5 medical-surgical nursing questions [with

choices]?
1Q: the intrinsic pacemaker rate of ventricular myocardial cells is:
a. more than 80 bpm
b. 60 t0 80 bpm
c. 40 to 60 bpm
d. fewer than 40 bpm

2Q: an example of a beta-blocker that is administered to decrease automaticity is:

a. Cardizem
b. Cordarone
c. Lopressor
d. Rythmol

3Q: so that the blood may flow from the right ventricle to the pulmonary artery, which of the
following conditions is NOT required?
a. the atrioventricular valves must be closed
b. thge pulmonic valve must be open
c. right ventricular pressure must be less than pulmonary arterial pressure
d. right ventricular pressure must rise with systole

4Q: heart rate is stimulated by all of the following EXCEPT:

a. excess thyroid hormone
b. increased levels of circulating catecholamines
c. the sympathetic nervous system
d. the vagus nerve

5Q: stroke volume of the heart is determined by:

a. the degree of cardiac muscle strength (precontraction)
b. the intrinsic contractility of the cardiac muscle
c. the pressure gradient against which the muscle ejects blood during contraction
d. all of the above factrors

KINDLY PLACE ONLY THE LETTERS... please help me about this thing... PLEASE... and
can you give me some links were can i find your answers for a review, THANKS... :]

 2 years ago
 Report Abuse

by Shan
Member since:
 September 27, 2007
Total points:
8,573 (Level 5)

 Add Contact
 Block

Best Answer - Chosen by Voters

1=D
2=C
3=not sure B?
4=B
Medical-Surgical Nursing Review and Resource Manual, 2nd Edition
Test Questions
1. Outcomes that are focused on the cost of care, resource utilization, and length of
service are:
a. Health care provider outcomes
b. Patient outcomes
c. System outcomes
d. Functional outcomes
2. Hospitalized patients have all of the following rights except the right to:
a. Information about diagnosis, treatment and prognosis
b. Review information in the clinical record
c. Move freely in all areas of the hospital
d. Courteous and respectful care
3. Mrs. Deluth is a 68-year-old Caucasian female with a history of bilateral
oophorectomy at age 34 with estrogen replacement therapy. She recently has been
diagnosed with metabolic syndrome and hypertension. When teaching her about ways to
reduce her risk for coronary heart disease, which of the following statements would be
most beneficial?
a. Metabolic syndrome and hypertension are two modifiable risk factors that if
reduced or eliminated can lessen the risk for coronary heart disease.
b. Since you are a Caucasian female, your risk is much higher for heart attack
and stroke than for African-American females.
c. Since you had both of your ovaries remove before age 35, you are at a very
high risk for coronary heart disease.
d. Your age and the fact that you are female places you in the highest risk
category for coronary heart disease, even more so than men and both men and
women of African American or Hispanic origins.
4. When administering your patient sublingual nitroglycerin, he tells you that he thinks
that something is wrong with the medication because he has a burning or tingling
sensation under his tongue, which does not happen with his nitroglycerin at home. Your
response is:
a. You are probably right. If your blood pressure is stable, I will give you
another nitroglycerin and report this finding to pharmacy administration
immediately.
b. That is just a local reaction to the medication. Nothing to worry about.
c. This is supposed to happen with sublingual nitroglycerin administration. You
should probably check to make sure your pills at home are not expired.
d. Thank you for reporting this. Sometimes nitroglycerin has this effect when it
is ready to expire. We will get you another one right away.
5. Your patient has a history of mitral regurgitation with a mechanical prosthetic valve
replacement. Which history question is most important to ask during the initial interview?
a. Do you have any past medical history of bacterial endocarditis or rheumatic
heart disease?
b. Does anyone else in your family have mitral stenosis or other valve disorders?
c. Do you understand that you will have to be on lifelong medication(s) to
prevent blood clots?
d. Did you know that you will need prophylactic antibiotic treatment prior to any
and all dental procedures for the rest of your life?
6. Increased tactile fremitus may be noted with which of the following conditions?
a. Atelectasis
b. Emphysema
c. Pneumothorax
d. Lobar pneumonia
7. The depth of patients’ inspiration is necessary to assess. It is important for the nurse to
understand the concept of anatomical dead space. This refers to
a. the amount of air that can be inhaled over the tidal volume.
b. the amount of air that is forced out over the tidal volume.
c. the amount of air that is in the passageway that never reaches the alveoli.
d. the amount of air that remains in the lungs after a forced expiration.
8. Which patient is at the greatest risk for developing an aspergillus infection?
a. 55-year-old female with osteoporosis
b. 22-year-old male with gonorrhea
c. 67-year old male with benign prostatic hypertrophy
d. 35-year old female undergoing chemotherapy for breast cancer
9. Which of the following diagnostic tests is the most accurate way to determine body
fat?
a. Body mass index
b. Anthropometry
c. Underwater weighing
d. Bioelectrical impedance
10. L.L. is a 70-year-old male with severe diarrhea. The most important nursing concern
for him is
a. pain and discomfort.
b. dehydration.
c. embarrassment.
d. skin breakdown.
11. A patient with diabetes may suffer from what type of urinary incontinence?
a. Stress
b. Urge
c. Overflow
d. Functional
12. The anterior pituitary gland secretes which of the following hormones?
a. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH), follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
b. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH), oxytocin
c. Thyroid hormone (TH), parathyroid hormone (PTH)
d. Aldosterone, cortisol
13. The nurse assesses a client and notes that the patient has an increased lumbar curve of
the spine. This is documented as
a. scoliosis.
b. kyphosis.
c. Phalen’s sign.
d. lordosis.
14. A patient with gout asks about foods that may make the gout worse. You realize that
there are many items are high in purine, but which of the following items could
precipitate an attack for him?
a. Alcohol
b. Eggs
c. Peaches
d. Green beans
15. Which of the following nursing diagnoses for a stroke victim would most affect the
self-esteem of the patient?
a. Altered sensation
b. Risk for constipation
c. Impaired swallowing
d. Self-care deficit
16. On admitting a patient with Stage 2 Alzheimer’s disease for treatment of a urinary
tract infection (UTI), you note that the caregiver and patient have unkempt appearances.
The caregiver keeps her eyes downcast during the initial interview and frequently avoids
answering questions. These observations cause concern for
a. caregiver role strain.
b. physical abuse.
c. rapidly declining cognitive status.
d. excessive financial burden.
17. Which of the following nursing interventions is MOST important to prevent spread of
infection when working with a patient who has methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus
aureus (MRSA) cellulitis?
a. Limit the number of persons allowed to visit the patient
b. Practice good handwashing
c. Cover the wound with two layers of gauze
d. Monitor the patient for signs of systemic infection, such as fever, chills
18. You, the nurse, find a diabetic patient lying in bed mumbling incoherently. She is
mildly diaphoretic. Your FIRST action is:
a. Document your observations
b. Check the patient’s blood sugar
c. Give 50 gm of oral glucose solution
d. Call the physician
19. The nurse documents that the patient has pain with adduction of the left arm. This
indicates the pain occurs
a. when the elbow is flexed to 90 degrees.
b. when the palm is facing downward.
c. when the arm is moved away from the body midline.
d. when the arm is moved toward the body midline.
20. Multiple rib fractures may result in a flail chest. Coughing and deep breathing are
encouraged to prevent what common complication of this condition?
a. Liver laceration
b. Severe pain
c. Pneumothorax
c. Pneumonia
21. Which of the following theorists described the grieving process in terms of protest,
despair, and detachment?
a. Bowlby
b. Kübler-Ross
c. Carter
d. Freud
22. The characteristic lesion seen in psoriasis is:
a. Firm red spots that join to form a circumscribed hot lesion
b. Well-demarcated erythematous plaque that sheds gray flakes
c. Open lesion that oozes a honey-colored liquid that hardens into a crust
d. Enlarged firm mass seen along the hair line
23. The medical-surgical nurse knows that pressure, friction, and shearing forces are the
most common causes of pressure ulcers. Which of the following is not an example of a
shearing force that could lead to a pressure ulcer?
a. A hospitalized patient in bed with the head of the bed raised 90 degrees
b. Pulling a patient up in the bed using the armpits as levers to slide them upward
c. Pulling the patient up in bed by lifting the entire body up toward the head of the
bed
d. The hospitalized patient positioned in bed to watch television for 4 hours with the
head of the bed elevated 60 degrees
24. In regard to normal skin remodeling after a burn, an overgrowth of dermal tissue that
remains within the boundaries of the wound is called a
a. hypertrophic scar.
b. keloid.
c. normal scar.
d. proliferation scar.
25. Which of the following is a colloid solution that could be used in the treatment of
shock?
a. D5W
b. RL
c. 0.9% NS
d. 5% albumin