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Name : Agola Dhaval Vasudevbhai

Enrollment No.208070592033
Sub : BECG

1. What is stand for CSR?

(A) Corporate social responsibility

(B) Company society responsibility

(C) Corporate society responsibility

(D) Company social responsibility

2. What does Milton Friedman believe to be the sole responsibility of

business?

(A) The only social responsibility of business is to its

shareholders

(B) Managers should act in ways that balance the interest

of society and shareholders

(C) The primary responsibility organizations have is to its

employees

(D) The primary responsibility organizations have is to its

stakeholders

3. is the enlightened self-interest model of CSR?

A) That it is in an organizations own best interest to put itself first rather

than its ethics

B) That it is in an organizations best interest to consider what a

shareholder would want

C) That it is in an organizations own best interest to act in an ethical


way

D) That it is in an organizations own best interest to follow the

legislation and abide by the law

4. What does the importance of ethical behaviour, integrity and trust

call into question

(A) extent to which managers should attempt to change

the underlying beliefs and values of individual followers

(B)Who does what

(c) we do next

(D)None of these

5. Which of the following would most effectively act as the primary objective of

a business organisation?

A) To make a profit

B )To procure resources

C )To communicate with shareholders

D )To mediate between the organisation and the environment

6. Which of the following does the term Corporate Social Responsibility relate to?

A Ethical conduct

B Environmental practice

C Community investment

D All of the above

7. What is Ethics to do with?

A The wider community


B Business

C Right and wrong

D Nothing

8.Which legislation relates to the concept of business ethics?

A Freedom of Information Act

B Food Act

C Building regulations

D All of these

9. A stakeholder orientation includes all of the following activities except:

A Generating Data About Stakeholder Groups

B Assessing The Firms Effects On Stakeholder Groups

C Distributing Stakeholder Information Throughout The Firm

D Minimizing The Influence Of Stakeholder Information On The Firm

10. A (n) ________ is a problem, situation, or opportunity requiring an

individual, group, or organization to choose among several actions that

must be evaluated as right or wrong.

A Crisis

B Ethical Issue

C Indictment

D Fraud

11. What type of justice exists if employees are being open, honest, and

truthful in their communications at work?

A Procedural
B Distributive

C Ethical

D Interactional

12.Better access to certain markets, differentiation of products, and the sale

of pollution-control technology are ways in which better environmental

performance can:

A Increase Revenue

B Increase Costs

C Decrease Revenue

D Decrease Costs

13.Atmospheric issues include all of the following except:

A Acid Rain

B Global Warming

C Air Pollution

D Water Quantity

14. Most companies begin the process of establishing organizational ethics

programs by developing:

A Ethics Training Programs

B Codes Of Conduct

C Ethics Enforcement Mechanisms

D Hidden Agendas

15.When a firm charges different prices to different groups of customers, it

may be accused of:


A Cultural Relativism

B Money Laundering

C Facilitating Payments

D Price Discrimination

16.Successful global initiatives addressing standards for business must begin

and end with:

A the role of corporate governance and shareholder power in

corporate decision making

B social activism

C the implementation of standardized ethics programs

D the consolidation of economic and environmental efforts

17. The social economy partnership philosophy emphasizes:

A Cooperation And Assistance

B Profit Maximization

C Competition

D Restricting Resources And Support

18.Which of the following is a problem presented by ethics audits?

A They may be used to reallocate resources

B They identify practices that need improvement

C Selecting auditors may be difficult

D They may pinpoint problems with stakeholder relationships

19.The first step in the auditing process should be to secure the

commitment of:
A Employees

B Top Executives And Directors

C Stockholders

D Customers

20. ____________ refers to a strategic process involving stakeholder

assessment to create long-term relationships with customers, while

maintaining, supporting, and enhancing the natural environment.

A Eco-strategy

B Green marketing

C Superfund reauthorization

D Recycle and reprocess management

21.The hand-of-government refers to the

A Ability Of The Government To Interfere In Business Negotiations

B Role Of Corporations To Be Profitable Within The Law

C Effect Of National Politics On Business Decisions

D Impact Of Changing Government Regulations

22.An organizations obligation to act to protect and improve societys

welfare as well as its own interests is referred to as

A Organizational Social Responsibility

B Organizational Social Responsiveness

C Corporate Obligation

D Business Ethics

23.Managerial ethics can be characterized by all of the following levels


except

A Immoral Management

B Amoral Management

C Demoral Management

D Moral Management

24.Which of the following is not one the underlying principles of the

corporate governance Combined Code of Practice?

A Openness

B Integrity

C Accountability

D acceptability

25. A company may become insolvent if it

A has negative working capital

B cannot meet its budgeted level of profit

C makes a loss

D cannot pay creditors in full after realization of its assets

26. Fraudulent trading may be

A a civil offence committed by any employee

B a criminal offence committed only by directors of a limited

company

C a civil and a criminal offence committed only by directors of a

limited company

D a civil and a criminal offence committed by any employee


27.Disqualification of directors may result from breaches under the

A Sale of Goods Act 1979

B Financial Services Act 1986

C Companies Act 2006 and Insolvency Act 1986

D Health and Safety at Work Act 1974

28. Directors may not be disqualified for

A continuing to trade when the company is insolvent

B persistent breaches of company legislation

C paying inadequate attention to the company finances

D being convicted of drunken driving

29.Which of the following actions will not help directors to protect

themselves from non-compliance with their obligations and

responsibilities?

A keeping themselves fully informed about company affairs

B ensuring that regular management accounts are prepared by the

company

C seeking professional help

D including a disclaimer clause in their service contracts

30.The OECD argues that corporate governance problems arise because:

A Ownership and control is separated

B Managers always act in their own self interest

C Profit maximization is the main objective of organizations

D Stakeholders have differing levels of power


31.Co-ording to Cadbury (2002), corporate governance is an issue of power

and:

A Rights

B Accountability

C Profit

D Appropriability

32. A director of a limited company may not be liable for wrongful trading if

he or she

A took every step to minimise the potential loss to creditors

B increased the valuation of its inventories to cover any potential

shortfall

C introduced into the balance sheet an asset based on a valuation

of its brands sufficient to meet any shortfall

D brought in some expected sales from next year into the current

year

33.Directors responsibilities are unlikely to include.

A a fiduciary duty

B a duty to keep proper accounting records

C a duty to propose high dividends for shareholders

D a duty of care

34. External audit of the accounts of a limited company is required

A Because It Is Demanded By The Companys Bankers

B By The Companies Act 2006

C At The Discretion Of The Shareholders


D To Detect Fraud

35.The view that business exists at societys pleasure and businesses should

meet public expectations of social responsibility is the

A iron law of responsibility argument

B enlightened self-interest argument

C capacity argument

D anti-freeloader argument

36. In a ______________ organization, decision making is delegated as far

down the chain of command as possible.

A centralized

B Creative

C Flexible

D the consolidation of economic and environmental efforts

37.Which of the following is NOT one of the primary elements of a strong

organizational compliance program?

A A written code of conduct

B An ethics officer

C Significant financial expenditures

D A formal ethics training program

38.Codes of conduct and codes of ethics

A Are Formal Statements That Describe What An Organization

Expects Of Its Employees

B Become Necessary Only After A Company Has Been In Legal


Trouble

C Are Designed For Top Executives And Managers, Not Regular

Employees

D Rarely Become An Effective Component Of The Ethics And

Compliance Program

39. Which of the following is not a driver of responsible competitiveness?

A Policy drivers

B Development drivers

C Business action

D Social enablers

40. The ability to interpret and adapt successfully to different national,

organizational, and professional cultures is called:

A National Competitiveness

B Global Development

C Cultural Intelligence

D Stakeholder Sensitivity

41. For referent power to be effective, what must exist between individuals

in the relationship?

(A)Antipathy

(B)Rivalry

(C)History

(D) Empathy

42. Which of the following is not a driver of responsible competitiveness?


A. Policy drivers

B. Development drivers

C. Business action

D. Social enablers

43. Which of the following statements regarding institutional shareholders is

correct?

A. These shareholders have extensive power to monitor the activities

of the company.

B. Institutional shareholders prefer to exert their power privately

rather than publicly.

C. These shareholders often aim to improve outcomes rather than sell

their shareholding.

D. Institutional shareholders are known to publicly use their voting

power to encourage sound corporate governance.

44. A (n) _____________ is a problem, situation, or opportunity requiring an

individual, group, or organization to choose among several actions that must

be evaluated as right or wrong.

A. Crisis

B. ethical issue

C. indictment

D. fraud

45. A board that is elected in a classified system is known as a:

A. Diversified board.

B. Staggered board.
C. Rotating board.

D. Declassified board.

46. A high-commitment approach to environmental issues may include all of

the following except:

A. risk analysis

B. stakeholder analysis

C. green-washing

D. strategic sustainability auditing

47. Which of the following relating to discounting future liabilities is correct?

A. Discounting future cash flows is not aligned with the aims and

objectives of sustainability reporting.

B. Discounting distant future costs that are to be incurred increases

the current liability that is to be reported now.

C. Discounting costs highlights the savings of future generations due

to present generations accounting for the loss now.

D. Discounting social issues are done in terms of the accounting

standards so there are no ethical issues as the process is fair.

48. Which of the following relating to CSR theories is correct?

A. Institutional theory is based on the shareholder concept.

B. Social contract is the key concept of legitimacy theory.

C. The key concept of enlightened self-interest is stakeholder

relations.

D. Stakeholder theory requires organisations to manage community

perceptions to survive.
49. A stakeholder orientation includes all of the following activities except:

A. generating data about stakeholder groups

B. assessing the firm's effects on stakeholder groups

C. distributing stakeholder information throughout the firm

D. minimizing the influence of stakeholder information on the firm

50. ABC Ltd is a mining company listed on the Australia stock exchange. It

has an audit committee comprising four members. Two members are

independent non-executive directors with engineering and mining

qualifications. The nomination committee is currently looking to appoint an

additional member to the audit committee. In terms of the ASX principles,

which of the following would most likely be the best candidate for

appointment?

A. An independent non-executive director with a qualification in

finance.

B. An executive director with a qualification in accounting.

C. A non-independent non-executive director with qualifications in

accounting and auditing.

D. A non-executive director who was previously the CFO of ABC Ltd a

year ago.

51. An independent director is one who:

A. Did not attend a school supported by the company.

B. Does not have outside relationships with other directors.

C. Does not have any other relationships with the company other

than his or her directorship.


D. All of the above.

52. An organisation's obligation to act to protect and improve society's

welfare as well as its own interests is referred to as

A. organisational social responsibility

B. organisational social responsiveness

C. corporate obligation

D. business ethics

53. An organizations appropriate tone at the top promoting ethical conduct

is an example of:

A. Ethics sensitivity.

B. Ethics incentives.

C. Ethical behavior.

D. Consequentialist.

54. Atmospheric issues include all of the following except:

A. acid rain

B. global warming

C. air pollution

D. water quantity

55. Which of the following regarding residual loss is correct?

A. Bonding costs do not have an effect on residual loss.

B. Residual loss is incurred by the agent because an agency

relationship exists.

C. Under agency theory, residual loss can be reduced to zero by good


governance.

D. A reduction in residual loss is likely to be the result of an increase

in monitoring costs.

56. Better access to certain markets, differentiation of products, and the

sale of pollution-control technology are ways in which better environmental

performance can:

A. increase revenue

B. increase costs

C. decrease revenue

D. decrease costs

57. Which of the following regarding corporate governance is correct?

A. Corporate governance can temper growth.

B. Good corporate governance can result in excessive risk-taking.

C. Corporate governance often result in prompt and effective

decision-making.

D. The aim of corporate governance is to protect the interests of

shareholders and the local economies.

58. Codes of conduct and codes of ethics

A. are formal statements that describe what an organization expects

of its employees.

B. become necessary only after a company has been in legal trouble.

C. are designed for top executives and managers, not regular

employees.

D. rarely become an effective component of the ethics and


compliance program.

59. Consider the following recommendations:

- a minimum of three members;

- chaired by an independent director;

- a majority of independent directors;

- can comprise executive directors.

In terms of the ASX Principles, the above requirements relate to the

composition of which committees?

A. The nomination and risk committees.

B. The audit and remuneration committees.

C. The remuneration, audit, risk and nomination committees.

D. The remuneration, risk and nomination committees but not the

audit committee.

60. External audit of the accounts of a limited company is required

A. because it is demanded by the companys bankers

B. by the Companies Act 2006

C. at the discretion of the shareholders

D. to detect fraud

61. For referent power to be effective, what must exist between individuals

in the relationship?

A. Antipathy

B. Rivalry

C. History

D. Empathy
62. In terms of the ASX Principles, which of the following regarding the

composition of the nomination committee of a listed company is most

correct?

A. A minimum of three members chaired by an executive director.

B. A majority of independent directors chaired by an independent

director.

C. A majority of three members of whom most are independent

directors.

D. A minimum of one independent director who also chairs the

committee.

63. In terms of the National Greenhouse and Energy Reporting Act, which of

the following entities would be required to register with the Clean Energy

Regulator?

A. A facility that emitted 23.5kt of greenhouse gases.

B. A corporate that consumed 199TJ of energy.

C. A facility that produced 150TJ of energy.

D. A corporate that emitted 26Kt of greenhouse gases.

64. Managerial ethics can be characterised by all of the following levels

except

A. immoral management

B. amoral management

C. demoral management

D. moral management
65. Most companies begin the process of establishing organizational ethics

programs by developing:

A. ethics training programs.

B. codes of conduct.

C. ethics enforcement mechanisms.

D. hidden agendas.

66. One of the objectives of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act was to:

A. Increase the cost of compliance with federal regulations.

B. Force foreign companies to delist from U.S. capital market

exchanges.

C. Improve the quality and transparency of financial reporting.

D. Increase the compliance burden for small companies.

67. Stakeholders are considered more important to an organization when:

A. they can make use of their power on the organization

B. they do not emphasize the urgency of their issues

C. their issues are not legitimate

D. they can express themselves articulately

68. Stakeholders are considered more important to an organization when:

A. they can make use of their power on the organization

B. they do not emphasize the urgency of their issues

C. their issues are not legitimate

D. they can express themselves articulately

69. Successful global initiatives addressing standards for business must


begin and end with:

A. the role of corporate governance and shareholder power in

corporate decision making.

B. social activism

C. the implementation of standardized ethics programs.

D. the consolidation of economic and environmental efforts.

70. The _____________ dimension of social responsibility refers to a

business's societal contribution of time, money, and other resources.

A. Ethical

B. Philanthropic

C. Volunteerism

D. Strategic

71. The ability to interpret and adapt successfully to different national,

organizational, and professional cultures is called:

A. national competitiveness.

B. global development.

C. cultural intelligence.

D. stakeholder sensitivity

72. The chairperson of the board of directors and CEO should be leaders

with:

A. Vision and problem solving skills.

B. The ability to motivate.

C. Business acumen.

D. All of the above.


73. The corporate governance structure of a company reflects the individual

companies:

A. Cultural and economic system.

B. Legal and business system.

C. Social and regulatory system.

D. All of the above.

74. The first step in the auditing process should be to secure the

commitment of:

A. employees.

B. top executives and directors.

C. stockholders.

D. customers.

75. The four types of social responsibility include:

A. legal, philanthropic, economic, and ethical

B. ethical, moral, social, and economic

C. philanthropic, justice, economic, and ethical

D. legal, moral, ethical, and economic

76. The goal of corporate governance and business ethics education is to:

A. Teach students their professional accountability and to uphold their

personal Integrity to society.

B. Change the way in which ethics is taught to students.

C. Create more ethics standards by which corporate professionals

must operate.
D. Increase the workload for accounting students.

77. The hand-of-government refers to the

A. ability of the government to interfere in business negotiations

B. role of corporations to be profitable within the law

C. effect of national politics on business decisions

D. impact of changing government regulations

78. The internal audit function is least effective when the department:

A. Is non-independent.

B. Is competent.

C. Is objective.

D. Exhibits integrity

79. The primary stakeholders are:

A. Customers.

B. Suppliers.

C. Shareholders.

D. Creditors.

80. The social economy partnership philosophy emphasizes:

A. cooperation and assistance.

B. profit maximization.

C. competition.

D. restricting resources and support.

81. The view that business exists at society's pleasure and businesses should
meet public expectations of social responsibility is the

A. iron law of responsibility argument

B. enlightened self-interest argument

C. capacity argument

D. anti-freeloader argument

82. To be successful, business ethics training programs need to:

A. focus on personal opinions of employees.

B. be limited to upper executives.

C. educate employees on formal ethical frameworks and models of

ethical decision making.

D. promote the use of emotions in making tough ethical decisions.

83. Under the _____________, both internal and external corporate

governance mechanisms are intended to induce managerial actions that

maximize profit and shareholder value.

A. Shareholder theory.

B. Agency theory.

C. Stakeholder theory.

D. Corporate governance theory.

84. Which of the following regarding agency theory is correct?

A. Agency theory only applies to large entities.

B. Agents act in the best interest of the principal.

C. Agents are assumed to be in a position of power.

D. Agency theory defines the relationship between agents and

directors.
85. What type of justice exists if employees are being open, honest, and

truthful in their communications at work?

A. Procedural

B. Distributive

C. Ethical

D. Interactional

86. When a firm charges different prices to different groups of customers, it

may be accused of:

A. cultural relativism

B. money laundering

C. facilitating payments

D. price discrimination

87. Where in the annual report would you expect to find mandatory social

and environmental reporting?

A. The financial statements and the chairman's report.

B. Notes to the financial statements and directors' report.

C. Corporate governance information and the auditor's report.

D. The Directors' declaration and the Chief Executive Officer's report.

88. Which moral philosophy seeks the greatest good for the greatest

number of people?

A. Consequentialism

B. Utilitarianism

C. Egoism
D. Ethical formalism

89. Which of the following descriptions applicable to different types of

directors and their independence is incorrect?

A. Independent executive director.

B. Independent non-executive director.

C. Non-independent executive director.

D. Non-independent non-executive director.

90. Which of the following is a problem presented by ethics audits?

A. They may be used to reallocate resources.

B. They identify practices that need improvement.

C. Selecting auditors may be difficult.

D. They may pinpoint problems with stakeholder relationships.

91. Which of the following is not a CSR theory?

A. Rights theory.

B. Legitimacy theory.

C. Stakeholder theory.

D. Enlightened self-interest.

92. Which of the following is not a social sustainability issue?

A. Child labour.

B. Biodiversity.

C. Ethical trading.

D. Supply chain management.


93. Which of the following is not an agency cost?

A. Residual loss.

B. Bonding costs.

C. Congruency loss.

D. Monitoring costs.

94. Which of the following is not an example of a duty or responsibility of

directors?

A. Having a conflict of interest but declaring it to the board of

directors.

B. Continuing to transact with creditors when the company's

liabilities exceed the assets.

C. Researching and asking questions relating to the company's

operations so as to be informed.

D. Choosing to personally carry out instructions from the board rather

than requesting subordinates to do so.

95. Which of the following is not an impact that underpins corporate social

responsibility?

A. Social.

B. Political.

C. Economic.

D. Environmental.

96. Which of the following is not likely to have a direct impact on

environmental sustainability?

A. Laws prohibiting fracking.


B. The introduction of new carbon tax.

C. A repeat of the global financial crisis.

D. Restrictions on greenhouse gas emissions.

97. Which of the following is not one of the elements of financial reporting?

A. Assets.

B. Liabilities.

C. Expenses.

D. Cash flows.

98. Which of the following is NOT one of the primary elements of a strong

organizational compliance program?

A. A written code of conduct

B. An ethics officer

C. Significant financial expenditures

D. A formal ethics training program

99. Which of the following is not one the underlying principles of the

corporate governance Combined Code of Practice?

A. Openness

B. Integrity

C. Accountability

D. acceptability

100. Which of the following is not part of the definition of an asset?

A. Control of a resource.

B. Resulting from a past event.


C. Inflow of economic benefits.

D. During the accounting period.

101. A stakeholder orientation includes all of the following activities except:

A. generating data about stakeholder groups

B. assessing the firm's effects on stakeholder groups

C. distributing stakeholder information throughout the firm

D. minimizing the influence of stakeholder information on the firm

102. Stakeholders are considered more important to an organization when:

A. they can make use of their power on the organization

B. they do not emphasize the urgency of their issues

C. their issues are not legitimate

D. they can express themselves articulately

103. A (n) ________ is a problem, situation, or opportunity requiring an

individual, group, or organization

to choose among several actions that must be evaluated as right or wrong.

A. Crisis

B. ethical issue

C. indictment

D. fraud

104. What type of justice exists if employees are being open, honest, and

truthful in their communications

at work?

A. Procedural
B. Distributive

C. Ethical

D. Interactional

105. A high-commitment approach to environmental issues may include all

of the following except:

A. risk analysis

B. stakeholder analysis

C. green-washing

D. strategic sustainability auditing

106. Better access to certain markets, differentiation of products, and the

sale of pollution-control

technology are ways in which better environmental performance can:

A. increase revenue

B. increase costs

C. decrease revenue

D. decrease costs

107. Atmospheric issues include all of the following except:

A. acid rain

B. global warming

C. air pollution

D. water quantity

108. To be successful, business ethics training programs need to:

A. focus on personal opinions of employees.


B. be limited to upper executives.

C. educate employees on formal ethical frameworks and models of

ethical decision making.

D. promote the use of emotions in making tough ethical decisions.

109. Most companies begin the process of establishing organizational ethics

programs by developing:

A. ethics training programs.

B. codes of conduct.

C. ethics enforcement mechanisms.

D. hidden agendas.

110. For referent power to be effective, what must exist between individuals

in the relationship?

A. Antipathy

B. Rivalry

C. History

D. Empathy

111. When a firm charges different prices to different groups of customers,

it may be accused of:

A. cultural relativism

B. money laundering

C. facilitating payments

D. price discrimination

112. The ability to interpret and adapt successfully to different national,


organizational, and professional

cultures is called:

A. national competitiveness.

B. global development.

C. cultural intelligence.

D. stakeholder sensitivity

113. Successful global initiatives addressing standards for business must

begin and end with:

A. the role of corporate governance and shareholder power in

corporate decision making.

B. social activism

C. the implementation of standardized ethics programs.

D. the consolidation of economic and environmental efforts.

114. The social economy partnership philosophy emphasizes:

A. cooperation and assistance.

B. profit maximization.

C. competition.

D. restricting resources and support.

115. Which of the following is not a driver of responsible competitiveness?

A. Policy drivers

B. Development drivers

C. Business action

D. Social enablers
116. Which of the following is a problem presented by ethics audits?

A. They may be used to reallocate resources.

B. They identify practices that need improvement.

C. Selecting auditors may be difficult.

D. They may pinpoint problems with stakeholder relationships.

117. The first step in the auditing process should be to secure the

commitment of:

A. employees.

B. top executives and directors.

C. stockholders.

D. customers.

118. Codes of conduct and codes of ethics

A. are formal statements that describe what an organization expects

of its employees.

B. become necessary only after a company has been in legal trouble.

C. are designed for top executives and managers, not regular

employees.

D. rarely become an effective component of the ethics and

compliance program.

119. Which of the following is NOT one of the primary elements of a strong

organizational compliance

program?

A. A written code of conduct

B. An ethics officer
C. Significant financial expenditures

D. A formal ethics training program

120. The hand-of-government refers to the

A. ability of the government to interfere in business negotiations

B. role of corporations to be profitable within the law

C. effect of national politics on business decisions

D. impact of changing government regulations

121. An organisation's obligation to act to protect and improve society's

welfare as well as its own interests is referred to as

A. organisational social responsibility

B. organisational social responsiveness

C. corporate obligation

D. business ethics

122. The view that business exists at society's pleasure and businesses

should meet public expectations of social responsibility is the

A. iron law of responsibility argument

B. enlightened self-interest argument

C. capacity argument

D. anti-freeloader argument

123. Managerial ethics can be characterised by all of the following levels

except

A. immoral management

B. amoral management
C. demoral management

D. moral management

124. Which of the following is not one the underlying principles of the

corporate governance Combined Code of Practice?

A. Openness

B. Integrity

C. Accountability

D. acceptability

125. External audit of the accounts of a limited company is required

A. because it is demanded by the companys bankers

B. by the Companies Act 2006

C. at the discretion of the shareholders

D. to detect fraud

126. The framework for establishing good corporate governance and

accountability was originally setup by

A. Nestle committee

B. Rowntree committee

C. Cadbury committee

D. Thornton committee

127. Which of the following is not one of the underlying principles of the

corporate governance

combined code of practice?

A. Accountability
B. Openness

C. Acceptability

D. Integrity

128. External audit of the accounts of a limited company is required?

A. Because it is demanded by the companys bankers

B. By the companies act 2006

C. At the discretion of the shareholders

D. To detect fraud

129. Directors responsibilities are unlikely to include

A. a duty to keep proper accounting records

B. a fiduciary duty

C. a duty to propose high dividends for shareholders

D. a duty of care

130. A company may become insolvent if it

A. makes a loss

B. has negative working capital

C. cannot meet its budgeted level of profit

D. cannot pay creditors in full after realisation of its assets

131. Fraudulent trading may be

A. a criminal offence committed only by directors of a limited

company

B. a civil and a criminal offence committed by an employee

C. a civil and a criminal offence committed only by directors of a


limited company

D. a civil offence committed by an employee

132. A director of a limited company may not be liable for wrongful trading

if he or she

A. increased the valuation of its inventories to cover any potential

shortfall

B. brought in some expected sales from next year in to the current

year

C. took every step to minimise the potential loss to creditors

D. introduce into the balance sheet an asset based on a valuation of

its brands sufficient to meet any shortfall

133. Disqualification of directors may result from breaches under the

A. Health and Safety Act

B. Financial Services Act

C. Sale of Goods Act

D. Companies Act

134. According to clause 49 on independent directors. What should be

minimum age of independent

director.

a)21

b)22

c) 23

d)24
135. who formed the ICGN?

A. European governments

B. US share holders

C. Pension funds

D. Stock markets

136. A company cannot issue redeemable preference shares for a period

exceeding

a) 5 years

b) 10 years

c) 15 years

d) 20 years

137. which one is the dimension(approach) of corporate social

responsibility?

a) Corporate philanthropy

b) Stake holders priorities and sustainable development

c) Ethical business

d) All of the above

138. According to clause 49 on independent directors. What can be

maximum tenure of independent director.

a) 2 terms of 5 years each

b) 3 terms of 5 years each

c) 2 terms of 10 years each

d) 3 terms of 4 years each


139. According to section 179 which one of the following is a power of

director?

a) To buy back its shares

b) Sell lease or otherwise dispose of the undertakings of the company

c) Remit or give time for the repayment of any debt due by a director

d) Making political contributions exceeding specified limits

140. What is kieretsu

a) Pension fund

b) Corporate group

c) Stock exchange

d) Futures Market

141. The concept of Corporate Social Responsibility originated in which time

period?

a. 1920s and 1930s

b. 19th Century

c. 1980s and 1990s

d. 1960s and 1970s

142. Worldwide, about ___________ percent of businesses in the private

sector are small or medium sized.

a. 80

b. 85

c. 90

d. 99
143. The generally accepted definition of a small business is one with

____________ or fewer employees.

a. 10

b. 20

c. 25

d. 50

144. The generally accepted definition of a medium business is one with

_____________ or fewer employees.

a. 50

b.100

c. 200

d. 250

144. In the United States, small or medium sized businesses provide over

___________ percent of total employment.

a. 25

b. 40

c. 50

d. 75

145. Owners of stock in a corporation are only liable for ____________.

a. the amount they have invested in the companys stock

b. their personal assets

c. the amount they have invested in the companys stock and their

personal assets

d. none of the above.


146. A ____________ of an issue consists of weighing and balancing all of

the competing demands on a firm by each of those who have a claim on it.

a. stakeholder analysis

b. board of directors analysis

c. corporation analysis

d. management analysis

147. The ____________ that corporations must meet is do no harm.

a. moral obligation

b. moral minimum

c. moral requirement

d. moral duty

148. In large corporations, the ____________ is/are the legal overseers of

management.

a. CEO

b. shareholders

c. board members

d. none of the above

149. The ____________ position is that a corporation can and should be

evaluated not only in terms of its financial bottom line, but also in terms of

its environmental bottom line and its social/ethical bottom line.

A. Bottom line

B. Double Bottom line

C. Triple Bottom line


D. Final line

150. Triple Bottom Line reporting refers to:

a. using a low, medium and high estimates for profitability

forecasts.

b. measuring the impact of the firm on stockholders, customers

and employees.

c. measuring the social, environmental, and financial

performance of the firm.

d. measuring the impact of local, state, and federal

governments on the firm.

151. Corporate governance can be defined as:

a. the system used by firms to control the actions of their

employees.

b. the election process used to vote in a new Board of Director.

c. the corporate compliance system used by the firm.

d. the system used by firms to identify who the critical

stakeholders are for the firm.

152. The system that is used by firms to control and direct their operations

and the operations of

their employees is called:

A. Corporate Compliance.

B. Corporate Governance.

C. Corporate Control.

D. Corporate Directive.
153. Which board of directors committee is responsible for the guidelines on

how the board of directors should operate.

a. Operating

b. Corporate governance

c. Corporate compliance

d. Guiding

154. The Sarbanes-Oxley Act was a direct response to which ethics scandals?

a. Tyco

b. WorldCom

c. Enron

d. None of the above.

155. What is the name of the process in which an employee informs another

responsible employee in the company about potentially unethical behavior?

A. Whistle-blowing

B. Purging and releasing

C. Identification

D. Information transfer

156. There are ___________ conditions that, if satisfied, change the moral

status of whistle blowing.

a. three

b. four

c. five

d. six
157. An example of a whistle blower whose actions were a form of internal

government whistleblowing is:

a. Sherron Watkins.

b. Coleen Rowley.

c. Cynthia Cooper.

d. Lee Iacocca.

158. One whistle blower the text mentions is Cynthia Cooper who was the

vice president of internal audit at ____________.

a. Enron

b. WorldCom

c. Tyco

d. none of the above

159. One classic example of whistle-blowing is the:

a. Ford Pinto case.

b. Lincoln case.

c. Toyota case.

d. none of the above.

160. A whistle-blower:

a. doesnt have to be a past or present member of the

organization.

b. doesnt have to report activity that is illegal, immoral,

or harmful.

c. is any employer who spreads gossip.


d. far from being disloyal, may be acting in the best

interest of the organization.

161. The Sarbanes-Oxley Act:

a. makes it easier to fire whistle blowers.

b. reduces the laws protection of employees who disclose

securities fraud.

c. makes it illegal for executives to retaliate against employees

who report possible violations of federal law.

d. provides penalties for blowing the whistle illegitimately or

maliciously.

162. Inside traders ordinarily defend their actions by claiming that they

dont injure:

a. their boss.

b. their family.

c. the government.

d. any one.

163. Shareholders have the right to know all except:

a. Information on the management of the corporation

b. Trade secrets

c. The companies financial position

d. The companies general plans for the future.

164. Which act provides sweeping new legal protection for employees who

report possible securities fraud making it unlawful for companies to


discharge, demote, suspend, threaten,harass, or in any other manner

discriminate against them?

a. Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002

b. Foreign Corruption Act

c. Economic Espionage Act d. U.S. vs. OHagan

165. What is meant by the phrase CSR?

a) Corporate Social Responsibility

b) Company Social Responsibility

c) Corporate Society Responsibility

d) Company Society Responsibility

166. What is meant by the phrase 'teleological ethics'?

a) Is used to judge is an action is right, fair and honest.

b) An action can only be judged by its consequences

c) Developing the individual personal characteristics

d) The key purpose of ethics is to increase freedom.

167. What, according to Adam Smith, is the best way to promote collective

interest?

a) Through government making decisions about what is in the

public interest.

b) Through everyone working together to support each other.

c) Through everyone working on their own self interest

d) Through individuals forgoing their personal interest for the

good of the collective.


168. Why, according to stakeholder theory, is it in companies' best interests

to pay attention to their stakeholders?

a) If firms only act in their own self-interest employees may feel

exploited.

b) If firms only act in their own self-interest government might

put more regulation on them.

c) If firms only act in their own self-interest customers might not

like the image that the company portray.

d) If firms only act in their own self-interest and inflict harm on

stakeholders then society might withdraw its support.

169. What is the enlightened self-interest model of CSR?

a) That it is in an organization's own best interest to put itself

first rather than its ethics.

b) That it is in an organization's best interest to consider what a

shareholder would want.

c) That it is in an organization's own best interest to act in an

ethical way.

d) That it is in an organization's own best interest to follow the

legislation and abide by the law.

170. What is green washing?

a) Transforming products to be more ethical.

b) Making a product appear more ethical that it really is.

c) Converting the company to green production methods.

d) Convincing customers to buy ethically.


171. What is triple bottom line?

a) An accounting tool that looks at the impact on people,

planet and profits.

b) A management strategy which states all the attention should

be on profits.

c) An accounting tool that looks at cost, profit and loss.

d) A management strategy which focuses on corporate social

responsibility.

172.A ________ _________ sets out the purpose and general direction for

the organisation?

a) Mission statement

b) Purpose statement

c) Vision

d) Profit statement

173.Which of the following would most effectively act as the primary

objective of a business organisation?

a) To make a profit

b) To procure resources

c) To communicate with shareholders

d) To mediate between the organisation and the environment

174.What is the purpose of a balanced scorecard?

a) To measure contribution of people to business growth

b) To combine a range of qualitative and quantitative

indicators of performance
c) To relate business performance to customer satisfaction

d) All of the above

175.Which of the following does the term Corporate Social Responsibility

relate to?

a) Ethical conduct

b) Environmental practice

c) Community investment

d) All of the above

176.Who are organisational stakeholders?

a) Government

b) Employees

c) Customers

d) All of the above

177.What is Ethics to do with?

a) The wider community

b) Business

c) Right and wrong

d) Nothing

178.Which of the following is an example of an area where business ethics

apply?

a) Conduct of international operations

b) Nowhere

c) In the personal life of staff


d) None of the above

179.Which legislation relates to the concept of business ethics?

a) Freedom of Information Act

b) Food Act

c) Building regulations

d) All of these

180.The four types of social responsibility include:

a) legal, philanthropic, economic, and eethical

b) ethical, moral, social, and economic

c) philanthropic, justice, economic, and ethical

d) legal, moral, ethical, and economic

181.The ________ dimension of social responsibility refers to a business's

societal contribution of time, money, and other resources.

a) Ethical

b) Philanthropic

c) Volunteerism

d) Strategic

182.Stakeholders are considered more important to an organization when:

a) they can make use of their power on the

organization

b) they do not emphasize the urgency of their

issues

c) their issues are not legitimate


d) they can express themselves articulately

183.A ________ is a problem, situation, or opportunity requiring an

individual, group, or organization to choose among several actions that must

be evaluated as right or wrong.

a) Crisis

b) ethical issue

c) indictment

d) fraud

184.Which moral philosophy seeks the greatest good for the greatest

number of people?

a) Consequentialism

b) Utilitarianism

c) Egoism

d) Ethical formalism

185.What type of justice exists if employees are being open, honest, and

truthful in their communications at work?

a) Procedural

b) Distributive

c) Ethical

d) Interactional

186.A high-commitment approach to environmental issues may include all

of the following except:

a) risk analysis
b) stakeholder analysis

c) green-washing

d) strategic sustainability auditing

187.Better access to certain markets, differentiation of products, and the

sale of pollution-control technology are ways in which better environmental

performance can:

a) increase revenue

b) increase costs

c) decrease revenue

d) decrease costs

188. Most companies begin the process of establishing organizational ethics

programs by developing:

a) ethics training programs.

b) codes of conduct.

c) ethics enforcement mechanisms.

d) hidden agendas.

189.When a firm charges different prices to different groups of customers, it

may be accused of:

a) cultural relativism

b) money laundering

c) facilitating payments

d) price discrimination

190. The social economy partnership philosophy emphasizes:


a) cooperation and assistance.

b) profit maximization.

c) competition.

d) restricting resources and support.

191.Which of the following is not a driver of responsible competitiveness?

a) Policy drivers

b) Development drivers

c) Business action

d) Social enablers

192. Which of the following is a problem presented by ethics audits?

a) They may be used to reallocate resources.

b) They identify practices that need improvement.

c) Selecting auditors may be difficult.

d) They may pinpoint problems with stakeholder relationships.

193.The first step in the auditing process should be to secure the

commitment of:

a) employees.

b) top executives and directors.

c) stockholders.

d) customers.

194.Codes of conduct and codes of ethics

a) are formal statements that describe what an organization

expects of its employees.


b) become necessary only after a company has been in legal

trouble.

c) are designed for top executives and managers, not regular

employees.

d) rarely become an effective component of the ethics and

compliance program.

195.Which of the following is NOT one of the primary elements of a strong

organizational compliance program?

a) A written code of conduct

b) An ethics officer

c) Significant financial expenditures

d) A formal ethics training program

196.______________ are standards of behaviour that groups expect of their

members.

a) Codes of conduct.

b) Group values.

c) Group norms.

d) Organizational nnnorms.

197.Ina______________ organization, decision making is delegated as fa

a) Decentralized

b) Creative

c) Flexible

d) Centralized
198.Managerial ethics can be characterised by all of the following levels

except

a) immoral management

b) amoral management

c) demoral management

d) moral management

199. External audit of the accounts of a limited company is required

a) because it is demanded by the companys bankers

b) by the Companies Act 2013

c) at the discretion of the shareholders

d) to detect fraud

200. Directors responsibilities are unlikely to include.

a) a fiduciary duty

b) a duty to keep proper accounting records

c) a duty to propose high dividends for shareholders

d) a duty of care

201. A company may become insolvent if it

a) has negative working capital

b) cannot meet its budgeted level of profit

c) makes a loss

d) cannot pay creditors in full after realisation of its assets

202. A director of a limited company may not be liable for wrongful trading

if he or she
a) took every step to minimise the potential loss to creditors

b) increased the valuation of its inventories to cover any

potential shortfall

c) introduced into the balance sheet an asset based on a

valuation of its brands sufficient to meet any shortfall

d) brought in some expected sales from next year into the

current year

203. Fraudulent trading may be

A. a civil offence committed by any employee

B. a criminal offence committed only by directors of a limited

company

C. a civil and a criminal offence committed only by directors of a

limited company

D. a civil and a criminal offence committed by any employee

204. The OECD argues that corporate governance problems arise because:

a) Ownership and control is separated

b) Managers always act in their own self interest

c) Profit maximization is the main objective of organizations

d) Stakeholders have differing levels of power

205. An organization that is owned by shareholders but managed by agents

on their behalf is conventionally known as the modern:

a) Conglomerate

b) Corporation

c) Company
d) Firm

206. The modern corporation has four characteristics. These are limited

liability, legal personality, centralized management and:

a) Fiduciary duty

b) Stakeholders

c) Shareholders

d) Transferability

207. What makes a corporation distinct from a partnership?

a) If the members of a corporation die, the corporation

remains in existence providing it has capital

b) If the members of a corporation die, the corporation ceases

to exist

c) A corporation cannot own property

d) A corporation cannot be held responsible for the illegal acts

of its employees

208. The term 'asymmetry of information' means information in a

corporation is:

a) Transferable to all stakeholders

b) Not transferable to all stakeholders

c) Not equally transparent to all stakeholders

d) Equally transparent to all stakeholders

209. The view that sees profit maximization as the main objective is known

as:
a) Shareholder theory

b) Principal-agent problem

c) Stakeholder theory

d) Corporation theory

210.Where an organization takes into account the effect its strategic

decisions have on society, this is known as:

a) Corporate governance

b) Business policy

c) Business ethics

d) Corporate social responsibility

211. Which intervention resulted from the Enron scandal?

a) The Hampel Committee

b) The Sarbannes-Oxley Act

c) The Greenbury Committee

d) The Cadbury Committee

212. Periodic ethics audits

a) Are required by the Indian stock exchange

b) A method of fostering ethics

c) A method of quantitative assessment

d) Always use external consultants

213. Political intrusion into business

A. May be desirable in some circumstances

B. Is anathema
C. Politics should have no say in how business is conducted

D. state legislation over-rides Federal Legislation

214.Quantification in ethics may be done by

a) Putting monetary value on prospective actions

b) Comparing the value of one action with another

c) Both A and B

d) Neither A or B

215. The __________ approach to formal corporate ethics initiatives is

proactive and inspirational.

a) Rules

b) Compliance

c) Principles

d) Values

216. The _________ approach to formal corporate ethics initiatives focuses

on meeting required behaviour norms or obeying the letter of the law

a) Rules

b) Compliance

c) Principles

d) Values

217. Which of the following is associated with the classical view of social

responsibility?

a) economist Robert Reich

b) concern for social welfare


c) stockholder financial return

d) voluntary activities

218. How many stages are in the model of an organization social

responsibility progression?

a) 3

b) 4

c) 5

d) 6

219. The belief that a firm pursuit of social goals would give them too much

power is known as what argument in opposition to a firm being socially

responsible?

a) Costs

b) lack of skills

c) lack of broad public support

d) too much power

220. Social responsiveness refers to the capacity of a firm to adapt to

changing _________________.

a) societal conditions

b) organizational conditions

c) societal leaders

d) organizational managers

221. Applying social criteria to an investment decision refers to

________________.
A. socioeconomic view

B. social responsiveness

C. social responsibility

D. social screening

222. Which of the following is a basic definition of ethics?

a) moral guidelines for behaviour

b) rules for acknowledging the spirit of the law

c) rules or principles that define right and wrong conduct

d) principles for legal and moral development

223.Global organizations must __________ their ethical guidelines so that

employees know what is expected of them while working in a foreign

location

a) Clarify

b) Provide

c) Establish

d) broaden

224. _____________ is a document that outlines principles for doing

business globally in the areas of human rights, labour, the environment, and

anticorruption.

a) A code of ethics

b) The Global Compact

c) The Foreign Corrupt Practices Act

d) Global Ethics
225. The word ethics is derived from Greek word _____which

means custom, usage or habit.

A. Ethos

B. EhioEtho

C. Ethico

D. Ethonia

226. What is right or wrong is consistent in all places or

circumstances is called ethical _____

A. Subjectivism

B. Relativism

C. Absolutism

D. Feminism

227. the basic fundamental for gender and democratic equality issues.

A. Transactional ethics

B. Contemporary ethics

C. Cognitive ethics

D. Virtue ethics

228. It is the ethics of individual and collective citizenship.

A. Participatory ethics

B. Contemporary ethics

C. Cognitive ethic

D. Virtue ethics

229. Ethics is a______.


A. Pure science

B. Normative

C. science

D. Inexact science Exact science

230.___in an organisation and shows that compliance with law is fuelled by

a desire to abide by the laws.

A. Ethical climate

B. Moral climate

C. Information system

D. Control system

231._____have a responsibility in ensuring that corporations act according

to the rules and norms of the society.

A. Government

B. Public

C. Customers

D. Creditors

232.the form of ethic that endeavours to help professional decide what to

do when they are confronted with a case or situation that raises an ethical

question or moral problem is

A. Personal ethics

B. Organisational

C. ethics Professional

D. ethics Business ethics


233. __ is very particular and exclusive right even for

A. Competitive market

B. Foreign trade

C. Copyright

D. Marketing

234.Most companies begin the process of establishing organisational ethics

program by developing___.

A. Code of conduct

B. Law

C. Finance

D. HRM

235.According to_____culture dependent approach to the concept of

morality.

A. Moral ethics

B. Contemporary ethics

C. Cognitive ethics

D. Virtue ethics

236.__ is an ethical system that determines morality on basis of the greatest

good for the greatest number.

A. Ethical alturism

B. Ethical egoism

C. Utilitarianism

D. Absolutism
237._____ emphasize the role of one character and the virtue that one's

character emobodies for determining or evaluating.

A. Contextual ethics

B. Contemporary ethics

C. Cognitive ethics

D. Virtue ethics

238.______ is the normative ethical position that moral agent ought to do

what is in their own self interest.

A. Ethical alturism

B. Ethical egoism

C. Utilitarianism

D. Absolutism

239.______ is analytical , critical thinking about the presupposition

of normative ethics.

A. Contemporary ethics

B. Cognitive ethics

C. Virtue ethics

D. Metaethic

240. Three C's of business ethic are ___.

A. Compliance , Contribution, Consequences

B. Complications,Contribution, Consequences

C. Compliance , Comfort , Consequences

D. Compliance, Caring, Confidentiality


241._____ follows the ethics for welfare of everyone in the society.

A. Utilitarian approach

B. Virtue approach

C. Fairness approach

D. Common good approach

242._______ is advertising where one party advertise his goods or

services by comparing them with the goods and services of

A. Promtional advertising

B. Comparative advertising

C. Bandwagon advertising

D. Patriotic advertising

243. Respecting human right is known as

A. Harm principle

B. Fairness principle

C. Autonomy principle

D. Human rights principle

244. The word governance comes from____ root gubernare to

A. Latin

B. Italian

C. Indian

D. American

245.Which one of the following is enterprise economic effect on

Society
A. Emission

B. Employee volunteers

C. Education & cullture

D. Wealth generation

246.Which one of the following is enterprise social impact

effect on society

A. Emission

B. Sustainable development

C. Education & cullture

D. Wealth generation

247.Which one of the following is enterprise environmental impact effect on

society

A. Emission

B. Human right

C. Education & cullture

D. Wealth generation

248.______ determines to substantial extent , how a coporation is

managed and control.

A. Ownership structure

B. Structure of company board

C. Financial structure

D. Institutional environment

249.___ ___ where the foreign parent is the dominant shareholders.


A. PSU

B. MNC

C. Domestic business

D. Local business

250.The framework for establishing good corporate governance and

accountability was originally set up by the

A. Nestle committee

B. Thornton committee

C. Rowntree committee

D. Cadbury committee

251.______ is defined as any group or indiviual who can affect or is

affected by the achievement of the organisation objective.

A. Stakeholder theory

B. Shareholders theory

C. Stewardship theory

D. Agency theory

252.This theory is an alternative view of agency theory in which

manager are assumed to act in their own self interest at the

A. Stakeholder theory

B. Shareholders theory

C. Stewardship theory

D. Agency theory

253._______ are the true propreitors of a company.


A. Shareholder

B. Director

C. CEO

D. Employee

254 ._____ is introduced by edward freeman in 1986.

A. Stakeholder theory

B. Shareholders theory

C. Stewardship theory

D. Agency theory

255 .______are general standards and may be regarded as order

A. Values

B. Intrinsic

C. Freedom

D. Culture

256 .______is the sacred book of Christianity a collection of ancient

A. Bible

B. Quran

C. Bhagwat Geeta

D. Jerusalem

257. Quran is regarded widely as the finest piece of literature

A. Hindi

B. Spanish

C. Arabic
D. English

258. The Quran is the religious text of___.

A. Bible

B. Islam

C. Arabic

D. Hindu

259. The ______ is the title of a handbook for running an empire,

A. Arthashastra

B. Sanskrit

C. Kautilya

D. Yogkshema

260.______ means maintenance in the business context to compliance of

the law in letter and spirit.

A. Raksha

B. Vriddhi

C. Palana

D. Yogkshema

261.Primary responsibility for preventing fraud in an

organisation is on

A. Audit committee

B. Board committee

C. Remuneration committee

D. Nominating committee
262.Which of the following committee approves management

strategic plans?

A. Government committee

B. Board committee

C. Remuneration committee

D. Nominating committee

263.______constituted a meeting on January 2000 baseOECD

recommendation of Kumar mangalam Birla committee on

A. CII

B. RBI

C. OECD

D. SEBI

264. The primary stakeholders are

A. Debtors

B. Creditors

C. Shareholders

D. Bank

265. an example of an internal governance mechanism is

A. Shareholder activist

B. Shareholder proposal

C. Audit committee

D. Incometax department
266. There are _______areas of global compact.

A. Three

B. Two

C. Four

D. Ten

267. The first global compact leaders summit was on___.

A. June 24, 2004

B. June 27, 2007

C. June 20, 2000

D. June 24, 2004

268. Who presented report on corporate governance in 1998

A. Cadbury committee

B. Kumar mangalam Birla

C. Narayan murthy

D. Hampel committee

269.________ is practised by public servant who may be basically decent

and honest individual but are grossly underpaid.

A. Episodic corruption

B. Petty corruption

C. Grand corruption

D. Systemic corruption

270.Banks have to report frauds electronically in a specific format to

A. Central fraud registry


B. Central Bank of India

C. Central bureau of information

D. RBI

271.In Indian financial system the SEBI regulate and monitors the corporate

governance of listed companies in India

A. Clause 410

B. Clause 49

C. Clause 48

D. Clause 41

272.The ____Must monitor a company financial reporting process and

financial in information.

A. Audit Committee

B. Board of directors

C. CEO

D. Remuneration committee

273.______ of the company are required to certify that no fradulent

and deceptive transactions are carried out by the company.

A. Internal auditor

B. Statutory auditor

C. CEO Audit

D. committee

274.Clause 49 has laid down more stringent qualification criteria

for those who are independent director______.


A. Clause 410

B. Clause 49

C. Clause 48

D. Clause 41

275.The primary stakeholders areA. Consumers

B. Suppliers

C. Shareholders

D. Creditors

276.The corporate governance structure of a company reflects the individual

companies

A. Cultural & economic system

B. Legal & business system

C. Social& regulatory system

D. All of these

277. Corporate governance is a form of

A. External regulation

B. Self regulation

C. Government control

D. Charitable action

278. CSR & corporate governance represent a -------- between business and

society.

A. Social climate

B. Special contract
C. Special climate

D. Social contract

279. the framework for establishing good corporate governance &

accountability was originally set up by

A. Rowntree Committe

B. Cadbury Committee

C. Nestle Committee

D. Thornton Committee

280.______may be defined as the enhancement of long-term shareholders

while at the same time protecting the interests of other stakeholders.

A. Business ethics

B. B. CSR

C. Cultural relativism

D. Corporate governance

281. Which of the following is/are feature of corporate governance?

A. Non- universality

B. Accountability

C. Ambiguity

D. None of these

282.There are usually …………… key participants in corporate governance.

A. Three

B. Four

C. Five
D. Eight

283. Corporate governance is a …………… approach.

A. Top-down

B. Bottom-up

C. Hybrid

D. Scientific

283.Corporate governance is concerned with the formation of …………… term

objective

A. Very short

B. Short

C. Medium

D. Long

284. Business ethics deals primarily with

A. social responsibility

B. the pricing of products and services

C. moral obligation

D. being unfair to the competition

285. Which of these is a purpose of shared organisational values?

A. Build Team Support

B. Influence marketing efforts

C. Guide managers' decisions and actions

D. All of the above


286. Which of these is a factor that affects ethical and unethical behaviour?

A. Ethical dilemma

B. Diversity

C. Teamwork

D. Open communication

287. The term ___________ refers to principles, values and beliefs that

define right and wrong behaviour.

A. Customer satisfaction

B. Empowerment

C. Innovation

D. Ethics

288. Which of this is a second stage of moral development?

A. Principled

B. Conventional

C. Pre conventional

D. None of the above

289. A personality measure of the strength of a person's convictions is called

_________.

A. Locus of control

B. Ego

C. Ego Strength

D. None of the above

290. _________ is a personality attribute that measures the degree to which


people believe they control their own fate.

A. Locus of control

B. Culture

C. Values

D. None of the above

291. Which of these is one of the six characters that determine issue

intensity?

A. Probability of harm

B. Immediacy of consequences

C. Proximity to victims

D. All of the above

292. ____________ are those individuals who raise ethical concerns or

issues to others inside or outside the organisation.

A. Entrepreneur

B. Whistle blowers

C. Social entrepreneur

D. Social impact management

293. It is important to have a good ____________ to be successful in your

career.

A. Appearance

B. Attendance

C. Attitude

D. Respect
294. It is important to be at work………………………………. every day and on

time unless you are sick or have a family emergency.

A. Appearance

B. Attendance

C. Attitude

D. Respect

295. Strong …………………………………….. means you have a high sense of moral

and ethical behavior that earns respect of others.

A. Cooperation

B. Confidence

C. Attitude

D. Character

296………………………………………….. is essential at work because you must be

able to work with others, especially if you dont always agree with them.

A. Communication

B. Cooperation

C. Honesty

D. Integrity

297………………………………………….skills such as writing, speaking and body

language are important work ethics so that you can be clear in your

messages to others.

A. Communication

B. Cooperation

C. Honesty
D. Integrity

298. You are a person with a high level of…………………………………..if you stand

by your values even if others put pressure on you to do something that is

wrong or if they make fun of you.

A. Communication

B. Cooperation

C. Honesty

D. Integrity

299. If you dont have …………………………………., you can really get in trouble

for lying, cheating or deceiving others.

A. Communication

B. Cooperation

C. Honesty

D. Integrity

300. If you can keep things at work in order and have a neat workplace, then

you have great……………………………………….

A. Loyalty

B. Organizational Skills

C. Productivity

D. Respect

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