21- 08- 2020 Batch : MEDICAL 2020

Brilliant
STUDY CENTRE
Puliyannoor P.O., PALA
Ph - 04822 206100, 206800
www.brilliantpala.org
REPEATERS NEET MODEL EXAM - ALL UNIT
Time: 3 hrs.
Physics + Chemistry + Biology
Max. Mark: 720

PHYSICS 5. As shown in the figure, two equal

masses each of 4 kg are suspended
1. Two blocks of masses M=3 kg and from a spring balance. The reading of
m=2kg, are in contact on a horizontal the spring balance will be
table. A constant horizontal force
F = 5N is applied to block M as shown.
There is a constant frictional force of
2N between the table and the block M
but no frictional force between the
table and the first block M, then the
acceleration of the two blocks is

1) zero
2) 2 kg
1) 0.4 ms 2 2) 0.6ms 2
3) 4 kg
2 2
3) 0.8 ms 4) 1ms 4) Between zero and 2 kg
2. From the dimensional consideration, 6. A child weighing 30 kg slides down a
which of the following equation is rope hanging from the branch of a tall
correct ? tree. If the force of friction acting
against him is 2N, what is the
GM acceleration of the child
R3
1) T  2 2) T  2 (Take g = 10 m/s2)
GM R3
1) 22.5 m/s2 2) 8 m/s2
GM R 2
3) 5 m/s2 4) 9.93 m/s2
3) T  2 4) T  2
R2 GM
7. A body of mass 3 kg is under a force,
3. The velocity of a body depends on time which causes a displacement in it
according to the equation   40  0.2t 3 . 2t 3
The body is undergoing given by S  (in m). Find the work
3
1) Uniform acceleration done by the force in first 2 seconds.
2) Uniform retardation 1) 2 J 2) 3.8 J
3) Non-uniform acceleration 3) 24 J 4) 96 J

4) Zero acceleration 8. A bob hangs from a rigid support by an

inextensible string of length  . It is
4. A particle undergoes uniform circular released from rest when string makes
motion in a horizontal plane. The
an angle 600 with vertical. The speed
radius of the circle is 10 cm. The
centripetal force acting on the particle of the bob at the lowest position is
is 20N. Its kinetic energy is
1) g 2) 3g
1) 0.1 J 2) 0.2 J
3) 2.0 J 4) 1.0 J 3) 2g 4) 5g
FT20K/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB 2 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
9. A uniform circular disc of mass 200 g 14. Two sphere A and B have diameters in
and radius 4.0 cm is rotated about one the ratio 1:2, densities in the ratio 2:1
of its diameters at an angular speed of and specific heats in the ratio 1:3. Find
20 rad/s. Find its angular momentum the ratio of their thermal capacities.
(in kg-m/s) about the axis of rotation.
1) 1:6 2) 1:12
1) 160 × 10-5 2) 8.0 × 10-5
3)1:3 4) 1:4
3) 4.0 × 10-5 4) 10 × 10-5
15. A jar has a mixture of hydrogen and
10. Time period of revolution of a nearest
oxygen gas in the ratio of 1 : 4. The
satellite around a planet of radius R is
ratio of mean kinetic e nergies of
T. Period of revolution around another
hydrogen and oxygen molecules is
planet, whose radius is 4R but having
same density is 1) 1 : 16 2) 1 : 4
1) T 2) 4T 3) 1 : 5 4) 1 : 1
3) 16T 4) 3 3T 16. Which one of the following statements
is true in respect of the usual
11. A disc of radius 0.1m rolls without quantities represented by
sliding on a horizontal surface with a
velocity of 6 ms-1. It then ascends a
Q, U and W
smooth continuous track as shown in
1) U and W are path dependent
figure. The height upto which it will
ascend is (g = 10 ms-2) 2) Q and U are path dependent
3) U does not depends upon path
4) Q does not depends upon path
17. In a steady state of thermal
conduction, temperature of the ends
A and B of a 20 cm long rod are 2000C
and 00C respectively. What will be the
1) 2.4 m 2) 0.9 m temperature of the rod at a point at a
3) 2.7 m 4) 1.8 m distance of 6 cm from the end A of the
rod
12. If the work done in blowing a bubble of
volume V is W, then the work done in 1) -300 C 2) 1400 C
blowing the bubble of volume 2V from
the same soap solution will be 3) 50 C 4) 150 C

1) W 2) 2W 18. The period of oscillation of a simple

pendulum of length L suspended from
3)
1
4) 4 3 W the roof of a vehicle which moves
2W
without friction down an inclined plane
13. A wooden block of volume 1000 cm3 is of inclination  , is given by
suspended from a spring balance. It
weighs 10N in air. It is suspended in L L
water such that half of the block is 1) 2 2) 2
g cos  gsin 
be low the surface of wate r. The
reading of the spring balance is
L L
1) 10 N 2) 9 N 3) 2 4) 2
g g tan 
3) 8 N 4) 5 N
FT20K/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB 3 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
19. The equation of a stationary wave along 23. The internal resistance of a cell of
a stretched string is given by e.m.f. 2V is 0.2 . It is connected to a
x resistance of 4 . The voltage across
y  5sin cos 40t where x and y are in the cell will be
3
centimetre and t in second. The 1) 0.5 volt
separation between two adjacent nodes
is : 2) 1.9 volt

1) 1 cm 2) 2 cm 3) 1.45 volt

3) 3 cm 4) 1.5 cm 4) 2 volt

20. A cube of side b has a charge 2q at 24. As the switch S is closed in the circuit
each of its vertices. The electric field shown in figure, current passed
due to this charge distribution at the through the switch is approximately
centre of this cube will be
1) q/4b2
2) q/8b2
3) 32q/b2
4) zero
21. Four condensers are joined as shown
in the adjoining figure. The capacity of
each is 6F. The equivalent
1) 4.4 A 2) 6.0 A
capacitance between the points A and
B will be 3) 3.0 A 4) zero
25. Two identical particles of charge q each
are connected by a massless spring of
force constant K. They are placed over
a smooth horizontal surface. They are
released when the separation between
them is r and spring is in its natural
length. If maximum extension of the
1) 24F 2) 8F spring is r, the value of K is (Neglect
gravitational effect)
3) 6F 4) 16F
22. The electric potential V at any point
(x,y,z) in space is given by V  4x 2 V . The
V
electric field E (in ) at the point
m
(1, 0, 2) is
q 1 q 1
1) +8 in x direction 1) 4r  r 2) 2r  r
0 0
2) 8 in -x direction
3) 16 in +x direction 2q 1 q 1
3) r  r 4) r  r
4) 16 in -x direction 0 0
FT20K/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB 4 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
26. A wire of fixed length is turned to form 30. What is the r.m.s. value of an
a coil of one turn. It is again turned to alternating current which when
form coil of four turns. If in both cases passed through a resistor produces
same amount of current is passed, heat which is twice of that produced
then the ratio of the intensities of by a direct current of 2 amperes in the
magnetic field produced at the centre same resistor
of a coil will be
1) 6 amp
1) 16 times of first case
2) 4 amp
1
2) times of first case 3) 2.82 amp
9
4) 0.66 amp
3) 4 times of first case
31. The resonant frequency of a circuit is
1 f. If the capacitance is made 16 times
4) times of first case
3 the initial value, then the resonant
frequency will become
27. A proton and an  -particles enter a
uniform magnetic field perpendicularly 1) f/2 2) 2f
with the same speed. If proton takes
3) f 4) f/4
25 sec to make 5 revolutions, then
the periodic time for the   particles 32. Figure shows an infinite ladder
would be network of resistances. The equivalent
resistance between points X and Y is
1) 25 sec 2) 50 sec

3) 10 sec 4) 5 sec

28. A coil having an area A0 is placed in a
magnetic field which changes from B0
to 3B0 in a time interval t. The e.m.f.
induced in the coil will be

2A 0 B0 4A 0 B0
1) 2)
t t 1) infinite 2) 3 

3B0 4B0 3) 8.62 4) 1.62

3) A t 4) A t
0 0
33. If power factor is 1 2 in a series RL;
29. Point charges q, -q, 2Q and Q are
placed in order at the corners A, B, C circuit R  200 , 50Hz. Ac mains is
and D of a square of side 2b. If the used then L is
field at the midpoint of CD is zero, then
q 2 3
1) Henry 2)  Henry
is 
Q

1) 1 2) 2 
3) Henry 4) None of these
3
2 2 5 5
3) 4)
5 2
FT20K/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB 5 Brilliant
34. A square of a side a is cut from a square
of side 2a as show in the figure. Mass
of its square with a hole is M. Then its
moment of inertia about an axis
passing through its centre of mass and
perpendicular to its plane will be
STUDY CENTRE
36. The ratio of areas within the electron
orbits for the first excited state to the
ground state for hydrogen atom is
1) 16 : 1 2) 20 : 1
3) 4 : 1 4) 8 : 1
37. In a potentiometer arrangement shown
in figure. The balancing length for
potential difference across X and Y
points is found to be 45.5 cm. The
balancing length for potential
difference across (Y) and (Z) would be

Ma 2
1)
6

2Ma 2
2)
6

4Ma 2
3) 1) 45.50 cm
6
2) 56.87 cm
5Ma 2
4) 3) 36.40 cm
6
4) None of the above
35. The maximum velocity of an electron
emitted by light o f wavelength  38. In the circuit diagram shown below,
incident on the surface of a metal of the magnitude and direction of the flow
work function  , is of current, respectively, would be

 2  hc    
1/ 2

1)  
 m 

2  hc   
2)
m

 2  hc     1) 7 3 A from a to b via e
1/2

3)  
 m 
2) 7 3 A from b to a via e

 2  h    
1/2
3) 1 A from b to a via e
4)   4) 1 A from a to b via e
  
FT20K/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB 6 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
39. On a plane mirror, a ray of light is 43. The path diffe rence betwe en two
incident at an angle of 30 with interfering waves of equal intensities
horizontal. To make the reflected ray 
vertical, at what angle with horizontal at a point on the screen is . The ratio
4
must a plane mirror be placed?
of intensity at this point and that at
the central fringe will be
1) 1 : 1
2) 1 : 2
3) 4 : 1
4) 1 : 8

1) 30o 2) 60 44. When the rectangular metal tank is

filled to the top with an unknown
3) 45o 4) 54o liquid, an observer with eyes level with
40. A compound microscope has a the top of the tank can just see the
magnifying power 30. The focal length corner E; a ray that refracts towards
of its eye-piece is 5cm. Assuming the the observer at the top surface of the
final image to be at the least distance liquid is shown. The refractive index
of distinct vision, the magnification of the liquid is
produced by the objective will be
1) +5 2) -5
3) +4 4) -4
41. In YDSE, a thin mica sheet of thickness
2 × 10-6 m and refractive index (   1.5 )
is introduced in the path of the wave
in front of the slit above the central
line of the screen. The wavelength of
0
the wave used is 5000 A . The central
bright maximum will shift
1) 1.25 2) 1.60
1) 2 fringes upward
3) 1.85 4) 2.12
2) 2 fringes downward
45. The half-life period of a radio-active
3) 4 fringes upward element X is same as the mean life
4) 4 fringes downward time of another radioactive element Y.
Initially they have the same number
42. If two waves represented by y1  4sin t of atoms. Then

  1) X and Y decay at same rate always

and y 2  3sin  t   interfere at a
 3 2) X will decay faster than Y
point, the amplitude of the resulting
wave will be about 3) Y will decay faster than X

1) 4 2) 6 4) X and Y have same decay rate

initially
3) 8 4) 3
FT20K/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB 7 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
CHEMISTRY 51. Which of the following statements for
46. Which of the following acids has more crystals having Frenkel defect is not
than one oxidation state of sulphur correct ?
atoms ? 1) Frenkel defects are observed where
1) H2S2O8 2) H2S2O6 the difference in sizes of cations and
anions is large
3) H2S2O7 4) H2S2O5
2) The de nsity of crystals having
47. A certain compound has the molecular Frenkel defect is lesser than that of a
formula X4O6. If 10.0 g of compound pure perfect crystal
contains 6.06 g of X, the atomic mass
of X is 3) In an ionic crystal having Frenkel
defect may also contain Schottky defect
1) 32 amu 2) 37 amu
4) Pure alkali halides do not have
3) 42 amu 4) 48 amu Frenkel defect
48. 1 g sample of H2O2 solution containing 52. Pentan-2-one and pentan-3-one
x % H 2 O 2 by mass requires xcc of belongs to
KMnO 4 /H + . What is normality of
KMnO4 1) Functional isomers
1) 1.4 2) 0.588 2) Chain isomers
3) 2.5 4) 0.88 3) Position isomers
49. A 4 :1 mixture of He and CH 4 is 4) Tautomers
contained in a vessel at 20 bar
53. The most unlikely representation of
pressure. Due to a hole in the vessel
resonance structures of
the gas mixture leaks o ut. The
p-nitrophenoxide ion is
composition of the mixture, effusing out
initially is about
1) He : CH4 :: 1 : 1 O- O O- O-
+
N +
N
2) He : CH4 :: 2 : 1
3) He : CH4 :: 4 : 1
4) He : CH4 :: 8 : 1 1) 2)

50. The r.m.s velocity of hydrogen is

O- O
7 times the r.m.s velocity of
nitrogen.If T is temperature of the gas

1) T H2   T N2  O O O- O
N+ N+
2) T H2   T N2 
3) 4)
3) T H2   T N2 

4) T H2   7T N2  O- O
FT20K/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB 8 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

H combustion of CH4 is - 890 kJ/mole. Ratio 58. Silver nitrate is added to each of
54.
7-bromo-1,3,5-cycloheptatriene (A) and
of H combustion of n-Butane to 5-bromo-1,3-cyclopentadiene (B). It is
ethane is observed that
1) 1.2 2) 4 1) both A and B give AgBr precipitation
3) 2.5 4) 1.85 2) both A and B do not give AgBr
precipitation
55. The reaction of CH3CH = CH OH 3) A gives AgBr precipitation while B
does not give AgBr precipitation
with HBr gives
4) A does not give AgBr precipitation
while B forms AgBr precipitation
1) CH3CHBrCH2 OH 59. Which of the following statements
regarding monosaccharides is not
correct ?
1) The gene ral formula of
2) CH3CH2CHBr OH
monosaccharides is (CH2O)n
2) Carbohydrates are monosaccharides
if the number of carbon atoms is
3) CH3CHBrCH2 Br between three to seven
3) Dextrose is an example of
disaccharide

4) CH3CH2CHBr Br 4) Monosaccharides are optical active

compound
60. An organic compound containing two
56. The treatment of CH3C = CH2 with or more  OH and  O groups on
adjacent carbon atoms undergoes
CH3
oxidative cleavage by periodic acid
NaIO4 or boiling KMnO4 produces (HIO 4 ). Predict the products in the
1) CH3COCH3 + CH2O following question.

2) CH3CHO + CH3CHO Glucuronic acid (HOOC(CHOH)4CHO)

on treating with HIO4 produces
3) CH3COCH3 + CO2
1) 4HCOOH  OHC  COOH
4) CH3COCH3 + HCOOH
2) 3HCOOH  HCHO  OHC  CHO
57. The reaction of one equivalent of HBr
with Pent-1-en-5-yne gives 3) 3HCOOH  HCHO  HOOC  COOH
1) BrCH 2 CH 2 CH 2 C  CH 4) 5HCOOH  HCHO

2) CH 3CHBrCH 2 C  CH 61. Which of the following amino acids

(NH2CHRCOOH) contains nonpolar R
3) CH 2  CHCH 2 C  Br   CH 2 group ?
1) Serine 2) Arginine
4) CH 2  CHCH 2 CH  C  Br  H
3) Isoleucine 4) Cystein
FT20K/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB 9 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

62. A monoacid organic base (0.0915 g) 68. Which is not possible

requires 15 cm 3 of N/20 HCl for I. XeO3 + 6 HF  XeF6 + 6 H2O
complete neutralization. The molar
mass of the base is II. AlF3 + BCl3  AlCl3 + BF3
1) 61 g mol-1 2) 122 g mol-1 III. 3H3PO4 + PH3  4H3PO3
3) 244 g mol-1 4) 183 g mol-1 IV. Na 2S2 O3 + 4Cl2 + 5H 2 O  2NaHSO 4 + 8HCl
63. If the standrad potentials of
1) I, IV 2) II, III
Cl AgCl Ag and Ag  NH3 2 , NH 3 Ag are
 
3) I, II, III 4) IV
0.222 V and 0.373 V, respectively, the
69. In the pre sence of which of the
value of standard equilibrium constant
following species, boric acid can be
of the reaction at 298 K is
titrated against sodium hydroxide

AgCl  2NH 3   Ag  NH3  2   Cl  is about solution ?
1) trans-1,2-diol
1) 1.28 2) 0.0028
2) cis-1,2-diol
3) 19.05 4) 0.782
64. Which of the following salts does not 3) Borax
liberate more than one gas on heating? 4) Sodium hydrogen phosphate
1) FeSO4 2) Cu(NO3)2 70. Which of the following silicates is
3) Ag2CO3 4) K2Cr2O7 formed when three oxygen atoms of
65. T h e c o r r ec t o r d er of the SiO44 tetrahedral units are shared ?
st oi ch i om et r i es of AgCl for m ed w h en
AgNO 3 in excess is treated with the 1) Pyrosilicates
complexes COCl3.6NH3, COCl3. 5NH3, 2) Cyclic silicates
COCl3 . 4NH3 respectively
3) Linear chain silicates
1) 3AgCl, 1AgCl, 2AgCl
4) Sheet silicates
2) 3AgCl, 2AgCl, 1AgCl 71. Which of the following equations is not
correctly formulated ?
3) 2AgCl, 3AgCl, 1AgCl
1) Concentrate d HNO 3 acquires a
4) 1AgCl, 3AgCl, 2AgCl yellow coloration due to the reaction
66. The basic character of the transition 4HNO 3  4NO 2  2H 2 O  O 2
metal monoxides follows the order
1) CrO > VO > FeO > TiO 2) Cu  4HNO3  Cu  NO3 2  2H 2 O  2NO 2
dilute
2) TiO > FeO > VO > CrO
3) TiO > VO > CrO > FeO 3) 4Zn  10HNO3  4Zn  NO3 2  5H 2 O  N 2 O
4) VO > CrO > TiO > FeO
4) P4  20HNO 3  4H 3 PO 4  4H 2 O  20NO 2
67. If the magnetic moment of a dioxygen
species is 1.73 B.M, it may be 72. Which of the following interhalogens
does not exist ?
1) O 2 or O 2 2) O 2 , O 2 or O 2
1) ClF7 2) BrF3
3) O 2 , O 2 4) O 2 or O 2 3) BrF5 4) IF5
FT20K/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB 10
73. Correct about brown ring complex
1) dark brown due to charge transfer
2) dark brown due to d  d transition
of 3 unpaired electrons
3) hybridisation is dsp3
4) diamagnetic complex
74. Ammonium dichromate is used in some
fireworks. The green coloured powder
blown in air is
1) CrO3 2) Cr2O3
3) Cr 4) CrO(O3)
75. Which of the following statements
regarding the oxides of alkali and
alkaline metals is not correct ?
1) The reactivity of K2O towards water
is more than that of Na2O towards
water
2) The oxides of alkaline earth metals
are more basic than those of alkali
metals
3) MgO is used as a refractory material
for lining electric furnaces
4) The milk of lime and lime water are
two different solutions
76. The enthalpy change involved in the
oxidation of glucose is -2880 kJ mol-1.
Twenty five percent of this energy is
available for muscular work if 100 kJ
of muscular work is needed to walk
one kilometer. What is the maximum
distance that a person will be able to
walk after eating 120 g of glucose
1) 7.9 Km 2) 9.7 Km
3) 4.8 Km 4) 8.4 Km
77. Which of the follo wing solutions
changes the colour from red to blue of
a colloidal gold solution ?
1) 10 % starch
2) 10 % glucose
3) 10 % gelatin
4) 10 % sodium chloride
Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
78. The gaseous reaction A(g)  2B(g)  C(g)
is found to be first order-order with
respect to A. If the reaction is started
with PA = 90 mmHg, the pressure after
10 min is found to be 180 mmHg. The
rate constant of the reaction is
1) 1.15 × 10-3 s-1
2) 2.30 × 10-3 s-1
3) 3.45 × 10-3 s-1
4) 4.60 × 10-3 s-1
79. For the reaction A(g)  B(g) ; H   40kJ mol1 ,
If Ef/Eb = 2/3, then
1) Ef = 60 kJ mol-1; Eb = 100 kJ mol-1
2) Ef = 30 kJ mol-1; Eb = 70 kJ mol-1
3) Ef = 80 kJ mol-1; Eb = 120 kJ mol-1
4) Ef = 70 kJ mol-1; Eb = 30 kJ mol-1
80. The fre ezing point of a solution
containing 36 g of a compound in 1.20
kg of water is found to be  0.93 0 C . The
molecular formula of the solute is (Kf
of water is 1.86 Kkgmol–1)
1) CH2O 2) C2H4O2
3) C3H6O3 4) C4H8O4
81. Which of the following solutions is
expected to show positive deviations
form Raoult’s law ?
1) Pyridine-formic acid
2) Ethanol-hexane
3) Acetone-chloroform
4) Hydrochloric acid-water
82. The reaction occurring at the cathode
of miniature el ectrochemical cel l
during the rusting of iron is
1) Fe  Fe 2   2e 
2) Fe 2  Fe3  e 
3) O2  H2 O  2e  2OH
4) H 2  2OH   2H 2 O  2e 
FT20K/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB 11 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
83. Given is the following data. 87. An ideal gas expands isothermally from
a volume V1 to V2 and then compressed
Sn to original volume V 1 adiabatically.
Sn 4  1.5V 0.14V
Sn 2  Initial pressure is p1 and final pressure
is p3. The total work done is w. Then
1) p3 > p1 ; w > 0 2) p3 < p1 ; w < 0
E0
3) p3 > p1 ; w < 0 4) p3 = p1 ; w = 0

Which of the following can show the 88. VSEPR theory helps understanding
phenomenon of disproportionation ? the structures of inorganic compounds.
The regular geometry may be distorted
1) Sn4+ 2) Sn2+ due to repulsion between pairs of
ele ctrons. Based on this theory,
3) Sn 4) none of these
answer the following question.
84. Equal volumes of 0.2 M AgNO3 and 0.1M
NaCl solutions are mixed at 250 C. It The structure of ICl4 is
K sp (AgCl) = 1.8 × 10 -10 M 2 , the
concentratio n of Cl ions in the
solution will be
1) 3.6 × 10-8 M 1) 2)
2) 3.6 × 10-9 M
3) 1.34 × 10-5 M
4) 1.34 × 10-6 M

85. In a system A(s)  2B(g)  3C(g) if the

concentration of C at equilibrium is
increased by a factor of 2, it will cause 3) 4)
the equilibrium concentration of B to
change to
1) two times the original value
89. Hybridisation of N-atom in
2) one half of its original value

3) 2 2 times its original value a) b)

N N
4) 1 / 2 2 times the original value
H H
86. For a reaction A(g)  B(g) at
equilibrium, the partial pressure of B
is found to be one fourth of the partial
pressure of A. The value of G 0 of the c) are respectively
reaction A  B is N
1) RT ln 4 2) - RT ln 4 1) sp3, sp2, sp3 2) All are sp3
3) RT log 4 4) - RT log 4 3) sp2, sp2, sp3 4) sp3, sp2, sp2
FT20K/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB 12 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
90. Of the following, which is the product 93. In the genetic dictionary, there are 64
formed when cyclohexanone codons as:
undergoes aldol condensation followed 1) 64 aminoacids are to be coded 2) 64
by heating? type of t-RNA are present
3) There are 44 nonsense codons and
1) 20 sense codons
4) Genetic code is triplet
O 94. B act er ial D NA is n ot cleaved by t h ei r
ow n r es t r i c t i o n en d o n u c l ea s es
becau se bact er ia add .............. t o t h eir
2) own DNA
1) Nu cleot ides 2) Pept ides
3) M et h yl gr ou ps 4) Nit r ogen bases
OH
95. Th e D NA s egm en t s t a k en f or D N A
fi n ger p r in t in g:
3) 1) SNPs
2) Repet at ive sequ en ces
O O 3) Gen es
4) ESTs
O 96. Th e r at e of biogas pr odu ct ion is lim it ed
by :
1) M et h an e pr odu ct ion 2) Cel lu -
4) l ose d igest i on
3) Con ver sion of polym er s t o m on o-
OH O m er s
4) Con ver sion of m on om er s t o or gan ic
BIOLOGY
aci d s
91. During the transformation experiment
97. Spor ei n con t ain ed spor es of :
which among the following condition
produce fatal pneumonia in mice 1) Agr obact er i u m t u m efaciou s 2)
Agr ob act er i u m r h i zogen es
1) Live R-strain injected into mice
2) Heat killed S-strain and Live-R 3) B aci l lu s t h u r in gei n sis
strain injected into mice 4) Ph yt oph t h or a palm ivor a
3) Heat killed S-strain injected into 98. Accor din g t o t h e law of segr egat ion
mice 1 ) T h e ga m et es f o r m ed b y a
4) Heat killed S-strain and heat killed h et er ozy gou s gen o t y p e i s i n eq u a l
R-strain injected into mice pr opor t ion
92. The leading strand of replicated DNA 2) Th e gam et e for m ed by h et er ozygou s
is the one which gen ot ype is i n u n equ al pr opor t i on
1) Is formed in small segments 3) Th e pr ogen ies for m ed in a cr oss ar e
2) Is formed continuously in equ al pr opor t i on
3) Is formed discontinuously 4) Th e pr ogen ies for m ed in a cr oss ar e
gen ot yp ical l y si m i lar
4) Is formed later
FT20K/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB 13 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

99. Which among the following is not a 104. Polymoniales is :

similarity between gene s and 1) an order, in which many families
chromosome are arranged
1) In a diploid cell both are in paired 2) an order, in which only one family
condition is arranged
3) a class, in which many genus are
2) Paired alleles and homologou s arranged
chromosome are separated during
4) a class, in which only one genus is
anaphase -I
arranged
3) Segregation of every pair of allele 105. Consider the following statements with
and every pair of chromo so me i s respect to characteristics features of
independent the kingdom :
4) Restoring paired condition of both I. In Animalia, the mode of nutrition is
in zygote through fertilization autotrophic
II. In Monera, the nuclear membrane
100. Mutation due to the replacement of N2 is present
bases belongs to the same class III. In Protista, the cell type is
leading to the change on the structure prokaryotic
of DNA is
IV. In Plantae, the cell wall is present
1) Transition 2) Transversion Which of the above statement(s) is/are
3) Translocation 4) Frame shift correct?
1) Only I 2) Only II
101. The maximum diffe rent types of
3) Only III 4) Only IV
progenies formed by the mating
106. A macronutrient which is component
of all organic compounds but is not
between  is obtained from soil is
1) N 2) P
1) 4 2) 8 3) 16 4) 2 3) Mg 4) C
107. Consider the following four conditions
102. The semidwarf wheat which was
(1 - 5) and select correct statements
instrumental in increasing wheat as an adaptation to environment in
production was developed by desert Lizards.
1) Edward Jenner Conditions:
2) Noman E. Borlaug a. Burrowing in soil to escape high
temperature
3) Alexander Fleming b. They bask in the sun and absorb
4) Paul Ehrlich heat, when their body temperature
drops below the comfort zone
103. Find out the miss-mutch
c. Losing heat rapidly from the body
1. Brown rust - Wheat during high temperature
2. Late blight - Potato d. Move in to shade when the ambient
temperature starts increasing
3. Red rot - Sugarcane e . Insulating body due to thick fatty
4. Black rot - Rice dermis
1) a, b, e are false
1) 1,2 and 3 2) 2 and 3
2) a, b, c are correct
3) 2 only 4) 4 only 3) a, b, d are correct
4) All are correct
FT20K/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB 14
108. For frugivorous birds and mammals in
the tropical forests of different
continents, the slope is found to be :
1) 0.6 2) 1.3
3) 1.15 4) 1.7
109. In one plant, underground stems are
modified to store food and in another
plant, the stem tendrils develop from
axillary buds helps the plant to climb.
They are :
1) Ginger, Cucumber
2) Carrot, Jasmine
3) Sweet potato, Bougainvillea
4) Opuntia, Eichhornia
110. O bserve the following figure and
identify the correct statements
In this figure P,Q,R represent
a) P - There is a sharp increase in
dissolved oxygen, from the point of
sewage discharge
b) Q- Fish kill and disappearnce of
clean water organism
c) R -Amount of DO increases, and
reappearence of clean water
organisms
1) a and c are correct
2) a and b are correct
3) b and c are correct
4) all are correct
Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
111. With its ve ry large populati on o f
vehicular traffic, Delhi is one of the
most polluted cities of the world. Which
of the following steps were taken by
the government to reduce vehicular
pollution in Delhi?
i. Switching over the entire fleet of
publi c transport ie, buses,
autorickshaws, from diesel to CNG
ii. Phasing out old vehicles
iii. Use of leaded petrol in vehicles
iv. Use of low sulphur petrol and diesel
in vehicles
v. Use of catalytic conve rter in
vehicles
vi. Application of stringent pollution
level norms for vehicles such as Euro-
II norms etc.
1) All are correct
2) only i, ii, iv and v are correct
3) i, ii, iii, v and vi are correct
4) only i, ii, iv, v and vi are correct
112. Consider the following statements.
I. In racemose inflorescence, the
flowers are borne in a basipetal order
II. Epigynous flowers are seen in Pea
plant
III. In brinjal the ovary is superior
Choose the correct option
1) I and II are true and III is false
2) I and III are true and II is false
3) I and II are false but III is true
4) I and III are false but II is true
113. The phenomenon of climateric
respiration in a ripening fruit refers
to:
1) drop in the rate of respiration
2) survival without respiration
3) rise in the rate of respiration at the
time of ripening
4) rise and fall in the rate of respiration
at the time of ripening
FT20K/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB 15 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
114. Read the following statement given 116. In angiosperms pollen tubes liberates
below: their male gametes into the
(I) Permanent localised qualitative 1) central cell
changes
2) synergids
(II) Regaining division ability
3) egg cell
(III) Modification of development by
plant 4) antipodal cell

(IV)Loosing the ability to divide
The above statements relates to:
1) I -Plasticity,
II - Dedifferentiation,
III - Differentiation,
IV - Redifferentiation
2) I -Redifferentiation,
II - Differentiation,
III - Development,
IV - Plasticity
3) I - Lagphase,
117. Naked seeded plants diffe r from
bryophytes and pteridophytes in
1) Possessing true stem, root and
leaves
2) Absence of fertilisation through
pollen tube
3) Absence of independent free living
gametophytes
4) Presence of non integumented
megasporangium
118. Which of the following is a
characteristic features of nitrifying
bacteria.

II - Logphase, 1) reduce nitrates to free nitrogen

III - Plasticity 2) oxidise ammonia to nitrate

IV - Exponentialphase 3) convert protein into ammonia

4) I - Differentiation, 4) convert free nitrogen to nitrogen
compound
II - Dedifferentiation,
119. Match the following ovular structure
III - Plasticity,
with post fertilization structure and
IV - Redifferentiation select the correct alternative.
115. Life cy cle in which dominant,
Column I Column II
photosynthetic phase is the free living
A) Ovule 1) Endosperm
gametophyte, there are no free living
sporophyte and it represented by the B) Integument 2) Aril
one-celled zygote, meiosis occur in it C) Nucellus 3) Seed
and results in the formation of haploid D) PEN 4) Perisperm
spores. Which divides mitotically and
form gametophytes. This kind of life A B C D
cycle is found in
1) 2 3 4 1
1) Pinus
2) 3 2 4 1
2) Buxbaumia
3) 2 3 1 4
3) Chlamydomonas
4) 3 2 1 4
4) Equisetum
FT20K/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB
120. Both, autogamy and geitonogamy are
prevented in
1) Cucumber 2) Papaya
3) Castor 4) Maize
121. In grasses, what happens in a
microspore mother cell for the
formation of isobilateral pollen tetrad
1) one meiotic and two mitotic divisions
2) one meiotic and one mitotic divisions
3) one mitotic division
4) one meiotic division
122. How many of the m are wrong
statement
i) The pericycle doe s not form
cambium in monocot but produce lateral
root only
ii) Pericycle may be uniseriate (maize)
or multiseriate (smilax and salix)
iii) Monocot leaf is Amphistomatic
iv) In dicot leaf the size of vascular
bundles are dependent on the number
of veins
v) Bulliform cells/motor cells are
present on adaxial surface of monocot
leaf
vi) In Monocot stem peripheral vascular
bundles are generally larger than
centrally located one
1) 4 2) 3
3) 1 4) 2
123. A plant tissue, when stained, showed,
the presence of hemicelluose and
pectin in cell wall of its cells
1) Collenchyma
2) Sclerenchyma
3) Xylem
4) Meristem
16 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
124. Which of the following statements are
false
A) Thylakoid membrane is virtually
impermeable of protons, a substantial
electrochemical proton gradient can
develop across the thylakoid membrane
in illuminated chloroplast
B) Thylakoid membrane is mainly
contains galactose containing
glycolipids
C) During proton pumping, lumen
become more alkaline
D) Oxygen evolving complex is located
only i n luminal side of the grana
thylakoid
1) Both B & C 2) A, B, C
3) C only 4) C & D
125. Consider the following statements
regarding oxysome
A) CF1 is a catalytic site and composed
of 5 different polypeptides
B) CF0 is embeded in the lipid bilayer
and it is hydrophobic
C) CF0 is a proton pump
D) CF0 is a proton translocator through
which protons flow under the pressure
of the PMF
of the above statements
1) only A & B are true
2) only A is true
3) only C is false
4) only D is false
126. Consider the following statements
regarding calvin cycle
I. The carboxylation of the organic
acceptor molecule followed by
hydrolysis to generate two molecules
of 3-phosphoglyceric acid
II. The re gene ration of the initial
acceptor molecule thereby allowing
continuous carbon assimilation
III. Calvin cycle operates generally
when light is available
IV. The required energy for calvin cycle
is obtained from both cyclic and non-
cyclic electron transport reaction.
Of the above statements
1) only III is false
2) Both I and III are false
3) All except II are true
4) All statements are true
FT20K/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB 17 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
127. Which of the following statement is 132. Read the following statements
true i) Glycolysis is common to both aerobic
A) Phycobilins are the water soluble and anaerobic respiration
pigments respo nsible for
photosynthesis ii) The ATP made during glycolysis is
generated by substrate level
B) Phycobilins are found only in red
phosphorylation.
algae
C) Carotenoids are bifunctional iii) Glycolysis involve s comple te
pigments oxidation of glucose
D) Both phycobilins and carotenoids are iv) In plants, sucrose is converted into
present only in the antenna region of glucose and fructose by the enzyme,
the photosystem invertase and these 2
1) A, C, D 2) A only monosaccharides readily enters
3) B only 4) A, B, C, D glycolysis.
128. The two sub-units of ribosome remain v)ATP is utilized in 3 different steps in
united at a critical ion level of glycolysis
1) Magnesium 2) Calcium Which of the above statements are
3) Copper 4) Manganese correct?
129. The length of DNA molecule greatly 1) i, ii and iv only
exceeds the dimensions of the nucleus
in eukaryotic cells. How is the DNA 2) iii, iv only
accommodated? 3) iii and v only
1)Deletion of non-esential genes 4) iii, iv and v only
2) Supper-coiling in nucleosomes
133. Nuclear membrane is absent in
3) DNase digestion
4) Through elimination of reptetitive 1) Volvox 2) Nostoc
DNA 3) Penicillium 4) Agaricus
130. Uniport,symport and antiport are the 134. Many cells functions properly and
types of divide mitotically even though they do
1) Simple diffusion not have
2) Facilitated diffusion
1) Plasma membrane
3) Imbibition
2) Cytoskeleton
4) Osmosis
131. Bulk flow can be achieved through a 3) Mitochondria
hydrostatic pressure gradient. Negative 4) Plastids
hydrostatic pressure gradient and
positive hydrostatic pressure gradient 135. At what stage of the cell cycle histone
is seen in: proteins are sy nthe size d in a
eukaryotic cell
1) Suction through a straw and garden
hose respectively 1) During telophase
2) A garden hose and suction through 2) During S-phase
a straw respectively
3) During G-2 stage of prophase
3) Cobalt chloride paper and polyethene
respectively 4) During entire prophase
4) Blotting paper and cobalt chloride
paper respectively
FT20K/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB
136. Match the columns I and II, and choose
the correct combination from the
options given
Column I Column II
a Acidic amino acid 1 Valine
b Basic amino acid 2 Glutamic acid
c Neutral amino acid 3 Phenylalanine
d Aromatic amino acid 4 Lysine
1) a-2,b-4,c-1,d-3 2) a-2,b-1,c-4,d-3
3) a-3,b-2,c-1,d-4 4) a-1,b-4,c-3,d-2
137. A protein is imagined as a line, the
left end is represented by first amino
acid and the right end is represented
by the last amino acid. The first and
last acids are called as
1) N-terminal ami no acid and C-
terminal amino acid respectively
2) C-terminal ami no acid and N-
terminal amino acid respectively
3) O-terminal amino acid and C-
terminal amino acid repectively
4) NH2- terminal amino acid and NH2-
terminal amino acid respectively
138. Which structure is absolutely
necessary for the many biological
activity of protein?
1) Primary structure
2) Secondary structure
3) Tertiary structure
4) Quaternary structure
139. Peptide bond is formed when the
1) Carboxyl group of one amino acid
reacts with the carboxyl group of the
next amino acid
2) Amino group of one amino acid
reacts with the amino group of the next
amino acid
3) Carboxyl group of one amino acid
reacts with amino group of the next
amino acid
4) Amino group of one amino acid
reacts with carboxyl group of the next
amino acid
18 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
140. Microtubules absent in
1) Mitochondria 2) Centriole
3) Flagella 4) Spindle fibres
141. Which of the following is true for
inbreeding ?
1) It creates heterozygosity
2) It is the result of outcrossing
3) Helps in elimination of desirable
genes
4) Helps in accumulation of superior
genes
142. Which is the best breeding method for
animals that are below average in
productivity in milk production ?
1) Inter-specific hybridization
2) Cross-breeding
3) Out-crossing
4) Out-breeding
143. Select the correct statement from the
ones given below
1) Cocaine is given to patients after
surgery as it stimulates recovery
2) Barbiturates when given to criminals
make them tell the truth
3) Morphine is often given to persons
who have undergone surgery as a pain
killer
4) Chewing tobacco lowers blo od
pressure and heart rate
144. Read the following statements
i) Malignant tumors are the mass of
non-proliferating cells called neoplastic
cells
ii) Malignant tumors starve the normal
cells by competing for vital nutrients
iii) Cells of malignant tumors show
metastasis
iv) The ce lls of malignant tumor
severely losses the property of contact
inhibition
v) The cells sloughed from benign tumor
reach distant sites through blood,
where they get lodged to start a new
tumor
How many of the above statements are
correct ?
1) Five 2) Four
3) Two 4) Three
FT20K/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB 19
145. Allergy involves
1) Excess synthesis of anti-histamines
by our body
2) Usually life-threatening
hypersensitivity of immune system to
the allergens
3) Non-sensitivity of the immu ne
system to the allergens
4) Exaggerated response of immune
system to certain antigens present in
the environment
146. Which of the following is not true for a
species ?
1) Members of a species can interbreed
2) Variations occur among members of
species
3) Gene flow does not occur between
the populations of a species
4) Each species is reproductive ly
isolated from every other species
147. Given a po pulation that contains
genetic variation, what is the correct
sequence of the fol lowing e vents,
under the i nfluence of natural
selection ?
i) Well adapted individuals leave more
offsprings than do poorly adapted
individuals
ii) A change occurs in the environment
iii) Genetic frequencies within the
population change
iv) Poorly adapted individuals have
decreased survivorship
1) iv  ii  i  iii
2) iv  i  ii  iii
3) ii  iv  i  iii
4) ii  iv  iii  i
Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
148. Diaphragms are contraceptive devices
used by the fe males. Choose the
correct option from the statements
given below
i) They are introduced into the uterus
ii) They are placed to cover the cervical
region
iii) They acts as physical barriers for
sperm entry
iv) They act as spermicidal agents
1) (i) and (ii)
2) (i) and (iii)
3) (ii) and (iii)
4) (iii) and (iv)
149. Two contraceptive methods that are
generally irreversible and which block
the gametes from moving to a site
where fertilization can occur are
1) Male condom and oral contraceptives
2) Male condom and female condom
3) Vasectomy and tubectomy
4) Coitus interruptus and rhythm
method
150. One of the important consequences of
geographical isolation is
1) No change in the isolated fauna
2) Preventing speciation
3) Speciation through reproductive
isolation
4) Random creation of new species
151. Menstrual flow
1) occurs only if the released ovum gets
fertilized
2) if does not occur, is always an
indication of pregnancy
3) Results due to the breakdown of
endometrial lining of the ureter
4) Sheds the lining of womb which
passes out through vagina
FT20K/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB
152. The mitotic division in zygote starts
when it
1) reaches cervix
2) implants in the ampulla region of
fallopian tube
3) Reaches the infundibulum of
fallopian tube
4) Moves through the isthmus of the
oviduct
153. Read the following statements
i) During pregnancy the levels of
thyroxin, prolactin, cortisol, estrogen
and progesterone decrease
ii) Progesterone in increased level is
essential (for supporting the foetal
growth and maintenance of pregnancy
iii) High levels of LH, FSH in the uterus
and high levels of circulating hCG
stimulates the endometrial thickening
20 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
155. Insulin
1) Acts only on hepatocytes
2) Mainly acts on hepatocytes and
adipocytes
3) Is a hyperglycemic hormone
4) Rapidly channelises glucose from
hepatocytes and adipocytes into blood
156. Read the following statements with
respect to thyroid
i) It secretes a steroid hormone called
thyrocalcitonin
ii) Helps in maintaining water and
electrolyte balance
iii) Controls the metabol ism of
carbohydrates, proteins and fats with
the help of thyroxine

iv) High levels of LH and FSH in the iv) Regulates basal metabolic rate
uterus stimulates implantation (BMR)
v) High levels of hCG stimulates v) Supports the process of red blood cell
progesterone synthesis. formation
Which of the above statements are
How many of the above statements are
correct ?
correct ?
1) (i), (ii) 2) (ii), (v)
1) Four
3) (iii), (iv) 4) (i), (iii)
154. Read the following statements 2) Three
i) Catecholamines inhibits the 3) Two
breakdown of glycogen
4) Five
ii) Catecholamines can lead to increase
in glucose concentration
157. What is the role of Na  K  pump in
iii) Catecholamines sti mulates
the axonal membrane of a neuron ?
breakdown of lipids and proteins
iv) Adrenaline and nor-adrenaline 1) To pump 2Na  out and 3K  into the
increases alertness, pupillary dilation, axon
piloerection and sweating
2) To maintain a polarised state when
v) Adrenal cortex secretes only two
a neuron is resting
hormones
Which of the following statements are 3) Both 1 and 2
incorrect ?
4) To allow sodium and potassium ions
1) (ii), (iii) 2) (i), (v) to move downhill
3) (ii), (iv) 4) (i), (iii), (v)
FT20K/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB 21
158. Read the following statements and
choose to the correct sequence of
events of transmission of impulse from
one neuron to the next
i) Fusion of synaptic vesicles with
presynaptic membrane and release of
neurotransmitter into synaptic cleft
ii) Binding of neurotransmitter to the
receptor present on post synaptic
membrane
iii) Action potential arrives at axon end
iv) Ion-channels open allowing entry of
ions which can generate new potential
in the post-synaptic neuron
v) Pre-synaptic membrane depolarises
1) (iv)  (v)  (i)  (iii)  (ii)
2) (iii)  (v)  (i)  (ii)  (iv)
3) (iii)  (ii)  (iv)  (v)  (iii)
4) (ii)  (i)  (iv)  (ii)  (v)
159. Read the following statements
i) The rods contain a purplish-red
protein called rhodopsin or visual
purple
ii) Rhodopsin / visual purple is a
derivative of vitamin-A
iii) Cones respond to blue, red and
green lights
iv) When three different types of cones
are stimulated equally then a
sensation of blue, red and green light
is produced in sequence
v) Cones are photoreceptor cells, rods
are not.
Which of the above statements are
incorrect ?
1) (iv), (v)
2) (i), (ii), (iv)
3) (iii), (iv), (v)
4) (ii), (iii)
Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
160. Which of the following is incorrect w.r.t
muscle fibre of skeletal muscles ?
1) The thin filaments (actin) are firmly
attached to the Z-line
2) The thick filaments (myosin) are held
together in the middle of A-band by a
thin fibrous membrane called M-line
3) The ‘A’ and ‘I’ bands are arranged
alternately throughout the length of
the myofibrils
4) H-zone shows overlapping of the thin
(actin) and thick (myosin) filaments
161. Arrange the following events of muscle
contraction in correct sequence
i) Release of calcium ions
ii) Release of ace tylcholi ne
(neurotransmitter)
iii) Cross-bridge formation
iv) Pulling of attached actin filaments
towards the centre of ‘A-band’
v) Removal of masking of active sites
for myosin
vi) Generation of action potential in the
sarcolemma
1) (i)  (iv)  (ii)  (v)  (iii)  (ii)
2) (iv)  (v)  (iii)  (i)  (ii)  (vi)
3) (ii)  (vi)  (v)  (i)  (iv)  (iii)
4) (ii)  (vi)  (i)  (v)  (iii)  (iv)
162. Read the following statements
i) Clavicle is triangular
ii) The dorsal, flat, triangular body of
scapula has a slightly elevated ridge
called spine
iii) Spine of scapula projects a flat,
expanded process called the acromion
iv) Clavicle articulates with acromion
v) Collar bone is long and slender with
two curvatures
Which of the above statements are
correct ?
1) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) 2) (ii), (iii), (iv), (v)
3) (i), (iii) and (iv) 4) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
FT20K/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB 22
163. Which of the following is incorrect ?
1) Loop of Henle is very short in cortical
nephrons in comparison to juxta-
medullary ones
2) The cortical nephrons are more in
number than the juxtamedullary ones
3) Podocytes are present in parietal
layer of Bowman’s capsule
4) Proximal convoluted tubule (PCT) is
lined by simple cuboidal epithelium
with microvilli
164. After blood flow is artificially reduced
at one kidney, you would expect that
kidney to secrete more amount of
1) Atrial natriuretic peptide
2) Antidiuretic hormone
3) Renin
4) Angiotensinogen
165. Which of the following is incorrect ?
1) Glucose is actively reabsorbed in the
proximal convoluted tubule
2) Micturation occurs due to a reflex
3) ADH causes water elimination and
thereby makes urine hypoosmotic
4) Sebaceous glands eliminate sterols,
hydrocarbons and waxes
166. Which of the following is a true
statement abou t human digestive
system ?
1) The lower surface of the tongue has
small projections called papillae
2) Vermiform appendix arises from the
caecum
3) The cardiac portion of the stomach
opens into the first part o f small
intestine
4) The oral cavity leads, into a short
larynx which serves as a common
passage for food and air
Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
167. Select the correct match
1) Haldane effect - effect of CO2 conc.
on the dissociation of oxyhaemoglobin
2) Hamburger shift - exchange of HCO3
of RBC and Cl of plasma
3) Chloride shift - diffusion of Cl from
RBC to plasma
4) Bohr effect - effect of CO 2 conc. on
oxyhaemoglobin formation
168. All the following statements are
incorrect, except
1) During expiration, the pulmonary
pressure is slightly lower than the
surrounding atmospheric pressure
2) The H  released from carbonic acid
combines with Hb is form
haemoglobinic acid
3) Oxyhaemoglobin of erythrocytes is
alkaline
4) The contraction of i nternal
intercostal muscles rises the ribs
upwards
169. Consider the following statements
a) Trachea divides at the level of 5th
cervical vertebrae into right and left
primary bronchi
b) Volume of air participate in gaseous
exchange known as alveolar volume
c) Dead space volume of air is about
350ml
d) Herring Breur reflex is the defence
mechanism against over dilation of
lung
e) Respiratory quotient will be infinity
during anabolic respiration
1) a and c wrong
2) b and c wrong
3) c and d wrong
4) a and d wrong
FT20K/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB 23
170. Which one of the following is a
matching pair
1) Lub - sharp closure of A-V valves at
the beginning of ventricular diastole
2) Dup - sudden closure of semilunar
valves at the end of ventricular diastole
3) Heart murmur - produced due to
defective valve
4) Haemophilia A - Christmas disease
171. Pulmonary artery is different from
pulmonary vein because it has
1) without endothelium
2) well developed tunica media
3) larger lumen for blood flow
4) collagenous tunica externa
172. The opening of the semilunar valves is
due the pressure in
1) atria exceeding the pressure in the
aorta and pulmonary trunk
2) ventricles exceeding the pressure
in the aorta and pulmonary trunk
3) atria exceeding the pressure in the
venacava
4) ventricles exceeding the pressure
in the atria
173. Chyme of a person who has consumed
only starch will show the presence of
1) Maltose and glucose
2) Dextrin and maltose
3) Starch, dextrin and maltose
4) Starch, dextrin and glucose
174. For a non-diabetic person, the glucose
concentration in which part of the
vasculature varies more than any other
part
1) abdominal artery
2) coronary artery
3) pulmonary veins
4) hepatic portal vein
Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
175. Read the following statements
i) The lymphoid tissue of pharynx is
called tonsils
ii) Wharton’s duct is one of the salivary
duct
iii) The hard surface of the te eth
(enamel) helps in mastication of food
iv) Chewing is important as it increases
the surface area of food
v) A bony flap called epiglottis prevents
the entry of food into the glottis during
swallowing
How many of the following statements
are correct ?
1) Four 2) Three
3) Two 4) Five
176. Proventriculus of cockroach
1) Represents the muscular heart
chamber
2) is gizzard
3) has an outer layer of thick circular
muscles and also a thick inner cuticle
4) Both 2 and 3
177. Read the following statements w.r.t
circulatory system of cockroach
i) Blood vessels are poorly developed
ii) Visceral organs located in the
haemocoel are bathed in the blood
iii) Blood from sinuses enter heart
through ostia and is pumped anteriorly
to the sinuses again
iv) Ostia lack valves
v) Alary muscles are fan-shaped and
has no role in blood circulation
Which of the above statements are
correct ?
1) (iii), (iv), (v) 2) (iv), (v)
3) (iii), (iv) 4) (i), (ii), (iii)
FT20K/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB
178. Read the following statements
i) Non-keratinized epithelium is
impermeable to water
ii) The columnar epithelia may have
microvilli on the free surface
iii) The cells of columnar ciliated
epithelium possess apical nuclei
iv) Pseudostratified columnar ciliated
epithelium occurs in the trachea and
large bronchi
v) A gland may be made of a cell / tissue
/ organ
Which of the above statements are
correct ?
1) (ii), (iv), (v) 2) (i), (ii)
3) (iii), (iv), (v) 4) (iii), (iv)
24 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
179. Connective tissues typically have
1) Many densely packed cells which
direct connections between the
membrane of adjacent cells
2) A su pporting material like
chondroitin sulfate
3) The ability to transmit
electrochemical impulses
4) Relatively few cells and a large
amount of extracellular matrix
180. Crocodile and penguin are similar to
whale and dog fish in which one of the
following features ?
1) Lay eggs and guard them till they
hatch
2) Possess body skeleton
3) Have gill slits at some stage
4) Possess a solid single stranded
central nervous system
 21 - 08- 2020 Batch : MEDICAL 2020
Brilliant
STUDY CENTRE REPEATERS NEET MODEL EXAM - ALL UNIT
Puliyannoor P.O., PALA
Ph - 04822 206100, 206800 (P + C + B) Key with hints
www.brilliantpala.org

PHYSICS
1. 2

2. 1

3. 3

4. 4

5. 3

6. 4

ds
7. 4 Velocity V   2t 2
dt
1
W = change in K.E = MV 2  0
2
m 4
 4t  2mt 4
2
= 2 × 3 × 16 = 96 J

8. 1
FT20K/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB 2 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

9. 1

10. 1

11. 4

12. 4

13. 4 Reading of the spring balance

FT20K/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB 3 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

14. 2

15. 4

16. 3
17. 2

18. 1

19. 3

20. 4 Zero
21. 1
FT20K/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB 4 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

22. 2

23. 2

24. 1

25. 2

26. 1
FT20K/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB 5 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

27. 3

28. 1

29. 4

30. 3

31. 1

32. 4

33. 1
FT20K/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB 6 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

34. 4

35. 3 According to Einstein’s photoelectric equation

36. 1

37. 3

38. 4
FT20K/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB 7 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

39. 1

40. 2

41. 1

42. 2

43. 2
FT20K/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB 8 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

44. 1

45. 3

CHEMISTRY

O O

46. 4 The structure of H2S2O5 is HO S S OH . The oxidation states of S are +V

O
and +III.

4M 6.06
47. 2 If M is the atomic mass of X, we have 4M  96 amu  10

Solving for M, we get M = 36.9 amu

48. 2 Equivalents H2O2 = equivalents KMnO4

x  x 
 N
17  100  1000 
FT20K/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB 9 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
49. 4 We have partial pressure of He = 16 bar
Partial pressure of CH4 = 4 bar
1/ 2
rHe  p He   M CH4  1/ 2
 16  16 
      8
rCH4  p CH4   M He   4  4 


50. 3

51. 2 The density of crystals having Frenkel defect is identical to that of a pure
crystal.
52. 3

53. 3

54. 4

55. 2

56. 3

57. 2 The reaction proceeds through a carbocation. The alkyl carbocation from the
alkene group is more stable than the vinyl carbocation formed from the alkyne
group. Thus, alkene reacts at a faster rate than alkyne toward electrophilic
addition.
FT20K/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB 10 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

58. 3 The structure of 7-bromo-1,3,5-cycloheptatriene is

In the presence of Ag+ in solution, bromine gets precipitated as AgBr giving a

stable cycloheptatrienyl carbocation due to its aromatic character (six 
electrons delocalised in seven overlapping p orbitals)

The structure of 5-bromo-1,3-cyclopentadiene is

The bromine in this case is not precipitated in the presence of Ag+ ions because
the cyclopentadiene carbocation will not be stable as it is not aromatic (4 
electrons distributed over 5p orbitals). It is for this reason, the carbocation is
not formed.
59. 3 Dextrose (i.e. glucose) is an example of monosaccharide
60. 1

61. 3 Isoleucine contains nonpolar CH  CH3  CH 2 CH3 group.

62. 2
63. 4 We have

(Note : In K 0eq is negative, K 0eq will be less than 1.)

64. 4 K2Cr2O7 liberates only O2

65. 2
FT20K/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB 11 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
66. 3 The size of given metals decreases whereas ionization energy increases from
Ti to V to Cr to Fe. Hence, the metallic character of the metals decreases so is
their basicity of oxides from Ti to V to Cr to Fe.

67. 4

68. 3

69. 2 The neutralization reaction is B  OH 3  NaOH  Na  B  OH 4   NaBO 2  2H 2 O cis-


diol forms a stable complex with the  B  OH  4  and thus the neutralization
reaction proceeds in the forward direction. Thus B(OH)3 in the presence of cis-
diol acts as a strong acid.
70. 4
71. 2 With dilute HNO3, the reaction is 3Cu  8HNO3  3Cu  NO3  2  2NO  4H 2 O
72. 1 The interhalogen CIF7 does not exist
73. 1
74. 2 The green colour is due to Cr2O3
75. 2 oxides of alkali metals are more basic than alkaline earth metals

76. 3
FT20K/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB 12 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

77. 4
78. 1 We have

79. 3

80. 2

Hence, molecular formula is C2H4O2

81. 2 p  x A p*A  x B p*B  84Torr   0.8  70Torr    0.2   p*B   p*B  140Torr

82. 3
83. 4 Considering the disproportionation reaction

2Sn 2  Sn 4  Sn
The cell potential this reaction is

E 0  E 0R  E 0L  ESn
0
2
/Sn
 ESn
0
4
,Sn 2 /Pt
 0.14V  0.15V  0.29V

Since the cell potential is negative, the disproportionation reaction is not

feasible.
84. 2 On mixing the two solutions, 0.1 M of AgNO3 which is left in excess becomes
0.05 M due to doubling of the volume. Hence

K sp  AgCl  1.8  1010 M 2

Cl      3.6  109 M
 Ag   0.05M

85. 4
FT20K/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB 13 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

86. 1 K p  p B / p A  1 / 4. Since G 0   RT ln K 0p , we will have G 0  RT ln 4

87. 1 In t h e fig., t h e cu r ve ab r epr esen t s isot h er m al expan sion fr om p 1,V1 to p2,V2. In

adiabatic compression from V2 to V1, the temperature of the gas will be larger
than the temperature at the state a.

Consequently, the pressure of the gas after the gas has undergone compression
will be larger than that existing at the state a. Thus, the adiabatic compression
will be represented by the curve bc. The total work done is given by
W = Wisothermal + Wadiabatic
where Wisothermal has a negative value as it involves expansion of the gas.
Since the magnitude of work is given by the area under the curve, the total
work will carry positive sign.
88. 1
89. 4

90. 1
FT20K/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB 14 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

BIOLOGY

91. 2 106. 4 121. 4 136. 1 151. 4 166. 2

92. 2 107. 3 122. 4 137. 1 152. 4 167. 2
93. 4 108. 3 123. 1 138. 3 153. 2 168. 2
94. 3 109. 1 124. 3 139. 3 154. 2 169. 1
95. 2 110. 3 125. 3 140. 1 155. 2 170. 3
96. 2 111. 4 126. 4 141. 4 156. 1 171. 2
97. 3 112. 3 127. 1 142. 3 157. 2 172. 2
98. 1 113. 3 128. 1 143. 3 158. 2 173. 3
99. 3 114. 4 129. 2 144. 4 159. 1 174. 4
100. 1 115. 3 130. 2 145. 4 160. 4 175. 1
101. 2 116. 2 131. 1 146. 3 161. 4 176. 4
102. 2 117. 3 132. 1 147. 3 162. 2 177. 4
103. 4 118. 2 133. 2 148. 3 163. 3 178. 1
104. 1 119. 2 134. 4 149. 3 164. 3 179. 4
105. 4 120. 2 135. 2 150. 3 165. 3 180. 3