MKT516

1.
Modern marketing concept is _____________

A. price oriented
B. consumer oriented
C. product oriented
D. profit oriented
ANSWER: B
2. 4 P’s of Marketing Mix are ______________
A. Price, public, promotion, and profit
B. Place, Price, profit and promotion
C. Product, Price, Place and Profit
D. Product, Price, Place and Promotion
ANSWER: D
3. A place for buying and selling activities is called ______________
A. market
B. marketing
C. market research
D. market information
ANSWER: A
4. Which one of the following statements is correct?
A. selling includes marketing
B. marketing includes selling
C. selling and marketing are the same
D. marketing not including in business
ANSWER: B
5. Marketing research is concerned with _________________
A. anticipation of production
B. supply position
C. financial problems
D. solution to specific problems of marketing
ANSWER: D
6. Mercatus means __________________
A. buying
B. to trade
C. to assembleD. to sell
ANSWER: B
7. Perfect market means ___________
A. prices are not uniform
B. product are not identical
C. free entry and exit into market
D. lack of communication
ANSWER: C
8. The prime object of marketing is __________
A. profit
B. service
C. sales
D. consumer satisfaction
ANSWER: D
9. Markets are created by ____________
A. nature
B. economic force
C. business men
D. product
ANSWER: B
10. Zero level channel of distribution is also called as _______________
A. direct marketing
B. multilevel marketing
C. two level marketing
D. micro level marketing
ANSWER: A
11. Marketing begins and ends with __________________
A. consumer
B. transport
C. price
D. product
ANSWER: A
12. ——— brings about the changes in the ownership of products
A. exchange
B. storing
C. promotion
D. MIS
ANSWER: A
13. —– is the most fundamental aspect for any merchandise transactions
A. financing
B. grading
C. insurance
D. packing
ANSWER: A
14. ———- plays a significant role in under developed countries, as it is a multiplier ofactivities.
A. sales
B. buying
C. marketing
D. production
ANSWER: C
15. In evolution of marketing ——– stage was concerned only with mass production of goods.
A. production orientation
B. barter system
C. sales orientation
D. consumer orientation
ANSWER: A
16. In ——stage selling activity becomes the dominant factor, without any efforts for the
satisfaction of the consumer needs.
B. barter system
ANSWER: C
17. According to whom-“market includes both place and region in which buyers and sellers are
in free competition with one another”
A. pyle
B. kotler
C. drucker
D. clark and clark
ANSWER: A
18. Marketing emphasizes on ____________
A. consumer wants
B. sellers need
C. manufactures profit
D. retailers margin
ANSWER: A
19. Factors influencing marketing concepts——-
A. population growth
B. assembling of goods
C. physical transfer of goods
D. scatter of goods
ANSWER: A
20. ———- are networks that connect people within a company to each other and to the company
network.
A. internets
B. extranets
C. bit streams
D. WWW
ANSWER: B
21. The price determination of the product, under _______ method, is made on the basis of costof
production plus an additional margin of cost.
A. demand based
B. cost based
C. cost-demand based
D. competition based
ANSWER: B
22. The place where the goods are stored is known as _______
A. warehouse
B. market
C. cabin
D. stores
ANSWER: A
23. The exchange value of a good/service in terms of money is ____________
A. price
B. product
C. buying
D. selling
ANSWER: A
24. Selling the same product at different prices is known as ___________
A. price lining
B. dual pricing
C. geographical pricing
D. monopoly pricing
ANSWER: B
25. The words used to convey the advertisement idea is _______________
A. advertisement
B. advertisement research
C. advertisement copy
D. advertisement budget
ANSWER: C
26. Fixing a high price for a new product will be called as ——
A. price skimming
B. price segmenetation
C. dual pricing
D. customary pricing
ANSWER: A
27. Brand loyalty refers to product __________
A. identification
B. recognition
C. preference
D. insistence
ANSWER: D
28. Pricing based on area is called as——
A. domestic pricing
B. geographical pricing
C. skimming pricingD. cost plus pricing
ANSWER: B
29. Sales management deals with ______________
A. sales
B. product
C. profit
D. market
ANSWER: D
30. The distance between the seller and buyer is considered in ________ pricing
A. Geographical
B. penetration
C. skimming
D. sealed pricing
ANSWER: A
31. Consumer purchasing power is determined by ___________
A. salary
B. disposable income
C. total income
D. price
ANSWER: B
32. A group of products that are closely related is called ___________
A. product mix
B. product line
C. product item
D. product diversification
ANSWER: B
33. ____________ is also known as cost plus pricing.
A. Mark up pricing
B. penetration pricing
D. dual pricing
ANSWER: A
34. Identify the one which is demand based pricing ____________
A. target pricing
B. mark up pricing
C. marginal pricing
D. skimming pricing
ANSWER: B
35. AGMARK standardization is given to _____________
A. industrial goods
B. agricultural goods
C. imported goods
D. consumer goods
ANSWER: B
36. Product mix is the set of all product __________A. lines and items
B. lines
C. items
D. width
ANSWER: A
37. ——- is the first step in marketing
A. buying
B. selling
C. assembling
D. financing
ANSWER: A
38. Transportation creates ——- utility.
A. time
B. place
C. form
D. storage
ANSWER: B
39. Warehouse creates —–utility.
A. place
B. time
C. form
D. storage
ANSWER: B
40. Brand is a means of —–
A. communication
B. identification
C. packing
D. specialization
ANSWER: B
41. Selling is an act of __________
A. persuasion
B. illusion
C. forcing
D. communication
ANSWER: C
42. Price is an ________ term.
A. absolute
B. relative
C. composite
D. standard
ANSWER: A
43. ———— creates a particular image in the minds of consumer
A. branding
B. personal selling
C. grading
D. product planningANSWER: A
44. The second element to effect the volume of sales is ____________
A. price
B. product
C. promotion
D. distribution
ANSWER: A
45. Anything which possess utility is ——
A. product
B. finished goods
C. raw materials
D. stock
ANSWER: A
46. Website build to engage customers from different places to move them closer for marketing
outcome is classified as ______________
A. corporate website
B. marketing website
C. branding website
D. viral website
ANSWER: B
47. ——– may be defined as the exchange of goods or services in terms of money.
A. price
B. product
C. grading
D. branding
ANSWER: A
48. Group of online social communities such as virtual worlds, social networking sites and
blogs where people exchange opinions is classified as ____________
A. Inbound social networks
B. Outbound social networks
C. Offline social networks
D. Online social networks

ANSWER: D
49. ———- creates a non personal stimulation of demand in advertising
A. pricing
B. production
C. public relation
D. distribution
ANSWER: A
50. The stage in the product life cycle that focuses on expanding market and creating product
awareness and trail is the ——
A. decline stage
B. introduction stage
C. growth stage
D. maturity stage
ANSWER: C
51. A __________ is a promotion strategy that calls for using the sales force and trade promotion to
move the product through channels.
A. push strategy
B. pull strategy
C. blocking strategy
D. integrated strategy
ANSWER: A
52. Consumer goods with unique characteristics or brand identification often requiring a special
purchase effort are called—–
A. custom product
B. specialty products
C. convenience product
D. shopping products
ANSWER: D
53. Which of the following is NOT one of the five stages of the buyer decision process?
A. need recognition
B. brand identification
C. information search
D. purchase decision
ANSWER: B
54. ___________ is a tool used to provide information and induce the people to buy the products.
A. Price
B. Profit
C. Promotion
D. Publicity
ANSWER: C
55. Advertisement promotes ______________
A. purchase
B. production
C. sales
D. price
ANSWER: C
56. ——— is a process by which a product is branded.
A. brand
B. branding
C. packaging
D. pricing
ANSWER: B
57. The main principle of cooperative marketing is _______________
A. more profit
B. increased production
C. normal profit with service
D. low price
ANSWER: C58. ——– is a part of the product, which carries verbal information about the product.
A. label
B. price
C. product
D. bill
ANSWER: A
59. A___________ is a good offered either free or at low cost as an incentive to buy a product.
A. patronage reward
B. coupon
C. price pack
D. premium
ANSWER: D
60. Middlemen will increase the—–
A. price of the product
B. quality of the product
C. profit of the product
D. time and place utility of the product
ANSWER: D
61. When advertising is reached to the residential place of the people it is called ________
A. promotional advertising
B. outdoor advertising
C. indoor advertising
D. direct advertising
ANSWER: C
62. __________is an element of buying.
A. financing
B. assembling
C. risk bearing
D. customer services
ANSWER: B
63. An advertisement copy must have_____________
A. description
B. narration
C. exposition
D. report
ANSWER: A
64. Sales promotion tool includes ___________
A. appeals
B. coupons
C. vertical marketing
D. price
ANSWER: B
65. Standardization includes _________
A. estimating demand
B. locating sources of supply
C. grading
D. product line
ANSWER: C
66. The middlemen who do not take any title to goods is __________
A. retailer
B. wholesaler
C. agent
D. commission houses
ANSWER: C
67. ——— is allowed in the form of deductions from the list price.
A. trade discount
B. quantity decisions
C. cash discount
D. seasonal discount
ANSWER: A
68. ___________ is price at which a retailer sells the products to his buyers.
A. retail price
B. wholesale price
C. FOB price
D. administered price
ANSWER: A
69. A method which aims to capture the market and increase the sales volume is known as
____________
A. packing
B. purchasing
C. sales promotion
D. marketing
ANSWER: C
70. _________ gives a chance to the consumers to compare the products with their substitutes.
A. sampling
B. contest
C. premium offers
D. distribution
ANSWER: A
71. ———is a mass communication of information intended to persuade buyers as to maximize
profits.
A. advertising
B. salesmanship
C. sales promotion
D. personal selling
ANSWER: A
72. ———- and other forms of promotion are supported by an advertisement.

A. personal selling
B. branding
C. promotion
D. publicityANSWER: A
73. ——- are published according to the taste or liking of the public.
A. magazines
B. journals
C. newspaper
D. special issues
ANSWER: A
74. ——– is a group of persons, who are experts on various phases of advertising and related
marketing areas.
A. advertising agency
B. marketing agency
C. promotion agency
D. marketing research agency
ANSWER: A
75. ———- influences the buyer to buy a product
A. personal selling
B. packing
C. price
D. grading
ANSWER: A
76. Products reach the hands of customers through a number of channels, of that the main
channels is——-
A. distributor
B. wholesaler
C. retailer
D. agents
ANSWER: B
77. ——– is a wide term which includes advertising, sales and personal selling.
A. distribution
B. warehousing
C. promotion
D. transportation
ANSWER: C
78. An example of agent middleman ——
A. broker
B. retailer
C. wholesaler
D. truck jobbers
ANSWER: A
79. An example of merchant middlemen ____
A. commission agent
B. wholesaler
C. resident buyers
D. factors
ANSWER: B80. The wholesaler who don’t provide credit and transport facility are called as ——-
A. cash and carry wholesaler
B. limited function wholesaler
C. mail-order wholesaler
D. full-service wholesaler
ANSWER: A
81. Services rendered by wholesaler to manufacturer is ——
A. acting as an intermediary
B. advise to retailer
C. facilitating small purchase
D. to keep varieties of goods
ANSWER: A
82. A ——- is a promotion strategy that calls for using the sales force and trade promotion to
move the product channels.
A. push strategy
B. pull strategy
ANSWER: A
83. Promotional mix includes ____________
A. advertising, personal selling and sales promotion
B. advertising, awareness and sales promotion
C. advertising, personal selling and publicity
D. segmentation, personal selling and sales promotion
ANSWER: A
84. Distributional activities involve decision regarding——-
A. advertisement
B. channels of distribution
C. decision making
D. promotion strategies
ANSWER: B
85. Assembling of goods means bringing goods to a —-place
A. central
B. market
C. consumer
D. seller’s
ANSWER: A
86. Transport involves —— goods from their place of origin to the place of their consumption.
A. distributing
B. collecting
C. sending
D. controlling
ANSWER: A
87. The social aspect of marketing is to ensure——
A. price
B. demandC. low price with high quality
D. service goods
ANSWER: C
88. Unwanted and unsolicited commercial e-mails that clog up e-mailboxes of users is classified
as______________________
A. Invasion of privacy
B. Spam
C. Virus
D. Deception
ANSWER: B
89. ——- consists of dividing a market into distinct groups of buyers on the basis of needs,
characteristics, or behaviour who might require separate products.
A. product differentiation
B. market segmentation
C. market targeting
D. market positioning
ANSWER: B
90. Market segmentation is ——–
A. dividing
B. targeting
C. positioning
D. differentiation
ANSWER: A
91. The behaviour exhibited by people in the course of purchasing is ——
A. seller behaviour
B. consumer behaviour
C. government behaviour
D. purchase behaviour
ANSWER: B
92. The process of subdividing total markets into several submarket is ——
A. market fluctuating
B. market positioning
C. market segmentation
D. market penetration
ANSWER: C
93. Sound marketing of a product is depended upon ——
A. good product
B. better prices
C. consumer
D. proper distribution
ANSWER: C
94. ——– goods are meant for final consumption.
A. consumer
B. convenience
C. shopping
D. specialtyANSWER: A
95. ——— is all psychological, social and physical behaviour of potential consumer.
A. consumer behaviour
B. seller behaviour
C. manufacturer behaviour
D. household behaviour
ANSWER: A
96. A buyer makes a purchase of a particular product or a particular brand is termed as ——
A. product buying motives
B. patronage motives
C. selection motives
D. purchase motives
ANSWER: A
97. A careful study of —– will facilitate the marketer in determining the size, from, style, colour,
package etc.
B. manufacturers potential
C. market
D. market segmentation
ANSWER: A
98. The process whereby individuals decide whether, what, when, how and from whom to purchase
goods and services can be termed as ——-
A. buyer behaviour
B. household behaviour
C. product buying motives
D. purchase motives
ANSWER: A
99. Motives refers to strong———
A. emotions
B. purchase power
C. needs
D. behaviour
ANSWER: A
100. Buying decision of a customer depends on his——
A. attitude
B. promotion
C. price
D. product
ANSWER: A
101. A satisfied buyer is a silent ——
A. advertiser
B. salesman
C. promotion
D. target market
ANSWER: A102. A consumer chooses an alternative which gives maximum——
A. satisfaction
B. usage
C. utility
D. durability
ANSWER: A
103. The buying process begins when a person has —–
A. a satisfied need
B. an unsatisfied need
C. an immediate need
D. a future need
ANSWER: B
104. Online journals where people post their reviews and thoughts on narrow topic are
classified as
A. Business domain website
B. Corporate website
C. Blogs
D. Marketing website
ANSWER: C
105. The external factor of consumer behaviour are also called as —-
A. environmental factors
B. consumer behaviour factors
C. product factors
D. specific factor
ANSWER: A
106. Economics explains that consumer behaviour in relation to —— factors
A. social
B. economic
C. product factor
D. specific factor
ANSWER: B
107. A collection of individuals which influences individual’s opinion are called as ——
A. reference groups
B. advertising agency
C. manufactures
D. friends
ANSWER: A
108. Culture refers to ______________
A. needs, motives, perception
B. wants, search, decide
C. product preference
D. social values, language, customs
ANSWER: D
109. —– carry their goods from place to place in handcraft and sell them to the consumers at
their doorsteps.
A. hawkers
B. pedlars
C. cheap jacks
D. street traders
ANSWER: A
110. ——– and —— are the criteria for market segmentation.
A. accessibility, user status
B. accessibility, loyal status
C. accessibility, attitude
D. accessibility, responsiveness
ANSWER: D
111. The purpose of segmentation is to —– the changing pattern of consumers.
A. measure
B. access
C. identify
D. usage rate
ANSWER: A
112. In —– the whole market is divided into different geographic units
A. demographic segmentation
B. geographic segmentation
C. socio-economic segmentation
D. psychographic segmentation
ANSWER: B
113. Division of market on the basis of variables like gender, income, occupation, education are
called as—–
C. socio – economic segmentation
ANSWER: A
114. A market may be segmented by classifying people according to their enthusiasm for a
product are termed as——
A. attitude segmentation
C. socio- economic segmentation
D. psyshographic segmentation
ANSWER: A
115. Benefits of segmentation——
A. reduced scale
B. shifting loyals
C. unknowm markets
D. determining marketing strategies
ANSWER: D
116. When the consumers are classified on the basis of religion, customs, culture are termed as —–
ANSWER: C
117. Consumers who buy one brand all the time———
A. hard core loyals
B. safe core loyals
C. shifting loyals
D. switchers
ANSWER: A
118. Consumers who are loyal to two or three brands —–
A. hard core loyals
B. safe core loyals
C. shifting loyals
D. switchers
ANSWER: B
119. Agricultural products are——

A. perishable
B. highly priced
C. low-quality products
D. heterogeneous goods
ANSWER: D
120. Identify the one which comes under service marketing——
A. insurance
B. motor cars
C. refrigerators
D. television
ANSWER: A
121. ———– marketing is identifying and serving the needs of consumers living in villages.
A. rural
B. agricultural marketing
C. retail marketing
D. international marketing
ANSWER: A
122. Increasing competition in —— markets make —– markets attractive.
A. urban, rural
B. urban, retail
C. urban, agricultural
D. urban, wholesale
ANSWER: A
123. The —— level of urban consumers is high and hence product features have to be changed
often.
A. awareness
B. educational
C. loyalty
D. satisfaction
ANSWER: A
124. ——– marketing is concerned with the flow of goods and services from urban to rural and vice
versa.
A. urban
B. retail
C. international
D. rural
ANSWER: D
125. Reasons for growing rural markets are ____________
A. change in rural consumer behaviour
B. marketing strategies
C. promotional strategies
D. product mix
ANSWER: A
126. ——— is the final stage of any economic activity.
A. retail
B. wholeslae
C. brokering
D. fatoring
ANSWER: A
127. Green marketing——-
A. making environmental friendly product
B. making more products with natural ingredients
C. make use of more green colours in packages
D. educate marketers about the importance of natural environment
ANSWER: A
128. ———- are products bought by individuals and organisations for further processing or use in
conducting a business.
A. consumer products
B. services
C. industrial products
D. specialty products
ANSWER: C
129. The increased —– has enhanced rural demand for several products.
A. income
B. purchase power
C. awareness
D. population
ANSWER: A
130. Product specifications like design, price and durability should be in accordance with the needs
of ——- masses.
A. rural
B. urban
C. producer
D. retailer
ANSWER: A131. Rural India has many fairs and festivals and marketers use these platforms for
——
A. brand promotions
B. price strategy
C. marketing strategy
D. formulating strategies
ANSWER: A
132. Marketing communication in the rural area has to be in ——
A. local language
B. press media
C. national language
D. outdoor media
ANSWER: A
133. ——— is where goods are sold directly to consumers
A. e-commerce
B. retail marketing
C. product strategy
D. pricing decision
ANSWER: A
134. When a product is sold ——utility is created
A. ownership
B. time
C. place
D. transport
ANSWER: A
135. A retailer creates —– utility by keeping the store open when the consumers prefer to shop
A. ownership
B. time
C. place
D. transport
ANSWER: B
136. A retailer by being available at a convenient location, he creates—– utility
A. ownership
B. time
C. place
D. transport
ANSWER: C
137. ——– is the largest global online auction website
A. e-bay
B. alibaba.com
C. wal-mart
D. relience fresh
ANSWER: A
138. What is COPRA?
A. Consumer Operating Protection Regulation Authority
B. Consumer Protection Act
C. Consumer Protection Authority
D. All of the above
ANSWER: B
139. The limitations of e-marketing is —–
A. the inability to touch and feel
B. instant cash payment
C. touch and feel
D. immediate delivery
ANSWER: A
140. ——– is the encompassing term that involves the use of electronic platform-intranets, extranet
and the internet to conduct a company’s business.
A. e- procurement
B. e-business
C. e-commerce
D. e-marketing
ANSWER: A
141. Which of the following is not one of the benefits of e-commerce to sellers?
A. e-commerce can help to reduce cots
B. e-commerce is a powerful tool for customer relationship building
C. e-commerce increases the net cost per contact
D. e-commerce offers greater flexibility in meeting customer needs.
ANSWER: C
142. The e-commerce domain that involves business activity initiated by the consumer and targeted
to businesses is known as __________
A. business to business – B2B
B. consumer to consumer – C2C
C. business to consumer – B2C
D. consumer to business – C2B
ANSWER: C
143. In the market place, consumers are exploited when ______________
A. Shopkeepers weigh less than what they should
B. Traders add charges that were not mentioned before
C. Adulterated / Defective goods are sold
D. All of the above
ANSWER: D
144. The type of website that is designed to build customer goodwill and to supplement other sales
channels rather than sell the company’s products directly is known as a ——– website
A. customer service
B. click-and mortar
C. marketing
D. corporate
ANSWER: B
145. ———- is an online advertisement that pops up between changes on a website
A. border
B. plunge
C. boarder
D. interstitialANSWER: B
146. Consumer day is celebrated on ________
A. January 15th
B. April 15
C. March 15
D. December 15
ANSWER: C
147. Consumer Protection Act was formed in _______
A. 1987
B. 1984
C. 1986
D. 2007
ANSWER: C
148. What does the following definition refer to? “Achieving marketing objectives through the use
of any electronic communications technology”
A. e-business
B. e-commerce
C. e-marketing
D. internet marketing
ANSWER: C
149. Responsibility of a consumer includes _____________
A. Exercise rights
B. Quality conscious
C. Insist on cash memo
D. All of the above

ANSWER: D
150. Consumer Protection is important for business because of _______________
A. Long term investment
B. Social responsibilities
C. Use in society’s resources
D. All of the above
ANSWER: D
1. Marketing that moves away from a transaction-based effort to a conversation (i.e. two-way
dialogue) and can be described as a situation or mechanism through which marketers and a
customer (e.g. stakeholders) interact usually in real-time is known as:
a. Digital marketing.
b. Interactive marketing. c. Direct marketing.
d. Electronic marketing.
Answer: b
2. Which of the following is not a type of digital marketing activity?
a. e-marketing.
b. Social marketing. c. Print advert.
d. Internet marketing.
Answer: c
3. ________ is the process of marketing accomplished or facilitated via the use of internet
technologies (e.g. web, email, intranet, extranets).
a. Internet marketing b. Search marketing c. e-marketing
d. Mobile marketing
Answer: a
4. This form of advert delivered on social platforms and social gaming websites and apps, across
all device types is known as:
a. mobile marketing
b. social media advertising c. internet advertising
d. e-marketing
Answer: b
5. The rise of ___________ has led marketing to evolve away from a hierarchical one-sided mass
communication model towards more participatory technologies (e.g. social channels and online
communities).
a. website
b. social media c. web 1.0
d. web platform.
Answer: b
6. A form of marketing communications that uses the internet for the purpose of advertising, aiming
to increase website traffic and/or encourage product trial, purchase, and repeat purchase activity is
called:
a. Search marketing.
b. E-mail marketing.
c. Internet advertising. d. Social web marketing.
Answer: c
7. An advertising model in which advertisers bid on keywords or phrases relevant to their target
market, with sponsored/paid search engine listings to drive traffic to a website is called:
a. Search Engine Optimisation (SEO). b. Contextual Advertising.

c. Digital Asset Optimisation (DAO). d. Pay Per Click (PPC).
Answer: d
8. A method of marketing by electronic mail wherein the recipient of the message has consented to
receive it is called:
b. Internet advertising.
c. Permission-based email marketing. d. Social web marketing.
Answer: c
9. ____________ is a form of digital marketing that describes the use of the social web and social
media (e.g. social networks, online communities, blogs or wikis) or any online collaborative
technology for marketing activities, be it sales, public relations, research, distribution or customer
service.
a. Pay Per Click (PPC)
b. Digital Asset Optimisation (DAO) c. Social Media Marketing (SMM)
d. Search Engine Optimisation (SEO)
Answer: c
10. ____________ is the set of practices that enables organisations to communicate and engage
interactively with their audiences through any mobile device or network.
a. Mobile marketing
b. Social web marketing. c. Internet marketing
d. Social media marketing
Answer: a
11. The process of outsourcing a task or group of tasks to a generally large group of people is
known as:
a. social media marketing b. internet advertising
c. crowd sourcing
d. e-marketing
Answer: c
12. Current changes in behaviours clearly show that ______ is taking over more and more of
consumer online searches.
a. social media b. mobile
c. internet
d. blog
Answer: b
13. This is a form of targeted advertising, on websites, with advertisements selected and served by
automated systems based on the content displayed to the user.
a. Contextual advertising. b. Interactive marketing. c. Internet advertising.
d. Direct marketing.
Answer: a
14. Which of the following is not an issue that marketers need to consider when using digital
resources for marketing activities?
a. Jurisdiction. b. Disclosure. c. Ownership. d. Permissions.
Answer: b
15. Which of the following is not one of major considerations when using internet advertising to
increase brand awareness and encourage click-through to a target site?
a. Cost.
b. Intrusive.
c. Interactivity. d. Timeliness.
Answer: c
16. Which of the following refers to unsolicited electronic messages?

a. Opt-in email.
b. Consent marketing. c. Spam.
d. Opt-out email.
Answer: c
17. A database of information that is maintained by human editors and lists websites by category
and subcategory with categorisation is known as:
a. A search directory.
b. Automated voice response (AVR). c. Apps.
d. SEO.
Answer: a
18. ___________ occurs when a website's structure and content is improved to maximise its listing
in organic search engine results pages using relevant keywords or search phrases.
a. Paid inclusion
b. Site optimisation c. Contextual search d. Pay per click
Answer: b
19. Fees paid by advertisers to online companies that refer qualified potential customers or provide
consumer information where the consumer opts in to being contacted by a marketer. This is referred
to as:
a. lead generation
b. search.
c. rich media.
d. social media marketing.
Answer: a
20. This operates algorithmically or using a mixture of algorithmic and human input to collect,
index, store and retrieve information on the web (e.g. web pages, images, information and other
types of files). It makes the information available to users in a manageable and meaningful way in
response to a search query. This is referred to as:
a. Banner ads.
b. Pop-up ads.
c. A search engine. d. Apps.
Answer: c
21. All of the following are reasons more people don't shop online except ________.
a. lack of trust in online merchants.
b. lack of convenience.
c. inability to touch and feel the product. d. fear of misuse of personal information.
Answer: b
22. Paid search marketing (e.g. Google AdWords) is usually purchased on which basis?
a. Pay Per Click (PPC).
b. Cost per Thousand (CPM). c. Cost Per Acquisition (CPA). d. None of the above.
Answer: a
23. What form of marketing is particularly suited to generating awareness about a brand or
promotion?
a. Viral Marketing
b. Affiliate marketing c. Email marketing d. None of the above
Answer: a
24. The performance-based affiliate marketing model of paying for leads or sales is usually charged
in which way?
a. Cost per acquisition b. Earnings per click c. Pay per click
d. None of the above
Answer: a
25. The online communications technique of search engine optimisation (SEO) is aimed at
achieving/gaining:
a. good ranking in sponsored listings of the search engines.
b. good ranking in the organic or natural listings of search engines. c. representation on third party
websites.
d. All of the above.
Answer: b
26. What concept in paid search advertising Google AdWords refers to one of the main elements of
Quality Score which impacts the position the ad is displayed?
a. Click-through rate.
b. Maximum Cost Per Click (CPC). c. Quality Score.
d. None of the above.
Answer: a
27. What concept in paid search advertising Google AdWords refers to the amount bid by the
advertiser?
a. Maximum cost per click (CPC). b. Click-through rate.
c. Quality Score.
Answer: a
28. _____ is an element of online PR that involves regularly updated posts about company
activities in a format similar to online services such as Blogger and Wordpress.
a. Link building
b. Reputation management c. Blogging
Answer: c
29. Which of the following is not a standard in online advertising?
a. Dynamic banners b. Referrals links
c. Signal
d. Banner
Answer: c
30. Which of the following are online advertising methods through which advertisers attempt to
drive traffic to Internet sites
a. Banner b. SEO
c. CPC
d. CPM
Answer: b
31. Paid advertising based on a per-click model is called

a. Search Engine Optimisation
b. ICT indicators
c. Source advertising
d. Sponsored search-engine advertising
Answer: d
32. Internet advertising has some weaknesses because
a. It cannot reach a global audience
b. It does not deliver good targeted reach c. It is not easy to track
d. It is not emotive
Answer: d
33. Which of the following is not a weakness of using online in the media plan?
a. It is not emotive
b. It can reach a global and local audience c. It is subject to high levels of clutter
d. All of the above
Answer: b
34. What is unique about social media marketing?

a. Can combine game and other elements b. Interactive communication
c. Generates contacts quickly
d. All of the above
Answer: d
35. Online gaming sites are a fast and efficient ways for companies to promote their products
a. True b. False
Answer: a
1. ________ is the most fundamental aspect for any merchandise transactions. A. financing
B. grading C. insurance D. packing ANSWER: A
2. _________ plays a significant role in under developed countries, as it is a multiplier of activities.
A. sales
B. buying
C. marketing D. production ANSWER: C
3. In evolution of marketing _________ stage was concerned only with mass production of goods.
B. barter system
ANSWER: A
4. Fixing a high price for a new product will be called as ___________ A. price skimming
B. price segmenetation C. dual pricing
D. customary pricing ANSWER: A
5. Brand loyalty refers to product __________ A. identification
B. recognition C. preference D. insistence ANSWER: D
6. Pricing based on area is called as ___________
A. domestic pricing
C. skimming pricing
D. cost plus pricing
ANSWER: B
7. A method which aims to capture the market and increase the sales volume is known as _______
A. packing
B. purchasing
C. sales promotion
D. marketing
ANSWER: C
8. __________ gives a chance to the consumers to compare the products with their substitutes.
A. sampling
B. contest
C. premium offers
D. distribution
ANSWER: A
9. _________ is a mass communication of information intended to persuade buyers as to maximize
profits.
A. advertising
B. salesmanship
C. sales promotion
D. personal selling
ANSWER: A
10. A _________ is a promotion strategy that calls for using the sales force and trade promotion to
A. push strategy
B. pull strategy
ANSWER: A
ANSWER: A
12. Distributional activities involve decision regarding ______
A. advertisement
C. decision making
ANSWER: B
1. Digital marketing is often referred to as___________.

A. online marketing
B. internet marketing
C. web marketing
D. All of the above
View Answer
Ans : D
Explanation: Digital marketing is often referred to as online marketing, internet marketing or web
marketing.
2. Which of the following is a type of digital marketing activity?

A. Email marketing.
B. Social web marketing.
C. Viral marketing.
D. All of the above
View Answer
Ans : D
Explanation: All of the above is a type of digital marketing activity.
3. Which of the following is not a traditional forms of digital marketing?

A. radio
B. TV
C. billboard
D. All of the above
View Answer
Ans : D
Explanation: All of the above is not a traditional forms of digital marketing.
4. What is not true about digital marketing?

A. Digital marketing is any form of marketing products or services that involves electronic devices.
B. Digital marketing can be done online
C. Digital marketing cannot be done online
D. Digital marketing is often referred to as online marketing, internet marketing or web marketing.
View Answer
Ans : C
Explanation: Digital marketing can be done both online and offline.
5. How many main pillars of digital marketing?

A. 2
B. 4
C. 3
D. 5
View Answer
Ans : A
Explanation: The 2 main pillars of digital marketing are online marketing and offline marketing.
6. Marketing that moves away from a transaction-based effort to a conversation (i.e. two-way
A. Direct Marketing
B. Eectronic marketing
C. Interactive Marketing
D. Indirect Marketing
View Answer
Ans : C
Explanation: Marketing that moves away from a transaction-based effort to a conversation (i.e. two-
way dialogue) and can be described as a situation or mechanism through which marketers and a
customer (e.g. stakeholders) interact usually in real-time is known as:Interactive marketing.
7. In the first 10 years, the web was heavily used as a static publishing and/or retailing
(transactional) channel. This was known as:
A. Web 2.0.
B. Web 3.0.
C. Web 1.0.
D. Web 3.0.
View Answer
Ans : C
Explanation: The first 10 years of the web was characterized by what we call Web 1.0, wherein the
web was heavily used as a static publishing and/or retailing (transactional) channel.
8. Digital marketing includes_____________.

A. voice broadcast
B. podcasting
C. RSA
D. Both A and B
View Answer
Ans : D
Explanation: Digital marketing includes e-mail, RSS, voice broadcast, fax broadcast, blogging,
podcasting, video streams, wireless text messaging, and instant messaging.
9. A website`s front - or home page should include_____________

A. A lengthy description of the organization
B. Logos depicting awards the site`s designers have received
C. Links to other websites
D. None of the above
View Answer
Ans : D
Explanation: A website`s front - or home page should include none of the above options.
10. This is the process of marketing accomplished or facilitated through the application of
electronic devices, appliances, tools, techniques, technologies and or systems:
A. Direct Marketing
B. interactive marketing
C. Electronic marketing
View Answer
Ans : C
Explanation: This is the process of marketing accomplished or facilitated through the application of
electronic devices, appliances, tools, techniques, technologies and or systems:Electronic marketing
11. The 4Ps of marketing as defined by Philip Kottler are:
A. Price, Product, Place, and Promotion
B. Price, Performance, Place, and Promotion
C. Price, Product, Place, and Positioning
D. PR, Product, Place, and Person
View Answer
Ans : A
Explanation: In the 60s, Kotler introduced the 4Ps of marketing: Price, Product, Place, and
Promotion.
12. Which one of these statements is correct?

A. There is a slow decline in digital budgets with an average reduction of 10% in digital marketing
budget.
B. 98% of marketers affirm that offline and online marketing are merging
C. Online marketing professionals are paid 50% less than marketing professionals.
D. Around 25% of the global population is now on the Internet.
View Answer
Ans : B
Explanation: It is true that 98% of marketers affirm that offline and online marketing are merging
(Source: Gartner's report in 2016).
13. What are the key considerations for people in sales while they use social media for selling
(Social Selling)?
A. Check if their clients are on social media and then connect with them on the relevant social
networks
B. Avoid using social media to sell
C. Build their professional brand and then position themselves as subject matter experts in their
field to build credibility
D. Connect with their clients and prospects on LinkedIn and then start liking/commenting/sharing
their posts
View Answer
Ans : C
Explanation: Social selling is the art of using social networks to find, connect, understand, and
nurture sales prospects. People in sales should first build their professional brand and then position
themselves as subject matter experts in their field to build credibility.
14. Which one of the following statements is true?

A. LinkedIn works best for B2B organizations
B. Pinterest is great for driving traffic to your product catalog on your website
C. Facebook is excellent for businesses that operate in the consumer market
D. All of the above
View Answer
Ans : D
Explanation: Each social network has its own specific characteristics. All the statements above are
true.
15. How would you describe what multi-channel attribution does?

A. Gives the conversion credit to the first click
B. Assigns equal percentages for conversions to every step
C. Accredits deserving touch points along the conversion journey
D. Gives the conversion credit to the last click
View Answer
Ans : C
Explanation: Multi-channel attribution helps to identify the touch points in the path to purchase and
clarify which channels contribute to what customer actions
16. Why did Internet Service providers clamp down on personal emails being used for mailing
purposes?
A. Because it would use excessive server resources
B. Because they couldn't check who was opening the email
C. Because it would slow down the network
D. Because it was against the email user guidelines
View Answer
Ans : A
Explanation: Internet Service Providers clamped down on email volumes and private accounts
because emails consumed server resources and some of the emails were old, invalid or bounced.
17. What makes the mobile phone the ultimate brand engagement platform?
A. The mobile phone allows for targeted messages, advertising and apps to drive engagement.
B. The mobile phone enables businesses to use apps to drive engagement.
C. The mobile phone allows SMS, Messaging and Social Media to drive engagement.
D. The mobile phone allows for targeted messages, customer engagement, and interactive features
to drive engagement.
View Answer
Ans : D
Explanation: Mobile phones enable marketers to use hyper-segmentation to reach specific groups
with an accurately tailored message.
18. Location is a unique feature of Mobile Marketing because ____________.

A. It enables brands to hyper-target their customers.
B. It allows you to customize the marketing messages to suit the needs of users of a particular
location.
C. It allows you to personalize your marketing messages to the mobile user in a particular location.
D. You can run different campaigns based on the location of the mobile user.
View Answer
Ans : B
Explanation: Location-based services can be an integral part of marketing strategy to track
customers of a certain location. Customizing the marketing messages to suit the users of a particular
location is a unique feature of mobile marketing.
19. What are the two types of targeting that can be done with PPC advertising?
A. Reaching people by demography and reaching people by interest
B. Reaching new prospects and reaching prior visitors (Remarketing)
C. Reaching people who search and people who visit websites
D. Reaching people through Retargeting and reaching people through Remarketing
View Answer
Ans : B
Explanation: PPC is known for its ability to reach users who are actively searching, but it can also
be highly targeted. The two types of targeting you can do with PPC advertising is reaching new
prospects and reaching prior visitors (Remarketing).
20. What is an ad group?

A. An ad group is a collection of related keywords and ads.
B. An ad group is a collection of related ads.
C. An ad group is a collection of related campaign settings and ads.
D. An ad group is a library of your ads grouped by category.
View Answer
Ans : A
Explanation: An ad group is a collection of related keywords and ads. As ad groups are at the
bottom of the settings flow, they inherit settings from the account and the campaign.
1. Social networks are organized primarily around __________.
A. brands
B. people
C. discussions
D. interests
View Answer
Ans : B
Explanation: Social networks are organized primarily around people.
2. Which social network is considered the most popular for social media marketing?
A. Twitter
B. Facebook
C. Linkdin
D. Whats App
View Answer
Ans : B
Explanation: Facebook is the biggest social media site around, with more than two billion people
using it every month.
3. What is the name for Facebook`s ranking algorithm?

A. Like Rank
B. Face rank
C. Page rank
D. Edge rank
View Answer
Ans : D
Explanation: Edge rank is the name for Facebook`s ranking algorithm.
4. Which of the following is an important aspect of creating blogs and posting content?
A. Using a witty user name
B. Posting at least once a month to the blog
C. Social Media Optimization
D. All of the above
View Answer
Ans : D
Explanation: All of the above option is an important aspect of creating blogs and posting content.
5. What is meant by "micro-blogging"?

A. Blogs which are posted by companies, not individuals
B. Blogs with limited individual posts, limited by character count typically
C. Blogging from mobile devices
D. All of the above
View Answer
Ans : B
Explanation: micro-blogging means blogs with limited individual posts, limited by character count
typically.
6. What is "social media optimization"?

A. Creating content which easily creates publicity via social networks
B. Writing clear content
C. Creating short content which is easily indexed
D. Hiring people to create content for social networks
View Answer
Ans : A
Explanation: social media optimization means creating content which easily creates publicity via
social networks.
7. What would the marketing budget section of a marketing plan detail?

A. The cost to write the plan
B. The marketing personnel job descriptions
C. The expected costs for each ad campaign based on the delivery method
View Answer
Ans : C
Explanation: The marketing budget section of a marketing plan detail is the overall marketing
budget for a year.
8. What is the name of Facebook's analytic package?

A. Princeps
B. Viewership
C. Discover
D. Insights
View Answer
Ans : D
Explanation: Insights is the name of Facebook`s analytic package.
9. How does creating a social network marketing plan differ from a traditional marketing plan?
A. The brand image should be completely different for social marketing
B. The staff requirements and skill sets for social marketing are different
C. Other than the method of delivery, a marketing plan either way will be similar
View Answer
Ans : B
Explanation: Creating a social network marketing plan differ from a traditional marketing plan
because the staff requirements and skill sets for social marketing are different.
10. Which of the following is functions of social media for business?

A. Are you participating in the conversation and sharing?
B. Are you listening and monitoring what is being said about you?
C. Both A and B
View Answer
Ans : C
Explanation: There are two functions of social media for business : Are you participating in the
conversation and sharing? and Are you listening and monitoring what is being said about you?
11. What feature does LinkedIn offer for pay accounts?

A. Ability to post pictures
B. Increased abilities to connect directly and send messages to people
C. Ability to post in Groups and create a Group
D. Ability to block users
View Answer
Ans : B
Explanation: LinkedIn offer for pay accounts to Increased abilities to connect directly and send
messages to people.
12. Why is it important to post to a blog regularly?

A. It reduces the cost per blog post
B. It gives the social media marketing specialist something to do
C. It allows more chances for the company to put down the competition
D. Keep readers engaged and also gives search engines content to index
View Answer
Ans : D
Explanation: Keep readers engaged and also gives search engines content to index is important to
post to a blog regularly.
13. How can a company use the same material for both traditional and social network marketing?
A. Posting a luring comment on Twitter to the company site
B. Selling ad space on the company website
C. Utilizing a television ad campaign online as well on their site and sites such as YouTube
D. Creating a magazine print ad with the company website
View Answer
Ans : C
Explanation: Company use the same material for both traditional and social network marketing for
Utilizing a television ad campaign online as well on their site and sites such as YouTube
14. How is site traffic useful in evaluating marketing?

A. Overall site traffic can be followed and a general idea of marketing's impact on it can be
determined
B. There is no correlation site traffic and marketing
C. Ads can send receivers to a specific landing page, which can be tracked
D. Product sales from the company website can be attributed directly to the marketing campaign
View Answer
Ans : C
Explanation: Site traffic useful in evaluating marketing for Ads can send receivers to a specific
landing page, which can be tracked
15. How does a blog directly impact sales of a company?

A. It is typically used as the way to disperse company coupons
B. It can be used to talk negatively about the competition
C. It tells customers what products to buy
D. Typically a blog does not directly create sales
View Answer
Ans : A
Explanation: A blog directly impact sales of a company : It is typically used as the way to disperse
company coupons
16. What traditional marketing technique is YouTube closest to?

A. Print advertising
B. Radio advertising
C. Mail Advertising
D. Television advertising
View Answer
Ans : D
Explanation: Television advertising is traditional marketing technique is YouTube closest.
17. What is another term for "social media"?

A. Advertising Socialization
B. Consumer Generated Media
C. Media Optimization
D. Consumer Media Advertising
View Answer
Ans : B
Explanation: Consumer Generated Media is another term for "social media"
18. What is meant by "Marketing Creative"?

A. The employees in the marketing department
B. The methods used to distribute marketing material
C. The branding image of the company
D. The content for marketing and its creative aspect
View Answer
Ans : D
Explanation: Marketing Creative: The content for marketing and its creative aspect
19. What is one measure a company can use to validate the usefulness of its video posts on
YouTube?
A. The number of followers
B. The number of videos the company has up
C. The amount of views of the video
D. The sales volume of the company
View Answer
Ans : C
Explanation: The amount of views of the video is one measure a company can use to validate the
usefulness of its video posts on YouTube.
20. How can a company convert posts on Twitter to sales?

A. Write demanding points about the competition
B. Write posts about personal information of the CEO
C. Creating posts which drive followers to their site
D. Marketing advertisements which are not serious
View Answer
Ans : C
Explanation: A company convert posts on Twitter to sales by Creating posts which drive followers
to their site
1. Which of the following is the form of mobile marketing?

A. text
B. voice call
C. graphic
D. All of the above
View Answer
Ans : D
Explanation: Mobile marketing is similar to advertising delivered over other electronic channels
such as text, graphic and voice messages.
2. Which of the following is most common delivery channel for mobile marketing?
A. text
B. voice call
C. graphic
D. Search engine marketing
View Answer
Ans : A
Explanation: SMS messaging (text messaging) is currently the most common delivery channel for
mobile marketing.
3. what is the full form of LBS in mobile marketing?

A. Lead-based Service
B. List-based Service
C. Location-based Service
View Answer
Ans : C
Explanation: LBS Stand for Location-based Service.
4. what is the key aspects of sending effective push notifications?

A. Send highly personalized messages
B. Send with high frequency
C. Both A and B
View Answer
Ans : A
Explanation: Send highly personalized messages is the key aspects of sending effective push
notifications.
5. what are 2 data-backed push messaging best practices?

A. Do not use promotional language
B. Send push notification during week (avoid weekends)
C. Schedule push message for afternoon
View Answer
Ans : B
Explanation: Send push notification during week are 2 data-backed push messaging best practices.
6. Which of the following marketing based on very small, specific geographical locations (like
neighborhoods or even specific streets)?
A. Hyperlocal marketing
B. SMS marketing
C. QR codes
D. All of the above
View Answer
Ans : A
Explanation: Hyperlocal based on very small, specific geographical locations (like neighborhoods
or even specific streets).
7. What is true about 2D barcodes?

A. barcodes cannot scan vertically
B. barcodes cannot scan horizontally
C. A mobile user can scan barcodes in the environment to access associated information.
D. Both B and C
View Answer
Ans : C
Explanation: A mobile user can scan barcodes in the environment to access associated information
is true statement.
8. How many % of mobile web users abandon pages if they don't load within 10 seconds?
A. 0.6
B. 0.65
C. 0.7
D. 0.75
View Answer
Ans : B
Explanation: 65% of mobile web users abandon pages if they don't load within 10 seconds.
9. How many % of adults primarily use their smartphones to access content/information?

A. 0.85
B. 0.9
C. 0.95
D. 0.97
View Answer
Ans : C
Explanation: 95% of adults primarily use their smartphones to access content/information.
10. How many maximum character are allowed in sms marketing?
A. 150 character
B. 160 character
C. 170 character
D. 180 character
View Answer
Ans : B
Explanation: Keep the text under 160 characters.
11. What is Impression Share?

A. The percentage of times your ad was displayed divided by all possible impressions for that
search term.
B. The percentage of times your ad was displayed when it was eligible to be displayed.
C. The percentage of times your ad was displayed higher than your primary competitor.
D. The percentage of impressions you lost due to a low ad rank.
View Answer
Ans : C
Explanation: Impression share : The percentage of times your ad was displayed higher than your
primary competitor.
12. Recently, we analyzed thousands of apps to flesh out key trends. Which trend did we NOT see?
A. People spend more time with apps if they own a large screen mobile device
B. Overall time in app has increased over the last year
C. Smartphone users spend more time with apps than tablet users
D. Users who find your app organically and users who come from ads perform the same once in-
app
View Answer
Ans : C
Explanation: Smartphone users spend more time with apps than tablet users.
13. In the Freemium model typically what percentage of users pay?

A. Almost all users - over 90%
B. Most Users - over 60%
C. Few Users - less than 20%
D. Users do not pay
View Answer
Ans : C
Explanation: In the Freemium model typically Few Users - less than 20% percentage of users pay.
14. Which of the following is NOT a type of mobile ad extension?

A. App extension
B. Call extension
C. Sitelink extension
D. Download extension
View Answer
Ans : D
Explanation: Download extension is NOT a type of mobile ad extension.
15. More free users leads to ?

A. At More Ad Revenue
B. Less Ad Revenue
C. No change in Ad Revenue
View Answer
Ans : A
Explanation: More free users leads to At More Ad Revenue .
16. Smart link to your app should auto-redirect based on which of the following parameters?
A. Device type & OS
B. Screen size
C. OEM Brand
D. All of the above
View Answer
Ans : A
Explanation: Smart link to your app should auto-redirect based on Device type & OS parameters.
17. What type of devices may not have Google play installed?
A. Amazon Fire tablets
B. Very low cost devices
C. Devices sold in China
D. All of the above
View Answer
Ans : D
Explanation: All of the above devices may not have Google play installed.
18. What metric should be used by an app developer to measure the maximization of Ad Revenue
on his app?
A. eCOM
B. eCPA
C. eCPI
View Answer
Ans : B
Explanation: eCPA metric should be used by an app developer to measure the maximization of Ad
Revenue on his app.
19. What are Native Ads?

A. Ads that do not mention that they are ads
B. Ads that are built with Java
C. Ads that look & feel like the app
D. All of the above
View Answer
Ans : C
Explanation: Native Ads : Ads that look & feel like the app.
20. Which of the following can help monetize a free app?

A. Ad Revenue
B. In-App Purchase
C. Both A and B
View Answer
Ans : C
Explanation: Ad Revenue and In-App Purchase can help monetize a free app.
21. At stage of user browsing app store page of your app what is the objective?
A. Maximize usage
B. Maximize conversion
C. Maximize interest
D. All of the above
View Answer
Ans : B
Explanation: At stage of user browsing app store page of your app Maximize conversion is the
objective.
1. How many approaches of marketing?

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
View Answer
Ans : A
Explanation: There are two approaches of marketing : Traditional marketing and Online marketing
2. Online marketing is also termed as?

A. Internet marketing
B. Web marketing
C. Both A and B
D. OAM
View Answer
Ans : C
Explanation: Online marketing is also termed as Internet marketing, Web marketing, or
simply, OLM.
3. Blogs are web pages created by an individual or a group of individuals.

A. TRUE
B. FALSE
C. Can be true or false
D. Can not say
View Answer
Ans : A
Explanation: True, Blogs are web pages created by an individual or a group of individuals. They are
updated on a regular basis. You can write blogs for business promotion.
4. It is process of elevating website ranking in the unpaid results of search engine.

A. Web Indexing
B. Search Engine Optimization
C. Tracking
D. Paid Search Advertising
View Answer
Ans : B
Explanation: Search Engine Optimization : It is process of elevating website ranking in the unpaid
results of search engine.
5. It is a hyperlink on a third-party web page that points to a web page on your website.
A. KPI link
B. Inbound Link
C. Outbound Link
D. IFTTT Link
View Answer
Ans : B
Explanation: Inbound Link : It is a hyperlink on a third-party web page that points to a web page on
your website.
6. Google sends crawlers also called?

A. spiders
B. bots
C. Both A and B
View Answer
Ans : C
Explanation: The search engine such as Google sends crawlers (also called spiders or bots) to
harvest the content on your website. Crawlers are nothing but programs which systematically
browse the Internet for the purpose of web indexing.
7. Which of the following are Advantages of Online Advertising?

A. No time or demographic constraints on delivering the online advertise
B. Online advertising is promotional as well as informational
C. It brings speedy outcomes
D. All of the above
View Answer
Ans : D
Explanation: All of the above are Advantages of Online Advertising.
8. SERP stands for?

A. System Engine Result Page
B. Search Earning Result Page
C. Search Engine Result Page
D. Search Estimate Result Page
View Answer
Ans : C
Explanation: SEM involves the promotion of websites by increasing their visibility in Search
Engine Result Page (SERP).
9. Which lead to loss in sale?

A. Hate Sites
B. Negative Reviews
C. Negative Media Coverage
D. All of the above
View Answer
Ans : D
Explanation: All of the above lead to loss in sale.
10. Which of the following used to improve Online Reputation?
A. Improve tagging and SEO

B. Strive to build links from strong and reliable sources
C. Publish original posts with valuable information
D. All of the above
View Answer
Ans : D
Explanation: All of the above used to improve Online Reputation.
1. The internet provides individual users abilities to access information, entertainment, and
communication. T
2. The internet has shifted power from sellers to buyers. T
3. Co-creation occurs when users help marketers develop products or advertising. T
4. The ad hoc, napkin plan is a quick method used by entrepreneurs to communicate their ideas
to clients, partners, or investors. T
5. Venture capitalists usually will nurture a business and be willing to help in times of trouble. T
6. E-marketing plans must focus on a single objective only. F
7. Companies often consider market similarities across different countries in order to evaluate
entry risks. T
8. The mass distribution of unsolicited electronic mail is often referred to as spam. T
Part2:
MultipleChoiceQuestions(MCQ)___________________________________________________
5points
(1) ________ is the subset of e-business focused on transactions.
a. E-commerce
b. E-marketing
c. Digital technology
d. Environment, Strategy, and Performance (ESP)
(2) ________arespecificmeasuresdesignedtodeterminewebsitesuccessintermsof various factors,
such as number of site visitors, length of time spent browsing a site, number of comments posted,
and time spent watching a video.
a. Segmentation variables
b. Metrics
c. ESP model
d. Site stickiness
(3) The ________ is a blueprint that links the firm’s e-business strategy with technology driven
marketing strategies and details the plan for implementation.
a. e-marketingplan
b. business model c. situation analysis d. strategic plan
(4) The two most common types of e-marketing plans are known as the venture capital plan and the
________.
a. Nikeplan
b. tablecloth plan c. strategic plan d. napkin plan
Page 2
(5) Venture capitalists expect to ________.

a. get their money out of an investment immediately
b. get their money out of an investment within a few years
c. take over ownership of their investments
d. see a return on every investment they make
(6) The strategy of applying different price levels for different customers or situations is
known as ________.
a. dynamic pricing
b.online bidding
c. direct marketing d.agent e-business models
(7) Formulating an objective should take into consideration all of the following elements except
_________.
a. task
b. measurablequality
c. time frame
d. cost
(8) Emerging economies ________.
a. have low levels of GDP
b. are experiencing rapid growth
c. are working toward improved standards of living for their citizens
d. all of the above
(9) E-marketers working in emerging economies should know and understand ________.
a. how many credit cards are in circulation
b. consumer attitudes toward credit card purchases
c. all of the above
d. none of the above
(10) Saudi Aramco has high qualified employees , this consider as: a. Threat
b. Opportunity c. Weakness d. Strength
Page 3
Part 3: Essay Questions:

___________________________________________________________________________6
points Answer only 5 of the following questions:
1) What is the difference between the internet, an extranet, and an intranet?
The internet is a global network of interconnected computers. Access to the internet is very
broad and open.
An extranet is two or more proprietary or company owned networks that are joined to share
information. Access to this network is limited.
An intranet is an internal network for a company that uses internet standards. Access is limited
to internal company use only.
________________________________________________________________________________
______________
2) Where does an entrepreneur go for start-up capital?
Bank loans
Private funds
Angel investors
Venture capitalists (VCs)
________________________________________________________________________________
______________________
3) What are the seven steps of the e-marketing plan?
1. Situation analysis
2. E-Marketing strategic planning 3. Objectives
4. E-Marketing strategy
5. Implementation plan
6. Budget
7. Evaluation plan
________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________
4) Modern technology presents challenges to marketing ethics. State 4 of them?
a. Ownership of intellectual property
b. The role of privacy in a virtual world
c. Freedom of expression
d. Use of data and its collection
e. Status of children and digital networks
5) What are the 3 basic mechanisms to protects intellectual property ?
Patent law is centered on inventions.
Copyright addresses issues of expression.
Trademark is concerned with words or images used in the market.
Q1. What are some examples of digital marketing?

A. Social Media Marketing
B. Search Engine Marketing C. Search Engine Optimisation D. All of the above
Q2. Who is the father of digital marketing?
A. Philip Kotler
B. Bruce Clay India C. Justin Hall
Q3. The term Digital Marketing was first used in the .............
A. 1999s. B. 1990s C. 1980s. D. 1989s.
Q4. What is the best way to promote a business with social media?
A. Choose the Right Platforms B. Encourage Engagement
C. Provide Value & Don’t Over-Promote D. All of the above

Q5. What do you mean by Digital marketing?
A. Digital marketing is referred to as online marketing, web marketing, and internet
marketing.
B. Analog Marketing
C. Shop
Q6. If customer expectation and product performance are match ______.
A. shows the satisfaction of the customer
B. shows the dissatisfaction of the customer
C. does not meet customer requirement
D. All of the above
Q7. Which one is the best way to promote a business online?
A. It offers a lot of helpful and free information.
B. To collect as many information as possible.
C. to advertise your company's product.
D. All of the above
Q8. _____ is an example of business to business services.
A. Youtube brand channel.
B. Google
C. Yahoo
Q9. Which of the following is production related procurement?
A. Offline supplies
B. Raw materials
C. Information System
Q10. Which of the following waves can penetrate through clouds?

A. ultrasonic
B. gamma
C. radar
D. visible and infrared
Q11. Sales Promotion Includes ____.
A. Advertise
B. Publicity
C. Selling
D. All of the above
Q12. Extended P's of service marketing mixes:
A. People, Product, Process
B. Price, Physical Evidence, Promotion
C. Physical Evidence, Place, People
D. Product, Process, Physical Environment
Q13. Marketing information includes ___.
A. Knowledge of Customer Requirement
B. Knowledge of peers
C. Knowledge of industries
D. All of the above
Q14. The sequence of a sales process includes ______.
A. Lead generation, call, presentation & sale
B. Sale, presentation, Lead generation & call
C. Presentation, Lead generation, Sale & Call
D. Lead generation, Call, Sale & Presentation

Q15. Which one is the best way to make money digitally?
A. Having products on your website

B. Good marketing ideas by dreaming C. Selling stuff
D. works the night shift
Q16. Digital marketing is any form of marketing products or services that involves ___.
A. electronic devices
B. pen
C. money D. book
Q17. Digital marketing revolves around these 5Ds:
A. digital devices, digital platforms, digital media, digital data, and digital technology.
B. dabit, digital platforms, digital media, digital data, and digital technology.
C. digital devices, digital platforms, digital media, digital data, and offline technology. D. All of the
above
Q18. Businesses leverage digital channels such as _____ to connect with current and prospective
customers.
A. search engines, social media, email, and other websites
B. product
C. Both A and B D. All of the above
Q19. Is Social Media Marketing is a type of Digital Marketing?
A. Yes
B. No
Q20. Content Marketing is a type of Digital Marketing.
A. True
B. False
• It can be done online

• It cannot be done online
• It is referred to as online marketing, internet marketing or web marketing
• All of the above
View Answer
It cannot be done online
• Email marketing
• Social Marketing
• Video Marketing
View Answer
All of the above
• Telivision
• Radio

• Banners
View Answer
All of the above
24. Which of the following is not a benefit of content marketing?
• Cost savings
• Increase sales
• Less engagement
• None of the above
View Answer
Less engagement
25. Approximately how many businesses are used content marketing?
• 10 to 20%
• 25 to 30%
• 80 to 90%
• 100%
View Answer
80 to 90%
1. “Benchmark” means____________
(1) Benches for customers to sit
ADVERTISEMENTS:
(2) Set standards

(3) Benches for salesmen to sit
(4) Products displayed on a bench
(5) All of the above
ADVERTISEMENTS:
Ans. (2)
2. A call centre is____________
(1) A meeting place for DSAs
(2) A training centre for DSAs
ADVERTISEMENTS:
(3) A meeting place for customers

(4) Data centre
(5) A back office set up where customer queries are answered
Ans. (5)
ADVERTISEMENTS:
3. The sequence of a sales process is____________

(1) Lead generation, call, presentation & sale
(2) Sale, presentation, Lead generation & call

(3) Presentation, Lead generation, Sale & Call

ADVERTISEMENTS:
(4) Lead generation, Call, Sale & Presentation

(5) There is no sequence required
Ans. (1)
4. ‘Value -added services’ means_____________
ADVERTISEMENTS:
(1) Additional services

(2) Better value at a premium
(3) Costlier services
(4) Better value at a discount
ADVERTISEMENTS:
(5) At services
Ans. (1)
5. To ‘Close a Call’ means____________
(1) To clinch the sale
(2) To end the conversation
(3) To put the phone down
ADVERTISEMENTS:
(4) To close the doors

(5) To close the business
Ans. (1)
6. ‘Customization’ means__________
(1) Tailor-made products for each customer
(2) Customers selling goods
ADVERTISEMENTS:
(3) Tailor-made products for each staff

(4) A selling process
(5) None of these
Ans. (1)
7. A ‘Call’ in marketing language means__________
(1) Calling on a salesperson
ADVERTISEMENTS:
(2) Calling on a customer

(3) Making a phone-call
(4) Telemarketing
(5) None of these
Ans. (5)
8. A marketing survey is required for____________
ADVERTISEMENTS:
(1) Deciding marketing strategies
(2) Deciding product strategies

(3) Deciding pricing strategies
(4) All of these
(5) None of these
Ans. (4)
ADVERTISEMENTS:
9. The target group for Education loans is________

(1) Meritorious students seeking higher education
(2) All colleges
(3) All parents
(4) Research scholars
(5) All of these
Ans. (1)
10. Cross-selling means___________
(1) Selling with a cross face
(2) Cross country marketing
(3) Selling to friends
(4) Selling other products to existing customers
(5) Selling to employees
Ans. (4)
11. Marketing segmentation is useful for__________
(1) Preferential marketing
(2) Targeting existing clients
(3) Identifying prospects
(4) Knowing customers’ tastes
(5) All of these
Ans. (5)
12. The target Group for savings deposit Accounts is
(1) Newborn babies
(2) Students
(3) Parents
(4) Businessman
(5) All of these
Ans. (2)
13. Market Segmentation can be resorted to by means of
(1) Segmenting by age
(2) Segmenting by income
(3) Segmenting by geographically
(4) All of these
(5) None of these
Ans. (4)
14. The target group for a Car loan is_____________
(1) All auto drivers
(2) All auto dealers
(3) All car owners
(4) Any individual needing a car
(5) All of these
Ans. (4)
15. Market information means_____________
(1) Knowledge of industries
(2) Knowledge of households
(3) Knowledge of peers
(4) Knowledge of customer’s tastes
(5) All of these
Ans. (4)
16. Bancassurance means____________
(1) Banks promising to give loans
(2) Bank promising to pay interest
(3) Banks selling insurance products
(4) Assurance to repay loans
(5) None of these
Ans. (3)
17. The target group for agricultural loan is________
(1) Any farmer
(2) Farm labourers
(3) Any individual dealing in agricultural or related activity
(4) Farmers’ societies
(5) All of these
Ans. (3)
18. The target group for credit card is_____________
(1) Existing cardholders
(2) All graduates
(3) All minors
(4) Individuals with taxable income
(5) All of these
Ans. (4)
19. Market segmentation means_____________
(1) Segmenting the salesmen
(2) Segmenting the employees
(3) Segmentation the customers as per their needs
(4) Segmenting the products
(5) All of these
Ans. (3)
20. A ‘Target Group’ means___________
(1) A group of sellers
(2) A group of buyers
(3) A group of products
(4) A group of person to whom sales should be focused
(5) All of these
Ans. (4)
21. Marketing is the art of___________
(1) Buying more
(2) Paying more
(3) Selling more
(4) Talking more
(5) Only land 2

Ans. (3)
22. Marketing of services is resorted in____________
(1) Manufacturing concerns
(2) Insurance business
(3) Hostels
(4) Only land 2
(5) Only 2 and 3
Ans. (5)
23. Marketing is a__________
(1) One day effort
(2) Team effort
(3) One man effort
(4) All the above
(5) None of the above
Ans. (2)
24. Service marketing is the same as___________
(1) Transaction marketing
(2) Relationship marketing
(3) Internal marketing
(4) Outdoor marketing
(5) All the above
Ans. (2)
25. Good marketing requires one of the following
(1) Proper planning
(2) Good team work
(3) Good communication skills
(4) Knowledge of products
(5) All of these
Ans. (2)
26. Marketing in banks is a necessity today, due to
(1) Liberalisation
(2) Nationalisation
(3) Fashion
(4) Urbanisation
(5) Marketing in banks is not necessary, as banking in India is more than 200 years old
Ans. (1)
27. Marketing is influenced by__________
(1) Product demand
(2) Public taste
(3) Buyer behaviour
(4) Brand image
Ans. (5)
28. Market share means__________
(1) Share of business among peers
(2) Share market
(3) Share prices
(4) IPOs
(5) Scope for marketing
Ans. (1)
29. Marketing helps in__________
(1) Boosting production
(2) Getting new clients
(3) Interacting with strangers
(4) All of these
(5) None of these
Ans. (4)
30. A DSA helps in________
(1) Boosting direct sales
(2) Boosting sales through the net
(3) Strengthening indirect marketing
(4) Strengthening telemarketing
Ans. (1)
31. A DSA (Direct Selling Agent) is one___________
(1) Who sells through the internet
(2) Who works on the bank counters
(3) Who works in bank office setup
(4) Who sells direct to the client
Ans. (4)
32. Selling is_________
(1) Different from marketing
(2) A sub-function of marketing
(3) Same as marketing
(4) More than marketing
(5) None of these
Ans. (5)
33. A ‘Lead’ in marketing jargon, means__________
(1) A likely consumer
(2) A metal
(3) A leash
(4) A team leader
(5) None of these
Ans. (1)
34. Good selling skills involve____________
(1) Patience
(2) Presence
(3) Empathy
(4) Knowledge
(5) All of these
Ans. (5)
35. EMI stands for:
(1) Earnest Monthly Instalment
(2) Equated Money Instalment
(3) Equated Monthly Instalment

(4) Equated Major Instalment
(5) Essential Monthly Instalment
Ans. (3)
36. A true marketing mindset requires___________
(1) Control mindset
(2) Command mindset
(3) Passive mindset
(4) Active mindset
(5) Inert mindset
Ans. (4)
37. Innovation means_________
(1) Inspiration
(2) Enthusiasm
(3) Compensation
(4) Creativity
(5) All of these
Ans. (4)
38. Internal marketing means__________
(1) Marketing to self
(2) Marketing to family members
(3) Marketing to the staff members
(4) Marketing inside India
(5) Marketing outside India
Ans. (3)
39. Modern styles of marketing are____________
(1) Telemarketing
(2) Web marketing
(3) Advertisement on the net
(4) E-mails
(5) All of these
Ans. (5)
40. A good and effective DSA should_____________
(1) Copy the competitor company
(2) Criticize the competitor company
(3) Join the competitor company
(4) Be passive
(5) Be more effective than the competitor company
Ans. (5)
41. Prior to the Industrial Revolution, selling was no problem and no sales team is required
because
(1) Marketing was not a subject then
(2) People was not a subject then
(3) People don’t want to sell anything
(4) Small-scale enterprises dominated the economic scene
(5) None of these
Ans. (4)
42. A form of distribution in which manufacturer makes an agreement, with a middleman in

each market area stipulating that the distribution of the product within that is to be confined
solely to that middleman is known as-
(1) Mass Distribution
(2) Exclusive agency distribution
(3) Selective distribution
(4) Price Distribution
(5) None of these
Ans. (2)
43. The long term objective of marketing is_________
(1) Customer Satisfaction
(2) Profit Maximisation
(3) Cost cutting
(4) Profit Maximisation with customer
(5) None of these
Ans. (4)
44. Which among the following is statistical indicator for equality in income distribution?
(1) Gini Coefficient
(2) Price Indices
(3) GNP
(4) GDP
(5) None of these
Ans. (1)
45. Short term planning focuses on
(1) Functional Plans
(2) Long term objectives
(3) Specific Goals
(4) Both (1) and (3)
(5) None of these
Ans. (4)
46. In marketing terms, Attitude can best be defined as a
(1) Rude behaviour of salesperson
(2) Rude behaviour of Consumer
(3) Mental state of consumer
(4) Ego of the marketing executive
(5) None of these
Ans. (3)
47. The nominal scale used for marketing research, refers to
(1) Population characteristics based on age or sex or ownership of a specific consumer durable
(2) Ordering of scale
(3) Both 1 and 2
(4) Neither 1 nor 2
(5) None of these
Ans. (1)
48. Reference group influences vis-a-vis consumption decision, is a function of the
(1) Product category
(2) Group characteristics
(3) Group communication process

(5) None of these
Ans. (4)
49. Just in time (JIT) technique is getting wider acceptance world over, the technique was first
introduced in
(1) India
(2) Indonesia
(3) Japan
(4) America
(5) None of These
Ans. (3)
50. Gate Keepers___________
(1) Use the products
(2) Reports on product performance
(3) Control the flow of information into buying centre
(4) Issue challan for discharge of products
(5) None of these
Ans. (4)
51. Consumer Day is celebrated on____________
(1) 15th March
(2) 16th March
(3) 20th April
(4) 20th March
(5) None of these
Ans. (1)
52. A situation where by market is expanded by developing new products to satisfy new
consumer needs is called
(1) Market development
(2) Diversification
(3) Both land 2
(4) Neither 1 nor 2
(5) None of these
Ans. (2)
53. The level of commitment that consumers feel toward a given brand is called
(1) Brand equity
(2) Brand name
(3) Brand loyalty
(4) Brand utility
(5) None of these
Ans. (3)
54. Assigning specific jobs and work places to the selected candidates is known
as____________
(1) Placement (2) Recruitment
(3) Transfer (4) Promotion
(5) None of these
Ans. (1)
55. As a counselor, a personnel manager__________
(1) Reminds the management of moral obligations towards employees
(2) Encourages the employees

(3) Tries to settle the disputes between labour and management
Ans. (2)
56. Which among the following is NOT included in fringe benefits available to an employee?
(1) Old age survivors benefits
(2) Pensions
(3) Gratuities
(4) Both land 2
(5) None of these
Ans. (5)
57. Which among the following is an example of tele-conferencing?
(1) Computer conferencing
(2) Audio conferencing
(3) Video conferencing
Ans. (4)
58. Information systems can assist managers by
(1) Providing information
(2) Providing data on internal sources
(3) Directing
Ans. (4)
59. Which among the following is a disadvantage of an EDI system?
(1) Speed
(2) Errors
(3) Expensive
(4) Mismatch
(5) None of these
Ans. (3)
60. In online marketing, there is____________
(1) No exchange
(2) Exchange is the core of marketing
(3) Guarantee
(4) Only warranty
(5) None of these
Ans. (4)
61. EMI is marketing tool if
(1) It is very high
(2) It is very low
(3) It is increasing
(4) It is fluctuating
(5) It has no role as marketing tool
Ans. (2)
62. The target group for Home-loan is
(1) All body-builders

(2) Tiles manufacturers
(3) Housing societies
(4) Farmers’ societies
(5) Individuals not owning any house
Ans. (5)
63. Delivery Channels means:
(1) Sales outlets
(2) Purchased goods
(3) Product shelf-life
(4) Courier person
(5) Channel finance
Ans. (1)
64. Customer Relation can be ensured by:
(1) Offering freebies
(2) Offering loans at low rates
(3) Catchy slogans
(4) Giving incentives
(5) Personalized services
Ans. (5)
65. Standard marketing practices include
(1) Poaching
(2) Unhealthy competition
(3) Lowering the selling price
(4) Unhealthy discount scheme
(5) Phishing
Ans. (3)
66. Marketing of service is adopted in
(1) Grocery stores
(2) Garments trade
(3) Medicine shop
(4) Fruit stalls
(5) Hotels
Ans. (5)
67. Selling is _____________
(2) More than marketing
(3) Offering discounts
(5) Nothing to do with marketing
Ans. (4)
68. Indirect marketing is the same as
(1) Onsite selling
(2) Using a smart-phone
(3) Viral marketing
(4) Advertisements
(5) Online marketing
Ans. (4)
69. ‘To close a call’ means

(1) To look for a new clients
(2) Telemarketing
(3) To clinch the sale deal
(5) Indoor marketing
Ans. (3)
70. Market size also means
(1) Marketing planning
(2) Market pricing
(3) Market space
(4) Market distribution
(5) Market channels
Ans. (4)
71. Digital Marketing is the same as
(2) Cross-selling
(3) Website designing
(4) Road shows
(5) Door-to-door marketing
Ans. (1)
72. Service Marketing is resorted to in
(1) All MNCs
(2) All production houses
(3) Industrial units
(4) Insurance companies and banks
(5) Fish markets
Ans. (4)
73. Customization results in
(1) Customer exit
(2) Customer retention
(3) Customer complaints
(4) Better balance sheet figures
(5) Better technology
Ans. (4)
74. The sole aim of marketing is to
(1) improve the balance sheet figures
(2) increase recruitments
(3) increase profits
(4) increase production
(5) increase branch network
Ans. (3)
75. Efficient marketing style requires
(1) Proper planning
(2) Good debating skills
(3) Arrogant staff
(4) Knowledge of many languages
(5) Ignorant customers
Ans. (2)
76. Target group means
(1) All employers
(2) All sales persons
(3) Intended buyers
(4) All industries
(5) Call center persons
Ans. (3)
77. ‘Push’ marketing style requires
(1) Collective effort
(2) Good pushing strength
(3) Lengthy talks
(4) Ability to identify the leads
(5) Aggressive marketing
Ans. (1)
78. Web marketing involves
(1) Selling websites
(2) Door-to-door marketing
(3) E-mail chatting
(4) Browsing the yellow page
(5) Web advertisements
Ans. (5)
79. The task of marketing involves
(1) Opening new branches
(2) Buying a company
(3) Selling a company
(4) Selling products and services of a company
(5) Mergers
Ans. (4)
80. Market space means
(1) Place where goods are sold
(2) Trade fairs and meals
(3) Road shows
(4) Scope available for selling
(5) Competition
Ans. (4)
81. Which one of the following Is NOT a target group for saving accounts?
(1) Salaried persons
(2) Loss making companies
(3) Doctors
(4) Government employees
(5) Insurance agents
Ans. (2)
82. Target group for home loans is
(1) Existing creditors
(2) Persons having no house of their own
(3) Persons having one or more than one house
(4) Builders
(5) NRIs
Ans. (2)
83. Digital marketing is similar to
(1) Cold calling
(2) Web designing
(4) Market for cast
Ans. (3)
84. Full form of DSA is___________
(1) Delivery Staff Agency
(2) Direct Selling Agency
(3) Distributors and Supply Agency
(4) Driving Sales Ahead
Ans. (2)
85. In online marketing, there is____________
(1) Only warranty
(2) No exchange
(3) Exchange is the core of marketing
(4) Guarantee
Ans. (1)
86. Which of the following is a part of marketing?
(1) The Process of Creating Pricing
(2) Distribution
(3) Promotion
(4) All of these
(5) None of these
Ans. (4)
87. Marketing involves:
(1) Product
(2) Programme
(3) Problem
(4) All of these
(5) None of these
Ans. (1)
88. A total system of interacting business activities designed to plan, price, promote and
distribute want satisfying Products and Services to Present and Potential Customers.
(1) A System of Production
(2) A system of Accounting
(3) A Product
(4) All of these
(5) None of these
Ans. (4)
89. Which is the essential of marketing?
(1) Marketing is a human activity
(2) Marketing is a Product
(3) Marketing is a knowledge

(4) All of these
(5) None of these
Ans. (1)
90. Marketing includes
(1) Consumer-oriented Process
(2) Certain market
(3) Socio-economic activity
(4) All of these
(5) None of these
Ans. (4)
91. Which is/are the functions of marketing?
(1) Pricing of goods and services
(2) Promotion
(3) Marketing Research
(4) Product Development
(5) All of these
Ans. (5)
92. What is the basis of marketing?
(1) Exchange
(2) Net Sales and Net Profit
(3) Profit
(4) Packaging
(5) All of these
Ans. (1)
93. Marketing is required in banks due to-
(1) Computerisation
(2) Increase in population
(3) Globalisation
(4) Government dictates
(5) None of these
Ans. (3)
94. Marketing is a Social-economic activity because:
(1) Marketing is related with Social Satisfaction
(2) It is a Social Person
(3) It is a Corporate Citizen
(4) All of these
(5) None of these
Ans. (1)
95. Certain market means-
(1) The place where functions of marketing is exercised
(2) Future market
(3) Present market
(4) All of these
(5) None of these
Ans. (1)
96. Which is the subject matter of Marketing?
(1) Machine, man and money
(2) Product or Service

(3) Capital
(4) Brand
(5) Place
Ans. (2)
97. Marketing is:
(1) a day to day function
(2) a one-off affair
(3) a one man show
(4) a collective process
(5) None of these
Ans. (4)
98. Which is the subject Matter of marketing?
(1) Man
(2) Labour
(3) Planning
(4) Word
(5) Goods and Services
Ans. (5)
99. Rural Marketing is related to-
(1) Book
(2) Car
(3) Rural product like-Agricultural tools
(4) Mobile
(5) TV
Ans. (3)
100. Which is the feature of Rural Market?
(1) Number of Consumer
(2) High Income
(3) Educated Population
(4) High Living Standard
(5) None of these
Ans. (1)
101. Lead generation means
(1) Tips for selling tactics
(2) Tips for better production
(3) Generating leaders
(4) Likely sources for prospective clients
(5) None of these
Ans. (4)
102. Marketing Channel means
(1) Delivery period
(2) Delivery time
(3) Delivery place
(4) All of these
(5) None of these
Ans. (4)
103. E-marketing is same as
(1) Virtual Marketing

(2) Digital Marketing
(3) Real time marketing
Ans. (4)
104. Marketing in Banks is:
(1) A one Day Function
(2) A One Man Function
(3) A One off Affair
(4) All of these
(5) None of these
Ans. (5)
105. Effective Marketing Helps in:
(1) Boosting the purchases
(2) Boosting the sales
(3) Diversified Business
(4) Realization of Dreams
(5) All of these
Ans. (2)
106. A “Buyer’s Market” means:
(1) buyers are also sellers
(2) sellers are also buyers
(3) there are not sellers
(4) demand exceeds supply
(5) supply exceeds demand
Ans. (5)
107. The sequence of sales process is
(1) a call, a lead, presentation, sale
(2) a lead, a call, presentation, sale
(3) presentation, sale, lead, call
(4) presentation, lead, sale, call
(5) sale, call, lead, presentation
Ans. (2)
108. A presentation means
(1) Display of products
(2) a gift
(3) explaining the utility of products
(4) display of communication skills
(5) All of these
Ans. (3)
109. Customer retention means:
(1) Retaining the customer at the bank for the full day
(2) quick disposal
(3) customer dealing with the same bank for a long time
(4) better standards
(5) all of these
Ans. (3)
110. Niche market means:

(1) a free market
(2) a social market
(3) equity market
(4) capital market
(5) a specified market for the target group
Ans. (5)
111. Which of the following is target customer?
(1) structure
(2) factors
(3) future customer
(4) suppliers and producers
(5) none of these
Ans. (3)
112. “Marketing is a mixture of mixture” this statement is related to:
(1) product planning
(2) price determination
(3) cost
(4) saving
(5) marketing mix
Ans. (5)
113. Which of the following is the starting point of marketing?
(1) market
(2) production place
(3) buyer’s house
(4) seller’s house
(5) all of these
Ans. (1)
114. Which of the following customers are main customers of a bank?
(1) customer
(2) employee
(3) society
(4) all of these
(5) none of these
Ans. (4)
115. For customer oriented company, customer satisfaction is:
(1) target
(2) marketing tool
(3) enterprise of profit
(4) both land 2
(5) all of these
Ans. (4)
116. Promotion mix contain(s):
(1) advertisement
(2) personnel sale
(3) sales promotion
(4) publicity
(5) all of these
Ans. (5)
117. Demand consists:
(1) want or need
(2) willingness to spend
(3) resource to purchase
(4) only 1 and 2
(5) all of these
Ans. (5)
118. All the market efforts starts with the discovery of:
(1) Product
(2) Needs & wants of consumers
(3) Corruption
(4) Valid Crime Case
(5) All of the Above
Ans. (2)
119. What type of relation is there between company and suppliers?
(1) Direct
(2) Indirect
(3) Multilevel
(4) Social
(5) Private
Ans. (1)
120. What decision is taken under Planning?
(1) What to do?
(2) When to do?
(3) How to do?
(4) Why to do?
Ans. (5)
121. Out of the following_____________ is NOT one of the three levels of a product.
(1) Core
(2) Augmented
(3) Actual
(4) Fragmented
(5) All of these
Ans. (4)
122. Out of the following______________ is NOT an objective of pricing.
(1) Profit
(2) Stabilising demand and sales of the product
(3) Improvement in product quality
(4) Expansion of business
(5) All of these
Ans. (4)
123. Which of the following pricing methods is NOT based on competitors pricing?
(1) English Auction
(2) Sealed-Bid Auction
(3) Group Pricing
(4) None of these
(5) All of these

Ans. (3)
124. A prospect means:
(1) any customer who walks into the bank
(2) an employee of the bank
(3) a customer who is likely to be interested in bank’s product or service
(4) a depositor of the bank’
(5) a borrower of the bank
Ans. (3)
125. Goods that are typically bought by a consumer based on a comparison of suitability,
quality, price & style are called___________ goods.
(1) Industrial
(2) Specialty
(3) Shopping
(4) Convenience
(5) All of these
Ans. (3)
126. Innovation means:
(1) Compensation
(2) inspiration
(3) additional perquisites
(4) implementing new ideas or new methods
(5) None of these
Ans. (4)
127. A lead means:
(1) a prospect who is more likely to avail of the Bank’s product
(2) a political leader
(3) a religious leader
(4) a bank chairman
(5) None of these
Ans. (1)
128. A Call means:
(1) calling on friends
(2) calling on bank employees
(3) calling on prospective customers
(4) to make telephone calls
(5) calling on relatives
Ans. (3)
129. The Traditional Marketing style involves:
(1) Telemarketing
(3) Indirect Marketing
(4) Direct Marketing
Ans. (4)
130. Modern Method of Marketing include:
(1) Publicity on the net
(2) Advertisement on the net
(3) Soliciting business through e-mails

(4) Tele marketing
Ans. (5)
131. A true marketing requires:
(1) Command and other mindset
(2) Control Mindset
(3) Passive mindset
(4) Active mindset
(5) None of these
Ans. (4)
132. Which of the following sentences is TRUE?
(1) Marketing is not required in a Buyers’ Market
(2) Marketing is not required in a Sellers’s market
(3) Marketing is not required due to competition
(4) Marketing is not required due to liberalization
(5) Marketing is not required due to globalization
Ans. (2)
133. Market information means:
(1) Knowledge of shops and bazaars
(2) Knowledge of shopping malls
(3) Knowledge of customer profile and product mix
(4) Knowledge of various languages
(5) None of these
Ans. (3)
134. Market Research is needed for:
(1) checking the market area
(2) checking the right product to be sold
(3) making proper marketing decisions
(4) deciding right time to sell
Ans. (5)
135. For effective marketing the salesmen should have which of these qualities?
(1) Creativity
(2) Team spirit
(3) Motivation
(4) Effective communication skills
(5) All of these
Ans. (5)
136. In market skimming pricing strategy:
(1) Initially price is higher and then it is reduced
(2) Initially price is lower and then it is increased
(3) Initial price is high and is maintained high
(4) Initial price is low and is maintained low
(5) None of these
Ans. (2)
137. Marketing plan helps in:
(1) better lead generation
(2) better systems

(3) better results
(4) improved balance sheet
(5) better customer service
Ans. (3)
138. If Marketing is done effectively which of the following is NOT required?
(1) Publicity
(2) Advertisement
(3) Market Research
(4) Market Segmentation
(5) None of these
Ans. (1)
139. What is Motivation?
(1) Better communication skills
(2) Sales Coaching
(3) Market Research
(4) Inspiring the employees to perform better
(5) None of these
Ans. (4)
140. In a Selling Process in today’s world:
(1) Only standard products are sold
(2) No customization required
(3) the seller need not have product knowledge
(4) the seller should aim at customer satisfaction
(5) only quantum of sales matters
Ans. (4)
141. Find the TRUE statement:
(1) Marketing is a waste of the employees’ time
(2) Marketing is not required in India due to its vast population
(3) Marketing involves additional work
(4) Marketing involves team work
(5) Marketing is not required today due to IT advancement
Ans. (4)
142. A Target market is:
(1) entire country
(2) entire city
(3) entire globe
(4) that which consists of customers who need the identified product
(5) all of these
Ans. (4)
143. Sales forecasting involves:
(1) Sales Planning
(2) Sales Pricing
(3) Distribution Channels
(4) Consumer tastes
Ans. (5)
144. Which of the following product is being sold under the brand name ZODIAC?
(1) Shirts
(2) Ties
(3) Both land 2
(4) Liberty
(5) None of these
Ans. (3)
145. SWIFT – cars are being manufactured by
(1) DCM
(2) Maruti
(3) Premier Automobiles
(4) Hyundai
(5) All of these
Ans. (2)
146. “With you all the way” is the slogan of:
(1) Vodafone
(2) SBI
(3) ICICI
(4) Raymonds
(5) All of these
Ans. (2)
147. Which company used the slogan “The complete Man”?
(1) DCM
(2) GRASIM
(3) RAYMONDS
(4) VIMAL
(5) All of these
Ans. (3)
148. Which brand uses the slogan “Made for each other” for its cigarettes?
(1) Cavenders
(2) Four Square
(3) Red & White
(4) Wills
(5) All of these
Ans. (4)
149. The markets are grouped into different types based on the geographical area, location of
market palace, product, nature of transaction, and volume of the transaction:
In the above statement the following is NOT correct:
(1) Nature of transaction
(2) Geographical area
(3) Location of marketplace
(4) Volume of transaction
(5) None of these
Ans. (3)
150. The following offering is NOT a service:
(1) Fixed deposit receipt
(2) Postage stamp
(3) Gift coupon of a chain store
(4) Insurance Policy
(5) All of these

Ans. (3)
151. The act of obtaining a desired object from someone by offering something in return is
called as a(n):
(1) Transaction
(2) Exchange
(3) Relationship
(4) Value
(5) All of these
Ans. (2)
152. Economists use the term_____________ to refer to a collection of buyers and sellers who
transact in a particular product class.
(1) Customer
(2) Market
(3) Experience
(4) All of these
(5) None of these
Ans. (2)
153. Out of the items mentioned below_____________ is NOT a product.
(1) Lecture by Shri Sudhansu Maharaj
(2) Shimla
(3) Visit to Bank’s London office
(4) None of these
(5) All of these
Ans. (3)
154. A product line is a group of related products that function in a similar manner, are sold to
the same customer groups, and marketed through the same type of outlets:
(1) Group
(2) Line
(3) Category
(4) Market
(5) All of these
Ans. (2)
155. Which of the following pricing strategies is NOT ideal for new products?
(1) Market-Skimming
(2) Discriminatory Pricing
(3) Promotional Pricing
(4) None of these
(5) All of these
Ans. (2)
156. A_________ discount is offered by the seller to intermediary who performs functions like
selling, storing and record Keeping.
(1) Quantity
(2) Trade
(3) Cash
(4) Seasonal
(5) All of these
Ans. (2)
157. In market skimming pricing strategy:

(1) Initially price is lower and then it is increased
(2) Initially price is higher and then it is reduced
(3) Initial price is high and is maintained high
(4) None of these
(5) All of these
Ans. (2)
158. Bank of Mathura is offering 1 % higher interest rate on fixed deposit to senior citizens of
60 years and above. It is practicing ______________.
(1) Promotional pricing
(2) Psychological pricing
(3) Segmental pricing
(4) Product mix pricing
(5) All of these
Ans. (3)
159. With___________ pricing, the products are priced below list price (or even below cost)
for a temporary period to create buying urgency.
(1) Reference
(2) By-product
(3) Promotional
(4) Market penetration
Ans. (3)
160. Digital Marketing means:
(1) Marketing of digital instruments
(2) Marketing through Advertisements
(3) Marketing through Internet and Telephones
(4) Both 1 & 3
Ans. (3)
161. Difference between Direct and Indirect Marketing is:
(1) Direct marketing is to employees of the concerned company, while Indirect is to outsiders
(2) Direct marketing is to outsider, while Indirect is to employees of the concerned company
(3) Direct Marketing is to Bank’s owner, Insiders is to outsiders
(4) Direct Marketing is to other Bank’s employees, Indirect outsiders
(5) None of these
Ans. (1)
162. Which of the following is the most logical budget setting method?
(1) Affordable method
(2) Percentage-of-Sales method
(3) Competitive-parity method
(4) Objective-and-task method
(5) None of these
Ans. (4)
163. One common misuse of marketing research findings in contemporary business is the
tendency for marketing research to:
(1) become a vehicle for pitching the sponsor’s products
(2) become a vehicle for discriminating in the marketplace
(3) become a means for raising prices

(4) become a means for unfair competition
(5) none of these
Ans. (1)
170. A ‘Buyers’ Market’ means:
(1) buyers are also sellers
(2) sellers are also buyers
(3) there are no sellers
(4) supply exceeds demand
(5) none of these
Ans. (4)
171. Market share analysis helps to track:
(1) Share price movements
(2) percentage share of business
(3) pricing strategy for share values
(4) All of these
(5) None of these
Ans. (2)
172. Marketing in Banks is required for:
(1) Getting new customers
(2) Retaining existing customers
(3) Lending
(4) Accepting of deposits
(5) All of these
Ans. (5)
173. Safe deposit locker can be canvassed among
(1) Persons below poverty line
(2) All existing account holders
(3) ATM cardholders
(4) Students
(5) None of these
Ans. (2)
174. EMI can be a marketing tool if
(1) It is very high
(2) EMI is increasing
(3) It is very low
(4) It is a flat rate
(5) None of these
Ans. (3)
175. The advantages of audience selectivity, no ad competition and personalization apply to
which type of media?
(1) Newspapers
(2) Television
(3) Direct Mail
(4) Radio
(5) None of these
Ans. (3)
176. Costs that do not vary with production or sales levels are called:
(1) fixed costs

(2) variable costs
(3) standard costs
(4) independent costs
(5) None of these
Ans. (1)
177. If a company were to make a product such as a suit of clothes and sold that product to a
retailer, the company would have sold to the _______ market.
(1) reseller
(2) business
(3) government
(4) service
(5) None of these
Ans. (1)
178. The shrinking of distances due to technological advance such as computer and fax
connections by telephone, are one characteristic of what new challenge to marketing?
(1) Rapid globalization
(2) The changing world economy
(3) The call for more socially responsible marketing
(4) The micro-chip revolution
(5) None of these
Ans. (1)
179. The goal of the marketing logistics system should be to provide:
(1) a targeted level of promotional support
(2) a targeted level of customer service at the least cost
(3) a targeted level of transportation expense ratio
(4) a targeted level of field support
(5) None of these
Ans. (2)
180. The practice of going after a large share of a smaller market or subsets of a few markets
is called ____________.
(1) undifferentiated marketing
(2) differentiated marketing
(3) concentrated marketing
(4) turbo marketing
(5) None of these
Ans. (3)
181. What are the 4 P’s in Marketing?
(1) purpose, place, product and promotion
(2) person, place, product and promotion
(3) price, place, product and promotion
(4) person, price, product and promotion
(5) None of these
Ans. (3)
182. Relationship selling means:
(1) Cross selling
(2) Selling to relatives
(3) telemarketing
(4) preparing a list of products to sell for customers

(5) None of these
Ans. (1)
183. Credit cards are used for____________.
(1) Cash withdrawals
(2) Purchase of air tickets
(3) Purchase of consumable items from retail outlets
(4) All of these
(5) None of these
Ans. (4)
184. Marketing is successful when:
(1) Demand exceeds supply
(2) Salesman are effectively trained
(3) Supply exceeds demand
(4) a company sell products at lower price
(5) None of these
Ans. (3)
185. A prospect means:
(1) a person who is working in a bank/ financial institution
(2) details of a company
(3) a likely buyer
(4) head of an financial institution
(5) None of these
Ans. (3)
186. NRI is an easy target for effective marketing because _________.
(1) he likes Indian goods
(2) he is easily approachable
(3) it is cheaper to contact NRISs
(4) there are special products designed for NRIs
Ans. (1)
187. Study of marketing environment means
(1) study of company’s markets, customers and competitors
(2) study of economic environment
(3) study of current trends
(4) All of these
(5) None of these
Ans. (4)
188. A Market plan includes:
(1) market objectives
(2) market research
(3) pricing strategy
(4) situation analysis
(5) All of these
Ans. (5)
189. Customization is useful for:
(1) motivating the sales force
(2) to add variety in marketing
(3) value added service

(4) pleasing target customers
(5) None of these
Ans. (2)
190. Telemarketing campaigns are resorted to:
(1) avoid cold calls
(2) avoid buyer resistance
(3) avoid seller inhibitions
(4) reaching a wider audience
(5) none of these
Ans. (4)
191. Customer Retention means:
(1) retaining the customers at the Bank for the full day
(2) quick disposal
(3) customers dealing with the same bank for long time
(4) better standards
(5) None of these
Ans. (2)
192. The Traditional Marketing style involves
(1) Telemarketing
(5) None of these
Ans. (3)
193. Which is the technique used for effective marketing planning?
(1) psychological tools for marketing
(2) goal oriented
(3) marketing research
(4) physical distribution
(5) All the above
Ans. (5)
194. ‘Niche’ Market means:
(1) a free market
(2) a social market
(3) equity market
(4) capital market
(5) a specified market for the target group
Ans. (5)
195. Banks sell insurance for:
(1) Earning more profits
(2) Increasing loans
(3) Increasing deposits
(4) Taking over insurance companies
(5) None of these
Ans. (1)
196. The sales process begins with
(1) Customer identification
(2) Sales presentation

(3) Lead generation
(4) Sales closure
(5) None of these
Ans. (3)
197. Service marketing is the same as_____________
(1) Transaction marketing
(2) Relationship marketing
(3) Internal marketing
(5) None of these
Ans. (2)
198. Good marketing requires one of the following
(1) Proper planning
(2) Good team work
(3) Good communication skills
(4) Knowledge of products
(5) None of these
Ans. (2)
199. Marketing in banks is a necessity today, due to
(1) Liberalisation
(2) Nationalisation
(3) Fashion
(4) Urbanisation
(5) None of these
Ans. (1)
200. Marketing is influenced by______________
(1) Product demand
(2) Public taste
(3) Buyer behaviour
(4) Brand image
Ans. (5)
201. Market share means_________________
(1) Share market
(2) Share prices
(3) IPOs
(4) Scope for marketing
(5) Share of business among peers
Ans. (5)
202. Marketing helps in_____________
(1) Boosting production
(2) Getting new clients
(3) Interacting with strangers
(4) All of these
(5) None of these
Ans. (4)
203. A DSA (Direct Selling Agent) is one___________
(1) Who sells through the internet

(2) Who sells direct to the client
(3) Who works on the bank counters
(4) Who works in bank office setup
(5) None of these
Ans. (2)
204. Selling is____________
(1) Different from marketing
(4) All of these
(5) None of these
Ans. (5)
205. A ‘Lead’ in marketing jargon, means___________
(1) A metal
(2) A leash
(3) A likely consumer
(4) A team leader
(5) None of these
Ans. (3)
206. In Banking services, market can be segmented on the basis of:
(1) Density
(2) Customers
(3) Employee
(4) Both 1 and 2
(5) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (3)
207. Promotion in Marketing means:
(1) passing an examination
(2) elevation from one grade to another
(3) selling the products through various means
(4) selling the product in specific areas
(5) none of these
Ans. (3)
208. In ‘Double-win’ strategy:
(1) Customer gets an additional benefit
(2) Customer gets price debate
(3) Both customs and the sales person come out with sense of satisfaction
(4) Both (1) and (2)
(5) None of these
Ans. (2)
209. Which among the following is NOT an example of Direct marketing?
(1) Tele-marketing
(2) Sales on internet
(3) Mail order sales
(4) Retail stores
(5) None of these
Ans. (4)
210. A method, in which Brand equity is measured by comparing difference between the retail
price of the brand and the retail price of an unbranded product in the same category is called:
(1) Brand goodwill method
(2) Price premium method
(3) Marketing Integrated method
(4) Both land 2
(5) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (2)
211. A true marketing requires
(1) Command and order mindset
(2) Control mindset
(3) Active mindset
(4) Passive mindset
(5) None of these
Ans. (3)
212. A non-traditional, low cost, flexible and highly effective marketing is termed as:
(1) Strategic marketing
(2) Guerilla Marketing
(5) None of these
Ans. (2)
213. Which of the following is the most appropriate reason for Bank marketing?
(1) Globalization
(2) Variety of Banking products
(3) mergers
(4) Recession
(5) None of these
Ans. (1)
214. The choice between high markups and high volume is part of which of the following
retailer marketing decisions?
(1) Target market decisions
(2) Product assortment and services decisions
(3) Pricing decisions
(4) Promotion decisions
(5) None of these
Ans. (3)
1) Which of the following is the correct depiction of Digital Marketing?

1. E-mail Marketing
2. Social Media Marketing
3. Web Marketing
4. All of the above
Hide Answer Workspace
Answer: d) All of the above

Explanation: Digital marketing refers to a process of promoting content, videos, products, services,
etc., thru social media marketing, e-mail marketing, web marketing, affiliate marketing, etc.
2) __________ doesn't fall under the category of digital marketing.

1. TV
2. Billboard
3. Radio
4. All of the above

Explanation: All the given options are totally irrelevant to the concept of digital marketing.
3) Which of the following is incorrect about digital marketing?

1. Digital marketing can only be done offline
2. Digital marketing cannot be done offline.
3. Digital marketing requires electronic devices for promoting goods and services.
4. In general, digital marketing can be understood as online marketing, web marketing, and e-
mail marketing.
Answer: b) Digital marketing cannot be done offline.

4) How many types of pillars do we have in digital marketing?

1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
Answer: b) 2
Explanation: There are two main pillars in digital marketing such as online marketing and offline
marketing.
5) Which of the following is involved in the digital marketing process?

1. RSA
2. Voice Broadcasting
3. Podcasting
4. All of the above

Explanation: Digital marketing includes e-mail marketing, RSS, voice broadcast, fax broadcast,
blogging, podcasting, video streams, wireless text messaging, affiliate marketing, social media
marketing, and instant messaging.
6) What is considered while creating a front page of the website or homepage?

1. References of other websites
2. A brief elaboration about the company
3. Logos portraying the number of awards won by the web designer

4. None of the above
Answer: d) None of the above

Explanation: All the options explained above are irrelevant in terms of the company's front or
homepage.
7) What is the name of the process in which marketing is achieved by incorporating tools,
techniques, electronic devices, technologies, or systems?
1. Internet Marketing
2. Direct Marketing
3. Electronic Marketing
4. Interactive Marketing
Answer: c) Electronic Marketing

Explanation: Electronic marketing refers to the application of marketing principles and techniques
via electronic media and, more specifically, the Internet.
8) Which of the following is not specifically required by the search engines?

1. Poor user experience
2. Keyword stuffing
3. Buying links
4. All of the above

Explanation: The search engine does not necessitate poor user experience, keyword stuffing, and
buying links.
9) Which of the following factors are responsible for leaving an impact on the Google PageRank?
1. The text depicting inbound links to a page of a website.
2. A total number of inbound links to a website's page.
3. The subject matter of the site providing the inbound link to a page of a website.
4. The number of outbound links on the page that contains the inbound link to a page of a
website.
Answer: b) Total number of inbound links to a website's page.

Explanation: The total number of inbound links to a website's page impacts the Google Page Rank.
10) The full form of FFA page is __________.

1. Free for All Links
2. Free for Alexa
3. Free for Alternative Links
4. Free for All Search Engine
Answer: a) Free for All Links

Explanation: The correct abbreviation of FFA is Free for All links, where the webpages enable
everyone to submit his/her web site's URL in their own website for free.
11) Which of the following is the correct depiction of optimization strategy?

1. Orange Hat Techniques
2. Grey Hat Techniques
3. Shady Hat Techniques
4. Blue Hat Techniques
Answer: b) Grey Hat Techniques

Explanation: Grey Hat Techniques is the correct depiction of optimization strategies that are found
in an unknown area of reputability.
12) __________ is responsible for hamper the search rankings.

1. Connecting to your own website from any random website.
2. Utilizing the same colors of texts as that of your background pages.
3. Integrating page templates into your page template.
Answer: b) Utilizing the same colors of texts as that of your background pages.
Explanation: Utilizing the same colors of texts as that of your background page results in
hampering the search rankings.
13) Which of the following is the correct name for Facebook's ranking algorithm?
1. Face Rank
2. Edge Rank
3. Like Rank
4. Page Rank
Answer: b) Edge Rank

Explanation: Facebook utilizes the edge rank algorithm to determine where and what posts are
posted on each individual's newsfeed.
14) Micro-blogging can be defined as __________.

1. Mobile related blogs
2. Blogs posted by companies instead of an individual
3. Blogs encompassing limited individual posts, which are typically limited by character count.
Answer: c) Blogs encompassing limited individual posts, which are typically limited by character
count.
Explanation: Micro-blogging can be defined as blogs encompassing limited individual posts,

which are typically limited by character count.
15) Name the features offered by LinkedIn for paid business accounts.
1. Facilitate posting pictures
2. Facilitate to connect directly and send messages to people
3. Ability to post in Groups and create a Group
4. Ability to block users
Answer: b) Facilitate to connect directly and send messages to people

Explanation: LinkedIn eases the paid accounts to connect and send messages to people directly.
16) In what ways can site traffic help in assessing the market value?
1. Overall site traffic can be followed, and a general idea of marketing's impact can be
determined.
2. There is no association between the site traffic and marketing
3. Ads can send receivers to a specific landing page, which can be tracked
4. Product sales from the company website can be attributed directly to the marketing
campaign
Answer: c) Ads can send receivers to a specific landing page, which can be tracked
Explanation: Ads direct their receiver to a specific landing page that is easily traceable to help in
assessing the marketing.
17) Creative marketing can be defined as __________.

1. A marketing department entailing several employees.
2. The brand value of an organization.
3. A set of schemes undertaken by the organization for distributing the marketing material.
4. The marketing content and its inventive aspect.
Answer: d) The marketing content and its inventive aspect.

Explanation: Creative marketing can be understood as a marketing strategy that ensures that all the
advertising campaign objectives meet the business requirement.
18) Which of the following is the correct abbreviation CMS?
1. Content Maintenance Site

2. Content Maintenance System
3. Content Management System
4. Content Marketing System
Answer: C) Content Management System
Explanation: A content management system is an effective application that permits a user to

organize, publish, edit, delete and modify the content from a centralized interface. The CMS can be
easily handled by both IT or Non-IT people as it does not require any particular expertise.
19) Which of the following doesn't define the correct roles and responsibilities of content marketing
strategy?
1. A strategy that tries to appeal and recall its target audience.
2. A marketing strategy approach.
3. Yet another name of social media marketing.
4. A technique more focused on creating and distributing valuable as well as relevant content
to its users/audiences.
Answer: c) Yet another name of social media marketing

Explanation: In order to derive profitable customer action, content marketing is one such strategic
technique, which is more focused on creating and distributing valuable as well as relevant content to
its users/audiences for appealing and retaining its target audiences.
20) Which of the following practices are not suggested for producing relevant content?
1. For creating notable content recurrently, create hero "content for tent-pole events".
2. For creating valuable content constantly, create a series of scheduled hub" content."
3. For creating more content than your competitors, create lots of articles that are short,
unsubstantial, or otherwise lacking in helpful specifics.
4. For creating relevant content consistently, create help" content to answer queries."
Answer: c) For creating more content than your competitors, create lots of articles that are short,
unsubstantial, or otherwise lacking in helpful specifics.
Explanation: Producing irrelevant content with little or no added value may have done wonders for
a website before Google's first Panda update in February 2011, but in the current situation, it is
definitely not going to work. It won't rank the low-quality content or shallow pages on Google
SERP's
21) Which of the following are essentially required to make a business case for content marketing?
1. Industry best practices.
2. Objectives and KPIs.
3. Impacts and challenges.
4. All of the above

Explanation: The business cases built on assessable business results are more valued by the
executives. So, it is necessary to compare the value of Content Marketing with that of other
marketing strategies carried out by competitors.
22) Which of the following is incorrect?

1. If you know about your target audience's intent, you can easily focus on creating valuable
content.
2.
You should compare the value of Content Marketing with that of other marketing strategies
carried out by competitors.
3. Both (a) and (b) are true
4. Both (a) and (b) are false
Answer: c) Both (a) and (b) are true

Explanation: None.
23) Which of the following metric is used for tracking the status of email marketing?
1. Conversion Rate
2. Open Rate
3. Bounce Rate
4. All of the above

Explanation: The following are some of the essential tools required for tracking the status of email
marketing:
1. Open Rate (must range in between 18% - 25%)
2. Bounce Rate (must range in between 8% - 12%)
3. Deliverability Rate (must range in between 85% - 90%)
4. Conversion Rate (must range in between 5% - 10%)
5. Unsubscribe Rate (must be 0.25%)
24) Which of the following features corresponds to the role of the lead nurturing platform?
1. A/B Testing
2. Campaigning
3. Landing Page Creation
4. All of the above

Explanation: All of the above features correspond to the roles of the lead nurturing platform.
25) In the email campaign, __________ delivers the advertisements into the group of targeted
customers.
1. Spoofing
2. Indirect email marketing
3. Direct email marketing
4. Spamming
Answer: c) Direct email marketing

  

Explanation: Direct email marketing is one such campaign of email marketing that broadcasts the
advertisement directly to its subscribers.
26) What will happen if white space is repeatedly used around the object?
1. It will reduce the readability
2. It will create a border
3. It will make it more appealing by augmenting the object
4. All of the above
Answer: c) It will make it more appealing by augmenting the object

Explanation: Constantly using white space around the object will eventually result in
comprehending the content.
27) __________ plays a vital role in persuading the open rates.

1. Word choice
2. Industry
3. Personalization
Answer: c) Personalization
Explanation: Personalization is one of the important factors that help in email design and
development. Details such as products, words, and industry, along with the personalization, increase
the effectiveness.
28) Which of the following is the most common delivery channel in terms of mobile marketing?
1. Graphic
2. Text
3. Voice call
4. Search engine marketing
Answer: b) Text
Explanation: Texting is the most common delivery channel for mobile marketers to perform
mobile marketing.
29) In mobile marketing, the full form of LBS is __________.
1. Location-based service
2. List-based service
3. Lead-based service
Answer: a) Location-based service

Explanation: LBS Stand for Location-based Service
30) What is meant by Impression Share?

1. The percentage of times your ad was displayed divided by all possible impressions for that
search term.
2. The percentage of times your ad was displayed when it was eligible to be displayed.
3. The percentage of times your ad was displayed higher than your primary competitor.
4. The percentage of impressions you lost due to a low ad rank.
Answer: c) The percentage of times your ad was displayed higher than your primary competitor.
Explanation: None.
31) In order to assess the maximum revenue generated by an Ad on the app, which of the following
metrics is chosen by the developer?
1. eCPI
2. eCOM
3. eCPA
Answer: c) eCPA
Explanation: eCPA is used to assess the maximum revenue generated by an Ad on the application.
32) Which of the following options can help monetize a free app?
1. In-App Purchase
2. Ad Revenue
3. Both (a) and (b)
Answer: c) Both (a) and (b)

Explanation: Both Ad Revenue and In-App Purchase can monetize a free app.
33) Which of the following formulas is used by Pay-per-click?

1. Ads clicked (#) / Advertising cost ($)
2. Advertising cost ($) + Ads clicked (#)
3. Advertising cost ($) / Ads clicked (#)
4. Ads clicked (#) * Advertising cost ($)
Answer: c) Advertising cost ($) / Ads clicked (#)

Explanation: The basic formula of pay-per-click is Advertising cost ($) / Ads clicked (#).
34) Which of the following factors leads to a Successful PPC Advertisement?

1. Selecting Relevant Keywords
2. Improved Landing Page Quality
3. Quality Score
4. All of the above

Explanation: All of the above options are responsible for a successful PPC advertisement.
35) The correct formula for determining an actual CPC as when an advertisement is clicked can be
mathematically derived as __________.
1. Position * QS
2. Impressions * Clicks
3. Clicks / Impressions
4. QS * Max CPC (bid)
Answer: d) QS * Max CPC (bid)

Explanation: Google uses QS * Max CPC (bid) formula for assessing the actual CPC as when an
advertisement gets clicked.
36) The affinity audience can be defined as __________.

1. A user similar to that of your remarketing list
2. A marketing user who is willing to make a purchase
3. A user showing a continuous interest in the matter
4. A user similar to that of your customer list
Answer: c) A user showing a continuous interest in the matter

Explanation: Affinity marketing is a process carried out to build a partnership between a company
and an organization, which gathers similar interest people so as to bring a massive consumer base to
the opposition party.
37) In which case the conversion rate optimization results in diminishing returns?
1. When the conversion rate is 30%
2. In 5 years
3. When you don't notice any dramatic increase in results
4. Never
Answer: d) Never
Explanation: One can never expect diminishing returns by the conversion rate.
38) Which of the following correctly defines the main concept behind Conversion Optimization?
1. Rapidly making significant changes to check which one possesses the fastest results
2. Making insignificant incremental changes over time to check which one possesses the best
results
3. Making numerous changes on your website to check the result
4. Frequently changing the website's layout to see if it appeals to more audience
Answer: b) Making insignificant incremental changes over time to check which one possesses the
best results
Explanation: Conversion Optimization is based on making insignificant incremental changes over
time to check which one possesses the best results.
39) In what ways can you beat your customer's expectations?

1. By making your product more appealing
2. By providing unique services to your customer
3. By providing great deals in terms of discounts to your customer
4. By getting appropriate and relevant reviews from your customers on your website
Answer: b) By providing unique services to your customers

Explanation: You can beat your customer's expectations by offering unique services.
40) The user session can be identified by the __________.

1. Authenticate users
2. IP Address
3. User Agent
4. All of the above

Explanation: The user session can be identified with the help of authenticating users, IP address,
and user agent as well.
41) What is the need to analyze digital analytics?
1. For making better decisions related to the business

2. For generating higher revenue from the website
3. To define genuine customers for your business
4. For appealing more users to drive more traffic
Answer: a) For making better decisions related to the business

Explanation: None.
42) Google Analytics can never recognize returning users on mobile apps.
1. True
2. False
3. Can be true or false
4. Not defined
Answer: b) False
Explanation: Google Analytics is a tool provided by Google for analyzing the client or user
behavior on your website.
43) Which of the following option will correctly give the success rate of the latest Facebook post?
1. Click-through and pageviews
2. Impressions and click-through
3. Likes and Impressions
4. Reach and engagement
Answer: d) Reach and engagement

Explanation: In terms of Facebook or any other social media platform, reach refers to the total
number of people to which your ad or post has reached. However, engagement is the term that
refers to the total number of people who got engaged on your post.
44) The hyperlink refers to a __________.

1. Inbound link
2. Outbound link
3. IFTTT link
4. KPI link
Answer: a) Inbound link

Explanation: The hyperlink refers to an inbound link, which is nothing but a hyperlink present on
the third-party website points to your website's webpage.
45) What is the correct abbreviation of SERP?

1. Search Engine Result Page
2. System Engine Random Page
3. Search Estimate Result Page
4. System Estimate Random Page
Answer: a) Search Engine Result Page

Explanation: None.
46) The main advantage of online advertisement is __________.
1. Low-cost promotional strategy

2. Online advertising is promotional as well as informational
3. Trackable
4. All of the above

Explanation: Following are the main advantages of online advertisement:
◦ More interactive
◦ Low-risk factor
◦ Increased product and service exposure to the market
◦ Easy to collect the data
◦ Using electronic media has reduced the automation cost
◦ Universally accessible
47) Where do we use keywords?

1. Tags
2. Title
3. Description
4. All of the above

Explanation: Keywords can be used in the title, in the description, and in tags. While ranking your
videos, crawlers never view or listen to your video; instead, they depend on the keywords present in
the title, description, and tags as they are self-explanatory.
48) How many lines are essentially required to write in the description box of a channel?
1. 5
2. 2
3. 3
4. 1
Answer: a) 5
Explanation: The First 5 lines play an essential role while writing the channel's description as the
initial two lines are shown next to the video in the search bar or when it gets posted on social media.
However, as a whole, the first 5 lines are included, shown below the video and above the read more
tab.
49) The correct abbreviation of ROI is __________.

1. Risk on investment
2. Return on income
3. Risk on income
4. Return on investment
Answer: d) Return on investment

Explanation: Return on Investment refers to a profitability ratio that can be affected by the
Invested amount and Return amount.
Mathematically,
50) __________ falls under the A/B testing tools.

1. Google Content Experiments
2. Visual Website Optimizer
3. Both (a) and (b)
Answer: c) Both (a) and (b)

Explanation: Visual Website optimizer (VWO), Google Content Experiments, and Optimizely are
the most commonly used A/B testing tools.
1. the customer review of a product on an E-Commerce website.

a)Awareness about the brand
b)Awareness about the product
c)Experience the product
d)Both a&c
Answer: b
2.The main objective of digital marketing is to _________
3.buying relevant keyword and Paid search marketing is about bidding
a)True
b)False
c)May be
d)May not
Answer: a
4. People who had earlier visited the site is __________ Customising advertisement to.
a)Search retargeting
b)Contextual marketing
c)Remarketing
d)None
Answer: c
5. This aims at influencing users who have begun their research on search engines, but not needed
that they have visited a brand site.
a)Contextual marketing
b)Search retargeting
c)Remarketing
d)Both a&b
Answer: b
6. Which platform can be used by advertisers and purchase ad impressions across ad exchanges?
a) demand-side platform
b)supply side platform
c)Ad network
d)None
Answer: a
7. Real-time bidding is a form of programmatic buying
a)True
b)False
c) Partially True
d) None
Answer: a
8. Which capabilities are offered by Web Content Management Tools?

a)Centralized version control
b)Simplification through templates

c)Integration with enterprise applications
d)all
Answer: d
9. Which design approaches help in building sites that are optimized for various screen sizes?
a)Mobile optimized design
b)Responsive web design
c)Progressive enhancement
d)Adaptive web design
Answer: b
10. Site designing for mobile is very similar to the web.

a)True
b)False
c)May be
d)May not
Answer: b
11.Profits related to a new product in its introductory stage of profit related to new product
A.negative
B.positive
C.higher
D.declining
Answer: A
12. ____________classified by decoding, feedback, encoding and response are together in

communication process.
A.communication tools
B.communication channels
C.communication parties
D.communication function
Answer: D
13.Product development comes from_________ source of idea.
A.internal sources
B.external sources
C.product extension
D.both a and b
Answer: D
Answer
14.Which way of consumers feel or perceive towards an actual product or potential market offering
A.sales concept
B.product images
C.product idea
D.customer management
Answer: B
15.which Products like as “VHS tapes”
A.product classes
B.branding
C.product forms
D.product perception
Answer: B
16.__________ behavior Highly involved consumer buying behavior while perceiving significant
differences between brands
A.complex behavior
B.variety seeking behavior
C.dissonance reducing behavior
D.habitual behavior
Answer: A
17.___________Procedure in marketing which consists of enlisting opinion leaders as “brand
ambassadors” is called
A.Leading
B.online
C.Buz
D.none of the above
Answer: C
18.customer is _________, If customer’s expectations and products performance matches

A.satisfied
B.dissatisfied
C.delighted
D.none of these
Answer: A
19.Stages such as conviction stage, liking stage, preference stage, and actual purchase stage are all
of the process called
A.channeling
B.buyer readiness
C.channel designing
D.strategic
Answer: B
20.When the new developed product concept is tested, the next immediate step is to
A.market strategy
B.a testing technique
C.intermediaries
E.logistic network
Answer : A
21.____________communication process, receiver and sender are classified as
A.functions
B.parties
C.tools
D.channels
Answer: B
22.stage in which purchase intention is transformed in to purchase decision is called
A.need recognition
B.information search
C.purchase decision
D.both b and c
Answer: C
23.media and message are considered as_____________ in communication process

A.tools
B.channels
C.functions
D.parties
Answer: A
24.’Maslow’s hierarchy of needs
A.physiological
B.self-actualization
C.esteem needs
D.all of above
Answer:D
25.___________ is classified An idea for a possible product that company will offer
A.product idea
B.product image
C.customer management
D.none of the above
Answer: D
26. A detailed stated version of shortlisted new ideas in meaningful consumer terms is best
classified as
A.concept
B.phase
C.screening
D.raw-material screening
Answer: A
27. The tendency of difficult understanding related to the use of market offering is called
A.relative advantage
B.complexity
C.communicability
D.compatibility
Answer: B
28.which triggers positive or negative emotions leads to purchase motivation
A.emotional appeal
B.rational appeal
C.moral appeal
D.irrational appeal
Answer : A
29.Customers in growth stage of life cycle of products are classified as
A.innovators
B.early adopters
C.middle majority customers
D.laggards
Answer B
30.Considering non-personal communication channels, magazines, direct mail and newspapers are
considered as
A.online media
B.print media
C.broadcast media
D.display media
Answer :B
31.Product development process after analysis of business next step to be taken is

A.test marketing
B.penetration marketing
C.one chanal marketing
D.individual marketing
Answer:A
32.who is suspicious of change is classified as
A.late majority
B.early majority
C.laggard
D.early adopter
Answer:C
33.which is reflected in web design through ______.
A.different feature stories appealing to different members

B.content referencing the needs of companies
C.different navigation options appealing to different members
D.status of the business in the purchase decision process
Answer:C
34. Many consumer products are a key difference between B2C and B2B marketing which is
reflected in web design through ______.
A.referencing needs of companies of different sizes
B.the status of the business in the purchase decision process
C.different feature stories appealing to different members
D.different navigation options appealing to different members
Answer: B
35.which goal of a business-to-business website involves an interactive dialogue with a virtual
salesperson?
A.sizzle
B.sell
C.speak
D.save
Answer: B
35.which goal of a business-to-business website involves gaining permission from a website visitor
and other communications channels?
A.serve
B.speak
C.sell
D.save
Answer: B
36. Business-to business eCommerce involves commercial transactions between other organizations
and organizations.
A.True
B.False
C. May be
D. May not be
Answer: A
37.the example of business-to-business services offered by Google which gains advertising revenue.
A.Google AdWords pay per click sponsored
B.Google Apps Application Suite
C.YouTube Brand Channel
D.Google Search application providing online website
Answer: C
38. ______ is an example of business-to-business services offered by Google application running as
part of a customer’s website.
A.Google Search application providing online website search
B.Google Apps Business Application
D.Google AdWords click sponsored link advertising
Answer: A
39.which is normally run by a consortium of buyers in order to establish an efficient purchasing
environment.
A.B2B independent e-marketplace.
B.buyer-oriented marketplace.
C.supplier-oriented marketplace.
D.vertical and horizontal e-marketplace.
Answer: B
40.which is an online platform operated by a third party and is open to buyers or sellers in a
particular industry.
A.vertical and horizontal e-marketplace.
B.supplier-oriented marketplace.
C.buyer-oriented marketplace.
D.B2B independent e-marketplace.
Answer: D
41. By bulk buying of items, One aim of e-procurement is to increase savings

A.right quantity.
B.right thing.
C.right quality.
D.right price.
Answer: A
42. Which production is related to procurement?
A.Office supplies.
B.Raw materials.
C.Information systems.
D.Furniture.
Answer: B
43. In a market where companies build close connective relationships where Internet technology
will not feature strongly in the development of these relationships, this is known as a ______
relationship. | Digital Marketing Mcqs
A.Low Tech, High Touch, Personal
B.Low Tech, High Touch Transactional
C.High Tech/Low Touch, Automated
D.High Tech/Low Touch, Personal
Answer: A
44.where technology will not feature in the development of these relationships, this is known as a
______ relationship.
C.High Tech/Low Touch, Personal
D.High Tech/Low Touch, Automated
Answer: B
45.website functions, which are the most important?
A.Having free reports
B.services your company provides
C.Capturing email addresses of visitors
D.information on every page
Answer: C
46.Way promote a business with social media is__________
A.your company, services, and products
B.many contacts as possible
C. Offer a lot of helpful
D.potential clients to visit your website
Answer: C
47.search page engine optimization refers to_________
A.Programming keywords into a website
B.each page of a website for design
C.amount of links coming into your website
D.The number of search engine sites a website
Answer: A
48. The best way to improve search engine ranking is with
A.Video
B.A blog
C.Having at least 500 words on the page
D.a lot of graphics per page
Answer: B
49.which main objective of branding is?
A.customers recognize your logo and marketing materials
B.earn trust from your customers
C.Promotional materials that match
D.a unique tag line
Answer: B
50. Which marketing techniques are most likely to pay you?
A. Pay click advertising
B.Using social media marketing
C.Posting press
D.article marketing
Answer: D
51.is it most ideal to send a press release?
A.when there is “big news” happening
B.around the holidays
C.news seems to be slow
D.Tuesday through Thursday for newsworthy
Answer: D
52.the best way to make money “while you sleep”?
A.up good marketing ideas by dreaming
B.Selling stuff
C.Having products on your website
D.spouse who works the night shift
Answer: C
53.the possibility of website visitors following through on contacting you is
A. Offer a 1-800-#
B. Tell them to call you
C.”take away” with your contact information
D. Offer testimonials
Answer: B
54.which is keeping someone on your website and encouraging them to come back?
A. Make a website things to do a website interactive such as quizzes, downloads, etc
B.a lot of text to read
C. Make it difficult to locate
D.Pack a lot of graphics and photos
Answer: A
55. SEO stand for?

A.ite Engine Optimization
B.Search Engine Optimization
C.Site Efficiency Optimization
D.none of these
Answer: B
56.which name is the latest major change in functionality?
A.Farmville
B.Timeline
C.Newsfeed
D.both A&B
Answer: B
57._________ name of the Hosting Company that is used for all external consumer-facing sites?
A.Verizon
B.HP
C.Rackspace
D.none of these
Answer: C
58.________ is the new content management tool for SWEET ?
A.Sitecore
B.CMS Lite
C.Sharepoint
D.none
Answer: A
59. A Robust Social Media Plan Includes Which Of The Following?
A. A long-term schedule identifying when to post content
B. A list of content that mimics competitor content
C. All of your online business goals
D. A list of friends who can post on the accounts
Answer: A
60. Which Of The Following Factors Can Impact The Open Rate Of Your Email Campaigns?
A. The subject line of the email
B. The number of pictures in your email
C. The number of links contained in the email
D. The chance for customers to opt-out
Answer: A
1) E-Marketing stand for ______

• A. Electronic marketing
• B.Internet Marketing
• C.Online Marketing
• D.All of the above
2) Market information means _______
• A. Knowledge of industries
• B.Knowledge of peers
• C.Knowledge of customer’s tastes
3) Bancassurance means______
• A. Banks selling insurance products
• B.Bank promising to pay interest
• C.Banks promising to give loans
• D.Bank to repay loans
4) Marketing is the art of
• A. Buying
• B.Paying
• C.Selling
• D.Talking
5) E-marketing is best seen as:
• A. A subset of e-business
• B.Equivalent to e-business
• C.Broader than e-business
• D.None of the above
6) Mercatus means
• A. sell
• B.buying
• C.trade
• D.assemble
7) Emerging economies ______
• A. have low levels of GDP
• B.experiencing rapid growth
• C.working toward improved standards of living for their citizens
8) Which of the following is not a type of digital marketing activity?
• A. Social marketing
• B.e-marketing
• C.Internet marketing
• D.Print marketing
9) Paid search marketing is usually purchased on which basis?
• A. Cost Per Acquisition
• B.Pay Per Click
• C.Cost Per Registration
• D.None of these
10) Which of the following is correct size of email template before executing a campaign?
• A. 10 KB
• B.15 KB
• C.18 KB
• D.20 KB
11) Which of the following is a type of digital marketing activity?
• A. Email marketing.
• B.Social web marketing.
• C.Viral marketing
12) A place for buying and selling activities is called _________
• A. market
• B.marketing
• C.market research
• D.market information
13) Marketing begins and ends with ________
• A. price
• B.product
• C.consumer
• D.transport
14) The social aspect of marketing is to ensure __________
• A. price
• B.demand
• C.low price with high quality
• D.service goods
15) Market segmentation is _______
• A. dividing
• B.targeting
• C.positioning
• D.differentiation
16) Marketing communication in the rural area has to be in ______
• A. press media
• B.local language
• C.outdoor media
• D.national language
17) Which Customers who buy one brand all the time _______
• A. switchers
• B.shifting loyals
• C.safe core loyals
• D.hard core loyals
18) Which of the following is not a standard in online advertising?
• A. Signal
• B.Banner
• C.Referrals links
• D.Dynamic banners
19) What is unique about social media marketing?
• A. Interactive communication
• B.Generates contacts quickly
• C.Can combine game and other elements
20) Which marketing techniques are most likely to pay you?

• A. Posting press
• B.Article marketing
• C.Pay click advertising
• D.Using social media marketing
21) The best way to improve search engine ranking is with
• A. Video
• B.A blog
• C.at least 500 words on the page
• D.a lot of graphics per page
22) Product development process after analysis of business next step to be taken is
• A. test marketing
• B.individual marketing
• C.penetration marketing
• D.one chanal marketing
23) The procedure in marketing which consists of enlisting opinion leaders as "brand
ambassadors" is called _______
• A. buzz marketing
• B.Leading marketing
• C.online marketing
• D.None of these
24) The profits related to the new product in its introductory stage are
• A. higher
• B.negative
• C.continuously rising
• D.declining
25) In the new product development process, after the analysis of business the next step to be
taken is
• A. One channel marketing
• B.penetration marketing
• C.test marketing
• D.individual marketing
Identify the factor that enables tracking of good and bad reputation?
1. IP address
2.User engagement
3.Fequency
4. All of the above
Show Answer
Answer:1
Posted Date:-2021-03-14 22:18:32
Question:
select the features of a lead nurturing platform?
1.A/B testing
2. Landing page creation
3.Campaigning
4.All of the above

Show Answer
Answer:4
Posted Date:-2021-03-14 22:18:32
Question:
How important is the authentication process in email marketing?
1.Not Important
2.Can be skipped
3.Very Important
4.depend on individual
Show Answer
Answer:3
Posted Date:-2021-03-14 22:18:32
Question:
In which type of email campaige, advertisment are sent to target group of customer?
1.Direct email marketing
2.Indirect email marketing
3.Spamming
4.spoofing
Show Answer
Answer:1
Posted Date:-2021-03-14 22:18:32
Question:
Which of the following comes under email marketing?
1.Email newsletters
2.Lead Nurturing
3.Digests
4.All of the above
Show Answer
Answer:4
Posted Date:-2021-03-14 22:18:32
Question:
This is a term for the number of times that user click on links in a message or on a website : it is
much higher for legitimate marketing emails that for spam.
1.personalization
2.spamming
3.CTR
4.spoofing
Show Answer
Answer:3
Posted Date:-2021-03-14 22:18:32
Question:
what technique is used by legitimate marketers to customize offerings for specific customers?
1.personalization
2.spamming
3.spoofing
4.None of the above
Show Answer
Answer:1
Posted Date:-2021-03-14 22:18:32
Question:
Which of the following is correct size of email template before executing a campaign?
1.15KB
2.18KB
3. 20KB
4.15MB
Show Answer
Answer:2
Posted Date:-2021-03-14 22:18:32
Question:
Which of the following is most important metric to track email marketing?
1. CTR
2.Open rate
3.Click rate
4.All of the above
Show Answer
Answer:4
Posted Date:-2021-03-14 22:18:32
Question:
Which of the following is not an advantage of email newsletters?
1.Email newsletters spread your brand awareness
2.leverage the temporary content
3.freedom to include different types of content
4.leverage the existing content
Show Answer
Answer:2
How does creating a social network marketing plan differ from a traditional marketing plan?
1.The brand image should be completely different for social marketing
2.The staff requirements and skill sets for social marketing are different
3.Other than the method of delivery, a marketing plan either way will be similar
4.None of the above
Show Answer
Answer:2
Posted Date:-2021-03-14 22:11:45
Question:
Social networks are organized primarily around __________.
1. brands
2.people
3. discussions
4. interests
Show Answer
Answer:2
Posted Date:-2021-03-14 22:11:45
Question:
What is "social media optimization"?
1.Creating content which easily creates publicity via social networks
2.Writing clear content
3.Creating short content which is easily indexed
4.Hiring people to create content for social networks
Show Answer
Answer:1
Posted Date:-2021-03-14 22:11:45
Question:
What is meant by "micro-blogging"?
1.Blogs which are posted by companies, not individuals
2.Blogs with limited individual posts, limited by character count typically
3. Blogging from mobile devices
4.All of the above
Show Answer
Answer:2
Posted Date:-2021-03-14 22:11:45
Question:
What is the name for Facebook`s ranking algorithm?
1. Like Rank
2.Face rank
3.Page rank
4. Edge rank
Show Answer
Answer:4
Posted Date:-2021-03-14 22:11:45
Question:
What is the name of Facebook's analytic package?
1.Princeps
2.Viewership
3.Discover
4. Insights
Show Answer
Answer:4
Posted Date:-2021-03-14 22:11:45
Question:
What would the marketing budget section of a marketing plan detail?
1.The cost to write the plan
2.The marketing personnel job descriptions
3.The expected costs for each ad campaign based on the delivery method
4.None of the above
Show Answer
Answer:3
Posted Date:-2021-03-14 22:11:45
Question:
Which of the following is an important aspect of creating blogs and posting content?
1.Using a witty user name
2. Posting at least once a month to the blog
3.Social Media Optimization
4. All of the above
Show Answer
Answer:4
Posted Date:-2021-03-14 22:11:45
Question:
Which of the following is functions of social media for business?
1.Are you participating in the conversation and sharing?
2.Are you listening and monitoring what is being said about you?
3.Both A and B
4.None of the above
Show Answer
Answer:3
Posted Date:-2021-03-14 22:11:45
Question:
Which social network is considered the most popular for social media marketing?
1.Twitter
2.Facebook
3. Linkdin
4.Whats App
Show Answer
Answer:2
How many % of adults primarily use their smartphones to access content/information?

1. 0.85
2.0.9
3.0.95
4. 0.97
Show Answer
Posted Date:-2021-03-14 22:15:39
Question:
How many % of mobile web users abandon pages if they don't load within 10 seconds?
1.0.6
2.0.65
3.0.7
4.0.75
Show Answer
Answer:2
Posted Date:-2021-03-14 22:15:39
Question:
How many maximum character are allowed in sms marketing?
1.150 character
2.160 character
3.170 character
4.180 character
Show Answer
Answer:2
Posted Date:-2021-03-14 22:15:39
Question:
Which of the following is the form of mobile marketing?
1.text
2.voice call
3.graphic
4.All of the above
Show Answer
Answer:4
Posted Date:-2021-03-14 22:15:39
Question:
what are 2 data-backed push messaging best practices?
1.Do not use promotional language
2.Send push notification during week (avoid weekends)
3.Schedule push message for afternoon
4.None of the above
Show Answer
Answer:2
Posted Date:-2021-03-14 22:15:39
Question:
what is the full form of LBS in mobile marketing?
1.Lead-based Service
2.List-based Service
3. Location-based Service
4.None of the above
Show Answer
Answer:3
Posted Date:-2021-03-14 22:15:39
Question:
what is the key aspects of sending effective push notifications?
1.Send highly personalized messages
2.Send with high frequency
3.Both A and B
Show Answer
Answer:1
Posted Date:-2021-03-14 22:15:39
Question:
What is true about 2D barcodes?
1.barcodes cannot scan vertically
2.barcodes cannot scan horizontally
3.A mobile user can scan barcodes in the environment to access associated information.
4.Both B and C
Show Answer
Answer:3
Posted Date:-2021-03-14 22:15:39
Question:
Which of the following is most common delivery channel for mobile marketing?
1. text
2. voice call
3. graphic
4.Search engine marketing
Show Answer
Answer:1
Posted Date:-2021-03-14 22:15:39
Question:
Which of the following marketing based on very small, specific geographical locations (like
neighborhoods or even specific streets)?
1. Hyperlocal marketing
2.SMS marketing
3.QR codes
4. All of the above
Show Answer
Answer:1
A website`s front - or home page should include_________

1. A lengthy description of the organization
2.Logos depicting awards the site`s designers have received
3.Links to other websites
4.None of the above
Show Answer
Answer:4
Posted Date:-2021-03-14 22:21:47
Question:
In the first 10 years, the web was heavily used as a static publishing and/or retailing (transactional)
channel. This was known as:
1.Web 2.0.
2.Web 3.0.
3.Web 1.0.
4.Web 3.0.
Show Answer
Answer:3
Posted Date:-2021-03-14 22:21:47
Question:
Digital marketing includes_____________.
1.voice broadcast
2.podcasting
3.RSA
4.Both A and B
Show Answer
Answer:4
Posted Date:-2021-03-14 22:21:47
Question:
How many main pillars of digital marketing?
1.2
2.3
3.4
4.5
Show Answer
Answer:1
Posted Date:-2021-03-14 22:21:47
Question:
Digital marketing is often referred to as___________.
1.online marketing
2.internet marketing
3.web marketing
4.All of the above
Show Answer
Answer:4
Posted Date:-2021-03-14 22:21:47
Question:
Marketing that moves away from a transaction-based effort to a conversation (i.e. two-way
1.Direct Marketing
2.Electronic marketing
3.Interactive Marketing
4.Indirect Marketing
Show Answer
Answer:3
Posted Date:-2021-03-14 22:21:47
Question:
This is the process of marketing accomplished or facilitated through the application of electronic
devices, appliances, tools, techniques, technologies and or systems:
1.Direct Marketing
2.interactive marketing
3.Electronic marketing
4.internet marketing
Show Answer
Answer:3
Posted Date:-2021-03-14 22:21:47
Question:
What is not true about digital marketing?
1.Digital marketing is any form of marketing products or services that involves electronic devices.
2.Digital marketing can be done online
3.Digital marketing cannot be done online
4.Digital marketing is often referred to as online marketing, internet marketing or web marketing.
Show Answer
Answer:3
Posted Date:-2021-03-14 22:21:47
Question:
Which of the following is a type of digital marketing activity?
1.Email marketing.
2.Social web marketing.
3.Viral marketing.
4. All of the above
Show Answer
Answer:4
Posted Date:-2021-03-14 22:21:47
Question:
Which of the following is not a traditional forms of digital marketing?
1.radio
2.TV
3.billboard
4.All of the above
Show Answer
Answer:4
_____ is the father of Modern Marketing.
A. Abraham Maslow
B. Lester Wunderman
C. Peter Drucker
D. Philip Kotler
View Answer
D. Philip Kotler
Explanation:
Dr Philip Kotler is regarded as the Father of Modern Marketing by many scholars.
Peter F Drucker is known as the father of management. Abraham Maslow is well known for his
theory of need hierarchy. Lester Wunderman was an American advertising executive
Marketing is a process which aims at ________
A. Production
B. Profit-making.
C. The satisfaction of customer needs
D. Selling products
View Answe
C. The satisfaction of customer needs
Explanation:
Selling focuses on sale and profit only but marketing has broader goal. Marketing achieves his goal
of profit through the customer need satisfaction. In simple words, marketing identifies customer’s
or market’s needs. Then, it tries to fulfill i.e. satisfy that needs by offering right combination of
products and services.
The term marketing refers to _______
A. Advertising, Sales Promotion, Publicity and Public Relational activities
B. A new product needs ideas, Developments, concepts and improvements.
C. Sales Planning, Strategy and Implementation
D. A philosophy that stresses customer value and satisfaction.
View Answer
D. A philosophy that stresses customer value and satisfaction
Explanation:
Marketing mainly emphasizes on customer value and satisfaction. Marketing includes all other
elements mentioned in option A, B & C, but the term mainly deals with customer satisfaction. To
satisfy customers, marketer need to offer right combination of benefits and price i.e. value.
In the history of marketing, when did the production period end?
A. In the late 1800s.
B. In the early 1900s.
C. In the 1920s.
D. After the end of the Second World War.
View Answer
C. In the 1920s.
The best Definition of Marketing given by Philip Kotler is _______
A. Marketing is the process by which companies create value for customers & build strong
customer relationships in order to capture value from customers in return.
B. Marketing is a societal process by which individuals & groups obtain what they need & want
through creating offering & freely exchanging products & services of value with others.
C. Marketing is the activity, set of institutions & processes for creating, communicating, delivering
& exchanging offerings that have value for customers, clients, partners & society at large.
View Answer
A. Marketing is the process by which companies create value for customers & build strong
customer relationships in order to capture value from customers in return.
Explanation:
This is an official definition given by Dr Philip Kotler in his marketing books.
Marketing is the activity, set of ___________ & processes for creating, communicating,
delivering & exchanging offerings that have value for customers, clients, partners & society.
A. Institutions
B. Organizations
C. Companies
D. Enterprises
View Answer
A. Institutions
Explanation:
As per the official definition by American Marketing Association (AMA), Marketing is the activity,
set of institutions & processes for creating, communicating, delivering & exchanging offerings that
have value for customers, clients, partners & society.
Here, Institutions is the broader and more precise term as compared to other options.
The key term in the American Marketing Association’s definition of marketing is:
A. Activity
B. Sales
C. Products
D. Value
View Answer
D. Value
The most formal and best definition of marketing is ___________
A. An organizational function and a set of process for creating, communicating and delivering,
value to customers and that benefit the organization.
B. Improving the quality of life for consumers by selling them products and services.
C. Marketing is all about Meeting needs profitability i.e. identifying & fulfilling consumer needs.
D. Marketing is an organizational function includes the 4Ps i.e product, place, price and promotion.
View Answer
A. An organizational function and a set of process for creating, communicating and delivering,
value to customers and that benefit the organization.
Explanation:
This definition of marketing is one of the most comprehensive definitions of Marketing. This
definition covers 4Ps i.e. four important elements & aspects of marketing.
◦ Product (Creating)
◦ Promotion (Communicating)
◦ Place or Distribution mix (Delivering)
◦ Price (Value & Benefits)
Marketing is _______, there is a constant tension between the formulated side of marketing
and the management side.
A. An art
B. A Science
C. Both an “art” and a “science”
D. Selling
View Answer
C. Both an “art” and a “science”
Today, marketing must be understood in a new sense that can be characterized as _________
A. Get there first with the most.
B. Management of youth demand.
C. Satisfying customer needs.
D. Telling and selling.
View Answer
C. Satisfying customer needs
Explanation:
Marketing is much broader than just selling, read this article for further details Why selling is
merely a tip of the Iceberg called Marketing
Select an appropriate definition of ‘Want’.

A. More consumer Needs
B. Needs backed by buying power
C. Needs directed to the product
D. Basic human requirements
View Answer
C. Needs directed to the product
_______ is the act of obtaining a desired object from someone by offering something in return.
A. Marketing Myopia
B. Selling
C. Exchange
D. Delivery
View Answer
C. Exchange
Want for a specific product backed by an ability to pay is called _____
A. Demand
B. Need
C. Want
D. Customer
View Answer
A. Demand
Explanation:
Need is all about basic requirements whereas want is about a specific need. When a customer has
the ability to pay for his want, that becomes a demand. For example, Krish wants a BMW car of Rs.
1 Crore and he is able to pay for that, then his want becomes a demand. Now he can buy that car.
So, he can create demand.
Marketers often use the term ________ to cover various groupings of customers.
A. Buying power
B. Demographic segment
C. Market
D. People
View Answer
C. Market
Good marketing is no accident but a result of careful planning and _____.
A. Promotion
B. Selling
C. Policies
D. Execution
View Answer
D. Execution
______is the best illustration of a subculture.
A. Occupation
B. Income
C. Religion
D. Family & Friends
View Answer
C. Religion
______ are the form of human needs take as shaped by culture & individual personality.
A. Wants
B. Demands
C. Needs
D. Social Needs
View Answer
D. Social Needs
Explanation: Social needs means needs of society. Almost all social needs are influenced and
shaped by culture, traditions and personality traits.
A place where goods are bought and sold against the price consideration between the buyers
and the sellers is called ______.
A. Exchange
B. Market
C. E-commerce
D. Transaction
View Answer
B. Market
Explanation:
Market is a physical or virtual place where sellers meet buyers for transaction purpose. Market is an
open area where shops, malls and other trading centers exists.
Market generally involves at least two parties, one is seller and second is buyer. When trade activity
is done using electronic medium for example mobile, internet, laptop etc. is known as electronic
commerce i.e E-commerce.
_______ Involves transfer of ownership of the goods.
A. Selling
B. Assembling
C. Buying
D. Assembling & Buying
View Answer
A. Selling
________ is not a type of Marketing Concept.
A. The production concept
B. The selling concept
C. The societal marketing concept

D. The Supplier Concept
View Answer
D. The Supplier Concept
Marketing management is ________.

A. Developing marketing strategies to move the company forward
B. Managing the marketing process
C. Monitoring the profitability of the company’s products and services
D. The art and science of choosing target markets and getting, keeping, and growing customers
through creating, delivering, and communicating superior customer value
View Answer
D. The art and science of choosing target markets and getting, keeping, and growing customers
through creating, delivering, and communicating superior customer value.
Which of the following defines marketing management?
A. The art and science of choosing target markets and getting, keeping, and growing customers
B. The development of planning, policies and various marketing strategies to move the company
forward to achieve the goal of profit through selling the product and services.
C. The process of identifying and managing all marketing process to sell product and service to the
end users at low price.
D. The process of developing and monitoring profit of companies products and services.
View Answer
A. The art and science of choosing target markets and getting, keeping, and growing customers
Which of the following refers to marketing channel?
A. Integrated Marketing Communication
B. Distribution
C. Marketing Myopia
D. Retailing
View Answer
B. Distribution
_______ is a combination of quality, service & price.
A. Marketing Triad
B. Customer Value Triad
C. Customer Satisfaction Triad
D. Service Quality Triad
View Answer
B. Customer Value Triad
Explanation: There is no concept of Marketing Triad. There is a concept of Services Marketing
Triangle which consists of Company i.e Management, Employee i.e Service Providers and
Customers.
Marketing segmentation is useful for___________

A. Prospects Identification
B. To know the customer’s tastes and preferences
C. To target current clients
D. All of the above

View Answer
D. All of the above
_________ Involves purchase from various sources & assembled at one place.
A. Selling
B. Assembling
C. Buying
D. Promoting
View Answer
B. Assembling
__________ is the major objective of any marketing activity in the world.
A. Promotion
B. Selling
C. Assembling
D. Transportation
View Answer
B. Selling
Explanation: This is because marketing completes with the real sale of goods and services bought
or acquired by the seller or when intermediary has been affected.
__________ is highly firm-centric, where the firm believes that the competitive edge lies in its
ability to innovate.
A. Conventional Model
B. Contemporary Model
C. Competitive Model
View Answer
A. Conventional Model
_________ upholds the importance of the customer in the whole value creation process. The
D.A.R.T highlights this aspect in a vivid manner.
A. Contemporary Model
B. Conventional Model
C. Both a&b
View Answer
A. Contemporary Model
Which of the following is not an Exchange function of Marketing?
A. Product Planning & Development
B. Buying function
C. After-sales service
D. Selling Function
Answer
C. After-sales service
The key customer markets consist of ____________

A. Government Markets
B. Business Markets
C. Consumer Markets
D. All of the above
View Answer
D. All of the above
Which one of the following is a key to build lasting relationships with consumers?
A. Price of the product
B. Need recognition
C. Customer satisfaction
D. Quality of product
Answer
C. Customer satisfaction
If the focus is on social and ethical concerns in marketing’ is characteristic of the _________
period.
A. Production
B. Sales
C. Marketing
D. Societal marketing
Answer
D. Societal marketing
Transporting and storing goods is part of which of the following marketing channel
functions?
A. Inventory Channel
B. Direct Marketing Channel
C. Physical Distribution Channel
D. Warehousing Channel
View Answer
C. Physical Distribution Channel
Which of the following statements is the most correct statement?
A. The delivery of Goods & Services from producers to their ultimate consumers or users includes
many different activities. These different activities are known as marketing.
B. Marketing is to ensure that the product is easily & effectively moved from the point of
production to the target market & ensures that the product can be easily accessed by customers.
& exchanging offerings that have value for customers, clients, partners & society
D. Marketing is the last step in the chain of commerce where a buyer exchanges cash for a seller’s
good or service, or the activity of trying to bring this about.
Answer
& exchanging offerings that have value for customers, clients, partners & society
______is a cluster of complementary products and services that are closely related in the
minds of consumers but spread across a diverse set of industries.
A. Marketspace
B. Marketplace
C. Metamarket
D. Marketpace
Answer
C. Metamarket
The ____ concept holds that consumers will favour products that offer the most in quality,
performance and innovative features.
A. Marketing
B. Production
C. Product
D. Selling
Answer
C. Product
______ are products bought by individuals and organizations for further processing or for use
in conducting a business.
A. Consumer products
B. Speciality products
C. Industrial products
D. Personal Products
Answer
C. Industrial products
When customer expectations regarding product quality, service quality, and value-based price
are met or exceeded, _____ is created.
A. customer satisfaction
B. planning excellence
C. a quality rift
D. a value line
Answer
A. customer satisfaction
According to the Marketing and Sales Standards Setting Body (MSSSB), which of the
following is not a marketing function?
A. Promote marketing intelligence.
B. Develop sales tactics.
C. Develop the customer proposition.
D. Work with other business functions and third parties.
Answer
B. Develop sales tactics.
After concept testing, a firm would engage in __________ for developing and marketing a new
product?
A. Marketing Strategy Development Stage
B. Business Analysis Stage
C. Product Development Stage
D. Test Marketing Stage
Answer
A. Marketing Strategy Development Stage
If the company’s sales are slow down, and profits level off or decline. At which stage the
company has reached?
A. Introduction
B. Decline
C. Growth
D. Maturity
Answer
B. Decline
Buying goods and services for further processing or for use in the production process refers to
_________
A. Consumer markets
B. Government markets
C. Business markets
D. International markets
Answer
C. Business markets
Which is NOT the stage that customers go through in the process of adopting a new product?
A. Awareness
B. Interest
C. Evaluation
D. Culture
Answer
D. Culture
The mental act, condition or habit of placing trust or confidence in another, shows which of
the following options?
A. Motive
B. Belief
C. Behaviour
D. Attitude
Answer
B. Belief
What does this statement show “Trade of value between two parties”?
A. Competition
B. Transaction
C. Exchange
D. Need
Answer
B. Transaction
Which one of the following concepts is a useful philosophy in a situation when the product’s
cost is too high and marketers look for ways to bring it down?
A. Selling concept
B. Product concept
C. Production concept
D. Marketing concept
View Answer
C. Production concept
The buying process starts from which one of the following stages in which the buyer
recognizes a problem or need
A. Need recognition
B. Information search
C. Evaluation of alternative
D. Purchase decision
View Answer
A. Need recognition
A firm has decided to localize its products and services to meet local market demands. Which
one of the following approaches is a good approach for this segmentation?
A. Geographic
B. Demographic
C. Psychographics
D. Behavioural
View Answer
A. Geographic
Customer’s evaluation of the difference between all the benefits and all the costs of a
marketing offer relative to those of competing offers refers to which of the following options?
A. Customer perceived value
B. Marketing myopia
C. Customer relationship management
D. Customer satisfaction
View Answer
A. Customer perceived value
Which one of the following statements by a company chairman BEST reflects the marketing
concept?
A. We have organized our business to satisfy the customer needs
B. We believe that the marketing department must organize to sell what we produce
C. We try to produce only high quality, technically efficient products
D. We try to encourage company growth in the market
View Answer
A. We have organized our business to satisfy the customer needs
The word shampoo in English is derived from the ………. chāmpo.

A. French Word
B. Greek Word
C. Hindi Word
D. Sanskrit Word
View Answer
A. Hindi Word
This company is well known for Technology innovation, Great value and act as a game
changer.
A. Nokia
B. Apple
C. HTC
D. Samsung
Answer
B. Apple
Political campaigns are generally an examples of _________.
A. Event Marketing
B. Ambush Marketing
C. Digital Marketing
D. Person Marketing
Answer
D. Person Marketing
______ makes a service different from a product.
A. Pricing
B. Intangibility
C. Ubiquity
D. Liquidity
Answer
B. Intangibility
“Many people want BMW, only a few are able to buy” this is an example of _______
A. Need
B. Want
C. Demand
D. Status
View Answer & Explanation
C. Demand
Chapter 15 Advertising and Public Relations
1) Any paid form of nonpersonal presentation and promotion of ideas, goods, or services by an
identified sponsor is called ________.
A) sales promotion
B) direct marketing
C) advertising
D) personal selling
E) public relations
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 430
Skill: Concept
Objective: 15-1
2) A company's total marketing communications package consists of a special blend of

advertising, sales promotion, public relations, personal selling, and direct-marketing tools that
the company uses to communicate customer value and build customer relationships. This is also
called ________.
A) the communications method
B) integrated marketing
C) the promotion mix
D) competitive marketing
E) target marketing
Answer: C
Skill: Concept
Objective: 15-1
3) According to the opening scenario, GEICO has become the fourth-largest insurance company
by ________.
A) integrating humor and creativity into its minicampaigns
B) targeting a niche market of people with exceptional driving records
C) offering cost savings directly to customers without sales personnel
D) marketing its product through creative print ads in major magazines
E) creating a website that is appealing to both young and old drivers
Answer: A
Skill: Concept
Objective: 15-1
80
Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. Publishing as Prentice Hall
4) All of the following are important decisions during the process of developing an advertising
program EXCEPT ________.
A) setting advertising objectives
B) setting the advertising budget
C) developing advertising strategy
D) selecting a target market
E) evaluating advertising campaigns
Answer: D
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 430-431
Skill: Concept
Objective: 15-2
5) Advertising ________ define the task that advertising must accomplish with a specific target
audience during a specific period of time.
A) objectives
B) budgets
C) strategies
D) campaigns
E) evaluations
Answer: A
Skill: Concept
Objective: 15-2
6) An advertising objective is classified by its primary purpose, which is to inform, persuade, or

________.
A) convince
B) compete
C) remind
D) explain
E) encourage
Answer: C
Skill: Concept
Objective: 15-2
7) Which of the following is an objective of informative advertising?

A) build brand preference
B) change customer perceptions of brand value
C) encourage customers to switch brands
D) suggest new uses for a product
E) keep brand in customer minds during off-seasons
Answer: D
Skill: Concept
Objective: 15-2
81
8) What is one of the primary goals of reminder advertising?
A) maintain customer relationships
B) build brand preference
C) correct false impressions
D) inform the market of a price change
E) restore company image
Answer: A
Skill: Concept
Objective: 15-2
9) When the advertising objective is to build primary demand for a new product category,
________ advertising will most likely be used.
A) persuasive
B) informative
C) comparative
D) patronage
E) institutional
Answer: B
Skill: Concept
Objective: 15-2
10) ________ advertising becomes more important as competition increases. The company's
objective is to build selective demand.
A) Reminder-oriented
B) Informative
C) POP promotion
D) Patronage
E) Persuasive
Answer: E
Skill: Concept
Objective: 15-2
11) Persuasive advertising becomes ________ advertising when a company directly or indirectly
compares its brand with one or more other brands.
A) informative
B) reminder
C) comparative
D) POP promotion
E) institutional
Answer: C
Skill: Concept
Objective: 15-2
82
12) What is a potential problem associated with comparative advertising?
A) Consumers confuse the positive and negative aspects of the brands involved in the ad war.
B) Competitors develop new and improved products in an attempt to win the advertising contest.
C) Consumers are bombarded with competing ads, which causes them to leave the market
completely.
D) Competitors respond with their own ads, which often results in negative publicity for both
brands.
E) Consumers alternate between competing products and never develop brand loyalties.
Answer: D
AACSB: Reflective Thinking
Skill: Concept
Objective: 15-2
13) A product in the maturity stage will often require ________ advertising.
A) informative
B) comparative
C) persuasive
D) reminder
E) cooperative
Answer: D
Skill: Concept
Objective: 15-2
14) Familiar products such as Coca-Cola are more likely to use ________.
A) informative advertising
B) comparative advertising
C) persuasive advertising
D) reminder advertising
E) institutional advertising
Answer: D
AACSB: Communication
Skill: Concept
Objective: 15-2
83
15) After determining its advertising objectives, the company's next step in developing an
advertising program is to ________.
A) set its advertising budget
B) determine the media vehicle
C) use cash refund offers
D) plan its advertising campaign
E) develop its message strategy
Answer: A
Skill: Concept
Objective: 15-2
16) All of the following require high advertising budgets EXCEPT ________.
A) products in competitive markets
B) undifferentiated brands
C) new products
D) low-share brands
E) mature brands
Answer: E
Skill: Concept
Objective: 15-2
17) Which of the following may require heavy advertising in order to be set apart from similar
products?
A) undifferentiated brands
B) specialty brands
C) international brands
D) mature brands
E) flanker brands
Answer: A
Skill: Concept
Objective: 15-2
18) Some large corporations have developed ________ to help determine the optimal investment
across various media; such tools are useful when determining the relationship between
promotional spending and brand sales.
A) impact studies
B) sales techniques
C) statistical models
D) advertising budgets
E) advertising strategies
Answer: C
Skill: Concept
Objective: 15-2
84
19) Which of the following is an element of developing an advertising strategy?
A) selecting advertising media
B) using sophisticated statistical models
C) setting advertising objectives
D) evaluating advertising campaigns
E) setting the advertising budget
Answer: A
Skill: Concept
Objective: 15-2
20) Soaring media costs, focused target marketing strategies, and the growing array of new
media have increased the importance of ________.
A) advertising budget objectives
B) competitive parity
C) humor in advertisements
D) branded entertainment
E) media planning
Answer: E
AACSB: Use of IT
Skill: Concept
Objective: 15-2
21) The success of the MINI Let's Motor campaign exemplifies the partnership between which
two elements?
A) advertising and Internet
B) message and media
C) image and strategy
D) technology and creativity
E) brand and objective
Answer: B
Skill: Concept
Objective: 15-2
22) To be successful, an advertisement must ________.

A) guarantee the highest quality product
B) offer the highest quality service
C) reach consumers frequently
D) promise the lowest market price
E) gain the attention of consumers
Answer: E
Skill: Concept
Objective: 15-2
85
23) The Internet, video on demand, and DVRs (digital video recorders) present which of the
following problems for marketers?
A) Consumers are watching less television.
B) Consumers cannot focus on specific messages due to advertising clutter.
C) Audiences are less interested in media consumption.
D) Consumers have more choices about what to watch or not watch.
E) Television advertising is becoming more expensive.
Answer: D
AACSB: Use of IT
Skill: Concept
Objective: 15-2
24) Which of the following represents the merge between advertising and entertainment?
A) Madison & Vine
B) Wall St. & Fifth Ave
C) Buzz marketing
D) product placement
E) webisodes
Answer: A
Skill: Concept
Objective: 15-2
25) What is the term used to describe the idea that will be communicated to consumers through
an advertisement?
A) advertising appeal
B) message strategy
C) consumer-generated message
D) creative concept
E) message execution
Answer: B
Skill: Concept
Objective: 15-2
26) Developing an effective message strategy begins with identifying ________ that can be used
as advertising appeals.
A) consumer trends
B) competitor's weaknesses
C) competitor's strengths
D) customer benefits
E) consumer emotions
Answer: D
Skill: Concept
Objective: 15-2
86
27) ________ tend to be straightforward outlines of benefits and positioning points that the
advertiser wants to stress.
A) Promotion mix plans
B) Message strategy statements
C) Creative concept strategies
D) Big idea statements
E) Branded entertainment plans
Answer: B
Skill: Concept
Objective: 15-2
28) After creating message strategy statements, the advertiser must develop a compelling
________ that will bring the message strategy to life in a distinctive and memorable way.
A) creative concept
B) customer strategy
C) customer benefit
D) execution style
E) media vehicle
Answer: A
Skill: Concept
Objective: 15-2
29) The big idea or the creative concept may emerge as a(n) ________, a phrase, or a
combination of the two.
A) appeal
B) visualization
C) differentiation
D) strategy
E) evaluation
Answer: B
Skill: Concept
Objective: 15-2
30) Which of the following are the three characteristics of an advertising appeal?
A) engaging, informative, and stylish
B) trendy, compelling, and appealing
C) meaningful, believable, and distinctive
D) unique, emotional, and entertaining
E) humorous, memorable, and interesting
Answer: C
Skill: Concept
Objective: 15-2
87
31) The goal of ________ is to make an advertisement so useful that people want to watch it.
A) branded entertainment
B) advertainment
C) audience engagement
D) continuity scheduling
E) pulse scheduling
Answer: B
Skill: Concept
Objective: 15-2
32) American Eagle Outfitters has increased interest in its clothing products using which of the
following advertising forms?
A) text messaging
B) brand integrations
C) product placement
D) webisodes
E) memorable print ads
Answer: D
AACSB: Use of IT
Skill: Concept
Objective: 15-2
33) Product placement in television programs and movies is an example of ________.

A) branded entertainment
B) advertainment
C) brand contact
D) message execution
E) pulsing
Answer: A
Skill: Concept
Objective: 15-2
34) According to experts, what is the biggest potential problem facing advertainment?
A) The cost of creating clever advertisements will become too steep.
B) The marketplace will become cluttered with ads that lack helpful information.
C) Consumers will remember the advertisement but forget the brand.
D) Local networks will oppose running potentially offensive advertisements.
E) Consumer demand for entertaining advertising will become difficult to match.
Answer: C
Skill: Concept
Objective: 15-2
88
35) Which message execution style depicts average people using a product in an everyday
setting?
A) lifestyle
B) scientific evidence
C) slice of life
D) personality symbol
E) testimonial evidence
Answer: C
Skill: Concept
Objective: 15-2
36) Advertisements built around dream themes are using which type of execution style?
A) mood or image
B) musical
C) fantasy
D) lifestyle
E) personality symbol
Answer: C
Skill: Concept
Objective: 15-2
37) The AFLAC duck and Tony the Tiger are examples of ________ used in successful
advertising campaigns.
A) character creations
B) creative endorsements
C) fantasy figures
D) celebrity spokespeople
E) personality symbols
Answer: E
AACSB: Analytic Skills
Skill: Concept
Objective: 15-2
38) What is the first element that a reader notices in a print ad?
A) copy
B) illustration
C) headline
D) slogan
E) color
Answer: B
Skill: Concept
Objective: 15-2
89
39) An amateur video showing the result of mixing Diet Coke with Mentos candies exemplifies
which growing trend in advertising?
A) YouTube webisodes
B) consumer-generated messages
C) multiple minicampaigns
D) consumer-driven promotions
E) competitive consumer messages
Answer: B
Skill: Concept
Objective: 15-2
40) How can consumer-generated ads benefit companies and their products?
A) Consumers trust the opinions of people similar to themselves.
B) Viewers find user-generated advertisements more humorous than professional ads.
C) Consumer criticism of a competitor's product is believable and valuable.
D) Viewers enjoy participating in product contests and being in commercials.
E) Consumers become engaged in the product and consider its value in their lives.
Answer: E
Skill: Concept
Objective: 15-2
41) All of the following are major steps in advertising media selection EXCEPT ________.
A) deciding on reach, frequency, and impact
B) choosing among major media types
C) selecting specific media vehicles
D) deciding on format elements
E) deciding on media timing
Answer: D
Skill: Concept
Objective: 15-2
42) What was one of the results of the "Quiznos vs. Subway TV Ad Challenge"?
A) Quiznos developed an advertising contest asking its customers to counter the Subway claims.
B) Most of the submitted ads included negative health information about eating fast food.
C) Quiznos filed a lawsuit against the winner of the Subway contest who created the winning ad.
D) Consumer-generated ads are now rarely used by companies concerned about legal issues.
E) Subway filed a lawsuit asserting that Quiznos ads made false claims about Subway.
Answer: E
Skill: Concept
Objective: 15-2
90
43) ________ is a measure of the percentage of people in the target market who are exposed to
the ad campaign during a given period of time.
A) Reach
B) Qualitative value
C) Format
D) Premium
E) Frequency
Answer: A
Skill: Concept
Objective: 15-2
44) The number of times an average person in the target market is exposed to an ad is known as
the ________.
A) impact
B) reach
C) frequency
D) exposure
E) engagement
Answer: C
Skill: Concept
Objective: 15-2
45) The advertiser must decide on the ________, or desired media impact, of a message in a
specific medium.
A) reach
B) illustration
C) qualitative value
D) exposure costs
E) frequency
Answer: C
Skill: Concept
Objective: 15-2
46) For many years, ________ have dominated the media mix used by national advertisers.
A) radio and television
B) television and magazines
C) direct mail and billboards
D) radio and digital media
E) newspapers and direct mail
Answer: B
Skill: Concept
Objective: 15-2
91
47) Advertisers are increasingly shifting larger portions of their budgets to media that cost less
and target more effectively. Which of the following is harmed the MOST by such a shift?
A) radio
B) cable television
C) network television
D) satellite television systems
E) Internet
Answer: C
Skill: Concept
Objective: 15-2
48) All of the following are examples of specialized and highly-targeted media that an advertiser
might use to reach smaller customer segments EXCEPT ________.
A) cable television channels
B) e-mail
C) podcasts
D) magazines
E) product placement in video games
Answer: D
AACSB: Use of IT
Skill: Concept
Objective: 15-2
49) The Internet, direct mail, magazines, and radio all offer advertisers which of the following
advantages?
A) audience selectivity
B) low costs
C) timeliness
D) flexibility
E) credibility
Answer: A
Skill: Concept
Objective: 15-2
92
50) Companies are doing less ________ and more ________ as a result of an explosion of more
focused media that better match today's targeting strategies.
A) marketing; personal selling
B) advertising; public relations
C) narrowcasting; broadcasting
D) broadcasting; narrowcasting
E) public relations; advertising
Answer: D
Skill: Concept
Objective: 15-2
51) 30 Rock and Newsweek are both examples of ________, specific media within each general
media type.
A) alternative media
B) major media
C) media vehicles
D) media multitaskers
E) micromedia
Answer: C
Skill: Concept
Objective: 15-2
52) The media planner looks both at the total cost of using a medium and at the ________.
A) cost per thousand persons reached
B) cost of premium offers
C) cost of the magazine it is using
D) opportunity cost
E) continuity cost
Answer: A
Skill: Concept
Objective: 15-2
93
53) When a media planner determines whether an advertisement for dishwashing soap should be
placed in Sports Illustrated or Good Housekeeping, the planner is evaluating the media vehicle's
________.
A) audience engagement
B) editorial quality
C) market coverage
D) audience quality
E) cost per exposure
Answer: D
Skill: Concept
Objective: 15-2
54) ________ means scheduling ads evenly within a given period. ________ means scheduling
ads unevenly over a given time period.
A) Pulsing; Continuity
B) Continuity; Hard hitting
C) Continuity; Pulsing
D) Pulsing; Hard hitting
E) Sequencing; Routing
Answer: C
Skill: Concept
Objective: 15-2
55) Scheduling ads unevenly, which is called ________, builds awareness that is intended to be
carried over to the next advertising period.
A) continuity
B) pulsing
C) shuffling
D) sequencing
E) segmenting
Answer: B
Skill: Concept
Objective: 15-2
94
56) According to the Association of National Advertisers, what is the most important issue for
today's advertisers?
A) determining the favorite media for all demographics
B) measuring advertising's efficiency and effectiveness
C) estimating the overall costs of an advertising campaign
D) managing advertising campaigns on tight budgets
E) calculating the communication effects of an ad campaign
Answer: B
Skill: Concept
Objective: 15-2
57) Sales and profit effects of advertising are difficult to measure because of factors outside of
the ad campaign such as ________.
A) price and availability
B) seasons and attitude changes
C) knowledge and product features
D) budgets and communication tools
E) brand loyalty and media vehicles
Answer: A
Skill: Concept
Objective: 15-2
58) One way to measure the ________ effects of advertising is to ________ past sales and past
advertising expenditures.
A) communication; average
B) promotion; analyze
C) communication; identify
D) sales; compare
E) sales; combine
Answer: D
Skill: Concept
Objective: 15-2
59) All of the following are benefits of standardized global advertising EXCEPT ________.
A) lower advertising costs
B) greater global advertising coordination
C) higher appeal to varying demographics
D) more consistent worldwide image
E) greater consistency among international Web sites
Answer: C
Skill: Concept
Objective: 15-2
95
60) Most international advertisers develop global ________ for the sake of efficiency, but they
adapt their advertising ________ to make them responsive to local market needs and
expectations.
A) programs; strategies
B) campaigns; objectives
C) strategies; programs
D) objectives; programs
E) strategies; objectives
Answer: C
Skill: Concept
Objective: 15-2
61) Apple has modified its "I'm a Mac; I'm a PC" ad campaign in Japan for which of the
following reasons?
A) The Japanese government opposes direct-comparison advertisements.
B) Japanese culture frowns upon humorous advertisements on television.
C) Most Japanese would not notice the differences in style between the two men in the ad.
D) Most Japanese computer users prefer PCs to Apples.
E) The Japanese culture views bragging as rude.
Answer: E
Skill: Concept
Objective: 15-2
62) What is the primary question that must be asked by an advertiser before deciding to run a
commercial during the Super Bowl?
A) Will the commercial deliver a high return on advertising investment?
B) What will be the reach of the commercial?
C) What will be the production costs of the commercial?
D) Does our product match the demographics of the viewing audience?
E) Will the commercial generate enough buzz to justify the cost?
Answer: A
Skill: Concept
Objective: 15-2
96
63) Unilever decided not to purchase advertising during the Super Bowl a second time because
the maker of Dove ________.
A) received little buzz after running its commercial during the game
B) earned a better response for less money through an outdoor campaign
C) discovered that most of the audience did not watch the sentimental commercial
D) spent too much money on one commercial that received low consumer ratings
E) received negative publicity for running a beauty ad during a sporting event
Answer: B
Skill: Concept
Objective: 15-2
64) Which of the five major promotion tools includes building up a positive corporate image and
handling unfavorable stories and events?
A) sales promotion
B) personal selling
C) direct marketing
D) public relations
E) direct marketing
Answer: D
Skill: Concept
Objective: 15-3
65) Lobbying, or building and maintaining relations with legislators and government officials to
influence legislation and regulation, is part of ________.
A) outdated business ethics
B) press relations
C) press agencies
D) public relations
E) a mass market strategy
Answer: D
Skill: Concept
Objective: 15-3
66) Which of the following functions is LEAST likely to be performed by a public relations
department?
A) product publicity
B) development
C) public affairs
D) investor relations
E) media vehicle selection
Answer: E
Skill: Concept
Objective: 15-3
97
67) When nonprofit organizations need financial or volunteer support they often turn to public
relations experts to help them in the area of ________.
A) public affairs
B) press relations
C) investor relations
D) development
E) lobbying
Answer: D
Skill: Concept
Objective: 15-3
68) Trade associations have used ________ to rebuild interest in declining commodities such as
eggs, pork, and milk.
A) lobbying
B) press relations
C) development
D) public relations
E) mass marketing
Answer: D
Skill: Concept
Objective: 15-3
69) Why was the introduction of Nintendo's Wii game console especially successful?
A) The company's public relations department held preview parties and encouraged people to
blog about the system.
B) The company paid for demonstrations on morning news and talk shows to develop interest.
C) The company spent millions of dollars on Internet ads and website development.
D) The company's public relations department wrote press releases and blogs to create buzz.
E) The company's marketing department used product placement to generate excitement.about
the system before it was released to the public.
Answer: A
Skill: Concept
Objective: 15-3
98
70) Why is public relations often overlooked as a tool for supporting product marketing
objectives?
A) Public relations departments are typically small divisions within corporations.
B) The time and costs associated with public relations can be prohibitive.
C) Public relations specialists lack the skills necessary to work with marketing experts.
D) Many public relations professionals see their jobs as simply communicating, not necessarily
brand building.
E) The public relations department only wants to handle stockholders, employees, and
government officials.
Answer: D
Skill: Concept
Objective: 15-3
71) The authors of the book The Fall of Advertising and the Rise of PR state that all of the
following firms found success with very little advertising EXCEPT ________.
A) Starbucks Coffee
B) Body Shop
C) Wal-Mart
D) Amazon
E) Nike
Answer: E
Skill: Concept
Objective: 15-3
72) ________ use several tools, including the news, speeches, corporate identity materials, and
special events.
A) Advertising agencies
B) Advertising specialists
C) Public relations professionals
D) Computer programmers
E) Media planners
Answer: C
Skill: Concept
Objective: 15-4
99
73) Logos, uniforms, brochures, and company trucks are all examples of ________ that can be
used to help a company create a visual image for the public.
A) direct marketing
B) social marketing
C) public service activities
D) corporate identity materials
E) buzz marketing materials
Answer: D
Skill: Concept
Objective: 15-4
74) News conferences, press tours, and grand openings are examples of ________ , one of the
tools commonly used by public relations professionals.
A) public service activities
B) special events
C) social networking
D) development
E) investor relations
Answer: B
Skill: Concept
Objective: 15-4
75) Johnson & Johnson used ________ when it launched its Aveeno Positively Ageless product
line through a YouTube video of an artist's chalk drawing; consumers spread the word about the
video, which was viewed by nearly one million people.
A) social networking
B) public service ads
C) endorsements
D) advertainment
E) product publicity
Answer: A
Skill: Concept
Objective: 15-4
76) A company's total marketing communications mix is also called its promotion mix.
Answer: TRUE
Skill: Concept
Objective: 15-1
100
77) Advertising is used mostly by not-for-profit organizations, professionals, and social agencies
to promote their various causes to target publics.
Answer: FALSE
Skill: Concept
Objective: 15-2
78) A specific communication task to be accomplished with a specific target audience during a
specific period of time is called an advertising objective.
Answer: TRUE
Skill: Concept
Objective: 15-2
79) Informative ads are used primarily in the growth stage of the product life cycle.
Answer: FALSE
Skill: Concept
Objective: 15-2
80) Professional athletes such as Tiger Woods, Peyton Manning, and Maria Sharapova are
featured in advertisements for Gatorade. Gatorade is utilizing persuasive advertising.
Answer: TRUE
Skill: Application
Objective: 15-2
81) Weekend advertisements for Home Depot encourage consumers to visit the store
immediately. Home Depot is practicing reminder advertising.
Answer: FALSE
Skill: Application
Objective: 15-2
82) In advertising strategy, the creative department first creates good advertisements, and then
the media department selects the best media, a system that almost always works very well.
Answer: FALSE
Skill: Concept
Objective: 15-2
101
83) A simple message idea can become a great ad campaign when a copywriter and an art
director team up to develop creative concepts.
Answer: TRUE
Skill: Concept
Objective: 15-2
84) Participants of the reality show Survivor win a team contest and receive a gift basket of Crest
toothpaste, Ivory soap, and Charmin toilet paper. Proctor and Gamble, the maker of these
products, has just participated in advertainment.
Answer: FALSE
Skill: Application
Objective: 15-2
85) Slice of life, lifestyle, and personality symbol are all execution styles used in public relations.
Answer: FALSE
Skill: Concept
Objective: 15-2
86) Technical expertise, scientific evidence, and testimonial evidence are all examples of the
execution styles that creative teams use in advertising products.
Answer: TRUE
Skill: Concept
Objective: 15-2
87) Scientific evidence is the execution style used when Subway advertises six subs for under six
fat grams.
Answer: TRUE
Skill: Application
Objective: 15-2
88) As described in the opening scenario, GEICO uses both a gecko and a caveman in its
advertisements. GEICO combines humor and testimonial evidence in its message execution.
Answer: FALSE
Skill: Application
Objective: 15-2
102
89) Reach is a measure of how many times the average person in the target market is exposed to
the message.
Answer: FALSE
Skill: Concept
Objective: 15-2
90) Although television advertising is expensive for corporations, the cost per exposure is
relatively low.
Answer: TRUE
Skill: Concept
Objective: 15-2
91) Direct mail is one of the least expensive media on a per exposure basis.
Answer: FALSE
Skill: Concept
Objective: 15-2
92) The communication effects of advertisements and ad campaigns are more difficult to
measure than the sales and profit effects.
Answer: FALSE
Skill: Concept
Objective: 15-2
93) In small and large companies, advertising is typically handled by an individual or team in the
sales department.
Answer: FALSE
Skill: Concept
Objective: 15-2
94) Today's advertising agencies are staffed with specialists who can often perform advertising
tasks better than a producer or retailer's own employees can.
Answer: TRUE
Skill: Concept
Objective: 15-2
103
95) Recently, the increased use of online social networks and video sharing has reduced the need
for advertising standardization for global brands.
Answer: FALSE
AACSB: Use of IT
Skill: Concept
Objective: 15-2
96) Since China has lifted many of its international trade restrictions, corporations such as
McDonalds and Coca- Cola now have only limited censorship rules governing their TV and
radio advertising.
Answer: FALSE
Skill: Concept
Objective: 15-2
97) In an attempt to change the perception that milk was unhealthy, the National Fluid Milk
Processors Education Program established an advertising campaign featuring celebrities with
milk mustaches and the tag line "Got Milk?"
Answer: FALSE
Skill: Concept
Objective: 15-3
98) A company typically spends comparable budgets on public relations and advertising.
Answer: FALSE
Skill: Concept
Objective: 15-3
99) A company's Web site can be an important public relations vehicle.

Answer: TRUE
AACSB: Use of IT
Skill: Concept
Objective: 15-4
100) The Butterball Turkey Talk-Line answers over 100,000 questions during November and
December. The toll-free help line supplements the company's Web site and is a valuable public
relations vehicle for Butterball.
Answer: TRUE
AACSB: Use of IT
Skill: Concept
Objective: 15-4
104
101) Marketing management must make four important decisions when developing an
advertising program. Name and describe these four decisions.
Answer: a. Set advertising objectives, which can be classified by primary purpose: whether
the aim is to inform, persuade, or remind.
b. Set the advertising budget: often depends on its stage in the product life cycle.
c. Develop advertising strategy: consists of creating an advertising message and selecting
advertising media.
d. Evaluate advertising campaigns: monitor how well the advertising worked.
Skill: Application
Objective: 15-2
102) What are the three characteristics of advertising appeals?

Answer: Advertising appeals should be meaningful, believable, and distinctive. Meaningful
appeals point out benefits that make the product more desirable or interesting to consumers.
Believable appeals lead consumers to believe that the product or service will deliver the
promised benefits. Finally, distinctive appeals should tell how the product is better than the
competing brands.
Skill: Application
Objective: 15-2
103) The creative team must find the best way to execute an advertising message. Name and
describe three of these styles of execution.
Answer: a. Slice of life: shows one or more typical people using the product in a normal
setting.
b. Lifestyle: shows how a product fits in with a particular lifestyle.
c. Fantasy: creates a fantasy around the product or its use.
d. Mood or image: builds a mood or image around the product or service.
e. Musical: shows people or cartoon characters singing about the product.
f. Personality symbol: creates a character to represent the product.
g. Technical expertise: depicts the company's expertise in making the product or delivering the
service.
h. Scientific evidence: presents survey or scientific evidence that the brand is better than other
brands.
i. Testimonial evidence/endorsement: features a highly believable or likable source endorsing
the product.
Skill: Application
Objective: 15-2
105
104) How are companies taking advantage of interactive technologies to tap consumers for
message ideas and actual ads? What are the benefits and disadvantages of consumer-generated
advertising?
Answer: Companies can now search existing video sites such as YouTube, set up their own Web
sites, create accounts on social networks such as MySpace, and sponsor ad-creation contests.
Several companies, such as Coca-Cola, MasterCard, and Frito-Lay, have used consumer-
generated ads in national promotions. Consumer-generated advertising offers companies a way
to gather new perspectives on their products and develop insights into how their products are
used and seen by actual consumers. Also, consumer-generated advertising is very inexpensive.
On the other hand, companies do not control consumer-generated material, which can lead to
conflicting, or even negative, messages about a brand.
AACSB: Use of IT
Skill: Application
Objective: 15-2
105) Name and describe the four major steps in media selection.
Answer: a. Decide on reach, frequency, and impact. Reach is a measure of the percentage of
people that are exposed to the advertisement; frequency is the measure of how many times the
average person is exposed to the message; impact is how people feel about the advertisement.
b. Choose among major media types: television, newspapers, magazines, direct mail, radio,
outdoor, and Internet.
c. Select specific media vehicles, such as choosing TV shows that the target would watch so he
or she will see the commercial.
d. Decide on media timing. Determine how to schedule the advertising over the course of a
year.
Skill: Application
Objective: 15-2
106
106) Identify four of the major media types and identify some of the strengths and weaknesses of
each type.
Answer: a. Television: Advantages are good mass-marketing coverage, low cost per
exposure, and appeals to the senses; weaknesses are high total costs and high clutter.
b. Newspapers: Strengths are timeliness, good local market coverage, and high believability;
weaknesses are short life and poor reproduction quality.
c. Direct mail: Strengths are flexibility and capacity for personalization; weaknesses are
relatively high cost per exposure and "junk mail" image.
d. Magazines: Strengths are high audience selectivity, credibility, and good pass-along
readership; weaknesses are high costs and long lead times.
e. Radio: Strengths are good local acceptance and low cost; weaknesses are low attention and
fleeting exposure to messages.
f. Outdoor: Strengths are flexibility, low cost, and low message competition; weaknesses are
low audience selectivity and creative limitations.
g. Internet: Strengths include high selectivity, low cost, and interactive capabilities; weaknesses
are audience control of exposure and relatively low impact.
Skill: Application
Objective: 15-2
107) For the sake of accountability, advertisers must evaluate two types of advertising results:
the communication effects and the sales and profit effects. How are these two results
measured?
Answer: Measuring the communication effects of an ad or ad campaign tells whether the ads and
media are communicating the ad message well. Individual ads can be tested before or after they
are run. Before an ad is placed, the advertiser can show it to consumers, ask how they like it, and
measure message recall or attitude changes resulting from it. After an ad is run, the advertiser can
measure how the ad affected consumer recall or product awareness, knowledge, and preference.
Pre- and post-evaluations of communication effects can be made for entire advertising
campaigns as well.
Advertisers have gotten pretty good at measuring the communication effects of their
ads and ad campaigns. However, sales and profit effects of advertising are often much
harder to measure. Sales and profits are affected by many factors other than advertisingsuch as
product features, price, and availability. One way to measure the sales and profit effects of
advertising is to compare past sales and profits with past advertising expenditures. Another way
is through experiments. For example, to test the effects of different advertising spending levels,
Coca-Cola could vary the amount it spends on advertising in different market areas and measure
the differences in the resulting sales and profit levels. More complex experiments could be
designed to include other variables, such as differences in the ads or media used.
Skill: Application
Objective: 15-2
107
108) Describe public relations and three of its main functions.
Answer: Public relations departments build good relations with the company's various publics
by obtaining favorable publicity, building up a good corporate image, and handling or heading
off unfavorable rumors, stories, and events. Functions include:
a. Product publicity: publicizing specific products
b. Public affairs: building and maintaining national or local community relations
c. Lobbying: building and maintaining relations with legislators and government officials to
influence legislation and regulation
d. Press relations: creating and placing newsworthy information in the new media to attract
attention to a person, product, or service associated with the company
e. Investor relations: maintaining relationships with shareholders
Skill: Application
Objective: 15-3
109) In a short essay, explain why a public relations campaign can be a more cost-effective
option for corporations than an advertising campaign. Provide examples of companies that have
achieved success by focusing on public relations rather than advertising.
Answer: Public relations can have a strong impact on public awareness at a much lower cost
than advertising can. The company does not pay for the space or time in the media. Rather, it
pays for a staff to develop and circulate information and to manage events. If the company
develops an interesting story or event, it could be picked up by several different media, having
the same effect as advertising that would cost millions of dollars. And it would have more
credibility than advertising.
Starbucks, Amazon, Body Shop, and Nintendo's Wii have all achieved success through public
relations campaigns rather than huge advertising campaigns.
Skill: Application
Objective: 15-4
108
110) Public relations specialists have several tools that they use. Identify three of these tools and
describe how they can be used to help a company communicate with the public.
Answer: a. PR professionals find or create favorable news about the company and its
products or people. Sometimes news stories occur naturally, and sometimes the PR person can
suggest events or activities that would create news.
b. Speeches can also create product and company publicity. Increasingly, company
executives must field questions from the media or give talks at trade associations or sales
meetings, and these events can either build or hurt the company's image.
c. Another common PR tool is special events, ranging from news conferences, press tours,
grand openings,and fireworks displays to laser shows, hot air balloon releases, multimedia
presentations,
or educational programs designed to reach and interest target publics.
d. Public relations people also prepare written materials to reach and influence their target
markets. These materials include annual reports, brochures, articles, and company newsletters
and magazines.
e. Audiovisual materials, such as slide-and-sound programs, DVDs, and online videos are
being used increasingly as communication tools.
f. Corporate identity materials can also help create a corporate identity that the public
immediately recognizes. Logos, stationery, brochures, signs, business forms, business cards,
buildings, uniforms, and company cars and trucksall become marketing tools when they are
attractive, distinctive, and memorable.
g. Companies can improve public goodwill by contributing money and time to public
service activities.
h. Many marketers are now also designing buzz marketing campaigns to generate
excitement and favorable word of mouth for their brands. Buzz marketing takes advantage of
social networking processes by getting consumers themselves to spread information about a
product or service to others in their communities.
Skill: Application
Objective: 15-4
111) U-Frame-It is a small company that has hired a local ad agency to put together an
advertising campaign. Which of the following questions should be answered first?
A) What percentage of the budget should be for U-Frame-It radio ads?
B) Which type of media vehicle is most appropriate for U-Frame-It ads?
C) What are the communication and sales objectives of U-Frame-It?
D) How does U-Frame-It's competition advertise?
E) What is the demographic of U-Frame-It's customer base?
Answer: C
Skill: Application
Objective: 15-2
109
112) Quaker Oats has been selling oatmeal for many years and is a trusted leader in the oatmeal
market. What will be the most likely objective of advertisements for a new flavor of oatmeal
being introduced by Quaker Oats?
A) build a company image
B) encourage customers to switch brands
C) correct false impressions
D) maintain customer relationships
E) change customer perceptions
Answer: D
Skill: Application
Objective: 15-2
113) Suave ran ads featuring a woman with beautiful hair questioning "Suave or Matrix? Can
You Tell?" This is an example of ________.
B) reminder advertising
C) comparative advertising
D) persuasive advertising
E) buzz marketing
Answer: C
Skill: Application
Objective: 15-2
114) When Proctor & Gamble developed the Mr. Clean Magic Eraser, the company needed to
explain how the product cleans grime from walls without removing paint. What type of
campaign was most likely used by Proctor & Gamble for the Mr. Clean Magic Eraser?
B) persuasive advertising
C) reminder advertising
D) developmental advertising
E) comparative advertising
Answer: A
Skill: Application
Objective: 15-2
110
115) Apex detergent is relatively undifferentiated from two other detergent brands: Acme and
Brighton detergent; therefore, Apex may require ________.
A) a different target market
B) a new package
C) heavy advertising to set it apart from others
D) a higher price
E) none of the above
Answer: C
Skill: Application
Objective: 15-2
116) In its advertisements, Timex promotes its affordable and sturdy watches. Fossil emphasizes
style and fashion in its advertisements, while Rolex stresses luxury and status. These are all
examples of ________ appeals.
A) creative
B) meaningful
C) believable
D) entertainment
E) distinctive
Answer: E
Skill: Application
Objective: 15-2
117) An ad for a new convection oven shows a busy professional woman serving dinner to her
family. The convection oven is seen in the background, and the headline reads, "The latest
development in time travel." This is an example of what type of execution style?
A) slice of life
B) lifestyle
C) fantasy
D) scientific evidence
E) mood or image
Answer: B
Skill: Application
Objective: 15-2
111
118) When AFLAC uses a duck to represent its product, which type of execution style is being
employed?
A) mood or image
B) fantasy
C) personality symbol
D) technical expertise
E) musical
Answer: C
Skill: Application
Objective: 15-2
119) When a pharmaceutical ad includes a world-renowned heart surgeon describing the benefits
of the medication, which type of execution style is being used?
A) mood or image
B) fantasy
C) personality symbol
D) musical
E) technical expertise
Answer: E
Skill: Application
Objective: 15-2
120) Mike's Bike Shop's has a new print advertisement appearing in the local newspaper. What
will be the first element readers will notice in the advertisement?
A) headline
B) illustration
C) copy
D) subheadlines
E) color
Answer: B
Skill: Application
Objective: 15-2
112
121) You receive a report that 68% of your target market has been exposed to your ad campaign
during a given period of time. The information in the report relates to ________.
A) reach
B) frequency
C) impact
D) engagement
E) qualitative value
Answer: A
Skill: Application
Objective: 15-2
122) You are looking to advertise your new product, and you want good mass-marketing
coverage and low cost per exposure. You should choose ________ as your advertising media.
A) newspaper
B) radio
C) outdoor
D) television
E) direct mail
Answer: D
Skill: Application
Objective: 15-2
123) Franklin & Marshall College wishes to contact high school seniors at independent schools
in Pennsylvania. Which of the following media would be most effective and efficient?
A) an e-mail reaching out to students through the Internet
B) local newspapers ads throughout the state
C) radio ads throughout the state
D) a direct mail piece sent to the schools
E) billboards throughout the state
Answer: D
Skill: Application
Objective: 15-2
113
124) Capture Cameras is launching a new advertising campaign to demonstrate the quality of
their digital cameras. Which media option will attract the most demographically skewed
audience with relatively low impact?
A) the Internet
B) newspaper
C) TV
D) radio
E) billboard
Answer: A
Skill: Application
Objective: 15-2
125) IAMS Pet Food runs a commercial on the Animal Planet cable channel during an episode of
The Dog Whisperer. The advertising agency for IAMS is taking advantage of which of the
following?
A) prime time
B) broadcasting
C) narrowcasting
D) audience engagement
E) frequency and reach
Answer: C
Skill: Application
Objective: 15-2
126) ABC Advertising Agency was recently hired to create an advertising campaign for a local
water park. Since the park is only open during the spring and summer months, ________ plays a
major role in the firm's decision about scheduling advertisements.
A) media vehicles
B) continuity
C) audience quality
D) audience engagement
E) media timing
Answer: E
Skill: Application
Objective: 15-2
114
127) The advertising agency hired by Mrs. Brown's Cookie Company has developed a series of
commercials about the new cookie flavors created by the company. The head of the marketing
department thinks that pulsing would be the most appropriate way to schedule the commercials.
What is the potential benefit of pulsing the cookie ads?
A) The ads would achieve maximum awareness.
B) The costs of advertising would be low.
C) Audience quality can be evaluated.
D) Ads can be modified for different demographics.
E) Ad schedules can be adapted based on sales.
Answer: B
Skill: Application
Objective: 15-2
128) Fence Patrol is considering an international advertising campaign. The company may face
any or all of the following problems EXCEPT ________.
A) media costs may vary
B) media availability may vary
C) regulation of advertising may vary
D) some products may be barred or illegal
E) all of the above
Answer: E
Skill: Application
Objective: 15-2
129) Kathy Champe, a public relations specialist for a regional chain of pharmacies, regularly
contacts members of the local and state-wide media with information about community events
and charity fundraisers sponsored by her company. This is an example of the ________ function
of public relations.
A) press relations
B) product publicity
C) public affairs
D) lobbying
E) development
Answer: A
Skill: Application
Objective: 15-3
115
130) The National Pork Board developed its very successful "Pork. The Other White Meat"
campaign. The campaign provided nutritional information and pork recipes in an attempt to
encourage consumers to view pork as a tasty alternative to poultry and fish. Which of the
following functions was the goal of this public relations campaign?
A) influence government regulations on pork
B) gain financial support for pork producers
C) create newsworthy information about pork
D) maintain relationships with pork producers
E) build up a positive image for pork
Answer: E
Skill: Application
Objective: 15-3
131) In an attempt to set the company apart from its competitors, United Parcel Service has its
employees wear brown uniforms and drive brown trucks. What type of public relations tool is
UPS using?
A) buzz marketing
B) corporate logos
C) corporate identity materials
D) product publicity
E) public service materials
Answer: C
Skill: Application
Objective: 15-4
132) The public relations department at a manufacturer of a variety of technological devices has
been charged with developing inexpensive methods of building and maintaining brand awareness
and excitement. To begin with, the public relations department has recruited consumers who are
early adopters of technological devices to spread the word about the company's new products.
This is an example of the public relations tool of ________.
A) public service activities
B) special events
C) audiovisual materials
D) corporate identity marketing
E) buzz marketing
Answer: E
Skill: Application
Objective: 15-4
116
Refer to the scenario below to answer the following questions.
Most of the clientele at Second Avenue have learned about the store through word-of-
mouth communication. This small retailer of quality second-hand children's clothing thrives on
the sale of a vast inventory of children's clothing placed there on consignment. "Because small
children grow so quickly," Second Avenue's owner commented, "they often outgrow many of
their clothes before they've hardly been worn!" Second Avenue provides a way for people to sell
their children's clothing, earn a few dollars, and buy the next larger size. "We're extremely picky
about the condition of the clothing we stock," the owner stated, "but we sell most items at a 60
percent discount."
133) Which of the following media options would MOST benefit Second Avenue's promotional
efforts given the store's limited budget?
A) periodic advertising in a local newspaper
B) daily advertisements on a local radio station
C) weekly commercials during the local evening news
D) a billboard placed on the interstate
E) a link on the city's Chamber of Commerce Web site
Answer: A
Skill: Application
Objective: 15-2
134) Second Avenue wants to create a postcard to be sent to local families with young children.
The postcard will include information about the store's typical inventory, store hours, and
directions. Which of the following format elements can make the biggest difference in the
success or failure of the direct mailing?
A) copy
B) headline
C) illustration
D) font
E) color
Answer: C
Skill: Application
Objective: 15-2
117
135) The owner of Second Avenue wants to establish a community clothing drive to collect
clothes for a local children's shelter. The owner will set up collection barrels outside Second
Avenue. Which of the following public relations tools is the owner using?
A) press relations
B) product publicity
C) lobbying
D) development
E) public affairs
Answer: E
Skill: Application
Objective: 15-2
136) What are the three primary purposes of advertising objectives?

Answer: Advertising objectives can be classified by primary purposewhether the aim is to
inform, persuade, or remind.
Skill: Application
Objective: 15-2
137) When does a marketer use informative ads?

Answer: Informative ads are used heavily when introducing new products or new product
categories.
Skill: Application
Objective: 15-2
138) When does a marketer use a comparative ad?

Answer: Comparative ads are a type of persuasive ads in which a company directly or indirectly
compares its brand with one or more other brands.
Skill: Application
Objective: 15-2
139) When does a marketer use reminder ads?

Answer: Reminder ads are important for mature products; they keep consumers thinking about
the product.
Skill: Application
Objective: 15-2
118
140) How has clutter in television and other advertising media created an increasingly hostile
advertising environment?
Answer: The majority of Americans believe there are too many television commercials, and they
are faced with almost 20 minutes of commercials for each hour of prime-time television; viewers
are increasingly using technologies to skip past commercials.
Skill: Application
Objective: 15-2
141) Explain how a marketer could create a message strategy when marketing a product toward
children.
Answer: When directing marketing efforts toward children, the marketer will want to create a
message that is most appealing to children. The market will likely relate to specific situations in
which children usually find themselves or the marketer may use a personality symbol with which
the children can relate.
Diff: 3 Page Ref: 435 and 438
Skill: Application
Objective: 15-2
142) Give a hypothetical example of a slice-of-life message execution style.

Answer: Possible examples are endless. Slice-of-life examples show one or more typical people
using a product in a normal setting.
Skill: Application
Objective: 15-2
143) How does a personality symbol impact a brand?

Answer: A personality symbol is a character that represents the product and with which the
consumer can relate; the personality symbol helps a consumer connect with the product.
Skill: Application
Objective: 15-2
144) Give a hypothetical example of testimonial evidence.

Answer: Possible examples are endless. Testimonial evidence features a highly believable or
likable source endorsing the product.
Skill: Application
Objective: 15-2
119
145) What does "reach" tell a marketer?
Answer: Reach is a measurement of the percentage of people in the target market who are
exposed to the ad campaign during a given period of time.
Skill: Application
Objective: 15-2
146) Explain how different types of messages may require different media.
Answer: For example, a message announcing a major sale tomorrow will require radio or
newspapers; a message with a lot of technical data might require magazines, direct mailings, or
an online ad.
Skill: Application
Objective: 15-2
147) Explain how seasonality impacts media timing.

Answer: Seasonality will impact how often an advertisement is aired or printed. Usually during
the Christmas season, ads from numerous marketers of various products are seen more
frequently. During other seasons, the pattern of ads (frequency) will change greatly.
Skill: Application
Objective: 15-2
148) Give an example of how a company might run an experiment to measure the sales and
profit effects of its advertising.
Answer: Answers will vary. Nabisco could vary the amount it spends on advertising a new food
product in different market areas and compare the resulting sales and profit levels.
Skill: Application
Objective: 15-2
149) Explain why an ad would need to be modified from one country to the next.
Answer: Differences in perceptions of time, color, and imagery will impact how effective or
acceptable an advertisement will be in other countries. In addition, changes in the use of
language may be required to avoid being offensive to the foreign culture. Also, countries have
varying laws regulating advertising.
Skill: Application
Objective: 15-2
120
150) Why can public relations efforts have a strong impact on public awareness at a substantially
lower cost than advertising?
Answer: With public relations, the company is paying for a staff to develop and circulate
information and plan events instead of paying for space or time in the media.
Skill: Application
Objective: 15-3
121
Chapter 16 Personal Selling and Sales Promotion
1) Which of the following elements of the promotion mix involves making personal connections
with customers for the purpose of making sales?
A) personal selling
B) advertising
C) e-commerce
D) publicity
E) public relations
Answer: A
Skill: Concept
Objective: 16-1
2) A ________ is an individual acting on behalf of a company who performs one or more of the
following activities: prospecting, communicating, servicing, and information gathering.
A) press agent
B) sales assistant
C) marketing director
D) salesperson
E) publicist
Answer: D
Skill: Concept
Objective: 16-1
3) ________ involves two-way, personal communication between salespeople and individual

customers, either in person, by telephone, or through Web conferences.
A) Advertising
B) Public relations
C) Personal selling
D) Telemarketing
E) Integrated marketing communication
Answer: C
Skill: Concept
Objective: 16-1
122
4) What is the role of a chief revenue, or chief customer, officer?
A) to oversee sales
B) to oversee marketing
C) to oversee both marketing and sales
D) to represent customers to the company
E) to represent the company to customers
Answer: C
Skill: Concept
Objective: 16-1
5) A company can unite its marketing and sales functions through all of the following activities
EXCEPT ________.
A) assigning a telemarketer the task of visiting a customer
B) arranging joint meetings to clarify all aspects of communication
C) appointing a chief customer officer to oversee both departments
D) having a salesperson preview ads and sales-promotion campaigns
E) sending brand managers on sales calls with a salesperson
Answer: A
Skill: Concept
Objective: 16-1
6) When a company sets out to analyze, plan, implement, and control sales force activities, the
company is undertaking ________.
A) sales design
B) sales force management
C) group sales efforts
D) co-op selling and advertising
E) promotional objectives
Answer: B
Skill: Concept
Objective: 16-2
123
7) Of the three typical types of sales force structures, which one is often supported by many
levels of sales management positions in specific geographical areas?
A) territorial
B) product
C) customer
D) complex systems
E) A and B
Answer: A
Skill: Concept
Objective: 16-2
8) All of the following are considered advantages of a territorial sales force structure EXCEPT
________.
A) travel expenses can be minimized
B) each salesperson's job is clearly defined
C) accountability is clearly defined for each salesperson
D) salespeople develop in-depth knowledge of a product line
E) salespeople have the opportunity and incentive to build strong relationships with customers
Answer: D
Skill: Concept
Objective: 16-2
9) Which of the following is NOT a disadvantage of a product sales force structure?

A) extra selling costs involved with multiple sales visits from separate divisions
B) overlapping use of resources with big customers
C) salespeople spending time to see the same customer's purchasing agents
D) increased customer delivery time
E) B and C
Answer: D
Skill: Concept
Objective: 16-2
10) Companies that use a customer sales force structure organize their salespeople by ________.
A) product
B) territory
C) industry
D) demand
E) hierarchy
Answer: C
Skill: Concept
Objective: 16-2
124
11) Hewlett-Packard's Customer Sales Group (CSG) caused frustration among customers and
salespeople. What was the primary problem with the sales force structure of CSG?
A) The marketing and sales divisions had overlapping responsibilities, which caused friction.
B) Salespeople developed expertise in only one product area, which limited their sales
commissions.
C) Salespeople specialized in selling only to specific customers and specific industries.
D) Salespeople were responsible for selling all H-P products instead of specializing in a few
products.
E) The sales department was divided by product lines, which complicated customer service
issues.
Answer: D
Skill: Concept
Objective: 16-2
12) What do many companies use to determine sales force size?

A) the workload approach
B) product availability
C) demographic characteristics of the sales force
D) the outside sales force method
E) profit margin
Answer: A
Skill: Concept
Objective: 16-2
13) What is the term used to identify the individuals in a company who travel to call on
customers in the field?
A) product sales force
B) outside sales force
C) inside sales force
D) complex sales force
E) customer sales force
Answer: B
Skill: Concept
Objective: 16-2
125
14) Members of a company's ________ conduct business from their offices using telephones, e-
mails, or visits from prospective buyers to generate sales.
A) outside sales force
B) inside sales force
C) complex sales force
D) customer sales force
E) product sales force
Answer: B
Skill: Concept
Objective: 16-2
15) To reduce time demands on their outside sales forces, many companies have increased the
size of their inside sales forces, which include technical support people, sales assistants, and
________.
A) retail supervisors
B) sales managers
C) telemarketers
D) accountants
E) programmers
Answer: C
AACSB: Use of IT
Skill: Concept
Objective: 16-2
16) A sales assistant working for an outside sales force will most likely have all of the following
duties EXCEPT ________.
A) answering customer's questions when a salesperson is unavailable
B) providing administrative backup
C) confirming appointments
D) following up on deliveries
E) determining price points
Answer: E
Skill: Concept
Objective: 16-2
126
17) According to the opening scenario, the success of CDW Corporation is the direct result of its
salespeople ________.
A) working closely with the marketing department to manage accounts
B) receiving bonuses based on customer satisfaction surveys
C) receiving extensive training on complex computer systems
D) developing close, personal relationships with customers
E) using Web conferencing and e-mail to assist customers
Answer: D
Skill: Concept
Objective: 16-2
18) The growing trend of using a group of people from sales, marketing, engineering, finance,
technical support, and even upper management to service large, complex accounts is known as
________ selling.
A) department
B) multiple
C) team
D) personal
E) simultaneous
Answer: C
Skill: Concept
Objective: 16-2
19) Which of the following most likely explains why companies are adopting the team selling
approach to service large, complex accounts?
A) Products have become too complicated for one salesperson to support.
B) Customers prefer dealing with many salespeople rather than one sales representative.
C) Salespeople prefer working in groups because of the opportunity for flex hours and job
sharing.
D) A group of salespeople assigned to one account is cost effective for corporations.
E) Fewer skilled salespeople are working in the high-tech industry.
Answer: A
Skill: Concept
Objective: 16-2
127
20) All of the following are disadvantages of the team selling approach EXCEPT ________.
A) Selling teams can overwhelm customers.
B) Many salespeople are unaccustomed to working with others.
C) Selling teams increase costs and are time consuming.
D) Individual contributions and compensations can be difficult to assess.
E) Most salespeople are trained to excel in individual performance.
Answer: C
Skill: Concept
Objective: 16-2
21) All of the following are problems associated with the poor selection of salespeople EXCEPT
________.
A) lower sales
B) costly turnover
C) less productivity
D) less office support
E) disrupted customer relationships
Answer: D
Skill: Concept
Objective: 16-2
22) According to research, which of the following is one of the four key talents a successful
salesperson must possess?
A) managerial skills
B) disciplined work style
C) aggressive personality
D) technological know-how
E) fluency in a second language
Answer: B
Skill: Concept
Objective: 16-2
23) During the hiring process, companies that test sales applicants typically measure all of the
following abilities EXCEPT ________.
A) sales aptitude
B) organizational skills
C) accounting skills
D) analytical skills
E) personality traits
Answer: C
Skill: Concept
Objective: 16-2
128
24) The purpose of a training program for salespeople is to teach them about all of the following
EXCEPT ________.
A) customers' buying habits
B) customers' buying motives
C) the company's main competitors
D) the company retirement benefits
E) the company's organizational structure
Answer: D
Skill: Concept
Objective: 16-2
25) What is the primary reason that companies use e-learning to conduct sales training
programs?
A) Customer needs and habits are easily conveyed through e-learning.
B) Customers appreciate the flexibility of e-learning.
C) E-learning allows for more employee feedback.
D) E-learning is the best way to simulate sales calls.
E) E-learning cuts training costs.
Answer: E
AACSB: Use of IT
Skill: Concept
Objective: 16-2
26) How do e-learning centers, such as the one developed by International Rectifier, help
salespeople make sales?
A) Salespeople can refresh their knowledge about company products prior to making sales calls.
B) Salespeople can attend training sessions from their home offices, which saves time and
money.
C) E-learning centers enable salespeople and customers to interact through Web conferencing.
D) Evaluation diagnostic tools in e-learning centers help managers monitor sales personnel.
E) E-learning centers provide product information to current customers.
Answer: A
AACSB: Use of IT
Skill: Concept
Objective: 16-2
129
27) Commissions or bonuses that a salesperson receives from a company are categorized as the
________.
A) base salary
B) fixed amount
C) variable amount
D) fringe benefit
E) pension plan
Answer: C
Skill: Concept
Objective: 16-2
28) All of the following are a basic type of compensation plan for salespeople EXCEPT
________.
A) straight commission
B) straight salary
C) salary and commission
D) commission plus bonus
E) salary plus bonus
Answer: D
Skill: Concept
Objective: 16-2
29) Companies are increasingly moving away from high commission compensation plans
because such plans often lead to salespeople ________.
A) undermining the work of the inside sales team
B) ignoring management and marketing objectives
C) being too pushy and ruining customer relationships
D) working multiple sales jobs to maximize their income
E) spend too much time traveling between customers
Answer: C
Skill: Concept
Objective: 16-2
30) Which sales management tool helps a salesperson know which customers to visit and which
activities to carry out during a week?
A) time-and-duty analysis
B) sales force automation systems
C) call plan
D) sales quota plan
E) positive incentives plan
Answer: C
Skill: Concept
Objective: 16-2
130
31) Companies are always looking for ways to increase face-to-face selling time. All of the
following are ways to accomplish this goal EXCEPT ________.
A) using phones and video conferencing instead of traveling
B) simplifying record keeping and other administrative tasks
C) developing better sales-call and routing plans
D) reducing the number of customers each sales rep must visit
E) supplying more and better customer information
Answer: D
Skill: Concept
Objective: 16-2
32) Which of the following is an advantage created by the use of a sales force automation
system?
A) lower costs for training sales personnel
B) increased motivation to acquire new customers
C) decreased need for an inside sales force
D) stronger organizational climate developed by the sales team
E) more efficient scheduling of sales calls and sales presentations
Answer: E
AACSB: Use of IT
Skill: Concept
Objective: 16-2
33) Firms that have adopted sales force automation systems most likely use all of the following
tools EXCEPT ________.
A) customer-contact and relationship management software
B) time-and-duty analysis software
C) smart phones
D) laptop computers
E) Webcams for videoconferencing
Answer: B
AACSB: Use of IT
Skill: Concept
Objective: 16-2
131
34) The process of receiving drug marketing information through product Web sites is known as
________.
A) e-detailing
B) e-learning
C) Web conferencing
D) Web interfacing
E) automated selling
Answer: A
AACSB: Use of IT
Skill: Concept
Objective: 16-2
35) Which of the following is a potential drawback of using Web-based technologies for making
sales presentations and servicing accounts?
A) Salespeople have to invest more time in preparing for this type of interaction with customers.
B) The cost of the technology outweighs any savings gained by eliminating the need for travel.
C) The systems can intimidate salespeople who are unfamiliar with the technology.
D) Customers are less likely to buy the product when a Web conference is used.
E) Customers lack the technology required to participate in a Web conference.
Answer: C
AACSB: Use of IT
Skill: Concept
Objective: 16-2
36) A company that treats its salespeople as valuable contributors with unlimited income
opportunities has developed a(n) ________ that will have fewer turnovers and higher sales force
performance.
A) sales force system
B) organizational climate
C) compensation package
D) sales structure
E) workload
Answer: B
Skill: Concept
Objective: 16-2
132
37) A sales ________ is the standard that establishes the amount each salesperson should sell and
how sales should be divided among the company's products.
A) goal
B) task
C) quota
D) incentive
E) contest
Answer: C
Skill: Concept
Objective: 16-2
38) Sales ________ encourage a sales force to make a selling effort that is above and beyond the
normal expectation.
A) contests
B) quotas
C) meetings
D) reports
E) plans
Answer: A
Skill: Concept
Objective: 16-2
39) A salesperson's ________ is often related to how well he or she meets a sales quota.
A) profit-sharing plan
B) compensation
C) call report
D) sales report
E) expense report
Answer: B
Skill: Concept
Objective: 16-2
40) A(n) ________ is a salesperson's write-up of his or her completed sales activities.
A) call plan
B) call report
C) sales report
D) expense report
E) time-and-duty analysis
Answer: B
Skill: Concept
Objective: 16-2
133
41) Which of the following questions would provide management with the LEAST beneficial
information regarding the performance of its sales force?
A) Is the sales force meeting its profit objectives?
B) Is the sales force working well with the marketing team?
C) Are sales force costs in line with sales force outcomes?
D) Is the sales force accomplishing its customer relationship objectives?
E) Does the sales force complete its sales reports and expense reports in a timely manner?
Answer: E
Skill: Concept
Objective: 16-2
42) Prospecting is the step in the selling process in which the salesperson ________.
A) gathers information about a prospective customer before making a sales call
B) meets the customer for the first time
C) identifies qualified potential customers
D) tells the product's "value story" to the customer
E) clarifies and overcomes customer objections to buying
Answer: C
Skill: Concept
Objective: 16-3
43) A salesperson in the prospecting stage most likely identifies potential customers through all
of the following methods EXCEPT ________.
A) referrals from competing salespeople
B) referrals from current customers
C) referrals from dealers
D) referrals from suppliers
E) cold calling
Answer: A
Skill: Concept
Objective: 16-3
134
44) Which of the following is the LEAST relevant characteristic that a salesperson should
consider when qualifying a prospect?
A) financial ability
B) longevity in the market
C) special needs
D) location
E) volume of business
Answer: B
Skill: Concept
Objective: 16-3
45) During the prospecting stage, a salesperson needs to discriminate between good leads and
poor leads, which is known as ________.
A) closing
B) referring
C) presenting
D) qualifying
E) approaching
Answer: D
Skill: Concept
Objective: 16-3
46) A salesperson who researches a company's buying styles and product line is most likely in
the ________ stage of the selling process.
A) prospecting
B) preapproach
C) approach
D) presentation
E) closing
Answer: B
Skill: Concept
Objective: 16-3
135
47) The salesperson meets the customer for the first time in the ________ step of the selling
process.
A) prospecting
B) qualifying
C) preapproach
D) approach
E) presentation
Answer: D
Skill: Concept
Objective: 16-3
48) Technologies such as CDs, DVDs, handheld computers, interactive white boards, and laptop
computers enable salespeople to enhance the ________ stage of the selling process.
A) prospecting and qualifying
B) preapproach
C) presentation and demonstration
D) closing
E) follow-up
Answer: C
AACSB: Use of IT
Skill: Concept
Objective: 16-3
49) Which type of sales approach is best for today's customers who expect answers, results, and
useful products?
A) hard-sell
B) customer-solution
C) razzle-dazzle
D) sales development
E) personal relationship
Answer: B
Skill: Concept
Objective: 16-3
136
50) According to a survey of purchasers, ________ and ________ skills are the most important
qualities for a salesperson.
A) listening; problem-solving
B) presentation; listening
C) candor; problem-solving
D) concern; interpersonal
E) presentation; problem-solving
Answer: A
Skill: Concept
Objective: 16-3
51) A salesperson should seek out, clarify, and overcome any customer objections during the
sales presentation in order to ________.
A) offer the buyer a discount for placing an order
B) minimize the buyer's concerns about the product
C) compliment the buyer for mentioning the objections
D) turn the objections into reasons for buying
E) turn the objections into an opportunity for humor
Answer: D
Skill: Concept
Objective: 16-3
52) The step of ________ is difficult for some salespeople because they lack confidence, feel
guilty about asking for an order, or may not recognize the right time to ask for an order.
A) approaching the prospect
B) making a presentation
C) handling objections
D) closing the sale
E) following up
Answer: D
Skill: Concept
Objective: 16-3
137
53) Salespeople should be trained to recognize ________ signals from the buyer, which can
include physical actions such as leaning forward and nodding or asking questions about prices
and credit terms.
A) qualifying
B) approach
C) objection
D) closing
E) follow-up
Answer: D
Skill: Concept
Objective: 16-3
54) Which step in the sales process is necessary to ensure customer satisfaction and repeat
business?
A) proper approach
B) professional presentation
C) handling objections
D) qualifying prospects
E) follow-up
Answer: E
Skill: Concept
Objective: 16-3
55) The sales force of CDW Corporation, as described in the opening scenario, develops strong
relationships with customers as part of the ________ stage of the selling process.
A) prospecting
B) approach
C) demonstration
D) closing
E) follow-up
Answer: E
Skill: Concept
Objective: 16-2
138
56) A ________ consists of short-term incentives to encourage the immediate purchase of a
product or service.
A) patronage reward
B) segmented promotion
C) sales incentive
D) sales promotion
E) publicity stunt
Answer: D
Skill: Concept
Objective: 16-4
57) Value merchant salespeople document and demonstrate the superior value of their products
and services in hopes of ________.
A) earning business from customers based on low prices
B) gaining long-term business from customers
C) closing deals quickly to meet team sales quotas
D) gaining short-term sales that increase annual sales volume
E) challenging customers to find better deals for products and services
Answer: B
Skill: Concept
Objective: 16-4
58) A salesperson who would be categorized as a value spendthrift has which of the following
behaviors?
A) believes management pursues a value-driven strategy
B) regularly gains more business at the same price
C) concedes on price in order to quickly close sales deals
D) documents claims to customers about superior monetary value
E) explains to the firm that it needs more evidence of excellent value
Answer: C
Skill: Concept
Objective: 16-4
59) Value merchant salespeople possess which of the following characteristics?

A) They give away services for free in order to close sales deals.
B) They tell the company that customers are only concerned with price.
C) They focus on revenue and volume components of their compensation plan.
D) They give price concessions without making changes in the market offering.
E) They make sales based on cost of ownership comparisons against competitors.
Answer: E
Skill: Concept
Objective: 16-4
139
60) Sales promotions are targeted toward all of the following EXCEPT ________.
A) retailers
B) investors
C) final buyers
D) business customers
E) members of the sales force
Answer: B
Skill: Concept
Objective: 16-4
61) The rapid growth of sales promotions in consumer markets is most likely the result of all of
the following factors EXCEPT ________.
A) consumers and large retailers becoming more deal oriented
B) product managers facing pressure to increase current sales
C) competing brands attempting to differentiate from each other
D) consumers using the Internet to search for deals and save money
E) advertising efficiency on the decline because of rising costs and media clutter
Answer: D
Skill: Concept
Objective: 16-4
62) Consumers are increasingly ignoring promotions and not making immediate purchases
because of ________.
A) advertising specialization
B) promotion clutter
C) promotional marketing
D) advertising clutter
E) promotion fatigue
Answer: B
Skill: Concept
Objective: 16-4
63) Sellers use trade promotions for all of the following reasons EXCEPT to ________.
A) encourage retailers to carry more inventory
B) convince retailers to advertise the product
C) gain more shelf space for the product
D) encourage salespeople to sign up new accounts
E) persuade retailers to buy products in advance
Answer: D
Skill: Concept
Objective: 16-4
140
64) Instead of creating only short-term sales or temporary brand switching, ________ should
reinforce a product's position and build long-term customer relationships.
A) sales promotions
B) promotion clutter
C) public relations
D) trade promotions
E) advertising
Answer: A
Skill: Concept
Objective: 16-4
65) Of the main consumer promotion tools, which is the MOST effective for introducing a new
product or creating excitement for an existing one?
A) coupons
B) samples
C) cash refunds
D) price packs
E) contests
Answer: B
Skill: Concept
Objective: 16-4
66) Which of the following consumer promotion tools is the MOST costly for companies?
A) samples
B) coupons
C) premiums
D) cash refunds
E) price packs
Answer: A
Skill: Concept
Objective: 16-4
67) Which consumer promotion tool requires consumers to send a proof of purchase to the
manufacturer?
A) cents-off deals
B) coupons
C) samples
D) cash refunds
E) promotional products
Answer: D
Skill: Concept
Objective: 16-4
141
68) Which of the following involves marking a reduced price directly on a product's packaging
and often results in the stimulation of short-term sales?
A) promotional products
B) patronage rewards
C) price packs
D) samples
E) rebates
Answer: C
Skill: Concept
Objective: 16-4
69) ________ are goods offered either free or at low cost as an incentive to buy a product.
A) Coupons
B) Premiums
C) Price packs
D) Cash refund offers
E) Point-of-purchase promotions
Answer: B
Skill: Concept
Objective: 16-4
70) A ________ has the advertiser's name on it and is given as a gift to consumers.
A) sample
B) price pack
C) cents-off deal
D) promotional product
E) corporate identity material
Answer: D
Skill: Concept
Objective: 16-4
71) Which consumer promotion offers consumers the chance to win something by presenting
them with an item such as a scratch-off card or a bingo number?
A) game
B) contest
C) price pack
D) sweepstakes
E) point-of-purchase promotion
Answer: A
Skill: Concept
Objective: 16-4
142
72) Marathons, concerts, and festivals with corporate sponsors are examples of ________.
A) point-of-purchase promotions
B) business promotions
C) trade promotions
D) event marketing
E) personal selling
Answer: D
Skill: Concept
Objective: 16-4
73) Business promotion tools are used for all of the following reasons EXCEPT to ________.
A) generate business leads
B) stimulate purchases
C) reward customers
D) motivate salespeople
E) increase manufacturing
Answer: E
Skill: Concept
Objective: 16-4
74) Trade shows offer manufacturers the opportunity to do all of the following EXCEPT
________.
A) establish a sales contest
B) find new sales leads
C) contact customers
D) introduce new products
E) educate customers
Answer: A
Skill: Concept
Objective: 16-4
75) Which of the following questions would be the best one to help a marketer evaluate the
return on a sales promotion investment?
A) Did the promotion run too long or too short?
B) Did customers enjoy the events associated with the promotion?
C) Did customers search the promotion's Web site for additional product information?
D) Did the promotion increase purchases from current customers or attract new customers?
E) Did the distribution of the promotional information match consumer expectations and needs?
Answer: D
Skill: Concept
Objective: 16-4
143
76) Today, most salespeople are well-educated, well-trained professionals who work to build and
maintain long-term customer relationships by listening to their customers, assessing their needs,
and organizing the company's efforts to solve customer problems.
Answer: TRUE
Skill: Concept
Objective: 16-1
77) Personal selling is the interpersonal component of the promotion mix.

Answer: TRUE
Skill: Concept
Objective: 16-1
78) Some corporations have no sales force, while others utilize sales agents, brokers, or
manufacturer's reps.
Answer: TRUE
Skill: Concept
Objective: 16-1
79) Developing sales force strategy and structure is a minor element of sales force management
and is an aspect that most companies fail to spend much time considering.
Answer: FALSE
Skill: Concept
Objective: 16-2
80) Of all the ways to structure a sales force, product sales force structure is most effective in
helping the company to become more customer focused and build closer relationships with
important customers.
Answer: FALSE
Skill: Concept
Objective: 16-2
81) The growth of product management has contributed to the increasing adoption of customer
sales force structures.
Answer: FALSE
Skill: Concept
Objective: 16-2
144
82) Ken Klein is a Superior Frozen Foods salesman responsible for customers in the southwest
region of Texas. Superior Frozen Foods most likely uses a territorial sales force structure.
Answer: TRUE
Skill: Application
Objective: 16-2
83) Blackstone Tools manufactures screwdrivers, wrenches, and pliers, which are sold at large
hardware stores. John Garcia handles the Home Depot account, while Melinda West manages the
Lowe's account. Blackstone Tools most likely uses a product sales force structure.
Answer: FALSE
Skill: Application
Objective: 16-2
84) Complex sales force structures include specialization by customer and territory, by product
and territory, by product and customer, and by territory, product, and customer.
Answer: TRUE
Skill: Concept
Objective: 16-2
85) Hewlett-Packard salespeople spend more time with customers now that their administrative
requirements have been decreased.
Answer: TRUE
Skill: Concept
Objective: 16-2
86) The workload approach to set sales force size is outdated.

Answer: FALSE
Skill: Concept
Objective: 16-2
87) Blue Star Supply Company wants its outside salespeople to spend more time with customers.
One way for Blue Star to accomplish this goal would be for the company to hire additional
technical support people and sales assistants.
Answer: TRUE
Skill: Application
Objective: 16-2
145
88) As a result of the federal government's Do Not Call Registry, telemarketing is now rarely
used.
Answer: FALSE
Skill: Concept
Objective: 16-2
89) Team selling is ideal when customer problems become more complex and customers become
larger and more demanding. Sales teams have the advantage of uncovering problems that an
individual would not, and sales teams can develop new opportunities as well.
Answer: TRUE
Skill: Concept
Objective: 16-2
90) A-1 Pharmaceuticals requires new salespeople to receive training through seminars, sales
meetings, and e-learning sessions before they meeting customers. The program used by A-1 is
typical for U.S. companies that rely on skilled and knowledgeable salespeople.
Answer: TRUE
Skill: Application
Objective: 16-2
91) To discourage a salesperson from ruining a customer relationship by pushing too hard to
close a deal in order to earn a commission, companies are designing compensation plans that
reward salespeople for building customer relationships and growing the long-run value of each
customer.
Answer: TRUE
Skill: Concept
Objective: 16-2
92) Sales force automation systems have been developed for improving how salespeople feel
about their opportunities and value.
Answer: FALSE
Skill: Concept
Objective: 16-2
146
93) If Johnny Page's company is like most consumer goods companies today, he can boost sales
force morale and performance through his organizational climate, sales quotas, and positive
incentives.
Answer: TRUE
Skill: Application
Objective: 16-2
94) Formal sales force evaluations require management to develop and communicate clear
standards for judging performance, and they provide salespeople with constructive feedback and
motivation to perform well.
Answer: TRUE
Skill: Concept
Objective: 16-2
95) During the presentation step of the selling process, the salesperson tells the customer the
"value story" of the product.
Answer: TRUE
Skill: Concept
Objective: 16-3
96) Because customers almost always have objections during the presentation or closing step of
the selling process, all salespeople need special training in how to deal with customer objections.
Answer: TRUE
Skill: Concept
Objective: 16-3
97) Sales promotion consists of long-term incentives to encourage purchases or sales of a

product or service.
Answer: FALSE
Skill: Concept
Objective: 16-4
98) A product demonstration that occurs in a grocery store or a department store is an example of
a point-of-purchase promotion.
Answer: TRUE
Skill: Concept
Objective: 16-4
147
99) Manufacturers direct more sales promotion dollars toward final consumers than toward
retailers.
Answer: FALSE
Skill: Concept
Objective: 16-4
100) Manufacturers may offer an allowance in return for the retailer's agreement to feature the
manufacturer's products in some way.
Answer: TRUE
Skill: Concept
Objective: 16-4
101) In a short essay, describe the nature of personal selling and the role of the sales force.
Answer: Today, most salespeople are well-educated and well-trained professionals who work to
build and maintain long-term customer relationships by listening to their customers, assessing
customer needs, and organizing the company's efforts to solve customer problems. Salespeople
act as order takers, order getters, and creative sellers. Personal selling is the interpersonal arm of
the promotion mix. The sales force acts as a critical link between a company and its customers.
Salespeople represent the company to the customer and the customer to the company to produce
customer satisfaction and company profit.
Skill: Application
Objective: 16-1
102) Discuss the differences between the three major sales force structures. What are the
potential benefits of each structure?
Answer: In the territorial sales force structure, each salesperson is assigned to an exclusive
geographic area and sells the company's full line of products or services to all customers in that
territory. This organization clearly defines each person's job, fixes accountability, and increases
the person's desire to build local business relationships that improve selling effectiveness. The
product sales force structure allows the sales force to sell along product lines; the seller becomes
very knowledgeable about products. This method can cause duplication of efforts and several
salespersons calling on the same accounts. The customer sales force structure organizes along
customer or industry lines; this can help a company to become more customer focused and build
closer relationships with important customers.
Skill: Application
Objective: 16-2
148
103) Why are more companies using team selling? What are its pros and cons?
Answer: Team selling is useful to service large, complex accounts. Sales teams can uncover
problems, solutions, and sales opportunities that no individual salesperson could. The move to
team selling is in part a reaction to similar changes within customers' buying organizations;
selling teams now call on buying teams. Some pitfalls exist in the team approach. Selling teams
can confuse or overwhelm customers who are used to working with only one salesperson. Some
salespersons have trouble working with others. Finally, difficulties in evaluating individual
contributions to the team selling effort can create some sticky compensation issues.
Skill: Application
Objective: 16-2
104) How do successful companies recruit and train their salespeople? What are the objectives of
most sales force training programs?
Answer: During the recruitment step, a company should assess the sales job itself and the
characteristics of its most successful salespeople to determine the traits needed by a successful
salesperson in that industry. Some companies give sales applicants formal tests, while others
only interview applicants. Following selection, orientation and training must be conducted based
upon the knowledge and skill levels of the recruits. Most companies train their new salespeople
through seminars, sales meetings, and e-learning sessions. Training programs should teach
salespeople about customers, about selling effectively, and about the company's products.
Skill: Application
Objective: 16-2
105) Describe some of the methods used to supervise salespeople and help them work more
efficiently.
Answer: Through supervision, or helping salespeople "work smart," management can help
salespeople do the right things in the right way. This includes helping salespeople identify target
customers and manage their time. A weekly, monthly, or annual call plan is used in many
companies to show salespeople which customers and potential customers to call on within a
given time period. And because companies are always looking for ways to make their employees
more efficient, they often use a time-and-duty-analysis to identify how salespeople spend their
time and how they can spend more time actively selling. To increase efficiency, many companies
use sales force automation systems–including laptops, smart phones, videoconferencing, and
relationship management softwareso that their sales force can work anywhere, anytime.
AACSB: Use of IT
Skill: Application
Objective: 16-2
149
106) In a brief essay, explain methods of evaluating the performance of a sales force. Why is it
important for a sales force to be evaluated?
Answer: To evaluate its sales force, management needs to get regular information about the
performance of its salespeople. Sales reports, including weekly or monthly work plans and
longer-term marketing plans, are the most important source. Management also uses salespeople's
expense reports and call reports to gauge sales call volume and success rates. In addition,
management can use sales and profit performance data in each salesperson's territory, along with
personal observation and customer surveys, to identify strengths and weaknesses in the sales
force. Taking information gathered from these sources into consideration, management should
provide salespeople with constructive feedback aimed at helping each salesperson succeed.
Evaluating a sales force is important because that is how a company can measure its return on
sales investment.
Skill: Application
Objective: 16-2
107) Provide the seven steps in the selling process. What would be the two most difficult steps
for most salespeople and why?
Answer: Prospecting and qualifying begin the process, followed by the preapproach. Next, the
salesperson makes an approach to make a presentation or demonstration. Handling objections
follows, leading into closing the sale. Each sale requires a follow up to make it complete. For
most salespeople, especially new ones, the prospecting and closing steps are the most difficult
and require much skill. For a salesperson unfamiliar with how to identify good leads with bad
ones, prospecting can be difficult. Closing can be difficult because salespeople may lack the
confidence to ask for an order, or they may not recognize the appropriate moment to close a sale.
Skill: Application
Objective: 16-3
108) What is the follow-up step of the selling process?Why is it important?

Answer: The follow-up step is important if the salesperson wants to ensure customer satisfaction
and repeat business. Right after closing, the salesperson should complete any details on delivery
time, purchase terms, and other matters. The salesperson then should schedule a follow-up call
when the initial order is received, to make sure there is proper installation, instruction, and
servicing. This visit would reveal any problems, assure the buyer of the salesperson's interest,
and reduce any buyer concerns that might have arisen since the sale.
Skill: Application
Objective: 16-3
150
109) What is the relationship between the personal selling process and the management of
customer relationships?
Answer: The selling process should be understood in the context of building and maintaining
profitable customer relationships, as companies are interested in more than simply securing a
one-time sale. Instead, they are interested in winning and keeping major customers, creating
ongoing, mutually beneficial relationships. Because they have significant contact with
customers, salespeople play an important role in building and managing profitable customer
relationships. Salespeople need to think of the first sale as the beginning of a relationship that
will involve listening to customers, understanding their needs, and helping to coordinate the
company's efforts to create customer value.
Skill: Application
Objective: 16-4
110) In a short essay, explain how sales promotion campaigns are developed and implemented.
Answer: Sales promotion campaigns first call for setting sales promotions objectives and
selecting consumer, trade, business, and/or sales force promotion tools to achieve those
objectives. Other necessary decisions include the size of the incentive, the conditions for
participation, how to promote and distribute the promotion package, and the length of the
promotion. After the campaign has been implemented, the company evaluates the results.
Skill: Application
Objective: 16-4
111) Happy Pet is a large petfood company that sells its petfood to retail pet supply stores as well
as wholesalers. The sales force at Happy Pet is LEAST likely to do which of the following?
A) work directly with final customers
B) build relationships with wholesalers
C) help retailers effectively sell the company's products
D) communicate regularly with business customers
E) represent wholesalers and retailers to the company
Answer: A
Skill: Application
Objective: 16-1
151
112) At Finley's Fine Goods, members of the sales force and marketing department tend to have
disagreements when things go wrong with a customer. The marketers blame the salespeople for
poorly executing their strategies, while the salespeople blame the marketers for being out of
touch with the customer. Which of the following steps should upper-level management at
Finley's Fine Goods take to help bring the sales and marketing functions closer together?
A) establish a customer sales force structure
B) establish a complex sales force structure
C) appoint a new sales force manager
D) adopt a sales force automation system
E) appoint a chief revenue officer
Answer: E
Skill: Application
Objective: 16-1
113) Ultra-Tech, Inc. has decided to switch to a customer sales force structure. Which of the
following advantages is the company now LEAST likely to enjoy?
A) The company can become more customer-focused.
B) The company can better serve different industries.
C) The company can build closer relationships with important customers.
D) The company can better serve current customers and find new customers.
E) The company can expect salespeople to develop in-depth knowledge of numerous and
complex product lines.
Answer: E
Skill: Application
Objective: 16-2
114) Johnson Business Solutions, Inc., maintains one sales force for its copy machines and a
separate sales force for its computer systems. Johnson Business Solutions utilizes a ________
structure.
A) product sales force
B) customer sales force
C) territorial sales force
D) a combination of B and C
E) complex sales force
Answer: A
Skill: Application
Objective: 16-2
152
115) Morrill Motors splits the United States into 10 sales regions. Within each of those regions,
the company maintains two sales teamsone for existing customers and one for prospects. What
type of sales force structure does Morrill Motors use?
A) territorial
B) product
C) customer
D) complex
E) workload
Answer: D
Skill: Application
Objective: 16-2
116) J &M Manufacturing has 2,000 Type-A accounts, each requiring 35 calls per year, and
1,000 Type-B accounts, each requiring 15 calls per year. What is the sales force's workload?
A) 15,000 calls
B) 35,000 calls
C) 70,000 calls
D) 85,000 calls
E) 95,000 calls
Answer: D
Skill: Application
Objective: 16-2
117) Stahl, Inc., has 1,000 Type-A accounts, each requiring 28 calls per year, and 2,200 Type-B
accounts, each requiring 15 calls per year. If each salesperson at Stahl, Inc., can make 1,500 sales
calls per year, approximately how many salespeople will be needed?
A) 31
B) 35
C) 41
D) 45
E) 48
Answer: C
Skill: Application
Objective: 16-2
153
118) East Bay Communications has increased its inside sales force. This will help East Bay in all
EXCEPT which one of the following ways?
A) East Bay salespeople will have more time to sell to major accounts.
B) East Bay salespeople will have more time to find major new prospects.
C) East Bay salespeople will have more time to provide after-the-sale customer service.
D) East Bay customers will have questions answered in a timely manner.
E) East Bay customers will have full access to sales automation technology.
Answer: E
Skill: Application
Objective: 16-2
119) You are applying for a position with the inside sales force at Carson Medical Sales. If you
earn the job, you will most likely be expected to perform all of the following tasks EXCEPT
________.
A) confirm appointments for outside salespeople
B) use the Internet to qualify prospects
C) use the telephone to find new leads
D) follow up on product deliveries
E) travel to visit customers
Answer: E
Skill: Application
Objective: 16-2
120) The sales force at Messimer Computing recently began telemarketing and Web selling. How
will telemarketing and Web selling most likely benefit Messimer Computing?
A) The inside sales force of Messimer will receive better compensation than the outside sales
force.
B) Messimer sales reps will need to spend less face-to-face time with large, high-value
customers.
C) Messimer sales reps will be able to service hard-to-reach customers more effectively.
D) Messimer sales reps will be able to work from home offices more regularly.
E) The outside sales force of Messimer will be freed up to work more with the marketing
department.
Answer: C
Skill: Application
Objective: 16-2
154
121) An IBM sales representative is giving a product demonstration to a Best Buy representative.
Assisting with the demonstration are an engineer, a financial analyst, and an information systems
specialist. If IBM wins the Best Buy account, then all four IBM representatives will service the
Best Buy account. This is an example of ________.
A) team selling
B) territorial selling
C) inside selling
D) prospecting
E) sales promoting
Answer: A
Skill: Application
Objective: 16-2
122) Sales have been slow recently at B & B Materials, so management has organized a training
program to improve the performance of its sales force. Which of the following would most likely
lead to improved sales for B & B Materials?
A) tests to measure the analytic and organizational skills of the sales force
B) information about the marketing strategies used by competitors
C) tests to identify the personality traits of sales force members
D) a time-and-duty analysis for each salesperson
E) instructions on completing expense reports
Answer: B
Skill: Application
Objective: 16-2
123) The CEO of Comfy Carpet, Rick Hadley, was skeptical about Web-based training until his
sales manager explained that online training is ________.
A) time consuming and difficult to use
B) used by all small companies
C) dynamic and interactive
D) cost competitive and efficient
E) useful to customers
Answer: D
Skill: Application
Objective: 16-2
155
124) At Deck Decor, a manufacturer of outdoor furniture and accessories, the marketing and
sales force objectives are to grow relationships with existing customers and to acquire new
business. Which of the following compensation plans should management establish to encourage
the sales force to pursue both of these objectives?
A) straight salary
B) straight commission
C) salary plus bonus for new accounts
D) commission plus bonus for new accounts
E) salary plus commission plus bonus for new accounts
Answer: E
Skill: Application
Objective: 16-2
125) Mary Conti is sales manager for National Computer Training. She wants to evaluate the
performance of her sales force that is responsible for the New England territory. Mary will most
likely review all of the following in her evaluation EXCEPT ________.
A) call plans
B) sales reports
C) call reports
D) expense reports
E) territorial sales and profit reports
Answer: A
Skill: Application
Objective: 16-2
126) The sales force of Conway Pools has qualified a number of leads. Which of the following
will most likely occur next?
A) The outside sales force will call on all prospects.
B) The outside sales force will close the deal with one of the prospects.
C) The outside sales force will learn as much as possible about the prospects.
D) The inside sales force will attend meetings with qualified prospects.
E) The inside sales force will put together a presentation for the prospects.
Answer: C
Skill: Application
Objective: 16-3
156
127) Marlene Arau is a member of the sales force at Urban Fashions, a clothing manufacturer.
Marlene is preparing for a first meeting with a wholesaler who is a potential customer. Marlene
is learning as much as she can about the wholesaler's organization. Marlene is in the ________
step of the personal selling process.
A) prospecting
B) qualifying
C) preapproach
D) approach
E) handling objections
Answer: C
Skill: Application
Objective: 16-3
128) An insert in a Land's End catalog offers free shipping on your next purchase. This is an
example of a ________.
A) sales promotion
B) POP promotion
C) trade promotion
D) price pack
E) premium
Answer: A
Diff: 2 Page Ref: 475 and 477
Skill: Application
Objective: 16-4
129) Monty Boyd travels frequently on West Coast Airlines for his job as an account manager.
Monty earns points for every mile he flies, and he will soon have enough points to receive a free
airline ticket. West Coast Airlines is building a customer relationship with Monty using which of
the following?
A) publicity
B) POP reward
C) premium reward
D) sweepstakes program
E) frequency marketing program
Answer: E
Skill: Application
Objective: 16-4
157
130) Toro ran a clever preseason promotion on some of its snow blower models, offering some
money back if the snowfall in the buyer's market area turned out to be below average. This is an
example of a(n) ________.
A) advertising specialty
B) premium pack
C) sweepstakes
D) price pack
E) rebate
Answer: E
Skill: Application
Objective: 16-4
131) An example of a(n) ________ is a five-foot-high cardboard display of Tony the Tiger next
to Frosted Flakes cereal boxes.
A) sample
B) POP promotion
C) POP pack
D) advertising promotion
E) premium
Answer: B
Skill: Application
Objective: 16-4
132) Kirk Wilkins renewed his cell phone contract with Zip Wireless and purchased a new cell
phone through the Zip Web site. If Kirk mails Zip his phone receipt, proof of purchase, and a
completed form, he will receive $50 in the mail. What type of sales promotion is being used by
Zip?
A) point of purchase
B) advertising specialty
C) premium
D) price pack
E) rebate
Answer: E
Skill: Application
Objective: 16-4
158
Refer to the scenario below to answer the following questions.
Reliable Tool Company is a manufacturer of hubs and axles for the trailer and heavy
truck industry. Although Reliable Tool only has fifteen customers, the company is the sole
supplier of hub and axle components to those customers. Monthly sales at Reliable Tool are
approximately $1 million. "You might say we have all of our eggs in one basket," says owner
Arthur Deetz. Therefore, it is critical that a competent sales force be maintained in order to
nurture those few but large accounts. Ninety-five percent of Reliable Tool's customers are
located in Michigan, Ohio, and Indiana, which means that travel time to all customers is
relatively short. However, given the nature of the industry, time spent with each customer is
essential.
133) How would a customer sales force structure benefit Reliable Tool?
A) It would decrease the amount of travel required of each Reliable Tool salesperson.
B) It would enable ReliableTool salespeople to build close relationships with clients.
C) It would help Reliable Tool salespeople become experts on the specific parts they sell.
D) It would allow Reliable Tool management to better supervise and evaluate its salespeople.
E) It would eliminate the need for telemarketers and sales assistants at Reliable Tool .
Answer: B
Skill: Application
Objective: 16-2
134) Reliable Tool management is in the process of evaluating its salespeople to make sure they
are value merchants instead of value spendthrifts. Which of the following describes a Reliable
Tool salesperson who is a value merchant?
A) The salesperson gives products away for free in order to close a deal.
B) The salesperson sells primarily on price comparisons with competitors.
C) The salesperson routinely gains more business at the same price.
D) The salesperson informs management that customers only care about price.
E) The salesperson regularly trades more business for lower prices.
Answer: C
Skill: Application
Objective: 16-4
159
135) Which of the following promotions would be most appropriate for Reliable Tool to use in
its attempt to promote its products and generate new business leads?
A) rebates
B) premiums
C) specialty advertising items
D) point-of purchase promotions
E) conventions and trade shows
Answer: E
Skill: Application
Objective: 16-4
136) What type of company would be likely to use the territorial sales force structure?
Answer: A company with only one product line to one industry with customers in many
locations would most likely use a territorial sales force structure.
Skill: Application
Objective: 16-2
137) What type of company would be likely to use a product sales force structure?
Answer: A product sales force structure will most likely be used by companies that carry
extensive product lines with the need to separate customers according to the products they buy.
Skill: Application
Objective: 16-2
138) Explain how the workload approach helps companies set sales force size.
Answer: Using this approach, the company first groups accounts into different classes according
to size, account status, or other factors related to the amount of effort required to maintain them.
The company can then determine the number of salespeople needed to call on each class of
accounts the desired number of times.
Skill: Application
Objective: 16-2
139) Why might a company need to hire both an inside and an outside sales force?
Answer: Larger accounts may require special nurturing and face-to-face interaction, so an
outside sales force can call on those customers. Smaller accounts and harder-to-reach customers
may be able to be taken care of by an inside sales force.
Skill: Application
Objective: 16-2
160
140) Why do many companies invest in ongoing training for their salespeople?
Answer: Though training is expensive, it can be very effective in helping salespeople learn
about the needs and motives of their customers, techniques for effectively selling, the company's
objectives, and the strategies of major competitors. With this training, salespeople are able to
better do their jobs, resulting in more revenue for the company.
Skill: Application
Objective: 16-2
141) Compare the four types of compensation plans available to salespeople.

Answer: A straight salary is a fixed amount that is not dependent on sales performance, while a
straight commission is entirely based on sales performance. The two other types, salary plus
bonus and salary plus commission, make a portion of the compensation fixed and a portion based
on sales performance.
Skill: Application
Objective: 16-2
142) Why do sales supervisors provide their salespeople with annual call plans?
Answer: The annual call plan shows which customers and prospects to call on in which months
and which activities to carry out, giving supervisors more control over the activities of their
salespeople.
Skill: Application
Objective: 16-2
143) What does a time-and-duty analysis reveal?

Answer: This tool, which can be used to help sales management determine how to increase
selling time, indicates a salesperson's time spent selling, traveling, waiting, eating, taking breaks,
and doing administrative chores.
Skill: Application
Objective: 16-2
144) Why have firms adopted sales force automation systems?

Answer: Many firms have adopted sales force automation systems to help their salespeople
better manage their time, improve customer service, lower sales costs, and increase sales
performance.
Skill: Application
Objective: 16-2
161
145) Why is a firm's organizational climate an important part of building a successful sales staff?
Answer: How salespeople feel about their opportunities, value, and rewards for a good
performance affects how well salespeople will perform; when salespeople are treated as special
contributors and have great opportunities for income and promotion, their sales performance is
higher.
Skill: Application
Objective: 16-2
146) Why does a firm's number of prospects always equal or exceed its number of qualified
customers?
Answer: Prospecting identifies the total number of potential customers in an area; qualifying
breaks that number of prospects down into the actual group that it is worthwhile for the
salesperson to target.
Skill: Application
Objective: 16-3
147) Why does a salesperson set call objectives?

Answer: Call objectives might include qualifying the prospect, gathering more or better
information, and/or making an immediate sale. With a call objective, a salesperson can be more
focused on how to prepare for the sale.
Skill: Application
Objective: 16-3
148) In what situation would a demonstration be especially critical during a salesperson's

presentation?
Answer: A demonstration may be important if the product's use or value can be better
understood with a visual demonstration. For example, if comparing Brand A brass cleaner with
another leading brand, a demonstration of how much more quickly Brand A works may be more
convincing for the prospective buyer.
Skill: Application
Objective: 16-3
149) How does mobile couponing benefit both consumers and marketers?
Answer: Consumers don't have to find and clip coupons . Mobile coupons allow marketers to
carefully target customers and eliminate the costs associated with printing and distributing paper
coupons.
Skill: Application
Objective: 16-4
162
150) What type of sales promotion would benefit a political candidate the most?
Answer: A political candidate would likely benefit most from using specialty advertising items
such as pencils or pens with the candidate's name or T-shirts with the candidate's name and/or
photograph.
Skill: Application
Objective: 16-4
163
HEMCHANDRACHARYA NORTH GUJARAT UNIVERSITY, PATAN
MCQ - Question Bank with Answer
Advance Marketing Management II (MCQ)
1. Marketing utility consists of ________.

A. Price.
B. Place, price.
C. Product, place, price and profit.
D. Product, Price, place, promotion
ANSWER: D
2. A place for buying and selling activities is called ________.
A. Market.
B. Marketing.
C. Market research.
D. Market information.
ANSWER: A
3. The exchange value of a good service in terms of money is_________.
A. Price.
B. Product.
C. Buying.
D. Selling.
ANSWER: A
4. Selling the same product at different prices is known as________.
A. Price lining.
B. Dual pricing.
C. Geographical pricing.
D. Monopoly pricing.
ANSWER: B
5. The words used to convey the advertisement idea is ____________.
A. Advertisement.
B. Advertisement Research.
C. Advertisement copy.
D. Advertisement budget
ANSWER: C
6. Advertisement promotes_________.
A. . Purchases.
B. Production.
C. Sales.
D. Price.
ANSWER: C
7. Agricultural products are_________.
A. Perishable.
B. Highly priced.
C. Low quality products.
D. Heterogeneous goods
ANSWER: D
8. The social aspect of marketing is to ensure_________.
A. Price.
B. Demand.
C. Low price with high quality.
D. Service goods.
ANSWER: C
9. The orange juice manufacturers know that orange juice is most often consumed in the
mornings. However, they would like to change this and make the drink acceptable during other
time periods during the day. Which form of segmentation would they need to work with and
establish strategy reflective of their desires?
A. Gender segmentation.
B. Benefit segmentation
C. Occasion segmentation.
D. Age and life cycle segmentation
ANSWER: C
10. The typical method of retail operation used by supermarkets and catalog showrooms is
called:
A. Self service retailing.
B. Limited service retailing.
C. Full service retailing.
D. Service merchandiser.
ANSWER: C
11. Marketing creates profit by creating _____ to the buyer.
A. Value. B. Money. C. Product. D. Price.
ANSWER: A
12._____ needs the interest of the buyer.
A. Product. B. Sales. C. Production. D. Manufacturing.
ANSWER: A
13. _____ includes the configuration of benefits, value, cost and satisfaction
A. Demand. B. Innovation. C. Creativity. D. Invention.
ANSWER: D
14. All companies strive to build _____ strength.
A. Brand. B. Image. C. Customer. D. Employee
ANSWER: A
15. Which one of the following is not one of the P s of marketing?
A. Product. B. Price. C. Place. D. Production.
ANSWER: D
16. . Which of the following best identifies how marketing must be understood today?
A. Satisfy customer needs. B. Marketing. C. Selling. D. Behaviour.
ANSWER: A
17. A _____ is a trade of vale between two or more parties.
A. Transaction. B. Exchange. C. Transfer. D. Prospecting.
ANSWER: A
18. Which concept holds that consumers will not buy enough of organizations product unless it
takes large scale selling and promotion effort?
A. Marketing. B. Selling. C. Production. D. Product. ANSWER: B
19. _____ includes that other company s offering similar products & services to the same
customer at similar prices.
A. Supply Chain. B. Competition. C. Product. D. Price
ANSWER: B
20._____ consists of a group of customers who share a similar set of wants
A. Micro Marketing B. Mass Marketing. C. Market Segment. D. Market targeting.
ANSWER: A
21. The starting point for discussing segmentation is _____.
A. Segregation. B. Positioning. C. Both. D. None
ANSWER: A
22. Need become _____ when they are directed to specific objects that might satisfy the need.
A. Wants B. Needs C. Demand. D. Flexibility.
ANSWER: A
23. A marketer is someone seeking a response from another party called _____.
A. Marketer. B. Prospect. C. Supplier. D. Distributor.
ANSWER: B
24._____ are wants for specific products that are backed up an ability and willingness to buy
them.
A. Demand. B. Wants. C. Needs. D. Desire.
ANSWER: A
25. Which is intangible among the following?
A. Product. B. Services. C. Products & services. D. Sales.
ANSWER: B
26. _____emerges when people decide to satisfy and want through exchange.
A. Marketing. B. Sales. C. Purchase. D. Accounting.
ANSWER: B
27. _____ concept holds consumers will favour those products that offer the most quality or
performance.
A. Product. B. Selling. C. Production. D. Sales.
ANSWER: A
28.______ concept holds that consumers will favour those products that are conveniently
available in adequate quantity and affordable.
A. Product. B. Production. C. Selling. D. Buying.
ANSWER: B
29._____ concepts holds that consumers if left alone will ordinarily not buy enough of the
Organization s products.
A. Marketing. B. Product. C. Selling. D. Buying.
ANSWER: A
30. _____ involves managing demand, which in turn involves managing customer relationship.
A. Marketing management. B. Direct marketing.
C. Production management. D. Advertising.
ANSWER: A
31. At which stage in the International Trade Cycle does a country usually import foreign goods?
A. Introduction stage. B. Growth stage. C. Maturity stage. D. Saturation stage.
ANSWER: B
32. Which stage of the product lifecycle is marked by falling costs and rising revenues?
A. Introduction stage. B. Growth stage. C. Maturity stage. D. Saturation stage.
ANSWER: D
33. The usual source for new products is_____.
A. Marketing research
B. R&D.
C. Accidental discoveries.
D. A variety of sources including customers, competitors, serendipity and formal processes
ANSWER: A
34. The term marketing refers to_____.
A. New product concepts and improvements.
B. Advertising and promotion activities.
C. A philosophy that stresses customer value and satisfaction.
D. Planning sales campaigns.
ANSWER: C
35. A brand is a _______.
A. Name. B. Term. C. Sign. D. A combination of all of the above.
ANSWER: D
36. A marketing philosophy summarized by the phrase a good product will sell itself is
Characteristic of the_________ period.
A. Production. B. Sales. C. Marketing. D. Relationship.
ANSWER: A
37. An organization with a______ orientation assumes that customers will resist purchasing
Products not deemed essential. The job of marketers is to overcome this resistance through
personal selling and advertising.
A. Production. B. Marketing. C. Relationship. D. Sales.
ANSWER: B
38. In the relationship marketing firms focus on__________ relationships with__________.
A. Short term customers and suppliers.
B. Long term customers and suppliers.
C. Short term customers.
D. Long term customers.
ANSWER: D
39. Which of the following is NOT an element of the marketing mix?
A. Distribution. B. Product. C. Target market. D. Pricing.
ANSWER: C
40. The term marketing mix describes _____.
A. A composite analysis of all environmental factors inside and outside the firm.
B. A series of business decisions that aid in selling a product.
C. The relationship between a firm's marketing strengths and its business weaknesses.
D. A blending of four strategic elements to satisfy specific target marker.
ANSWER: A
41. Newsletters, catalogues, and invitations to organisation-sponsored events are most closely
associated with the marketing mix activity of _____.
A. Pricing. B. Distribution. C. Product development. D. Promotion.
ANSWER: D
42. A market with which of the following characteristics would generally be less competitive?
A. High barriers to entry.
B. Lots of potential substitutes exist.
C. Strong bargaining power among buyers.
D. Strong bargaining power among suppliers.
ANSWER: C
43. The process of anticipating future events and conditions and determining the best way to
achieve organizational objectives is known as_______.
A. Researching. B. Planning. C. Controlling. D. Managing.
ANSWER: B
44. Which one of the following best describes the present value of the stream of future profits
expected over the customer s life time purchase?
A. Customers Life time value. B. Suppliers Life time Value.
C. Company s life time value. D. Future value.
ANSWER: A
45. Market expansion is usually achieved by_______.
A. More effective use of distribution.
B. More effective use of advertising
C. By cutting prices.
D. All of the above are suitable tactics.
ANSWER: B
46. The following are all major stages of a product life cycle except_____.
A. Sales decline. B. Market maturity. C. Market Introduction. D. Market Growth.
ANSWER: C
47. Techniques of sales promotions are _____.
A. Free samples. B. Free offers. C. Merchandising. D. All the above.
ANSWER: D
48. A _____ is a set of segements sharing some exploitable similarity.
A. Over segment. B. Counter segment. C. Super segment. D. Selection segment.
ANSWER: A
49. The firm must consider whether investing in the segment makes sense givng the firm _____
and____.
A. Knowledge & objective. B. Objective & resource.
C. Knowledge & resource. D. None.
ANSWER: A
50. _____ and ____ are the major factors influencing the selection of suppliers.
A. Price and Quantity B. Price and Quality.
C. Price and Delivery. D. Quantity and Delivery.
ANSWER: C
51. Promotion mix includes Sales Promotion, Personal Selling, Advertising and
a) Marketing b) Sales c) Publicity d) None of these
Ans: C
52. Copy testing is also known as
a) Pre Testing b) Copy writing c) concurrent testing d) Preview
Ans: A
53. Consumer promotion, trade promotion and ____ are the three forms of sales promotion
a) Media Promotion b) Sales Force Promotion c) Core Promotion d) Media Mix
Ans: B
54. ______ media can give 24 hour exposure to the public eye.
a) Television b) Print c) Internet d) Flex Board
Ans: D
55. It is popularly known as free form of promotion
a) Advertisement b) Publicity c) Personal Selling d) Marketing
Ans: B
56. Which among the following is an example of Trade promotion?
a) Coupons b) Samples c) Push Money d) None of these
Ans: C
57. Which among the following is a Pull Strategy?
a) Trade promotion b) Consumer Promotion c) Sales Force Promotion d) None of these
Ans: B
58. If a company gives false message to the customers, it is known as
a) Obscene ads b) Subliminal ads c) Deception d) None of these
Ans: C
59. The strategy that encourages dealers and distributors to sell a product is known as
a) Push b) Pull c) Combination d) Marketing
Ans: A
60. Creating image of product in the minds of target group is called
a) Marketing b) positioning c) Branding d) Popularizing
Ans: B
61. The process of purchasing space in a media is
a) Media Spacing b) Media Scheduling c) Media Purchasing d) Media Buying
Ans: D
62. The plan that show time, date and frequency of an advertisement is
a) Media Plan b) Media Schedule c) Media Time d) Media Space
Ans: B
63. Series of advertisement messages that share a single idea or theme is
a) Advertisement Campaign b) Advertisement Group
c) Advertisement Cluster d) Advertisement Series
Ans: A
64. Point of Purchase Ads are also known as
a) In-Store Advertising b) Built-in Advertising c) Green Advertising d) Stock Advertising
Ans: A
65. The specific carrier within a medium is called
a) Media Carrier b) Media Bus c) Media Van d) Media Vehicle
Ans: D
66. A series of actions that media planners take to attain the media objectives
a) Media Function b) Media Strategy c) Media Policy d) Media Option
Ans: B
67. The combination of media used for advertising in a target market is
a) Media Mix b) Market-Media Match c) Media Advertising d) Media Option
Ans: A
68. Selection of most appropriate cost-effective medium in advertisement is
a) Media Buying b) Media Scheduling c) Media Purchasing d) Media Selection
Ans: D
69. Direct mail advertising sends messages through
a) Audio b) Video c) Mail d) None of these
Ans: C
70. Which of the following is more of personal medium of advertisement?
a) Internet Advertisement b) Broadcast Media c) Direct Mail Advertising d) Print Media
Ans: C
71. Independent organization of creative people for advertisement and promotional tools are
called
a)Advertisement Makers b) Advertisement Creators
c) Advertisement Developers d) Advertisement Agency
Ans: D
72. Which tool of the promotional mix consists of short-term incentives to encourage the
purchase or sale of a product or service?
a) advertising b) public relations c) direct marketing d) sales promotion
Ans: D
73. If a company wants to build a good “corporate image,” it will probably use which of the
following marketing communications mix tools?
Ans: B
74. _____ is direct communications with carefully targeted individual consumers to obtain an
immediate response.
a) Personal selling b) Public relations c) Direct marketing d) Sales promotion
Ans: C
75. Which of the following promotional forms is often described as being too impersonal and
only a one-way communication form?
a) advertising b) personal selling c) public relations d) sales promotion
Ans: A
76. The promotion tool that may include coupons, contests, premiums, and other means of
attracting consumer attention is best described as being which of the following?
Ans: D
77. A __________ is a promotion strategy that calls for using the sales force and trade promotion
to move the product through channels.
a) push strategy b) pull strategy c) blocking strategy d) integrated strategy
Ans: A
78. Which of the following strategies is usually followed by B2C companies with respect to
promotion strategy?
a) Push strategy b) Pull strategy c) Blocking strategy d) Integrated strategy
Ans: B
79. Which of the following strategies is usually followed by B2B companies with respect to
promotion strategy?
Ans: A
80. Marketing management must make four important decisions when developing an advertising
program. All of the following would be among those decisions EXCEPT:
a) Setting advertising objectives. b) Conducting advertising culture audit
c) Setting the advertising budget. d) Developing advertising strategy.
Ans: B
81. The first step in developing an advertising program should be to:
a) Set advertising objectives. b) Set the advertising budget.
c) Evaluate advertising campaigns. d) Develop advertising strategy.
Ans: A
82. A specific communication task to be accomplished with a specific target audience during a
specific period of time is called an:
a) Advertising campaign. b) Advertising objective.
c) Advertising criterion. d) Advertising evaluation.
Ans: B
83. Which of the following WOULD NOT be one of the primary advertising objectives as
classified by primary purpose?
a) to inform b) to persuade c) to remind d) to make profits
Ans: D
84. __________ is used heavily when introducing a new product category.
a) Persuasive advertising b) Inferential advertising
c) Reminder advertising d) Informative advertising
Ans: D
85. Keeping consumers thinking about the product is the objective for which type of advertising?
a) Informative advertising. b) Psychological advertising.
c) Reminder advertising. d) Persuasive advertising.
Ans: C
86. Determining the promotion budget on the basis of financial availability of capital is
characteristic of which of the following budget methods?
a) Affordable method b) percentage-of-sales method
c) competitive-parity method d) objective-end-task method
Ans: A
87. Setting the promotion budget so as to match the budgets of the competitors is characteristic
of which of the following budget methods?
a) Affordable method b) Percentage-of-Sales method
c) competitive-parity method d) Objective-end-task method
Ans: C
88. _____are vehicles or channels through which the advertising messages are transmitted to
target consumers so that the desired action may be induced at the consumer level
a) advertisement media b) advertisement copy c) advertising layout d) teaser advertisements
Ans : A
89. _____ is a plan of presenting the message in a more specific and compact form within the
advertising space available to the target consumers
a) advertisement media b) advertisement copy
c) advertising layout d) teaser advertisements
Ans: C
90. All of the following methods are used for evaluating advertising effectiveness EXCEPT:
a) Pre- test b) Post- test c) Concurrent test d) Marginal test
Ans: D
91. All of the following methods are considered to be concurrent testing methods EXCEPT:
a) consumer diaries b) co-incidental surveys c) readability studies d) electronic devices
Ans: C
92. The central theme of an advertisement that motivates the consumer to make a purchase
decision is?
a) Advertising appeal b) Advertisement script c) Slogan d) Headline
Ans: A
93. The aggregate of all the factors which arouse the needs of customers and guide them in final
selection is called?
a) Advertising appeal b) Advertising media c) Advertisement d) Buying motive
Ans: D
94. Which among the following is not an essential of advertising appeal?
a) It must be conceptually sound b) It must be interesting
c) It must be economical d) It must be complete
Ans: C
95. The type of appeal which is related to a person‟s psychological and social needs for
purchasing products and services?
a) Rational appeal b) Emotional appeal c) Moral appeal d) Humour appeal
Ans: B
96. Aishwarya Rai Bachan endorsing L‟Oreal is an example of?
a) Rational appeal b) Beauty appeal c) Sex appeal d) Emotional appeal
Ans: B
97. The content and context of a message contained in an advertisement is called?
a) Ad copy b) Script c) Body d) Advertising appeal
Ans: A
98. An Ad copy which informs the target group the fact that the manufacturer is established
enough to give them the right goods is?
a) Institutional copy b) straight selling copy c) Educational copy d) expository copy
Ans: A
99. Searching and identifying potential buyers for a product is ___
a) Selling b) Prospecting c) Compelling d) Canvasing
Ans: B
100. If a copy tells openly and directly all the features of a product or a service with the help of
suitable pictures, photos and diagrams to impress a customer, it is called?
a) descriptive copy b) educational copy c) straight selling copy d) expository copy
Ans: D
101. An Ad copy that uses the endorsement of a satisfied customer?
a) comparative copy b) reminder copy c) expository copy d) testimonial Ad copy
Ans: D
102. Which among the following is the right sequence of copywriting process?
a) planning, research, organisation, writing, checking, proof reading, editing, revision
b) research, planning, organisation, writing, checking, proof reading, editing, revision
c) planning, research, organisation, writing, checking, editing, proof reading, revision
d) research, planning, organisation, writing, checking, editing, proof reading, revision
Ans: A
103. Consider the following statements:
Statement 1: Two major dimensions of advertising are message creation and message
dissemination
Statement 2: Message creation is meaningful once the advertisement is created.
a) Both statements are right b) Both statements are wrong
c) Only Statement 1 is correct d) Only statement 2 is correct
Ans: C
Statement 1: Media planning refers to series of decision involving delivery of messages to the
target audience
Statement 2: The central theme of media planning is message dissemination.
Ans: A
Statement 1: Media planning starts with analysis target audience
Statement 2: Media strategy is concerned with the selection of appropriate media)
Ans: B
Statement 1: Print media is the oldest and basic forms of mass communication.
Statement 2: Print media can make a faster delivery than broadcast media)
Ans: C
Statement 1: Point of purchase advertising refers to advertising at the place and time of purchase
Statement 2: It is similar to window dressing.
c) Only Statement 1 is correct d) Only statement 2 is correct Ans: C
108. Which among the following is not a function of ad agency?
a) Conduct market analysis b) Develop advertising plans
c) Develop media strategy d) Collect feedback from target audience.
Ans: C
109. Which among the following is not an objective of advertising research?
a) Improve the efficiency of an ad b) Develop advertising plans
c) Evaluate impact of an ad d) To avoid wastage of money
Ans: B
Statement 1: Post testing is an evaluation conducted to know whether a proposed ad campaign is
appealing to target group
Statement 2: It is also known as copy testing.
Ans: B
111. Showing the product in a picture as being bigger than it actually is an example of
a) Deception b) Subliminal Ads c) Obscene ads d) Challenging
Ans: A
112. _____ is a self-regulatory voluntary organization of the advertising industry
a) Securities and Exchange Board of India b) Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
c) Medical Council of India d) Advertising Standards Council of India (ASCI)
Ans: D
113. Colgate is offering scholarships worth one lakh rupees to Indian students. This highlights
a) Advertising clutter b) Corporate Social Responsibility
c) Advertising revolution d) Mass advertising
Ans: B
114. Benetton „Unhate‟ ad campaign, featuring world leaders kissing is a case of ____
a) Subliminal ads b) Misleading c) Obscene d) Appealing
Ans: A
115. Axe body spray ads are examples of _____
a) Obscene advertisements b) Deception c) Subliminal d) Rational appeal
Ans: A
116. The large volume of advertising in a society is known as ____
a) Advertising clutter b) Deception c) Mass advertising d) Large scale advertising
Ans: A
117. It is criticized that advertising causes people to give too much importance to _______
a) Fashion b) Material goods c) Cost of product d) Standard of living
Ans: B
118. Advertising is an important source of revenue to ____
a) Advertisers b) Public c) Media d) Government
Ans: C
119. Advertisement aims at _________
a) Product selling b) Marketing c) Customer relations d) Mass communication
Ans: D
120. __________ is directed towards consumers and traders with the intention to increase
immediate or short term sales.
a) Advertising b) Direct selling c) Sales Promotion d) Publicity
Ans: C
121. The basic objective of push strategy is to encourage the ___________
a) Consumer b) middlemen c) Producer c) Public
Ans: B
122. A pull sales promotion strategy concentrates on the __________
a) Consumer b) middlemen c) Producer c) Sales force
Ans: A
123. The sales promotion strategy which concentrates on the middlemen and consumers is
known as______________
a) Pull Strategy b)Combination strategy c) Sale force Strategy d) Push Strategy
Ans: B
124. Couponing is an example of________________
a) Consumer promotion Techniques b) Trader Promotion Techniques
c) Sales Force Promotion Technique d) Dealer Promotion Technique
Ans: A
125. The reduction in the price of a product for a short span of time is known as___________
a) Rebate b) Free Offer c) Price off offer d)Trade offer
Ans: C
126. ______ is a non-paid form of promotion
a) Advertising b) Direct Marketing c) Sales Promotion d) Publicity
Ans: D
127. ________ is the oral communication with potential buyers of a product with the intention of
making a sale.
a) Personal Selling b) Direct Marketing c) Sales Promotion d) Publicity
Ans: A
128. __________ is the sum total of values, assets and liabilities generated by a branded product
over a period of time.
a) Brand loyalty b) Brand association c) Brand Equity d) Brand awareness
Ans: C
129. ____________ is a measure of attachment that a consumer has to a brand.
Ans: A
130. Communication activities which provide incentives to consumer is known as_________
Ans: C
131. Merchandise allowance is a __________ technique.
c) Sales Force Promotion Technique d) Pull Promotion Technique
Ans: B
132. The additional amount of money consumers are willing to pay for a brand is known as ___
Ans: C
133. Sales persons who want for the sales to come to them is known as
a) Transactional b) Closers c) Relational d) Consultants
Ans: A
134. The process which consists of six stages; prospecting, preapproach, approach, presentation,
close, and follow-up is called the:
a) Product Marketing Process b) Direct Marketing process
c) Personal selling process d) Purchase decision process
Ans: C
135. Excuses for NOT making a purchase commitment or decision are called
a) Constraints b) Interventions c) Troubles d) Objections
Ans: D
136. The final stage in the personal sales process is the stage
a) Follow-up b) Assumptive close c) Trial Close d) Presentation
Ans: A
137. AIDA stands for Awareness, ______, Desire and _____.
a) Interest; Action b) Idea; Approach c) Intensity; Appeal d) Involvement; Appeal
Ans: A
138. A consumer contest is an example of _____.
a) Personal Selling b) Sales Promotion c) Advertisement d) Indirect Selling
Ans: B
139. Avon, Amway, and Tupperware use which of the following forms of channel distribution?
a. direct marketing channel b. indirect marketing channel
c. forward channel d. fashion channel
Ans: A
140. Makers of televisions, cameras, tires, furniture, and major appliances normally use which of
the following distribution channel forms?
c. horizontal channel d. synthetic channel
Ans: B
141. The benefits of marketing channels are………..
(a) Cost saving (b) Time saving (c) Financial support given (d) All of above
Ans: D
142. ________________ is a marketing channel that has no intermediary levels.
c. forward channel d. hybrid channel
Ans: A
143. Which of the following is not a promotion mix?
A. Sales promotion. B. Personal selling. C. Forecasting. D. Advertising
ANSWER: C
144. Two main components of sales promotion are ______.
A. Trade promotion and consumer promotion. B. marketing promotion and sales promotion.
C. Consumer promotion and marketing promotion. D. none.
ANSWER: C
145. Marketing and selling are _____.
A. Same. B. Different. C. Almost same D. Fully varies.
ANSWER: B
146. _____is not a part of the external marketing environment.
A. Political. B. Legal. C. Product. D. Socio cultural.
ANSWER: C
147. The middlemen who do not take any title to goods
A. Retailer. B. Wholesaler. C. Agent. D. Commission houses.
ANSWER: C
148. ____ are the basic human requirements
A. Needs. B. Wants. C. Luxuries. D. Offerings.
ANSWER: A
149. The direct channel has the limitation of _____.
A. Market exploitation. B. Communication. C. Control. D. Cost .
ANSWER: D
150. This marketing component is most likely to be standardized_____
A. Brand . B. Price. C. Advertising. D. Distribution. ANSWER: A
B COM SEMESTER 6
ADVERTISEMENT AND SALES MANAGEMENT
Multiple Choice Questions
1. Magazines add credibility to the message because of the reputation in the eyes of
(a) Marketing manager (b) Retailers (c) Consumers (d) Wholesalers
2. Selecting time, choosing media types, deciding on reach of frequency and media vehicle for
advertisements are part of
(a) Media strategy (b) Media execution (c) Selecting media (d) Measuring communication
3. Promotion mix includes Sales Promotion, Personal Selling, Advertising and
a) Marketing (b)Sales (c)Publicity (d) None of these
4. Independent organization of creative people for advertisement and promotional tools are called
a) Advertisement Makers b) Advertisement Creators
c) Advertisement Developers d) Advertisement Agency
5. is a promotion strategy that calls for using the sales force and trade promotion to move
the product through channels.
a) Push strategy b) Pull strategy
c) Blocking strategy d) integrated strategy
6. Which among the following is not a function of ad agency?
a) Conduct market analysis b) Develop advertising plans
c) Develop media strategy d) Collect feedback from target audience.
7. ……………. is irregular in nature
(a) Promotion mix (b) Sales promotion (c) Trade promotion (d) Discount coupon
8. _____ is the factors contributing for the rapid growth of Sales Promotion.
(a) Pressurizing by manager to increase sales (b) More external competition
(c) Least difference among the brands (d) All of these
9. ”Sales promotion means any steps that are taken for the purpose of obtaining or increasing
sales” was stated by
(a) Kollar and Clark (b) Hanson(c) Bordan (d) AHR Detens
10. An Ad copy which informs the target group the fact that the manufacturer is established
enough to give them the right goods is?
a) institutional copy b) straight selling copy c) educational copy d) expository copy

11. Copy testing is also known as
a) Pre Testing b) Copy writing c) concurrent testing d)Preview

12. A consumer contest is an example of .
a) Personal Selling b) Sales Promotion
c) Advertisement d) Indirect Selling
13. Searching and identifying potential buyers for a product is
a) Selling b) Prospecting c) Compelling d) Canvasing
14. Determining the promotion budget on the basis of financial availability of capital is
characteristic of which of the following budget methods?
a) Affordable method b) percentage-of-sales method
c) competitive-parity method d) objective-end-task method
15. The best promotional tool in any marketing is

(a) Word of mouth publicity (b) Self-liquidating promotion
(c) Push promotion (d) Dealers promotion method
16. On pack samples are the examples of
(a) Trade promotion (b) Sales promotion
(c) Manufacturers promotions (d) Fulfilment cost
17. The most popular form of advertising and it reaches to masses.
(a) Social media (b) Email (c) Television (d) Print
18. Advertising for __________________ is not allowed.
(a) Liquor (b) Washing powder (c) Cigarette (d) Both a and c
19. Advertisement provides information regarding product, or idea in non-personal forms, as no
face to face contact is involved between …………….
(a) Marketer and retailer (b) Jobber and wholesaler
(c) Buyer and customer (d) Market manager and salesman
20. ………….are vehicles or channels through which the advertising messages are transmitted
to target consumers so that the desired action may be induced at the consumer level
Statement 1: Print media is the oldest and basic forms of mass communication.
Statement 2: Print media can make a faster delivery than broadcast media
22. Showing the product in a picture as being bigger than it actually is an example of
a) Deception b) Subliminal Ads c) Obscene ads d) Challenging
23. A producer announced that on purchase of a particular product another product will be
provided at less rate is
(a) Discount (b) Quantity gift (c) Cheap bargain (d) Promotion mix
24. Advertisement through radio was very popular till the middle of last century because of __
(a) Its effectiveness (b) More popular than newspaper
(c) Mass reach (d) Cost of advertisement
25. “Advertising is any paid form of non-personal presentation and promotion of ideas, goods and
services by an identified person”. Who stated this?
(a) Australian marketing Association (b) European marketing Association
(c) China marketing Association (d) American marketing Association
26. Axe body spray ads are examples of
a) Obscene advertisements b) Deception c) Subliminal d) Rational appeal

27. Advertisement aims at
a) Product selling b) Marketing c) Customer relations d) Mass communication
28. Advertising influences the mind of the consumers by creating desire and taste for
(a) Old products (b) Same products (c) New products (d) Different products
29. is a non-paid form of promotion
a) Advertising b) Direct Marketing c) Sales Promotion d)Publicity
30. Sales persons who want for the sales to come to them is known as
a) Transactional b) Closers c) Relational d) Consultants
31. Marketing management must make four important decisions when developing an advertising
program. All of the following would be among those decisions except:
a) Setting advertising objectives. b) Conducting advertising culture audit
c) Setting the advertising budget. d) Developing advertising strategy.
32. Creating innovative and new ideas, identifying customers benefit, selecting specific
appeals for advertisements are the part of
(a) Message strategy (b) Message execution (c) Selecting media (d) Measuring
communication
33. Consumer promotion, trade promotion and _ are the three forms of sales promotion
a) Media Promotion b) Sales Force Promotion
c) Core Promotion d) Media Mix
34. Selecting style, tone, words for making ads are part of
(a) Message strategy (b) Message execution
(c) Selecting media (d) Measuring communication
35. It is popularly known as free form of promotion
a) Advertisement b) Publicity c) Personal Selling d) Marketing
36. If a company gives false message to the customers, it is known as

a) Obscene ads b) Subliminal ads c) Deception d) None of these
37. AIDA stands for Attention, , Desire and .
a) Interest; Action b) Idea; Approach c) Intensity; Appeal d) Involvement; Appeal
38. The basic objective of push strategy is to encourage the
a) Consumer b) middlemen c) Producer c) Public
39. Through ads customer used to take their purchasing decision in advance, in this way
advertisement help in
(a) Online marketing (b) Customer decision (c) Personal selling (d) Convenient purchasing
40. ………..is the sum total of values, assets and liabilities generated by a branded product over a
period of time.

41. Excuses for NOT making a purchase commitment or decision are called
a) Constraints b) Interventions c) Troubles d) Objections
42. “Think globally, act locally” is a global advertising strategies and local advertising programs
under _______ of international marketing decision.
(a) Standardization drawbacks (b) Advertisement regulations
(c) Standardization benefits (d) Typical responses
43. Aishwarya Rai Bachan endorsing L’Oreal is an example of?
a) Rational appeal b) Beauty appeal c) Sex appeal d) Emotional appeal
44. Sandwich Board Advertisements is not suitable for the products like
(a) Burger (b) Pizza (c) Cold drink (d) Pizza
45. The long term sales effect of the sales promotion could be
(a) Positive (b) Negative (c) Neutral (d) All of the above
46. If product is related to warranty then price is related to
(a) Retail outlets(b) Advertisements(c) Discounts(d) attractiveness
47. If a copy tells openly and directly all the features of a product or a service with the help of
suitable pictures, photos and diagrams to impress a customer, it is called?
a) descriptive copy b) educational copy
c) straight selling copy d) expository copy
48. Which among the following is the right sequence of copywriting process?
a) planning, research, organisation, writing, checking, proof reading, editing, revision

b) research, planning, organisation, writing, checking, proof reading, editing, revision
c) planning, research, organisation, writing, checking, editing, proof reading, revision
d) research, planning, organisation, writing, checking, editing, proof reading, revision
49. A series of actions that media planners take to attain the media objectives
a) Media Function b) Media Strategy c) Media Policy d) Media Option
50. …………..media can give 24 hour exposure to the public eye.
a) Television b) Print c) Internet d) Flex Board
51. The central theme of an advertisement that motivates the consumer to make a purchase
decision is?
a) Advertising appeal b) Advertisement script c) Slogan d) Headline
52. Statement 1: Media planning starts with analysis target audience
Statement 2: Media strategy is concerned with the selection of appropriate media)

53. The process which consists of six stages; prospecting, preapproach, approach, presentation,
close, and follow-up is called the:
a) Product Marketing Process b) Direct Marketing process c)

Personal selling process d) Purchase decision process
54. ……is a measure of attachment that a consumer has to a brand.

55. ………….is used heavily when introducing a new product category.
a) Persuasive advertising b) Inferential advertising

c) Reminder advertising d) Informative advertising
56. Providing offer to refund a part of the purchase price of any product to consumer is known as
(a) Coupon (b) Price pack (c) Rebate/cash refund offer (d) Patronage reward
57. Setting the promotion budget so as to match the budgets of the
competitors is characteristic of which of the following budget methods?
a) Affordable method b) Percentage-of-Sales method
c) competitive-parity method d) Objective-end-task method
58. Keeping consumers thinking about the product is the objective for which type of advertising?
a) Informative advertising b) Psychological advertising.
c) Reminder advertising d) Persuasive advertising.
59. Evaluation, length of promotion, size of incentive, deciding how to promote and
distribute the promotion program itself is the part of ______
(a) Tools (b) Objectives
(c) Developing sales promotion program (d) None of these
60. Which among the following is an example of Trade promotion?
a) Coupons b) Samples c) Push Money d) None of these

61. The specific carrier within a medium is called
a) Media Carrier b) Media Bus c) Media Van d) Media Vehicle
62. is direct communications with carefully targeted individual consumers to obtain an

immediate response.
Personal selling b) Public relations c) Direct marketing d) Sales promotion
Statement 1: Point of purchase advertising refers to advertising at the place and time of
purchase
Statement 2: It is similar to window dressing.

64. Colgate is offering scholarships worth one lakh rupees to Indian students. This highlights
a) Advertising clutter b) Corporate Social Responsibility
c) Advertising revolution d) Mass advertising
65. A small amount of product is offered to the customer for trial is called
(a) Product combination (b) Sample (c) Coupon (d) Rebate
66. Which concept supplements the work of middlemen?
(a) Cooperative advertising (b) Sales promotion (c) Dealer promotion(d) Trade promotion
67. The sales promotion strategy which concentrates on the middlemen and consumers is known
as
a) Pull Strategy b)Combination strategy c) Sale
force Strategy d) Push Strategy
68. Communication activities which provide incentives to consumer is known as_
69. The final stage in the personal sales process is the stage a) Follow-up b)
Assumptive close c) Trial Close d) Presentation
70. It is criticized that advertising causes people to give too much importance to
a) Fashion b) Material goods c) Cost of product d) Standard of living

71. Consider the following statements: Statement 1: Two major dimensions of advertising are
message creation and message dissemination Statement 2: Message creation is meaningful
once the advertisement is created.
72. The strategy that encourages dealers and distributors to sell a product is known as
a) Push b) Pull c) Combination d) Marketing
73. A manufacture provide sales promotion to a wholesaler is
(a) Cooperative advertising (b) Sales promotion(c) Dealer promotion(d) Trade promotion
74. The party who get advantages through sales promotion is
(a) Retailer (b) Manufacturer (c) Wholesaler (d) Both b and c
75. A display in retail outlet is called
(a) Money based sales (b) Self-liquidating promotion (c) Direct marketing (d) Point of sale
76. Which of the following is more of personal medium of advertisement?
a) Internet Advertisement b ) Broadcast Media
c) Direct Mail Advertising d) Print Media
77. Scratching card and getting gift or some offer immediately is called
(a) Lucky draw (b) Instant draw and assigned gift(c) Quantity gifts(d) Rebate
78. Which among the following is a Pull Strategy?
a) Trade promotion b) Consumer Promotion c) Sales Force Promotiond) None of these
79. Process of purchasing space in a media is
a) Media Spacing b) Media Scheduling c) Media purchasing d) Media Buying
80. Which tool of the promotional mix consists of short-term incentives to encourage the purchase
or sale of a product or service?
a) Advertising b)public relations c)direct marketing d) sales promotion
81. ………is a plan of presenting the message in a more specific and compact form within the
advertising space available to the target consumers

82. Which among the following is not an essential of advertising appeal?
a) It must be conceptually sound b) It must be interesting

c) It must be economical d) It must be complete
83. ……….. is a self-regulatory voluntary organization of the advertising industry
a) Securities and Exchange Board of India b) Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
c) Medical Council of India d) Advertising Standards Council of India (ASCI)
84. Advertising is an important source of revenue to
a) Advertisers b) Public c) Media d) Government
85. The producer gives a guarantee to the consumer that they will maintain the product in proper
condition during a certain period is known as
(a) Pre sales service (b) After sales service (c) Marketing method(d) Sales promotion
86. If promotion is related to advertisement then place is related to
(a) Retail outlets (b) Warranty (c) Discounts (d) Attractiveness
87. …..is directed towards consumers and traders with the intention to increase
immediate or short term sales.
a) Advertising b) Direct selling c) Sales Promotion d) Publicity
88. Merchandise allowance is a technique.
c) Sales Force Promotion Technique d) Pull Promotion Technique
89. The reduction in the price of a product for a short span of time is known as
a) Rebate b) Free Offer c) Price off offer d)Trade offer
90. Couponing is an example of

c) Sales Force Promotion Technique d) Dealer Promotion Technique
91. Samples, coupons, premium offers, money refund orders, prize off, contests are tools and
programs for
(a) Product mix (b) Place mix (c) Customer sales promotion (d) Marketing mix
92. It is advisable to use ___________ as a source of advertising.
(a) Social media (b) Email (c) Radio (d) Television
93. Benetton ‘Unhate’ ad campaign, featuring world leaders kissing is a case of
a) Subliminal ads b) Misleading c) Obscene d) Appealing
94. A pull sales promotion strategy concentrates on the
a) Consumer b) middlemen c) Producer c) Sales force
95. The additional amount of money consumers are willing to pay for a brand is known as
96. Catalogues, magazines, newspaper and invitations to organization-sponsored events are
associated with the marketing mix activity of
(a) Manufacture (b) Production (c) Promotion (d) Development
97. …….is the oral communication with potential buyers of a product with the intention of
making a sale.
a) Personal Selling b) Direct Marketing c) Sales Promotion d) Publicity
98. Advertisement is a type of
(a) Outdoor marketing (b) Indirect marketing (c) Share marketing (d) Transaction marketing
99. Pioneer advertising, consumer advertising and product advertising are

(a) Objective of advertising (b) Types of advertising
(c) Marketing decisions in advertising (d) Evaluating advertising
100. Which one among the following Acts does not contain provisions that regulate advertising in
India?
a) The Consumer Protection Act, 1986 b) Motor Vehicles Act, 1988
c) The Company Secretaries, Act d) Prize Competition Act, 1955
101. The large volume of advertising in a society is known as
a) Advertising clutter b) Deception c) Mass advertising d) Large scale advertising
102. Drama, exhibitions, fair are effective means of
(a) Personal selling (b) Advertisements (c) Sales territory (d) Entertainment
103. The change of customer behavior as result of promotion is measured by
(a) Narrowcasting (b) Customer audit (c) Volume allowance (d) Media planning
104. Which type of promotional tool is nonpublic, immediate, interactive and customized?
(a) Indirect marketing (b) Direct marketing(c) Viral marketing(d) E-commerce
105. The customer gets an offer of gift on some fixed date and the winners are announced through
draw is called
(a) Lucky draw (b) Instant draw and assigned gift (c) Quantity gifts (d) Rebate
106. Statement 1: Post testing is an evaluation conducted to know whether a proposed
ad campaign is appealing to target group
Statement 2: It is also known as copy testing.
a) Both statements are rig b) Both statements are wrong
107. All of the following methods are used for evaluating advertising effectiveness except:
a) Pre- test b) Post- test c) Concurrent test d) Marginal test
108. All of the following methods are considered to be concurrent testing methods except:
a) consumer diaries b) co-incidental surveys
c) readability studies d) electronic devices
109. If a consumer is getting a product with either low cost or any free good with it as an incentive
to buy a product is called
(a) Coupon (b) Price pack (c) Rebate/cash refund offer (d) Premium
110. Which among the following is not a mechanical test?
a) Psychogalvanometer b) Techistoscope
c) Camera test d) Consumer dairy test
111. Creating image of product in the minds of target group is called

a) Marketing b) positioning c) Branding d) Popularising
112. The cost of printing, media support, artwork and distribution is known as
(a) Promotion cost (b) Communication cost (c) Fulfilment cost (d) Marketing cost
113. “Through newspaper any firm can reach literate customers only”. It’s a
(a) Nothing related to illiterate customers (b) Advantage of newspaper
(c) Drawback of newspaper (d) No problem in such advertising
114. ………….. ignores large differences in cultures, demographics, and economics of
international marketing decision.
(a) Standardization drawbacks (b) Advertisement regulations
(c) Standardization benefits (d) Typical responses
115. The plan that show time, date and frequency of an advertisement is
a) Media Plan b) Media Schedule c) Media Time d) Media Space
116. Direct mail advertising sends messages through
a) Audio b) Video c) Mail d) None of these
117. The combination of media used for advertising in a target market is

a) Media Mix b) Market-Media Match c) Media Advertising d) Media Option
118. Which concept supplements the work of sales promotion?
(a) Middlemen (b) Wholesaler (c) Advertising (d) Personal selling
119. On- pack coupons are the e.g. of
(a) Trade promotion (b) Sales promotion (c) Money based sales promotion (d) Fulfilment cost
120. If a company wants to build a good “corporate image,” it will probably use which of the
following marketing communications mix tools?
121. Increasing short term sales, getting retailers to carry new products and advertise more,
reinforce brand position are…………of Sales promotion.
(a) Tools (b) Developing programs (c) Overviews(d) Objectives
122. Which of the following strategies is usually followed by B2B companies with respect to
promotion strategy?
123. An Ad copy that uses the endorsement of a satisfied customer?
a) comparative copy b) reminder copy
c) expository copy d) testimonial Ad copy

124. Giving cash or award to customer for using the same product regularly is called
(a) Coupon (b) Price pack (c) Premium (d) Patronage reward
125. The middlemen help to stabilises the prices by opting
(a) Stocking of goods (b) Distribution of goods (c) Sale of goods(d) Marketing of goods
126. Statement 1: Media planning refers to series of decision involving delivery of messages to
the target audience
Statement 2: The central theme of media planning is message dissemination.
127. Role of middleman is to ensure that there is seamless flow of goods in the market by
matching
(a) Wholesalers and manufacturers (b) Production and sales
(c) Supply and demand (d) All of these
128. The advertisement of newspaper has a very short life span of
(a) One day (b) One week (c) One month (d) One year
129. Which among the following is not an objective of advertising research?
a) Improve the efficiency of an ad b) Develop advertising
c) Evaluate impact of an ad d) To avoid wastage of an ad
130. The type of appeal which is related to a person’s psychological and social needs for
purchasing products and services?
a) Rational appeal b) Emotional appeal c) Moral appeal d) Humour appeal
131. Series of advertisement messages that share a single idea or theme is

a) Advertisement Campaign b) Advertisement Group
c) Advertisement Cluster d) Advertisement Series
132. Advertising is a non-personal process but must be written or printed in words ___advertise
and helps in the sale of the product.
(a) Salesman (b) Sponsors (c) Marketer (d) Marketing manager
133. A certificate that gives buyer a kind of saving when they purchase any specified item is
called
(a) Coupon (b) Price pack (c) Rebate/cash refund offer (d) Premium
134. When customer is a getting some gift items with the product they purchase is known as
(a) Price pack (b) Product combination (c) Quantity gift (d) Lucky draw
135. Point of Purchase Ads are also known as
a) In-Store Advertising b) Built-in Advertising
c) Green Advertising d) Stock Advertising
136. Building and maintaining relation with government officials to influence legislation and
regulation is a part of
(a) Direct marketing (b) Indirect marketing (c) Loyalty schemes (d) Public relation
137. Selection of most appropriate cost-effective medium in advertisement is
a) Media Buying b) Media Scheduling c) Media Purchasing d) Media Selection
138. The aggregate of all the factors which arouse the needs of customers and guide them in final
selection is called?
a) Advertising appeal b) Advertising media c) Advertisement d) Buying motive
139. When customers are getting offer for the product with fewer prices then the listed price is
(a) Refund (b) Discount(c) Lucky draw (d) Quantity gift
140. Airline frequent flyers schemes are
(a) Promotion mix (b) Fulfilment cost (c) Loyalty schemes (d) Direct marketing
141. The content and context of a message contained in an advertisement is called?
a) Ad copy b) Script c) Body d) Advertising appeal
142. The middlemen are the connecting link between the producers and __________
(a) Sellers (b) Marketers (c) Buyers (d) Marketing managers
143. To introduce the new products to world of consumers is the main goal of
(a) Entertainment (b) Advertising (c) Boost the sales (d) Online marketing
144. Which of the following promotional forms is often described as being too impersonal
and only a one-way communication form?

145. Sales promotion is very important for any product, especially for newly launched and
designed product. How it affect the product?
(a) Affects the quality of product (b) Affects the quantity of product
(c) Affects the image of product (d) Affects the price of product
146. The cost handling in campaign and financing the offers is known as
(a) Promotion cost (b) Communication cost (c) Fulfilment cost (d) Marketing cost
147. A sales promotion in which a manufacturer provides to a wholesaler is
(a) Trade promotion (b) Sales promotion
(c) Money based sales promotion (d) Fulfilment cost
148. The promotion tool that may include coupons, contests, premiums, and other means
of attracting consumer attention is best described as being which of the following?
149. Sales contest, conventions, trade shows are

(a) Word of mouth publicity (b) Push promotion (c) Dealers promotion method
(d) Business promotion tools
150. Which of the following strategies is usually followed by B2C companies with respect
to promotion strategy?
151. ……..is the purpose of public relation activities to create good image of the company in
the mind of the people.
(a) Not to create immediate demand (b) Create immediate demand
(c) Maintaining immediate demand (d) Start production for immediate demand
152. Advertising allowance, incentives to salesman, quantity discount are the method of
(a) Retailer promotion method (b) Wholesaler promotion method
(c) Dealer promotion method (d) Jobbers promotion method
153. The first step in developing an advertising program should be to:
a) Set advertising objectives. b) Set the advertising budget.
c) Evaluate advertising campaigns. d) Develop advertising strategy.

154. To maintain the present customers to buy the product and encourage them to buy more is an
objective of
(a) Promotion mix (b) Personal selling(c) Public relation(d) Sales promotion
155. ………. is an element of “Sales Promotion” includes distribution of free samples,
organizing trade fair, exhibition, offers, discount coupon etc.
(a) Marketing mix (b) Promotion mix(c) Product mix(d) Price mix
156. If price is related to discount then promotion is related to
(a) Retail outlets (b) Advertisements (c) Warranty (d) Attractiveness
157. A specific communication task to be accomplished with a specific target audience during
a specific period of time is called an:
a) Advertising campaign. b) Advertising objective. c) Advertising criterion.

d) Advertising evaluation.
158. For making advertisement s more effective, the manufacturers improve

_____________and launch new products.
(a) Existing products (b) Advertisement style (c) Marketing channel (d) Sponsors
159. The place where the doubts of middleman can be rectified
(a) Conference (b) Seminar (c) Meeting (d) Both 2 and 3
160. Providing reduced price than the marked price by the producer directly on the
package or sometimes called cents-off deals is known as
(a) Coupon (b) Price pack (c) Rebate/cash refund offer(d) Premium
161. Which of the following WOULD NOT be one of the primary advertising objectives
as classified by primary purpose?
a) to inform b) to persuade c) to remind d) to make profits
162. The product is sold and money is received in installments. No interest is charged
on these installments is
(a) Rebate (b) Refunds (c) Full finance (d) Product combination
163. If place is related to retail outlets then packing is related to
(a) Warranty (b) Advertisements (c) Discounts (d) Attractiveness
164. A promotion in which customer have to a small amount of money together with some proof
of purchase is_______
(a) Money based sales (b) Self-liquidating promotion (c) Direct marketing (d) Point of sale
165. Middlemen is classified into two categories 1) Mercantile Agent 2) ___________
(a) Retailer (b) Buyer (c) Jobber (d) Merchant
166. The seller borrow the goods and services of different middlemen to pass the production to
the
(a) Distribution channel (b) Actual users (c) Fake users (d) Wholesalers
167. For making a large margin of profit a person purchases goods and sell in his own name is
(a) Buyer (b) Jobber (c) Merchant middleman (d) Retailer
168. Middlemen performs the activities like
(a) Advertising (b) Personal selling (c) Sales promotion (d) All of these)
169. Advertising creates employment as it increases the volume of sales and ……
(a) Production (b) Marketing (c) Promotion (d) Personal selling
170. Lower costs, greater global advertising coordination consistent worldwide image
are the …………. of international marketing decision.
(a) Standardization drawbacks (b) Advertisement regulations (c) Standardization
benefits (d) Typical responses
171. The best advertisement is
(a) By emails (b) Print media (c) Television (d) A satisfied customer
172. With the popularity of satellites, phones, iPod etc. usage of ………..becomes ineffective but in
remote areas it is considered as the fastest way to communicate with masses.
173. Advertising is not flexible as the message is once fixed it can’t be altered again and again
according to the_____________
(a) Advertiser (b) Sponsor (c) Customer (d) Marketer
174. From the perspective of sales, advertisements are required for
(a) Profit (b) Loss (c) Increasing sales (d) Decreasing sales
175. When a number of advertisements are published in the newspaper in series and in regular
intervals are called
(a) Monopoly in market (b) Feedback mechanism (c) Boosting the sales (d) Teaser
advertisements
176. Advertising is generally criticized because the cost involved in making ads are generally
(a) High (b) Low (c) Medium (d) Equal to the production
177. ……. and loyalty programs are wonderful and cost effective way to stay in touch with
customers when customer database is used correctly.
178. Levels of differentiation, market share, product lifecycle stage, correlating promotional
spending and brand sales are part of _________________________________ in advertising.
(a) Objective of advertising (b) Models of advertising
(c) Evaluation of advertising (d) Developing strategy
179. Advertising involves dissemination of information about a produce, service to induce people
to take actions beneficial to
(a) Advertiser (b) Sponsor (c) Marketing manager (d) Firm
180. Which of the following is the most popular print media available to advertiser?
(a) Magazine (b) Pamphlet (c) Emails (d) Newspaper
181. Direct mail advertising is suitable in case of
(a) Retailer (b) Wholesaler (c) Personal selling (d) Share broker
182. ………… is helpful in promotion the businesses people and big industrialists are promoting
their goods and services through networking sites like Facebook, Twitter etc.
183. ………….in advertisement means of providing complete information about the product and its
uses to the society.
(a) Legal environment (b) Awareness (c) Interest (d) Educative
184. Comparing past sales and advertisement, trying for new experiments, measuring sale
difficulties are
(a) Objective of advertising (b) Models of advertising (c) Evaluation of advertising
(d) Developing strategy
185. In advertisements we generally see a warning for cigarettes that “Smoking is Injurious to
health”. It’s an example of
(a) Advertising (b) Monopoly in market (c) Legal environment (d) Entertainment
186. A particular growing of customers assigned to a salesman for his sales activity is called
(a) Marketing territory (b) Sales territory (c) Advertisement territory (d) Promotion territory
187. Digital marketing is same as
(a) Marketing through emails (b) Marketing on Facebook (c) Marketing on Twitter
(d) All of the above
188. Advertising gives benefits to society of large people. At the same time it adds to cost,
undermine social values, creating monopoly and encourage.
(a) Sale of products (b) Sale of interior products
(c) Sale of old products (d) Sale of large products
189. Advertisement is a mass communication. It addresses to masses and it’s a form of ___
communication.
(a) Personal (b) Non personal (c) Direct (d) Indirect
190. It is difficult to evaluate the impact of advertising message as there is no immediate and
accurate
(a) Legal environment (b) Feedback mechanism (c) Convenient purchasing (d) Educative
191. What is one of the primary goals of reminder advertising
a) maintain customer relationships b) build brand preference
c) correct false impressions d) inform the market of a price change
192. AIDA refers to the
a) hierarchy of effects model b) broadcast model c)subscription model d) Internet model.
193. What is the next step after “closing the sale” in personal selling process?
(a) The opening (b) Need and problem identification
(c) Dealing with objectives (d) Follow up
194. Digital marketing is same as
(a) Marketing through emails (b) Marketing on Facebook (c) Online ads (d) All of the above
195. Pride appeal is which type of appeal
(a)Rational (b)Informative (c)Emotional (d)Non information
196. Which of these type is a hidden advertisement?
(a)Surrogate (b)Competitive (c)Comparative (d)Industrial
197. Which of these contain no illustrations or logos?
(a) TV (b) Magazine (c) Classified advertisements (d)Cinema
198. A short and striking or memorable phrase used in advertising is called
(a)logo (b)Slogan (c)brand image (d)sign
199. POP is an abbreviation of
(a) Purchase of product (b) Point of purchase (c) Property of product (d)Priority of purchase
200. A specific coordinated advertising effort on behalf of a particular product or service that
extends for a specified period of time
(a)Campaign (b)Trial (c)Commercial (d)Marketing
Answers 32. (a) Message strategy
1. (c) Consumers 33. b) Sales Force Promotion
2. (c) Selecting media 34. (b) Message execution

3. (c)Publicity 35. b) Publicity
4. d) Advertisement Agency 36. c) Deception

5. Push strategy 37. a) Interest; Action
6. Develop media strategy 38. b) middlemen

7. (b) Sales promotion 39. (d) Convenient purchasing
8. (d) All of these 40. c) Brand Equity

9. (d) AHR Detens 41. d) Objections
10. a) institutional copy 42. (d) Typical responses

11. a) Pre Testing 43. b) Beauty appeal
12. b) Sales Promotion 44. (c) Cold drink
13. b) Prospecting 45. (d) All of the above
14. a) Affordable method 46. (c) Discounts

15. (a) Word of mouth publicity 47. d) expository copy
16. (c) Manufacturers promotions 48. a) planning, research, organisation,

17. (d) Print writing, checking, proof reading,
18. (d) Both a and c editing, revision
19. (c) Buyer and customer 49. b) Media Strategy
20. a) advertisement media 50. d) Flex Board
21. c) Only Statement 1 is correct 51. a) Advertising appeal
22. a) Deception 52. b) Both statements are wrong
23. (c) Cheap bargain 53. c) Personal selling process
24. (c) Mass reach 54. a) Brand loyalty
25. (d) American marketing Association 55. d) Informative advertising
26. a) Obscene advertisements 56. (c) Rebate/cash refund offer
27. d) Mass communication 57. c) competitive-parity method

28. (c) New products 58. c) Reminder advertising
29. d) Publicity 59. (c) Developing sales promotion

30. a) Transactional program
31. b) Conducting advertising culture 60. c) Push Money

audit 61. d) Media Vehicle
62. c)Direct marketing
63. c) Only Statement 1 is correct 95. c) Brand Equity
64. b) Corporate Social 96. (c) Promotion
Responsibility 97. a) Personal Selling
65. (b) Sample 98. (b) Indirect marketing
66. (b) Sales promotion 99. (b) Types of advertising
67. b)Combination strategy 100. c) The Company Secretaries, Act
68. c) Sales Promotion 101. a) Advertising clutter
69. a) Follow-up 102. (d) Entertainment
70. b) Material goods 103. (b) Customer audit
71. c) Only Statement 1 is correct 104. (b) Direct marketing
72. a) Push 105. (a) Lucky draw
73. (d) Trade promotion 106. b) Both statements are wrong
74. (d) Both b and c 107. d) Marginal test
75. (d) Point of sale 108. c) readability studies
76. c) Direct Mail Advertising 109. (d) Premium
77. (b) Instant draw and assigned gift 110. d) Consumer dairy test
78. b) Consumer Promotion 111. b) positioning
79. d) Media Buying 112. (b) Communication cost
80. d) sales promotion 113. (c) Drawback of newspaper
81. c) advertising layout 114. (a) Standardization drawbacks
82. c) It must be economical 115. b) Media Schedule
83. d) Advertising Standards Council of 116. c) Mail
India (ASCI) 117. a) Media Mix
84. c) Media 118. (a) Middlemen
85. (b) After sales service 119. (c) Money based sales promotion
86. (a) Retail outlets 120. b) public relations
87. c) Sales Promotion 121. (d) Objectives
88. b) Trader Promotion Techniques 122. a) Push strategy
89. c) Price off offer 123. d) testimonial Ad copy
90. a) Consumer promotion Techniques 124. (d) Patronage reward
91. (c) Customer sales promotion 125. (a) Stocking of goods
92. (d) Television 126. a) Both statements are right
93. a) Subliminal ads 127. (c) Supply and demand
94. a) Consumer 128. (a) One day
129. b) Develop advertising 163. (d) Attractiveness
130. b) Emotional appeal 164. (b) Self-liquidating promotion
131. a) Advertisement Campaign 165. (d) Merchant
132. (b) Sponsors 166. (b) Actual users
133. (a) Coupon 167. (c) Merchant middleman
134. (b) Product combination 168. d) All of these
135. a) In-Store Advertising 169. (a) Production
136. (d) Public relation 170. (c) Standardization benefits
137. d) Media Selection 171. (d) A satisfied customer
138. d) Buying motive 172. (c) Radio
139. (b) Discount 173. (c) Customer
140. (c) Loyalty schemes 174. (c) Increasing sales
141. a) Ad copy 175. (d) Teaser advertisements
142. (c) Buyers 176. (a) High
143. (b) Advertising 177. (b) Email
144. a) advertising 178. (d) Developing strategy
145. (c) Affects the image of product 179. (a) Advertiser
146. (c) Fulfilment cost 180. d) Newspaper
147. (a) Trade promotion 181. (d) Share broker
148. d) sales promotion 182. (a) Social media
149. (d) Business promotion tools 183. d) Educative
150. b) Pull strategy 184. (c) Evaluation of advertising
151. (a) Not to create immediate demand ( 185. c) Legal environment
152. (c) Dealer promotion method 186. b) Sales territory
153. a) Set advertising objectives 187. (d) All of the above
154. (d) Sales promotion 188. (b) Sale of interior products
155. (b) Promotion mix 189. (b) Non personal
156. (b) Advertisements 190. (b) Feedback mechanism
157. b) Advertising objective. 191. a) maintain customer relationships
158. (a) Existing products 192. a) hierarchy of effects model
159. (d) Both 2 and 3 193. (d) Follow up
160. (b) Price pack 194. (d) All of the above
161. d) to make profits 195. (b)Informative
162. (c) Full finance 196. (a)Surrogate
197. (c) Classified
198. (b)Slogan
199. (b) Point of purchase
200. (a)Campaign
King Saud university
College of Business Administration
Marketing Department
E-marketing
1st Exam
Student Name: Answers
Student ID :_____________________________________
Part 1 : T/F
1 2 3 4
T T T T
5 6 7 8
T F T T
Part 2 : Multiple choice ( a,b,c,d)

1 2 3 4 5
A B A D B
6 7 8 9 10
A D D C D
Grading:
Points Student Points
Part 1 4
Part 2 5
Part 3 16
Total 25
Page 1
Part 1: T/F _______________________________________________________________________________________ 4 points
1. The internet provides individual users abilities to access information, entertainment, and
communication. T
2. The internet has shifted power from sellers to buyers. T
3. Co-creation occurs when users help marketers develop products or advertising. T
4. The ad hoc, napkin plan is a quick method used by entrepreneurs to communicate their ideas
to clients, partners, or investors. T
5. Venture capitalists usually will nurture a business and be willing to help in times of trouble. T
6. E-marketing plans must focus on a single objective only. F
7. Companies often consider market similarities across different countries in order to evaluate
entry risks. T
8. The mass distribution of unsolicited electronic mail is often referred to as spam. T
Part 2: Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ)___________________________________________________ 5 points
(1) ________ is the subset of e-business focused on transactions.

a. E-commerce
b. E-marketing
c. Digital technology
d. Environment, Strategy, and Performance (ESP)
(2) ________ are specific measures designed to determine web site success in terms of
various factors, such as number of site visitors, length of time spent browsing a site,
number of comments posted, and time spent watching a video.
a. Segmentation variables
b. Metrics
c. ESP model
d. Site stickiness
(3) The ________ is a blueprint that links the firm’s e-business strategy with technology
driven marketing strategies and details the plan for implementation.
a. e-marketing plan
b. business model
c. situation analysis
d. strategic plan
(4) The two most common types of e-marketing plans are known as the venture capital
plan and the ________.
a. Nike plan
b. tablecloth plan
c. strategic plan
d. napkin plan
Page 2
(5) Venture capitalists expect to ________.
a. get their money out of an investment immediately
b. get their money out of an investment within a few years
c. take over ownership of their investments
d. see a return on every investment they make
(6) The strategy of applying different price levels for different customers or situations is
known as ________.
a. dynamic pricing
b. online bidding
c. direct marketing
d. agent e-business models
(7) Formulating an objective should take into consideration all of the following elements
except _________.
a. task
b. measurable quality
c. time frame
d. cost
(8) Emerging economies ________.

a. have low levels of GDP
b. are experiencing rapid growth
c. are working toward improved standards of living for their citizens
d. all of the above
(9) E-marketers working in emerging economies should know and understand ________.
a. how many credit cards are in circulation
b. consumer attitudes toward credit card purchases
c. all of the above
(10) Saudi Aramco has high qualified employees , this consider as:
a. Threat
b. Opportunity
c. Weakness
d. Strength
Page 3
Part 3: Essay Questions: ___________________________________________________________________________6 points
Answer only 5 of the following questions:
1) What is the difference between the internet, an extranet, and an intranet?
 The internet is a global network of interconnected computers. Access to the internet is
very broad and open.
 An extranet is two or more proprietary or company owned networks that are joined to
share information. Access to this network is limited.
 An intranet is an internal network for a company that uses internet standards. Access
is limited to internal company use only.
______________________________________________________________________________________________
2) Where does an entrepreneur go for start-up capital?
 Bank loans
 Private funds
 Angel investors
 Venture capitalists (VCs)
______________________________________________________________________________________________________
3) What are the seven steps of the e-marketing plan?

1. Situation analysis
2. E-Marketing strategic planning
3. Objectives
4. E-Marketing strategy
5. Implementation plan
6. Budget
7. Evaluation plan
_______________________________________________________________________________________________________
4) Modern technology presents challenges to marketing ethics. State 4 of them?
a. Ownership of intellectual property
b. The role of privacy in a virtual world
c. Freedom of expression
d. Use of data and its collection
e. Status of children and digital networks
5) What are the 3 basic mechanisms to protects intellectual property ?

 Patent law is centered on inventions.
 Copyright addresses issues of expression.
 Trademark is concerned with words or images used in the market.
_________________________________________________________________________________________________
6) From your point of view, what are the advantages and disadvantages for
marketing using random email addresses (the mass distribution of unsolicited
e-mail)? Support your answer using evidence from your own use of e-mail.
**** From your point of view ***
Good Luck *****Instructor : Reem Alshehri
Page 4
MCQ-Contemporary Marketing Research
1) Which form of data below can usually be obtained more quickly and at a lower cost than the
others?
a) Primary
b) Survey research
c) Experimental research
d) Secondary
e) Observational research
2) Secondary data are ________.
a) Collected mostly via surveys

b) Expensive to obtain
c) Never purchased from outside suppliers
d) Always necessary to support primary data
e) Not always very usable
3) Causal research is used to ________
a) Describe marketing problems or situations

b) Quantify observations that produce insights unobtainable through other forms of research
c) Find information at the outset in an unstructured way
d) Gather preliminary information that will help define problems
e) Test hypotheses about cause-and-effect relationships
4) Your colleague is confused about using the marketing research process, as he knows that
something is wrong but is not sure of the specific causes to investigate. He seems to be having
problems with ________, which is often the hardest step to take.
a) Selecting a research agency to help

b) Defining the problem and research objectives
c) Developing the research plan
d) Determining a research approach
e)C and D
5) In the second step of the marketing research process, research objectives should be translated
into specific ________.
a) Financial amounts
b) Results that justify the means
c) Marketing goals
d) Time allotments
e) Information needs
6) Secondary data consists of information ________.
a) That already exists somewhere and was collected for another purpose
b) Used by competitors
c) That does not currently exist in an organized form
d) That already exists somewhere and is outdated
e) That the researcher can obtain through surveys and observation
others?
a) Survey research
b) Syndicated
c) Secondary
d) Primary
e) Online marketing research
8) Your assistant wants to use secondary data exclusively for the current research project. You
advise him that the use of secondary data has some potential problems. Which of the following is
not one of them?
a)It may not be current.

b)It may not exist.
c)It may not be useable.
d)It may not be relevant
e)It is generally more expensive to obtain than primary data
9) Which method could a marketing researcher use to obtain information that people are
unwilling or unable to provide?
a) Focus groups
b) Personal interviews
c) Questionnaires
d) Observational research
e)Internet surveys
10) Survey research, though used to obtain many kinds of information in a variety of situations,
is best suited for gathering ________ information.
a) Attitudinal
b) Personal
c) Preference
d) Exploratory
e) Descriptive
11) Typically, customer information is buried deep in separate databases, plans, and records of
many different company functions and departments. To overcome such problems, which of the
following could you try?
a) Customer satisfaction measurement

b) Synergetic meetings of the minds
c) Customer relationship management
d) More sophisticated software
e) Less marketing intelligence
12) Survey research is least likely to be conducted through which of the following?
a)Observation
b) Person-to-person interactions
c) The telephone
d) The Web
e) The mail
13) Which of the following is not a disadvantage of telephone interviews.
a)Interviewer bias is introduced

b)Under time pressures, some interviewers might cheat.
c)Potential respondents may refuse to participate
d)They are more expensive to conduct than mail questionnaires.
e)Interviewers tend to interpret answers similarly.
14) Which form of marketing research is flexible, allows for explanation of difficult questions,
and lends itself to showing products and advertisements?
a) Personal interviewing
b) Ethnographic research
c) Observational research
d) Online interviewing
e) Phone interviewing
15) Which of the following is a disadvantage of online focus groups?
a) Results take longer to tabulate and analyze.

b) Participants must be in a central location.
c) The cost of online focus groups is greater than that of most other qualitative research methods.
d) The format of focus groups can be varied.
e) The Internet format can restrict respondents' expressiveness.
16) Mr. Ravi regularly conducts online marketing research at work. He has found that it has
several advantages over traditional methods. Which of these is not an advantage?
a)Respondents cannot remain anonymous.

b)It is more cost efficient.
c)It is easy to control who responds to surveys.
d) Report generation turnaround time is much quicker
e)It is easier for respondents to complete.
17) What are the two types of research data?
a) Qualitative and Quantitative.

b) Primary and secondary.
c) Predictive and quantitative.
d) Qualitative and predictive.
18) What is a major drawback of probability sampling?
a) Takes too much time

b) Sampling error cannot be measured
c) Easiest population from which to obtain info is chosen
d) Everyone has an equal chance of selection
e) Reliance on the judgment of the researcher
19) The most common research instrument used is the
a) Questionnaire
b) Moderator
c) Telephone interviewer
d) Live interviewer
e) Mechanical device
20) In marketing research, the ________ phase is generally the most expensive and most subject
to error.
a) Interpreting and reporting the findings

b) Exploratory research
c) Data collection
d) Planning
e) Data validation
21) Despite the data glut that marketing managers receive, they frequently complain that
they lack ________.
a) Enough information of the right kind
b) Accurate and reliable information
c) Quality information
d) Valid information
e)Timely information
22) The real value of a company's marketing research and information system lies in the _____
a) Amount of data it generates

b) Marketing information system it follows
c) Efficiency with which it completes studies
d) Variety of contact methods it uses
e) Quality of customer insights it provides
23) What is the first step in the marketing research process?
a) Developing a marketing information system

b) Developing the research plan for collecting information
c) Implementing the research plan
d) Defining the problem and research objectives
e) Interpreting data and deciding on type of research
24) In CRM, findings about customers discovered through ________ techniques often lead to
marketing opportunities.
a) Data warehouse
b) Customer loyalty management
c) Customer relationship strategy
d) Data mining
e) Value network
25) What source of marketing information provides ready access to research information, stored
reports, shared work documents, contact information for employees and other stakeholders, and
more?
a) An extranet
b) Marketing intelligence
c) The Internet
d) An internal database
e) An intranet
26) When managers use small convenience samples such as asking customers what they think or
inviting a small group out to lunch to get reactions, they are using ________.
a) Informal surveys
b) Experiments
c) Focus groups
d) Observation
e) Marketing intelligence
27) A common problem in international marketing research is the availability of ________.
a) Primary data
b) Research specialists
c) Secondary data
d) Consumers willing to answer surveys
e) Intelligence limitations
28) Which type of research would be best suited for identifying which demographic groups
prefer diet soft drinks and why they have this preference?
a) Exploratory research
b) Descriptive research
d) Ethnographic research
f) Survey research
29) As a small business consultant, you recommend to your clients that they use no-cost methods
of observation to gather market research. Which of the following are you not likely to
recommend your clients do?
a) Visit and socialize with competitors

b) Observe vehicle and pedestrian traffic.
c) Monitor competitors' advertising from local media
d) Hire additional staff to observe extensively
e) Evaluate their customer mix–how many and what kind of customers.
30) Marketing intelligence is everyday information about developments in the marketing

environment that assists marketers in their preparation of their plans and strategies. This
information is obtained from a number of sources and includes which of the following?
a) Newspaper articles.
b) Sales representative feedback.
c) Competitor intelligence
d) Trade journals.
e) Customer feedback.
f) All of the above.
31) The marketing research process consists of four steps. Which of the following is not one of
these steps?
a) Evaluating the competitor strategies.

b) Developing the research plan for collecting information.
c) Defining the problem and research objectives.
32) What do many researchers encounter when conducting market research in foreign countries?
a) Some countries have poor roads that limit personal contacts.

b) Some cultures may not value marketing research.
c) Some countries have poor mail services
d) Some countries have few telephones, limiting access to respondents
e) All of the above
33) Ravi just completed reading a marketing research report about the top 25 countries that
purchase German products. What might the report say about international research with these
countries?
a) Despite the costs of international research, the costs of not doing it are higher.
b) There is a lack of qualified research personnel.
c) The costs are higher than the benefits.
d) Interpretations of German quality are consistent among different countries.
e) It is on the decrease due to high costs.
34) Behavioural targeting, the practice of ________, is being used by more and more companies.
a) Mining and analyzing data from data warehouses

b) Tracking customers' activities and rewarding customer loyalty
c) Observing and interacting with consumers in their natural environments
d) Managing customer relationships
e) Tracking consumers' online movements and using this information to target ads to them
35) To consumers, research studies may appear to be little more than vehicles for ________.
a) Gathering names for resale

b) Building company image
c) Training future salespeople to work with people face-to-face
d) Selling the sponsor's products
e) Criticizing competition
36) Qualitative research is exploratory research used to uncover consumer attitudes, motivations
and behavior. What techniques can be applied to obtain qualitative research?
a) Elicitation interviews.
b) One to one interviews.
c) Focus groups.
d) All of the above
e) None of the above.
37) What are examples of techniques of obtaining qualitative data?
a) Survey research/questionnaires; focus groups; in-depth interviews; observational

techniques; experimentation.
b) Video conferencing; focus groups; in-depth interviews; observational techniques.
c) Survey research/questionnaires; focus groups; in-depth interviews; observational techniques;
call centre feedback.
d) All of the above.
38) What are four methods of continuous research?
a) Consumer panels; home audits; omnibus surveys; retail audits.

b) Consumer panels; home audits; personal interviews; omnibus surveys.
c) Home audits; omnibus surveys; personal interviews; in-store video footage of consumer
behaviour.
d) Consumer panels; home audits; personal interviews; in-store video footage of consumer
behaviour.
e) All of the above
f) None of the above
39) “what new product should be developed” is an example of …………??
a) Causal
b) Exploratory
c) Descriptive
d) None of the above
40) Sources of marketing information are categorized into two groups - what are they?
a) External sources; internal sources.

b) Causal resources.
c) Macro environmental sources; micro environmental sources
41) What are the criteria for evaluating secondary data sources?
a) Source of data; who collects the data; method of data collection; construct of research.
b) Source of data; who collects the data; method of data collection; construct of data.
c) Relevance of data; who collects the data; method of data collection; who paid for the research.
d) Relevance of data; who collects the data; method of data collection; evidence of careful
work.
42) What are three popular methods for obtaining primary data?
a) Experimentation; personal interview; Delphi technique.

b) Survey; interviews; experimentation.
c) Interviews and surveys; observation; experimentation.
d) Interviews and surveys; observation; Harrison methodology.
43) Marketing research is the function that links the ___________ to the marketer through
information---information used to identify and define marketing opportunities and problems; to
generate, refine and evaluate marketing actions; to monitor marketing performance; and to
improve understanding of the marketing process.
a) Marketer, agent and retailer

b) Demander, buyer and user
c) Specifier, influencer and user
d) Consumer, customer and public
44) The marketing information system (MIS) begins and ends with __________
a) Marketing managers
c) Information technologies
d) Consumers
45) As marketing managers and researchers define the problem and set research objectives, they
should employ the following type(s) of research: __________
a)Exploratory research alone

b)Exploratory, descriptive and causal research
c)Descriptive research alone
d)Causal research alone
46) What are secondary data?
a) Information that has been collected for the specific purpose at hand
b)Information that has already been collected and recorded for another purpose and is
thus readily accessible
c)Information based on second-rate research
d)Information based solely on rumours
47) Small businesses and non-profit organisations on shoestring budgets nevertheless have
access to useful marketing information by __________
a)Relying exclusively on secondary data

b)Conducting informal surveys
c)Collecting and evaluating secondary data, as well as observing and conducting their own
surveys and experiments
d)Hiring a few highly-skilled researchers
48) International marketers may have difficulty finding useful secondary data in other countries
mainly because __________.
a)Secondary data are difficult to translate

b)Foreign consumers may be hostile to marketers
c)Some countries lack reliable research services---if they provide such services at all
d)Consumers tend to lie on surveys and in interviews, either deliberately or inadvertently
49) Which of the following represents major public policy and ethics issues in marketing
research?
a) Intrusion on and abuse of consumer privacy

b) Representing database compilation and promotional pitches as 'pure' research
c) Intrusion on consumer privacy and the misuse of research findings
d) False claims and pushy sales representatives
50) What is the first stage of the marketing research process?
a) Implement the research plan

b) Collect and analyse the data
c) Develop the research plan
d) Report the findings
e) Define the research problem
51) Primary data is ___________.
a) Always collected before secondary data

b) Collected for the specific purpose at hand
c) Information that already exists
d) Data collected for other purposes
e) Usually collected through annual reports
52) What are the two major advantages of collected data through telephone interviews?
a)Sample control and speed of data collection

b)Cost and response rate
c)Cost and speed of data collection
d)Flexibility and quantity of data collected
e)Control of interviewer effects and quantity of data collected
53) Expratory research undergoes following methods except
a) Expert surveys
b) Pilot study
c) Case studies
54) Census comes under which research?
a) Causal
b) Exploratory
c) Descriptive
55) Cause and effect research comes under which research type?
a) Causal
b) Exploratory
c) Descriptive
56) Rigid sequential approach to sampling and data collection comes under which research
a) Causal
b) Exploratory
c) Descriptive
57) …………….. is called pre-assumption of the expected result of the research
a) Hypothesis
b) Expenditure
c)Research problem
58) ………………….. is kind of prelude to the end result one hopes to achive and therefore it
requires considerable thoughts
a) Hypothesis
b) Expenditure
c)Research problem
59) Detail blueprint of research is called as……………….
a) Research proposal
b) Research design
c) a and b
d) a or b
60) In which type of research hypothesis is vague??
a) Causal
b) Exploratory
c) Descriptive
61) “How should a new product be distributed??” is an example of …………?
a) Causal
b) Exploratory
c) Descriptive
62) “Will increase in the service staff be profitable?” Is an example of…………??
a) Causal
b) Exploratory
c) Descriptive
63) A powerful tool use in longitudinal research with exactly same people, group or
organization across time periods is called…………..
a) Focus group
b) consumer panel
c) RSA
64) For primary data to be useful to marketers, it must be relevant, current, unbiased, and
________.
a) Complete
b) Accurate
c) Inexpensive
d) Collected before secondary data
e) Experimental
65) . ………………… is the variation of the panel with data being collected from retail stores on
the product being stocked, shelf placed , sale and promotion , so on
a) Retail shop audit

b) consumer panel
c TRP
d) None of the above.
66) Multiple business locations, recourse , budget limitations is challenges for….

b) consumer panel
c) TRP
67) The advertising is selecting slots for the advertising on the basis of which study?

b) consumer panel
c) TRP
d) Media Audience tracking study.
68) What is TRP?
a) Television Rating point

b) Television rating part
c) All of the above
d). Television Rating process
69) _____________ research is the gathering of primary data by watching people.
a)Survey
b)Informative
c) Observational
d)Experimental
e)Causal
70) Market research is function linking the consumer customer and public to market through
a) The media
b) Information
c) Market research
d) All of the above
71) Marketing research is related to………………
a) Finance process
b) Marketing Process
c) Business Process
72) Advance plan of research is called as
a) Research process
b) Research design
c) Research proposal
73) Research design consist of following things except…………….
a) Hypothesis
b) Expenditure
c) Research problem
74) A formal statement of research question or “purpose of research study” generally
a) Is made prior to literature review

b) Is made after literature review
c) Will help guide the research process
d) Both a and c
75) Source of research problem include
a) Researcher’s experience
b) Practical issue that require solutions
c) Theory and past research
d) All of the above
76) A………….. is written account of the plan for the research project.
a) Research design
b) Research proposal
c) Hypothesis
d) All of the above
77) In qualitative research proposal you would not expect to see a
a) Research questions
b) Research rim
c) Hypothesis
d) Operational definition
78) Following are characteristics of hypothesis except
a) Clarity
b) Simple
c) Consistent
79) The null hypothesis is
a) which is to be disprove
b) H0
c) None of the above
d) A and B
80) The research which is “unstructured, qualitative, highly flexible “ is called as

a. Causal
b) Exploratory
c) Descriptive
81) …………… is snapshot of some aspect of the market environment
a) Causal
b) Exploratory
c) Descriptive
82) Which of the following is advantages of stating of HYPOTHESIS ??
a) It forces researcher to think deeply and specifically about the possible outcome of
study
b) It simplifies the study
d) All of the above
83) Customer Satisfaction is an example of which of research design?
a) Qualitative
b) Quantitative
c) Causal
84) Alternative hypothesis is
a) H0
b) Ha
c) Which shows positive relationship between the variables
d) B , C
85) Following are techniques of Qualitative Research ?
a) Depth interview
b) Focus group
c) Projective technique
d) All of the above
86) Data analysis in qualitative research as contrasted with qualitative research is generally
a) Theoretical
b) Deductive
c) Applied
d) Inductive
87) Which of the following is not general feature that characteristics most qualitative research?
a) Inflexible design
b) Holistic process
c) Naturalistic inquiry
d) Personal contact
88) Conclusion from qualitative research are:
a) Less certain than from quantitative

b) Of little practice use
c) Seldom defensible
d) Of descriptive value only
89) The first step in the marketing research process is:
a) Defining the problem

b) Gathering the budget necessary to conduct the research
c) Establishing the need for marketing research
d) Getting approval from top management to do research
e) Finding an appropriate marketing firm to carry out the research project
90) Which of the following is true regarding the steps in the marketing research process?
a) Not all studies use all steps in the marketing research process.
b) There is nothing sacred about the number of steps in the research process as proposed by your
authors.
c) The steps in the marketing research process presented by your authors are universally accepted
and are adopted by the American Marketing Association.
d) A and C are true.
e) A and B are true.
91) In establishing the need for marketing research, which of the following would serve as a
good decision rule for managers?
a) Ensuring that competitors are using marketing research, therefore a company considering
marketing research would not be at a competitive disadvantage
b) Determining the value to be derived from marketing research
c) Determining the cost of conducting marketing research
d) Weighing the value derived from the marketing research with the cost of obtaining the
marketing research information
e) Ensuring that subordinates are in favor of conducting the marketing research
92) Sometimes managers know that marketing research is not needed. In which of the following
cases would marketing research NOT be needed?
a) Competitors have introduced a successful new product and it is too late to respond.
b) Brand managers wish to assess the profitability of different items in the product line and
this information is available from the internal reports system.
c) There have been significant changes in the demographic characteristics of the market since
marketing research was last conducted.
d) A competitor has introduced a new innovative distribution system.
e) An internal analysis indicates that the company is losing distributors at an alarming rate.
93) Under which of the following conditions will marketing research likely have greater value to
management?
a) When the research helps clarify problems or opportunities

b) When the research identifies changes that are occurring in the marketplace among consumers
and/or competitors
c) When the research clearly identifies the best alternatives to pursue
d) When the research helps a company's brand establish a competitive advantage
e) All of the above
94) Which of the following statements is true regarding the marketing research step "defining the
problem"?
a) Defining the problem is the third most important step in the research process.
b) Defining the problem should be undertaken only after the project has been approved by top
management.
c) Defining the problem is the most important step in the marketing research process.
d) Defining the problem should be undertaken only after a sufficient number of firms have been
gathered to conduct the marketing research project.
e) Defining the problem is the eighth step in the marketing research process.
95) Problems stem from which two primary sources?
a) Gaps between what is supposed to happen and what did happen and gaps between what is
supposed to happen and what happened in the past.
b) Gaps between what is supposed to happen and what did happen and gaps between
what did happen and what could have happened
c) Gaps between what is happening now and what happened prior to the present
d) Gaps between what management desires and what stockholders desire
e) Gaps between what present consumers desire and what potential consumers desire
96) Which of the following is true regarding research objectives?

a) Research objectives, when achieved, will provide sufficient earnings to obtain a
reasonablereturn on investment.
b) Researchobjectives, when obtained, will ensure the viability of the marketing research
department.
c) Research objectives, when achieved, provide the information necessary to solve the
problem.
d) Research objectives are seldom achieved but should be stated as goals to be sought.
e) Research objectives should never be put in writing until the fourth step of the marketing
research process.
97) Which of the following is true regarding research design?
a) There are four categories of research design.

b) There are three categories of research design.
c) There are five categories of research design.
d) There are eight categories of research design.
e) Research design may not be categorized.
98) Which of the following would be true regarding exploratory research?

a. Exploratory research is highly structured.
b. Exploratory research is very formal.
c. Exploratory research determines causality.
d. Exploratory research is both unstructured and informal.
e. Exploratory research answers who, what, where, when, and how questions.
99) Interview is an example of which data??
a)Primary
b) Secondary
c)Both a and b
100) Main drawback of primary data is?
a) Biasness
b) sample design
c)Research problem
d) All of the above
101) Wrong questionnaire is an example of …………..

a. Primary data collection problem
b. Secondary collection problem
c. a and b both
102) ……………… usually is a list of population members to obtained a sample.
a) Sampling Frame
b) Sample
c) Sampling
d) All of the above
103) All sample have same chance of getting selected is called as…………
a) Probability
b) Non-Probability
c) Quota
d) Snowball
104) Convenience sampling is an example of
a) Probabilistic sampling
b) Stratified sampling
c) Nonprobabilistic sampling
d) Cluster sampling
105) Which of the following is an example of nonprobabilistic sampling?
a) Simple random sampling

b) Stratified simple random sampling
c) Cluster sampling
d) Judgment sampling
106) Stratified random sampling is a method of selecting a sample in which

a) The sample is first divided into strata, and then random samples are taken from each stratum
b) Various strata are selected from the sample
c) The population is first divided into strata, and then random samples are drawn from
each stratum
d) None of these alternatives is correct.
107) Despite the data glut that marketing managers receive, they frequently complain that they
lack ________.

b) Timely information
c) Accurate information
d) Reliable information
e) Valid information
108) Which of the following is true regarding causal research?
a. Causal research is the questions of who, what, where, when, and how.
b. Causal research is informal and unstructured.
c. Causal research isolates causes and effects.
d. Causal research describes marketing phenomena.
e. Causal research is the seventh step in the marketing research process.
109) Which of the following is true regarding primary information?
a. Primary information is information gathered on school children in the primary grades

first through fifth.
b. Primary information refers to information that is collected in the early, or primary,
stages of the marketing research process.
c. Primary information is information that has already been collected for some other
purpose.
d. Primary information is information collected specifically for the problem at hand.
e. Primary information is one of 12 different types of information sources.
110) Which of the following determines how representative a sample is of a population?
a. The size of the sample

b. The sampling company from which the sample is acquired
c. The sample plan
d. The size of the sample relative to the size of the population
e. How varied the population is
111) Which of the following is true regarding the size of the sample?
a) There is no such thing as having a sample that is too large.

b) You should strive to have a sample that is at least 50 percent of the size of the population.
c) A sample size that is too large wastes research dollars; the sample size should be just
c) Large enough to give the researcher accurate results without wasting money.
d) Sample size is more important than the sample plan.
e) Only samples with large sample sizes may be considered representative samples.
112) The existing company information is an example of which data??
a)Primary
b) Secondary
c) Both a and b
d)None of the above
113) Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding information collected for
marketers?
a) Many managers lack information of the right kind.

b) Most managers do not need more information.
c) Most managers need better information.
d) Many managers are burdened by data overload.
e) Managers have enough of the right information.
114) A marketing information system (MIS) consists of people and procedures to assess
information needs, ________, and help decision makers analyze and use the information.
a) Experiment to develop information

b) Test market the information
c) Develop the needed information
d) Critique the needed information
e) Question the needed information
115) A good MIS balances the information users would ________ against what they really
________ and what is ________.
a) Need; like; feasible

b) Like; can afford; needed
c) Like to have; need; feasible to offer
d) Need; can afford; useful
e) Use; have to use; available
116) Marketers must weigh carefully the costs of additional information against the ________
resulting from it.
a) organization
b) benefits
c) creativity
d) ethical issues
e) cost
117) Four common sources of internal data include the accounting department, operations, the
sales force, and the ________.
a) Owners
b) Stockholders
c) Marketing department
d) Competition
e) Web
118) Marketing information from which type of database usually can be accessed more quickly
and cheaply than other information sources?
a) External
B) LexisNexis
C) Dun & Bradstreet's
D) internal
E) Hoover's
119) ________ is the systematic collection and analysis of publicly available information about
consumers, competitors, and developments in the marketing environment.
a) Marketing data
c) Sales management
d) Customer intelligence
e) Competitive intelligence
120) Which of the following statements regarding marketing intelligence is true?
a) The advantage of using competitive intelligence is negligible.

b) All marketing intelligence is available for free.
c) Marketing intelligence relies upon privately held information.
d) Marketing intelligence relies upon publicly available information.
e) Marketing intelligence gathering is more focused on gaining insights into consumer activities
than competitors' activities.
121) Which of the following is NOT considered a source of marketing intelligence?
a) Suppliers
b) Resellers
c) Key customers
d) Causal research
e) Activities of competitors
122) Which of the following is NOT a potential source for marketing intelligence?
a) Looking through competitors' garbage

b) Purchasing competitors' products
c) Monitoring competitors' sales
d) Collecting primary data
e) Talking with purchasing agents
123) Which of the following is an example of a free online database that a company could access
in order to develop marketing intelligence?
a) LexisNexis
b) ProQuest
c) Dialog
d) The U.S. Security and Exchange Commission's database
e) Hoover's
124) ________ is the systematic design, collection, analysis, and reporting of data relevant to a
specific marketing situation facing an organization.
a) The marketing information system

c) Marketing research
d) Competitive intelligence
e) Causal research

c) Developing the research plan for collecting information
d) Implementing the research plan
e) Hiring an outside research specialist
126) Which step in the four-step marketing research process has been left out of the following
list: defining the problems and research objectives, implementing the research plan, and
interpreting and reporting the findings?
a) Developing the research budget

b) Choosing the research agency
c) Choosing the research method
d) Developing the research plan
e) Comparing and contrasting primary and secondary data
127) Causal research is used to ________.
a) Test hypotheses about cause-and-effect relationships

b) Gather preliminary information that will help define problems
c) Uncover information at the outset in an unstructured way
d) Describe marketing problems or situations
e) Quantify observations that produce insights unobtainable through other forms of research
128) Managers often start with ________ research and later follow with ________ research.
a) Exploratory; causal
b) Descriptive; causal
c) Descriptive; exploratory
d) Causal; descriptive
e) Causal; exploratory
a) Developing the research plan

b) Determining a research approach
c) Defining the problem and research objectives
d) Selecting a research agency
130) Through which of these sources of information is a competitor LEAST likely to reveal
intelligence information?
a) Annual reports
b) Trade show exhibits
c) Web pages
d) Press releases
e) Internal marketing conferences
131) To combat marketing intelligence efforts by competitors, Unilever Corporation is now

providing ________ to employees.
a) Competitive intelligence training

b) Privacy blocks
c) Protection
d) Less information
e) A code of ethics
132) The objective of ________ research is to gather preliminary information that will help
define the problem and suggest hypotheses.
a) Exploratory
b) Descriptive
c) Causal
d) Primary
e) Secondary
133) In the second step of the marketing research process, research objectives should be
translated into specific ________.
a) Marketing goals
b) Information needs
c) Dollar amounts
d) Research methods
e)Information sources
a) That already exists somewhere but is outdated

b) That does not currently exist in an organized form
c) That already exists but was collected for a different purpose
d) Used by competitors
e) That researchers can only obtain through surveys and observation
135) Information collected from online databases is an example of ________ data.
a) Primary
b) Secondary
c) Observational
d) Experimental
e) Ethnographic
NOT one of them?
a) It may not exist.

b) It may not be relevant.
c) It is generally more expensive to obtain than primary data.
d) It may not be current.
e) It may not be impartial.
a) Observational
b) Survey
c) Questionnaire
d) Focus groups
e) Personal interviews
138) Ethnographic research ________
a) Comes from traditional focus groups

b) Is gathered where people live and work
c) Provides secondary data
d) Is most popular in the service sector
e) Provides data to marketers when observation is impossible
MCQs of e Marketing
1. Which of the following elements are not parts of e marketing?
A. Marketing over IP
B .Interactive marketing
C. mobile marketing
D. print media marketing
Ans. Print media marketing
2. Are e commerce and e marketing the same idea with slightly different names?
A. No, e marketing is a subset of e commerce
B. Yes, there is no difference between e commerce is the same as e marketing.
C. No, e commerce is a subset of e marketing
D. Yes, the two areas have sufficient overlap to be considered the same.
. Ans. NO, e marketing is a subset of e commerce
3. The four components parts of the internet are:-
A. infrastructure, exchange, delivery and interaction
B. infrastructure, exchange, interaction and environment
C. interaction, exchange, environment and community
D. network, exchange, economy and product
Ans. Infrastructure, exchange, interaction and environment
4. What is the value of market space for the e market:-
A. distribution channel for information, transactional and payment
B. feedback loop for advertising content
C. access point for M
D. business to consumer interface
Ans. Distribution channel for information, transactional and payment.

5. How does e marketing fit into the internet framework:-
A. marketing metrics area by product of internet activity
B. embedded advertising and downloadable product
C. improving user experiences over time with marketing research.
D. all of the above
Ans. All of the above.

1. Despite the data glut that marketing managers receive, they frequently complain that they lack
_____.
a. enough information of the right kind
b. quality information
c. timely information
d. accurate and reliable information
e. valid information
(Answer: a; p. 97; Easy)
2. An MIS consists of people, equipment, and procedures to gather, sort, _____, evaluate, and
distribute information to marketing decision makers.
a. test
b. test market
c. analyze
d. critique
e. assess
(Answer: c; p. 97; Easy)
3. Your firm has just developed its first successful MIS. It interacts with information users to assess
information needs, develop needed information, _____ the marketing information, and help
managers use it in their decision making.
a. distribute
b. collect
c. retrieve
d. store
e. validate
(Answer: a; p. 97; Challenging)
4. The marketing information system is not limited to use by the company it serves. It may also
provide information to _____.
a. the government
b. external partners
c. various publics
d. competitors
e. none of the above
(Answer: b; p. 97; Moderate)
5. Marketers must weigh carefully the costs of additional information against the _____ resulting
from it.
a. uses
b. benefits
c. knowledge
d. rewards
e. cost
(Answer: b; p. 98; Easy)
6. Four common sources of internal data include the accounting department, operations, the sales
force, and the _____.
a. owners
b. stockholders
c. marketing department
d. custodians
e. quality control department
(Answer: c; p. 99; Moderate)
7. Marketing information from this type of database usually can be accessed more quickly and
cheaply than other information sources. Which one is it?
a. External.
b. MDSS.
c. EIS.
d. Internal.
e. Field representatives.
(Answer: d; p. 99; Easy)
8. This systematic collection and analysis of publicly available information about competitors and
developments in the marketing environment is very useful. What is it called?
a. Marketing data.
b. Marketing intelligence.
c. Web Master.
d. Sales and sales management.
e. Secondary data.
9. Which of the following was not mentioned in your textbook as a source of marketing
intelligence?
a. Suppliers.
b. Resellers.
c. Key customers.
d. Your company reports.
e. Sales force.
10. Which of the following was not mentioned in your textbook as a source of marketing
intelligence?
a. Competitors’ garbage.
b. Buying competitors’ products.
c. Monitoring competitors’ sales.
d. Checking for new goodwill.
e. Purchasing agents.
(Answer: d; p. 101; Moderate)
11. Your competitor may reveal intelligence information through which of these sources of
information?
a. Annual reports.
b. Trade show exhibits.

c. Web pages.
d. Press releases.
e. All of the above.
(Answer: e; p. 101; Easy)
12. In today’s information age, companies are leaving a paper trail of information _____.
a. in the wastebasket
b. online
c. in annual reports
d. with government agencies
e. that is inaccessible
13. To combat marketing intelligence by competitors, Unilever Corporation is now providing _____
to employees.
a. intelligence training
b. privacy blocks
c. protection
d. less information
(Answer: a; p. 102; Moderate)
14. Which of the steps in the marketing research process has been left out: defining the problems
and research objectives, implementing the research plan, and interpreting and reporting the
findings?
a. Developing the research budget.
b. Choosing the research agency.
c. Choosing the research method.
d. Developing the research plan.
e. Comparing and contrasting primary and secondary data.
15. Your colleague is confused about using the marketing research process. He seems to be having
problems with _____, which is often the hardest step to take.
a. defining the problem
b. defining the research objectives
c. defining the problem and research objectives
d. researching a research agency to help
e. C and D
16. The objective of _____ research is to gather preliminary information that will help define the
problem and suggest hypotheses.
a. descriptive
b. exploratory
c. causal
d. corrective
e. descriptive and exploratory

17. It is important to note that research objectives must be translated into specific _____.
a. marketing goals
b. information needs
c. dollar amounts
d. results that justify the means
e. time allotments
18. The research plan outlines sources of existing data and spells out the specific research
approaches, contact methods, _____, and instruments that researchers will use to gather new data.
a. personnel
b. sampling plans
c. budget requirements
d. all of the above
19. The way to begin marketing research is to gather secondary data, which consists of information
_____.
a. that already exists somewhere
b. that does not currently exist in an organized form
c. that already exists somewhere, having been collected for another purpose
d. used by competition
e. that the researcher can obtain through surveys and observation
20. How would you describe the primary data being used by your firm?
a. Collected for the specific purpose at hand.
b. Original information.
c. First-time information.
d. Fresh and perhaps more reliable than secondary data.
21. Which form of data can usually be obtained more quickly and at a lower cost?
a. Primary.
b. Census.
c. Secondary.
d. Syndicated.
e. Tertiary.
22. Your assistant wants to use secondary data exclusively for the current research project. You
not one of them?
a. It may not exist.
b. All of the needed data is rarely available.
c. It may not be useable.
d. It is generally more expensive when purchased from the government.
e. You do not know why it was originally collected.
(Answer: d; p. 105; Challenging)
23. Primary data must be relevant, current, unbiased, and _____.

a. complete
b. accurate
c. inexpensive
d. collected before secondary data
e. valid
24. Which method of research can obtain information that people are unwilling or unable to
provide?
a. Observation.
b. Focus groups.
c. Personal interviews.
d. Fax surveys.
e. Questionnaires.
25. Survey research, called the backbone of primary research, is the most widely used method for
primary data collection and is best suited for gathering _____ information.
a. personal
b. preference
c. attitude
d. descriptive
e. exploratory
26. Fredia Pellerano has just discovered the major advantage of survey research. She reports to her
supervisor that it is _____.
a. flexibility
b. cost effectiveness
c. quickness to administer
d. understandability
e. simplicity
27. Experimental research is best suited for gathering _____ information.

a. unknown
b. causal
c. complicated
d. interactive
e. descriptive
(Answer: b; p. 107; Challenging)
28. One of the following is not a current survey research method. It is contact by _____.
a. online use
b. mail
c. telephone
d. fax
29. All of the following are disadvantages of telephone interviewing except one. Which one?
a. Higher cost than mail questionnaires
b. Introduces interviewer bias
c. Under time pressures some interviewers might cheat
d. Interviewers tend to interpret answers similarly
e. A and C
30. Currently, you find yourself involved in marketing research. The form you are using is flexible,
allows explanation of difficult questions, and lends itself to showing products and advertisements.
What is this form of research?
a. Personal interviewing.
b. Online interviewing.
c. Vision phone interviewing.
d. Mall intercepts.
e. None of the above.
31. Which of the following is not an advantage of Web research?

a. Speed.
b. Low costs.
c. Instantaneous results.
e. A and C
32. DelRay Pools and Spas is collecting marketing data through online (Internet) marketing
research. Management will have the choice of using Internet surveys, experiments, or _____.
a. online focus groups
b. individual interviewing
c. hit counting
d. questionnaire responses
e. observations
(Answer: a; p. 109; Challenging)
33. Judy Hammerschmidt regularly conducts online marketing research at work. She has found that
it has several advantages over traditional methods. Which of these is not an advantage?
a. Respondents tend to be more honest.
b. It is more cost efficient.
c. Report generation turnaround time is much quicker.
d. There is greater personal interaction.
e. Respondents cannot remain anonymous.
34. Marketing researchers usually draw conclusions about large groups of consumers by studying a
small _____ of the total consumer population.
a. group
b. sample
c. population
d. target group
e. audience
35. Why would In The Mood Music Distributors choose a sampling of its customers to research
rather than all 1,500 of them?
a. Researching all of them is too time-consuming.
b. Researching all of them can be too expensive.
c. The sample can fairly represent the entire population.
d. The customers may all be similar.
36. Sampling requires the answers to three questions. Choose the inappropriate one.
a. Who is to be sampled (what sampling unit)?
b. How many people should be surveyed (what sample size)?
c. Why should they be sampled (justification)?
d. How should the people be chosen (what sampling method)?
(Answer: c; p. 110; Challenging)
37. The backbone of marketing research, or the most common instrument used, is the _____.
a. mechanical device
b. live interviewer
c. questionnaire
d. teleinterviewer
e. Internet
38. In creating research questionnaires, which of the following is good advice for Mark Hammel,
research specialist at New Wave Data, to follow?
a. Use care in the wording and ordering of questions.
b. Questions do not have to be arranged in a logical order.
c. Ask difficult questions in the beginning to “weed out” uninterested respondents.

d. Ask personal questions in the middle of the instrument.
e. Avoid eye contact as it may confuse the respondents.
39. Which of the following was not mentioned in your text as a common mechanical instrument
used to conduct market research?
a. Supermarket scanners.
b. People meters.
c. Galvanometers and eye cameras.
d. Telephones.
e. e. B and C
40. At this point in your marketing research project, Mr. Barnes comments that the _____ phase is
generally the most expensive and the most subject to error.
a. exploratory research
b. hypothesis
c. data collection
d. interpreting and reporting the findings
e. data validation
(Answer; c; p. 113; Challenging)
others?
d) Secondary


5) In the second step of the marketing research process, research objectives should be translated into
specific ________.

others?
c) Secondary
not one of them?
e) It is generally more expensive to obtain than primary data
9) Which method could a marketing researcher use to obtain information that people are unwilling
or unable to provide?
d) Observational research
10) Survey research, though used to obtain many kinds of information in a variety of situations, is
best suited for gathering ________ information.
e) Descriptive
11) Typically, customer information is buried deep in separate databases, plans, and records of
many different company functions and departments. To overcome such problems, which of the
following could you try?
a) Observation

e) Interviewers tend to interpret answers similarly.
14) Which form of marketing research is flexible, allows for explanation of difficult questions, and
lends itself to showing products and advertisements?

16) Mr. Ravi regularly conducts online marketing research at work. He has found that it has several
advantages over traditional methods. Which of these is not an advantage?
c) It is easy to control who responds to surveys.



a) Questionnaire
20) In marketing research, the ________ phase is generally the most expensive and most subject to
error.
c) Data collection
21) Despite the data glut that marketing managers receive, they frequently complain that they lack
________.
22) The real value of a company's marketing research and information system lies in the _____

24) In CRM, findings about customers discovered through ________ techniques often lead to
marketing opportunities.
d) Data mining
25) What source of marketing information provides ready access to research information, stored
reports, shared work documents, contact information for employees and other stakeholders, and
more?
e) An intranet
26) When managers use small convenience samples such as asking customers what they think or
inviting a small group out to lunch to get reactions, they are using ________.
a) Informal surveys
c) Secondary data
28) Which type of research would be best suited for identifying which demographic groups prefer
diet soft drinks and why they have this preference?
29) As a small business consultant, you recommend to your clients that they use no-cost methods of
observation to gather market research. Which of the following are you not likely to recommend
your clients do?

31) The marketing research process consists of four steps. Which of the following is not one of
these steps?
32) What do many researchers encounter when conducting market research in foreign countries?
e) All of the above
33) Ravi just completed reading a marketing research report about the top 25 countries that
purchase German products. What might the report say about international research with these
countries?
34) Behavioural targeting, the practice of ________, is being used by more and more companies.
e) Tracking consumers' online movements and using this information to target ads to them
35) To consumers, research studies may appear to be little more than vehicles for ________.
36) Qualitative research is exploratory research used to uncover consumer attitudes, motivations
and behavior. What techniques can be applied to obtain qualitative research?
d) All of the above

a) Survey research/questionnaires; focus groups; in-depth interviews; observational
techniques; experimentation.


b) Exploratory
d) Relevance of data; who collects the data; method of data collection; evidence of careful
work.
generate, refine and evaluate marketing actions; to monitor marketing performance; and to improve
understanding of the marketing process.
45) As marketing managers and researchers define the problem and set research objectives, they
should employ the following type(s) of research: __________
b)Exploratory, descriptive and causal research

b)Information that has already been collected and recorded for another purpose and is thus
readily accessible
47) Small businesses and non-profit organisations on shoestring budgets nevertheless have access to
useful marketing information by __________
c) Collecting and evaluating secondary data, as well as observing and conducting their own
surveys and experiments
48) International marketers may have difficulty finding useful secondary data in other countries
mainly because __________.
c)Some countries lack reliable research services---if they provide such services at all
49) Which of the following represents major public policy and ethics issues in marketing research?


52) What are the two major advantages of collected data through telephone interviews?


c) Descriptive
a) Causal
56) Rigid sequential approach to sampling and data collection comes under which research
a) Causal
a) Hypothesis
58) ………………….. is kind of prelude to the end result one hopes to achive and therefore it
requires considerable thoughts
c) Research problem

b) Research design
b) Exploratory

c) Descriptive

a) Causal
63) A powerful tool use in longitudinal research with exactly same people, group or organization
across time periods is called…………..
b) consumer panel
64) For primary data to be useful to marketers, it must be relevant, current, unbiased, and
________.
b) Accurate
65) . ………………… is the variation of the panel with data being collected from retail stores on
the product being stocked, shelf placed , sale and promotion , so on

68) What is TRP?


c) Observational
b) Information


b) Research design

a) Hypothesis

d) Both a and c
d) All of the above

c) Hypothesis

b) H0
d) A and B
80) The research which is “unstructured, qualitative, highly flexible “ is called as

b) Exploratory

c) Descriptive

a) It forces researcher to think deeply and specifically about the possible outcome of study

a) Qualitative

a) H0
b) Ha
d) B , C

d) All of the above
86) Data analysis in qualitative research as contrasted with qualitative research is generally
a) Theoretical
87) Which of the following is not general feature that characteristics most qualitative research?

90) Which of the following is true regarding the steps in the marketing research process?
b) There is nothing sacred about the number of steps in the research process as proposed by your
authors.
c) The steps in the marketing research process presented by your authors are universally accepted
and are adopted by the American Marketing Association.
d) A and C are true.
91) In establishing the need for marketing research, which of the following would serve as a good
decision rule for managers?
d) Weighing the value derived from the marketing research with the cost of obtaining the
marketing research information
92) Sometimes managers know that marketing research is not needed. In which of the following
cases would marketing research NOT be needed?
b) Brand managers wish to assess the profitability of different items in the product line and
this information is available from the internal reports system.
93) Under which of the following conditions will marketing research likely have greater value to
management?
e) All of the above
94) Which of the following statements is true regarding the marketing research step "defining the
problem"?

b) Gaps between what is supposed to happen and what did happen and gaps between what
did happen and what could have happened

c) Research objectives, when achieved, provide the information necessary to solve the
problem.



a)Primary

a) Biasness

a. Primary data collection problem

a) Sampling Frame
a) Probability



c) The population is first divided into strata, and then random samples are drawn from each
stratum
107) Despite the data glut that marketing managers receive, they frequently complain that they
lack ________.


d. Primary information is information collected specifically for the problem at hand.
110) Which of the following determines how representative a sample is of a population?

c. The sample plan

b) Secondary
113) Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding information collected for marketers?
114) A marketing information system (MIS) consists of people and procedures to assess information
needs, ________, and help decision makers analyze and use the information.
115) A good MIS balances the information users would ________ against what they really________
and what is ________.
116) Marketers must weigh carefully the costs of additional information against the
________resulting from it.
b) benefits
117) Four common sources of internal data include the accounting department, operations, the sales
force, and the ________.
118) Marketing information from which type of database usually can be accessed more quickly and
cheaply than other information sources?
D) internal
119) ________ is the systematic collection and analysis of publicly available information about
consumers, competitors, and developments in the marketing environment.


d) Causal research
123) Which of the following is an example of a free online database that a company could access in
order to develop marketing intelligence?
124) ________ is the systematic design, collection, analysis, and reporting of data relevant to a
specific marketing situation facing an organization.

126) Which step in the four-step marketing research process has been left out of the following list:
defining the problems and research objectives, implementing the research plan, and interpreting and
reporting the findings?

128) Managers often start with ________ research and later follow with ________ research.
130) Through which of these sources of information is a competitor LEAST likely to reveal
intelligence information?
131) To combat marketing intelligence efforts by competitors, Unilever Corporation is now

providing ________ to employees.
132) The objective of ________ research is to gather preliminary information that will help define
the problem and suggest hypotheses.
a) Exploratory
133) In the second step of the marketing research process, research objectives should be translated
into specific ________.


b) Secondary
NOT one of them?
a) Observational


MCQ-Contemporary Marketing Research
1) Which form of data below can usually be obtained more quickly and at a lower cost
than the others?
a) Primary
b) Survey research
d) Secondary
e) Observational research
a) Collected mostly via surveys

b) Expensive to obtain
c) Never purchased from outside suppliers
d) Always necessary to support primary data
a) Describe marketing problems or situations

b) Quantify observations that produce insights unobtainable through other forms of research
c) Find information at the outset in an unstructured way
d) Gather preliminary information that will help define problems
4) Your colleague is confused about using the marketing research process, as he knows
that something is wrong but is not sure of the specific causes to investigate. He seems to be
having problems with ________, which is often the hardest step to take.
a) Selecting a research agency to help

c) Developing the research plan
d) Determining a research approach
e) C and D
5) In the second step of the marketing research process, research objectives should be
translated into specific ________.
a) Financial amounts
b) Results that justify the means
c) Marketing goals
d) Time allotments
b) Used by competitors
c) That does not currently exist in an organized form
d) That already exists somewhere and is outdated
e) That the researcher can obtain through surveys and observation
7) Which form of data below can usually be obtained more quickly and at a lower cost
than the others?
a) Survey research
b) Syndicated
c) Secondary
d) Primary
e) Online marketing research
8) Your assistant wants to use secondary data exclusively for the current research
project. You advise him that the use of secondary data has some potential problems. Which of
the following is not one of them?
a)It may not be current.

b)It may not exist.
c)It may not be useable.
d)It may not be relevant
e)It is generally more expensive to obtain than primary data
a) Focus groups
b) Personal interviews
c) Questionnaires
d) Observational
research e)Internet surveys
10) Survey research, though used to obtain many kinds of information in a variety of
situations, is best suited for gathering ________ information.
a) Attitudinal
b) Personal
c) Preference
d) Exploratory
e) Descriptive
11) Typically, customer information is buried deep in separate databases, plans, and
records of many different company functions and departments. To overcome such problems,
which of the following could you try?
a) Customer satisfaction measurement

b) Synergetic meetings of the minds
d) More sophisticated software
e) Less marketing intelligence
a)Observation
b) Person-to-person interactions
c) The telephone
d) The Web
e) The mail
a)Interviewer bias is introduced

b)Under time pressures, some interviewers might cheat.
c)Potential respondents may refuse to participate
d)They are more expensive to conduct than mail questionnaires.
e)Interviewers tend to interpret answers similarly.
14) Which form of marketing research is flexible, allows for explanation of

difficult questions, and lends itself to showing products and advertisements?
b) Ethnographic research
c) Observational research
d) Online interviewing
e) Phone interviewing
a) Results take longer to tabulate and analyze.

b) Participants must be in a central location.
c) The cost of online focus groups is greater than that of most other qualitative research
methods.
d) The format of focus groups can be varied.
16) Mr. Ravi regularly conducts online marketing research at work. He has found that it
has several advantages over traditional methods. Which of these is not an advantage?
a)Respondents cannot remain anonymous.

b)It is more cost efficient.
c)It is easy to control who responds to surveys.
d) Report generation turnaround time is much
quicker e)It is easier for respondents to complete.

b) Primary and secondary.
c) Predictive and quantitative.
d) Qualitative and predictive.

b) Sampling error cannot be measured
c) Easiest population from which to obtain info is chosen
d) Everyone has an equal chance of selection
e) Reliance on the judgment of the researcher
a) Questionnaire
b) Moderator
c) Telephone interviewer
d) Live interviewer
e) Mechanical device
20) In marketing research, the ________ phase is generally the most expensive and most
subject to error.
a) Interpreting and reporting the findings

b) Exploratory research
c) Data collection
d) Planning
e) Data validation
21) Despite the data glut that marketing managers receive, they frequently complain
that
they lack ________.

b) Accurate and reliable information
c) Quality information
d) Valid
information e)Timely
information
22) The real value of a company's marketing research and information system lies in
the _____
a) Amount of data it generates

b) Marketing information system it follows
c) Efficiency with which it completes studies
d) Variety of contact methods it uses

b) Developing the research plan for collecting information
c) Implementing the research plan
e) Interpreting data and deciding on type of research
24) In CRM, findings about customers discovered through ________ techniques often
lead to marketing opportunities.
a) Data warehouse
b) Customer loyalty management
c) Customer relationship strategy
d) Data mining
e) Value network
25) What source of marketing information provides ready access to research information,
stored reports, shared work documents, contact information for employees and other
stakeholders, and more?
a) An extranet
c) The Internet
d) An internal database
e) An intranet
26) When managers use small convenience samples such as asking customers what they
think or inviting a small group out to lunch to get reactions, they are using ________.
a) Informal surveys
b) Experiments
c) Focus groups
d) Observation
e) Marketing intelligence
a) Primary data
b) Research specialists
c) Secondary data
d) Consumers willing to answer surveys
e) Intelligence limitations
28) Which type of research would be best suited for identifying which demographic
groups prefer diet soft drinks and why they have this preference?
a) Exploratory research
d) Ethnographic research
f) Survey research
29) As a small business consultant, you recommend to your clients that they use no-cost
methods of observation to gather market research. Which of the following are you not likely to
recommend your clients do?
a) Visit and socialize with competitors

b) Observe vehicle and pedestrian traffic.
c) Monitor competitors' advertising from local media
e) Evaluate their customer mix–how many and what kind of customers.

a) Newspaper articles.
b) Sales representative feedback.
c) Competitor intelligence
d) Trade journals.
e) Customer feedback.
31) The marketing research process consists of four steps. Which of the following is not
one of these steps?

b) Developing the research plan for collecting information.
c) Defining the problem and research objectives.
32) What do many researchers encounter when conducting market research in foreign
countries?
a) Some countries have poor roads that limit personal contacts.

b) Some cultures may not value marketing research.
c) Some countries have poor mail services
d) Some countries have few telephones, limiting access to respondents
e) All of the above
33) Ravi just completed reading a marketing research report about the top 25 countries
that purchase German products. What might the report say about international research with
these countries?
b) There is a lack of qualified research personnel.
c) The costs are higher than the benefits.
d) Interpretations of German quality are consistent among different countries.
e) It is on the decrease due to high costs.
34) Behavioural targeting, the practice of ________, is being used by more and more
companies.
a) Mining and analyzing data from data warehouses

b) Tracking customers' activities and rewarding customer loyalty
c) Observing and interacting with consumers in their natural environments
d) Managing customer relationships
e) Tracking consumers' online movements and using this information to target ads to
them
35) To consumers, research studies may appear to be little more than vehicles for
________.
a) Gathering names for resale

b) Building company image
c) Training future salespeople to work with people face-to-face
e) Criticizing competition
36) Qualitative research is exploratory research used to uncover consumer attitudes,

motivations and behavior. What techniques can be applied to obtain qualitative research?
a) Elicitation interviews.
b) One to one interviews.
c) Focus groups.
d) All of the above
a) Survey research/questionnaires; focus groups; in-depth interviews;

observational techniques; experimentation.
b) Video conferencing; focus groups; in-depth interviews; observational techniques.
c) Survey research/questionnaires; focus groups; in-depth interviews; observational
techniques; call centre feedback. d) All of the above.

b) Consumer panels; home audits; personal interviews; omnibus surveys.
c) Home audits; omnibus surveys; personal interviews; in-store video footage of
consumer behaviour.
d) Consumer panels; home audits; personal interviews; in-store video footage of
consumer behaviour.
e) All of the above
f) None of the above
a) Causal
b) Exploratory
c) Descriptive

b) Causal resources.
c) Macro environmental sources; micro environmental sources
a) Source of data; who collects the data; method of data collection; construct of research.
b) Source of data; who collects the data; method of data collection; construct of data.
c) Relevance of data; who collects the data; method of data collection; who paid for the
research.
d) Relevance of data; who collects the data; method of data collection; evidence of
careful work.
a) Experimentation; personal interview; Delphi technique.

b) Survey; interviews; experimentation.
d) Interviews and surveys; observation; Harrison methodology.
generate, refine and evaluate marketing actions; to monitor marketing performance; and to
improve understanding of the marketing process.
a) Marketer, agent and retailer
b) Demander, buyer and user
c) Specifier, influencer and user
c) Information technologies
d) Consumers
45) As marketing managers and researchers define the problem and set research
objectives, they should employ the following type(s) of research: __________
a)Exploratory research alone

b)Exploratory, descriptive and causal
research c)Descriptive research alone
d)Causal research alone
a) Information that has been collected for the specific purpose at hand
b)Information that has already been collected and recorded for another purpose and
is thus readily accessible
c)Information based on second-rate research
d)Information based solely on rumours
47) Small businesses and non-profit organisations on shoestring budgets nevertheless have
access to useful marketing information by __________
a)Relying exclusively on secondary data

b)Conducting informal surveys
c)Collecting and evaluating secondary data, as well as observing and conducting their
own surveys and experiments
d)Hiring a few highly-skilled researchers
48) International marketers may have difficulty finding useful secondary data in
other countries mainly because __________.
a)Secondary data are difficult to translate

b)Foreign consumers may be hostile to marketers
c)Some countries lack reliable research services---if they provide such services at
all d)Consumers tend to lie on surveys and in interviews, either deliberately or
inadvertently
49) Which of the following represents major public policy and ethics issues in
marketing research?
a) Intrusion on and abuse of consumer privacy
b) Representing database compilation and promotional pitches as 'pure' research
d) False claims and pushy sales representatives
a) Implement the research plan

b) Collect and analyse the data
c) Develop the research plan
d) Report the findings
a) Always collected before secondary data

c) Information that already exists
d) Data collected for other purposes
e) Usually collected through annual reports
52) What are the two major advantages of collected data through telephone
interviews?

b)Cost and response rate
c)Cost and speed of data collection
d)Flexibility and quantity of data collected
e)Control of interviewer effects and quantity of data collected
a) Expert surveys
b) Pilot study
c) Case studies
a) Causal
b) Exploratory
c) Descriptive
a) Causal
b) Exploratory
c) Descriptive
56) Rigid sequential approach to sampling and data collection comes under which
research
a) Causal
b) Exploratory
c) Descriptive
a) Hypothesis
b) Expenditure
c)Research problem
58) ………………….. is kind of prelude to the end result one hopes to achive and
therefore it requires considerable thoughts
a) Hypothesis
b) Expenditure
c)Research problem
a) Research proposal
b) Research design
c) a and b
d) a or b
a) Causal
b) Exploratory
c) Descriptive
a) Causal
b) Exploratory
c) Descriptive
a) Causal
b) Exploratory
c) Descriptive
63) A powerful tool use in longitudinal research with exactly same people, group or
organization across time periods is called…………..
a) Focus group
b) consumer panel
c) RSA
64) For primary data to be useful to marketers, it must be relevant, current, unbiased,
and
________.
a) Complete
b) Accurate
c) Inexpensive
d) Collected before secondary data
e) Experimental
65) . ………………… is the variation of the panel with data being collected from retail
stores on the product being stocked, shelf placed , sale and promotion , so on
a) Retail
shop audit
b) consumer panel c
TRP

b) consumer panel
c) TRP

b) consumer panel
c) TRP
68) What is TRP?

b) Television rating part
c) All of the above
d). Television Rating process
a)Survey
b)Informative
c) Observat
ional
d)Experimental
e)Causal
a) The media
b) Information
c) Market research
d) All of the above
a) Finance process
c) Business Process
a) Research process
b) Research design
c) Research proposal
a) Hypothesis
b) Expenditure
c) Research problem

d) Both a and c
a) Researcher’s experience
b) Practical issue that require solutions
c) Theory and past research
d) All of the above
a) Research design
c) Hypothesis
d) All of the above
a) Research questions
b) Research rim
c) Hypothesis
d) Operational definition
78) Following are characteristics of hypothesis except
a) Clarity
b) Simple
c) Consistent
b) H0
d) A and B
80) The research which is “unstructured, qualitative, highly flexible “ is called as a.

Causal
b) Exploratory
c) Descriptive

a) Causal
b) Exploratory
c) Descriptive
a) It forces researcher to think deeply and specifically about the possible outcome
of study
b) It simplifies the study

d) All of the above
a) Qualitative
b) Quantitative
c) Causal
a) H0
b) Ha
d) B,C
a) Depth interview
b) Focus group
c) Projective technique
d) All of the above
86) Data analysis in qualitative research as contrasted with qualitative

research is generally
a) Theoretical
b) Deductive
c) Applied
d) Inductive
87) Which of the following is not general feature that characteristics most
qualitative research?
a) Inflexible design
b) Holistic process
d) Personal contact
a) Less certain than from quantitative

b) Of little practice use
c) Seldom defensible
a) Defining the problem

b) Gathering the budget necessary to conduct the research
d) Getting approval from top management to do research
e) Finding an appropriate marketing firm to carry out the research project
90) Which of the following is true regarding the steps in the marketing research
process?
b) There is nothing sacred about the number of steps in the research process as
proposed by your authors.
c) The steps in the marketing research process presented by your authors are
universally
accepted and are adopted by the American Marketing Association. d) A and C are
true.
91) In establishing the need for marketing research, which of the following
would serve as a good decision rule for managers?
a) Ensuring that competitors are using marketing research, therefore a company considering
marketing research would not be at a competitive disadvantage b) Determining
the value to be derived from marketing research
c) Determining the cost of conducting marketing research
d) Weighing the value derived from the marketing research with the cost of
obtaining the marketing research information
e) Ensuring that subordinates are in favor of conducting the marketing research
92) Sometimes managers know that marketing research is not needed. In which of
the following cases would marketing research NOT be needed?
a) Competitors have introduced a successful new product and it is too late to respond.
b) Brand managers wish to assess the profitability of different items in the product line
and this information is available from the internal reports system.
c) There have been significant changes in the demographic characteristics of the market
since marketing research was last conducted.
d) A competitor has introduced a new innovative distribution system.
e) An internal analysis indicates that the company is losing distributors at an alarming rate.
93) Under which of the following conditions will marketing research likely have
greater value to management?
a) When the research helps clarify problems or opportunities

b) When the research identifies changes that are occurring in the marketplace among
consumers and/or competitors
c) When the research clearly identifies the best alternatives to pursue
d) When the research helps a company's brand establish a competitive advantage e) All
of the above
94) Which of the following statements is true regarding the marketing research step
"defining the problem"?
a) Defining the problem is the third most important step in the research process.
b) Defining the problem should be undertaken only after the project has been
approved by top management.
d) Defining the problem should be undertaken only after a sufficient number of firms have
been gathered to conduct the marketing research project.
e) Defining the problem is the eighth step in the marketing research process.
a) Gaps between what is supposed to happen and what did happen and gaps between
what is supposed to happen and what happened in the past.
b) Gaps between what is supposed to happen and what did happen and gaps
between what did happen and what could have happened
c) Gaps between what is happening now and what happened prior to the present
d) Gaps between what management desires and what stockholders desire
e) Gaps between what present consumers desire and what potential consumers desire

a) Research objectives, when achieved, will provide sufficient earnings to
obtain a reasonablereturn on investment.
b) Researchobjectives, when obtained, will ensure the viability of the marketing
research department.
c) Research objectives, when achieved, provide the information necessary to
solve the problem.
d) Research objectives are seldom achieved but should be stated as goals to be
sought.
e) Research objectives should never be put in writing until the fourth step of the
marketing research process.
a) There are four categories of research design.

c) There are five categories of research design.
d) There are eight categories of research design.
e) Research design may not be categorized.

a. Exploratory research is highly structured.
b. Exploratory research is very formal.
c. Exploratory research determines causality.
e. Exploratory research answers who, what, where, when, and how questions.
a)Primary
b) Second
ary c)Both a
and b
a) Biasness
b) sample
design c)Research
problem
d) All of the above

a. Primary data collection
problem b. Secondary collection
problem
c. a and b both
a) Sampling Frame
b) Sample
c) Sampling
d) All of the above
a) Probability
b) Non-Probability
c) Quota
d) Snowball
a) Probabilistic sampling
b) Stratified sampling
d) Cluster sampling
a) Simple random sampling

b) Stratified simple random sampling
c) Cluster sampling

a) The sample is first divided into strata, and then random samples are taken from each
stratum
b) Various strata are selected from the sample
c) The population is first divided into strata, and then random samples are drawn
from each stratum
d) None of these alternatives is correct.
107) Despite the data glut that marketing managers receive, they frequently complain that
they lack ________.

b) Timely information
c) Accurate information
d) Reliable information
e) Valid information
a. Causal research is the questions of who, what, where, when, and how.
b. Causal research is informal and unstructured.
d. Causal research describes marketing phenomena.
e. Causal research is the seventh step in the marketing research process.
a. Primary information is information gathered on school children in the primary

grades first through fifth.
b. Primary information refers to information that is collected in the early, or
primary, stages of the marketing research process.
c. Primary information is information that has already been collected for some
other purpose.
d. Primary information is information collected specifically for the
problem at hand.
e. Primary information is one of 12 different types of information sources.
110) Which of the following determines how representative a sample is of a

population?
a. The size of the sample

b. The sampling company from which the sample is acquired
c. The sample plan
d. The size of the sample relative to the size of the population
e. How varied the population is
111) Which of the following is true regarding the size of the sample?
a) There is no such thing as having a sample that is too large.

b) You should strive to have a sample that is at least 50 percent of the size of the population.
c) A sample size that is too large wastes research dollars; the sample size should be just
c) Large enough to give the researcher accurate results without wasting money.
d) Sample size is more important than the sample plan.
e) Only samples with large sample sizes may be considered representative samples.
a)Primary
b) Secondary
c) Both a and b
d)None of the above
113) Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding information collected
for marketers?
a) Many managers lack information of the right kind.

b) Most managers do not need more information.
c) Most managers need better information.
d) Many managers are burdened by data overload.
114) A marketing information system (MIS) consists of people and procedures to

assess information needs, ________, and help decision makers analyze and use the
information.
a) Experiment to develop information

b) Test market the information
d) Critique the needed information
e) Question the needed information
115) A good MIS balances the information users would ________ against what they
really
________ and what is ________.
a) Need; like; feasible

b) Like; can afford; needed
d) Need; can afford; useful
e) Use; have to use; available
116) Marketers must weigh carefully the costs of additional information against the
________
resulting from it.
a) organization
b) benefits
c) creativity
d) ethical issues
e) cost
117) Four common sources of internal data include the accounting department, operations,
the sales force, and the ________.
a) Owners
b) Stockholders
d) Competition
e) Web
118) Marketing information from which type of database usually can be accessed more
quickly and cheaply than other information sources?
a) External B)
C) Dun & Bradstreet's

D)internal
E) Hoover's
119) ________ is the systematic collection and analysis of publicly available information
about consumers, competitors, and developments in the marketing environment.
a) Marketing data
c) Sales management
d) Customer intelligence
e) Competitive intelligence
a) The advantage of using competitive intelligence is negligible.
b) All marketing intelligence is available for free.
c) Marketing intelligence relies upon privately held information.
e) Marketing intelligence gathering is more focused on gaining insights into consumer
activities than competitors' activities.
a) Suppliers
b) Resellers
c) Key customers
d) Causal research
e) Activities of competitors
a) Looking through competitors' garbage

b) Purchasing competitors' products
c) Monitoring competitors' sales
e) Talking with purchasing agents
123) Which of the following is an example of a free online database that a company could
access in order to develop marketing intelligence?
a) LexisNexis
b) ProQuest
c) Dialog
e) Hoover's
124) ________ is the systematic design, collection, analysis, and reporting of data relevant
to a specific marketing situation facing an organization.
a) The marketing information system

d) Competitive intelligence
e) Causal research

c) Developing the research plan for collecting information
d) Implementing the research plan
e) Hiring an outside research specialist
126) Which step in the four-step marketing research process has been left out of the
following list: defining the problems and research objectives, implementing the research plan,
and interpreting and reporting the findings?
a) Developing the research budget

b) Choosing the research agency
c) Choosing the research method
e) Comparing and contrasting primary and secondary data

b) Gather preliminary information that will help define problems
c) Uncover information at the outset in an unstructured way
d) Describe marketing problems or situations
e) Quantify observations that produce insights unobtainable through other forms of research
128) Managers often start with ________ research and later follow with ________
research.
b) Descriptive; causal
c) Descriptive; exploratory
d) Causal; descriptive
e) Causal; exploratory
129) Your colleague is confused about using the marketing research process, as he knows
that something is wrong but is not sure of the specific causes to investigate. He seems to be
having problems with ________, which is often the hardest step to take.
a) Developing the research plan

b) Determining a research approach
d) Selecting a research agency
130) Through which of these sources of information is a competitor LEAST likely to

reveal intelligence information?
a) Annual reports
b) Trade show exhibits
c) Web pages
d) Press releases
131) To combat marketing intelligence efforts by competitors, Unilever Corporation is

now providing ________ to employees.

b) Privacy blocks
c) Protection
d) Less information
e) A code of ethics
132) The objective of ________ research is to gather preliminary information that will
help define the problem and suggest hypotheses.
a) Exploratory
b) Descriptive
c) Causal
d) Primary
e) Secondary
133) In the second step of the marketing research process, research objectives should
be translated into specific ________.
a) Marketing goals
c) Dollar amounts
d) Research methods
e)Information sources
a) That already exists somewhere but is outdated

b) That does not currently exist in an organized form
d) Used by competitors
e) That researchers can only obtain through surveys and observation
a) Primary
b) Secondary
c) Observational
d) Experimental
e) Ethnographic
136) Your assistant wants to use secondary data exclusively for the current research project.
You advise him that the use of secondary data has some potential problems. Which of the
following is NOT one of them?
a) It may not exist.

b) It may not be relevant.
d) It may not be current.
Marketing Research – Exercises Introduction to marketing researtch: Scientific research approach ...
e) It may not be impartial.
a) Observational
b) Survey
c) Questionnaire
d) Focus groups
e) Personal interviews
a) Comes from traditional focus groups

c) Provides secondary data
d) Is most popular in the service sector
e) Provides data to marketers when observation is impossible
1. Introduction to marketing research: Scientific research approach and Problem definition

Multiple choice and True or false
1. The process of marketing involves all of the following EXCEPT:

a) Product
b) Production
c) Pricing
d) Distribution
e) Promotion
2. Problem identification research is undertaken to:

a. Help identify problems that are not apparent on the surface and yet exist or may exist in the
future.
b. Develop clear, concise marketing segments.
c. Help solve specific research problems.
d. Establish a procedure for development of a primary research plan.
3. Which of the issues listed below would be addressed using problem-solving research?
a. the need to understand market potential
b. the need to understand current cultural trends
c. the need to understand changes in consumer behavior
d. the need to determine where to locate retail outlets
4. Every marketing research project is unique in its own sense.

a. True
b. False
5. Marketing managers require the information from marketing research for various reasons. Which of the
following is/are the reason(s) for the requirement of that information?
Download free ebooks at bookboon.com
5
a. More and more companies are facing international competition.
b. Consumers have become very demanding and are asking for newer products and services all the time.
c. Managers are becoming distant from consumers due to layers in organizational hierarchy.
6
6. In contrast to marketing researchers, management decision-makers are more focused on:

a. scientific and technical analysis of emerging phenomenon
b. market performance
c. proactive research
d. long-term strategic investigation of marketplace
7. A research project can involve both problem identification and problem-solving research.
a. True
b. False
8. To convert a management dilemma into a research question what should a manager and researcher focus on:
a. The decision making environment
b. Alternative courses of action
c. Objectives of the decision makers
d. Consequences of alternative actions
e. None of the above
f. All of the above
9. Conducting marketing research guarantees success.

a. True
b. False
10. Marketing research can assist in the decision making process

a. True
b. False
7
Marketing Research – Exercises Exploratory research design
Solutions to chapter 1 questions

1. b
2. a
3. d
4. True
5. d
6. b
7. a
8. f
9. b
10. a
2. Exploratory research design

1. Which of these count as data?

a. The number of males and females in a group
b. The number of employees in an organization
c. A tape recorded interview
d. A poster for a brand of coffee
e. All of these
2. When the research objective of a study is to gain background information and to clarify the research problems
to create hypotheses, it is generally referred to as:
a. Exploratory research design
b. Descriptive research design
c. Causal research design
d. Experimental research design
e. All of the above
© UBS 2010. All rights reserved.
3. Which of the following is TRUE?

a. Secondary data are more accurate than primary data.
b. The researcher should attempt to gather secondary data before initiating a search for primary data.
10
c. Primary data are gathered by the researcher and secondary data by other researchers.
d. If a researcher obtains secondary data from the party who collected them, he or she is using a
secondary source of secondary data.
e. They are all false.
4. A quantitative research study aims to achieve all of the following, EXCEPT:

a. test various types of hypotheses
b. make accurate predictions about relationships between market factors and behaviour
c. generate sustainable competitive advantages for an organization
d. gain meaningful insights into the relationships between variables
e. validate the existing relationships between variables
5. Qualitative research techniques perform better for which of the following issue in comparison to quantitative
research techniques?
a. Developing generalizable findings
b. Gathering rich data
c. Distinguishing small differences
d. High reliability
e. High validity
6. The optimal number of participants for a focus group is:

a. 1-2 members
b. 3-7 members
c. 8-12 members
d. 12-20 members
e. 20-50 members
7. For which of the following projects would secondary data collection likely be sufficient in arriving at a
conclusion?
a. A bank wants to determine how the bank's customers feel about the new service they have introduced.
b. A fast-food franchisee wants to determine the market potential for a new type of specialty food in a
certain area.
c. A department store chain wants to know whether consumers will spend more money if a coffee shop
was introduced.
11
d. A pet food manufacturer wants to determine whether dogs will prefer a new type of dog food.
8. The basic rule for data collection process is:

a. Always start by consulting the governmental statistics website
b. Begin with primary data, then supplement if needed with secondary data.
c. Begin with secondary data, then proceed if necessary to collect primary data.
d. Always investigate external sources of secondary data first.
e. Design a field experiment to collect primary data.
9. Which of the following are advantages of individual depth interviews?

a. They allow deeper and candid discussion.
b. They eliminate the negatives that group influences have in a focus group.
c. None of the above
d. Both of the above (a and b)
10. Which of the following is not a project technique:

a. In-depth interview
b. Pictorial construction
c. Word association tests
d. Sentence completion tests
e. Role plays
12
Marketing Research – Exercises Solutions to chapter 2 questions

1. e
2. a
3. b
4. c
5. b
6. c
7. b
8. c
9. d
10. a
Please click the advert
12
Marketing Research – Exercises Conclusive research design
3. Conclusive research design

1. Which of the following methods can be used in administering survey instruments?

a. Personal interview
b. Mall intercept
c. Internet
d. Mail interview
e. All of the above
f. None of the above
2. All of the following are advantages of surveys, EXCEPT:

a. Surveys can tap into factors that are not directly observable
b. One can accommodate large sample sizes at relatively modest costs
c. Administration of surveys is relatively easy
d. One can make extensive use of probing questions using a survey
e. Survey data can be used with advanced statistical analysis
3. Most conclusive research designs involve qualitative research techniques.

a. True
b. False
15
Marketing Research – Exercises Conclusive research design
4. What does CATI stand for in marketing research?

a. Computer anonymized telephone interaction
b. Computing & analysing technical information
c. Computer associated telephone interaction
d. Computer assisted telephone interviewing
5. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of a self-administered survey?

a. Cost per survey
b. Respondent control
c. Interviewer-respondent bias
d. Flexibility
e. Anonymity in responses
6. What observation method is the most flexible?

a. Personal observation
b. Mechanical observation
c. Audit
d. All of the above
7. The survey method involves a structured questionnaire administered to a sample of a population and designed to
elicit specific information from respondents.
a. True
b. False
8. Descriptive designs involve mostly experimentation.

a. True
b. False
9. Cross-sectional designs and longitudinal designs are at times compared with a photograph and a movie
respectively.
a. True
b. False
10. Method of observation depends on:

a. Directness of approach
b. Respondent’s awareness of being observed
c. The rigour of information and structure
d. Observation recording method
e. All of the above
16
1. .

1. e
2. b
3. b
4. d
5. d
6. a
7. a
8. b
9. a
10. e
21
Marketing Research – Exercises Sampling
4. Sampling
1. In what of the following situations sampling plays an important role:

a. In identifying, developing, and understanding new marketing concepts that need to be investigated
b. In designing questionnaires
c. In reducing the time and money it will take to conduct a survey
d. In developing scale measurements used to collect primary data
e. All of the above
2. We use sampling many times during our daily lives.

a. True
b. False
3. The studies which cover all the members of are called ‘census’.
a. Elements
b. Population
c. Sample
d. Sampling frame
e. All of the above
4. A is a representation of the elements of the target population.

a. Population
b. Sampling frame
c. Sample
d. Element
e. All of the above
5. Non-sampling errors represent any type of bias that is attributable to mistakes in either drawing a sample or
demining the sample size.
a. True
b. False
6. Which of the following is a not a probability sampling technique

a. Systematic random sampling
b. Cluster sampling
c. Quota sampling
d. Stratified sampling
7. In which sampling technique a random number table is employed.

a. Snowball sampling
b. Simple random sampling
c. Systematic random sampling
d. Convenience sampling
22
Marketing Research – Exercises Sampling
8. In which technique selection of sample is left entirely to the researcher.

a. Convenience sampling
c. Stratified sampling
d. Cluster sampling
9. Which nonprobability sampling technique is called as the most refined nonprobability technique?
a. Convenience sampling
c. Judgement sampling
d. Quota sampling
e. Snowball sampling
10. In which of the sampling techniques each sampling unit has a known, nonzero chance of selection.
a. Probability sampling technique
b. Nonprobability sampling technique
23

1. e
2. a
3. b
4. b
5. b
6. c
7. b
8. a
9. d
10. a
24
Marketing Research – Exercises Measurement and scaling
1. Measurement and scaling

1. Most people use measurement in their daily lives.

a. True
b. False
2. The idea of assigning numbers can be helpful in:

a. allowing statistical testing
b. facilitating easier communication
c. Both a and b
d. None
3. The appropriateness of the raw data being collected depends directly on the scaling technique used by the
researcher.
a. True
b. False
27
Brain power
By 2020, wind could provide one-tenth of our planet’s electricity needs.
Already today, SKF’s innovative know- how is crucial to running a large
proportion of the world’s wind turbines.
Up to 25 % of the generating cThese can be reduced dramatically thanks to
Plug into The Power of Knowledge Engineering. Visit us at our systems for on-line condition monitoring and automatic lubrication. We
www.skf.com/knowledge help make it more economical to create cleaner, cheaper energy out of thin
air.
By sharing our experience, expertise, and creativity, industries can boost

performance beyond expectations.
Therefore we need the best employees who can meet this challenge!
The Power of Knowledge Engineering
28
4. Which of the following scale has assignment property?

a. Nominal
b. Ordinal
c. Interval
d. Ratio
e. All of the above
5. The interval scale possesses all of the below properties, except:

a. Assignment
b. Order
c. Distance
d. Origin
e. All of the above
6. The origin property refers to a numbering system where zero is the displayed or referenced starting point in the
set of possible responses.
a. True
b. False
7. Which among the following is not comparative scaling technique?

a. Paired comparison
b. Rank order
c. Constant sum scale
d. Q-sort
e. Stapel scale
8. Which among the following is not a noncomparative scaling technique?

a. Likert
b. Stapel
c. Semantic differential
d. Rank order
9. Respondent characteristics such as intelligence, education does not have any affect the test score.
a. True
b. False
10. Validity refers to scale consistency over a period of time.

a. True
b. False
29

1. a
2. c
3. a
4. e
5. d
6. a
7. e
8. d
9. b
10. b
32
Marketing Research – Exercises Questionnaire design
6. Questionnaire design
1. A questionnaire is a formalized set of questions involving one or more measurement scales designed to collect
specified secondary data.
a. True
b. False
2. The first step in developing a questionnaire is to specify the information needed in researchable format.
a. True
b. False
3. In which of the following interviewing methods most complex question scales can be used easily?
a. Personal interviews
b. Telephone interviews
c. Mail interviews
d. Online interviews
4. Unstructured questions are also called as:

a. Close ended
b. Open ended
c. Both
d. None
5. Open ended questions are mostly used in:

a. Exploratory research
b. Conclusive research
c. Both
d. None
6. What should be avoided when developing a questionnaire?

a. Complex words
b. Ambiguous words
c. Leading questions
d. Generalizations
e. All of the above
33
Marketing Research – Exercises Questionnaire design
7. Double barrelled questions should be avoided in questionnaire development.

a. True
b. False
8. The forward and opening questions are highly important in gaining respondents’ trust and making them feel
comfortable with the study.
a. True
b. False
9. Most socioeconomic and demographic questions are defined as:

a. Identification information
b. Specific information
c. Classification information
d. All of the above
10. A questionnaire should not be used in the field survey without being adequately pilot tested.
a. True
b. False
34

1. b
2. a
3. a
4. b
5. a
6. e
7. a
8. a
9. c
10. a
35
Marketing Research – Exercises Data preparations and preliminary data analysis
7. Data preparation and preliminary data analysis

1. Most market research studies can be solved only by collecting secondary data.
a. True
b. False
2. Which of the following steps is not involved in fieldwork?

a. Selection of fieldworkers
b. Training of fieldworkers
c. Supervision of fieldworkers
d. Evaluation of fieldworkers
e. All of the above
3. Probing helps in motivating the respondent and helps focus on a specific issue.
a. True
b. False
Fast-track your career
38
39
4. Which of the following is not an appropriate probing technique?

a. Repeating the question
b. Repeating the respondents’ reply
c. Forcing the respondent to remember
d. Eliciting clarification
e. Using objective/neutral questions or comments
5. One of the major editing problem concerns with faking of an interview.

a. True
b. False
6. How can a researcher avoid and cross-check for fake interviews?

a. Use complex scales
b. Use dichotomous questions
c. Use only close ended questions
d. Use few open-ended questions
7. What types of questions are relatively hard to code?

a. Multiple choice questions
b. Dichotomous questions
c. Open-ended questions
d. Likert scale based questions
8. Data cleaning involves which of the following.

a. Substituting missing value with a neutral value
b. Substituting an imputed response by following a pattern of respondent’s other responses
c. Casewise deletion
d. Pairwise deletion
e. All of the above
9. Categorical variables involve what of the following scales?

a. Nominal and ordinal
b. Nominal and interval
c. Nominal and ratio
d. Ordinal and ratio
e. Ordinal and interval
f. Interval and ratio
40
10. Categorical variables involve what of the following scales?

a. Nominal and ordinal
b. Nominal and interval
c. Nominal and ratio
d. Ordinal and ratio
e. Ordinal and interval
f. Interval and ratio
© UBS 2010. All rights reserved.

41

1. b
2. f
3. a
4. c
5. a
6. d
7. c
8. e
9. a
10. f
42
Marketing Research – Exercises Report preparation and presentation
1. Report preparation and presentation

1. Marketing research report is the bridge between researcher and manager with regard to the research findings.
a. True
b. False
2. A project can still be called successful, even if the research results are not effectively communicated using the
research report.
a. True
b. False
3. Many times managers judge the research by the quality of the report.
a. True
b. False
4. While writing the report, researcher should empathize with how the manager will be reading and interpreting
the report?
a. True
b. False
5. Which of the following must be kept in mind when writing a marketing research report?
a. Empathizing skills
b. Structure and logical arguments
c. Objectivity
d. Professional presentation
e. All of the above
6. Many consider executive summary as the soul of the research report?

a. True
b. False
7. Executive summary should involve all of the following, except:

a. Why and how the research was carried out
b. What was done to manage fieldworkers
c. What was found
d. What can be interpreted and acted upon by the manager
45
Marketing Research – Exercises Report preparation and presentation
8. Which of the following sections in report should provide background information to the research?
a. Research methodology
b. Results
c. Conclusion
d. Introduction
9. Pilot testing should be discussed in which of the following sections of the report.
a. Introduction
b. Research methodology
c. Results
d. Conclusion
10. Researcher should explain any jargons used in the report succinctly.
a. True
b. False
46

1. a
2. b
3. a
4. a
5. e
6. a
7. b
8. d
9. c
10. a
47
50
50
MARKETING MANAGEMENT
MCQ
1. Labeling, packaging are associated with:
Price mix
Product mix
Place mix
Promotion mix
2.______________ set(s) the floor for the price that the company can charge for its product.
Supply
Demand
Costs
Nonprofit factors
3. Companies facing the challenge of setting prices for the first time can choose between two
broad strategies: market-penetration pricing and ________.
Market-level pricing
Market-competitive pricing
Market-skimming pricing
Market-price lining
4. In the maturity phase of the PLC, a marketing manager should consider:
dropping the product and moving on to the next product winner.

modifying the market, product, and marketing mix.
expanding R & D.
pricing to penetrate the market.
5. The stage of the PLC characterized by overcapacity, greater competition, and the eventual
elimination of weaker competitors is called the:
Decline stage.
Introduction stage.
Growth stage.
Maturity stage.
6. Which of the product is in the decline stage of PLC?
HD TVs
Tata Salt
I- phone
Music CDs
7. Which of the following is not a type of decision usually made during the product development
stage?
Branding
Product positioning
Packaging
Product screening
8. All of the following are different ways a firm can obtain new products, except which one?
By acquiring a whole new company

A firm can obtain a new product through patents
A firm can obtain a new product by licensing someone else's new product
A firm can obtain a new product by using the R&D department of other firms in the
same industry.
9. Original products, product improvements, product modifications, and new brands that a firm
develops through its own research and development efforts are called:
new products.
concept products.
altered products.
supplemental products.
10. To create successful new products, a company must understand consumers, markets, &
competitors and:
develop a great advertising campaign.
have a strong Web site to push the product.
adopt a push rather than pull promotional concept.
develop products that deliver superior value to consumers.
11. ________________ is screening new-product ideas in order to spot good ideas and
Drop poor ones as soon as possible.
Idea generation
Concept development and testing
Idea screening
Brainstorming
12. A ___________________ is a detailed version of the idea stated in meaningful
Consumer terms.
Product idea
Product image
Product concept
Product feature
13. If a company wishes to test its positioning strategy, advertising, distribution, pricing,
branding and packaging, and budget levels, it can do so during which of the following stages of
the new-product development process?
Commercialization
Test marketing
Product development
Concept testing
14. Sterilization packaging systems have an impact on:
Instruments
Healthcare acquired infection
Healthcare costs
All of the above
15. All of the following are accurate descriptions of reasons why new products fail, except which
one?
Although the market size was correctly estimated, the product idea itself was not good.
The actual product was not designed as well as it should have been.
The new product was priced too high.
The new product was advertised poorly.
16. Which of the following is NOT a price adjustment strategy?

Segmented pricing
Promotional pricing
Free samples
Geographical pricing
17. Differentiation in pricing for various geographical customer

Price skimming
Psychological pricing
Pricing variations
18. When Pepsi came out with Pepsi Blue and priced it at half price to attract buyers they were
using, Pepsi was using ________.
Market-skimming pricing
Market-penetration pricing
New-product pricing
Discount pricing
19. _____ is a period of market acceptance and increasing profits.
Product development
Maturity
Growth
Introduction
20. _____ begins when the company finds and develops a new-product idea. During product
development, sales are zero and the company's investment costs mount.
Introduction
Growth
Maturity
Product development
21. Technological advances, shifts in consumer tastes, and increased competition, all of which
reduce demand for a product, are typical of which stage in the PLC?
Decline stage
Introduction stage
Growth stage
Maturity stage
22. A „penetration pricing‟ strategy will set an initially high price to „cream off‟ as much revenue
as possible from the early purchasers.
True
False
New products.
Concept products.
Altered products.
Supplemental products.
24. As a product reaches its decline stage of the PLC, management may decide to __________
the product, which means reducing various costs and hoping that sales
hold up.
drop
harvest
cultivate
25. The stage in the product life cycle that focuses on using a cost-plus formula and creating
product awareness and trial is the:
decline stage.
introduction stage.
growth stage.
maturity stage.
26. The stage in the product life cycle where the strategic focus is on market penetration and
building intensive distribution is the:
decline stage.
introduction stage.
growth stage.
maturity stage
27. One of the challenges presented by the product life cycle for a product is that of new-product
development.
True
False
28. One study found that the number one success factor for new-product introduction is a unique,
superior product.
True
False
29. Idea screening is generally recognized to be the first step in the new-product development
process.
True
False
30. In terms of the PLC, the growth stage is a period of rapid market acceptance and increasing
profits.
True
False
31. If a company were to change characteristics of the product such as quality, features,or style, it
would most likely do this in the maturity phase of the product life cycle.
True
False
32. Introducing the new product into the market takes place in which stage of the new product
development process?
commercialization
test marketing
marketing strategy
product development
33. Looking at the sales history of similar products and surveying market opinion are tools used at
which stage in the new-product development process?
concept development and testing

commercialization
business analysis
marketing strategy development
34. Presenting new-product ideas to consumers in symbolic or physical ways to measure their
reactions occurs during which of the following stages?
idea generation
concept testing
marketing strategy
screening
35. A ___________________ is a detailed version of the idea stated in meaningful consumer

terms.
product idea
product image
product concept
product feature
36. One reason that idea screening is a critical stage in the new-product development process is
that:
Product-development costs rise greatly in later stages and the company only wants those
products that can succeed.
Competitors can quickly steal ideas so the company wants only those ideas that can be
protected with patents.
International competition and markets demand that all ideas be culturally sensitive.
The Federal government carefully monitors each company‟s idea screening process to make
sure no national security matters are at stake.
37. The systematic search for new-product ideas is characteristic of which stage in the new-
product development process?
idea screening
idea generation
business analysis
38. To achieve the marketing objectives for the brand and satisfy the desires of consumers, the
________ and functional components of packaging must be chosen correctly.
characters
logo
aesthetics
brand name
39. A label performs several functions for a product. These include all of the following EXCEPT
________.
grades
promotes
describes
classifies
40. To be branded, physical products must be differentiated.
True
False
41. Packaging is all the activities of designing and producing the container for a product.
True
False
42. Packaging has been called the fifth “P” by marketers because it can be an element of product
strategy.
True
False
43. Labels can identify the product and must contain legal statements that under various Federal
laws cannot be misleading, false, or deceptive.
True
False
44. _____ involves designing and producing the container or wrapper for a product.
Packaging
Product line
Service
Branding
45. Like New Products wants to improve its packaging after reading customer responses to its
customer opinion poll. Which is not a function of packaging?
Its purpose is to contain and protect the product.
It contains the brand mark.
It protects children.
It determines product quality.
46. At the very least, the _____ identifies the product or brand. It might also describe several
things about the product.
line extension
social marketing
label
specialty product
47. Some analysts see _____ as the major enduring asset of a company, outlasting the
company‟s specific products and facilities.
brands
convenience products
specialty products
unsought products
48. Chicken of the Sea brand tuna sells more than the same size Kroger brand tuna even
though the Kroger tuna costs Rs.0.15 less per can. This is known as brand _____.
extension
equity
specialty
service
49. Branding assists buyers in numerous ways. Which of the following is not a direct
consumer benefit derived from branding?
Brand names raise awareness and increase consumer interest.

Brand names increase shopper efficiency.
Brand names convey product quality.
Branding enables suppliers to attract loyal and profitable set of customers.
50. What elements constitute a brand?

Name, design, style, words or symbols, singly or collectively that distinguish one
product from another.
Design, style, or symbols, singly or collectively that distinguish one product from another.
Name, design, style, words or symbols that distinguish one product from another.
Name, words or symbols, singly or collectively that distinguish one product from another.
51. At the introduction stage of the Product Life Cycle (PLC), which of the following are the
marketer‟s two main priorities?
Launch planning and creating shelf space.

Generating awareness and stimulating responses.
Launch planning and generating awareness.
Creating shelf space and generating awareness.
52. In the growth stage of a product life cycle which of the following statements are applicable?
1) There is a rapid increase in sales.
2) Effects of repeat purchasing are seen.
3) Increased competitor activity is found.
4) Profits begin to rise.
5) Good product management is required.
Options
1,2,3,4
1,3,4,5,
1,2,3,4,5,
1,2,3,5,
53. Which of the following is NOT a method of idea generation?
Morphological analysis.
Synthetics.
Synetics.
54. Launching a product in a small part of the market is called:
Competitive response.
Competitive analysis.
Test marketing
55. Starting with one or two areas and then adding new regions to the distribution area is called:
Rolling launch.
Sprinkler strategy.
Test marketing.
56. Which of the following is not a stage in the product life cycle?
Introduction.
Withdrawal.
Growth.
Maturity.
57. Of the following, which statement(s) would not support a market-skimming policy for a new
product?
The product's quality and image support their higher prices

Enough buyers want the products at that price
Competitors are not able to undercut the high price
Competitors can enter the market easily
58. Choosing a price based upon its short-term effect on current profit, cash flow, or return on
investment reflects which of the following pricing objectives?
current profit maximization

product quality leadership
market share leadership
survival
59. Pricing to cover variable costs and some fixed costs, as in the case of some automobile
distributorships that sell below total costs, is typical of which of the following pricing objectives?

survival
60. If a company believes that the company with the largest market share will enjoy the lowest
costs and highest long-run profits, that company will probably choose which of the following
pricing objectives as their primary course of action?
survival
61. ________ pricing is the approach of setting a low initial price in order to attract a large
number of buyers quickly and win a large market share.
Market-skimming
Value-based
Market-penetration
Leader
62. Freight-absorption pricing is used for ________ and ________.
Services; installations
Market penetration; holding on to increasingly competitive markets
Market penetration; higher profit margins
holding on to increasingly competitive markets; higher profit margins
63. PoolPak produces climate-control systems for large swimming pools. The company's
customers are more concerned about service support for maintaining a system than its initial
price. PoolPak may use this knowledge to become more competitive through ________.
Value pricing
Target costing
Cost-plus pricing
Skimming pricing
64. Which of the following is not a price adjustment strategy?
Seasonal pricing
segmented pricing
Free samples
65. Which of the following statements about break-even analysis is true?
It is a technique marketers use to examine the relationship between supply and demand
It is a technique used to calculate fixed costs
It is calculated using variable costs, the unit price, and fixed costs
It determines the amount of retained earnings a company will have during an accounting period
66. Big Mike's Health Food Store sells nutritional energy-producing foods. The price of the
products sold varies according to individual customer accounts and situations. For example,
long-time customers receive discounts. This strategy is an example of ________.
Cost-plus pricing
Penetration pricing
Dynamic pricing
Everyday low pricing
67. Which of the following is not an effective action that a company can take to combat a
competitor's price cut on a product?
Launch a low-price "fighter brand"

Improve quality and increase price
Raise perceived value
Improve quality and decrease price
68. Magic Box Company wants to provide better customer service while trimming distribution
costs through teamwork, both inside the company and among all the marketing channel
organizations. Magic Box is thinking of ________.
Disintermediation
Integrated logistics management
Customer relationship management
Vendor-managed inventory
69. Company building its pricing strategy around the experience curve would be most likely to
________.
Engage in break-even pricing

Engage in value-added pricing
Price its products high
Price its products low
70. Low-interest financing and longer warranties are both examples of ________.
Allowances
Promotional pricing
Discounts
Segmented pricing
71. Typically producers who use captive-product pricing set the price of the main product
________ and set ________ on the supplies necessary to use the product.
High; low markups

High; high markups
Low; low markups
Low; high markups
72. A car maker's strategy of advertising a basic vehicle model with few conveniences and
comforts at a low price to entice buyers and then convincing customers to buy higher-priced
models with more amenities is an example of which of the following?
Captive product pricing

Optional product pricing
Product line pricing
Segmented pricing
73. While costs set the lower limit of prices, __________and__________ set the upper limit.
Price and value

Interest rates and inflation
Market and demand
Supply and demand
74. What is value-based pricing?
Companies base their prices on buyers' perceptions of value, not their own costs
Offering just the right combination of quality and good service at a fair price
Companies set prices to make a target profit and to get some value for their production and
marketing efforts
Companies set prices to break-even on production and marketing costs
75. Price is a major factor affecting buyer choice that goes by many names, such as __________.
Assessments, commissions, dues and fees

Rent, salaries, tuition and wages
Honoraria, interest, income taxes and premiums
All of the above
76. Which of the following is not one of the general pricing approaches?
Competition-based
Cost-based
Relationship pricing
Penetration pricing
Value-based
77. If an abattoir sold offal to a pet food manufacturer and hence reduced the costs of the final
price of the meat to consumers, this would be an example of ________ pricing strategy.
Bundle
By-product
Optional
Captive
78. Pricing products that must be used together with a main product is called ________ product
pricing.
By-product
Optional
Bundle
Captive
79. Price elasticity of demand means __________.
How much demand will change in response to a price change?

The higher the price, the lower the demand
That demand changes greatly with a small increase in price
That demand hardly changes with a small increase in price
80. Which of the following is not one of the product mix and service mix pricing strategies?
Bundle
By-product
Product line
Complementary
82. ______________ costs do not vary with production levels or sales levels.
Total
Variable
Fixed
All of the above
None of the above
83. The objective of price can be:
Profit
Market share
Cash Flow
All the above
None of the above
82. Mark up pricing is a pricing _________ & geographical pricing is a ____________.
Method, strategy
Strategy, method
Process, policy
Policy, process
None of above
83. The three layers of packaging are:
Primary, Secondary & tertiary packaging

Primary, Secondary & shipping packaging
Shipping, inner & outer packaging
None of above
84. Sales are declining, profits are also declining & competition is increasing. These indicate
that the product may be in:
Introduction stage
Decline stage
Growth stage
Maturity stage
All of above
85. The term brand equity refers to:
The value attached to the brand

The financial value of a company's brand
It's level of popularity
All of above
86. Companies can create brand equity for their products by making them ______________.
Memorable,
Easily recognizable
Superior in quality
Reliability
All of above
87. A brand name is one of the elements of the:
Discounted product
Core benefit
Augmented product
Actual product
88. Identify the commercialization decision which includes decisions regarding locality, region,
nationally or even internationally launching the product.
Why to launch the product?

How to launch the product?
Where to launch the product?
When to launch the product?
89. Which of the following is the leak-proof packaging that provides additional protection for
the primary container?
Primary packaging
Secondary packaging
Transport packaging
Decorative
90. Gift baskets are the example of which one of the following types of packaging?
Decorative
Secondary
Shipping
Primary
91. The label on a pack of frozen peas says, 'packed within an hour of picking'. These words are
used:
To promote the product
To satisfy legal requirements
To provide information
To fulfill ethical requirement
92. Packaging used for the ice creams is an example of which of the following?
Decorative packaging
Transport packaging
Secondary packaging
Primary packaging
93. Which of the following is a name, term, sign, symbol, design, or a combination of these, that
identifies the product or service?
Label
Co-brand
Brand
Product
94. The concept of price is central to:
Administration
Management
Macroeconomics
Microeconomics
95. Which of the following marketing mix element generates revenue?
Promotion
Price
Place
Product
96. ABC Company priced the product as of Rs. 19.99 instead of Rs.20. Which of the following
pricing techniques is ABC Company using?
Dodging pricing
Deceptive pricing
Premium pricing
Psychological pricing
97. To pay premium price for the product customers require:
Allowance
Flawless performance
Discounts
High promotion,
98. Which of the following is NOT an objective of discounts?
Reward valuable customers

Reward competitors
Move out-of-date stock
Increase short-term sales
99. 3/10 net 30 is an example of which of the following?
Seasonal discount
Trade discount
Quantity discount
Cash discount
100. A company is providing warehousing facility to its channel members. The company is
using which of the following?
Seasonal discount
Trade discount
Quantity discount
Cash discount
101. To attract customers into stores, the store advertises its milk at a price less than cost, hoping
that customers will purchase other groceries as well. Milk is acting as which of the following?
Premium item
On- sale item
Discounted item
Loss leader
102. Many companies try to set a price that will maximize current profit. This strategy assumes
that company has knowledge of it‟s:
Cost and production function

Revenue and cost function
Demand and market function
Demand and cost function
103. Which one of the following 4Ps of marketing mix involves in decisions regarding list
prices, discounts, allowances and payment periods or credit terms?
Product
Price
Place
Promotion
104. Identify the stage of product life cycle in which sales are at peak.
Introduction
Growth
Maturity
Decline
105. Which of the followings are considered defensive in nature?
Maturity and growth stage

Maturity and decline stage
Introduction and maturity stage
Introduction and growth stage
106. Standard Cable cut back advertising expenditures to minimum level and reduced the
number of channel members for its industrial cable product. These actions are indicative of a
product in which of the following stage of its life cycle?
Introduction
Growth
Maturity
Decline
107. Highest percentage of ideas for new products originates with/from which of the following
sources?
Top management
Customers
Competitors
Employees
108. Which of the following are the people who purchase new products almost as soon as the
products reach the market?
Innovators
Late majority
Early majority
Late adopters
109. Which of the following is NOT one of the stages that customers go through in the process
of adopting a new product?
Desire
Awareness
Evaluation
Interest
110. Using one brand name for several related products is known as which of the following?
Family branding
Group branding
Combination branding
Premium branding
111. Which of the following price is quoted to a potential buyer, usually in written form?
Wholesale price
Market price
List price
Retail price
112. Mr. A, marketer of XYZ Co. is selling his ice-cream in the market at Rs.20, 20% more than
his competitors‟ price. Still his sales are increasing. Now his aim is to maintain same pricing.
He enjoys which type of leadership?
Promotion leadership
Price leadership
Cost leadership
Product leadership
113. Market-penetration pricing will likely to be used most in selling which of the following
items?
Specialty
Convenience
Unsought
Pharmaceuticals
114. Customer cost will be considered as which of the following Ps of marketing mix?
Product
Price
Place
Promotion
115. Suppose Nestle wants to expand its line of food products. The managers conduct surveys
from customers to determine which food items would appeal to customers. Nestle is currently in
which of the following phase of new product development?
Idea generation
Idea screening
Test marketing
Business analysis
116. Which of the following stage of product life cycle is most expensive?
Introduction
Growth
Maturity
Decline
117. All of the following are true about price EXCEPT:
Price is independent of the other elements of the marketing mix

Price is the monetary value of a product
Price is most flexible tool in the marketing mix
Price is marketing mix element which produces revenue
118. Which of the following is price reduction offered when an order is placed in slack/drooping
period?
Cash discount
Trade discount
Quantity discount
Seasonal discount
119. Surf Excel was named to take the benefit of the existing brand value of Surf. This strategy
can be classified as _______________ strategy.
Brand growth
Brand extension
Branding
Brand level
120. Though “Pizza Huts” are located in posh, air- conditioning premises, they continue to call
themselves as “Pizza Huts”. This is to take advantage of
Local sentiment of wanting to eat in huts

Brand value
Brand recognition
Brand extension
121. A ________ is an elaborated version of the idea expressed in consumer terms.
test brand
product concept
product idea
new idea
122. Gillette Venus Embrace can best be described as ________, rather than either a
repositioning or a new-to-the-world product.
Improvements and revisions of existing products

new product lines
additions to existing product lines
cost reductions
product adaptations
123. In _____, consumers who initially try the product at no cost are reoffered the product, or a
competitors' product, at slightly reduced prices.
simulated test marketing

commercialization
sales-wave research
controlled test marketing
124. ________________ calls for finding 30 to 40 qualified shoppers and questioning them
about brand familiarity and preferences in a specific product category.
Sales-wave research
Focus group research
Controlled test marketing
Simulated test marketing
125. The ultimate way to test a new consumer product is to put it into full-blown ___________.
test markets
screening
sales-wave research
controlled test marketing
126. Your firm has chosen a few representative cities, and the sales force tries to sell the trade on
carrying the product and giving it good shelf exposure. The company puts on a full advertising
and promotion campaign. Total costs exceed Rs.1 million. Your firm has decided to conduct a
___________________.
business analysis.
commercialization.
test market
controlled test market.
127. NPD stands for:
New Product Department.

National Production Division.
New Product Development.
128. Providing a description of a product and its attributes and inviting comment from
consumers is called:
Attribute testing.
Market testing
Concept testing.
129. What are the two ways that a company can obtain new products?
new-product development and acquisition

market mix modification and research and development
internal development and merger
line extension and brand management
service development and product extension
130. Which of the following is not a potential cause of the failure of a new product?
an incorrectly positioned product

an underestimated market size
ineffective advertising
higher than anticipated costs of product development
a poorly designed product
131. The creation of a successful new product depends on a company's understanding of its
________ and its ability to deliver ________ to customers.
product life cycle, legal responsibilities, and social responsibilities; innovations
competitors, distributors, and employees; new styles
product, marketing mix, and marketing strategy; functional features
customers, brands, products; product images
customers, competitors, and markets; superior value
132. Executives, manufacturing employees, and salespeople are all examples of ________.
core members of innovation management systems

internal sources for new-product ideas
research and development team members
external sources for new-product ideas
133. Your firm wants to use external sources for new product ideas. After consulting with a
friend you learn that all of the following are common external sources except ________.
competitors
suppliers
trade shows and magazines
the firm's executives
customers
134. ABC has just brainstormed a large number of ideas for adding new products and services
after visiting several buying fairs. The owners will begin the first idea-reducing stage, called
________ , to arrive at a realistic number to adopt.
idea generation
concept development
product concept
idea screening
135. In the concept testing stage of new-product development, a product concept in ________
form is presented to groups of target consumers.
final
commercial
prototype
physical or symbolic
market-tested
136. After concept testing, a firm would engage in which stage in developing and marketing a
new product?

idea screening
product development
test marketing
business analysis
137. During which stage of new-product development is management most likely to estimate
minimum and maximum sales to assess the range of risk in launching a new product?

business analysis
test marketing
concept testing
138. In the ________ stage of new-product development, products often undergo rigorous tests
to make sure that they perform safely and effectively or that consumers will find value in them.

product development
business analysis
idea generation
marketing mix
139. Under what circumstances might it be wise for a company to do little or no test marketing?
When management is not sure of the marketing program.

When the costs of developing and introducing the product are low.
When the product has no substitutes and is new in its category.
When management is not sure of the product.
140. The major purpose of test marketing is to provide management with the information needed
to make a final decision about ________.
whether to launch the new product
which market to compete in
how to develop a market strategy
how long to compete in the market
141. Which of the following costs is most likely associated with the commercialization stage of
new-product development?
paying groups of target consumers for product feedback

developing a prototype of the product
identifying target markets
building or renting a manufacturing facility
142. Which of the following is necessary for successful new-product development?
a market pioneer mindset and a holistic approach

a customer-centered, team-based, systematic approach
an innovation management system and sequential product development
a team-based, innovation-management approach
a holistic and sequential product development approach
143. Increasing profits will most likely occur at which stage of the PLC?
Introduction
Growth
Maturity
Decline
145. Which of the following cannot be described by the PLC concept?
product form
style
product image
brand
146. The PLC concept can be applied by marketers as a useful framework for describing how
________.
Product ideas are developed

Products and markets work
To develop marketing strategies
Concept testing is conducted
147. In the ________ stage, the firm faces a trade-off between high market share and high
current profit.
maturity
Introduction
Growth
Decline
148. In which stage of the PLC will promotional expenditures be high in an attempt to react to
increasing competition?
decline
maturity
Introduction
Growth
149.. Which stage in the PLC normally lasts longer and poses strong challenges to the marketing
managers?
decline
maturity
Introduction
Growth
150. Most products in the marketplace are in the ________ stage of the product life cycle.
maturity
decline
Introduction
Growth
151. Sales decline in the decline stage of the PLC because of technological advances, increased
competition, and ________.
shifts in the economy

shifts in consumer tastes and preferences
new market pioneers
shifts in unemployment
marketing mix modifications
152. A manufacturer with a product in the decline stage of the product life cycle might decide to
________ if it has reason to hope that competitors will leave the industry.
harvest the product

maintain the product without change
drop the product
search for replacements
153. Mattel's Barbie is an example of an age-defying product. Barbie, simultaneously timeless

and trendy, is in the ________ stage of the PLC.
Growth
Introduction
Maturity
Decline
154. Schmidt Steel Corporation lacks the confidence, capital, and capacity to launch its new
steel product into full national or international distribution. Even though test market results look
promising, what will be management's next step?
seek the help of a nationally known consultant

retest the product in additional markets
secure a loan to provide confidence, capital, and capacity
develop a prototype
develop a planned market rollout over time
155. A company getting ready to launch a new product must make several decisions. However,
the company must first decide on _____.
whether to launch the product in a single location

whether to launch the product in a region
whether to launch the product into full national or international distribution
timing of the new product introduction
156. Marketers need to position their brands clearly in target customers‟ minds. The strongest
brands go beyond attributes or benefit positioning. On which of the following basis the products
are positioned?
Desirable benefit
Good packaging
Strong beliefs and values
Customer image
157. The purpose of idea generation is to create a _____ of ideas. The purpose of succeeding
stages is to _____ that number.
Small number; reduce
Small number; increase
Large number; increase
Large number; reduce
158. During which phases of the product life cycle are costs thought to be low on a per customer
basis?
Maturity and Decline.

Growth and Maturity.
Product Development and Introduction.
Introduction and Growth.
159. During which stage of the product life cycle does the company attempt to maximize market
share?
Introduction
Decline
Growth
Maturity
160. During which stage of the product life cycle does a company seek to build selective
distribution?
Introduction
Decline
Growth
Maturity
1. Modern marketing is _________
• [A] price oriented
• [B] consumer oriented
• [C] product oriented
• [D] profit oriented
Answer: Option [B]
2. A place for buying and selling activities is called _________
• [A] market
• [B] marketing
• [C] market research
• [D] market information
Answer: Option [A]
3. Mercatus means __________

• [A] buying
• [B] to trade
• [C] to assemble
• [D] to sell
Answer: Option [B]
• [A] profit
• [B] service
• [C] sales
• [D] consumer satisfaction
Answer: Option [D]
5. Marketing begins and ends with ________
• [A] consumer
• [B] transport
• [C] price
• [D] product
Answer: Option [A]
6. _________ is the most fundamental aspect for any merchandise transactions
• [A] packing
• [B] grading
• [C] insurance
• [D] financing
Answer: Option [D]
7. According to whom-"market includes both place and region in which buyers and sellers are in
free competition with one another"
• [A] pyle
• [B] kotler
• [C] drucker
• [D] clark and clark
Answer: Option [A]
8. _________ are networks that connect people within a company to each other and to the company
network.
• [A] internets
• [B] extranets

• [C] bit streams

• [D] WWW
Answer: Option [B]
9. The exchange value of a good/service in terms of money is _________
• [A] price
• [B] product
• [C] buying
• [D] selling
Answer: Option [A]
10. The words used to convey the advertisement idea is _________
• [A] advertisement
• [B] advertisement research
• [C] advertisement copy
• [D] advertisement budget
Answer: Option [C]
• [A] identification
• [B] recognition
• [C] preference
• [D] insistence
Answer: Option [D]
12. Sales management deals with _________
• [A] sales
• [B] product
• [C] profit
• [D] market
Answer: Option [D]
13. _________ is also known as cost plus pricing.
• [A] Mark up pricing
• [B] penetration pricing
• [C] geographical pricing
• [D] dual pricing
Answer: Option [A]
14. AGMARK standardization is given to ________
• [A] industrial goods
• [B] agricultural goods
• [C] imported goods
• [D] consumer goods
Answer: Option [B]
15. ________ is the first step in marketing
• [A] buying
• [B] selling
• [C] assembling
• [D] financing
Answer: Option [A]
16. Warehouse creates ________ utility.
• [A] place
• [B] time

• [C] form
• [D] storage
Answer: Option [B]
• [A] persuasion
• [B] illusion
• [C] forcing
• [D] communication
Answer: Option [C]
18. ________ creates a particular image in the minds of consumer
• [A] branding
• [B] personal selling
• [C] grading
• [D] product planning
Answer: Option [A]
19. The second element to effect the volume of sales is ________
• [A] promotion
• [B] product
• [C] price
• [D] distribution
Answer: Option [C]
20. ________ may be defined as the exchange of goods or services in terms of money.
• [A] price
• [B] product
• [C] grading
• [D] branding
Answer: Option [A]
21. ________ creates a non personal stimulation of demand in advertising
• [A] pricing
• [B] production
• [C] public relation
• [D] none of the above
Answer: Option [A]
• [A] need recognition
• [B] brand identification
• [C] information search
• [D] purchase decision
Answer: Option [B]
23. Advertisement promotes ________
• [A] purchase
• [B] production
• [C] sales
• [D] all of the above
Answer: Option [C]
24. The main principle of cooperative marketing is ________
• [A] more profit
• [B] increased production

• [C] normal profit with service

• [D] all of the above
Answer: Option [C]
25. Middlemen will increase the __________
• [A] price of the product
• [B] quality of the product
• [C] profit of the product
• [D] time and place utility of the product
Answer: Option [D]
26. __________ is an element of buying.
• [A] financing
• [B] assembling
• [C] risk bearing
• [D] customer services
Answer: Option [B]
27. Standardization includes __________
• [A] estimating demand
• [B] estimating demand
• [C] grading
• [D] product line
Answer: Option [C]
28. __________ is allowed in the form of deductions from the list price.
• [A] trade discount
• [B] quantity decisions
• [C] cash discount
• [D] seasonal discount
Answer: Option [A]
__________
• [A] packing
• [B] purchasing
• [C] sales promotion
• [D] marketing
Answer: Option [C]
30. __________ and other forms of promotion are supported by a advertisement.
• [A] personal selling
• [B] branding
• [C] promotion
• [D] publicity
Answer: Option [A]
31. __________ is a group of persons, who are experts on various phases of advertising and related
marketing areas
• [A] advertising agency
• [B] marketing agency
• [C] promotion agency
• [D] marketing research agency/li>
Answer: Option [A]

32. Products reach the hands of customers through a number of channels, of that the main channels
is __________
• [A] distributor
• [B] wholesaler
• [C] retailer
• [D] agents
Answer: Option [B]
33. An example of agent middleman __________
• [A] broker
• [B] retailer
• [C] wholesaler
• [D] truck jobbers
Answer: Option [A]
34. A __________ is a promotion strategy that calls for using the sales force and trade promotion to
move the product channels
• [A] push strategy
• [B] pull strategy
• [C] blocking strategy
• [D] integrated strategy
Answer: Option [A]
35. Distributional activities involve decision regarding __________
• [A] advertisement
• [B] channels of distribution
• [C] decision making
• [D] promotion strategies
Answer: Option [B]
36. The social aspect of marketing is to ensure __________
• [A] price
• [B] demand
• [C] low price with high quality
• [D] service goods
Answer: Option [C]
37. Market segmentation is __________
• [A] dividing
• [B] targeting
• [C] positioning
• [D] differentiation
Answer: Option [A]
38. The process of subdividing total markets into several sub market is __________
• [A] market fluctuating
• [B] market positioning
• [C] market segmentation
• [D] market penetration
Answer: Option [C]
39. __________ goods are meant for final consumption.
• [A] consumer
• [B] convenience
• [C] shopping

• [D] specialty
Answer: Option [A]
40. A buyer makes a purchase of a particular product or a particular brand is termed as __________
• [A] purchase motives
• [B] patronage motives
• [C] selection motives
• [D] product buying motives
Answer: Option [D]
41. A careful study of __________ will facilitate the marketer in determining the size, from, style,
colour, package etc
• [A] market
• [B] manufacturers potential
• [C] consumer behavior
• [D] market segmentation
Answer: Option [C]
42. Motives refers to strong __________
• [A] behavior
• [B] emotions
• [C] needs
• [D] purchase power
Answer: Option [B]
43. Buying decision of a customer depends on his __________
• [A] price
• [B] promotion
• [C] product
• [D] attitude
Answer: Option [D]
44. A satisfied buyer is a silent __________
• [A] advertiser
• [B] promotion
• [C] salesman
• [D] target market
Answer: Option [A]
45. A consumer chooses an alternative which gives maximum __________
• [A] utility
• [B] usage
• [C] satisfaction
• [D] durability
Answer: Option [C]
46. The external factor of consumer behavior are also called as __________
• [A] environmental factors
• [B] consumer behavior factors
• [C] specific factor
• [D] product factors
Answer: Option [A]
47. __________ carry their goods from place to place in hand craft and sell them to the consumers
at their door steps.
• [A] street traders

• [B] pedlars
• [C] cheap jacks
• [D] hawkers
Answer: Option [D]
48. The purpose of segmentation is to __________ the changing pattern of consumers.
• [A] measure
• [B] access
• [C] identify
• [D] usage rate
Answer: Option [A]
49. Benefits of segmentation ___________
• [A] reduced scale
• [B] shifting loyals
• [C] unknowm markets
• [D] determining marketing strategies
Answer: Option [D]
50. Consumers who buy one brand all the time ___________
• [A] hard core loyals
• [B] safe core loyals
• [C] shifting loyals
• [D] switchers
Answer: Option [A]
51. Agricultural products are ___________
• [A] perishable
• [B] highly priced
• [C] low quality products
• [D] heterogeneous goods
Answer: Option [D]
52. Identify the one which comes under service marketing ___________
• [A] insurance
• [B] motor cars
• [C] refrigerators
• [D] television
Answer: Option [A]
53. Increasing competition in ___________ markets make ___________ markets attractive.
• [A] urban, wholesale
• [B] urban, retail
• [C] urban, agricultural
• [D] urban, rural
Answer: Option [D]
• [A] change in rural consumer behaviour
• [B] marketing strategies
• [C] promotional strategies
• [D] product mix
Answer: Option [A]
55. ___________ are products bought by individuals and organisations for further processing or use
in conducting a business

• [A] consumer products

• [B] services
• [C] industrial products
• [D] specialty products
Answer: Option [C]
56. The increased ___________ has enhanced rural demand for several products.
• [A] income
• [B] purchase power
• [C] awareness
• [D] population
Answer: Option [A]
57. Marketing communication in the rural area has to be in ___________
• [A] press media
• [B] local language
• [C] national language
• [D] outdoor media
Answer: Option [B]
58. When a product is sold ___________ utility is created
• [A] ownership
• [B] time
• [C] place
• [D] transport
Answer: Option [A]
59. A retailer by being available at a convenient location, he creates ___________ utility
• [A] ownership
• [B] time
• [C] place
• [D] transport
Answer: Option [C]
• [A] e-commerce can help to reduce cots
• [B] e-commerce is a powerful tool for customer relationship building
• [C] e-commerce increases the net cost per contact
• [D] e-commerce offers greater flexibility in meeting customer needs.
Answer: Option [C]
Question 1
What is the difference between the terms market research and marketing research?
Correct answer:
d) None of the options given are correct.
Question 2
Which ONE of these is NOT an element of the marketing information system (MKIS)?
Correct answer:
b) Marketing insight system.
Question 3
Which ONE of these has less to do with marketing research than the others?
Correct answer:
a) FIS.

Question 4
Most qualitative research money goes into:
Correct answer:
b) focus groups.
Question 5
Which ONE of these quantitative methods is being used more nowadays?
Correct answer:
d) Online research.
Question 6
Which ONE of the options is the odd one out?
Correct answer:
b) MRS.
Question 7
Which ONE of the options is the odd one out?
Correct answer:
d) NRS.
Question 8
What is data that 'relates to a living individual who can be identified from the data, or from the data
and other information in the possession of, or likely to come into the possession of, the data
controller'?
Correct answer:
b) Personal data.
Question 9
How many principles are contained in the UK Data Protection Act 1998?
Your answer:
a) Eight.
Question 10
'Responsible for specific parts of projects and may be part of a team. Will write questionnaires and
analyse results. May prepare reports and presentations.' This might appear in the job description for
which ONE of the following?
Correct answer:
b) Research executive.
Marketing tactics to implement strategies and objectives are traditionally based around the elements
of the 'marketing mix'. This is a concept or framework that has been around for over 50 years so
which of the following are taken from the original marketing mix?
All of the below
There are many differences between marketing communications in the traditional media (e.g. TV,
print, radio) and new digital media (e.g. websites, interactive TV). As far as interactivity is
concerned, traditional media works on a 'push' basis and the marketing message is broadcast to the
customer but what about new digital media?
New digital media encourages interactivity
To deliver a compelling online proposition value, the view is that companies need to think like
publishers and invest in providing fuller resourced, quality content. Pulizzi and Barrett (2010)
recommended creating a content marketing roadmap which is unpinned by the BEST principles.
What does BEST stand for?
Behavioural, Essential, Strategic and Targeted
To be effective, an online value proposition needs exceptional, compelling content and experience
for customers from the website and other electronic media. A content strategy plans and manages
this process. Which of the items below is out of place in a content strategy?
Content synchronisation
Companies need to decide how to highlight their product benefits over those of competitors which
gives rise to the term 'differential advantage'. To position product or service and to emphasise the
benefits, something similar to a 'unique selling point' needs developing. What is this called though?
Online value proposition
Target marketing strategy involves the evaluation and selection of appropriate target market
segments and the development of appropriate offers. Which is the correct sequencing of activities
for target marketing?
Segmentation - target marketing - positioning - planning
Competitor analysis examines competitor use of e-commerce to acquire and retain customers. How
often should this take place?
Continuously
What would be the reasoning behind gaining not just quantitative data on customers but also
gathering qualitative data also?
All of the above
Current and future projections of customer demands for e-commerce services are conducted through
demand analysis. How can this be done, for example, with search engines?
All of the above can be employed
Many problems can occur if adequate resources are not directed towards an effective development
and implementation of a marketing plan. Typical problems would include inadequate planning,
underestimation of resources, insufficient customer data, and so on. To protect an investment,
distinct marketing plans with clear objectives and strategies should be produced which show how e-
marketing supports the sales and marketing process. A logical approach would include a situation
analysis but what is this?
An environmental analysis and review of internal processes and resources to inform strategy
As an e-marketing plan is needed in addition to a broad e-business strategy. Generic frameworks

exist which summarise the different stages that would be involved in a marketing strategy from
development to implementation. Smith's (1999) framework has six elements but which one does not
comply with this model?
Strengths - what are our strengths compared to competitors
What is required in addition to a broad e-business strategy to detail how the sell-side specific
objectives of the e-business strategy will be delivered through marketing activities such as research
and communications?
E-marketing plan

It is often useful at the outset to have a clear definition to refer to so which of the following is best
suited to defining e-marketing?
Achieving marketing objectives through the use of electronic communications technology
There needs to be an aligning of business and e-marketing strategies. Which of the following would
be feasible strategic objectives?
They are all applicable
In addition to having an e-business strategy, an e-marketing strategy also needs to be developed and
there are three main operational processes involved. Which one is FALSE?
Customer focus group development
Pulizzi and Barrett (2010) recommended a content marketing roadmap underpinned by BEST
principles. These include Behavioural, Strategic and Targeted with the missing principle being:
Essential
The importance of content strategy is challenging as so many elements need to be planned and
managed. Which of the following would be subject to a comprehensive content strategy?
All of the above
While similar to what is known as a unique selling point, an online value proposition should:
All of the above
Again, within target marketing, an evaluation of resources at the planning stage informs on:
All of the above
Target marketing strategy involves the evaluation of appropriate segments and the development of
appropriate offers. It is generally accepted that there are four stages involved. The identification
customer needs within a target market is which stage of target marketing:
Segmentation
While quantitative demand analysis is useful, additional rich and informative data can be developed
from:
All of the above are correct
Through evaluating the volume of phrases used to search for products in a given market, it is
possible to calculate the total potential opportunity and the current share of search terms for a
company. For example, Google provide web analytics reports and this produces a:
Share of search report
Key to achieving success in meeting e-marketing and e-business strategy objectives is to assess
current and projected use. This assessment can be referred to as:
Demand analysis
The typical stages in development of an online presence for a retailer are:

None of the above
The situation analysis which involves benchmarking site characteristics is known as a:
None of the above
The aim of situation analysis is to understand the environment in which the company operates. A
situation analysis which involves reviewing the online marketplace and internal situation is a:
Internet SWOT analysis
There are three main operational processes involved in e-marketing. Which is the ODD one out?
Customer satisfaction
The e-marketing plan has:

A plan to achieve the marketing objectives of the e-business strategy
E-marketing is best seen as:

A subset of e-business
Achieving marketing objectives through the use of electronic communications technology is a

general definition of:
E-marketing
The Napkin Model of the early Internet boom period was attributed to:
You did not answer the question.
Correct answer:
d) Dotcom entrepreneurs and tycoons
Feedback:
The Napkin model refers to the entrepreneurial spirit (and lack of research and planning) that
engulfed the US in the heady days of the Internet boom in the late 1990s.
Page reference: 79
Question 2
Web Metrics provides a vital role in which phase of The Strategic Marketing Cycle?
Correct answer:
c) Control Phase
Feedback:
Web metrics off online marketers the opportunity to measure and evaluate all online activities and
consumer behaviour.
Page reference: 87
Question 3
Technologically inspired change drives:
Correct answer:
a) Organisational restructuring either by department or across the organisation
Feedback:
Technologies such as CRM software innovations can have an enterprise wide impact. For example,
CRM may shape the marketing approach of the department but for it to operate effectively requires
real time information from every department with any customer interface.
Page reference: 91-92
Question 4
A web site should be designed for:

Correct answer:
d) Your most valuable customer with high lifetime values
Feedback:
It is tempting to appeal to a wide audience but this can be detrimental and organisations should
focus on their best customer.
Page reference: 98
Question 5
The gardening and plant specialist web site, www.crocus.co.uk has a:
Correct answer:
a) Customer-Focused Orientation
Feedback:
Molenaar outlines four key orientations for web design and online marketing activities, as outlined
in the mini case 3.4; Crocus is very much focused on the needs and capabilities of its customers.
Question 6
For effective campaign management and customer service in a multi-channel environment,
organisations need:
Correct answer:
c) Data integration across channels
Feedback:
Campaign management and customer service requires enterprise wide systems that capture
campaign and customer experiences across the integrated channels.
Page reference: 101
Question 7
Online customer reviews, collaborative filtering and 360' degree product viewings are all examples
of?
Correct answer:
d) Online added value
Feedback:
Rather than be core benefits or key elements of customer service, the three elements described all
add value to the online user experience.
Page reference: 102
Question 8
Which of the technologies below provide real time exchange of information for the benefit of
players in logistics and supply chain management?
Correct answer:
b) Electronic Data Interchange (EDI)
Feedback:
EDI as a platform for information exchange brings together partners in strategic alliances to share
information on logistics and supply chain issues in real time to produce an effective supply chain
operation.
Page reference: 103
Question 9
Mike Grehan's Online Promotional Planning tool contains which four elements?
Correct answer:
c) Positioning, Permission, Partnership and Performance
Feedback:
Answer C provides the tools for more effective planning, execution and performance measurement
of promotional activity in the digital age.
Page reference: 106
Question 10
From a marketing perspective, what is the major attraction of the Internet to Small and Medium
Sized Enterprises?
Correct answer:
c) Greater promotional opportunities and access to more markets
Question 1
Initially, the dominant reason for entrepreneurs going 'online' was for:
Correct answer:
d) Information Gathering
Feedback:
Entrepreneurs recognized the benefits of the Internet of a fast, time saving and cost effective tool
for marketing research and information gathering generally.
Page reference: 122
Question 2
A primary objective of marketing research is to:
Correct answer:
a) Enhance the quality of decision-making by marketing managers
Feedback:
The broad objective of any marketing research is to give marketing managers the quality of
information that enables them to make informed choices about strategies and tactics that achieve
marketing aims and objectives.
Page reference: 124
Question 3
In the European Business Information sector, LexisNexis is classed as:
Correct answer:
b) News aggregator
Feedback:
LexisNexis is an example of the new breed of information gatherers known as aggregators, in this
case a news aggregator that gathers from a wide range of reputable market sources.
Page reference: 127
Question 4
Mohammed et al. suggest that three issues typically shape the terms of reference in online
marketing:
Correct answer:
a) Anticipated, Emergent and opportunity based change

Feedback:
The issues include analysis and understanding of different types of ‘change‘ and how they impact
on the online offering, as well as shaping the nature of information search and defining the terms of
reference.
Page reference: 131 - 132
Question 5
McDaniel and Gates describe database creation from a web site as a 'Marketer's dream' because:
Correct answer:
d) Access to customer behaviour is more complete online than in the physical world
Feedback:
The Internet provides the opportunity for a diverse range of data capture from registration pages to
web metrics that analyse all customer movements within a web site.
Page reference: 133
Question 6
In simple terms, 'The Invisible web' refers to:
Correct answer:
d) Information unavailable by ordinary search terms and queries
Feedback:
The Invisible or 'deep' web are authoritative pages that cannot be accessed by general purpose
search engines, often because of their limitations or special access required.
Page reference: 139
Question 7
A fundamental problem with the completion of e-mail questionnaires as identified by Strauss et al,
is:
Correct answer:
b) Respondents limited technical competence
Feedback:
Issues over questionnaire completion arose as it was found that many respondents did not have IT
competence to open attached questionnaire documents and 'respond and edit'.
Page reference: 148
Question 8
A fundamental factor in the growth of online surveys has been:
Correct answer:
a) The use of pop-up surveys
Feedback:
As more of the population completer SAQ's both on and offline, they have become more
comfortable with the process and are more likely to participate and record fewer completion errors.
Page reference: 148 -149
Question 9
The recommended number of participants in an online focus group is:
Correct answer:
b) 6
Feedback:
Research by Herbert and McDaniel and Gates recommend six as being the ideal number for an
online focus group because of the technology and dynamics of the process.
Page reference: 150
Question 10
With regard to online sampling issues, coverage error refers to when:
Correct answer:
d) The sample frame is not representative of the whole population.
Question 1
70 - 80% of early online business transactions were conducted in the:
Correct answer:
b) B2B sector
Feedback:
B2B were early adopters of the new technology, especially in the US, with regard to e-procurement
and all aspects of supply chain management.
Page reference: 40
Question 2
Compared to dotcom companies, clicks and mortar operations had the advantage of:
Correct answer:
a) An established brand presence
Feedback:
Established firms had a significant cost advantage of dotcom operations as they did not require such
a high level of investment into brand development.
Question 3
The main reason for the Boxman.com collapse was:
Correct answer:
d) Over-extending the operation through a multi-country launch
Feedback:
Boxman's business model could not sustain a launch across numerous EU countries.
Page reference: 43
Question 4
eBay is an example of which type of business model according to Timmers?
Correct answer:
c) e-Auctions
Feedback:
eBay is a classic example of harnessing the Internet as a platform for exchange in the form of online
auctions.
Question 5
Value Chain Service Providers offer:
Correct answer:
c) Specialist services or functions within the value chain
Feedback:
In the Travel industry, organisations like Opodo, Expedia and Travelocity provide a service and
increase traffic and revenue linking in various servicers across the industry.
Page reference: 49
Question 6
Search engines play a key role in which online selling phase?
Correct answer:
d) Pre-Sale Phase
Feedback:
Leading search engines such as Google and MSN etc. remain the most used tool for customers
searching for product or service information online.
Page reference: 63, 66
Question 7
Manufacturers of Personal Computers who sell 'direct' to consumers utilize which business model?
Correct answer:
a) Manufacturing Model
Feedback:
Whilst a manufacturer may include B and D as part of their revenue streams they will implement
the manufacturing model enabling flexible customization for customer ordering in the online
environment.
Page reference: 52
Question 8
Online information brokers reflect a process of:
Correct answer:
b) Reintermediation
Feedback:
Online digitized content has generated a new breed and level of infomediaries who distribute
original or aggregated content.
Page reference: 53
Question 9
With regard to de Kare Silver's strategic options, many UK financial institutions adopted which
route?
Correct answer:
a) Set up as a separate business
Feedback:
Many UK banks chose to brand their online operations in a different, innovative way to attract a
new target market of online consumers.
Page reference: 60
Question 10
Online fulfillment tracking systems provide customers with:
Correct answer:
b) Real time transparency
Question 1
Online marketing can be defined as:
Correct answer:
c) The use of Internet and related digital information and communications technologies to achieve
marketing objectives
Feedback:
Response C provides relevant response with the use of 'digital' to achieve marketing objectives. The
technologies provide the means to deliver the operational aspect that enables the strategy to be
implemented and ultimately achieve the marketing objectives. The other three responses are
partially correct. A is too broad and not marketing related. B focuses on database marketing that is
important but not all relationships will be dynamic. D is partially correct but focuses on
communications and strategies rather than the all important marketing objectives.
Page reference: 07
Question 2
Effective online marketers requires the following combination:
Correct answer:
a) IT and Marketing competences to achieve customer satisfaction
Feedback:
In the digital economy, modern marketers need to marry IT skills such as database marketing with
creative, customer focused awareness. This should lead to more effective online/integrated
marketing plans which ultimately deliver customer satisfaction in a timely and relevant way.
Page reference: 04
Question 3
The main consumer concerns that restricted the rate of internet adoption were:
Correct answer:
d) Security, trust and privacy issues
Feedback:
With a new technology based medium like the Internet, building up customer confidence was vital.
However, online marketers had to counteract negative press coverage, and poor online customer
service initially coupled with concerns over credit card fraud etc. Answers A,B & C were partly
responsible for the slower than expected adoption rates but D was the underlying cause.
Page reference: 12
Question 4
An organisation's web site plays an increasingly crucial role in:
Correct answer:
a) Multi-channel marketing
Feedback:
As consumer behaviour changes, we are becoming a nation of channel hoppers and the Internet is
becoming a first port of call for consumers seeking product and corporate information. It is also a
vital element in any integrated marketing communications strategy, so answer A is the correct
choice. The other three options play a less prominent role in online marketing depending upon the
nature of the operation.
Page reference: 14
Question 5
The convenience provided by the Internet is important for the following 'environmental' reasons:
Correct answer:
c) Socio-economic
Feedback:
In a cash rich, time poor society, convenience is much sought after benefit for the modern consumer
due to various socio-economic factors such as dual parents working, career aspirations, materialism,
flexible working, the demise of the nuclear family etc.
Page reference: 16
Question 6
The Internet has resulted in a fundamental shift in:
Correct answer:
a) Greater consumer power and knowledge
Feedback:
The Internet is a powerful source of information instantly available at the hands of the consumer
and can provide company information on all aspects of the Mix elements and enable comparison
and reach.
Page reference: 17
Question 7
An Internet champion is needed to change and shape:
Correct answer:
d) The corporate culture
Feedback:
To realise the potential of the Internet requires a change in corporate culture on an enterprise wide
basis as Online Marketing impacts on all functional areas.
Page reference: 14
Question 8
For multi-channel marketers, the online environment should reinforce:
Correct answer:
b) Consistent brand values across all channels
Feedback:
Online marketers should aim to provide an experience that is consistent with all other brand
experiences and reinforce brand values across the channels or the brand could be undermined.
Therefore, the answer is B.
Page reference: 19
Question 9
Political influence has been important in developing:
Correct answer:
c) A countrys e-readiness
Feedback:
Governments, particularly in most Western European countries have been proactive in developing
e-business policies and frameworks that would facilitate the adoption of digital technologies and
transform economies. The aim being to exploit the potential of the Internet for efficiencies in
customer relations, supply chain management, procurement etc. as well as public service. Hence,
the correct answer is C. Governments have played a role in the other answers and they form part of
answer C.
Question 10
A well designed web site can communicate effectively with its:
Correct answer:
b) Stakeholders
1. According to information presented in the text, _____________ is at the heart of Microsoft’s and
Bill Gates’ innovation strategy.
a. R & D
b. the X-box
c. the Internet
d. predatory pricing
Answer: (c)
2. The product life cycle presents two major challenges. First, a firm must be good at developing
new products to replace aging ones. Second, a firm must be good at:
a. adapting its marketing strategies in the face of changing tastes, technologies,
and competition as products pass through life-cycle stages.
b. image building to ensure that products sell well.
c. primary demand forecasting so product winners can be chosen rather than
making poor investments with product losers.
d. acquisition of other companies since this is the only real way to ensure new
product success--go with what has worked in the past.
Answer: (a)
3. A firm can obtain new products in two ways. First, it can develop them by using its own research
and development department. Second, it can:
a. steal them.
b. get them through acquisition.
c. transfer them between divisions. d. copy them.
Answer: (b)
a. new products.
b. concept products.
c. altered products.
d. supplemental products.
Answer: (a)
5. New products continue to fail at a disturbing rate. One study estimated that new consumer
packaged goods (consisting mostly of line extensions) fail at a rate of: a. 100 percent.
b. 90 percent.
c. 80 percent. d. 70 percent.
Answer: (c)
6. Why do so many new products fail? All of the following are reasons EXCEPT: (Select the
LEAST LIKELY reason.)
a. the size of the market has been overestimated.
b. hostility on the part of the sales force.
c. the product may have been incorrectly positioned.
d. a high-level executive might have pushed a favorite idea.
Answer: (b)
7. If a new product has higher quality, new features, and higher value in use than its competition,
then it is called a(n):
a. unique superior product.
b. synergistic product.
c. positioned product. d. pre-launch product.
Answer: (a)
8. Which of the following would be a key success factor in developing new products? a. a well-
defined product concept
b. a product priced well below market or industry standards
c. a product that appeals to the late majority
d. a product that can be sold over the Internet with a minimum of explanation
Answer: (a)
9. To create successful new products, a company must understand consumers, markets, and
competitors and:
a. develop a great advertising campaign.
b. have a strong Web site to push the product.
c. adopt a push rather than pull promotional concept.

d. develop products that deliver superior value to consumers.
Answer: (d)
10. Which of the following best describes the first stage of the new-product development process?
a. idea screening
b. concept development and testing c. idea generation
d. business analysis
Answer: (c)
11. The systematic search for new-product ideas is characteristic of which stage in the new-product
a. idea screening
b. concept development and testing
c. idea generation d. business analysis
Answer: (c)
12. After idea generation has occurred in the new-product development process, the next stage is
most likely to be:
a. ideation.
b. idea screening.
c. concept development and testing. d. test marketing.
Answer: (b)
13. For every 1,000 ideas, only _____ will have enough commercial promise to merit a small-scale
experiment.
a. 10
b. 50
c. 100 d. 300
Answer: (c)
14. According to the text, all of the following are thought to be sources of new-product ideas
EXCEPT:
a. internal sources.
b. customers.
c. competitors.
d. the local library
Answer: (d)
15. According to “Mr. Failure’s Lessons for Sweet Success,” all of the following would help to
prevent failure on the part of new products EXCEPT:
a. offer real value.
b. cherish thy brand.
c. don’t be too different.
d. always be the lowest priced.
Answer: (d)
16. The search for new-product ideas should be systematic rather than haphazard. One way to
ensure that the process is systematic is to install a(n):
a. product planning committee.
b. venture capital team.
c. idea management system. d. a Delphi idea system.
Answer: (c)
17. If an organization wishes to create an innovation-oriented company culture, it should consider
the ____________ approach.
a. product planning approach
b. venture capital team
c. idea manager
d. Delphi idea system
Answer: (c)
18. ________________ is screening new-product ideas in order to spot good ideas and drop poor
ones as soon as possible.
a. Idea generation
b. Concept development and testing
c. Idea screening d. Brainstorming
Answer: (c)
19. One reason that idea screening is a critical stage in the new-product development process is that:
a. product-development costs rise greatly in later stages and the company only wants
those products that can succeed.
b. competitors can quickly steal ideas so the company wants only those ideas that can be protected
with patents.
c. international competition and markets demand that all ideas be culturally sensitive. d. the Federal
government carefully monitors each company’s idea screening process
to make sure no national security matters are at stake.
Answer: (a)
20. A _______________ is an idea for a possible product that the company can see itself offering to
the market.
a. product idea
b. product image
c. product concept d. product feature
Answer: (a)
21. A ___________________ is a detailed version of the idea stated in meaningful consumer terms.
a. product idea
b. product image
c. product concept d. product feature
Answer: (c)
22. A ____________________ is the way consumers perceive an actual or potential product.
a. product idea
b. product image c. product concept d. product feature
Answer: (b)
23. If Toyota describes one of its cars of the future as being “a moderately priced subcompact
designed as a second family car to be used around town; the car is ideal for running errands and
visiting friends,” then the company has just stated a potential new product in terms of a:
a. product idea.
b. product image.
c. product concept.
d. product feature.
Answer: (c)
24. Presenting new-product ideas to consumers in symbolic or physical ways to measure their
reactions occurs during which of the following stages?
a. idea generation
b. concept testing
c. marketing strategy d. screening
Answer: (b)
25. If a kitchen cabinet designer wished to test design concepts with customers, the designer might
wish to use a _______________ program that would show the consumer how his or her kitchen
would look and work if remodeled with the company’s products.
a. color chart
b. cartoon figure chart c. virtual reality
d. descriptive schematic
Answer: (c)
26. Designing an initial marketing strategy for a new product based on the product concept is
called:
a. screening.
b. business analysis.
c. product development.
d. marketing strategy development.
Answer: (d)
27. The marketing strategy statement consists of three parts. All of the following would be among
those parts EXCEPT:
a. description of the production flow diagrams.
b. description of the target market.
c. the planning product positioning.
d. the sales, market share, and profit goals for the first few years.
Answer: (a)
28. The stage in the new-product development process in which the anticipated sales, market share,
and profit goals for the first few years are described is called:
a. idea generation.
b. marketing strategy development.
c. business analysis.
d. product development.
Answer: (b)
29. Sanyo intends to capture a 5-percent share of the small radio market in three years. To achieve
this, product quality will start high and be improved over time. Price will begin low but then be
raised (competition permitting). An advertising budget of $300,000 will be rolled out over a three-
year period. To successfully accomplish
its long-run goals, Sanyo should construct and then adhere to a(n): a. image statement.
b. marketing strategy statement.
c. product development theory.
d. demand-curve theorem.
Answer: (b)
30. When a company reviews sales, costs, and profit projections for a new product to find out
whether these factors satisfy the company’s objectives, they are in which of the following new-
product development stages?
a. concept development and testing
b. commercialization
c. business analysis
d. marketing strategy development
Answer: (c)
31. Looking at the sales history of similar products and surveying market opinion are tools used at
which stage in the new-product development process?
b. commercialization
Answer: (c)
32. A company is in the ______________ stage of the new-product development process when the
company develops the product concept into a physical product in order to assure that the product
idea can be turned into a workable product.
a. product development
b. commercialization c. marketing strategy d. business analysis
Answer: (a)
33. R&D and engineering first produce the product concept into a physical product during which of
the following stages of the new-product development process?
b. marketing strategy
d. product development
Answer: (d)
34. One of the unique considerations during the product development phase of the new product
development process is that the _______________ developed during this phase should have the
required functional features and also convey the intended psychological characteristics so consumer
testing can be beneficial and meaningful. a. program
b. placebo c. prototype d. process
Answer: (c)
35. Introducing a new product and marketing program to more realistic market settings following
functional and consumer approval is carried out at which new-product development stage?
a. idea generation
b. screening
c. marketing strategy d. test marketing
Answer: (d)
36. If a company wishes to test its positioning strategy, advertising, distribution, pricing, branding
and packaging, and budget levels, it can do so during which of the following stages of the new-
product development process?
a. commercialization
b. test marketing
c. product development
Answer: (b)
37. James Manufacturing would like to do test marketing on a new bicycle that it has just
developed, however, cost is a serious consideration. James Manufacturing has just been approached
by a firm called Simul-Shop that has offered to study the bicycle market using a unique approach
that will only cost about $25,000. Which of the following innovative test marketing methods is
James Manufacturing probably considering?
a. virtual reality research b. sequential research

c. simultaneous research d. starch testing
Answer: (a)
38. Introducing the new product into the market takes place in which stage of the new product
a. commercialization
b. test marketing
c. marketing strategy
d. product development
Answer: (a)
39. The FIRST decision that must be reached by the company that is introducing a new product is:
a. where to introduce.
b. the distribution process.
c. the timing of the introduction.
d. the number of outlets to be included in the rollout.
Answer: (c)
40. With respect to developing new products, if a company chooses to introduce its new products
city-by-city and region-by-region, then the company is probably using which of the following
methods for launching new products?
a. blitz
b. blanket
c. market rollout
d. market blister
Answer: (c)
41. When Colgate-Palmolive uses a ________________ strategy, they pick certain countries for
new-product introductions before general introduction to entire regions or continents.
a. gray market
b. primo country
c. demand-based
d. lead-country
Answer: (d)
42. A new-product development approach in which one company department works to
complete its stage of the process before passing the new product along to the next department and
stage is called:
a. sequential product development.
b. retrograde product development.
c. simultaneous product development. d. reactive product development.
Answer: (a)
43. Overlapping steps in the new-product development process to save time and increase
effectiveness across the various departments involved is called:
a. sequential product development.
b. retrograde product development.
c. simultaneous product development. d. reactive product development.
Answer: (c)
44. The simultaneous approach to new-product introduction does have several limitations. All of the
following would be considered to be among those limitations EXCEPT:
a. it is riskier than other forms of introduction.
b. it is more costly in many instances.
c. it is too slow for many marketers.
d. it has increased organizational tension and confusion.
Answer: (c)
45. The course of a product’s sales and profits over its lifetime is called: a. the sales chart.
b. the dynamic growth curve.
c. the adoption cycle.
d. the product life cycle.
Answer: (d)
46. The ______________ is characterized by five distinct stages: product development,
introduction, growth, maturity, and decline.
a. adoption cycle
b. fashion process
c. product life cycle d. style curve
Answer: (c)
47. With respect to the product life cycle, the _____________ begins when the company finds and
develops a new-product idea.
a. product development stage
b. introduction stage c. growth stage

d. maturity stage
Answer: (a)
48. With respect to the product life cycle, the ______________ is a period of slow sales growth as
the product is introduced in the market.
b. introduction stage
c. growth stage d. maturity stage
Answer: (b)
49. With respect to the product life cycle, the _______________ is a period of rapid market
acceptance and increasing profits.
Answer: (c)
50. With respect to the product life cycle, the ________________ is a period of slowdown in sales
growth because the product has achieved acceptance by most potential buyers.
b. introduction stage c. growth stage
d. maturity stage
Answer: (d)
51. With respect to the product life cycle, the __________________ is the period when sales fall off
and profits drop.
a. decline stage
Answer: (a)
52. The product life cycle concept has many varied uses. The PLC can describe all of the following
EXCEPT:
a. a product class.
b. a product form.
c. a product shape. d. a product brand.

Answer: (c)
53. ______________ have the longest product life cycles. a. Product forms
b. Product brands
c. Product genres
d. Product classes
Answer: (d)
54. In terms of special product life cycles, a _____________ is a basic and distinctive mode of
expression.
a. genre
b. style
c. fashion d. fad
Answer: (b)
55. In terms of special product life cycles, a _______________ would be exemplified by the
“preppie look” in the clothing of the late 1970s and early 1980s.
a. genre
b. style
c. fashion d. fad
Answer: (c)
56. In terms of special product life cycles, a _________________ only lasts for a short time, is
adopted with a great deal of zeal, peaks early, and declines very fast.
a. genre
b. style
c. fashion d. fad
Answer: (d)
57. “Pet rocks” are a classic example of which of the following? a. a genre
b. a style
c. a fashion d. a fad
Answer: (d)
58. Which of the following is characterized by a extremely peaked demand curve that rises rapidly
and declines rapidly in a short period of time?
a. a genre
b. a style
c. a fashion d. a fad
Answer: (d)
59. A concentration on producing a basic version of a product by a firm and its competitors is
typical of which stage in the product life cycle?
Answer: (b)
60. An increase in competition, attracted by the opportunities for profit, is typical of which stage of
the product life cycle?
a. decline stage
Answer: (c)
61. In the ___________ , a firm faces a trade-off between high market share and high current profit.
a. decline stage
Answer: (c)
62. The stage of the PLC characterized by overcapacity, greater competition, and the eventual
elimination of weaker competitors is called the:
a. decline stage.
b. introduction stage.
c. growth stage. d. maturity stage.
Answer: (d)
63. In the maturity phase of the PLC, a marketing manager should consider: a. dropping the product
and moving on to the next product winner.
b. modifying the market, product, and marketing mix.
c. expanding R & D.
d. pricing to penetrate the market.
Answer: (b)
64. The strategy used during maturity to attempt to increase the consumption of the current product
is called:
a. customer modification.
b. market modification.
c. product modification.
d. marketing mix modification.
Answer: (b)
65. All of the following are examples of products that have had very long and successful product
life cycles EXCEPT:
a. Beanie Babies.
b. Barbie.
c. the Plymouth Prowler. d. Crayola Crayons.
Answer: (c)
66. Cutting prices, using aggressive sales promotion, or launching a better advertising campaign,
are all typical elements of which strategy used during the maturity stages of the PLC?
a. customer modification
b. market modification
c. product modification
d. marketing mix modification
Answer: (d)
67. Technological advances, shifts in consumer tastes, and increased competition, all of which
reduce demand for a product, are typical of which stage in the PLC?
a. decline stage
Answer: (a)
68. As a product reaches its decline stage of the PLC, management may decide to __________ the
product, which means reducing various costs and hoping that sales hold up.
a. disengage
b. drop
c. harvest
d. cultivate
Answer: (c)
69. The stage in the product life cycle that focuses on using a cost-plus formula and creating
product awareness and trial is the:
a. decline stage.
Answer: (b)
70. The stage in the product life cycle where the strategic focus is on market penetration and
building intensive distribution is the:
a. decline stage.
Answer: (c)
71. The stage in the product life cycle where the strategic focus is on maximizing profit while
defending market share and pricing to match or best the competition is called the:
a. decline stage.
b. introduction stage. c. growth stage.
d. maturity stage.
Answer: (d)
72. The stage in the product life cycle where the strategic focus is on reducing expenditures and
milking the brand while cutting prices is called the:
a. decline stage.
73.The New Product development process does not incorporate which of the following?
a. Test Marketing
b. Obtaining Funding from venture capitalists
c. Business Analysis
d. Concept development & Testing
Answer (b)
74. The statement of the planned strategy for a new product that outlines the target market, product
positioning & market goals and projection is a:
a. Corporate Goal
b. Marketing Plan
c. Marketing Strategy
d. All of the Above
Answer (c)
75. There are three remaining stages of product development. What are they?
a. Test Marketing, Commercialisation, Monitoring & Evaluation
b. Communication, Test Marketing, Market Research
c. Market Research, Commercialisation, Evaluation
d. Communication, Test Marketing, Market Research
Answer (a)
76. Test Marketing offers a number of benefits. Which of the following are the examples of these
benefits?
a. Gives the opportunity to vary some of the mix variables
b. Offers a chance for fine tuning
c. All of the above
Answer (c)
77. What % of new products that are launched, will fail to achieve their potential & not survive?
a. Up to 90%
b. 30%
c. 80%
d. 40%
Answer (a)
78. Discontinuous innovation is defined as:
a. Minor innovation to market
b. A new product so radical that it changes the way people live
c. New to market
d. New to company, significant innovation to market
Answer (b)
79. Identify the type of innovation shown by the development of the cellular phone:
a. Retrograde innovation
b. Continuous innovation
c. Discontinuous innovation
d. Dynamically continuous innovation
Answer (c)
80. The ability to try a new product on a limited basis is called:
a. Divisibility
b. Trial
c. Consumerism awareness
d. Complexity
Answer (a)
81. Which of the following is not a feature of the Decline Phase of the Product Life Cycle?
a. Laggards
b. Reduction in Expenditure
c. Low cost per customer
d. Declining number of competitors
Answer (c)
82. Which of the following is a factor that determines whether a brand-new product is adopted or
not?
a. Communicability
b. Positioning
c. Innovativeness
d. Consumer awareness
Answer (a)
83. A Product which is not accepted by consumers but which makes money initially, is an example
of:
a. Outright failure
b. Partial failure
c. Success
d. Partial success
Answer (b)
84. Which of the following is not true about test marketing?
a. It keeps competitors out of the market
b. It gives an opportunity to measure consumer reactions to the product
c. It risks notifying the competitors
Answer (a)
85. Which of the following is not a strategy that will be used in the introductory phase of the
product life cycle?
a. Build Product awareness among early adopters & dealers
b. c. d.
Use a cost plus pricing strategy Offer a basic product
Offer product extensions Answer (d)
86. Which of the following is not a feature of the maturity phase of the Product Life Cycle?
a. Begin to diversify brands & models
b. Building product awareness amongst early adopters & dealers

c. High Profits
d. Sales Peaking
Answer (b)
87. Acme Corporation is currently experiencing rising sales for a new product idea it pioneered
several months ago. Profits are also increasing, so other competitors are now entering the market
with similar products. The competitive situation is changing from monopoly to monopolistic
competition. In which stage of the PLC is Acme Corporation operating?
a. Market establishment
b. Market growth
c. Market maturity
d. Sales decline
Answer (b)
88. As a product moves into the market maturity stage of the PLC:
a. Consumers tend to view products as being more similar
b. The competitive situation moves toward monopoly
c. Promotion emphasizes informing consumers more than persuading them d. All of the above
Answer (a)
89. A product idea that provides a high degree of immediate satisfaction, but a low degree of long-
run consumer welfare is a:
a. Desirable product
b. Pleasing product
c. Salutary product
d. Deficient product
Answer (b)
90. Which stage of the PLC is marked by falling costs & rising revenues?
a. Introduction stage
b. Growth stage
c. Maturity stage
d. Saturation stage
Answer (b)
91. A _______________ is an idea for a possible product that the company can see itself offering to
the market.
a. Product Idea
b. Product Image
c. Product Concept
d. Product Feature
Answer (a)
92. Designing an initial marketing strategy for a new product based on the product concept is
called:
a. Screening
b. Business Analysis
c. Product Development
d. Marketing strategy development
Answer (d)
93. What is Price Skimming?
a. Setting a low price to “Skim off” a large number of consumers
b. Setting initially high price which falls as competitors enter the market
c. Setting a high price which consumers perceive as indicating high quality
d. None of these
Answer (b)
94. Setting a price below that of the competition is called:
a. Skimming
b. Penetrating pricing
c. Competitive pricing
d. None of these
Answer (b)
95. Which of the following is not a reason for cutting prices?
a. Increasing profit margins
b. Capacity utilisation
c. Market defence
d. All of the above
Answer (a)
96. A
a. Breakeven
profit calculated by adding a percentage to the costs of production is called:
b. Mark-up
c. Margin
d. None
Answer (b)
97. Calculating Prices on the basis of what the market will pay is called:
a. Prestige pricing
b. Demand pricing
c. Competitive pricing
d. Psychological pricing
Answer (b)
98. Bundle pricing is:
a. Providing a bundle of benefits for one price
b. Packaging a group of products together
c. Providing a group of prices for on product category
d. None of these
Answer (b)
99. Internal pricing between departments of the same firm is called:
a. Cost-plus pricing
b. Transfer pricing
c. Internal pricing
d. External pricing
Answer (b)
100. A ____________ policy means that a firm sets one price for all buyers in a given product or
service line.
a. Fixed price
b. Variable price
c. Standard price
d. Dynamic price Answer (a)
101. Which of the following factors is spurring a new movement in pricing towards dynamic
pricing?
a.
b.
c. d.
The federal government
Strong retailers
The Internet strong Wholesalers
Answer (b)
102.
customers and situations.
a. Fixed-pricing
b. Standard-pricing
c. Barter-pricing
d. Dynamic pricing
____________ is the practice of charging different prices depending on individual
Answer (d)
103. Pricing to cover variable costs and some fixed costs, as in the case of some automobile
distributorships that sell below total costs, is typical of which of the following pricing objectives?
a. b. c. d.
Current profit maximization Product quality leadership
Market share leadership
Survival Answer (d)
Choosing a price based upon its short-term effect on current profit, cash flow, or
104.
return on investment reflects which of the following pricing objectives?
a.
b. c. d.
Current profit maximization
Product quality leadership Market share leadership
Survival
Answer (a)
105.
charges high prices to cover higher performance quality and the high cost of R&D necessary to stay
on top of the performance racing field. Which of the following pricing objectives would the
Samuels Company most likely is following as a course of action?
a. Current profit maximization
b. Product quality leadership
c. Market share leadership
d. Survival
Answer (c)
106. When a company sets a price for a new product on the basis of what it thinks the product
should cost, then develops estimates on what each component should cost to meet the proposed
price with an acceptable profit margin, the company is practicing:
a. Predatory pricing
b. Target costing
c. Strategic pricing
d. Low cost leadership

Answer (b)
107. In industries such as aerospace, steel, railroads, and oil, companies often have a
_____________ to set the prices or to help others in setting them.
a. Vice-President of Pricing
b. Pricing Board
c. Pricing Department
d. PFO (Pricing and Financial Officer)
Answer (c)
The Samuels Company, a company that makes performance race cars for dirt tracks,
108. Markup pricing remains popular in the marketplace. Which of the following is a reason for this
popularity?
a. Cost-plus pricing favors the best price.
b. Standard markups make the most sense.
c. Cost-plus pricing is fairer to both buyers and sellers.
d. The method focuses on demand as its base.
Answer (c)
109. Which of the following pricing methods uses the idea that pricing begins with analyzing
consumer needs and value perceptions, and price is set to match consumer’s perceived value?
a. Cost-based pricing
b. Service-based pricing
c. Psychology-based pricing
d. Value-based pricing
Answer (d)
110.When Intel develops a strategy whereby they develop and introduce a newer, higher margin
microprocessor chip every 12 months and send the older models down the industry food chain to
feed demand at lower price points (their new chips can sell for as much as a $1,000 apiece), they are
using which of the following pricing strategies?
a. Market-layer pricing
b. Market-segmentation pricing
c. Market-saturation pricing
d. Market-skimming pricing
Answer (d)
111.The use of price points for reference to different levels of quality for a company’s related
products is typical of which product-mix pricing strategy?
a. Optional-product pricing
b. Captive-product pricing
c. By-product pricing
d. Product line pricing
Answer (d)
112Captive-product pricing applies to services pricing. With respect to services, the captive-product
strategy is called:
a. Demand pricing
b. Slack pricing
c. Two-part pricing
d. Referral pricing
Answer (c)
113.____ is the development of original products, product improvements, product modifications,

and new brands through the firm’s own R&D efforts.
a.Idea generation
b.Concept testing
c. Test marketing
d. New product development
Answer: (d) Difficulty: (1) Page: 264
114. All of the following are different ways a firm can obtain new products, except which one? a By
acquiring a whole new company
b. A firm can obtain a new product through patents
c A firm can obtain a new product by licensing someone else's new product
d.A firm can obtain a new product by using the R&D department of other firms in the same
industry.
one?
a. Although the market size was correctly estimated, the product idea itself was not good. b. The
actual product was not designed as well as it should have been.
c. The new product was priced too high.
d. The new product was advertised poorly.
Answer: (a) Difficulty: (3) Page: 264
116. All of the following are accurate descriptions of ways companies are anxious to learn how to
improve the odds of new-product success, except which one?
a Find out what successful new products have in common.
b. To learn lessons from new product failures.
c. Companies have to learn to understand their own consumers.
d.Do not overly rely on product innovation when you can succeed by copying others.
Answer: (d) Difficulty: (3) Pages: 262-264

117. New-product development starts with _____. a. idea screening
b. idea generation
c. concept development and testing
d. marketing strategy development Answer: (b) Difficulty: (2) Page: 265
118. _____ is the systematic search for new-product ideas. a. Idea generation
b. Idea screening
c. Concept development and testing
d. Marketing strategy development Answer: (a) Difficulty: (1) Page: 265
118. All of the following are major internal sources of new-product ideas, except which one?
a. Picking the brains of company executives, scientists, engineers and salespeople is a good way to
generate ideas.
b. Intrapreneurial programs that encourage employees to think and develop new-product ideas is a
good way to generate ideas.
c. Some companies employ creative approaches, including both "method and madness" in helping
them to generate new product ideas.
d. Good ideas come from watching and listening to customers.
119. Major sources of new product ideas include _____.
a. internal sources, using company R&D

b. creative approaches, using both "method and madness" approaches
120
c. watching and listening to customers
d. all of the above are sources of new product ideas Answer: (d) Difficulty: (2) Page: 266
All of the following are major external sources of new-product ideas, except which one?
a.Companies can conduct surveys or focus groups to learn about consumer needs and wants.
b. Competitors are a good source of new-product ideas.
All of the following are accurate descriptions of new product ideas, except which one?
a. New product development starts with idea generation.
b. Some companies use brainstorming exercises that expand people's minds and generate new ideas
around the client's problem.
c. At the beginning of the process, carefully scrutinize each idea and throw far-fetched and
impractical ones out the window.
d. Customers must be careful not to rely too heavily on customer input when developing new
products.
Answer: (c) Difficulty: (3) Pages: 268-269
121
122.
point where they can be collected, reviewed, and evaluated.
Some companies have installed a(n) _____ that directs the flow of new ideas to a central
a.
b.
c.
d.
Answer: (b) Difficulty: (3) Page: 269
new-product development team idea management system
computer system satellite system
123. In order to install an idea management system, whereby all ideas are directed to a central point,
a company can do any or all of the following:
a. Appoint a respected senior person to be the firm's idea manager.
b. Create a cross-functional idea management committee comprising of people form R&D, finance,
engineering and operations to meet and evaluate new product ideas.
c. Reward employees through formal recognition programs.
d. All of the above are legitimate ways to systematically collect ideas. Answer: (d) Difficulty: (3)
Page: 269
124 The purpose of _____ is to generate a large number of ideas. a. idea screening
b. idea generation
d. marketing strategy development Answer: (b) Difficulty: (2) Page: 270
125 The first idea reducing stage is _____ , which helps spot good ideas and drop poor ones as soon
as possible.
a. idea generation
b. idea screening
126. What are the two ways that a company can obtain new products?
a. market mix modification and research and development
b. internal development and merger
c. new-product development and acquisition
d. line extension and brand management

e.
127. Which of the following is not a potential cause of the failure of a new product?
a. an underestimated market size
b. ineffective advertising
c. higher than anticipated costs of product development
d. an incorrectly positioned product
e. a poorly designed product
Answer (a)
________ and its ability to deliver ________ to customers
a. customers, competitors, and markets; superior value
b. product, marketing mix, and marketing strategy; functional features
c. product life cycle, legal responsibilities, and social responsibilities; innovations
d. competitors, distributors, and employees; new styles
e. customers, brands, products; product images
service development and product extension
Answer (b)
129 .......................includes two visual signals of a brand – its character (e.g. Amul girl, Pillsbury
doughboy) and its logo. Both are elements of brand identity.
a. Brand attitude
b. Brand Image
c. Brand Symbol
d. Brand Positioning Answer: c
130.......................can be thought of as a perceptual map of in which like products of the same

company (say, toothpaste) are positioned very close to one another and compete more with one
another than with brands of other companies.
a. Brand Comparison b. Cannibalization
c. Positioning
d. Brand Associations Answer: b
131 . A marketer need to understand that some ‘general traits’ of a brand name are: a. Easy to
recognize
b. Easy to pronounce
c. Easy to memorize or recall
d. All of the above e. None of the above Answer:d
132 Close up, Doordarshan, Frooti, Babool, Fair and Lovely, Band aid and Ujala are the examples
of...........
a. Descriptive Brand Name b. Suggestive brand name

c. Free Standing brand name d. None of the above
Answer: a
133 Kadak, Xerox, Exxon, Fidji are the examples of a. Free Standing brand name
b. Descriptive Brand Name
c. Suggestive brand name
d. Bothe b and c
Answer: a
134Whisper, Visa, Tropicana, Surf, Limca, Crush, Denim are the examples of a. Descriptive Brand
Name
b. Suggestive brand name
c. Free Standing brand name
Answer: b
135 Watches sold as a Jewellery is related to a. Titan Raga
b. Tanishq
c. Swatch
d. GoldPlus
Answer: b
136 “Jod jo tootega nahin” tagline is related with brand...... a. M-Seal

b. Fevikwik
c. Fevicol
d. Ambooja cement
Answer: c
137 Lifebuoy – kills the germs you cannot see, is an example of a. Emotional benefit related
positioning
b. Functional benefit related positioning
c. Usage occasion related positioning
d. Health related positioning
Answer: b
138 Match the correct
1. Close up 2. JK Tyres 3. J&J
4. Liril Options:
i. Fresh ii. Caring
iii. In control iv. Confident
a. 1(ii), 2(iii), 3(i), 4(iv) b. 1(ii), 2(iv), 3(i), 4(iii)
c. 1(iv), 2(iii), 3(ii), 4(i)

d. 1(ii), 2(iii), 3(iv), 4(i)
Answer: c
139An organization using a name, phrase, design, symbols, or combination of these to identify its
products is:
a. repositioning product lives
b. forming family units
c. trademarking products
d. patenting product
e. branding products
Answer (e)
140 Aggressive pricing is associated with which of the following stage of product life cycle?
a. b. c. d.
141.Market price is also known as:
a. Effective price
b. List price
c. Retail price
d. Wholesaler price
Answer(a)
142. Which of the following firms emphasizes on product’s benefits to the customers rather product
attributes?
a.Product oriented
Introduction Growth Maturity
Decline
Answer(c)
b.Market oriented
c. Sales oriented
d. Production oriented
Answer (b)
143 Firms that use ----- are less likely to damage their reputations if a new product fails.
A)individual branding B)overall family branding C)line family branding D)brand extension
branding Answer (a)
144. Which of the following is NOT a desirable feature for a brand name?
A)it can facilitate the introduction of new products
B)it can become used as the generic name for all products in the category C)it can make it possible
for the firm to engage in non price competition D)it can help develop brand loyalty amongst buyers
Answer (b)
145. The major characteristic of own label brands is that
A)only retailers initiate and own the brand. B)manufacturers are not identified on the product.
C)producers become involved with the marketing mix.
D)producers are identified on the product.

Answer (b)
146. Marketers should view packaging as a major strategic tool, especially for
A)consumer convenience products. B)consumer shopping products. C)industrial products.
D)specialty products.
Answer (a)
147 __________ packaging means that the product is packaged in line with the packaging practices
associated with a particular product category.
A)Category-consistent B)Category-specific C)Innovative D)Multiple-category E)Selective
Answer (a)
148. Multiple packaging is
A)likely to increase demand.
B)the same as family packaging.

C)the most effective type of packaging. D)the most expensive type of packaging.
Answer (b)
149. The label on a soft drink can reads "cool and refreshing." For what reason are these words
used?
A)To provide information
B)To encourage multiple purchases C)To promote the product
D)To satisfy legal requirements Answer (c)
150. A firm may decide that all packages are to be similar or include one major element of the
design. This approach to promote an overall company image is called
A)family extension. B)family packaging. C)overall packaging. D)package extension Answer (b)
151. When brand management becomes the heart of marketing then which one becomes the heart
of brand management. A)Owner’s equity

B)Brand equity C)Brand assets D)Brand value
Answer (b)
152.“Intel inside” is a classic example of which one of the following?
Bundling
A)Ingredient co-branding
B captive branding
c)Joint venture
d)Effective packaging
Answer (a)
________ and its ability to deliver ________ to customers.
A) product life cycle, legal responsibilities, and social responsibilities; innovations
B) product, marketing mix, and marketing strategy; functional features
C) customers, brands, products; product images
D) customers, competitors, and markets; superior value
E) competitors, distributors, and employees; new styles
Answer (d)
154. Executives, manufacturing employees, and salespeople are all examples of ________. A)
research and development team members
B) internal sources for new-product ideas
C) core members of innovation management systems
D) new-product committee members
E) external sources for new-product ideas
Answer (b)
155 Which of the following is perhaps the most important external source of new-product ideas? A)
customers
B) competitors
C) engineers
D) distributors and suppliers
E) trade magazines, shows, and seminars
Answer (a)
156. Your firm wants to use external sources for new product ideas. After consulting with a friend
you learn that all of the following are common external sources except ________.
A) suppliers
B) customers
C) competitors
D) trade shows and magazines E) the firm's executives
Answer (e)
157.GrayBerry Gifts has just brainstormed a large number of ideas for adding new products and
services after visiting several buying fairs. The owners will begin the first idea-reducing stage,
called ________ , to arrive at a realistic number to adopt.
a. concept development
b. idea screening
c. product concept
d. idea dissemination
e. idea generation
Answer (b)
158 A detailed version of a new idea stated in meaningful customer terms is called a ________.
a.product concept b.product movement c.product image d.product idea e.product proposal
Answer (a)
159.An attractive idea must be developed into a ________.

a. product strategy
b. product image
c. product concept
d. test market
e. product idea
160. In the concept testing stage of new-product development, a product concept in ________ form
is presented to a.
b. c. d. e.
groups of target consumers. market-tested
final
commercial
physical or symbolic prototype
Answer (c)
Answer (d)
161. After concept testing, a firm would engage in which stage in developing and marketing a new
product?
idea screening business analysis test marketing product development
Answer (a)
162.The second part of the marketing strategy statement outlines the product's planned price,
distribution, and ________ for the first year.
a. advertising
b. positioning
c. marketing budget
d. target market
e. promotion
Answer (c)
163. During which stage of new-product development is management most likely to estimate
minimum and maximum sales to assess the range of risk in launching a new product?
a. business analysis
b. marketing strategy development

c. product development
d. concept testing
e. test marketing
Answer (a)
164 All of the following are different ways a firm can obtain new products, except which one?
a. By acquiring a whole new company
c. A firm can obtain a new product by licensing someone else's new product
d. A firm can obtain a new product by using the R&D department of other firms in the same
industry.
Answer: (d)
one?
a. Although the market size was correctly estimated, the product idea itself was not good. b. The
actual product was not designed as well as it should have been.
Answer: (a)
166. All of the following are accurate descriptions of ways companies are anxious to learn how to
improve the odds of new-product success, except which one?
a. Find out what successful new products have in common.
d.Do not overly rely on product innovation when you can succeed by copying others. Answer: (d)
167. New-product development starts with _____.
a. idea screening
b. idea generation
c. concept development and testing d. marketing strategy development Answer: (b)
168. _____ is the systematic search for new-product ideas.
a. Idea generation
b. Idea screening
c. Concept development and testing d. Marketing strategy development Answer: (a)
a. Picking the brains of company executives, scientists, engineers and salespeople is a good way to
generate ideas.
b. Intrapreneurial programs that encourage employees to think and develop new-product ideas is a
good way to generate ideas.
Answer: (d)
170 Major sources of new product ideas include _____.
a.internal sources, using company R&D
b.creative approaches, using both "method and madness" approaches c.watching and listening to
customers
d. all of the above are sources of new product ideas

Answer: (d)
171 All of the following are major external sources of new-product ideas, except which one?
a. Companies can conduct surveys or focus groups to learn about consumer needs and wants.
d. Good ideas come from watching and listening to customers. Answer: (d)
172. All of the following are accurate descriptions of new product ideas, except which one?
b. Some companies use brainstorming exercises that expand people's minds and generate new ideas
around the client's problem.
c.At the beginning of the process, carefully scrutinize each idea and throw far-fetched and
products.
Answer: (c)
173. Some companies have installed a(n) _____ that directs the flow of new ideas to a central point
where they can be collected, reviewed, and evaluated.
a. new-product development team b. idea management system
c. computer system
d. satellite system
Answer: (b)
174. In order to install an idea management system, whereby all ideas are directed to a central
point, a company can do any or all of the following:
b. Create a cross-functional idea management committee comprising of people form R&D, finance,
engineering and operations to meet and evaluate new product ideas.
d. All of the above are legitimate ways to systematically collect ideas. Answer: (d)
175. The purpose of _____ is to generate a large number of ideas.
a. idea screening
b. idea generation
Answer: (b)
176. The first idea reducing stage is _____ , which helps spot good ideas and drop poor ones as
soon as possible.
a. idea generation
b. idea screening
c. concept development and testing d. marketing strategy development Answer: (b
177. A _____ is a detailed version of the idea stated in meaningful consumer terms.
a. product idea
b. product concept c. product image d. test market Answer: (b)
178 A _____ is the way consumers perceive an actual or potential product.
a. product idea
b. product concept c. product image d. test market Answer: (c)

179. An attractive idea must be developed into a _____.
a. product idea
b. product concept c. product image d. test market Answer: (b

180 All of the following are accurate descriptions of activities performed in the idea screening
stage of new product development,except which one?
a. Idea screening helps spot good ideas and drop poor ones as soon as possible.
b. Companies want to go ahead only with the product ideas that will turn into profitable products.
c. Many companies require their executives to write up new product ideas on a standard form that
can be reviewed by a new-product committee.
d. Setting up a toll-free number or Web site for anyone who wants to send a new idea to the idea
manager.
Answer: (d)
181. _____ calls for testing new-product concepts with groups of target consumers.
a. Concept development b. Concept testing
c. Idea generation
d. Idea screening Answer: (b)
1. According to Kaplan and Norton, what should be the main perspective of the balanced scorecard?
a. Financial.
2. Kaplan and Norton define a company’s strategy as
e. a., b. and c.
3. Kaplan and Norton define the generic internal value chain as
d. innovation, operations and post sales service.
4. The metaphor used for the balanced scorecard by Kaplan and Norton is
b. a flight simulator.
5. As defined by Kaplan and Norton, leading indicators are always
c. drivers.
6. According to Norton and Kaplan, the balanced scorecard should be used as
c. a strategic system.
7. The various stakeholders include vendors, employees, distributors, customers, stockholders and
society. According to Norton and Kaplan, which of these should be represented on the balanced
scorecard?
d. only those that are vital for achieving the company’s strategy.
8. Norton and Kaplan recommend that a separate balanced scorecard be developed for
c. each division or business unit with the company.
9. Norton and Kaplan argue that balanced scorecard measurements should
d. b. and c.
10. Advocates of which of the following theories would be the most likely to criticize the balanced
scorecard concept?
d. Goldratt’s theory of constraints.
11. In the Balanced Scorecard, Kaplan and Norton describe four perspectives that need to be
balanced for companies to become and remain competitive. Which perspective places more
emphasis on investing in employees?
d. Learning & growth.
12. According to Kaplan & Norton, which of the balanced scorecard perspectives is first in the
chain of cause and effect relationships?
d. Learning & growth.

13. According to Kaplan & Norton, which of the balanced scorecard perspectives serves as the
focus of the other perspectives?
a. Financial.
14. Which of the following is not one of the main parts of the Kaplan-Norton balanced scorecard
concept? Balancing:
b. cash flows and non cash flows.
15. Arrange the five measurements below in the order of cause and effect.
A. Improve customer loyalty.
B. Improve return on capital employed.
C. Improve repeat and expanded sales.
D. Improve cycle time.
E. Improve on time delivery to customer.
F. Improve employee skills.
c. F →D →E →A →C →B
1. Target return pricing gives importance to price elasticity and competitors prices.
a) True
b) False
View Answer / Hide Answer
ANSWER: b) False
2. Perceived value is made up of
a) Buyer's image of the product performance

b) The channel deliverables
c) Customer support
ANSWER: d) None of the above
3. Value pricing focuses on
a) Low price
b) High quality
c) Both a and b
ANSWER: c) Both a and b
4. Everyday low pricing takes place at
a) Retail level
b) Wholesale level
c) Both a and b
ANSWER: a) Retail level
5. In high-low pricing a retailer charges a constant low price with no or little price promotions
and special sales.
a) True
b) False
ANSWER: b) False
6. In going rate pricing an organization bases its price based on
a) Consumers preferences
b) Competitors price
c) Self decision
ANSWER: b) Competitors price
7. English auctions is about
a) Ascending bids
b) Descending bits
c) Sealed bids
ANSWER: a) Ascending bids
8. Dutch auctions is about
a) Ascending bids
b) Descending bits
c) Sealed bids
ANSWER: b) Descending bits
9. In Sealed bid auctions suppliers can submit only
a) One bid
b) Many bids
c) Depends
ANSWER: a) One bid
10. Sealed bid auction is about a
a) One stage bidding process

b) Two stage bidding process
c) Depends
ANSWER: b) Two stage bidding process
1. Marketers set the price of a product or service in a ______ step procedure.
 
 

a) Four
b) Five
c) Six
ANSWER: c) Six
2. While setting the price, marketers
a) Select the pricing objective

b) Estimate demand
c) Analysis competitors cost, offers and prices
d) All of the above
ANSWER: d) All of the above
3. The pricing objectives are
a) Maximum current profit, market share and market skimming

b) Survival
c) Product quality leadership
d) All of the above
4. If companies face intense competition and plagued with over-capacity, the pricing objective
is
a) Survival
b) Maximum current profit
c) Maximum market share
 
 

ANSWER: a) Survival
5. In ___________ company may not focus on long-run performance by ignoring the impact of
other marketing mix variables.
a) Survival
b) Maximum current profit
ANSWER: b) Maximum current profit
6. Marketers focus on ___________ while maximizing market share.
a) Higher sales volume

b) Lower unit costs
c) Both a and b
ANSWER: c) Both a and b
7. Market-penetration pricing strategy can be adopted when
a) Market is highly price sensitive

b) Low price stimulates market growth
c) Both a & b
ANSWER: c) Both a & b
8. In the process of maximum market skimming,
a) Prices start high and slowly decline over time

b) Prices start low and gradually increase over time
c) Prices remain constant

d) All of the above
9. Market skimming works when
a) More number of buyers has a high current demand

b) High price reflects the image of a superior product
c) Both a & b
ANSWER: c) Both a & b
10. In market skimming, high initial prices do not fetch more competitors to the market.
a) True
b) False
ANSWER: a) True
11. Product quality leadership is based on
a) High quality and low pricing

b) High quality and premium pricing
c) Low quality and premium pricing
ANSWER: b) High quality and premium pricing
12. The pricing objective of a university is
a) Partial cost recovery

b) Full cost recovery
ANSWER: a) Partial cost recovery
13. The pricing objective of a nonprofit hospital is
a) Partial cost recovery

b) Full cost recovery
ANSWER: b) Full cost recovery

6/5/2021 E-Marketing MCQ Questions and Answers Part – 1 - SAR Publisher
E-Marketing MCQ Questions and Answers

Part – 1
By A.Sulthan, Ph.D.,
E-Marketing MCQ Questions and Answers Part – 1
1. Modern marketing concept is _____________
A. price oriented
B. consumer oriented
C. product oriented
D. profit oriented
ANSWER: B
2. 4 P’s of Marketing Mix are ______________
A. Price, public, promotion, and profit
B. Place, Price, profit and promotion
C. Product, Price, Place and Profit
D. Product, Price, Place and Promotion
ANSWER: D
3. A place for buying and selling activities is called ______________
A. market
B. marketing
C. market research
D. market information
ANSWER: A
4. Which one of the following statements is correct?
A. selling includes marketing
B. marketing includes selling
C. selling and marketing are the same
D. marketing not including in business
ANSWER: B
5. Marketing research is concerned with _________________
A. anticipation of production
B. supply position
C. financial problems
D. solution to specific problems of marketing
ANSWER: D
6. Mercatus means __________________
A. buying
B. to trade
C. to assembleD. to sell
ANSWER: B
7. Perfect market means ___________
A. prices are not uniform
https://www.sarpublisher.com/e-marketing-mcq-questions-and-answers-part-1/ 1/8
B. product are not identical
C. free entry and exit into market


D. lack of communication
ANSWER: C
A. profit
B. service
C. sales
D. consumer satisfaction
ANSWER: D
9. Markets are created by ____________
A. nature
B. economic force
C. business men
D. product
ANSWER: B
10. Zero level channel of distribution is also called as _______________

A. direct marketing
B. multilevel marketing
C. two level marketing
D. micro level marketing
ANSWER: A
11. Marketing begins and ends with __________________
A. consumer
B. transport
C. price
D. product
ANSWER: A
12. ——— brings about the changes in the ownership of products
A. exchange
B. storing
C. promotion
D. MIS
ANSWER: A
13. —– is the most fundamental aspect for any merchandise transactions
A. financing
B. grading
C. insurance
D. packing
ANSWER: A
14. ———- plays a significant role in under developed countries, as it is a multiplier

ofactivities.
A. sales
B. buying
C. marketing
D. production
ANSWER: C
15. In evolution of marketing ——– stage was concerned only with mass production of
goods.

B. barter system
ANSWER: A
16. In ——stage selling activity becomes the dominant factor, without any efforts for the
satisfaction of the consumer needs.
B. barter system
ANSWER: C
17. According to whom-“market includes both place and region in which buyers and sellers
are
in free competition with one another”
A. pyle
B. kotler
C. drucker
D. clark and clark
ANSWER: A
18. Marketing emphasizes on ____________
A. consumer wants
B. sellers need
C. manufactures profit
D. retailers margin
ANSWER: A
19. Factors influencing marketing concepts——-
A. population growth
B. assembling of goods
C. physical transfer of goods
D. scatter of goods
ANSWER: A
20. ———- are networks that connect people within a company to each other and to the
company network.
A. internets
B. extranets
C. bit streams
D. WWW
ANSWER: B
21. The price determination of the product, under _______ method, is made on the basis of
costof production plus an additional margin of cost.
A. demand based
B. cost based
C. cost-demand based
D. competition based
ANSWER: B
22. The place where the goods are stored is known as _______

A. warehouse
B. market
C. cabin
D. stores
ANSWER: A
23. The exchange value of a good/service in terms of money is ____________
A. price
B. product
C. buying
D. selling
ANSWER: A
24. Selling the same product at different prices is known as ___________
A. price lining
B. dual pricing
D. monopoly pricing
ANSWER: B
25. The words used to convey the advertisement idea is _______________
A. advertisement
B. advertisement research
C. advertisement copy
D. advertisement budget
ANSWER: C
26. Fixing a high price for a new product will be called as ——
A. price skimming
C. dual pricing
ANSWER: A
A. identification
B. recognition
C. preference
D. insistence
ANSWER: D
28. Pricing based on area is called as——
A. domestic pricing
C. skimming pricingD. cost plus pricing
ANSWER: B
29. Sales management deals with ______________
A. sales
B. product
C. profit
D. market
ANSWER: D
30. The distance between the seller and buyer is considered in ________ pricing

A. Geographical
B. penetration
C. skimming
D. sealed pricing
ANSWER: A
31. Consumer purchasing power is determined by ___________
A. salary
B. disposable income
C. total income
D. price
ANSWER: B
32. A group of products that are closely related is called ___________
A. product mix
B. product line
C. product item
D. product diversification
ANSWER: B
33. ____________ is also known as cost plus pricing.
A. Mark up pricing
B. penetration pricing
D. dual pricing
ANSWER: A
34. Identify the one which is demand based pricing ____________
A. target pricing
B. mark up pricing
C. marginal pricing
D. skimming pricing
ANSWER: B
35. AGMARK standardization is given to _____________
A. industrial goods
B. agricultural goods
C. imported goods
D. consumer goods
ANSWER: B
36. Product mix is the set of all product __________A. lines and items
B. lines
C. items
D. width
ANSWER: A
37. ——- is the first step in marketing
A. buying
B. selling
C. assembling
D. financing
ANSWER: A
38. Transportation creates ——- utility.


A. time
B. place
C. form
D. storage
ANSWER: B
39. Warehouse creates —–utility.
A. place
B. time
C. form
D. storage
ANSWER: B
40. Brand is a means of —–
A. communication
B. identification
C. packing
D. specialization
ANSWER: B
A. persuasion
B. illusion
C. forcing
D. communication
ANSWER: C
42. Price is an ________ term.
A. absolute
B. relative
C. composite
D. standard
ANSWER: A
43. ———— creates a particular image in the minds of consumer
A. branding
B. personal selling
C. grading
D. product planningANSWER: A
44. The second element to effect the volume of sales is ____________
A. price
B. product
C. promotion
D. distribution
ANSWER: A
45. Anything which possess utility is ——
A. product
B. finished goods
C. raw materials
D. stock
ANSWER: A
46. Website build to engage customers from different places to move them closer for 
marketing
outcome is classified as ______________
A. corporate website
B. marketing website
C. branding website
D. viral website
ANSWER: B
47. ——– may be defined as the exchange of goods or services in terms of money.
A. price
B. product
C. grading
D. branding
ANSWER: A
48. Group of online social communities such as virtual worlds, social networking sites and
blogs where people exchange opinions is classified as ____________
A. Inbound social networks
B. Outbound social networks
C. Offline social networks
D. Online social networks
ANSWER: D
49. ———- creates a non personal stimulation of demand in advertising
A. pricing
B. production
C. public relation
D. distribution
ANSWER: A
50. The stage in the product life cycle that focuses on expanding market and creating
product
awareness and trail is the ——
A. decline stage
B. introduction stage
C. growth stage
D. maturity stage
ANSWER: C
A.Sulthan, Ph.D.,
https://g.co/kgs/881Hce
Author and Assistant Professor in Finance, Ardent fan of Arsenal FC.

Always believe "The only good is knowledge
and the only evil is ignorance - Socrates"







Part – 2
51. A __________ is a promotion strategy that calls for using the sales force and trade
promotion to move the product through channels.
A. push strategy
B. pull strategy
ANSWER: A
52. Consumer goods with unique characteristics or brand identification often requiring a
special purchase effort are called—–
A. custom product
B. specialty products
C. convenience product
D. shopping products
ANSWER: D
A. need recognition
B. brand identification
C. information search
D. purchase decision
ANSWER: B
54. ___________ is a tool used to provide information and induce the people to buy the
products.
A. Price
B. Profit
C. Promotion
D. Publicity
ANSWER: C
55. Advertisement promotes ______________
A. purchase
B. production
C. sales
D. price
ANSWER: C
56. ——— is a process by which a product is branded.
A. brand
B. branding
C. packaging
D. pricing
ANSWER: B

57. The main principle of cooperative marketing is _______________
A. more profit
B. increased production
C. normal profit with service
D. low price
ANSWER: C58. ——– is a part of the product, which carries verbal information about the
product.
A. label
B. price
C. product
D. bill
ANSWER: A
59. A___________ is a good offered either free or at low cost as an incentive to buy a
product.
A. patronage reward
B. coupon
C. price pack
D. premium
ANSWER: D
60. Middlemen will increase the—–
A. price of the product
B. quality of the product
C. profit of the product
D. time and place utility of the product
ANSWER: D
61. When advertising is reached to the residential place of the people it is called ________
A. promotional advertising
B. outdoor advertising
C. indoor advertising
D. direct advertising
ANSWER: C
62. __________is an element of buying.
A. financing
B. assembling
C. risk bearing
D. customer services
ANSWER: B
63. An advertisement copy must have_____________
A. description
B. narration
C. exposition
D. report
ANSWER: A
64. Sales promotion tool includes ___________
A. appeals
B. coupons
C. vertical marketing

D. price
ANSWER: B
65. Standardization includes _________
A. estimating demand
B. locating sources of supply
C. grading
D. product line
ANSWER: C
66. The middlemen who do not take any title to goods is __________
A. retailer
B. wholesaler
C. agent
D. commission houses
ANSWER: C
67. ——— is allowed in the form of deductions from the list price.
A. trade discount
B. quantity decisions
C. cash discount
D. seasonal discount
ANSWER: A
68. ___________ is price at which a retailer sells the products to his buyers.
A. retail price
B. wholesale price
C. FOB price
D. administered price
ANSWER: A
____________
A. packing
B. purchasing
C. sales promotion
D. marketing
ANSWER: C
70. _________ gives a chance to the consumers to compare the products with their
substitutes.
A. sampling
B. contest
C. premium offers
D. distribution
ANSWER: A
71. ———is a mass communication of information intended to persuade buyers as to

maximize
profits.
A. advertising
B. salesmanship
C. sales promotion
D. personal selling

ANSWER: A
72. ———- and other forms of promotion are supported by an advertisement.
A. personal selling
B. branding
C. promotion
D. publicityANSWER: A
73. ——- are published according to the taste or liking of the public.
A. magazines
B. journals
C. newspaper
D. special issues
ANSWER: A
74. ——– is a group of persons, who are experts on various phases of advertising and
related
marketing areas.
A. advertising agency
B. marketing agency
C. promotion agency
D. marketing research agency
ANSWER: A
75. ———- influences the buyer to buy a product
A. personal selling
B. packing
C. price
D. grading
ANSWER: A
76. Products reach the hands of customers through a number of channels, of that the
main
channels is——-
A. distributor
B. wholesaler
C. retailer
D. agents
ANSWER: B
77. ——– is a wide term which includes advertising, sales and personal selling.
A. distribution
B. warehousing
C. promotion
D. transportation
ANSWER: C
78. An example of agent middleman ——
A. broker
B. retailer
C. wholesaler
D. truck jobbers
ANSWER: A
79. An example of merchant middlemen ____


A. commission agent
B. wholesaler
C. resident buyers
D. factors
ANSWER: B80. The wholesaler who don’t provide credit and transport facility are called as
——-
A. cash and carry wholesaler
B. limited function wholesaler
C. mail-order wholesaler
D. full-service wholesaler
ANSWER: A
81. Services rendered by wholesaler to manufacturer is ——
A. acting as an intermediary
B. advise to retailer
C. facilitating small purchase
D. to keep varieties of goods
ANSWER: A
82. A ——- is a promotion strategy that calls for using the sales force and trade promotion
to
A. push strategy
B. pull strategy
ANSWER: A
ANSWER: A
84. Distributional activities involve decision regarding——-
A. advertisement
C. decision making
ANSWER: B
85. Assembling of goods means bringing goods to a —-place
A. central
B. market
C. consumer
D. seller’s
ANSWER: A
86. Transport involves —— goods from their place of origin to the place of their
consumption.
A. distributing
B. collecting

C. sending
D. controlling
ANSWER: A
87. The social aspect of marketing is to ensure——
A. price
B. demandC. low price with high quality
D. service goods
ANSWER: C
88. Unwanted and unsolicited commercial e-mails that clog up e-mailboxes of users is
classified as______________________
A. Invasion of privacy
B. Spam
C. Virus
D. Deception
ANSWER: B
89. ——- consists of dividing a market into distinct groups of buyers on the basis of needs,
characteristics, or behaviour who might require separate products.
A. product differentiation
B. market segmentation
C. market targeting
D. market positioning
ANSWER: B
90. Market segmentation is ——–
A. dividing
B. targeting
C. positioning
D. differentiation
ANSWER: A
91. The behaviour exhibited by people in the course of purchasing is ——
A. seller behaviour
B. consumer behaviour
C. government behaviour
D. purchase behaviour
ANSWER: B
92. The process of subdividing total markets into several submarket is ——
A. market fluctuating
B. market positioning
C. market segmentation
D. market penetration
ANSWER: C
93. Sound marketing of a product is depended upon ——
A. good product
B. better prices
C. consumer
D. proper distribution
ANSWER: C
94. ——– goods are meant for final consumption.


A. consumer
B. convenience
C. shopping
D. specialtyANSWER: A
95. ——— is all psychological, social and physical behaviour of potential consumer.
B. seller behaviour
C. manufacturer behaviour
D. household behaviour
ANSWER: A
96. A buyer makes a purchase of a particular product or a particular brand is termed as

——
A. product buying motives
B. patronage motives
C. selection motives
D. purchase motives
ANSWER: A
97. A careful study of —– will facilitate the marketer in determining the size, from, style,
colour, package etc.
B. manufacturers potential
C. market
D. market segmentation
ANSWER: A
98. The process whereby individuals decide whether, what, when, how and from whom to
purchase goods and services can be termed as ——-
A. buyer behaviour
B. household behaviour
C. product buying motives
D. purchase motives
ANSWER: A
99. Motives refers to strong———
A. emotions
B. purchase power
C. needs
D. behaviour
ANSWER: A
100. Buying decision of a customer depends on his——

A. attitude
B. promotion
C. price
D. product
ANSWER: A
A.Sulthan, Ph.D.,








Part – 3
101. A satisfied buyer is a silent ——
A. advertiser
B. salesman
C. promotion
D. target market
ANSWER: A102. A consumer chooses an alternative which gives maximum——
A. satisfaction
B. usage
C. utility
D. durability
ANSWER: A
103. The buying process begins when a person has —–
A. a satisfied need
B. an unsatisfied need
C. an immediate need
D. a future need
ANSWER: B
104. Online journals where people post their reviews and thoughts on narrow topic are
classified as
A. Business domain website
B. Corporate website
C. Blogs
D. Marketing website
ANSWER: C
105. The external factor of consumer behaviour are also called as —-
A. environmental factors
B. consumer behaviour factors
C. product factors
D. specific factor
ANSWER: A
106. Economics explains that consumer behaviour in relation to —— factors
A. social
B. economic
C. product factor
D. specific factor
ANSWER: B
107. A collection of individuals which influences individual’s opinion are called as ——
A. reference groups
B. advertising agency

C. manufactures
D. friends
ANSWER: A
108. Culture refers to ______________
A. needs, motives, perception
B. wants, search, decide
C. product preference
D. social values, language, customs
ANSWER: D
109. —– carry their goods from place to place in handcraft and sell them to the consumers
at
their doorsteps.
A. hawkers
B. pedlars
C. cheap jacks
D. street traders
ANSWER: A
110. ——– and —— are the criteria for market segmentation.
A. accessibility, user status
B. accessibility, loyal status
C. accessibility, attitude
D. accessibility, responsiveness
ANSWER: D
111. The purpose of segmentation is to —– the changing pattern of consumers.
A. measure
B. access
C. identify
D. usage rate
ANSWER: A
112. In —– the whole market is divided into different geographic units
ANSWER: B
113. Division of market on the basis of variables like gender, income, occupation,
education are
called as—–
C. socio – economic segmentation
ANSWER: A
114. A market may be segmented by classifying people according to their enthusiasm for a
product are termed as——
A. attitude segmentation

C. socio- economic segmentation
D. psyshographic segmentation
ANSWER: A
115. Benefits of segmentation——
A. reduced scale
B. shifting loyals
C. unknowm markets
D. determining marketing strategies
ANSWER: D
116. When the consumers are classified on the basis of religion, customs, culture are
termed as —–
ANSWER: C
117. Consumers who buy one brand all the time———
A. hard core loyals
B. safe core loyals
C. shifting loyals
D. switchers
ANSWER: A
118. Consumers who are loyal to two or three brands —–
A. hard core loyals
B. safe core loyals
C. shifting loyals
D. switchers
ANSWER: B
119. Agricultural products are——
A. perishable
B. highly priced
C. low-quality products
D. heterogeneous goods
ANSWER: D
120. Identify the one which comes under service marketing——
A. insurance
B. motor cars
C. refrigerators
D. television
ANSWER: A
121. ———– marketing is identifying and serving the needs of consumers living in villages.
A. rural
B. agricultural marketing
C. retail marketing
D. international marketing
ANSWER: A
122. Increasing competition in —— markets make —– markets attractive.


A. urban, rural
B. urban, retail
C. urban, agricultural
D. urban, wholesale
ANSWER: A
123. The —— level of urban consumers is high and hence product features have to be
changed often.
A. awareness
B. educational
C. loyalty
D. satisfaction
ANSWER: A
124. ——– marketing is concerned with the flow of goods and services from urban to rural
and vice versa.
A. urban
B. retail
C. international
D. rural
ANSWER: D
A. change in rural consumer behaviour
B. marketing strategies
C. promotional strategies
D. product mix
ANSWER: A
126. ——— is the final stage of any economic activity.
A. retail
B. wholeslae
C. brokering
D. fatoring
ANSWER: A
127. Green marketing——-
A. making environmental friendly product
B. making more products with natural ingredients
C. make use of more green colours in packages
D. educate marketers about the importance of natural environment
ANSWER: A
128. ———- are products bought by individuals and organisations for further processing
or use in conducting a business.
A. consumer products
B. services
C. industrial products
D. specialty products
ANSWER: C
129. The increased —– has enhanced rural demand for several products.
A. income
B. purchase power

C. awareness
D. population
ANSWER: A
130. Product specifications like design, price and durability should be in accordance with
the needs of ——- masses.
A. rural
B. urban
C. producer
D. retailer
ANSWER: A131. Rural India has many fairs and festivals and marketers use these platforms
for——
A. brand promotions
B. price strategy
C. marketing strategy
D. formulating strategies
ANSWER: A
132. Marketing communication in the rural area has to be in ——
A. local language
B. press media
C. national language
D. outdoor media
ANSWER: A
133. ——— is where goods are sold directly to consumers
A. e-commerce
B. retail marketing
C. product strategy
D. pricing decision
ANSWER: A
134. When a product is sold ——utility is created
A. ownership
B. time
C. place
D. transport
ANSWER: A
135. A retailer creates —– utility by keeping the store open when the consumers prefer to
shop
A. ownership
B. time
C. place
D. transport
ANSWER: B
136. A retailer by being available at a convenient location, he creates—– utility
A. ownership
B. time
C. place
D. transport
ANSWER: C

137. ——– is the largest global online auction website
A. e-bay
B. alibaba.com
C. wal-mart
D. relience fresh
ANSWER: A
138. What is COPRA?
A. Consumer Operating Protection Regulation Authority
B. Consumer Protection Act
C. Consumer Protection Authority
D. All of the above
ANSWER: B
139. The limitations of e-marketing is —–
A. the inability to touch and feel
B. instant cash payment
C. touch and feel
D. immediate delivery
ANSWER: A
140. ——– is the encompassing term that involves the use of electronic platform-intranets,
extranet and the internet to conduct a company’s business.
A. e- procurement
B. e-business
C. e-commerce
D. e-marketing
ANSWER: A
A. e-commerce can help to reduce cots
B. e-commerce is a powerful tool for customer relationship building
C. e-commerce increases the net cost per contact
D. e-commerce offers greater flexibility in meeting customer needs.
ANSWER: C
142. The e-commerce domain that involves business activity initiated by the consumer and
targeted to businesses is known as __________
A. business to business – B2B
B. consumer to consumer – C2C
C. business to consumer – B2C
D. consumer to business – C2B
ANSWER: C
143. In the market place, consumers are exploited when ______________
A. Shopkeepers weigh less than what they should
B. Traders add charges that were not mentioned before
C. Adulterated / Defective goods are sold
D. All of the above
ANSWER: D
144. The type of website that is designed to build customer goodwill and to supplement
other sales channels rather than sell the company’s products directly is known as a ——–
website

A. customer service
B. click-and mortar
C. marketing
D. corporate
ANSWER: B
145. ———- is an online advertisement that pops up between changes on a website
A. border
B. plunge
C. boarder
D. interstitialANSWER: B
146. Consumer day is celebrated on ________
A. January 15th
B. April 15
C. March 15
D. December 15
ANSWER: C
147. Consumer Protection Act was formed in _______
A. 1987
B. 1984
C. 1986
D. 2007
ANSWER: C
148. What does the following definition refer to? “Achieving marketing objectives through
the use of any electronic communications technology”
A. e-business
B. e-commerce
C. e-marketing
ANSWER: C
149. Responsibility of a consumer includes _____________
A. Exercise rights
B. Quality conscious
C. Insist on cash memo
D. All of the above
ANSWER: D
150. Consumer Protection is important for business because of _______________
A. Long term investment
B. Social responsibilities
C. Use in society’s resources
D. All of the above
ANSWER: D
A.Sulthan, Ph.D.,








E-MARKETING
Multiple Choice Questions & Answers
1. ________ is the most fundamental aspect for any merchandise transactions.
A. financing
B. grading
C. insurance
D. packing
ANSWER: A
2. _________ plays a significant role in under developed countries, as it is a multiplier of
activities.
A. sales
B. buying
C. marketing
D. production
ANSWER: C
3. In evolution of marketing _________ stage was concerned only with mass production of
goods.
B. barter system
ANSWER: A
4. Fixing a high price for a new product will be called as ___________

A. price skimming
C. dual pricing
ANSWER: A
A. identification
B. recognition
C. preference
D. insistence
ANSWER: D
6. Pricing based on area is called as ___________
A. domestic pricing
C. skimming pricing
D. cost plus pricing
ANSWER: B
_______
A. packing
B. purchasing
C. sales promotion
D. marketing
ANSWER: C
8. __________ gives a chance to the consumers to compare the products with their
substitutes.
A. sampling
B. contest
C. premium offers
E-MARKETING
Multiple Choice Questions & Answers
D. distribution
ANSWER: A
9. _________ is a mass communication of information intended to persuade buyers as to
maximize profits.
A. advertising
B. salesmanship
C. sales promotion
D. personal selling
ANSWER: A
10. A _________ is a promotion strategy that calls for using the sales force and trade promotion
to move the product channels.
A. push strategy
B. pull strategy
ANSWER: A
ANSWER: A
12. Distributional activities involve decision regarding ______
A. advertisement
C. decision making
ANSWER: B
E‐Commerce
BCom
III Sem
Multiple Choice Questions

1. Which of the following describes e‐commerce?
a. Doing business electronically
b. Doing business
c. Sale of goods
d. All of the above
Answer: A
2. Which of the following is part of the four main types for e‐commerce?
a. B2B
b. B2C
c. C2B
d. All of the above
Answer: D
3. Which segment do eBay, Amazon.com belong?
a. B2Bs
b. B2Cs
c. C2Bs
d. C2Cs
Answer: B
4. Which type of e‐commerce focuses on consumers dealing with each other?
a. B2B
b. B2C
c. C2B
d. C2C
Answer: D
5. Which segment is eBay an example?
a. B2B
b. C2B
c. C2C
Answer: D
6. Which type deals with auction?
a. B2B
b. B2C
c. C2B
d. C2C
Answer: D
7. In which website Global Easy Buy is facilitated?
a. Ebay.com
b. Amazon.com
c. Yepme.com
d. None of these
Answer: A
8. The best products to sell in B2C e‐commerce are:
a. Small products
b. Digital products
c. Specialty products
d. Fresh products
Answer: B
9. Which products are people most likely to be more uncomfortable buying on the Internet?
a. Books
b. Furniture
c. Movies
d. All of the above
Answer: B
10. Which products are people most likely to be comfortable buying on the Internet?
a. Books
b. PCs
c. CDs
d. All of the above
Answer: D
11. Digital products are best suited for B2C e‐commerce because they:
a. Are commodity like products
b. Can be mass‐customized and personalized
c. Can be delivered at the time of purchase
d. All of the above
Answer: D
12. The solution for all business needs is
a. EDI
b. ERP
c. SCM
Answer: B
13. All of the following are techniques B2C e‐commerce companies use to attract customers,
except:
a. Registering with search engines
b. Viral marketing
c. Online ads
d. Virtual marketing
Answer: D
14. Which is a function of E‐commerce
a. marketing
b. advertising
c. warehousing
d. all of the above
Answer: D
15. Which is not a function of E‐commerce
a. marketing
b. advertising
c. warehousing
Answer: C
16. Which term represents a count of the number of people who visit one site, click on an ad, and
are taken to the site of the advertiser?
a. Affiliate programs
b. Click‐through
c. Spam
d. All of the above
Answer: B
17. What is the percentage of customers who visit a Web site and actually buy something called?
a. Affiliate programs
b. Click‐through
c. Spam
d. Conversion rate
Answer: D
18. What are materials used in production in a manufacturing company or are placed on the shelf
for sale in a retail environment?
a. Direct materials
b. Indirect materials
c. EDI
Answer: A
19. What are materials that are necessary for running a modern corporation, but do not relate to
the company's primary business activities?
a. Direct materials
c. EDI
Answer: B
20. What are ballpoint pens purchased by a clothing company?
a. Direct materials
c. EDI
Answer: B
21. What is another name for?
a. Direct materials
c. EDI
Answer: B
22. What is the process in which a buyer posts its interest in buying a certain quantity of items, and
sellers compete for the business by submitting successively lower bids until there is only one
seller left?
a. B2B marketplace
b. Intranet
c. Reverse auction
d. Internet
Answer: C
23. What are plastic cards the size of a credit card that contains an embedded chip on which digital
information can be stored?
a. Customer relationship management systems cards
b. E‐government identity cards
c. FEDI cards
d. Smart cards
Answer: D
24. Most individuals are familiar with which form of e‐commerce?
a. B2B
b. B2C
c. C2B
d. C2C
Answer: B
25. Which form of e‐commerce currently accounts for about 97% of all e‐commerce revenues?
a. B2B
b. B2C
c. C2B
d. C2C
Answer: A
26. Which of the following are advantages normally associated with B2B e‐commerce?
a. Shorter cycle times
b. Reduction in costs
c. Reaches wider audiences
d. all of the above
Answer: D
27. If the threat of substitute products or services is low it is a(n):
a. Disadvantage to the supplier
b. Advantage to the buyer
c. Advantage to the supplier
Answer: C
28. The threat of new entrants is high when it is:
a. Hard for customers to enter the market
b. Hard for competitors to enter the market
c. Easy for competitors to enter the market
d. Easy for customers to enter the market
Answer: C
29. If it is easy for competitors to enter the market, the threat of new entrants is considered:
a. High
b. Low
c. More
d. Less
Answer: A
30. An industry is less attractive for suppliers when the rivalry among existing competitors is:
a. High
b. Low
c. More
d. Less
Answer: A
31. Unique value auction is mainly applies to?
a. New products
b. Second hand products
c. Engineering products
i. Answer: B
32. Paisapay is facilitated in
a. eBay.co.in
b. amazon.com
c. flipkart.com
Answer: A
33. Which of the following is a useful security mechanism when considering business strategy and
IT?
a.encryption
b.decryption
c.firewall
d.all the above
Answer: D
34. Which of the following is not related to security mechanism
a. encryption
b. decryption
c. e‐cash
d. all the above
Answer: C
35. A product or service that customers have come to expect from an industry, which must be
offered by new entrants if they wish to compete and survive, is known as a(n)?
a. Switching costs
b. Loyalty programs
c. Entry barriers
d. Affiliate programs
Answer: C
36. Which of the following statements accurately reflect the impact of technology?
a. Technology has caused buyer power to increase
b. Technology has lessened the entry barriers for many industries
c. Technology has increased the threat of substitute products and services
d. all of the above
Answer: D
37. A business cannot be all things to all people. Instead, a business must:
a. Identify target customers
b. Identify the value of products/services as perceived by customers
c. all of the above
Answer: C
38. How the transactions occur in e‐commerce?
a. Using e‐medias
b. Using computers only
c. Using mobile phones only
Answer: A
39. Which type of products is lesser purchased using ecommerce?
a. automobiles
b. books
c. softwares
d. none
Answer: A
40. A business competing in a commodity like environment must focus on which of the following?
a. Price
b. Ease / speed of delivery
c. Ease of ordering
d. all of the above
Answer: D
41. Which of the following refers to creating products tailored to individual customers?
a. customization
b. aggregation
c. Direct materials
d. Reverse auction
Answer: A
42. Materials used in the normal operation of a business but not related to primary business
operations are called what?
a. Supplies
b. Direct materials
c. Indirect materials
d. Daily stuff
Answer: C
43. Amazon.com is well‐known for which e‐commerce marketing technique?
a. Banner ads
b. Pop‐up ads
c. Affiliate programs
d. Viral marketing
Answer: C
44. What is the name given to an interactive business providing a centralized market where many
buyers and suppliers can come together for e‐commerce or commerce‐related activities?
a. Direct marketplace
b. B2B
c. B2C
d. Electronic marketplace
Answer: D
45. Which form of e‐marketplace brings together buyers and sellers from multiple industries, often
for MRO materials?
a. horizontal
b. Vertical
c. Integrated
d. Inclined
Answer: A
46. Which form of e‐marketplace brings together buyers and sellers from the same industry?
a. horizontal
b. Vertical
c. Integrated
d. Inclined
Answer: B
47. Which type of add appears on a web page?
a. pop‐under ad
b. Pop‐up ad
c. Banner ad
d. Discount ad
Answer: C
48. What type of ad appears on top of a web page?
a. pop‐under ad
b. pop‐up ad
c. banner ad
d. discount ad
Answer: B
49. What type of ad appears under a web page?
a. pop‐under ad
b. pop‐up ad
c. banner ad
d. discount ad
Answer: A
50. Which, if any, of the following types of ads are people most willing to tolerate?
a. pop‐under ad
b. pop‐up ad
c. banner ad
Answer: D
51. Which of the following is an Internet‐based company that makes it easy for one person to pay
another over the Internet?
a. electronic check
b. electronic bill presentment and payment
c. conversion rates
d. financial cybermediary
Answer: D
52. Which of the following is a method of transferring money from one person's account to
another?
a. electronic check
b. credit card
c. e‐transfer
Answer: A
53. An electronic check is one form of what?
a. e‐commerce
b. online banking
c. e‐cash
d. check
54. If you need to transfer money to another person via the internet, which of the following
methods could you use?
a. financial cybermediary
b. electronic check
c. electronic bill presentment and payment
d. all of the above
Answer: D
55. Which of the following permits the transmission of a bill, along with payment of that bill, to be
conducted over the Internet?
a. financial cybermediary
b. electronic check
c. electronic bill presentment and payment
d. all of the above
Answer: C
56. A combination of software and information designed to provide security and information for
payment is called a what?
a. digital wallet
b. pop up ad
c. shopping cart
d. encryption
Answer: A
57. What is the name for direct computer‐to‐computer transfer of transaction information
contained in standard business documents?
a. internet commerce
b. e‐commerce
c. transaction information transfer
d. electronic data interchange
Answer: D
58. Which of the following is used in B2B to pay for purchases?
a. e‐commerce
b. financial electronic data interchange
c. electronic data exchange
d. electronic checks
Answer: B
59. Public key encryption uses multiple keys. One key is used to encrypt data, while another is used
to decrypt data. The key used to encrypt data is called the _____ key, while the key used to
decrypt data is called the _____ key.
a. encryption, decryption
b. private, public
c. encryption, public
d. public, private
Answer: D
60. Secure Sockets Layers does which of the following?
a. creates a secure, private connection to a web server
b. encrypts information
c. sends information over the internet
d. all of the above
Answer: D
61. When a transaction is processed online, how can the merchant verify the customer's identity?
a. use secure sockets layers
b. use secure electronic transactions
c. use electronic data interchange
d. use financial electronic data interchange
Answer: B
62. The practice of forging a return address on an e‐mail so that the recipient is fooled into
revealing private information is termed?
a. hacking
b. cracking
c. dumpster diving
d. spoofing
Answer: D
63. What is a model of a proposed product, service, or system?
a. Prototyping
b. Prototype
c. Proof‐of‐concept prototype
d. Selling prototype
Answer: B
64. What is an internal organizational Internet that is guarded against outside access by a special
security feature called a firewall (which can be software, hardware, or a combination of the
two)?
a. Client/server network
b. Intranet
c. Extranet
d. Thin client
Answer: B
65. What is an intranet that is restricted to an organization and certain outsiders, such as customers
and suppliers?
a. Client/server network
b. Intranet
c. Extranet
d. Thin client
Answer: C
66. What is a detailed process for recovering information or an IT system in the event of a
catastrophic disaster such as a fire or flood?
a. Disaster recovery plan
b. Hot site
c. Cold site
d. Disaster recovery cost curve
Answer: A
67. What is a separate facility that does not have any computer equipment but is a place where the
knowledge workers can move after the disaster?
b. Hot site
c. Cold site
Answer: C
68. What is a separate and fully equipped facility where the company can move immediately after
the disaster and resume business?
b. Hot site
c. Cold site
Answer: B
69. What charts (1) the cost to your organization of the unavailability of information and technology
and (2) the cost to your organization of recovering from a disaster over time?
b. Hot site
c. Cold site
Answer: D
70. Which factor determines when your IT system will be available for knowledge workers to
access?
a. Availability
b. Accessibility
c. Reliability
Answer: A
71. Which factor determines who has the right to access different types of IT systems and
information?
a. Availability
b. Accessibility
c. Reliability
d. Scalability
Answer: B
72. Which factor ensures your IT systems are functioning correctly and providing accurate
information?
a. Availability
b. Accessibility
c. Reliability
d. Scalability
Answer: C
73. Which factor represents how well your system can adapt to increased demands?
a. Availability
b. Accessibility
c. Reliability
d. Scalability
Answer: D
74. Which factor represents a system's ability to change quickly?
a. Flexibility
b. Performance
c. Capacity planning
d. Benchmark
Answer: A
75. What is a set of conditions used to measure how well a product or system functions?
a. Flexibility
b. Performance
d. Benchmark
Answer: D
76. What determines the future IT infrastructure requirements for new equipment and additional
network capacity?
a. Flexibility
b. Performance
d. Benchmark
Answer: C
77. What automates business processes?
a. Workflow
b. ASP
c. Workflow system
d. EIP
Answer: C
78. What defines all of the steps or business rules, from beginning to end, required for a process to
run correctly?
a. Workflow
b. EIP
c. Workflow system
d. SLA
Answer: A
79. What sends work assignments through an e‐mail system?
a. Database‐based enterprise information portal
b. Messaging‐based enterprise information portal
c. Database‐based workflow system
d. Messaging‐based workflow system
Answer: D
80. Which will not harm computer resources
a. firewall
b. Virus
c. Trojan horse
Answer: A
81. Which is not a function of ERP?
a. Warehousing
b. sales
c. scheduling
Answer: D
82. Which is a function of ERP?
a. Warehousing
b. sales
c. scheduling
d. all of the above
Answer: D
83. Which of the following is the primary characteristic of an intranet?
a. People outside the organization can access it
b. People inside the organization can't access it
c. People outside the organization can't access it
Answer: C
84. Which concept suggests that different applications and computer systems should be able to
communicate with one another?
a. Integration
b. Web services
c. Scalability
d. Interoperability
Answer: D
85. Which service encompasses all technologies used to transmit and process information on an
across a network?
a. Interoperability
b. Scalability
c. Benchmarking
d. Web services
Answer: D
86. Which process can prevent data from lose due to computer problems or human errors?
a. backup
b. recovery
c. benchmarking
d. data cleansing
Answer: A
87. Which process is used to reinstall data from a copy when the original data has been lost?
a. backup
b. recovery
c. benchmarking
d. data cleansing
Answer: B
88. What describes a process of continuously measuring results and comparing those results to
optimal performance so that actual performance may be improved?
a. Performance
b. Capacity planning
c. Benchmarking
d. Data cleansing
Answer: C
89. Who protects system from external threats?
a. firewall
b. EDI
c. ERP
d. Script kiddies
Answer: A
90. Who breaks into other people's computer systems and steals and destroys information?
a. Hackers
b. softwares
c. Hacktivists
d. Script kiddies
Answer: a
91. What is software that comes hidden in free downloadable software and tracks your online
movements, mines the information stored on your computer, or uses your computer's CPU and
storage for some task you know nothing about?
a. Web log
b. Clickstream
c. Anonymous Web browsing service
Answer: D
92. ERP stands for
a. Enterprise resolution planning
b. Enterprise reverse planning
c. Enterprise resource planning
Answer: C
93. Which is not a component of ERP?
a. Legacy systems
b. Bolt on applications
c. Operational database
d. Cybersoft
Answer: D
94. Which is not a function of ERP?
a. Human resource management
b. financial
c. warehousing
Answer: D
95. What is a type of virus that spreads itself, not just from file to file, but from computer to
computer via e‐mail and other Internet traffic?
a. Computer virus
b. Worm
c. Denial‐of‐service attack
Answer: B
96. What floods a Web site with so many requests for service that it slows down or crashes?
a. Computer virus
b. Worm
Answer: C
97. What harnesses far‐flung computers together by way of the Internet or a virtual private network
to share CPU power, databases, and database storage?
a. Computer virus
b. Worm
Answer: D
98. What consists of the identification of risks or threats, the implementation of security measures,
and the monitoring of those measures for effectiveness?
a. Risk management
b. Risk assessment
c. Security
Answer: A
99. What is the process of evaluating IT assets, their importance to the organization, and their
susceptibility to threats, to measure the risk exposure of these assets?
a. Risk management
b. Risk assessment
c. Security
Answer: B
100. What is the process of making a copy of the information stored on a computer?
a. Backup
b. Anti‐virus
c. Firewall
d. Biometrics
Answer: A
101. What software detects and removes or quarantines computer viruses?
a. Backup
b. Anti‐virus
c. Firewall
d. Biometrics
Answer: B
102. What is hardware and/or software that protects computers from intruders?
a. Backup
b. Anti‐virus
c. Firewall
d. Biometrics
Answer: C
103. What is the use of physical characteristics — such as your fingerprint, the blood vessels
in the retina of your eye, the sound of your voice, or perhaps even your breath — to provide
identification?
a. Backup
b. Anti‐virus
c. Firewall
d. Biometrics
Answer: D
104. All of the following are considered biometrics, except:
a. Fingerprint
b. Retina
c. Password
d. Voice
Answer: C
105. What scrambles the contents of a file so you can't read it without having the right
decryption key?
a. Encryption
b. Intrusion‐detection software
c. Security‐auditing software
d. All of the above
Answer: A
106. What is an encryption system that uses two keys: a public key that everyone can have
and a private key for only the recipient?
a. Encryption
b. Public key encryption
c. Intrusion‐detection software
d. Security‐auditing software
Answer: B
107. What looks for people on the network who shouldn't be there or who are acting
suspiciously?
a. Encryption
c. Intrusion‐detection software
d. Security‐auditing software
Answer: C
108. What checks out your computer or network for potential weaknesses?
a. Encryption
c. Security‐auditing software
Answer: C
109. Which of the following to viruses harm?
a. Your keyboard
b. Your monitor
c. Your processor
d. Viruses do not harm any of the above
Answer: D
110. Which of the following can a virus do?
a. Hurt your hardware
b. Hurt any files they weren't designed to attack
c. Infect files on write‐protected disks
Answer: D
111. In simple terms, what does risk assessment ask?
a. What can go wrong?
b. How likely is it to go wrong?
c. What are the possible consequences if it does go wrong?
d. All of the above
Answer: D
112. Which of the following is a characteristic of a firewall?
a. Examines each message as it seeks entrance to the network
b. Blocks messages without the correct markings from entering the network
c. Detects computers communicating with the Internet without approval
d. All of the above
Answer: D
113. Which of the following are ways to prove access rights?
a. What you know, like a password
b. What you have, like an ATM card
c. What you look like
d. All of the above
Answer: D
114. Which item can a password be used to protect?
a. Network
b. File
c. Folder
d. All of the above
Answer: D
115. Which is the most important component of IT?
a. Information
b. People
c. Information technology
d. Computers
Answer: B
116. Which of the following applies to the implementation of an idea?
a. Copyright
b. Intellectual property
c. Patent
d. Denial‐of‐service attack
Answer: C
117. When you purchase copyrighted software, what actually are you paying for?
a. The cost of the CDs, manuals, and development of the software
b. The cost of the CDs, manuals, and a share of the cost of the software development
c. A share of the cost of software development
d. All of the above
Answer: D
118. Which of the following is not a dimension of privacy?
a. Need for personal space
b. Need to feel in control of our possessions
c. Need to feel in control of our personal information
d. All of the above are dimensions of privacy
Answer: D
119. Which of the following captures screen images?
a. Key logger
b. Packet sniffer
c. Log analysis tools
d. Screen capture software
Answer: D
120. Which of the following examines information passing through switches, hubs, or
routers?
a. Key logger
b. Packet sniffer
d. Screen captures
Answer: B
121. Which of the following records logons and deletions?
a. Key logger
b. Packet sniffer
d. Screen captures
Answer: C
122. E‐mail messages may be stored on which of the following computers?
a. Sender's computer
b. Sender's server
c. Recipient's server
d. All of the above
Answer: D
123. What might identity thieves do with your identity?
a. Apply for and use credit cards
b. Apply for a loan
c. Change their identity
d. All of the above
Answer: D
124. Which of the following is not a common approach to phishing?
a. Send an official‐looking e‐mail asking for confidential information
b. Ask people to fill out and return a fake letter using postal mail
c. Ask people to click a link in an e‐mail to open a submission form on a web page
d. All of the above are uncommon approaches to phishing
Answer: B
125. A technique used to gain personal information for the purpose of identity theft, often by
e‐mail, is called?
a. Phishing
b. Carding
c. Brand spoofing
d. All of the above
Answer: D
126. Companies can gather information about employees and potential employees from
which of the following places?
a. Job applications
b. Credit reports
c. Companies that track Web surfers
d. All of the above
Answer: D
127. Cyber slacking consists of what activities?
a. Visiting “inappropriate” web sites
b. Visiting news sites
c. Chatting online with others about non‐work topics
d. All of the above
Answer: D
128. Cookies are used to do which of the following?
a. Store your ID and password for subsequent logons to the site
b. Store contents of electronic shopping carts
c. To track web activity
d. All of the above and more
Answer: D
129. Unsolicited e‐mail is called what?
a. Junk mail
b. Spam
c. Extra mail
Answer: B
130. What is the name of the new anti‐Spam bill?
a. No‐Spam
b. CAN‐Spam
c. Spam‐Away
d. Stop Spam
Answer: B
131. What is the legal protection afforded an expression of an idea, such as a song, video
game, and some types of proprietary documents?
a. Ethics
c. Copyright
d. Fair Use Doctrine
Answer: C
132. What is the unauthorized use, duplication, distribution or sale of copyrighted software?
a. Fair Use Doctrine
b. Pirated software
c. Counterfeit software
d. Privacy
Answer: B
133. What is a program, when installed on a computer, records every keystroke and mouse
click?
a. Key logger software
b. Hardware key logger
c. Cookie
d. Adware
Answer: A
134. What is software you don't want hidden inside software you do want?
a. Adware
b. Trojan‐horse software
c. Spyware
d. All of the above
Answer: D
135. What is an electronic representation of cash?
a. Digital cash
b. Electronic cash
c. E‐cash
d. All of the above
Answer: D
136. What is a fully‐equipped computer that you wear as a piece of clothing or attached to a
piece of clothing similar to the way you would carry your cell phone on your belt?
a. Wearable computer
b. GPS
c. Implant chip
Answer: A
137. What is a technology‐enabled microchip implanted into the human body?
a. Wearable computer
b. GPS
c. Implant chip
Answer: C
138. Which of the following is not a reason why digital cash has turned out to be extremely
difficult?
a. If your system crashes you lose your money
b. There is only one standard
c. Digital cash makes money laundering easy
d. Digital cash travels across the vast Internet and is susceptible to begin stolen
Answer: B
139. Smart card is better protected than other cards using
a. Encryption
b. Firewall
c. Hub
d. All the above
Answer: A
140. Trust card is introduced by
a. BSNL and itzcash
b. BSNL and oxicash
c. BSNL only
d. None
Answer: A
141. PaisaPay is offered only by
a. Homeshop18.com
b. eBay.in
c. amazon.com
d. none
Answer: B
142. The E‐payment mechanism widely used in B2B is
a. Credit card
b. Debit card
c. Master card
d. E‐cheque
Answer: D
143. Which type of technology will increase portability and mobility?
a. Implant chips
b. Micro‐payments
c. Internet phone calls
d. All of the above
Answer: D
144. Which of the following an accurate statement about internet phone calls?
a. They are possible but not yet free
b. They are not possible
c. They are currently standard practice
d. None of the above is an accurate statement about internet phone calls
Answer: A
145. What are the most commonly used input devices today?
a. Keyboard
b. Mouse
c. All of the above
Answer: C
146. Which of the following can be used to help identify people in a crowd?
a. Biochip
b. Implant chip
c. Facial recognition software
d. Vision chip
Answer: C
147. Which one is also known as plastic money?
a. Credit card
b. Debit card
c. Paper cash
d. All of the above
Answer: A
148. E‐cheques are …………………
a. Prepaid
b. Postpaid
c. Both prepaid and postpaid
Answer: A
149. Digital signature is a
a. Digital id,send as an attachment to a web page/e‐mail/message
b. Is used for verifying the attachments send using web
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
Answer: C
150. Which one is the component of cybercash payment system
a. CC user software
b. CC merachant software
c. CC Server Software
d. All of the above
Answer: D
151. The presence of ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ make the smart card smart.
a. Memory
b. Microchip
c. E‐cash
Answer: B
152. The smart card which use antenna for reading and writing data
a) Contact smart card
b) Contactless smart card
c) Proximity smart card
d) Both B and C
Answer: D
153. ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ card is read only.
d) Both B and C
Answer: C
154. Which of the smart card uses a sim like structure for reading and writing data
d) Both B and C
Answer: A
155. Which is not a feature of ecommerce
a. SCM
b. EDI
c. WWW
d. BPR
Answer: D
156. What is I stands in CIA of smart card?
a. International
b. Integrity
c. Identity
Answer: B

157. What is A stands in CIA of smart card?
a. auditing
b. authenticity
c. authorized
Answer: B
158. What is C stands in CIA of smart card?
a. confidentiality
b. conference
c. congress
Answer :A
159. Which one is the third party payment providers who offer digital wallets for E‐
merchants
a. Oxicash
b. PayMate
c. PayPass
d. All the above
Answer: D
160. Which is used to identify mobile money
a. MCID
b. MMID
c. RSID
d. NONE OF THE ABOVE
Answer: B
161. ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ is an act that poses danger to computer assets.
a. Threat
b. Danger
c. Error
Answer: A
162. Which one is not a encryption technique
a. RSA
b. DES
c. AES
d. NONE OF THE ABOVE
Answer: D
163. Which one is not used as a security mechanism?
a. Encryption
b. Cryptography
c. Wallets
d. Digital signature
Answer :C
164. Which e‐government arena is being used when governmental agencies send out and
accept bids for work?
a) G2G
b) G2B
c) G2C
d) G2G
Answer: B
165. Secret key is used for
a. Public key cryptography
b. Private key cryptography
c. Asymmetric key cryptography
d. None of these
Answer: B
166. Which one is a communication channel threat?
a. Sniffer programs
b. Cyber vandalism
c. Integrity threats
d. All of the above
Answer: D
167. Which one is a communication channel security protocol?
a. SSL
b. S‐HTTP
c. SET
d. ALL OF THE ABOVE
Answer: D
168. The protocol which allows the file transfer between computers is
a. TCP/IP
b. FTP
c. HTTP
d. SOA
Answer: B
169. E‐Banking is also known as
a. ATMs
b. Net banking
c. Traditional banking
d. None of these
Answer: B
170. ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ is backbone of all E‐payments in E‐commerce
a. EFT
b. EPS
c. PayPal
d. None of these
Answer: B
171. Which one is a client level threat?
a. Malicious code
b. Viruses
c. Active contents
d. All the above
Answer: D
172. Which one is not an encryption technique?
a. RSA
b. DES
c. AES
d. FTP
Answer: D
173. Which one is an encryption technique?
a. RSA
b. DES
c. AES
d. All of the above
Answer: D
174. Which one is not a server level threat?
a. Malicious code
b. CGI threats
c. Database threats
d. Buffer overflows
Answer: A
175. Which one is not a physical threat?
a. Hacking
b. Storm
c. Phishing
Answer: A
176. Which one is a physical threat?
a. Phishing
b. Storm
c. Earthquake
d. All the above
Answer: D
177. Which one is a logical threat?
a. Hacking
b. Storm
c. Phishing
Answer: A
178. The basic elements of website is
a. Home page
b. Web pages
c. Links and banners
d. All the above
Answer: D
179. Which one is a threat for E‐commerce
a. Trojan horse
b. firewall
c. encryption
d. None
Answer: A
180. Secure communication means
a. Protect transmission of credit card number
b. Guarantee privacy of customer
c. Unauthorized access of payment details
d. All the above
Answer: D
181. Which one is not an offline payment mode?
a. Cash on delivery
b. Cash before delivery
c. Demand drafts
d. e‐cheque
Answer: D
182. Which one is an offline payment mode?
a. Cash on delivery
c. Credit card
d. Both a and b
Answer: D
183. Which one is not an online payment mode?
a. Cash on delivery
b. Debit card
c. Credit card
d. e‐cheque
Answer: A
184. Which one is an online payment mode?
a. Cash on delivery
c. Demand drafts
d. e‐cheque
Answer: D
185. which one is not an E‐payment method used in India
a. Debit card
b. Credit card
c. e‐cheque
d. none
Answer: D
186. OTP stands for
a. On Time Password
b. On Time processing
c. One time processor
d. None
Answer: A
187. Which one is not a threat for E‐commerce
a. Trojan horse
b. Viruses
c. Worm
d. None
Answer: D
188. Private Key cryptography is also known as ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐cryptography.
a. Public key
b. Symmetric
c. Asymmetric
d. None
Answer: B
189. Public key cryptography is also known as ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐cryptography.
a. Private key
b. Symmetric
c. Asymmetric
d. None
Answer: C
190. What is the legal protection afforded an expression of an idea, such as a song, video
game, and some types of proprietary documents?
a. Ethics
c. Copyright
d. Fair Use Doctrine
Answer: C
191. Cyber slacking consists of what activities?
a. Visiting “inappropriate” web sites
b. Visiting news sites
c. Chatting online with others about non‐work topics
d. All of the above
Answer: D
192. What is an arrangement made between e‐commerce sites that direct users from one
site to the other?
a. Spam
b. Viral marketing
c. Affiliate programs
Answer: C
193. Which type deals with auction?
a. B2B
b. B2C
c. C2B
d. C2C
Answer: D
194. Which one is not a layer of E‐commerce infrastructure
a. Physical layer
b. Product layer
c. Service layer
d. None
Answer: D
195. Which will harm computer resources
a. Worm
b. Virus
c. Trojan horse
d. All the above
Answer: D
196. The study of encryption is called‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐
a. Decryption
b. Cryptography
c. Firewall
d. All the above
Answer: B
197. During E‐commerce transaction we should ensure‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐
a. Integrity
b. Security
c. Confidentiality
d. All the above
Answer: D
198. The virus that are commonly found in word documents are called‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐
a. Macro
b. Trojan horse
c. Script virus
Answer: A
199. The virus that are attached with vb and java files are called
a. Macro
b. Trojan horse
c. Script virus
Answer: C
200. The viruses spreads through‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐
a. Mails
b. Pen drives and cds
c. Websites
d. All the above
Answer: D
BASICS OF MARKETING- 106
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. Good marketing is no accident, but a result of careful planning and ________.
execution
selling
strategies
research
2. Marketing management is ________.
managing the marketing process
monitoring the profitability of the company’s products and services
the art and science of choosing target markets and getting, keeping, and growing customers
through creating, delivering, and communicating superior customer value
developing marketing strategies to move the company forward
3. Chimney Sweeps employs people to clean fireplaces and chimneys in homes and apartments.
The firm is primarily the marketer of which one of the following?
An image
A service
A good
An idea
4. Marketers often use the term ________ to cover various groupings of customers.
people
buying power
demographic segment
market
5. The ________ concept holds that consumers and businesses, if left alone, will ordinarily not
buy enough of the organization’s products.
production
selling
marketing
holistic marketing
6. .Which of the following would be the best illustration of a subculture?
A religion.
A group of close friends.
Your university.
Your occupation.
7. The buying process starts when the buyer recognizes a _________.
Product
an advertisement for the product
a salesperson from a previous visit
problem or need
8. If actual performance exceeds the expected performance of the product, Then customer is
___________________
Satisfied
Dissatisfied
Delighted
Neutral
9. Bread and milk are which kind of products?
Specialty Products
Convenience products
Shopping products
Unsought products
10. Parents buy toys for their children act as _______________ in the buying process.
Decider
Buyer
Maintainer
All of the above
11. If a firm is practicing ____________________, the firm is training and effectively

motivating its customer-contact employees and all of the supporting service people to work as a
team to provide customer satisfaction.
double-up marketing
interactive marketing
service marketing
internal marketing
12. A cluster of complementary goods and services across diverse set of industries is called as
_____________
Market place
Meta market
Market space
Resource Market
13. Adding new features to a product is advocated by which of the approaches?
Product Approach
Production Approach
Marketing Approach
Selling Approach
14. One of the key tasks of marketers is ____________ and to create consumer perceptions that
the product is worth purchasing.
To make products easily visible and available
To promote sales of products
To differentiate their products from those of competitors
To do marketing surveys
15. What is the last stage of the consumer decision process?
problem recognition
post purchase behavior
alternative evaluation
purchase
16. ________ markets are made up of members of the distribution chain.
Consumer
Business-to-business (industrial)
Channel
Institutional
17. Which of the following is considered a “key player” in the marketing industry?
marketer
suppliers or vendors
distributors or retailers
all of the above
18. Marketing Mix is the most visible part of the marketing strategy of an organization.
True
False
19. Businesses spend most of their advertising rupees on business-to-business markets.

True
False
20. A transaction in which the organization is making an initial purchase of an item to be used to
perform a new job refers to which of the following purchases?
Straight rebuy purchase
Delayed purchase
New-task purchase
Modified rebuy purchase
21.________ markets include a wide variety of profit and nonprofit organizations, such as
hospitals, government agencies, and schools, which provide goods and services for the benefit of
society.
Consumer
Business-to-business (Industrial)
Reseller
Institutional
22.Which of the following is NOT considered a type of reseller?
wholesaler
retailer
manufacturer
distributor
23.The promotion “P” of marketing is also known as ________.
Product Differentiation
Distribution
Cost
Marketing Communication
24.When a company distributes its products through a channel structure that includes one or
more
resellers, this is known as ________.
Indirect marketing
direct marketing
multi-level marketing
integrated marketing
25.In marketing theory, every contribution from the supply chain adds ________ to the product.
value
costs
convenience
ingredients
26.Institutional markets consist of people who buy products and services for personal use.
True
False
27. Listing alternatives that will solve the problem at hand and determining the characteristics of
each occurs during which stage of the final consumer’s decision process?
Information search
Purchase
Evaluation of alternatives
Post purchase
28. The act of trading a desired product or service to receive something of value in return is
known as which key concept in marketing?
product
exchange
production
customer
29.The most basic level of a product is called the:
core product.
central product.
fundamental product.
augmented product.
30. Anything that can be offered to a market for attention, acquisition, use, or consumption that
might satisfy a want or need is called a(n):
idea.
demand.
product.
service.
31. In ________ consumers may share a strong need that cannot be satisfied by an existing
product.
negative demand
latent demand
declining demand
irregular demand
32. Marketing is both an “art” and a “science” there is constant tension between the formulated
side of marketing and the ________ side.
creative
selling
management
behavior
33. Mr. Lopez buys goods and services for use in the production of products that are sold and
supplied to others. Mr. Lopez is involved in ________.
consumer buying behavior
post-purchase dissonance
retail buyer behavior
business buyer behavior
34. The four unique elements to services include:
Independence, intangibility, inventory, and inception
Independence, increase, inventory, and intangibility
Intangibility, inconsistency, inseparability, and inventory
Intangibility, independence, inseparability, and inventory
35. Convenience products usually have intensive distribution because sales of these products
tend to have a direct relationship to availability.
True
False
36. The ________ holds that the organization’s task is to determine the needs, wants, and
interests of target markets and to deliver the desired satisfactions more effectively and efficiently
than competitors in a way that preserves or enhances the consumer’s and the society’s well-
being.
customer-centered business
focused business model
societal marketing concept
ethically responsible marketing
37. A change in an individual's behavior prompted by information and experience refers to which
one of the following concept?
Learning
Role selection
Perception
Motivation
38. Holistic marketers achieve profitable growth by expanding customer share, ________, and
capturing customer lifetime value.
undermining competitive competencies
building customer loyalty
milking the market for product desires
renewing a customer base

Market-skimming
Value-based
Market-penetration
Leader
40. While buying milk which kind of behaviour is displayed by a person?
Extensive problem solving behaviour
Routinized buying behaviour
Variety seeking behaviour
None of the above
41.________ markets include a wide variety of profit and nonprofit organizations, such as
hospitals, government agencies, and schools, which provide goods and services for the benefit of
society.
Consumer
Business-to-business (Industrial)
Reseller
Institutional
42.Which of the following is NOT considered a type of reseller?
wholesaler
retailer
manufacturer
distributor
43.The promotion “P” of marketing is also known as ________.
Distribution
Cost
Marketing Communication
44.When a company distributes its products through a channel structure that includes one or
more resellers, this is known as ________.
indirect marketing
direct marketing
multi-level marketing
integrated marketing
45.In marketing theory, every contribution from the supply chain adds ________ to the product.
value
costs
convenience
ingredients
46.Institutional markets consist of people who buy products and services for personal use.
True
False
47. Listing alternatives that will solve the problem at hand and determining the characteristics of
each occurs during which stage of the final consumer’s decision process?
Information search
Purchase
Evaluation of alternatives
Post purchase
48. The act of trading a desired product or service to receive something of value in return is
known as which key concept in marketing?
product
exchange
production
customer
49.The most basic level of a product is called the:

core product.
central product.
fundamental product.
augmented product.
50. Anything that can be offered to a market for attention, acquisition, use, or consumption that
might satisfy a want or need is called a(n):
idea.
demand.
product.
service.
51. In ________ consumers may share a strong need that cannot be satisfied by an existing
product.
negative demand
latent demand
declining demand
irregular demand
52. Marketing is both an “art” and a “science” there is constant tension between the formulated
side of marketing and the ________ side.
creative
selling
management
behavior
53. Mr. Lopez buys goods and services for use in the production of products that are sold and
supplied to others. Mr. Lopez is involved in ________.
consumer buying behavior
post-purchase dissonance
retail buyer behavior
business buyer behavior
54. The four unique elements to services include:
Independence, intangibility, inventory, and inception
Independence, increase, inventory, and intangibility
Intangibility, inconsistency, inseparability, and inventory
Intangibility, independence, inseparability, and inventory
55. Convenience products usually have intensive distribution because sales of these products
tend to have a direct relationship to availability.
True
False
56. The ________ holds that the organization’s task is to determine the needs, wants, and
interests of target markets and to deliver the desired satisfactions more effectively and efficiently
than competitors in a way that preserves or enhances the consumer’s and the society’s well-
being.
customer-centered business
focused business model
societal marketing concept
ethically responsible marketing
57. A change in an individual's behavior prompted by information and experience refers to which
one of the following concept?
Learning
Role selection
Perception
Motivation
58. Holistic marketers achieve profitable growth by expanding customer share, ________, and
capturing customer lifetime value.
undermining competitive competencies
building customer loyalty
milking the market for product desires
renewing a customer base

Market-skimming
Value-based
Market-penetration
Leader
60. While buying milk which kind of behaviour is displayed by a person?
Extensive problem solving behaviour
Routinized buying behaviour
Variety seeking behaviour
None of the above
61. Whether to sell via intermediaries or directly to consumers, how many outlets to sell through,
and whether to control or cooperate with other channel members are examples of decisions
marketers must make about
Promotion
Price
Distribution
Product
62. The extended Ps of service marketing mix are :

People, Product, Place
Price Physical Evidence, Promotion
Physical Environment, Process, People
Product, Process, Physical Environment
63. A social and managerial process by which individuals and organizations obtain what they
need and want through value creation refers to which one of the following concepts?
Selling
Advertising
Barter
Marketing
64. What is the basic property of a service which makes it different from a product.
Shape
Size
Very expensive
Intangibility
65.Which one of the following phrases reflects the marketing concept?
The supplier is a king in the market
Marketing should be viewed as hunting not gardening
This is what I make, won’t you please buy it?

This is what I want, won’t you please make it?
66. The task of any business is to deliver ________ at a profit.
customer needs
customer value
products and services
improved quality
67.The solution to price competition is to develop a differentiated:
product, price, and promotion.
offer, delivery, and image.
package and label.
international Web site.
68.Red Cross blood donations are considered to be specialty products and, therefore,
have a specialty offer to the consumer.
True
False
69. You purchase cleaning supplies for your custodial help regularly. It is showing which
buying situation?
Modified rebuy
Straight rebuy
Modified straight rebuy
Consumer buy
70. Internal marketing is marketing by a service firm to train and effectively motivate its
customer-contact employees and all the supporting service people to work as a team to provide
customer satisfaction.
True
False
71. Customer’s evaluation of the difference between all the benefits and all the costs of a
marketing offer relative to those of competing offers refers to which of the following options?
Customer perceived value
Marketing myopia
Customer relationship management
72. Buying goods and services for further processing or for use in the production process refers
to which of the following markets?
Consumer markets
Government markets
Business markets
International markets
73. The packaging concept states what the package should be or do for the product.
True
False
74.Marketing managers should adapt the marketing mix to ___________________ and

constantly monitor value changes and differences in both domestic and global markets.
Sales strategies
Marketing concepts
Cultural values
Brand images
75. Resellers may actually take ownership of the product and participate in the marketing,
including the advertising.
True
False
76. The materials and ingredients used in producing the product are obtained from other
companies who are referred to as distributors.
True
False
77. The ________ refers to the various companies that are involved in moving a product from its
manufacturer into the hands of its buyer.
distribution chain
network chain
supply chain
promotion network
78. ________ is the study of how individuals, groups, and organizations select, buy, use, and
dispose of goods, services, ideas, or experiences to satisfy their needs and wants.
Target marketing
Psychographic segmentation
Consumer behavior
79. A person’s ________ consist(s) of all the groups that have a direct (face-to-face) or indirect
influence on his/her attitudes or behavior.
culture
subculture
psychographics
reference groups
demographics
80. Product choice is greatly affected by economic circumstances. All of the following would be
among those circumstances EXCEPT ________.
spendable income
savings and assets

debts
occupation
borrowing power
81. ________ is a set of distinguishing human psychological traits that lead to relatively
consistent and enduring responses to environmental stimuli.
Image
Personality
Beliefs
Heredity
Culture
82. ________ portrays the “whole person” interacting with his or her environment.
Attitude
Reference group
Lifestyle
Culture
Subculture
83. A ________ when it is aroused to a sufficient level of intensity.
need becomes a motive
motive becomes a need
desire becomes a reality
unfulfilled demand becomes a crisis
personal demand exceeds the ability to rationally reject

84. The five-stage model of the consumer buying process includes all of the following stages
EXCEPT ________.
problem recognition
information search
social interaction
purchase decision
85. If performance meets consumer expectations, the consumer is ________.
delighted
satisfied
disappointed
surprised.
86. The primary purpose of marketing activities is to facilitate and encourage exchange
transactions with potential customers.
True
False
87. Merchant wholesalers sell goods and services directly to final consumers for their personal,
nonbusiness use.
True
False
88. A service can be defined as “any activity or benefit that one party can offer another that is
essentially intangible and that does not result in the ownership of anything.”
True
False
89. The intangible nature of many services can create unique challenges for marketers.
True
False
90. Auction sites, such as eBay, QXL are examples of Consumer-to-Consumer (C2C) channels.
True
False
91. Product planners need to think about products and services on three levels. Each level adds
more customer value. Which one of the following is the most basic level that addresses the
question, “What is the buyer really buying?”
Actual product
Augmented product
Core benefit
Co-branding
92. The mental act, condition or habit of placing trust or confidence in another shows which of
the following options?
Motive
Belief
Behavior
Attitude
93. How do consumers respond to various marketing efforts the company might use? What is a
starting point of a buyer’s behavior?
Belief
Subculture
Post purchase feeling
Stimulus-response Model
94. Which one of the following factor relates to family that influences consumer behavior?
Cultural
Social
Personal
Business
95. Unique psychological characteristics that lead to relatively consistent and lasting responses to
one’s own environment refers to which one of the following?
Belief
Culture
Personality
Self-awareness
96. Which one of the following statements by a company chairman BEST reflects the marketing
concept?
We have organized our business to satisfy the customer needs
We believe that marketing department must organize to sell what we produce
We try to produce only high quality, technically efficient products
We try to encourage company growth in the market

97. Which one of the following is a key to build lasting relationships with consumers?
Price of the product
Need recognition
Quality of product
98. The factors such as the buyer’s age, life-cycle stage, occupation, economic situation,
lifestyle, personality and self-concept that influences buyer’s decisions refers to which one of the
following characteristic?
Personal characteristics
Psychological characteristics
Behavioral characteristics
Demographical characteristics
99. A ________ is someone seeking a response (attention, a purchase, a vote, a donation) from
another party, called the ________.
salesperson, customer
politician, voter
marketer, prospect
celebrity, audience
100. Companies selling mass consumer goods and services such as soft drinks, cosmetics, air
travel, and athletic shoes and equipment spend a great deal of time trying to establish a superior
brand image in markets called ________.
business markets
global markets
consumer markets
nonprofit and governmental markets
service markets
101. The ________ is practiced most aggressively with unsought goods, goods that buyers
normally do not think of buying, such as insurance, encyclopedias, and funeral plots.
marketing concept
selling concept
production concept
product concept
holistic marketing concept
102. The ________ concept holds that consumers will favor those products that offer the most
quality, performance, or innovative features.
product
marketing
production
selling
holistic marketing
103. . ________ marketing has the aim of building mutually satisfying long-term relations with
key parties such as customers, suppliers, distributors, and other marketing partners in order to
earn and retain their business.
Holistic
Demand-based
Direct
Relationship
Synthetic
104. One traditional depiction of marketing activities is in terms of the marketing mix or four Ps.
The four Ps are characterized as being ________.
product, positioning, place, and price
product, production, price, and place
promotion, place, positioning, and price

place, promotion, production, and positioning
product, price, promotion, and place
105. David Packard of Hewlett-Packard once said, “Marketing is far too important to leave to
________.”
the advertising boys
uninformed managers
novices
the CEO
the marketing department
106. The traditional view of marketing is that the firm makes something and then ________ it.
markets
sells
distributes
prices
services
107. __________ is the single factor that best indicates social class.
Time
Money
Occupation
Fashion
108. Marketing strategies are often designed to influence _______________ and lead to
profitable exchanges.
Consumer decision making
Sales strategies
Advertising strategies
Export strategies
109. __________ refers to the information a consumer has stored in their memory about a
product or service.
Cognitive dissonance
Product knowledge
Product research
Marketing research
110. When consumers are seeking low-involvement products, they are unlikely to engage in
extensive search, so _________________ is important.
Order processing
Order booking
Ready availability
Information about warranty
111. ___________________ constitutes moderate consumer behavior, but still involves time
and effort searching for and comparing alternatives.
Limited decision making
Need recognition
Routine decision making
Post purchase evaluation
112. Experimental sources of information for consumers refer to ____________.
Advertising, marketing, selling, and profit making
Handling, examining, and trying the product while shopping
Buying after a demonstration
Buying the product directly from a manufacturer
113. Which of the following is NOT one of the four philosophies of marketing?
production orientation
societal marketing orientation

sales orientation
promotion orientation
114. Of the four competing philosophies, the Furniture Industry is an example of what kind of
orientation:
Sales Orientation
Societal Marketing Orientation
Marketing Orientation
Production Orientation
115. Marketing is defined by the American Marketing Association as the activity, set of
institutions, and processes for ______, ________, ________, and __________ offerings that
have value for customers, clients, partners, and society at large.
Making, Arranging, Maintaining and Selling
Creating, Communicating, Delivering, and Exchanging
Creating, Advertising, Selling, and Transferring
Performing, Displaying, Offering, and Exchanging
116. The focus of marketing today is _______.
Value and Satisfaction
Quality and Long Term Relationships
All of the Above
None of the Above
117. Which of the following firms emphasizes on product’s benefits to the customers rather
product attributes?
Product oriented
Market oriented
Sales oriented
Production oriented
118. Products that are usually purchased due to adversity and high promotional back up
rather than desire are called:
Sought goods
Unique goods
Unsought goods
Preferred goods
119. Which product is MOST likely to be purchased through routine decision making?
Television set
Soft drink
Shirt
Car
120. Luxury products, such as Rolex watches, are also known as:
Shopping product
Convenience product
Emergency product
Specialty product
121. Which of the following is NOT included as a basic idea in the definition of marketing
concepts?
Total company effort
Profit
Productivity
122. Which of the following is the most recent stage of marketing evolution?
Marketing department era

Production era
Sales era
Marketing company era
123.Which of the following is NOT included as a basic idea in the definition of marketing
concepts?
Total company effort
Profit
Productivity
124._______________________ is defined as the difference between the benefits a customer

sees from a market offering and the costs of obtaining those benefits.
Customer value
Satisfaction scale
Profit margin
Competitive benefit
125.Which of the following is NOT included in the marketing management process used by the
marketing manager to achieve its objectives?
Planning marketing activities
Raising funds to finance the marketing projects
Controlling marketing plans
Directing implementation of the marketing plans
126.A channel of distribution is any series of firms (or individuals) who participate in the flow of
products to final user or customer.
True
False.
127. ____________ is defined as communication with large numbers of customers at the same
time.
Personal selling
Sales promotion
Mass selling
All of the above
128.The marketing concept applies to production firms, but not to service industries.
True
False
129. In a ___________________orientation, the role of marketing research is to determine

customer needs and how well the company is satisfying them.
Marketing
Production
Both of the above
None of the above
130.The marketing concept means that an organization aims the majority of its efforts at
satisfying customers, at a profit.
True
False
131.When a manager focuses on making whatever products are easy to produce, and then trying
to sell them, that manager has a ___________________ orientation.
Marketing
Production
Sales
Profit
132. Which of the following is NOT consistent with a manager having a marketing orientation?
Inventory levels are set with customer requirements and costs in mind
Customer relationship focuses on customer satisfaction before and after sale, leading to a
profitable long-run relationship
Focus of advertising is on product features and how products are made
Packaging is designed for customer convenience and as a selling tool
133. Often, the best way to improve customer value, and beat the competition, is to be first to
satisfy a need that others have not even considered.
True
False
134. It is more costly to retain current customers by satisfying their needs, than to get new
customers by taking them away from a competitor.
True
False
135.In addition to businesses, the marketing concept is also applicable to _____________.
Government agencies
Religious groups
Fine arts organizations
All of the above
136. The controllable variables a company puts together to satisfy a target group is called the
____________________.
Marketing strategy
Marketing mix
Strategic planning
Marketing concept
137. In order for exchange to occur:
a complex societal system must be involved.
organized marketing activities must also occur.
a profit-oriented organization must be involved.
each party must have something of value to the other party.

138. Four competing philosophies strongly influence the role of marketing and marketing
activities within an organization. Which if the following is not a component of market
orientation?
Customer orientation.
Profitability orientation.
Marketing orientation.
Competitor orientation.
139. A market orientation recognizes that:
price is the most important variable for customers.
market intelligence relating to current and future customer needs is important.
selling and marketing are essentially the same thing.
sales depend predominantly on an aggressive sales force.
140. When customer expectations regarding product quality, service quality, and value-based
price are met or exceeded, _____ is created.
customer satisfaction
planning excellence
a quality rift
a value line
141. A critical marketing perspective is the process of determining:
the value of a product, person, or idea.
how places compete with each other.
the worth and impact of marketing activities.
which type of promotional strategy works best.
142. The way in which the product is delivered to meet the customers' needs refers to:
new product concepts and improvements.
selling.
advertising and promotion activities.
place or distribution activities.
143. The term 'marketing mix' describes:
a composite analysis of all environmental factors inside and outside the firm.
a series of business decisions that aid in selling a product.
the relationship between a firm's marketing strengths and its business weaknesses.
a blending of strategic elements to satisfy specific target markets.
144. Newsletters, catalogues, and invitations to organisation-sponsored events are most closely
associated with the marketing mix activity of:
Pricing
Distribution
Product development
Promotion
145. Which of the following is not an element of the marketing mix?
Distribution.
Product.
Target market.
Pricing.
146. In relationship marketing firms focus on __________ relationships with __________.
short-term; customers and suppliers
long-term; customers and suppliers
short-term; customers
long-term; customers
147.A further 3Ps are incorporated into the marketing mix:

physical evidence, process and price.
process people and promotion.
physical evidence, people and production.
physical evidence, process and people.
148. A marketing philosophy summarized by the phrase 'a stronger focus on social and ethical
concerns in marketing' is characteristic of the _________ period.
production
sales
marketing
societal marketing
149. Which of the following statements is correct?
Marketing is the term used to refer only to the sales function within a firm.
Marketing managers don't usually get involved in production or distribution decisions.
Marketing is an activity that considers only the needs of the organization; not the needs of
society as a whole.
Marketing is the activity, set of institutions, and processes for creating, communicating,
delivering, and exchanging offerings that have value for customers, clients, partners, and
society at large.
150. The term marketing refers to:
new product concepts and improvements.
advertising and promotion activities.
a philosophy that stresses customer value and satisfaction.
planning sales campaigns.
151. Which of the following involves designing and manufacturing the container or wrapper for
a product?
Labeling
Packaging
Branding
Product line
152. The basic role of promotion is _____.
Information
Manipulation
Communication
Interpretation
153.If the aim of the promotion to introduce a new consumer product is to achieve high
awareness levels, the firm will most likely make heavy use of _______ in the promotional mix.
Advertising
Sales promotion
Personal selling
Publicity
154.A consumer contest is an example of _____.
Personal selling
Sales promotion
Advertising
Indirect selling
155. Advertising appropriations are largest for which type of product?
Industrial products
Convenience goods
High-priced products
Specialty goods
156.A television advertisement showing the safety features of the Volvo 240 DL would be best
classified as which of the following?
Product advertising
Pioneer advertising
Defensive advertising
Societal marketing
157. Need becomes ________ when they are directed towards a specific object.
Actual need
Want
Satisfaction
Demand
158. Which of the following BEST describes the consumer’s preference for products that are
widely available to them?
Production concept
Marketing concept
Selling concept
Product concept
159.Buying and selling of mass consumer goods and services comes under which of the
following markets?
Business markets
Global markets
Consumer markets
Government markets
160. Which one of the following BEST describes the human need?
Food
French-fries
Burger
Pizza
161.Which of the following firms emphasis on product’s benefits to the customers rather than on
product attributes.
Product oriented
Market oriented
Sales oriented
Production oriented
162. All of the following are the examples of unsought goods EXCEPT:
Course books
Encyclopedia
Funeral plots
Insurance policy
Unsought Goods
163. While considering the place for a product which of the following is important for customer.
Communication
Convenience
Cost
Solution
164.Market –oriented firms focus on:
Retailers
Distributors
Customers
Wholesalers
165. Price is the only element in the marketing mix that produces:
Fixed cost
Expense
Variable cost
Revenue
166. Identify the products that the customer usually buys frequently and with a minimum of
comparison and buying effort.
Specialty
Convenience
Unsought
Augmented
167. Which of the following is NOT included in product decisions?
Styling
Brand name
Warehousing
Packaging
168. Which of the following takes place at retailer’s end?
Promotion
Placing
Pricing
Exchange
169. Aggressive selling is a characteristic of which of the following concept of marketing?
Select correct option:
Production concept
Marketing concept
Selling concept
Product concept
170. Which of the following is a name, term, sign, symbol, design, or a combination of these,
that identifies that maker or seller of a product or service?
Label
Co-brand
Brand
Product
171. The consumer’s estimate of the product’s overall capacity to satisfy his or her needs is
called:
Product Cost
Product Value
Product need
Product Satisfaction
172. According to the text, a product is
everything the customer receives in an exchange.
the physical object the customer receives in an exchange.
the service that is rendered to a customer.
the idea that the customer receives in an exchange.
173. An example of a convenience consumer product is
stereo equipment.
petrol.
a motorcycle.
a bicycle.
athletic shoes.
174. Which one of the following is NOT an industrial product?

oil to be refined into fuel for homes
transistors used as components for portable radios
paper, pens, and glue used in bank branch offices
computer software to help people complete personal tax forms
175. Sai Nath called several airlines to compare rates and chose a flight on British Midland as it
had a better reputation for service and competitive prices. The airline ticket is an example of
which type of product?
A)convenience
B)shopping
C)specialty
D)unsought
176. Products that are relatively inexpensive and are purchased frequently with minimal effort
can be classified as ___________ products.
shopping
convenience
industrial
specialty
unsought
177. Large tools and machines used in a production process for a considerable length of time are
classified as
major equipment.
accessory equipment.
component parts.
raw materials.
consumable supplies.
178. Items that are purchased routinely, do not become part of the final physical product, and are
treated like expense items rather than capital goods are called
raw materials.
major equipment.
accessory equipment.
component parts.
process materials.
179. Products that are used directly in the production of a final product but are not easily
identifiable are categorised as
accessory products.
component parts.
consumable supplies.
assembly components.
process materials.
180. Industrial products are
purchased for personal consumption.
frequently purchased for both their functional aspects and their psychological rewards.
traditionally classified according to their characteristics and intended uses.
not purchased by non-business organisations.
181. A company designs the product with little or no input from customers, the company is
practicing which of the following concept?
Product concept
Marketing concept
Selling concept
Production concept
182. Which of the following 4Ps of marketing mix involves decisions regarding channels
coverage, assortments, locations, inventories or transports?
Product
Price
Place
Promotion
183. Which of the following is NOT a part of marketing communication mix?
Telemarketing
Public relations
Sales promotion
Advertising
184. A dissonance-reducing buying behavior is designed to probe consumers’ hidden,

subconscious motivations.
True
False
185. Consumer buying behavior refers to the buying behavior of businesses.
True
False
186. A fundamental part of the distribution function is to get the product:
To the right place at the right time
Launched into new markets
To intermediaries
To market to avoid channel conflict
187. The _____ identifies the product or brand.
Container
Label
Advertisement
Warranty
188. A(n) _____ product exceeds customer expectations.
Strategic
Superior
Augmented
Anticipated
189. Which of the following are products and services bought by final consumers for personal
consumption? These include convenience products, shopping products, specialty products, and
unsought products.
Material and parts
Consumer products
Industrial products
Capital items
190. The skimming, penetration, bargaining and bundling are decided in the ______________ of
the Marketing Mix strategy.
Price Decisions
Place Decisions
Product Decisions
Promotion Decisions
191. Low Consumer involvement in purchase and little significant brand difference comes in
which types of buying behaviors.
Complex buying behavior

Dissonance-reducing buying behavior
Habitual buying behaviors
Variety-seeking buying behaviors
192. Distribution of product to get it in the marks refers to which of the following activities?
Selling Activities
Advertising activities
Promotion Activities
Place or distribution activities
193. How many stages are involved in the consumer buying / adoption process?
Six
Seven
Three
Five
194. Which one of the following factor relates to family that influences consumer behavior?
Cultural
Social
Personal
Business
195. “ Buy it now” refers to which one of the following options?
Personal selling
Advertising
Sales promotion
Publicity
196. At least how many parties should be included in “Exchange”?
Two
Three
Four
Five
197. The buyer decision process consists of five stages. Which of the following is NOT one of
these stages?
Evaluation of Alternatives
Information search
Variety-seeking buying behavior
Post purchase behavior
198. You are planning to install a steel manufacturing plant in your city. For that purpose you
want to have a supplier who supplies you the steel in raw form for manufacturing. Here supplier
supplies you which of the following form of industrial product?
Material and parts
Capital items
Supplies and services
None of the given options
199. “How are you telling consumers in your target group about your product” This question
belongs to which marketing concept?
Product
Price
Place
Promotion
200. A transaction in which the organization is making an initial purchase of an item to be used
to perform a new job refers to which of the following purchases?
Straight rebuy purchase
Delayed purchase
New-task purchase
Modified rebuy purchase
E-Marketing
Unit 3
Multiple Choice Questions with Answer Key
1. Marketing that moves away from a transaction-based effort to a

conversation (i.e. two-way dialogue) and can be described as a
situation or mechanism through which marketers and a customer
(e.g. stakeholders) interact usually in real-time is known as:
a. Digital marketing.
b. Interactive marketing.
c. Direct marketing.
d. Electronic marketing.
Answer: b
a. e-marketing.
b. Social marketing.
c. Print advert.
d. Internet marketing.
Answer: c
3. ________ is the process of marketing accomplished or facilitated

via the use of internet technologies (e.g. web, email, intranet,
extranets).
a. Internet marketing
b. Search marketing
c. e-marketing
d. Mobile marketing
Answer: a
4. This form of advert delivered on social platforms and social
gaming websites and apps, across all device types is known as:
a. mobile marketing
b. social media advertising
c. internet advertising
d. e-marketing
Answer: b
5. The rise of ___________ has led marketing to evolve away from

a hierarchical one-sided mass communication model towards more
participatory technologies (e.g. social channels and online
communities).
a. website
b. social media
c. web 1.0
d. web platform.
Answer: b
6. A form of marketing communications that uses the internet for the

purpose of advertising, aiming to increase website traffic and/or
encourage product trial, purchase, and repeat purchase activity is
called:
b. E-mail marketing.
c. Internet advertising.
d. Social web marketing.
Answer: c
7. An advertising model in which advertisers bid on keywords or
phrases relevant to their target market, with sponsored/paid search
engine listings to drive traffic to a website is called:
a. Search Engine Optimisation (SEO).

b. Contextual Advertising.
c. Digital Asset Optimisation (DAO).
d. Pay Per Click (PPC).
Answer: d
8. A method of marketing by electronic mail wherein the recipient of

the message has consented to receive it is called:
b. Internet advertising.
c. Permission-based email marketing.
d. Social web marketing.
Answer: c
9. ____________ is a form of digital marketing that describes the

use of the social web and social media (e.g. social networks, online
communities, blogs or wikis) or any online collaborative technology
for marketing activities, be it sales, public relations, research,
distribution or customer service.
a. Pay Per Click (PPC)

b. Digital Asset Optimisation (DAO)
c. Social Media Marketing (SMM)
d. Search Engine Optimisation (SEO)
Answer: c
10. ____________ is the set of practices that enables organisations
to communicate and engage interactively with their audiences
through any mobile device or network.
a. Mobile marketing
b. Social web marketing.
c. Internet marketing
d. Social media marketing
Answer: a
11. The process of outsourcing a task or group of tasks to a

generally large group of people is known as:
a. social media marketing

b. internet advertising
c. crowd sourcing
d. e-marketing
Answer: c
12. Current changes in behaviours clearly show that ______ is

taking over more and more of consumer online searches.
a. social media
b. mobile
c. internet
d. blog
Answer: b
13. This is a form of targeted advertising, on websites, with
advertisements selected and served by automated systems based
on the content displayed to the user.
a. Contextual advertising.
b. Interactive marketing.
c. Internet advertising.
d. Direct marketing.
Answer: a
14. Which of the following is not an issue that marketers need to

consider when using digital resources for marketing activities?
a. Jurisdiction.
b. Disclosure.
c. Ownership.
d. Permissions.
Answer: b
15. Which of the following is not one of major considerations when

using internet advertising to increase brand awareness and
encourage click-through to a target site?
a. Cost.
b. Intrusive.
c. Interactivity.
d. Timeliness.
Answer: c
16. Which of the following refers to unsolicited electronic
messages?
a. Opt-in email.
b. Consent marketing.
c. Spam.
d. Opt-out email.
Answer: c
17. A database of information that is maintained by human editors

and lists websites by category and subcategory with categorisation
is known as:
a. A search directory.
b. Automated voice response (AVR).
c. Apps.
d. SEO.
Answer: a
18. ___________ occurs when a website's structure and content is

improved to maximise its listing in organic search engine results
pages using relevant keywords or search phrases.
a. Paid inclusion
b. Site optimisation
c. Contextual search
d. Pay per click
Answer: b
19. Fees paid by advertisers to online companies that refer qualified
potential customers or provide consumer information where the
consumer opts in to being contacted by a marketer. This is referred
to as:
a. lead generation
b. search.
c. rich media.
d. social media marketing.
Answer: a
20. This operates algorithmically or using a mixture of algorithmic

and human input to collect, index, store and retrieve information on
the web (e.g. web pages, images, information and other types of
files). It makes the information available to users in a manageable
and meaningful way in response to a search query. This is referred
to as:
a. Banner ads.
b. Pop-up ads.
c. A search engine.
d. Apps.

Answer: c
21. All of the following are reasons more people don't shop online
except ________.
a. lack of trust in online merchants.

b. lack of convenience.
c. inability to touch and feel the product.
d. fear of misuse of personal information.
Answer: b
22. Paid search marketing (e.g. Google AdWords) is usually
purchased on which basis?
a. Pay Per Click (PPC).

b. Cost per Thousand (CPM).
c. Cost Per Acquisition (CPA).
Answer: a
23. What form of marketing is particularly suited to generating

awareness about a brand or promotion?
a. Viral Marketing
b. Affiliate marketing
c. Email marketing
Answer: a
24. The performance-based affiliate marketing model of paying for

leads or sales is usually charged in which way?
a. Cost per acquisition

b. Earnings per click
c. Pay per click
Answer: a
25. The online communications technique of search engine
optimisation (SEO) is aimed at achieving/gaining:
a. good ranking in sponsored listings of the search engines.

b. good ranking in the organic or natural listings of search engines.
c. representation on third party websites.
Answer: b
26. What concept in paid search advertising Google AdWords refers

to one of the main elements of Quality Score which impacts the
position the ad is displayed?
a. Click-through rate.
b. Maximum Cost Per Click (CPC).
c. Quality Score.
Answer: a
27. What concept in paid search advertising Google AdWords refers

to the amount bid by the advertiser?
a. Maximum cost per click (CPC).

b. Click-through rate.
c. Quality Score.
Answer: a
28. _____ is an element of online PR that involves regularly
updated posts about company activities in a format similar to online
services such as Blogger and Wordpress.
a. Link building
b. Reputation management
c. Blogging
Answer: c
29. Which of the following is not a standard in online advertising?
a. Dynamic banners
b. Referrals links
c. Signal
d. Banner
Answer: c
30. Which of the following are online advertising methods through

which advertisers attempt to drive traffic to Internet sites
a. Banner
b. SEO
c. CPC
d. CPM
Answer: b
31. Paid advertising based on a per-click model is called
a. Search Engine Optimisation

b. ICT indicators
c. Source advertising
d. Sponsored search-engine advertising
Answer: d
32. Internet advertising has some weaknesses because
a. It cannot reach a global audience

b. It does not deliver good targeted reach
c. It is not easy to track
d. It is not emotive
Answer: d
33. Which of the following is not a weakness of using online in the

media plan?
a. It is not emotive
b. It can reach a global and local audience
c. It is subject to high levels of clutter
d. All of the above
Answer: b
a. Can combine game and other elements

b. Interactive communication
c. Generates contacts quickly
d. All of the above
Answer: d
35. Online gaming sites are a fast and efficient ways for companies
to promote their products
a. True
b. False
Answer: a
e-Marketing MCQ
1) E-Marketing stand for ______
• A. Electronic marketing
• B.Internet Marketing
• C.Online Marketing
2) Market information means _______
• A. Knowledge of industries
• B.Knowledge of peers
• C.Knowledge of customer’s tastes
3) Bancassurance means______
• A. Banks selling insurance products

• B.Bank promising to pay interest
• C.Banks promising to give loans
• D.Bank to repay loans
4) Marketing is the art of
• A. Buying
• B.Paying
• C.Selling
• D.Talking
5) E-marketing is best seen as:
• A. A subset of e-business
• B.Equivalent to e-business
• C.Broader than e-business
• D.None of the above
6) Mercatus means
• A. sell
• B.buying
• C.trade
• D.assemble
7) Emerging economies ______
• A. have low levels of GDP

• B.experiencing rapid growth
• C.working toward improved standards of living for their citizens
8) Which of the following is not a type of digital marketing activity?
• A. Social marketing
• B.e-marketing
• C.Internet marketing
• D.Print marketing
9) Paid search marketing is usually purchased on which basis?
• A. Cost Per Acquisition

• B.Pay Per Click
• C.Cost Per Registration
• D.None of these
10) Which of the following is correct size of email template before
executing a campaign?
• A. 10 KB
• B.15 KB
• C.18 KB
• D.20 KB
11) Which of the following is a type of digital marketing activity?
• A. Email marketing.
• B.Social web marketing.
• C.Viral marketing
12) A place for buying and selling activities is called _________
• A. market
• B.marketing
• C.market research
• D.market information
13) Marketing begins and ends with ________
• A. price
• B.product
• C.consumer
• D.transport
14) The social aspect of marketing is to ensure __________
• A. price
• B.demand
• C.low price with high quality
• D.service goods
15) Market segmentation is _______
• A. dividing
• B.targeting
• C.positioning
• D.differentiation
16) Marketing communication in the rural area has to be in ______
• A. press media
• B.local language
• C.outdoor media
• D.national language
17) Which Customers who buy one brand all the time _______
• A. switchers
• B.shifting loyals
• C.safe core loyals
• D.hard core loyals
18) Which of the following is not a standard in online advertising?
• A. Signal
• B.Banner
• C.Referrals links
• D.Dynamic banners
19) What is unique about social media marketing?
• A. Interactive communication
• B.Generates contacts quickly
• C.Can combine game and other elements
20) Which marketing techniques are most likely to pay you?
• A. Posting press
• B.Article marketing
• C.Pay click advertising
• D.Using social media marketing
21) The best way to improve search engine ranking is with
• A. Video
• B.A blog
• C.at least 500 words on the page
• D.a lot of graphics per page
22) Product development process after analysis of business next step
to be taken is
• A. test marketing
• B.individual marketing
• C.penetration marketing
• D.one chanal marketing
23) The procedure in marketing which consists of enlisting opinion
leaders as "brand ambassadors" is called _______
• A. buzz marketing
• B.Leading marketing
• C.online marketing
• D.None of these
24) The profits related to the new product in its introductory stage are
• A. higher
• B.negative
• C.continuously rising
• D.declining
25) In the new product development process, after the analysis of
business the next step to be taken is
• A. One channel marketing

• B.penetration marketing
• C.test marketing
• D.individual marketing
Digital Marketing Questions And Answers

11. The 4Ps of marketing as defined by Philip Kottler are:
A. Price, Product, Place, and Promotion
B. Price, Performance, Place, and Promotion
C. Price, Product, Place, and Positioning
D. PR, Product, Place, and Person
View Answer
Ans : A
Explanation: In the 60s, Kotler introduced the 4Ps of marketing: Price, Product, Place,
and Promotion.
12. Which one of these statements is correct?

A. There is a slow decline in digital budgets with an average reduction of
10% in digital marketing budget.
B. 98% of marketers affirm that offline and online marketing are merging
C. Online marketing professionals are paid 50% less than marketing
professionals.
D. Around 25% of the global population is now on the Internet.
View Answer
Ans : B
Explanation: It is true that 98% of marketers affirm that offline and online marketing are
merging (Source: Gartner's report in 2016).
13. What are the key considerations for people in sales while they use
social media for selling (Social Selling)?
A. Check if their clients are on social media and then connect with them on
the relevant social networks
B. Avoid using social media to sell
C. Build their professional brand and then position themselves as subject
matter experts in their field to build credibility
D. Connect with their clients and prospects on LinkedIn and then start
liking/commenting/sharing their posts
View Answer
Ans : C
Explanation: Social selling is the art of using social networks to find, connect,
understand, and nurture sales prospects. People in sales should first build their
professional brand and then position themselves as subject matter experts in their field
to build credibility.
14. Which one of the following statements is true?

A. LinkedIn works best for B2B organizations
B. Pinterest is great for driving traffic to your product catalog on your website
C. Facebook is excellent for businesses that operate in the consumer
market
D. All of the above
View Answer
Ans : D
Explanation: Each social network has its own specific characteristics. All the statements
above are true.
15. How would you describe what multi-channel attribution does?

A. Gives the conversion credit to the first click
B. Assigns equal percentages for conversions to every step
C. Accredits deserving touch points along the conversion journey
D. Gives the conversion credit to the last click
View Answer
Ans : C
Explanation: Multi-channel attribution helps to identify the touch points in the path to
purchase and clarify which channels contribute to what customer actions
16. Why did Internet Service providers clamp down on personal
emails being used for mailing purposes?
A. Because it would use excessive server resources
B. Because they couldn't check who was opening the email
C. Because it would slow down the network
D. Because it was against the email user guidelines
View Answer
Ans : A
Explanation: Internet Service Providers clamped down on email volumes and private
accounts because emails consumed server resources and some of the emails were old,
invalid or bounced.
17. What makes the mobile phone the ultimate brand engagement
platform?
A. The mobile phone allows for targeted messages, advertising and apps to
drive engagement.
B. The mobile phone enables businesses to use apps to drive engagement.
C. The mobile phone allows SMS, Messaging and Social Media to drive
engagement.
D. The mobile phone allows for targeted messages, customer engagement,
and interactive features to drive engagement.
View Answer
Ans : D
Explanation: Mobile phones enable marketers to use hyper-segmentation to reach

specific groups with an accurately tailored message.
18. Location is a unique feature of Mobile Marketing because

____________.
A. It enables brands to hyper-target their customers.
B. It allows you to customize the marketing messages to suit the needs of
users of a particular location.
C. It allows you to personalize your marketing messages to the mobile user
in a particular location.
D. You can run different campaigns based on the location of the mobile
user.
View Answer
Ans : B
Explanation: Location-based services can be an integral part of marketing strategy to
track customers of a certain location. Customizing the marketing messages to suit the
users of a particular location is a unique feature of mobile marketing.
19. What are the two types of targeting that can be done with PPC
advertising?
A. Reaching people by demography and reaching people by interest
B. Reaching new prospects and reaching prior visitors (Remarketing)
C. Reaching people who search and people who visit websites
D. Reaching people through Retargeting and reaching people through
Remarketing
View Answer
Ans : B
Explanation: PPC is known for its ability to reach users who are actively searching, but it
can also be highly targeted. The two types of targeting you can do with PPC advertising
is reaching new prospects and reaching prior visitors (Remarketing).
20. What is an ad group?

A. An ad group is a collection of related keywords and ads.
B. An ad group is a collection of related ads.
C. An ad group is a collection of related campaign settings and ads.
D. An ad group is a library of your ads grouped by category.
View Answer
Ans : A
Explanation: An ad group is a collection of related keywords and ads. As ad groups are

at the bottom of the settings flow, they inherit settings from the account and the
campaign.
1. Digital marketing is often referred to as___________.

A. online marketing
B. internet marketing
C. web marketing
D. All of the above
View Answer
Ans : D
Explanation: Digital marketing is often referred to as online marketing, internet marketing

or web marketing.
2. Which of the following is a type of digital marketing activity?
A. Email marketing.
B. Social web marketing.
C. Viral marketing.
D. All of the above
View Answer
Ans : D
Explanation: All of the above is a type of digital marketing activity.
3. Which of the following is not a traditional forms of digital

marketing?
A. radio
B. TV
C. billboard
D. All of the above
View Answer
Ans : D
Explanation: All of the above is not a traditional forms of digital marketing.

A. Digital marketing is any form of marketing products or services that
involves electronic devices.
B. Digital marketing can be done online
C. Digital marketing cannot be done online
D. Digital marketing is often referred to as online marketing, internet
marketing or web marketing.
View Answer
Ans : C
5. How many main pillars of digital marketing?

A. 2
B. 4
C. 3
D. 5
View Answer
Ans : A
Explanation: The 2 main pillars of digital marketing are online marketing and offline
marketing.
6. Marketing that moves away from a transaction-based effort to a

conversation (i.e. two-way dialogue) and can be described as a
situation or mechanism through which marketers and a customer (e.g.
stakeholders) interact usually in real-time is known as:
A. Direct Marketing
B. Eectronic marketing
C. Interactive Marketing
D. Indirect Marketing
View Answer
Ans : C
Explanation: Marketing that moves away from a transaction-based effort to a

conversation (i.e. two-way dialogue) and can be described as a situation or mechanism
through which marketers and a customer (e.g. stakeholders) interact usually in real-time
is known as:Interactive marketing.
7. In the first 10 years, the web was heavily used as a static publishing
and/or retailing (transactional) channel. This was known as:
A. Web 2.0.
B. Web 3.0.
C. Web 1.0.
D. Web 3.0.
View Answer
Ans : C
Explanation: The first 10 years of the web was characterized by what we call Web 1.0,
wherein the web was heavily used as a static publishing and/or retailing (transactional)
channel.
8. Digital marketing includes_____________.

A. voice broadcast
B. podcasting
C. RSA
D. Both A and B
View Answer
Ans : D
Explanation: Digital marketing includes e-mail, RSS, voice broadcast, fax broadcast,
blogging, podcasting, video streams, wireless text messaging, and instant messaging.
9. A website`s front - or home page should include_____________

A. A lengthy description of the organization
B. Logos depicting awards the site`s designers have received
C. Links to other websites
View Answer
Ans : D
Explanation: A website`s front - or home page should include none of the above options.
10. This is the process of marketing accomplished or facilitated

through the application of electronic devices, appliances, tools,
techniques, technologies and or systems:
A. Direct Marketing
B. interactive marketing
C. Electronic marketing
View Answer
Ans : C
Explanation: This is the process of marketing accomplished or facilitated through the

application of electronic devices, appliances, tools, techniques, technologies and or
systems:Electronic marketing
free.
1. What is Social Media Marketing?
• a way to communicate with customers on social media platforms to increase

the performance of the business
• Software
• Hardware
View Answer
way to communicate with customer with the use of social media platforms to increase sales
2. What social media marketing do?
• It can help to communicate with customers in a less time-consuming manner.

• It can help to create visual interaction between products and customers.
• It can help to advertise a product and services to many customers at once.
View Answer
All of the above
3. Social media marketing focuses on ___.
• Social platform
• Individual shop
• Whole sale
View Answer
Social platform
4. Social media marketing is one of the best advertising resources to grab

consumer's attention.
• True
• False
View Answer
True
5. Identify the platform for Social media marketing?

• Instagram
• Twitter
• Facebook
Download Free : Social Media Marketing MCQ PDF

View Answer
All of the above
6. What are the most essential 7 M's in marketing?
• Man, Money, Machine, Market, Management, Message, Mission

• mindset, measure, model, map, make, modify, and monetize
• Both A and B
View Answer
Man, Money, Machine, Market, Management, Message,· Mission
7. What is the full form of SMM?
• Social market marketing

• Social media marketing
• Social media management
View Answer
Social media marketing
8. Identify the different types of E-commerce?
• B2B
• B2C
• C2B
View Answer
All of the above
9. E-Commerce refers to the trading of goods and services with the help of
the internet.
• Yes
• No
View Answer
Yes
10. Is Social commerce related with the social networks platform as well
as the seller's website?
• Yes
• No
Read Best: SMO Interview Questions

View Answer
Yes
11. E-commerce is related to the seller's website.
• True
• False
View Answer
True
12. Which term adopted for updates by Twitter users?

• Tweets
• Twoots
• Twinks
• Posts
View Answer
Tweets
13. Which of the following is valuable in increasing a page rank?
• Paying for placement

• Static content
• Quantity of links from other highly ranked pages to your site
• No contact information
View Answer
Quantity of links from other highly ranked pages to your site
• post very short entries

• Blogs which are posted by companies, not individuals
• post very long entries
• Blogging from mobile devices
View Answer
post very short entries
15. What is “social media optimization”?
• Creating content which easily creates publicity via social networks

• Writing clear content
• Creating short content which is easily indexed
• Hiring people to create content for social networks
Download Free: SMO Interview Questions PDF

View Answer
Creating content which easily creates publicity via social networks
16. What is the benefit of Social media marketing?
• It can show your brand in front of people much more quickly and easily.
• increased traffic
• higher conversion rates
View Answer
It can show your brand in front of people much more quickly and easily.
17. Social networks have an enormous information sharing capacity. As

such, they are a great distribution channel for ____.
• customer feedback
• viral content
• exclusive coupons
• marketing messages
View Answer
marketing messages
18. Which one is the best choice for purchasing through social media
marketing or traditional marketing?
• It depends upon the customer's point of view due to the lack of time and money
or their satisfaction.
• Social media marketing
• Traditional Marketing
View Answer
It depends upon the customer's point of view due to the lack of time and money.
19. Which social network is considered the most popular for social media
marketing?
• Facebook
• Twitter
• Instagram
• Whatsapp
View Answer
Facebook
20. Which is not direct benefit of social media marketing?
• Increased Brand Awareness

• More Inbound Traffic
• More Brand Authority
• Difficult To Measure
View Answer
Difficult To Measure
• Generates contacts quickly

• Interactive communication
• Better Customer Satisfaction
View Answer
All of the above
22. Which of the following is function of social media for business?
• Boost Brand Awareness

• Increase Inbound Traffic
• Enhance Brand Loyalty
View Answer
All of the above
23. One of the key components of SMM is?
• Social Media Optimization

• Search Engine Optimization
• Content Optimization
View Answer
Social Media Optimization
24. How to build your brand on social media?
• Identify Your Area of Expertise

• Find & Join Groups
• Create & Curate Engaging Content
View Answer
All of the above
25. How does a blog directly impact sales of a company?
• Turning visitors into leads

• Suggests latest products
• Topics that your target consumers find most valuable
View Answer
All of the above
26. Which of the following is not considered a social media marketing

goal?
• Generating new leads

• Driving recommendations from friends and family
• Increasing customer satisfaction (customer service)
• Increasing the number of Facebook fans & Twitter followers
View Answer
Increasing the number of Facebook fans & Twitter followers
27. All of the following are key objectives of smm except
• Customer service.
• Brand development
• Brand preference.
• Brand awareness.
View Answer
Brand development
1. _____ is the development of original products, product improvements, product modifications, and
new brands through the firm’s own R&D efforts.
a. Idea generation
b. Concept testing
c. Test marketing
d. New product development
2. All of the following are different ways a firm can obtain new products, except which one?
a. By acquiring a whole new company
c. A firm can obtain a new product by licensing someone else's new product
d. A firm can obtain a new product by using the R&D department of other firms in the same
industry.
3. All of the following are accurate descriptions of reasons why new products fail, except which one?
a. Although the market size was correctly estimated, the product idea itself was not good.
b. The actual product was not designed as well as it should have been.
4. All of the following are accurate descriptions of ways companies are anxious to learn how to improve
the odds of new-product success, except which one?
a. Find out what successful new products have in common.
d. Do not overly rely on product innovation when you can succeed by copying others.
5. New-product development starts with _____.

a. idea screening
b. idea generation
6. _____ is the systematic search for new-product ideas.
a. Idea generation
b. Idea screening
c. Concept development and testing
a. Picking the brains of company executives, scientists, engineers and salespeople is a good
way to generate ideas.
b. Intrapreneurial programs that encourage employees to think and develop new-product ideas
is a good way to generate ideas.
c. Some companies employ creative approaches, including both "method and madness" in
helping them to generate new product ideas.
8. Major sources of new product ideas include _____.

a. internal sources, using company R&D
b. creative approaches, using both "method and madness" approaches
c. watching and listening to customers
d. all of the above are sources of new product ideas
9. All of the following are major external sources of new-product ideas, except which one?
a. Companies can conduct surveys or focus groups to learn about consumer needs and wants.
c. Some companies employ creative approaches, including both "method and madness" in
helping them to generate new product ideas.
10. All of the following are accurate descriptions of new product ideas, except which one?
b. Some companies use brainstorming exercises that expand people's minds and generate new
ideas around the client's problem.
c. At the beginning of the process, carefully scrutinize each idea and throw far-fetched and
products.
Answer: (c) Difficulty: (3) Pages: 268-269
11. Some companies have installed a(n) _____ that directs the flow of new ideas to a central point
where they can be collected, reviewed, and evaluated.
a. new-product development team
b. idea management system
c. computer system
d. satellite system
12. In order to install an idea management system, whereby all ideas are directed to a central point, a
company can do any or all of the following:
b. Create a cross-functional idea management committee comprising of people form R&D,
finance, engineering and operations to meet and evaluate new product ideas.
d. All of the above are legitimate ways to systematically collect ideas.
13. The purpose of _____ is to generate a large number of ideas.

a. idea screening
b. idea generation
14. The first idea reducing stage is _____ , which helps spot good ideas and drop poor ones as soon
as possible.
a. idea generation
b. idea screening
15. A _____ is a detailed version of the idea stated in meaningful consumer terms.
a. product idea
b. product concept
c. product image
d. test market
16. A _____ is the way consumers perceive an actual or potential product.

a. product idea
b. product concept
c. product image
d. test market
Answer: (c) Difficulty: (1) Page: 270
17. An attractive idea must be developed into a _____.

a. product idea
b. product concept
c. product image
d. test market
18. All of the following are accurate descriptions of activities performed in the idea screening stage of
new product development, except which one?
a. Idea screening helps spot good ideas and drop poor ones as soon as possible.
b. Companies want to go ahead only with the product ideas that will turn into profitable products.
c. Many companies require their executives to write up new product ideas on a standard form
that can be reviewed by a new-product committee.
d. Setting up a toll-free number or Web site for anyone who wants to send a new idea to the
idea manager.
19. _____ calls for testing new-product concepts with groups of target consumers.
a. Concept development
b. Concept testing
c. Idea generation
d. Idea screening
20. _____ entails testing new-product concepts with a target group of consumers to find out if the
concepts have strong consumer appeal.
a. Concept development
b. Concept testing
c. Idea generation
d. Idea screening
21. Product concepts are presented to consumers during concept testing in any of the following
ways, except which one?
a. A word or picture description is presented to consumers.
b. A concrete and physical presentation of the concept will increase the reliability of the concept
test.
c. Some companies are using virtual reality to test product concepts.
d. Companies are reluctant to use the Web to test product concepts.
22. Designing an initial marketing strategy for a new product based on the _____ is called marketing
strategy development.
a. new product idea
b. product concept
c. test market results
d. product prototype
23. The marketing strategy statement in new product development consists of three parts: _____,
_____, and _____.
a. idea generation; idea screening; concept development
b. idea generation; concept development; concept testing
c. idea generation; idea screening; idea management
d. target market description; planned product positioning; sales, market share, and profit goals
for the first few years.
24. _____ involves a review of the sales, costs, and profit projections for a new product to find out
whether they satisfy the company's objectives.
a. Idea generation
b. Idea screening
c. Business analysis
d. Concept development and testing
25. If a product concept passes the _____, it moves into _____.

a. business analysis test; product development
b. concept development stage; product development
c. concept testing stage; product development
d. idea generation stage; product development
26. Once management has decided on a product concept and marketing strategy, it can next evaluate
the _____ of the proposal.
a. product idea portion
b. product development part
c. business attractiveness
d. commercial viability
27. In the product concept stage of new-product development, the product is merely a _____.
a. word description
b. crude mock-up
c. drawing
d. all of the above
28. In the _____ of new-product development, often products undergo rigorous tests to make sure that
they perform safely and effectively or that consumers will find value in them.
a. business analysis stage
b. idea generation
c. concept development and testing stage
d. product development phase
29. _____ is the stage of new-product development in which the product and marketing program are
tested in more realistic market settings.
a. Business analysis
b. Idea generation
c. Test marketing
30. All of the following are accurate descriptions of test marketing, except which one?
a. Test marketing is the stage at which the product and marketing program are introduced into
realistic market settings.
b. Test marketing by consumer-packaged goods firms has been increasing in recent years.
c. Test marketing costs can be high, and it takes time that may allow competitors to gain
advantages.
d. Companies often do not test market simple line extensions.
31. Introducing a new product into the market is called _____.

a. test marketing
b. new product development
c. experimenting
d. commercialization
32. A company getting ready to launch a new product must make several decisions. However, the
company must first decide on _____.
a. whether to launch the product in a single location
b. whether to launch the product in a region
c. whether to launch the product into full national or international distribution
d. timing of the new product introduction
33. _____ is a new-product development approach in which one company department works to
complete its stage of the process before passing the new product along to the next department
and stage.
a. Team-based product development
b. Simultaneous product development
c. Sequential product development
d. Product life-cycle analysis
34. In order to get their new products to market more quickly, many companies are adopting a faster,
team-oriented approach called _____.
a. sequential product development
b. simultaneous product development
c. commercialization
d. introduction timing
35. All of the following statements are accurate descriptions of the simultaneous product development
approach to new product development, except which one?
a. The simultaneous product development approach is also known as collaborative product
development.
b. Company departments work closely together through cross-functional teams.
c. Companies assemble a team of people from various departments that stay with the new
product from start to finish.
d. Companies often pass the new product from department to department in each stage of the
process.
36. All of the following are accurate descriptions of new-product development approaches used by
companies in the commercialization phase of the process, except which one?
a. New-product development teams in the simultaneous approach tend to stay with the new
product from start to finish.
b. In the simultaneous approach, top management gives the product development team general
strategic direction but no clear-cut product idea or work plan.
c. In order to get their new products to market more quickly, many companies are adopting a
faster approach called sequential product development.
d. The simultaneous team-based approach can be riskier and more costly than the slower, more
orderly sequential approach.
37. All of the following are limitations of the simultaneous team-based approach to new-product
development, except which one?
a. Superfast product development can be riskier and more costly than the slower, more orderly
sequential approach.
b. This approach often creates increased organizational tension and confusion.
c. The objective of this approach is to ensure that rushing a product to market doesn't adversely
affect its quality.
d. Top management gives the product development team a clear-cut product idea or work plan.
38. All of the following statements accurately reflect the requisites of new-product
success, except which one?
a. Thinking of a few good ideas, turning them into products, and finding customers for them.
b. A systematic approach for finding new ways to create value for target consumers, from
generating and screening new-product ideas to creating and rolling out want-satisfying
products to customers.
c. New-product success requires a total-company commitment.
d. At firms known for their new-product success, their culture does not encourage, support, and
reward innovation.
39. _____ begins when the company finds and develops a new-product idea. During product
development, sales are zero and the company's investment costs mount.
a. Introduction
b. Growth
c. Maturity
d. Product development
40. _____ is a period of slow sales growth as the product is introduced into the market. Profits are non-
existent in this stage because of the heavy expenses of product introduction.
a. Growth
b. Product development
c. Maturity
d. Introduction
41. _____ is a period of market acceptance and increasing profits.

a. Product development
b. Maturity
c. Growth
d. Introduction
42. _____ is the course of a product's sales and profits over its lifetime, involving five distinct stages:
product development, introduction, growth, maturity, and decline.
a. Product life cycle
b. Maturity
c. Growth
d. Decline
43. _____ is the period when sales fall off and profits drop.
a. Introduction
b. Growth
c. Maturity
d. Decline
44. All of the following are accurate descriptions of the product life cycle concept, except which one?
a. The PLC concept can describe a product class.
b. The PLC concept can describe a product form.
c. The PLC concept can describe a brand.
d. Product forms tend to have the longest life cycles.
45. All of the following are accurate descriptions of the application of the product life cycle
concept, except which one?
a. The PLC concept can be applied to styles.
b. The PLC concept can be applied to fashions.
c. The PLC concept can be applied to fads.
d. The PLC concept can be applied to all of the above.
46. All of the following are accurate descriptions of the life cycle of a style product, except which one?
a. Style products appear in homes, clothing, and art.
b. Once a style is invented, it may last for generations.
c. A style has a cycle showing several periods of renewed interest.
d. Styles last only a short time and tend to attract only a limited following.
47. _____ are fashions that enter quickly, are adopted with great zeal, peak early, and decline very
quickly.
a. Fashion
b. Fads
c. Styles
d. Mature products
48. The product life-cycle stage in which the new product is first distributed and made available for
purchase is called the _____.
a. maturity stage
b. growth stage
c. introduction stage
d. decline stage
49. All of the following are characteristics of the introduction stage of the PLC, except which one?
a. Profits are usually negative or low because of low sales.
b. Profits are usually negative or low because of high distribution and promotion expenses.
c. Lots of money is needed to attract distributors and build inventories.
d. Educating the market remains a goal, but now the company must also meet the competition.
50. All of the following are accurate descriptions of product launch strategies that are recommended of
market pioneers, except which one?
a. The product launch strategy must be consistent with the intended product positioning.
b. The initial strategy is just the first step in a grander marketing plan for the product's entire life
cycle.
c. Pioneers must avoid sacrificing long-run revenue for the sake of short-run gain.
d. Pioneers have the best chance of building and retaining market share if they decide to take
risks from the start.
free.
1. What are some examples of digital marketing?
• Social Media Marketing

• Search Engine Marketing
• Search Engine Optimisation
View Answer
All of the above
2. Who is the father of digital marketing?
• Philip Kotler
• Bruce Clay India
• Justin Hall
View Answer
Philip Kotler
3. The term Digital Marketing was first used in the .............
• 1999s.
• 1990s
• 1980s.
• 1989s.
View Answer
1990s
4. What is the best way to promote a business with social media?
• Choose the Right Platforms

• Encourage Engagement
• Provide Value & Don’t Over-Promote
View Answer
All of the above
5. What do you mean by Digital marketing?
• Digital marketing is referred to as online marketing, web marketing, and internet

marketing.
• Analog Marketing
• Shop
Download Free : Digital Marketing MCQ PDF
View Answer
Digital marketing is referred to as online marketing, web marketing, and internet marketing.
6. If customer expectation and product performance are match ______.
• shows the satisfaction of the customer

• shows the dissatisfaction of the customer
• does not meet customer requirement
View Answer
shows the satisfaction of the customer
7. Which one is the best way to promote a business online?
• It offers a lot of helpful and free information.

• To collect as many information as possible.
• to advertise your company's product.
View Answer
It offers a lot of helpful and free information.
8. _____ is an example of business to business services.
• Youtube brand channel.

• Google
• Yahoo
View Answer
Youtube brand channel.
9. Which of the following is production related procurement?
• Offline supplies
• Raw materials
• Information System
View Answer
Raw materials
10. Which of the following waves can penetrate through clouds?
• ultrasonic
• gamma
• radar
• visible and infrared
Read Best: Digital marketing Interview Questions

View Answer
radar
11. Sales Promotion Includes ____.
• Advertise
• Publicity
• Selling
View Answer
All of the above
12. Extended P's of service marketing mixes:

• People, Product, Process
• Price, Physical Evidence, Promotion
• Physical Evidence, Place, People
• Product, Process, Physical Environment
View Answer
People, Product, Process
13. Marketing information includes ___.
• Knowledge of Customer Requirement

• Knowledge of peers
• Knowledge of industries
View Answer
Knowledge of Customer Requirement
14. The sequence of a sales process includes ______.
• Lead generation, call, presentation & sale

• Sale, presentation, Lead generation & call
• Presentation, Lead generation, Sale & Call
• Lead generation, Call, Sale & Presentation
View Answer
Lead generation, call, presentation & sale
15. Which one is the best way to make money digitally?
• Having products on your website

• Good marketing ideas by dreaming
• Selling stuff
• works the night shift
Download Free: Digital marketing Interview Questions PDF

View Answer
Having products on your website
16. Digital marketing is any form of marketing products or services that

involves ___.
• electronic devices
• pen
• money
• book
View Answer
electronic devices
17. Digital marketing revolves around these 5Ds:
• digital devices, digital platforms, digital media, digital data, and digital
technology.
• dabit, digital platforms, digital media, digital data, and digital technology.
• digital devices, digital platforms, digital media, digital data, and offline
technology.
View Answer
digital devices, digital platforms, digital media, digital data, and digital technology.
18. Businesses leverage digital channels such as _____ to connect with

current and prospective customers.
• search engines, social media, email, and other websites

• product
• Both A and B
View Answer
search engines, social media, email, and other websites
19. Is Social Media Marketing is a type of Digital Marketing?
• Yes
• No
View Answer
Yes
20. Content Marketing is a type of Digital Marketing.
• True
• False
View Answer
True
• It can be done online

• It cannot be done online
• It is referred to as online marketing, internet marketing or web marketing
View Answer
It cannot be done online

• Email marketing
• Social Marketing
• Video Marketing
View Answer
All of the above
• Telivision
• Radio
• Banners
View Answer
All of the above
24. Which of the following is not a benefit of content marketing?
• Cost savings
• Increase sales
• Less engagement
View Answer
Less engagement
25. Approximately how many businesses are used content marketing?
• 10 to 20%
• 25 to 30%
• 80 to 90%
• 100%
View Answer
80 to 90%
. At one time, firms scattered their marketing efforts (a “shotgun” approach) to reach
consumers. Today, a firm is more likely to use:
a) a “bazooka” approach, where special effects are used to “explode” into the
buyer’s consciousness.
b) a “knife” approach, where the firm tries to “cut” to the most important product
advantage.
c) a “rifle” approach, where the firm focuses on the buyers who have greater
interest in the values that the firm creates best.
d) a “pistol” approach, where the firm realizes that it has multiple chances to gain
consumer interest.
2. ________________ is the process of dividing a market into smaller groups of

buyers with distinct needs, characteristics, or behaviors who might require separate
products or marketing mixes.
a) Mass marketing
b) Market segmentation
c) Target marketing
d) Market positioning
3. __________________ is the process of evaluating each market segment’s

attractiveness and selecting one or more segments to enter.
a) Mass marketing
b) Market segmentation
c) Market targeting
d) Market positioning
4. Setting the competitive positioning for the product and creating a detailed
marketing mix is called:
a) mass marketing.
b) target marketing.
c) market segmentation.
d) marketing positioning.
5. During which step of the marketing segmentation, targeting, and positioning

process does the firm “develop a marketing mix for each segment?”
a) market segmentation
b) market targeting
c) market positioning
d) The firm does not go through the “development” during any of the above steps.
6. During one of the steps in the marketing segmentation, targeting, and positioning
process, the marketer develops measures of segment attractiveness. This procedure
belongs in the category of:
a) market segmentation.
b) market targeting.
c) market massing.
d) market positioning.
7. When companies divide large, heterogeneous markets into smaller segments that
can be reached more efficiently with products and services that match their unique
needs, they are conducting a ___________________ process.
a) marketing aggregation
b) marketing positioning
c) marketing target
d) marketing segmentation
8. Market segmentation can be carried out at several different levels. Which of the
following WOULD NOT BE among these levels?
a) micromarketing
b) segment marketing
c) competition marketing
d) niche marketing
9. Another word for complete segmentation is:

a) macromarketing.
b) micromarketing
c) niche marketing
d) mass marketing.
10. For most of the 20th century, firms practiced which of the following forms of
marketing?
a) mass marketing
b) micromarketing
c) niche marketing
d) segment marketing
11. Which of the following marketers epitomized the mass marketing strategy?
a) Henry Ford
b) Bill Gates
c) F.W. Woolworth
d) Thomas A. Edison
12. Which of the following statements is closest to the traditional argument for mass
marketing?
a) Find a need and fill it.
b) The largest potential market can lead to the lowest costs, which translates
into either lower prices or higher margins.
c) The rifle approach rarely hits what it is aiming at.
d) The consumer is king. Long live the king.
13. Isolating broad segments that make up a market and adapting the marketing to
match the needs of one or more segments is called _________________.
a) niche marketing
b) mass marketing
c) segment marketing
d) micromarketing
14. When General Motors designs specific models for different income and age
groups, it is practicing which of the following marketing formats?
a) micromarketing
b) macromarketing
c) mass marketing
d) segment marketing
15. Segment marketing offers several benefits over mass marketing. All of the
following would be among those benefits EXCEPT:
a. the company can market more efficiently and target its programs toward only
those consumers that it can serve best.
b. the company can fine-tune its programs to meet the needs of carefully defined
segments.
c. the company can reduce costs because of the ability to sell to customers
one-on-one.
d. the company may face fewer competitors if fewer competitors are focusing on
the company’s chosen market segment.
16. A company is practicing ________________ if it focuses on sub segments with

distinctive traits that may seek a special combination of benefits.
a. Micromarketing
b. niche marketing
c. mass marketing
d. segment marketing
17. As an example of _______________, a company could build sport utility vehicles

and direct marketing efforts towards the luxury SUV market (as does Lexus).
a. micromarketing
b. niche marketing
c. mass marketing
d. segment marketing
18. American Express offers not only its traditional green cards but also gold cards,
corporate cards, and even a black card, called the Centurian, with a $1,000 annual
fee aimed at a small group of “superpremium customers.” Which of the following
marketing efforts is American Express following with their credit card policies?
a. macromarketing
b. segment marketing
c. niche marketing
d. self-marketing
19. _________________ is the practice of tailoring products and marketing

programs to suit the tastes of specific individuals and locations.
a. Niche marketing
b. Micromarketing
c. Segment marketing
d. Mass marketing
20. Micromarketing includes:

a. segment marketing and niche marketing.
b. mass marketing and demographic marketing.
c. local marketing and individual marketing.
d. individual marketing and self-marketing.
21. ______________ involves tailoring brands and promotions to the needs and
wants of specific small groups such as cities, neighborhoods, and even specific
stores.
a. Niche marketing
b. Local marketing
c. Detail marketing
d. Individual marketing
22. All of the following are considered to be drawbacks of local marketing EXCEPT:
a. it can drive up manufacturing and marketing costs by reducing economies of
scale.
b. it can create logistical problems when the company tries to meet varied
requirements.
c. it can attract unwanted competition.
d. it can dilute the brand’s overall image.
23. ________________ is tailoring products and marketing programs to the needs

and preferences of individual customers.
a. Niche marketing
b. Local marketing
c. Self-marketing marketing
d. Individual marketing
24. Individual marketing is known by a variety of names. All of the following would
appropriately be called individual marketing EXCEPT:
a. mono-marketing.
b. one-to-one marketing.
c. customized marketing.
d. markets-of-one marketing.
25. ______________ is the process through which firms interact one-to-one with
masses of customers to create customer-unique value by designing products and
services tailor-made to individual needs.
a. Mass marketing
b. Detail marketing
c. Mass globalization
d. Mass customization
26. The move toward individual marketing mirrors the trend in consumer _________.
a. backlash
b. self-marketing.
c. dialog marketing
d. niche marketing
27. All of the following are considered to be major variables for segmenting markets
EXCEPT:
a. geographic variables.
b. trait variables.
c. demographic variables.
d. psycho-graphic variables.
28. If a marketer attempts segmentation of a market by dividing the market into

different units based on nations, regions, states, counties, cities, or even
neighborhoods, then the marketer is practicing ____________ segmentation.
a. demographic
b. geographic
c. political
d. cartographic
29. When Campbell Soup makes Cajun gumbo soup for Louisiana and Mississippi
and nacho cheese soup for Texas and California, it is practicing _______________
segmentation.
a. geographic
b. demographic
c. psychographic
d. behavioral variable
30. All of the following would be ways to segment within the category of psycho-
graphic segmentation EXCEPT:
a. social class.
b. occupation.
c. lifestyle.
d. personality.
26. A detailed stated version of shortlisted new ideas in meaningful consumer terms
is best classified as
A.concept
B.phase
C.screening
D.raw-material screening
Answer: A
27. The tendency of difficult understanding related to the use of market offering is
called
A.relative advantage
B.complexity
C.communicability
D.compatibility
Answer: B
28.which triggers positive or negative emotions leads to purchase motivation
A.emotional appeal
B.rational appeal
C.moral appeal
D.irrational appeal
Answer : A
29.Customers in growth stage of life cycle of products are classified as
A.innovators
B.early adopters
C.middle majority customers
D.laggards
Answer B
30.Considering non-personal communication channels, magazines, direct mail and
newspapers are considered as
A.online media
B.print media
C.broadcast media
D.display media
Answer :B
31.Product development process after analysis of business next step to be taken is
A.test marketing
B.penetration marketing
C.one chanal marketing
D.individual marketing
Answer:A
32.who is suspicious of change is classified as
A.late majority
B.early majority
C.laggard
D.early adopter
Answer:C
33.which is reflected in web design through ______.
A.different feature stories appealing to different members
B.content referencing the needs of companies
C.different navigation options appealing to different members
D.status of the business in the purchase decision process
Answer:C
34. Many consumer products are a key difference between B2C and B2B marketing
which is reflected in web design through ______.
A.referencing needs of companies of different sizes
B.the status of the business in the purchase decision process
C.different feature stories appealing to different members
D.different navigation options appealing to different members
Answer: B
35.which goal of a business-to-business website involves an interactive dialogue
with a virtual salesperson?
A.sizzle
B.sell
C.speak
D.save
Answer: B
35.which goal of a business-to-business website involves gaining permission from a
website visitor and other communications channels?
A.serve
B.speak
C.sell
D.save
Answer: B
36. Business-to business eCommerce involves commercial transactions between
other organizations and organizations.
A.True
B.False
C. May be
D. May not be
Answer: A
37.the example of business-to-business services offered by Google which gains
advertising revenue.
A.Google AdWords pay per click sponsored
B.Google Apps Application Suite
D.Google Search application providing online website
Answer: C
38. ______ is an example of business-to-business services offered by Google
application running as part of a customer’s website.
A.Google Search application providing online website search
B.Google Apps Business Application
D.Google AdWords click sponsored link advertising
Answer: A
39.which is normally run by a consortium of buyers in order to establish an efficient
purchasing environment.
A.B2B independent e-marketplace.
B.buyer-oriented marketplace.
C.supplier-oriented marketplace.
D.vertical and horizontal e-marketplace.
Answer: B
40.which is an online platform operated by a third party and is open to buyers or
sellers in a particular industry.
A.vertical and horizontal e-marketplace.
B.supplier-oriented marketplace.
C.buyer-oriented marketplace.
D.B2B independent e-marketplace.
Answer: D
41. By bulk buying of items, One aim of e-procurement is to increase savings
A.right quantity.
B.right thing.
C.right quality.
D.right price.
Answer: A
42. Which production is related to procurement?
A.Office supplies.
B.Raw materials.
C.Information systems.
D.Furniture.
Answer: B
43. In a market where companies build close connective relationships where Internet
technology will not feature strongly in the development of these relationships, this is
known as a ______ relationship. | Digital Marketing Mcqs
C.High Tech/Low Touch, Automated
D.High Tech/Low Touch, Personal
Answer: A
44.where technology will not feature in the development of these relationships, this is
known as a ______ relationship.
C.High Tech/Low Touch, Personal
D.High Tech/Low Touch, Automated
Answer: B
45.website functions, which are the most important?
A.Having free reports
B.services your company provides
C.Capturing email addresses of visitors
D.information on every page
Answer: C
46.Way promote a business with social media is__________
A.your company, services, and products
B.many contacts as possible
C. Offer a lot of helpful
D.potential clients to visit your website
Answer: C
47.search page engine optimization refers to_________
A.Programming keywords into a website
B.each page of a website for design
C.amount of links coming into your website
D.The number of search engine sites a website
Answer: A
48. The best way to improve search engine ranking is with
A.Video
B.A blog
C.Having at least 500 words on the page
D.a lot of graphics per page
Answer: B
49.which main objective of branding is?
A.customers recognize your logo and marketing materials
B.earn trust from your customers
C.Promotional materials that match
D.a unique tag line
Answer: B
50. Which marketing techniques are most likely to pay you?
A. Pay click advertising
B.Using social media marketing
C.Posting press
D.article marketing
Answer: D
51.is it most ideal to send a press release?
A.when there is “big news” happening
B.around the holidays
C.news seems to be slow
D.Tuesday through Thursday for newsworthy
Answer: D
52.the best way to make money “while you sleep”?
A.up good marketing ideas by dreaming
B.Selling stuff
C.Having products on your website
D.spouse who works the night shift
Answer: C
53.the possibility of website visitors following through on contacting you is
A. Offer a 1-800-#
B. Tell them to call you
C.”take away” with your contact information
D. Offer testimonials
Answer: B
54.which is keeping someone on your website and encouraging them to come back?
A. Make a website things to do a website interactive such as quizzes, downloads, etc
B.a lot of text to read
C. Make it difficult to locate
D.Pack a lot of graphics and photos
Answer: A
55. SEO stand for?
A.ite Engine Optimization
B.Search Engine Optimization
C.Site Efficiency Optimization
D.none of these
Answer: B
56.which name is the latest major change in functionality?
A.Farmville
B.Timeline
C.Newsfeed
D.both A&B
Answer: B
57._________ name of the Hosting Company that is used for all external consumer-
facing sites?
A.Verizon
B.HP
C.Rackspace
D.none of these
Answer: C
58.________ is the new content management tool for SWEET ?
A.Sitecore
B.CMS Lite
C.Sharepoint
D.none
Answer: A
59. A Robust Social Media Plan Includes Which Of The Following?
A. A long-term schedule identifying when to post content
B. A list of content that mimics competitor content
C. All of your online business goals
D. A list of friends who can post on the accounts
Answer: A
Which Of The Following Factors Can Impact The Open Rate Of Your Email
Campaigns?
A. The subject line of the email
B. The number of pictures in your email
C. The number of links contained in the email
D. The chance for customers to opt-out
Answer: A
Let us see the Digital Marketing Solved MCQs.
1. the customer review of a product on an E-Commerce website.
a)Awareness about the brand
b)Awareness about the product
c)Experience the product
d)Both a&c
Answer: b
2.The main objective of digital marketing is to _________
3.buying relevant keyword and Paid search marketing is about bidding
a)True
b)False
c)May be
d)May not
Answer: a
4. People who had earlier visited the site is __________ Customising advertisement
to.
a)Search retargeting
b)Contextual marketing
c)Remarketing
d)None
Answer: c
5. This aims at influencing users who have begun their research on search engines,
but not needed that they have visited a brand site.
a)Contextual marketing
b)Search retargeting
c)Remarketing
d)Both a&b
Answer: b
6. Which platform can be used by advertisers and purchase ad impressions across
ad exchanges?
a) demand-side platform
b)supply side platform
c)Ad network
d)None
Answer: a
7. Real-time bidding is a form of programmatic buying
a)True
b)False
c) Partially True
d) None
Answer: a
8. Which capabilities are offered by Web Content Management Tools?
a)Centralized version control
b)Simplification through templates
c)Integration with enterprise applications
d)all
Answer: d
9. Which design approaches help in building sites that are optimized for various
screen sizes?
a)Mobile optimized design
b)Responsive web design
c)Progressive enhancement
d)Adaptive web design
Answer: b
10. Site designing for mobile is very similar to the web.
a)True
b)False
c)May be
d)May not
Answer: b
11.Profits related to a new product in its introductory stage of profit related to new
product
A.negative
B.positive
C.higher
D.declining
Answer: A
12. ____________classified by decoding, feedback, encoding and response are
together in communication process.
A.communication tools
B.communication channels
C.communication parties
D.communication function
Answer: D
13.Product development comes from_________ source of idea.
A.internal sources
B.external sources
C.product extension
D.both a and b
Answer: D
Answer
14.Which way of consumers feel or perceive towards an actual product or potential
market offering
A.sales concept
B.product images
C.product idea
D.customer management
Answer: B
15.which Products like as “VHS tapes”
A.product classes
B.branding
C.product forms
D.product perception
Answer: B
16.__________ behavior Highly involved consumer buying behavior while perceiving
significant differences between brands
A.complex behavior
B.variety seeking behavior
C.dissonance reducing behavior
D.habitual behavior
Answer: A
17.___________Procedure in marketing which consists of enlisting opinion leaders
as “brand ambassadors” is called
A.Leading
B.online
C.Buz
D.none of the above
Answer: C
18.customer is _________, If customer’s expectations and products performance
matches
A.satisfied
B.dissatisfied
C.delighted
D.none of these
Answer: A
19.Stages such as conviction stage, liking stage, preference stage, and actual
purchase stage are all of the process called
A.channeling
B.buyer readiness
C.channel designing
D.strategic
Answer: B
20.When the new developed product concept is tested, the next immediate step is to
A.market strategy
B.a testing technique
C.intermediaries
E.logistic network
Answer : A
21.____________communication process, receiver and sender are classified as
A.functions
B.parties
C.tools
D.channels
Answer: B
22.stage in which purchase intention is transformed in to purchase decision is called
A.need recognition
B.information search
C.purchase decision
D.both b and c
Answer: C
23.media and message are considered as_____________ in communication
process
A.tools
B.channels
C.functions
D.parties
Answer: A
24.’Maslow’s hierarchy of needs
A.physiological
B.self-actualization
C.esteem needs
D.all of above
Answer:D
25.___________ is classified An idea for a possible product that company will offer
A.product idea
B.product image
C.customer management
D.none of the above
Answer: D
1. In addition to having an e-business strategy, an e-marketing strategy

also needs to be developed and there are three main operational
processes involved. Which one is FALSE?
Your Answer: Customer acquisition

Correct Answer: Customer focus group development
Customer focus groups have their own roles to play but not in this
case. Attracting and engaging customers are two priorities followed by
repeat usage.
2. There needs to be an aligning of business and e-marketing strategies.

Which of the following would be feasible strategic objectives?
Your Answer: Communications and branding

Correct Answer: They are all applicable
All of the objectives were identified in Sultan and Rohm's article
published in 2004.
3. It is often useful at the outset to have a clear definition to refer to so

which of the following is best suited to defining e-marketing?
Your Answer: Achieving marketing objectives through the use of

electronic communications technology
4. What is required in addition to a broad e-business strategy to detail

how the sell-side specific objectives of the e-business strategy will be
delivered through marketing activities such as research and
communications?
Your Answer: The marketing concept

Correct Answer: E-marketing plan
An e-marketing plan is required is needed to achieve the marketing

objectives within the e-business strategy.
5. As an e-marketing plan is needed in addition to a broad e-business

strategy. Generic frameworks exist which summarise the different
stages that would be involved in a marketing strategy from
development to implementation. Smith's (1999) framework has six
elements but which one does not comply with this model?
Your Answer: Tactics - how exactly do we get there

Correct Answer: Strengths - what are our strengths compared to
competitors
This is a difficult question and the sequence runs - situation,

objectives, strategy (not strengths), tactics, action, control.
6. Many problems can occur if adequate resources are not directed

towards an effective development and implementation of a marketing
plan. Typical problems would include inadequate planning,
underestimation of resources, insufficient customer data, and so on. To
protect an investment, distinct marketing plans with clear objectives
and strategies should be produced which show how e-marketing
supports the sales and marketing process. A logical approach would
include a situation analysis but what is this?
Your Answer: An e-marketing SWOT analysis

Correct Answer: An environmental analysis and review of internal
processes and resources to inform strategy
A situation analysis aims to understand the current and future
environment in which the company operates in order that the strategic
objectives are realistic.
7. Current and future projections of customer demands for e-commerce

services are conducted through demand analysis. How can this be
done, for example, with search engines?
Your Answer: Use search engine services which show volume of

search terms typed in by search engine users
Correct Answer: All of the above can be employed
Search engine providers such as Google and Yahoo can provide data
on key words entered. Company sites can also see which key phrases
were used by visitors to reach their site via different search engines.
8. What would be the reasoning behind gaining not just quantitative data
on customers but also gathering qualitative data also?
Your Answer: None of the above

Correct Answer: All of the above
Qualitative date provides a richer understanding and insights into

customer behaviour. Customer personas and scenarios can be
developed and this will help to improve demographic detail as well as
identifying core characteristics, attitudes and needs of customers.
9. Competitor analysis examines competitor use of e-commerce to

acquire and retain customers. How often should this take place?
Your Answer: Twice a year is adequate due to cost implications

Correct Answer: Continuously
Competitors need to continuously monitored due to the dynamic

nature of the Internet so benchmarking cannot be seen to be a one-off
but an ongoing strategy.
10. Target marketing strategy involves the evaluation and selection of

appropriate target market segments and the development of
appropriate offers. Which is the correct sequencing of activities for
target marketing?
Your Answer: Planning - segmentation - target marketing -

positioning
Correct Answer: Segmentation - target marketing - positioning -
planning
Segmentation is the first stage and aims to understand groupings of
customers in the target market to recognise their needs and potential
as a revenue source. This is a key action before positioning and
planning resources.
11. Companies need to decide how to highlight their product benefits over
those of competitors which gives rise to the term 'differential
advantage'. To position product or service and to emphasise the
benefits, something similar to a 'unique selling point' needs
developing. What is this called though?
Your Answer: Behavioural targeting

Correct Answer: Online value proposition
In e-commerce, the term is 'online value proposition' and builds on the

core elements of the product or service.
12. To be effective, an online value proposition needs exceptional,

compelling content and experience for customers from the website and
other electronic media. A content strategy plans and manages this
process. Which of the items below is out of place in a content strategy?
Your Answer: Content access platform

Correct Answer: Content synchronisation
Content engagement value, media, participation and a content access

platform all need to be planned and managed. As does content
syndication (not synchronization which is the odd one out) to different
types of site.
13. To deliver a compelling online proposition value, the view is that

companies need to think like publishers and invest in providing fuller
resourced, quality content. Pulizzi and Barrett (2010) recommended
creating a content marketing roadmap which is unpinned by the BEST
principles. What does BEST stand for?
Your Answer: Behavioural, Essential, Strategic and Tested

Correct Answer: Behavioural, Essential, Strategic and Targeted
Behavioural, Essential, Strategic and Targeted form the acronym and

each feature needs to be constantly monitored.
14. There are many differences between marketing communications in the

traditional media (e.g. TV, print, radio) and new digital media (e.g.
websites, interactive TV). As far as interactivity is concerned,
traditional media works on a 'push' basis and the marketing message
is broadcast to the customer but what about new digital media?
Your Answer: The consumer is more passive

Correct Answer: New digital media encourages interactivity
By using the Internet, a customer would generally initiate interactivity

which is regarded as a 'pull' rather than 'push' communication activity.
15. Marketing tactics to implement strategies and objectives are

traditionally based around the elements of the 'marketing mix'. This is
a concept or framework that has been around for over 50 years so
which of the following are taken from the original marketing mix?
Your Answer: All of the below
1. Social networks are organized primarily around __________.

A. brands
B. people
C. discussions
D. interests
View Answer
Ans : B
Explanation: Social networks are organized primarily around people.
2. Which social network is considered the most popular for social

media marketing?
A. Twitter
B. Facebook
C. Linkdin
D. Whats App
View Answer
Ans : B
Explanation: Facebook is the biggest social media site around, with more than two billion
people using it every month.
3. What is the name for Facebook`s ranking algorithm?
A. Like Rank
B. Face rank
C. Page rank
D. Edge rank
View Answer
Ans : D
Explanation: Edge rank is the name for Facebook`s ranking algorithm.
4. Which of the following is an important aspect of creating blogs and

posting content?
A. Using a witty user name
B. Posting at least once a month to the blog
C. Social Media Optimization
D. All of the above
View Answer
Ans : D
Explanation: All of the above option is an important aspect of creating blogs and posting
content.

A. Blogs which are posted by companies, not individuals
B. Blogs with limited individual posts, limited by character count typically
C. Blogging from mobile devices
D. All of the above
View Answer
Ans : B
Explanation: micro-blogging means blogs with limited individual posts, limited by

character count typically.
6. What is "social media optimization"?

A. Creating content which easily creates publicity via social networks
B. Writing clear content
C. Creating short content which is easily indexed
D. Hiring people to create content for social networks
View Answer
Ans : A
Explanation: social media optimization means creating content which easily creates
publicity via social networks.
7. What would the marketing budget section of a marketing plan

detail?
A. The cost to write the plan
B. The marketing personnel job descriptions
C. The expected costs for each ad campaign based on the delivery method
View Answer
Ans : C
Explanation: The marketing budget section of a marketing plan detail is the overall
marketing budget for a year.
8. What is the name of Facebook's analytic package?

A. Princeps
B. Viewership
C. Discover
D. Insights
View Answer
Ans : D
Explanation: Insights is the name of Facebook`s analytic package.
9. How does creating a social network marketing plan differ from a

traditional marketing plan?
A. The brand image should be completely different for social marketing
B. The staff requirements and skill sets for social marketing are different
C. Other than the method of delivery, a marketing plan either way will be
similar
View Answer
Ans : B
Explanation: Creating a social network marketing plan differ from a traditional marketing
plan because the staff requirements and skill sets for social marketing are different.
10. Which of the following is functions of social media for business?
A. Are you participating in the conversation and sharing?
B. Are you listening and monitoring what is being said about you?
C. Both A and B
View Answer
Ans : C
Explanation: There are two functions of social media for business : Are you participating
in the conversation and sharing? and Are you listening and monitoring what is being said
about you?
. In Content marketing the content should be?

A. valuable
B. relevant
C. consistent
D. All of the above
View Answer
Ans : D
Explanation: Content marketing is a strategic marketing approach focused on creating

and distributing valuable, relevant, and consistent content to attract and retain a clearly
defined audience.
2. Content marketing aims ________.

A. drive profitable customer action
B. distract defined audience
C. lose defined audience
View Answer
Ans : A
Explanation: content marketing ultimately aims to drive profitable customer action.
3. Approximately how many businesses content marketing is used?

A. 20% to 30%
B. 40% to 50%
C. 60% to 70%
D. 80% to 90%
View Answer
Ans : D
Explanation: content marketing is a practice now being used by 86%(app.) of

businesses today.
4. Which of the following is not a goal of of Content Marketing?

A. Engagement
B. Sales
C. Customer novice
D. Up-selling
View Answer
Ans : C
Explanation: Customer novice is not a goal of of Content Marketing.
5. Which of the following comes under content pyramid?

A. blog post
B. social update
C. tweets
D. All of the above
View Answer
Ans : D
Explanation: All of the above options comes under content marketing.
6. Which of the following iis not a benefit of content marketing?

A. Increased sale
B. Better customers who have more loyalty
C. less engagement
D. Cost saving
View Answer
Ans : C
Explanation: less engagement is not a benefits of content marketing.
7. The word "blog" is a shortened version of __________.

A. webblog
B. weblog
C. welog
D. vlog
View Answer
Ans : B
Explanation: The word "blog" is a shortened version of "weblog," which is a mashup of

the words "web" and "log."
8. What is the full form of CMS?

A. Content Maintaince System
B. Content Management Site
C. Content Management System
D. Content Marketing System
View Answer
Ans : C
Explanation: Content Management System (CMS) : The system a company uses to

manage the content of a website
9. A period where content collapses in on itself as audiences max out

on their abilities to consume it is known as ________.
A. Content Cliff
B. Copywriting
C. Cornerstone Content
D. Crowdsourcing
View Answer
Ans : A
Explanation: Content Cliff : a period where content collapses in on itself as audiences

max out on their abilities to consume it.
10. The act of collecting, organizing, and sharing content is known as

________.
A. Crowdsourcing
B. Curation
C. Cornerstone Content
D. Digital Commerce
View Answer
Ans : B
Explanation: Curation : The act of collecting, organizing, and sharing content

1. Which of the following comes under email marketing?
A. Email newsletters
B. Lead Nurturing
C. Digests
D. All of the above
View Answer
Ans : D
Explanation: All of the above options comes under email marketing.
2. Which of the following is not an advantage of email newsletters?

A. Email newsletters spread your brand awareness
B. leverage the temporary content
C. freedom to include different types of content
D. leverage the existing content
View Answer
Ans : B
Explanation: leverage the temporary content is not an advantage of email marketing.
3. Which of the following is most important metric to track email

marketing?
A. CTR
B. Open rate
C. Click rate
D. All of the above
View Answer
Ans : D
Explanation: All of the above options important metric to track email marketing.
4. what technique is used by legitimate marketers to customize

offerings for specific customers?
A. personalization
B. spamming
C. spoofing
View Answer
Ans : A
Explanation: personalization is used by legitimate marketers to customize offerings for

specific customers.
5. select the features of a lead nurturing platform?

A. A/B testing
B. Landing page creation
C. Campaigning
D. All of the above
View Answer
Ans : D
Explanation: All of the above is the features of a lead nurturing platform.
6. This is a term for the number of times that user click on links in a
message or on a website : it is much higher for legitimate marketing
emails that for spam.
A. personalization
B. spamming
C. CTR
D. spoofing
View Answer
Ans : C
Explanation: CTR is correct answer.
7. Identify the factor that enables tracking of good and bad reputation?
A. IP address
B. User engagement
C. Fequency
D. All of the above
View Answer
Ans : A
Explanation: IP address is correct answer.
8. How important is the authentication process in email marketing?

A. Not Important
B. Can be skipped
C. Very Important
D. depend on individual
View Answer
Ans : C
Explanation: Email authentication is used as a way to verify that an email is from you or
your business. Email authentication is an important process in improving your
deliverability score and can also help to prevent spoofing and phishing scams.
9. In which type of email campaige, advertisment are sent to target

group of customer?
A. Direct email marketing
B. Indirect email marketing
C. Spamming
D. spoofing
View Answer
Ans : A
Explanation: Direct email marketing is correct answer.
10. Which of the following is correct size of email template before

executing a campaign?
A. 15KB
B. 18KB
C. 20KB
D. 15MB
View Answer
Ans : B
Explanation: 18KB is correct size of email template before executing a campaign.
1. Which of the following is the form of mobile marketing?

A. text
B. voice call
C. graphic
D. All of the above
View Answer
Ans : D
Explanation: Mobile marketing is similar to advertising delivered over other electronic

channels such as text, graphic and voice messages.
2. Which of the following is most common delivery channel for mobile

marketing?
A. text
B. voice call
C. graphic
D. Search engine marketing
View Answer
Ans : A
Explanation: SMS messaging (text messaging) is currently the most common delivery
channel for mobile marketing.
3. what is the full form of LBS in mobile marketing?

A. Lead-based Service
B. List-based Service
C. Location-based Service
View Answer
Ans : C
Explanation: LBS Stand for Location-based Service.
4. what is the key aspects of sending effective push notifications?

A. Send highly personalized messages
B. Send with high frequency
C. Both A and B
View Answer
Ans : A
Explanation: Send highly personalized messages is the key aspects of sending effective
push notifications.
5. what are 2 data-backed push messaging best practices?

A. Do not use promotional language
B. Send push notification during week (avoid weekends)
C. Schedule push message for afternoon
View Answer
Ans : B
Explanation: Send push notification during week are 2 data-backed push messaging
best practices.
6. Which of the following marketing based on very small, specific

geographical locations (like neighborhoods or even specific streets)?
A. Hyperlocal marketing
B. SMS marketing
C. QR codes
D. All of the above
View Answer
Ans : A
Explanation: Hyperlocal based on very small, specific geographical locations (like

neighborhoods or even specific streets).
7. What is true about 2D barcodes?

A. barcodes cannot scan vertically
B. barcodes cannot scan horizontally
C. A mobile user can scan barcodes in the environment to access
associated information.
D. Both B and C
View Answer
Ans : C
Explanation: A mobile user can scan barcodes in the environment to access associated
information is true statement.
8. How many % of mobile web users abandon pages if they don't load
within 10 seconds?
A. 0.6
B. 0.65
C. 0.7
D. 0.75
View Answer
Ans : B
Explanation: 65% of mobile web users abandon pages if they don't load within 10
seconds.
9. How many % of adults primarily use their smartphones to access

content/information?
A. 0.85
B. 0.9
C. 0.95
D. 0.97
View Answer
Ans : C
Explanation: 95% of adults primarily use their smartphones to access

content/information.
10. How many maximum character are allowed in sms marketing?

A. 150 character
B. 160 character
C. 170 character
D. 180 character
View Answer
Ans : B
Explanation: Keep the text under 160 characters
1. What is full form of PPC pages?

A. Per Pay Click
B. Pay Per Click
C. Prize per click
D. Both A and B
View Answer
Ans : B
Explanation: Pay Per Click, commonly known as PPC, refers to a model of internet
marketing.
2. The formula of Pay-per-click is?
A. Advertising cost ($) + Ads clicked (#)
B. Ads clicked (#) / Advertising cost ($)
C. Advertising cost ($) / Ads clicked (#)
D. Ads clicked (#) * Advertising cost ($)
View Answer
Ans : C
Explanation: Pay-per-click ($) = Advertising cost ($) / Ads clicked (#)
3. What are the following factors behind Successful PPC Advertising?

A. Keyword Relevance
B. Landing Page Quality
C. Quality Score
D. All of the above
View Answer
Ans : D
Explanation: All of the above options are the factors behind Successful PPC Advertising.
4. PPC advertising offers a unique opportunity to __________.

A. Generate Leads at High Costs
B. Grow Your Customer Base
C. Generate Leads at Low Costs
D. Both B and C
View Answer
Ans : D
Explanation: PPC advertising offers a unique opportunity to Grow Your Customer Base
and Generate Leads at Low Costs.
5. The most effective AdWords ad headlines ______.

A. include the company name or website domain name
B. do not contain the most important keywords
C. directly relate to the keywords being searched
D. are written in all capital letters
View Answer
Ans : C
Explanation: The most effective AdWords ad headlines directly relate to the keywords
being searched.
6. To indicate a keyword as an exact match, which of the following

should be used?
A. Quotations
B. Brackets
C. Parenthesis
D. Semicolon
View Answer
Ans : B
Explanation: To indicate a keyword as an exact match, Brackets should be used.
7. Single-word or general keywords are ______

A. too broad and can lead to clicks from people who don't know what you're
offering
B. excellent for your return on investment
C. useful in generating highly targeted traffic for your site
D. good for preventing irrelevant traffic
View Answer
Ans : A
Explanation: Single-word or general keywords are too broad and can lead to clicks from
people who don't know what you're offering.
8. An AdWords Standard Edition account can house up to ______

campaigns and ______ ad groups per campaign.
A. 1,1
B. 10,25
C. 25100
D. No Limit, No Limit
View Answer
Ans : C
Explanation: An AdWords Standard Edition account can house up to 25 campaigns and

100 ad groups per campaign.
9. What formula does Google use to determine the actual CPC when an
advertisers ad is clicked on?
A. Clicks / Impressions
B. QS * Max CPC (bid)
C. Position * QS
D. Impressions * Clicks
View Answer
Ans : B
Explanation: QS * Max CPC (bid) formula Google use to determine the actual CPC when
an advertisers ad is clicked on.
10. Google determines an ad`s rank based on:

A. your website`s performance in Google`s natural search results.
B. your CPC bid
C. your keyword`s quality score on Google and its CPC.
D. the length of time you have been an AdWords advertiser.
View Answer
Ans : C
Explanation: Google determines an ad`s rank based on : your keyword`s quality score
on Google and its CPC.
1. What is the full form of CRO?

A. Cost Rate Optimization
B. Conversion Rate Optimization
C. Click Rate Optimization
View Answer
Ans : B
Explanation: CRO stands for Conversion Rate Optimization.
2. What is true about CRO?

A. CRO is the process of optimizing the site to increase the likelihood that
visitors
B. Conversion Rate is a key metric in e-commerce
C. The higher the conversion rate, the better.
D. All of the above
View Answer
Ans : D
Explanation: All the above statement are true.
3. What is formula of CRO?

A. Leads Generated / Website Traffic x 100
B. Leads Generated * Website Traffic / 100
C. Leads Generated + Website Traffic x 100
D. Leads Generated + Website Traffic / 100
View Answer
Ans : A
Explanation: Leads Generated / Website Traffic x 100 = Conversion Rate %
4. Which of the following true statement about CRO?

A. Decreased ROI
B. Improve user base
C. Increased acquisition cost
D. All of the above
View Answer
Ans : B
Explanation: Improve user base true statement about CRO.
5. Which of the following is most common areas where companies

evaluate CRO?
A. A/B testing
B. Customer Journey Analysis
C. Segmentation
D. All of the above
View Answer
Ans : D
Explanation: companies evaluate CRO through all the above options.

6. What is the most used testing method for improving conversions?
A. A/B testing
B. Multivariate
C. Multi-armed bandit
View Answer
Ans : A
Explanation: For 2 years running, A/B testing has been the most used method.
7. When does conversion rate optimization give diminishing returns?

A. Once your conversion rate is 30%
B. In 5 years
C. Once you don't see a dramatic increase in results
D. Never
View Answer
Ans : D
Explanation: conversion rate optimization give diminishing returns never.
8. For every $92 spent acquiring customers, How much money is

spent converting them?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 15
D. 55
View Answer
Ans : A
Explanation: $1 spent acquiring customers
9. What does HiPPO stand for?

A. Highest Pay Per Optimization
B. Highest Investment Per Platform
C. Higher Increased Payout Per Optimization
D. Highest Paid Person's Opinion
View Answer
Ans : D
Explanation: HiPPO stand for Highest Paid Person's Opinion.

10. In 2011 alone, Google ran roughly ______ A/B tests.
A. 5000
B. 6000
C. 7000
D. 8000
View Answer
Ans : C
Explanation: In 2011 alone, Google ran roughly 7,000 A/B tests.
1. In order to identify the users, web analytics tools need to report on?
A. user sessions
B. Unique users
C. Page Views
D. All of the above
View Answer
Ans : A
Explanation: In order to identify the users, web analytics tools need to report on user
sessions (also referred to as visits).
2. Which of the following method used to identify user sessions?

A. IP address
B. authenticated user
C. user agent
D. All of the above
View Answer
Ans : D
Explanation: There are different techniques to identify users such as IP addresses, user
agent and IP address combination, cookies, and authenticated user.
3. The most common user identification technique is via?

A. Sessions
B. Cookies
C. Segmentation
D. page views
View Answer
Ans : B
Explanation: Nowadays, the most common user identification technique is via cookies
which are small packets of data that are usually deposited on the users computer hard
disk when the person visits a website.
4. The focus of web analytics is to understand the?

A. users of a site
B. User behavior
C. User activities
D. All of the above
View Answer
Ans : D
Explanation: The focus of web analytics is to understand the users of a site, their
behavior, and activities.
5. The immediate purpose of analyzing digital analytics data is to:

A. Make better decisions about your business
B. Generate more revenue from your website
C. Define the ideal customers for your business
D. Drive more traffic to your website
View Answer
Ans : A
Explanation: Although all answers are good, (a) is the best option because it
encompasses all others.
6. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

A. You should leverage the 5W (+1H) technique to plan and design a
dashboard.
B. Google Data Studio, Kilpfolio, and Tableau are some tools that help you
create effective dashboards.
C. You should provide usability-related (heuristics) recommendations
without actual data in your dashboards.
D. Designing an effective dashboard (or report) is similar to developing a
website.
View Answer
Ans : C
Explanation: You should never provide usability-related (heuristics) recommendations

without actual data in your dashboards.
7. What are the three areas of expertise of a Center of Excellence?

A. Instrumentation / Analysis / Recommendations
B. Business Outcomes and Actions / Enabling Capabilities / Analysis
C. Instrumentation / Enabling Capabilities / Analysis
View Answer
Ans : B
Explanation: The three areas of expertise of a Center of Excellence are Business

Outcomes and Actions/ Enabling Capabilities/ Analysis.
8. You want to understand if users use their mobile phone to access

your site. Which of the following approach is preferable?
A. Ask "Are you using a mobile phone to access our site?" Yes/No
B. Ask "Which type of device are you using to access our site?" with
choices: Desktop computer/Mobile Phone/Tablet
C. Look at the report Audience/Mobile/Overview
D. This cannot be known because people use multiple devices to browse
the Web
View Answer
Ans : C
Explanation: You could ask the questions in a survey, but the answer is readily available
in the Google Analytics reports (and all other web analytics platforms)
9. Publishing ads through Facebook would fall under which media

type?
A. Owned media, because of your Facebook Page
B. Social media channel
C. Paid media
D. Depends on the campaign parameters you add to your landing page link
View Answer
Ans : C
Explanation: Don't confuse owned and paid media. Leveraging Twitter, Facebook, and
LinkedIn ad networks falls under the paid category, while posting on your own Facebook
page would be owned media. Interacting on someone else's Facebook page or account
would fall under the earned media category.
10. Google Analytics can only recognize returning users on websites,

not on mobile apps.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
D. Can not say
View Answer
Ans : B
Explanation: The statement is false
1. How many approaches of marketing?

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
View Answer
Ans : A
Explanation: There are two approaches of marketing : Traditional marketing and Online
marketing
2. Online marketing is also termed as?

A. Internet marketing
B. Web marketing
C. Both A and B
D. OAM
View Answer
Ans : C
Explanation: Online marketing is also termed as Internet marketing, Web marketing, or

simply, OLM.
3. Blogs are web pages created by an individual or a group of
individuals.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
D. Can not say
View Answer
Ans : A
Explanation: True, Blogs are web pages created by an individual or a group of

individuals. They are updated on a regular basis. You can write blogs for business
promotion.
4. It is process of elevating website ranking in the unpaid results of

search engine.
A. Web Indexing
B. Search Engine Optimization
C. Tracking
D. Paid Search Advertising
View Answer
Ans : B
Explanation: Search Engine Optimization : It is process of elevating website ranking in

the unpaid results of search engine.
5. It is a hyperlink on a third-party web page that points to a web page

on your website.
A. KPI link
B. Inbound Link
C. Outbound Link
D. IFTTT Link
View Answer
Ans : B
Explanation: Inbound Link : It is a hyperlink on a third-party web page that points to a

web page on your website.
6. Google sends crawlers also called?

A. spiders
B. bots
C. Both A and B
View Answer
Ans : C
Explanation: The search engine such as Google sends crawlers (also called spiders or
bots) to harvest the content on your website. Crawlers are nothing but programs which
systematically browse the Internet for the purpose of web indexing.
7. Which of the following are Advantages of Online Advertising?

A. No time or demographic constraints on delivering the online advertise
B. Online advertising is promotional as well as informational
C. It brings speedy outcomes
D. All of the above
View Answer
Ans : D
Explanation: All of the above are Advantages of Online Advertising.
8. SERP stands for?

A. System Engine Result Page
B. Search Earning Result Page
C. Search Engine Result Page
D. Search Estimate Result Page
View Answer
Ans : C
Explanation: SEM involves the promotion of websites by increasing their visibility in

Search Engine Result Page (SERP).
9. Which lead to loss in sale?

A. Hate Sites
B. Negative Reviews
C. Negative Media Coverage
D. All of the above
View Answer
Ans : D
Explanation: All of the above lead to loss in sale.

10. Which of the following used to improve Online Reputation?
A. Improve tagging and SEO
B. Strive to build links from strong and reliable sources
C. Publish original posts with valuable information
D. All of the above
View Answer
Ans : D
Explanation: All of the above used to improve Online Reputation
1. Youtube launched in?

A. 2004
B. 2005
C. 2006
D. 2007
View Answer
Ans : B
Explanation: Launched in May 2005, YouTube allows billions of people to discover,

watch, and share originally-created videos.
2. The first ____ lines are essential in channel description box.

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
View Answer
Ans : D
Explanation: The first 5 lines are essential for two reasons. They are : The first two lines
of the description box are displayed next to your video in search and when posted on
social media. The first 5 lines of the description are included beneath your video but
above the read more tab.
3. The recommended size of setup channel background is?

A. 2500×1440 pixels
B. 2560×1240 pixels
C. 2560×1440 pixels
D. 2240×1260 pixels
View Answer
Ans : C
Explanation: The recommended size is 2560×1440 pixels and can be no larger than 4
MB.
4. Create video thumbnails and try to use a 16:9 aspect ratio as it is the
most used in YouTube players and previews.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
D. Can not say
View Answer
Ans : A
Explanation: True, Create video thumbnails and try to use a 16:9 aspect ratio as it is the
most used in YouTube players and previews.
5. The most important aspects of your video YouTube considers in

ranking are ?
A. Title
B. Keywords in description
C. Tags
D. All of the above
View Answer
Ans : D
Explanation: The most important aspects of your video YouTube considers in ranking
are (in no particular order) are : Title, Keywords in description and Tags.
6. Which of the following summarizes watch time, views, and earnings

(if applicable) for the selected content?
A. Engagement metrics
B. Performance metrics
C. Demographics
D. Discovery
View Answer
Ans : B
Explanation: Performance metrics : Summarizes watch time, views, and earnings (if
applicable) for the selected content.
7. Discovery : Summarizes the metrics for top playback locations and

top traffic sources by watch time.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
D. Can not say
View Answer
Ans : A
Explanation: True, Discovery : Summarizes the metrics for top playback locations and
top traffic sources by watch time.
8. Keywords are used in the?

A. title
B. description
C. tags
D. All of the above
View Answer
Ans : D
Explanation: Keywords are used in the title, in the description, and in tags. Crawlers
ranking your video cannot actually view or listen to your video, so they are depending on
the keywords in the title, description, and tags to explain what our video is about.
9. YouTube can use _________________ to automatically create captions for

your videos
A. voice recognition technology
B. word recognition technology
C. speech recognition technology
D. text recognition technology
View Answer
Ans : C
Explanation: YouTube can use speech recognition technology to automatically create

captions for your videos. If automatic captions are available, they will automatically be
published on the video.
10. In how many ways, you can manage negative comments?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
View Answer
Ans : B
Explanation: There are three ways to deal with this :

1. Remove, report, or hide comments
2. Ignore the comment
3. Reply.
1. A/B Testing also known as?

A. Compare testing
B. Split testing
C. Web testing
D. Version testing
View Answer
Ans : B
Explanation: A/B Testing (also known as Split testing) defines a way to compare two
versions of an application or a web page that enables you to determine which one
performs better.
2. A/B Testing results are usually given in?

A. mathematical
B. statistical terms
C. Both A and B
View Answer
Ans : C
Explanation: A/B Testing results are usually given in fancy mathematical and statistical
terms, but the meaning behind the numbers are actually quite simple.
3. How many significant methods through which you can check

conversion rates using A/B Testing?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
View Answer
Ans : A
Explanation: There are two significant methods through which you can check conversion
rates using A/B Testing : Sampling of Data and Confidence Intervals
4. ROI stands for?

A. return on income
B. risk on investment
C. result on investment
D. return on investment
View Answer
Ans : D
Explanation: The ROI (return on investment) on A/B Testing is huge, as a few minor
changes on a website can result in a significant increase of the conversion rate.
5. The number of samples depend on the number of tests performed.

A. TRUE
B. FALSE
D. Can not say
View Answer
Ans : A
Explanation: The number of samples depend on the number of tests performed. The
count of conversion rate is called a sample and the process of collecting these samples
is called as sampling.
6. Always perform A/B Testing if there is probability to beat the

original variation by?
A. 0.05
B. less than 5%
C. greater than 5%
D. greater than equal to 5%
View Answer
Ans : C
Explanation: Always perform A/B Testing if there is probability to beat the original
variation by greater than 5%.
7. Which of the following are A/B Testing tools?

A. Visual Website optimizer
B. Google Content Experiments
C. Optimizely
D. All of the above
View Answer
Ans : D
Explanation: Some of the most commonly available tools are : Visual Website optimizer
(VWO), Google Content Experiments and Optimizely
8. Where you can use A/B Tests on things other than web pages?
A. Email
B. Mobile App
C. PPC
D. All of the above
View Answer
Ans : D
Explanation: These tests can be applicable on several other places like Email, Mobile
Apps, PPC and CTAs as well.
9. You can _________ the number of bounce rate by adding more images
at the bottom.
A. increase
B. reduce
C. does not depends on image
D. Can not say
View Answer
Ans : B
Explanation: You can reduce the number of bounce rate by adding more images at the
bottom. You can add links of social sites to further increase the conversion rate.
10. A/B Testing also enables you to gain maximum from your existing
traffic on a webpage.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
D. Can not say
View Answer
Ans : A
Explanation: True, A/B Testing also enables you to gain maximum from your existing
traffic on a webpage

MKT516

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

You might also like

MKT516

Uploaded by

Document Information

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

MKT516

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

1.

Modern marketing concept is _____________

D. Online social networks

72. ———- and other forms of promotion are supported by an advertisement.

119. Agricultural products are——

D. All of the above

a. Search Engine Optimisation (SEO). b. Contextual Advertising.

16. Which of the following refers to unsolicited electronic messages?

31. Paid advertising based on a per-click model is called

34. What is unique about social media marketing?

1. Digital marketing is often referred to as___________.

2. Which of the following is a type of digital marketing activity?

3. Which of the following is not a traditional forms of digital marketing?

4. What is not true about digital marketing?

5. How many main pillars of digital marketing?

8. Digital marketing includes_____________.

9. A website`s front - or home page should include_____________

12. Which one of these statements is correct?

14. Which one of the following statements is true?

15. How would you describe what multi-channel attribution does?

18. Location is a unique feature of Mobile Marketing because ____________.

20. What is an ad group?

1. Social networks are organized primarily around __________.

3. What is the name for Facebook`s ranking algorithm?

5. What is meant by "micro-blogging"?

6. What is "social media optimization"?

7. What would the marketing budget section of a marketing plan detail?

8. What is the name of Facebook's analytic package?

10. Which of the following is functions of social media for business?

11. What feature does LinkedIn offer for pay accounts?

12. Why is it important to post to a blog regularly?

14. How is site traffic useful in evaluating marketing?

15. How does a blog directly impact sales of a company?

16. What traditional marketing technique is YouTube closest to?

17. What is another term for "social media"?

18. What is meant by "Marketing Creative"?

20. How can a company convert posts on Twitter to sales?

1. Which of the following is the form of mobile marketing?

3. what is the full form of LBS in mobile marketing?

4. what is the key aspects of sending effective push notifications?

5. what are 2 data-backed push messaging best practices?

7. What is true about 2D barcodes?

9. How many % of adults primarily use their smartphones to access content/information?

10. How many maximum character are allowed in sms marketing?

11. What is Impression Share?

13. In the Freemium model typically what percentage of users pay?

14. Which of the following is NOT a type of mobile ad extension?

15. More free users leads to ?

19. What are Native Ads?

20. Which of the following can help monetize a free app?

1. How many approaches of marketing?

2. Online marketing is also termed as?

3. Blogs are web pages created by an individual or a group of individuals.

4. It is process of elevating website ranking in the unpaid results of search engine.

6. Google sends crawlers also called?

7. Which of the following are Advantages of Online Advertising?

8. SERP stands for?

9. Which lead to loss in sale?

10. Which of the following used to improve Online Reputation?