1% S; and 3.5% ash.
Caking bituminous coal softens and forms a pasty mass if heated at higher temperature.
This coal is used to manufacture coke. Non-caking bituminous coal doesn’t soften on
heating and hence it is used in steam power plants.
Which fuel is the final stage in the formation of coal?
a) Bituminous coal
b) Anthracite coal
c) Peat
d) Lignite
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Anthracite coal is called final stage of transformation of buried vegetation
into coal. It is non-caking and has highest calorific value of about 35500 kJ/kg. It burns at
high temperature and is smokeless. It consists of 91% C; 3% H2; 2.5% O2; 0.5% N2; 0.5%
S and 2.5% ash. It is also used as a boiler fuel.
Which form of fuel is used as a domestic form of fuel?
a) Wood
b) Bituminous Coal
c) Dung cake
d) Anthracite coal
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: wood is mainly used as a domestic fuel. It has low calorific value of about
10500 kJ/kg. It consists of about 48.5% C; 6% H2; 1.5% of ash; 43.5% O2 and 0.5% N2.
Wood fuel is used in different forms such as firewood, charcoal, chips, sheets, pellets and
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

sawdust. The particular form used depends upon factors such as source, quantity, quality
and application.
What is the main purpose of demineralization treatment plant?
a) To remove deposits made on tube
b) To reduce scaling on tube
c) To remove salts
d) To filter the boiler water
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The salts (calcium and magnesium) of hard water have to be removed to
overcome all types of effects caused by water on tubes. Demineralization treatment plant
generally consists of cation, anion and mixed bed exchangers. These ions are recombined
with water to form pure water. Very pure mineralized water becomes highly corrosive
once it absorbs oxygen.
What type of gear mechanism is provided to rotate the turbine generator shaft?
a) Mutilated gear mechanism
b) Ratchet gear mechanism
c) Barring gear mechanism
d) Planetary gear mechanism
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Barring gear is the mechanism provided to rotate the turbine generator shaft
at very low speed after unit stoppages. Once the steam inlet valve is closed, the turbine
comes down towards standstill. When it stops completely, there is a tendency for turbine
shaft to deflect or bend if allowed to remain in same position for too long.
Which gas cooling is used in large generator units of steam plant?
a) Sulfur dioxide
b) Hydrogen
c) Carbon dioxide
d) Nitrogen
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Hydrogen gas cooling is used for large generator units in steam plant.
Because it has the highest heat transfer coefficient of any known heat transfer coefficient
of any gas and for its low viscosity which reduces wind-age losses. This system requires
special handling during start up, with air in the generator enclosure first displaced by
carbon dioxide before filling with hydrogen. This ensures that the highly flammable
hydrogen does not mix with oxygen in the air.
Which fuel is produced by slow pyrolysis?
a) Dung cake
b) Coke
c) Charcoal
d) Briquette
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Charcoal is produced by slow pyrolysis. It is prepared by heating wood with
limited supply of air below 280°C. It contains 80-90% of carbon. It is used for domestic
purpose namely cooking, heating and metallurgical purpose. Charcoal is the light weight
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

black carbon and ash residue produced by removing water and other volatile constituents
from animal and vegetation substances. There are different types of coal namely sugar
charcoal, activated charcoal, lump charcoal, etc.
Which fuel is prepared by heating bituminous coal continuously for 15 to 18 hours in
closed chamber?
a) Charcoal
b) Anthracite
c) Coke
d) Briquette coal
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Coal is prepared by heating bituminous coal continuously for 15 to 18 hours
in closed chamber in the absence of air 500oC to 700oC. During this process the volatile
matter is removed from the coal, leaving a dull black color to coke. It is a hard porous
structure and smokeless. It contains 85 to 95% carbon. When the bituminous coal is
heated between 900oC to 1000oC, hard coke is produced. It is used in gas producing
plants and blast furnaces.
Which fuel is prepared by moulding finely ground coal under pressure?
a) Coke
b) Charcoal
c) Briquette coal
d) Lignite
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Briquette coal is prepared by moulding finely ground coal under pressure
with or without the addition of binding material. Most commonly used binding materials
are coal tar, crude oil and clay. By using briquette coal, the fuel loss through boiler grates
can be avoided.
Which fuel is produced by powdering low grade coal with high ash content?
a) Coke
b) Pulverized coal
c) Charcoal
d) Briquette coal
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Pulverized coal is prepared by powdering low grade coal with high ash
content. Dry coal is pulverized in pulverizing mills. It burns most efficiently when mixed
with air and hence it is used in most of the power plants.
Which is the correct advantage of solid fuels out of the given option?
a) They have low ignition temperature
b) They produce small amount of smoke
c) They have higher calorific value
d) They do not form any clinker
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: They have low ignition temperature’. Ignition temperature is the minimum
temperature at which a substance starts to burn. Different fuels have different ignition
temperature. Some fuels have low ignition temperature and some have high ignition
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

temperature. The fuels that have low ignition temperature are highly inflammable and
burn quickly at the spark of fire. While some fuels that have high ignition temperature do
not burn quickly. They require heating to burn. For e.g., kerosene oil does not burn unless
it is heated up to its ignition temperature.
Choose the proper disadvantage of solid fuels out of the given option?
a) They produce lot of smoke
b) They have low ignition temperature
c) They are high in production cost
d) They cannot be easily transported
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Solid fuels tend to produce lot of smoke because they have large percentage
of ash content. They are also brittle in nature and they contain some amount of ash in it
when they are in ground. Due to their brittleness, it is common nature of solid fuels that
they break into pieces while mining and transporting and form ash.
In what forms are liquid fuels available in nature?
a) Light distillate
b) Petroleum spirit
c) Petroleum naphtha
d) Crude petroleum
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Liquid fuels are available in nature in the form of crude petroleum. All
commercial liquid fuels are derived from crude petroleum or crude oil. The crude oil, as it
comes out from oil wells contains 83-87% carbon, 10-14% hydrogen and small
percentages of sulfur, nitrogen, oxygen and gases containing mainly ethane and methane.
Name the process used to eliminate impurities present in crude oil?
a) Distillation
b) Filtration
c) Sedimentation
d) Coagulation
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The impurities present in the crude oil are eliminated by the process of
refining oil by distillation. It is based on the principle that boiling points of various
hydrocarbons increase with an increase in molecular weight and when distilled, the crude
oil is separated into gasoline, kerosene, fuel oil or reduced crude oil.
Which fuel has the lightest liquid petroleum fraction?
a) Diesel
b) Petrol
c) Distillate
d) Kerosene
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Petrol has the lightest liquid petroleum fraction and highly volatile in nature.
It is also called gasoline. It has a specific gravity ranging from 0.70 to 0.78. It is obtained
between 65 to 200oC and it is a mixture of a number of hydrocarbons. It is light yellow in
color and it is used as a fuel in automobiles and aero planes.
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

Which fuel is heavier than petrol but less volatile and it is commonly used as domestic
fuel?
a) Diesel
b) Distilled fuel
c) Kerosene
d) Alcohol
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Kerosene is heavier than gasoline but less volatile than it. It has a specific
gravity ranging from 0.78 to 0.85. It is obtained between 150 to 300oC. It is mainly used
in aviation gas turbines as jet fuel and also in lams and stoves. It is miscible in petroleum
solvents but immiscible in water.
Which fuel is slightly heavier than kerosene and is produced in petroleum fractions?
a) Diesel
b) Crude oil
c) Gasoline
d) Distillate
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Distillate is slightly heavier than kerosene and is used as fuel and domestic
fuel. It is liquid fuel usually distilled from crude petroleum and produced in fractions.
Distillate fuel is a type of fuel for internal combustion vehicles with either mechanical
transmissions or electric transmissions. They are used in automobiles locomotives and
agricultural machinery as well as space heaters and power generators.
Which fuel has higher thermodynamic efficiency in liquid fuels?
a) Diesel
b) Petrol
c) Kerosene
d) LPG
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Diesel is heavier than kerosene. It has specific gravity ranging from 0.86 to
0.95. It is obtained between 200 to 370oC. It is used in diesel engine. Diesel engines have
found broad use as a result of higher thermodynamic efficiency and fuel efficiency.
Which liquid fuel has a wider composition than diesel and used in furnaces of oil fired
boiler?
a) Fuel oil
b) Petrol
c) Distillate
d) Alcohol
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Fuel oil is similar to diesel but has wider composition than diesel. It is used
in furnaces of oil fired boilers. Broadly speaking, fuel oil is any liquid fuel that is burned
in furnace or boiler for the generation of power, except oil is having a flash point of
approximately 42oC and oils burned in cotton or wool-wick burners.
Which is the artificial liquid fuel obtained by fermentation process?
a) Fuel oil
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

b) Alcohol
c) Distillate
d) Kerosene
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Alcohol is an artificial fuel obtained from vegetable matter by fermentation
process. It is used in many chemical processes. The first four aliphatic alcohols
(methanol, propanol, ethanol and butanol) are of interest as fuels because they can be
synthesized chemically or biologically. The general chemical formula for alcohol fuel is
CnH2n+1OH.
Which among the following fuels need excess amount of air for complete combustion?
a) Natural fuels
b) Liquid fuels
c) Gaseous fuels
d) Artificial solid fuels
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Artificial solid fuels need excess amount of air for complete combustion
because they have low calorific value compared to liquid fuels and the rate of combustion
of solid fuels cannot be easily controlled. They have tendency to form clinkers at high
temperatures.
Which fuels are either natural or artificial fuels?
a) Gaseous fuels
b) Solid fuels
c) Liquid fuels
d) Nuclear fuels
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Gaseous fuels are either natural fuels or artificial fuels. Natural fuels occur
in the form of natural gas near oil bearing areas under earth’s surface. Artificial fuels
prepared are coal gas coke oven gas, blast furnace gas, producer gas, water gas and mond
gas.
Which gaseous fuel is found dissolved in petroleum under earth’s surface in oil and gas
bearing areas?
a) Natural gas
b) Coal gas
c) Mond gas
d) Producer gas
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Natural gas is found dissolved in petroleum under earth’s surface in oil and
gas bearing areas. It mainly contains 85% Methane (CH4) and hydrogen (H2) along with
small percentages of ethane and ethylene. Liquefied petroleum gas (LPG) is a mixture of
propane, butane and other hydrocarbons separated from natural gas. It is stored under
pressure in the liquid form. It is used as a domestic fuel and as an automobile fuel.
Which gaseous fuel is called as town gas?
a) Natural gas
b) Coke oven gas
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

c) Coal gas
d) Mond gas
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Coal gas is called as town gas. It is a by-product obtained during destructive
distillation of coal. It mainly contains H2, CO, CO2, CH4 and N2. It has a calorific value
ranging from 21000KJ/m3 to 25000KJ/m3. The gas obtained when coal is heated strongly
in the absence of air is called coal gas.
Which gaseous fuel is obtained by carbonization of bituminous coal?
a) Blast furnace gas
b) Coal gas
c) Producer gas
d) Coke oven gas
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Coke oven gas is a fuel gas having a medium calorific value that is produced
during the manufacture of metallurgical coke by heating bituminous coal to temperatures
of 900oC to 1000oC in a chamber from which air is excluded. The main constituents are
50% H2, 30% methane and 3% higher hydrocarbons, 7% CO, 3% CO2 and 7% N2. The
gas has heating value of about 20,000 KJ/m3.
Which gaseous fuel has a very low heating value?
a) Blast furnace gas
b) Coke oven gas
c) Water gas
d) Mond gas
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Blast furnace has a very low heating value. It is obtained as a by-product
during blast furnace operation. Due to high percentage of dust content it should be
purified before use. It has a calorific value ranging between 3800 KJ/m3 to 4200 kJ/m3. It
is used as a fuel in gas engines in steam generation and in steel plants.
Which gaseous fuel is obtained by partial combustion of coke?
a) Coke oven gas
b) Producer gas
c) Coal gas
d) Blast furnace gas
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Producer gas is obtained by partial combustion of coke or coal in the
presence of air and steam mixture. It has a calorific value ranging between 5000
kJ/mm3 to 6800 kJ/mm3. It is used in glass melting in Industries and also for power
generation.
What gaseous Fuel is obtained by passing steam over candescent coke?
a) Producer gas
b) Water gas
c) Coal gas
d) Coke over gas
View Answer
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

Answer: b
Explanation: Water gas is obtained by passing steam over candescent coke. It burns with
a blue flame and hence it is known as blue water gas. It has calorific value ranging
between10500KJ/mm3 to 2300KJ/mm3. It is used in welding and in furnaces.
Which gaseous fuel is produced by passing air and steam over waste coal?
a) Blast furnace gas
b) Coal gas
c) Mond gas
d) Coke oven gas
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Mond gas is gaseous fuel that is produced by passing air and large amount
of steam over waste coal at about 650oC. It has a calorific value of 5800KJ/mm3. The
mond gas process was designed to convert cheap coal into flammable gas, which was
made up of mainly hydrogen while recovering ammonium sulphate. The gas produced
was rich in hydrogen and poor in carbon monoxide. Although it could be used for some
industrial purposes and power generation, the gas was limited for heating or lighting.
Which of the fuels give enormous amount of energy?
a) Gaseous
b) Solid
c) Liquid
d) Nuclear
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Nuclear fuels result in generation of enormous amount of energy by nuclear
reactions namely fission and fusion. In fission reactions, a heavy atom is split by neutrons
into two lighter fragments. In fusion reactions, two lighter atomic nuclei are fused
together to form a single, heavy nucleus. In order to carry out nuclear reactions
fissionable materials are used as fuels.
Which is the only nuclear fuel that occurs in nature in abundantly?
a) Plutonium
b) Radium
c) Thorium
d) Uranium
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Uranium is the only fissionable nuclear fuel occurring in nature. It consists
of 99.3% of 92U238, 0.7% 92U235 and small traces of 92U234. Out of these isotopes
only 92U235 is used in fission reaction. Uranium is a very heavy metal which has been
used as an abundant source of concentrated energy for 60 years.
What do you get when you convert 92U238 (uranium) by conversion process and reacting
with neutron?
a) 94Pu239
b) 94Pu231
c) 94Pu241
d) 94Pu244
View Answer
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

Answer: a
Explanation: Conversion process of uranium 92U238
238
92U + 0n1 -> 92U239 + γ – radiation
239
92U -> 93Np239 (Neptunium) + -1e0 (Electron)
239
93Np -> 94Pu239 + -1e0
What do you get when breeding process is carried out on 90Th232?
a) 92U233
b) 92U234
c) 92U235
d) 92U236
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: When breeding process is performed on 90Th232 (Thorium)
232
90Th + 0n1 → 90Th233 + γ -radiation
233
90Th → 91Pa233 (Protactinium) + -1e0 (Electron)
233
91Pa → 92U233 + -1e0.
Which fuels can breed fissile uranium-233 to be used in various kinds of nuclear reactor?
a) Thorium
b) Neptunium
c) Plutonium
d) Radium
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Thorium fuels can breed fissile uranium-233 to be used in various kinds of
nuclear reactor. The use of thorium as a new primary energy source has been tantalizing
prospects for many years. It is fertile rather than fissile, and can only be used as a fuel in
conjunction with a fissile material.
Which two nuclear fuels are produced artificially?
a) 92Pu239 and 92U233
b) 92Pu244 and 92U234
c) 92Pu241 and 92U235
d) 92Pu242 and 92U236
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Plutonium 92Pu239 and uranium 92U233 are the fissionable materials produced
artificially from 92U238 and 90Th232 respectively. Uranium-238 and thorium 232 are
available in nature. They are known as fertile materials. These fertile materials when
placed close to 92U235 in a reactor absorb the emitted neutrons to produce fissionable
materials as follows.
What helps in converting uranium into fuel?
a) Breeder
b) Vitrification
c) Fuel fabricator
d) Enrichment plant
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Fuel fabrication plants help in converting enriched uranium into fuel for
nuclear reactors. For light water reactors, uranium is received from an enrichment plant in
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

solid form. It is then converted into uranium dioxide powder. This powder is passed into
pellets and packed into fuel assemblies.
The process of burning fuels in the presence of oxygen is called _________
a) Induction
b) Ignition
c) Condensation
d) Combustion
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The process of burning fuels in the presence of oxygen is called combustion.
Due to the presence of combustible elements like carbon (C), hydrogen (H) and sulfur
(S), fuels burn in presence of oxygen and generate heat from the fuels.
The minimum temperature at which a substance begins to burn is called ________
a) Fire point temperature
b) Auto ignition
c) Ignition temperature
d) Flash point temperature
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The minimum temperature at which a substance begins to burn is called
ignition temperature. No substance can catch fire unless it is heated up to a certain
minimum temperature. The ignition of every substance is definite. For example, the
ignition temperature of white phosphorous is 35°C. It means, white phosphorous starts
burning only if it is heated up to 35°C.
The substance which helps in combustion of fuels is called _________
a) Igniter
b) Flammables
c) Supporter
d) Inflammables
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The substance which helps in combustion of fuels is called supporter
fuels/combustible elements. For example, oxygen is a supporter of combustion because in
the absence of oxygen fuels cannot burn.
What is necessary for complete combustion of fuels?
a) There should be no water content in the fuel
b) Sufficient amount of air is required
c) High quantity of fuel
d) Open space to burn easily
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: For complete combustion of fuels, it is necessary to supply sufficient
amount of air. If air supplied is not sufficient then combustion will be incomplete. This
means carbon in the fuel burns to produce carbon monoxide (CO) instead of carbon
dioxide (CO2), and thus reducing the amount of oxygen required and amount of heat
generated.
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

C + O2 →_____
a) CO
b) CO2
c) CO3
d) 2CO
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Based on molecular weight, 12kg of carbon combines with 32kg of oxygen
forming 44kg of carbon dioxide.
i.e., 12kg of C + 32 kg of O2 => 44kg of CO2
1kg of C + 8/3kg of O2 => 11/3kg of CO2
Reaction type: synthesis.
C + O2 => _______
a) CO
b) 2CO2
c) 2CO
d) CO3
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Balanced equation: 2C + O2 => 2CO [Synthesis reaction] Oxygen is left in
excess, based on the molecular weight, 24kg of carbon combines with 32kg of oxygen
forming 56kg of carbon monoxide
24kg of C + 32kg of O2 => 56kg of CO
1kg of C + 4/3kg of O2 => 7/3kg of CO.
CO + O2 => _______
a) 2CO2
b) CO2
c) CO
d) CO3
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Based on molecular weight, 56kg of carbon monoxide combines with 32kg
of oxygen forming 88kg of CO2
Balanced equation: 2CO + O2 => 2CO2
56kg of CO + 32kg of O2 => 88kg of CO2
1kg of CO + 4/7kg of O2 => 11/7kg of CO2.
H2 + O2 => _____
a) H2O
b) OH
c) H3O
d) 2H2O
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Based on molecular weight, 32kg of sulfur combines with 32kg of oxygen
forming 36kg of water.
Balanced equation: 2H2 + O2 => 2H2O
4kg of H2 + 32kg of O2 => 36kg of H2O
1kg of H2 + 8kg of O2 => 9kg of H2O.
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

S + O2 => ______
a) SO3
b) SO2
c) S2-
d) 2SO2
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Based on molecular weight, 32 kg of sulfur combines with 32 kg of oxygen
forming 64 kg of SO2
S + O2 => SO2
32 kg of S + 3 2 kg of O2 => 64 kg of SO2
1 kg of S + 1 kg of O2 => 2 kg of SO2.
The amount of heat liberated by complete combustion of unit quantity of fuel is known as
________
a) Agitation
b) Combustion
c) Calorific value
d) Thermogenesis
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: when fuels are burnt, heat is produced. It can also be defined as the amount
of heat produced on complete burning of 1gm of fuel. SI unit of calorific value is kJ/g.
The chemical reaction is typically hydrocarbon or other organic molecule reacting with
oxygen to form carbon dioxide and water and release heat.
What is the significance of calorific value?
a) Helps in deciding which fuel is good
b) Helps in locating fuel
c) Helps in deciding ignition temperature
d) Helps in deciding fire point
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The different fuels have different calorific values, i.e. different fuels produce
different amount of heat in heat on burning. The calorific value of fuel helps us to decide
that which fuel is good for us. This is done by comparing the calorific values of fuels with
each other. Usually, a fuel having higher calorific value is considered to be a good fuel.
Which gas has the highest calorific value among given option?
a) Oxygen
b) Helium
c) Hydrogen
d) Nitrogen
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Hydrogen gas has the highest calorific value of 150KJ/g among all. So,
hydrogen gas is considered is considered to be an extremely good fuel. However,
hydrogen gas is not used as a fuel in homes and industries. Reason is hydrogen is highly
combustible and it burns with explosion when lighted, its transportation from place to
place is very difficult, and the cost of production of hydrogen is very high.
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

How much percent of hydrogen gas does methane contain?

a) 25%
b) 50%
c) 68%
d) 85%
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Methane contains 25% of hydrogen. Since the calorific value of fuels
depends on the percentage of hydrogen present in them. So the fuels which have higher
percentage of hydrogen will have higher calorific value as compared to those fuels which
have lower percentage of hydrogen.
Which calorimeter is used to find calorific values of solid and liquid fuels?
a) Boy’s calorimeter
b) Bomb calorimeter
c) Junker’s calorimeter
d) Calvet-type calorimeter
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The calorific value of solid of solid and liquid fuel is defined as the amount
of heat liberated by complete combustion of unit mass of fuel. In SI unit s it is expressed
in kJ/kg. A bomb calorimeter is a type of constant volume calorimeter used in measuring
heat of combustion of particular reaction. Bomb calorimeters have to withstand the large
pressure within the calorimeter as the reaction is being measured.
Which calorimeter is used to find calorific values of gaseous fuels?
a) Bomb calorimeter
b) Junker calorimeter
c) Adiabatic calorimeter
d) Isothermal titration calorimeter
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The calorific values of gaseous fuel are defined as the amount of heat
liberated by complete combustion of unit volume of fuel. SI unit is KJ/m3. This
calorimeter works on principle of burning of a known volume of gas an imparting the
heat with maximum efficiency to steadily flowing water and finding out the rise in
temperature of a measured volume of water.
The calorific value of all organic compounds has the sign corresponding to a ________
a) Exothermic reaction
b) Endothermic reaction
c) Single displacement reaction
d) Synthesis reaction
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The calorific value of all organic compounds has the sign corresponding to
an exothermic reaction. Because the double bond in molecular oxygen is much weaker
than other double bonds or pairs of single bonds, particularly those in combustion
products carbon dioxide and water, conversion of the weak bonds in o2 to the stronger
bonds in CO2 and H2O releases energy as heat.
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

What value of a substance, usually a fuel or food is the amount of heat released during the
combustion?
a) Energy value
b) Flash point value
c) Fire point value
d) Auto ignition
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Energy value (heating value or calorific value) of a substance, usually a fuel
or food is the amount of heat released during the combustion of a specified amount of it.
The energy value is characteristic for each substance. It is measured in units of energy per
unit of the substance, usually mass, such as Kj/Kg, KJ/mol, and kcal/kg.
What accounts for the presence of water in the exhaust leaving as vapor?
a) Gross calorific value
b) Flash point value
c) Ignition temperature value
d) Net calorific value
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Gross heating value accounts for water in the exhaust leaving as vapor, and
includes liquid water in the fuel prior to combustion. This value is important for fuels like
wood and coal, which will usually contain some amount of water prior to burning.
What is the factor on which, difference between the two heating values of fuel depends
on?
a) Physical properties
b) Reactants
c) Chemical composition
d) Products
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The difference between the two heating values depends on the chemical
composition of the fuel. In the case of pure carbon or carbon monoxide, the two heating
values are almost identical, the difference being the sensible heat content of carbon
dioxide between 150oC to 25oC.
Which is the common method to relate higher calorific value to lower calorific value?
a) HCV = LCV + HV (nH2O, out / nfuel, in)
b) LCV = HCV + HV (nH2O, out / nfuel, in)
c) HCV = LCV + HV (nfuel, in/ nH2O, out)
d) LCV = HCV + HV (nfuel, in/ nH2O, out)
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: HV – heat vaporization of water.
nH2O, out – moles of water vaporized.
nfuel, in – number of moles of fuel combusted.
High calorific value is equal to low calorific value plus, product of heat of vaporization of
water and moles of water vaporized by moles of fuel combusted.
Based on what basis are fuels compared?
a) Fire point value
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

b) High calorific value

c) Flash point value
d) Low calorific value
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: On basis of low calorific value the fuels are compared. Low calorific value
is the amount of heat evolved when a unit weight of fuel is completely burnt and water
vapor leaves with combustion products.
Which value is determined by bringing all products of combustion back to original pre-
combustion temperature?
a) Higher calorific value
b) Low calorific value
c) Flash point value
d) Fire point value
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: High calorific value is determined, as all fuels contain hydrogen; they
produce water vapor during combustion. When the products of combustion containing
water vapor are cooled back to initial temperature, then all water vapors formed condense
and evolve latent heat. This adds up to the heat liberated by burning the fuel, producing
maximum amount of heat per kg of fuel. This heat is known as the higher calorific value
of fuel, and it is denoted by HCV.
Which calorific value is same as the thermodynamic heat of combustion?
a) Net calorific value
b) Flash point value
c) Gross calorific value
d) Fire point value
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Gross calorific value is as same as the thermodynamic heat of combustion
since the enthalpy change for the reaction assumes a common temperature of the
compounds before and after combustion, in which case the water produced by
combustion is condensed to a liquid, hence yielding its latent heat of vaporization.
Which value is determined by subtracting the heat of vaporization of the water from the
higher heating value?
a) Gross calorific value
b) Net calorific value
c) Ignition temperature
d) Fire point temperature
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Net calorific value determined. In most of the combustion processes, the
products of combustion cannot be cooled to its initial temperature. Thus water vapors
don’t condense and hence the latent heat of water vapor is lost to the atmosphere. The
resultant heat liberated by the fuel which excludes the latent heat of evaporation of water
vapors is known as lower calorific value of fuel.
Which formula is used to determine higher calorific value of fuel?
a) Rayleigh’s formula
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

b) Lamme’s equation
c) Dulongs’s formula
d) Cauchy’s formula
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Higher calorific value of the fuel can be determined by using Dulongs’s
formula. Let C, H, O and S represent the percentage by weight of carbon, carbon, oxygen
and sulfur respectively.
HCV = 1/100 [33900 + 144000(H – (O/8)) + 9295 S] kJ/Kg
This formula gives gross heating value in terms of the weight fractions of carbon,
hydrogen, oxygen and sulfur from the ultimate analysis.
Lower calorific value can be determined by equation:
a) LCV = HCV – m*2466
b) LCV = HCV + (m/2466)
c) LCV = HCV – (m/2466)
d) LCV = HCV + (m*2466)
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Lower calorific value can be determined equation [LCV = HCV – m*2466].
The latent heat lost to the atmosphere depends on evaporation pressure and the amount of
water vapors formed. Due to difficulty in measuring the evaporation pressure, it is
assumed that evaporation takes place at a saturation temperature of 15°C. The latent heat
corresponding to this saturation is 2466 kl/kg.
m = mass of water vapour formed per kg of fuel burnt.
Which fuel has higher calorific value among given fuels?
a) Natural gas
b) Gasoline
c) Diesel
d) Fuel oil
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Gasoline also called as petrol, has the highest calorific value. Gasoline is a
transparent petroleum derived liquid that is used primarily as a fuel in internal
combustion engines. It consists of mostly of organic compounds obtained by the
fractional distillation of petroleum, enhanced with variety of additives.
What is amount of minimum air required per kg of liquid fuel for complete combustion
using carbon, oxygen, hydrogen and sulfur?
a) 1/23 [8/3 C + 8(H – (O/8)) + S]
b) 1/100 [8/3 C + 8(H – (O/8)) + S]
c) 1/100 [8/3 C + 8(H – (0/8))]
d) 1/23 [8/3 C + 8(H – (0/8))]
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Let C, H, O and S represent percentage by mass of carbon(C), Hydrogen
(H2), oxygen and sulfur respectively.
The mass of oxygen required for complete combustion of fuel is given by,
= 1/100 [8/3 C + 8H – O + S]
= 1/100 [8/3C + 8(H – (0/8)) + S]
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

As air contains 23% of oxygen by mass, minimum air required for burning one kg of
liquid fuel completely is given by,
Min. air required = 1/100 [8/3 C + 8(H – (O/8)) + S] 100/23
= 1/23 [8/3 C + 8 (H – (O/8)) + S].
What is minimum amount of air required per m3 of gaseous fuel for complete
combustion?
a) 1/21 [(H2/2) + (CO/2) + 2CH4 + 3C2H4] m3/m3 of fuel
b) 1/100 [(H2/2) + (CO/2) + 2CH4 + 3C2H4] m3/m3 of fuel
c) 1/21 [(H2/2) + (CO/2) + 3C2H4] m3/m3 of fuel
d) 1/100 [(H2/2) + (CO/2) + 3C2H4] m3/m3 of fuel
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Volumetric analysis of fuels hydrogen, carbon monoxide, methane, ethane,
carbon dioxide and nitrogen is done and required minimum amount of oxygen is found
for one m3 of gaseous fuel:
O2 required/m3 of fuel = 1/100[(H2/2) + (CO/2) + 2CH4 + 3C2H4] m3
As atmospheric air contains 21% of O2 by volume, minimum air required t burn one
m3 of gaseous fuel is given by,
Minimum volume of air required (cm3/m3 of fuel):
= 1/100 [(H2/2) + (CO/2) + 2CH4 + 3C2H4] 100/21
= 1/21 [(H2/2) + (CO/2) + 2CH4 + 3C2H4] m3/m3 of fuel.
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

What is the basis on principle of automatic control of combustion is determined?

a) Control of fuel supply to the boiler

b) Speed of rotation of fans
c) Control of combustion
d) Control of steam pressure
View Answer
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

What quantities need to maintained/regulated for effective control of combustion?

a) Induced draught and forced draught fans pressure

b) Air and steam gauge pressure
c) Fuel flowing out of stoker
d) Air and fuel supply
View Answer
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

What is necessary to ensure products of combustion flow into the chimney?

a) Air speed
b) Draft in the chimney
c) Differential gas pressure
d) Swirl flow of exhaust air
View Answer
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

When does automatic control system of combustion come into operation?

a) When there is no fluctuation in furnace draft

b) When there is variation in steam flow rate
c) When the draft connection is clogged
d) When there is minimal amount of air supply
View Answer
Which is the component that maintains forces in whole automatic combustion control
system?
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

a) Steam pressure gauge

b) Fan vanes
c) Master controller
d) Relay 1 & 2
View Answer
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

When does master controller comes into action?

a) When there is variation in steam flow rate

b) When there is variation in fuel supply
c) When there is variation in steam pressure
d) When there is variation in draught fans
View Answer
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

When does relay’s 1 and 2 come into operation?

a) When there are changes in steam pressure

b) When there is change in forced draught
c) When there is change in steam flow rate
d) When there is change in induced draught
View Answer
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

What is the purpose of Automatic combustion control system?

a) To get constant steam pressure

b) To maintain steady state combustion
c) To get constant steam output
d) To save the time and manual labour
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The automatic combustion control system provides the effective prevention
of the environmental pollution and steady combustion condition to get a constant steam
output. But few factors prevent steady combustion condition such as unbalanced
combustion air and the movement of the burn-out position in the incinerator.

Sanfoundry Global Education & Learning Series – Energy Engineering.

What is the most important factor that is essential for economical working of a power
plant?
a) Abundant fuel input
b) Rotational speed of turbines
c) Efficient transfer of heat energy to water
d) Proper maintenance Ash and other waste handling systems
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The economical working of power plant depends upon factors such as
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

efficient transfer of heat energy to water for generation of steam and efficient combustion
of fuel in combustion chamber. Many improvements have been made in design of the
furnace to increase the rate of combustion.
What type of reaction is burning?
a) Endothermic reaction
b) Exothermic reaction
c) Synthesis reaction
d) Decomposition reaction
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Burning is an exothermic reaction. A fuel is a store of chemical energy that
we convert into useful energy to our purposes. For example, we can use the energy stored
in natural gas to cook our food. To release this energy, we usually burn the fuel. Burning
is a chemical reaction in which the fuel reacts with oxygen gas in air and gives out energy
in terms of heat. We call this type of reaction as exothermic reaction.
Which type of furnace cannot be used in the modern era plants?
a) Hand fired furnace
b) Electric arc furnace
c) Solar furnace
d) Central warm air furnace
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A hand fired furnace is simple in design, but it cannot be used in modern
power plants because of its lower combustion efficiency. It does not respond quickly to
fluctuating loads and control of draught is very difficult.
How much pounds of CO2 is emitted per million BTU (British thermal unit- common
thermal unit) when coal is burnt?
a) 139
b) 117
c) 157
d) 205
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: 205 million BTU is the pounds of CO2 that is emitted when coal is burnt.
The amount of CO2 produced when a fuel is burned is a function of carbon content of
fuel. The heat content, or the amount of energy produced when a fuel is burned, is mainly
determined by the carbon(C) and hydrogen (H) content of the fuel.
A combustion equipment is a component of ____________
a) Turbine
b) Steam generator
c) Flue gas system
d) Ash handling system
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A combustion equipment is a component of steam generator. It receives the
fuel and air proportionals to each other and to the boiler steam demand, mix, ignites and
performs other function such as distillation of volatile matter of coal.
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

What was the reason for the poor efficiency of boiler in earlier time?
a) Boilers were set close to grates
b) Poor design of exhaust system
c) Impurities contamination the fuels
d) Lack of proper maintenance
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In earlier times boilers were set very close to the grates and combustion
space was limited and hence resulted in smoke and poor efficiency. Later, furnaces were
made larger and the boilers were set at higher level above the grates. The hand fired
furnace with large combustion space was used to burn a wide variety of coals.
Which was first combustion system used for solid fuels?
a) Firing stoker
b) Tangential stoker
c) Grate firing
d) Pulverized fuel firing
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Grate firing was the first combustion system used for solid fuels. It now is
used mainly for burning waste and biomass, but also for smaller coal furnaces. Fuel fired
per grate area is 1-2 MW/m2, ad maximum grate area is 100m2.
The amount of fuel burned depends on ____________
a) Design of burner
b) Depends on air inlet and exhaust system
c) Depends on bed movement velocity
d) Depends on amount of supply of combustion supportive air
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The amount of fuel burned depends on the amount of fuel burned and on the
bed velocity movement. The grate area is the total area of grate (a frame of iron bars).
The large the grate area, the more fuel can be burned per hour.
Which device is used for feeding the fuel automatically to boiler or furnace in power
plants?
a) Relay
b) Mechanical stoker
c) Master controller
d) Feed pump
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Mechanical stoker is the device which automatically feeds a solid fuel (such
as coal) into combustion chamber of a boiler or furnace, and provides air for the proper
combustion; may include a means for automatically removing solid products of
combustion.
What is used in case, to throw coal into furnace that is set off far from the supply?
a) Speed convey belt
b) Bucket chain
c) Paddle
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

d) Steam jet
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Steam jet from the boiler or a mechanical catapult may also be used to throw
coal into far reach of the furnace. The mechanical means used in the system depend on
the design, combinations of screw feed, the conveyor belt, the bucket chain, the paddle
and the ram.
Where exactly are mechanical stokers used?
a) In transportation of fuels
b) In small capacity plants
c) In large capacity plants
d) For domestic usage
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Mechanical stokers are usually used in large and medium capacity plants.
Mechanical stokers are used to fire almost all kinds of coal. This produces less smoke
than hand firing. A stoker consists of a power feeding machine and a grate.
Which type of stokers has more demand in the market?
a) Spreader stoker
b) Vibrating stoker
c) Travelling stoker
d) Underfeed stoker system
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Spreader stoker systems are receiving the greatest interest and sales in the
market. Depending upon the method of introducing the coal into furnace, stokers are
mainly classified into spreader stokers, underfeed stokers, vibrating grate stokers and
travelling grate stokers.
How is the coal fed to the grate in over feed system?
a) Above the point of air admission
b) Between the beds of incandescent coke and green coal
c) Above the ash bed
d) Between the point of air admission
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The coal is fed on the grate above the point of air admission. The
pressurized air coming from forced draught fan enters under the bottom of the grate. The
air passing through the grate is heated by absorbing the heat from the ash and grates itself.
Due to this the ash and grate are cooled.
The amount of CO2 formed in overfeed system entirely depends on ___________
a) Amount of ash produced
b) Carbon content in fuel
c) Rate of air supply
d) Intensity of process
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The rate of carbon-dioxide entirely depends on the rate of air supply. When
the hot air after cooling the ash passes to incandescent coke bed, here the O2 reacts with C
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

to form CO2. Generally for fuel bed of 800mm depth all the O2 in the air is consumed in
the incandescent region.
Which is the zone where the water vapors carried in air reacts with carbon in over-feed
system?
a) Green coal bed zone
b) Incandescent zone
c) Combustion zone
d) At the ash pit
View Answer
How is volatile matter of raw coal is lost in the overfeed system?
a) Condensation
b) Distillation
c) Combustion
d) Evaporation
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Raw coal that is continuously supplied on the surface of the bed loses it
volatile matter by distillation in this zone. The required for the distillation of coal is given
by incandescent coke below the fresh fuel, hot gases diffusing through the surface of the
bed and hot gases and flame in the furnace above.
Where does the ignition zone lie in overfeed system?
a) Below the raw fuel undergoing distillation
b) Below the combustion zone
c) In between coke bed and flame zone
d) Between coke bed and green coal bed
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The ignition zone lies directly below the raw fuel undergoing distillation.
The gases leaving the upper surface of the fuel bed contain combustible volatile matter
formed from the raw fuel N2, CO2, O2, H2O and CO if the burning is incomplete.
Why is secondary air supplied in overfeed system?
a) To burn the unburnt gases
b) To maintain constant heat intensity
c) To completely remove water vapors formed due to primary air supply
d) To create distillation process for the raw coal supplied
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Additional secondary air is supplied at the top of the bed to burn the
remaining combustible gases (volatile matter+CO+H2). The secondary air is supplied at
very high speed to create turbulence for complete combustion of unburnt gases.
Why does burnt gases with content of N2, CO2, H2, O2 and H2O re-enter the boiler in
overfeed system?
a) To dismiss the ash content in the gases formed
b) Due to incomplete burning
c) For complete removal of moisture
d) To complete the burn the coal
View Answer
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

Answer: b
Explanation: The burnt gases re-enter the boiler containing N2, CO2, O2, H2O and CO if
the burning is incomplete. During incandescence, the fuel is continuously loses its carbon
by oxidation until only the ash remains.
In which direction does fuel, coke and ash in fuel bed move with respect to air and gases
in overfeed system?
a) Upward direction
b) Same direction
c) Opposite direction
d) Downward direction
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Fuel, coke and ash in the fuel bed move in the direction opposite to that of
air and gases. The primary air entering from the bottom cools the ash until it finally rests
in a plane immediately adjacent to the grate.
In which direction does fuel and air in under-feed system move?
a) Opposite
b) Across
c) Same direction
d) Counter direction
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In under feed type of stokers, the fuel and air move in the same direction. In
this stoker air after passing through the holes in the grate comes in contact with the raw
coal. As air diffuses through the bed of raw coal, it mixes with the volatile matter
generated by the raw coal.
Which is the process from which heat for distillation comes, in under feed system?
a) Conduction
b) Combustion
c) Synthesis reaction
d) Circulation of hot air gases
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The heat for the distillation comes by conduction from the mass of
incandescent fuel bed existing above the raw coal. The air mixes with the volatile matter
and passes through the ignition zone and then enters into the region of incandescent coke.
Which reaction differs over feed and under feed system?
a) Changes occurring in physical properties of the system
b) Breaking of molecular structure
c) Changes in chemical composition
d) Existence of volatile matter
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The reactions which take place in the incandescent zone of under-feed
stoker is exactly same as in the incandescent zone of over feed stoker except some
breaking of molecular structure of volatile matter. Part of the broken volatile matter reacts
with the oxygen of air.
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

What is the purpose of secondary fan’s air in under feed system?

a) To support gases coming out of fuel bed
b) To clear the ash from the upper beds
c) To maintain constant pressure in system
d) To support combustion of system
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The gases coming out of raw fuel bed pass through a region of incandescent
ash on the surface of the fuel and finally discharged to the furnace. As the gases coming
out of fuel bed also contain combustible matter the supply of secondary air is required in
this case. The ash left at the bottom of the stoker is at a higher temperature than the over
feed stoker.
What is the significance of rate at which air is supplied in the under feed system?
a) Increase depth of incandescent zone
b) Pushes up ignition zone
c) Burns fuel for long time
d) Supports combustion
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The rate of air supply has marked effect on the speed of ignition in case of
under feed burning as the rising air cools the raw fuel prior to ignition. At low rate of air
fuel, the heat flow by conduction from the incandescent fuel bed downward is faster than
the removal of heat by air. This pushes the ignition plane down below the bed surface and
creates a maximum depth of incandescent zone.
Which type of coal is used in the under feed system?
a) Anthracite coal
b) Bituminous coal
c) Briquette coal
d) Pulverized coal
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The under feed method uses bituminous coals which have high volatile
matter. The volatile matter gets heated to a high temperature as it passes through
incandescent region of coal. The volatile matter being at a high temperature before
entering the furnace burns quickly when mixed with secondary air.
Why does over feed burning system takes longer time for complete burning?
a) The volatile matter will be cooler at initial
b) Due to the presence of dust and ash
c) The effect of design of system
d) Effects of air fuels on the system
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In case of over-feed burning, the volatile matter will be considerably cooler
than the furnace gases and therefore it requires longer time for complete burning and also
the air passes though incandescent zone and then enters ignition zone. This may create a
tendency to form smoke.
In what aspect does chain gate travelling stoker and bar grate travelling stoker differ?
a) Differ in supply of reactants
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

b) Differ in process of operation

c) Differ in construction
d) Differ in terms of feeding mechanism
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The travelling grate stoker may be of chain grate type or bar grate type.
These two, differ only in the construction of grate. The chain stoker employs an endless
chain which is constructed to form a support for the fuel bed. The traveling grate stoker
consists of grate bars carried by steel chains.
How does the chain run in travelling grate stoker?
a) Railings
b) Sprockets
c) Rim
d) Shaft
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The chain travels over two sprockets. In both chain type and in bar type
stokes. One sprocket is placed at the front end and other sprocket is placed at the rear end
of the furnace. The front sprocket is connected to a variable speed driving mechanism.
In what way is the supply coal/fuel is done in travelling grate stoker?
a) Screw conveyor
b) Tuyere
c) Reciprocating mechanism
d) Gravity hopper
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The coal is fed by gravity from a hopper located in front of the stoker. The
depth of fuel on the grate is regulated by hand adjusted gate. The speed of the grate varies
at the rate at which the coal is fed to the furnace.
Automatic combustion control in travelling stoker regulates speed of grate to maintain
____________
a) Steam generation
b) Air flow
c) Fuel supply
d) Conveyor speed
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The combustion control automatically regulates the speed of the grate to
maintain the required steam generation rate. The ash containing a small amount of
combustible material is carried over the rear end of the stoker and deposited in the ash pit.
Depending on what factor are the air ducts opened and closed in travelling grate stoker?
a) On the type of grate used
b) On the speed that is attained
c) On the type of coal used
d) Depending on intensity of boiler
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Depending on type of coal burned, the grate has air openings in the range of
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

20-40 percent of the total area. The air supply to different parts of the stoker is regulated
to meet the changing demand through these sections.
What does both primary and secondary air ports combined provide in travelling grate
stoker?
a) Pressure
b) Evaluating temperature
c) Turbulence
d) Heat intensity
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The air required for the combustion is supplied through the air inlets situated
the below the grate. The secondary air is supplied through the openings provided in the
furnace will be above the grate. The combination of primary air and over fire supplied
provide turbulence required for rapid combustion.
Why is it necessary to control burning in different areas of travelling grate stoker?
a) Minimize the coke carried into ash pit
b) To avoid the smoke
c) To form a maintain temperature throughout the stoker
d) To get the proper efficiency
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The operator controls rate of burning in different zones to minimize the coke
carried over to ash pit. The coal supplied to the grate is regulated either by varying depth
of coal on the grate with the help of grate valve and by varying the rate of grate travel.
Which type of coal fuel is avoided in travelling grate stoker?
a) Anthracite coal
b) Briquette
c) Pulverized coal
d) Caking bituminous
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Any type of fuel except caking bituminous coal can be used with travelling
grate stoker because of the formation of large percentage of fines resulting in increased
carbon loss. The rate of burning of fuel in this stoker is 200 to 300kg/m2 per hour when
forced draught is used.
What type of stoker is spreader/sprinkler stoker?
a) Over feed
b) Single retort
c) Multi retort
d) Under feed
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Spreader stoker is an over feed type of stoker. The coal burned on this stoker
remains partly in suspension and partly on the grate. The spreader stoker consists of
variable feeding device, a mechanism for throwing the coal uniformly on the grate and
suitable openings for admitting the air.
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

Where is the coal feeding mechanism located in spreader type stoker?

a) Above the grate
b) Right side of the grate
c) Left side of the grate
d) Below the grate
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The coal feeding and distribution mechanism is located in the front above
the grate of a spreader stoker. A portion of coal is supplied containing fine particles fine
particles of coal burns in suspension and remaining falls to the grate.
Where is the place at which the volatile matter and fine particles burnt in the spreader
stoker?
a) Over the grate
b) In steam gauge
c) In the suspension
d) In the coal bed
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The air supplied by the forced draught fan enters the furnace through the
openings provided in the grate. A portion of this air is used to burn the fuel on the grate
and remaining air is utilized to burn the volatile matter and fine particles in suspension.
From where is the over fire or secondary air is supplied through in the sprinkler stoker?
a) Air duct
b) Nozzle
c) Air damper
d) Tuyere’s
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Over fire or secondary air is supplied through nozzle. The secondary air
creates high turbulence and completes the combustion of volatile matter and fine particles
of the coal. The unburnt coal and ash are deposited on the grate which should be removed
periodically.
In which manner is the coal supplied from feeder to spreader in spreader stoker?
a) Feeding in alternate bulks
b) Feeding at regular intervals
c) Feeding in continuous stream
d) Feeding whenever necessary
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The feeder is a slow speed rotating drum on which large numbers of small
blades are mounted. It supplies coal to the spreaders in continuous stream. The speed of
the feeder can be adjusted as per the load on plant. The feeders are operated with variable
speed drive to control the combustion as per the requirement. The feeders may be
reciprocating ram, endless belt or spiral worm.
Why are the blades of shaft in spreader stoker twisted?
a) For supporting combustion by supplying more amount of air
b) To draw in large amount of coal
c) For uniform distribution of coal
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

d) To restrict the supply of coal

View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Spreader consists of rapidly rotating shaft carrying blades. These blades are
twisted to provide uniform distribution of the coal over the grate. The fast rotating blades
hit the coal particles coming from the feeder and throw into the furnace. The distribution
of coal over the grate depends on the rotating speed of the spreader and on the size of the
coal.
How much capacity of heat is possible to produce by the travelling grate stoker?
a) 80 * 106 kJ/m2.hr
b) 40 * 106 kJ/m2.hr
c) 25 * 106 kJ/m2.hr
d) 65 * 106 kJ/m2.hr
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The spreader stoker has wide applications with respect to the fuels used as
well as to the boiler sizes. A wide variety and poor quality coal can be burnt efficiently
with this type of stoker. This type of stoker can be used for boiler capacities of 80 tons to
150 tons of steam per hour. The heat release rate of 80 * 106 kJ/m2 hr is possible with
travelling grate.
Which mechanism is used to supply coal in the single retort stoker?
a) Hopper
b) Chain bucket
c) Screw conveyor
d) Air blowers
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The fuel is placed in the large hopper on the front of the furnace. Then it is
further fed by reciprocating ram or screw conveyor into the bottom of the horizontal
trough. The ash formed after burning of coal is collected at other end.
What are provided for the supply of air in single retort stoker?
a) Nozzles
b) Air ducts
c) Tuyere’s
d) Air blowers
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The air is supplied through the tuyeres provided along the upper edge of the
grate. The ash and clinkers are collected on the ash plate provided with dumping
arrangement. The coal feeding capacity of a single retort stoker varies from 100 to 2000
kg per hour.
Which mechanism is used for the uniform distribution of the coal in multi retort stoker?
a) Reciprocating ram
b) Nozzle
c) Screw conveyor
d) Steam jet blowers
View Answer
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

Answer: a
Explanation: the multi retort stoker consists of a series of alternate retorts and tuyere
boxes for supply of air. Each retort is fitted with a reciprocating ram for feeding and
pusher plates for the uniform distribution of coal. The coal falling from the hopper is
pushed forward during the inward stroke ram.
The low pressure air entering into the extension grate is supplied to ______________ in
the multi retort stoker.
a) At incandescent zone
b) Thinner fuel bed
c) At inlet dampers
d) At extension grate
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The primary air is supplied from the main wind box to the fuel bed situated
below the stoker. The partly burnt coal moves on to the extension grate. The low pressure
air entering into the extension grate, wind from main wind box is supplied to the thinner
fuel bed on the extension grate. The quantity supplied can be regulated by air damper.
What is the reason for using forced draft in multi retort stoker?
a) Maintaining combustion for longer periods
b) Helps in blowing away the ash and clinkers
c) Causes rapid combustion
d) Maintains the intensity of fire
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Forced draught causes rapid combustion. It is also necessary to introduce
‘over fire’ when high volatile coals are used to prevent the smoke formation. Combustion
control is introduced into the stoker drive either by varying the ram stoke or by changing
the rate of reciprocation.
Proper regulation of Pulverized fuel results in _________
a) better fuel economy
b) high output work
c) efficient regulation of heat
d) proper combustion
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The rate of pulverized coal feed can be regulated properly resulting in fuel
economy. Since coal is in the powdered form, coal of any grade can be used. Wide grade
of low grade fuel can be burnt easily. Practically the coal used does not form any slagging
or clinkers.
Why is combustion rate faster when the usage of pulverized coal is done in pulverized
fuel handling?
a) Due to greater surface area
b) For using fuel in powdered form
c) Decrease in excess air
d) The speed at which the coal is fed
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The combustion rate is faster due to greater surface area of coal per unit
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

mass of coal. It means more coal surface is exposed to heat and oxygen. This decreases
excess air required for complete combustion and also decreases fan power. There is an
increased rate of evaporation and higher boiler efficiency due to the complete combustion
of fuel.
What is the advantage of breaking coal into smaller pieces in pulverized fuel handling?
a) Easy coal feeding
b) No clogging coal since they are in powder form
c) Exposes more surface of the coal
d) Increase in combustion rate
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: By breaking, a given mass of coal into smaller pieces exposes more surface
area for combustion. The increase of surface area exposed per unit volume with the
decreasing diameter of coal particle. As shown in graph below, this increase varies
rapidly after 0.01 inch diameter of the coal particle and there is no substantial increase
after 0.001 inch diameter.

SURFACE AREA VS COAL PARTICLE DIAMETER

What is the main aim of Automatic control combustion in pulverized fuel firing?
a) To regulate the powder coal
b) To draw in air required for combustion
c) To maintain constant steam pressure
d) To draw out the ash formed
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Automatic control combustion applied to pulverized fuel fired boilers is
effective in maintaining an almost constant steam pressure under wide load variations. It
also gives fast response to load changes as rate of combustion can be controlled easily
and immediately.
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

How is that using the pulverized system causes less trouble?

a) Rate of combustion is high
b) The operation is very quick and easy
c) No moving part in furnace
d) By using pulverized fuel system is totally free from slagging or clinker formation
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: There are no moving parts in the furnace, subjected to high temperature
therefore the life of the system is more and the operation is trouble free. The boilers can
be started from cold very rapidly and effectively. The external heating surface is free
from corrosion and fouling as smokeless combustion is possible.
Usage of highly preheated secondary air in pulverized fuel firing helps in ______
a) Heats fuel at pace
b) Takes less time to finish the process
c) Rapid flame propagation
d) Reduces the troubles and problems caused in the system
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Using highly preheated secondary air helps in raid flame propagation. This
also increases the ability of system to use high combustion air temperature. The furnace
makes it possible to complete combustion with minimum travel of flame travel since it is
pre-heated.
In which type of machine is the coal reduced to fine powders?
a) Blender
b) Crushers
c) Grinder
d) Rollers
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Coal is reduced to fine powder in grinding mill. Coal is pulverized to
increase its surface exposure. The pulverization of coal means of exposing a large surface
area of the coal to action of oxygen and consequently accelerates combustion.
Where are pulverized fuel firers used?
a) Large capacity plants
b) Small capacity plants
c) Medium capacity Plants
d) Domestic plants
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Pulverized fuel firers are used in large capacity plants. The conventional or
stoker firing methods were unable to meet the variable loads on the plants and were
unsuitable for large capacity plants. Using pulverized fuel firer gives higher thermal
efficiency, better control as per load on the plant and uses low grade coal.
With what is pulverized fuel mixed to burn like gas or oil?
a) Gasoline
b) Crude oil
c) Kerosene
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

d) Lubricant
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In the pulverized fuel firing system the coal is reduced to fine powder state
by using a grinding mill and then projected in the combustion chamber with the help of
hot air current. The coal in powder state may be mixed with crude oil and may burn like
gas or oil.
Which air is supplied separately to ensure complete combustion in pulverized fuel firing
system?
a) Primary air
b) Turbulence air
c) Secondary air
d) Blower air
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The amount of secondary air required to complete the combustion is blown
separately and resulting turbulence in the high pressure combustion chamber helps in
through mixing of fuel and air. For better combustion result this type of mixing is done.
What decides the efficiency of pulverized fuel firing system?
a) Turbulence of air
b) Size of coal powder
c) Primary air
d) Feeder
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The size coal powder decides the efficiency of the pulverized fuel firing
system. The fineness of the coal should be such as 70%. Of it would pass through a 200
mesh sieve and 90% through 50 mesh sieve.
Sanfoundry Global Education & Learning Series – Energy Engineering.
Why do large power plants use pulverized fuel firing system?
a) Higher thermal efficiency
b) Uses high grade coal
c) Less smoke formation
d) Troubles created in this system are less
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Most of the large power plants use pulverized fuel firing system since it is
higher in its thermal efficiency. And selection of it mainly depends upon the size of boiler
unit, type of the coal available, nature of load on the plant, load factor, cost of the fuel and
availability of skilled labors.
How is the fuel selected in the pulverized fuel system?
a) Depending on its size
b) Depending on its grade
c) Depending on volatile matter content
d) Depending the chemical composition
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In pulverized fuel firing system, coal with 20% volatile matter is considered
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

as the best fuel for the plant, as high volatile coals are harder to grind when compared to
low volatile coals. In stoker firing, the characteristics of the coal plays very important role
in selection of coal.
What is the advantage of using pulverized fuel firing system?
a) Decreases maintenance of plant
b) Less wastage of the products
c) Less ash formation
d) No formation of clinkers
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The use of pulverized system increases the capital of and operating costs,
but decreases maintenance of the plant and increases thermal efficiency. The pulverizer
used to grind the coal should consume less power and should deliver the rated tonnage of
coal.
What is unit pulverizer system also called?
a) Burner and pulverizer firing system
b) Central system firing system
c) Bin system firing system
d) Direct firing system
View Answer
On which factor is the coal fed to the pulverizing mill in pulverized fuel firing system?
a) Steam generating rate
b) Capacity of intake of coal
c) On the rate of speed of the feeder
d) Depending on the temperature that is governed inside the combustion chamber
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The feeder supplies coal too the pulverizing mill after drying coal in hot air.
It is supplied at a variable rate governed by the combustion requirements of furnace and
steam generating rate. In the pulverizing mill the coal is crushed to the required size (fine
powder).
Which type of draught system is used in the pulverized fuel firing system?
a) Forced draught
b) Balanced draught
c) Induced draught
d) Natural draught
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Induced draught system is used in pulverized fuel firing system. The
primary air from the Induced draught fan carries pulverized coal from the mill to the
burner through short delivery pipe. In the separator, the big coal particles are separated
from the fine dust these again fall down into the mill.
Which system was used before direct firing system in pulverized fuel firing?
a) Unit system
b) Burner and pulverizer system
c) Bin system
d) Pulverizer
View Answer
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

Answer: c
Explanation: Bin system was widely used before pulverizing equipment became reliable
enough for continuous steady operation. This system employs a limited number of large
capacity pulverizes at a central point to prepare coal for all the burners.
Why is direct firing system considered better than bin system in pulverizer fuel firing?
a) It has long operating procedure
b) The auxiliaries used in system consume large amount of power
c) The initial cost of system is very high
d) The transportation of coal is much more complex
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The bin system involves many stages of drying, storing and transportation
and hence the process takes extra amount of time & chances of fire hazards are more.
Never the less, it is still in use at many older plants.
Which separator is used to separate the pulverized coal in pulverized fuel firing?
a) Central inlet separator
b) Magnetic separator
c) Cyclone separator
d) Inertial separator
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Cyclones are mostly used for removing industrial dust from air or process
gases. They are the principal type of gas-solid separator. The particulate is made to spin
rapidly, heavier particle settle down and all the dust is removed out from the ducts. To
also remove dust from the pulverized coal cyclone separator are used.
What is used to remove moisture air after cyclone separation in the pulverized fuel
system?
a) Sponge pad
b) Dry filters
c) Fabric bag
d) Hot air
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A fabric bag filter is used to separate and exhaust the moisture air to the
atmosphere and discharge the pulverized coal to storage bins, through the conveyor. This
system uses all the equipment as used in unit system with higher capacity of each part. In
addition to that the system also uses storage bins.
In what manner is the coal is fed to all the burners in pulverized fuel system?
a) Through a common feeder
b) Parallel feeding
c) From separate feeder
d) Series mesh feeding
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The pulverized coal is fed to the various burners through separate feeders.
The bin may contain coal required for 12 to 24 hours of supply. The quantities of fuel and
air can be regulated accurately and separately. This leads greater degree of flexibility.
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

How is coal pulverized in the ball mill?

a) By rotating the cylinder
b) By rolling the cylinder
c) By hammering the cylinder
d) By jolting the cylinder
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The pulverization in ball mill takes place as a result of action between the
balls and coal, as the cylinder they are put in is made to rotate. The cylinder is partly
filled with various sized steel balls. The cylinder is rotated at a velocity of 130 m/min
periphery.
Why pre-heater air and the tempered air are introduced in the pulverizer of ball mill?
a) To carry the ash out
b) To increase the combustion rate
c) To carry pulverized coal
d) To dry the coal by removing the moisture
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A mixture of tempering air and hot air from pre-heater is introduced in the
pulverizer. These streams of air carry the pulverized coal and pass through the classifier.
The over-sized particles are thrown out of the air stream in the classifier and fine material
is passed to the burner through exhaust fan.
The output of the mill can be controlled by the _________ located in the exhaust fan inlet
duct.
a) Dampers
b) Blowers
c) Air duct
d) Ventilator’s
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The output of the mill can be controlled by the dampers located in the
exhaust fan inlet duct. These dampers vary the flow of air through the mill, thus
controlling the rate of fuel removed from the mill. The dampers are operated by the
boilers automatic combustion control.
Feeder output in cylinder of a ball mill is regulated on the basis of?
a) Cylinder capacity
b) No of balls
c) Level of coal
d) Rotation speed of cylinder
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The feeder output is regulated by the coal level in the cylinder. When coal
level in the cylinder attains sufficient height to seal off the lower channel than the
differential control operates to stop the coal feed.
What is the pulverization capacity of the ball mill?
a) 10 tons of coal per hour
b) 20 tons of coal per hour
c) 50 tons of coal per hour
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

d) 80 tons of coal per hour

View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A ball has the capacity of pulverizing 10 tons of coal per hour containing
4% of moisture requires 28 tons of steel balls and consumes 20 to 25 KW hr energy per
ton of coal. A wide range of fuels including anthracite and bituminous coal which are
difficult pulverize, can still be used.
Why ball and race mill is also called as contact mill?
a) Because of rolling action between the balls and races
b) Because of ramming action between balls and races
c) Because of swirling action of balls and races
d) Because of mixture of balls and races
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The pulverization or crushing action in ball and race mill takes between the
two moving surfaces called balls and races. The rolling action happens between these
two. Then the coal passes between the rotating elements time and again until it has been
pulverized to the desired degree of fineness.
The pulverization is completed by a combination of crushing impact and _______
between grinding surfaces.
a) Accretion
b) Erosion
c) Attrition
d) Dissolution
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The pulverization is completed by a combination of crushing impact and
attrition between grinding surfaces. The coal is crushed between two moving surfaces:
balls and races. The upper stationary race and lower rotating race is driven by a worm and
gear, hold the balls between them.
What type of feeder is used to supply the coal in ball and race mill?
a) Ring main feeder
b) Parallel feeder
c) Radial feeder
d) Rotating table feeder
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The coal is supplied through the rotating table feeder at the upper right to
fall on the inner side of the races. The moving balls and races trap coal between them to
crush it to powder. Spring holds down the upper stationary race and adjusts the force
needed for crushing.
Which type of fan is used in the ball and race mill?
a) Forced draught fan
b) Balanced draught fan
c) Artificial draught fan
d) Natural draught fan
View Answer
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

Answer: a
Explanation: A forced draught fan is used to supply hot air to the mill through the annular
space surrounding the races. The air picks up the coal dust as it flows between the balls
and races and then enters into the classifier above it.
What is the purpose of fixed vanes in the ball and race mill?
a) Forms a cyclonic flow
b) For easy movement of the coal
c) For directing the airflow
d) For barring the exhaust air to enter back into mill
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The fixed vanes make the entering air to form a cyclonic flow throwing the
oversized particles to the walls of classifier. The oversized particles slide down for further
grinding in the mill. The coal particles of required size are taken to the burners with air
from the top of the cylinder.
Why are heavy impurities provided in the process of ball and race mill?
a) To resist upward thrust caused by secondary air stream
b) To resist downward thrust caused by primary air stream
c) To resist upward thrust caused by primary air stream
d) To resist downward thrust caused by secondary air stream
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The mill is provided with a means of separating heavy impurities from the
coal and thus reducing wear and possible damage to the grinding element. These heavy
particles resist the upward thrust caused by the primary air stream and collect in a
compartment in the base of mill, and then they are removed periodically.
What is done when there is requirement for more coal in the ball and race mill?
a) The primary air flow is increased
b) The combustion intensity is reduced
c) The secondary air flow sucks out the light coal particles
d) The hopper is fully opened
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: When there is requirement for more coal, the primary air flow is increased
automatically and its higher velocity in the mill carries additional coal in the furnace. This
action reduces the amount of coal in the pulverizer and decreases the pressure drop,
causing the feeder controller to supply more coal.
What happens due to the pressure in the pulverizer?
a) Pulverized fuel is blown into boiler room
b) Increases the rate of combustion
c) Makes the process is vigorous
d) The large particles in the pulverized fuels are removed out
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: As the casing of the pulverizer is under pressure, the leakage of fine coal
through the mill casing causes the pulverized fuel to be blown out into the boiler room.
The fan used with this mill handles only air therefore the blades erosion by coal particle is
eliminated.
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

What is the main disadvantage of race and ball mill pulverizer?

a) Mill requires extra floor area
b) It is directly connected to the motor
c) High power consumption
d) Greater wear
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Ball and race mill have greater wear compared to other pulverizers. The
advantages of lower space occupied, lower power consumption in kW hr/ton of coal
pulverized, lower weight and lower capital cost have outweighed the wear problem and
these pulverizers found general acceptance.
In which mill is the pulverization of coal is made by the impact?
a) Hammer mill
b) Bowl mill
c) Ball mill
d) Ball and race mill
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In the hammer mill the pulverization of coal is made by impact and this is
also called as impact mill. The coal in pulverizer remains in suspension during the entire
pulverizing process. All the grinding elements and the primary air fan are mounted on a
single shaft.
What is done in the primary stage of the grinding in impact mill?
a) Coal is reduced to fine granular state
b) Coal is broken down in medium pieces
c) Coal is dried up to remove the moisture content
d) Coal is mixed up with the other state of fuel to improve the combustion efficiency
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The primary air fan induces flow of air through the pulverizer carrying the
coal to the primary stage of grinding. In the primary stage of grinding, the coal is reduced
to fine granular state by impact with a series of hammers and then into the final stage
where pulverization is completed by attrition.
What is the purpose of rotary scoop shaped rejecter arms in impact mill?
a) To send back the coal back into grinder for second run
b) To throw the large particles back into the grinder
c) To eliminate ash from the pulverizer
d) To eliminate rocks and solid particles that has mixed up with the coal
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The finely pulverized coal in the final stage of grinding is carried with the
air to the burner through the rotating scoop rejecter arms which throw the large particles
back into the grinding section. The final stage grinding consists of pegs carried on a
rotating disk and travelling between stationary pegs.
How is pulverization done in bowl mill?
a) By bowl and steel balls
b) By bowl and roller
c) By bowl and impact hammer
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

d) By bowl and batan

View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The bowl mill consists of rollers and power driven bowl in which
pulverization takes place as the coal passes in between the sides of the bowl and the
rollers. The automatic control charges the supply of coal to the bowl.
What does the primary air that is induced by draught does in a bowl mill?
a) Blows away ash
b) Control the flow of coal
c) Provides air for the combustion
d) Draws heated air
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The primary air by induced draught fan draws a stream of heated air through
the mill, carrying the pulverized coal into a stationary classifier located at the top of
pulveriser. The classifier returns the coarse particles of coal to the desired fineness is
carried to the burner through the fan.
Which force is used to throw away the heavy particles in the bowl mill?
a) Gravity force
b) Centrifugal force
c) Centripetal force
d) Spring force
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The coal pulverized is carried to the burner through the fan. The impurities
in the coal containing heavy particles are thrown over side by centrifugal force as these
enter the rotating bowl/ the heavy particles thrown out fall into the space below the bowl.
On what basis is selection of bowl mill is not done?
a) Total moisture content of coal
b) Volatile matter
c) Ash producing capacity
d) Grindability
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The selection of bowl mill is done on the basis of total moisture content of
coal, sulfur and mineral content (used to determine pyrite removal sizing requirement),
Grindability(used to select mill size), volatile matter (used to determine the required coal
fineness).
What is not the cause of mill fire?
a) Hot startup with normal load
b) Pyrite building from pyrite plows failure
c) Accumulation of coal dust in mill devices
d) Localized hot spots from poor primary air flow
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Mill fires are more often caused due to pyrite building, hot startup on heavy
load, accumulation of coal dust etc. the cause of fire is also dependent upon coal
properties that exceed pulverizing rating.
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

What is the function of coal burners?

a) To burn pulverized coal by using secondary air
b) To burn pulverized coal in presence of Primary and secondary air
c) To burn pulverized coal by using induced draught
d) To burn the pulverized coal in short amount of time
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Function of the coal burner is to burn pulverized coal in the presence of
primary and secondary air in a boiler furnace. Coal burners are classified according to
their design and arrangement in the furnace.
Which coal burner is called Long-flame burner?
a) Tangential burner
b) Turbulent burner
c) Stream line burner
d) Cyclone burner
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Stream line burner is called as Long-flame burner, also known as U-flame
burner. It is designed to fire downwards in the furnace without any turbulence. Thin flat
streams of air and fuel mixture is discharged in the furnace which travels considerably
long distance producing long flame.
The secondary air in the stream-liner coal burner is fed flames from which direction?
a) At straight angle
b) Opposite to the fuel flow
c) At Right angle
d) Along the fuel
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Heated secondary air in the stream-liner coal burners fed at right angles to
the flame. It ensures proper mixing of air and fuel. This type of burner is suitable for
burning fuels with low volatile matter as fuel flows at low velocity.
Which coal burner has the circular discharge orifices?
a) Tangential burner
b) Stream-line burner
c) Turbulent burner
d) Cyclone burner
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Turbulent is made up of circular discharge orifices or with straight narrow
outlets. It is placed in the wall of water cooled furnaces. The fuel and air mixture pass
through the burner such that they mix properly at furnace entrance.
In which coal burners are fuel and air streams ejected in horizontal direction?
a) Tangential burner
b) Cyclone burner
c) Stream-line burner
d) Turbulent burner
View Answer
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

Answer: a
Explanation: In tangential burners, fuel and air streams are ejected in horizontal direction
tangent to an imaginary circle at the centre of the furnace. The burners are placed at the
corners of the furnace to ensure intense turbulence and thorough mixing of fuel and air.
Which coal burner is used to burn crushed coal instead of pulverized coal?
a) Cyclone burner
b) Tangential burner
c) Turbulent burner
d) Stream-line burner
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Cyclone burners are used to burn crushed coal instead of pulverized coal.
This is to eliminate fly ash handling problems. It consists of a cyclone furnace. Crushed
coal of about 8 mm size is fed from the feeder to the centre of the cyclone along with
primary air.
In which form does the coal burned rapidly in cyclone burner drains down the inner wall
of furnace?
a) Powdered
b) In form of small chips
c) Metal slag
d) Gaseous form
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The ash formed due to rapid burning of coal drains down the inner wall of
the furnace as molten slag. Hot flue gases along with 10 to 20% of fly ash enter the
furnace. Due to centrifugal action most of the fly ash is thrown against the furnace wall
and is drained out along with molten slag.
Which type of oil burners are used for domestic purposes?
a) Atomizing burner
b) Vaporizing burner
c) Steam jet atomization burner
d) Mechanical atomization burner
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The vaporizing burners are used for domestic purpose especially in portable
air heaters, cooking stoves etc. petromax stove which burns kerosene is a classical
example of a vaporizing burner. Here an upward moving high velocity fuel jet is allowed
to strike against hot moving plate. The vapor burns with a short intense flame.
Which type of oil burners are commonly used in oil-fired furnaces of steam generators?
a) Vaporizing burner
b) Mechanical burner
c) Atomizing burner
d) Air jet burner
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Atomizing burners are very commonly used in oil-fired furnaces of steam
generators. The oil is divided into fine particles to increase the surface area of contact
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

with the combustion air. Due to atomization a homogeneous mixture of oil and air is
produced which is fired in the furnace.
How is oil pressurized in mechanical atomization of atomizing burner of oil burners?
a) By positive displacement pumps
b) By centrifugal pumps
c) Helicon-axial pumps
d) Electric submersible
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In mechanical atomization of atomizing burner of oil burners, the oil is
pressurized by using a positive displacement pump. It is used in high capacity steam
generating furnaces. In order to improve efficiency and flow conditions the viscosity of
the oil is reduced by heating it to about 120oC.
How does atomization of fuel occur in an atomizing burner of oil burner?
a) High pressure movement of fuels
b) By spraying the fuel at high pressure
c) By impinging two streams of fuel
d) By spark ignition method
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In the atomizing burner, oil is delivered under pressure through a central
tube. Steam or air is supplied along the annular space between the oil pipe and the
concentric outer tube. Near the tip of the burners the two streams impinge resulting in
atomization of fuel.
Which type of gas burner is used to control flame length?
a) Ring burner
b) Sealed burner
c) Electric burner
d) Standing pilot burner
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Ring burners are used to control the flame length. The rate of gas flow can
be controlled by using dampers. The gas flows through an annular ring, whereas air is
induced both around and within the annular ring.
How is the fuel handled generally outside the plant?
a) Mechanically
b) Manually
c) Robotic technology
d) Physically
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: It is absolutely essential to have an efficient fuel handling system in power
plants. Since majority of the plants operate using coal as a fuel, it is necessary to study
about coal handling system. Coal can be handled either manually or mechanically. But,
citing the capacity of modern power plants it is almost impossible to handle coal
manually. That means mechanical handling of coal is inevitable.
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

Why is fuel need to be stocked in steam power plant?

a) To supply to nearby other steam plants
b) For overusing when plant is run for extra periods
c) For emergency possible cases
d) For Non-stop work of power plant
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: With more and more number of commissioning of large capacity steam
power plants, it is very essential to have an effective means of transporting coal from coal
mines to the plant site and subsequently store it to meet the emergencies.
What is the ideal site for power plant?
a) In hilly regions
b) On islands
c) Near water resources
d) In center lands
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: An ideal site for power plant is near water source. If the plant is situated
near the sea or river, coal can be economically transported in bulk quantity by ships or
boats or barges. After unloading the coal by mechanical means, coal is either stored in the
plants site or conveyed to the plant.
Which type of transportation system is ideal for transporting coal directly to the point of
consumption?
a) Road transportation
b) Sea or river transportation
c) Transportation by rail
d) Transportation by air
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Road transportation is ideal for transporting coal directly to the point of
consumption. Such a means is suitable for supplying coal to a small capacity plant.
Trucks or tippers are used to supply coal for this purpose.
What is in plant coal handling system?
a) Maintenance of coal during emergencies
b) Maintenance of coal inside the boiler
c) Maintenance of coal inside the power production area
d) Maintenance of coal while transporting/moving it
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: For easy, smooth and rapid operation mechanical handling system is
embraced for inplant handling of coal. Inplant handling begins right from the coal
delivery point unto the furnace firing system.
What is the main characteristic of in plant coal handling system?
a) It should be easy to handle
b) Should be simple in construction
c) Free from repetitive handling
d) Free from corrosion problems
View Answer
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

Answer: c
Explanation: It should have minimum handling operations and should be free from
repetitive handling. For easy inspection and maintenance it should have centralized
handling units. Its capacity should be well above the requirement of coal during peak
hours.
Why is it necessary to have a coal storage yard near the plant?
a) To supply to other nearby power plants
b) To cut down on varying transportation rates
c) To face any emergencies
d) Due to higher rate of deterioration due to reduction
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: To meet the continuous demand of coal and to face any emergencies due to
the short supply of coal, it is always desirable to have a coal storage yard near the plant.
Capacity of such yard would be about 10% of annual consumption to a maximum of 25%
of annual consumption.
Where should coal be dumped?
a) On solid ground
b) In the water
c) By mixing with other form of fuels
d) Near the plant
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Coal should be dumped on a solid ground completely free from standing
water. It should be protected from direct sunlight preferably and should be done so in
order to reduce chances of oxidation and combustion.
What is the advantage of stocking the coal in huge heaps?
a) Prevents from coal being oxidized
b) Provides grip for the storage
c) Prevents air circulation in the interior of heap
d) The moisture content will be eliminated
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Coal is piled in heaps of 10 to 12m height on a concrete floor, by
compacting it in the layers of 20 to 30cm thickness using bulldozers. This prevents air
circulation in the interior of the heap. The heap top is given a gentle slope to drain off rain
water immediately without washing the coal.
How the oxidation of coal is eliminated?
a) By exposing it to the sunlight
b) By turning the entire coal heap upside down periodically
c) By circulating air uniformly
d) By burning coal at very high temperatures
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The heat of oxidation is removed by circulating air uniformly through
layers. Air thus circulated carries away the excess heat, maintaining coal below its
combustion temperature of 343K. Oxidation can also be avoided by sealing the coal heap
asphalt, fine coal dust or bituminous powder.
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

Why is it necessary to use non candescent materials in place of coal storage area?
a) To avoid it from catching fire
b) To act as a fire resistor during the cause of fire
c) To avoid it from acting as a supporter of fire
d) To provide a cool environment
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Coal is susceptible to spontaneous combustion due to heating during natural
oxidation of new coal surfaces. Second, coal dust is highly combustible and explosion
hazard. If a coal dust cloud is generated inside an enclosed space, and an ignition source
is present, an explosion can ensure.
In which mode of transport are rotary car dumpers used?
a) Road transport
b) Rail transport
c) Transport by sea or river
d) Inside the plant handling
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Depending on the mode of transport viz. by sea or road or rail, coal
unloading done. Rotary car dumpers are used when the transport is done by rail also coal
towers and coal accelerators are used. Coal towers, unloading bridges and self unloading
boats are used if the outplant handling of the coal is by sea or river.
What is the function of sizer in coal handling?
a) To separate the coal depending on size
b) To check the amount of fuel that is supplied
c) To pick the coal of required size
d) To divert the coal flow into different burners
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The function of the sizer is to pick the coal of requires size, which is coming
from the crusher. The un-sized coal is fed back to the crusher. The function of crusher is
to crush the coal to uniform size.
What is the function of magnetic separator in coal handling?
a) To remove impurities
b) To separate bituminous coal
c) To remove iron particles
d) To separate metal contents
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The function of the magnetic separator is to remove iron particles which
otherwise may choke the burners besides damaging other equipment’s. The iron particles
are trapped by the magnetic pulley while the belt carrying coal passes over it. It is
collected in a chute.
What is the purpose of bucket elevators in coal handling?
a) Used to move coal horizontally
b) Used to lift coal vertically
c) Used to separate the crushed coal and pulverized coal
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

d) Used to pour the coal vertically at right angles into furnace

View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Centrifugal and continuous types of bucket elevators are used for lifting coal
to moderate height (about 30m). It consists of buckets fixed to a chain moving over two
sprockets. The buckets carry coal from bottom and discharge at the top at a speed ranging
between 15 m/min to 36 m/min.
What is the function of Gab bucket conveyor in coal handling?
a) To lift the coal vertically
b) To crush the coal
c) To move coal from one place to another
d) To separate crushed coal and powdered coal
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Grab bucket conveyor can grab as well as convey coal from one place to
another. It is used with a crane or tower and it has different capacities. It is very essential
when all other means of transporting coal is not viable. It has high initial cost but low
operating cost.
Out of all conveyors which type of conveyor has a greater capacity to convey large
amount of coal?
a) Belt conveyor
b) Chain conveyor
c) Screw conveyor
d) Scraper conveyor
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Belt conveyor is used for transporting large quantities of coal over long
distances. It consists of an endless belt made of rubber, balata or canvass running over
pulleys or end drums. It is economical means of coal transportation at rapid rate.
What is the distance at which belt conveyors can convey?
a) 100m
b) 200m
c) 50m
d) 500m
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Belt conveyors can handle upto 50 to 100t/h of load can be carried over a
distance of about 500m. These conveyors can be used with inclination upto 20° to the
horizontal moving at an average speed of 60 to 90 m/min. However it cannot be used for
carrying coal at greater heights.
To what is helicoids screw in screw conveyor is attached?
a) To the shaft
b) To the inner case
c) To the bearings
d) To the outer casing
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Screw conveyor is used to transmit coal. It consists of an endless helicoids
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

screw of diameter 150 mm to 500 mm wound around a rotating shaft. One end of the
shaft is connected to the drive whereas the other end is supported by a bearing.
In what speed range does screw conveyor run at?
a) 60 – 80 rpm
b) 20 – 100 rpm
c) 60 – 120 rpm
d) 90 to 180 rpm
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The screw along with the shaft in screw conveyor rotates at about 60 rpm to
120 rpm and carries coal from one end to another. Screw conveyors are designed to suit
different load capacities. These can only be used in very short ranges and tend to get hot
if used for longer amount of time.
Which type of conveyor has shorter life span?
a) Flight conveyor
b) Belt conveyor
c) Screw conveyor
d) Grab bucket conveyor
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Flight conveyor is used for filling large number of storage bins situated
under the conveyor. It consists of a steel scrapers attached to chain mechanism. Steel
scrapers scrap the coal through a trough and discharge it at the bottom.
What does ESP stand for in dust collection?
a) Endothermic sensor plate
b) Extrasensory perception
c) Electrostatic precipitators
d) Electronic stability program
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: With stringent air quality restriction by the governments, majority of power
plants in the world use electrostatic precipitators (ESP’s) for dust removal. An ESP can
handle large volumes of flue gases accompanied low pressure drop and high collection
efficiency (99.5%). It facilitates easy removal of dust particles.
What happens when high voltage is applied to the electrodes in electric dust collectors?
a) Forms uniform electric field
b) Corona is formed
c) The whole system gets charged
d) Ions move from emitting electrode to collecting electrode
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: When the high voltage is applied, it generates a unidirectional non uniform
electric field having greater magnitude at the discharge electrodes. This result in a blue
luminous glow called corona around them. This corona is an indication of negatively
charged ionized gas molecules which travel from discharge electrodes to grounded
collection electrodes.
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

Why is weighment of the coal essential in the plants?

a) For knowing the quantity of the coal present
b) For getting optimum efficiency
c) For knowing which type of coal has good fuel content
d) To separate the grades of coal
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The consumption of coal and its cost has major important once as coal forms
the basic ingredient of the thermal power plant. Weighment of coal is essential for getting
optimum plant efficiency at reduced cost using weighers.
Which type of weigher is commonly used all over the world?
a) Electronic weighers
b) Mechanical weighers
c) Pneumatic weighers
d) Nuclear weighers
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Mechanical weigher is commonly used all over world. This based on
mechanical principle. This works on a lever system mounted on knife edges and bearings
that connected to a resistant like a spring or pendulum. The resultant value obtained by
multiplication of load and speed values is displayed by a digital counter.
Which type of weighers is used in place where the electronic weighers are not allowed?
a) Pneumatic weighers
b) Mechanical weighers
c) Nuclear weighers
d) Electronic weighers
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The pneumatic weighers use a pneumatic transmitter weigh head and the
corresponding air pressure determined by the load applied and is transmitted to the weight
indicating receiver may be used where electronic system is not permitted for use.
Electronic weighers are based on which principle?
a) Semiconductor principle
b) Electromagnetic principle
c) Load cell principle
d) Junctions
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The operation is based on load cell principle. The load cells produce voltage
signals proportional to the applied load. This system maintains high accuracy in
measurement. Its performance is affected by temperature, noise, dust and humidity of the
air.
What types of rays does the nuclear weigher used to measure the weight?
a) Infrared rays
b) Ultraviolet rays
c) Gamma rays
d) X-ray waves
View Answer
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

Answer: c
Explanation: Nuclear weighing system operates on gamma ray, Works on gamma rays
absorption principle. A radio-active source located in the source head emits gamma rays
which pass through the material on the conveyor to the detector.
What is the main disadvantage of the nuclear weigher?
a) They are not mobile
b) Accuracy depends on speed of material
c) They are big in size, requires large amount of space
d) Consumes large amount of electricity
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Main disadvantage of the nuclear weighing machine is that its accuracy
depends on a consistent speed of material movement and the condition of the detectors
since this should be kept clean at all times as otherwise absorption value of gamma-rays
will be affected.
Gravitational separator works on the principle of __________
a) Size of particulate
b) Shape of particulate
c) Weight of particulate
d) Color of the particulate
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Gravitational separation is an industrial method of separating two
components, either a suspension, or dry granular mixture where separating the
components with gravity is sufficiently practical, i.e. the components of the mixture have
different specific weights.
What is the use of baffles in the gravitational separators?
a) To separate types of dust
b) To settle the dust by letting them to strike
c) To control the flow of dust particles
d) To blow the dust
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Baffles are placed in the direction of flow of flue gases. The dust particle
strike down and settle. Heavier dust particles settle at the bottom by striking on to the
baffles and lighter dust particles are exhaust into atmosphere.
What is the most effective advantage of gravitational separators?
a) They consume no power
b) They just need small amount of space for operation

X
A P C O E R
A N A N T R A O P A W A R C O L L E G E O F E N G I N E E R I N . . .

c) They are cost effective

Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

d) Time taken for operation is very less

View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The most notable advantage of the gravitational separators is their cost
effectiveness. Gravity separation is an attractive unit operation as it generally has low
capital and operating costs, uses few if any chemicals that might cause environmental
concerns.
Which principle does cyclone separator use?
a) Gravitational force
b) Vortex velocity
c) Inertia
d) Temperatures of air
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Cyclone separators or simply cyclones work on the principle of inertia to
move particulate matter from flue gases. In these high velocity dusts carrying gas is made
to pass through conical separator in tangential direction. This results in centrifugal action,
throwing away the heavier dust particles to the sides of conical chamber.
Cyclone separators are also known as __________
a) Twist cleaners
b) Squall
c) Pre-cleaners
d) Zephyr cleaners
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Cyclone separators are a part of a group of air pollution control devices
known as pre-cleaners as they generally used to roughly remove large pieces of
particulate matter. This prevents finer filtration methods from having to deal with large,
more abrasive particles later on.
What is called when several cyclone separators are operated parallely?
a) Octa-cyclone
b) Multi-cyclone
c) Center-cyclone
d) Para-cyclone
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: When several cyclone operators are operated parallely, when this system is
setup it is called multi-cyclone. It is important to note that cyclones can vary drastically in
their size. The size of the cyclone depends largely on how much flue gas must be filtered,
and thus larger operations tend to need larger cyclones.
What is the range of particulate removing efficiency of cyclone separators?
a) 50-99%
b) 20-80%
c) 70-90%
d) 70-95%
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Cyclone separators are generally able to remove somewhere in the range of
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

50-99% of all particulate matter. How well the cyclone separators are actually able to
remove this matter depends largely on particle size. If there is large amount of lighter
particulate matter, less of these particles are able to be separated out. Because of this,
cyclone separators work best on flue gases that contain large amounts of big particulate
matter.
What is Baghouse?
a) Filters arranged in parallel form
b) Filters arranged throughout the system
c) Filters arranged randomly
d) Filters arranged alternatively
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A fabric filter element made up of a long hollow cylindrical tube, that
provides a large surface per unit of gas volumetric flow rate is called as baghouse filter
and a system consisting of large number of such filter elements arranged in parallel rows
is called a baghouse.
What is the work of the baghouse filter?
a) To remove the hot air from furnace
b) To separate the solid particles from dust produced
c) To remove dust particles from flue gas
d) To wash away the contamination of dust on the walls of furnace
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Baghouse filters are used to remove dust particles from the flue gas
produced from the combustion in boiler. These are also called as fabric filters or fabric
dust collectors, designed to use fabric filter tubes, envelopes or cartridges to capture or
separate dust and particulate matter when the gas is made to pass through the voids.
What is the use of wet scrubber in the dust collection?
a) Remove flue gas
b) Remove Scales on the furnace surface
c) Remove the dust that has the moisture content
d) Remove pollutants
Answer: d
Explanation: Wet scrubber is used remove the pollutants. The polluted gas stream is
brought into contact with the scrubbing liquid, by spraying it with the liquid, by a pool of
liquid, or by some other contact method, so as to remove the pollutants.
 Unit I Introduction & Thermal Power Plant

1 Which of these is an output of a ‘Furnace’?

a) Fuel gas
b) Air
c) Flue gases
d) Water Vapor
Answer: c
Explanation: A furnace takes in a Fuel gas, Air & Water Vapour while it gives off Flue Gases.
2 Which of these is a ‘working fluid’ in liquid phase?
a) Water
b) Steam
c) Mercury
d) Oxygen
Answer: a
Explanation: The working fluid is water in liquid phase & steam in gas phase.

3 What kind of energy output is obtained from a ‘Steam Power Plant’?

a) Heat energy
b) Sound energy
c) Electricity
d) Thermal energy
Answer: c
Explanation: A ‘Steam Power Plant’ is used primarily for electricity generation.

4 What kind of a process does a ‘Steam Power Plant’ undergoes?

a) Adiabatic
b) Cyclic
c) Irreversible
d) Expansion
Answer: b
Explanation: As the internal energy change in the ‘Steam Power Plant’ is ZERO. Hence, the entire plant obeys a Cyclic Process.

5 The product of efficiency & heat transferred to the working fluid is?
a) Net temperature change
b) Net work done
c) Net enthalpy change
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: The formula of efficiency of a steam power plant is,
Efficiency=net work done/net heat transferred

6 The components of a Steam Power Plant are?

a) Evaporator, Condenser, Boiler, Expansion valve
b) Evaporator, Condenser, Boiler, Turbine
c) Boiler, Turbine, Condenser, Pump
d) Boiler, Turbine, Pump, Expansion valve
Answer: c
Explanation: A Steam Power Plant has the sequence,
Boiler, Turbine, Condenser, Pump

7 Shaft work is fed to __________ for getting an electrical output.

a) Motor
b) Generator
c) Rotor
d) Accelerator
Answer: b
Explanation: The flow in a Steam Power Plant follows the sequence,
Source-Shaft-Generator

8 Ideal ‘Rankine Cycle’ is a __________ process.

a) Reversible
b) Irreversible
c) Both of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Ideal Rankine Cycle is a reversible process.

9 For analytical purposes, the Rankine Cycle is assumed to be in?

a) Unsteady flow operation
b) Turbulent flow operation
c) Steady flow operation
d) Laminar flow operation
Answer: c
Explanation: For analytical purposes , always steady flow operation is considered, as in unsteady flow, the various fluid properties vary considerably which remain same when the steady flow operation is assumed.

10 The net work done in a Rankine Cycle is the difference of?

a) Condenser work & Boiler work
b) Boiler work & Pump work
c) Turbine Work & Pump work
d) Condenser work & Pump work
Answer: c
Explanation: The net work done in a Rankine Cycle is given by,
Wnet = Wt – Wp.

11 In a Rankine Cycle, heat input is provided to?

a) Condenser
b) Pump
c) Turbine
d) Boiler
Answer: d
Explanation: As the heating of the liquid working fluid occurs in the Boiler, the heat input is provided to the Boiler for the same.

12 In a Rankine Cycle, heat output is obtained from?

a) Condenser
b) Boiler
c) Turbine
d) Pump
Answer: a
Explanation: As the heated water comes to the condenser, it loses its heat & gets condensed. The heat output is obtained from Condenser.

13 The water that flows from the Pump is?

a) Compressible
b) Incompressible
 c) Unsteady
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: The water flowing through the pump is incompressible so as to extract work from the turbine.

14 Steam Rate is the reciprocal of _________

a) Net work done
b) Heat extracted from condenser
c) Heat given to reciprocal
d) Work done by turbine.
Answer: a
Explanation: Steam Rate is given by,
Steam Rate = 1/Wnet.

15 Which of these is sometimes neglected?

a) Turbine work
b) Pump work
c) Condenser heat
d) Boiler heat
Answer: b
Explanation: Pump Work is very small as compared to Turbine Work & so is often neglected.

16 Efficiency of a Rankine Cycle is also expressed as__________

a) Capacity Ratio
b) Heat Rate
c) Heat Ratio
d) Steam Rate
Answer: b
Explanation: The relation between Heat Rate & Efficiency is,
Heat Rate = Efficiency of a Rankine Cycle

17 Steam Power Plants are more popular in electric power generation because
a) Work output of turbine is very large than work input to the pump
b) Work output of turbine is very small than work input to the pump
c) Work output of turbine is equal to work input to the pump
d) None of the mentioned.
Answer: a
Explanation: In a Steam Power Plant, the positive difference of turbine work & pump work makes it useful in electricity generation.

18 The most common type of Evaporator is?

a) Flooded Evaporator
b) Plate Evaporator
c) Coil Evaporator
d) Brine Evaporator
Answer: b
Explanation: The most common type is a coil winding on a plate & so the name ‘plate evaporator’

19 In Rankine Cycle, water is converted to saturated liquid in ___________

a) Evaporator
b) Economizer
c) Superheater
d) Preheater
Answer: b
Explanation: The saturation of water occurs in an Economizer in a Rankine Cycle.

20 If Evaporator & Condenser pressures are p & q, the intercooler pressure P is given as?
a) P=pq
b) P=p/q
c) P=(pq)(1/2)
d) P=p2q
Answer: c
Explanation: The relation between Intercooler pressure, Evaporator & Condenser is,
P = (pq)(1/2).

21 Phase change at constant pressure takes place in?

a) Economiser
b) Evaporator
c) Superheater
d) Air-Preheater
Answer: c
Explanation: Superheater undergoes a change in phase at constant pressure.

22 Which of these factors don’t cause Internal Irreversibility of a Rankine cycle?

a) Throttling
b) Mixing
c) Fluid Friction
d) Fluid flow
Answer: d
Explanation: The Rankine cycle is an Irreversible cycle. For a cycle to be irreversible naturally throttling, mixing & friction in fluids are the factors that cause this Irreversibility.

23 What is the unit of Heat rate?

a) kJ/KW
b) KW/kJ
c) kJ
d) KW
Answer: a
Explanation: Heat rate is the rate of input required to produce unit shaft output.

24 Rankine cycle operating on low pressure limit of p1 and high pressure limit of p2
a) has higher thermal efficiency than the Carnot cycle operating between same pressure limits
b) has lower thermal efficiency than Carnot cycle operating between same pressure limits
c) has same thermal efficiency as Carnot cycle operating between same pressure limits
d) may be more or less depending upon the magnitudes of p1 and p2
Answer: a
Explanation: Area under P-V curve for Rankine will be more as compared to Carnot cycle

25 Rankine efficiency of a Steam Power Plant

a) improves in Summer as compared to that in Winter
b) improves in Winter as compared to that in Summer
c) is unaffected by climatic conditions
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: In winters, temperature of cooling water is low, which increases Condenser’s efficiency.

26 Rankine cycle comprises of

 a) two isentropic processes and two constant volume processes
b) two isentropic processes and two constant pressure processes
c) two isothermal processes and two constant pressure processes
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Rankine cycle is a reversible cycle which have two constant pressure and two constant temperature processes

27 In Rankine cycle, the work output from the turbine is given by

a) change of internal energy between inlet and outlet
b) change of enthalpy between inlet and outlet
c) change of entropy between inlet and outlet
d) change of temperature between inlet and outlet
Answer: b
Explanation: Work output(turbine) = h1-h2.

28 Rankine cycle efficiency of a good Steam Power Plant may be in the range of?
a) 15 to 20%
b) 35 to 45%
c) 70 to 80%
d) 90 to 95%
Answer: b
Explanation: Efficiency of Rankine cycle in actual working condition is found to be between 35 to 45%.

29 A simple Rankine cycle operates the Boiler at 3 MPa with an outlet temperature of 350°C and the Condenser at 50 kPa. Assuming ideal operation and processes, what is the thermal efficiency of this cycle?
a) 7.7
b) 17.7
c) 27.7
d) 37.7
Answer: c
Explanation: Fixing the states; h1 = 340.5 kJ/kg, h2 = h1 + v1 (P2 – P1) = 343.5 kJ/kg, h3 = 3115.3 kJ/kg, s3 = 6.7428 kJ/kg – K, x4 = 0.869, and h4 = 2343.9 kJ/kg. Thus, η = 1 – Qout / Qin = 1 – (h4 – h1) / (h3 – h2) = 27.7%.

30 A simple Rankine cycle produces 40 MW of power, 50 MW of process heat and rejects 60 MW of heat to the surroundings. What is the utilization factor of this co generation cycle neglecting the pump work?
a) 50
b) 60
c) 70
d) 80
Answer: b
Explanation: Application of the first law to the entire cycle gives Qin = Qp + Qreject + W = 150 MW. The utilization factor is then = (Qp + W) / Qin = 60%.

31 Pulverized coal is
a) coal free from ash
b) non-smoking coal
c) coal which bums For long time
d) coal broken into fine particles
Answer: d
Explanation: Pulverized coal also known as powdered coal or coal dust since it is as fine as face powder in cosmetic make-up.

32 Critical pressure of water is

a) 1 kg / cm2
b) 100 kg / cm2
c) 155 kg / cm2
d) 217.7 kg / cm2
Answer: d
Explanation: The critical pressure of a substance is the pressure required to liquefy a gas at its critical temperature.

33 Coal used in power plant is also known as

a) steam coal
b) charcoal
c) coke
d) soft coal
Answer: a
Explanation: Because this coal is used to generate steam.

34 The maximum temperature of steam that can be used is fixed from metallurgical considerations. This temperature limit is called?
a) Mining Limit
b) Metallurgical Limit
c) Metallic Limit
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: ‘Metallurgical Limit’ is defined as the lowest temperature limit of usable steam fixed by metallurgical considerations.

35 Most of the turbine expansion takes place in?

a) Liquid Region
b) Solid Region
c) Vapour Region
d) Plastic Region
Answer: c
Explanation: Most of the turbine expansion should take place in the vapour region, so as to increase the life of the blades of the turbine

36 Which of the following diagrams are used while analyzing the effect of superheat & Inlet Pressure on mean temperature of heat addition?
a) P-V diagram
b) T-S diagram
c) P-T diagram
d) V-T diagram
Answer: b
Explanation: Using the T-S diagram gives us an overview as to where a particular process occurs, i.e., it is within the solid region, the gaseous region or the vapour region. So, here, we prefer T-S diagram for analysis process.

37 The cycle efficiency ________________ with the _____________ of condenser pressure.

a) decreases, decrease
b) increases, decrease
c) remains same, decrease
d) does not vary, decrease
Answer: b
Explanation: As the decrease in condenser pressure mainly depends on the available cooling water temperature & thus on the climatic conditions of the place. Hence, cycle efficiency being a function of condenser pressure has an inverse relation with the condenser pressure.

38 An increase in inlet steam temperature ___________ the heat rate.

a) lowers
b) increases
c) does not have any effect on
d) temperature has no significance in heat rate
Answer: a
Explanation: An increase in inlet steam temperature, i.e. an increase in superheat at constant inlet steam pressure & condenser pressure gives a steady improvement in cycle efficiency & lowers the heat rate due to an increase in the mean temperature of heat addition

39 For the given values of efficiency, inlet steam pressure and quality of steam, pressure limits can be determined by ?
a) Mollier Charts
 b) Gantt Charts
c) Both of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: The pressure limits can be readily determined by drawing the corresponding expansion line of the turbine om a Mollier Diagram

40 Why Reheating of steam is used?

a) to increase efficiency
b) to increase work output
c) to increase Turbine Inlet Temperature
d) to reduce amount of fuel used
Answer: b
Explanation: Work output = work done by turbine – work done by compressor.

41 Reheating of steam
a) decreases steam rate
b) increases steam rate
c) no effect on steam rate
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Since work output increases the steam rate decreases.

42 Why don’t we use more than two reheats?

a) not economical
b) increased mechanical stresses
c) net efficiency is decreased
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: The mechanical stresses increases in much higher proportion than the pressure pressure because of the prevailing high temperature.

43 The cycle efficiency in a single reheat plant is influenced by

a) pressure at tubine inlet
b) pressure at which steam is reheated
c) temperature at which steam is reheated
d) temperature at tubine inlet
Answer: b
Explanation: The cycle efficiency is a function of the ratio of reheat to initial pressure.

44 The optimum reheat pressure for the most of the modern power plants is ___________ of the initial steam pressure
a) 0.1-0.5
b) 0.2-0.3
c) 0.2-0.25
d) 0.25-0.3
Answer: c
Explanation: In this range of reheat pressure efficiency is maximum.

45 What is the effect of reheat on steam quality?

a) increases
b) decreases
c) does not change
d) depends on several parameters
Answer: a
Explanation: Because this steam is undergoing expansion two times.

46 Reheat is preferred for the plants having efficiency greater than

a) 150MW
b) 200MW
c) 100MW
d) 250MW
Answer: c
Explanation: For producing power less than this reheat will not be economical.

47 What is the basic principle of regeneration?

a) Steam after coming out of condenser is circulated to boiler
b) Steam after coming out of condenser is circulated to turbine
c Steam after coming out of turbine is circulated to boiler
d) Two stage turbine is used
Answer: b
Explanation: In regeneration steam from condenser is circulated through turbine to increase steam temperature before it enters boiler.

48 What is the effect of increase in regeneration on steam rate?

a) decreases
b) remains same
c) increases
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: More steam has to circulate per hour to produce unit shaft output.

49 The heat transfer taking place in the turbine is?

a) irreversible
b) reversible
c) both of the mentioned
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: At each point the temperature of the vapour is only infinitesimally higher than the temperature of the liquid.

50 The heat transferred when the H2O in the products is in the liquid state is called?
a) HCV
b) LCV
c) LHV
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The heat transferred when the H2O in the products is in the liquid state is called HCV [Higher Calorific Value].
 Unit III Hydroelectric & Nuclear Power Plant

1 Which of the following is the correct equation for the electrical power generated by the hydroelectric power plant?
a) 75×0.736 wQHη Watt
b) (7.5/0.736) × wQHη Watt
c) 0.845 ×wQHη Watt
d) 9.81 ×wQHη
Answer: c
Explanation: Rating of any power plant is expressed by its maximum output power. These are large quantities so rating is given in mega watts.The electrical power generated by this plant is proportional to specific weight of water(w), water head(H), generation efficiency(η), flow rate of water(Q) and acceleration due to gravity.

2 Which of the following is not a requirement for site selection of hydroelectric power plant?
a) Availability of water
b) Large catchment area
c) Rocky land
d) Sedimentation
Answer: d
Explanation: Sedimentation may reduce the water storage capacity of reservoir and may also cause damage to the turbine blades. Availability of water, large catchment area and rocky land are primary requirements for site selection of hydroelectric power plant.

3 The amount of electrical energy that can be generated by a hydroelectric power plant depends upon ___________
a) Head of water
b) Quantity of water
c) Specific weight of water
d) Efficiency of Alternator
Answer: b
Explanation: Potential energy of large quantity of stored water is used by hydroelectric power plant to generate electrical energy. Head of water is important to get kinetic energy from that potential energy. Efficiency of alternator represents that what percentage of input mechanical power it can convert into electrical power.

4 Potential energy of water is used to drive the turbine.

a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: When water falls, potential energy of water is converted into kinetic energy. This kinetic energy is used to drive the turbine

5 Hydroelectric power plant is __________

a) Non-renewable source of energy
b) Conventional source of energy
c) Non-conventional source of energy
d) Continuous source of energy
Answer: b
Explanation: Hydroelectric power plants are conventional source of energy. About 16.6% of total electricity and about 70% of total renewable energy of world is provided by hydroelectric power plants. They are not Non-renewable because water is inexhaustible. It is not continuous source of energy because its output fluctuates with change in flow rate of water with season.

6 Hydroelectric power plant is generally located near load centre.

a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Hydroelectric power plants are generally constructed in hilly areas. These power plants are quite away from the load centre.

7 Hydroelectric power plant is mainly located in ____________

a) Flat areas
b) Deserts
c) Hilly areas
d) Deltas
Answer: c
Explanation: In order to get sufficient head, hydroelectric power plants are constructed in hilly areas. In desert and flat areas sufficient water head cannot be obtained. Deltas are not suitable for this because of high sedimentation.

8 Which statement about hydroelectric power plant is wrong?

a) Efficiency of hydroelectric power plant does not reduce with age
b) Its construction coast is very high and takes a long time for erection.
c) It is very neat and clean plant because no smoke or ash is produced.
d) Meeting rapidly changing load demands is not possible in hydroelectric power plant.
Answer: d
Explanation: Fluctuating load demands can be met just by controlling the flow of water using valves and gates. Due to its robust construction, its efficiency does not fall with time. Statement ‘b’ is correct because construction of dam, installation of alternator and turbines are very costly.

9 Which of the following is not an advantage of hydroelectric power plant?

a) no fuel requirement
b) low running cost
c) continuous power source
d) no standby losses
Answer: c
Explanation: Output of such plants is never constant. This is because of their dependency over flow rate of water in river which is seasonal. No fuel requirement low running cost and no standby losses are advantages of hydroelectric power plants.

10 Which of the following statement is true about hydroelectric power plant?

a) Hydroelectric power plants are multipurpose.
b) Due to non-uniform flow of water frequency control in such plants is very difficult.
c) Hydroelectric power plant has high running cost
d) Water is used as fuel in hydroelectric power plant
Answer: a
Explanation: It is because in addition to generation of electricity they are also used for irrigation, flood control etc. Frequency control in such plants is done easily just by controlling flow of water to the turbine through valves and gates. Due to low maintenance cost and no fuel requirement running cost of a plant is very low. Water is not fuel.

11 Which element of hydroelectric power plant prevents the penstock from water hammer phenomenon?
a) Valves and Gates
b) Draft tubes
c) Spillway
d) Surge Tank
Answer: d
Explanation: Sudden increase in water pressure in penstock due to closing of gates is called water hammer. Surge tank is a tank at sufficient height , connected to penstock through riser pipe. It takes the rejected water and relives the penstock from excessive water hammer pressure.

12 Dam having very wide base as compared to its height is called _________
a) buttress dam
b) arch dam
c) earth dam
d) solid gravity dam
Answer: c
Explanation: Buttress dams are the concrete dams supported on downstream side by buttresses. Arc dams are concrete dams curved from upstream side. Earth dam is a type of embankment dam and have rock filled inside the structure.

13 Spillway discharges the overflow water to the downstream side when the reservoir is full.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: A condition may arise during flood periods when water level increases beyond the capacity of reservoir. In such conditions spillway acts as safety valve.

14 Trash racks are built for ___________

a) discharging the water freely from the turbine exit to tailrace
b) preventing the turbine from ingress of floating and other materials
c) creating artificial head to store sufficient potential energy of water
d) controlling the opening of valves
Answer: b
Explanation: Heavy solid materials flowing with water can damage the turbine blades if not stopped. Trash racks are closely spaced flat bars which provides narrow path from which such unwanted materials cannot pass

15 Penstock in a hydroelectric power plant is _____________

a) a pipe connected to runner outlet
b) nozzle that release high pressure water on turbine blades
c) a conduit connecting forebay to scroll case of turbine
d) a pipe connecting surge tank to dam
Answer: c
Explanation: Penstocks are the conduit built of steel or reinforced concrete. Penstock connects forebay or surge tank to scroll case of turbine. Their main function is to carry water from dam to the turbine

16 The pressure at the inlet or exit of the draft tube should not be _________
a) less than one third of atmospheric pressure
b) greater than one third of atmospheric pressure
c) less than one atmospheric pressure
d) greater than one atmospheric pressure
Answer: a
Explanation: Decrease in pressure in any portion of turbine below one third of atmospheric pressure may cause vapour bubbles or cavities to form. This phenomenon is called cavitation. Also to maintain continuity of flow without vaporisation the pressure should not fall below vapour pressure of water.

17 Draft tube increases the operating head on the turbine.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Draft tubes are the pipes of suitable diameter attached to the runner outlet. Draft tube converts the pressure developed by water leaving from turbine into kinetic energy. This in turn increases the operating head on turbine.

18 Which statement about surge tank is wrong?

a) Ideal location of surge tank is at the turbine inlet
b) A decrease in load demands cause a rise in water level in surge tank
c) Surge tanks are totally closed to avoid entry of unwanted objects to penstock
d) Surge tanks are installed to reduce harm effects of water hammer phenomenon
Answer: c
Explanation: Function of surge tank is to relieve the penstock from excessive water hammer pressure. It does so by receiving rejected flow of water into the tank. A totally closed tank can not release pressure so usually surge tanks are left open at the top.

19 Trash racks are located _____________

a) near tailrace
b) at the entrance of turbine
c) inside penstock
d) intake
Answer: d
Explanation: Intake includes headworks at the entrance of conduit. Those headworks include different structures, trash racks are one of them. Trash racks are fitted directly at the intake to prevent the floating and other materials from going into the conduit.

20 What is the function of booms?

a) It supports the dam
b) It supports the penstock
c) It divert the Icebergs from flowing into the penstock
d) To hold the turbine structure
Answer: a
Explanation: Booms are the one of those structures made at the intake. They are constructed to prevent unwanted solid materials from flowing into the penstock. Solid materials like icebergs, wood logs or other heavy materials which may cause damage to the turbine blades if reached there.

21 Kaplan turbine is _____________

a) axial flow turbine
 b) inward flow turbine
c) tangential flow turbine
d) mixed flow turbine
Answer: a
Explanation: In Kaplan turbine water strikes the turbine blades axially. That’s why Kaplan turbine is an axial flow turbine. Kaplan turbines are special type of turbines for low head applications.

22 Pelton turbines are used for __________________

a) medium head applications
b) low head applications
c) in steam power plants
d) for high head applications
Answer: d
Explanation: Pelton turbines are impulse turbines and are suitable for high head low flow plants. Pelton turbines consist of elliptical shaped buckets along its Periphery. Water is released from nozzle to the buckets of turbine.

23 Operating head of Francis turbine is __________

a) less than 30
b) less than 70 m
c) 30 to 200 m
d) more than 200 m
Answer: c
Explanation: Francis turbines are medium head(30 to 200 m) and medium flow turbines. Using it for low or high head will cause inefficient operation. Their life is about decades so maintenance cost is low.

24 Governing mechanism used in case of Pelton wheel turbine is ________

a) guide vane
b) nozzle needle
c) control valve
d) dam gates
Answer:b
Explanation: During load variation it is necessary to maintain the speed of the alternator constant. This is achieved by controlling the flow of water entering the turbine by the help of automatic adjustment of guide vanes for reaction turbine and the nozzle needle is in case of impulse turbine. Such an operation of speed regulation called governing and the system used to do this is called governor.

25 Which turbine has highest speed?

a) Pelton wheel turbine
b) Francis turbine
c) Impulse turbine
d) Kaplan turbine
Answer: d
Explanation: Francis turbine has a specific speed of 60 to 300 rpm. Specific speed of Pelton turbine is lowest. Speed of Kaplan turbine is 2 to 3 times more than that of Francis turbine.

26 Why has nuclear energy become an inevitable option for the development of the country?
a) Because less pollution caused by nuclear plant
b) High efficiency of nuclear energy
c) Due to acute shortage of other sources of energy
d) High cost of energy production of other sources
Answer: c
Explanation: With the acute shortage of other sources of energy viz. fossil based fuels and hydel sources the use of nuclear energy has become an inevitable option for the both developed and developing country.

27 How much amount of nuclear energy burnt is equivalent to the energy produced by 3000 tonnes of coal?
a) 1kg
b) 5kg
c) 15kg
d) 20kg
Answer: a
Explanation: The amount of heat generated by burning one kg of nuclear fuel is equivalent to the energy generated by burning 3000 tonnes of coal or 1600 tonnes of oil. The production of Nuclear energy is carried out by two methods which are nuclear fission and nuclear fusion

28 What is the most attractive part of nuclear energy?

a) Supports countries development
b) Causes no pollution
c) Has high efficiency of energy production
d) Is available in abundance
Answer: b
Explanation: Most attractive part of nuclear energy is that it has no combustion products and under safe working conditions contributes no pollutant to air. Site selection is completely independent of geographical area.

29 Nucleus consists of two sub-particles known as?

a) Nucleotides
b) Nucleons
c) Neutrons
d) Nucleosides
Answer: b
Explanation: Atom consists of a relatively heavy, positively charged nucleus and a number of much lighter negatively charged electrons. Electrons exist in various orbits around the nucleus. The nucleus consists of two sub-particles known as nucleons

30 On which law is the nuclear energy explained?

a) Einstein’s law
b) Newton’s law
c) Rutherford law
d) Mendeleev law
Answer: a
Explanation: The nuclear energy is explained the basis of Einstein’s law, one atom may be transformed into another by losing or acquiring some of the above sub-particles. This results in mass change Δm and enormous amount of energy is released (or absorbed). According to Einstein’s law,
ΔE = Δmc2
Where, c=light of speed.

31 Number of protons in the nucleus is called ___________

a) Atomic number
b) Mass number
c) Electric charge
d) Periodic number
Answer: a
Explanation: Number of protons in the nucleus is called atomic number Z. it is unique for each chemical element, and represents both the number of positive charges on the central massive nucleus of the atom and the number of electrons in orbits around the nucleus.

32 The total number of nucleons in the nucleus is called _________

a) Atomic number
b) Mass number
c) Electric charge
d) Periodic number
Answer: b
Explanation: The total number of nucleons in the nucleus is called the mass number A. Nuclear symbols are written as zXA Where X is chemical symbol. The masses of atoms are compared on a scale in which an isotope of 6C12 has a mass of exactly 12.

33 In which of the following process are Neutrons emitted?

a) Inverse beta Decay
b) Nuclear fission
c) Spontaneous Fission
d) Nuclear fusion
Answer: b
Explanation: Nuclear fission is the process in which a heavy nucleus is split into two or more lighter nuclei. This result in decrease in mass and consequent exothermic energy and emission of neutrons take place. Two to three neutrons are emitted per nucleuses which are known as fission elements.

34 Why neutrons with lower energy should be capable of causing fission?

a) For faster reaction process
b) For sustained reaction process
c) For Safety purpose
d) In order to not waste the nuclear fuel
Answer: b
Explanation: Due to collisions with various nuclei, initial high kinetic energy of fission neutron decreases. Thus for a sustained reaction, eve neutrons with lower energy should be capable of causing fission. Only neutrons can result in sustained reaction as two or three neutrons are released for each one absorbed by fission.

35 What happens when a neutron is absorbed by a nucleus of an atom of U235?

a) Mass number of atom increases
b) One electron is let out
c) U236 isotope is formed
d) Nucleus becomes unstable
Answer: c
Explanation: When a neutron is absorbed by a nucleus of an atom U235, a U236 isotope is formed. This isotope is highly unstable which lasts for one millionth of a second and splits into two equal parts releasing energy of 200MeV

36 Who invented nuclear fission?

a) Rutherford
b) Hans Bethe
c) Otto Hahn
d) Marie Curie
Answer: c
Explanation: Nuclear fission of heavy metals was discovered by German Otto Hahn on December 17, 1938 and was explained theoretically by Lise Meitner and her nephew Otto Robert Frisch on 1939. Frisch named Frisch names the process by analogy with biological fission of living cells.

37 Most of the energy released in fission process is in process of __________

a) Kinetic Energy
b) Thermal Energy
c) Light Energy
d) Heat Energy
Answer: a
Explanation: Most of the energy released is in the form of kinetic energy and is absorbed by fission products. The fission products formed are fission fragments, neutrons and electromagnetic or gamma radiation. As the fragments collide, the kinetic energy is converted into heat energy.

38 Combining of two light nuclei of low mass to produce a heavy nucleus is called ___________
a) Nuclear fusion
b) Nuclear fission
c) Spontaneous fission
d) Double beta decay
Answer: a
Explanation: Nuclear fusion is the process which involves fusion of two light nuclei of low mass to produce a heavy nucleus which results in decrease of mass and release of enormous amount of energy. All atomic bombs prefer nuclear fission process.

39 What type of Reaction takes place in sun?

a) Nuclear fusion
b) Nuclear fission
c) Spontaneous fission
d) Double beta decay
Answer: a
Explanation: Nuclear fusion reaction takes place in sun as well as stars. The process is carried by proton-proton chain. The sun starts with protons, and through a series of steps, turns them into helium. Every second 600 million tons of hydrogen is converted into helium. The reaction releases tremendous amount of heat and energy

40 Fusion reactions are called __________

a) Thermonuclear
b) Thermoduric
c) Thermo Uric
d) Compound reactions
 Answer: a
Explanation: To eradicate repulsive forces temperature of positively charged nuclei is raised to millions of degree resulting in plasma. The plasma should be prevented from contacting the walls of the container confined for a period of time of the order of a second at a minimum density. Fusion reactions are called thermonuclear because of the higher temperature requirement to trigger and sustain the reaction.

41 Which of the following element is readily available in the ordinary water?

a) Cesium
b) Thorium
c) Deuterium
d) Astatine
Answer: c
Explanation: Deuterium used in fusion reaction is readily available in ordinary water (Out of 6500 molecules). Deuterium is also known as heavy hydrogen. The nucleus of deuterium is called as deuteron, Contains one proton and one neutron

42 Which nuclear fuel is usually used in thermal nuclear reactor to create fission?
a) U234
b) U235
c) U236
d) U237
Answer: b
Explanation: In a thermal nuclear reactor the fission induced by neutrons using a fuel isotope U235 is one of the several isotopes used in nuclear power generation. Fuel isotopes which are capable of being fissioned by thermal neutrons are called fissile’s.

43 Which parts function is to reduce the energy of fast neutrons to thermal neutrons in nuclear power plant?
a) Moderator
b) Coolant circulator
c) Control rods
d) Shielding
Answer: a
Explanation: Function of moderator is to reduce the energy of fast neutrons to thermal neutrons. Due to high energy of fission neutrons relative to that required to trigger another fission event their probability of interacting with U235 is small.

44 What makes the best moderators in nuclear power plant?

a) Material with low atomic number
b) Materials with low atomic mass
c) Materials with high atomic number
d) Materials with high mass number
Answer: a
Explanation: The moderator slows down the neutrons to thermal energies by collision with inert atoms (scattering). Speed of the neutrons is reduced within a small number of collisions as the moderator possesses a high scattering cross section. Materials with low atomic mass number make best moderators.

45 What is used in nuclear reactor as a cooling method/device?

a) Coolant
b) Water jackets
c) Air cooler
d) Air vents
Answer: a
Explanation: The coolant is used and its function is to remove the heat released by fission. The coolant should have high specific heat, high conductivity, good chemical stability, good pumping characteristics and low neutron absorption cross section. Coolant can either be liquid or gas.

46 Control rods are made of __________

a) Cesium
b) Cadmium
c) Tin
d) Gallium
Answer: b
Explanation: Control rods are made of cadmium or boron or Hafnium. They have huge neutron absorption cross sections. The control rods are lowered or raised in the reactor core. Control rods are used in control rod assemblies and inserted into the guide fuels within a fuel element.

47 Shield is made of _________

a) Iron Metal enclosure
b) Concrete and water
c) Ceramics walls
d) Copper metal
Answer: b
Explanation: Shield is frequently constructed in layers or heavy and light material like concrete and water. Shields for external circuit where only gamma radiation may be present is made up of steel, lead, polyethylene, concrete

48 PWR stands for ________

a) Power
b) Partially weathered rock
c) Pressurized water Reactor
d) Packaging waste regulations
Answer: c
Explanation: PWR stands for pressurized water reactor. A PWR power plant consists of two loops in series. One is the coolant loop called primary loop and other is the water steam or working fluid loop. Pressurized water reactor falls under the category of light water reactor.

49 LWR stands for _________

a) Lower water reactor
b) Line water reactor
c) Liquefied water reactor
d) Light water reactor
Answer: d
Explanation: The light water reactor is a type of thermal-neutron reactor that uses normal water, as opposed to heavy water, as both its coolant and neutron moderator – furthermore a solid fissile element is used as fuel. These are most common type of Thermal-neutron reactors.

50 CANDU stands for ____________

a) Canadian Natural Darmstadtium Uranium
b) Canadian Natural Deuterium Uranium
c) Canadian Natural Dubnium Uranium
d) Canadian Natural Dysprosium Uranium
Answer: b
Explanation: The CANDU, for Canada Deuterium Uranium, is a Canadian pressurized heavy water reactor design used to generate electricity. The acronym refers to its deuterium oxide (heavy water) moderator and its use of (originally natural) Uranium fuel.
 Unit IV Diesel & Gas Turbine Power Plant

1 The thermal efficiency of diesel engines is about

a) 30%
b) 15%
c) 50%
d) 70%
Answer: d
Explanation: The thermal efficiency of diesel engines is about 70%.
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2 The expansion of fuel in a four stroke cycle diesel engine

a) starts at 15° after top dead centre and ends at 30° before bottom dead centre
b) starts at top dead centre and ends at 30° after top dead centre
c) may start and end anywhere
d) starts at 15° before top dead centre and ends at 30° after top dead centre
Answer: a
Explanation: The expansion of fuel in a four stroke cycle diesel engine starts at 15° after top dead centre and ends at 30° before bottom dead centre.

3 The brake power of a diesel engine, keeping other parameters constant, can be increased by
a) increasing the pressure of intake air
b) decreasing the density of intake air
c) decreasing the pressure of intake air
d) increasing the temperature of intake air
Answer: a
Explanation: The brake power of a diesel engine, keeping other parameters constant, can be increased by increasing the pressure of intake air.

4 In a four stroke cycle, the minimum temperature inside the engine cylinder occurs at the
a) end of suction stroke
b) beginning of exhaust stroke
c) beginning of suction stroke
d) end of exhaust stroke
Answer: c
Explanation: In a four stroke cycle, the minimum temperature inside the engine cylinder occurs at the beginning of exhaust stroke.

5 The effective inhibitor of pre-ignition is

a) alcohol
b) lead
c) water
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: Water is the most effective inhibitor of pre-ignition.

6 If the temperature of intake air in internal combustion engine increases, then its efficiency will
a) remain same
b) increase
c) decrease
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: The efficiency of an IC Engine is inversely proportional to the temperature of intake air.

7 The operation of forcing additional air under pressure in the engine cylinder is known as
a) Supercharging
b) Scavenging
c) Turbulence
d) Pre-ignition
Answer: a
Explanation: Supercharging is the operation of forcing additional air under pressure in the engine cylinder.

8 The mean effective pressure obtained from engine indicator indicates the
a) maximum pressure developed
b) minimum pressure developed
c) Instantaneous pressure at any point
d) Average pressure
Answer: d
Explanation: The mean effective pressure indicates the average pressure on the engine

9 The probability of knocking in diesel engines is increased by

a) high self-ignition temperature
b) low volatility
c) high viscosity
d) all the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: The probability of knocking in diesel engines is increased by keeping high self-ignition temperature, low volatility, high viscosity, etc

10 The maximum temperature in the I.C. engine cylinder is of the order of(in degree Celsius)
a) 500-1000
b) 1000-1500
c) 1500-2000
d) 2000-2500
Answer: d
Explanation: The maximum temperature in the I.C. engine cylinder is of the order of(in degree Celsius) is 2000-25000 degree Celsius

11 In compression ignition engines, swirl denotes a

a) Haphazard motion of the gases in the chamber
b) Rotary motion of the gases in the chamber
c) Radial motion of the gases in the chamber
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Swirl in a compression ignition engine denotes rotary motion of the gases in the chamber.

12 Supercharging is the process of

a) Supplying the intake of an engine with air at a density greater than the density of the surrounding atmosphere
b) Supplying compressed air to remove combustion products fully
c) Providing excess temperature to the sucked in gases
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Supercharging is the process of supplying the intake of an engine with air at a density greater than the density of the surrounding atmosphere.

13 The object of supercharging the engine is

a) to increase the power output of an engine when greater power is required
b) to reduce mass of the engine per brake power
c) to reduce space occupied by the engine
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: Supercharging is done to increase the power output of an engine, to reduce mass of the engine per brake power & to reduce space occupied by the engine.

14 The ratio of the volume of charge admitted at N.T.P. to the swept volume of the piston is called
 a) overall efficiency
b) mechanical efficiency
c) relative efficiency
d) volumetric efficiency
Answer: d
Explanation: Volumetric Efficiency is the ratio of the volume of charge admitted at N.T.P. to the swept volume of the piston.

15 In a diesel engine, the duration between the time of injection and ignition, is known as
a) delay period
b) period of ignition
c) burning period
d) pre-ignition period
Answer: a
Explanation: In a diesel engine, the duration between the time of injection and ignition, is known as delay period.

16 The reference fuels for knock rating of spark ignition engines would include
a) normal octane and aniline
b) iso-octane and normal hexane
c) iso-octane and alpha-methyl naphthalene
d) normal heptane and iso-octane
Answer: d
Explanation: The reference fuels for knock rating of spark ignition engines would include normal heptane and iso-octane.

17 A diesel engine is __________ as compared to petrol engine, both running at rated load.
a) equally efficient
b) more efficient
c) less efficient
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: A diesel engine is more efficient as compared to petrol engine, both running at rated load.

18 A higher compression ratio causes

a) increase in detonation
b) pre-ignition
c) an acceleration in the rate of combustion
d) any one of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: A higher compression ratio causes increased detonation, increased rate of combustion & pre-ignition.

19 The injector nozzle of a compression ignition engine is required to inject fuel at a sufficiently high pressure in order to
a) inject fuel at a high velocity to facilitate atomisation
b) inject fuel in a chamber of high pressure at the end of compression stroke
c) ensure that penetration is not high
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: The fuel injection is at a sufficiently higher pressure in order to inject fuel at a high velocity to facilitate atomisation, to inject fuel in a chamber of high pressure at the end of compression stroke & to ensure that penetration is not high.

20 The scavenging efficiency of a tour stroke cycle diesel engine is

a) between 50-85%
b) between 95-100%
c) below 50%
d) between 85-95%
Answer: b
Explanation: The scavenging efficiency of a tour stroke cycle diesel engine is between 95-100%.

21 If the speed of the engine is increased, the indicated power will

a) increase
b) decrease
c) remain same
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: The speed of the engine & indicated power are inter related as they are directly proportional to each other, so if one increases, the other also increases & vice-versa

22 If the speed of the engine is increased, the indicated power will

a) increase
b) decrease
c) remain same
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: The speed of the engine & indicated power are inter related as they are directly proportional to each other, so if one increases, the other also increases & vice-versa

23 Which of the following statement is correct?

a) Compression ratio for petrol engines varies from 6 to 10
b) Petrol engines work on Otto cycle
c) Higher compression ratio in diesel engines results in higher pressures
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: All the mentioned statements are correct.

24 Higher fuel combustion efficiency cannot be achieved by

a) preheating of fuel gases & combustion air
b) supplying correct amount of combustion air
c) reducing sulphur content in the fuel
d) adopting proper fuel firing technique & fuel preparation
Answer: c
Explanation: Higher fuel combustion efficiency cannot be achieved by reducing the sulphur content in the fuel as sulphur content has nothing much to do with the combustion efficiency.

25 Choice of a gas turbine depends most on which of these factors?

a) Compression ratio
b) Cut-off ratio
c) Pressure ratio
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: The working a Brayton cycle can be estimated most effectively by pressure ratio, so it becomes the most important factor.

26 Gas turbines with intercooling, regeneration & reheat are more suitable for combined cycles.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Increasing the stages in a gas turbine with combined cycles will decrease its efficiency.

27 What is the optimum pressure ratio range for a gas turbine to obtain optimum efficiency?
a) 7-8.5
b) 10.5-12
c) 9.5-10
d) 10-20
Answer: b
Explanation: The optimum pressure ratio range for a gas turbine to obtain optimum efficiency is 10.5-12.
28 What is that temperature called to which the exhaust gases of a gas turbine are cooled to?
a) Oxygen Dewpoint
b) Carbon dioxide Dewpoint
c) Nitrogen Dewpoint
d) Sulphuric Acid Dewpoint
Answer: d
Explanation: As the maximum temperature of cooling that can be reached has to be the dewpoint of one of these gases, so the dewpoint of Sulphuric Acid [Sulphur dioxide discharge] is chosen.

29 With an increase in the combined cycle pressure ratio, the efficiency of the bottoming cycle?
a) increases
b) decreases
c) remains same
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: The efficiency of the bottoming cycle is inversely proportional to combined cycle pressure ratio, so this relation.

30 The installation time for a gas turbine power plant is ______________

a) Comparatively less than thermal power plant
b) Comparatively more than thermal power plant
c) Equal to thermal power plant
d) Very much longer than thermal power plant
Answer: a
Explanation: Gas turbine power plant is comparatively simpler in construction than thermal power plant. So, its installation time is less than a thermal power plant for same capacity.

31 Which of the following is not used in gas turbine power plant?

a) Compressor
b) Turbine
c) Combustion chamber
d) Condenser
Answer: d
Explanation: Natural gas itself or mixture of natural gas and air is used as working medium in gas turbine power plant. Condenser is a device or arrangement used to condense low pressure steam already used by turbine. There is no steam in gas turbine power plant so no condenser is required

32 Which component of gas turbine power plant is main cause of its low efficiency?
a) Gas turbine
b) Combustion chamber
c) Compressor
d) Starting motor
Answer: c
Explanation: The overall efficiency of gas turbine is low, because a greater part of power developed by the turbine ( about 65%) is used in driving the compressor.

33 What is intercooling in gas turbine power plant?

a) Removal of heat from combustion gas between stages of turbine
b) Removal of heat from compressor between stages of compressor
c) Removal of heat from intake air
d) Removal of heat from exhaust air
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Intercooling means removal of heat from compressed air between low pressure and high pressure compressor. Cooling the low pressure compressed air reduces the air volume and improves the thermal efficiency, air rate and work ratio.

34 What is the function of regenerator?

a) Eatery compresses the exhaust gases
b) It heats the compressed air
c) It regenerates the combustible gas from exhaust gas
d) It regenerates the combustible oil from exhaust gas
Answer: b
Explanation: Regenerator is usually of shell and tube construction. Regenerator uses the heat of exhaust gas to heat compressed air before it is sent to combustion chamber. This reduces the fuel consumption and improves the cycle thermal efficiency.

35 Fuel other than natural gas i.e. solid and liquid fuels can be used in _______
a) open cycle gas turbine power plant
b) closed cycle gas turbine power plant
c) open and closed cycle gas turbine power plant
d) only natural gas is used in gas turbine power plant
Answer: b
Explanation: In closed cycle gas turbine power plant the working medium is heated externally and the fuel is not mixed with working fluid. This ensures the use of any fuel such as inferior type or solid type fuel.

36 Which of the following gas turbine power plant can use working medium of required property?
a) Closed cycle gas turbine power plant
b) Open cycle gas turbine power plant
c) Open and closed cycle gas turbine power plant
d) No gas turbine power plant can use working medium of required property.
Answer: a
Explanation: A working medium with physical properties superior to those of air such as helium and hydrogen can be used in closed cycle gas turbine power plant. This is because of airtight construction of this plant

37 What is the air standard cycle for a Gas-Turbine called?

a) Reheat cycle
b) Rankine cycle
c) Brayton cycle
d) Diesel cycle
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Brayton cycle is an ideal air standard cycle for a Gas turbine, which, like Rankine cycle, also comprises of two reversible adiabatic & two reversible isobars

38 What is the air standard cycle for a Gas-Turbine called?

a) Reheat cycle
b) Rankine cycle
c) Brayton cycle
d) Diesel cycle
Answer: c
Explanation: Brayton cycle is an ideal air standard cycle for a Gas turbine, which, like Rankine cycle, also comprises of two reversible adiabatic & two reversible isobars

39 Which of the following is a type of Gas Turbine Plant?

a) Single Acting
b) Double Acting
c) Open
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: Open & Closed Gas Turbine plants are the two types.

40 A Gas Turbine is which type of combustion plant?

a) external
b) open
c) internal
d) cannot say
Answer: c
Explanation: Since for the production of power, the working fluid does some work on the blades of the turbine, thereby producing Power. Hence, it is called an internal combustion plant.

41 Which among these is the main component of a gas turbine plant?

a) Condenser
b) Compressor
 c) Boiler
d) Both (b) & (c)
Answer: b
Explanation: The main component of a Gas turbine plant is Compressor.

42 Which type of compressor is used in a gas turbine plant?

a) Reciprocating compressor
b) Screw compressor
c) Multistage axial flow compressor
d) Either (a) & (b)
Answer: c
Explanation: Multistage axial flow compressor is the compressor in practical usage in a gas turbine plant.

43 What part or % of power developed is utilised for driving the compressor?

a) 65 %
b) 70 %
c) 55 %
d) 80 %
Answer: a
Explanation: A total of 65 % of power developed in the gas turbine is used for driving the compressor.

44 The gas turbine power plant mainly uses which among the following fuels?
a) Coal and Peat
b) Kerosene oil and diesel oil and residual oil
c) Gas oil
d) Natural gas and liquid petroleum fuel
Answer: d
Explanation: Natural gas and liquid petroleum fuel are among the two fuels used in a gas turbine.

45 The heating value of gaseous fuels is about

a) 500 kJ/litre
b) 30 kJ/litre
c) 100 kJ/litre
d) 10 kJ/litre
Answer: b
Explanation: 30 kJ/litre is the heating value of gaseous fuels.

46 The compressor has to be started

a) Before starting the gas turbine
b) After starting the gas turbine
c) Simultaneously with starting of gas turbine
d) At any time during the operation
Answer: a
Explanation: Compressor has to be started before starting the gas turbine as the turbine work is used by compressor.

47 Which of these is not a part of a Gas Turbine Plant?

a) Compressor
b) Gas Turbine
c) Combustion chamber
d) Boiler
Answer: d
Explanation: A Gas Turbine Plant has the following parts:
Compressor, Gas Turbine, Combustion chambe

48 The major field(s) of application of gas turbine is (are)

a) Aviation
b) Oil and gas industry
c) Marine propulsion
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: A Gas Turbine has applications in nearly all fields, the major ones being in the fields of Aviation, Oil & Gas industry, Marine propulsion.

49 The following is (are) the limitation(s) of gas turbines.

a) They are not self-starting
b) Higher rotor speeds
c) Low efficiencies at part loads
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: The limitations in the functioning of a Gas Turbines are inability of self-starting, excess rotor speeds and inability to adjust to varying loads.

50 The following method(s) can be used to improve the thermal efficiency of open cycle gas turbine plant
a) inter-cooling
b) Reheating
c) Regeneration
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: The various methods to improve the efficiency of open cycles include intercooling the feed water from the compressor to the turbine and then employing regeneration & reheat to just use the power of the reheated water in order to maximize the power output
 Unit II Steam Condenser & Environmental Impact of TPP

1 The function of a condenser in a thermal power plant is .......

A.To act as reservior to receive steam for turbine
B.To condense steam into condensate to be reused again
C.To create vaccum
D.All of the above
✔ View Answer
D.All of the above

2 The commonly used material of pipes in condensers is.......

A.Mild steel
B.Stainless steel
C.Cast iron
D.Admiralty brass
✔ View Answer
D.Admiralty brass

3 A condenser where circulating water flows through tubes which are surrounded by steam,is known as.........
A.Surface condenser
B.Jet condenser
C.Barometric condenser
C.Evaporative condenser
✔ View Answer
A.Surface condenser

4 The vaccum obtainable in a condenser is dependent upon......

A.Capacity of ejector
B.Quantity of steam to be handeled
C.Any of above two is possible
D.Types of condenser used
E.Temperature of cooling water
✔ View Answer
E.Temperature of cooling water

5 The ratio of actual vaccum to the ideal vaccum in a condenser is called.......

A.Condenser efficiency
B.Vaccum efficiency
C.Boiler efficiency
D.Nozzle efficiency
✔ View Answer
B.Vaccum efficiency

6 A condenser in a steam power plant is .......

A.Increases expansion ratio of steam
B.Reduces back pressure of steam
C.Reduces temperature of exhaust steam
D.All of the above
✔ View Answer
D.All of the above

7 The temperature of condensate is.......on leaving the condenser than that of circulating water at inlet
A.Higher
B.Lower
C.Same
✔ View Answer
A.Higher

8 The vaccum obtainable in a condenser is dependent upon.........

A.Capacity of ejector
B.Quantity of steam to be handeled
C.Any of the two is possible
C.Temperature of cooling water
✔ View Answer
D.Temperature of cooling water

9 The actual vaccum in a condenser is equal to......

A.Barometric pressure + actual pressure
B.Barometric pressure - actual pressure
C.Gauge pressure + atmospheric pressure
D.Gauge pressure - atmospheric pressure
✔ View Answer
B.Barometric pressure - actual pressure

10 A condenser condenses steam coming from the

(a) Boiler
(b) Super heater
(c) Economizer
(d) None
ANS: (d)

11 A condenser in a steam thermal plant

(a) Decreases expansion ratio in the turbine
(b) Decreases back pressure of steam
(c) Increases condensation temperature
(d) None
ANS: (b)

12 Hot water coming out of condenser is cooled in a

(a) Shell and tube heat exchanger
(b) In a finned tube heat exchanger
(c) In a cooling pond
(d) None
ANS: C

13 Surface condenser is one in which

(a) Steam passes through the tubes and the water is outside
(b) Air passes through the tubes and the water is outside
(c) Water passes through the tubes and the steam is outside
(d) None
ANS: C

14 In a surface condenser, condensate and cooling water are

(a) Mixed fully
(b) Mixed partially
(c) Not mixed
(d) None
ANS: C

15 In a Jet condenser, condensate and cooling water are

(a) Mixed fully
(b) Mixed partially
(c) Not mixed
(d) None
 ANS: (a)

16 Pressure in the condenser of a steam plant is

(a) More than atmospheric
(b) Equal to atmospheric
(c) Less than atmospheric
(d) None
ANS: C

17 Surface condensers and jet condensers of the same cooling capacity are compared
(a) Overall size is bigger of the surface condenser
(b) Sizes are equal
(c) Size of the surface condenser is smaller than the jet condenser
(d) None
ANS: (a)

18 Condensate can be used as feed water in a

(a) Jet condenser
(b) Surface condenser
(c) Both in Jet and Surface condenser
(d) None
ANS: (b)

19 Cooling capacity of surface condensers is

(a) Greater than that of Jet condensers
(b) Equal to that of Jet Condenser
(c) Less than that of Jet condensers
(d) None
ANS: (a)

20 Cooling water requirements for the same cooling capacity is

(a) Greater in Jet condenser
(b) Same in Jet and surface condemnser
(c) Less in Jet condenser
(d) None
ANS: C

21 For same cooling requirements, maintenance cost is

(a) Less in Jet condenser
(b) Equal in both surface and Jet condenser
(c) More in Jet condenser
(d) None
ANS:(a)

22 For the same cooling requirements, power to operate the air pump are
(a) More in a Jet condenser
(b) Less in a Jet condenser
(c) Same in Jet and surface condenser
(d) None
ANS: (a)

23 For the same cooling requirements, power used in pumping water is

(a) More in Jet condensers
(b) Less in a Jet condenser
(c) Equal both in Jet and Surface condenser
(d) None
ANS: (a)

24 The ratio of actual vacuum to the ideal vacuum in a condenser is called

(a) Boiler efficiency
(b) Condenser efficiency
(c) Vacuum efficiency’
(d) None
ANS: C

25 The temperature of the condensate is

(a) Higher than the temperature of the cooling water
(b) Lower than the temperature of the cooling water
(c) Equal to the temperature of the cooling water
(d) None
ANS: (a)

26 The condenser in a steam power plant is placed between the

(a) Boiler and turbine
(b) Pump and the boiler
(c) Turbine and the pump
(d) None
ANS: C

27 The condenser used in thermal power plant is

(a) Air cooled
(b) Water Cooled
(c) Evaporative Cooled
(d) None
ANS: (c)

28 When air is removed in a surface condenser

(a) Absolute pressure decreases
(b) Absolute pressure increases
(c) Absolute pressure remains constant
(d) None
(ANS: ( a)

29 Spray ponds are used to cool the warm water coming from the condenser in ________
a. Large power plants
b. Small power plants
c. Medium power plants
d. Both medium and large power plants.
View Answer / Hide Answer
ANSWER: b. Small power plants

30 Evaporative type of condenser has

a. Water in pipes surrounded by steam outside.
b. Steam and cooling water mixed to give the condensate.
c. Steam in pipes surrounded by water.
d. None of the above.
View Answer / Hide Answer
ANSWER: Steam in pipes surrounded by water.

31 In the steam condensing power plants

(A) The amount of energy extracted per kg of steam is increased
(B) the steam, converted into water, can be re-circulated with the help of pump
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
(Ans: C)

32 What is called when an industry removes water from a source and then returns the heated water to its source?
a) Water pollution
b) Soil pollution
c) Air pollution
d) Thermal pollution
Answer: d
Explanation: Thermal pollution occurs when an industry removes water from a source, uses the water for cooling purposes, and then returns the heated water to its source such as lakes, rivers and even oceans.
33 Which one of the following can cause thermal pollution?
a) Residential houses
b) Power plants
c) Death of marine organisms
d) Oil spill
Answer: b
Explanation: Power plants can cause thermal pollution. Thermal pollution refers to the degradation of water quality as a result of any process that changes the ambient water temperature. Power plants discharge heated water, which is at least 15 Celsius higher than the normal and it is back into a water body

34 What is the effect of warmer temperature to the fishes?

a) Increase the metabolism
b) Decrease the metabolism
c) Stabilize the metabolism
d) Increase the solubility of oxygen
Answer: a
Explanation: The warmer temperature decreases the solubility of oxygen and increase the metabolism of fish. This changes the ecological balance of the river. Within certain limits, thermal additions can promote the certain fish and fish catch may be high in the vicinity of a power plant.

35 What is the disadvantage of control measures of thermal pollution by passing the heated water?
a) Water is lost due to leakage
b) Water is lost due to absorption
c) Water is lost due to dilution
d) Water is lost due to evaporation
Answer: d
Explanation: Thermal pollution can be controlled by passing the heated water through a large shallow cooling pond into which hot water is pumped and a cooling tower after it leaves the condenser. In both the cases large amounts of water are lost to evaporation

36 Which one of the following cause thermal pollution?

a) Release of cold water
b) Organic manures
c) Purified water
d) More number of trees
Answer: a
Explanation: Release of cold water caused thermal pollution apart for that none of the above given options contribute for thermal pollution. Many industries liberate very cool water from their reservoirs. This water when mixed up with warm water rivers it creates a misbalance in the water bodies

37 Growing industrial activities is one of the reasons for thermal pollution.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Growing industrial activities gives a repenting feeling to know that thermal pollutants are increasing day by day because of the growing industrial activities. Therefore, thermal pollution is also growing.

38 How does soil erosion cause thermal pollution?

a) By making natural water bodies to hold in its normal level
b) By polluting the water bodies
c) By avoiding sunlight to fall on the water bodies
d) By making natural water bodies to rise beyond their normal level
Answer: d
Explanation: Soil erosion is one of the main causes of thermal pollution. Soil erosion makes natural water bodies to rise beyond their normal level. Thus, they get more exposed to sunlight and cause thermal pollution.

39 What is a thermal shock?

a) Sudden raises of temperature to abnormal level
b) Sudden cooling of temperature to abnormal level
c) Temperature don’t change
d) Temperature change only due to environmental factors
Answer: a
Explanation: Thermal shock resulting in a rise in temperature of water bodies. When industries and factories dispose the water into water bodies the temperature suddenly raises to an abnormal level. This acts as a thermal shock for aquatic life.

40 What is the main effect of thermal pollution to the oxygen solubility in water bodies?
a) They increase the solubility of oxygen in water bodies
b) They maintain the solubility of oxygen in water bodies
c) They reduce the solubility of oxygen in water bodies
d) They don’t cause any affect in solubility of oxygen to the water bodies
Answer: c
Explanation: One of the main effects of thermal pollution is they reduced the solubility of oxygen in water bodies. This less solubility of oxygen in water mainly affects the metabolism of water animals and thus it leads to death of aquatic animals.

41 How does an artificial lake help in solving thermal pollution?

a) It stores heated water
b) It gives a good aesthetic view
c) It helps to breed fishes
d) It is used during the summer season where water scarcity cause
Answer: a
Explanation: Artificial lakes help in preventing thermal pollution. In artificial lakes, heated water can be stored easily. These lakes are very helpful for normalizing the temperature of the hot water. Hot water will not disposed back to the natural water bodies.

42 What is called for the useless heat from hot water recycled by industries?
a) Cooling towers
b) Recycling
c) Heat pump
d) Co-generation
Answer: d
Explanation: Co-generation can be helpful to combat thermal pollution. In the process of co-generation, the useless heat from hot water can be recycled and used smartly in many tasks by industries. Thus this process prevents thermal pollution.

43 Generally how many types of cooling towers are there?

a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: b
Explanation: Generally the cooling towers are of two types they are, wet cooling tower and the dry cooling tower. In wet cooling tower, the heated water gets spread upon the flow directing panels. In the dry cooling tower, the heated water is made to flow in circular elongated pipes.

44 Runoff from paved surfaces can cause thermal pollution.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Urban runoff discharged to surface likes roads and parking lots can make the water warmer. During summer seasons, the pavement gets quite hot, which creates warm runoff that gets into the sewer systems and water bodies and causes thermal pollution.

45 What is a toxic waste?

a) Substances those are not poisonous
b) Substances those are poisonous only when it taken in large quantity
c) Substances those are poisonous only when it taken in small quantity
d) Substances which work as an antidote for toxic materials
Answer: c
Explanation: Toxic wastes are substances that are poisonous even in very small or trace amounts. Some may have an acute effect on humans causing death, others may have a chronic or long term effect, slowly causing irreparable harm to humans and other organisms.

46 What kind of reactions happens in corrosive waste?

a) Physical
b) Electro-chemical
c) Biological
d) Chemical
Answer: d
Explanation: In corrosive waste the reaction that happens is chemical. Corrosive waste is that which destroys materials and living tissue by chemical reaction such as acid and bases and thus cause hazardous to organisms.

47 In order to dispose hazardous waste where there are no abundant lands which method is used?
a) Land disposal
b) Burning
c) Floats in water bodies
d) Incineration
Answer: d
 Explanation: The most common methods for disposing of hazardous waste are land disposal and incineration. In countries where there is abundant land available for disposal land disposal is used and countries where there is no abundant land incineration method is used

48 How does organic material in the buried solid waste will decompose?
a) By the action of oxidation
b) By the action of microorganisms
c) By the flow of water
d) By the soil particles
Answer: b
Explanation: The organic material in the buried solid waste will decompose due to the action of microorganisms. At first the waste decomposes aerobically until the oxygen that was present in the freshly placed fill is used up by the aerobic microorganisms.

49 Which of the following is the consequence of industrial pollution?

a) Increase in the water level in seas
b) Releases of the hazardous radiations
c) Increase in the animals in forests
d) Global warming
Answer: d
Explanation: Global warming is one of the most common and serious consequences of industrial pollution. The emission of various greenhouse gases such as carbon dioxide, methane from various industries increases the overall temperature of the earth, resulting in global temperature.

50 Which one of the following industries produced Sulfur dioxide and flu ash as pollutants?
a) Textile industries
b) Cottage industries
c) Thermal industries
d) Coal industries
Answer: c
Explanation: Thermal industries produced sulfur dioxide and flu as ash as pollutants. Sulfur dioxide is a colorless gas. In thermal industries a reduction in the atmosphere emissions of Sulfur dioxide produced by fossil fuel combustion
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.
UNIT NO - II

Steam Condenser and Environmental Impact of Thermal Power Plant

1) Pulverized coal is
a) Coal free from ash
b) Non-smoking coal
c) Coal which bums for long time
d) Coal broken into fine particles
Answer: d
Explanation: Pulverized coal also known as powdered coal or coal dust since it is as fine as face powder in
cosmetic make-up.
3) Critical pressure of water is
a) 1 kg / cm2
b) 100 kg / cm2
c) 155 kg / cm2
d) 217.7 kg / cm2
Answer: d
Explanation: The critical pressure of a substance is the pressure required to liquefy a gas at its critical
temperature.
4) Coal used in power plant is also known as
a) steam coal
b) charcoal
c) coke
d) soft coal
Answer: a
Explanation: Because this coal is used to generate steam.
5) The maximum temperature of steam that can be used is fixed from metallurgical considerations. This
temperature limit is called?
a) Mining Limit
b) Metallurgical Limit
c) Metallic Limit
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: ‘Metallurgical Limit’ is defined as the lowest temperature limit of usable steam fixed by
metallurgical considerations.
6) Most of the turbine expansion takes place in?
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.
a) Liquid Region
b) Solid Region
c) Vapour Region
d) Plastic Region
Answer: c
Explanation: Most of the turbine expansion should take place in the vapour region, so as to increase the life of the
blades of the turbine
7) Which of the following diagrams are used while analysing the effect of superheat & Inlet Pressure on mean
temperature of heat addition?
a) P-V diagram
b) T-S diagram
c) P-T diagram
d) V-T diagram
Answer: b
Explanation: Using the T-S diagram gives us an overview as to where a particular process occurs, i.e., it is within
the solid region, the gaseous region or the vapour region, we prefer T-S diagram for analysis process.
8) The heat transferred when the H2O in the products is in the liquid state is called?
a) HCV
b) LCV
c) LHV
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: The heat transferred when the H2O in the products is in the liquid state is called HCV [Higher
Calorific Value].
9) The function of a condenser in a thermal power plant is
A. To act as reservoir to receive steam for turbine
B.To condense steam into condensate to be reused again
C. To create vacuum
D. All of the above
Answer D
10) The commonly used material of pipes in condensers is
A. Mild steel
B. Stainless steel
C. Cast iron
D. Admiralty brass
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.
Answer D
11) A condenser where circulating water flows through tubes which are surrounded by steam, is known as
A. Surface condenser
B. Jet condenser
C. Barometric condenser
D. Evaporative condenser
Answer A
12) The vacuum obtainable in a condenser is dependent upon
A. Capacity of ejector
B. Quantity of steam to be handled
C. Any of above two is possible
D. Temperature of cooling water
Answer D
13) The ratio of actual vacuum to the ideal vacuum in a condenser is called
A. Condenser efficiency
B. Vacuum efficiency
C. Boiler efficiency D.
Nozzle efficiency
Answer B
14) A condenser in a steam power plant is
A. Increases expansion ratio of steam
B. Reduces back pressure of steam
C. Reduces temperature of exhaust steam
D. All of the above
Answer D
15) The most common type of Evaporator is?
a) Flooded Evaporator
b) Plate Evaporator
c) Coil Evaporator
d) Brine Evaporator
Answer: b
Explanation: The most common type is a coil winding on a plate & so the name ‘plate evaporator’
16) In Rankine Cycle, water is converted to saturated liquid in ___________
a) Evaporator
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.
b) Economizer
c) Super heater
d) Preheater
Answer: b
Explanation: The saturation of water occurs in an Economizer in a Rankine Cycle.
17) If Evaporator & Condenser pressures are p & q, the intercooler pressure P is given as?
a) P= pq
b) P= p/q
c) P= (pq) (1/2)
d) P=p2q
Answer: c
Explanation: The relation between Intercooler pressure, Evaporator & Condenser is, P = (pq) (1/2).
18) Phase change at constant pressure takes place in?
a) Economiser
b) Evaporator
c) Superheater
d) Air-Preheater
Answer: c
Explanation: Super heater undergoes a change in phase at constant pressure.
19) Which of these factors don’t cause Internal Irreversibility of a Rankine cycle?
a) Throttling
b) Mixing
c) Fluid Friction
d) Fluid flow
Answer: d
Explanation: The Rankine cycle is an Irreversible cycle. For a cycle to be irreversible naturally throttling, mixing
& friction in fluids are the factors that cause this Irreversibility.
20) What is the unit of Heat rate?
a) kJ/KW
b) KW/kJ
c) kJ
d) KW
Answer: a
Explanation: Heat rate is the rate of input required to produce unit shaft output.
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.
21) A condenser where circulating water flows through tubes which are surrounded by steam, is known as.
A. Surface condenser
B. Jet condenser
C. Barometric condenser
D. Evaporative condenser
Answer A.
22) The vacuum obtainable in a condenser is dependent upon
A. Capacity of ejector
B. Quantity of steam to be handled
C. Any of above two is possible
D. Temperature of cooling water
Answer E.
23) The ratio of actual vacuum to the ideal vacuum in a condenser is called
A. Condenser efficiency
B. Vacuum efficiency
C. Boiler efficiency
D. Nozzle efficiency
Answer B
24) A condenser in a steam thermal plant
(a) Decreases expansion ratio in the turbine
(b) Decreases back pressure of steam
(c) Increases condensation temperature
(d) None
ANS: (b)
25) Hot water coming out of condenser is cooled in a
(a) Shell and tube heat exchanger
(b) In a finned tube heat exchanger
(c) In a cooling pond
(d) None
ANS: C
26) Surface condenser is one in which
(a) Steam passes through the tubes and the water is outside
(b) Air passes through the tubes and the water is outside
(c) Water passes through the tubes and the steam is outside
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.
(d) None
ANS: C
27) In a surface condenser, condensate and cooling water are
(a) Mixed fully
(b) Mixed partially
(c) Not mixed
(d) None
ANS: C
28) In a Jet condenser, condensate and cooling water are
(a) Mixed fully
(b) Mixed partially
(c) Not mixed
(d) None
ANS: (a)
29) Pressure in the condenser of a steam plant is
(a) More than atmospheric
(b) Equal to atmospheric
(c) Less than atmospheric
(d) None
ANS: C
30) Surface condensers and jet condensers of the same cooling capacity are compared
(a) Overall size is bigger of the surface condenser
(b) Sizes are equal
(c) Size of the surface condenser is smaller than the jet condenser
(d) None
ANS: (a)
31) Condensate can be used as feed water in a
(a) Jet condenser
(b) Surface condenser
(c) Both in Jet and Surface condenser
(d) None
ANS: (b)
32) Cooling capacity of surface condensers is
(a) Greater than that of Jet condensers
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.
(b) Equal to that of Jet Condenser
(c) Less than that of Jet condensers
(d) None
ANS: (a)
33) Cooling water requirements for the same cooling capacity is
(a) Greater in Jet condenser
(b) Same in Jet and surface condenser
(c) Less in Jet condenser
(d) None ANS: C
34) For same cooling requirements, maintenance cost is
(a) Less in Jet condenser
(b) Equal in both surface and Jet condenser
(c) More in Jet condenser
(d) None
ANS: (a)
35) For the same cooling requirements, power to operate the air pump are
(a) More in a Jet condenser
(b) Less in a Jet condenser
(c) Same in Jet and surface condenser
(d) None
ANS: (a)
36) For the same cooling requirements, power used in pumping water is
(a) More in Jet condensers
(b) Less in a Jet condenser
(c) Equal both in Jet and Surface condenser
(d) None
ANS: (a)
37) The ratio of actual vacuum to the ideal vacuum in a condenser is called
(a) Boiler efficiency
(b) Condenser efficiency
(c) Vacuum efficiency
(d) None
ANS: C
38) The temperature of the condensate is
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.
(a) Higher than the temperature of the cooling water
(b) Lower than the temperature of the cooling water
(c) Equal to the temperature of the cooling water
(d) None
ANS: A
39) The condenser in a steam power plant is placed between the
(a) Boiler and turbine
(b) Pump and the boiler
(c) Turbine and the pump
(d) None
ANS: C
40) The condenser used in thermal power plant is
(a) Air cooled
(b) Water Cooled
(c) Evaporative Cooled
(d) None
ANS: A
41) When air is removed in a surface condenser
(a) Absolute pressure decreases
(b) Absolute pressure increases
(c) Absolute pressure remains constant
(d) None
ANS: A
42) Spray ponds are used to cool the warm water coming from the condenser in ________
a. large power plants
b. Small power plants
c. Medium power plants
d. Both medium and large power plants.
ANS: B
43) Evaporative type of condenser has
a. Water in pipes surrounded by steam outside
b. Steam and cooling water mixed to give the condensate
c. Steam in pipes surrounded by water.
d. None of the above.
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.
ANSWER: C
44) In the steam condensing power plants
(A) The amount of energy extracted per kg of steam is increased
(B) The steam, converted into water, can be re-circulated with the help of pump
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
Ans: C
45) What is called when an industry removes water from a source and then returns the heated water to its source?
a) Water pollution
b) Soil pollution
c) Air pollution
d) Thermal pollution
Answer: d
Explanation: Thermal pollution occurs when an industry removes water from a source, uses the water for cooling
purposes, and then returns the heated water to its source such as lakes, rivers and even oceans.
46) What is the effect of warmer temperature to the fishes?
a) Increase the metabolism
b) Decrease the metabolism
c) Stabilize the metabolism
d) Increase the solubility of oxygen
Answer: a
Explanation: The warmer temperature decreases the solubility of oxygen and increase the metabolism of fish.
This changes the ecological balance of the river. Within certain limits, thermal additions can promote the certain
fish and fish catch may be high in the vicinity of a power plant.
47) What is the disadvantage of control measures of thermal pollution by passing the heated water?
a) Water is lost due to leakage
b) Water is lost due to absorption
c) Water is lost due to dilution
d) Water is lost due to evaporation
Answer: d
Explanation: Thermal pollution can be controlled by passing the heated water through a large shallow cooling
pond into which hot water is pumped and a cooling tower after it leaves the condenser. In both the cases large
amounts of water are lost to evaporation
48) Which one of the following cause thermal pollution?
a) Release of cold water
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.
b) Organic manures
c) Purified water
d) More number of trees
Answer: a
Explanation: Release of cold water caused thermal pollution apart for that none of the above given options
contribute for thermal pollution. Many industries liberate very cool water from their reservoirs. This water when
mixed up with warm water rivers it creates a misbalance in the water bodies
Growing industrial activities is one of the reasons for thermal pollution
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Growing industrial activities gives a repenting feeling to know that thermal pollutants are increasing
day by day because of the growing industrial activities. Therefore, thermal pollution is also growing.
49) How does soil erosion cause thermal pollution?
a) By making natural water bodies to hold in its normal level
b) By polluting the water bodies
c) By avoiding sunlight to fall on the water bodies
d) By making natural water bodies to rise beyond their normal level
Answer: d
Explanation: Soil erosion is one of the main causes of thermal pollution. Soil erosion makes natural water bodies
to rise beyond their normal level. Thus, they get more exposed to sunlight and cause thermal pollution.
50) What is a thermal shock?
a) Sudden raises of temperature to abnormal level
b) Sudden cooling of temperature to abnormal level
c) Temperature don’t change
d) Temperature change only due to environmental factors
Answer: a
Explanation: Thermal shock resulting in a rise in temperature of water bodies. When industries and factories
dispose the water into water bodies the temperature suddenly raises to an abnormal level. This acts as a thermal
shock for aquatic life.
51) What is the main effect of thermal pollution to the oxygen solubility in water bodies?
a) They increase the solubility of oxygen in water bodies
b) They maintain the solubility of oxygen in water bodies
c) They reduce the solubility of oxygen in water bodies
d) They don’t cause any affect in solubility of oxygen to the water bodies
Answer: c
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.
Explanation: One of the main effects of thermal pollution is they reduced the solubility of oxygen in water bodies.
This less solubility of oxygen in water mainly affects the metabolism of water animals and thus it leads to death
of aquatic animals.
52) How does an artificial lake help in solving thermal pollution?
a) It stores heated water
b) It gives a good aesthetic view
c) It helps to breed fishes
d) It is used during the summer season where water scarcity cause
Answer: a
Explanation: Artificial lakes help in preventing thermal pollution. In artificial lakes, heated water can be stored
easily. These lakes are very helpful for normalizing the temperature of the hot water. Hot water will not disposed
back to the natural water bodies.
53) What is called for the useless heat from hot water recycled by industries?
a) Cooling towers
b) Recycling
c) Heat pump
d) Co-generation
Answer: d
Explanation: Co-generation can be helpful to combat thermal pollution. In the process of co-generation, the
useless heat from hot water can be recycled and used smartly in many tasks by industries. Thus this process
prevents thermal pollution.
54) Generally how many types of cooling towers are there?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: b
Explanation: Generally the cooling towers are of two types they are, wet cooling tower and the dry cooling tower.
In wet cooling tower, the heated water gets spread upon the flow directing panels. In the dry cooling tower, the
heated water is made to flow in circular elongated pipes.
55) Runoff from paved surfaces can cause thermal pollution-
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Urban runoff discharged to surface likes roads and parking lots can make the water warmer. During
summer seasons, the pavement gets quite hot, which creates warm runoff that gets into the sewer systems and
water bodies and causes thermal pollution.
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.
56) What is a toxic waste?
a) Substances those are not poisonous
b) Substances those are poisonous only when it taken in large quantity
c) Substances those are poisonous only when it taken in small quantity
d) Substances which work as an antidote for toxic materials
Answer: c
Explanation: Toxic wastes are substances that are poisonous even in very small or trace amounts. Some may have
an acute effect on humans causing death, others may have a chronic or long term effect, slowly causing
irreparable harm to humans and other organisms.
57) What kind of reactions happens in corrosive waste?
a) Physical
b) Electro-chemical
c) Biological
d) Chemical
Answer: d
Explanation: In corrosive waste the reaction that happens is chemical. Corrosive waste is that which destroys
materials and living tissue by chemical reaction such as acid and bases and thus cause hazardous to organisms.
59) In order to dispose hazardous waste where there are no abundant lands which method is used?
a) Land disposal
b) Burning
c) Floats in water bodies
d) Incineration
Answer: d
Explanation: The most common methods for disposing of hazardous waste are land disposal and incineration. In
countries where there is abundant land available for disposal land disposal is used and countries where there is no
abundant land incineration method is used
60) How does organic material in the buried solid waste will decompose?
a) By the action of oxidation
b) By the action of microorganisms
c) By the flow of water
d) By the soil particles
Answer: b
Explanation: The organic material in the buried solid waste will decompose due to the action of microorganisms.
At first the waste decomposes aerobically until the oxygen that was present in the freshly placed fill is used up by
the aerobic microorganisms.
61) Which of the following is the consequence of industrial pollution?
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.
a) Increase in the water level in seas
b) Releases of the hazardous radiations
c) Increase in the animals in forests
d) Global warming
Answer: d
Explanation: Global warming is one of the most common and serious consequences of industrial pollution. The
emission of various greenhouse gases such as carbon dioxide, methane from various industries increases the
overall temperature of the earth, resulting in global temperature.
62) Which one of the following industries produced Sulphur dioxide and flu ash as pollutants? a) Textile
industries
b) Cottage industries
c) Thermal industries
d) Coal industries
Answer: c
Explanation: Thermal industries produced sulphur dioxide and flu as ash as pollutants. Sulphur dioxide is a
colourless gas. In thermal industries a reduction in the atmosphere emissions of Sulphur dioxide produced by
fossil fuel combustion.
UNIT
II

Question 2
A vacuum of 710 mm of Hg was obtained with barometer reading of 755 mm of
Hg. Correct the vacuum to standard barometer of 760 mm.
Option A 720 mm of Hg
Option B 715 mm of Hg
Option C 755 mm of Hg
Option D 745 mm of Hg
Answer B

A vaccum of 710 mm of Hg was obtained with barometer reading of 755 mm of Hg.

QuestionThe temperature ofcondenser was 25oC. Determine the pressure of air in the condenser 3
in bar. partial pressure of steam at 25oC is 0.03166 bar.
Option A 0.03255 bar
Option B 0.02585 bar
Option C 0.03532 bar
Option D 0.02832 bar
Answer D

Question The actual vacuum in a condenser is 1

Option A Barometric pressure+ Actual pressure
Option B Gauge pressure—atmospheric pressure
Option C Gauge pressure + atmospheric pressure
Option D None
Answer B
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.
Question The condenser in a steam power plant is placed between the 1
Option A Boiler and turbine
Option B Pump and the boiler
Option C Turbine and the pump
Option D None
Answer C

Question How many number of spray nozzle does each module on spray pond cooling system 1
contains?
Option A 1
Option B 2
Option C 3
Option D 4
Answer D

Question Select the disadvantage of cooling pond out of the given? 2

Option A The area required of cooling in a cooling pond is small
Option B Spray losses due to evaporation and windage run high
Option C There is no control over the temperature of cooled water
Option D The cooling efficiency is low compared with cooling water
Answer C
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.
Question How is air produced in mechanical draught cooling tower? 1
Option A Air Tuyeres
Option B Propeller fans
Option C Air blowers
Option D Louvre
Answer B

Question In which type of cooling system are nozzles arranged on different elevation? 1
Option A Single deck system
Option B Double deck system
Option C Natural Flow system
Option D Direct flow system
Answer B

Question Pressure in the condenser of a steam plant is 1

Option A More than atmospheric
Option B Equal to atmospheric
Option C Less than atmospheric
Option D None
Answer C

Question Surface condensers and jet condensers of the same cooling capacity are compared 1
Option A Overall size is bigger of the surface condenser
Option B Sizes are equal
Option C Size of the surface condenser is smaller than the jet condenser
Option D None
Answer A

Question Pressure in the condenser of a steam plant is 1

Option A More than atmospheric
Option B Equal to atmospheric
Option C Less than atmospheric
Option D None
Answer C

Question Condensate can be used as feed water in a 1

Option A Jet condenser
Option B Surface condenser
Option C Both in Jet and Surface condenser
Option D None
Answer B

Question Surface condenser is one in which 1

Option A Steam passes through the tubes and the water is outside
Option B Air passes through the tubes and the water is outside
Option C Water passes through the tubes and the steam is outside
Option D None
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.
Answer C
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.
Question The ratio of actual vacuum to the ideal vacuum in a condenser is called 1
Option A Boiler efficiency
Option B Condenser efficiency
Option C Vacuum efficiency’
Option D None
Answer C

Question The condenser used in thermal power plant is 1

Option A Air cooled
Option B Water Cooled
Option C Evaporative Cooled
Option D None
Answer C

Question What is use of the air pumps in the condenser? 1

Option A Remove water
Option B Air leaking in the condenser and to maintain the vacuum.
Option C Maintain atmospheric pressure and the condenser.
Option D Both (a) & (b).
Answer B

Question Evaporative type of condenser has

Option A Water in pipes surrounded by steam outside. 2
Option B Steam and cooling water mixed to give the condensate.
Option C Steam in pipes surrounded by water.
Option D None of the above.
Answer c

Question What are used in the direct flow system to transverse the pond before uniting at intake? 1
Option A Separators
Option B Filters
Option C Baffle walls
Option D Porous pipes
Answer C

Question In which system is Cooling of hot water is done on tray as step by? 1
Option A Mechanical draught cooling system
Option B Hyperbolic cooling tower
Option C Atmospheric cooling tower
Option D Wet cooling tower
Answer C

Question .How does the flow of air occur in natural draught cooling towers? 2
Option A Natural pressure head density between cold outside air and humid inside air
Option B Variation in pressure of both cold outside air and humid inside air
Option C Due to the given air vents and vacuum ports
Option D Because of difference in the volume of both the of airs
Answer A
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.
Question Centrifugal pump is a 1
Option A Turbomachinery
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.
Option B Flow regulating device
Option C Drafting device
Option D Intercooling device
Answer A
1
Question The main function of nozzle is to
Option A Varying temperatures
Option B Pressure variations
Option C Load variations
Option D Heat variations
Answer B

Question Centrifugal pumps are a sub class of dynamic axisymmetric work absorbing 1
turbomachinery.
Option A TRUE
Option B FALSE
Answer

Question What is the most effective advantage of gravitational separators? 1

Option A They consume no power
Option B They just need small amount of space for operation
Option C They are cost effective
Option D Time taken for operation is very less
Answer C

Question Which principle does cyclone separator use? 1

Option A Gravitational force
Option B \ Vortex velocity
Option C Inertia
Option D Temperatures of air
Answer C

1
Question What is called when several cyclone separators are operated parallely?
Option A Octa-cyclone
Option B Multi-cyclone
Option C Center-cyclone
Option D Para-cyclone
Answer B

Question What is the work of the baghouse filter? 2

Option A To remove the hot air from furnace
Option B To separate the solid particles from dust produced
Option C To remove dust particles from flue gas
Option D To wash away the contamination of dust on the walls of furnace
Answer C

Question A ‘stroker’ is a power operated fuel mechanism 1

Option A Burning
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.
Option B Feeding
Option C Handling
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.
Option D Storage
Answer B

Question The following is not a pulverized fuel burner. 1

Option A Tangential burner
Option B Turbulent burner
Option C Cyclone burner
Option D Radial burner
Answer B

Question The process of converting coal into coke is called 1

Option A Coking
Option B Carbonization
Option C Decarbonization
Option D Isomerization
Answer B

Question Only bituminous type of coal can be coked. 1

Option A a) True
Option B b) False
Answer A

Question When coal burns in air then 1

Option A Carbon dioxide is formed
Option B Sulphur dioxide is formed
Option C Carbon monoxide is formed
Option D Hydrogen gas is formed
Answer A

Question The Chevron Corporation had to pay a huge fine for oil pollution in the — 1
Option A Equadorian rainforest
Option B Savannah grasslands
Option C Brazilian rainforest
Option D Amazon basin
Answer A

Question What are cascades? 1

Option A They are the one step separation processes
Option B They are the last part of separation processes
Option C They are an aggregation of stages
Option D They are the starting part of every separation process
Answer C

Question Countercurrent cascades are not prevalent in which process? 1

Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.
Option A Crystallization
Option B Distillation
Option C Stripping
Option D Liquid-liquid extraction
Answer A

Question Caking coal with content are used for gas manufacturer. 1
Option A high volatile matter
Option B low volatile matter
Option C high ash content
Option D high moisture content
Answer A

Question In which state does the pulverised coal burns? 1

Option A a) Gaseous
Option B b) Liquid
Option C c) Solid
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.
Option D d) Colloidal
Answer A

Question PCRA stands for 2

Option A a. Public Conservations Research Association
Option B b. Petroleum Conservation Research Association
Option C c. Public Council of Research Association
Option D d. Partial Counting of remaining Amendment
Answer B

Question On what factors does the burning of pulverised coal depends? 1

Option A a) The calorific value of fuel
Option B b) Bulk density
Option C c) Percentage of volatile matter
Option D d) On the texture of coal
Answer C

Question How is the sizing of coal processed? 1

Option A a) By the use of measuring instruments
Option B b) By the use of computer software
Option C c) By crushing and screening
Option D d) By the mass of the coal
Answer C

Question Which of the following is a disadvantage of storing coal for a long period of time? 1
Option A a) Increase in the friability of coal
Option B b) Decrease in its ignition temperature
Option C c) Increase in its calorific value
Option D d) Increase in the proportion of fine
Answer D

Question 54.The reheating of steam is used when the vaporization pressure is . 1

Option A a) low
Option B b) high
Option C c) both when low or high
Option D d) always
Answer B

Question Deaerator is a type of open heater. 1

Option A a) true
Option B b) false
Answer A

Question Froth flotation process is used for 1

Option A a) Screening of coal
Option B b) Beneficiation of coal
Option C c) Dewatering of coal
Option D d) Mining of coal
Answer B

Question What is the main purpose for a blending of coal? 1

Option A To produce more amount of coal
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.
Option B To produce good quality of coal
Option C To decrease the cost of coal
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.
Option D To produce different types of coal at same time
Answer B
1
Question How do the chances of spontaneous combustion of coal can decrease?
Option A Decrease in the maturity of coal
Option B By washing the coal time to time
Option C Increase in the maturity of coal
Option D By the reducing the quantity of coal
Answer C

Question Which processes do the Rankine cycle contain? 2

Option A two isothermal and two isochoric processes
Option B two isentropic and two isobaric processes
Option C two isentropic and two isothermal processes
Option D two isothermal and two isobaric processes
Answer B

Question Which ideal process is carried out at the turbine in vapour power cycle? 1
Option A reversible adiabatic compression
Option B reversible adiabatic expansion
Option C reversible constant pressure heat addition
Option D reversible constant pressure heat rejection
Answer B

Which is the affecting factor for the fact that turbine work output is more than pump work input in 2
Question vapour power cycle for the same pressure ration?
Option A specific heat added to the working fluid
Option B specific volume of working fluid
Option C both a. and b.
Option D none of the above
Answer B

Question Which of the following statement is true? 2

Option A open heater is also known as contact-type heater
Option B in an open type heater the extracted or bled steam is allowed to mix with the feedwater
Option C in a closed heater, the fluids are not allowed to mix together
Option D all of the mentioned
Answer D

Question .Which of the following is true for a closed heater? 1

Option A a) it requires a single pump regardless of the number of heaters
Option B b) it is costly
Option C c) both of the mentioned
Option D d) none of the mentioned
Answer C

Question The thermal irreversibility should be to improve the performance. 1

Option A a) reduced
Option B b) increased
Option C c) kept constant
Option D d) none of the mentioned
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.
Answer A
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati
Pune.
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati
Pune.
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

ENERGY ENGINEERING : UNIT 3

1. On what aspects is precipitation calculated

a)Based on hydrological aspect
b)Based on climatic conditions
c)Based on the vegetation of the area
d)Based on weather forecast

Answer: a
Explanation: The evaporation of the water from the surfaces of river and
oceans and its precipitation on the earth is known as hydrological cycle.
Based on hydrological aspect the distribution of precipitation on the earth
surface and beneath the earth is calculated.
2.Water evaporated is carried with the air in form of vapor known as
_______
a)Cloud
b)Drizzle
c)Fog
d)Smoke

Answer: a
Explanation: It is the science which deals with rainfall. Water is evaporated
from plants, rivers, oceans and carried with the air in the form of vapor
which is known as cloud. Clouds vary in different shape and size and they
move according to winds.
3.When does vapor turn into form of water or snow?
a)Cooled below Dew point
b)At Frost point
c)When cooled Freezing point
d)When there is rise in Humidity

Answer: a
Explanation: Water is evaporated from surface of earth and stored in form of
clouds. When the vapors in the atmosphere are cooled below dew point
temperature, it falls in the form of water or snow depending on the
atmospheric temperature.
4.What source of energy does evaporation and precipitation consists of?
a) Perennial energy
b) Gravitational energy
c) Thermal energy
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

d) Kinetic energy

Answer: a
Explanation: This evaporation and precipitation is a natural continuous
process and therefore constitutes a perennial source of energy. Both these
evaporation and precipitation come under the hydrological cycle.
4Water on the ground surface entering the soil is called _________
a)Infiltration
b)Transpiration
c)Filtration
d)Precipitation

Answer: a
Explanation: Infiltration is the process by which water on the ground surface
enters the soil. Infiltration rate in soil science is a measure of the rate at
which soil is able to absorb rainfall. It is measured in inches per hour or
millimeters per hour.
4.The energy input to the hydrological cycle is by ____________
a)Wind
b)Water
c)Sun
d)Head

Answer: c
Explanation: The energy input to hydrological cycle is sun. Due to sun,
water evaporates from water bodies. On cooling, the vapors form cloud
which falls down in the form of rain, snow, hail etc which is known as
precipitation.
5.About how much amount of precipitate is returned back to atmosphere?
a)2/3
b)1/4
c)3/4
d)1/3

Answer: a
Explanation: Precipitation includes all water that falls from the atmosphere
to earth’s surface in any form. About 2/3 portion of precipitation that reaches
land surface is returned back to atmosphere by water surfaces, soil and
vegetation.
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

6.Amount of rainfall which runs off the earth’s land surface to form stream is
used for ______
a) Flower generation
b) Back water storage
c) Pit Irrigation
d) Left through canals

Answer: a
Explanation: About 2/3 portion of rain is returned back to atmosphere and
1/3 portion is returned back by oceans. The amount of rainfall which runs off
the earth’s land surface to form streams and rivers is used for flower
generation.
7.What is the unit of runoff ________
a) Day-sec meter
b) M2/s
c) MM/S2
d) Ns/m2

Answer: a
Explanation: The unit of runoff is m3/s or Day-second meter.
1 Day second meter = Discharge collected in catchment area at the rate of 1
m3/s or for one day => 1 x 24 x 3600 = 86400 M3/s
And Total run off is given by:
Total Run-off = Direct runoff over the land surface + Run-off through
seepage.
8.Where is the catchment area situated with respect to dam?
a) Behind the dam
b) Front of dam
c) Right beneath the dam
d) Opposite to the Dam Head

Answer: a
9What do you call a graph which is plotted for discharge versus time?
a) Snow Graph
b) Hydrograph
c) Rain graph
d) Fluid graph

Answer: b
Explanation: The graph showing discharge of flowing water with respect to
time for a specific time is known as hydrograph. The time period for
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

discharge hydrograph may be hour, day, week or month. The discharge may
m¬¬3/sec or day per second meter.
10.Choose the correct sentence about information available from hydrograph
among the following options?
a) The mean annual runoff or mean runoff each week of the year
b) Total volume at that instant, as the area under hydrograph indicates the
force of water during the duration
c) Rate of flow at any particular time during the duration period
d) Mean runoff for each month

Answer: d
Explanation: Mean runoff for each month is available. As compared to all
other option, they would be- i) The mean annual runoff or mean runoff each
month of the year. ii) Total volume at that instant, as the area under
hydrograph indicates the volume of water during the duration. iii) Rate of
flow at any instant during the duration period.
11.What does hydrograph based on day gives?
a) Idea about flood period during the month
b) Idea of rainfall
c) Idea of draught during the year
d) Idea of scarcity of water in the upcoming year

Answer: a
Explanation: The hydrograph can be drawn taking day, month or year. The
hydrograph on the basis of day gives an idea of the flood period during the
month. The hydrograph on basis of month gives an idea about the dry period
of the year.
12.What information does the year wise hydrograph gives?
a) Draught
b) Heavy rainfall
c) Rising cold
d) Water scarcity

Answer: a
Explanation: The hydrograph can be drawn taking Day, month or year as
time axis. The hydrograph based on year wise data gives information
concerning the lean or draught year. This is very essential for deciding the
location and size of hydel power plant.
13.When is the Hydrograph called as a unit hydrograph?
a) When 1cm of runoff is resulted from a rain fall
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

b) When 3cm of runoff is resulted from rainfall

c) When 1mm of runoff is resulted from rainfall
d) When 3mm of runoff is resulted from rainfall

Answer: a
Explanation: If the rainfall distribution in the storms is similar with respect
to time and area, the ordinate of each hydrograph will be proportional to
volume of runoff. The unit hydrograph is a hydrograph with a volume of
1cm runoff resulting from a rainfall of specified duration and a real pattern.
14.Unit hydrograph was explained by Sherman in which year?
a) 1925
b) 1928
c) 1932
d) 1945

Answer: c
Explanation: This unit hydrograph principle was expressed by Sherman in
1932; he introduced the theory of unit hydrograph. He pointed out that all
hydrographs have same time resulting from rainfalls of the given duration.
15.Hydrographs of similar rainfalls will be similar in shape.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Explanation: Hydrographs of various rainfalls will be similar in shape. The
ordinates are proportional to the runoff volumes within a fixed duration and
similar rate and a real distribution of rainfall. However, the occurrence of
identical rainfall is very rare.
16What is unit hydrograph helpful in?
a) Estimating runoff from a basin
b) Estimating no of days of rain fall
c) Knowing the draught months in a year
d) In deciding the land for hydel power plant
View Answer

17.What is the theoretical number of unit hydrographs for given basin?

a) 500
b) 2900
c) 36000
d) infinite
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

Answer: d
Explanation: The number of unit hydrographs for a given basin is
theoretically infinite. This is because there may be one unit hydrograph for
possible duration of rainfall and every possible distribution pattern of rainfall
in the basin.
18.Above which range should be the unit hydrographs be used?
a) Around 5000 sq km
b) Over 2500 sq km
c) Around 4000 sq km
d) Below 5000 sq km

Answer: a
Explanation: In practice, only a limited number of unit hydrographs are used
for a given basin. It is also common practice to neglect the variations in
rainfall distribution within the basin area. Hence it is not advisable to use
unit hydrograph method for basins over 5000 sq km.
19.The unit hydrographs can be successfully applied to basin areas of what
sq km?
a) 15000 sq km
b) 10000 sq km
c) 3000 sq km
d) 25000 sq km

Answer: d
Explanation: The unit hydrographs can be applied successfully to basin areas
as large as 25000 sq km. provided distribution patterns are classified into
different types and unit hydrographs are developed for each type it is always
preferable to divide the large basin into sub-areas, utilize hydrographs for
each sub area independently and combine the resulting hydrographs together.
20.The magnitude of runoff as ordinates against the corresponding
percentage of time as abscissa gives ________
a) Mass duration curve
b) Load duration curve
c) Power duration curve
d) Flow duration curve

Answer: d
Explanation: The magnitude of runoff as ordinates against the corresponding
percentage of time as abscissa gives Flow duration curve. If the magnitude
on the ordinate is the potential power contained in the stream flow, then the
curve is known as power duration curve.
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

21.What is DWF?
a) Deep water flow
b) Dry weather flow
c) Drawing web format
d) Dam water flood
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Dry weather flow is a waste water flow in a sewer system
during dry weathers with minimum filtration process while entering the
ground. Insufficient flow velocities during DWF can increase retention.
22.What does CN stands for in hydrology?
a) Cyanide
b) Channel number
c) Cumulonimbus
d) Carbon nano-tube

Answer: c
Explanation: Cumulonimbus, from the Latin cumulus and nimbus, is a
dense, towering vertical cloud associated with thunderstorms and
atmospheric instability, forming from water vapor carried by powerful
upward air currents.
23.What does ADF stand for in hydrology?
a) Automatic direction finder
b) Average daily flow
c) Average duration flow
d) Annual dry flow

Answer: b
Explanation: The daily effluent flow is required to calculate the area of
septic field or the length of trench requires. It is also referred as the amount
of water let out of a reservoir on the daily basis as per the requirement and
demand.
24.Rainfall is also known as ___________
a) Precipitation
b) Condensation
c) Infiltration
d) Down pour
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The rainfall is also known as precipitation, is a natural process
of atmospheric vapor into water. Atmospheric vapor are nothing but clouds
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

which are contamination of air and water. When the temperature goes below
dew point then precipitation takes place.
25.In which of the following season is evaporation loss from free water is
large?
a) Winter
b) Spring
c) Autumn
d) Summer

Answer: d
Explanation: During summer, the evaporation loss from free water surface is
considerably large and this evaporated water finds room in the air mass. The
water holding capacity of air in the form of vapor is also considerably large
in hot weather.
26.Rate of rainfall is expressed in _____________
a) Centimeters
b) Millimeters
c) Meters
d) Kilometers

Answer: a
Explanation: The rate of rainfall is expressed in centimeters of water during
a given period of time. One centimeter rainfall is the quantity of water
collected on a certain area due to rainfall which becomes one centimeter in
height.
27.Average annual rainfall ranging to dessert to hilly regions would be
________________
a) 1100cm
b) 2500cm
c) 845cm
d) 500cm

Answer: a
Explanation: The rainfall varies widely from one part of the world to
another, ranging from desert regions to the hilly regions where the average
annual rainfall may be over 1100cm. in some regions, the seasonal variation
is very slight and monthly rainfalls are relatively uniform.
28.The annual rainfall at any given station varies from _________
a) month to month
b) weekly basis
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

c) year to Year
d) quarterly

Answer: c
Explanation: The annual rainfall at any given station varies irregularly from
year to year. The range of this variation marks the reliability of the rainfall
and has great importance in the design of storage reservoirs.
29.Intensity of rainfall is measured by___________
a) Continuously recording gauge
b) Anemometer
c) Hydrometer
d) Seismometer

Answer: a
Explanation: The intensity of rainfall is expressed as an amount of
precipitation in a stead period. During heavy rainstorm the intensity of
rainfall varies widely from minute to minute and can be measured only with
a continuously recording gauge.
30.The relation between the area of rainstorm and its average intensity is
used in assessing _________
a) Amount of water
b) Amount of rain
c) Amount of wind
d) Amount of duration of rain

Answer: b
Explanation: The relation between the area of rainstorm and its average
intensity is used in assessing the amount of rain which may be expected to
fall upon a catchment area within a given period. The intensity of rainfall is
equally important in the design of spillways during heavy rain periods.
31.The intensity of rainfall is given by ______
a) I = R/(T+C)
b) I = R/(T×C)
c) I = (T×C)/R
d) I = (T+R)/C

Answer: a
Explanation: The intensity of rainfall is given by,
I = R/(T+C)Where, I = intensity in inches/hr.
T = Duration of rain storm in hours
R & C = these are constants quoted by different authorities for different
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

areas of world.
The intensity also depends on the area selected for the measurement.
32.In what way are all the precipitations measured?
a) Vertical depth
b) Horizontal area
c) Width of area
d) At slope

Answer: a
Explanation: All forms of precipitation are measured on the basis of vertical
depth of water which would accumulate on the level surface if all the
precipitation remained where it fell. The rainfall is usually measured with
rain gauges.
33.How many types of rain gauges are there?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5

Answer: a
Explanation: There are two types of rain gauges. They are Non-recording
type and recording type. Non-recording type do not record the depth of
rainfall but only collect the amount of rainfall and recording type records the
depth of rainfall in mm or cm.
34.Movement and filtering of fluid from porous material is called as
__________
a) Percolation
b) Infiltration
c) Transpiration
d) Precipitation
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Percolation refers to movement and filtering of fluid from
porous material. Usually the water which falls on the ground is filtered into
the earth surface and is stored under the surface of earth. And this water also
improves the ground fertility.
35.Where are funnel and receiver in Non-recording type placed?
a) Inside a Metal case
b) On top of the equipment
c) Below the base of equipment
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

d) In between the metal case

View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The non-recording gauge usually consists of a standard funnel
discharging into a receiver large enough to hold the maximum possible day’s
rainfall. The funnel and receiver are placed in a metal casing with suitable
packing.
36.The base of the non-recording type rainfall is permanently fixed in the
concrete block.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Explanation: The base of the gauge is permanently fixed into a concrete
block at a site where rainfall is to be measured. The precaution is taken
during fixing, to level perfectly. The gauge is fixed in the block in such a
way that the top of the gauge will be 30 cm above the natural surface level.
37.Which gauge gives the permanent record of rainfall?
a) Recording gauge
b) Non-recoding gauge
c) Copper daily gauge
d) Plastic gauge

Answer: a
Explanation: These are rain gauges which can give a permanent, automatic
rainfall record in the form of a pen mounted on a clock driven chart. From
the chart intensity or rate of rainfall in cm per hour. The recording is done by
an attached siphon.
38.The drum situated in recording type makes one rotation for how many
hours?
a) 4 hours
b) 24 hours
c) 6 hours
d) 12 hours

Answer: b
Explanation: The rotating drum is kept rotating continuously with the help of
electric motor. The drum makes generally one rotation during 24 hours. On
the rotating drum the graph paper is placed throughout its rotation the
recording is made.
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

39.Cusec is___________
a) A unit of flow equal to one cubic feet per sec
b) A unit of flow equal to one centimeter cube per sec
c) A unit of flow equal to one meter per sec
d) A unit of flow equal to one cubic foot per sec

Answer: a
Explanation: Cusec is a unit of flow especially water which is equal to one
cubic feet per sec. And there is also use of Cumec which is one cubic meter
per second. One cubic feet per second is equal to 28.317 liters per second.
40.Find the power available if overall efficiency of plant is 80%, flow rate is
4.42cumecs and head 400m?
a) 6.52MW
b) 8.18MW
c) 11.255MW
d) 13.875MW

Answer: d
Explanation: Power available:
P = wQHno X 10-3 KW
= 9810 X 4.42 X 400 X 0.8 X 10-6 MW
P = 13.875MW.
41.What would be the pondage factor for if hydropower plant is used for 10
hours?
a) P.F = 2.4
b) P.F = 1.2
c) P.F = 20
d) P.F = 0.4166

Answer: a
Explanation: Pondage factor = T1/T2 = (Total number of hours in one
day)/(Total number of hours plant is running)
P.F = 24/10 = 2.4.
42.Determine the capacity of hydro power plant to be used 10 hours peaking
plant assuming daily flow in a river to be constant at 20m3/s. and overall
efficiency is 80%?
a) 1.8835 MW
b) 5.5 MW
c) 3.25 MW
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

d) 1.0 MW

Answer: a
Explanation: Capacity of plant:
P = wQHno X 10-3 KW
P = 9810 X 20 X 12 X 0.80 X 10-6
= 1.8835 MW.
43.Determine the flow rate of water, if the catchment area of hydroelectric
power is 2500 km2, with an average rainfall of 160cm. the percolation and
evaporation losses account for 19%?
a) 9639.8 M3/s
b) 42.8 M3/s
c) 859.63 M3/s
d) 2342 M3/s

Answer: a
Explanation: Amount of water available for power generation,
Qa = A X H X (1-y)
= 2500 X 106 X 160/100 (1-0.19)
= 3.04 X 1011m3
Flow rate of water,
Q = Qa/(365 X 24 X 60 X 60)
= (3.04 X 10-6)/(365 X 24 X 60 X 60) = 9639.8 M3/s.
44.Determine the power developed, IF given data is H = 150m, ng = 0.91,
nt = 0.86 and Q is 9639.8?
a) 74MW
b) 75MW
c) 76MW
d) 78MW

Answer: a
Explanation: Power developed = wQHno X 10-3 KW
= 9810 X 9639.8 X 0.86 X 0.91 X 10-6 MW
= 74 MW.
45.Determine the pondage factor if the plant is working at peak time of 16
hrs?
a) 1.5
b) 0.75
c) 2.5
d) 0.3
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

Answer: a
Explanation: Pondage factor = T1/T2 = (Total number of hours in one
day)/(Total number of hours plant is running)
P.F = 24/16 = 1.5.
Find out the total flow volume in day sec meter for the average daily stream
flow for 7 days?

Days Mean daily flow

1 100

2 300

3 200

4 120

5 50

6 30

7 20

820 day sec meter

b) 95 day sec meter
c) 200 day sec meter
d) 524 day sec meter

Answer: a
Explanation: Total flow volume for 7 days:
= 24 X 3600 X (100+300+200+120+50+30+20)
= 70848 X 103 m3
= 70.848 million m3
= 70848 X 103/86400
= 820 day sec meter.
46.Determine the pondage factor if the plant is working at time of 8 hrs?
a) 2.5
b) 3.8
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

c) 1
d) 3

Answer: d
Explanation: Pondage factor = T1/T2
= (Total number of hours in one day)/(Total number of hours plant is
running)
P.F = 24/8 = 3.
What AEP stand for in hydrology?
a) Annual exceedance probability
b) Annual energy production
c) Annual exceedance period
d) Automatic engagement panel

Answer: a
Explanation: Annual exceedance probability refers to the probability of a
flood event occurring in any year. The probability is expressed as a
percentage. The probability that a given rainfall total accumulated over a
given duration will be exceeded in any one year.
47.What is the volume of rainfall in day sec-meters if 6.5cm rainfall occurs
over an area of 2400 sq.km?
a) 1805.56 day sec meter
b) 1225 day sec meter
c) 895 day sec meter
d) 1555.22 day sec meter

Answer: a
Explanation: Total rainfall

48.A lake behind a dam has a capacity of 30000km2-m approximately. For

how many days would this water supply be sufficient to a city of
106 populations if daily requirement per person is 500 liters?
a) 60,000 days
b) 950 days
c) 25000 days
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

d) 8000 days

Answer: a
Explanation: Per day requirement: 500 X 103 liter = 500 X 103 m3
Available water in the dam = 30000 X 106 m3
No of days water supplied = 30000 X 106/500 X 103 = 60000 days.
49.Determine the capacity of hydro power plant to be used 8 hours peaking
plant assuming daily flow in a river to be constant at 65m3/s. and overall
efficiency is 80% and head 12m?
a) 6.1214 MW
b) 5.5 MW
c) 31.25 MW
d) 22.0 MW

Answer: a
Explanation: Capacity of plant:
P = wQHno X 10-3 KW
P = 9810 X 65 X 12 X 0.80 X 10-6
= 6.1214MW.
50.A hydel plant is supplied from a reservoir of 5 X 106 m3 capacity at a
head of 75m. Determine the number of electrical units produced (KWh)
during the year if the load factor is 0.6 and overall efficiency of generation is
72%?
a) 441.45MWh
b) 300.22MWh
c) 235MWh
d) 182MWh

Answer: a
Explanation: The power capacity of plant in KW is given as
P = mgH/1000 X n{overall}
= (5 X 106 X 1000 X 9.81 X 75 X 0.72) / (365 X 24 X 3600 X 1000)
= 83.99Kw
Energy produced in kWh = P X Load factor X (365 X 24)
= 83.99 X 0.6 X 365 X 24
= 4441451.44kwh
= 441.45 Mwh.
51.The graph of the cumulative values of water quantity against time is
known as __________
a) Flow curve
b) Power curve
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

c) Mass curve
d) Load curve

Answer: c
52.Explanation: The graph of the cumulative values of water quantity against
time is known as mass curve. A mass curve of the hydrograph which
expresses the area under the hydrograph from one time to another.
Water gets polluted by submerged vegetation mineral.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Explanation: Water gets polluted by submerged vegetation mineral deposits,
presence of algae, Leaves, twigs, logs under water decay and generates bad
smelling gases. Thermal stratification and depletion of oxygen in lower
strata generate harmful gases such CO2 which pollute the water.
53.Water containing H2S, CO2 and CH2 are less corrosive to dam structure.
a) True
b) False

Answer: b
Explanation: Water containing H2S, CO2 and CH2 are highly corrosive to
dam structure. H2SO4 formed by oxidation of H2S attack the cement and
disintegrate the concrete. These gases increase the solubility of soil and
rocks. Structures, metallic piping and penstock are also affected.
54.Presence of Corrosive gases like H2S and SO2 affect the voltage drop.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Explanation: Presence of Corrosive gases like H2S and SO2 does affect the
voltage drop at brush contacts in generator leading to poor commutation.
Silver contacts of relays get blackened and lead to high contact resistance
and failure of relay occurs.
55.Which among the following reduces the capacity of reservoir and causes
rapid erosion of turbine blades?
a) Contamination of highly corrosive material
b) Sedimentation effect
c) Submerged vegetation
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

d) Solid contamination

Answer: b
Explanation: Sediments in the aquatic ecosystem are analogous to soil in the
terrestrial ecosystem as they are the source of substrate nutrients, and micro-
and macro flora and -fauna that are the basis of support to living aquatic
resources.
56.What is the basic requirement of hydroelectric power station?
a) Reservoir
b) Turbine
c) Power house
d) Penstock

Answer: a
Explanation: The basic requirement of a hydroelectric power station is a
reservoir where large quantity of water is stored during flood season and
used during dry season. The reservoir is generally built of constructing dam
across river.
57.The water from is drawn by the __________
a) Canal
b) Hose
c) Stream
d) Penstock

Answer: a
Explanation: The water from reservoir is drawn by the fore bay through an
open canal or tunnel. The water from fore bay is supplied to water turbine
through penstock which is located at much lower level than the height of
water in reservoir.
58.What is used to prevent the entry of debris into turbine?
a)Wiper
b)Forebay
c)Trashrack
d)Filter

Answer: c
Explanation: Trash rack is used to prevent the entry of debris which might
damage the Wicket gate and turbine. It is a wooden or metal structure and is
supported by masonry, that prevents waterborne debris from entering into
penstock which than connects to turbine.
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

59.A pipe between surge tank and prime mover is known as?
a) Canal
b) Draft tube
c) Penstock
d) Hose

Answer: c
Explanation: A pipe between the surge tank and prime mover is known as
penstock. It is made of steel through reinforced concrete. Cast iron is used
for small plants. The intake of penstock at the dam or fore bay of canal
should be positioned such that it always provides adequate water even at low
level.
60.Which type of penstock is used in cold climates?
a) Buried penstock
b) Covered penstock
c) Open penstock
d) Exposed penstock

Answer: a
Explanation: Buried penstocks are used in cold climates where freezing is
expected. types of penstocks have shorter life period. A buried penstock will
not be subjected to the problem of harmonic vibrations sometimes associated
with the traditional penstock.
61.Which type of penstocks is less expensive?
a) Buried penstock
b) Covered penstock
c) Open penstock
d) Exposed penstock

Answer: d
Explanation: Exposed penstocks are less expensive and have a longer life.
Their inspection and maintenance is easier. Penstocks are not covered
because exposed pipes are easily accessible. The water flow rate is 2, 4, and
7 m/s in low, medium and high head power plants respectively.
62.A safety valve for a dam to discharge major floods is called?
a) Spillway
b) Penstock
c) Fore bay
d) Canal
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

Answer: a
Explanation: Spillway is a safety valve for a dam to discharge major floods
without damage to dam. It keeps the reservoir level below some
predetermined maximum level. Spillway ensures that water does not
overflow and damage or destroy the dam.
63.What is introduced between the dam and power house?
a) Penstock
b) Draft tube
c) Prime mover
d) Surge tank

Answer: d
Explanation: Surge tank is introduced between the dam and power house
nearest to the power house and preferably on the high ground to reduce the
height of tower to provide better regulation of water pressure in the system
during variable load condition.
64.What type of Hydro plant is it if the Plant head is above 100m?
a) High head hydro-plant
b) Medium head hydro-plant
c) Low head hydro-plant
d) Base load hydro-plant

Answer: a
Explanation: If the head of water available is above 100m, the plant is
known as a high head plant. IN this head, water available for producing
electricity is very high and it can extend to 1000 meters. These are most
commonly constructed hydro plants.
65.Which type of hydro plant is it if the head of a hydro plant is 30 – 100m?
a) High head hydro-plant
b) Medium head hydro-plant
c) Low head hydro-plant
d) Base load hydro-plant

Answer: b
Explanation: If the water available is more than 30m but less than 100m,
than this type of plant is known as medium head plant. Water stored in fore
bay is conveyed to the turbine through penstocks. In these plants the river
water is tapped off to a fore bay on one bank of rive.
66.Low head hydro plant is also known as ____________
a) Canal power plant
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

b) Medium head hydro-plant

c) Run-off river hydro-plant
d) Base load hydro plant

Answer: a
Explanation: Low head hydro electric power plant is also known as canal
power plant. The dam in this type of power plant is of very small head may
be even few meters only. The low head type of power plants cannot store
water.
67.Which plants supply the peak load for the base power plants?
a) Mini hydel plants
b) Pump storage power plants
c) Low head plants
d) Run-off river power plants

Answer: b
Explanation: Pumped storage plants supply the peak load for the base power
plants and pump all or a portion of their own water supply. The plant
contains a tail water pond and a head water pond connected by a penstock.
68.Which plants are used with steam and IC engines?
a) Pumped storage plants
b) Mini hydel plants
c) Low head Hydel plant
d) Run-off river plants

Answer: a
Explanation: Pumped storage plants can be used with hydro, steam and IC
engines. The generating pumping unit is at the lower end. During off peak
hours some of the surplus electric energy generated by the base plant is
utilized to pump water from tail water pond into the head water pond.
69.Which type of turbines does modern hydro power plant use?
a) Kaplan turbine
b) Francis turbine
c) Pelton wheel
d) Cross flow turbine

Answer: b
Explanation: Modern power plants use Francis turbine. Francis turbine is a
water turbine developed by James Francis. It is an inward flow reaction
turbine that combines radial and axial flow concepts. These are primarily
used for electric production.
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

70.Which type of hydro power plant can be with or without pondage?

a) Mini hydel plants
b) Pump storage power plants
c) Low head plants
d) Run-off river power plants

Answer: d
Explanation: Run-off river power plants can be with or without pondage. A
runoff river plant without pondage has no control over river flow and uses
water as it comes. The runoff river plant with pondage may supply base load
power.
71The surge tank controls the water when the load on the turbine is
________
a) Equal
b) Decreased
c) Increased
d) Not present

Answer: b
Explanation: The surge tank controls the water when the load on the turbine
decreases. The excess water is stored in the surge tank and hence the
pressure variations in the penstock are taken care of preventing water
hammer.
72.Which type of valves is preferred for moderate heads?
a) Butterfly valve
b) Tube valve
c) Needle vale
d) Globe valve

Answer: a
Explanation: For moderate heads butterfly valves are preferred. Gate valves
are used to regulate the flow. This valve is used both as intake gate and as
turbine valve. It helps inspection without dewatering the penstock line.
73.Which type of gate valves are used in high head installations?
a) Needle valves
b) Butterfly valves
c) Globe valve
d) Pinch valve

Answer: a
Explanation: Needle valves are used in high head installations. The needle
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

valve consists of three water filled chambers A, B and C in which hydraulic

pressures can be varied. The valves are opened and closed by varying the
pressures in these chambers.

74.Why has nuclear energy become an inevitable option for the development
of the country?
a) Because less pollution caused by nuclear plant
b) High efficiency of nuclear energy
c) Due to acute shortage of other sources of energy
d) High cost of energy production of other sources

Answer: c
Explanation: With the acute shortage of other sources of energy viz. fossil
based fuels and hydel sources the use of nuclear energy has become an
inevitable option for the both developed and developing country.
75.How much amount of nuclear energy burnt is equivalent to the energy
produced by 3000 tonnes of coal?
a) 1kg
b) 5kg
c) 15kg
d) 20kg

Answer: a
Explanation: The amount of heat generated by burning one kg of nuclear fuel
is equivalent to the energy generated by burning 3000 tonnes of coal or 1600
tonnes of oil. The production of Nuclear energy is carried out by two
methods which are nuclear fission and nuclear fusion.
76.What is the most attractive part of nuclear energy?
a) Supports countries development
b) Causes no pollution
c) Has high efficiency of energy production
d) Is available in abundance

Answer: b
Explanation: Most attractive part of nuclear energy is that it has no
combustion products and under safe working conditions contributes no
pollutant to air. Site selection is completely independent of geographical
area.
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

77.Nucleus consists of two sub-particles known as?

a) Nucleotides
b) Nucleons
c) Neutrons
d) Nucleosides

Answer: b
Explanation: Atom consists of a relatively heavy, positively charged nucleus
and a number of much lighter negatively charged electrons. Electrons exist
in various orbits around the nucleus. The nucleus consists of two sub-
particles known as nucleons.
76.The atom as a whole is electrically charged.
a) True
b) False

Answer: b
Explanation: The atom as a whole is not electrically charged it is actually
electrically neutral in its state. The electric charge on the proton is equal in
magnitude but opposite in sign to that of electron, the number of protons is
equal to the number of electrons in the orbit.
77.On which law is the nuclear energy explained?
a) Einstein’s law
b) Newton’s law
c) Rutherford law
d) Mendeleev law

Answer: a
Explanation: The nuclear energy is explained the basis of Einstein’s law, one
atom may be transformed into another by losing or acquiring some of the
above sub-particles. This results in mass change Δm and enormous amount
of energy is released (or absorbed). According to Einstein’s law,
ΔE = Δmc2
Where, c=light of speed.
78.Identify the element by its Atomic structure.

a) Helium
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

b) Hydrogen
c) Carbon
d) Oxygen

Answer: b
Explanation:

Most of the mass of the atom is in nucleus. The red dot is a proton it has
positive charge of 1 unit, and black one is an electron, which has a negative
charge of -1. There is only one orbital for hydrogen.
78.Identify the element by its atomic structure?

a) Hydrogen
b) Helium
c) Carbon
d) Oxygen

Answer: b
Explanation:

The masses of three atomic sub-particles are,

Neutron mass, mn = 1.008665 amu
Proton mass, mp = 1.007277 amu
Electron mass, me = 0.0005486 amu.
79.Number of protons in the nucleus is called ___________
a) Atomic number
b) Mass number
c) Electric charge
d) Periodic number

Answer: a
Explanation: Number of protons in the nucleus is called atomic number Z. it
is unique for each chemical element, and represents both the number of
positive charges on the central massive nucleus of the atom and the number
of electrons in orbits around the nucleus.
80.The total number of nucleons in the nucleus is called _________
a) Atomic number
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

b) Mass number
c) Electric charge
d) Periodic number

Answer: b
Explanation: The total number of nucleons in the nucleus is called the mass
number A. Nuclear symbols are written as zXA Where X is chemical symbol.
The masses of atoms are compared on a scale in which an isotope of 6C12 has
a mass of exactly 12.
81.To disrupt a nucleus and separate in into its component nucleons, energy
must be supplied from outside and this energy is called?
a) Bonding energy
b) Kinetic energy
c) Binding energy
d) Nuclear energy

Answer: c
Explanation: To disrupt a nucleus and separate in into its component
nucleons, energy must be supplied from outside and this energy is called
Binding energy. The nuclear force acts only when the nucleons are very
close to each other and binds them into compact stable structure.
82.The net neutrons produced per initial neutron accounting for all possible
losses is called?
a) Bombardment
b) Half life
c) Multiplication factors
d) Covalent bond

Answer: c
Explanation: The net neutrons produced per initial neutron accounting for all
possible losses is called multiplication factor (K). If: K < 1 = system is
subcritical.
K = 1 = System is critical.
K > 1 = system is super critical.
83.What is the time during which one half of a number of radioactive species
decays or one half of their activity ceases?
a) Half Life
b) Super critical state
c) Semi life
d) Critical life
View Answer
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

Answer: a
Explanation: Half life is the time during which one half of a number of
radioactive species decays or one half of their activity ceases. It is also used
to characterize any type of exponential and Non-exponential decay.
84.Electrons that orbit outermost shell of an atom are called?
a) Valence electrons
b) Electrons
c) Electron Coefficients
d) Neutrons

Answer: a
Explanation: Electrons that orbit outermost shell of an atom are called
Valence electrons. The outermost shell is called valence shell. The presence
of valence electron can determine the element’s chemical properties.
85.A covalent bond is also called as ____________
a) Atomic bond
b) Metal bond
c) Molecular bond
d) Metal bond

Answer: c
Explanation: A covalent bond is also called as molecular bond, which
involves sharing of electron pairs between atoms. These electron pairs are
known as shared pairs or bonding pairs, when these share an electron than it
is called as covalent bonding.

86.In which of the following process are Neutrons emitted?

a) Inverse beta Decay
b) Nuclear fission
c) Spontaneous Fission
d) Nuclear fusion

Answer: b
Explanation: Nuclear fission is the process in which a heavy nucleus is split
into two or more lighter nuclei. This result in decrease in mass and
consequent exothermic energy and emission of neutrons take place. Two to
three neutrons are emitted per nucleuses which are known as fission
elements.
87.Heavy nuclei must be such that they can be fissioned by neutrons of an
energy such substance are called?
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a) Fission fragments
b) Fission Neutrons
c) Fission species
d) Fission elements

Answer: c
Explanation: Heavy nuclei must be such that they can be fissioned by
neutrons of energy such substance are called Fission species. All fission
species should have long half lives so that the rate of decay is not so fast.
88.Why neutrons with lower energy should be capable of causing fission?
a) For faster reaction process
b) For sustained reaction process
c) For Safety purpose
d) In order to not waste the nuclear fuel

Explanation: Due to collisions with various nuclei, initial high kinetic energy
of fission neutron decreases. Thus for a sustained reaction, eve neutrons with
lower energy should be capable of causing fission. Only neutrons can result
in sustained reaction as two or three neutrons are released for each one
absorbed by fission.
89.What happens when a neutron is absorbed by a nucleus of an atom of
U235?
a) Mass number of atom increases
b) One electron is let out
c) U236 isotope is formed
d) Nucleus becomes unstable

Answer: c
Explanation: When a neutron is absorbed by a nucleus of an atom U235, a
U236 isotope is formed. This isotope is highly unstable which lasts for one
millionth of a second and splits into two equal parts releasing energy of
200MeV.
90.Who invented nuclear fission?
a) Rutherford
b) Hans Bethe
c) Otto Hahn
d) Marie Curie

Answer: c
Explanation: Nuclear fission of heavy metals was discovered by German
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

Otto Hahn on December 17, 1938 and was explained theoretically by Lise
Meitner and her nephew Otto Robert Frisch on 1939. Frisch named Frisch
names the process by analogy with biological fission of living cells.
91.Atoms of different chemical elements that have the same number of
nucleons are called as?
a) Isobars
b) Isotones
c) Isomers
d) Isotopes

Answer: a
Explanation: Atoms of different chemical elements that have the same
number of nucleons are called as isobars. The term isobar was suggested by
Alfred Walter Stewart in 1918. It is derived from Greek word ‘isos’ meaning
EQUAL and ‘baros’ meaning WEIGHT.
92Most of the energy released in fission process is in process of __________
a) Kinetic Energy
b) Thermal Energy
c) Light Energy
d) Heat Energy

Answer: a
Explanation: Most of the energy released is in the form of kinetic energy and
is absorbed by fission products. The fission products formed are fission
fragments, neutrons and electromagnetic or gamma radiation. As the
fragments collide, the kinetic energy is converted into heat energy.
93.Combining of two light nuclei of low mass to produce a heavy nucleus is
called ___________
a) Nuclear fusion
b) Nuclear fission
c) Spontaneous fission
d) Double beta decay

Answer: a
Explanation: Nuclear fusion is the process which involves fusion of two light
nuclei of low mass to produce a heavy nucleus which results in decrease of
mass and release of enormous amount of energy. All atomic bombs prefer
nuclear fission process.
94.What type of Reaction takes place in sun?
a) Nuclear fusion
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

b) Nuclear fission
c) Spontaneous fission
d) Double beta decay

Answer: a
Explanation: Nuclear fusion reaction takes place in sun as well as stars. The
process is carried by proton-proton chain. The sun starts with protons, and
through a series of steps, turns them into helium. Every second 600 million
tons of hydrogen is converted into helium. The reaction releases tremendous
amount of heat and energy.
94.How many number of nuclei of hydrogen fuse in a series of reaction
involving other particles that continually appear and disappear?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

Answer: d
Explanation: Four nuclei of hydrogen fuse in a series of reaction involving
other particles that continually appear and disappear such as He3, nitrogen,
carbon and other nuclei.
41H1 → 2He4 + 2+1e0 (Positrons)
Mass decreases to about 0.0276amu releasing 25.7MeV. The heat liberated
during this result in temperature of the order of the million degrees and
sustains the succeeding reactions.
95.Why is it necessary to accelerate positively charged nuclei to high kinetic
energies to cause fusion?
a) To overcome electrical repulsive forces
b) To result in high amount of energy in short period of time
c) To get the isobars and isotopes
d) To get a sustainable reaction

Answer: a
Explanation: To cause fusion, it is necessary to accelerate positively charged
nuclei to high kinetic energies to overcome electrical repulsive forces. This
is done by rising their temperatures to hundreds of millions of degree
resulting in plasma.
96.Fusion reactions are called __________
a) Thermonuclear
b) Thermoduric
c) Thermo Uric
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

d) Compound reactions

Answer: a
Explanation: To eradicate repulsive forces temperature of positively charged
nuclei is raised to millions of degree resulting in plasma. The plasma should
be prevented from contacting the walls of the container confined for a period
of time of the order of a second at a minimum density. Fusion reactions are
called thermonuclear because of the higher temperature requirement to
trigger and sustain the reaction.
97.Which of the following element is readily available in the ordinary water?
a) Cesium
b) Thorium
c) Deuterium
d) Astatine

Explanation: Deuterium used in fusion reaction is readily available in

ordinary water (Out of 6500 molecules). Deuterium is also known as heavy
hydrogen. The nucleus of deuterium is called as deuteron, Contains one
proton and one neutron.

98.How is tritium made from sea water?

a) By bombarding lithium
b) By bonding with carbon
c) By bombarding Beryllium
d) By reacting with oxygen

Answer: a
Explanation: Tritium is made by seawater by bombarding with lithium.
Lithium is a chemical element with Atomic number: 3 and Mass number:
6.941 u ± 0.002 u. Because of its relative nuclear instability, lithium is less
common in the solar system.
99.Which nuclear fuel is usually used in thermal nuclear reactor to create
fission?
a) U234
b) U235
c) U236
d) U237

Answer: b
Explanation: In a thermal nuclear reactor the fission induced by neutrons
using a fuel isotope U235 is one of the several isotopes used in nuclear power
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

generation. Fuel isotopes which are capable of being fissioned by thermal

neutrons are called fissile’s.
100. 90Th232 is fertile isotope produced by fission.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Explanation: 90Th232 is a fertile isotope produced by nuclear fission. 90Th has
6 naturally occurring isotopes, none of these isotopes are stable; however,
one isotope, 232Th is relatively stable, with a half life of 1.405× 1010 years,
considerably longer than the age of earth.
101.Which parts function is to reduce the energy of fast neutrons to thermal
neutrons in nuclear power plant?
a) Moderator
b) Coolant circulator
c) Control rods
d) Shielding

Answer: a
Explanation: Function of moderator is to reduce the energy of fast neutrons
to thermal neutrons. Due to high energy of fission neutrons relative to that
required to trigger another fission event their probability of interacting with
U235 is small.
102.What makes the best moderators in nuclear power plant?
a) Material with low atomic number
b) Materials with low atomic mass
c) Materials with high atomic number
d) Materials with high mass number

Answer: a
Explanation: The moderator slows down the neutrons to thermal energies by
collision with inert atoms (scattering). Speed of the neutrons is reduced
within a small number of collisions as the moderator possesses a high
scattering cross section. Materials with low atomic mass number make best
moderators.
103.Select the desirable property of a moderator?
a) Moderator should absorb neutrons but slow down the neutrons as early as
possible
b) It should have low thermal conductivity for better heat transfer
c) It shouldn’t be chemically unstable
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d) It should have low resistance to corrosion

104.What is used in nuclear reactor as a cooling method/device?

a) Coolant
b) Water jackets
c) Air cooler
d) Air vents

Answer: a
Explanation: The coolant is used and its function is to remove the heat
released by fission. The coolant should have high specific heat, high
conductivity, good chemical stability, good pumping characteristics and low
neutron absorption cross section. Coolant can either be liquid or gas.
105.Control rods are made of __________
a) Cesium
b) Cadmium
c) Tin
d) Gallium

Answer: b
Explanation: Control rods are made of cadmium or boron or Hafnium. They
have huge neutron absorption cross sections. The control rods are lowered or
raised in the reactor core. Control rods are used in control rod assemblies and
inserted into the guide fuels within a fuel element.
106.Reactor power is directly proportional to neutron density.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Explanation: Reactor power is directly proportional to neutron density,
lowering the control rods will remove neutron from the reactor core and will
decrease the power and reaction rate and raising the control rods will
increase the power and rate.
107.What types of rays are trapped by shielding?
a) Gamma rays
b) Beta rays
c) X-rays
d) IR rays
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

Answer: a
Explanation: Shielding prevents the passage of radiation to the outside of the
reactor. The primary shield prevents the leakage of neutron and gamma
radiation present in the cooling circuits due to activation of coolant as passes
through the core.
108.Shield is made of _________
a) Iron Metal enclosure
b) Concrete and water
c) Ceramics walls
d) Copper metal

Answer: b
Explanation: Shield is frequently constructed in layers or heavy and light
material like concrete and water. Shields for external circuit where only
gamma radiation may be present is made up of steel, lead, polyethylene,
concrete.
108.Which of the following part in a nuclear reactor minimizes the neutron
leakage?
a) Shield
b) Control rods
c) Reflector
d) Moderator

Answer: c
Explanation: Function of the reflector is to minimize the neutron leakage by
reflecting them back into the reactor. The material used for reflector is same
as that used for moderator. It scatters the neutrons that leak from core and
returns the neutrons back into core by reflecting them.
109.In which of the following reactor is fission caused by slow or thermal
neutrons?
a) Thermal reactor
b) Burner reactor
c) Fast reactor
d) Breeder reactor

Answer: a
Explanation: A thermal reactor is a nuclear reactor that uses slow or thermal
neutrons. Most nuclear power plants are thermal reactors and use neutron
moderator to slow neutrons until they approach the average kinetic energy of
the surrounding particles. Fission is caused by slow or thermal neutrons.
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

110.Which reactor has no moderator and its core size is less?

a) Fast reactor
b) Burner reactor
c) Thermal reactor
d) Breeder reactor

Answer: a
Explanation: A fast reactor is a category of nuclear reactor in which the
fission chain reaction is sustained by fast neutrons, as opposed to thermal
neutrons used in thermal neutron reactors. The fission process is caused by
fast neutrons and the reactor has no moderator and the core size less.
111. In which reactor is fertile material converted into initial fissile material?
a) Breeder reactor
b) Fast reactor
c) Burner reactor
d) Thermal reactor

Answer: a
Explanation: A breeder reactor is a nuclear reactor that generates more fissile
material than it consumes. In this reactor fertile material is converted into
initial fissile material. For e.g. natural uranium is the fuel, thorium is
converted into U233.
112.Which reactor produces only heat?
a) Burner reactor
b) Breeder reactor
c) Thermal reactor
d) Intermediate reactor

Answer: a
Explanation: Burner reactor is a type of reactor using U235 as fuel. Enriched
uranium is used to increase efficiency. To prolong the fission reaction, fast
neutrons are slowed down with a moderator and the rate of reaction is
adjusted by control rods which can absorb neutrons. Some neutrons react to
form plutonium, but in smaller amounts than the original uranium, and
produces only heat as a product.
113.PWR stands for ________
a) Power
b) Partially weathered rock
c) Pressurized water Reactor
d) Packaging waste regulations
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

Answer: c
Explanation: PWR stands for pressurized water reactor. A PWR power plant
consists of two loops in series. One is the coolant loop called primary loop
and other is the water steam or working fluid loop. Pressurized water reactor
falls under the category of light water reactor.
114.What does the top of the pressurizer in pressurized water reactor consists
of at primary system pressure?
a) Steam
b) Air
c) Water
d) Fluids

Answer: a
Explanation: The pressurizer is a pressure vessel with a heater at the bottom
and water spray at the top. The top of the pressurizer is filled with steam at
primary system pressure. If the primary loop pressure drops, the heater is
energized to increase the steam content in the pressurizer and thus increases
the pressure of primary cooling system.
115.Select the incorrect statement which supports PWR.
a) Water is used as coolant
b) PWR is stable in operation
c) Uses natural fuel
d) PWR has positive power demand coefficient

Answer: c
Explanation: PWR uses enriched fuel making the reactor more compact in
size. And due to high negative temperature coefficient, a PWR is stable.
Water is used as the coolant. It does have positive power demand coefficient
and responds greatly to more power demand.
116.Select the incorrect statement about PWR.
a) High primary circuit pressure requires a strong pressure vessel
b) Corrosion is less in PWR
c) During fuel charging in PWR, the reactor has to be shut down at least for
a month
d) PWR results in uneven heating

Answer: b
Explanation: Presence of high temperature and high pressure water, the
corrosion is severe. This means use of stainless steel adds to further costing.
When γ- radiations pass through the pressure vessel it results in uneven
heating which induces thermal stresses on vessels.
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

117.LWR stands for _________

a) Lower water reactor
b) Line water reactor
c) Liquefied water reactor
d) Light water reactor

Answer: d
Explanation: The light water reactor is a type of thermal-neutron reactor that
uses normal water, as opposed to heavy water, as both its coolant and
neutron moderator – furthermore a solid fissile element is used as fuel. These
are most common type of Thermal-neutron reactors.

118.In which reactor is the coolant in direct contact with the heat producing
nuclear fuel?
a) Fast breeder reactor
b) Pressurized water reactor
c) Boiling water reactor
d) Heavy water reactor

Answer: c
Explanation: In boiling water reactor, the coolant is in direct contact with the
heat producing nuclear fuel and boils in the same compartment in which the
fuel is located. The reactor pressure is maintained at 70bar. The coolant thus
serves the triple function of coolant, moderato and working fluid.
119.How many types of Boiling water reactor cycles are there?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5

Answer: b
Explanation: There are three different types of BWR cycles commonly used:
Single cycle internal circulation: This system uses internal recirculation
system to generate power ranging from 50- 100 MW.
Single cycle forced circulation: This type uses a forced circulation system
using a circulation system using a circulating pump. The heat in the reactor
is used to generate steam.
Dual cycle forced circulation: this arrangement has two cycles, steam cycle
and gas cycle.
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

120.Which country invented CANDU heavy water reactor?

a) Canada
b) Germany
c) Russia
d) Bolivia

Answer: a
Explanation: The CANDU is a Canadian pressurized heavy water reactor
design used to generate electric power. Heavy water nuclear reactors and
light water nuclear reactors differ in how they create and manage the
complex physics of nuclear fission or atom-splitting which produces the
energy and heat to create steam to drive generators.
121.In which of the Following reactor is heavy hydrogen isotope H-2 is used
as moderator?
a) Boiling water reactor
b) Pressurized water reactor
c) Candu reactor
d) Thermal reactor

Answer: c
Explanation: Heavy water composed of heavy hydrogen isotope H-2 is used
as a moderator and coolant in some power and research reactors. These
reactors use heavy water as a moderator and primary coolant and light water
as secondary coolant.
122. CANDU stands for ____________
a) Canadian Natural Darmstadtium Uranium
b) Canadian Natural Deuterium Uranium
c) Canadian Natural Dubnium Uranium
d) Canadian Natural Dysprosium Uranium

Answer: b
Explanation: The CANDU, for Canada Deuterium Uranium, is a Canadian
pressurized heavy water reactor design used to generate electricity. The
acronym refers to its deuterium oxide (heavy water) moderator and its use of
(originally natural) Uranium fuel.

123.Which reactor consists of both fertile and fissile material?

a) Fast breeder reactor
b) Pressurize water reactor
c) Boiling Water reactor
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

d) Converter reactor

Answer: a
Explanation: If the reactor produces more fissionable material than it
consumes, it is fast breeder reactor. The breeder fuel consists of both fertile
and fissile material. The number of neutrons released is sufficient to
propagate the fission reaction and to produce more fissionable material by
conversion of fertile isotopes to fissile isotopes.
124.What is acronym of LMFBR?
a) Liquid molecular fast boiling reactor
b) Liquid metal fast breeder reactor
c) Liquefied metal fast boiling reactor
d) Liquid metal fast boiling reactor

Answer: b
Explanation: LMFBR stands for Liquid metal fast breeder reactor. The fuel
consists of 80% by weight of UO2 by weight of PuO2 in small diameter
stainless steel clad tubes operating at temperature of 670oC – 700oC.
125.GCFBR stands for ____________
a) Gas conditioned fast breeder reactor
b) Gas cooled fast breeder reactor
c) Gas conditioned fast boiling reactor
d) Gas cooled fast breeder reactor

Answer: b
Explanation: The GCFBR stands for Gas cooled fast breeder reactor; it is
cooled by helium gas at 85bar. Also helium doesn’t become radioactive
under neutron bombardment AND hence secondary coolant is not needed.
126.Using Helium gas in GCFBR has many advantages.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Explanation: Using helium as coolant posses less severe metallurgical and
safety problems. Heat transfer coefficient of helium is much superior than
sodium with artificial roughening of fuel rod surfaces. Low doubling time as
compared to sodium cooled reactors.
127.Which reactor uses orthometaerhenyl and paratherphenyl as coolant and
moderator?
a) Liquid metal fast breeder reactor
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

b) Gas cooled fast breeder reactor

c) Organic substance cooled reactor
d) CANDU Heavy water reactor

Answer: c
Explanation: Organic substance cooled reactor uses enriched uranium as fuel
and a mixture of orthometaterhenyl and paratherphenyl as coolant and
moderator, and boron control rods, generating 11.4 MW capacities with an
overall efficiency of 25%.

128.Nuclear plant is located near the area where cooling water is available.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Explanation: Some of the major factors to locate a nuclear station considered
are, Availability of cooling water, transportation facilities, Distance from
load centre, safety, radioactive waste, disposal facility and foundation
requirement.
129.What is the major problem in nuclear plants?
a) Drawing out energy
b) Fusion of particles
c) Disposal of nuclear waste
d) Handling of fuel

Answer: c
Explanation: One of the major problems in the nuclear power plant is the
disposal of waste products which are highly radioactive. They emit large
quantities of γrays and these high energy γ rays destroy all living matter
through which pass.
130A 400 MW nuclear power station would produce a equivalent radium of
_____________
a) 100 tons daily
b) 1000 tons daily
c) 500 tons daily
d) 10 tons daily

Answer: a
Explanation: The radio-active products of a 400MW power station would be
equivalent to 100 tons of radium daily and the radioactive effect of this plant
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

product if exposed to atmosphere would kill all the living organisms within
the area of about 100 sq miles.
131.How are moderate active solid wastes disposed?
a) Buried underground
b) Buried under sea
c) Sent to outer space
d) Left out in streams or rivers

Answer: a
Explanation: In a nuclear fuel cycle, the solid, liquid and gaseous radioactive
wastes are produced at different stages. These radioactive wastes must be
disposed off in such a manner that there is no hazard to the human and plant
life. Moderate active solid wastes are buried in the ground.
132.Moderate liquid nuclear wastes are disposed into ___________
a) Deep pits
b) Buried underground
c) Left into rivers
d) Left into deep oceans

Answer: a
Explanation: Moderate liquid wastes after preliminary treatments are
discharged in deep pits or day well from which they sweep out into the
surrounding. Certainly liquid wastes are mixed with some kind of other
chemical in order to lower their radioactivity.
133.Which type of disposal of nuclear waste is cheapest and easiest method
of all?
a) Ground
b) Air
c) Space
d) Water

Answer: a
Explanation: This is one of the easy and cheapest methods of disposal
because soil absorbs radioactive material easily. This disposal is suitable
mostly in areas of low rainfall at points which are high above the ground
water level.

134.How are active liquids of nuclear waste disposed?

a) Stored in concrete tanks and buried underground
b) Stored in concrete tanks and buried in sea
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

c) Mixed with other chemicals and left into free atmosphere

d) They are reused and burnt away in gaseous fumes

Answer: a
Explanation: Active liquids are kept in concrete tanks and these tanks are
buried in the ground till their decay of radio activity. Many times the radio
activity increases the temperature of the liquid waste or sometimes these
liquids boil and the activity decreases with time.
135.What are the ways in which most of radio activeness is removed?
a) Infusing them with other metal
b) Neutralizing them by diluting in chemical solutions
c) Storing them
d) Segregating them into small packs

Answer: c
Explanation: Most of the radio activeness of waste is removed just by
storage. The storage problem is simplified by separating cersium and
strontium which are extremely radioactive. These are generally stored in
tanks which are buried in ground and then disposed in to the sea after 13
years of storage.
136.Can vacated coal mines be used for waste disposal.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Explanation: Yes, vacated coal mines can be used for waste disposal. The
wastes are disposed in the salt heaps provided in the mines, because salt is a
powerful absorber of radioactive emissions. It will be easy and more
economical method to dispose of liquid waste by freezing.
137.How is High Level solidified nuclear wastes (HLW) stored?
a) Concrete tanks
b) Canisters
c) Packed rock salt
d) Soil bins

Answer: b
Explanation: The solidified waste is placed in canisters that are stored in
holes formation for thousands of years. The solidified waste is placed in
canisters that are stored in holes drilled in rock salt with a spacing of 10 m to
allow efficient dissipation of energy without exceeding temperature limits of
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

either canister or salt. Each canister requires 100 m2 of salt for cooling.

138.What is the approx cost of disposing nuclear waste into sea per cubic
meter?
a) 50 rs
b) 300 rs
c) 500 rs
d) 1000 rs

Answer: b
Explanation: In many places the liquid waste is disposed off to the sea
through the pipes carried from the plant to the point of disposal. While
disposing into the sea it should be seen that the activity level should not
affect the marine life. The approximate cost of disposal by this method is
300 rs per cubic meter.
139.Absorption of radioactive element by human, affects their offspring’s.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Explanation: Absorption of neutron or radioactive element by a tissue
nucleus leads to radioactive nucleus which results change in chemical nature,
mal-functioning of cell. Due to this, cell damages leading to genetic
modification. Inhale of radioactive material through air, food and water
result radiation hazard.
140.For how many days is radioactive solid waste kept is kept under water at
6m deep for initial cooling?
a) 15 days
b) 50 days
c) 30 days
d) 100 days

Answer: d
Explanation: It is necessary to keep the radioactive solid waste first in the
water of 6m depth nearly for 100 days. It was found that after 100 days
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

cooling of radioactive waste of 28MW plant in water still has a radioactivity

equal to million grams of radium. About 50% radioactive elements disappear
during cooling.
141.What are released into biosphere from nuclear power plants?
a) Gaseous effluents
b) Waste Product
c) Smoke
d) The obtained product

Answer: a
Explanation: Under normal operation, gaseous effluents are released slowly
from the power plants into the biosphere and become diluted and dispersed
harmlessly. Releasing at slow rates gives it time to blow of slowly.
142.Tailings forms are the residues from ____________
a) Uranium
b) Thorium
c) Cadmium
d) Boron

Answer: a
Explanation: Tailings are residues from uranium mining and milling
operations. They contain low concentration of naturally occurring
radioactive materials. They are generated in large volumes and are stored at
the mine or mill sites.
143.LLW stands for ____________
a) Low Level Water
b) Low Laser width
c) Low Level Waste
d) Loss of Levels in water

Answer: c
Explanation: Low Level Waste contains less than 10 nCi per gram of
transuranium contaminants containing low but potentially hazardous
concentrations of radioactive materials. These are generated in almost all
activities involving radioactive materials, require little or no shielding.
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

UNIT NO - IV

Diesel & Gas Turbine Power Plant

1) The thermal efficiency of diesel engines is about
a) 30%
b) 15%
c) 50%
d) 70%
Answer: d
Explanation: The thermal efficiency of diesel engines is about 70%.
2) The expansion of fuel in a four stroke cycle diesel engine
a) starts at 15° after top dead centre and ends at 30° before bottom dead centre
b) starts at top dead centre and ends at 30° after top dead centre
c) may start and end anywhere
d) starts at 15° before top dead centre and ends at 30° after top dead centre
Answer: a
Explanation: The expansion of fuel in a four stroke cycle diesel engine starts at 15° after top
dead centre and ends at 30° before bottom dead centre.
3) The brake power of a diesel engine, keeping other parameters constant, can be increased
by
a) increasing the pressure of intake air
b) decreasing the density of intake air
c) decreasing the pressure of intake air
d) increasing the temperature of intake air
Answer: a
Explanation: The brake power of a diesel engine, keeping other parameters constant, can be
increased by increasing the pressure of intake air.
4) In a four stroke cycle, the minimum temperature inside the engine cylinder occurs at the
a) end of suction stroke
b) beginning of exhaust stroke
c) beginning of suction stroke
d) end of exhaust stroke
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

Answer: c
Explanation: In a four stroke cycle, the minimum temperature inside the engine cylinder
occurs at the beginning of exhaust stroke.
5) The effective inhibitor of pre-ignition is
a) alcohol
b) lead
c) water
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: Water is the most effective inhibitor of pre-ignition.
6) If the temperature of intake air in internal combustion engine increases, then its efficiency
will a) remain same
b) increase
c) decrease
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: The efficiency of an IC Engine is inversely proportional to the temperature of
intake air.
7) The operation of forcing additional air under pressure in the engine cylinder is known as
a) Supercharging
b) Scavenging
c) Turbulence
d) Pre-ignition
Answer: a
Explanation: Supercharging is the operation of forcing additional air under pressure in the
engine cylinder.
8) The mean effective pressure obtained from engine indicator indicates the
a) maximum pressure developed
b) minimum pressure developed
c) Instantaneous pressure at any point
d) Average pressure
Answer: d
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

Explanation: The mean effective pressure indicates the average pressure on the engine
9) The probability of knocking in diesel engines is increased by
a) high self-ignition temperature
b) low volatility
c) high viscosity
d) all the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: The probability of knocking in diesel engines is increased by keeping high self-
ignition temperature, low volatility, high viscosity, etc
10) The maximum temperature in the I.C. engine cylinder is of the order of(in degree
Celsius)
a) 500-1000
b) 1000-1500
c) 1500-2000
d) 2000-2500
Answer: d
Explanation: The maximum temperature in the I.C. engine cylinder is of the order of(in
degree Celsius) is 2000-25000 degree Celsius
11) In compression ignition engines, swirl denotes a
a) Haphazard motion of the gases in the chamber
b) Rotary motion of the gases in the chamber
c) Radial motion of the gases in the chamber
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Swirl in a compression ignition engine denotes rotary motion of the gases in the
chamber.
12) Supercharging is the process of
a) Supplying the intake of an engine with air at a density greater than the density of the
surrounding atmosphere
b) Supplying compressed air to remove combustion products fully
c) Providing excess temperature to the sucked in gases
d) None of the mentioned
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

Answer: a
Explanation: Supercharging is the process of supplying the intake of an engine with air at a
density greater than the density of the surrounding atmosphere.
13) The object of supercharging the engine is
a) to increase the power output of an engine when greater power is required
b) to reduce mass of the engine per brake power
c) to reduce space occupied by the engine
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: Supercharging is done to increase the power output of an engine, to reduce mass
of the engine per brake power & to reduce space occupied by the engine.
14) The ratio of the volume of charge admitted at N.T.P. to the swept volume of the piston is
called
a) overall efficiency
b) mechanical efficiency
c) relative efficiency
d) volumetric efficiency
Answer: d
Explanation: Volumetric Efficiency is the ratio of the volume of charge admitted at N.T.P. to
the swept volume of the piston.
15) In a diesel engine, the duration between the time of injection and ignition, is known as
a) delay period
b) period of ignition
c) burning period
d) pre-ignition period
Answer: a
Explanation: In a diesel engine, the duration between the time of injection and ignition, is
known as delay period.
16) The reference fuels for knock rating of spark ignition engines would include
a) normal octane and aniline
b) iso-octane and normal hexane
c) iso-octane and alpha-methyl naphthalene
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

d) normal heptane and iso-octane

Answer: d
Explanation: The reference fuels for knock rating of spark ignition engines would include
normal heptane and iso-octane.
17) A diesel engine is __________ as compared to petrol engine, both running at rated load.
a) equally efficient
b) more efficient
c) less efficient
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: A diesel engine is more efficient as compared to petrol engine, both running at
rated load.
18) A higher compression ratio causes
a) increase in detonation
b) pre-ignition
c) an acceleration in the rate of combustion
d) any one of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: A higher compression ratio causes increased detonation, increased rate of
combustion & pre-ignition.
19) The injector nozzle of a compression ignition engine is required to inject fuel at a
sufficiently high pressure in order to
a) inject fuel at a high velocity to facilitate atomisation
b) inject fuel in a chamber of high pressure at the end of compression stroke
c) ensure that penetration is not high
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: The fuel injection is at a sufficiently higher pressure in order to inject fuel at a
high velocity to facilitate atomisation, to inject fuel in a chamber of high pressure at the end
of compression stroke & to ensure that penetration is not high.
19) The scavenging efficiency of a tour stroke cycle diesel engine is
a) between 50-85%
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b) between 95-100%
c) below 50%
d) between 85-95%
Answer: b
Explanation: The scavenging efficiency of a tour stroke cycle diesel engine is between 95-
100%.
20) If the speed of the engine is increased, the indicated power will
a) increase
b) decrease
c) remain same
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: The speed of the engine & indicated power are inter related as they are directly
proportional to each other, so if one increases, the other also increases & vice-versa
21) If the speed of the engine is increased, the indicated power will
a) increase
b) decrease
c) remain same
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: The speed of the engine & indicated power are inter related as they are directly
proportional to each other, so if one increases, the other also increases & vice-versa
22) Which of the following statement is correct?
a) Compression ratio for petrol engines varies from 6 to 10
b) Petrol engines work on Otto cycle
c) Higher compression ratio in diesel engines results in higher pressures
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: All the mentioned statements are correct.
23) Higher fuel combustion efficiency cannot be achieved by
a) preheating of fuel gases & combustion air
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

b) supplying correct amount of combustion air

c) reducing sulphur content in the fuel
d) adopting proper fuel firing technique & fuel preparation
Answer: c
Explanation: Higher fuel combustion efficiency cannot be achieved by reducing the sulphur
content in the fuel as sulphur content has nothing much to do with the combustion efficiency.
24) Choice of a gas turbine depends most on which of these factors?
a) Compression ratio
b) Cut-off ratio
c) Pressure ratio
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: The working a Brayton cycle can be estimated most effectively by pressure
ratio, so it becomes the most important factor.
25) For the same capacity engines, the compression ratio of diesel engine
a. is lower than the compression ratio of SI engine
b. is higher than the compression ratio of SI engine
c. is same as the compression ratio of SI engine
d. cannot say
ANSWER b. is higher than the compression ratio of SI engine
26) Rate of burning in the compression ignition engine can be controlled by
a. rate of injection of fuel
b. rate of air taken into carburettor
c. both a. and b.
d. none of the above
ANSWER a. rate of injection of fuel
27) For the same maximum pressure and temperature, what is the relation among the
efficiencies of the Otto cycle, the Diesel cycle and the Dual cycle?
a. ηDual >ηDiesel >ηOtto
b. ηDiesel >ηDual >ηOtto
c. ηDiesel >ηOtto >ηDual
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

d. ηOtto >ηDiesel >ηDual

ANSWER b. ηDiesel >ηDual >ηOtto
28) Air standard cycle uses ____ as a working medium.
a. Perfect gas
b. Real gas
c. Ideal gas
d. Natural gas
ANSWER a. Perfect gas
29).For perfect gas
a. cp – cv = R
b. cp + cv = R
c. cp / cv = R
d. cp X cv = R Where cp & cv are specific heats at constant pressure and volume.
ANSWER a. CP – CV = R
30) The self-ignition temperature of diesel as compared to petrol is
a. higher
b. lower
c. same
d.varies
ANSWER a. higher
31) For same compression ratio and heat input
a. Otto cycle is more efficient
b. Diesel cycle is more efficient
c. Both are equally efficient
d. None of the above
ANSWER a. Otto cycle is more efficient
32) For the same peak pressure and heat input
a. Otto cycle is more efficient
b. Diesel cycle is more efficient
c. Both are equally efficient
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

d. None of the above

ANSWER b. Diesel cycle is more efficient
33) In diesel engine, the fuel is ignited by
a. spark
b. injected fuel
c. heat resulting from compressing air that is supplied for combustion
d. igniter
ANSWER c. heat resulting from compressing air that is supplied for combustion
34) Scavenging air in diesel engine means
a. air used for combustion under pressure
b. forced air for cooling the cylinder
c. burnt air containing products of combustion
d. air used for forcing burnt gases out of the engines cylinder during the exhaust stroke
ANSWER d. air used for forcing burnt gases out of the engines cylinder during the exhaust
stroke
35) Supercharging is the process of
a. supplying the engine with air at a density greater than the density of the surrounding
atmosphere
b. providing forced cooling air
c. injecting excess fuel
d. raising the exhaust pressure
ANSWER a. supplying the engine with air at a density greater than the density of the
surrounding atmosphere
36) If the compression ratio of an engine working on Otto cycle is increased from 5 to 7 the
percentage increase in efficiency will be
a. 2%
b. 4%
c. 8%
d. 14%
ANSWER d
37) A diesel engine is usually more efficient than a spark ignition engine because
a. Diesel being a heavier hydrocarbon, release more heat per kg than gasoline
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

b. The air standard efficiency of diesel cycle is higher than the Otto cycle, at a fixed
compression ratio
c. The compression ratio of a diesel engine is higher than that of an Spark ignition engine
d. Self-ignition temperature of diesel is higher than that of gasoline.
ANSWER c. The compression ratio of a diesel engine is higher than that of an S.I engine
38) The output of a diesel engine can be increased without increasing the engine size in
following way a. injecting more fuel
b. increasing flywheel size
c. scavenging
d. supercharging
ANSWER d. supercharging
39) The air fuel ratio in petrol engines is controlled by
a. valve opening / closing
b. governing
c. carburetion
d. scavenging
ANSWER c. carburetion
40) Which of the following is not an internal combustion engine?
a. petrol engine
b. steam turbine
c. diesel engine
d. gas turbine
ANSWER b. steam turbine
41) Most high-speed compression engines operate on
a. diesel cycle
b. Otto cycle
c. dual cycle
d. Carnot cycle
ANSWER c. dual cycle
42) Which of the following medium is compressed in a diesel engine cylinder?
a. air
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

b. air and fuel

c. air and lubricating oil
d. fuel
ANSWER a. air
43) A supercharger is used to compress
a. air
b. gasoline
c. fuel oil
d. all of the above
ANSWER a. air
44) The term scavenging is generally associated with
a. 2-stroke engine
b. 4-stroke engine
c. high efficiency engine
d. diesel engine
ANSWER C. high efficiency engine
45)If the intake air temperature of Internal combustion engine increases, its efficiency will
a.increase
b.decrease
c. remains same
d unpredictable
ANSWER b. decrease
46) Gas turbines with intercooling, regeneration & reheat are more suitable for combined
cycles.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Increasing the stages in a gas turbine with combined cycles will decrease its
efficiency.
47) What is the optimum pressure ratio range for a gas turbine to obtain optimum efficiency?
a) 7-8.5
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

b) 10.5-12
c) 9.5-10
d) 10-20
Answer: b
Explanation: The optimum pressure ratio range for a gas turbine to obtain optimum
efficiency is 10.5-12.
48) What is that temperature called to which the exhaust gases of a gas turbine are cooled to?
a) Oxygen Dew point
b) Carbon dioxide Dew point
c) Nitrogen Dew point
d) Sulphuric Acid Dew point
Answer: d
Explanation: As the maximum temperature of cooling that can be reached has to be the dew
point of one of these gases, so the dew point of Sulphuric Acid [Sulphur dioxide discharge] is
chosen.
49) With an increase in the combined cycle pressure ratio, the efficiency of the bottoming
cycle?
a) increases
b) decreases
c) remains same
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: The efficiency of the bottoming cycle is inversely proportional to combined
cycle pressure ratio, so this relation.
50) The installation time for a gas turbine power plant is ______________
a) Comparatively less than thermal power plant
b) Comparatively more than thermal power plant
c) Equal to thermal power plant
d) Very much longer than thermal power plant
Answer: a
Explanation: Gas turbine power plant is comparatively simpler in construction than thermal
power plant. So, its installation time is less than a thermal power plant for same capacity.
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

51) Which of the following is not used in gas turbine power plant?
a) Compressor
b) Turbine
c) Combustion chamber
d) Condenser
Answer: d
Explanation: Natural gas itself or mixture of natural gas and air is used as working medium
in gas turbine power plant. Condenser is a device or arrangement used to condense low
pressure steam already used by turbine. There is no steam in gas turbine power plant so no
condenser is required
52) Which component of gas turbine power plant is main cause of its low efficiency?
a) Gas turbine
b) Combustion chamber
c) Compressor
d) Starting motor
Answer: c
Explanation: The overall efficiency of gas turbine is low, because a greater part of power
developed by the turbine (about 65%) is used in driving the compressor.
53) What is intercooling in gas turbine power plant?
a) Removal of heat from combustion gas between stages of turbine
b) Removal of heat from compressor between stages of compressor
c) Removal of heat from intake air
d) Removal of heat from exhaust air
Answer: b
Explanation: Intercooling means removal of heat from compressed air between low pressure
and high pressure compressor. Cooling the low pressure compressed air reduces the air
volume and improves the thermal efficiency, air rate and work ratio.
54) What is the function of regenerator?
a) Eatery compresses the exhaust gases
b) It heats the compressed air
c) It regenerates the combustible gas from exhaust gas
d) It regenerates the combustible oil from exhaust gas
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

Answer: b
Explanation: Regenerator is usually of shell and tube construction. Regenerator uses the heat
of exhaust gas to heat compressed air before it is sent to combustion chamber. This reduces
the fuel consumption and improves the cycle thermal efficiency.
55) Fuel other than natural gas i.e. solid and liquid fuels can be used in _______
a) open cycle gas turbine power plant
b) closed cycle gas turbine power plant
c) open and closed cycle gas turbine power plant
d) only natural gas is used in gas turbine power plant
Answer: b
Explanation: In closed cycle gas turbine power plant the working medium is heated
externally and the fuel is not mixed with working fluid. This ensures the use of any fuel such
as inferior type or solid type fuel.
56) Which of the following gas turbine power plant can use working medium of required
property?
a) Closed cycle gas turbine power plant
b) Open cycle gas turbine power plant
c) Open and closed cycle gas turbine power plant
d) No gas turbine power plant can use working medium of required property.
Answer: a
Explanation: A working medium with physical properties superior to those of air such as
helium and hydrogen can be used in closed cycle gas turbine power plant. This is because of
airtight construction of this plant
57) What is the air standard cycle for a Gas-Turbine called?
a) Reheat cycle
b) Rankine cycle
c) Brayton cycle
d) Diesel cycle
Answer: c
Explanation: Brayton cycle is an ideal air standard cycle for a Gas turbine, which, like
Rankine cycle, also comprises of two reversible adiabatic & two reversible isobars
58) What is the air standard cycle for a Gas-Turbine called?
a) Reheat cycle
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

b) Rankine cycle
c) Brayton cycle
d) Diesel cycle
Answer: c
Explanation: Brayton cycle is an ideal air standard cycle for a Gas turbine, which, like
Rankine cycle, also comprises of two reversible adiabatic & two reversible isobars
59) Which of the following is a type of Gas Turbine Plant?
a) Single Acting
b) Double Acting
c) Open
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: Open & Closed Gas Turbine plants are the two types.
60) A Gas Turbine is which type of combustion plant?
a) external
b) open
c) internal
d) cannot say
Answer: c
Explanation: Since for the production of power, the working fluid does some work on the
blades of the turbine, thereby producing Power. Hence, it is called an internal combustion
plant.
61) Which among these is the main component of a gas turbine plant?
a) Condenser
b) Compressor
c) Boiler
d) Both (b) & (c)
Answer: b
Explanation: The main component of a Gas turbine plant is Compressor.
62) Which type of compressor is used in a gas turbine plant?
a) Reciprocating compressor
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

b) Screw compressor
c) Multistage axial flow compressor
d) Either (a) & (b)
Answer: c
Explanation: Multistage axial flow compressor is the compressor in practical usage in a gas
turbine plant.
63) What part or % of power developed is utilised for driving the compressor?
a) 65 %
b) 70 %
c) 55 %
d) 80 %
Answer: a
Explanation: A total of 65 % of power developed in the gas turbine is used for driving the
compressor.
64) The gas turbine power plant mainly uses which among the following fuels?
a) Coal and Peat
b) Kerosene oil and diesel oil and residual oil
c) Gas oil
d) Natural gas and liquid petroleum fuel
Answer: d
Explanation: Natural gas and liquid petroleum fuel are among the two fuels used in a gas
turbine.
65) The heating value of gaseous fuels is about
a) 500 kJ/litre
b) 30 kJ/litre
c) 100 kJ/litre
d) 10 kJ/litre
Answer: b
Explanation: 30 kJ/litre is the heating value of gaseous fuels.
66) The compressor has to be started
a) Before starting the gas turbine
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

b) After starting the gas turbine

c) Simultaneously with starting of gas turbine
d) At any time during the operation
Answer: a
Explanation: Compressor has to be started before starting the gas turbine as the turbine work
is used by compressor.
67) Which of these is not a part of a Gas Turbine Plant?
a) Compressor
b) Gas Turbine
c) Combustion chamber
d) Boiler
Answer: d
Explanation: A Gas Turbine Plant has the following parts: Compressor, Gas Turbine,
Combustion chamber
68) The major field(s) of application of gas turbine is (are)
a) Aviation
b) Oil and gas industry
c) Marine propulsion
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: A Gas Turbine has applications in nearly all fields, the major ones being in the
fields of Aviation, Oil & Gas industry, Marine propulsion.
69) The following is (are) the limitation(s) of gas turbines.
a) They are not self-starting
b) Higher rotor speeds
c) Low efficiencies at part loads
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: The limitations in the functioning of a Gas Turbines are inability of self-starting,
excess rotor speeds and inability to adjust to varying loads.
70) The following method(s) can be used to improve the thermal efficiency of open cycle gas
turbine plant
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

a) Inter-cooling
b) Reheating
c) Regeneration
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: The various methods to improve the efficiency of open cycles include
intercooling the feed water from the compressor to the turbine and then employing
regeneration & reheat to just use the power of the reheated water in order to maximize the
power output
71) A gas turbine expands 4 kg/s of air from 12 bar and 900°© to 1 bar adiabatically with an
isentropic efficiency of 87%. Calculate the exhaust temperature and the power output.
Adiabatic index 1.4, cp = 1005 J/kg K
a) 641.85 K & 1 MW
b) 641.85 K & 2.135 MW
c) 660.85 K & 2.8 MW
d) None
Answer: b
Explanation: T2 = T1 (1/12)1-1/1.4 = 1173 (1/12)0.2958 = 562.48 K
Ideal temperature change = 1173 - 562.48 = 610.52 K
Actual temperature change = 87% x 610.52 = 531.15 K
Exhaust temperature = 1173 - 531.15 = 641.85 K
The steady flow energy equation states
Since it is an adiabatic process dQ = 0 so Pout = m x cp x dT = 4 x 1005 x (531.15)
Pout =2.135 x 106 W
Pout = 2.135 MW
72) A gas turbine uses the Joule cycle. The pressure ratio is 6/1. The inlet temperature to the
compressor is 10oC. The flow rate of air is 0.2 kg/s. The temperature at inlet to the turbine is
950°©. Calculate the cycle efficiency. Adiabatic index = 1.4, cp = 1.005 kJ/kg K
a) 40%
b) 80%
c) 66%
d) None
Answer: a
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

Explanation:
The cycle efficiency = 1 - (P2/P1)-0.285 = 1 - (6)-0.285 = 0.4 x 100 = 40%
73) The Rateau turbine belongs to the category of
(a) Pressure compounded turbine
(b) Reaction turbine
(c) Velocity compounded turbine
(d) Radial flow turbine
Answer: a
74) For air standard Brayton cycle, increase in the maximum temperature of the cycle, while
keeping the pressure ratio the same would result in
(a) Increase in air standard efficiency
(b) Decrease in air standard efficiency
(c) No change in air standard efficiency
(d) Increase in the efficiency but reduction in net work
Answer: a
75) In a simple gas turbine power plant operating on standard Brayton cycle power needed to
drive the compressor is 175 kW, rate of heat supplied during constant pressure heat addition
process is 675 kW. Turbine output obtained during expansion is 425 kW. What is the rate of
heat rejection during constant pressure heat rejection?
(a) 75 kW
(b) 425 kW
(c) 500 kW
(d) 925 kW
Answer: b
76) Consider the following statements:
1. Inter-cooling is effective only at lower pressure ratios and high turbine inlet temperatures.
2. There is very little gain in thermal efficiency when inter-cooling is used without the benefit
of regeneration
3. With high values of 'γ' and cp of the working fluid, the net power output of Brayton cycle
will increase.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(b) 1 and 2 are correct
(c) 1 and 3 are correct
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

(d) 2 and 3.are correct.

Answer: d
77) Consider the following statements:
1. Inter-cooling is effective only at lower pressure ratios and high turbine inlet temperatures.
2. There is very little gain in thermal efficiency when inter-cooling is used without the benefit
of regeneration
3. With high values of 'γ' and cp of the working fluid, the net power output of Brayton cycle
will increase.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(b) 1 and 2 are correct
(c) 1 and 3 are correct
(d) 2 and 3.are correct.
Answer: d
78) Consider the following statements:
When air is to be compressed to reasonably high pressure, it is usually carried out by a
multistage compressor with an intercooler between the stages because
1. Work supplied is saved.
2. Weight of compressor is reduced.
3. More uniform torque is obtained leading to the reduction in the size of flywheel.
4. Volumetric efficiency is increased. Of the four statements listed above correct is/are?
(a) 1 alone
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1 2, 3 and 4
Answer: d
79) Inter-cooling in gas turbines
(a) Decreases net output but increases thermal efficiency
(b) Increases net output but decreases thermal efficiency
(c) Decreases both net output and thermal efficiency
(d) Increases both net output and thermal efficiency
Answer: b
Anantrao Pawar College of Engineering and Research, Parvati Pune.

80) The use of regenerator in a gas turbine cycle

(a) Increases efficiency but has no effect on output
(b) Increases output but has no effect on efficiency
(c) Increases both efficiency and output
(d) Increases efficiency but decreases output IES-34.
Answer: b