07/09/2021 CODE-A

Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Phone : 011-47623456

MM : 720 INTENSIVE PROGRAM for NEET-2021 Time : 3 Hrs.

CST – 22
Complete Syllabus of NEET
Instructions:
(i) There are two sections in each subject, i.e. Section-A & Section-B. You have to attempt all 35 questions from
Section-A & only 10 questions from Section-B out of 15.
(ii) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from the total score.
Unanswered / unattempted questions will be given no marks.
(iii) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(iv) Mark should be dark and completely fill the circle.
(v) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(vi) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(vii) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material
on the Answer sheet.

PHYSICS
Choose the correct answer:
SECTION-A 1 1
 5 2  5 2
1. A nuclear fusion reaction is given by: (1) Equal to   v (2) Less than   v
 4   4 
16
4  24 He 
 8 O . If atomic mass of He is 4.0026 1
 5 2
amu and that of O is 15.9994 amu then the (3) Greater than   v (4) Can’t be predicted
 4 
Q-value of the reaction will be approximately:
(1) 5.4 MeV (2) 10.2 MeV 4. A proton and α-particle are accelerated from rest
by same potential difference V. Then the ratio of
(3) 20.4 MeV (4) 15.6 MeV
λp
2. If wavelength corresponding to 3rd line of Lyman their de Broglie wavelength is:
λα
series is λ, then the wavelength corresponding to
last line of Balmer series will be: (1) 1 (2) 2
15λ 9λ
(1) (2) (3) 2 (4) 2 2
4 8
5. Electrons with de Broglie wavelength λ fall on the
27λ 24λ
(3) (4) target in an X-ray tube. The cut-off wavelength of
16 5 the emitted X-rays is:
3. Radiation of wavelength λ is incident on a mc λ 2
photocell. The fastest emitted electron has speed (1) λ 0  λ (2) λ 0 =
2h
4λ
v. If the wavelength is changed to , the speed
5 2mc λ 2 mc λ 2
(3) λ 0 = (4) λ 0 =
of the fastest emitted electron will be: h h

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CST-22 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2021

6. Intermolecular potential energy between two 12. A force F  (2t i  4 j ) N acts on a body and
molecules depends with intermolecular distance r
position of body varies with time t as
a b 
as: U (r )  2  , where a and b are positive r  (t 2 i  2 j ) m. Work done by the force in first
r r
constants. The equilibrium distance between the 3 second is:
molecules will be: (1) 20 J (2) 36 J

a a (3) 24 J (4) 16 J
(1) (2)
2b b 13. A system of wedge and block as shown in figure
is released when the spring is in its natural
2a 4a
(3) (4) length. All surfaces are frictionless. Maximum
b b
elongation in the spring will be
7. If force (F), velocity (v) and time (T) are taken as
fundamental quantities, find the dimensions of
torque:
(1) [F v T] (2) [F0 v1 T–1]
(3) [F–1 v–1T0] (4) [F v T–1]
1
8. The moon has mass of that of the earth and
81 mg cos  2mg
(1) (2)
1 k k
radius th that of the earth. The escape speed
4
mg sin 2mg sin
from the surface of the earth is 11.2 km/s. The (3) (4)
k k
escape speed from the surface of moon is:
14. A compound microscope consists of an objective
(1) 11.2 km/s (2) 2.5 km/s lens of focal length 2 cm and an eye piece lens of
(3) 5.6 km/s (4) 1.23 km/s focal length 6 cm, separated by a distance 12
9. When the temperature of an ideal gas is cm. If final image is formed at infinity then the
distance of object from the objective lens will be
increased:
(1) 2 cm (2) 2.5 cm
(1) Its molecular potential energy increases
(3) 3 cm (4) 4.5 cm
(2) Its molecular kinetic energy increases
15. The refracting angle of a prism ‘A’ and refractive
(3) Molecular potential energy decreases and
 A
molecular kinetic energy increases index of the material of the prism is cot   . The
 2 
(4) Molecular potential energy increases and
angle of minimum deviation is:
molecular kinetic energy decreases
(1) 90° – A (2) 90° + A
10. The acceleration of a proton at a certain moment
 (3) 180° – 2A (4) 180° + 2A
moving in a magnetic field B  3iˆ  4 ˆj  5kˆ is
 16. At constant pressure, how much fraction of heat
a  2iˆ  xjˆ  kˆ . The value of x is supplied to gas is converted into mechanical
work?
(1) 1.0 (2) 1.25
(1) γ – 1
(3) 2.50 (4) 2.75
γ
11. A boat having a speed of 5 km/h in still water, (2)
γ 1
crosses a river of width 500 m in shortest
possible path in 10 minutes. The speed of river in γ −1
(3)
km/h is γ
(1) 1 (2) 2 γ
(4)
(3) 3 (4) 4 γ −1

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Intensive Program for NEET-2021 CST-22 (Code-A)

17. Linear expansion coefficient of a solid sphere is 22. A uniform magnetic field B is confined in a
2 cylindrical region as shown in the figure. If
103 per °C. If its temperature is increased by magnetic field B increases at a constant rate,
3
then the graph showing the variation of induced
30°C, then the percentage change in its moment
electric field (E) with distance (r) from the axis of
of inertia will be
cylinder is:
(1) +4% (2) –2%
(3) +3% (4) +6%
18. During an adiabatic process, the pressure of a
gas is found to be proportional to fifth power of its
absolute temperature. The value of γ for the gas
is:
(1) (2)
4 5
(1) (2)
3 4

3 7
(3) (4)
2 5
(3) (4)
19. The ratio of magnetic field at centre of circular
loop to the magnetic field at the centre of square
loop which are made by a current carrying wire of
same length will be: (Assume current is same in 23. Consider a situation shown in figure. After long
time, switch is opened. Then direction of induced
both loops)
current in closed loop will be:
2
(1)
8 2

2
(2)
4 2
(1) Clockwise
2
(3) (2) Anticlockwise
8
(3) No current will induced
2
(4) (4) Depends upon the resistance of the circuit
16
24. What is the minimum value of force required to
q slide a block of mass m on a horizontal surface
20. In a cyclotron, if for a charge particle is
m having coefficient of friction µ?
108 C/kg and angular frequency is 2×108 rad/s
mg
then applied magnetic field is: (1) µmg (2)
1  2
(1) π tesla (2) 2 tesla
mg
2  (3) 1   2 mg (4)
(3) tesla (4) tesla 1  2
 2
21. The flux of magnetic field through a closed 25. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
conducting loop of resistance 2 Ω changes with (1) Rolling friction is smaller than sliding friction
time according to the equation φ = (t2 + 6t + 4) Wb, (2) Limiting value of static friction is directly
where t is time in seconds. The induced current proportional to normal reactions
at t = 2 s is (3) Friction force opposes the relative motion
(1) 2 A (2) 4 A (4) Coefficient of sliding friction has dimensions
(3) 3 A (4) 5 A of area

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CST-22 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2021

26. The acceleration due to gravity at a height 1 km 31. Figure shows the graph of deviation δ versus
above the earth is the same as at a depth d angle of incidence for a light ray striking a prism.
below the surface of earth. The d is equal to Angle of prism is
(1) 1 km (2) 2 km
1
(3) 4 km (4) km
4
27. In a stretched string, wave equation is given by
y = 0.4 sin(100 t – 10 x), where x and y are in
meter and t is in second and linear mass density
µ = 0.1 kg/m. Then the tension in the string is
(1) 10 N (2) 20 N (1) 50° (2) 40°
(3) 30 N (4) 40 N (3) 30° (4) 10°
28. A metallic solid sphere is placed in a uniform 32. A container whose bottom has a round hole with
electric field. Which of the following path of diameter 2 mm is filled with liquid of surface
electric line of force is correct?
tension 50 × 10–3 N m–1. Consider that surface
tension acts only at hole, then the maximum
height to which the liquid can be filled in
container without leakage is:
(Density of liquid = 1.5 × 103 kg m–3)
(1) 2 cm

(1) 1 (2) 2 2
(2) cm
(3) 3 (4) 4 3

29. The resistance of a wire is R ohm. If it is melted (3) 1 cm

and redrawn to 4 times of its original length then
1
its new resistance will be: (4) cm
3
(1) 4R
33. In negative beta decay
R
(2) (1) Neutrino is emitted with positron
4
(2) Antineutrino is emitted with electron
(3) 16R
(3) Antineutrino is emitted with positron
R
(4)
16 (4) Neutrino is emitted with electron
30. In YDSE, the intensity of light at a point on the 34. The electric potential energy at a point (x, y, z) is
screen where path difference is λ is I0. The given by
intensity of light at a point where the path U = xy2 + y2z
λ 
difference is , will be: The force F at (–1, 2, –2) will be
4
(Consider intensity of light through both slit is (1) 4 i  12 j  4 
k
same and λ is wavelength of light)
(2) 9 i  4 j  3 
k
I
(1) I0 (2) 0
4 (3) 8 i  4 j  4 
k
I0 I0
(3) (4) (4) 4 i  12 j  8 
k
2 16
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Intensive Program for NEET-2021 CST-22 (Code-A)

35. Period of oscillation of the spring system shown 38. A thin semi-circular ring of radius r has a positive
in figure is charge q distributed uniformly on it. The net field

E at the centre O is

q q
(1) ( ˆj ) (2) ( ˆj )
2 0 r 2 4 0 r 2

q q
(3) ( ˆj ) (4) ( ˆj )
2 0 r 2
2
4 0 r 2
2

m m 39. A man is standing on bank of a lake. If a fish

(1) 2 (2) 2
k 6k under water, looks the man, then which of the
following option is correct?
m m
(3) 2 (4) 2
9k 2k
SECTION-B
36. In a damped oscillator, the amplitude becomes
1
times in 30 minutes. The time in which the
8
(1) The man will appear taller
amplitude becomes half is:
(2) The man will appear shorter
(1) 15 minute (2) 10 minute
(3) The man will appear as tall as he is
(3) 20 minute (4) 5 minute
(4) The man will not be visible
37. In the NaCl crystal structure, Na+ and Cl– ion are
40. An open and closed pipe have same length. The
arranged in a bcc configuration as shown in ratio of frequencies of their nth overtone is
figure but one Na+ is missing. The net
n n 1
electrostatic force exerted on the Cl– ion is (1) (2)
1 1 2n  1
 1 
 k = 4πε  2(n  1) n 1
 0  (3) (4)
2n  1 n
41. To find the thermal conductivity of a liquid, we
keep the upper part hot and lower part cool so
that
(1) Convection may be stopped
(2) Heat conduction is easier downward
(3) Radiation may be stopped
(4) Convection must occur
42. A diffraction pattern is obtained using a beam of
blue light. If the blue light is replaced by red light,
then:
ke 21 ke 2 (1) Diffraction fringe width remains unchanged
(1) (2)
2 3 2
(2) Diffraction fringe width become narrower
4 ke 2
(3) Diffraction fringe width become broader
(3) (4) Zero
3 2 (4) Diffraction pattern disappear

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CST-22 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2021

43. What will be the input P and Q for the Boolean 47. The value of power factor in the given circuit will
  
expression P.Q . P  Q  1 be:

(1) 1, 1 (2) 0, 0
(3) 1, 0 (4) 0, 1
44. The velocity of sound through a diatomic
gaseous medium of molecular weight M
(in kg/mole) at 0°C, is nearly
273 R 3R
(1) (2)
M M
382 R 473 R
(3) (4) (1) 0.6 (2) 0.4
M M
(3) 0.8 (4) 1.0
45. Find out the current through 5 Ω resistance for
given circuit: 48. At 0 K, intrinsic semiconductor behaves as:
(1) A conductor (2) An insulator
(3) A superconductor (4) Both (1) and (3)
49. A hollow sphere of volume V is floating on water
surface with half immersed in it. What should be
(1) 1 A (2) 0.5 A the minimum volume of water poured inside the
sphere so that the sphere now sinks into the
(3) 2 A (4) Zero
water?
46. Figure shows two bulbs B1 and B2, resistor R and
inductor L. As the switch S is turned on: V
(1) V (2)
3
V V
(3) (4)
2 4
50. An elastic material of young’s modulus Y is
subjected to a stress S. The elastic energy stored
per unit volume of the material is:

(1) Both B1 and B2 glow with some delay 2Y S2

(1) (2)
S2 2Y
(2) Both B1 and B2 glow immediately
(3) B1 glow immediately but B2 with some delay S2 S
(3) (4)
(4) B2 glow immediately but B1 with some delay Y 2Y 2

CHEMISTRY
SECTION-A 53. Which of the following is not a permissible
51. Number of molecules of water in 18 mL of water arrangement of electrons in an atom?
is (density of water = 1 g mL–1) 1
(1) n = 3, l = 0, m = 0, s = +
(1) 10 NA (2) 0.01 NA 2
(3) NA (4) 0.1 NA 1
(2) n = 4, l = 1, m = –2, s = +
52. 12.044 × molecules of glucose are present
1021 2
in 200 mL of its solution. The molarity of the 1
solution is (3) n = 4, l = 2, m = –1, s = –
2
(1) 0.1 M (2) 1 M 1
(4) n = 5, l = 3, m = 1, s = –
(3) 2 M (4) 0.2 M 2

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Intensive Program for NEET-2021 CST-22 (Code-A)

54. A ball of mass 66 g is moving with a speed of 63. Consider the following reaction,
100 m/s. The associated wavelength will be NaOH
Cl2 → NaCl + NaOCl + H2O
(h = 6.6 × 10–34 Js)
The equivalent mass of Cl2 in the above reaction
(1) 1 × 10–32 m (2) 6.6 × 10–32 m
is (M is the molar mass of Cl2)
(3) 1 × 10–36 m (4) 1 × 10–34 m
M M
55. Identify the incorrect match (1) (2)
4 3
Atomic number IUPAC official name
M
(1) 101 Mendelevium (3) (4) M
2
(2) 103 Lawrencium
64. In which of the following reactions, Kp = Kc?
(3) 104 Rutherfordium


(1) PCl5(g) 
 PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)
(4) 105 Seaborgium
56. Correct order of increasing metallic character is 

(2) N2O4(g) 
 2NO2(g)
(1) Si < P < Mg < Na 

(3) H2(g) + I2(g) 
 2HI(g)
(2) P < Si < Mg < Na


(4) CaCO3(s) 
 CaO(s) + CO2(g)
(3) P < Si < Na < Mg
(4) Si < P < Na < Mg 65. The solubility of Cu(OH)2 in 0.2 M aqueous
solution of NaOH is (Ksp of Cu(OH)2 = 2.2 × 10–20)
57. Lowest unoccupied molecular orbital in C2 is
(1) 5.5 × 10–19 mol/L (2) 5.5 × 10–20 mol/L
(1) π2px (2) σ2pz
(3) 1.1 × 10–19 mol/L (4) 2.2 × 10–20 mol/L
(3) π*2px (4) σ*2pz
66. Temporary hardness of water is due to the
58. Correct order of C–O bond length among CO, presence of
CO32− and CO2 is (1) MgHCO3 (2) MgCl2
(1) CO2 > CO > CO32− (2) CO > CO2 > CO32− (3) CaCl2 (4) MgSO4
67. Chemical formula of dead burnt plaster is
(3) CO32− > CO > CO2 (4) CO32− > CO2 > CO
1
59. Identify the correct relation (1) CaSO4⋅2H2O (2) CaSO4 ⋅ H2 O
2
(1) urms = 0.921 × uav (2) urms = 1.085 × uav
(3) CaSO4⋅10H2O (4) CaSO4
(3) urms = 0.617 × ump (4) uav = 0.921 × ump
68. Incorrect statement about lithium among the
60. Decreasing order of critical temperature of the following is
given gases is
(1) It imparts crimson red colour to the oxidizing
(1) O2 > N2 > NH3 flame
(2) O2 > NH3 > N2 (2) It is the strongest reducing agent
(3) NH3 > O2 > N2 (3) It mainly forms superoxides
(4) N2 > O2 > NH3 (4) Its solution in liquid ammonia is deep blue in
61. Which of the following is an incorrect option for colour
free expansion of an ideal gas under reversible 69. Total number of gaseous products obtained
adiabatic conditions? during the electrolysis of aqueous solution of
(1) q = 0 (2) w = 0 sodium salt of acetic acid is
(3) ∆T = 0 (4) ∆U > 0 (1) 2 (2) 3
62. If the internal energy change for vapourisation of (3) 4 (4) 5
water at 100°C is 37.56 kJ/mol then the enthalpy 70. Which of the following elements reacts with
change for vapourisation of water at 100°C is steam?
(1) 40.66 kJ/mol (2) 45.66 kJ/mol (1) C (2) Si
(3) 34.21 kJ/mol (4) 31.29 kJ/mol (3) Ge (4) Sn

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CST-22 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2021

71. Hydration of alkene in acidic medium is a type of 80. Consider the following statements about first
(1) Nucleophilic substitution reaction order reaction

(2) Electrophilic substitution reaction I. Time required for 99.9% completion is 10

times of t1/2.
(3) Electrophilic addition reaction
[R]0
(4) Nucleophilic addition reaction II. Slope of graph plotted between log
[R]
72. Dumas method is used for the estimation of
k
(1) C (2) Br versus t is −
2.303
(3) S (4) N III. Decomposition of N2O5 and N2O follows first
73. Benzene on reaction with Cl2 under ultra-violet order kinetics
light at 500 K, yields a compound (X). The Correct statement(s) among the following is/are
number of π bonds present in the compound (X)
(1) I only (2) I and II only
is
(3) I and III only (4) I, II and III
(1) Zero (2) 1
81. Paints is an example of
(3) 2 (4) 3
(1) Sol (2) Aerosol
74. Clean water would have BOD value of
(3) Gel (4) Foam
(1) Less than 10 ppm (2) Less than 5 ppm
82. Copper Matte contains
(3) More than 5 ppm (4) More than 10 ppm
(1) Cu2O and SO2 (2) FeS and Cu2O
75. Shortest distance between tetrahedral and
octahedral voids in ccp lattice is (3) Cu2S and Cu2O (4) Cu2S and FeS

a a 83. Correct order of H-E-H bond angle is (E is group

(1) (2) 15 element)
2 2
(1) SbH3 > AsH3 > PH3 > NH3
3a a 3
(3) (4) (2) AsH3 > SbH3 > PH3 > NH3
2 4
(3) NH3 > PH3 > AsH3 > SbH3
76. The two ions X+ and Y– have radii 50 and 200 pm
respectively. In the closed packed structure of (4) NH3 > AsH3 > PH3 > SbH3
compound XY, the coordination number of A+ is 84. Which of the following does not react with oxygen
(1) 8 (2) 6 directly?

(3) 4 (4) 3 (1) P4 (2) C

77. Highest freezing point among the following is of (3) Ca (4) Pt

(1) 0.1 m NaCl (2) 0.1 m AlCl3 85. Hydrochloric acid on reaction with sodium
sulphite gives
(3) 0.1 m urea (4) 0.1 m MgCl2
(1) SO3 (2) SO2
78. In which of the following options, the reduction
potential of hydrogen half cell will be negative? (3) S (4) H2S

(1) [H+] = 10 M and pH2 = 1 atm SECTION-B

o
(2) [H+] = 1 M and pH2 = 1 atm 86. The metal which has negative value of EM 3+
/M2+
is
(3) [H+] = 10 M and pH2 = 10 atm (1) V (2) Mn
(4) [H+] = 1 M and pH2 = 10 atm (3) Fe (4) Co
79. The amount of electricity that can deposit 6.35 g 87. Most common oxidation state shown by actinoids
of Cu from CuSO4 solution is is
(1) 1930 C (2) 19300 C (1) +1 (2) +3
(3) 38600 C (4) 3860 C (3) +4 (4) +5

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Intensive Program for NEET-2021 CST-22 (Code-A)

88. The IUPAC name of the complex [CoCl2(en)2]+ is 93.

(1) Di(ethane-1, 2-diamine)dichloridocobalt(II)
(2) Dichloridodi(ethane-1, 2-diamine)cobalt(III) The major products obtained in the above
(3) Dichloridobis(ethane-1, 2-diamine)cobalt(III) reaction are
(4) Dichloridobis(ethane-1, 2-diamine)cobalt(II)
89. According to spectrochemical series, correct (1)
order of ligand field strength among the following
is
(1) CO > CN– > en > edta4–
(2)
(2) edta4– > en > CN– > CO
(3) CO > edta4– > CN– > en
(4) CO > CN– > edta4– > en
90. Consider the following reaction, (3)

(4)

A is
94. Which of the following compounds yield
cyanohydrin most readily?
(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4)

95. The compound which on reaction with Grignard

reagent followed by hydrolysis yields carboxylic
(3) (4) acid is

91. Correct order of nucleophilicity in polar protic (1) HCHO

solvent is (2) HCN
(1) Br– > I– > Cl– (2) I– > Br– > Cl–
(3) CO2
(3) I– > Cl– > Br– (4) Cl– > Br– > I–
(4) CH3COCH3
92. Consider the following reaction sequence,

96.

Major product (B) is Major product obtained in the above reaction is

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4)
(3) (4)

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CST-22 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2021

97. Aniline on reaction with bromine water at room 98. All naturally occurring α-amino acids are optically
temperature, majorly yields active except
(1) Glycine (2) Alanine
(3) Valine (4) Lysine
(1) (2)
99. Elastomer among the following is
(1) Terylene (2) Neoprene
(3) Polystyrene (4) Bakelite
100. Phenelzine is a/an
(3) (4) (1) Antibiotic (2) Antacid
(3) Analgesic (4) Tranquilizer

BOTANY
SECTION-A 104. Ribosomes are not present in the
101. Match the following columns and select the (1) Matrix of mitochondria
correct option w.r.t. cell cycle. (2) Stroma of chloroplast
Column I Column II (3) Lumen of endoplasmic reticulum

A. G2 phase (i) Centriole duplication (4) Cytosol of the cell

105. Heterophylly due to different habitat is seen in
B. Anaphase (ii) Duplication of
semiautonomous (1) Buttercup (2) Cotton
organelles (3) Rice (4) Coriander
C. S phase (iii) Nuclear membrane 106. All of the following are the physiological effect of
starts to disappear ethylene in plants, except
(1) Breaking of dormancy of seeds and buds
D. Prophase (iv) Splitting of centromere
(2) Initiation of germination in peanut seeds
A B C D
(3) Influencing apical hook formation in dicot
(1) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) seedlings
(2) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(4) Production of chloroplast in leaves
(3) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
107. Identify the incorrect statement(s) from the
(4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii) following.
102. During pachytene, exchange of genetic material a. Cytochrome c is a mobile electron carrier
takes place between attached to the outer membrane of
(1) Sister chromatids of a chromosome mitochondria.
(2) Two non-homologous chromosomes b. NAD+ is a nucleotide source for ATP
(3) Non-sister chromatids of non-homologous synthesis in cellular respiration.
chromosomes c. Inner mitochondrial membrane is permeable
(4) Non-sister chromatids of homologous to protons at F0 protein complex.
chromosomes d. Proton gradient required for oxidative
103. Microtubules arrangement in flagella as 9 + 2 phosphorylation of ADP is obtained with the
array is not seen in use of energy of oxidation-reduction.
(1) Euglena (2) Gonyaulax (1) a and c (2) b and c
(3) Spirilla (4) Trypanosoma (3) c and d (4) a and b

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108. How many step(s) is/are there in Krebs cycle A B C D

where substrate level phosphorylation for ATP (1) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
synthesis occurs?
(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(1) Two (2) One
(3) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(3) Four (4) Three
(4) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
109. During photorespiration
114. Arrange the following steps involved in DNA
(1) CO2 binds with RuBisCO in C4 plants fingerprinting technique in correct order and
(2) ATP is used in chloroplasts in C3 plants choose the option accordingly.

(3) NADH is formed in peroxisomes in C3 plants (a) Transferring of DNA fragments to synthetic
membrane.
(4) O2 is not used in C3 plants
(b) Digestion of DNA by restriction
110. In tomato plant, the primary CO2 acceptor is
endonucleases.
(1) A four carbon acid
(c) Hybridisation using labelled VNTR probe.
(2) PEP carboxylase
(d) Separation DNA fragments by
(3) A five carbon ketose electrophoresis.
(4) A three carbon phosphoenolpyruvate (1) (c), (b), (a), (d) (2) (c), (a), (d), (b)
111. Which of the following statements is not true (3) (b), (c), (d), (a) (4) (b), (d), (a), (c)
regarding photosystem I involved in the light 115. For which of the following codons, there would be
reaction in plants? no tRNA?
(1) The reaction centre is P680 (1) 5′ UAG 3′ (2) 5′ UGG 3′
(2) It lies on the outer surface of the thylakoids (3) 5′ AUG 3′ (4) 5′ UUG 3′
(3) It is not associated with splitting of water 116. In human, which genotype of sperm when fuses
(4) It is found in both stroma and grana lamellae with normal egg results in Klinefelter's
112. In the root nodules of leguminous plants, syndrome?
nitrogenase is protected from molecular oxygen (1) (22 + Y) (2) (23 + Y)
due to presence of (3) (22 + XY) (4) (23 + X)
(1) Mo-Fe protein in the enzyme 117. ABO blood grouping in human beings is an
(2) Thick wall of cortical cells example of
(3) Mucopeptide in Rhizobium cell wall a. Incomplete dominance
(4) Pigment leghaemoglobin b. Co-dominance

113. Match the following columns and select the c. Complete dominance
correct option w.r.t. lac operon. d. Pleotropy

Column I Column II e. Multiple allelism

The correct one(s) is/are
A. z gene (i) Codes for repressor
(1) a, c and d (2) b, c and e
protein
(3) b only (4) b and e only
B. Operator (ii) Codes for
118. In angiosperms, triple fusion involves the union of
β-galactosidase
(1) Two male gametes with one polar nucleus
C. Regulator gene (iii) Site for RNA
(2) One male gamete with two fused polar nuclei
polymerase attachment
(3) Two male gametes with one egg nucleus
D. Promotor (iv) Interacts with repressor (4) One male gamete, one egg nucleus and one
protein polar nucleus

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CST-22 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2021

119. Select the incorrect match from the following. 125. The equation that describes geometric growth of
the population resulting in a J-shaped curve is
(1) Tapetum – Made up of multinucleated
haploid cells dN dN K −N
(1) =rN (2) = rN  
dt dt  K 
(2) Exine – Made up of sporopollenin
dN  N
(3) Pollen grain – Male gametophyte (3) = r 1 −  (4) N0 = Ntert
dt  K
(4) Ovule – Megasporangium 126. Which one is not a reason of deforestation?

120. Fusing gametes are morphologically distinct type (1) Conversion of forest land into lands for
in agricultural purpose

(1) Rhizopus (2) Cladophora (2) Jhum cultivation

(3) Chara (4) Synchytrium (3) Using forests for source of timber, fire wood,
121. Which one of the following is a perennial cattle ranching
monocarpic plant? (4) Conservation of wildlife
(1) Carrot (2) Henbane 127. If a host fish becomes extinct, all the parasites
(3) Grapevine (4) Neelakurinji exclusively found on it will become extinct. This
biodiversity loss is said to be due to
122. The pollutant that has maximum contribution to
total global warming is (1) Over-exploitation

(1) A nitrogen containing compound (2) Habitat loss and fragmentation

(2) An inflammable gas (3) Co-extinction

(3) A fire extinguisher (4) Alien species invasions

(4) Said to be good only in stratosphere 128. What amount of energy in the form of sunlight
should be available to producer so that the
123. Identify the following statements as true(T) and
false(F) and choose the option accordingly. secondary carnivore in the following food chain
can get 100 J energy in the form of food from its
A. Population is assemblage of groups of
prey?
different species in an area.
Grass → Grasshopper → Frog → Snake →
B. In an ecosystem, there is the exchange of
Eagle
energy and recycling of nutrients among the
biological communities and physical (1) 100000 kJ (2) 10000 kJ
environment. (3) 100000 J (4) 1000 kJ
C. Organisms, populations, communities and 129. The interaction between plants and animals can
biomes are the four basic levels of biological be
organisation.
(1) Protocooperation and competition
A B C
(2) Commensalism and parasitism
(1) T T F
(3) Amensalism and competition
(2) F T T
(4) Mutualism and predation
(3) T F T
130. Cyclosporine A is produced by the
(4) F F T
(1) Bacterium Staphylococci
124. All of the following considered as secondary
consumer in the ecosystem, except (2) Fungus Trichoderma polysporum

(1) Hydra (2) Tadpole (3) Bacterium Streptococcus thermophilus

(3) Spider (4) Lizard (4) Fungus Monascus purpureus

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Intensive Program for NEET-2021 CST-22 (Code-A)

131. Which of the following is not involved in 138. Scattered vascular bundles is a major
secondary treatment of sewage? characteristics of
(1) Growth of aerobic heterotrophic microbes (1) Dicot stem (2) Monocot stem
into flocs (3) Monocot root (4) Dicot root
(2) Digestion of bacteria and fungi by anaerobic 139. Extensions of xylem parenchyma cells into the
bacteria vessels of heartwood are known as
(3) Removal of pesticides, pathogens and heavy (1) Lenticles (2) Sclereids
metals from waste water (3) Duramen (4) Tyloses
(4) Reduction of BOD of waste water 140. Which of the following features is not true for the
members of family solanaceae?
132. Somatic hybrid pomato was obtained by the
cross between the individuals belong to the (1) Bisexual actinomorphic flowers
(2) Epipetalous stamens
(1) Same family (2) Same species
(3) Gynoecium tricarpellary and ovary trilocular
(3) Different classes (4) Different families
(4) Corolla gamopetalous with valvate
133. Parbhani Kranti is aestivation
(1) White rust resistant variety of Brassica 141. Match the following columns and select the
(2) Tobacco mosaic resistant variety of chilli correct option.

(3) Yellow mosaic resistant variety of bhindi Column I Column II

(4) Black rot resistant variety of cauliflower (Plant) (Placentation)
134. The step that belongs to the condition A. Lemon (I) Parietal
responsible for closing of stomata is
B. Mustard (II) Marginal
(1) Increase of CO2 concentration in sub-
stomatal cavity C. Pea (III) Basal
(2) Dissociation of malic acid into malate ion and D. Sunflower (IV) Axile
protons
A B C D
(3) Storage of potassium malate in vacuoles of
guard cells (1) (II) (I) (IV) (III)
(2) (IV) (III) (I) (II)
(4) Transportation of H+ out of the guard cells
(3) (II) (III) (I) (IV)
135. In plants, apoplast pathway does not include
(4) (IV) (I) (II) (III)
(1) Plasmodesmata (2) Cell wall
142. Genetic material in Mycoplasma is
(3) Intercellular space (4) Middle lamella
(1) dsDNA (2) ssDNA
SECTION-B
(3) dsRNA (4) ssRNA
136. Cycas is different from Cedrus in having
143. (i) asexually reproduce by (ii) but lack
(1) Naked seeds sexual reproduction.
(2) Archegonia in female gametophyte Select the correct option to fill in the blanks (i)
(3) Unbranched stem and (ii).
(4) Tap root system (i) (ii)
137. Both male and female gametes are non-motile in (1) Colletotrichum Zoospores
(1) Most of the bryophytes
(2) Alternaria Conidia
(2) All the members of Phaeophyceae
(3) Neurospora Conidia
(3) All angiosperms
(4) Most of the pteridophytes (4) Albugo Zoospores

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CST-22 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2021

144. The taxonomical aid that is concerned with both 147. Prokaryotic cells are different from eukaryotic
plants and animals is cells in all of the following aspects, except
(1) Herbarium (1) Plasma membrane
(2) Museum (2) Cell wall

(3) Botanical garden (3) Cytoplasmic ribosomes

(4) Packaging of DNA
(4) Flora
148. Out of the following, homosporous species is
145. The common taxonomic categories of mango
and wheat are (1) Selaginella (2) Funeria
(3) Marsilea (4) Salvinia
(1) Class and division
149. Respiratory quotient (RQ) of which of the
(2) Division and kingdom
following substrate when completely oxidised will
(3) Order and class be less than 1?
(4) Order and family (1) Oxalic acid (2) Glucose
146. To produce 800 male gametes in a typical (3) Malic acid (4) Tripalmitin
angiosperm, how many meiotic divisions are 150. One of the ex-situ conservation strategies for
required? threatened animals is
(1) 50 (2) 400 (1) Hotspot (2) Wildlife safari park
(3) 100 (4) 200 (3) National park (4) Sanctuary

ZOOLOGY
SECTION-A 154. Choose the pair of animals which are not similar
to each other pertaining to feature stated against
151. Which of the following trait is not a characteristic them
feature of animals belonging to class Reptilia?
(1) Neophron and Canis → Homeotherms
(1) Bony endoskeleton (2) Naja and Hyla → Dioecious
(2) Presence of cloaca (3) Aurelia and Pennatula → Polyp form
(3) Metanephric kidney (4) Fasciola and Chaetopleura → Bilateral
symmetry
(4) Shows viviparity
155. Common bile duct is guarded by a sphincter
152. Select the correct statement called
(1) Bioluminescence is well marked in (1) Sphincter of Boyden
coelenterates (2) Sphincter of Oddi
(2) Metagenesis is present in Hydra (3) Gastro-oesophageal sphincter
(4) Pyloric sphincter
(3) In Taenia, the sexes are separate
156. Which amongst the following teeth of humans are
(4) Comb plates help in locomotion in not diphyodont?
Ctenoplana (1) All incisor and canine teeth
153. Set of the animals which possess metamerism, (2) All premolar and molar teeth
closed circulatory system and true coelom are (3) All canine and molar teeth
(1) Limulus, Nereis (4) All premolar and 3rd molar teeth
157. Volume of air that remain in lungs after a normal
(2) Pheretima, Branchiostoma
expiration is
(3) Ascidia, Antedon (1) ERV + RV (2) FRC + IC
(4) Loligo, Culex (3) VC + RV (4) ERV + EC

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Intensive Program for NEET-2021 CST-22 (Code-A)

158. Select the mismatch. 162. Our lungs remove CO2 approximately

(1) Breathing – Process of exchange of O2 (1) 20 ml/min (2) 1200 ml/hr

from the atmosphere with (3) 288 L/day (4) 600 ml/sec
CO2 produced by the cells
163. In humans, the scapula is
(2) Alveoli and – Form the respiratory part
(1) Included in vertebral column
their ducts where exchange of gases
occur with blood (2) A bone which does not articulate with any
other bone
(3) Relaxation of – Reduces the thoracic
diaphragm volume and thereby (3) Situated in the dorsal part of the thorax
pulmonary volume in between the first and second rib
dorso-ventral axis (4) A bone which contains acromion process
(4) Total lung – Total volume of air 164. Total number of cranial bones are equal to
capacity accommodated in the lungs number of
at the end of a forced
inspiration (1) Carpals in a wrist
(2) Tarsals in an ankle
159. End of isovolumetric contraction of ventricles
lead to (3) True ribs present in ribcage
(1) Opening of AV valves (4) Girdle bones
(2) Opening of semilunar valves 165. An autoimmune disorder affecting neuromuscular
(3) Closure of AV valves junction leading to fatigue, weakening and
(4) Closure of semilunar valves paralysis of skeletal muscles is called
160. Choose the mismatch w.r.t. ECG (1) Muscular dystrophy

(1) P wave – Excitation of the atria (2) Myasthenia gravis

(3) Tetany
(2) QRS – Depolarisation of the ventricles
complex (4) Gout

(3) T wave – Return of ventricles from 166. Identify the diagram of the simple epithelium
excited state to normal state shown below and from the options given below,
(repolarisation) choose the correct type of tissue along with its
correct location in human body
(4) S-T – Elevates when heart muscles
segment receive insufficient blood supply

161. Identify the statements as true (T) or false (F)

and select the correct option.
A. An increase in body fluid volume switch off
the osmoreceptors and suppress the ADH
release.
B. Human kidneys can produce urine nearly four
times concentrated than initial filtrate formed. (1) Squamous – Present in air sacs of
C. Loop of Henle plays a significant role in epithelium lungs
creating high osmolality in medullary
(2) Cuboidal – Present in tubular part
interstitial fluid.
epithelium of nephron
A B C
(1) T T F (3) Columnar – Present in lining of
epithelium stomach
(2) F T F
(3) T F T (4) Ciliated – Present in fallopian
(4) T T T epithelium tube

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CST-22 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2021

167. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. female 174. In knee jerk reflex, the efferent neurons terminate
reproductive system of cockroach at
(1) 2 large ovaries are present laterally in 2nd to (1) Receptor
6th abdominal segments (2) White matter of spinal cord
(2) 1 pair of spermatheca is present in the 6th (3) Grey matter of spinal cord
segment of abdomen (4) Motor end plate
(3) Vagina opens into the genital chamber 175. At the base of the cochlea, the scala vestibuli
(4) Collaterial glands open into vestibulum (1) Ends at the round window
168. Select the incorrect statement (2) Ends at the oval window
(1) Cellulose is the most abundant organic (3) Opens into scala media
molecule in the biosphere (4) Contains three semi-circular canals
(2) Polysaccharides are component of cell wall 176. The gross calorific value of protein is
of plants, fungi and also of the exoskeleton of (1) 4.1 kcal/g (2) 5.65 kcal/g
arthropods (3) 9.45 kcal/g (4) 9.0 kcal/g
(3) Enzymes eventually bring down the 177. High level of which of the following hormone is
activation energy of biochemical reaction responsible for maintaining pregnancy?
(4) In starch, monomer units are not linked by (1) FSH (2) LH
glycosidic bonds (3) Inhibin (4) Progesterone
169. If an enzyme transfers a group (G) (other than 178. Match the column I with column II and choose
hydrogen) between a pair of substrate, then the the correct answer
enzyme belongs to which class?
Column I Column II
(1) Transferase (2) Isomerase
a. Tertiary follicle (i) Zona pellucida is
(3) Lyase (4) Hydrolase present
170. Complete the analogy
b. Primary follicle (ii) Primary oocyte is
PTH : Parathyroid gland :: PRL : _____ surrounded by
(1) Thyroid gland (2) Hypothalamus granulosa cells

(3) Adenohypophysis (4) Female gonads c. Corpus luteum (iii) Completion of

meiosis I
171. Choose the odd one w.r.t. adrenocorticoids
(1) Aldosterone (2) Sexcorticoids d. Graafian follicle (iv) Formed after
ovulation
(3) Angiotensin I (4) Cortisol
(1) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv) (2) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv)
172. Cretinism is associated with
(3) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i) (4) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(1) Adenohypophysis
179. Read the following statements and choose the
(2) Thyroid gland correct answer.
(3) Adrenal cortex A. In amniocentesis, some of the amniotic fluid
(4) Thymus of the developing foetus is taken to analyse
the fetal cells and dissolved substances.
173. Identify the correct statement.
B. A rapid decline in death rate, MMR, IMR as
(1) Retinal is present in all the visual well as increase in number of people in
photopigments reproducible age, are the factors which are
(2) Cornea is vascularised structure responsible for population growth in India.

(3) Vitreous chamber is present between lens (1) Both statements are correct
and cornea (2) Both statements are incorrect
(4) Pseudounipolar neurons are present in retina (3) Only statement A is correct
of human eye (4) Only statement B is correct

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Intensive Program for NEET-2021 CST-22 (Code-A)

180. Select the incorrect statement for MTP. 184. The process of elution is associated with
(1) Voluntary termination of pregnancy before full (1) Isolation of the genetic material from plant
term is called MTP cell
(2) It accounts for about 1/5th of total number of (2) Extraction of DNA fragment containing
conceived pregnancies in a year in whole
desired gene from the gel piece
world
(3) It is considered relatively safe upto end of (3) Amplification of gene of interest using PCR
second trimester (4) Formation of recombinant DNA and its
(4) Government of India legalised MTP in 1971 insertion into host cell
with some strict conditions 185. How many from the box given below, are
181. The blastomeres in the blastocyst arrange into an included in applications of Biotechnology?
outer layer called A and an inner group of
Waste treatment, GM crops for agriculture,
cells attached to 'A' called B . Choose the
Bioremediation, Therapeutics
option that correctly fill the blanks A and B.
(1) One (2) Two
A B
(3) Three (4) Four
(1) Inner cell mass Trophoblast
SECTION-B
(2) Endoderm Mesoderm
186. Indian government has set up organisations such
(3) Trophoblast Inner cell mass as a , which will make decision regarding
(4) Hypoblast Epiblast the validity of GM research

182. Palindromic nucleotide sequence for restriction Choose the option to fill the blank 'a'
enzyme, EcoRI is (1) NDRI (2) IARI
(1) 5′ GAATTC 3′ (2) 5′ CTTAAG 3′ (3) GEAC (4) EFB
(3) 5′ GGATCC 3′ (4) 5′ AAGCTT 3′ 187. Dog, bat, human and cheetah share similarities
183. Some restriction sites of cloning vector pBR322 in
are shown in given diagram. If insertion of a
(1) Curvature of vertebral column
piece of DNA occurs at Hind III then
(2) Pattern of bones of forelimbs
(3) Number of molar and premolar teeth
(4) Habit
188. The first non-cellular forms of life could have
originated about
(1) 4 billion years ago (2) 3 billion years back
(3) 2 billion years back (4) 1 billion years back
189. All living organisms that we see today were
created as such, this connotation belongs to
(1) Darwinism
(2) Lamarckism
(1) Recombinants can’t grow in ampicillin
containing medium (3) Theory of special creation
(2) Transformant can grow in tetracycline (4) Chemical theory of evolution
containing medium
190. Which of the following hominid started to dug
(3) Non-transformant can grow in ampicillin holes to bury their deads?
containing medium
(1) Cro-Magnon man (2) Homo erectus
(4) Non-recombinants can’t grow in tetracycline
containing medium (3) Homo habilis (4) Neanderthal man

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CST-22 (Code-A)
191. The side-effects of the use of anabolic steroids in
female includes all of the following except
(1) Increased aggressiveness
(2) Excessive hair growth on the face and body
(3) Breast enlargement
(4) Enlargement of clitoris
192. Read the following statements w.r.t. AIDS.
A. In HIV-infected macrophages, the viral RNA
transcribes in order to form viral DNA with the
help of enzyme, reverse transcriptase; then
the viral DNA integrates with the human
genome and finally replicates.
B. AIDS is included in congenital disease.
C. For AIDS, the time lag may vary from a few
months to many years.
Choose the correct option.
(1) Only statement A is correct
(2) Only statement B is correct
(3) Only statements B and C are correct
(4) Only statements A and C are correct
193. Spleen is included in
(1) Primary lymphoid organs
(2) Secondary lymphoid organs
(3) Physiological barrier of innate immunity
(4) Lymphoid organs which are involved in
formation of lymphocytes
194. How many infectious diseases from the box
given below, have been controlled to a large
extent by the use of vaccines?
Polio, Diptheria, Pneumonia, Tetanus
(1) One (2) Two
(3) Three (4) Four
195. Animal breeding method which allows the
desirable qualities of two different breeds to be
combined, is
(1) Inbreeding
(2) Cross-breeding
(3) Interspecific hybridisation
(4) Out-breeding
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Intensive Program for NEET-2021
196. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. blood
vascular system of cockroach.
(1) Blood vessels are poorly developed and
open into haemocoel
(2) Haemolymph contains haemocytes
(3) Visceral organs located in the haemocoel are
bathed in haemolymph
(4) Heart of cockroach consists of elongated
muscular tube lying along ventro lateral line
of thorax and abdomen
197. Normal inspiration is initiated by the contraction
of diaphragm which increases the volume of
thoracic cavity in
(1) Antero-posterior axis
(2) Dorso-ventral axis
(3) Lateral axis
(4) Both antero-posterior axis and dorso-ventral
axis
198. Choose the incorrect statement for Asthma.
(1) Characterised by wheezing sound
(2) Patient feel difficulty in breathing
(3) Inflammation of bronchi and bronchioles
(4) Alveolar walls are damaged
199. Average life span of RBCs is of
(1) 80 days
(2) 4 months
(3) 2 months
(4) 180 days
200. Read the following statements and choose the
correct answer.
A. Vena cava and pulmonary veins are included
in systemic circulation.
B. Excitation of the atria is represented by T
wave.
(1) Both statements are correct
(2) Both statements are incorrect
(3) Only statement A is correct
(4) Only statement B is correct
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Edition: 2020-21