1

Time: 2.30. hrs

FULL CHEMOTHERAPY
Q.1 Which of the following drugs is used for systemic and deep mycotic infections treatment:
(a) Co-trimoxazol (B) Griseofulvin (c) Amphotericin B (d) Nitrofungin
Q.2 Which of the following drugs is used for dermatomycosis treatment:
(a) Nystatin (b) Griseofulvin (c) Amphotericin B (d) Vancomycin
Q.3 Which of the following drugs is used for candidiasis treatment:
(a) Griseofulvin (b) Nitrofungin (c) Myconazo (d) Streptomycin
Q.4 All of the following antifungal drugs are antibiotics, EXCEPT:
(a) Amphotericin B (b) Nystatin (c) Myconazol (d) Griseofulvin
Q.5 Mechanism of Amphotericin B action is:
(a) Inhibition of cell wall synthesis (b) Inhibition of fungal protein synthesis
(c) Inhibition of DNA synthesis (d) Alteration of cell membrane permeability
Q.6 Clofazimine belongs to a class of
(a) Rhiminophenazines (b) Arylpiperagiones (c) Phenothiazines (d) Benzyl piperazines
Q.7 Azoles have an antifungal effect because of:
(a) Inhibition of cell wall synthesis (b) Inhibition of fungal protein synthesis
(c) Reduction of ergosterol synthesis (d) Inhibition of DNA synthesis
Q.8 Which of the following drugs alters permeability of Candida cell membranes:
(a) Amphotericin B (b) Ketoconazole (c) Nystatin (d) Terbinafine
Q.9 Amfotericin B has the following unwanted effects:
(a) Psychosis (b) Renal impairment, anemia (c) Hypertension, cardiac arrhythmia (d) Bone marrow toxicity
Q.10 Tick the drug belonging to antibiotics having a polyene structure:
(a) Nystatin (b) Ketoconazole (c) Griseofulvin (d) All of the above
Q.11. All of the following drugs demonstrate a fungicidal effect, EXCEPT:
(a) Terbinafin (b) Amfotericin B (c) Ketoconazole (d) Myconazol
Q.12 Characteristics of polyenes are following, except:
(a) Alter the structure and functions of cell membranes (b) Broad-spectrum
(c) Fungicidal effect (d) Nephrotoxicity, hepatotoxicity
Q.13 Characteristics of Amfotericin B are following, EXCEPT:
(a) Used for systemic mycosis treatment (b) Poor absorption from the gastro-intestinal tract
(c) Does not demonstrate nephrotoxicity (d) Influences the permeability of fungus cell membrane
Q.14 Mechanisms of bacterial resistance to anti-microbial agents are the following, EXCEPT:
(a) Active transport out of a microorganism or/and hydrolysis of an agent via enzymes produced by a microorganism
(b) Enlarged uptake of the drug by a microorganism
(c) Modification of a drug’s target (d) Reduced uptake by a microorganism
Q.15. Minimal duration of antibacterial treatment usually is:
(a) Not less than 1 day (b) Not less than 5 days (c) Not less than 10-14 days (d) Not less than 3 weeks
Q.16 The drug is a blood substitute having haemodynamical activity:
(a) Polyglucinum (b) Haemodesum (c) Sodium chloridum isotonic for injections (d) "Disolum", "Trisolum"
Q.17 Match the following.
(1) Clofazimine (P) It may be administered once per day for
The treatment of urinary tract infection
(2) Itraconazole (Q) It may cause pink to brown skin
pigmentation with in a few weeks
initiation of therapy
(3) Lometoxacin (R) Co-administration with astemizole or
Terfenadine may leads to life –
threatening cardiac dysarrythmias
(4) Neomycin (S) Very toxic on parenteral administration
2

(a)1-Q (b)1-R (c)1-S (d) 1-Q

2-R 2-Q 2-P 2-R
3-P 3-S 3-R 3-S
4-S 4-P 4-Q 4-P
Q.18 A heart transplant person is being maintained by immunosuppressant cyclosporine .He develops a
candida infection and is treated with ketaconazole .why is this poor therapy
(a) Ketaconazole is not effective against candida
(b) Ketaconazole reacts with cyclosporine to inactive it
(c) Ketaconazole inhibits cytochrome P450 enzymes that inactive cyclosporine
(d) Ketaconazole cause gynecomastia and decreases libido in male
Q.19 Nephrotoxity is the important toxicity of sulphonamide due to acetylated product. Pick the correct
option. (P) It is devoid of antibacterial activity (Q) Possess potential toxic effects
(R) Acetylation can be prevented by using urinary acidifies (S) Acetylated products are insoluble at alkaline PH
(a) P,Q (b) R, S (c) Q, S (d) P, S
Q.20 Metronidazole inhibits anaerobic bacteria and protozoa by
(a) Affecting the structure of DNA molecule of the origin (b) Destroying the ribosomes
(c) Inhibiting the cytochrome system (d) Inhibiting the protein synthesis
Q.21 Which of the following drug is a systemic antifungal agent?
(a) Nystatin-B (b) Econazole (c) Amphoterecin-B (d) All the above
Q.22 Lepromin test is a diagnostic test for
(a) Leprosy (b) TB (c) STD (d) Tuberculoid leprosy
Q.23 One of the following drug interfere with the metabolism, especially in the synthesis of mycolic acid.
(a) Pyrazinamide (b) INH (c) Both a & b (d) Rifampicin
Q.24 The mechanism of action of rifampicin involves.
(a) Inhibition of bacterial DNA direct RNA – polymerase (b) Inhibition of mycolic acid synthesis
(c) Inhibition of protein synthesis (d) Inhibition of transpeptidase
Q.25 Use of INH is restricted due to
(a) Ototoxicity (b) Neurotoxicity (c) Hepatotoxicity (d) Bone marrow depression
Q.26 Drug resistance commonly not produced by
(a) Ethambutol (b) Rifampicin (c) Pyrazinamide (d) INH
Q.27 The anti – tubercular drug inhibiting cell wall synthesis with potential for optic neuritis
(a) Ethambutol (b) Dapsone (c) Streptomycin (d) INH
Q.28 Which of the following agent employed as a antifungal in opthalamic preparations
(a) Natamycin (b) Clotrimazole (c) Mafenide (d) Both a & b
Q.29 The metabolism of griseofulvin is accelerated by
(a) Carbamazepine (b) Aspirin (c) Phenobarbitone (d) Caffeine citrate
Q.30. Following group required for the antibacterial activity in case of sulphonamide drugs
(a) free amino group at para position (b) substitute amino group at para position
(c)SO2 and NH2 group (d) b and c
Q.31. Which one is the non absorbable non sulphonamide a
a) sulfadiazine b) sulfamethoxazole (c) succinyl sulfathiazole (d) sulfacitamide
Q.32. Mechanism by which microbes develop resistance against sulfonamides
(a) increased amount of PABA (b)Folate synthatase enzyme has low affinity for sulphonamide
(c) alternate pathway for folate metabolisml (d) all
Q.33. Choose the primary pathway for the metabolism of sulfonamides
(a)Acetylation at N1 position (b)Deamination at N 4 position
(c)Acetylation at N 4 position (d) Acetylation at S atom
Q.34. Cotrimoxazole is the combination of the
(a) Sulmethoxazole and Trimethoprim (b)Sulfadiazine and Trimethoprim (c) both (d) none
Q.35. In case of quinoline following structural modification increase the potency of drug
3
(a) fluorination at 6th position (b) piperazine substitution at 7th position (c) both (d) none
Q.36. Quinoline which have highest potential for QT prolongation
(a) Gatifloxacin (b) lomefloxacin (c) Sparefloxacin (d) none
Q.37. Penicillin ring is the fusion of the
(a) Thiazolidine and β lactam ring (b) Thiazoline and β lactam ring
(c) Thiazole and β lactam ring (d) Pennicillioic acid and thiazolidine
Q.38. which biochemical reaction of bacteria utilizes as poor target by antibiotics-
(a) class-1 (b) class-2 (c) class-3 (d) All
Q.39. Agent act on the ionophores of the plasma membrane of fungal cells-
(a) Azoles (b) amphotericin (c) vinca (d) pyrental
Q.40. Biochemical mechanism of resistance in bacteria is-
(a) Production of drug inactivating enzyme (b) alteration of drug binding sites (c) reduction of drug uptake (d) all
Q.41. Common causes of hospital blood stream infection is-
(a) Staphylococci (b) Salmonella (c) Bacillus (d) None
Q.42. Target for the action of mitomycin C-
(a) Nucleic acid (b) ribosomes (c) cellwall (d) all
Q.43. Membrane integrity process interrupted by-
(a) amphotericin (b) nystatin (c) polymyxin (d) all
Q.44. Pair which inhibits the mucopeptide synthesis-
(a) bacitracin & penicillin (b) bacitracin & vancomycin (c) bacitracin & cephlosporin (d) ) bacitracin & cycloserine
Q.45. Drug act on 30S subunit & affect protein synthesis and fidelity-
(a) tetracycline (b) erythromycin (c) lincomycin (d) sterptomycin
Q.46. Antibiotic with low TI for kidney-
(a) Polymycin (b) Vancomycin (c) Amphotericin (d) all
Q.47. Post antibiotic effect shown by-
(a) beta- lactum antibiotics (b) fluroquinolines (c) aminoglycosides (d) all
Q.48. A 16-year-old girl, a cystic fibrosis patient, is diagnosed with a ciprofloxacin-resistant Pseudomonas
aeruginosa lower respiratory tract infection. Bacteria acquire quinolone resistance by which ofthe following
mechanisms?
(A) Overproduction of PABA (B) Changes in the synthesis of DNA gyrases
(C) Plasmid-mediated changes in efflux transport system
(D) Inhibition of synthesis of peptidoglycan subunits in bacterial cell walls
Q.49. Many antibiotics appear to have as their mechanism of action the capacity to inhibit bacterial cell wall
synthesis.This does NOT appear to be a mechanism of
(A) Aminoglycosides (B) Penicillins (C) Bacitracin (D) Cephalosporins
Q.50. Aminoglycoside antibiotics are frequently used in combination with the lactam antibiotics.Which of
the following choices best explains the rationale for this use?
(A) The combination provides for a much greater spectrum of activity.
(B) A synergistic effect is often seen when the combination is employed.
(C) The _-lactam antibiotics prevent toxic effects of the aminoglycoside antibiotics.
(D) The combination decreases incidence of superinfections.
Q.51. As a class, the aminoglycoside antibiotics do not exhibit significant metabolism in the patient. The
most likely reason is that
(A) Their chemical structure is unique and not prone to chemical reactions commonly seen in drug metabolism.
(B) The liver does not contain appropriate enzymes to break down the compounds.
(C) The body apparently lacks a necessary cofactor for the metabolism of aminoglycosides.
(D) Aminoglycosides do not readily get to the site of degradative enzymes.
Q.52. Which of the following antibiotics contains a beta-lactam ring in their chemical structure :
4
a) Penicillins b) Cephalosporins c) Carbapenems and monobactams d) All
Q.53.Which antibiotic is a structural analogue of D – alanine
a) Cycloserine b) Captopril c) Enalapril d) None
Q. 54. β – Lactamase resistant penicillins
a) Flucloxacillin b) Benzyl penicillin c) a and b d) none
Q.55. β – Lactamase is inhibited by
a) Amidases b) Proteases c) Clavulanic acid d) None
Q.56. The starting material used in the synthesis of Benzyl penicillin is
a) Benzaldehyde b) 6 – APA c) Aniline d) None
Q.57. Which of the following ring is present in lincomycin
a) Pyrrolidine b) Pyrazine c) Thiazolidine d) Pyradazine
Q.58. Chloramphenicol is a metabolic product of
a) S. Venezuelae b) S. Gresious c) S. Erythreus d) None
Q.59.Which of the following is a chemical characteristic of macrolides
a) Lactone ring b) Glycoside linked amino sugar c) Ketone group d) All the above
Q.60.Aminoglycosides are contraindicated with diuretics due to their
a) Neurotoxicity b) Ototoxicity c) Both d) None
Q.61. The IUPAC nomenculature of methacycline is
a) 6 – dimethyl – 6 – methylene – 5 – oxytetracyclin b) 5 – dimethyl – 6 – methylene – 5 – oxytetracyclin
c) 5 – dimethyl – 5 – methylene – 6 – oxytetracyclin d) None
Q.62. The prodrug for Ampicillin is
a) Hetacillin b) Becampicillin c) Azlocillin d) Ticarcillin
Q.63. The Antibiotic used in the treatment of Rickettsiae is
a) Pencillin b) Ciprofloxacin c) Tetracycline d) Rifampicin
Q.64.Cycloserine contains which of the following ring.
(a) Oxazole (b) Isoxazole (c) Imidazole (d) Pyrrole
Q.65.Which of the following chemotherapy drug is likely to be toxic to gonads?
a. Adriamycin b. Vinblastine c. Paclitaxel d. Procarbazine
Q.66. High dose chemotherapy given prior to stem cell transplant may be associated with gonadal failure.
Risk is least with the use of a. Busulfan + cyclophosphamide b. Cyclophosphamide + TBI
c. Ifosfamide +carboplatin+ Etoposide d. Fludarabine + ATG
Q.67. Incidence of Gallbladder cancer is highest in
a. Chile b. India c. United Kingdom d. South Africa
Q.68. Which of the following is least to occur as Gallbladder primary?
a. Adenocarcinoma b. Squamous cell carcinoma c. Lymphoma d. Carcinoid tumour
Q.69. Which of the following is less likely to be associated with Gallbladder cancer?
a. Obesity b. Use of tobacco and alcohol c. Aflotoxins d. Past history of enteric
fever
Q.70. Most common subtype of Hodgkin’s lymphoma seen in children in India is
a. Nodular sclerosis b. Mixed cellularity
c. Nodular lymphocytic predominant hodgkins lymphoma (NLPHL)
d. Lymphocyte rich classical Hodgkin’s lymphoma (LRCHL)
Q.71. On immunohistochemistry, classical Hodgkin’s lymphoma Reed sternberg cells are likely to be
a. CD15(-), CD 30(+),CD45(-) b. CD15(+), CD 30(+),CD45(+)
c. CD15(+), CD 30(+),CD45(-) d. CD15(-), CD 30(+),CD45(+)
Q.72. For children with -thalassemia, the transplant outcome is likely to be best in which subgroup?
a. Hepatomegaly b. Liver fibrosis c. Inadequate iron chelation d. Absence of above factors
Q.73. For allogenic hemopoietic stem cell transplantation in children with hemoglobinopathies. Presently
best source of stem cells is a. Bone marrow b. umbilical cord
c. peripheral blood d. bone marrow +peripheral blood
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Q.74. Involvement of which of the following organ is likely to be associated with poor outcome in primary
amyloidosis a. cardiac b. renal c. skin d. liver
Q.75. Most common site of metastasis in breast cancer is
a. lung b. liver c. bone d. brain
Q.76. Which one of the following cancers is usually associated with a moderate to high uptake of 18F-
fluorodeoxyglucose (18 FFDG)?
a. Bladder b. Colorectal c. Thyroid d. Testicular
Q.77. Which one of the following is an accurate definition of the sensitivity of a screening test?
a. The percentage of screening tests that are positive
b. The percentage of screening tests that are negative among patients who remain unaffected by the condition of
interest after screening
c. The percentage of screening tests that are positive among patients who remain unaffected by the condition of
interest after screening
d. The probability of a diagnosis of the condition of interest after a positive screening test
Q.78. Epstein-Barr virus-associated Hodgkin’s lymphoma is …
a. common in the elderly b. common in young children
c. more common in industrialized countries d. more common in females
Q.79. Treatment of early stage favorable Hodgkin’s lymphoma …
a. necessarily includes radiotherapy b. requires 6 to 8 cycles of multiagent chemotherapy
c. with 4 cycles of chemotherapy and lowdose involved-filed radiotherapy is the standard of care
d. with complete response to 2 chemotherapy cycles further treatment is not needed.
Q,80 Match the Column
(P) Idoxuridine (1) Deoxycytidine analouge
(Q) Acyclovir (2) Deoxiguanosine analouge
(R) Zidovudine (3) Deoxyuridine analouge
(S) Lumivudine (4) Thymidine analogue
(a) P-3 Q-2 R-4 S-1 (b) P-3 Q-2 R-1 S-4 (c) P-2 Q-3 R-4 S-1 (d) P-3 Q-4 R-2 S-1

Q.81 anti viral vdrug which ACT as the NRTIs& NNRITs respectively are-
(a)Idoxuridine & Didanosine (b) Didanosine & Idoxuridine (c) Didanosine & Efavirenz (d) Efavirenz & Didanosine

Q.82.Choose correct statement for the antiviral drug Acyclovir-

(a) Require thymidine kinase for actvation (b) Require cellular kinase for actvation
(c) It inhibits the DNA polymerase indirectly (d) All
Q.83.Famcyclovir is the-
(a) Ester prodrug of penicylovir (b) Ester prodrug of guanine analogue
(c) Do not require viral enzyme for actvation (d) a & b

Q.84.Drug which are most effective for the treatment of CMV (cytomegalo) infection
(a)Acyclovir (b)Zidovudine (c)Ganciclovir (d)Penciclovir

Q.85.Antiviral drug which alter the plasma electrolytes level-

(a)Foscarnet (b) Abacavir (c) Acyclovir (d) Lamivudine

Q.86.Drug which inhibits the RNA dependent DNA polymerase enzyme-

(a) Foscarnet (b) Didanosin (c) Stavudine (d)All

Q.87.Paracetamol increase the ziduvudine plasma concentration by the following properties-

(a)Increase the absorption of drug (b)Increase the metabolism (c)Competing the glucoronidation (d)All

Q.88.Which of the following toxic effect not shown by the didanosin-

(a)Pancreatit (b)Neuropathy (c)Myelosuppression (d)Diarrhoea

Q.89.Drug which inhibits HIV reverse transcriptase without phosphorilation step for activation-
6
(a)Navirapin (b) Indinavir (c)Stavudine (d) All

Q.90.In above question given drug is more potent than azothymidine for-
(a)HIV-1 (b)HIV-2 (c)Both (d)None

Q.91.In case of antiviral drug therapy the resistance developed by-

(a)Point mutation (b)Cross resistance (c)Induced metabolism (d)a & b

Q.92.Drug which act on the late step of HIV replication and causes the crysteluria-
(a) Indinavir (b) Nalfinavir (c) Ritonavir (d)All

Q.93.Ritonavir increase the plasma level of all protease inhibitor drugs except-
(a) Indinavir (b) Nelfinavir (c)Ritonavir (d)None

Q.94.M-2 protien is the target site for the action of which drug-
(a) Amantadine (b )Interferon (c) Rifavarin (d) Cilastatin

Q.95.In acyclovir structure the guanine nucleus sugar replaced with the
(a)9-[2-hydroxy ethoxy ethyl] chain (b) 9-[2-hydroxy ethoxy methyl] chain
(c) 7-[2-hydroxy ethoxy ethyl] chain (d) 7-[2-hydroxy ethoxy methyl] chain

Q.96.Anti herpes drog which do not causes viral DNA termination-

(a)Acyclovir (b)Famcyclovir (c) Gancicyclovir (d) Indinavir

Q, 97.Match the column

(P) Saquinovir 1.Quinoline ring
(Q) Indinavir 2.pyrimidin ring
(R) Ritonavir 3.thiazole ring
(a)P-2,Q-1,R-3(b) P-1,Q-3,R-2 (c) P-1,Q-2,R-3 (d) P-3,Q-2,R-1
Q.98.Anti HIV drug which have oxithiazole (sulphur in ring)ring-
(a) Stavudine (b) Labivudine (c) Indinavir (d) lamivudine

Q.99.Number of anti neoplastic drugs following the [with some exception]-

(a) 2nd order kinetics (b) 1storder kinetics (c)Zero order kinetics (d)None

Q.100.Alkylating agent which is gradually in the presence of water is-

(a)Diaziquone(b)Chlorumbucil(c)Nitrogen mustard(d)Sulphur mustard
Q.101.Anticancer drug which do not act by alkylation of DNA-
(a)Meclorethamine(b)Chlorumbucil(c)Mitobromitol(d)None

Q.102.Choose the correct sequinces by which carmustine generated the carbonium ion for alkylation
(a)Drug→deprotination→ cyclic intermediate→ vinyl carbonium ion
(b) Drug→protination→ cyclic intermediate→ vinyl carbonium ion
(c)Drug→hydrolysis→cyclicintermediate→vinylcarboniumion (d)none

Q.103.Which metabolic path & positive ion formed by the cyclophosphamide respectively-
(a) 3- hydroxy cyclophosphamide & acroline (b) 2- hydroxy cyclophosphamide & acroline
(c) 4- hydroxy cyclophosphamide & acroline (d) 1- hydroxy cyclophosphamide & acoline

Q.104 alkylating agent act through the formation of the free radical-
(a) Procarbazine (b) lomustine (c) Dacarbazine (d) NONE

Q.105 Starting material for synthesis of cyclophosphamide &b meclorethamine-

(a) Bis 2- chloroethyl Phosphoramide & Proponolamine (b) Thionyl chloride & metyl aminodiethanol
(c) Bis 2- chloroethyl phosphoramide & metyl aminodiethanol (d) a& b

Q.106. Methotrexate is the-

7
(a) Methylated Aminopterin (b) Demethylated aminopterin (c) Methylated Folic acid (d) Demethylated folic acid

Q.107. Above drug bind to Dihydro folate reductase due the presence of-
(a) Monoaminopyrimidine ring (b) Diaminopyrimidine (c) Pteridine ring (d) a & c

Q.108. Match the Column

(P) Nitrogen mustered (1) Busulfan
(Q) Ethyleimine (2) Carnustine
(R) Alkyl sulfonate (3) Thio -TEPA
(S) Nitrosourea (4) Ifosfamide
(a) P-3 Q-2 R-4 S-1 (b) P-4 Q-3 R-1 S-2 (c) P-2 Q-3 R-4 S-1 (d) P-3 Q-4 R-2 S-1

Q.109. Anticancer drug with high emetogenic potential-

(a) Cisplatin (b) Carboplatin (c) 6-MP (d) vincristine

Q.110Antibotic which retard the metabolism of Cyclophosphamide

(a) Tetracycline (b) Erythromycin (c) fluconazole (d) Chloramphinicol

Q.111. Inactivation of vaso toxic maetbolite of Ifosfamide is carried out with-

(a) –SH group (b) –OH group (c) –NH2 group (d) A & B

Q.112. Incidence of bone marrow depression increased when thioguanine administered with-
(a) Xanthine oxydase activators (b) Xanthine oxydase (c) Xanthine oxydase inhibitor (d) a & c

Q.113. Match the Column

(P) Vincristine (1) Tubulin polymerization
(Q) Vinblastine (2) Act on M-phase & high bone marrow depression
(R) Paclitaxel (3) Act on G2 phase 7 & affect Topoisomarasae -ii
(S) Etoposide (4) Act on M-phase & high bone marrow depression

(a) P-2 Q-3 R-4 S-1 (b) P-4 Q-3 R-1 S-2 (c) P-4 Q-1 R-2 S-3 (d) P-4 Q-2 R-1 S-3

Q.114. Anticancer drug which interact with Topoisomarasae one-

(a) Paclitaxel (b) Daunorubicin (c) Irinotecan (d) a & c

Q.115. Above drug act on the which stage of cell cycle & arrest the cell cycle in which stage respectively-
(a) GO & M- phase (b) M- phase & S- phase (c) S- phase & G2 phase (d) GO & G2 phase

Q.116. Drug which are used for the biological response modification is-
(a) Mogramostim (b) Cyctokine (c) Interleukine (d) ALL

Q.117. Griseofulvin interfere at mitosis-

(a) Arrest metaphase stage (b) Inhibit Tubulin polymerization (c) Disorients the microtubules (d) all

Q.118. Choose the correc t statement for flucytosine-

(a) Pyrimidine anti metabolite (b) 5-Fuorouracil isc converted form in fungal cell
(c) 5- Fluorodeooxy uridyline inhibits thymidylase (d) All
Q.119. Cephalosporins show their antimicrobial action by:
a.Binding to cytoplasmic receptor proteins. b.Inhibition of beta-lactamases.
c.Inhibition of transpeptidation reactions. d.Interference with the synthesis of ergosterol.
Q.120. The most appropriate drug regimen for empiric treatment of Gram-negative bacilli in blood is:
8
a. Ampicillin plus sulbactam. b. Aztreonam.
c. Cefazolin. d. Imipenem plus cilastatin.

Q,121. A BDS student while answering the question about ciprofloxacin gave
various statements; which of the following statements was rejected by the examiner?
a. Clinical antagonism occurs when used with Co-trimoxazole.
b. Post-antibiotic effects are similar to aminoglycosides.
c. It is active against most of the middle-ear infecting organisms.
d. It may be used for urinary tract infection.
Q,122,The mechanism underlying the resistance of G +ve organisms to macrolides is::
a. Decreased drug permeability of the cytoplasmic membrane.
b. Methylation of binding sites on the 50-S ribosomal subunit.
c. Decreased activity of uptake mechanism. d. Formation of estrases that hydrolyze the lactone ring.
Q.123. Assertion (A):Sulphamethoxazole is an antibacterial drug.
Reason (R): It is a short acting drug.
a. A & R is wrong b. A & R is correct c. A is wrong d. R is wrong
Q.124. Diethyl carbamazine is used in the treatment of
a) cachexia b) Bronchitis c) filariasis d) tapeworm infestation
Q.125. The sulfonamide used in the treatment of malaria
a) sulfadimidine b) sulfafurazole c) sulfasalazine d) sulfadoxine
Q.126. RBC’s are hemolysed in G 6 PD deficiency is:
a) Clofazimine b) Streptomycin c) Dapsone d) Chlorothiazide
Q.127. Side effect of INH therapy in TB is related to
a) Reproductive system b) Endocine system c) Nervous system d) Respiratory system
Q.128. The Arithmetic drug acting by producing flaccid paralysis of the worm is
a) stilbophen b) Diethylcarbamazine c) Piperazine d) Mebendazole
Q.129 Drug of choice in syphilis is:
a) cephalosporin b) pencillin c) sulphonamides d) tetracyclines
Q.128. The beta lactam antibiotics are:
a) amphotericin B b) cephalosporin c) tetracycline d) Nystatin
Q.129. Drug resistance is commonly produced by
a) Ethambutol b) Rifampicin c) pyrazinamide d) INH
Q.130. The anti – tubercular drug inhibiting protein synthesis with potential for toxic effects is:
a) Ethambutol b) Dapsone c) Streptomycin d) INH
Q.131. Primaquine sensitivity is due to deficiency of
a) Glucose – 6 – phosphatase b) Glucose – 6 – Phosphodiestrases
c) Pseudocholinesterases d) Nucleosidase
Q.132. Anti – microbial agent primarily administered topically incudes.
a) Emetine and Niridazole b) Cyclizine and rifampicin
c) Neomycin and polymyxin d) Niclosamide and stibophen
Q.133. Bacterial inhibitor of protein synthesis is
a) Nafcillin b) Gentamycin c) Tetracycline d) Pencillin – G
Q.134. Drug of choice in the treatment of cardiogenic shock is
a) Diosgenin b) Epinephrine c) Dopamine d) Ouabain
Q.135.The choice drug to treat cerebral malaria is
a) Mepacrine b) Amodiaquine c) Quinine d) Primaquine
Q.136. Chloroquine is treatment of choice for
a) Plsamodium malaria b) Piorale c) P. Vivax d) All
Q.137. The antineoplastic agent that is classified under alkylating agent is
a) Bleomycin b) Chlorambucil c) Methotrexate d) Busulfan
Q.138. Polyene antibiotics such as amphotericin – B are most likely to
9
a) Inhibit bacterial DNA synthesis b) Act as antimetabolits
c) Bind to prokaxyotic ribosomes d) React with sterols in the membrane
Q.139. A highly sensitive semi quantitative method of defecting microbial antigens in biological fluid is
a) counter immune electrophoresis b) Nitroblue tetrazolium dyeassay
c) Coomb’s test d) Radio – immune electrophoresis
Q.140. Mycoplasma pneumonine is treated with
a) Nystatin b) Gentamycin c) Tetracyclin d) Pencillin – G
Q.141. Salmonella typhi is sensitive to
a) cephalexin b) cephalothin c) cephaloridine d) cephrodine
Q.142. The organisms usually sensitive to streptomycin are
a) mycobactirium tuberculosis b) shigella dysentiria c) vibrio chlorea d) salmonella typhi
Q.143. Pathway in biotransformation sulfonamide is
a) carboxylation b) Acetylation c) Nitration d) sulfonisation
Q.144. Calvulanic acid is
a) potent inhibitor of cell wall transpeptidase b) inactivates bacterial  - lactamases
c) specific for gram – Ve organisms d) specific for bacterial infection.
Q.145.The common side effect of diloxamid furoate is
a) Nausea b) Flatulence c) Pruritis d) Headache
Q.146. Chloroquine should not be given along with phenyl butazone due to production of
a) Blindness b) Hypotension c) Dermatitis d) All
Q.147. Treatment of systemic fungal infection includes.
a) Meconazole b) cyclonerine c) Ketaconazole d) Amphotericin-b.
Q.148. The following agent is not an antifungal agent
a) Amphotericin b) Clotrimazole c) Hamycin d) Neomycin
Q.149. Antimalarial drug used to eradicate tissue form of plasmodia is
a) chloroquine b) quinine c) Primaquine d) cinchonidine
Q.150. The drug used in the treatment of multidrug resistant strains of P. falciparum is
a) proguanil b) pyrimethamine c) mefloquine d) Halofantrine