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CURRENT ELECTRICITY Multiple Choice
Questions with Answers ::
1. The S.I. unit of power is
(a) Henry
(b) coulomb
(c) watt
(d) watt-hour
Ans: c
2. Electric pressure is also called

(a) resistance
(b) power
(c) voltage
(d) energy
Ans: c
https://engineeringinterviewquestions.com/current-electricity-electrical-engineering-multiple-choice-questions-and-answers/ 1/55
3. The substances which have a large number of free

electrons and offer a low resistance are called
(a) insulators
(b) inductors
(c) semi-conductors
(d) conductors
Ans: d
4. Out of the following which is not a poor conductor ?

(a) Cast iron
(b) Copper
(c) Carbon
(d) Tungsten
Ans: b
5. Out of the following which is an insulating material ?

(a) Copper
(b) Gold
(c) Silver
(d) Paper
Ans: d
6. The property of a conductor due to which it passes

current is called
(a) resistance
(b) reluctance
(c) conductance
(d) inductance
Ans: c
7. Conductance is reciprocal of
(a) resistance
(b) inductance
(c) reluctance
(d) capacitance
Ans: a
8. The resistance of a conductor varies inversely as

(a) length
(6) area of cross-section

(c) temperature
(d) resistivity
Ans: b
9. With rise in temperature the resistance of pure metals

(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) first increases and then decreases
(d) remains constant
Ans: a
10. With rise in temperature the resistance of semi-

conductors
(a) decreases
(b) increases
(c) first increases and then decreases
(d) remains constant
Ans: a
11. The resistance of a copper wire 200 m long is 21 Q. If its

thickness (diameter) is 0.44 mm, its specific resistance is
around
(a) 1.2 x 10~8 Q-m
(b) 1.4 x 10~8 Q-m
(c) 1.6 x 10″”8 Q-m
(d) 1.8 x 10″8 Q-m
Ans: c
12. Three resistances of 10 ohms, 15 ohms and 30 ohms are

connected in parallel.
The total resistance of the combination is
(a) 5 ohms
(b) 10 ohms
(c) 15 ohms
(d) 55 ohms
Ans:
13. An instrument which detects electric current is known

as
(a) voltmeter
(b) rheostat
(c) wattmeter
(d) galvanometer
Ans: d
14. In a circuit a 33 Q resistor carries a current of 2 A. The

voltage across the resistor is
(a) 33 V
(b) 66 v
(c) 80 V
(d) 132 V
Ans: b
15. A light bulb draws 300 mA when the voltage across it is

240 V. The resistance of the light bulb is
(a) 400 Q
(b) 600 Q
(c) 800 Q
(d) 1000 Q
Ans: c
16. The resistance of a parallel circuit consisting of two

branches is 12 ohms. If the resistance of one branch is 18
ohms, what is the resistance of the other ?
(a) 18 Q
(b) 36 Q
(c) 48 Q
(d) 64 Q
Ans: b
17. Four wires of same material, the same cross-sectional

area and the same length when connected in parallel give a
resistance of 0.25 Q. If the same four wires are connected is
series the effective resistance will be
(a) 1 Q
(b) 2 Q
(c) 3 Q
(d) 4 Q
Ans: d
18. A current of 16 amperes divides between two branches

in parallel of resistances 8 ohms and 12 ohms respectively.
The current in each branch is
(a) 6.4 A, 6.9 A
(b) 6.4 A, 9.6 A
(c) 4.6 A, 6.9 A
(d) 4.6 A, 9.6 A
Ans: b
19. Current velocity through a copper conductor is

(a) the same as propagation velocity of electric energy
(b) independent of current strength
(c) of the order of a few ^.s/m
(d) nearly 3 x 108 m/s
Ans: c
20. Which of the following material has nearly zero

temperature co-efficient of resistance?
(a) Manganin
(b) Porcelain
(c) Carbon
(d) Copper
Ans: a
21. You have to replace 1500 Q resistor in radio. You have

no 1500 Q resistor but have several 1000 Q ones which you
would connect
(a) two in parallel
(b) two in parallel and one in series
(c) three in parallel
(d) three in series
Ans: b
22. Two resistors are said to be connected in series when

(a) same current passes in turn through both
(b) both carry the same value of current

(c) total current equals the sum of branch currents
(d) sum of IR drops equals the applied e.m.f.
Ans: a
23. Which of the following statement is true both for a

series and a parallel D.C. circuit?
(a) Elements have individual currents
(b) Currents are additive
(c) Voltages are additive
(d) Power are additive
Ans: d
24. Which of the following materials has a negative

temperature co-efficient of resistance?
(a) Copper
(b) Aluminum
(c) Carbon
(d) Brass
Ans: c
25. Ohm’s law is not applicable to

(a) vacuum tubes
(b) carbon resistors
(c) high voltage circuits
(d) circuits with low current densities
Ans: a
26. Which is the best conductor of electricity ?

(a) Iron
(b) Silver
(c) Copper
(d) Carbon
Ans: b
27. For which of the following ‘ampere second’ could be the unit ?
(a) Reluctance
(b) Charge
(c) Power
(d) Energy
Ans: b
28. All of the following are equivalent to watt except

(a) (amperes) ohm
(b) joules/sec.
(c) amperes x volts
(d) amperes/volt
Ans: d
29. A resistance having rating 10 ohms, 10 W is likely to be a

(a) metallic resistor
(b) carbon resistor
(c) wire wound resistor
(d) variable resistor
Ans: c
30. Which one of the following does not have negative temperature
co-efficient ?
(a) Aluminium
(b) Paper
(c) Rubber
(d) Mica
Ans: a
31. Varistors are

(a) insulators
(6) non-linear resistors
(c) carbon resistors
(d) resistors with zero temperature coefficient
Ans: b
32. Insulating materials have the function of

(a) preventing a short circuit between conducting wires
(b) preventing an open circuit between the voltage source and the load
(c) conducting very large currents
(d) storing very high currents
Ans: b
33. The rating of a fuse wire is always expressed in

(a) ampere-hours
(b) ampere-volts
(c) kWh
(d) amperes
Ans: d
34. The minimum charge on an ion is

(a) equal to the atomic number of the atom
(b) equal to the charge of an electron
(c) equal to the charge of the number of electrons in an atom (#) zero
Ans: b
35. In a series circuit with unequal resistances

(a) the highest resistance has the most of the current through it
(b) the lowest resistance has the highest voltage drop
(c) the lowest resistance has the highest current
(d) the highest resistance has the highest voltage drop
Ans: d
36. The filament of an electric bulb is made of

(a) carbon
(b) aluminium
(c) tungsten
(d) nickel
Ans: c
37. A 3 Q resistor having 2 A current will dissipate the power of

(a) 2 watts
(b) 4 watts
(c) 6 watts
(d) 8 watts
Ans: c
38. Which of the following statement is true?

(a) A galvanometer with low resistance in parallel is a voltmeter
(b) A galvanometer with high resistance in parallel is a voltmeter
(c) A galvanometer with low resistance in series is an ammeter
(d) A galvanometer with high resistance in series is an ammeter

Ans: c
39. The resistance of a few meters of wire conductor in closed

electrical circuit is
(a) practically zero
(b) low
(c) high
(d) very high
Ans: a
40. If a parallel circuit is opened in the main line, the current

(a) increases in the branch of the lowest resistance
(b) increases in each branch
(c) is zero in all branches
(d) is zero in the highest resistive branch
Ans: c
41. If a wire conductor of 0.2 ohm resistance is doubled in length, its

resistance becomes
(a) 0.4 ohm
(b) 0.6 ohm
(c) 0.8 ohm
(d) 1.0 ohm
Ans: a
42. Three 60 W bulbs are in parallel across the 60 V power line. If one
bulb burns open
(a) there will be heavy current in the main line
(b) rest of the two bulbs will not light
(c) all three bulbs will light
(d) the other two bulbs will light
Ans: d
43. The four bulbs of 40 W each are connected in series swift a battery
across them, which of the following statement is true ?
(a) The current through each bulb in same
(b) The voltage across each bulb is not same
(c) The power dissipation in each bulb is not same
(d) None of the above

Ans: a
44. Two resistances Rl and Ri are connected in series across the

voltage source where Rl>Ri. The largest drop will be across
(a) Rl
(b) Ri
(c) either Rl or Ri
(d) none of them
Ans: a
45. What will be energy used by the battery if the battery has to drive
6.28 x 1018 electrons with potential difference of 20 V across the
terminal ?
(a) 5 joules
(b) 10 joules
(c) 15 joules
(d) 20 joules
Ans:
46. A closed switch has a resistance of

(a) zero
(b) about 50 ohms
(c) about 500 ohms
(d) infinity
Ans: a
47. The hot resistance of the bulb’s filament is higher than its cold
resistance because the temperature co-efficient of the filament is
(a) zero
(b) negative
(c) positive
(d) about 2 ohms per degree
Ans: c
48. Heat in a conductor is produced on the passage of electric current

due to
(a) reactance
(b) capacitance
(c) impedance
(d) resistance
Ans:
49. The insulation on a current carrying conductor is provided

(a) to prevent leakage of current
(b) to prevent shock
(c) both of above factors
(d) none of above factors
Ans: c
50. The thickness of insulation provided on the conductor depends on

(a) the magnitude of voltage on the conductor
(b) the magnitude of current flowing through it
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of the above
Ans: a
51. Which of the following quantities remain the same in all parts of a
series circuit ?
(a) Voltage
(b) Current
(c) Power
(d) Resistance
Ans: b
52. A 40 W bulb is connected in series with a room heater. If now 40

W bulb is replaced by 100 W bulb, the heater output will
(a) decrease
(b) increase
(c) remain same
(d) heater will burn out
Ans: b
53. In an electric kettle water boils in 10 m minutes. It is required to

boil the boiler in 15 minutes, using same supply mains
(a) length of heating element should be decreased
(b) length of heating element should be increased
(c) length of heating element has no effect on heating if water

Ans: a
54. An electric filament bulb can be worked from

(a) D.C. supply only
(b) A.C. supply only
(c) Battery supply only
(d) All above
Ans: d
55. Resistance of a tungsten lamp as applied voltage increases

(a) decreases
(b) increases
(c) remains same
Ans: b
56. Electric current passing through the circuit produces

(a) magnetic effect
(b) luminous effect
(c) thermal effect
(d) chemical effect
(e) all above effects
Ans: c
57. Resistance of a material always decreases if

(a) temperature of material is decreased
(6) temperature of material is increased
(c) number of free electrons available become more
(d) none of the above is correct
Ans: c
58. If the efficiency of a machine is to be high, what should be low ?

(a) Input power
(b) Losses
(c) True component of power
(d) kWh consumed
(e) Ratio of output to input
Ans: b
59. When electric current passes through a metallic conductor, its

temperature rises. This is due to
(a) collisions between conduction electrons and atoms
(b) the release of conduction electrons from parent atoms
(c) mutual collisions between metal atoms
(d) mutual collisions between conducting electrons
Ans: a
60. Two bulbs of 500 W and 200 W rated at 250 V will have resistance
ratio as
(a) 4 : 25
(b) 25 : 4
(c) 2 : 5
(d) 5 : 2
Ans: c
61. A glass rod when rubbed with silk cloth is charged because
(a) it takes in proton
(b) its atoms are removed
(c) it gives away electrons
(d) it gives away positive charge
Ans: c
62. Whether circuit may be AC. or D.C. one, following is most effective
in reducing the magnitude of the current.
(a) Reactor
(b) Capacitor
(c) Inductor
(d) Resistor
Ans: d
63. It becomes more difficult to remove

(a) any electron from the orbit
(6) first electron from the orbit
(c) second electron from the orbit
(d) third electron from the orbit
Ans: d
64. When one leg of parallel circuit is opened out the total current will
(a) reduce
(b) increase
(c) decrease
(d) become zero
Ans: c
65. In a lamp load when more than one lamp are switched on the total
resistance of the load
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains same
Ans: b
66. Two lamps 100 W and 40 W are connected in series across 230 V
(alternating).
Which of the following statement is correct ?
(a) 100 W lamp will glow brighter
(b) 40 W lamp will glow brighter
(c) Both lamps will glow equally bright
(d) 40 W lamp will fuse
Ans: b
67. Resistance of 220 V, 100 W lamp will be

(a) 4.84 Q
(b) 48.4 Q
(c) 484 ft
(d) 4840 Q
Ans: c
68. In the case of direct current

(a) magnitude and direction of current remains constant
(b) magnitude and direction of current changes with time
(c) magnitude of current changes with time
(d) magnitude of current remains constant
Ans: a
69. When electric current passes through a bucket full of water, lot of
bubbling is observed. This suggests that the type of supply is
(a) A.C.
(b) D.C.
(c) any of above two
Ans: b
70. Resistance of carbon filament lamp as the applied voltage

increases.
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains same
Ans: b
71. Bulbs in street lighting are all connected in

(a) parallel
(b) series
(c) series-parallel
(d) end-to-end
Ans: a
72. For testing appliances, the wattage of test lamp should be

(a) very low
(b) low
(c) high
(d) any value
Ans: c
73. Switching of a lamp in house produces noise in the radio. This is

because switching operation produces
(a) arcs across separating contacts
(b) mechanical noise of high intensity
(c) both mechanical noise and arc between contacts
Ans: a
74. Sparking occurs when a load is switched off because the circuit has
high
(a) resistance
(b) inductance
(c) capacitance
(d) impedance
Ans: b
75. Copper wire of certain length and resistance is drawn out to three
times its length without change in volume, the new resistance of wire
becomes
(a) 1/9 times
(b) 3 times
(e) 9 times
(d) unchanged
Ans: c
76. When resistance element of a heater fuses and then we reconnect

it after removing a portion of it, the power of the heater will
(a) decrease
(b) increase
(c) remain constant
Ans: b
77. A field of force can exist only between

(a) two molecules
(b) two ions
(c) two atoms
(d) two metal particles
Ans: b
78. A substance whose molecules consist of dissimilar atoms is called

(a) semi-conductor
(b) super-conducto
(c) compound
(d) insulator
Ans: c
79. International ohm is defined in terms of the resistance of

(a) a column of mercury
(b) a cube of carbon
(c) a cube of copper
(d) the unit length of wire
Ans: a
80. Three identical resistors are first connected in parallel and then in
series.
The resultant resistance of the first combination to the second will be
(a) 9 times
(b) 1/9 times
(c) 1/3 times
(d) 3 times
Ans: b
91. Which method can be used for absolute measurement of

resistances ?
(a) Lorentz method
(b) Releigh method
(c) Ohm’s law method
(d) Wheatstone bridge method
Ans: d
92. Three 6 ohm resistors are connected to form a triangle. What is

the resistance between any two corners ?
(a) 3/2 Q
(b 6 Q
(c) 4 Q
(d) 8/3 Q
Ans: c
93. Ohm’s law is not applicable to

(a) semi-conductors
(b) D.C. circuits
(c) small resistors
(d) high currents
Ans: a
94. Two copper conductors have equal length. The cross-sectional

area of one conductor is four times that of the other. If the conductor
having smaller cross-sectional area has a resistance of 40 ohms the
resistance of other conductor will be
(a) 160 ohms
(b) 80 ohms
(c) 20 ohms
(d) 10 ohms
Ans: d
95. A nichrome wire used as a heater coil has the resistance of 2 £2/m.
For a heater of 1 kW at 200 V, the length of wire required will be
(a) 80 m
(b) 60 m
(c) 40 m
(d) 20 m
Ans: a
96. Temperature co-efficient of resistance is expressed in terms of

(a) ohms/°C
(b) mhos/ohm°C
(e) ohms/ohm°C
(d) mhos/°C
Ans: c
97. Which of the following materials has the least resistivity ?

(a) Zinc
(b) Lead
(c) Mercury
(d) Copper
Ans:
98. When current flows through heater coil it glows but supply wiring
does not glow because
(a) current through supply line flows at slower speed
(b) supply wiring is covered with insulation layer
(c) resistance of heater coil is more than the supply wires
(d) supply wires are made of superior material
Ans: c
99. The condition for the validity under Ohm’s law is that
(a) resistance must be uniform
(b) current should be proportional to the size of the resistance
(c) resistance must be wire wound type
(d) temperature at positive end should be more than the temperature
at negative end
Ans: a
100. Which of the following statement is correct ?

(a) A semi-conductor is a material whose conductivity is same as
between that of a conductor and an insulator
(b) A semi-conductor is a material which has conductivity having
average value of conductivity of metal and insulator
(c) A semi-conductor is one which con¬ducts only half of the applied
voltage
(d) A semi-conductor is a material made of alternate layers of
conducting material and insulator
Ans: a
101. A rheostat differs from potentiometer in the respect that it

(a) has lower wattage rating
(b) has higher wattage rating
(c) has large number of turns
(d) offers large number of tapping
Ans: b
102. The weight of an aluminium conductor as compared to a copper

conductor of identical cross-section, for the same electrical resistance,
is
(a) 50%
(b) 60%
(c) 100%
(d) 150%
Ans: a
103. An open resistor, when checked with an ohm-meter reads

(a) zero
(b) infinite
(c) high but within tolerance
(d) low but not zero

Ans: b
104. are the materials having electrical conductivity much less than
most of the metals but much greater than that of typical insulators.
(a) Varistors
(b) Thermistor
(c) Semi-conductors
(d) Variable resistors
Ans: c
105. All good conductors have high

(a) conductance
(b) resistance
(c) reluctance
(d) thermal conductivity
Ans: a
106. Voltage dependent resistors are usually made from

(a) charcoal
(b) silicon carbide
(c) nichrome
(d) graphite
Ans: c
107. Voltage dependent resistors are used

(a) for inductive circuits
(6) to supress surges
(c) as heating elements
(d) as current stabilizers
Ans: b
108. The ratio of mass of proton to that of electron is nearly

(a) 1840
(b) 1840
(c) 30
(d) 4
Ans: a
109. The number of electrons in the outer most orbit of carbon atom is
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 7
Ans: b
110. With three resistances connected in parallel, if each dissipates 20

W the total power supplied by the voltage source equals
(a) 10 W
(b) 20 W
(c) 40 W
(d) 60 W
Ans: d
111. A thermistor has

(a) positive temperature coefficient
(b) negative temperature coefficient
(c) zero temperature coefficient
(d) variable temperature coefficient
Ans: c
112. If/, R and t are the current, resistance and time respectively, then
according to Joule’s law heat produced will be proportional to
(a) I2Rt
(b) I2Rf
(c) I2R2t
(d) I2R2t*
Ans: a
113. Nichrome wire is an alloy of

(a) lead and zinc
(b) chromium and vanadium
(c) nickel and chromium
(d) copper and silver
Ans: c
114. When a voltage of one volt is applied, a circuit allows one micro
ampere current to flow through it. The conductance of the circuit is
(a) 1 n-mho
(b) 106 mho
(c) 1 milli-mho
Ans: a
115. Which of the following can have negative temperature coefficient

?
(a) Compounds of silver
(6) Liquid metals
(c) Metallic alloys
(d) Electrolytes
Ans: d
116. Conductance : mho ::

(a) resistance : ohm
(b) capacitance : henry
(c) inductance : farad
(d) lumen : steradian
Ans: a
117. 1 angstrom is equal to

(a) 10-8 mm
(6) 10″6 cm
(c) 10″10 m
(d) 10~14 m
Ans: c
118. One newton meter is same as

(a) one watt
(b) one joule
(c) five joules
(d) one joule second
Ans: b
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6/6/2019 300+ TOP NETWORK THEOREMS Multiple Choice Questions & Answers

Home » Electrical Engineering Multiple Choice Questions » 300

Engineering
TOP MOST NETWORK THEOREMS – Electrical
Questions
Engineering Multiple choice Questions and Answers
Engineering
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300 TOP MOST NETWORK

THEOREMS – Electrical Like Page
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NETWORK THEOREMS Multiple choice
Questions :-
1. Kirchhoff s current law states that
(a) net current flow at the junction is positive
(b) Hebraic sum of the currents meeting at the junction is zero
(c) no current can leave the junction without some current entering it.
(d) total sum of currents meeting at the junction is zero
Ans: b
2. According to Kirchhoffs voltage law, the algebraic sum of

all IR drops and e.m.fs. in any closed loop of a network is
always
(a) negative
(b) positive
(c) determined by battery e.m.fs.
https://engineeringinterviewquestions.com/network-theorems-multiple-choice-interview-questions/ 1/21
(d) zero
Ans: d
3. Kirchhoffs current law is applicable to only

(a) junction in a network
(b) closed loops in a network
(c) electric circuits
(d) electronic circuits
Ans: a
4. Kirchhoffs voltage law is related to

(a) junction currents
(b) battery e.m.fs.
(c) IR drops
(d) both (b) and (c)
(e) none of the above
Ans: d
5. Superposition theorem can be applied only to circuits

having
(a) resistive elements
(b) passive elements
(c) non-linear elements
(d) linear bilateral elements
Ans: d
6. The concept on which Superposition theorem is based is

(a) reciprocity
(b) duality
(c) non-linearity
(d) linearity
Ans: d
7. Thevenin resistance Rth is found

(a) by removing voltage sources along with their internal resistances
(6) by short-circuiting the given two terminals
(c) between any two ‘open’ terminals
(d) between same open terminals as for Etk
Ans: d
8. An ideal voltage source should have

(a) large value of e.m.f.
(b) small value of e.m.f.
(c) zero source resistance
(d) infinite source resistance
Ans: c
9. For a voltage source

(a) terminal voltage is always lower than source e.m.f.
(b) terminal voltage cannot be higher than source e.m.f.
(c) the source e.m.f. and terminal voltage are equal
Ans: b
10. To determine the polarity of the voltage drop across a

resistor, it is necessary to know
(a) value of current through the resistor
(b) direction of current through the resistor
(c) value of resistor
(d) e.m.fs. in the circuit
Ans: b
11. “Maximum power output is obtained from a network

when the load resistance is equal to the output resistance of
the network as seen from the terminals of the load”. The
above statement is associated with
(a) Millman’s theorem
(b) Thevenin’s theorem
(c) Superposition theorem
(d) Maximum power transfer theorem
Ans: d
12. “Any number of current sources in parallel may be

replaced by a single current source whose current is the
algebraic sum of individual source currents and source
resistance is the parallel combination of individual
source resistances”.
The above statement is associated with
(a) Thevenin’s theorem
(b) Millman’s theorem
(c) Maximum power transfer theorem

Ans: b
13. “In any linear bilateral network, if a source of e.m.f. E in

any branch produces a current I in any other branch, then
same e.m.f. acting in the second branch would produce the
same current / in the first branch”.
(a) compensation theorem
(b) superposition theorem
(c) reciprocity theorem
Ans: c
14. Which of the following is non-linear circuit parameter ?

(a) Inductance
(b) Condenser
(c) Wire wound resistor
(d) Transistor
Ans: a
15. A capacitor is generally a

(a) bilateral and active component
(b) active, passive, linear and nonlinear component
(c) linear and bilateral component
(d) non-linear and active component
Ans: c
16. “In any network containing more than one sources of

e.m.f. the current in any branch is the algebraic sum of a
number of individual fictitious currents (the number being
equal to the number of sources of e.m.f.), each of which is
due to separate action of each source of e.m.f., taken in
order, when the remaining sources of e.m.f. are replaced by
conductors, the resistances of which are equal to the
internal resistances of the respective sources”.
(a) Thevenin’s theorem
(b) Norton’s theorem

(c) Superposition theorem
Ans: c
17. Kirchhoff s law is applicable to

(a) passive networks only
(b) a.c. circuits only
(c) d.c. circuits only
(d) both a.c. as well d.c. circuits
Ans: d
18. Kirchhoff s law is not applicable to circuits with

(a) lumped parameters
(b) passive elements
(c) distributed parameters
(d) non-linear resistances
Ans: c
19. Kirchhoff s voltage law applies to circuits with

(a) nonlinear elements only
(b) linear elements only
(c) linear, non-linear, active and passive elements
(d) linear, non-linear, active, passive, time varying as wells as time-in-
variant elements
Ans: d
20. The resistance LM will be

(a) 6.66 Q
(b) 12 Q
(c) 18Q
(d) 20Q
Ans: a
21. For high efficiency of transfer of power, internal

resistance of the source should be
(a) equal to the load resistance
(b) less than the load resistance
(c) more than the load resistance

Ans: b
22. Efficiency of power transfer when maximum transfer of

power c xerosis
(a) 100%
(b) 80%
(c) 75%
(d) 50%
Ans: d
23. If resistance across LM in Fig. 2.30 is 15 ohms, the value

of R is
(a) 10 Q
(6) 20 Q
(c) 30 Q
(d) 40 Q
Ans: c
24. For maximum transfer of power, internal resistance of

the source should be
(a) equal to load resistance
(b) less than the load resistance
(c) greater than the load resistance
Ans: a
25. If the energy is supplied from a source, whose

resistance is 1 ohm, to a load of 100 ohms the source will be
(a) a voltage source
(b) a current source
(c) both of above
Ans: a
26. The circuit whose properties are same in either

direction is known as
(a) unilateral circuit
(b) bilateral circuit
(c) irreversible circuit

(d) reversible circuit
Ans: b
27. In a series parallel circuit, any two resistances in the

same current path must be in
(a) series with each other
(b) parallel with each other
(c) series with the voltage source.’
(d) parallel with the voltage source
Ans: a
28. The circuit has resistors, capacitors and semi-conductor

diodes. The circuit will be known as
(a) non-linear circuit
(b) linear circuit
(c) bilateral circuit
Ans: a
29. A non-linear network does not satisfy

(a) superposition condition
(b) homogeneity condition
(c) both homogeneity as well as superposition condition
(d) homogeneity, superposition and associative condition
Ans: c
30. An ideal voltage source has

(a) zero internal resistance
(b) open circuit voltage equal to the voltage on full load
(c) terminal voltage in proportion to current
(d) terminal voltage in proportion to load
Ans: a
31. A network which contains one or more than one source of e.m.f. is
known as
(a) linear network
(b) non-linear network
(c) passive network
(d) active network

Ans: c
32. The superposition theorem is applicable to

(a) linear, non-linear and time variant responses
(b) linear and non-linear resistors only
(c) linear responses only
Ans: c
33. Which of the following is not a nonlinear element ?

(a) Gas diode
(b) Heater coil
(c) Tunnel diode
(d) Electric arc
Ans:
34. Application of Norton’s theorem to a circuit yields

(a) equivalent current source and impedance in series
(6) equivalent current source and impedance in parallel
(c) equivalent impedance
(d) equivalent current source
Ans: a
35. Millman’s theorem yields

(a) equivalent resistance
(6) equivalent impedance
(c) equivalent voltage source
(d) equivalent voltage or current source
Ans: d
36. The superposition theorem is applicable to

(a) voltage only
(b) current “only
(c) both current and voltage
(d) current voltage and power
Ans: d
37. Between the branch voltages of a loop the Kirchhoff s voltage law
imposes
(a) non-linear constraints
(b) linear constraints
(c) no constraints
Ans: b
38. A passive network is one which contains

(a) only variable resistances
(b) only some sources of e.m.f. in it
(c) only two sources of e.m.f. in it
(d) no source of e.m.f. in it
Ans: d
39. A terminal where three on more branches meet is known as

(a) node
(b) terminus
(c) combination
(d) anode
Ans: a
40. Which of the following is the passive element ?

(a) Capacitance
(b) Ideal current source
(c) Ideal voltage source
(d) All of the above
Ans: a
41. Which of the following is a bilateral element ?

(a) Constant current source
(b) Constant voltage source
(c) Capacitance
Ans: c
42. A closed path made by several branches of the network is known

as
(a) branch
(b) loop
(c) circuit
(d) junction
Ans: b
43. A linear resistor having 0 < R < °o is a

(a) current controlled resistor
(6) voltage controlled resistor
(c) both current controlled and voltage controlled resistor
Ans: c
44. A star circuit has element of resistance R/2. The equivalent delta
elements will be
(a) R/6
(b) fi?
(c) 2R
(d) 4R
Ans: b
45. A delta circuit has each element of value R/2. The equivalent
elements of star circuit with be
(a) RIG
(b) R/3
(c) 2R
(d) 3R
Ans: a
56. In Thevenin’s theorem, to find Z

(a) all independent current sources are short circuited and
independent voltage sources are open circuited
(b) all independent voltage sources are open circuited and all
independent current sources are short circuited
(c) all independent voltage and current sources are short circuited
(d) all independent voltage sources are short circuited and all
independent current sources are open circuited
Ans: d
57. While calculating Rth in Thevenin’s theorem and Norton

equivalent
(a) all independent sources are made dead
(b) only current sources are made dead
(c) only voltage sources are made dead
(d) all voltage and current sources are made dead
Ans: a
58. The number of independent equations to solve a network is equal

to
(a) the number of chords
(b) the number of branches
(c) sum of the number of branches and chords
(d) sum of number of branches, chords and nodes
Ans: a
59. The superposition theorem requires as many circuits to be solved

as there are
(a) sources, nodes and meshes
(b) sources and nodes
(c) sources
(d) nodes
Ans: c
60. Choose the incorrect statement.

(a) A branch formed by the parallel connection of any resistor R and
open circuit has the characteristic of an open circuit.
(b) A branch formed by the parallel connection of any resistor R and a
short circuit has the characteristic of a short circuit.
(c) A branch formed by the series connection of any resistor R and an
open circuit has the characteristic of an open circuit.
(d) A branch formed by the series connection of any resistor R and a
short circuit has the characteristic of resistor R.
Ans: a
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ELECTROSTATIC Multiple choice Questions with

Answers :-
1. The force between two charges is 120 N. If the distance
between the charges is doubled, the force will be
(a) 60 N
(b) 30 N
(c) 40 N
(d) 15 N
Ans: b
2. The electric field intensity at a point situated 4 meters

from a point charge is 200 N/C. If the distance is reduced to
2 meters, the field intensity will be
(a) 400 N/C
(b) 600 N/C
(c) 800 N/C
https://engineeringinterviewquestions.com/electrostatic-electrical-engineering-multiple-choice-questions-and-answers/ 1/32
(d) 1200 N/C

Ans: c
3. The lines of force due to charged particles are

(a) always straight
(b) always curved
(c) sometimes curved
Ans: b
4. The electric field at a point situated at a distance d from

straight charged conductor is
(a) proportional to d
(b) inversely proportional to d
(c) inversely proportional to d
Ans: b
5. The direction of electric field due +0 positive charge is .

(a) away from the charge
(b) towards the charge
(c) both (a) and (6)
Ans: a
6. A field line and an equipotential surface are

(a) always parallel
(b) always at 90°
(c) inclined at any angle 0
Ans: b
7. The ability of charged bodies to exert force on 6ne

another is attributed to the existence of
(a) electrons
(b) protons
(c) neutrons
(d) electric field
Ans: d
8. If the sheet of a bakelite is inserted between the plates of

an air capacitor, the capacitance will
(a) decrease
(b) increase
(c) remains unchanged
(d) become zero
Ans: b
9. A capacitor stores 0.24 coulombs at 10 volts. Its

capacitance is
(a) 0.024 F
(b) 0.12 F
(c) 0.6 F
(d) 0.8 F
Ans: a
10. For making a capacitor, it is better to select a dielectric

having
(a) low permittivity
(b) high permittivity
(c) permittivity same as that of air
(d) permittivity slightly more than that of air
Ans: b
11. The units of capacitance are

(a) volts/coulomb
(b) coulombs/volt
(c) ohms
(d) henry/Wb
Ans: b
12. If three 15 uF capacitors are connected in series, the net

capacitance is
(a) 5 uF
(6) 30 uF
(c) 45 uF
(d) 50 uF
Ans: a
13. If three 10 uF capacitors are connected in parallel, the

net cararitance is
(a) 20 uF
(b) 30 uE
(c) 40 uF
(d) 50 uF
Ans: b
14. A dielectric material must be

(a) resistor
(b) insulator
(c) good conductor
(d) semi conductor
Ans: b
15. An electrolytic capacitor can be used for

(a) D.C. only
(b) AC. only
(c) both D.C. as well as A.C.
Ans: a
16. The capacitance of a capacitor is not affected by

(a) distance between plates
(6) area of plates
(c) thickness of plates
(d) all of the above
Ans: c
17. Which of the following is not a vector ?

(a) Linear momentum
(b) Angular momentum
(c) Electric field
(d) Electric potential
Ans: b
18. Two plates of a parallel plate capacitor after being

charged from a constant voltage source are separated apart
by means of insulated handles, then the
(a) Voltage across the plates increases
(b) voltage across the plates decreases

(c) charge on the capacitor decreases
(d) charge on the capacitor increases
Ans: b
19. If A.C. voltage is applied to capacitive circuit, the

alternating current can flow in the circuit because
(a) varying voltage produces the charging and dicharging currents
(b) of high peak value
(c) charging current can flow
(d) discharge current can flow
Ans: a
20. Voltage applied across a ceramic dielectric produces an

electrolytic field 100 times greater than air. What will be
the value of dielectric constant ?
(a) 50
(6) 100
(c) 150
(d) 200
Ans: b
21. Which of the following statements is correct ?

(a) Air capacitors have a black band to indicate the outside foil
(6) Electrolytic capacitor must be connected in the correct polarity
(c) Ceramic capacitors must be connected in the correct polarity
(d) Mica capacitors are available in capacitance value of 1 to 10 pF
Ans: b
22. The dissipation factor of a good dielectric is of the order of

(a) 0.0002
(b) 0.002
(c) 0.02
(d) 0.2
Ans: a
23. “The total electric flux through any closed surface surrounding
charges is equal to the amount oflcharge enclosed”.
(a) Coulomb’s square law

(b) Gauss’s law
(c) Maxwell’s first law
(d) Maxwell’s second law
Ans: b
24. Three capacitors each of the capacity C are given. The resultant
capacity 2/3 C
can be obtained by using them
(a) all in series
(b) all in parallel
(c) two in parallel and third in series with this combination
(d) two in series and third in parallel across this combination
Ans: c
25. For which of the following parameter variation, the capacitance of

the capacitor remains unaffected ?
(a) Distance between plates
(b) Area of the plates
(c) Nature of dielectric
(d) Thickness of the plates
Ans: d
26. Which of the following statement is true ?

(a) The current in the discharging capacitor grows linearly
(b) The current in the dicharging capacitor grows exponentially
(c) The current in the discharging capacitor decays exponentially
(d) The current in the discharging capacitor decreases constantly
Ans: b
27. Which of the following expression is correct for electric field

strength ?
(a) E = D/E
(b) E = D2/t
(c) E = jtD
(d) E= nD2
Ans: a
28. In a capacitor the electric charge is stored in

(a) metal plates
(b) dielectric
Ans: b
29. Which of the following materials has the highest value of dielectric
constant?
(a) Glass
(b) Vacuum
(c) Ceramics
(d) Oil
Ans: c
30. Which of the following capacitors will have the least variation ?
(a) Paper capacitor
(b) Ceramic capacitor
(c) Silver plated mica capacitor
Ans: c
31. Which of the following statements is incorrect ?

(a) The leakage resistance of ceramic capacitors is generally high
(b) The stored energy in a capacitor decreases with reduction in value
of capacitance
(c) The stored energy in a capacitor increases with applied voltage
(d) A wire cable has distributed capacitance between the conductors
Ans: b
32. Which of the following capacitors has relatively shorter shelf life ?
(a) Mica capacitor
(b) Electrolytic capacitor
(c) Ceramic capacitor
(d) Paper capacitor
Ans: b
33. The sparking between two electrical contacts can be reduced by

inserting a
(a) capacitor in parallel with contacts

(6) capacitor in series with each contact
(c) resistance in line
Ans: a
34. In the case of a lossy capacitor, its series equivalent resistance

value will be
(a) small
(b) very small
(c) large
(d) zero
Ans: c
35. The power dissipated in a pure capacitor is

(a) zero
(6) proportional to applied voltage
(c) proportional to value of capacitance
(d) both (b) and (c) above
Ans: a
36. In a capacitive circuit

(a) a steady value of applied voltage causes discharge
(b) an increase in applied voltage makes a capacitor charge
(c) decrease in applied voltage makes a capacitor charge
Ans: b
37. When a dielectric slab is introduced in a parallel plate capacitor,

the potential difference between plates will
(a) remain uncharged
(b) decrease
(c) increase
(d) become zero
Ans: b
38. Capacitance increases with

(a) increase in plate area and decrease in distance between the plates
(b) increase in plate area and distance between the plates
(c) decrease in plate area and value of applied voltage

(d) reduction in plate area and distance between the plates
Ans: a
39. A capacitor consists of

(a) two insulators separated by a conductor
(b) two conductors separated by an insulator
(c) two insulators only
(d) two conductors only
Ans: b
40. A gang condenser is a

(a) polarised capacitor
(6) variable capacitor
(c) ceramic capacitor
Ans:
41. A paper capacitor is usually available in the form of

(a) tubes
(b) rolled foil
(c) disc
(d) meshed plates
Ans: b
42. Air capacitors are generally available in the range

(a) 10 to 400 pF
(b) 1 to 20 pF
(c) 100 to 900 pF
(d) 20 to 100 pF
Ans: a
43. The unit of capacitance is

(a) henry
(b) ohm
(c) farad
(d) farad/m
Ans: c
44. A capacitor charged to 200 V has 2000 (iC of charge. The value of
capacitance will be
(a) 10 F
(6) 10 uF
(c) 100 nF
(d) 1000 uF
Ans: b
45. A capacitor in a circuit became hot and ultimately exploded due to

wrong connections, which type of capacitor it could be ?
(a) Paper capacitor
(c) Electrolytic capacitor
(d) Any-of the above
Ans: c
46. Energy stored in the electric field of a capacitor C when charged

from a D.C source of voltage V is equal to joules
(a) CV2
(b) C2V
(c) CV2
(d) CV
Ans: a
47. The absolute permittivity of free space is given by

(a) 8.854 x 1(T9 F/m)
(6) 8.854 x 1(T10 F/m)
(c) 8.854 x KT11 F/m
(d) 8.854 x 10″12 F/m
Ans: b
48. The relative permittivity of free space is given by

(a) 1
(b) 10
(c) 100
(d) 1000
Ans: a
49. Electric field intensity is a quantity

(a) scalar
(b) vector
Ans: b
50. When 4 volts e.m.f. is applied across a 1 farad capacitor, it will

store energy of
(a) 2 joules
(b) 4 joules
(c) 6 joules
(d) 8 joules
Ans: d
51. The capacitor preferred for high frequency circuits is

(a) air capacitor
(b) mica capacitor
(c) electrolytic capacitor
Ans: b
52. The capacity of capacitor bank used in power factor correction is

expressed in terms of
(a) kW
(b) kVA
(c) kVAR
(d) volts
Ans: c
53. While testing a capacitor with ohm meter, if the capacitor shows
charging, but the final resistance reading is appreciably less than
normal, it can be concluded that the capacitor is
(a) short-circuited
(b) open circuited
(c) alright
(d) leaky
Ans: d
54. If a 6 uF capacitor is charged to 200 V, the charge in coulombs will

be
(a) 800 uC
(b) 900 uC
(c) 1200 uC
(d) 1600 uC
Ans: c
55. Which capacitor will be physically smaller for the same ratings ?
(a) Ceramic capacitor
(b) Paper capacitor
(c) Both will be of equal size
Ans: a
56. What is the value of capacitance that must be connected in parallel

with 50 pF condenser to make an equivalent capacitance of 150 pF ?
(a) 50 pF
(b) 100 pF
(c) 150 pF
(d) 200 pF
Ans: b
57. A mica capacitor and a ceramic capacitor both have the same
physical dimensions. Which will have more value of capacitance ?
(a) Ceramic capacitor
(b) Mica capacitor
(c) Both will have identical value of capacitance
(d) It depends on applied voltage
Ans: a
58. Which of the following material has least value of dielectric

constant ?
(a) Ceramics
(b) Oil
(c) Glass
(d) Paper
Ans: b
59. Which of the following capacitors will have the least value of
breakdown voltage ?
(a) Mica
(b) Paper
(c) Ceramic
(d) Electrolytic
Ans: d
60. The breakdown voltage for paper capacitors is usually

(a) 20 to 60 volts
(b) 200 to 1600 volts
(c) 2000 to 3000 volts
(d) more than 10000 volts
Ans:
61. Dielectric constant for mica is nearly

(a) 200
(b) 100
(c) 3 to 8
(d) 1 to 2
Ans: c
62. The value of dielectric constant for vacuum is taken as

(a) zero
(b) 1
(c) 4
(d) 10
Ans: b
63. Which of the following capacitors is marked for polarity ?

(a) Air
(b) Paper
(c) Mica
(d) Electrolytic
Ans: d
64. Which of the following capacitors can be used for temperature

compensation ?
(a) Air capacitor

(c) Paper capacitor
Ans: b

(a) The thinner the dielectric, the more the capacitance and the lower
the voltage breakdown rating for a capacitor .
(b) A six dot mica capacitor colour coded white, green, black, red and
yellow has the capacitance value of 500 pF
(c) Capacitors in series provide less capacitance but a higher voltage
breakdown rating for the combination
(d) A capacitor can store charge because it has a dielectric between
two conductors
Ans: b
66. Paper capacitors usually have a tolerance of

(a) ± 5%
(b) ± 10%
(c) ± 15%
(d) ± 20%
Ans: b
67. For closer tolerances which of the following capacitors is usually

preferred ?
(a) Paper capacitor
(b) Mica capacitor
(c) Ceramic disc capacitor
Ans: b
68. The electrostatic force between two charges of one coulomb each
and placed at a distance of 0.5 m will be
(a) 36 x 10fa
(b) 36 x 107 N
(c) 36 x 108 N
(d) 36 x 109 N
Ans: d
69. The units of volume charge density are

(a) Coulomb/meter
(b) Coulomb/meter
(c) Coulomb/meter
(d) Coulomb/meter
Ans: c
70. “The surface integral of the normal component of the electric

displacement D over any closed surface equals the charge enclosed by
the surface”.
(a) Gauss’s law
(b) Kirchhoff s law
(c) Faraday’s law
(d) Lenz’s law
Ans: a
71. Dielectric strength of mica is

(a) 10 to 20 kV/mm
(6) 30 to 50 kV/mm
(c) 50 to 200 kV/mm
(d) 300 to 500 kV/mm
Ans: c
72. The dielectric constant (relative permittivity) of glass is given by

(a) 0.1 to 0.4
(b) 0.5 to 1.0
(c) 2.0 to 4.0
(d) 5 to 100
Ans: d
73. capacitors are mainly used for radio frequency tuning.

(a) Paper
(b) Air
(c) Mica
(d) Electrolytic
Ans: b
74. capacitors can be used only for D.C.

(a) Air
(b) Paper
(e) Mica
(d) Electrolytic
Ans: d
75. capacitors are used in transistor circuits.

(a) Ceramic
(b) Paper
(c) Air
(d) Electrolytic
Ans: a
76. capacitors are used for audio frequency and radio frequency
coupling and tuning.
(a) Air
(b) Mica
(c) Plastic film
(d) Ceramic
Ans: b
77. The inverse of capacitance is called

(a) reluctance
(b) conductance
(c) susceptance
(d) elastance
Ans: d
78. When the dielectric is homogeneous,the potential gradient is

(a) uniform
(b) non-uniform
(c) zero
(d) any of the above
Ans: a
79. The potential gradient across the material of low permittivity is

than across the material of high permittivity.
(a) smaller
(b) greater
Ans: b
80. ________field is associated with the capacitor.

(a) Electric
(b) Magnetic
(c) Both (a) and (b)
Ans: a
81. A capacitor having capacitance of 5 uF is charged to a potential

difference of 10,000 V. The energy stored in the capacitor is
(a) 50 joules
(b) 150 joules
(c) 200 joules
(d) 250 joules
Ans: d
82. A single core cable used on 33000 V has conductor diameter 10

mm and the internal diameter of sheath 25 mm. The maximum
electrostatic stress in the cable is
(a) 62 x 105 V/m
(b) 72 x 105 V/m
(c) 82 x 105 V/m
(d) 92 x 105 V/m
Ans: b
83. Two infinite parallel plates 10 mm apart have maintained between

them a potential difference of 100 V. The acceleration of an electron
placed between them is
(a) 0.56 x 1015 m/s2
(b) 1.5 x 1015 m/s2
(c) 1.6 x 1015 m/s2
(d) 1.76 x 1015 m/s2
Ans: d
84. The total deficiency or excess of electrons in a body is known as

(a) current
(b) voltage
(c) potential gradient
(d) charge
Ans: d
85. The relative permittivity has the following units

(a) F/m
(b) m/F
(c) Wb/m
(d) no units
Ans: c
86. The phenomenon of an uncharged body getting charged merely by

the nearness of a charged body is known as
(a) pholoelectric effect
(b) chemical effect
(c) magnetic effect
(d) induction
Ans: d
87. A unit tube of flux is known as tube

(a) Newton
(b) Faraday
(c) Michale
Ans: b
88. The number of Faraday tubes of flux passing through a surface in

an electric field is called
(a) electric flux
(6) electric flux density
(c) magnetic flux density
(d) electric charge density
Ans: a
89. The unit of electric instensity is

(a) N/C2
(b) Wb/m2
(c) N/C
(d) N2/C
Ans:
90. The value of E within the field due to a point charge can be found
with the help of
(a) Faraday’s laws
(b) Kirchhoff s laws
(c) Coulomb’s laws
Ans: c
91. at a point may be defined as equal to the lines of force passing

normally through a unit cross section at that point.
(a) Electric intensity
(6) Magnetic flux density
(c) Electric flux
Ans: a
92. Electric intensity at any point in an electric field is equal to the at

that point.
(a) electric flux
(b) magnetic flux density
(c) potential gradient
Ans: c
93. Electric displacement is a______quantity.

(a) scalar
(b) vector
(c) both of the above
Ans: b
94. at a point is equal to the negative potential gradient at that point.

(a) Electric intensity
(6) Electric flux
(c) Magnetic flux

(d) Magnetic flux density
Ans: a
95. The unit of dielectric strength is given by

(a) V/m
(b) V2/m
(c) m/V
(d) m/V2
Ans: a
96. Dielectric strength ______ with increasing thickness

(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains unaltered
Ans: b
97. The property of a capacitor to store electricity is called its

(a) capacitance
(b) charge
(c) energy
Ans: a
98. is that property of a capacitor which delays any change of voltage

across it.
(a) Inductance
(b) Capacitance
(c) Potential gradient
Ans: b
99. A capacitance of 100 fiF is connected in series with a resistance of

8000 £2. The time constant of the circuit is
(a) 0.2 s
(b) 0.4 s
(c) 0.6 s
(d) 0.8 s
Ans: d
100. In a cable capacitor, voltage gradient is maximum at the surface

of the
(a) earth
(b) conduction
(c) sheath
(d) insulator
Ans: b
101. The time constant of an R-C circuit is defined as the time during
which capacitor charging voltage actually rises to ______ percent of
its value.
(a) 37, initial
(b) 62, initial
(c) 62, final
(d) 37, final
Ans: c
102 The time constant and R-C circuit may also be defined as the time
during which the charging current falls to ______ percent of its
initial maximum value,
(a) 37
(b) 42
(c) 63
(d) 73
Ans: a
103. The capacitance of a capacitor is influenced by

(a) plate area
(b) plate separation
(c) nature of dielectric
(e) all of the above
Ans:
104. A capacitor consists of two

(a) ceramic plates and one mica disc
(b) insulators separated by a dielectric

(c) silver-coated insulators
(d) conductors separated by an insulator
Ans: d
105. Permittivity is expressed in

(a) Farad/sq-m
(b) Farad/meter
(c) Weber/meter
(d) Weber/sq-m
Ans: b
106. Dielectric strength of a material depends on

(a) moisture content
(b) temperature
(c) thickness
Ans: d
107. What will happen to an insulating medium if voltage more than

the breakdown voltage is applied on it ?
(a) It will become magnetic
(b) It will melt
(c) It will get punctured or cracked
(d) Its molecular structure will get changed
Ans: c
108. Which medium has the least dielectric strength ?

(a) Paraffin wax
(b) Quartz
(c) Glass
(d) Air
Ans: d
109. 1 volt/meter is same as

(a) 1 meter/coulomb
(6) 1 newton meter
(c) 1 newton/meter
(d) 1 joule/coulomb
Ans: c
110. One volt is the same as

(a) one joule/coulomb
(b) one coulomb/joule
(c) one coulomb
(d) one joule
Ans: a
111. The capacitance between two plates increases with

(a) shorter plate area and higher applied voltage
(6) shorter plate area and shorter distance between them
(c) larger plate area, longer distance between plates and
higher,applied voltage
(d) larger plate area and shorter distance between plates
Ans: d
112. The capacitance C is charged through a resistance R. The time

constant of the charging circuit is given by
(a) CIR
(b) 1/RC
(c) RC
(d) RIC
Ans: c
113. The bridge used for the measurement of the value of the
capacitance is
(a) Wien’s bridge
(b) Wheatstone bridge
(c) Schering bridge
(d) Hay’s bridge
Ans: c
114. If an ohmmeter reading immediately goes practically to zero and

stays there, capacitor is
(a) charged
(b) short-circuited
(c) lossy
(d) satisfactory
Ans: b
115. Out of the following capacitors of identical rating which one will
have the smallest dimensions ?
(a) Aluminium foil capacitor
(b) Mica capacitor
(c) Ceramic capacitor
(d) Paper capacitor
Ans: c
116. An uncharged conductor is placed near a charged conductor, then

(a) the uncharged conductor gets charged by conduction
(6) the uncharged conductor gets charged by induction and then
attracted towards the charging body
(c) the uncharged conductor is attracted first and then charged by
induction
(d) it remains as such
Ans: b
117. The presence of an uncharged conductor near a charged one

increases the
(a) charge of the charged conductor
(6) capacity of the charged conductor
(c) potential of the charged conductor
Ans: b
118. Paper condenser is

(a) always polarised
(6) usually of fixed value
(c) electrolytic condenser
(d) a variable condenser
Ans: b
119. Mica capacitors are characterised by all of the following except

(a) stable operation
(b) accurate value
(c) low leakage reactance
(d) low losses

Ans: c
120. A potential of 400 V is applied to a capacitor, the plates of which

are 4 mm apart. The strength of electric field is
(a) 100 kV/m
(b) 10 kV/m
(c) 5 kV/m
(d) 2 kV/m
Ans: a
121. For a good 0.05 uF capacitor ohmmeter reading should

(a) show low resistance momentarily and back off to a very high
resistance
(6) show high resistance momentarily and then a very low resistance
(c) go quickly to 50 ohm approximately and remain there
(d) not move at all
Ans: a
122. The ohmmeter reading for a short circuited capacitor is

(a) infinity
(b) few kilo ohms
(c)few megohms
(d) zero
Ans: d

(a) Mica capacitors are available in capacitance values of 5 to 20 uF
(b) Air capapitors have a black band to indicate the outside foil
(c) Electrolytic capacitors must be connected in correct polarity
(d) Ceramic capacitors must be connected in correct polarity
Ans: c
124. Which of the following capacitors preferred for high frequency

circuits ?
(a) Air capacitor
(6) Electrolytic capacitor
(c) Mica capacitor

Ans: c
125. An electrolytic capacitor is generally made to provide

(a) low capacitance
(b) fixed capacitance
(c) variable capacitance
(d) large value of capacitance
Ans: d
126. In order to remove static electricity from machinery

(a) construct insulated cabins
(b) insulate the machinery
(c) ground the framework
(d) humidify the surroundings
Ans: c
127. If a third equal and similar charge is placed between two equal
and similar charges, then this third charge will
(a) move out of the field of influence of the two charges
(b) remain in stable equilibrium
(c) not be in equilibrium
(d) be in unstable equilibrium
Ans: b
128. A region around a stationary electric charge has

(a) an electric field
(b) a magnetic field
Ans: a
129. The minimum value of potential gradient in a cable occurs in

(a) insulation
(b) conductor
(c) outer sheath
(d) uniformly all over
Ans: a
130. Dielectric strength of medium

(a) increases with rise in temperature
(b) increases with moisture content
(c) is same for all insulating materials
Ans: d
131. Acharge which when placed in vacuum from an equal and similar
charge repels with a force of 9 x 10 N, is known as
(a) milli-coulomb
(b) micro-coulomb
(c) pico-coulomb
(d) coulomb
Ans: b
132. Dielectric strength of a medium is usually expressed in

(a) J/mm
(b) C/m2
(c) kV/mm
(d) N/mm
Ans: c
133. A positive and a negative charge are initially 50 mm apart. When

they are moved close together so that they are now only 10 mm apart,
the force between them will be
(a) 5 times smaller than before
(b) 5 times greater than before
(c) 10 times greater than before
(d) 25 times larger than before
Ans: d
134. Which is the most superior dielectric out of the following ?

(a) Air
(b) Glass
(c) Bakelite
(d) Paper
Ans: c
135. When a dielectric is placed in an electric field the field strength

(a) decreases
(b) increases
(c) reduces to zero
(d) remain unchanged
Ans: a
136. To prevent the generation of static charges on rubber or flat

leather
(a) surface is moistened
(b) conductive dressing is done
(c) oil compound dressing is done
(d) talcum powder is sprayed on the surface
Ans: b
137. Which of the following capacitor is preferred in case of single

phase motor ?
(a) Mica capacitor
(b) Paper capacitor
(c) Electrolytic capacitor
(d) Ceramic capacitor
Ans: c
148. A capacitance is a circuit component that opposes the change in

circuit
(a) current
(b) voltage
(c) impedance
Ans: a
149. A condenser suitable for D.C. only is

(a) metallic plate variable gang condenser
(b) metallic paper capacitor
(c) oil impregrated paper condenser
(d) poled aluminium electrolytic condenser
Ans: d
150. In a capacitor, the electric charge is stored in

(a) metal plates
(b) dielectric
(c) dielectric as well as metal plates
Ans: b
ELECTROSTATIC Objective Type Questions pdf free download ::

700+ REAL TIME .NET Interview

Questions and Answers Pdf →
11 THOUGHTS ON “300 TOP MOST ELECTROSTATIC – ELECTRICAL

ENGINEERING MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS”
Raghunath Munda
FEBRUARY 11, 2017 AT 5:15 PM
Hi …I want a details about electrostatic potential

gradient….
REPLY
manash
NOVEMBER 6, 2016 AT 4:43 AM
sir ,some questions r wrong here 26-c,40-b,85-d,148-b r

absolutely right
REPLY
vivek
OCTOBER 10, 2016 AT 4:34 AM
Wat is formula for q no 82
REPLY
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choice Questions and Answers
MAGNETISM and ELECTROMAGNETISM
Questions :-
1. Tesla is a unit of
(a) field strength
(b) inductance
(c) flux density
(d) flux
Ans: c
2. A permeable substance is one

(a) which is a good conductor
(6) which is a bad conductor
(c) which is a strong magnet
https://engineeringinterviewquestions.com/magnetism-and-electromagnetism-electrical-engineering-multiple-choice-questions-and-answers/ 1/25
(d) through which the magnetic lines of force can pass very easily
Ans: d
3. The materials having low retentivity are suitable for

making
(a) weak magnets
(b) temporary magnets
(c) permanent magnets
Ans: b
4. A magnetic field exists around

(a) iron
(b) copper
(c) aluminium
(d) moving charges
Ans: d
5. Ferrites are materials.

(a) paramagnetic
(b) diamagnetic
(c) ferromagnetic
Ans: c
6. Air gap has_______eluctance as compared to iron or

steel path
(a) little
(b) lower
(c) higher
(d) zero
Ans: b
7. The direction of magnetic lines of force is

(a) from south pole to north pole
(b) from north pole to south pole
(c) from one end of the magnet to another
Ans: b
8. Which of the following is a vector quantity ?

(a) Relative permeability
(b) Magnetic field intensity
(c) Flux density
(d) Magnetic potential
Ans: b
9. The two conductors of a transmission line carry equal

current I in opposite directions. The force on each
conductor is
(a) proportional to 7
(b) proportional to X
(c) proportional to distance between the conductors
(d) inversely proportional to I
Ans: b
10. A material which is slightly repelled by a magnetic field

is known as
(a) ferromagnetic material
(b) diamagnetic material
(c) paramagnetic material
(d) conducting material
Ans: b
11. When an iron piece is placed in a magnetic field

(a) the magnetic lines of force will bend away from their usual paths in
order to go away from the piece
(b) the magnetic lines of force will bend away from their usual paths
in order to pass through the piece
(c) the magnetic field will not be affected
(d) the iron piece will break
Ans: b
12. Fleming’s left hand rule is used to find

(a) direction of magnetic field due to current carrying conductor
(b) direction of flux in a solenoid
(c) direction of force on a current carrying conductor in a magnetic
field
(d) polarity of a magnetic pole

Ans: c
13. The ratio of intensity of magnetisation to the magnetisation force

is known as
(a) flux density
(b) susceptibility
(c) relative permeability
Ans: b
14. Magnetising steel is normals difficult because

(a) it corrodes easily
(6) it has high permeability
(c) it has high specific gravity
(d) it has low permeability
Ans: d
15. The left hand rule correlates to

(a) current, induced e.m.f. and direction of force on a conductor
(b) magnetic field, electric field and direction of force on a conductor
(c) self induction, mutual induction and direction of force on a
conductor
(d) current, magnetic field and direction of force on a conductor
Ans: d
16. The unit of relative permeability is

(a) henry/metre
(b) henry
(c) henry/sq. m
(d) it is dimensionless
Ans: d
17. A conductor of length L has current I passing through it, when it is

placed parallel to a magnetic field. The force experienced by the
conductor will be
(a) zero
(b) BLI
(c) B2LI
(d) BLI2
Ans: a
18. The force between two long parallel conductors is inversely

proportional to
(a) radius of conductors
(b) current in one conductor
(c) product of current in two conductors
(d) distance between the conductors
Ans: d
19. Materials subjected to rapid reversal of magnetism should have

(a) large area oiB-H loop
(b) high permeability and low hysteresis loss
(c) high co-ercivity and high retentivity
(d) high co-ercivity and low density
Ans: b
20. Indicate which of the following material does not retain

magnetism permanently.
(a) Soft iron
(b) Stainless steel
(e) Hardened steel
Ans: a
21. The main constituent of permalloy is

(a) cobalt
(b) chromium
(c) nickel
(d) tungsten
Ans: c
22. The use of permanent magnets is. not made in

(a) magnetoes
(6) energy meters
(c) transformers
(d) loud-speakers
Ans: c
23. Paramagnetic materials have relative permeability

(a) slightly less than unity
(b) equal to unity
(c) slightly more than unity
(d) equal to that ferromagnetic mate rials
Ans: c
24. Degaussing is the process of

(a) removal of magnetic impurities
(b) removing gases from the materials
(c) remagnetising metallic parts
(d) demagnetising metallic parts
Ans:
25. Substances which have permeability less than the permeability of

free space are known as
(a) ferromagnetic
(b) paramagnetic
(c) diamagnetic
(d) bipolar
Ans: c
26. Two infinitely long parallel conductors in vacuum any separated 1

metre between centers >then a current of 1 ampere flows the. uk each
conductor, produce on each other a force of
(a) 2 x 1(T2 N/m)
(b) 2 x KT3 N/m
(c) 2 x 10″5 N/m
(d) 2x 1(T7 N/m)
Ans: d
27. In the left hand rule, forefinger always represents

(a) voltage
(b) current
(c) magnetic field
(d) direction of force on the conductor
Ans: c
28. Which of the following is a ferromagnetic material ?

(a) Tungsten
(b) Aluminium
(c) Copper
(d) Nickel
Ans: d
29. Ferrites are a sub-group of

(a) non-magnetic materials
(6) ferro-magnetic materials
(c) paramagnetic materials
(d) ferri-magnetic materials
Ans: d
30. Gilbert is a unit of

(a) electromotive force
(6) magnetomotive force
(c) conductance
(d) permittivity
Ans: b
31. The working of a meter is based on the use of a permanent magnet.

In order to protect the meter functioning from stray magnetic fields
(a) meter is surrounded by strong magnetic fields
(b) a soft iron shielding is used
(c) a plastic shielding is provided
(d) a shielding of anon-magnetic material is used
Ans: b
32. Reciprocal of permeability is

(a) reluctivity
(b) susceptibility
(c) permittivity
(d) conductance
Ans: a
33. The relative permeability is less than unity is case of

(a) ferromagnetic materials
(b) ferrites
(c) non-ferrous materials

(d) diamagnetic materials
Ans: d
34. Which of the following is the unit of magnetic flux density ?

(a) weber
(b) lumens
(c) tesla
Ans: c
35. The magnetism left in the iron after exciting field has been
removed is known as
(a) permeance
(b) residual magnetism
(c) susceptance
(d) reluctance
Ans: b
36. Which of the following is not a unit of flux?

(a) Maxwell
(b) Telsa
(c) Weber
Ans: b
37. Which of the following is expected to have the maximum

permeability ?
(a) Brass
(b) Copper
(c) Zinc
(d) Ebonite
Ans: d
38. One telsa is equal to

(a) 1 Wb/mm2
(b) 1 Wb/m
(c) 1 Wb/m2
(d) 1 mWb/m2
Ans: c
39. Out of the following statements, concerning an electric field, which

statement is not true ?
(a) The electric intensity is a vector quantity
(b) The electric field intensity at a point is numerically equal to the
force exerted upon a charge placed at that point
(c) An electric field is defined as a point in space at which an electric
charge would experience a force
(d) Unit field intensity in the exertion of a force of one newton on a
charge of one coulomb
Ans: b
40. When a magnet is in motion relative to a coil the induced e.m.f.

does not depend upon
(a) resistance of the coil
(b) motion of the magnet
(c) number of turns of the coil
(d) pole strength of the magnet
Ans: a
41. One maxwell is equal to

(a) 10 webers
(b) 10 webers
(c) 10 webers
(d) 10 webers
Ans: d
42. When two ends of a circular uniform wire are joined to the
terminals of a battery, the field at the center of the circle
(a) will be zero
(b) will be infinite
(c) will depend on the amount of e.m.f. applied
(d) will depend on the radius of the circle
Ans: d
43. Susceptibility is positive for

(a) non-magnetic substances
(b) diamagnetic substances

(c) ferromagnetic substances
Ans: c
44. Two long parallel conductors carry 100 A. If the conductors are
separated by 20 mm, the force per meter of length of each conductor
will be
(a) 100 N
(b) 10 N
(c) 1 N
(d) 0.1 N
Ans: d
45. A 300 mm long conductor is carrying a current of 10 A and is

situated at right angles to a magnetic field having a flux density of 0.8
T ; the force on the conductor will be
(a) 240 N
(6) 24 N
(c) 2.4 N
(d) 0.24 N
Ans: c
46. A 200 turn coil having an axial length of 30 mm and a radius of 10

mm is pivoted in a magnetic field having a flux density of 0.8 T. If the
coil carries a current of 0.5 A, the torque acting on the coil will be
(a) 8 N-m
(b) 0.48 N-m
(e) 0.048 N-m
(d) 0.0048 N-m
[Hint. Torque = 2BIlNr N-m]
Ans: c
47. The electromagnet has 50 turns and a current of 1A flows through

the coil. If the length of the magnet circuit is 200 mm, what is the
magnetic field strength ?
(a) 2500 AT/m
(b) 250 AT/m
(c) 25 AT/m
(d) 2.5 AT/m

Ans: b
48. What is the magnitude and the direction of force per 1.1m length
of a pair of conductors of a direct current linecarrying 10 amperes and
spaced 100 mm apart ?
(a) 22 x 10″8 N
(b) 22 x 10″7 N
(c) 22 x 10-6 N
(d) 22 x 10″5 N
Ans: d
49. A square cross-sectional magnet has a pole strength of 1 x 10 Wb

and cross sectional area of 20 mm x 20 mm. What is the strength at a
distance of 100 mm from the unit pole in air ?
(a) 63.38 N/Wb
(b) 633.8 N/Wb
(c) 6338 N/Wb
(d) 63380 N/Wb
Ans: c
50. The unit of flux is the same as that of

(a) reluctance
(b) resistance
(c) permeance
(d) pole strength
Ans: d
51. Unit for quantity of electricity is

(a) ampere-hour
(b) watt
(c) joule
(d) coulomb
Ans: d
52. The Biot-savart’s law is a general modification of

(a) Kirchhoffs law
(b) Lenz’s law
(c) Ampere’s law
(d) Faraday’s laws

Ans: c
53. The most effective and quickest may of making a magnet from soft
iron is by
(a) placing it inside a coil carrying current
(b) induction
(c) the use of permanent magnet
(d) rubbing with another magnet
Ans: a
54. The commonly used material for shielding or screening

magnetism is
(a) copper
(b) aluminium
(c) soft iron
(d) brass
Ans: c
55. If a copper disc is rotated rapidly below a freely suspended

magnetic needle, the magnetic needle shall start rotating with a
velocity
(a) less than that of disc but in opposite direction
(b) equal to that of disc and in the same direction
(c) equal to that of disc and in the opposite direction
(d) less than that of disc and in the same direction
Ans: d
56. A permanent magnet

(a) attracts some substances and repels others
(b) attracts all paramagnetic substances and repels others
(c) attracts only ferromagnetic substances
(d) attracts ferromagnetic substances and repels all others
Ans: a
57. The retentivity (a property) of material is useful for the

construction of
(a) permanent magnets
(b) transformers
(c) non-magnetic substances

(d) electromagnets
Ans: a
58. The relative permeability of materials is not constant.

(a) diamagnetic
(b) paramagnetic
(c) ferromagnetic
(d) insulating
Ans: c
59. The materials are a bit inferior conductors of magnetic flux than
air.
(a) ferromagnetic
(b) paramagnetic
(c) diamagnetic
(d) dielectric
Ans: c
60. Hysteresis loop in case of magnetically hard materials is more in

shape as compared to magnetically soft materials.
(a) circular
(b) triangular
(c) rectangular
Ans: c
61. A rectangular magnet of magnetic moment M is cut into two piece

of same length, the magnetic moment of each piece will be
(a) M
(6) M/2
(c) 2 M
(d) M/4
Ans: b
62. A keeper is used to

(a) change the direction of magnetic lines
(b) amplify flux
(c) restore lost flux
(d) provide a closed path for flux

Ans: d
63. Magnetic moment is a

(a) pole strength
(6) universal constant
(c) scalar quantity
(d) vector quantity
Ans: d
64. The change of cross-sectional area of conductor in magnetic field

will affect
(a) reluctance of conductor
(b) resistance of conductor
(c) (a) and (b) both in the same way
Ans: c
65. The uniform magnetic field is

(a) the field of a set of parallel conductors
(b) the field of a single conductor
(c) the field in which all lines of magnetic flux are parallel and
equidistant
Ans: c
66. The magneto-motive force is

(a) the voltage across the two ends of exciting coil
(b) the flow of an electric current
(c) the sum of all currents embraced by one line of magnetic field
(d) the passage of magnetic field through an exciting coil
Ans: c
67. What will be the current passing through the ring shaped air cored
coil when number of turns is 800 and ampere turns are 3200 ?
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 8
Ans: b
68. What will be the magnetic potential difference across the air gap of
2 cm length in magnetic field of 200 AT/m ?
(a) 2 AT
(b) 4 AT
(c) 6 AT
(d) 10 AT
Ans: b

(a) The magnetic flux inside an exciting coil is lower than its outside
surface
(6) The magnetic flux inside an exciting coil is zero
(e) The magnetic flux inside the exciting coil is greater than its outside
surface
(d) The magnetic flux inside the exciting coil is same as on its outside
surface
Ans: d
70. A certain amount of current flows through a ring-shaped coil with

fixed number of turns. How does the magnetic induction B varies
inside the coil if an iron core is threaded into coil without dimensional
change of coil ?
(a) Decreases
(b) Increases
(c) Remains same
(d) First increases and then decreases depending on the depth of iron
in¬sertion
Ans: b
71. The magnetic reluctance of a material

(a) decreases with increasing cross sectional area of material
(6) increases with increasing cross-sec-tional area of material
(c) does not vary with increasing cross-sectional area of material
Ans: a
72. The initial permeability of an iron rod is

(a) the highest permeability of the iron rod
(b) the lowest permeability of the iron rod
(c) the permeability at the end of the iron rod
(d) the permeability almost in non-magnetised state
Ans: d
73. How does the magnetic compass needle behave in a magnetic field
?
(a) It assures a position right angle to magnetic field
(b) It starts rotating
(c) It assures a position which follows a line of magnetic flux
Ans: c
74. In a simple magnetic field the strength of magnet flux

(a) is constant and has same value in energy part of the magnetic field
(6) increases continuously from initial value to final value
(c) decreases continuously from initial value to final value
(d) first increases and then decreases till it becomes zero
Ans: d
75. The stray line of magnetic flux is defined as

(a) a line vertical to the flux lines
(b) the mean length of a ring shaped coil
(c) a line of magnetic flux in a non-uniform field
(d) a line of magnetic flux which does not follow the designed path
Ans: d
76. The bar magnet has

(a) the dipole moment
(b) monopole moment
(c) (a) and (b) both
Ans: a
77. Which of the following materials are diamagnetic ?

(a) Silver
(b) Copper
(c) Silver and copper

(d) Iron
Ans: c
78. Which of the following type of materials are not very important for
engineering applications ?
(a) Ferromagnetic
(b) Paramagnetic
(c) Diamagnetic
Ans: c
79. The susceptibility of paramagnetic materials generally lies

between
(a) KT3 and 1CT6
(b) 1CT3 and 1CT7
(c) KT4 and KT8
(d) 10″2 and KT5
Ans: a
91. For which of the following materials the saturation value is the
highest ?
(a) Ferromagnetic materials
(6) Paramagnetic materials
(c) Diamagnetic materials
(d) Ferrites
Ans: d
92. The magnetic materials exhibit the property of magnetisation

because of
(a) orbital motion of electrons
(b) spin of electrons
(c) spin of nucleus
(d) either of these
Ans: c
93. For which of the following materials the net magnetic moment
should be zero ?
(a) Diamagnetic materials

(b) Ferrimagnetic materials
(c) Antiferromagnetic materials
(d) Antiferrimagnetic materials
Ans: c
94. The attraction capacity of electromagnet will increase if the

(a) core length increases i
(b) core area increases
(c) flux density decreases
(d) flux density increases
Ans: d

(a) The conductivity of ferrites is better than ferromagnetic materials
(b) The conductivity of ferromagnetic materials is better than ferrites
(c) The conductivity of ferrites is very high
(d) The conductivity of ferrites is same as that of ferromagnetic
materials
Ans: a
96. Temporary magnets are used in

(a) loud-speakers
(b) generators
(c) motors
Ans: d
97. Main causes of noisy solenoid are

(a) strong tendency of fan out of laminations at the end caused by
repulsion among magnetic lines of force
(b) uneven bearing surface, caused by dirt or uneven wear between
moving and stationary parts
(c) both of above
Ans: c
98. Strength of an electromagnet can be increased by

(a) increasing the cross-sectional area
(b) increasing the number of turns

(c) increasing current supply
(d) all above methods
Ans:
99. Core of an electromagnet should have

(a) low coercivity
(6) high susceptibility
Ans: c
100. Magnetism of a magnet can be destroyed by

(a) heating
(b) hammering
(c) by inductive action of another magnet
(d) by all above methods
Ans: d
MAGNETISM and ELECTROMAGNETISM Multiple Choice

Questions and Answers ::

24 THOUGHTS ON “300 TOP MOST MAGNETISM AND

ELECTROMAGNETISM – ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING MULTIPLE
CHOICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS”
Mahesh
JUNE 27, 2017 AT 5:10 PM
What is answer for 98 Question
REPLY
Manash
6/6/2019 300+ TOP MAGNETIC CIRCUIT Multiple Choice Questions and Answers


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MAGNETIC CIRCUIT Multiple Choice Questions
with Answers :-
1. An air gap is usually inserted in magnetic circuits to
(a) increase m.m.f.
(b) increase the flux
(c) prevent saturation
Ans: c
2. The relative permeability of a ferromagnetic material is

(a) less than one
(b) more than one
(c) more than 10
(d) more than 100 or 1000
Ans: d
https://engineeringinterviewquestions.com/magnetic-circuit-electrical-engineering-multiple-choice-questions-and-answers/ 1/9
3. The unit of magnetic flux is

(a) henry
(b) weber
(c) ampereturn/weber
(d) ampere/metre
Ans: b
4. Permeability in a magnetic circuit corresponds

to______ in an electric circuit.
(a) resistance
(b) resistivity
(c) conductivity
(d) conductance
Ans: c
5. Point out the wrong statement.

Magnetic leakage is undesirable in electric machines because it
(a) lowers their power efficiency
(b) increases their cost of manufacture
(c) leads to their increased weight
(d) produces fringing
Ans: a
6. Relative permeability of vacuum is

(a) 1
(b) 1 H/m
(c) 1/4JI
(d) 4n x 10-‘ H/m
Ans: a
7. Permanent magnets are normally made of

(a) alnico alloys
(b) aluminium
(c) cast iron
(d) wrought iron
Ans: a
8. Energy stored by a coil is doubled when its current is

increased by percent.
(a) 25
(b) 50
(c)41.4
(d) 100
Ans: c
9. Those magnetic materials are best suited for making

armature and transformer cores which
have____permeability and_______hystersis loss.
(a) high, high
(b) low, high
(c) high, low
(d) low, low
Ans: c
10. The rate of rise of current through an inductive coil is

maximum
(a) at 63.2% of its maximum steady value
(b) at the start of the current flow
(c) after one time constant
(d) near the final maximum value of current
Ans: b
11. When both the inductance and resistance of a coil are

doubled the value of
(a) time constant remains unchanged
(b) initial rate of rise of current is doubled
(c) final steady current is doubled
(d) time constant is halved
Ans: a
12. The initial rate of rise of current through a coil of

inductance 10 H when suddenly connected to a D.C. supply
of 200 V is_______Vs
(a) 50
(b) 20
(c) 0.05
(d) 500
Ans: b
13. A material for good magnetic memory should have

(a) low hysteresis loss
(b) high permeability
(c) low retentivity
(d) high retentivity
Ans: d
14. Conductivity is analogous to

(a) retentivity
(b) resistivity
(c) permeability
(d) inductance
Ans: c
15. In a magnetic material hysteresis loss takes place

primarily due to
(a) rapid reversals of its magnetisation
(b) flux density lagging behind magnetising force
(c) molecular friction
(d) it high retentivity
Ans: d
16. Those materials are well suited for making permanent

magnets which have _____ retentivity and _______
coercivity.
(a) low, high
(b) high, high
(c) high, low
(d) low, low
Ans: b
17. If the area of hysteresis loop of a material is large, the

hysteresis loss in this material will be
(a) zero
(b) small
(c) large
Ans: c
18. Hard steel is suitable for making permanent magnets

because
(a) it has good residual magnetism
(b) its hysteresis loop has large area
(c) its mechanical strength is high
(d) its mechanical strength is low
Ans: a
19. Silicon steel is used in electrical machines because it has

(a) low coercivity
(b) low retentivity
(c) low hysteresis loss
(d) high coercivity
Ans: c
20. Conductance is analogous to

(a) permeance
(b) reluctance
(c) flux
(d) inductance
Ans: a
21. The property of a material which opposes the creation of

magnetic flux in it is known as
(a) reluctivity
(b) magnetomotive force
(c) permeance
(d) reluctance
Ans: d
22. The unit of retentivity is

(a) weber
(b) weber/sq. m
(c) ampere turn/meter
(d) ampere turn
Ans: b
23. Reciprocal of reluctance is

(a) reluctivity
(b) permeance
(c) permeability
(d) susceptibility
Ans: b
24. While comparing magnetic and electric circuits, the flux

of magnetic circuit is compared with which parameter of
electrical circuit ?
(a) E.m.f.
(b) Current
(c) Current density
(d) Conductivity
Ans: b
25. The unit of reluctance is

(a) metre/henry
(b) henry/metre
(c) henry
(d) 1/henry
Ans: d
26. A ferrite core has less eddy current loss than an iron
core because
(a) ferrites have high resistance
(b) ferrites are magnetic
(c) ferrites have low permeability
(d) ferrites have high hysteresis
Ans: a
27. Hysteresis loss least depends on

(a) volume of material
(b) frequency
(c) steinmetz coefficient of material
(d) ambient temperature
Ans: d
28. Laminated cores, in electrical machines, are used to

reduce
(a) copper loss
(b) eddy current loss

(c) hysteresis loss
Ans: b
MAGNETIC CIRCUIT Interview Questions and Answers pdf free

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8 THOUGHTS ON “300+ TOP MOST MAGNETIC CIRCUIT –

ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS”
sushmitha j
JULY 25, 2017 AT 9:10 AM
sir i have applied for kpcl exam 2017 for electrical je post
plz provide objective types question based on that syllabus
REPLY
B G SHENDGE
JULY 21, 2017 AT 4:35 PM
Please send me quastion answers on ELECTRICAL

ENGINEERING in pdf please
REPLY
Beereshekkelore
Question no 25 is how
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6/6/2019 50 TOP Electromagnetic Induction Multiple Choice Questions and Answers


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Electromagnetic Induction Multiple Choice

Questions with Answers :-
1. The property of coil by which a counter e.m.f. is induced
in it when the current through the coil changes is known as
(a) self-inductance
(b) mutual inductance
(c) series aiding inductance
(d) capacitance
Ans: a
2. As per Faraday’s laws of electromagnetic induction, an

e.m.f. is induced in a conductor whenever it
(a) lies perpendicular to the magnetic flux
(b) lies in a magnetic field
(e) cuts magnetic flux
(d) moves parallel to the direction of the magnetic field
Ans: c
https://engineeringinterviewquestions.com/electromagnetic-induction-electrical-engineering-multiple-choice-questions-and-answers/ 1/13
3. Which of the following circuit element stores energy in

the electromagnetic field ?
(a) Inductance
(b) Condenser
(c) Variable resistor
(d) Resistance
Ans: a
4. The inductance of a coil will increase under all the

following conditions except
(a) when more length for the same number of turns is provided
(6) when the number of turns of the coil increase
(c) when more area for each turn is provided
(d) when permeability of the core increases
Ans: a
5. Higher the self-inductance of a coil,

(a) lesser its weber-turns
(b) lower the e.m.f. induced
(c) greater the flux produced by it
(d) longer the delay in establishing steady current through it
Ans: d
6. In an iron cored coil the iron core is removed so that the

coil becomes an air cored coil. The inductance of the coil
will
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) remain the same
(d) initially increase and then decrease
Ans: b
7. An open coil has

(a) zero resistance and inductance
(b) infinite resistance and zero inductance
(c) infinite resistance and normal inductance
(d) zero resistance and high inductance
Ans: b
8. Both the number of turns and the core length of an

inductive coil are doubled.
Its self-inductance will be
(a) unaffected
(b) doubled
(c) halved
(d) quadrupled
Ans: b
9. If current in a conductor increases then according to

Lenz’s law self-induced voltage will
(a) aid the increasing current
(b) tend to decrease the amount of cur-rent
(c) produce current opposite to the in-creasing current
(d) aid the applied voltage
Ans: c
10. The direction of induced e.m.f. can be found by

(a) Laplace’s law
(b) Lenz’s law
(c) Fleming’s right hand rule
(d) Kirchhoff s voltage law
Ans: b
11. Air-core coils are practically free from

(a) hysteresis losses
(b) eddy current losses
Ans: c
12. The magnitude of the induced e.m.f. in a conductor depends on the

(a) flux density of the magnetic field
(b) amount of flux cut
(c) amount of flux linkages
(d) rate of change of flux-linkages
Ans: d
13. Mutually inductance between two magnetically-coupled coils

depends on
(a) permeability of the core
(b) the number of their turns
(c) cross-sectional area of their common core
Ans: d
14. A laminated iron core has reduced eddy-current losses because

(a) more wire can be used with less D.C. resistance in coil
(b) the laminations are insulated from each other
(c) the magnetic flux is concentrated in the air gap of the core
(d) the laminations are stacked vertfcally
Ans: b
15. The law that the induced e.m.f. and current always oppose the
cause producing them is due to
(a) Faraday
(b) Lenz
(c) Newton
(d) Coulomb
Ans: b
16. Which of the following is not a unit of inductance ?

(a) Henry
(b) Coulomb/volt ampere
(c) Volt second per ampere
Ans: b
17. In case of an inductance, current is proportional to

(a) voltage across the inductance
(b) magnetic field
(d) neither (a) nor (b)
Ans: b
18. Which of the following circuit elements will oppose the change in
circuit current ?
(a) Capacitance
(b) Inductance
(c) Resistance
Ans: b
19. For a purely inductive circuit which of the following is true ?

(a) Apparent power is zero
(b) Relative power is.zero
(c) Actual power of the circuit is zero
(d) Any capacitance even if present in the circuit will not be charged
Ans: c
20. Which of the following is unit of inductance ?

(a) Ohm
(b) Henry
(c) Ampere turns
(d) Webers/metre
Ans: b
21. An e.m.f. of 16 volts is induced in a coil of inductance 4H. The rate

of change of current must be
(a) 64 A/s
(b) 32 A/s
(c) 16 A/s
(d) 4 A/s
Ans: d
22. The core of a coil has a length of 200 mm. The inductance of coil is
6 mH. If the core length is doubled, all other quantities, remaining the
same, the inductance will be
(a) 3 mH
(b) 12 mH
(c) 24mH
(d)48mH
Ans: a
23. The self inductances of two coils are 8 mH and 18 mH. If the co-
efficients of coupling is 0.5, the mutual inductance of the coils is
(a) 4 mH
(b) 5 mH
(c) 6 mH
(d) 12 mH
Ans: c
24. Two coils have inductances of 8 mH and 18 mH and a co-efficient

of coupling of 0.5. If the two coils are connected in series aiding, the
total inductance will be
(a) 32 mH
(b) 38 mH
(c) 40 mH
(d) 48 mH
Ans: b
25. A 200 turn coil has an inductance of 12 mH. If the number of turns
is increased to 400 turns, all other quantities (area, length etc.)
remaining the same, the inductance will be
(a) 6 mH
(b) 14 mH
(c) 24 mH
(d) 48 mH
Ans: d
26. Two coils have self-inductances of 10 H and 2 H, the mutual

inductance being zero. If the two coils are connected in series, the
total inductance will be
(a) 6 H
(b) 8 H
(c) 12 H
(d) 24 H
Ans: c
27. In case all the flux from the current in coil 1 links with coil 2, the
co-efficient of coupling will be
(a) 2.0
(b) 1.0
(c) 0.5
(d) zero
Ans: b
28. A coil with negligible resistance has 50V across it with 10 mA. The
inductive reactance is
(a) 50 ohms
(b) 500 ohms
(c) 1000 ohms
(d) 5000 ohms
Ans: d
29. A conductor 2 meters long moves at right angles to a magnetic

field of flux density 1 tesla with a velocity of 12.5 m/s. The induced
e.m.f. in the conductor will be
(a) 10 V
(6) 15 V
(c) 25V
(d) 50V
Ans: c
30. Lenz’s law is a consequence of the law of conservation of

(a) induced current
(b) charge
(c) energy
(d) induced e.m.f.
Ans: c
31. A conductor carries 125 amperes of current under 60° to a

magnetic field of 1.1 tesla. The force on the conductor will be
nearly
(a) 50 N
(b) 120 N
(c) 240 N
(d) 480 N
Ans: b
32. Find the force acting on a conductor 3m long carrying a current of

50 amperes at right angles to a magnetic field having a flux density of
0.67 tesla.
(a) 100 N
(b) 400 N
(c) 600 N
(d) 1000 N
Ans: a
33. The co-efficient of coupling between two air core coils depends on
(a) self-inductance of two coils only
(b) mutual inductance between two coils only
(c) mutual inductance and self inductance of two coils
Ans: c
34. An average voltage of 10 V is induced in a 250 turns solenoid as a

result of a change in flux which occurs in 0.5 second. The total flux
change is
(a) 20 Wb
(b) 2 Wb
(c) 0.2 Wb
(d) 0.02 Wb
Ans: d
35. A 500 turns solenoid develops an average induced voltage of 60 V.

Over what time interval must a flux change of 0.06 Wb occur to
produce such a voltage ?
(a) 0.01 s
(b) 0.1 s
(c) 0.5 s
(d) 5 s
Ans: c
36. Which of the fpllowing inductor will have the least eddy current
losses ?
(a) Air core
(b) Laminated iron core
(c) Iron core
(d) Powdered iron core
Ans: a
37. A coil induces 350 mV when the current changes at the rate of 1
A/s. The value of inductance is
(a) 3500 mH
(b) 350 mH
(c) 250 mH
(d) 150 mH
Ans: b
38. Two 300 uH coils in series without mutual coupling have a total
inductance of
(a) 300 uH
(b) 600 uH
(c) 150 uH
(d) 75 uH
Ans: b
39. Current changing from 8 A to 12 A in one second induced 20 volts

in a coil.
The value of inductance is
(a) 5 mH
(b) 10 mH
(c) 5 H
(d) 10 H
Ans: c
40. Which circuit element(s) will oppose the change in circuit current
?
(a) Resistance only
(b) Inductance only
(c) Capacitance only
(d) Inductance and capacitance
Ans: b
41. A crack in the magnetic path of an inductor will result in

(a) unchanged inductance
(b) increased inductance
(c) zero inductance
(d) reduced inductance
Ans: d
42. A coil is wound on iron core which carries current I. The self-
induced voltage in the coil is not affected by
(a) variation in coil current
(b) variation in voltage to the coil
(c) change of number of turns of coil
(d) the resistance of magnetic path
Ans: b
43. A moving magnetic field will produce the same effect as a

conductor that is moving.
(a) Yes
(b) No
Ans:
44. The polarity of the induced voltage can be determined by using the
left-hand generator rule.
(a) Yes
(b) No
Ans: a
45. Increasing the field or increasing the current will decrease the
force on the conductor.
(a) Yes
(b) No
Ans: b
46. Reversing the field or the current will reverse the force on the
conductor.
(a) Yes
(b) No
Ans: a
49. When a conductor moves in the field, so that it makes an angle 8

with the lines of flux, the force F is given as : F = Bl sin2 0.
(a) Yes
(b) No
Ans: b
50. The self-inductance of the coil may be defined as equal to the

e.m.f. induced in volts when the current in the circuit changes at the
rate of unit Weber turns.
(a) Yes
(b) No
Ans: b

7 THOUGHTS ON “300+ TOP ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS”
Dhirendra Pratap
DECEMBER 20, 2016 AT 8:05 PM
25-24 hoga because L directly proportion N
REPLY
Dhirendra Pratap
DECEMBER 20, 2016 AT 8:09 PM
30-d hoga sir because lenz law determines

direction of the induce e m f and current
REPLY
Nasir Khan
OCTOBER 21, 2016 AT 1:11 PM
anyone have pdf format ?.please send me……

nasir.khan3132@gmail.com
REPLY
vivek kumar
6/6/2019 300+ TOP ELECTROLYSIS & STORAGE of BATTERIES MCQs Pdf

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ELECTROLYSIS and STORAGE of BATTERIES

Objective Questions :-
1. “The mass of an ion liberated at an electrode is directly
proportional to the quantity of electricity”.
(a) Newton’s law
(b) Faraday’s law of electromagnetic
(c) Faraday’s law of electrolysis
(d) Gauss’s law
Ans: c
2. The charge required to liberate one gram equivalent of

any substance is known as ______ constant
(a) time
(b) Faraday’s
(c) Boltzman
Ans: b
https://engineeringinterviewquestions.com/electrolysis-and-storage-of-batteries-electrical-engineering-multiple-choice-questions-and-answers/ 1/26
3. During the charging of a lead-acid cell

(a) its voltage increases
(b) it gives out energy
(c) its cathode becomes dark chocolate brown in colour
(d) specific gravity of H2SO4 decreases
Ans: a
4. The capacity of a lead-acid cell does not depend on its

(a) temperature
(b) rate of charge
(c) rate of discharge
(d) quantity of active material
Ans: b
5. During charging the specific gravity of the electrolyte of a

lead-acid battery
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains the same
(d) becomes zero
Ans: a
6. The active materials on the positive and negative plates

of a fully charged lead-acid battery are
(a) lead and lead peroxide
(b) lead sulphate and lead
(c) lead peroxide and lead
Ans: c
7. When a lead-acid battery is in fully charged condition,

the color of its positive plate is
(a) dark grey
(b) brown
(c) dark brown
(d) none of above
Ans: c
8. The active materials of a nickel-iron battery are

(a) nickel hydroxide
(6) powdered iron and its oxide
(c) 21% solution of KOH
Ans: d
9. The ratio of ampere-hour efficiency to watt-hour

efficiency of a lead-acid cell is
(a) just one
(b) always greater than one
(c) always less than one
(d) none of the above.
Ans: b
10. The best indication about the state of charge on a lead-

acid battery is given by
(a) output voltage
(b) temperature of electrolyte
(c) specific gravity of electrolyte
Ans: c
11. The storage battery generally used in electric power

station is
(a) nickel-cadmium battery
(b) zinc-carbon battery
(c) lead-acid battery
Ans: c
12. The output voltage of a charger is

(a) less than the battery voltage
(b) higher than the battery voltage
(c) the same as the battery voltage
Ans: b
13. Cells are connected in series in order to

(a) increase the voltage rating
(6) increase the current rating
(c) increase the life of the cells
Ans: a
14. Five 2 V cells are connected in parallel.

The output voltage is
(a) 1 V
(6) 1.5 V
(c) 1.75 V
(d) 2 V
Ans: d
15. The capacity of a battery is expressed in terms of

(a) current rating
(b) voltage rating
(e) ampere-hour rating
Ans: c
16. During the charging and discharging of a nickel-iron cell

(a) corrosive fumes are produced
(b) water is neither formed nor absorbed
(c) nickel hydroxide remains unsplit
(d) its e.m.f. remains constant
Ans: b
17. As compared to constant-current system, the constant-

voltage system of charging a lead acid cell has the advantage
of
(a) reducing time of charging
(b) increasing cell capacity
(d) avoiding excessive gassing
Ans: c
18. A dead storage battery can be revived by

(a) adding distilled water
(6) adding so-called battery restorer
(c) a dose of H2SO4
Ans: d
19. As compared to a lead-acid cell, the efficiency of a

nickel-iron cell is less due to its
(a) compactness
(b) lower e.m.f.
(c) small quantity of electrolyte used
(d) higher internal resistance
Ans: d
20. Trickle charging of a storage battery helps to

(a) maintain proper electrolyte level
(b) increase its reserve capacity
(c) prevent sulphation
(d) keep it fresh and fully charged
Ans: d
21. Those substances of the cell which take active part in

chemical combination and hence produce electricity during
charging or discharging are known as______materials.
(a) passive
(b) active
(c) redundant
(d) inert
Ans: b
22. In a lead-acid cell dilute sulfuric acid (electrolyte)

approximately comprises the following
(a) one part H2O, three parts H2SO4
(b) two parts H2O, two parts H2SO4
(c) three parts H2O, one part H2SO4
(d) all H2S04
Ans: c
23. It is noticed that durum charging

(a) there is a rise in voltage
(6) energy is absorbed by the cell
(c) specific gravity of H2SO4 is increased
(d) the anode becomes chocolate brown in colour (PbCfe) and cathode
becomes grey metallic lead (Pb)
Ans: e
24. It is noticed that during discharging the following does

not happen
(a) both anode and cathode become PbS04
(b) specific gravity of H2SO4 decreases
(c) voltage of the cell decreases
(d) the cell absorbs energy
Ans: d
25. The ampere-hour efficiency of a leadacid cell is

normally between
(a) 20 to 30%
(b) 40 to 50%
(c) 60 to 70%
(d) 90 to 95%
Ans: d
26. The watt-hour efficiency of a lead-acid cell varies

between
(a) 25 to 35%
(b) 40 to 60%
(c) 70 to 80%
(d) 90 to 95%
Ans: c
27. The capacity of a lead-acid cell is measured in

(a) amperes
(b) ampere-hours
(c) watts
(d) watt-hours
Ans: b
28. The capacity of a lead-acid cell depends on

(a) rate of discharge
(b) temperature
(c) density of electrolyte
(d) quantity of active materials
(e) all above
Ans: e
29. When the lead-acid cell is fully charged, the electrolyte

assumes _____ appearance
(a) dull
(b) reddish
(c) bright
(d) milky
Ans: d
30. The e.m.f. of an Edison cell, when fully charged, is

nearly
(a) 1.4 V
(b) 1 V
(c) 0.9 V
(d) 0.8 V
Ans: a
31. The internal resistance of an alkali cell is nearly _____ times that
of the lead-acid cell.
(a) two
(b) three
(c) four
(d) five
Ans: d
32. The average charging voltage for alkali cell is about

(a) 1 V
(b) 1.2 V
(c) 1.7 V
(d) 2.1 V
Ans: c
33. On the average the ampere-hour efficiency of an Edison cell is

about
(a) 40%
(b) 60%
(c) 70%
(d) 80%
Ans: d
34. The active material of the positive plates of silver-zinc batteries is

(a) silver oxide
(b) lead oxide
(c) lead
(d) zinc powder
Ans: a
35. Lead-acid cell has a life of nearly charges and discharges

(a) 500
(b) 700
(c) 1000
(d) 1250
Ans: d
36. Life of the Edison cell is at least

(a) five years
(b) seven years
(c) eight years
(d) ten years
Ans: a
37. The internal resistance of a lead-acid cell is that of Edison cell

(a) less than
(b) more than
(c) equal to
Ans: a
38. Electrolyte used in an Edison cell is

(a) NaOH
(b) KOH
(c) HC1
(d) HN03
Ans: b
39. Electrolyte used in a lead-acid cell is

(a) NaOH
(b) onlyH2S04
(c) only water
(d) dilute H2SO4
Ans: d
40. Negative plate of an Edison cell is made of

(a) copper
(b) lead
(c) iron
(d) silver oxide
Ans: c
41. The open circuit voltage of any storage cell depends wholly upon
(a) its chemical constituents
(b) on the strength of its electrolyte
(c) its temperature
(d) all above
Ans: d
42. The specific gravity of electrolyte is measured by

(a) manometer
(6) a mechanical gauge
(c) hydrometer
(d) psychrometer
Ans: c
43. When the specific gravity of the electrolyte of a lead-acid cell is

reduced to 1.1 to 1.15 the cell is in
(a) charged state
(b) discharged state
(d) active state
Ans: b
44. In ______ system the charging current is intermittently

controlled at either a maximum or minimum value
(a) two rate charge control
(b) trickle charge
(c) floating charge
(d) an equalizing charge
Ans: a
45. Over charging

(a) produces excessive gassing
(b) loosens the active material
(e) increases the temperature resulting in buckling of plates
(d) all above
Ans: d
46. Undercharging
(a) reduces specific gravity of the electrolyte
(b) increases specific gravity of the electrolyte
(c) produces excessive gassing
(d) increases the temperature
Ans: a
47. Internal short circuits are caused by

(a) breakdown of one or more separators
(b) excess accumulation of sediment at the bottom of the cell
Ans: c
48. The effect of sulphation is that the internal resistance

(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains same
Ans: a
49. Excessive formation of lead sulphate on the surface of the plates

happens because of
(a) allowing a battery to stand in discharged condition for a long time
(b) topping up with electrolyte

(c) persistent undercharging
(d) low level of electrolyte
(e) all above
Ans: e
50. The substances which combine together to store electrical energy

during the charge are called ______ materials
(a) active
(b) passive
(c) inert
(d) dielectric
Ans: a
51. In a lead-acid cell, lead is called as

(a) positive active material
(b) negative active material
(c) passive material
Ans: b
52. The lead-acid cell should never be discharged beyond

(a) 1.8 V
(b) 1.9 V
(c) 2 V
(d) 2.1 V
Ans: a
53. On overcharging a battery

(a) it will bring about chemical change in active materials
(b) it will increase the capacity of the battery
(c) it will raise the specific gravity of the electrolyte
(d) none of the above will occur
Ans: d
54. Each cell has a vent cap

(a) to allow gases out when the cell is on charge
(b) to add water to the cell if needed
(c) to check the level of electrolyte
(d) to do all above functions

Ans: d
55. Following will occur if level of electrolyte falls below plates

(a) capacity of the cell is reduced
(b) life of the cell is reduced
(c) open plates are converted to lead sulphate
(d) all above
Ans: d
56. In constant voltage charging method, the charging current from

discharged to fully charged condition
(a) decreases
(b) increases
(c) remains constant
Ans: a
57. 48 ampere-hour capacity would deliver a current of

(a) 48 amperes for 1 hour
(b) 24 amperes for 2 hours
(c) 8 amperes for 6 hours
(d) 6 amperes for 8 hours
Ans: d
58. In constant-current charging method, the supply voltage from

discharged to
fully charged condition
(a) decreases
(b) increases
Ans: b
59. Battery charging equipment is generally installed

(a) in well ventilated location
(b) in clean and dry place
(c) as near as practical to the battery being charged
(d) in location having all above features

Ans: d
60. Following will happen if the specific gravity of electrolyte becomes

more than 1.23.
(a) Loss of capacity
(b) Loss of life
(c) Corrosion of the grids of the plate
(d) All above
Ans: d
ELECTROLYSIS & STORAGE of BATTERIES Questions and

Answers ::
61. Batteries are charged by
(a) rectifiers
(b) engine generator sets
(c) motor generator sets
(d) any one of the above methods
Ans: d
62. Cell short circuit results in

(a) low sp. gravity electrolyte
(b) abnormal high temperature
(c) reduced gassing on charge
(d) all above
Ans: d
63. Internal resistance of a cell is reduced by

(a) using vent plug to permit gas formed during discharge
(b) increasing the plate area
(c) putting plates very close together
Ans: d
64. Capacity of dry cells is

(a) more when it is supplying current for intermittent periods
(b) more when it is supplying current for continuous periods
(c) unaffected by the type of discharge

Ans: a
65. Battery container should be acid resistance, therefore it is made up

of
(a) glass
(b) plastic
(c) wood
(d) all above
Ans: d
66. Sulphated cells are indicated by

(a) the loss of capacity of the cell
(6) the decrease of the specific gravity
(c) the low voltage of the cell on discharge
(d) all above conditions
Ans: d
67. In a lead-acid cell, if the specific gravity of sulphuric acid is 1.8, it

will require following ratio of acid to water to get mixture of specific
gravity of 1.3
(a) 6 parts of acid to 4 parts of water
(b) 4 parts of acid to 4 parts of water
(c) 4 parts of acid to 6 parts of water
(d) 4 parts of acid to 8 parts of water
Ans: c
68. Local action in a battery is indicated by

(a) excessive gassing under load conditions
(b) excessive drop in the specific gravity of electrolyte even when the
cell is on open circuit
Ans: d
69. Following will happen if battery charging rate is too high

(a) excessive gassing will occur
(b) temperature rise will occur
(c) bulging and buckling of plates will occur
(d) all above will occur

Ans: d
70. Internal resistance of a cell is due to

(a) resistance of electrolyte
(b) electrode resistance
(c) surface contact resistance between electrode and electrolyte
(d) all above
Ans: d
71. If a battery is wrongly connected on charge following will happen

(a) current delivered by the battery will be high
(b) current drawing will be nil
(c) current drawing will be very small
(d) current drawing will be very high
Ans: d
72. In order that a hydrometer may float vertically in electrolyte its

C.G. should be
(a) lowered
(b) raised
(c) undisturbed
(d) displaced sideways
Ans: a
73. If a lead-acid cell is discharged below 1.8 V the following will

happen.
(a) Capacity of cell will reduce
(b) Sulphation of plates will occur
(c) Internal resistance will increase
(d) All above will occur
Ans: d
74. Life of the batteries is in the following ascending order.

(a) Lead-acid cell, Edison cell, Nickel cadmium cell
(b) Lead-acid cell, Nickel-cadmium cell, Edison cell
(c) Edison cell, Nickel-cadmium cell, lead-acid cell
(d) Nickel-cadmium cell, Edison cell, lead-acid cell
Ans: a
75. Persons preparing electrolyte should wear

(a) goggles or other face shield
(b) rubber
(c) rubber boots and gloves
(d) all above safety devices
Ans: d
76. Excessive charging a battery tends to

(a) produce gassing
(b) increase the internal resistance of the battery
(c) to corrode the positive plates into lead peroxide thereby weakening
them physically
(d) bring about all above changes
Ans: d
77. Shelf life of a small dry cell is

(a) equal to that of large dry cell
(6) less than that of large dry cell
(c) more than that of large dry cell
Ans: b
78. The current flow through electrolyte is due to the movement of

(a) ions
(b) holes
(c) electrons
Ans: a
79. Level of electrolyte in a cell should be _____ the level of plates

(a) below
(b) equal to
(c) above
Ans: c
80. During discharge, the active material of both the positive and
negative plates is changed to
(a) Pb
(b) Pb02
(c) PbO
(d) PbS04
Ans: d
81 _____ of electrolyte indicates the state of charge of the battery

(a) colour
(b) mass
(c) viscosity
(d) specific gravity
Ans: d
82. The following indicate that battery on charge has attained full
charge
(a) colour of electrode
(b) gassing
(c) specific gravity
(d) all above
Ans: d
83. Dry cell is modification of

(a) Deniell cell
(b) Leclanche cell
(e) Lead-acid cell
(d) Edison cell
Ans: b
84. Capacity of a battery.is expressed in

(a) Ah
(b) Vh
(c) Wh
(d) kWh
Ans: a
85. In alkaline cell the electrolyte is

(a) dilute sulphuric acid
(b) concentrated sulphuric acid
(c) NaOH
(d) KOH
Ans: d
86. Self charge of a Ni-Fe cell is _____ Edison cell.

(a) equal to
(b) less than
(c) more than
(d) much more than
Ans: b
87. Ampere hour capacity of an industrial battery is based on ____

hours discharge rate.
(a) 8
(b) 12
(c) 16
(d) 24
Ans: a
88. The body of Edison cell is made of

(a) bakelite
(b) rubber
(c) nickel plated steel
(d) aluminium
Ans: c
89. Specific gravity of electrolyte in Edison cell is

(a) 0.8
(b) 0.95
(c) 1.1
(d) 1.21
Ans: d
90. All the electrical connections between the battery and vehicle
should be by
(a) thin aluminium wires
(b) thin copper wires
(c) rigid cables
(d) flexible cables
Ans: d
91. A battery of 6 cells will show a drop of _____ volts from fully
charged state to fully discharged state.
(a) 1.0
(b) 1.5
(c) 2.4
(d) 2.9
Ans: c
92. During the idle period of the battery, strong electrolyte tends to
change the active material of the cell into
(a) Pb02
(6) PbSC-4
(c) PbO
(d) Pb
Ans: b
93. Chargmg of sulphated battery produces ____ heat.

(a) no
(b) very little
(c) less
(d) more
Ans: d
94. Hydrogen evolved during charging produces explosive mixture

when it is more than
(a) 2%
(b) 4%
(c) 6%
(d) 8%
Ans: d
95. Weston standard cell at 20°C has voltage of ____ volts.

(a) 0.8
(b) 0.9
(c) 1.0187
(d) 1.5
Ans: c
96. Extent of corrosion in the underground metal work depends upon

(a) amount of moisture
(b) type of metals
(c) type of soil chemicals
(d) all above factors
Ans: d
97. Mercury cell has which of the following characteristics ?

(a) Flat discharge current-voltage curve
(6) High power to weight ratio
(c) Comparatively longer shelf life under adverse conditions of high
temperature and humidity
Ans: d
98. Charging a sulphated battery at high rate results in

(a) boiling of electrolyte due to gassing
(b) warping of plates
(c) damage to separators, cell caps covers and battery case due to
excessive temperature
(d) all above
Ans: d
99. Short circuiting of a cell may be caused

(a) buckling of plates
(b) faulty separators
(c) lead particles forming circuit between positive and negative plates
(d) excessive accumulation of sediment
(e) any one of above
Ans: e
100. In a battery cover is placed over the element and sealed to the top
of the battery container. This is done
(a) to reduce evaporation of water from electrolyte
(b) to exclude dirt and foreign matter from the electrolyte
(c) to discharge both of the above functions
(d) to discharge none of the above functions
Ans: c
101. For a cell to work, which of the following condition(s) become

necessary ?
(a) Two electrodes of different meta’s should be inserted in the
electrolyte, not touching each other
(b) Electrolyte must chemically react with one of the electrodes
(c) Electrolyte liquid or paste should be conducting
(d) All above three conditions are necessary
Ans: d
102. Which of the following primary cells has the lowest voltage ?
(a) Lithium
(b) Zinc-chloride
(c) Mercury
(d) Carbon-zinc
Ans: c
103. Which of the following primary cells has the highest voltage ?
(a) Manganese-alkaline
(6) Carbon-zinc
(c) Lithium
(d) Mercury
Ans: c
104. While preparing electrolyte for a lead-acid battery

(a) water is poured into acid
(b) acid is poured into water
(c) anyone of the two can be added to other chemical
Ans: b
105. Which of the following battery is used for air-craft ?

(a) Lead-acid battery
(b) Nickel-iron battery
(c) Dry cell battery
(d) Silver oxide battery
Ans: b
106. Which of the following cell has a. reversible chemical reaction ?

(a) Lead-acid
(b) Mercury oxide
(c) Carbon-zinc
(d) Silver-oxide
Ans: a
107. Which of the following is incorrect ?

(a) A storage cell has a reversible chemical reaction
(b) A lead-acid cell can be recharged
(c) A carbon-zinc cell has unlimited shelf life
(d) A primary cell has an irreversible chemical reaction
Ans: c
108. Which of the following has lower sp. gravity V

(a) Dilute H2S04
(6) Concentrated H2SO4
(c) Water
(d) Any of the above
Ans: c
109. Under normal charging rate, the charging current should be

(a) 10% of capacity
(b) 20% of capacity
(c) 30% of capacity
(d) 40% of capacity
Ans: a
110. When two batteries are connected in parallel, it should be

ensured that
(a) they have same e.m.f.
(b) they have same make
(c) they have same ampere-hour capacity
(d) they have identical internal resistance
Ans: a
111. A typical output of a solar cell is

(a) 0.1V
(b) 0.26 V
(c) 1.1 V
(d) 2 V
Ans: b
112. Petroleum jelly is applied to the electrical connections to the lead-

acid battery
(a) prevent local heating
(b) prevent short-circuiting
(c) reduce path resistance
(d) prevent corrosion
Ans: d
113. When the load resistance equals the generator resistance which of
the following will be maximum ?
(a) Current
(b) Efficiency of the circuit
(c) Power in the load resistance
(d) Voltage across the load resistance
Ans: c
114. The common impurity in the electrolyte of lead-acid battery is

(a) chlorine
(b) dust particles
(c) lead crystals
(d) iron
Ans: d
115. In a lead-acid battery the energy is stored in the form of

(a) charged ions
(b) chemical energy
(c) electrostatic energy
(d) electromagnetic energy
Ans: b
116. Which among the following constitutes the major load for an
automobile battery ?
(a) Brake light
(b) Self starter
(c) Parking lights
(d) Spark plugs
Ans: b
117. Which of the following factors adversely affects the capacity of the
leadacid battery ?
(a) Temperature of surroundings
(b) Specific gravity of electrolyte
(c) Rate of discharge
Ans: d
118. Cells are connected in parallel to

(a) increase the efficiency
(b) increase the current capacity
(c) increase the voltage output
(d) increase the internal resistance
Ans: b
119. A constant-voltage generator has

(a) minimum efficiency
(b) minimum current capacity
(c) low internal resistance
(d) high internal resistance
Ans: c
120. Satellite power requirement is provided through

(a) solar cells
(b) dry cells
(c) nickel-cadmium cells
(d) lead-acid batteries
Ans: a
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A.C. Fundamentals, Circuits and Circuit Theory

Questions :-
1. A sine wave has a frequency of 50 Hz. Its angular
frequency is _______ radian/second.
(a) 100 n
(b) 50 jt
(c) 25 JT
(d) 5 n
Ans: a
2. The reactance offered by a capacitor to alternating

current of frequency 50 Hz is 20 Q. If frequency is
increased to 100 Hz, reactance becomes_____ohms.
(a) 2.5
(b) 5
(c) 10
https://engineeringinterviewquestions.com/ac-fundamentals-circuits-and-circuit-theory-multiple-choice-questions-and-answers/ 1/26
(d) 15
Ans: c
3. The period of a wave is

(a) the same as frequency
(6) time required to complete one cycle
(c) expressed in amperes
Ans: b
4. The form factor is the ratio of

(a) peak value to r.m.s. value
(6) r.m.s. value to average value
(c) average value to r.m.s. value
Ans: b
5. The period of a sine wave is _____ seconds.

Its frequency is
(a) 20 Hz
(b) 30 Hz
(c) 40 Hz
(d) 50 Hz
Ans: d
6. A heater is rated as 230 V, 10 kW, A.C. The value 230 V

refers to
(a) average voltage
(b) r.m.s. voltage
(c) peak voltage
Ans: b
7. If two sinusoids of the same frequency but of different

amplitudes and phase angles are subtracted, the resultant
is
(a) a sinusoid of the same frequency
(b) a sinusoid of half the original frequency
(c) a sinusoid of double the frequency
(d) not a sinusoid

Ans: a
8. The peak value of a sine wave is 200 V. Its average value

is
(a) 127.4 V
(b) 141.4 V
(c) 282.8 V
(d)200V
Ans: a
9. If two sine waves of the same frequency have a phase

difference of JT radians, then
(a) both will reach their minimum values at the same instant
(b) both will reach their maximum values at the same instant
(c) when one wave reaches its maxi¬mum value, the other will reach
its minimum value
Ans: c
10. The voltage of domestic supply is 220V. This figure

represents
(a) mean value
(b) r.m.s. value
(c) peak value
(d) average value
Ans: a
11. Two waves of the same frequency have opposite phase

when the phase angle between them is
(a) 360°
(b) 180°
(c) 90°
(d) 0°
Ans: b
12. The power consumed in a circuit element will be least

when the phase difference between the current and voltage
is
(a) 180″
(b) 90°
(c) 60°
(d) 0°
Ans: b
13. The r.m.s. value and mean value is the same in the case
of
(a) triangular wave
(6) sine wave
(c) square wave
(d) half wave rectified sine wave
Ans: c
14. For the same peak value which of the following wave
will ‘have the highest r.m.s. value ?
(a) square wave
(b) half wave rectified sine wave
(c) triangular wave
(d) sine wave
Ans: a
15. For the same peak value, which of the following wave
has the least mean value ?
(a) half wave rectified sine wave
(b) triangular wave
(c) sine wave
(d) square wave
Ans: a
16. For a sine wave with peak value Imax the r.m.s. value is
(a) 0.5 Imax
(b) 0.707
(c) 0.9
(d) 1.414 Lmax
Ans: b
17. Form Factor is the ratio of

(a) average value/r.m.s. value
(b) average value/peak value

(e) r.m.s. value/average value
(d) r.m.s. value/peak value
Ans: c
18. Form factor for a sine wave is

(a) 1.414
(b) 0.707
(c) 1.11
(d) 0.637
Ans: c
19. For a sine wave with peak value Emax______8.30. the

average value is
(a) 0.636 Emax
(b) 0.707 Emax
(c) 0.434 EWc
(d) lAUEmax
Ans: a
20. For a frequency of 200 Hz, the time period will be

(a) 0.05 s
(b) 0.005 s
(c) 0.0005 s
(d) 0.5 s
Ans: b
21. The phase difference between voltage and current wave through a
circuit element is given as 30°. The essential condition is that
(a) both waves must have same frequency
(b) both waves must have identical peak values
(c) both waves must have zero value at the same time
Ans: a
22. The r.m.s. value of a sinusoidal A.C. current is equal to its value at
an angle of______degrees.
(a) 90
(b) 60
(c) 45
(d) 30
Ans: c
23. Capacitive reactance is more when

(a) capacitance is less and frequency of supply is less
(b) capacitance is less and frequency of supply is more
(c) capacitance is more and frequency of supply is less
(d) capacitance is more and frequency of supply is more
Ans: a
24. In a series resonant circuit, the impedance of the circuit is

(a) minimum
(b) maximum
(c) zero
Ans: a
25. Power factor of an electrical circuit is equal to

(a) R/Z
(b) cosine of phase angle difference be-tween current and voltage
(c) kW/kVA
(d) ratio of useful current to total cur¬rent Iw/I
(e) all above
Ans: e
26. The best place to install a capacitor is

(a) very near to inductive load
(b) across the terminals of the inductive load
(c) far away from the inductive load
(d) any where
Ans: b
27. Poor power factor

(a) reduces load handling capability of electrical system
(b) results in more power losses in the electrical system
(c) overloads alternators, transformers and distribution lines
(d) results in more voltage drop in the line
(e) results in all above

Ans: e
28. Capacitors for power factor correction are rated in

(a) kW
(b) kVA
(c) kV
(d) kVAR
Ans: d
29. In series resonant circuit, increasing inductance to its twice value

and reducing capacitance to its half value
(a) will change the maximum value of current at resonance
(6) will change the resonance frequency
(c) will change the impedance at resonance frequency
(d) will increase the selectivity of the circuit
Ans: d
30. Pure inductive circuit

(a) consumes some power on average
(b) does not take power at all from a line
(c) takes power from the line during some part of the cycle and then
returns back to it during other part of the cycle
Ans: c
31. Inductance affects the direct current flow

(a) only at the time of turning off
(b) only at the time of turning on
(c) at the time of turning on and off
(d) at all the time of operation
Ans: c
32. Inductance of a coil Varies

(a) directly as the cross-sectional area of magnetic core
(b) directly as square of number of turns
(c) directly as the permeability of the core
(d) inversely as the length of the iron path
(e) as (a) to (d)

Ans: e
33. All the rules and laws of D.C. circuit also apply to A.C. circuit
containing
(a) capacitance only
(b) inductance only
(c) resistance only
(d) all above
Ans: c
34. Time constant of an inductive circuit

(a) increases with increase of inductance and decrease of resistance
(b) increases with the increase of inductance and the increase of
resistance
(c) increases with decrease of inductance and decrease of resistance
(d) increases with decrease of inductance and increase of resistance
Ans: a
35. Power factor of an inductive circuit is usually improved by

connecting capacitor to it in
(a) parallel
(b) series
(c) either (a) or (b)
Ans: a
36. In a highly capacitive circuit the

(a) apparent power is equal to the actual power
(b) reactive power is more than the apparent power
(c) reactive power is more than the actual power
(d) actual power is more than its reactive power
Ans: c
37. Power factor of the following circuit will be zero

(a) resistance
(b) inductance
(c) capacitance

Ans: d
38. Power factor of the following circuit will be unity

(a) inductance
(b) capacitance
(c) resistance
(d) both (a) and (b)
Ans: c
39. Power factor of the system is kept high

(a) to reduce line losses
(b) to maximise the utilization of the capacities of generators, lines
and transformers
(c) to reduce voltage regulation of the line
(d) due to all above reasons
Ans: d
40. The time constant of the capacitance circuit is defined as the time
during which voltage
(a) falls to 36.8% of its final steady value
(b) rises to 38.6% of its final steady value
(c) rises to 63.2% of its final steady value
Ans: c
41. In a loss-free R-L-C circuit the transient current is

(a) oscillating
(b) square wave
(c) sinusoidal
(d) non-oscillating
Ans: c
42. The r.m.s. value of alternating current is given by steady (D.C.)

current which when flowing through a given circuit for a given time
produces
(a) the more heat than produced by A.C. when flowing through the
same circuit
(b) the same heat as produced by A.C. when flowing through the same
circuit
(c) the less heat than produced by A.C. flowing through the same
circuit
Ans: b
43. The square waveform of current has following relation between

r.m.s. value and average value.
(a) r.m.s. value is equal to average value
(b) r.m.s. value of current is greater than average value
(c) r.m.s. value of current is less than average value
Ans: a
44. The double energy transient occur in the

(a) purely inductive circuit
(b) R-L circuit
(c) R-C circuit
(d) R-L-C circuit
Ans: d
45. The transient currents are associated with the

(a) changes in the stored energy in the inductors and capacitors
(b) impedance of the circuit
(c) applied voltage to the circuit
(d) resistance of the circuit
Ans: a
46. The power factor at resonance in R-L- C parallel circuit is

(a) zero
(b) 0.08 lagging
(c) 0.8 leading
(d) unity
Ans: d
47. In the case of an unsymmetrical alternating current the average

value must always be taken over
(a) unsymmetrical part of the wave form
(b) the quarter cycle
(c) the half cycle

(d) the whole cycle
Ans: d
48. In a pure resistive circuit

(a) current lags behind the voltage by 90°
(b) current leads the voltage by 90°
(c) current can lead or lag the voltage by 90°
(d) current is in phase with the voltage
Ans: d
49. In a pure inductive circuit

(a) the current is in phase with the voltage
(b) the current lags behind the voltage by 90°
(c) the current leads the voltage by 90°
(d) the current can lead or lag by 90°
Ans: b
50. In a circuit containing R, L and C, power loss can take place in

(a) C only
(b) L only
(c) R only
(d) all above
Ans: c
51. Inductance of coil

(a) is unaffected by the supply frequency
(b) decreases with the increase in supply frequency
(c) increases with the increase in supply frequency
(d) becomes zero with the increase in supply frequency
Ans: c
52. In any A.C. circuit always

(a) apparent power is more than actual power
(b) reactive power is more than apparent power
(c) actual power is more than reactive power
(d) reactive power is more than actual power
Ans: a
53. Which of the following circuit component opposes the change in

the circuit voltage ?
(a) Inductance
(b) Capacitance
(c) Conductance
(d) Resistance
Ans:
54. In a purely inductive circuit

(a) actual power is zero
(b) reactive power is zero
(c) apparent power is zero
(d) none of above is zero
Ans: a
55. Power factor of electric bulb is

(a) zero
(b) lagging
(c) leading
(d) unity
Ans: d
56. Pure inductive circuit takes power from the A.C. line when
(a) applied voltage decreases but current increases
(b) applied voltage increases but current decreases
(c) both applied voltage and current increase
(d) both applied voltage and current decrease
Ans: a
57. Time constant of a circuit is the time in seconds taken after the
application of voltage to each
(a) 25% of maximum value
(b) 50% of maximum value
(c) 63% of maximum value
(d) 90% of the maximum value
Ans: c
58. Time constant of an inductive circuit

(a) increases with increase of inductance and decrease of resistance
(b) increases with the increase of inductance and the increase of

resistance
(c) increases with the decrease of inductance and decrease of
resistance
(d) increases with decrease of inductance and increase of resistance
Ans: a
59. Time constant of a capacitive circuit

(a) increases with the decrease of capacitance and decrease of
resistance
(b) increases with the decrease of capacitance and increase of
resistance
(c) increases with the increase of capacitance and decrease of
resistance
(d) increase with increase of capacitance and increase of resistance
Ans: d
60. Magnitude of current at resonance in R-L-C circuit

(a) depends upon the magnitude of R
(b) depends upon the magnitude of L
(c) depends upon the magnitude of C
(d) depends upon the magnitude of R, Land C
Ans: a
Circuit Theory Objective Questions Pdf ::

61. In a R-L-C circuit
(a) power is consumed in resistance and is equal to I R
(b) exchange of power takes place between inductor and supply line
(c) exchange of power takes place between capacitor and supply line
(d) exchange of power does not take place between resistance and the
supply line
(e) all above are correct
Ans: e
62. In R-L-C series resonant circuit magnitude of resonance frequency

can be changed by changing the value of
(a) R only
(b) L only
(c)C only
(d)LorC
(e) R,LorC
Ans: d
63. In a series L-C circuit at the resonant frequency the

(a) current is maximum
(b) current is minimum
(c) impedance is maximum
(d) voltage across C is minimum
Ans: a
64. The time constant of a series R-C circuit is given by

(a) R/C
(b) RC2
(c) RC
(d) R2C
Ans: c
65. If resistance is 20 Q. and inductance is 27 in a R-L series circuit,

then time constant of this circuit will be
(a) 0.001 s
(b) 0.1 s
(c) 10 s
(d) 100 s
Ans: b
66. Which of the following coil will have large resonant frequency ?
(a) A coil with large resistance
(b) A coil with low resistance
(c) A coil with large distributed capacitance
(d) A coil with low distributed capacitance
Ans: c
67. If a sinusoidal wave has frequency of 50 Hz with 30 A r.m.s.

current which of the following equation represents this wave ?
(a) 42.42 sin 3141
(b) 60 sin 25 t
(c) 30 sin 50 t
(d) 84.84 sin 25 t

Ans: a
68. The safest value of current the human body can carry for more
than 3 second is
(a) 4 mA
(b) 9 mA
(c) 15 mA
(d) 25 mA
Ans: b
69. A pure inductance connected across 250 V, 50 Hz supply

consumes 100 W.
This consumption can be attributed to
(a) the big size of the inductor
(b) the reactance of the inductor
(c) the current flowing in the inductor
(d) the statement given is false
Ans: d
70. The input of an A.C. circuit having power factor of 0.8 lagging is
40 kVA
The power drawn by the circuit is
(a) 12 kW
(b) 22 kW
(c) 32 kW
(d) 64 kW
Ans: c
71. The effective resistance of an iron-cored choke working on

ordinary supply frequency is more than its true resistance because of
(a) iron loss in core
(b) skin effect
(c) increase in temperature
(d) capacitive effect between adjacent coil turns
Ans: a
72. In an AC. circuit, a low value of kVAR compared with kW indicates

(a) low efficiency
(b) high power factor

(c) unity power factor
(d) maximum load current
Ans: b
73. In AC. circuits, laminated iron is invariably used in order to

(a) reduce eddy current loss
(b) increase heat radiation
(c) make assembly cheap and easier
(d) reduce circuit permeability
Ans: a
74. The ratio of active power to apparent power is known as factor.

(a) demand
(b) load
(c) power
(d) form
Ans: c
75. All definitions of power factor of a series R-L-C circuit are correct
except
(a) ratio of net reactance and impedance
(b) ratio of kW and kVA
(c) ratio of J and Z
(d) ratio of W and VA
Ans: a
76. The apparent power drawn by an A.C. circuit is 10 kVA and active
power is 8 kW. The reactive power in the circuit is
(a) 4 kVAR
(b) 6 kVAR
(c) 8 kVAR
(d) 16 kVAR
Ans: b
77. What will be the phase angle between two alternating waves of
equal frequency, when one wave attains maximum value the other is
at zero value ?
(a) 0°
(b) 45°
(c) 90°
(d) 180°
Ans: c
78. The purpose of a parallel circuit resonance is to magnify

(a) current
(b) voltage
(c) power
(d) frequency
Ans: b
79. In an A.C. circuit power is dissipated in

(a) resistance only
(b) inductance only
(c) capacitance only
Ans: a
80. In a parallel R-C circuit, the current always______the applied

voltage
(a) lags
(b) leads
(c) remains in phase with
Ans: b
81. At very low frequencies a series R-C circuit behaves as almost

purely
(a) resistive
(b) inductive
(c) capacitive
Ans: c
82. Skin effect occurs when a conductor carries current at_____

frequencies.
(a) very low
(b) low
(c) medium
(d) high
Ans: d
83. At ______ frequencies the parallel R-L circuit behaves as purely

resistive.
(a) low
(b) very low
(c) high
(d) very high
Ans: d
84. In a sine wave the slope is constant

(a) between 0° and 90°
(b) between 90° and 180°
(c) between 180° and 270°
(d) no where
Ans: d
85. The power is measured in terms of decibles in case of

(a) electronic equipment
(b) transformers
(c) current transformers
(d) auto transformers
Ans: a
86. Capacitive susceptance is a measure of

(a) reactive power in a circuit
(b) the extent of neutralisation of reactive power in a circuit
(c) a purely capacitive circuit’s ability to pass current
(d) a purely capacitive circuit’s ability to resist the flow of current
Ans: c
87. Which of the following statements pertains to resistors only ?

(a) can dissipate considerable amount of power
(6) can act as energy storage devices
(c) connecting them in parallel in¬creases the total value
(d) oppose sudden changes in voltage
Ans: a
88. Which of the following refers to a parallel circuit ?

(a) The current through each element is same
(b) The voltage across element is in proportion to it’s resistance value
(c) The equivalent resistance is greater than any one of the resistors
(d) The current through any one element is less than the source
current
Ans: d
89. Aphasoris
(a) a line which represents the magnitude and phase of an alternating
quantity
(b) a line representing the magnitude and direction of an alternating
quantity
(c) a coloured tag or band for distinction between different phases of a
3-phase supply
(d) an instrument used for measuring phases of an unbalanced 3-
phase load
Ans: a
89. A parallel AC. circuit in resonance will

(a) have a high voltage developed across each inductive and capacitive
section
(b) have a high impedance
(c) act like a resistor of low value
(d) have current in each section equal to the line current
Ans: b
90. Wire-wound resistors are unsuitable for use at high frequencies

because they
(a) create more electrical noise
(b) are likely to melt under excessive eddy current heat
(c) consume more power
(d) exhibit unwanted inductive and capacitive effects
Ans: d
91. The inductance of a coil can be increased by

(a) increasing core length
(b) decreasing the number of turns
(c) decreasing the diameter of the former
(d) choosing core material having high relative permeability

Ans: d
92. In a three-phase supply floating neutral is undesirable because it

way give rise to
(a) high voltage across the load
(b) low voltage across the load
(c) unequal line voltages across the load
Ans: c
93. Which of the following waves has the highest value of peak factor ?
(a) Square wave
(b) Sine wave
(c) Half wave rectified sine wave
(d) Triangular wave
Ans: c
94. The frequency of domestic power supply in India is

(a) 200 Hz
(b) 100 Hz
(c) 60 Hz
(d) 50 Hz
Ans: d
95. The r.m.s. value of half wave rectified sine wave is 200 V. The
r.m.s. value of full wave rectified AC. will be
(a) 282.8 V
(b) 141.4 V
(c) 111 V
(d) 100 V
Ans: a
96. The r.m.s. value of pure cosine function is

(a) 0.5 of peak value
(b) 0.707 of peak value
(c) same as peak value
(d) zero
Ans: b
97. Ohm is unit of all of the following except

(a) inductive reactance
(b) capacitive reactance
(c) resistance
(d) capacitance
Ans: d
98. The series and parallel resonance on L-C circuit’ differs in that
(a) series resistance needs a low-resistance source for sharp rise in
current
(b) series resonance needs a high-resistance source for sharp increase
in current
(c) parallel resonance needs a low-resistance source for a sharp
in¬crease in impedance
(d) parallel resonance needs a low-resistance source for a sharp rise in
line current
Ans: a
99. The phosphors for which of the following pair are 180° out of
phase for VL, VC and VR?
(a) Vc and VR
(b) VL and VR
(c) Vc and VL
Ans: c
100. The frequency of an alternating current is

(a) the speed with which the alternator runs
(b) the number of cycles generated in one minute
(c) the number of waves passing through a point in one second
(d) the number of electrons passing through a point in one second
Ans: c
101. A pure capacitor connected across an A.C. voltage consumed 50

W. This is due to
(a) the capacitive reactance in ohms
(b) the current flowing in capacitor
(c) the size of the capacitor being quite big
(d) the statement is incorrect

Ans: d
102. The power factor of a D.C. circuit is always

(a) less than unity
(b) unity
(c) greater than unity
(d) zero
Ans: b
103. The product of apparent power and cosine of the phase angle
between circuit voltage and current is
(a) true power
(b) reactive power
(c) volt-amperes
(d) instantaneous power
Ans: a
104. The equation of 50 Hz current sine wave having r.m.s. value of 60

A is
(a) 60 sin 25 t
(b) 60 sin 50 t
(c) 84.84 sin 3141
(d) 42.42 sin 314 t
Ans: c
105. An A.C. voltage is impressed across a pure resistance of 3.5 ohms

in parallel with a pure inductance of impedance of 3.5 ohms,
(a) the current through the resistance is more
(b) the current through the resistance is less
(c) both resistance and inductance carry equal currents
Ans: c
106. In a pure inductive circuit if the supply frequency is reduced to

1/2, the current will
(a) be reduced by half
(b) be doubled
(c) be four times as high
(d) be reduced to one fourth

Ans: b
118. In a pure capacitive circuit if the supply frequency is reduced to

1/2, the current will
(a) be reduced by half
(b) be doubled
(c) be four times at high
(d) be reduced to one fourth
Ans: a
119. When an alternating current passes through an ohmic resistance

the electrical power converted into heat is
(a) apparent power
(b) true power
(c) reactive power
Ans: b
120. In each of the three coils of a three phase generator, an

alternating voltage having an r.m.s. value of 220 V is induced. Which
of the following values is indicated by the voltmeters ?
(a) 220 V
(b) 220V3V
(c) 220/V3 V
Ans: a

10 THOUGHTS ON “300+ TOP A.C. FUNDAMENTALS, CIRCUITS &

CIRCUIT THEORY MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS”
SUNIL C BIRADAR
6/6/2019 300+ TOP D.C. GENERATORS Multiple choice Questions and Answers


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TOP D.C. GENERATORS Multiple choice Questions and
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D.C. GENERATORS Multiple Choice Questions :-

1. Lamination’s of core are generally made of
(a) case iron
(b) carbon
(c) silicon steel
(d) stainless steel
Ans: c
2. Which of the following could be lamina-proximately the

thickness of lamination’s of a D.C. machine ?
(a) 0.005 mm
(b) 0.05 mm
(c) 0.5 m
(d) 5 m
Ans: c
https://engineeringinterviewquestions.com/dc-generators-electrical-engineering-multiple-choice-questions-and-answer/ 1/32
3. The armature of D.C. generator is laminated to

(a) reduce the bulk
(b) provide the bulk
(c) insulate the core
(d) reduce eddy current loss
Ans:d
4. The resistance of armature winding depends on

(a) length of conductor
(b) cross-sectional area of the conductor
(c) number of conductors
Ans: d
5. The field coils of D.C. generator are usually made of

(a) mica
(b) copper
(c) cast iron
(d) carbon
Ans: b
6. The commutator segments are connected to the armature

conductors by means of
(a) copper lugs
(b) resistance wires
(c) insulation pads
(d) brazing
Ans: a
7. In a commutator
(a) copper is harder than mica
(b) mica and copper are equally hard
(c) mica is harder than copper
Ans: c
8. In D.C. generators the pole shoes are fastened to the pole

core by
(a) rivets
(b) counter sunk screws

(c) brazing
(d) welding
Ans: b
9. According to Fleming’s right-hand rule for finding the

direction of induced e.m.f., when middle finger points in
the direction of induced e.m.f., forefinger will point in the
direction of
(a) motion of conductor
(b) lines of force
(c) either of the above
Ans: b
10. Fleming’s right-hand rule regarding direction of

induced e.m.f., correlates
(a) magnetic flux, direction of current flow and resultant force
(b) magnetic flux, direction of motion and the direction of e.m.f.
induced
(c) magnetic field strength, induced voltage and current
(d) magnetic flux, direction of force and direction of motion of
conductor
Ans: b
11. While applying Fleming’s right-hand rule to And the direction of

induced e.m.f., the thumb points towards
(a) direction of induced e.m.f.
(b) direction of flux
(c) direction of motion of the conductor if forefinger points in the
direction of generated e.m.f.
(d) direction of motion of conductor, if forefinger points along the
lines of flux
Ans: d
12. The bearings used to support the rotor shafts are generally
(a) ball bearings
(b) bush bearings
(c) magnetic bearmgs
(d) needle bearings

Ans: a
13. In D.C. generators, the cause of rapid brush wear may be

(a) severe sparking
(b) rough commutator surface
(c) imperfect contact
Ans: d
14. In lap winding, the number of brushes is always

(a) double the number of poles
(b) same as the number of poles
(c) half the number of poles
(d) two
Ans: b
15. For a D.C. generator when the number of poles and the number of
armature conductors is fixed, then which winding will give the higher
e.m.f. ?
(a) Lap winding
(b) Wave winding
(c) Either of (a) and (b) above
(d) Depends on other features of design
Ans: b
16. In a four-pole D.C. machine

(a) all the four poles are north poles
(b) alternate poles are north and south
(c) all the four poles are south poles
(d) two north poles follow two south poles
Ans: b
17. Copper brushes in D.C. machine are used

(a) where low voltage and high currents are involved
(b) where high voltage and small cur-rents are involved
(c) in both of the above cases
(d) in none of the above cases
Ans: a
18. A separately excited generator as compared to a self-excited

generator
(a) is amenable to better voltage control
(b) is more stable
(c) has exciting current independent of load current
(d) has all above features
Ans: d
19. In case of D.C. machines, mechanical losses are primary function

of
(a) current
(b) voltage
(c) speed
(d) none of above
Ans: c
20. Iron losses in a D.C. machine are independent of variations in

(a) speed
(b) load
(c) voltage
(d) speed and voltage
Ans: b
21. In D.C. generators, current to the external circuit from armature is

given through
(a) commutator
(b) solid connection
(c) slip rings
(d) none of above
Ans: a
23. Brushes of D.C. machines are made of

(a) carbon
(b) soft copper
(c) hard copper
(d) all of above
Ans: a
24. If B is the flux density, I the length of conductor and v the velocity
of conductor, then induced e.m.f. is given by
(a)Blv
(b)Blv2
(c)Bl2v
(d)Bl2v2
Ans: a
25. In case of a 4-pole D.C. generator provided with a two layer lap
winding with sixteen coils, the pole pitch will be
(a) 4
(b) 8
(c) 16
(d) 32
Ans: b
26. The material for commutator brushes is generally

(a) mica
(b) copper
(c) cast iron
(d) carbon
Ans: d
27. The insulating material used between the commutator segments is

normally
(a) graphite
(b) paper
(c) mica
(d) insulating varnish
Ans: c
28. In D.C. generators, the brushes on commutator remain in contact

with conductors which
(a) lie under south pole
(b) lie under north pole
(c) lie under interpolar region
(d) are farthest from the poles
Ans: c
29. If brushes of a D.C. generator are moved in order to bring these

brushes in magnetic neutral axis, there will be
(a) demagnetisation only
(b) cross magnetisation as well as mag¬netisation
(c) crossmagnetisation as well as demagnetising
(d) cross magnetisation only
Ans: c
30. Armature reaction of an unsaturated D.C. machine is

(a) crossmagnetising
(b) demagnetising
(c) magnetising
(d) none of above
Ans: a
31. D.C. generators are connected to the busbars or disconnected from

them only under the floating condition
(a) to avoid sudden loading of the primemover
(b) to avoid mechanicaljerk to the shaft
(c) to avoid burning of switch contacts
(d) all above
Ans: d
32. Eddy currents are induced in the pole shoes of a D.C. machine due
to
(a) oscillating magnetic field
(b) pulsating magnetic flux
(c) relative rotation between field and armature
(d) all above
Ans: c
33. In a D.C. machine, short-circuited field coil will result in

(a) odour of barning insulation
(b) unbalanced magnetic pull producing vibrations
(c) reduction of generated voltage for which excitation has to be
increased to maintain the voltage
(d) all above
Ans:
34. Equilizer rings are required in case armature is

(a) wave wound
(b) lap wound
(c) delta wound
(d) duplex wound
Ans: b
35. Welding generator will have

(a) lap winding
(b) wave winding
(c) delta winding
(d) duplex wave winding
Ans: a
36. In case of D.C. machine winding, number of commutator

segments is equal to
(a) number of armature coils
(b) number of armature coil sides
(c) number of armature conductors
(d) number of armature turns
Ans: a
37. For a D.C. machines laboratory following type of D.C. supply will
be suitable
(a) rotary converter
(b) mercury are rectifier
(c) induction motor D.C. generator set
(d) synchronous motor D.C. generator set
Ans: c
38. The function of pole shoes in the case of D.C. machine is

(a) to reduce the reluctance of the mag¬netic path
(b) to spread out the flux to achieve uniform flux density
(c) to support the field coil
(d) to discharge all the above functions
Ans: d
39. In the case of lap winding resultant pitch is

(a) multiplication of front and back pitches
(b) division of front pitch by back pitch

(c) sum of front and back pitches
(d) difference of front and back pitches
Ans: d
40. A D.C. welding generator has

(a) lap winding
(b) wave moving
(c) duplex winding
Ans: a
41. Which of the following statement about D.C. generators is false ?

(a) Compensating winding in a D.C. machine helps in commutation
(b) In a D. C. generator interpoles winding is connected in series with
the armature winding
(c) Back pitch and front pitch are both odd and approximately equal to
the pole pitch
(d) Equilizing bus bars are used with parallel running of D.C. shunt
gen¬erators
Ans: d
42. The demagnetising component of armature reaction in a D.C.

generator
(a) reduces generator e.m.f.
(b) increases armature speed
(c) reduces interpoles flux density
(d) results in sparking trouble
Ans: a
43. Magnetic field in a D.C. generator is produced by

(a) electromagnets
(b) permanent magnets
Ans: a
44. The number of brushes in a commutator depends on

(a) speed of armature
(b) type of winding

(c) voltage
(d) amount of current to be collected
Ans: d
45. Compensating windings are used in D.C. generators

(a) mainly to reduce the eddy currents by providing local short-
circuits
(b) to provide path for the circulation of cooling air
(c) to neutralise the cross-magnetising effect of the armature reaction
Ans: c
46. Which of the following components of a D.C, generator plays vital

role for providing direct current of a D.C. generator ?
(a) Dummy coils
(b) Commutator
(c) Eye bolt
(d) Equilizer rings
Ans: b
47. In a D.C. generator the ripples in the direct e.m.f. generated are
reduced by
(a) using conductor of annealed copper
(b) using commutator with large number of segments
(c) using carbon brushes of superior quality
(d) using equiliser rings
Ans: c
48. In D.C. generators, lap winding is used for

(a) high voltage, high current
(b) low voltage, high current
(c) high voltage, low current
(d) low voltage, low current
Ans: b
49. Two generators A and B have 6-poles each. Generator A has wave
wound armature while generator B has lap wound armature. The ratio
of the induced e.m.f. is generator A and B will be
(a) 2 : 3
(b) 3 : 1
(c) 3 : 2
(d) 1 : 3
Ans: b
50. The voltage drop for which of the following types of brush can be
expected to be least ?
(a) Graphite brushes
(b) Carbon brushes
(c) Metal graphite brushes
Ans: c
51. The e.m.f. generated by a shunt wound D.C. generator isE. Now
while pole flux remains constant, if the speed of the generator is
doubled, the e.m.f. generated will be
(a) E/2
(b) 2E
(c) slightly less than E
(d) E
Ans: b
52. In a D.C. generator the actual flux distribution depends upon

(a) size of air gap
(b) shape of the pole shoe
(c) clearance between tips of the ad¬jacent pole shoes
Ans:
53. The armature core of a D.C. generator is usually made of

(a) silicon steel
(b) copper
(c) non-ferrous material
(d) cast-iron
Ans: a
9.63. Satisfactory commutation of D.C. machines requires

(a) brushes should be of proper grade and size
(b) brushes should smoothly run in the holders

(c) smooth, concentric commutator properly undercut
Ans: d
54. Open circuited armature coil of a D.C. machine is

(a) identified by the scarring of the commutator segment to which
open circuited coil is connected
(b) indicated by a spark completely around the commutator
Ans: c
55. In a D.C. machine, fractional pitch winding is used

(a) to increase the generated voltage
(b) to reduce sparking
(c) to save the copper because of shorter end connections
(d) due to (b) and (c) above
Ans:
56. For the parallel operation of two or more D.C. compound

generators, we should ensure that
(a) voltage of the incoming generator should be same as that of bus
bar
(b) polarity of incoming generator should be same as that of bus bar
(c) all the series fields should be run in parallel by means of equilizer
connection
(d) series fields of all generators should be either on positive side or
negative side of the armature
(e) all conditions mentioned above should be satisfied
Ans: d
57. D.C. series generator is used

(a) to supply traction load
(b) to supply industrial load at constant voltage
(c) voltage at the toad end of the feeder
(d) for none of the above purpose
Ans: c
58. Following D.C. generator will be in a position to build up without

any residual magnetism in the poles
(a) series generator
(b) shunt generator
(c) compound generator
(d) self-excited generator
Ans: d
59. Interpole flux should be sufficient to

(a) neutralise the commutating self induced e.m.f.
(b) neutralise the armature reaction flux
(c) neutralise both the armature reaction flux as well as commutating
e.m.f. induced in the coil
(d) perform none of the above functions
Ans: c
60. D.C. generator generally preferred for charging automobile

batteries is
(a) series generator
(b) shunt generator
(c) long shunt compound generator
(d) any of’the above
Ans: c
D.C. GENERATORS Objective Questions Pdf ::

61. In a D.C. generator the number of mechanical degrees and
electrical degrees will be the same when
(a) r.p.m. is more than 300
(b) r.p.m. is less than 300
(c) number of poles is 4
(d) number of poles is 2
Ans: d
62. Permeance is the reciprocal of

(a) flux density
(b) reluctance
(c) ampere-turns
(d) resistance
Ans: b
63. In D.C. generators the polarity of the interpoles

(a) is the same as that of the main pole ahead
(b) is the same as that of the immediately preceding pole
(c) is opposite to that of the main pole ahead
(d) is neutral as these poles do not play part in generating e.m.f.
Ans: a
64. The e.m.f. generated in a D.C. generator is directly proportional to

(a) flux/pole
(b) speed of armature
(c) number of poles
Ans: b
65. In a D.C. generator the magnetic neutral axis coincides with the
geometrical neutral axis, when
(a) there is no load on|he generator
(b) the generator runs on full load
(c) the generator runs on overload
(d) the generator runs on designed speed
Ans: a
66. In a D.C. generator in order to reduce sparking at brushes, the

self-induced e.m.f. in the coil is neutralised by all of the following
except
(a) interpoles
(b) dummy coils
(c) compensating winding
(d) shifting of axis of brushes
Ans: b
67. In D.C. generators on no-load, the air gap flux distribution in

space is
(a) sinusoidal
(b) triangular
(c) pulsating
(d) flat topped
Ans: d
68. A shunt generator running at 1000 r.p.m. has generated e.m.f. as

200 V. If the speed increases to 1200 r.p.m., the generated e.m.f. will
be nearly
(a) 150 V
(b) 175 V
(c) 240 V
(d) 290 V
Ans: c
69. The purpose of providing dummy coils in a generator is

(a) to reduce eddy current losses
(b) to enhance flux density
(c) to amplify voltage
(d) to provide mechanical balance for the rotor
Ans: d
70. In a shunt generator the voltage build up is generally restricted by

(a) speed limitation
(b) armature heating
(c) insulation restrictions
(d) saturation of iron
Ans:
71. If a D.C. generator fails to build up the probable cause could not be
(a) imperfect brush contact
(b) field resistance less than the critical resistance
(c) no residual magnetism in the generator
(d) faulty shunt connections tending to reduce the residual magnetism
Ans: b
72. Flashing the field of D.C. generator means

(a) neutralising residual magnetism
(b) creating residual magnetism by a D.C. source
(c) making the magnetic losses of forces parallel
(d) increasing flux density by adding extra turns of windings on poles
Ans: b
73. The e.m.f. induced in the armature of a shunt generator is 600 V.

The armature resistance is 0.1 ohm. If the armature current is 200 A,
the terminal voltage will be

(a) 640 V
(b) 620 V
(c) 600 V
(d) 580 V
Ans: d
74. In a D.C. generator the critical resistance refers to the resistance of

(a) brushes
(b) field
(c) armature
(d) load
Ans: b
75. To achieve sparkless commutation brushes of a D.C. generator are

rockedm ahead so as to bring them
(a) just ahead of magnetic neutral axis
(b) in magnetic neutral axis
(c) just behind the magnetic neutral axis
Ans: a
76. Armature coil is short circuited by brushes when it lies

(a) along neutral axis
(b) along field axis
(c) in any of the above positions
(d) in none of the above positions
Ans: a
77. A cumulatively compounded long shunt generator when operating

as a motor would be
(a) cumulatively compounded long shunt
(b) differentially compounded long shunt
(c) cumulatively compounded short shunt
(d) differentially compounded short shunt
Ans: b
78. To avoid formation of grooves in the commutator of a D.C.

machine
(a) the brushes of opposite polarity should track each other
(b) the brushes of same polarity should track each other

(c) brush position has no effect on the commutator grooving
Ans: a
79. The following constitute short-circuit in the armature winding.

(a) Insulation failure between two commutator bars
(6) Insulation failure between two turns of a coil
(c) Two of more turns of the same coil getting grounded
Ans: d
80. The rapid wear of brushes takes place due to

(a) abrasion from dust
(b) excessive spring pressure
(c) rough commutator bars
(d) high mica insulation between com-mutation bars
(e) all of the above factors
Ans: e
81. Number of tappings for each equilizer ring is equal to

(a) number of pole pairs
(b) number of poles
(c) number of parallel paths
(d) number of commutator segments
Ans: a
82. A D.C. generator can be considered as

(a) rectifier
(b) primemover
(c) rotating amplifier
(d) power pump
Ans: c
83. In any rotating machine that part which houses the conductors
and in which e.m.f. induced is to be utilised is called
(a) rotor
(b) stator
(c) field
(d) armature
Ans: d
84. In a D.C. machine stray loss is the sum of

(a) total copper loss and mechanical loss
(b) armature copper loss and iron loss
(c) shunt field copper loss and mechanical loss
(d) iron loss and mechanical loss
Ans: d
85. Lap winding is composed of

(a) any even number of conductors
(b) any odd number of conductors
(c) that even number which is exact multiple of poles + 2
(d) that even number which is exact multiple of poles
Ans: a
86. In a D.C. generator in case the resistance of the field winding is

increased, then output voltage will
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) remain unaffected
(d) fluctuate heavily
Ans: b
87. An exciter for a turbo generator is a

(a) separately excited generator
(b) shunt generator
(c) series generator
(d) compound generator
Ans: b
88. In case of a flat compounded generator

(a) voltage generated is less than the rated voltage
(b) generated voltage is proportional to the load on the generator
(c) voltage remains constant irrespective of the load
(d) speed varies in proportion to the load on the generator
Ans: c
89. Which of the following generator will have negligible terminal

voltage while running on no-load ?
(a) Series generator
(b) Shunt generator
(c) Compound generator
(d) Separately excited generator
Ans: a
90. Which of the following D.C. generators will be in a position to

build up without any residual magnetism in the poles ?
(b) Shunt generator
(c) Compound generator
Ans: d
91. In over compounded generator, full load terminal voltage is

(a) almost zero
(b) less than no load terminal voltage
(c) more than no load terminal voltage
(d) equal to no-load terminal voltage
Ans: c
92. In a level compounded D.C. generator, full load terminal voltage is

(a) negligibly low
(b) equal to no-load terminal voltage
(c) more than no-load terminal voltage
(d) less than no-load terminal voltage
Ans: b
93. The terminal voltage of a D.C. shunt generator drops on load

because of all of the following reasons except
(a) armature reaction
(b) armature resistance drop
(c) field weakening due to armature reaction and armature
(d) commutation
Ans: d
94. In a D.C. generator

(a) external resistance = internal char-acteristic – armature reaction
(b) internal characteristic = magnetisation characteristic – ohmic
drop
(c) external characteristic = magnetisation characteristic – ohmic
drop – armature reaction
(d) magnetisation characteristic = external characteristic
Ans: c
95. A sinusoidal voltage of 5 Hz is applied to the field of a shunt

generator. The armature voltage wave
(a) will be zero
(b) will be of 5 Hz
(c) will be of 5 xiVHz
(d) will be of v Hz 5
Ans: b
96. A 220 V D.C. generator is run at full speed without any excitation.
The open circuit voltage will be
(a) zero
(b) about 2 V
(c) about 50 V
(d) 220 V
Ans: b
97. In a separately excited generator supplying rated load the

armature reaction ,
(a) is always present
(b) is always absent
(c) may be sometimes present
Ans: a
98. If residual magnetism is present in a D.C. generator, the induced

e.m.f. at zero speed will be
(a) zero
(b) small
(c) the same as rated voltage
(d) high
Ans: a
99. Armature reaction in a generator results in

(a) demagnetization of leading pole tip and magnetization of trailing
pole tip
(b) demagnetization of trailing pole tip and magnetization of leading
pole tip
(c) demagnetizing the center of all poles
(d) magnetizing the center of all poles
Ans: a
100. Following energized winding of a D.C. machine should not be

opened as it would produce high inductive voltage which may be
dangerous to personnel and may cause its own insulation failure.
(a) Series field
(b) Compensating field
(c) Inter pole field
(d) Shunt field
Ans:
101. Wave winding is composed of

(a) any even number of conductors
(b) any odd number of conductors
(c) that even number which is exact multiple of poles + 2
(d) that even number which is exact multiple of poles
Ans: c
102. The critical resistance of the D.C. generator is the resistance of

(a) field
(b) brushes
(c) armature
(d) load
Ans: a
103. When two D.C. series generators are running in parallel, an

equalizer bar is used
(a) to increase the speed and hence generated e.m.f.
(b) to increase the series flux
(c) so that two similar machines will pass approximately equal

currents to the load
(d) to reduce the combined effect of ar-mature reaction of both
machines
Ans: c
104. Which of the following generating machine will offer constant

voltage on all loads ?
(a) Self-excited generator
(b) Separately excited generator
(c) Level compounded generator .
Ans: c
105. Which of the following generators will be preferred if they are

required to be run in parallel ?
(a) Shunt generators
(b) Series generators
(c) Compound generators
Ans: a
106. Two generators are running in parallel. One of the generators

may run as motor for which of the following reasons ?
(a) The direction of that generator is reversed
(b) The speed of that generator is increased
(c) The field of that generator is weakened
(d) That generator takes large share of loads
Ans: d
107. A D.C. generator works on the principle of

(a) Lenz’s law
(b) Ohm’s law
(c) Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction
Ans: c
108. A series generator can self-excite

(a) only if the load current is zero
(b) only if the load current is not zero

(c) irrespective of the value of load current
Ans: b
109. A shunt generator can self-excite

(a) only if the resistance of the field circuit is less than critical value
(b) only if the resistance of the field circuit is greater than critical
value
(c) irrespective of the value of the resistance in the field circuit
Ans: a
110. The terminal voltage of a series generator is 150 V

when the load current is 5 A. If the load current is increased
to 10 A, the terminal voltage will be
(a) 150 V
(b) less than 150 V
(c) greater than 150 V
Ans: c
111. The open circuit voltage of a compound generator is

250 V. At full load the terminal voltage
(a) will be less than 250 V
(b) will always be 250 V
(c) may be greater or less than 250 V
Ans: c
112. Two D.C. shunt generators, each with armature

resistance of 0.02 ohm and field resistance of 50 ohm run
in parallel and supply a total current of 1000 amperes to
the load circuit. If their e.m.fs. are 270 V and 265 V, their
bus bar voltage will be
(a) 270 V
(b) 267.5 V
(c) 265 V
(d) 257.4 V
Ans: b
113. The essential condition for parallel operation of two

D.C. generators is that they have ‘
(a) same kW rating
(b) the same operation r.p.m.
(c) the same drooping voltage characteristics
(d) same percentage regulation
Ans: c
114. When two D.C. generators are running in parallel an

equalizer bar is used
(a) to increase the series flux
(b) to increase the generated e.m.f.
(c) to reduce the combined effect of AR-mature reaction of both the
machines
(d) so that the two identical machines will pass approximately equal
cur¬rents to the load
Ans: d
115. With a D.C. generator which of the following regulation

is preferred ?
(a) 100% regulation
(b) infinite regulation
(c) 50% regulation
(d) 1% regulation
Ans: d
116. Which generator would you prefer for feeding long

D.C. transmission lines ?
(b) Shunt generator
(c) Over compound generator
(d) Flat compound generator
Ans: c
117. In a D.C. generator the critical resistance can be

increased by
(a) increasing its field resistance
(b) decreasing its field resistance
(c) increasing its speed
(d) decreasing its speed

Ans: c
118. The number of armature parallel paths in a two-pole

D.C. generator having duplex lap winding is
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 8
Ans: b
119. For both lap and wave winding’s, there are as many
commutator bars as the number of
(a) slots
(b) armature conductors
(c) winding elements
(d) poles
Ans: c
126. The series field of a short-shunt D.C. generator is

excited by
(a) external current
(b) armature current
(c) shunt current
(d) load current
Ans: d
127. As a result of armature reaction, the reduction in the

total mutual air gap flux in a D.C. generator is
approximately
(a) 40 percent
(b) 25 percent
(c) 10 percent
(d) 5 percent
Ans: d
128. Shunt generators are most suited for stable parallel

operation because of their
(a) rising voltage characteristics
(b) identical voltage characteristics

(c) drooping voltage characteristics
(d) linear voltage characteristics
Ans: c
129. The main factor which leads to unstable parallel

operation of flat and over compounded generators is
(a) their rising voltage characteristics
(b) unequal number of turns in their series field winding’s
(c) unequal speed regulation of their prime movers
(d) unequal series field resistances
Ans: a
130. If a self excited D.C. generator after being installed,

fails to build up on its first trial run, the first thing to do is
to
(a) reverse the field connections
(b) increase the field resistance
(c) increase the speed of prime mover
(d) check armature insulation resistance
Ans: a
D.C. GENERATORS Questions and Answers Free Download ::


25 THOUGHTS ON “300+ TOP D.C. GENERATORS MULTIPLE

CHOICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS”
Mahesh
JUNE 17, 2017 AT 4:51 AM
Answer for Question no 100 please.
REPLY
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D.C. MOTORS Multiple Choice Questions :-
1. No-load speed of which of the following motor will be
highest ?
(a) Shunt motor
(b) Series motor
(c) Cumulative compound motor
(d) Differentiate compound motor
Ans: b
2. The direction of rotation of a D.C. series motor can be

changed by
(a) interchanging supply terminals
(b) interchanging field terminals
(c) either of (a) and (b) above
Ans: b
3. Which of the following application requires high starting

torque ?
https://engineeringinterviewquestions.com/dc-motors-electrical-engineering-multiple-choice-questions-and-answers/ 1/36
(a) Lathe machine

(b) Centrifugal pump
(c) Locomotive
(d) Air blower
Ans: c
4. If a D.C. motor is to be selected for conveyors, which

rriotor would be preferred ?
(a) Series motor
(b) Shunt motor
(c) Differentially compound motor
(d) Cumulative compound motor
Ans: a
5. Which D.C. motor will be preferred for machine tools ?

(a) Series motor
(b) Shunt motor
(c) Cumulative compound motor
(d) Differential compound motor
Ans: b
6. Differentially compound D.C. motors can find

applications requiring
(a) high starting torque
(b) low starting torque
(c) variable speed
(d) frequent on-off cycles
Ans: b
7. Which D.C. motor is preferred for elevators ?

(a) Shunt motor
(b) Series motor
(c) Differential compound motor
Ans: d
8. According to Fleming’s left-hand rule, when the

forefinger points in the direction of the field or flux, the
middle finger will point in the direction of
(a) current in the conductor aovtaat of conductor

(c) resultant force on conductor
Ans: a
9. If the field of a D.C. shunt motor gets opened while motor

is running
(a) the speed of motor will be reduced %
(b) the armature current will reduce
(c) the motor will attain dangerously high speed 1
(d) the motor will continue to nuvat constant speed
Ans: c
10. Starters are used with D.C. motors because

(a) these motors have high starting torque
(b) these motors are not self-starting
(c) back e.m.f. of these motors is zero initially
(d) to restrict armature current as there is no back e.m.f. while
starting
Ans: d
11. In D.C. shunt motors as load is reduced

(a) the speed will increase abruptly
(b) the speed will increase in proportion to reduction in load
(c) the speed will remain almost/constant
(d) the speed will reduce
Ans: c
12. A D.C. series motor is that which

(a) has its field winding consisting of thick wire and less turns
(b) has a poor torque
(c) can be started easily without load
(d) has almost constant speed
Ans: a
13. For starting a D.C. motor a starter is required because

(a) it limits the speed of the motor
(b) it limits the starting current to a safe value
(c) it starts the motor

Ans: b
14. The type of D.C. motor used for shears and punches is
(a) shunt motor
(b) series motor
(c) differential compoutid D.C. motor
(d) cumulative compound D.C. motor
Ans: d
15. If a D.C. motor is connected across the A.C. supply it will

(a) run at normal speed
(b) not run
(c) run at lower speed
(d) burn due to heat produced in the field winding by .eddy currents
Ans: d
16. To get the speed of D.C, motor below the normal without
wastage of electrical energy is used.
(a) Ward Leonard control
(b) rheostatic control
(c) any of the above method
(d) none of the above method
Ans: a
17. When two D.C. series motors are connected in parallel,

the resultant speed is
(a) more than the normal speed
(b) loss than the normal speed
(c) normal speed
(d) zero
Ans: c
18. The speed of a D.C. shunt motor more than its full-load
speed can be obtained by
(a) decreasing the field current
(b) increasing the field current
(c) decreasing the armature current
(d) increasing the armature current

Ans: a
19. In a D.C. shunt motor, speed is

(a) independent of armature current
(b) directly proportional to the armature current
(c) proportional to the square of the current
(d) inversely proportional to the armature current
Ans: a
20. A direct on line starter is used: for starting motors

(a) up to 5 H.P.
(b) up to 10 H.P.
(c) up to 15 H.P.
(d) up to 20 H.P.
Ans: a
21. What will happen if the back e.m.f. of a D.C. motor

vanishes suddenly?
(a) The motor will stop
(b) The motor will continue to run
(c) The armature may burn
(d) The motor will run noisy
Ans: c
22. In case of D.C. shunt motors the speed is dependent on

back e.m.f. only because
(a) back e.m.f. is equal to armature drop
(b) armature drop is negligible
(c) flux is proportional to armature current
(d) flux is practically constant in D:C. shunt motors
Ans: d
23. In a D.C. shunt motor, under the conditions of

maximum power, the current in the armature will be
(a) almost negligible
(b) rated full-load current
(c) less than full-load current
(d) more than full-load current

Ans: d
24. These days D.C. motors are widely used in

(a) pumping sets
(b) air compressors
(c) electric traction
(d) machine shops
Ans: c
25. By looking at which part of the motor, it can be easily

confirmed that a particular motor is D.C. motor?
(a) Frame
(b) Shaft
(c) Commutator
(d) Stator
Ans: c
26. In which of the following applications D.C. series motor

is invariably tried?
(a) Starter for a car
(b) Drive for a water pump
(c) Fan motor
(d) Motor operation in A.C. or D.C.
Ans: a
27. In D.C. machines fractional pitch winding is used

(a) to improve cooling
(b) to reduce copper losses
(c) to increase the generated e.m.f.
(d) to reduce the sparking
Ans: d
28. A three point starter is considered suitable for

(a) shunt motors
(b) shunt as well as compound motors
(c) shunt, compound and series motors
(d) all D.C. motors
Ans: b
29. In case-the conditions for maximum power for a D.C.

motor are established, the efficiency of the motor will be
(a) 100%
(b) around 90%
(c) anywhere between 75% and 90%
(d) less than 50%
Ans: d
30. The ratio of starting torque to full-load torque is least in

case of
(a) series motors
(b) shunt motors
(c) compound motors
Ans: b
32. In D.C. motor which of the following can sustain the

maximum temperature rise?
(a) Slip rings
(b) Commutator
(c) Field winding
(d) Armature winding
Ans: c
33. Which of the following law/rule can he used to

determine the direction of rotation of D.C. motor ?
(a) Lenz’s law
(b) Faraday’s law
(c) Coloumb’s law
(d) Fleming’s left-hand rule
Ans: d
34. Which of the following load normally needs starting

torque more than the rated torque?
(a) Blowers
(b) Conveyors
(c) Air compressors
(d) Centrifugal pumps
Ans: b
35. The starting resistance of a D.C. motor is generally

(a) low
(b) around 500 Q
(c) 1000 Q
(d) infinitely large
Ans: a
36. The speed of a D.C. series motor is

(a) proportional to the armature current
(b) proportional to the square of the armature current
(c) proportional to field current
(d) inversely proportional to the armature current
Ans: d
37. In a D.C. series motor, if the armature current is

reduced by 50%, the torque of the motor will be equal
to
(a) 100% of the previous value
(b) 50% of the previous value
(c) 25% of the previous value
(d) 10% of the previous value
Ans: c
38. The current drawn by the armature of D.C. motor is

directly proportional to
(a) the torque required
(b) the speed of the motor
(c) the voltage across the terminals
Ans: a
39. The power mentioned on the name plate of an electric

motor indicates
(a) the power drawn in kW
(b) the power drawn in kVA
(c) the gross power
(d) the output power available at the shaft
Ans: d
40. Which D.C. motor has got maximum self loading

property?
(a) Series motor
(b) Shunt motor
(c) Cumulatively compounded ‘motor
(d) Differentially compounded motor
Ans: d
41. Which D.C. motor will be suitable along with flywheel

for intermittent light and heavy loads?
(a) Series motor
(b) Shunt motor
(c) Cumulatively compounded motor
Ans: c
42. If a D.C. shunt motor is working at no load and if shunt

field circuit suddenly opens
(a) nothing will happen to the motor
(b) this will make armature to take heavy current, possibly burning it
(c) this will result in excessive speed, possibly destroying armature
due to excessive centrifugal stresses (d) motor will run at very slow
speed
Ans: c
43. D.C. series motors are used

(a) where load is constant
(b) where load changes frequently
(c) where constant operating speed is needed
(d) in none of the above situations.
Ans: d
44. For the same H.P. rating and full load speed, following
motor has poor starting torque
(a) shunt
(b) series
(c) differentially compounded
(d) cumulativelyc’ompounded
Ans: c
45. In case of conductively compensated D.C. series motors,

the compensating winding is provided
(a) as separately wound unit
(6) in parallel with armature winding
(c) in series with armature winding
(d) in parallel with field winding
Ans: c
46. Sparking at the commutator of a D.C. motor may result

in
(a) damage to commutator segments
(b) damage to commutator insulation
(c) increased power consumption
Ans: d
47. Which of the following motor is preferred for operation

in highly explosive atmosphere ?
(a) Series motor
(b) Shunt motor
(c) Air motor
(d) Battery operated motor
Ans: c
48. If the supply voltage for a D.C. motor is increased,

which of the following will decrease ?
(a) Starting torque
(b) Operating speed
(c) Full-load current
Ans: c
49. Which one of the following is not the function of pole

shoes in a D.C. machine ?
(a) To reduce eddy current loss
(b) To support the field coils
(c) To spread out flux for better uniformity
(d) To reduce the reluctance of the magnetic path
Ans: a
50. The mechanical power developed by a shunt motor will

be maximum when the ratio of back e.m.f. to applied
voltage is
(a) 4.0
(b) 2.0
(c) 1.0
(d) 0.5
Ans: d
51. The condition for maximum power in case of D.C. motor

is
(a) back e.m.f. = 2 x supply voltage
(b) back e.m.f. = | x supply voltage
(c) supply voltage = | x back e.m.f.
(d) supply voltage = back e.m.f.
Ans: b
52. For which of the following applications a D.C. motor is

preferred over an A.C. motor ?
(a) Low speed operation
(b) High speed operation
(c) Variable speed operation
(d) Fixed speed operation
Ans: c
53. In D.C. machines the residual magnetism is of the order

of
(a) 2 to 3 per cent
(6) 10 to 15 per cent
(c) 20 to 25 per cent
(d) 50 to 75 per cent
Ans: a
54. Which D.C. motor is generally preferred for cranes and

hoists ?
(a) Series motor
(b) Shunt motor

Ans: a
55. Three point starter can be used for

(a) series motor only
(b) shunt motor only
(c) compound motor only
(d) both shunt and compound motor
Ans: d
56. Sparking, is discouraged in a D.C. motor because

(a) it increases the input power con-sumption
(b) commutator gets damaged
Ans: b
57. Speed control by Ward Leonard method gives uniform

speed variation
(a) in one direction
(b) in both directions
(c) below normal speed only
(d) above normal speed only.
Ans: b
58. Flywheel is used with D.C. compound motor to reduce

the peak demand by the motor, compound motor will have
to be
(a) level compounded
(b) under compounded
(c) cumulatively compounded
(d) differentially compounded
Ans: c
59. Following motor is used where high starting torque and

wide speed range control is required.
(a) Single phase capacitor start
(b) Induction motor
(c) Synchronous motor
(d) D.C. motor

(e) None of the above
Ans: d
60. In a differentially compounded D.C. motor, if shunt

field suddenly opens
(a) the motor will first stop and then run in opposite direction as
series motor
(b) the motor will work as series motor and run at slow speed in the
same direction
(c) the motor will work as series motor and run at high speed in the
same direction
(d) the motor will not work and come to stop
Ans: a
61. Which of the following motor has the poorest speed

regulation ?
(a) Shunt motor
(b) Series motor
(c) Differential compound motor
Ans: b
62. Buses, trains, trolleys, hoists, cranes require high

starting torque and therefore make use of
(a) D.C. series motor
(b) D.C. shunt motor
(c) induction motor
(d) all of above motors
Ans: a
63. As -the load is increased the speed of D.C. shunt motor

will
(a) reduce slightly
(b) increase slightly
(c) increase proportionately
(d) remains unchanged
Ans: a
64. The armature torque of the D.C. shunt motor is

proportional to
(a) field flux only
(b) armature current only
Ans: b
65. Which of the following method of speed control of D.C.

machine will offer minimum efficiency ?
(a) Voltage control method
(b) Field control method
(c) Armature control method
(d) All above methods
Ans: c
66. Usually wide and sensitive speed control is desired in

case of
(a) centrifugal pumps
(b) elevators
(c) steel rolling mills
(d) colliery winders
Ans: d
67. The speed of a motor falls from 1100 r.p.m. at no-load to

1050 r.p.m. at rated load. The speed regulation of the motor
is
(a) 2.36%
(6) 4.76%
(c) 6.77%
(d) 8.84%
Ans: b
68. The armature voltage control of D.C. motor provides

(a) constant torque drive
(b) constant voltage drive
(c) constant current drive
Ans: a
69. As there is no back e.m.f. at the instant of starting a D.C.

motor, in order to prevent a heavy current from flowing
though the armature circuit
(a) a resistance is connected in series with armature
(b) a resistance is connected parallel to the armature
(c) armature is temporarily open circuited
(d) a high value resistor is connected across the field winding
Ans: a
70. The speed of a D.C. shunt motor can be increased by

(a) increasing the resistance in armature circuit
(b) increasing the resistance in field circuit
(c) reducing the resistance in the field circuit
(d) reducing the resistance in the armature circuit
Ans: b
71. If I2 be the armature current, then speed of a D.C. shunt

motor is
(a) independent of Ia
(b) proportional to la
(c) varies as (Ia)
(d) varies as la
Ans: a
72. In case the back e.m.f. and the speed of a D.C. motor are
doubled, the torque developed by the motor will
(a) remain unchanged
(6) reduce to one-fourth value
(c) increase four folds
(d) be doubled
Ans: a
73. At the instant of starting when a D.C. motor is put on

supply, it behaves like
(a) a highly resistive circuit
(6) a low resistance circuit
(c) a capacitive circuit
Ans: b
74. The speed of a D.C. motor can be varied by varying

(a) field current
(b) applied voltage
(c) resistance in series with armature
Ans: d
75. Which one of the following is not necessarily the

advantage of D.C. motors over A.C. motors ?
(a) Low cost
(b) Wide speed range
(c) Stability
(d) High starting torque.
Ans: a
76. For a D.C. shunt motor if the excitation is changed

(a) torque will remain constant
(b) torque will change but power will remain constant
(c) torque and power both will change
(d) torque, power and speed, all will change
Ans: b
77. Which motor has the poorest speed control?

(a) Differentially compounded motor
(b) Cumulatively compounded motor
(c) Shunt motor
(d) Series motor
Ans: d
78. The plugging gives the

(a) zero torque braking
(b) smallest torque braking
(c) highest torque braking
Ans: c
79. The armature voltage control of D.C. motor provides

(a) constant voltage drive
(b) constant current drive
(c) constant torque drive

Ans: c
80. If a D.C. motor designed for 40°C ambient temperature

is to be used for 50°C ambient temperature, then the motor
(a) of lower H.P. should be selected
(6) of higher H.P. should be selected
(c) can be used for 50°C ambient temperature also
(d) is to be derated by a factor recommended by manufacturer and
select the next higher H.P. motor
Ans: d
81. If the terminals of armature of D.C. motor are

interchanged, this action will offer following kind of
braking
(o) regenerative
(b) plugging
(c) dynamic braking
(e) any of the above
Ans: b
82. Which of the following motors one will choose to drive

the rotary compressor ?
(a) D.C. shunt motor
(b) D.C. series motor
(c) Universal motor
(d) Synchronous motor
Ans: d
83. If the speed of a D.C. shunt motor is increased, the back

e.m.f. of the motor will
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) remain same
(d) become zero
Ans: a
84. Why are the D.C. motors preferred for traction

applications ?
(a) Torque and speed are inversely proportional to armature current
(b) Torque is proportional to armature current
(c) Torque is proportional to square root of armature current
(d) The speed is inversely proportional to the torque and the torque is
proportional to square of armature current
Ans: d
85. Which of the following motors is usually used in house-

hold refrigerators ?
(c) Single phase induction motor (split phase start or induction run
motor)
(d) Reluctance motor
(e) Synchronous motor
Ans: c
86. Which of the following motors is most suitable for

signalling devices and many kinds of timers ?
(c) Induction motor
Ans: d
87. Which motor should not be started on no-load ?

(a) Series motor
(b) Shunt motor
(d) Differentially compounded motor.
Ans: a
88. Ward-Leonard control is basically a

(a) voltage control method
(b) field divertor method
(c) field control method
(d) armature resistance control method

Ans: a
89. For constant torque drive which speed control method

is preferred ?
(a) Field control
(b) Armature voltage control
(c) Shunt armature control
(d) Mechanical loading system
Ans: b
90. In Ward-Leonard control the lower limit of speed is

imposed by
(a) residual magnetism of the generator
(b) core losses of motor
(c) mechanical losses of motor and generator together
Ans: a
91. The main disadvantage of the Ward-Leonard control

method is
(a) high initial cost
(b) high maintenance cost
(c) low efficiency at Hght loads
Ans: d
92. Regenerative method of braking is based on that

(a) back e.m.f. is less than the applied voltage
(b) back e.m.f. is equal to the applied voltage
(c) back e.m.f. of rotor is more than the applied voltage
Ans: b
93. The hysteresis loss in a D.C. machine least depends on

(a) Frequency of magnetic reversals
(b) Maximum value of flux density
(c) Volume and grade of iron
(d) Rate of flow of ventilating air

Ans: d
94. In a D.C. generator all of the following could be the

effects of iron losses except
(a) Loss of efficiency
(b) Excessive heating of core
(c) Increase in terminal voltage
(d) Rise in temperature of ventilating air
Ans: c
95. The losses occurring in a D.C. generator are given

below. Which loss is likely to have highest proportion at
rated load of the generator ?
(a) hysteresis loss
(b) field copper loss
(c) armature copper loss
(d) eddy current loss
Ans: c
96. Which of the following loss in a D.C. generator varies

significantly with the load current ?
(a) Field copper loss
(b) Windage loss
(c) Armature copper loss
Ans: c
97. Torque developed by a D.C. motor depends upon

(a) magnetic field
(b) active length of the conductor
(c) current flow through the conductors
(d) number of conductors
(e) radius of armature
(f) all above factors
Ans: f
98. D.C. shunt motors are used for driving

(a) trains
(b) cranes
(c) hoists
(d) machine tools
Ans: d
99. In a manual shunt motor starter

(a) over load relay is connected in series and no volt relay in parallel
with the load
(6) over load relay is connected in parallel and no volt relay in series
with the load
(c) over load relay and no volt relay are both connected in series with
the load
(d) over load relay and no volt relay are both connected in parallel
with the load
Ans: a
100. Which of the following steps is likely to result in

reduction of hysteresis loss in a D.C. generator ?
(a) Providing laminations in armature core
(b) Providing laminations in stator
(c) Using non-magnetic material for frame
(d) Using material of low hysteresis co-efficient for armature core
material
Ans: d
101. Which of the following loss in a D.C. generator is

dissipated in the form of heat?
(a) Mechanical loss
(b) Core loss
(c) Copper loss
Ans: d
102. Which of the following losses are significantly reduced

by laminating the core of a D.C. generator ?
(a) Hysteresis losses
(b) Eddy current losses
(c) Copper losses
(d) Windage losses

Ans: b
103. The total losses in a well designed D.C. generator of 10

kW will be nearly
(a) 100 W
(b) 500 W
(c) 1000 W
(d) 1500 W
Ans: b
104. The condition for maximum efficiency for a D.C.

generator is
(a) eddy current losses = stray losses
(b) hysteresis losses = eddy current losses
(c) copper losses = 0
(d) variable losses = constant losses
Ans: d
105. D.C. generators are normally designed for maximum

efficiency around
(a) full-load
(b) rated r.p.m.
(c) rated voltage
Ans: a
106. In a D.C. generator, the iron losses mainly take place in

(a) yoke
(b) commutator
(c) armature conductors
(d) armature rotor
Ans: d
107. D.C. generators are installed near the load centres to

reduce
(a) iron losses
(b) line losses
(c) sparking
(d) corona losses

Ans: b
108. The purpose of retardation test on D.C. shunt

machines is to find out
(a) stray losses
(c) field copper losses
(d) windage losses
Ans: a
109. Which of the following tests will be suitable for testing

two similar D.C. series motors of large capacity ?
(a) Swinburne’s test
(b) Hopkinson’s test
(c) Field test
(d) Brake test
Ans: c
110. Hopkinson’s test on D.C. machines is conducted at

(a) no-load
(b) part load
(c) full-load
(d) overload
Ans: c
111. During rheostat braking of D.C. series motors

(a) motor is run as a generator
(b) motor is reversed in direction
(c) motor is run at reduced speed
Ans: a
112. For which types of D.C. motor, dynamic braking is

generally used ?
(a) Shunt motors
(b) Series motors
(c) Compound motors
Ans: d
113. Which method of braking is generally used in elevators

?
(a) Plugging
(b) Regenerative braking
(c) Rheostatic braking
Ans: a
114. In variable speed motor

(a) a stronger commutating field is needed at low speed than at high
speed
(b) a weaker commutating field is needed at low speed than at high
speed
(c) same commutating field is needed at low speed than at high speed
(d) none of the above is correct
Ans: b
115. When the armature of a D.C. motor rotates, e.m.f.

induced is
(a) self-induced e.m.f.
(b) mutually induced e.m.f.
(c) back e.m.f.
Ans: c
116. Where D.C. motor of H.P. 12 or more requires frequent

starting, stopping, reversing and speed control
(a) drum type controller is used
(b) three point starter is used
(c) four point starter is used
(d) all above can be used
Ans: a
117. If a D.C. shunt motor is working at full load and if shunt

field circuit suddenly opens
(a) this will make armature to take heavy current, possibly burning it
(6) this will result in excessive speed, possibly destroying armature
due to excessive centrifugal stresses
(c) nothing will happen to motor
(d) motor will come to stop

Ans: a
118. D.C. motor is to drive a load which has certain

minimum value for most of the time and some peak value
for short duration. We will select the
(a) series motor
(b) shunt motor
(c) compound motor
Ans: a
119. D.C. motor is to a drive a load which is almost nil for

certain part of the load cycle and peak value for short
duration. We will select this
(a) series motor
(b) shunt motor
(c) compound motor
Ans: c
120. Which D.C. motor has got maximum self relieving

property ?
(a) Series motor
(6) Shunt motor
Ans: a
121. In the D.C. motor the iron losses occur in

(a) the field
(b) the armature
(c) the brushes
(d) the commutator
Ans: b
122. The speed of a D.C. shunt motor is required to be more

than full load speed. This is possible by
(a) reducing the field current
(b) decreasing the armature current

(c) increasing the armature current
(d) increasing the excitation current
(e) none of the above methods
Ans: a
123. One D.C. motor drives another D.C. motor. The second
D.C. motor when excited and driven
(a) runs as a generator
(b) does not run as a generator
(c) also runs as a motor comes to stop after sometime
Ans: a
D.C. MOTORS Objective Questions ::


45 THOUGHTS ON “300+ TOP D.C. MOTORS MULTIPLE CHOICE

QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS”
Vipul Dhodi
JUNE 9, 2017 AT 4:52 PM
Very standard question sir, please mail in pdf all electrical

topics questions
REPLY
som sen
Very good question plz send my e-mail
REPLY
Pawan deep
6/6/2019 300+ TOP TRANSFORMERS Multiple Choice Questions and Answers


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TOP MOST TRANSFORMERS – Electrical Engineering
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TRANSFORMERS Multiple Choice Questions with

Answers ::
1. Which of the following does not change in a transformer
?
(a) Current
(b) Voltage
(c) Frequency
Ans: c
2. In a transformer the energy is conveyed from primary to

secondary
(a) through cooling coil
(b) through air
(c) by the flux
Ans: c
https://engineeringinterviewquestions.com/transformers-electrical-engineering-multiple-choice-questions-and-answers/ 1/41
3. A transformer core is laminated to

(a) reduce hysteresis loss
(b) reduce eddy current losses
(c) reduce copper losses
(d) reduce all above losses
Ans: b
4. The degree of mechanical vibrations produced by the

laminations of a transformer depends on
(a) tightness of clamping
(b) gauge of laminations
(c) size of laminations
Ans: d
5. The no-load current drawn by transformer is usually

what per cent of the full-load current ?
(a) 0.2 to 0.5 per cent
(b) 2 to 5 per cent
(d) 20 to 30 per cent
Ans: b
6. The path of a magnetic flux in a transformer should have

(a) high resistance
(b) high reluctance
(c) low resistance
(d) low reluctance
Ans: d
7. No-load on a transformer is carried out to determine

(a) copper loss
(b) magnetising current
(c) magnetising current and loss
(d) efficiency of the transformer
Ans: c
8. The dielectric strength of transformer oil is expected to

be
(a) lkV
(b) 33 kV
(c) 100 kV
(d) 330 kV
Ans: b
9. Sumpner’s test is conducted on trans-formers to

determine
(a) temperature
(b) stray losses
(c) all-day efficiency
Ans: a
10. The permissible flux density in case of cold rolled grain

oriented steel is around
(a) 1.7 Wb/m2
(b) 2.7 Wb/m2
(c) 3.7 Wb/m2
(d) 4.7 Wb/m2
Ans: a
11. The efficiency of a transformer will be maximum when

(a) copper losses = hysteresis losses
(b) hysteresis losses = eddy current losses
(c) eddy current losses = copper losses
(d) copper losses = iron losses
Ans: d
12. No-load current in a transformer

(a) lags behind the voltage by about 75°
(b) leads the voltage by about 75°
(c) lags behind the voltage by about 15°
(d) leads the voltage by about 15°
Ans: a
13. The purpose of providing an iron core in a transformer

is to
(a) provide support to windings
(b) reduce hysteresis loss

(c) decrease the reluctance of the magnetic path
(d) reduce eddy current losses
Ans: c
14. Which of the following is not a part of transformer

installation ?
(a) Conservator
(b) Breather
(c) Buchholz relay
(d) Exciter
Ans: d
15. While conducting short-circuit test on a transformer the

following side is short circuited
(a) High voltage side
(b) Low voltage side
(c) Primary side
(d) Secondary side
Ans: b
16. In the transformer following winding has got more

cross-sectional area
(a) Low voltage winding
(b) High voltage winding
(c) Primary winding
(d) Secondary winding
Ans: a
17. A transformer transforms

(a) voltage
(b) current
(c) power
(d) frequency
Ans: c
18. A transformer cannot raise or lower the voltage of a

D.C. supply because
(a) there is no need to change the D.C. voltage
(b) a D.C. circuit has more losses

(c) Faraday’s laws of electromagnetic induction are not valid since the
rate of change of flux is zero
Ans: c
19. Primary winding of a transformer

(a) is always a low voltage winding
(b) is always a high voltage winding
(c) could either be a low voltage or high voltage winding
Ans: c
20. Which winding in a transformer has more number of

turns ?
(a) Low voltage winding
(b) High voltage winding
(c) Primary winding
Ans: b
21. Efficiency of a power transformer is of the order of

(a) 100 per cent
(b) 98 per cent
(c) 50 per cent
(d) 25 per cent
Ans: b
22. In a given transformer for given applied voltage, losses

which remain constant irrespective of load changes are
(a) friction and windage losses
(b) copper losses
(c) hysteresis and eddy current losses
Ans: c
23. A common method of cooling a power transformer is

(a) natural air cooling
(b) air blast cooling
(c) oil cooling

Ans: c
24. The no load current in a transformer lags behind the

applied voltage by an angle of about
(a) 180°
(b) 120″
(c) 90°
(d) 75°
Ans: d
25. In a transformer routine efficiency depends upon

(a) supply frequency
(b) load current
(c) power factor of load
Ans: d
26. In the transformer the function of a conservator is to

(a) provide fresh air for cooling the transformer
(b) supply cooling oil to transformer in time of need
(c) protect the transformer from damage when oil expends due to
heating
Ans: c
27. Natural oil cooling is used for transformers up to a

rating of
(a) 3000 kVA
(b) 1000 kVA
(c) 500 kVA
(d) 250 kVA
Ans: a
28. Power transformers are designed to have maximum

efficiency at
(a) nearly full load
(b) 70% full load
(c) 50% full load

(d) no load
Ans: a
29. The maximum efficiency of a distribution transformer

is
(a) at no load
(b) at 50% full load
(c) at 80% full load
(d) at full load
Ans: b
30. Transformer breaths in when

(a) load on it increases
(b) load on it decreases
(c) load remains constant
Ans: b
31. No-load current of a transformer has

(a) has high magnitude and low power factor
(b) has high magnitude and high power factor
(c) has small magnitude and high power factor
(d) has small magnitude and low power factor
Ans: d
32. Spacers are provided between adjacent coils

(a) to provide free passage to the cooling oil
(b) to insulate the coils from each other
Ans: a
33. Greater the secondary leakage flux

(a) less will be the secondary induced e.m.f.
(b) less will be the primary induced e.m.f.
(c) less will be the primary terminal voltage
Ans: a
34. The purpose of providing iron core in a step-up

transformer is
(a) to provide coupling between primary and secondary
(b) to increase the magnitude of mutual flux
(c) to decrease the magnitude of mag-netizing current
(d) to provide all above features
Ans: c
35. The power transformer is a constant

(a) voltage device
(b) current device
(c) power device
(d) main flux device
Ans: d
36. Two transformers operating in parallel will share the

load depending upon their
(a) leakage reactance
(b) per unit impedance
(c) efficiencies
(d) ratings
Ans: b
37. If R2 is the resistance of secondary winding of the

transformer and K is the transformation ratio then the
equivalent secondary resistance referred to primary will be
(a) R2/VK
(b) R2IK2
(c) R22!K2
(d) R22/K
Ans: b
38. What will happen if the transformers working in

parallel are not connected with regard to polarity ?
(a) The power factor of the two trans-formers will be different from
the power factor of common load
(b) Incorrect polarity will result in dead short circuit
(c) The transformers will not share load in proportion to their kVA
ratings

Ans: b
39. If the percentage impedances of the two transformers

working in parallel are different, then
(a) transformers will be overheated
(b) power factors of both the transformers will be same
(c) parallel operation will be not possible
(d) parallel operation will still be possible, but the power factors at
which the two transformers operate will be different from the power
factor of the common load
Ans: d
40. In a transformer the tappings are generally provided on

(a) primary side
(b) secondary side
(c) low voltage side
(d) high voltage side
Ans: c
41. The use of higher flux density in the transformer design

(a) reduces weight per kVA
(6) reduces iron losses
(c) reduces copper losses
(d) increases part load efficiency
Ans: a
42. The chemical used in breather for transformer should

have the quality of
(a) ionizing air
(b) absorbing moisture
(c) cleansing the transformer oil
(d) cooling the transformer oil.
Ans: b
43. The chemical used in breather is

(a) asbestos fiber
(b) silica sand
(c) sodium chloride
(d) silica gel

Ans: d
44. An ideal transformer has infinite values of primary and

secondary inductances. The statement is
(a) true
(b) false
Ans: b
45. The transformer ratings are usually expressed in terms

of
(a) volts
(b) amperes
(c) kW
(d) kVA
Ans: d
46. The noise resulting from vibrations of laminations set

by magnetic forces, is termed as
(a) magnetostrication
(b) boo
(c) hum
(d) zoom
Ans: c
47. Hysteresis loss in a transformer varies as CBmax =

maximum flux density)
(a) Bmax
(b) Bmax1-6
(C) Bmax1-83
(d) B max
Ans: b
48. Material used for construction of transformer core is

usually
(a) wood
(b) copper
(c) aluminium
(d) silicon steel

Ans: d
49. The thickness of laminations used in a transformer is

usually
(a) 0.4 mm to 0.5 mm
(b) 4 mm to 5 mm
(c) 14 mm to 15 mm
(d) 25 mm to 40 mm
Ans: a
50. The function of conservator in a transformer is

(a) to project against’internal fault
(b) to reduce copper as well as core losses
(c) to cool the transformer oil
(d) to take care of the expansion and contraction of transformer oil
due to variation of temperature of sur-roundings
Ans: d
51. The highest voltage for transmitting electrical power in India is

(a) 33 kV.
(6) 66 kV
(c) 132 kV
(d) 400 kV
Ans: d
52. In a transformer the resistance between its primary and secondary

is
(a) zero
(b) 1 ohm
(c) 1000 ohms
(d) infinite
Ans: d
53. A transformer oil must be free from

(a) sludge
(b) odour
(c) gases
(d) moisture
Ans: d
54. A Buchholz relay can be installed on

(a) auto-transformers
(b) air-cooled transformers
(c) welding transformers
(d) oil cooled transformers
Ans: d
55. Gas is usually not liberated due to dissociation of transformer oil

unless the oil temperature exceeds
(a) 50°C
(b) 80°C
(c) 100°C
(d) 150°C
Ans: d
56. The main reason for generation of harmonics in a transformer

could be
(a) fluctuating load
(b) poor insulation
(c) mechanical vibrations
(d) saturation of core
Ans: d
57. Distribution transformers are generally designed for maximum

efficiency around
(a) 90% load
(b) zero load
(c) 25% load
(d) 50% load
Ans: d
58. Which of the following property is not necessarily desirable in the

material for transformer core ?
(a) Mechanical strength
(6) Low hysteresis loss
(c) High thermal conductivity
(d) High permeability

Ans: c
59. Star/star transformers work satisfactorily when

(a) load is unbalanced only
(b) load is balanced only
(c) on balanced as well as unbalanced loads
Ans: b
60. Delta/star transformer works satisfactorily when

(a) load is balanced only
(b) load is unbalanced only
(c) on balanced as well as unbalanced loads
Ans: c
61. Buchholz’s relay gives warning and protection against

(a) electrical fault inside the transformer itself
(b) electrical fault outside the transformer in outgoing feeder
(c) for both outside and inside faults
Ans: a
62. The magnetising current of a transformer is usually small because

it has
(a) small air gap
(b) large leakage flux
(c) laminated silicon steel core
(d) fewer rotating parts
Ans: a
63. Which of the following does not change in an ordinary transformer

?
(a) Frequency
(b) Voltage
(c) Current
Ans: a
64. Which of the following properties is not necessarily desirable for

the material for transformer core ?
(a) Low hysteresis loss
(b) High permeability
(c) High thermal conductivity
(d) Adequate mechanical strength
Ans: c
65. The leakage flux in a transformer depends upon

(a) load current
(b) load current and voltage
(c) load current, voltage and frequency
(d) load current, voltage, frequency and power factor
Ans: a
66. The path of the magnetic flux in transformer should have

(a) high reluctance
(b) low reactance
(c) high resistance
(d) low resistance
Ans: b
67. Noise level test in a transformer is a

(a) special test
(b) routine test
(c) type test
Ans: c
68. Which of the following is not a routine test on transformers ?

(a) Core insulation voltage test
(b) Impedance test
(c) Radio interference test
(d) Polarity test
Ans: c
69. A transformer can have zero voltage regulation at

(a) leading power factor
(b) lagging power factor
(c) unity power factor

(d) zero power factor
Ans: a
70. Helical coils can be used on

(a) low voltage side of high kVA transformers
(b) high frequency transformers
(c) high voltage side of small capacity transformers
(d) high voltage side of high kVA rating transformers
Ans: a
71. Harmonics in transformer result in

(a) increased core losses
(b) increased I2R losses
(c) magnetic interference with communication circuits
Ans: d
72. The core used in high frequency transformer is usually

(a) copper core
(b) cost iron core
(c) air core
(d) mild steel core
Ans: c
73. The full-load copper loss of a trans¬former is 1600 W. At half-

load, the copper loss will be
(a) 6400 W
(b) 1600 W
(c) 800 W
(d) 400 W
Ans: d
1.74. The value of flux involved m the e.m.f. equation of a transformer

is
(a) average value
(b) r.m.s. value
(c) maximum value
(d) instantaneous value

Ans: c
L.75. Silicon steel used in laminations mainly reduces

(a) hysteresis loss
(c) copper losses
Ans: a
76. Which winding of the transformer has less cross-sectional area ?

(a) Primary winding
(b) Secondary winding
(c) Low voltage winding
(d) High voltage winding
Ans: d
77. Power transformers are generally designed to have maximum

efficiency around
(a) no-load
(b) half-load
(c) near full-load
(d) 10% overload
Ans: c
.78. Which of the following is the main advantage of an auto-

transformer over a two winding transformer ?
(a) Hysteresis losses are reduced
(b) Saving in winding material
(c) Copper losses are negligible
(d) Eddy losses are totally eliminated
Ans: b
79. During short circuit test iron losses are negligible because
(a) the current on secondary side is negligible
(b) the voltage on secondary side does not vary
(c) the voltage applied on primary side is low
(d) full-load current is not supplied to the transformer
Ans: c
80. Two transformers are connected in parallel. These transformers

do not have equal percentage impedance. This is likely to result in
(a) short-circuiting of the secondaries
(b) power factor of one of the transformers is leading while that of the
other lagging
(c) transformers having higher copper losses will have negligible core
losses
(d) loading of the transformers not in proportion to their kVA ratings
Ans: d
81. The changes in volume of transformer cooling oil due to variation

of atmospheric temperature during day and
night is taken care of by which part of transformer
(a) Conservator
(b) Breather
(c) Bushings
(d) Buchholz relay
Ans: a
82. An ideal transformer is one which has

(a) no losses and magnetic leakage
(b) interleaved primary and secondary windings
(c) a common core for its primary and secondary windings
(d) core of stainless steel and winding of pure copper metal
Ans: a
83. When a given transformer is run at its rated voltage but reduced
frequency, its
(a) flux density remains unaffected
(b) iron losses are reduced
(c) core flux density is reduced
(d) core flux density is increased
Ans: d
84. In an actual transformer the iron loss remains practically constant

from noload to fullload because
(a) value of transformation ratio remains constant
(b) permeability of transformer core remains constant
(c) core flux remains practically constant

(d) primary voltage remains constant
(c) secondary voltage remains constant
Ans: c
85. An ideal transformer will have maximum efficiency at a load such

that
(a) copper loss = iron loss
(b) copper loss < iron loss
(c) copper loss > iron loss
Ans: a
86. If the supply frequency to the transformer is increased,”the iron

loss will
(a) not change
(b) decrease
(c) increase
Ans: c
87. Negative voltage regulation is indicative that the load is

(a) capacitive only
(b) inductive only
(c) inductive or resistive
Ans: a
88. Iron loss of a transformer can be measured by

(a) low power factor wattmeter
(b) unity power factor wattmeter
(c) frequency meter
(d) any type of wattmeter
Ans: a
89. When secondary of a current transformer is open-circuited its iron

core will be
(a) hot because of heavy iron losses taking place in it due to high flux
density
(b) hot because primary will carry heavy current

(c) cool as there is no secondary current
(d) none of above will happen
Ans: a
90. The transformer laminations are insulated from each other by

(a) mica strip
(6) thin coat of varnish
(c) paper
Ans: b
91. Which type of winding is used in 3phase shell-type transformer ?

(a) Circular type
(b) Sandwich type
(c) Cylindrical type
(d) Rectangular type
Ans: b
92. During open circuit test of a transformer

(a) primary is supplied rated voltage
(b) primary is supplied full-load current
(c) primary is supplied current at reduced voltage
(d) primary is supplied rated kVA
Ans: a
93. Open circuit test on transformers is conducted to determine

(b) copper losses
(c) core losses
(d) eddy current losses
Ans: c
94. Short circuit test on transformers is conducted to determine

(b) copper losses
(c) core losses
(d) eddy current losses
Ans: b
95. For the parallel operation of single phase transformers it is

necessary that they should have
(a) same efficiency
(b) same polarity
(c) same kVA rating
(d) same number of turns on the secondary side.
Ans: b
96. The transformer oil should have _____ volatility and _____
viscosity.
(a) low,low
(b) high,high
(c) low,high
(d) high,low
Ans: a
97. The function of breather in a transformer is

(a) to provide oxygen inside the tank
(b) to cool the coils during reduced load
(c) to cool the transformer oil
(d) to arrest flow of moisture when outside air enters the transformer
Ans: d
98. The secondary winding of which of the following transformers is

always kept closed ?
(a) Step-up transformer
(b) Step-down transformer
(c) Potential transformer
(d) Current transformer
Ans: d
99. The size of a transformer core will depend on

(a) frequency
(b) area of the core
(c) flux density of the core material
(d) (a) and (b) both
Ans: d
100. N atural air coo ling is generally restricted for transformers up to

(a) 1.5 MVA
(b) 5 MVA
(c) 15 MVA
(d) 50 MVA
Ans: a
101. A shell-type transformer has

(a) high eddy current losses
(b) reduced magnetic leakage
(c) negligibly hysteresis losses
Ans: b
102. A transformer can have regulation closer to zero

(a) on full-load
(b) on overload
(c) on leading power factor
(d) on zero power factor
Ans: c
103. A transformer transforms

(a) voltage
(b) current
(c) current and voltage
(d) power
Ans: d
104. Which of the following is not the standard voltage for power
supply in India ?
(a) llkV
(b) 33kV
(c) 66 kV
(d) 122 kV
Ans: d
105. Reduction in core losses and increase in permeability are

obtained with transformer employing
(a) core built-up of laminations of cold rolled grain oriented steel
(b) core built-up of laminations of hot rolled sheet

Ans: a
106. In a power or distribution transformer about 10 per cent end

turns are heavily insulated
(a) to withstand the high voltage drop due to line surge produced by
the shunting capacitance of the end turns
(b) to absorb the line surge voltage and save the winding of
transformer from damage
(c) to reflect the line surge and save the winding of a transformer from
damage
Ans: a
107. For given applied voltage, with the increase in frequency of the
applied voltage
(a) eddy current loss will decrease
(b) eddy current loss will increase
(c) eddy current loss will remain unchanged
Ans: c
108. Losses which occur in rotating electric machines and do not

occur in trans formers are
(a) friction and windage losses
(b) magnetic losses
(c) hysteresis and eddy current losses
(d) copper losses
Ans: a
109. In a given transformer for a given applied voltage, losses which

remain constant irrespective of load changes are
(a) hysteresis and eddy current losses
(b) friction and windage losses
(c) copper losses
Ans: a
110. Which of the following statements regarding an idel single-phase

transformer having a turn ratio of 1 : 2 and
drawing a current of 10 A from 200 V A.C. supply is incorrect ?
(a) Its secondary current is 5 A
(b) Its secondary voltage is 400 V
(c) Its rating is 2 kVA
(d) Its secondary current is 20 A
(e) It is a step-up transformer
Ans: d
111. The secondary of a current transformer is always short-circuited

under operating conditions because it
(a) avoids core saturation and high voltage induction
(b) is safe to human beings
(c) protects the primary circuit
Ans: a
112. In a transformer the resistance between its primary and

secondary should be
(a) zero
(b) 10 Q
(c) 1000 Q
(d) infinity
Ans: d
113. A good voltage regulation of a transformer means

(a) output voltage fluctuation from no load to full load is least
(b) output voltage fluctuation with power factor is least
(c) difference between primary and secondary voltage is least
(d) difference between primary and secondary voltage is maximum
Ans: a
114. For a transformer, operating at constant load current, maximum

efficiency will occur at
(a) 0.8 leading power factor
(b) 0.8 lagging power factor
(c) zero power factor
(d) unity power factor

Ans: d
115. Which of the following protection is normally not provided on

small distribution transformers ?
(a) Overfluxing protection
(b) Buchholz relay
(c) Overcurrent protection
Ans: b
116. Which of the following acts as a protection against high voltage

surges due to lightning and switching ?
(a) Horn gaps
(b) Thermal overload relays
(c) Breather
(d) Conservator
Ans: a
117. The efficiency of two identical transformers under load conditions

can be determined by
(a) short-circuit test
(b) back-to-back test
(c) open circuit test
Ans: b
118. Which of the following insulating materials can withstand the

highest temperature safely ?
(a) Cellulose
(b) Asbestos
(c) Mica
(d) Glass fibre
Ans: c
119. Which of the following parts of a transformer is visible from

outside ?
(a) Bushings
(b) Core
(c) Primary winding

Ans: a
120. The noise produced by a transformer is termed as

(a) zoom
(b) hum
(c) ringing
(d) buzz
Ans: b
121. Which of the following loss in a transformer is zero even at full

load ?
(a) Core loss
(b) Friction loss
(c) Eddy current loss
(d) Hysteresis loss
Ans: b
122. Which of the following is the most likely source of harmonics in a

transformer ?
(a) poor insulation
(b) Overload
(c) loose connections
(d) Core saturation
Ans: d
123. If a transformer is continuously operated the maximum

temperature rise will occur in
(a) core
(b) windings
(c) tank
Ans: b
124. The hum in a transformer is mainly attributed to

(a) load changes
(b) oil in the transformer
(c) magnetostriction
(d) mechanical vibrations

Ans: c
125. The maximum load that a power transformer can carry is limited
by its
(a) temperature rise
(b) dielectric strength of oil
(c) voltage ratio
(d) copper loss
Ans: c
126. The efficiency of a transformer, under heavy loads, is

comparatively low because
(a) copper loss becomes high in proportion to the output
(b) iron loss is increased considerably
(c) voltage drop both in primary and secondary becomes large
(d) secondary output is much less as compared to primary input
Ans: a
127. An open-circuit test on a transformer is conducted primarily to

measure
(a) insulation resistance
(b) copper loss
(c) core loss
(d) total loss
(e) efficiency
(f) none of the above
Ans: c
128. A no-load test is performed on a transformer to determine

(a) core loss
(b) copper loss
(c) efficiency
(d) magnetising current
(e) magnetising current and loss
Ans: e
129. The voltage transformation ratio of a transformer is equal to the

ratio of
(a) primary turns to secondary turns

(b) secondary current to primary current
(c) secondary induced e.m.f. to primary induced e.m.f.
(d) secondary terminal voltage to primary applied voltage
Ans: c
130. Part of the transformer which is most subject to damage from

overheating is
(a) iron core
(b) copper winding
(c) winding insulation
(d) frame or case
(e) transformer tank
Ans: c
136. If a transformer is switched on to a voltage more than the rated

voltage
(a) its power factor will deteriorate
(b) its power factor will increase
(c) its power factor will remain unaffected
(d) its power factor will be zero
Ans: a
137. Auto-transformer makes effective saving on copper and copper

losses, when its transformation ratio is
(a) approximately equal to one
(b) less than one
(c) great than one
Ans: a
138. Minimum voltage regulation occurs when the power factor of the
load is
(a) unity
(b) lagging
(c) leading
(d) zero
Ans: c
139. In a step-down transformer, there is a change of 15 A in the load

current. This results in change of supply current of
(a) less than 15 A
(b) more than 15 A
(c) 15 A
Ans: a
140. The efficiencies of transformers compared with that of electric

motors of the same power are
(a) about the same
(6) much smaller
(c) much higher
(d) somewhat smaller
Ans: c
TRANSFORMERS Questions and Answers pdf ::


60 THOUGHTS ON “300 TOP MOST TRANSFORMERS –

ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS”
seifu hailu
FEBRUARY 19, 2018 AT 8:53 AM
good and more important quations. i need the quations
REPLY
Trivendra Sharma
Sir please send me all MCQ’s of Electrical Machine’s pdf
6/6/2019 110 TOP MOST POLYPHASE INDUCTION MOTORS - Electrical Engineering Multiple Choice Questions and Answers Electrical Engineeri…


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Engineering Multiple Choice

1. Which of the following component is usually fabricated out of
silicon steel ?
(a) Bearings
(b) Shaft
(c) Statorcore
Ans: c
2. The frame of an induction motor is usually made of

(a) silicon steel
(b) cast iron
(c) aluminium
(d) bronze
Ans: b
https://engineeringinterviewquestions.com/polyphase-induction-motors-electrical-engineering-multiple-choice-questions-and-answers/ 1/30
3. The shaft of an induction motor is made of

(a) stiff
(b) flexible
(c) hollow
Ans: a
4. The shaft of an induction motor is made of

(a) high speed steel
(b) stainless steel
(c) carbon steel
(d) cast iron
Ans: c
5. In an induction motor, no-load the slip is generally

(a) less than 1%
(b) 1.5%
(c) 2%
(d) 4%
Ans: a
6. In medium sized induction motors, the slip is generally around

(a) 0.04%
(b) 0.4%
(c) 4%
(d) 14%
Ans: c
7. In squirrel cage induction motors, the rotor slots are usually given
slight skew in order to
(a) reduce windage losses
(b) reduce eddy currents
(c) reduce accumulation of dirt and dust
(d) reduce magnetic hum
Ans: d
8. In case the air gap in an induction motor is increased

(a) the magnetising current of the rotor will decrease
(b) the power factor will decrease
(c) speed of motor will increase

(d) the windage losses will increase
Ans: b
9. Slip rings are usually made of

(a) copper
(b) carbon
(c) phospor bronze
(d) aluminium
Ans: c
10. A 3-phase 440 V, 50 Hz induction motor has 4% slip. The

frequency of rotor e.m.f. will be
(a) 200 Hz
(b) 50 Hz
(c) 2 Hz
(d) 0.2 Hz
Ans: c
11. In Ns is the synchronous speed and s the slip, then actual running
speed of an induction motor will be
(a) Ns
(b) s.N,
(c) (l-s)Ns
(d) (Ns-l)s
Ans: c
The efficiency of an induction motor can be expected to be nearly

(a) 60 to 90%
(b) 80 to 90%
(c) 95 to 98%
(d) 99%
Ans: b
13. The number of slip rings on a squirrel cage induction motor is

usually
(a) two
(b) three
(c) four
(d) none
Ans: d
14. The starting torque of a squirrel-cage induction motor is

(a) low
(b) negligible
(c) same as full-load torque
(d) slightly more than full-load torque
Ans: a
15. A double squirrel-cage induction motor has

(a) two rotors moving in oppsite direction
(b) two parallel windings in stator
(c) two parallel windings in rotor
(d) two series windings in stator
Ans: c
16. Star-delta starting of motors is not possible in case of

(a) single phase motors
(b) variable speed motors
(c) low horse power motors
(d) high speed motors
Ans: a
17. The term ‘cogging’ is associated with

(a) three phase transformers
(b) compound generators
(c) D.C. series motors
(d) induction motors
Ans: d
18. In case of the induction motors the torque is

(a) inversely proportional to (Vslip)
(b) directly proportional to (slip)2
(c) inversely proportional to slip
(d) directly proportional to slip
Ans: d
19. An induction motor with 1000 r.p.m. speed will have

(a) 8 poles
(b) 6 poles
(c) 4 poles
(d) 2 poles
Ans: b
20. The good power factor of an induction motor can be achieved if

the average flux density in the air gap is
(a) absent
(b) small
(c) large
(d) infinity
Ans: b
21. An induction motor is identical to

(a) D.C. compound motor
(c) synchronous motor
(d) asynchronous motor
Ans: d
22. The injected e.m.f. in the rotor of induction motor must have
(a) zero frequency
(b) the same frequency as the slip frequency
(c) the same phase as the rotor e.m.f.
(d) high value for the satisfactory speed control
Ans: b
23. Which of the following methods is easily applicable to control the

speed of the squirrel-cage induction motor ?
(a) By changing the number of stator poles
(b) Rotor rheostat control
(c) By operating two motors in cascade
(d) By injecting e.m.f. in the rotor circuit
Ans: a
24. The crawling in the induction motor is caused by

(a) low voltage supply
(b) high loads

(c) harmonics develped in the motor
(d) improper design of the machine
Ans: c
25. The auto-starters (using three auto transformers) can be used to

start cage induction motor of the following type
(a) star connected only
(b) delta connected only
(c) (a) and (b) both
Ans: c
26. The torque developed in the cage induction motor with autostarter
is
(a) k/torque with direct switching
(6) K x torque with direct switching
(c) K2 x torque with direct switching
(d) k2/torque with direct switching
Ans: c
27. When the equivalent circuit diagram of doouble squirrel-cage

induction motor is constructed the two cages can be
considered
(a) in series
(b) in parallel
(c) in series-parallel
(d) in parallel with stator
Ans: b
28. It is advisable to avoid line-starting of induction motor and use

starter because
(a) motor takes five to seven times its full load current
(b) it will pick-up very high speed and may go out of step
(c) it will run in reverse direction
(d) starting torque is very high
Ans: a
29. Stepless speed control of induction motor is possible by which of

the following methods ?
(a) e.m.f. injection in rotor eueuit
(b) Changing the number of poles
(c) Cascade operation
Ans: b
30. Rotor rheostat control method of speed control is used for

(a) squirrel-cage induction motors only
(b) slip ring induction motors only
Ans: b
31. In the circle diagram for induction motor, the diameter of the
circle represents
(a) slip
(b) rotor current
(c) running torque
(d) line voltage
Ans: b
32. For which motor the speed can be controlled from rotor side ?
(a) Squirrel-cage induction motor
(b) Slip-ring induction motor
Ans: b
33. If any two phases for an induction motor are interchanged

(a) the motor will run in reverse direction
(b) the motor will run at reduced speed
(c) the motor will not run
(d) the motor will burn
Ans: a
34. An induction motor is

(a) self-starting with zero torque
(b) self-starting with high torque

(c) self-starting with low torque
(d) non-self starting
Ans: c
35. The maximum torque in an induction motor depends on

(a) frequency
(b) rotor inductive reactance
(c) square of supply voltage
Ans: d
36. In three-phase squirrel-cage induction motors

(a) rotor conductor ends are short-circuited through slip rings
(b) rotor conductors are short-circuited through end rings
(c) rotor conductors are kept open
(d) rotor conductors are connected to insulation
Ans: b
37. In a three-phase induction motor, the number of poles in the rotor

winding is always
(a) zero
(b) more than the number of poles in stator
(c) less than number of poles in stator
(d) equal to number of poles in stator
Ans: d
38. DOL starting of induction motors is usually restricted to

(a) low horsepower motors
(b) variable speed motors
(c) high horsepower motors
(d) high speed motors
Ans: a
39. The speed of a squirrel-cage induction motor can be controlled by

all of the following except
(a) changing supply frequency
(b) changing number of poles
(c) changing winding resistance
(d) reducing supply voltage

Ans: c
40. The ‘crawling” in an induction motor is caused by

(a) high loads
(6) low voltage supply
(c) improper design of machine
(d) harmonics developed in the motor
Ans: d
41. The power factor of an induction motor under no-load conditions

will be closer to
(a) 0.2 lagging
(b) 0.2 leading
(c) 0.5 leading
(d) unity
Ans: a
42. The ‘cogging’ of an induction motor can be avoided by

(a) proper ventilation
(b) using DOL starter
(c) auto-transformer starter
(d) having number of rotor slots more or less than the number of
stator slots (not equal)
Ans: d
43. If an induction motor with certain ratio of rotor to stator slots,

runs at 1/7 of the normal speed, the phenomenon will be termed as
(a) humming
(b) hunting
(c) crawling
(d) cogging
Ans: c
44. Slip of an induction motor is negative when

(a) magnetic field and rotor rotate in opposite direction
(b) rotor speed is less than the synchronous speed of the field and are
in the same direction
(c) rotor speed is more than the synchronous speed of the field and
are in the same direction

Ans: c
45. Size of a high speed motor as compared to low speed motor for the
same H.P. will be
(a) bigger
(b) smaller
(c) same
Ans: b
46. A 3-phase induction motor stator delta connected, is carrying full

load and one of its fuses blows out. Then the motor
(a) will continue running burning its one phase
(b) will continue running burning its two phases
(c) will stop and carry heavy current causing permanent damage to its
winding
(d) will continue running without any harm to the winding
Ans: a
47. A 3-phase induction motor delta connected is carrying too heavy

load and one of its fuses blows out. Then the
motor
(a) will continue running burning its one phase
(b) will continue running burning its two phase
(c) will stop and carry heavy current causing permanent damage to its
winding
(d) will continue running without any harm to the winding
Ans: c
48. Low voltage at motor terminals is due to

(a) inadequate motor wiring
(b) poorely regulated power supply
(c) any one of the above
Ans: c
49. In an induction motor the relationship between stator slots and

rotor slots is that
(a) stator slots are equal to rotor slots
(b) stator slots are exact multiple of rotor slots
(c) stator slots are not exact multiple of rotor slots
Ans: c
50. Slip ring motor is recommended where

(a) speed control is required
(6) frequent starting, stopping and reversing is required
(c) high starting torque is needed
(d) all above features are required
Ans: d
51. As load on an induction motor goes on increasing

(a) its power factor goes on decreasing
(b) its power factor remains constant
(c) its power factor goes on increasing even after full load
(d) its power factor goes on increasing up to full load and then it falls
again
Ans: d
52. If a 3-phase supply is given to the stator and rotor is short

circuited rotor will move
(a) in the opposite direction as the direction of the rotating field
(b) in the same direction as the direction of the field
(c) in any direction depending upon phase squence of supply
Ans: b
53. It is advisable to avoid line starting of induction motor and use

starter because
(a) it will run in reverse direction
(b) it will pick up very high speed and may go out of step
(c) motor takes five to seven times its full load current
(d) starting torque is very high
Ans: c
54. The speed characteristics of an induction motor closely resemble

the speedload characteristics of which of the
following machines
(c) universal motor
Ans: b
55. Which type of bearing is provided in small induction motors to

support the rotor shaft ?
(a) Ball bearings
(b) Cast iron bearings
(c) Bush bearings
Ans: a
56. A pump induction motor is switched on to a supply 30% lower

than its rated voltage. The pump runs. What will
eventually happen ? It will
(a) stall after sometime
(b) stall immediately
(c) continue to run at lower speed without damage
(d) get heated and subsequently get damaged
Ans: d
57. 5 H.P., 50-Hz, 3-phase, 440 V, induction motors are available for
the following r.p.m. Which motor will be the
costliest ?
(a) 730 r.p.m.
(b) 960 r.p.m.
(c) 1440 r.p.m.
(d) 2880 r.p.m.
Ans: a
58. A 3-phase slip ring motor has

(a) double cage rotor
(6) wound rotor
(c) short-circuited rotor

Ans: b
59. The starting torque of a 3-phase squirrel cage induction motor is

(a) twice the full load torque
(b) 1.5 times the full load torque
(c) equal to full load torque
Ans: b
60. Short-circuit test on an induction motor cannot be used to

determine
(a) windage losses
(b) copper losses
(c) transformation ratio
(d) power scale of circle diagram
Ans: a
61. In a three-phase induction motor

(a) iron losses in stator will be negligible as compared to that in rotor
(6) iron losses in motor will be neg¬ligible as compared to that in
rotor
(c) iron losses in stator will be less than that in rotor
(d) iron losses in stator will be more than that in rotor
Ans: d
62. In case of 3-phase induction motors, plugging means

(a) pulling the motor directly on line without a starter
(b) locking of rotor due to harmonics
(c) starting the motor on load which is more than the rated load
(d) interchanging two supply phases for quick stopping
Ans: d
63. Which is of the following data is required to draw the circle

diagram for an induction motor ?
(a) Block rotor test only
(b) No load test only
(c) Block rotor test and no-load test
(d) Block rotor test, no-load test and stator resistance test
Ans: d
64. In three-phase induction motors sometimes copper bars are

placed deep in the rotor to
(a) improve starting torque
(b) reduce copper losses
(c) improve efficiency
(d) improve power factor
Ans: a
65. In a three-phase induction motor

(a) power factor at starting is high as compared to that while running
(b) power factor at starting is low as compared to that while running
(c) power factor at starting in the same as that while running
Ans: b
66. The vafcie of transformation ratio of an induction motor can be

found by
(a) open-circuit test only
(b) short-circuit test only
(c) stator resistance test
Ans: b
67. The power scale of circle diagram of an induction motor can be

found from
(a) stator resistance test
(6) no-load test only
(c) short-circuit test only
(d) noue of the above
Ans: c
68. The shape of the torque/slip curve of induction motor is

(a) parabola
(b) hyperbola
(c) rectangular parabola
(d) straigth line
Ans: c
69. A change of 4% of supply voltage to an induction motor will

produce a change of appromimately
(a) 4% in the rotor torque

(b) 8% in the rotor torque
(c) 12% in the rotor torque
(d) 16% in the rotor torque
Ans: d
70. The stating torque of the slip ring induction motor can be
increased by adding
(a) external inductance to the rotor
(b) external resistance to the rotor
(c) external capacitance to the rotor
(d) both resistance and inductance to rotor
Ans: b
71. A 500 kW, 3-phase, 440 volts, 50 Hz, A.C. induction motor has a
speed of 960 r.p.m. on full load. The machine has 6 poles. The slip of
the machine will be
(a) 0.01
(b) 0.02
(c) 0.03
(d) 0.04
Ans: d
72. The complete circle diagram of induetion motor can be drawn with
the help of data found from
(a) noload test
(6) blocked rotor test
(c) stator resistance test
Ans: d
73. In the squirrel-cage induction motor the rotor slots are usually
given slight skew
(a) to reduce the magnetic hum and locking tendency of the rotor
(b) to increase the tensile strength of the rotor bars
(c) to ensure easy fabrication
Ans: a
74. The torque of a rotor in an induction motor under running

condition is maximum
(a) at the unit value of slip
(b) at the zero value of slip
(c) at the value of the slip which makes rotor reactance per phase
equal to the resistance per phase
(d) at the value of the slip which makes the rotor reactance half of the
rotor
Ans: c
75. What will happen if the relative speed between the rotating flux of
stator and rotor of the induction motor is zero ?
(a) The slip of the motor will be 5%
(b) The rotor will not run
(c) The rotor will run at very high speed
(d) The torque produced will be very large
Ans: b
76. The circle diagram for an induction motor cannot be used to

determine
(a) efficiency
(b) power factor
(c) frequency
(d) output
Ans: a
77. Blocked rotor test on induction motors is used to find out

(a) leakage reactance
(b) power factor on short circuit
(c) short-circuit current under rated voltage
Ans: d
78. Lubricant used for ball bearing is usually

(a) graphite
(b) grease
(c) mineral oil
(d) molasses
Ans: b
79. An induction motor can run at synchronous speed when

(a) it is run on load
(b) it is run in reverse direction
(c) it is run on voltage higher than the rated voltage
(d) e.m.f. is injected in the rotor circuit
Ans: d
80. Which motor is preferred for use in mines where explosive gases
exist ?
(a) Air motor
(b) Induction motor
(c) D.C. shunt motor
Ans: a
81. The torque developed by a 3-phase induction motor least depends

on
(a) rotor current
(b) rotor power factor
(c) rotor e.m.f.
(d) shaft diameter
Ans: d
82. In an induction motor if air-gap is increased

(a) the power factor will be low
(b) windage losses will be more
(c) bearing friction will reduce
(d) copper loss will reduce In an induction motor
Ans: a
83. In induction motor, percentage slip depends on

(a) supply frequency
(b) supply voltage
(c) copper losses in motor
Ans: c
84. When /?2 is the rotor resistance, .X2 the rotor reactance at supply
frequency and s the slip, then the condition for maximum torque
under running conditions will be

(a) sR2X2 = 1
(b) sR2 = X2
(c) R2 = sX2
(d) R2 = s2X2
Ans: c
85. In case of a double cage induction motor, the inner cage has
(a) high inductance arid low resistance
(b) low inductance and high resistance
(c) low inductance and low resistance
(d) high inductance and high resistance
Ans: a
86. The low power factor of induction motor is due to

(a) rotor leakage reactance
(b) stator reactance
(c) the reactive lagging magnetizing current necessary to generate the
magnetic flux
Ans: d
87. Insertion of reactance in the rotor circuit

(a) reduces starting torque as well as maximum torque
(b) increases starting torque as well as maximum torque
(c) increases starting torque but maxi-mum torque remains
unchanged
(d) increases starting torque but maxi-mum torque decreases
Ans: a
88. Insertion of resistance in the rotcir of an induction motor to

develop a given torque
(a) decreases the rotor current
(b) increases the rotor current
(c) rotor current becomes zero
(d) rotor current rernains same
Ans: d
89. For driving high inertia loods best type of induction motor
suggested is
(a) slip ring type
(b) squirrel cage type
(c) any of the above
Ans: a
90. Temperature of the stator winding of a three phase induction

motor is obtained by
(a) resistance rise method
(b) thermometer method
(c) embedded temperature method
Ans: d
91. The purpose of using short-circuit gear is

(a) to short circuit the rotor at slip rings
(b) to short circuit the starting resistances in the starter
(c) to short circuit the stator phase of motor to form star
Ans: a
92. In a squirrel cage motor the induced e.m.f. is

(a) dependent on the shaft loading
(b) dependent on the number of slots
(c) slip times the stand still e.m.f. induced in the rotor
Ans: c
93. Less maintenance troubles are experienced in case of

(a) slip ring induction motor
(6) squirrel cage induction motor
Ans: b
94. A squirrel cage induction motor is not selected when

(a) initial cost is the main consideration
(b) maintenance cost is to be kept low

(c) higher starting torque is the main consideration
(d) all above considerations are involved
Ans: c
95. Reduced voltage starter can be used with

(a) slip ring motor only but not with squirrel cage induction motor
(b) squirrel cage induction motor only but not with slip ring motor
(c) squirrel cage as well as slip ring induction motor
Ans: c
96. Slip ring motor is preferred over squirrel cage induction motor
where
(a) high starting torque is required
(b) load torque is heavy
(c) heavy pull out torque is required
Ans: a
97. In a star-delta starter of an induction motor

(a) resistance is inserted in the stator
(b) reduced voltage is applied to the stator
(c) resistance is inserted in the rotor
(d) applied voltage perl stator phase is 57.7% of the line voltage
Ans: d
98. The torque of an induction motor is

(a) directly proportional to slip
(b) inversely proportional to slip
(c) proportional to the square of the slip
Ans: a
99. The rotor of an induction motor runs at

(a) synchronous speed
(b) below synchronous speed
(c) above synchronous speed

Ans: b
100. The starting torque of a three phase induction motor can be

increased by
(a) increasing slip
(b) increasing current
Ans: c
110. Insertion of resistance in the stator of an induction motor

(a) increases the load torque
(b) decreases the starting torque
(c) increases the starting torque
Ans: b

39 THOUGHTS ON “110 TOP MOST POLYPHASE INDUCTION

MOTORS – ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING MULTIPLE CHOICE
ishwar dass
APRIL 13, 2017 AT 12:17 PM
Sir thank you….

Please send me the pdf of all electrical questions.
REPLY
akshatha n a
MARCH 20, 2017 AT 5:26 AM
6/6/2019 120 TOP SINGLE PHASE INDUCTION MOTORS Multiple Choice Questions Electrical Engineering Multiple Choice Questions


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TOP SINGLE PHASE INDUCTION MOTORS Multiple
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SINGLE PHASE INDUCTION MOTORS Multiple

Choice Questions and Answers :-
1. In a split phase motor, the running winding should have
(a) high resistance and low inductance
(b) low resistance and high inductance
(c) high resistance as well as high inductance
(d) low resistance as well as low inductiance
Ans: b
2. If the capacitor of a single-phase motor is short-circuited

(a) the motor will not start
(b) the motor will run
(c) the motor will run in reverse direction
(d) the motor will run in the same direction at reduced r.p.m.
Ans: a
https://engineeringinterviewquestions.com/single-phase-induction-motors-electrical-engineering-multiple-choice-questions-and-answers/ 1/27
3. In capacitor start single-phase motors

(a) current in the starting winding leads the voltage
(b) current in the starting winding lags the voltage
(c) current in the starting winding is in phase with voltage in running
winding
Ans: a
4. In a capacitor start and run motors the function of the

running capacitor in series with the auxiliary winding is to
(a) improve power factor
(b) increase overload capacity
(c) reduce fluctuations in torque
(d) to improve torque
Ans: a
5. In a capacitor start motor, the phase displacement

between starting and running winding can be nearly
(a) 10°
(b) 30°
(c) 60°
(d) 90°
Ans: d
6. In a split phase motor

(a) the starting winding is connected through a centrifugal switch
(b) the running winding is connected through a centrifugal switch
(c) both starting and running windings are connected through a
centrifugal switch
(d) centrifugal switch is used to control supply voltage
Ans: a
7. The rotor developed by a single-phase motor at starting is

(a) more than i.he rated torque
(b) rated torque
(c) less than the rated torque
(d) zero
Ans: d
8. Which of the following motor will give relatively high

starting torque ?
(a) Capacitor start motor
(b) Capacitor run motor
(c) Split phase motor
(d) Shaded pole motor
Ans: a
9. Which of the following motor will have relatively higher

power factor ?
(a) Capacitor run motor
(b) Shaded pole motor
(c) Capacitor start motor
(d) Split phase motor
Ans: a
10. In a shaded pole motor, the shading coil usually consist

of
(a) a single turn of heavy wire which is in parallel with running
winding
(b) a single turn of heavy copper wire which is short-circuited and
carries only induced current
(c) a multilayer fine gauge copper wire in parallel with running
winding
Ans: b
11. In a shaded pole single-phase motor, the revolving field

is produced by the use of
(a) inductor
(b) capacitor
(c) resistor
(d) shading coils
Ans: d
12. A centrifugal switch is used to disconnect ‘starting

winding when motor has
(a) run for about 1 minute
(b) run for about 5 minutes
(c) picked up about 50 to 70 per cent of rated speed

(d) picked up about 10 to 25 per cent of rated speed
Ans: c
13. If a particular application needs high speed and high

starting torque, then which of the following motor will
be preferred ?
(a) Universal motor
(b) Shaded pole type motor
(d) Capacitor start and run motor
Ans: a
14. The value of starting capacitor of a fractional horse

power motor will be
(a) 100 uF
(6) 200 uF
(c) 300 uF
(d) 400 uF
Ans: c
15. In repulsion motor direction of rotation of motor

(a) is opposite to that of brush shift
(b) is the same as that of brush shift
(c) is independent of brush shift
Ans: b
16. In a single phase motor the centrifugal switch

(a) disconnects auxiliary winding of the motor
(b) disconnects main winding of the motor
(c) reconnects the main winding the motor
(d) reconnects the auxiliary winding of the motor
Ans: a
17. The running winding of a single phase motor on testing

with meggar is found to be ground. Most probable location
of the ground will be
(a) at the end connections
(b) at the end terminals
(c) anywhere on the winding inside a slot

(d) at the slot edge where coil enters or comes out of the slot
Ans: d
18. A capacitor-start single phase induction motor is

switched on to supply with its capacitor replaced by an
inductor of equivalent reactance value. It will
(a) start and then stop
(b) start and run slowly
(c) start and run at rated speed
(d) not start at all
Ans: d
19. Which of the following motors is used in mixies ?

(a) Repulsion motor
(b) Reluctance motor
(c) Hysteresis motor
(d) Universal motor
Ans: d
20. Which of the following motors is inherently self starting

?
(a) Split motor
(b) Shaded-pole motor
(c) Reluctance motor
(d) None of these
Ans: b
21. The direction of rotation of an hysteresis motor is

determined by
(a) interchanging the supply leads
(b) position of shaded pole with respect to main pole
(c) retentivity of the rotor material
(d) none of these
Ans: b
22. Burning out of winding is due to

(a) short circuited capacitor
(b) capacitor value hiving changed
(c) open circuiting of capacitor

Ans: a
23. Direction of rotation of a split phase motor can be

reversed by reversing the connection of
(a) running winding only
(b) starting winding only
Ans: c
24. Short-circuiter is used in

(a) repulsion induction motor
(b) repulsion motor
(c) repulsion start induction run motor
Ans: c
25. The range of efficiency for shaded pole motors is

(a) 95% to 99%
(b) 80% to 90%
(c) 50% to 75%
(d) 5% to 35%
Ans: d
26. In a capacitor start single-phase motor, when capacitor

is replaced by a resistance
(a) torque will increase
(b) the motor will consume less power
(c) motor will run in reverse direction
(d) motor will continue to run in same direction
Ans: d
27. The power factor of a single-phase induction motor is

usually
(a) lagging
(b) always leading
(c) unity
(d) unity to 0.8 leading

Ans: a
28. A shaded pole motor can be used for

(a) toys
(b) hair dryers
(c) circulators
Ans: d
29. A hysteresis motor works on the principle of

(a) hysteresis loss
(b) magnetisation of rotor
(c) eddy current loss
(d) electromagnetic induction
Ans: a
30. Which of the following motor will give the highest

starting torque ?
(b) Schrage motor
(c) Repulsion start and induction run motor
(d) Universal motor
Ans: b
31. For which of the applications a reluctance motor is preferred ?

(a) Electric shavers
(b) Refrigerators
(c) Signalling and timing devices
(d) Lifts and hoists
Ans: c
32. The motor used on small lathes is usually

(a) universal motor
(c) single-phase capacitor run motor
(d) 3-phase synchronous motor
Ans: c
33. Which of the following motors is preferred for tape-recorders ?

(a) Shaded pole motor
(b) Hysteresis motor
(c) Two value capacitor motor
(d) Universal motor
Ans: b
34. A single-phase induction motor is

(a) inherently self-starting with high torque
(b) inherently self-starting with low torque
(c) inherently non-self-starting with low torque
(d) inherently non-self-starting with high torque
Ans: c
35. A schrage motor can run on

(a) zero slip
(b) negative slip
(c) positive slip
Ans: d
36. A universal motor can run on

(a) A.C. only
(6) D.C. only
(c) either A.C. or D.C.
Ans: c
37. Which of the following single-phase motors is suitable for timing

and control purposes ?
(a) Reluctance motor
(b) Series motor
(c) Repulsion motor
(d) Universal motor
Ans: a
38. Single phase induction motor usually operates on

(a) 0.6 power factor lagging
(b) 0.8 power factor lagging
(c) 0.8 power factor leading

(d) unity power factor
Ans: a
39. In split-phase motor auxiliary winding is of

(a) thick wire placed at the bottom of the slots
(b) thick wire placed at the top of the slots
(c) thin wire placed at the top of the slots
(d) thin wire placed at the bottom of the slots
Ans: c
40. Which of the following motors will operate at high power factor ?
(a) Shaped pole motor
(b) Split phase motor
(d) Capacitor run motor
Ans: d
41. In a two value capacitor motor, the capacitor used for running
purposes is
(a) air capacitor
(b) paper spaced oil filled type
(c) ceramic type
(d) a.c. electrolytic type
Ans: b
42. Which of the following motors can be run on AC. as well as D.C.
supply ?
(a) Universal motor
(b) Repulsion motor
Ans: a
43. In A.C. series motor compensating winding is employed to

(a) reduce the effects of armature reaction
(b) increase the torque
(c) reduce sparking at the brushes

Ans: c
44. Which of the following single-phase induction motors is generally

used in time phonographs ?
(a) Resistance start
(b) Capacitor start capacitor run
(c) Shaded pole
(d) Universal
Ans: c
45. Which of the following motors has highest starting torque ?

(a) Repulsion motor
(b) Shaped pole motor
(c) Capacitor-start motor
(d) Split-phase motor
Ans: c
46. The repulsion-start induction-run motor is used because of

(a) good power factor
(b) high efficiency
(c) minimum cost
(d) high starting torque
Ans: d
47. In case of a shaded pole motor the direction of rotation of the

motor is
(a) from main pole to shaded pole
(b) from shaded pole to main pole
(c) either of the above depending on voltage
(d) either of the above depending on power factor
Ans: a
48. In case of high speed universal motor which of the following needs
more attention ?
(a) End play
(b) Air gap
(c) Insulation in rotor
(d) Balancing of rotor

Ans: d
49. The wattage rating for a ceiling fan motor will be in the range
(a) 200 to 250 W
(b) 250 to 500 W
(c) 50 to 150 W
(d) 10 to 20 W
Ans: c
50. The wattage of motor for driving domestic sewing machine will be
around
(a) 100 to 150 W
(b) 40 to 75 W
(c) 10 to 30 W
(d) 5 to 10 W
Ans: a
51. Which of the following single-phase motors has relatively poor

starting torque ?
(a) Universal motor
(b) Repulsion motor
(c) Capacitor motor
(d) All single phase motors have zero starting torque
Ans: c
52. Which type of load is offered by cranes and hoists ?

(a) Gradually varying load
(b) Non-reversing, no-load start
(c) Reversing, light start
(d) Reversing, heavy start
Ans: d
53. The speed of a universal motor is generally reduced by using

(a) gear trains
(b) V-belts
(c) brakes
(d) chains
Ans: a
54. Which of the following motors can be used for unity power factor ?
(a) Capacitor run motor
(b) Shaded pole motor
(d) Schrage motor
Ans: d
55. When a D.C. series motor is connected to A.C. supply, the power
factor will be low because of
(a) high inductance of field and armature circuits
(b) induced current in rotor due to variations of flux
(c) fine copper wire winding
Ans: a
56. The direction of rotation of universal motor can be reversed the by

reversing the flow of current through
(a) armature winding
(b) field winding
(c) either armature winding or field winding
Ans: c
57. In which single-phase motor, the rotor has no teeth or winding ?

(a) Split phase motor
(d) Universal motor
Ans: c
58. Which motor is normally free from mechanical and magnetic

vibrations ?
(a) Split phase motor
(b) Universal motor
(d) Shaded pole motor
Ans: c
59. As hysteresis motors are free from mechanical and magnetic

vibrations therefore these are considered as suitable for
(a) fans
(b) blowers
(c) sound equipment
(d) mixer grinders
Ans: c
60. A reluctance motor

(a) is self-starting
(b) is constant speed motor
(c) needs no D.C. excitation
Ans: d
61. In a hysteresis motor, the rotor must have

(a) retentivity
(b) resistivity
(c) susceptibility
Ans: a
62. The rotor of a hysteresis motor is made of

(a) aluminium
(b) cast iron
(c) chrome steel
(d) copper
Ans: c
63. The electric motor used in portable drills is

(a) capacitor run motor
(b) hysteresis motor
(c) universal motor
(d) repulsion motor
Ans: c
64. Which of the following applications always have some load

whenever switched on ?
(a) Vacuum cleaners
(b) Fan motors

(c) Pistol drills
Ans: c
65. The speed control of universal motor used for sewing machines is
by
(a) friction
(b) varying the resistance
(c) tapping the field
(d) centrifugal mechanism
Ans: b
66. Torque developed by a single phase induction motor at starting is

(a) pulsating
(b) uniform
(c) none of the above
(d) nil
Ans: d
67. In split phase motor main winding is of

(a) thin wire placed at the top of the slots
(b) thin wire placed at the bottom of the slots
(c) thick wire placed at the bottom of the slots
(d) thick wire placed at the top of the” slots
Ans: c
68. In repulsion motor, maximum torque is developed when

(a) brush axis is at 45° electrical to the field axis
(b) brush axis coincides with the field axis
(c) brush axis is at 90° electrical to the field axis
Ans: a
69. If the centrifugal switch does not open at 70 to 80 percent of

synchronous speed of motor, it would result in
(a) damage to the starting winding
(b) damage to the centrifugal switch
(c) overloading of running winding

Ans: a
70. Speed torque characteristic of a repulsion induction motor is

similar to that of a D.C.
(a) shunt motor
(b) series motor
(c) compound motor
(d) separately excited motor
Ans: c
71. In a ceilingfan employing capacitor run motor

(a) secondary winding surrounds the primary winding
(b) primary winding surrounds the secondary winding
(c) both are usual arrangements
Ans: a
72. The shaded pole motor is used for

(a) high starting torque
(b) low starting torque
(c) medium starting torque
(d) very high starting torque
Ans: b
73. The rotor slots, in an induction motor, are usually not quite
parallel to the shaft because it
(a) improves the efficiency
(b) helps the rotor teeth to remain under the stator teeth
(c) helps in reducing the tendency of the rotor teeth to remain under
the stator teeth
(d) improves the power factor
Ans: c
74. The speed/load characteristics of a universal motor is same as that

of
(a) A.C. motor
(c) D.C. series motor

Ans: c
75. The purpose of stator winding in the compensated repulsion motor

is to
(a) provide mechanical balance
(b) improve power factor and provide better speed regulation
(c) prevent hunting in the motor
(d) eliminate armature reaction
Ans: b
76. Which of the following motors is used for unity power factor ?
(a) Hysteresis motor
(b) Schrage motor
(c) Universal motor
Ans: b
77. The motor used for the compressors is

(a) d.c. series motor
(b) shaded pole motor
(c) capacitor-start capacitor-run motor
(d) reluctance motor
Ans: c
78. Which of the following motors is used in a situation where load

increases with speed ?
(a) Induction motor
(b) Three-phase series motor
(c) Schrage motor
(d) Hysteresis motor
Ans: b
79. In repulsion motor, zero torque is developed when

(a) brush axis is 45° electrical to field axis
(b) brush axis coincides with the field axis
(c) brush axis is 90° electrical to field axis
Ans: d
80. Centrifugal switch disconnects the auxiliary winding of the motor

at about ____ percent of synchronous speed
(a) 30 to 40
(b) 70 to 80
(c) 80 to 90
(d) 100
Ans: b
81. Starting winding of a single phase motor of a refrigerator is

disconnected from the circuit by means of a
(a) magnetic relay
(b) thermal relay
(c) centrifugal switch
Ans: a
82. If a single phase induction motor runs slower than normal, the
most likely defect is
(a) worn bearings
(b) short-circuit in the winding
(c) open-circuit in the winding
Ans: a
83. Which of the following motors is used in tape-recorders ?

(a) Hysteresis motor
(c) Capacitor-run motor
(d) Universal motor
Ans: a
84. Which of the following statements regarding two value capacitor

motor is incorrect ?
(a) It is a reversing motor
(b) It is preferred to permanent-split single-value capacitor motor
where frequent reversals are required
(c) It has low starting as well as rushing currents
(d) It has high starting torque
Ans: b
85. Two-value capacitor motor finds increased application as

compressor motor in small home air-conditioners
because
(a) it is comparatively cheaper
(b) it has almost non-destructible capacitor
(c) it has low starting as well as running currents at relatively high
power factor
(d) it is quiet in operation
Ans: c
86. If the centrifugal switch of a two-value capacitor motor using two

capacitors fails to open then
(a) motor will not come up to speed
(b) motor will not carry the load
(c) current drawn by the motor will be excessively high
(d) electrolytic capacitor will, in all probability, suffer break down
Ans: d
87. In a universal motor, the most common cause of brush sparking is

(a) open armature winding
(b) shorted armature winding
(c) shorted field winding”
(d) high commutator mica
Ans: e
88. If starting winding of a single-phase induction motor is left in the

circuit, it will
(a) run faster
(b) spark at light loads
(c) draw excessive current and overheat
(d) run slower
Ans: c
89. Most of the fractional horsepower motors have either

(a) hard and annealed bearings
(b) ball or roller bearings
(c) soft and porous bearings
(d) plain or sleeve bearings

Ans: d
90. Which of the following statements regarding reluctance-start

motor is incorrect ?
(a) It is similar to reluctance motor
(b) It is basically an induction motor and not a synchronous one
(c) So far as its basic working principle is concerned, it is similar to
shaded pole motor
(d) the air-gap between rotor and salient poles is non- uniform
Ans: a
91. To reverse the direction of rotation of acapacitor start motor while

it is running we should
(a) disconnect motor from the supply till it stops then reconnect it to
supply with reversed connection of main or auxiliary winding
(b) disconnect motor from supply and immediately reconnect it to
supply with reversed connections of the main winding
(c) reverse the direction of connection of the auxiliary winding and
after motor comes to rest then connect auxiliary winding to the supply
(d) reverse the direction of connections of the auxiliary winding and
immediately connect it to supply
Ans: a
92. In case of a reluctance motor, when the load is increased so that it

cannot maintain synchronous speed the motor will
(a) become unstable
(b) draw excessive armature current and may burn out
(c) fall out of synchronism and come to stand still
(d) run as induction motor
Ans: d
93. Which of the following motors has two separate windings on the
motor ?
(a) Repulsion motor
(b) Repulsion induction motor
(c) Repulsion start induction run motor
Ans: b
94. A shaded pole motor does not possess

(a) centrifugal switch
(b) capacitor
(c) commutator
Ans: d
95. In a A.C. series motor armature coils are usually connected to

commutator
(a) through resistance
(b) through reactances
(c) through capacitors
(d) solidly
Ans: a
96. Which of the following statements regarding a reluctance motor is

incorrect ?
(a) It cannot be reversed, ordinarily
(b) It requires no D.C. field excitation for its operation
(c) It is nothing else but a single-phase, salient pole synchronous-
induction motor
(d) Its squirrel cage-rotor is of unsym-metrical magnetic construction
in order to vary reluctance path between stator and rotor
Ans: a
97. A universal motor is one which

(a) can be operated either on D.C. or A.C. supply at approximately the
same speed and output
(b) can be marketed internationally
(c) runs at dangerously high speed on no-load
Ans: a
98. A repulsion motor is equipped with

(a) slip rings
(b) commutator
Ans: b
99. The capacitors used in single-phase capacitor motors have no

(a) voltage rating
(b) dielectric medium
(c) polarity marking
(d) definite value
Ans: c
100. If a D.C. series motor is operated on A.C. supply, it will

(a) spark excessively
(b) have poor efficiency
(c) have poor power factor
Ans: d
101. After the starting winding of a single phase induction motor is

disconnected from supply, it continues to run only on
(a) running winding
(b) rotor winding
(c) field winding
(d) compensating winding
Ans: a
102. Which of the following statements regarding repulsion-start

induction motor is incorrect ?
(a) It requires more maintenance of commutator and other
mechanical devices
(b) It makes quite a bit of noise on starting
(c) In fractional horse power motors, it has replaced the capacitor
motors
(d) It is not easily reversed
Ans: c
103. A.C. series motor as compared to D.C. series motor has

(a) smaller brush width
(b) less number of field turns
(c) more number of armature turns
(d) less air gap
Ans: e
104. Locked rotor current of a shaded pole motor is

(a) equal to full load current
(b) less than full load current
(c) slightly more than full load current
(d) several times the full load current
Ans: c
105. Speed control of a universal motor is achieved by

(a) varying field flux with tapped field windings
(b) connecting rheostat in series
(c) applying variable voltage by means of silicon controlled rectifier
(d) applying variable voltage by means of variable auto-transformer
(e) all of the above methods
Ans: e
116. Hysteresis motor is particularly useful for high-quality record

players and tape-recorders because
(a) it revolves synchronously
(b) it is not subject to any magnetic or mechanical vibrations
(c) it can be easily manufactured in extremely small sizes of up to 1 W
output
(d) it develops hysteresis torque which is extremely steady both in
amplitude and phase
Ans: d
117. Which of the following statements regarding hysteresis motor is

in incorrect ?
(a) It is extremely sensitive to fluctuations in supply voltage
(b) Its high starting torque is due to its high rotor hysteresis loss
(c) It is extremely quiet in operation
(d) It accelerates from rest to full-speed almost instantaneously
Ans: a
118. Which of the following statements regarding single-phase

induction motoris correct ?
(a) It requires only one winding
(b) It can rotate in one direction only
(c) It is self-starting
(d) It is not self-starting

Ans: d
119. The starting winding of a single-phase motor is placed in

(a) armature
(b) field
(c) rotor
(d) stator
Ans: d
120. The speed of a universal motor is usually reduced by using

(a) gearing
(b) belts
(c) brakes
(d) chains
Ans: a

17 THOUGHTS ON “120 TOP SINGLE PHASE INDUCTION MOTORS

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS”
Nishid
JUNE 4, 2018 AT 5:18 PM
Reluctance motor is similar to AC series motor
REPLY
Nishid
JUNE 4, 2018 AT 1:30 PM
Question 30 ans is universal motor
REPLY
6/6/2019 130 TOP MOST SYNCHRONOUS MOTORS - Electrical Engineering Interview Questions and Answers Electrical Engineering Multiple Ch…


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Engineering Interview Questions and Answers :-
1. Synchronous motors are generally not self-starting because
(a) the direction of rotation is not fixed
(b) the direction of instantaneous torque reverses after half cycle
(c) startes cannot be used on these machines
(d) starting winding is not provided on the machines
Ans: b
2. In case one phase of a three-phase synchronous motor is short-

circuited the motor will
(a) not start
(b) run at 2/3 of synchronous speed
(c) run with excessive vibrations
(d) take less than the rated load
Ans: a
https://engineeringinterviewquestions.com/synchronous-motors-electrical-engineering-interview-questions-and-answers/ 1/31
3. A pony motor is basically a

(a) small induction motor
(d) double winding A.C./D.C. motor
Ans: a
4. A synchronous motor can develop synchronous torque

(a) when under loaded
(b) while over-excited
(c) only at synchronous speed
(d) below or above synchronous speed
Ans: c
5. A synchronous motor can be started by

(a) pony motor
(b) D.C. compound motor
(c) providing damper winding
Ans: d
6. A three-phase synchronous motor will have

(a) no slip-rings
(b) one slip-ring
(c) two slip-rings
(d) three slip-rings
Ans: c
7. Under which of the following conditions hunting of synchronous

motor is likely to occur ?
(a) Periodic variation of load
(b) Over-excitation
(c) Over-loading for long periods
(d) Small and constant load
Ans: a
8. When the excitation of an unloaded salient pole synchronous motor

suddenly gets disconnected
(a) the motor stops
(b) it runs as a reluctance motor at the same speed

(c) it runs as a reluctance motor at a lower speed
Ans: a
9. When V is the applied voltage, then the breakdown torque of a

synchronous motor varies as
(a) V
(b) V312
(c) V2
(d) 1/V
Ans: a
10. The power developed by a synchronous motor will be maximum

when the load angle is
(a) zero
(b) 45°
(c) 90°
(d) 120°
Ans: c
11. A synchronous motor can be used as a synchronous capacitor when

it is
(a) under-loaded
(b) over-loaded
(c) under-excited
(d) over-excited
Ans: d
12. A synchronous motor is running on a load with normal excitation.

Now if the load on the motor is increased
(a) power factor as well as armature current will decrease
(b) power factor as well as armature current will increase
(c) power factor will increase but armature current will decrease
(d) power factor will decrease and armature current will increase
Ans: d
13. Mostly, synchronous motors are of

(a) alternator type machines
(6) induction type machines

(c) salient pole type machines
(d) smooth cylindrical type machines
Ans: c
14. The synchronous motor is not inherently self-starting because

(a) the force required to accelerate the rotor to the synchronous speed
in an instant is absent
(b) the starting device to accelerate the rotor to near synchronous
speed is absent
(c) a rotating magnetic field does not have enough poles
(d) the rotating magnetic field is produced by only 50 Hz frequency
currents
Ans: a
15. As the load is applied to a synchronous motor, the motor takes

more armature current because
(a) the increased load has to take more current
(b) the rotor by shifting its phase backward causes motor to take more
current
(c) the back e.m.f. decreases causing an increase in motor current
(d) the rotor strengthens the rotating field casuing more motor
current
Ans: b
16. Synchronous motor always runs at

(a) the synchronous speed
(b) less than synchronous speed
(c) more than synchronous speed
Ans: a
17. An over-excited synchronous motor takes

(a) leading current
(b) lagging current
Ans: a
18. The working of a synchronous motor is similar to

(a) gear train arrangement
(b) transmission of mechancial power by shaft
(c) distribution transformer
(d) turbine
Ans: b
19. The minimum armature current of the synchronous motor

corresponds to operation at
(a) zero power factor leading
(b) unity power factor
(c) 0.707 power factor lagging
(d) 0.707 power factor leading
Ans: b
20. In a synchronous motor, the magnitude of stator back e.m.f. £&

depends on
(a) d.c. excitation only
(b) speed of the motor
(c) load on the motor
(d) both the speed and rotor flux
Ans: a
21. If load (or torque) angle of a 4-pole synchronous motor is 6°

electrical, its value in mechanical degrees is
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 6
Ans: b
22. For V-curves for a synchronous motor the graph is drawn between
(a) field current and armature current
(b) terminal voltage and load factor
(c) power factor and field current
(d) armature current and power factor
Ans: a
23. The back e.m.f. of a synchronous motor depends on

(a) speed
(b) load
(c) load angle
Ans: c
24. A synchronous motor can operate at

(a) lagging power factor only
(6) leading power factor only
(c) unity power factor only
(d) lagging, leading and unity power factors
Ans: d
25. In a synchronous motor which loss varies with load ?

(a) Windage loss
(b) Bearing friction loss
(c) Copper loss
(d) Core loss
Ans: c
26. A synchronous motor can be made self starting by providing

(a) damper winding on rotor poles
(b) damper winding on stator
(c) damper winding on stator as well as rotor poles
Ans: d
27. The oscillations in a synchronous motor can be damped out by

(a) maintaining constant excitation
(b) running the motor on leading power factors
(c) providing damper bars in the rotor pole faces
(d) oscillations cannot be damped
Ans: c
28. The shaft of synchronous motor is made of

(a) mild steel
(b) chrome steel
(c) alnico
(d) stainless steel

Ans: a
29. When the field of a synchronous motor is under-excited, the power

factor will be
(a) leading
(b) lagging
(c) unity
(d) zero
Ans: b
30. The speed regulation of a synchronous motor is always

(a) 1%
(b) 0.5%
(c) positive
(d) zero
Ans: d
31. The percentage slip in case of a synchronous motor is

(a) 1%
(b) 100%
(c) 0.5%
(d) zero
Ans: d
32. The operating speed of a synchronous motor can be changed to

new fixed value by
(a) changing the load
(b) changing the supply voltage
(c) changing frequency
(d) using brakes
Ans: c
33. A synchronous motor will always stop when

(a) supply voltage fluctuates
(b) load in motor varies
(c) excitation winding gets disconnected
(d) supply voltage frequency changes9885859805
Ans: c
34. riunting in a synchronous motor takes place

(a) when supply voltage fluctuates
(b) when load varies
(c) when power factor is unity
(d) motor is under loaded
Ans: b
35. When load on an over-excited or under excited

synchronous*motor is increased, rate of change of its armature
current as compared with that of power factor is
(a) more
(b) less
(c) equal
(d) twice
Ans: b
36. The rotor copper losses, in a synchronous motor, are met by

(a) d.c. source
(b) armature input
(c) motor input
(d) supply lines
Ans: a
37. The maximum power developed in a synchronous motor occurs at

a coupling angle of
(a) 30°
(b) 60°
(c) 90°
(d) 180°
Ans: c
38. When the stator windings are connected in such a fashion that the
number of poles are made half, the speed of the rotor of a
synchronous motor
(a) remains same as the original value
(b) decreases to half the original value
(c) tends to becomes zero
(d) increases to two times the original value
Ans: d
39. In which of the following motors the stator and rotor magnetic
field rotate at the same speed ?
(a) Universal motor
(b) Synchronous motor
(c) Induction motor
Ans: b
40. Synchronsizingpower of a synchronous machine is

(a) direcly proportional to the synchronous reactance
(6) inversely proportional to the synchronous reactance
(a) equal to the synchronous reactance
Ans: b
41. Synchronous motors are

(a) not-self starting
(b) self-starting
(c) essentially self-starting
Ans: a
42. The standard full-load power factor ratings for synchronous

motors are
(a) zero or 0.8 leading
(b) unity or 0.8 lagging
(c) unity or 0.8 leading
(d) unity or zero
Ans: c
43. A synchronous motor running with normal excitation adjusts to

load increases essentially by increase in
(a) back e.m.f.
(b) armature current
(c) power factor
(d) torque angle
Ans: b
44. A synchronous motor has better power factor as compared to that

of an equivalent induction motor. This is mainly because
(a) synchronous motor has no slip
(b) stator supply is not required to produce magnetic field
(c) mechanical load on the rotor remains constant
(d) synchronous motor has large airgap
Ans: b
45. A synchronous motor working at leading power factor can be used

as
(a) voltage booster
(b) phase advancer
(c) noise generator
(d) mechanical synchronizer
Ans: b
46. Slip rings are usually made of

(a) carbon or graphite
(b) brass or steel
(c) silver or gold
(d) copper or aluminium
Ans: b
47. An over excited synchronous motor is used for

(a) fluctuating loads
(b) variable speed loads
(c) low torque loads
(d) power factor corrections
Ans: d
48. When the voltage applied to a synchronous motor is increased,

which of the following will reduce ?
(a) Stator flux
(b) Pull in torque
Ans: d
51. The efficiency of a properly designed synchronous motor will

usually fall in range
(a) 60 to 70%
(6) 75 to 80%
(c) 85 to 95%
(d) 99 to 99.5%
Ans: c
52. To limit the operating temperature an electrical machine should

have proper
(a) voltage rating
(b) current rating
(c) power factor
(d) speed
Ans: b
53. Slip-rings in a synchronous motor carry

(a) direct current
(b) alternating current
(c) no current
Ans: a
54. A synchronous machine with large air gap has

(a) a higher value of stability limit
(6) a small value of inherent regulation
(c) a higher synchronizing power which makes the machine less
sensitive to load variations
Ans: d
55. The armature current of the synchronous motor has higher values
for
(a) high excitation only
(b) low excitation only
Ans: c
56. In a synchronous motor running with fixed excitation, when the

load is increased three times, its torque angle becomes approximately
(a) one-third
(b) twice
(c) thrice
(d) six times
(e) nine times
Ans: c
57. The angle between the rotating stator flux and rotor poles is called
_____ angle.
(a) torque
(b) obtuse
(c) synchronizing
(d) power factor
Ans: a
58. Which of the following methods is used to start a synchronous

motor ?
(a) Damper winding
(b) Star-delta starter
(c) Damper winding in conjunction with star-delta starter
(d) Resistance starter in the armature circuit
Ans: c
59. When the rotor speed, in a synchronous machine, becomes more

than the synchronous speed during hunting, the damper bars develop
(a) inductor motor torque
(b) induction generator torque
(c) synchronous motor torque
(d) d.c. motor toque
Ans: b
60. An important advantage of a synchronous motor over wound

round induction motor is that
(a) its power factor may be varied at will
(b) its speed is independent of supply frequency
(c) its speed may be controlled more easily

Ans: a
61. The mechanical displacement of the rotor with respect to the

stator, in polyphase multipolar synchronous motors running at full
load, is of the order of
(a) zero degree
(b) two degrees
(c) five degrees
(d) ten degrees
Ans: c
62. Power factor of a synchronous motor is unity when

(a) the armature current is maximum
(b) the armature current is minimum
(c) the armature current is zero
Ans: b
63. Change of D.C. excitation of a synchronous motor changes

(a) applied voltage of the motor
(b) motor speed
(c) power factor of power drawn by the motor
Ans: c
64. While starting a synchronous motor by induction motor action,

field winding is usually
(a) connected to D.C. supply
(b) short-circuited by low resistance
(c) kept open-circuited
Ans: b
65. Which of the following motors will be used in electric clocks ?

(c) A.C. induction motor
(d) A.C. synchronous motor

Ans: d
SYNCHRONOUS MOTORS – Electrical Engineering

Interview Questions and Answers
66. If in a synchronous motor, driving mechanical load and drawing
current at lagging power factor from constant voltage supply, its field
excitation is increased, then its power factor
(a) become more
(b) become less
(c) remain constant
Ans: b
67. A synchronous motor installed at the receiving end substation

operates with such an excitation that it takes power at lagging power
factor. Now if the applied voltage of the synchronous motor goes
down, the power factor of the synchronous motor will
(a) remain same
(b) go down
(c) improve
Ans: c
68. While starting a salient pole synchronous motor by induction

motor action and connecting field discharge resistance across field,
starting and accelerting torque is produced by
(a) induction motor torque in field winding
(b) induction motor torque in damper winding
(c) eddy current and hysteresis torque in pole faces
(d) reHetance motor torque due to saliency of the rotor
(e) all of the above methods
Ans: e
69. Armature of a synchronous machine is

(a) of reducing number of slip rings on the rotor
(b) armature is associated with large power as compared to the field
circuits
(c) of difficulty of providing high voltage insulation on rotor
(d) all of the above reasons

Ans: d
70. If excitation of a synchronous motor running with a constant load

is decreased from its normal value, ignoring effects of armature
reaction, it leads to
(a) increase in both armature current and power factor angle
(b) increase in back e.m.f. but decrease in armature current
(c) increase in both armature current and power factor which is
lagging
(d) increase in torque angle but decrease in back e.m.f.
Ans: a
71. When a 3-phase synchronous generator is supplying a zero power

factor lagging load, the armature field affects the main field in the
following way
(a) augments it directly
(b) directly opposes it
(c) cross-magnetises it
Ans: b
72. Stability of a synchronous machine

(a) decreases with increase in its excitation
(b) increases with increase in its excitation
(c) remains unaffected with increase in excitation
Ans: b
73. The power factor of a synchronous motor is better than that of

induction motor because
(a) stator supply is relieved of responsibility of producing magnetic
field
(b) mechanical load on the motor can be adjusted
(c) synchronous motor runs at synchronous speed
(d) synchronous motor has large air gap
Ans: a
74. If in a synchronous motor, driving a given mechanical load and

drawing current at a leading power factor from constant voltage
supply its field excitation is increased, its power factor
(a) will become more
(b) will become less
(c) will remain unchanged
(d) none of the above.
Ans: b
75. A synchronous motor is running with normal excitation. When the

load is increased, the armature current drawn by it increases because
(a) speed of the motor is reduced
(b) power factor is decreased
(c) Eb (back e.m.f.) becomes less than V (applied voltage)
(d) Er (net resultant voltage) in armature is increased
Ans: d
76. If one-phase of a 3-phase synchronous motor is short-circuited,

motor
(a) will refuse to start
(b) will overheat in spots
(c) will not come upto speed
(d) will fail to pull into step
Ans: a
77. If the field circuit of an unloaded salientpole synchronous motor

gets suddenly open-circuited, then
(a) it runs at a slower speed
(b) the motor stops
(c) it continues to run at the same speed
(d) it runs at a very high speed
Ans: b
78. In which of the following motors the stator and rotor fields rotate
simultaneously ?
(a) D.C. motor
(c) Universal motor

(e) Induction motor
Ans: d
79. The speed of a synchronous motor

(a) increases as the load increases
(b) decreases as the load decreases
(c) always remains constant
Ans: c
80. A rotory converter can also be run as a

(a) d.c. shunt motor
(b) d.c. series motor
(c) d.c. compound motor
(d) induction motor
(e) synchronous motor
Ans: e
81. The maximum speed variation in a 3-phase synchronous motor is

(a) 10 per cent
(b) 6 per cent
(c) 4 per cent
(d) 2. per cent
(e) zero
Ans: e
82. Which of the following resistances can be measured by conducting

insulation resistance test on a synchronous motor ?
(a) Phase to phase winding resistance
(b) Stator winding to earthed frame
(c) Rotor winding to earthed shaft
Ans: d
83. Due to which of the following reasons a synchronous motor fails to

pull into synchronism after applying D.C. field current ?
(a) High field current
(b) Low short circuit ratio
(c) High core losses

(d) Low field current
Ans: d
16.84. In a synchronous motor, the maximum power developed

depends on all of the following except
(a) rotor excitation
(b) maximum value of coupling angle
(c) direction of rotation
(d) supply voltage
Ans: c
85. In a 3-phase synchronous motor, the negative phase sequence

exists when the motor is
(a) supplied with unbalanced voltage
(b) under-loaded
(c) over-loaded
Ans: a
86. In a synchronous motor, damper windings are provided on

(a) stator frame
(b) rotor shaft
(c) pole faces
Ans: c
87. The induced e.m.f. in a synchronous motor working on leading

power factor will be
(a) more than the supply voltage
(b) less than the supply voltage
(c) equal to the supply voltage
Ans: a
88. The effect of increasing the load on a synchronous motor running

with normal excitation is to
(a) decrease both armature current and power factor
(6) decrease armature current but increase power factor
(c) increase armature current but decrease power factor
(d) increase both its armature current and power factor

Ans: c
89. The net armature voltage of a synchronous motor is equal to the

(a) vector sum of Eb and V
(b) arithmetic sum of Eb and V
(c) arithmetic difference of Eb and V
(d) vector difference of Eh and V
Ans: d
90. The ratio of starting torque to running torque in a synchronous

motor is
(a) zero
(b) one
(c) two
(d) infinity
Ans: a
91. In a synchronous motor, the magnitude of stator back e.m.f. Eb

depends on
(a) load on the motor
(b) d.c. excitation only
(c) both the speed and rotor flux
Ans: b
92. A 3-phase synchronous motor is running clockwise. If the

direction of its field current is reversed
(a) the motor will stop
(b) the motor continue to run in the same direction
(c) the winding of the motor will burn
(d) the motor will run in the reverse direction
Ans: b
93. The magnitude of field flux in a 3-phase synchronous motor

(a) remains constant at all loads
(b) varies with speed
(c) varies with the load
(d) varies with power factor

Ans: a
94. The torque angle, in a synchronous motor, is the angle between

(a) the supply voltage and the back e.m.f.
(b) magnetising current and back e.m.f.
(c) the rotating stator flux and rotor poles
Ans: c
95. Hunting in a synchronous motor cannot be due to

(a) windage friction
(b) variable load
(c) variable frequency
(d) variable supply voltage
Ans: a
96. By which of the following methods the constant speed of a

synchronous motor can be changed to new fixed value ?
(a) By changing the supply frequency
(b) By interchanging any two phases
(c) By changing the applied voltage
(d) By changing the load.
Ans: a
97. In a synchronous motor, V-curves represent relation between

(a) armature current and field current
(b) power factor and speed
(c) field current and speed
(d) field current and power factor
Ans: a
98. In a 3-phase, 4-pole, 50 Hz synchronous motor, the frequency,

pole number and load torque all are halved. The motor speed will be
(a) 3000 r.p.m.
(b) 1500 r.p.m.
(c) 750 r.p.m.
Ans: b
99. A synchronous motor connected to infinite bus-bars has at

constant full load, 100% excitation and unity power factor. On
changing the excitation only, the armature current will have
(a) no change of power factor
(b) lagging power factor with over-excitation
(c) leading power factor with under-excitation
(d) leading power factor with over-excitation
Ans: d
100. Which of the following motors is non-self starting ?

(b) synchronous motor
(c) Squirrel cage induction motor
(d) Wound round induction motor
Ans: b
101. In a synchronous motor it the back e.m.f. generated in the

armature at noload is approximately equal to the applied voltage, then
(a) the motor is said to be fully loaded
(b) the torque generated is maximum
(c) the excitation is said to be zero per cent
(d) the excitation is said to be hundred per cent
Ans: d
102. In a synchronous motor, the damping winding is generally used

to
(a) prevent hunting and provide the starting torque
(b) reduce the eddy currents
(c) provide starting torque only
(d) reduce noise level
Ans: a
103. If the field of a synchronous motor is underexcited, the power

factor will be
(a) zero
(b) unity
(c) lagging
(d) leading
Ans: c
104. The back e.m.f. in the stator of a synchronous motor depends on

(a) number of poles
(b) flux density
(c) rotor speed
(d) rotor excitation
Ans: d
105. The maximum value of torque that a synchronous motor can

develop without losing its synchronism, is known as
(a) slip torque
(b) pull-out torque
(c) breaking torque
(d) synchronising torque
Ans: d
106. In a synchronous motor, the armature current has large values

for
(a) high excitation only
(b) low excitation only
(c) both high and low excitation
Ans: c
107. Which of the following losses, in a synchronous motor, does not

vary with load?
(a) Windage loss
(b) Copper losses
(c) Any of the above
Ans: a
108. The size of a synchronous motor decreases with the increase in

(a) flux density
(b) horse power rating
(c) speed

Ans: a
109. Which of the following losses is not dissipated by the stator core
surface in a synchronous motor ?
(a) Eddy current losses in the conductors
(b) Iron losses in the stator
(c) Copper losses in the slot portion of the conductors
(d) Windage losses
Ans: d
110. The duration of sudden snort-circuit test on a synchronous motor

is usually about
(a) one hour
(b) one minute
(c) one second
Ans: c
111. The maximum constant load torque under which a synchronous

motor will pull into synchronism at rated rotor supply voltage and
frequency is known as
(a) pull-up torque
(b) pull-in torque
(c) pull-out torque
Ans: b
112. A synchronous machine with low value of short-circuit ratio has

(a) lower stability limit
(6) high stability limit
(c) good speed regulation
(d) good voltage regulation
Ans: a
113. The construction of a synchronous motor resembles

(a) a series motor
(b) an induction motor

(c) an alternator
(d) a rotary converter
Ans: c
114. If the field winding of an unloaded salient pole synchronous

motor is open circuited, the motor will
(a) stop
(b) run as induction motor
(c) function as static condenser
(d) burn with dense smoke
Ans: a
115. For power factor correction, synchronous motors operate at

(a) no-load and greatly over-excited fields
(b) no-load and under-excited fields
(c) normal load with minimum excitation
(d) normal load with zero excitation
Ans: a
116. The maximum torque which a synchronous motor will develop at

rest for any angular position of the rotor, at rated stator supply voltage
and frequency, is known as
(a) locked-rotor torque
(b) synchronous torque
(c) pull up torque
(d) reluctance torque
Ans: a
117. Exciters of synchronous machines are

(a) d.c. shunt machines
(b) d.c. series machines
(c) d.c. compound machines
Ans: a
118. The coupling angle or load angle of synchronous motor is defined

as the angle between the
(a) rotor and stator teeth
(b) rotor and the stator poles of opposite polarity

(c) rotor and the stator poles of the same polarity
Ans: b
119. If the synchronous motor, properly synchronised to the supply is

running on no load and is having negligible loss
then
(a) the stator current will be zero
(b) the stator current will be very small
(c) the stator current will be very high
(d) the back e.m.f. will be more than the supply voltage
Ans: a
120 The armature current of the synchronous motor

(a) has large values for low excitation i niy
(b) has large values for high excitation only
(c) has large values for low and high excitation
Ans: c
121. The maximum power developed in a synchronous motor will

depend on
(a) the rotor excitation only
(b) the supply voltage only
(c) the rotor excitation and supply volt-age both
(d) the rotor excitation, supply voltage and maximum value of
coupling angle (90°)
Ans: d
122. A synchronous motor which works on a leading power factor and

does not drive a mechanical load is called as
(a) static condenser
(b) condenser
(c) synchronous condenser
Ans: c
129. A synchronous motor develops maximum power when load angle

is
(a) 45°
(b) 60°
(c) 90°
(d) 120°
Ans: c
130. In a synchronous motor, the breakdown torque is

(a) directly proportional to applied voltage
(b) directly proportional to the square of the applied voltage
(c) inversely proportional to applied voltage
Ans: a

21 THOUGHTS ON “130 TOP MOST SYNCHRONOUS MOTORS –

ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING INTERVIEW QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS”
suman shukla
MARCH 15, 2017 AT 6:54 AM
in question no 39,reluctance motor is also a synchronous

motor.so it should also be the ans
REPLY
SANDEEP BHONE.
MARCH 2, 2017 AT 10:42 AM
Usefull collection !! Thank u sir.
REPLY
6/6/2019 60 TOP MOST RECTIFIERS & CONVERTERS - Electrical Engineering Interview Questions and Answers Electrical Engineering Multiple …


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TOP MOST RECTIFIERS & CONVERTERS – Electrical
Questions
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CONVERTERS – Electrical Like Page
Engineering Interview Questions Be the first of your friends to
and Answers
RECTIFIERS & CONVERTERS – Electrical
1. Which of the following are the applications of D.C. system ?
(a) Battery charging work
(b) Arc welding
(c) Electrolytic and electro-chemical processes
(d) Arc lamps for search lights
(e) All of the above
Ans: e
2. Which of the following methods may be used to convert A.C. system

to D.C. ?
(a) Rectifiers
(b) Motor converters
(c) Motor-generator sets
https://engineeringinterviewquestions.com/rectifiers-converters-electrical-engineering-interview-questions-and-answers/ 1/14
(d) Rotary converters

Ans: e
3. In a single phase rotary converter the number of slip rings will be

(a) two
(b) three
(c) four
(d) six
(e) none
Ans: a
4. A synchronous converter can be started

(a) by means of a small auxiliary motor
(b) from AC. side as induction motor
(c) from D.C. side as D.C. motor
(d) any of the above methods
(e) none of the above methods
Ans: d
5. A rotary converter is a single machine with

(a) one armature and one field
(b) two armatures and one field
(c) one armature and two fields
Ans: a
6. A rotary converter combines the function of

(a) an induction motor and a D.C. generator
(b) a synchronous motor and a D.C. generator.
(c) a D.C. series motor and a D.C. generator
Ans: b
7. Which of the following is reversible in action ?

(a) Motor generator set
(b) Motor converter
(c) Rotary converter

Ans: c
8. Which of the following metals is generally manufactured by

electrolysis process ?
(a) Load
(b) Aluminium
(c) Copper
(d) Zinc
Ans: b
9. With a motor converter it is possible to obtain D.C. voltage only
upto
(a) 200-100 V
(6) 600—800 V
(c) 1000—1200 V
(d) 1700—2000 V
Ans: d
10. Normally, which of the following is used, when a large-scale

conversion from AC. to D.C. power is required ?
(a) Motor-generator set
(b) Motor converter
(c) Rotary converter
(d) Mercury arc rectifier
Ans: d
11. A rotary converter in general construction and design, is more or

less like
(a) a transformer
(b) an induction motor
(c) an alternator
(d) any D.C. machine
Ans: d
12. A rotary converter operates at a

(a) low power factor
(6) high power factor
(c) zero power factor

Ans: b
13. In which of the following appUcations, direct current is absolutely

essential ?
(a) Illumination
(b) Electrolysis
(c) Variable speed operation
(d) Traction
Ans: b
14. Which of the following AC. motors is usually used in large motor-
generator sets?
(a) Synchronous motor
(b) Squirrel cage induction motor
(c) Slip ring induction motor
Ans: a
15. In a rotary converter armature currents are

(a) d.c. only
(b) a.c. only
(c) partly a.c. and partly d.c.
Ans: c
16. In which of the following equipment direct current is needed ?

(a) Telephones
(b) Relays
(c) Time switches
Ans: d
17. In a rotary converter I2R losses as compared to a D.C. generator of

the same size will be
(a) same
(b) less
(c) double
(d) three times
Ans: b
18. In a mercury arc rectifier positive ions are attracted towards

(a) anode
(b) cathode
(c) shell bottom
(d) mercury pool
Ans: b
19. Mercury, in arc rectifiers, is chosen for cathode because

(a) its ionization potential is relatively low
(b) its atomic weight is quite high
(c) its boiling point and specific heat are low
(d) it remains in liquid state at ordi¬nary temperature
Ans: e
20. The ionization potential of mercury is approximately

(a) 5.4 V
(b) 8.4 V
(c) 10.4 V
(d) 16.4 V
Ans: c
21. The potential drop in the arc, in a mercury arc rectifier, varies
(a) 0.05 V to 0.2 V per cm length of the arc
(b) 0.5 V to 1.5 V per cm length of the arc
(c) 2 V to 3.5 V per cm length of the arc
Ans: d
22. The voltage drop between the anode and cathode, of a mercury arc
rectifier comprises of the following
(a) anode drop and cathode drop
(b) anode drop and arc drop
(c) cathode drop and arc drop
(d) anode drop, cathode drop and arc drop
Ans: d
23. Glass rectifiers are usually made into units capable of D.C. output
(maximum continuous rating) of
(a) 100 A at 100 V

(b) 200 A at 200 V
(c) 300 A at 300 V
(d) 400 A at 400 V
(e) 500 A at 500 V
Ans: e
24. The voltage drop at anode, in a mercury arc rectifier is due to

(a) self restoring property of mercury
(b) high ionization potential
(c) energy spent in overcoming the electrostatic field
(d) high temperature inside the rectifier
Ans: c
25. The internal efficiency of a mercury arc rectifier depends on

(a) voltage only
(b) current only
(c) voltage and current
(d) r.m.s. value of current
Ans: a
26. If cathode and anode connections in a mercury arc rectifier are

inter changed
(a) the rectifier will not operate
(b) internal losses will be reduced
(c) both ion and electron streams will move in the same direction
(d) the rectifier will operate at reduced efficiency
Ans: a
27. The cathdde voltage drop, in a mercury arc rectifier, is due to

(a) expenditure of energy in ionization
(b) surface resistance
(c) expenditure of energy in overcoming the electrostatic field
(d) expenditure of energy in liberating electrons from the mercury
Ans: d
28. To produce cathode spot in a mercury arc rectifier

(a) anode is heated
(b) tube is evacuated

(c) an auxiliary electrode is used
(d) low mercury vapour pressures are used
Ans: c
29. The advantage of mercury arc rectifier is that

(a) it is light in weight and occupies small floor space
(b) it has high efficiency
(c) it has high overload capacity
(d) it is comparatively noiseless
Ans: e
30. In a mercury pool rectifier, the voltage drop across its electrodes
(a) is directly proportional to load
(b) is inversely proportional to load
(c) varies exponentially with the load current
(d) is almost independent of load current
Ans: d
RECTIFIERS & CONVERTERS – Electrical Engineering

Interview Questions and Answers
31. In a three-phase mercury arc rectifiers each anode conducts for
(a) one-third of a cycle
(b) one-fourth of a cycle
(c) one-half a cycle
(d) two-third of a cycle
Ans: a
32. In a mercury arc rectifier characteristic blue luminosity is due to

(a) colour of mercury
(b) ionization
(c) high temperature
(d) electron streams
Ans: b
33. Which of the following mercury arc rectifier will deliver least
undulating current?
(a) Six-phase
(b) Three-phase
(c) Two-phase
(d) Single-phase
Ans: a
34. In a glass bulb mercury arc rectifier the maximum current rating is
restricted to
(a) 2000 A
(b) 1500 A
(c) 1000 A
(d) 500 A
Ans: d
35. In a mercury arc rectifier______ flow from anode to cathode

(a) ions
(b) electrons
(c) ions and electrons
Ans: a
36. When a rectifier is loaded which of the following voltage drops

take place ?
(a) Voltage drop in transformer reactance
(6) Voltage drop in resistance of transformer and smoothing chokes
(c) Arc voltage drop
Ans: d
37. On which of the following factors the number of phases for which a
rectifier should be designed depend ?
(a) The voltage regulation of the rec¬tifier should be low
(b) In the output circuit there should be no harmonics
(c) The power factor of the system should be high
(d) The rectifier supply transformer should be utilized to the best ad-
vantage
Ans: e
38. A mercury arc rectifier possesses ________ regulation

characteristics
(a) straight line
(b) curved line
(c) exponential
Ans: d
39. It is the_______of the transformer on which the magnitude of

angle of overlap depends.
(a) resistance
(b) capacitance
(c) leakage reactance
Ans: c
41. In a grid control of mercury arc rectifiers when the grid is made
positive relative to cathode, then it the electrons on their may to
anode.
(a) accelerates
(b) decelerates
Ans: a
42. In mercury arc rectifiers having grid, the arc can be struck
between anode and cathode only when the grid attains a certain
potential, this potential being known as
(a) maximum grid voltage
(b) critical grid voltage
Ans: b
43. In phase-shift control method the control is carried out by varying

the of grid voltage.
(a) magnitude
(b) polarity
(c) phase

Ans: c
16.44. In a phase-shift control method, the phase shift between anode

and grid voltages can be achieved by means of
(a) shunt motor
(6) synchronous motor
(c) induction regulator
(d) synchronous generator
Ans: c
45. The metal rectifiers are preferred to valve rectifiers due to which of
the following advantages ?
(a) They are mechanically strong
(b) They do not require any voltage for filament heating
Ans: c
46. Which of the following statement is incorrect ?

(a) Copper oxide rectifier is a linear device
(b) Copper oxide rectifier is not a perfect rectifier
(c) Copper oxide rectifier has a low efficiency
(d) Copper oxide rectifier finds use in control circuits
(e) Copper oxide rectifier is not stable during early life
Ans: a
47. The efficiency of the copper oxide rectifier seldom exceeds

(a) 90 to 95%
(b) 85 to 90%
(c) 80 to 85%
(d) 65 to 75%
Ans: d
48. Copper oxide rectifier is usually designed not to operate above

(a) 10°C
(b) 20°C
(c) 30°C
(d) 45°C
Ans: d
49. Selenium rectifier can be operated at temperatures as high as

(a) 25°C
(b) 40°C
(c) 60°C
(d) 75°C
Ans: d
50. In selenium rectifiers efficiencies ranging from ______ to

______ percent are attainable
(a) 25, 35
(b) 40, 50
(c) 60, 70
(d) 75, 85
Ans: d
51. Ageing of a selenium rectifier may change the output voltage by

(a) 5 to 10 per cent
(b) 15 to 20 per cent
Ans: a
52. The applications of selenium rectifiers are usually limited to

potential of
(a) 10 V
(b) 30 V
(c) 60 V
(d) 100 V
(e) 200 V
Ans: d
53. Which of the following rectifiers have been used extensively in

supplying direct current for electroplating ?
(a) Copper oxide rectifiers
(b) Selenium rectifiers
(c) Mercury arc rectifiers
(d) Mechanical rectifiers

Ans: b
54. A commutating rectifier consists of commutator driven by

(a) an induction motor
(b) a synchronous motor
(c) a D.C. series motor
(d) a D.C. shunt motor
Ans: b
55. Which of the following rectifiers are primarily used for charging of
low voltage batteries from AC. supply ?
(a) Mechanical rectifiers
(b) Copper oxide rectifiers
(c) Selenium rectifiers
(d) Electrolytic rectifiers
(e) Mercury arc rectifiers
Ans: d
56. The efficiency of an electrolytic rectifier is nearly

(a) 80%
(b) 70%
(c) 60%
(d) 40%
Ans: c
57. Which of the following is the loss within the mercury arc rectifier
chamber ?
(a) Voltage drop in arc
(6) Voltage drop at the anode
(c) Voltage drop at the cathode
Ans: d
58. The metal rectifiers, as compared to mercury arc rectifiers

(a) operate on low temperatures
(b) can operate on high voltages
(c) can operate on heavy loads
(d) give poor regulation

Ans: a
59. In a mercury arc rectifier, the anode is usually made of

(a) copper
(b) aluminium
(c) silver
(d) graphite
(e) tungsten
Ans: d
60. The ignited or auxiliary anode in mercury arc rectifier is made of

(a) graphite
(b) boron carbide
(c) aluminium
(d) copper
Ans: b

2 THOUGHTS ON “60 TOP MOST RECTIFIERS & CONVERTERS –

ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING INTERVIEW QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS”
qasim shah
AUGUST 17, 2016 AT 4:44 PM
please send me the pdf of electrical engineering
REPLY
guda
MAY 21, 2016 AT 5:45 PM
Sare questions bhut acche h…
6/6/2019 100 TOP POWER PLANT Engineering Questions and Answers Pdf


Engineering
TOP MOST POWER PLANT Engineering – Electrical
Questions
Engineering Objective Type Questions and Answers
Engineering
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100 TOP MOST POWER PLANT

Engineering – Electrical Like Page
Engineering Objective Type Be the first of your friends to

POWER PLANT Engineering MCQS :-
1. The commercial sources of energy are
(a) solar, wind and biomass
(b) fossil fuels, hydropower and nuclear energy
(c) wood, animal wastes and agriculture wastes
Ans: b
2. In India largest thermal power station is located at

(a) Kota
(b) Sarni
(c) Chandrapur
(d) Neyveli
Ans: c
https://engineeringinterviewquestions.com/100-top-most-power-plant-engineering-electrical-engineering-objective-type-questions-and-answers/ 1/8
4. The percentage O2 by Weight in atmospheric air is

(a) 18%
(b) 23%
(c) 77%
(d) 79%
Ans: b
5. The percentage 02 by volume in atmosphere air is

(a) 21%
(b) 23%
(c) 77%
(d) 79%
Ans: a
6. The proper indication of incomplete combustion is

(a) high CO content in flue gases at exit
(b) high CO2 content in flue gases at exit
(c) high temperature of flue gases
(d) the smoking exhaust from chimney
Ans: a
7. The main source of production of biogas is

(a) human waste
(b) wet cow dung
(c) wet livestock waste
(d) all above
Ans: d
8. India’s first nuclear power plant was installed at

(a) Tarapore
(b) Kota
(c) Kalpakkam
Ans: a
9. In fuel cell, the ______ energy is converted into

electrical energy.
(a) mechanical
(b) chemical
(c) heat
(d) sound
Ans: b
10. Solar thermal power generation can be achieved by

(a) using focusing collector or heliostates
(b) using flat plate collectors
(c) using a solar pond
(d) any of the above system
Ans: d
READ MORE QUESTIONS —–>

PART 1 PART2 PART 3

20 THOUGHTS ON “100 TOP MOST POWER PLANT ENGINEERING

– ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS”
Muhammad Zaman Khan

SEPTEMBER 27, 2018 AT 6:37 AM
Sir I want all related interview question with answer as a

Control Room Operator Of Electrical Grid Station Please
Sir Email me
engr.zamankhan313@gmail.com
REPLY
jaganath lenka
JUNE 25, 2017 AT 1:26 PM
dear Sir
i have to prepare my OPTCL 1st round please send
6/6/2019 100 TOP POWER PLANT Engineering Objective Type Questions and Answers POWER PLANT Engineering Questions and Answers

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TOP POWER PLANT Engineering Objective Type
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POWER PLANT Engineering Objective Type

Questions and Answers :-
11. The energy radiated by sun on a bright sunny day is approximately
(a) 700 W/m2
(b) 800 W/m2
(c) 1 kW/m2
(d) 2 kW/m2
Ans: c
12. Thorium Breeder Reactors are most suitable for India because
(a) these develop more power
(b) its technology is simple
(c) abundance of thorium deposits are available in India
(d) these can be easily designed
Ans: c
https://engineeringinterviewquestions.com/power-plant-engineering-objective-type-questions-and-answers/ 1/4
13. The overall efficiency of thermal power plant is equal to

(a) Rankine cycle efficiency
(b) Carnot cycle efficiency
(c) Regenerative cycle efficiency
(d) Boiler efficiency x turbine efficiency x generator efficiency
Ans: c
14. Rankine cycle efficiency of a good steam power plant may be in the
range of
(a) 15 to 20 per cent
(6) 35 to 45 per cent
(d) 90 to 95 per ceut
Ans: b
15. Rankine cycle operating on low pressure limit of p1 an 1 high

pressure limit of p2
(a) has higher the renal efficiency than the carnot cycle operating
between same pressure limits
(b) has lower the”nal efficiency than carnot cycle operating between
same pressure limit?
(c) has same thermal efficiency as carnot cycle operating between
same pressure limits
(d) may be more or less depending upon the magnitude of p1 and p2
Ans: a
16. Rankine efficiency of a steam power plant

(a) improves in summer as compared to that in winter
(6) improves in winter as compared to that in summer
(c) is unaffected by climatic conditions
Ans: b
17. Carnot cycle comprises of

(a) two isentropic processes and two constant volume processes
(b) two isentropic processes and two constant pressure processes
(e) two isothermal processes and three constant pressure processes
Ans: b
18. In Rankine cycle the work output from the turbine is given by
(a) change of internal energy between inlet and outlet
(b) change of enthaply between inlet and outlet
(c) change of entropy between inlet and outlet
(d) change of temperature between inlet and outlet
Ans: b
19. Regenerative cycle thermal efficiency

(a) is always greater than simple Rankine thermal efficiency
(b) is greater than simple Rankine cycle thermal efficiency only when
steam is bled at particular pressure
(c) is same as simple Rankine cycle thermal efficiency
(d) is always less than simple Rankine cycle thermal efficiency
Ans: a
20. In a regenerative feed heating cycle, the optimum value of the

fraction of steam extracted for feed heating
(a) decreases with increase in Rankine cycle efficiency
(b) increases with increase in Rankine cycle efficiency
(c) is unaffected by increase in Rankine cycle efficiency
Ans: b

PART 1 PART2 PART 3
Posted on August 19, 2018 by engineer 1 Comment

ONE THOUGHT ON “100 TOP POWER PLANT ENGINEERING

OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS”
amrinder
13th ans. is D . not C

6/6/2019 100 TOP MOST POWER PLANT Engineering Multiple Choice Questions and Answers POWER PLANT Engineering Questions and Answ…

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Questions and Answers :-
21. In a regenerative feed heating cycle, the greatest economy is
affected
(a) when steam is extracted from only one suitable point of steam
turbine
(b) when steam is extracted from several places in different stages of
steam turbine
(c) when steam is extracted only from the last stage of steam turbine
(d) when steam is extracted only from the first stage of steam turbine
Ans: b
22. The maximum percentage gain in Regenerative feed heating cycle

thermal efficiency
(a) increases with number of feed heaters increasing
(b) decreases with number of feed heaters increasing
(c) remains same unaffected by number of feed heaters
https://engineeringinterviewquestions.com/power-plant-engineering-multiple-choice-questions-and-answers/ 1/18

Ans: a
23. In regenerative cycle feed water is heated by

(a) exhaust gases
(b) heaters
(c) draining steam from the turbine
(d) all above
Ans: c
24. Reheat cycle in steam power plant is used to

(a) utilise heat of flue gases
(b) increase thermal efficiency
(c) improve condenser performance
(d) reduce loss of heat
Ans: b
25. Mercury is a choice with steam in binary vapour cycle because it

has
(a) higher critical temperature and pressure
(b) higher saturation temperature than other fluids
(c) relatively low vapourisation pressure
(d) all above
Ans: d
26. Binary’vapour cycles are used to

(a) increase the performance of the condenser
(b) increase the efficiency of the plant
(c) increase efficiency of the turbine
Ans: b
27. A steam power station requires space

(a) equal to diesel power station
(b) more than diesel power station
(c) less than diesel power station
Ans: b
28. Economiser is used to heat

(a) air
(b) feed water

(c) flue gases
(d) all above
Ans: b
29. The modern steam turbines are

(a) impulse turbines
(b) reaction turbines
(c) impulse-reaction turbines
Ans: c
30. The draught which a chimney produces is called

(a) induced draught
(b) natural draught
(c) forced draught
(d) balanced draught
Ans: b
31. The draught produced by steel chimney as compared to that

produced by brick chimney for the same height is
(a) less
(b) more
(c) same
(d) may be more or less
Ans: b
32. In a boiler installation the natural draught is produced

(a) due to the fact that furnace gases being light go through the
chimney giving place to cold air from outside to rush in
(b) due to the fact that pressure at the grate due to cold column is
higher than the pressure at the chimney base due to hot column
(c) due to the fact that at the chimney top the pressure is more than its
environmental pressure
Ans: b
33. The draught produced, for a given height of the chimney and given
mean temperature of chimney gases
(a) decreases with increase in outside air temperature

(b) increases with increase in outside air temperature
(c) remains the same irrespective of outside air temperature
(d) may increase or decrease with increase in outside air temperature
Ans: a
34. The draught produced by chimney of given height at given outside

temperature
(a) decreases if the chimney gas temperature increases
(b) increases if the chimney gas temperature increases
(c) remains same irrespective of chimney gas temperature
(d) may increase or decrease
Ans: b
35. For forced draught system, the function of chimney is mainly

(a) to produce draught to accelerate the combustion of fuel
(b) to discharge gases high up in the atmosphere to avoid hazard
(c) to reduce the temperature of the hot gases discharged
Ans: b
36. Artificial draught is produced by

(a) induced fan
(b) forced fan
(c) induced and forced fan
Ans: d
37. The draught in locomotive boilers is produced by

(a) forced fan
(b) chimney
(c) steam jet
(d) only motion of locomotive
Ans: c
38. For the same draught produced the power of induced draught fan
as compared to forced draught fan is
(a) less
(b) more
(c) same
(d) not predictable
Ans: b
39. Artificial draught is produced by

(a) air fans
(b) steam jet
(c) fan or steam jet
Ans: d
40. The artificial draught normally is designed to produce

(a) less smoke
(b) more draught
(c) less chimney gas temperature
Ans: d
41. For the induced draught the fan is located

(a) near bottom of chimney
(b) near bottom of furnace
(c) at the top of the chimney
(D) anywhere permissible
Ans: a
42. The pressure at the furnace is minimum in case of

(a) forced draught system
(b) induced draught system
(c) balanced draught system
(d) natural draught system
Ans: c
43. The efficiency of chimney is approximately

(a) 80%
(b) 40%
(c) 20%
(d) 0.25%
Ans: d
44. The isentropic expansion of steam through nozzle for the steam
initially superheated at inlet is approximated by equation
(a) pvls=C
(b) pv1126 = C
(c) pv1A = C
(d) pv = C
Ans: a
45. The ratio of exit pressure to inlet pressure for maximum mass flow
rate per unit area of steam through a nozzle when steam is initially dry
saturated is
(a) 0.6
(6) 0.578
(c) 0.555
(d) 0.5457
Ans: b
46. The ratio of exit pressure to inlet pressure of maximum mass flow
rate per area of steam through a nozzle when steam is initially
superheated is
(a) 0.555
(b) 0.578
(c) 0.5457
(d) 0.6
Ans: c
47. The critical pressure ratio of a convergent nozzle is defined as

(a) the ratio of outlet pressure to inlet pressure of nozzle
(b) the ratio of inlet pressure to outlet pressure of nozzle
(c) the ratio of outlet pressure to inlet pressure only when mass flow
rate per unit area is minimum
(d) the ratio of outlet pressure to inlet pressure only when mass flow
rate = c
Ans: d
48. The isentropic expansion of steam through nozzle for the steam
initially dry saturated at inlet is approximated by equation.
(a)pv = C
(b)pv1A = C
(c)pv1i = C
(d)pv
Ans: d
49. The effect of considering friction losses in steam nozzle for the
same pressure ratio leads to
(a) increase in exit velocity from the nozzle
(6) decrease in exit velocity from the nozzle
(c) no change in exit velocity from the nozzle
(d) increase or decrease depending upon the exit quality of steam
Ans: b
50. The effect of considering friction in steam nozzles for the same
pressure ratio leads to
(a) increase in dryness fraction of exit steam
(b) decrease in dryness fraction of exit steam
(c) no change in the quality of exit steam
(d) decrease or increase of dryness fraction of exit steam depending
upon inlet quality
Ans: a
51. In case of impulse steam turbine

(a) there is enthalpy drop in fixed and moving blades
(b) there is enthalpy drop only in moving blades
(c) there is enthalpy drop in nozzles
Ans: c
52. The pressure on the two sides of the impulse wheel of a steam
turbine
(a) is same
(b) is different
(c) increases from one side to the other side
(d) decreases from one side to the other side
Ans: a
53. In De Laval steam turbine

(a) the pressure in the turbine rotor is approximately same as in
con¬denser
(b) the pressure in the turbine rotor is higher than pressure in the
con¬denser
(c) the pressure in the turbine rotor gradually decreases from inlet to
exit from condenser
(d) none from the above
Ans: a
54. Incase of reaction steam turbine

(a) there is enthalpy drop both in fixed and moving blades
(b) there is enthalpy drop only in fixed blades
(c) there is enthalpy drop only in moving blades
Ans: a
55. Curtis turbine is

(a) reaction steam turbine
(b) pressure velocity compounded steam turbine
(c) pressure compounded impulse steam turbine
(d) velocity compounded impulse steam turbine
Ans: b
56. Rateau steam turbine is

(a) reaction steam turbine
(b) velocity compounded impulse steam turbine
(c) pressure compounded impulse steam turbine
(d) pressure velocity compounded steam turbine
Ans: c
57. Parson’s turbine is

(a) pressure compounded steam turbine
(b) simple single wheel, impulse steam turbine
(c) simple single wheel reaction steam turbine
(d) multi wheel reaction steam turbine
Ans: d
58. For Parson’s reaction steam turbine, degree of reaction is

(a) 75%
(b) 100%
(c) 50%
(d) 60%
Ans: c
59. Reheat factor in steam turbines depends on

(a) exit pressure only
(b) stage efficiency only
(c) initial pressures and temperature only
Ans: c
60. The value of reheat factor normally varies from

(a) 0.5 to 0.6
(b) 0.9 to 0.95
(c) 1.02 to 1.06
(d) 1.2 to 1.6
Ans: c
61. Steam turbines are governed by the following methods

(a) Throttle governing
(b) Nozzle control governing
(c) By-pass governing
Ans: d
62. In steam turbines the reheat factor

(a) increases with the increase in number of stages
(b) decreases with the increase in number of stages
(c) remains same irrespective of number of stages
Ans: a
63. The thermal efficiency of the engine with condenser as compared

to without condenser, for a given pressure and temperature of steam,
is
(a) higher
(b) lower
(c) same as long as initial pressure and temperature is unchanged
Ans: a
64. In jet type condensers

(a) cooling water passes through tubes and steam surrounds them
(b) steam passes through tubes and cooling water surrounds them
(c) steam and cooling water mix
(d) steam and cooling water do not mix
Ans: c
65. In a shell and tube surface condenser

(a) steam and cooling water mix to give the condensate
(b) cooling water passes through the tubes and steam surrounds them
(c) steam passes through the cooling tubes and cooling water
surrounds them
(d) all of the above varying with situation
Ans: b
66. In a surface condenser if air is removed, there is

(a) fall in absolute pressure maintained in condenser
(b) rise in absolute pressure maintained in condenser
(c) no change in absolute pressure in the condenser
(d) rise in temperature of condensed steam
Ans: a
67. The cooling section in the surface condenser

(a) increases the quantity of vapour extracted along with air
(b) reduces the quantity of vapour extracted along with air
(c) does not affect vapour quantity extracted but reduces pump
capacity of air extraction pump
Ans: b
68. Edward’s air pump

(a) removes air and also vapour from condenser
(b) removes only air from condenser
(c) removes only un-condensed vapour from condenser
(d) removes air alongwith vapour and also the condensed water from
condenser
Ans: d
69. In a steam power plant, the function of a condenser is

(a) to maintain pressure below atmospheric to increase work output
from the primemover
(b) to receive large volumes of steam exhausted from steam prime
mover
(c) to condense large volumes of steam to water which may be used
again in boiler
Ans: d
70. In a regenerative surface condenser

(a) there is one pump to remove air and condensate
(b) there are two pumps to remove air and condensate
(c) there are three pumps to remove air, vapour and condensate
(d) there is no pump, the condensate gets removed by gravity
Ans: b
71. Evaporative type of condenser has

(a) steam in pipes surrounded by water
(b) water in pipes surrounded by steam
Ans: a
72. Pipes carrying steam are generally made up of

(a) steel
(b) cast iron
(c) copper
(d) aluminium
Ans: a
73. For the safety of a steam boiler the number of safety valves fitted
are
(a) four
(b) three
(c) two
(d) one
Ans: c
74. Steam turbines commonly used in steam power station are

(a) condensing type
(b) non-condensing type
Ans: a
75. Belt conveyer can be used to transport coal at inclinations upto

(a) 30°
(b) 60°
(c) 80°
(d) 90°
Ans: a
76. The maximum length of a screw conveyer is about

(a) 30 metres
(b) 40 metres
(c) 60 metres
(d) 100 metres
Ans: a
77. The efficiency of a modern boiler using coal and heat recovery
equipment is about
(a) 25 to 30%
(b) 40 to 50%
(c) 65 to 70%
(d) 85 to 90%
Ans: d
78. The average ash content in Indian co als is about

(a) 5%
(b) 10%
(c) 15%
(d) 20%
Ans: d
79. Load center in a power station is

(a) center of coal fields
(b) center of maximum load of equipments
(c) center of gravity of electrical system

Ans: c
80. Steam pressure in a steam power station, which is usually kept

now-a-days is of the order of
(a) 20 kgf/cm2
(b) 50 kgf/cm2
(c) 100 kgf/cm2
(d) 150 kgf/cm2
Ans: d
81. Economisers improve boiler efficiency by

(a) 1 to 5%
(b) 4 to 10%
(c) 10 to 12%
Ans: b
82. The capacity of large turbo-generators varies from

(a) 20 to 100 MW
(b) 50 to 300 MW
(c) 70 to 400 MW
(d) 100 to 650 MW
Ans: b
83. Caking coals are those which

(a) burn completely
(b) burn freely
(c) do not form ash
(d) form lumps or masses of coke
Ans: d
84. Primary air is that air which is used to

(a) reduce the flame length
(b) increase the flame length
(c) transport and dry the coal
(d) provide air around burners for get¬ting optimum combustion
Ans: c
85. Secondary air is the air used to

(a) reduce the flame length
(b) increase the flame length
(c) transport and dry the coal
(d) provide air round the burners for getting optimum combustion
Ans: d
86. In coal preparation plant, magnetic separators are used to remove

(a) dust
(b) clinkers
(c) iron particles
(d) sand
Ans: c
87. Load carrying capacity of belt conveyor is about

(a) 20 to 40 tonnes/hr
(b) 50 to 100 tonnes/hr
(c) 100 to 150 tonnes/hr
(d) 150 to 200 tonnes/hr
Ans: b
88. Method which is commonly applied for unloading the coal for
small power plant is
(a) lift trucks
(b) coal accelerators
(c) tower cranes
(d) belt conveyor
Ans: b
89. Bucket elevators are used for

(a) carrying coal in horizontal direction
(b) carrying coal in vertical direction
(c) carrying coal in any direction
Ans: b
90. The amount of air which is supplied for complete combustion is

called
(a) primary air
(b) secondary air
(c) tertiary air

Ans: b
91. In ______ system fuel from a central pulverizing unit is delivered

to a bunker and then to the various burners
(a) unit
(b) central
Ans: b
92. Under-feed stokers work best for _______ coals high in volatile
matter and with caking tendency
(a) anthracite
(b) lignite
(c) semibituminous and bituminous
Ans: c
93. Example of overfeed type stoker is

(a) chain grate
(b) spreader
(c) travelling grate
Ans: d
94. Where unpulverised coal has to be used and boiler capacity is

large, the stoker which is used is
(a) underfeed stoker
(b) overfeed stoker
(c) any
Ans: b
95. TravelUng grate stoker can burn coals at the rates of

(a) 50—75 kg/m per hour
(b) 75—100 kg/m per hour
(c) 100—150 kg/m per hour
(d) 150—200 kg/m2 per hour
Ans: d
96. Blowing down of boiler water is the process

(a) to reduce the boiler pressure
(b) to increase the steam temperature
(c) to control the solid concentration in the boiler water by removing
some of the concentrated saline water
Ans: c
97. Deaerative heating is done to

(a) heat the water
(b) heat the air in the water
(c) remove dissolved gases in the water
Ans: c
98. Reheat factor is the ratio of

(a) isentropic heat drop to useful heat drop
(b) adiabatic heat drop to isentropic heat drop
(c) cumulative actual enthalpy drop for the stages to total is isentropic
enthalpy heat drop
Ans: c
99. The value of the reheat factor is of the order of

(a) 0.8 to 1.0
(b) 1.0 to 1.05
(c) 1.1 to 1.5
(d) above 1.5
Ans: c
100. Compounding of steam turbine is done for

(a) reducing the work done
(b) increasing the rotor speed
(c) reducing the rotor speed
(d) balancing the turbine
Ans: c

PART 1 PART2 PART 3
6/6/2019 300+ TOP ECONOMICS of POWER GENERATION Objective Questions Answers

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Economics of Power Generation Objective
Questions :-
1. Load factor of a power station is defined as
(a) maximum demand/average load
(b) average load x maximum demand
(c) average load/maximum demand
(d) (average load x maximum demand)172
Ans: c
2. Load factor of a power station is generally

(a) equal to unity
(b) less than unity
(c) more than unity
(d) equal to zero Diversity factor is always
Ans: b
https://engineeringinterviewquestions.com/economics-of-power-generation-electrical-engineering-objective-type-questions-and-answers/ 1/24
3. The load factor of domestic load is usually

(a) 10 to 15%
(b) 30 to 40%
(c) 50 to 60%
(d) 60 to 70%
Ans: a
4. Annual depreciation cost is calculated by

(a) sinkingfund method
(b) straight line method
Ans: c
5. Depreciation charges are high in case of

(a) thermal plant
(b) diesel plant
(c) hydroelectric plant
Ans: a
6. Demand factor is defined as

(a) average load/maximum load
(b) maximum demand/connected load
(c) connected load/maximum demand
(d) average load x maximum load
Ans: b
7. High load factor indicates

(a) cost of generation per unit power is increased
(b) total plant capacity is utilised for most of the time
(c) total plant capacity is not properly utilised for most of the time
Ans: b
8. A load curve indicates

(a) average power used during the period
(b) average kWh (kW) energy consumption during the period

Ans: b
9. Approximate estimation of power demand can be made

by
(a) load survey method
(b) statistical methods
(c) mathematical method
(d) economic parameters
Ans: e
10. Annual depreciation as per straight line method, is

calculated by
(a) the capital cost divided by number of year of life
(b) the capital cost minus the salvage value, is divided by the number
of years of life
(c) increasing a uniform sum of money per annum at stipulated rate of
interest
Ans: b
11. A consumer has to pay lesser fixed charges in

(a) flat rate tariff
(b) two part tariff
(c) maximum demand tariff
Ans: c
12. In two part tariff, variation in load factor will affect

(a) fixed charges
(b) operating or running charges
(d) either (a) or (b)
Ans: b
13. In Hopknison demand rate or two parttariff the demand

rate or fixed charges are
(a) dependent upon the energy consumed
(b) dependent upon the maximum demand of the consumer

Ans: b
14. Which plant can never have 100 percent load factor ?
(a) Peak load plant
(b) Base load plant
(c) Nuclear power plant
(d) Hydro electric plant
Ans: a
15. The area under a load curve gives

(a) average demand
(b) energy consumed
(c) maximum demand
Ans: b
16. Different generating stations use following prime

movers
(a) diesel engine
(b) hydraulic turbine
(c) gas turbine
(d) steam turbine
Ans: e
17. Diversity factor has direct effect on the

(a) fixed cost of unit generated
(b) running cost of unit generated
Ans: a
18. Following power plant has instant starting

(a) nuclear power plant
(b) hydro power plant
(c) diesel power plant

Ans: d
19. Which of the following generating station has minimum

ruiyiing cost ?
(a) Nuclear
(b) Hydro
(c) Thermal
(d) Diesel
Ans: b
20. Power plant having maximum demand more than the

installed rated capacity will have utilisation factor
(a) equal to unity
(b) less than unity
(c) more than unity
Ans: c
21. Load curve is useful in deciding the

(a) operating schedule of generating units
(b) sizes of generating units
(c) total installed capacity of the plant
Ans: d
22. Load curve of a power plant has always

(a) zero slope
(b) positive slope
(c) negative slope
(d) any combination of (a), (b) and (c)
Ans: e
23. Annual operating expenditure of a power plant consists

of
(a) fixed charges
(b) semi-fixed charges
(c) running charges

Ans: d
24. Maximum demand on a power plant is

(a) the greatest of all “short time interval averaged” demand during a
period
(b) instantaneous maximum value of kVA supplied during a period
(e) both (a) or (b)
Ans: a
25. Annual instalment towards depreciation reduces as rate

of interest increases with
(a) sinking fund depreciation
(b) straight line depreciation
(c) reducing balances depreciation
Ans: a
26. Annual depreciation of the plant it proportional to the earning

capacity of the plant vide
(a) sinking fund depreciation
(b) straight line depreciation
(c) reducing balances depreciation
Ans: c
27. For high value of diversity factor, a power station of given installed
capacity will be in a position to supply
(a) less number of consumers
(b) more number of consumers
(c) neither (a) nor (b)
Ans: b
28. Salvage value of the plant is always

(a) positive
(b) negative
(c) zero

Ans: d
29. Load curve helps in deciding

(a) total installed capacity of the plant
(b) sizes of the generating units
(c) operating schedule of generating units
Ans: d
30 can generate power at unpredictable or uncontrolled times,

(a) Solar power plant
(b) Tidal power plant
(c) Wind power plant
Ans: d
31. Direct conversion of heat into electric power is possible through

(a) fuel cell
(b) batteries
(c) thermionic converter
Ans: c
32. A low utilization factor for a plant indicates that

(a) plant is used for stand by purpose only
(b) plant is under maintenance
(c) plant is used for base load only
(d) plant is used for peak load as well as base load
Ans: a
33. Which of the following is not a source of power ?

(a) Thermocouple
(b) Photovoltaic cell
(c) Solar cell
(d) Photoelectric cell
Ans: a
34. Which of the following should be used for extinguishing electrical

fires ?
(a) Water
(b) Carbon tetrachloride fire extinguisher
(c) Foam type fire extinguisher
(d) CO2 fire extinguisher
Ans: b
35. Low power factor is usually not due to

(a) arc lamps
(b) induction motors
(c) fluorescent tubes
(d) incandescent lamp
Ans: d
36. Ships are generally powered by

(a) nuclear power plants
(b) hydraulic turbines
(e) diesel engines
(d) steam accumulators
Ans: c
37. Direct conversion of heat into electrical energy is possible through

(a) fuel cells
(b) solar cells
(c) MHD generators
Ans: c
38. Which of the following place is not associated with nuclear power
plants in India ?
(a) Narora
(b) Tarapur
(c) Kota
(d) Benglore
Ans: d
39. During load shedding

(a) system power factor is changed
(b) some loads are switched off
(c) system voltage is reduced
(d) system frequency is reduced Efficiency is the secondary
consideration in
Ans: b
40. which of the following plants ?

(a) Base load plants
(b) Peak load plants
Ans: b
41. Air will not be the working substance in which of the following ?
(a) Closed cycle gas turbine
(b) Open cycle gas turbine
(c) Diesel engine
(d) Petrol engine
Ans: a
42. A nuclear power plant is invariably used as a

(a) peak load plant
(b) base load plant
(c) stand-by plant
(d) spinning reserve plant
Ans: b
43. power plant is expected to have the longest life.

(a) Steam
(b) Diesel
(c) Hydroelectric
Ans: c
44. power plant cannot have single unit of 100 MW.

(a) Hydroelectric
(b) Nuclear
(c) Steam
(d) Diesel
(e) Any of the above
Ans: d
45. Which of the following, in a thermal power plant, is not a fixed

cost ?
(a) Fuel cost
(b) Interest on capital
(c) Depreciation
(d) Insurance charges
Ans: a
46. _______ will offer the least load.

(a) Vacuum cleaner
(b) Television
(c) Hair dryer
(d) Electric shaver
Ans: d
47. In ______ fuel transportation cost is least.

(a) nuclear power plants
(b) diesel generating plants
(c) steam power stations
Ans: a
48. Which of the following equipment provides fluctuating load ?

(a) Exhaust fan
(b) Lathe machine
(c) Welding transformer
Ans: c
49. The increased load during summer months is due to

(a) increased business activity
(b) increased water supply
(c) increased use of fans and air conditioners

Ans: c
50 is the reserved generating capacity available for service under

emergency conditions which is not kept in operation but in working
order,
(a) Hot reserve
(b) Cold reserve
(c) Spinning reserve
(d) Firm power
Ans: b
51. Generating capacity connected to the bus bars and ready to take
load when switched on is known as
(a) firm power
(b) cold reserve
(c) hot reserve
(d) spinning reserve
Ans: d
52. offers the highest electric load.

(a) Television set
(b) Toaster
(c) Vacuum cleaner
(d) Washing machine
Ans: b
53. _______ industry has the least power consumption per tonne of
product.
(a) Soap
(b) Sugar
(c) Vegetable oil
(d) Caustic soda
Ans: c
54. With reference to a power station which of the following is not a

fixed cost ?
(a) Fuel cost
(b) Interest on capital
(c) Insurance charges

(d) Depreciation
Ans: a
55. _______ is invariably used as base load plant.

(a) Diesel engine plant
(b) Nuclear power plant
(c) Gas turbine plant
(d) Pumped storage plant
Ans: b
ECONOMICS of POWER GENERATION Multiple Choice Questions

::
56. In a power plant if the maximum demand on the plant is equal to
the plant capacity, then
(a) plant reserve capacity will be zero
(b) diversity factor will be unity
(c) load factor will be unity
(d) load factor will be nearly 60%
Ans: a
57. Incase of ______ fuel transportation is the major problem.

(a) diesel power plants
(b) nuclear power plants
(c) hydro-electric power plants
(d) thermal power plants
Ans: d
58. Which of the following power plants need the least period for
installation ?
(a) Thermal power plant
(b) Diesel power plant
(d) Hydro-electric power plant
Ans: b
59. For which of the following power plants highly skilled engineers
are required for running the plants ?
(a) Nuclear power plants
(b) Gas turbine power plants

(c) Solar power plants
(d) Hydro-electric power plants
Ans: a
60. In which’of the following power plants the maintenance cost is

usually high ?
(a) Nuclear power plant
(b) Hydro-electric power plants
(c) Thermal power plants
(d) Diesel engine power plants
Ans: c
61. ________ is invariably used for peak load

(a) Nuclear power plant
(b) Steam turbine plant
(c) Pumped storage plant
Ans: c
62. Which of the following is not an operating cost ?

(a) Maintenance cost
(b) Fuel cost
(c) Salaries of high officials
(d) Salaries of operating staff
Ans:
63. Which of the following is the essential requirement of peak load

plant ?
(a) It should run at high speed
(b) It should produce high voltage
(c) It should be small in size
(d) It should be capable of starting quickly
Ans: d
64. Large capacity generators are invariably

(a) water cooled
(b) natural air cooled
(c) forced air cooled
(d) hydrogen cooled

Ans: d
65. By the use of which of the following power factor can be improved
?
(a) Phase advancers
(b) Synchronous compensators
(c) Static capacitors
Ans: d
66. An induction motor has relatively high power factor at

(a) rated r.p.m.
(b) no load
(c) 20 percent load
(d) near full load
Ans: d
67. Which of the following is the disadvantage due to low power factor
?
(a) Poor voltage regulation
(b) Increased transmission losses
(c) High cost of equipment for a given load
Ans: d
68. In a distribution system, in order to improve power factor, the

synchronous capacitors are installed
(a) at the receiving end
(b) at the sending end
Ans: a
69. Static capacitors are rated in terms of

(a) kW
(b) kWh
(e) kVAR

Ans: c
70. Which of the following is the disadvantage of a synchronous

condenser ?
(a) High maintenance cost
(b) Continuous losses in motor
(c) Noise
Ans: d
71. For a consumer the most economical power factor is generally

(a) 0.5 lagging
(b) 0.5 leading
(c) 0.95 lagging
(d) 0.95 leading
Ans: c
72. A synchronous condenser is virtually which of the following ?

(a) Induction motor
(b) Under excited synchronous motor
(c) Over excited synchronous motor
(d) D.C. generator
Ans: c
73. For a power plant which of the following constitutes running cost ?
(a) Cost of wages
(b) Cost of fuel
(c) Cost of lubricants
Ans: d
74. In an interconnected system, the diversity factor of the whole

system
(a) remains unchanged
(b) decreases
(c) increases

Ans: c
75. Generators for peak load plants are usually designed for maximum
efficiency at
(a) 25 to 50 percent full load
(b) 50 to 75 percent full load
(c) full load
(d) 25 percent overload
Ans: b
76. ________ will be least affected due to charge in supply voltage

frequency.
(a) Electric clock
(b) Mixer grinder
(c) Ceiling fan
(d) Room heater
Ans: d
77. The connected load of a IVMIM uir consumer is around

(a) 5 kW
(b) 40 kV
(c) 80 kW
(d) 120 kW
Ans: a
78. Which of the following is not necessarily an advantage of

interconnecting various power stations ?
(a) Improved frequency of power supplied
(b) Reduction in total installed capacity
(c) Increased reliability
(d) Economy in operation of plants
Ans: a
79. A power transformer is usually rated in

(a) kW
(b) kVAR
(c) kWh
(d) kVA
Ans: d
80. public sector undertaking is associated with erection and

sometimes running of thermal power plants
(a) NTPC
(b) SAIL
(c) BEL
(d) BHEL
Ans: a
81. Most efficient plants are normally used as

(a) peak load plants
(b) base load plants
Ans:
82. For a diesel generating station the useful life is expected to be

around
(a) 15 to 20 years
(b) 20 to 50 years
(c) 50 to 75 years
(d) 75 to 100 years
Ans: a
83. Which of the following is not a method for estimating depreciation

charges ?
(a) Sinking fund method
(b) Straight line method
(c) Diminishing value method
(d) Halsey’s 50—50 formula
Ans: d
84. The expected useful life of an hydroelectric power station is

around
(a) 15 years
(b) 30 years
(c) 60 years
(d) 100 years

Ans: d
85. In a load curve the highest point represents

(a) peak demand
(b) average demand
(c) diversified demand
Ans: a
86. Which of the following source of power is least reliable ?

(a) Solar energy
(b) Geothermal power
(c) Wind power
(d) iMHD
Ans:
87. In India production and distribution of electrical energy is

confined to
(a) private sector
(b) public sector
(c) government sectors
(d) joint sector
Ans: b
88. A pilot exciter is provided on generators for which of the following

reasons ?
(a) To excite the poles of main exciter
(b) To provide requisite starting torque to main exciter
(c) To provide requisite starting torque to generator
Ans: a
89. The primary reason for low power factor is supply system is due to
installation of
(a) induction motors
(b) synchronous motors
(c) single phase motors
(d) d.c. motors

Ans: a
90. An over excited synchronous motor on noload is known as

(a) synchronous condenser
(b) generator
(c) induction motor
(d) alternator
Ans: a
91. Which of the following is an advantage of static capacitor for

power factor improvement ?
(a) Little maintenance cost
(b) Ease in installation
(c) Low losses
Ans: d
92. For any type of consumer the ideal tariff is

(a) two part tariff
(b) three part tariff
(c) block rate tariff
Ans: b
93. The efficiency of a plant is of least concern when it is selected as

(a) peak load plant
(b) casual run plant
(d) base load plant
Ans: c
94. Which of the following plants is almost inevitably used as base

load plant ?
(a) Diesel engine plant
(b) Gas turbine plant
(d) Pumped storage plant
Ans: c
95. Which of the following component, in a steam power plant, needs

maximum maintenance attention ?
(a) Steam turbine
(b) Condenser
(c) Water treatment plant
(d) Boiler
Ans: d
96. For the same cylinder dimensions and speed, which of the
following engine will produce least power ?
(a) Supercharged engine
(b) Diesel engine
(c) Petrol engine
(d) All of the above engines will equal power
Ans: c
97. The least share of power is provided in India, by which of the

following power plants ? ‘
(a) Diesel power plants
(b) Thermal power plants
(c) Hydro-electric power plants
(d) Nuclear power plants
Ans: a
98. Submarines for under water movement, are powered by which of

the following ?
(a) Steam accumulators
(b) Air motors
(c) Diesel engines
(d) Batteries
Ans: d
99. An alternator coupled to a _____ runs at slow speed, as

compared to as com¬pared to others.
(a) diesel engine
(6) hydraulic turbine
(c) steam turbine
(d) gas turbine
Ans: b
100. The effect of electric shock on human body depends on which of

the following
(a) current
(b) voltage
(c) duration of contact
Ans: d
101. Which lightening stroke is most dangerous ?

(a) Direct stroke on line conductor
(b) Indirect stroke on conductor
(c) Direct stroke on tower top
(d) Direct stroke on ground wire
Ans: a
102. Which of the following devices may be used to provide protection

against lightening over voltages ?
(a) Horn gaps
(b) Rod gaps
(c) Surge absorbers
Ans: d
103. When the demand of consumers is not met by a power plant, it

will resort to which of the following ?
(a) Load shedding
(b) Power factor improvement at the , generators
(c) Penalising high load consumers by increasing the charges for
electricity
(d) Efficient plant operation
Ans: a
104. Load shedding is possible through which of the following ?

(a) Switching of the loads
(b) Frequency reduction
(c) Voltage reduction
Ans: d
105. In power plants insurance cover is provided for which of the

following ?
(a) Unskilled workers only
(b) Skilled workers only
(c) Equipment only
Ans: d
107 A company can raise funds through

(a) fixed deposits
(b) shares
(c) bonds
Ans: d
108. Which of the following are not repayable after a stipulated period
?
(a) Shares
(b) Fixed deposits
(c) Cash certificates
(d) Bonds
Ans: a
109. The knowledge of diversity factor helps in determining

(a) plant capacity
(b) average load
(c) peak load
(d) kWh generated
Ans: a
110. Which of the following is the disadvantage of static capacitor for

power factor improvement ?
(a) Easily damaged by high voltage
(b) Cannot be repaired
(c) Short service life
Ans: d
6/6/2019 300+ TOP TRANSMISSION & DISTRIBUTION Objective Questions and Answers Electrical Engineering Multiple Choice Questions


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TOP TRANSMISSION & DISTRIBUTION Objective
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TRANSMISSION & DISTRIBUTION Multiple

Choice Questions :-
1. By which of the following systems electric power may be
transmitted ?
(a) Overhead system
(b) Underground system
Ans: c
2. are the conductors, which connect the consumer’s

terminals to the distribution
(a) Distributors
(b) Service mains
(c) Feeders
Ans: b
https://engineeringinterviewquestions.com/transmission-distribution-electrical-engineering-objective-type-questions-and-answers/ 1/29
3. The underground system cannot be operated above

(a) 440 V
(b) 11 kV
(c) 33 kV
(d) 66 kV
Ans: d
4. Overhead system can be designed for operation up to

(a) 11 kV
(b) 33 kV
(c) 66 kV
(d) 400 kV
Ans: c
5. If variable part of annual cost on account of interest and

depreciation on the capital outlay is equal to the annual
cost of electrical energy wasted in the conductors, the total
annual cost will be minimum and the corresponding size of
conductor will be most economical. This statement is
known as
(a) Kelvin’s law
(b) Ohm’s law
(c) Kirchhoffs law
(d) Faraday’s law
Ans: a
6. The wooden poles well impregnated with creosite oil or

any preservative compound have life
(a) from 2 to 5 years
(b) 10 to 15 years
(c) 25 to 30 years
(d) 60 to 70 years
Ans: c
7. Which of the following materials is not used for

transmission and distribution of electrical power ?
(a) Copper
(b) Aluminium
(c) Steel
(d) Tungsten
Ans: d
8. Galvanised steel wire is generally used as

(a) stay wire
(b) earth wire
(c) structural components
Ans: d
9. The usual spans with R.C.C. poles are

(a) 40—50 meters
(b) 60—100 meters
(c) 80—100 meters
(d) 300—500 meters
Ans: c
10. The corona is considerably affected by which of the

following ?
(a) Size of the conductor
(b) Shape of the conductor
(c) Surface condition of the conductor
Ans: d
11. Which of the following are the constants of the transmission lines ?
(a) Resistance
(b) Inductance
(c) Capacitance
Ans: d
12. 310 km line is considered as

(a) a long line
(b) a medium line
(c) a short line
Ans: a
13. The phenomenon qf rise in voltage at the receiving end of the

open-circuited or lightly loaded line is called the
(a) Seeback effect
(b) Ferranti effect
(c) Raman effect
Ans: b
14. The square root of the ratio of line impedance and shunt
admittance is called the
(a) surge impedance of the line
(b) conductance of the line
(c) regulation of the line
Ans: a
15. Which of the following is the demerit of a ‘constant voltage

transmission system’ ?
(a) Increase of short-circuit current of the system
(b) Availability of steady voltage at all loads at the line terminals
(c) Possibility of better protection for the line due to possible use of
higher terminal reactants
(d) Improvement of power factor at times of moderate and heavy
loads
(e) Possibility of carrying increased power for a given conductor size
in case of long-distance heavy power transmission
Ans: a
16. Low voltage cables are meant for use up to

(a)l.lkV
(b)3.3kV
(c)6.6kV
(d)llkV
Ans: e
17. The operating voltage of high voltage cables is up to

(a)l.lkV
(b)3.3kV
(c)6.6kV
(d)llkV
Ans: d
18. The operating voltage of supertension cables is up to

(a) 3.3 kV
(b) 6.6 kV
(c) 11 kV
(d) 33 kV
Ans: d
19. The operating voltage of extra high tension cables is upto

(a) 6.6 kV
(b) 11 kV
(c) 33 kV
(d) 66 kV
(e) 132 kV
Ans: d
20. Which of the following methods is used for laying of underground

cables ?
(a) Direct laying
(b) Draw-in-system
(c) Solid system
Ans: d
21. Which of the following is the source of heat generation in the

cables ?
(a) Dielectric losses in cable insulation
(b) losses in the conductor
(c) Losses in the metallic sheathings and armourings
Ans:
22. Due to which of the following reasons the cables should not be
operated too hot ?
(a) The oil may loose its viscosity and it may start drawing off from
higher levels
(b) Expansion of the oil may cause the sheath to burst
(c) Unequal expansion may create voids in the insulation which will
lead to ionization
(d) The thermal instability may rise due to the rapid increase of
dielectric losses with temperature
Ans: e
23. Which of the following D.C. distribution system is the simplest and
lowest in first cost ?
(a) Radial system
(b) Ring system
(c) Inter-connected system
Ans: a
24. A booster is a
(a) series wound generator
(b) shunt wound generator
(c) synchronous generator
Ans: a
25. Besides a method of trial and error, which of the following

methods is employed for solution of network problems in
interconnected system ?
(a) Circulating current method
(b) Thevenin’s theorem
(c) Superposition of currents
(d) Direct application of Kirehhoffs laws
Ans: e
26. Which of the following faults is most likely to occur in cables ?

(a) Cross or short-circuit fault
(b) Open circuit fault
(c) Breakdown of cable insulation
Ans:
27. The cause of damage to the lead sheath of a cable is

(a) crystallisation of the lead through vibration
(b) chemical action on the lead when buried in the earth
(c) mechanical damage
Ans:
28. The voltage of the single phase supply to residential consumers is

(a) 110 V
(b) 210 V
(c) 230 V
(d) 400 V
Ans: c
29. Most of the high voltage transmission lines in India are

(a) underground
(b) overhead
Ans: b
30. The distributors for residential areas are

(a) single phase
(b) three-phase three wire
(c) three-phase four wire
Ans: c
31. The conductors of the overhead lines are

(a) solid
(b) stranded
(c) both solid and stranded
Ans:
32. High voltage transmission lines use

(a) suspension insulators
(b) pin insulators

Ans: a
33. Multicore cables generally use

(a) square conductors
(b) circular conductors
(c) rectangular conductors
(d) sector-shaped conductors
Ans: d
34. Distribution lines in India generally use

(a) wooden poles
(b) R.C.C. poles
(c) steel towers
Ans: b
35. The material commonly used for insulation in high voltage cables
is
(a) lead
(b) paper
(c) rubber
Ans: b
36. The loads on distributors systems are generally

(a) balanced
(b) unbalanced
Ans: b
37. The power factor of industrial loads is generally

(a) unity
(b) lagging
(c) leading
(d) zero
Ans: b
38. Overhead lines generally use

(a) copper conductors
(b) all aluminium conductors
(c) A.C.S.R. conductors
(d) none of these
Ans: c
39. In transmission lines the cross-arms are made of

(a) copper
(b) wood
(c) R.C.C.
(d) steel
Ans: d
40. The material generally used for armour of high voltage cables is
(a) aluminium
(b) steel
(c) brass
(d) copper
Ans: b
41. Transmission line insulators are made of

(a) glass
(b) porcelain
(c) iron
(d) P.V.C.
Ans:
42. The material commonly used for sheaths of underground cables is

(a) lead
(b) rubber
(c) copper
(d) iron
Ans: a
43. The minimum clearance between the ground and a 220 kV line is
about
(a) 4.3 m
(b) 5.5 m
(c) 7.0 m
(d) 10.5 m
Ans: c
44. The spacing between phase conductors of a 220 kV line is

approximately equal to
(a) 2 m
(b) 3.5 m
(c) 6 m
(d) 8.5 m
Ans: c
45. Large industrial consumers are supplied electrical energy at

(a) 400 V
(b) 11 kV
(c) 66 kV
(d) 400 kV
Ans: c
46. In a D.C. 3-wire distribution system, balancer fields are cross-

connected in order to
(a) boost the generated voltage
(b) balance loads on both sides of the neutral
(c) make both machine^ run as unloaded motors
(d) equalize voltages on the positive and negative outers
Ans:
47. In a D.C. 3-wire distributor using balancers and having unequal

loads on the two sides
(a) both balancers run as generators
(b) both balancers run as motors
(c) balancer connected to lightly- loaded side runs as a motor
(d) balancer connected to heavily- loaded side runs as a motor
Ans:
48. Transmitted power remaining the same, if supply voltage of a D.C.

2-wire feeder is increased 100 percent, saving in copper is
(a) 25 percent
(b) 50 percent
(c) 75 percent
(d) 100 percent
Ans: b
49. A uniformly-loaded D.C. distributor is fed at both ends with equal

voltages. As compared to a similar distributor fed at one end only, the
drop at the middle point is
(a) one-fourth
(b) one-third
(c) one-half
(d) twice
Ans: a
50. As compared to a 2-wire D.C. distributor, a 3-wire distributor with

same maximum voltage to earth uses only
(a) 31.25 percent of copper
(b) 33.3 percent of copper
(c) 66.7 percent of copper
(d) 125 percent of copper
Ans: a
51. Which of the following is usually not the generating voltage ?

(a) 6.6 kV
(b) 8.8 kV
(c) 11 kV
(d) 13.2 kV
Ans: b
52. For an overhead line, the surge impedance is taken as

(a) 20-30 ohms
(b) 70—80 ohms
(c) 100—200 ohms
(d) 500—1000 ohms
Ans: c
53. The presence of ozone due to corona is harmful because it

(a) reduces power factor
(b) corrodes the material

(c) gives odour
(d) transfer energy to the ground
Ans: b
54. A feeder, in a transmission system, feeds power to

(a) distributors
(b) generating stations
(c) service mains
Ans: a
55. The power transmitted will be maximum when

(a) corona losses are minimum
(b) reactance is high
(c) sending end voltage is more
(d) receiving end voltage is more
Ans: c
56. A 3-phase 4 wire system is commonly used on

(a) primary transmission
(b) secondary transmission
(c) primary distribution
(d) secondary distribution
Ans: d
57. Which of the following materials is used for overhead transmission

lines ?
(a) Steel cored aluminium
(b) Galvanised steel
(c) Cadmium copper
Ans: d
58. Which of the following is not a constituent for making porcelain

insulators ?
(a) Quartz
(b) Kaolin
(c) Felspar
(d) Silica
Ans: d
59. There is a greater possibility of occurence of corona during

(a) dry weather
(b) winter
(c) summer heat
(d) humid weather
Ans: d
60. Which of the following relays is used on long transmission lines ?

(a) Impedance relay
(b) Mho’s relay
(c) Reactance relay
Ans: b
61. The steel used in steel cored conductors is usually

(a) alloy steel
(b) stainless steel
(c) mild steel
(d) high speed steel
Ans: c
62. Which of the following distribution systems is more reliable ?

(a) Radial system
(b) Tree system
(c) Ring main system
(d) All are equally reliable
Ans: c
63. Which of the following characteristics should the line supports for
transmission lines possess ?
(a) Low cost
(b) High mechanical strength
(c) Longer life

Ans: d
64. Transmission voltage of ll kV is normally used for distances upto

(a) 20—25 km
(b) 40—50 km
(c) 60—70 km
(d) 80—100 km
Ans: a
65. Which of the following regulations is considered best?

(a) 50%
(b) 20%
(c) 10%
(d) 2%
Ans: d
66. Skin effect is proportional to

(a) (conductor diameter)
(b) (conductor diameter)
(c) (conductor diameter)
(d) (conductor diameter)
Ans: c
67. A conductor, due to sag between two supports, takes the form of
(a) semi-circle
(b) triangle
(c) ellipse
(d) catenary
Ans: d
68. In AC.S.R. conductors, the insulation between aluminium and

steel conductors is
(a) insulin
(b) bitumen
(c) varnish
(d) no insulation is required
Ans: d
69. Which of the following bus-bar schemes has the lowest cost ?
(a) Ring bus-bar scheme
(b) Single bus-bar scheme
(c) Breaker and a half scheme
(d) Main and transfer scheme
Ans: b
70. Owing to skin effect

(a) current flows through the half cross-section of the conductor
(b) portion of the conductor near the surface carries more current and
core of the conductor carries less current
(c) portion of the conductor near the surface carries less current and
core of the conductor carries more cur¬rent
Ans: b
71. By which of the following methods string efficiency can be

improved ?
(a) Using a guard ring
(b) Grading the insulator
(c) Using long cross arm
Ans: d
72. In aluminium conductors, steel core is provided to

(a) compensate for skin effect
(b) neutralise proximity effect
(c) reduce line inductance
(d) increase the tensile strength
Ans: d
73. By which of the following a bus-bar is rated ?

(a) Current only
(b) Current and voltage
(c) Current, voltage and frequency
(d) Current, voltage, frequency and short time current
Ans: d
74. A circuit is disconnected by isolators when

(a) line is energized
(b) there is no current in the line
(c) line is on full load
(d) circuit breaker is not open
Ans: b
75. For which of the following equipment current rating is not

necessary ?
(a) Circuit breakers
(b) Isolators
(c) Load break switch
(d) Circuit breakers and load break switches
Ans: b
76. In a substation the following equipment is not installed

(a) exciters
(b) series capacitors
(c) shunt reactors
(d) voltatre transformers
Ans: a
77. jCorona usually occurs when the electrostatic stress in air around
the conductor exceeds
(a) 6.6 kV (r.m.s. value)/cm
(b) 11 kV (r.m.s. value)/cm
(c) 22 kV (maximum value)/cm
(d) 30 kV (maximum value)/cm
Ans: d
78. The voltage drop, for constant voltage transmission is

compensated by installing
(a) inductors
(b) capacitors
(c) synchronous motors
(d) all of above
Ans: c
79. The use of strain type insulators is made where the conductors are
(a) dead ended
(b) at intermediate anchor towers
Ans: c
80. The current drawn by the line due to corona losses is

(a) non-sinusoidal
(b) sinusoidal
(c) triangular
(d) square
Ans: a
81. Pin type insulators are generally not used for voltages beyond
(a) 1 kV
(b) 11 kV
(c) 22 kV
(d) 33 kV
Ans: d
82. Aluminium has a specific gravity of

(a) 1.5
(b) 2.7
(c) 4.2
(d) 7.8
Ans: b
83. For transmission of power over a distance of 200 km, the

transmission voltage should be
(a) 132 kV
(b) 66 kV
(c) 33 kV
(d) 11 kV
Ans: a
84. For aluminium, as compared to copper, all the following factors

have higher values except
(a) specific volume
(6) electrical conductivity

(c) co-efficient of linear expansion
(d) resistance per unit length for same cross-section
Ans: b
85. Which of the following equipment, for regulating the voltage in

distribution feeder, will be most economical ?
(a) Static condenser
(b) Synchronous condenser
(c) Tap changing transformer
(d) Booster transformer
Ans: d
86. In a tap changing transformer, the tappings are provided on

(a) primary winding
(b) secondary winding
(c) high voltage winding
Ans: c
87. Constant voltage transmission entails the following disadvantage

(a) large conductor area is required for same power transmission
(b) short-circuit current of the system is increased
Ans: b
88. On which of the following factors skin effect depends ?

(a) Frequency of the current
(b) Size of the conductor
(c) Resistivity of the conductor material
Ans: d
89. The effect of corona can be detected by

(a) presence of ozone detected by odour
(b) hissing sound
(c) faint luminous glow of bluish colour

Ans: d
90. For transmission of power over a distance of 500 km, the

transmission voltage should be in the range
(a) 150 to 220 kV
(b) 100 to 120 kV
(c) 60 to 100 kV
(d) 20 to 50 kV
Ans: a
91. In the analysis of which of the following lines shunt capacitance is

neglected ?
(a) Short transmission lines
(b) Medium transmission lines
(c) Long transmission lines
(d) Medium as well as long transmission lines
Ans: a
92. When the interconnector between two stations has large reactance
(a) the transfer of power will take place with voltage fluctuation and
noise
(b) the transfer of power will take place with least loss
(c) the stations will fall out of step be¬cause of large angular
displacement between the stations
Ans: c
93. The frequency of voltage generated, in case of generators, can be

increased by
(a) using reactors
(b) increasing the load
(c) adjusting the governor
(d) reducing the terminal voltage
Ans: c
94. When an alternator connected to the bus-bar is shut down the

bus-bar voltage will
(a) fall
(b) rise
(c) remain unchanged
Ans: c
95. The angular displacement between two interconnected stations is

mainly due to
(a) armature reactance of both alternators
(b) reactance of the interconnector
(c) synchronous reactance of both the alternators
Ans: a
96. Electro-mechanical voltage regulators are generally used in

(a) reactors
(b) generators
(c) transformers
Ans: b
97. Series capacitors on transmission lines are of little use when the
load VAR requirement is
(a) large
(b) small
(b) fluctuating
Ans: b
98. The voltage regulation in magnetic amplifier type voltage

regulator is effected by
(a) electromagnetic induction
(b) varying the resistance
(c) varying the reactance
(d) variable transformer
Ans: c
99. When a conductor carries more current on the surface as

compared to core, it is due to
(a) permeability variation

(b) corona
(c) skin effect
(d) unsymmetrical fault
Ans: c
100. The following system is not generally used

(a) 1-phase 3 wire
(b) 1-phase 4 wire
(c) 3-phase 3 wire
(d) 3-phase 4 wire
Ans: a
101. The skin effect of a conductor will reduce as the

(a) resistivity of conductor material increases
(b) permeability of conductor material increases
(c) diameter increases
(d) frequency increases
Ans: a
110. When a live conductor of public electric supply breaks down and
touches the earth which of the following will happen ?
(a) Current will flow to earth
(b) Supply voltage will drop
(c) Supply voltage will increase
(d) No current will flow in the conductor
Ans: a
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6/6/2019 300+ TOP SWITCHGEAR & PROTECTION Objective Questions and Answers Electrical Engineering Multiple Choice Questions


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TOP SWITCHGEAR & PROTECTION Objective Questions
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and Answers
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PROTECTION Objective Questions Like Page
and Answers Be the first of your friends to
SWITCHGEAR & PROTECTION Multiple Choice

Questions :-
1. The main function of a fuse is to
(a) protect the line
(b) open the circuit
(c) protect the appliance
(d) prevent excessive currents
Ans: d
2. On which of the following routine tests are conducted ?

(a) Oil circuit breakers
(b) Air blast circuit breakers
(c) Minimum oil circuit breakers
Ans: d
https://engineeringinterviewquestions.com/switchgear-protections-electrical-engineering-objective-type-questions-and-answers/ 1/28
3. SF6 gas
(a) is yellow in colour
(b) is lighter than air
(c) is nontoxic
(d) has pungent small
Ans: c
4. The arcing contacts in a circuit breaker are made of

(a) copper tungsten alloy
(b) porcelain
(c) electrolytic copper
(d) aluminium alloy
Ans: a
5. Which of the following medium is employed for

extinction of arc in air circuit breaker ?
(a) Water
(b) Oil
(c) Air
(d) SF6
Ans: c
6. With which of the following, a circuit breaker must be

equipped for remote operation ?
(a) Inverse time trip
(b) Time-delay trip
(c) Shunt trip
Ans: c
7. Fault diverters are basically

(a) fuses
(b) relays
(c) fast switches
(d) circuit breakers
Ans: c
8. A thermal protection switch can protect against

(a) short-circuit
(b) temperature
(c) overload
(d) over voltage
Ans: c
9. Arc in a circuit behaves as

(a) a capackive reactance
(b) an inductive reactance
(c) a resistance increasing with voltage rise across the arc
(d) a resistance decreasing with voltage rise across the arc
Ans: d
10. Thermal circuit breaker has

(a) delayed trip action
(b) instantaneous trip action
Ans: a
11. Relays can be designed to respond to changes in

(a) resistance, reactance or impedance
(b) voltage and current
(c) light intensity
(d) temperature
(e) all above
Ans: e
12. Overload relays are of…… type.

(a) induction
(b) solid state
(c) thermal
(d) electromagnetic
(e) all above
Ans: e
13. Thermal overload relays are used to protect the motor against over
current due to
(a) short-circuits
(b) heavy loads
(c) grounds
Ans: b
14. Magnetic circuit breaker has ______ trip action.

(a) delayed
(b) instantaneous
Ans: b
15. D.C. shunt relays are made of

(a) few turns of thin wire
(b) few turns of thick wire
(c) many turns of thin wire
(d) many turns of thick wire
Ans: c
16. The relay operating speed depends upon

(a) the spring tension
(b) the rate of flux built up
(c) armature core air gap
Ans: d
17. In order that current should flow without causing excessive heating
or voltage drop, the relay contacts should
(a) have low contact resistance
(b) be clean and smooth
(c) be of sufficient size and proper shape
(d) have all above properties
Ans: d
18. Circuit breakers usually operate under

(a) transient state of short-circuit current
(b) sub-transient state of short-circuit current
(c) steady state of short-circuit current
(d) after D.C. component has ceased

Ans: a
19. Circuit breakers are essentially

(a) current carrying contacts called electrodes
(b) arc extinguishers
(c) circuits to break the system
(d) transformers to isolate the two systems
Ans: a
The current zero interruption, in oil and air blast circuit breakers, is
achieved by
(a) lengthening of the gap
(b) cooling and blast effect
(d) deionizing the oil with forced air
Ans: c
21. Air blast circuit breaker is used for

(a) over currents
(b) short duty
(c) intermittant duty
(d) repeated duty
Ans: d
22. An efficient and a well designed protective relaying should have

(a) good selectivity and reliability
(b) economy and simplicity
(c) high speed and selectivity
Ans: d
23. Burden of a protective relay is the power

(a) required to operate the circuit breaker
(b) absorbed by the circuit of relay
(c) developed by the relay circuit

Ans: b
24. Directional relays are based on flow of

(a) power
(b) current
(c) voltage wave
Ans: a
25. A differential relay measures the vector difference between

(a) two currents
(b) two voltages
(c) two or more similar electrical quantities
Ans: c
26. A transmission line is protected by

(a) inrush protection
(b) distance protection
(c) time graded and current graded over current protection
Ans: d
27. Large internal faults are protected by

(a) merz price percentage differential protection
(b) mho and ohm relays
(c) horn gaps and temperature relays
(d) earth fault and positive sequence relays
Ans: a
28. When a transmission line is energized, the wave that propagates

on it is
(a) current wave only
(b) voltage wave only
(d) power factor wave only
Ans: c
29. Protective relays are devices that detect abnormal conditions in

electrical circuits by measuring
(a) current during abnormal condition
(b) voltage during abnormal condition
(c) constantly the electrical quantities which differ during normal and
abnormal conditions
Ans: c
30. The voltage appearing across the contacts after opening of the
circuit breaker is called______voltage.
(a) recovery
(b) surge
(c) operating
(d) arc
Ans: a
31. Ionization in circuit breaker is facilitated by

(a) high temperature
(b) increase of mean free path
(c) increasing field strength
Ans: d
32. In a circuit breaker the basic problem is to

(a) maintain the arc
(b) extinguish the arc
(c) transmit large power
(d) emit the ionizing electrons
Ans: c
33. Overheating of relay contacts or contact born out is due to

(a) slow making and breaking of load circuit contacts
(b) foreign matter on the contact surface
(c) too low contact pressure
Ans: d
34. Interruption of large currents by relay requires

(a) arc suppressing blow out coils
(b) wide separation of the opened contacts
(c) high speed opening of contacts
Ans: d
35. Shunt capacitance is neglected while considering

(a) short transmission line
(b) medium transmission line
(c) long transmission line
(d) medium and long transmission lines
Ans: a
36. The arc voltage produced in A.C. circuit breaker is always

(a) in phase with the arc current
(b) lagging the arc current by 90″
(c) leading the arc current by 90°
Ans: a
37. The time of closing the cycle, in modern circuit breakers is

(a) 0.003 sec
(b) 0.001 sec
(c) 0.01 sec
(d) 0.10 sec
Ans: a
38. Insulation resistance of high voltage circuit breakers is more than

(a) 1 mega ohms
(b) 10 mega ohms
(c) 100 mega ohms
(d) 500 mega ohms
Ans: c
39. H.R.C. fuses provide best protection against

(a) overload
(b) reverse current
(c) open-circuits
(d) short-circuits
Ans: d
40. The ground wire should not be smaller than No ______ copper.
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 10
Ans: d
41. The delay fuses are used for the protection of ________ .
(a) motors
(b) power outlet circuits
(c) fluorescent lamps
(d) light circuits
Ans: a
42. Which of the following is the least expensive protection for

overcurrent is low voltage system ?
(a) Rewireable fuse
(b) Isolator
(c) Oil circuit breaker
(d) Air break circuit breaker
Ans: a
43. Resistance grounding is used for voltage between

(a) 33kVto66kV
(b) HkVto33kV
(c) 3.3kVandllkV
Ans: c
44. The contacts of high voltage switches used in power system are
submerged in oil. The main purpose of the oil is to
(a) lubricate the contacts
(b) insulate the contacts from switch body
(c) extinguish the arc

Ans: c
45. In Railway applications ______ circuit breaker is used.

(a) SFe
(b) bulk oil
(c) minimum oil
(d) air break
Ans:
46. To protect most of the electrical equipment handling low power,

the types of relays used are
(a) thermocouple
(b) electronic and bimetallic
Ans: c
47. Wave trap is used to trap waves of

(a) power frequencies
(b) higher frequencies entering generator or transformer units
Ans: b
48. Ungrounded neutral transmission system is not recommended

because of system
(a) insulation being overstressed due to over voltages
(b) insulation overstress may lead to failure and subsequent phase to
phase faults
(c) being inadequately protected against ground fault
Ans: d
49. The reflection co-efficient at the open circuited end of a

transmission line.
(a) zero
(b) infinity
(c) unity
Ans: c
50. For the protection of power station buildings against direct strokes
the requirements are
(a) interception
(b) interception and conduction
(c) interception, conduction and dissipation
(d) interception, conduction, dissipation and reflection
Ans: c
51. The line insulation is the insulation level of the station equipment.
(a) less than
(b) same as
(c) more than
(d) proportional to
(e) not directly related with
Ans: e
52. The interaction between a transmission line and communication

line is minimized by
(a) transposing transmission as well as communication lines
(b) increasing the height of the trans-mission line tower
(c) increasing the distance between the two lines
Ans: d
53. When a wave propagates on a transmission line, it suffers

reflection several times at
(a) tapping
(b) load end
(c) sending end
(d) sending and other end
Ans: d
54. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

(a) Station batteries are used to operate relay only
(b) The lightning arresters are basically surge diverters
(c) An impedance relay has maximum fault current when fault occurs
near the relay
(d) A high speed relay has an operation of 1 to 2 cycles
Ans: a
55. Discrimination between main and back up protection is provided

by the use of relays which are
(a) fact
(b) sensitive
(c) slow
Ans: c
56. Induction cup relay is operated due to changes in

(a) current
(b) voltage
(c) impedance
Ans: d
57. A.C. network analyser is used to solve problems of

(a) load flow
(b) load flow and short-circuit
(c) load flow and stability
(d) load flow, short-circuit and stability
Ans: d

(a) Lightning arrestors are used before the switchgear
(b) Shunt reactors are used as compensation reactors
(c) The peak short current is (1.8 xV2) times the A.C. component
(d) The MVA at fault is equal to base MVA divided by per unit
equivalent fault reactance
Ans: a
59. Short-circuit currents are due to

(a) single phase to ground faults
(b) phase to phase faults
(c) two phase to ground faults
(d) three phase faults
(e) any of these
Ans: e
60. To reduce short circuit fault currents are used.

(a) reactors
(b) resistors
(c) capacitors
Ans: a
61. Bus coupler is very essential in arrangement

(a) single bus
(b) double bus, double breaker
(c) main and transfer bus
Ans: c
62. For cost and safety, the outdoor substations are installed for
voltages above
(a) 11 kV
(b) 33 kV
(c) 60kV
(d) 110kV
Ans: b
63. The short circuit in any winding of the transformer is the result of
(a) mechanical vibration
(b) insulation failure
(c) loose connection
(d) impulse voltage
Ans: d
64 relays are used for phase faults on long line.

(a) Impedance
(b) Reactance
(c) Either of the above
Ans: a
65. For which of the following protection from negative sequence

currents is provided ?
(a) Generators
(b) Motors
(c) Transmission line
(d) Transformers
Ans: a
66 relay is preferred for phase fault on short transmission line.

(a) Induction type
(b) Reactance
(c) Impedance
Ans: b
67. Distance relays are generally

(a) split-phase relays
(b) reactance relays
(c) impedance relays
Ans: d
68. For which of the following ratings of the transformer differential

protection is recommended ?
(a) above 30 kVA.
(b) equal to and above 5 MVA
(c) equal to and above 25 MVA
Ans: b
69. A _______ is used to measure the stator % winding temperature

of the generator.
(a) thermocouple
(b) pyrometer
(c) resistance thermometer

(d) thermometer
Ans: c
70. The under voltage relay can be used for

(a) generators
(b) busbars
(c) transformers
(d) motors
Ans: e
71. The relay with inverse time characteristic will operate within
(a) 1.5 sec
(b) 5 to 10 sec
(c) 5 to 20 sec
(d) 20 to 30 sec
Ans: b
72. The single phasing relays are used for the protection of
(a) single phase motors only
(b) two phase motors only
(c) two single phase motors running in parallel
(d) three phase motors
Ans: d
73. Which of the following devices will receive voltage surge first
travelling on the transmission line ?
(a) Lightning arresters
(b) Relays
(c) Step-down transformer
(d) Switchgear
Ans: a
74. Which of the following parameter can be neglected for a short line
?
(a) Inductance
(b) Capacitance
(c) Resistance
(d) Reactance
Ans: b
75. Series reactors should have

(a) low resistance
(b) high resistance
(c) low impedance
(d) high impedance
Ans: a
76. Which of the following circuit breakers has high reliability and
minimum maintenance ?
(a) Air blast circuit breakers
(b) Circuit breaker with SF6 gas
(c) Vacuum circuit breakers
(d) Oil circuit breakers
Ans: b
77. Arc in a circuit breaker is interrupted at

(a) zero current
(b) maximum current
(c) minimum voltage
(d) maximum voltage
Ans: a
78 transmission line has reflection coefficient as one.

(a) Open circuit
(b) Short-circuit
(e) Long
Ans: a
79. What will be the reflection co-efficient of the wave of load

connected to transmission line if surge impedance of the line is equal
to load ?
(a) Zero
(b) Unity
(c) Infinity

Ans: a
80. The inverse definite mean time relays are used for over current
and earth fault protection of transformer against
(a) heavy loads
(b) internal short-circuits
(c) external short-circuits
Ans: b
81. Over voltage protection is recommended for

(a) hydro-electric generators
(b) steam turbine generators
(c) gas turbine generators
Ans: d
82. Air blast circuit breakers for 400 kV power system are designed to
operate in
(a) 100 microsecond
(b) 50 millisecond
(c) 0.5 sec
(d) 0.1 sec
Ans: b
83. Overfluxing protection is recommended for

(a) distribution transformer
(b) generator transformer of the power plant
(c) auto-transformer of the power plant
(d) station transformer of the power plant
Ans: b
84. Series capacitors are used to

(a) compensate for line inductive reactance
(b) compensate for line capacitive reactance
(c) improve line voltage

Ans: a
85. Admittance relay is _______ relay.

(a) impedance
(b) directional
(c) non-directional
Ans: b
86. The material used for fuse must have

(a) low melting point and high specific resistance
(b) low melting point and -low specific resistance
(c) high melting point and low specific resistance
(d) low melting point and any specific resistance
Ans: a
87. If the fault occurs near the impedance relay, the VII ratio will be
(a) constant for all distances
(b) lower than that of if fault occurs away from the relay
(c) higher than that of if fault occurs away from the relay
Ans: b
88. The torque produced in induction type relay (shaded pole

structure) is
(a) inversely proportional to the current
(b) inversely proportional to the square of the current
(c) proportional to the current
(d) proportional to square of the current
Ans: b
89. The steady state stability of the power system can be increased by
(a) connecting lines in parallel
(b) connecting lines in series
(e) using machines of high impedance
(d) reducing the excitation of machines
Ans: a
90. The inductive interference between power and communication

line can be minimized by
(a) transposition of the power line
(b) transposition of the communication line
(d) increasing the distance between the conductors
Ans: c
91. The power loss is an important factor for the design of

(a) transmission line
(b) motor
(c) generator
(d) feeder
Ans: a
92. A fuse is connected

(a) in series with circuit
(b) in parallel with circuit
(c) either in series or in parallel with circuit
Ans: a
93. H.R.C. fuse, as compared to a rewirable fuse, has

(a) no ageing effect
(b) high speed of operation
(c) high rupturing capacity
Ans: d
94. The fuse rating is expressed in terms of

(a) current
(b) voltage
(c) VAR
(d) kVA
Ans: a
95. The fuse blows off by

(a) burning
(b) arcing
(c) melting
Ans: c
96. On which of the following effects of electric current a fuse operates

?
(a) Photoelectric effect
(b) Electrostatic effect
(c) Heating effect
(d) Magnetic effect
Ans: c
97. An isolator is installed

(a) to operate the relay of circuit breaker
(b) as a substitute for circuit breaker
(c) always independent of the position of circuit breaker
(d) generally on both sides of a circuit breaker
Ans: d
98. A fuse in a motor circuit provides protection against

(a) overload
(b) short-circuit and overload
(c) open circuit, short-circuit and overload
Ans: b
99. Protection by fuses is generally not used beyond

(a) 20 A
(b) 50 A
(c) 100 A
(d) 200 A
Ans: c
100. A fuse is never inserted in

(a) neutral wire
(b) negative of D.C. circuit
(c) positive of D.C. circuit
(d) phase dine
Ans: a
101. Oil switches are employed for

(a) low currents circuits
(b) low voltages circuits
(c) high voltages and large currents circuits
(d) all circuits
Ans: c
102. A switchgear is device used for

(a) interrupting an electrical circuit
(b) switching an electrical circuit 111.
(c) switching and controlling an electrical circuit
(d) switching, controlling and protecting the electrical circuit and
equipment
Ans: d
103. The fuse wire, in D.C. circuits, is inserted in

(a) negative circuit only
(b) positive circuit only
Ans: c
104. By which of the following methods major portion of the heat

generated in a H.R.C. fuse is dissipated ?
(a) Radiation
(b) Convection
(c) Conduction
Ans: c
105. A short-circuit is identified by

(a) no current flow
(b) heavy current flow
(c) voltage drop
(d) voltage rise
Ans: b
106. The information to the circuit breaker under fault conditions is

provided by
(a) relay
(b) rewirable fuse
(c) H.R.C. only
Ans: a
107. To limit short-circuit current in a power system are used.

(a) earth wires
(b) isolators
(c) H.R.C. fuses
(d) reactors
Ans: d
109. A balanced 3-phase system consists of

(a) zero sequence currents only
(b) positive sequence currents only
(c) negative and zero sequence currents
(d) zero, negative and positive sequence currents
Ans: b
110. In a single bus-bar system there will be complete shut down when
(a) fault occurs on the bus itself
(b) fault occurs on neutral line
(c) two or more faults occur simultaneously
(d) fault occurs with respect to earthing
Ans: a

26 THOUGHTS ON “300+ TOP SWITCHGEAR & PROTECTION

OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS”
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6/6/2019 300+ TOP CABLES Objective Type Questions and Answers Electrical Engineering Multiple Choice Questions


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1. The insulating material for a cable should have
(a) low cost
(b) high dielectric strength
(c) high mechanical strength
Ans: d
2. Which of the following protects a cable against

mechanical injury ?
(a) Bedding
(b) Sheath
(c) Armouring
Ans: c
3. Which of the following insulation is used in cables ?

(a) Varnished cambric
(b) Rubber
(c) Paper
https://engineeringinterviewquestions.com/cables-electrical-engineering-objective-type-questions-and-answers/ 1/14

Ans: d
4. Empire tape is
(a) varnished cambric
(b) vulcanised rubber
(c) impregnated paper
Ans: a
5. The thickness of the layer of insulation on the conductor,

in cables, depends upon
(a) reactive power
(b) power factor
(c) voltage
(d) current carrying capacity
Ans: c
6. The bedding on a cable consists of

(a) hessian cloth
(b) jute
Ans: c
7. The insulating material for cables should

(a) be acid proof
(b) be non-inflammable
(c) be non-hygroscopic
(d) have all above properties
Ans: d
8. In a cable immediately above metallic sheath _____ is

provided.
(a) earthing connection
(b) bedding
(c) armouring
Ans: b
9. The current carrying capacity of cables in D.C. is more

thanthat in A.C. mainly due to
(a) absence of harmonics
(b) non-existence of any stability limit
(c) smaller dielectric loss
(d) absence of ripples
Ans: c
10. In case of three core flexible cable the colour of the

neutral is
(a) blue
(b) black
(c) brown
Ans: a
11. cables are used for 132 kV lines.

(a) High tension
(b) Super tension
(c) Extra high tension
(d) Extra super voltage
Ans: d
12. Conduit pipes are normally used to protect _____

cables.
(a) unsheathed cables
(b) armoured
(c) PVC sheathed cables
Ans: a
13. The minimum dielectric stress in a cable is at

(a) armour
(b) bedding
(c) conductor surface
(d) lead sheath
Ans: d
14. In single core cables armouring is not done to

(a) avoid excessive sheath losses
(b) make it flexible
Ans: a
15. Dielectric strength of rubber is around

(a) 5 kV/mm
(b) 15 kV/mm
(c) 30 kV/mm
(d) 200 kV/mm
Ans: c
16. Low tension cables are generally used up to

(a) 200 V
(b) 500 V
(c) 700 V
(d) 1000 V
Ans: d
17. In a cable, the maximum stress under operating

conditions is at
(a) insulation layer
(b) sheath
(c) armour
(d) conductor surface
Ans: d
18. High tension cables are generally used up to

(a) 11kV
(b) 33kV
(c) 66 kV
(d) 132 kV
Ans: a
19. The surge resistance of cable is

(a) 5 ohms
(b) 20 ohms
(c) 50 ohms
(d) 100 ohms
Ans: c
20. PVC stands for

(a) polyvinyl chloride
(b) post varnish conductor
(c) pressed and varnished cloth
(d) positive voltage conductor
Ans: a
In the cables, the location of fault is usually found out by

comparing
(a) the resistance of the conductor
(b) the inductance of conductors
(c) the capacitances of insulated conductors
(d) all above parameters
Ans: c
22. In capacitance grading of cables we use a ______

dielectric.
(a) composite
(b) porous
(c) homogeneous
(d) hygroscopic
Ans: a
23. Pressure cables are generally not used beyond

(a) 11 kV
(b) 33 kV
(c) 66 kV
(d) 132 kV
Ans: c
24. The material for armouring on cable is usually

(a) steel tape
(b) galvanised steel wire

Ans: c
25. Cables, generally used beyond 66 kV are

(a) oil filled
(b) S.L. type
(c) belted
(d) armoured
Ans: a
26. The relative permittivity of rubber is

(a) between 2 and 3
(b) between 5 and 6
(c) between 8 and 10
(d) between 12 and 14
Ans: a
27. Solid type cables are considered unreliable beyond 66

kV because
(a) insulation may melt due to higher temperature
(b) skin effect dominates on the conductor
(c) of corona loss between conductor and sheath material
(d) there is a danger of breakdown of insulation due to the presence of
voids
Ans: d
28. If the length of a cable is doubled, its capacitance

(a) becomes one-fourth
(b) becomes one-half
(c) becomes double
(d) remains unchanged
Ans: c
29. In cables the charging current

(a) lags the voltage by 90°
(b) leads the voltage by 90°
(c) lags the voltage by 180°
(d) leads the voltage by 180°
Ans: b
30. A certain cable has an insulation of relative permittivity

4. If the insulation is replaced by one of relative
permittivity 2, the capacitance of the cable will become
(a) one half
(6) double
(c) four times
Ans: a
31. If a cable of homogeneous insulation has a maximum

stress of 10 kV/mm, then the dielectric strength of
insulation should be
(a) 5 kV/mm
(b) 10 kV/mm
(a) 15 kV/mm
(d) 30 kV/mm
Ans: b
32. In the cables, sheaths are used to

(a) prevent the moisture from entering the cable
(b) provide enough strength
(e) provide proper insulation
Ans: a
33. The intersheaths in the cables are used to

(a) minimize the stress
(b) avoid the requirement of good insulation
(c) provide proper stress distribution
Ans: c
34. The electrostatic stress in underground cables is

(a) same at the conductor and the sheath
(b) minimum at the conductor and maximum at the sheath
(c) maximum at the conductor and minimum at the sheath
(d) zero at the conductor as well as on the sheath
Ans: c
35. The breakdown of insulation of the cable can be avoided

economically by the use of
(a) inter-sheaths
(b) insulating materials with different dielectric constants
Ans: c
36. The insulation of the cable decreases with

(a) the increase in length of the insulation
(b) the decrease in the length of the insulation
Ans: a
37. A cable carrying alternating current has

(a) hysteresis losses only
(b) hysteresis and leakage losses only
(c) hysteresis, leakage and copper losses only
(d) hysteresis, leakage, copper and friction losses
Ans: b
38. In a cable the voltage stress is maximum at

(a) sheath
(6) insulator
(e) surface of the conductor
(d) core of the conductor
Ans: d
39. Capacitance grading of cable implies

(a) use of dielectrics of different permeabilities
(b) grading according to capacitance of cables per km length
(c) cables using single dielectric in different concentrations
(d) capacitance required to be introduced at different lengths to
counter the effect of inductance
Ans: a
40. Underground cables are laid at sufficient depth

(a) to minimise temperature stresses
(b) to avoid being unearthed easily due to removal of soil
(c) to minimise the effect of shocks and vibrations due to gassing
vehicles, etc.
(d) for all of the above reasons
Ans: c
41. The advantage of cables over overhead transmission

lines is
(a) easy maintenance
(b) low cost
(c) can be used in congested areas
(d) can be used in high voltage circuits
Ans: c
42. The thickness of metallic shielding on cables is usually

(a) 0.04 mm
(b) 0.2 to 0.4 mm
(e) 3 to 5 mm
(d) 40 to 60 mm
Ans: a
43. Cables for 220 kV lines are invariably

(a) mica insulated
(b) paper insulated
(c) compressed oil or compressed gas insulated
(d) rubber insulated
Ans: c
44. Is a cable is to be designed for use on 1000 kV, which

insulation would you prefer ?
(a) Polyvinyle chloride
(b) Vulcanised rubber
(c) Impregnated paper
(d) Compressed SFe gas
Ans: d
45. If a power cable and a communication cable are to run

parallel the minimum distance between the two, to avoid
interference, should be
(a) 2 cm
(b) 10 cm
(c) 50 cm
(d) 400 cm
Ans: c
46. Copper as conductor for cables is used as

(a) annealed
(b) hardened and tempered
(c) hard drawn
(d) alloy with chromium
Ans: a
47. The insulating material should have

(a) low permittivity
(b) high resistivity
(c) high dielectric strength
Ans: d
48. The advantage of oil filled cables is

(a) more perfect impregnation
(b) smaller overall size
(c) no ionisation, oxidation and formation of voids
Ans: d
49. The disadvantage with paper as insulating material is

(a) it is hygroscopic
(6) it has high capacitance
(c) it is an organic material
Ans: a
50. The breakdown voltage of a cable depends on

(a) presence of moisture
(b) working temperature

(c) time of application of the voltage
Ans: d
51. It is difficult to maintain oil filled cables.

(a) Yes
(b) No
Ans: a
51. In capacitance grading a homogeneous dielectric is

used.
(a) Yes
(b) No
Ans: b
52. In congested areas where excavation is expensive and

inconvenient ‘draw in system’ of laying of underground
cables is often adopted.
(a) Yes
(b) No
Ans: a
53. Natural rubber is obtained from milky sap of tropical

trees.
(a) Yes
(b) No
Ans: a
54. Rubber is most commonly used insulation in cables.

(a) Yes
(b) No
Ans: a
59. Polyethylene has very poor dielectric and ageing

properties.
(a) Yes
(b) No
Ans: b
60. The metallic sheath may be made of lead or lead alloy or

of aluminium.
(a) Yes
(b) No
Ans: b

4 THOUGHTS ON “300+ TOP CABLES OBJECTIVE TYPE

papu
JUNE 30, 2016 AT 6:41 AM
I think q.no 38 ans is e…
REPLY
snehalata
APRIL 17, 2016 AT 2:27 PM
Question no 38,ans is d
REPLY
santosh murkut
APRIL 9, 2016 AT 2:16 AM
Please explain Q-38.

I think it should be -c.
i.e maximum vtg stress on surface of conductor
REPLY
Anil Pandey
JULY 21, 2016 AT 6:58 AM
6/6/2019 300+ TOP Electrical Engineering Materials Objective Type Questions and Answers


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TOP Electrical Engineering Materials Objective Type
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300+ TOP Electrical Engineering

Materials Objective Type Questions Like Page
Electrical Engineering Materials Objective Type

Questions :-
1. The converse of hardness is known as
(a) malleability
(b) toughness
(c) softness
Ans: c
2. On which of the following factors does the resistivity of a

material depend ?
(a) Resistance of the conductor
(b) Area of the conductor section
(c) Length of the conductor
Ans: d
https://engineeringinterviewquestions.com/electrical-engineering-materials-electrical-engineering-objective-type-questions-and-answers/ 1/22
3. is a negatively charged particle present in an atom.

(a) Proton
(b) Neutron
(c) Electron
Ans: c
4. The formula ____ determines the number of electrons

that can be accommodated in any level.
(a) 2n2
(6) 4n2
(c) 2n3
(d) 4ns
Ans: a
5. The tiny block formed by the arrangement of a small

group of atoms is called the
(a) unit cell
(b) space lattice
Ans: a
6. The co-ordination number of a simple cubic structure is

(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 8
Ans: c
7. The covalent bond is formed by

(a) transfer of electrons between atoms
(b) sharing of electrons between atoms
(e) sharing of variable number of electrons by a variable number of
atoms
Ans: b
8. A perfect conductor has

(a) zero conductivity
(b) unity conductivity
(c) infinite conductivity
Ans: c
9. The metal having the lowest temperature coefficient of

resistance is
(a) gold
(b) copper
(c) aluminium
(d) kanthal
Ans: a
10. Commonly used conducting materials are

(a) copper
(b) aluminium
(d) copper and silver
(e) platinum and gold
Ans: c
11. Which of the following materials is preferred for

transmitting electrical energy over long distance ?
(a) Copper
(b) Aluminium
(c) Steel reinforced copper
(d) Steel reinforced aluminium
Ans: d
12. The kinetic energy of a bounded electron is

(a) less than that of unbounded electron
(6) greater than that of unbounded electron
(c) equal to that of unbounded electron
(d) infinite
Ans: a
13. A highly conductive material must have

(a) highest conductivity
(b) lowest temperature co-efficient
(c) good mechanical strength
(d) good corrosion resistance
(e) easy solderable and drawable quality
(f) all of the above
Ans: f
14. The conductivity of a conductor can be increased by

(a) decreasing its temperature
(b) increasing its temperature
(c) decreasing its vibration
(d) increasing its vibration
Ans: a
15. Superconductivity is observed for

(a) infrared frequencies
(b) d.c. and low frequency
(c) a.c. and high frequency
(d) frequencies having no effect
Ans: b
16. The superconductivity is due to

(a) the crystal structure having no atomic vibration at 0°K
(b) all electrons interact in the super-conducting state
(c) the electrons jump into nucleus at 0°K
Ans: a
17. The value of critical field below the transition

temperature will
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) remain unchanged
Ans: a
18. In a superconductor the value of critical density

depends upon
(a) magnetic field strength
(b) temperature
Ans: d
19. Superconductors are becoming popular for use in

(a) generating very strong magnetic field
(b) manufacture of bubble memories
(c) generating electrostatic field
(d) generating regions free from magnetic field
Ans: a
20. High resistivity materials are used in

(a) precision instruments
(6) heating elements
(c) motor starters
(d) incandescent lamps
Ans: e
21. Mercury as an electric contact material is

(a) a liquid
(b) a metal
(c) a metal liquid
(d) a gas
Ans: c
22. An H.R.C. fuse is

(a) a ceramic body having metal and caps
(b) a wire of platinum
(c) a heavy cross-section of copper or aluminium
(d) a ceramic tube having carbon rod inside it
Ans: a
23. Which of the following resistive materials has the

lowest temperature co-efficient of resistance ?
(a) Nichrome
(b) Constantan
(c) Kanthal
(d) Molybdenum
Ans: a
24. The coils of D.C. motor starter are wound with wire of
(a) copper
(b) kanthal
(c) manganin
(d) nichrome
Ans: c
25. The conductors have transport phenomena of electrons

due to
(a) electric field
(b) magnetic field
(c) electromagnetic field
Ans: a
26. The transition temperature of mercury is

(a) 18.0°K
(6) 9.22°K
(c) 4.12°K
(d) 1.14’K
Ans: c
27. By increasing impurity content in the metal alloy the

residual resistivity always
(a) decreases
(b) increases
(d) becomes temperature independent
Ans: b
28. The structure sensitive property of a super conductor is

(a) critical magnetic field
(b) transition temperature
(c) critical current density

Ans: c
29. At transition temperature the value of critical field is

(a) zero
(6) negative real value
(c) positive real value
(d) complex value
Ans: a
30. Which of the following variety of copper has the best

conductivity ?
(a) Induction hardened copper
(b) Hard drawn copper
(c) Pure annealed copper
(d) Copper containing traces of silicon
Ans: c
31. Constantan contains

(a) silver and tin
(b) copper and tungsten
(c) tungsten and silver
(d) copper and nickel
Ans: d
32. Which of the following is the poorest conductor of

electricity ?
(a) Carbon
(b) Steel
(c) Silver
(d) Aluminium
Ans: a
33 ______ has zero temperature co-efficient of resistance.

(a) Aluminium
(b) Carbon
(c) Porcelain
(d) Manganin
Ans: d
34. Piezoelectric materials serve as a source of _____ .

(a) resonant waves
(b) musical waves
(c) microwaves
(d) ultrasonic waves
Ans: d
35. In thermocouples which of the following pairs is

commonly used ?
(a) Copper-constantan
(b) Aluminium-tin
(c) Silver-German silver
(d) Iron-steel
Ans: a
36. is viscoelastic.
(a) Cast-iron
(6) Graphite
(c) Rubber
(d) Glass
Ans: c
37. Carbon electrodes are not used in

(a) GLS lamps
(b) electric arc furnace
(c) dry cells
(d) cinema projectors
Ans: a
38. Solder is an alloy of

(a) copper and aluminium
(b) tin and lead
(c) nickel, copper and zinc
(d) silver, copper and lead
Ans: b
39 ______ is most commonly used for making magnetic

recording tape
(a) Silver nitrate
(b) Ferric oxide
(c) Small particles of iron
(d) Silicon-iron
Ans: b
40. Overhead telephone wires are made of

(a) aluminium
(b) steel
(c) ACSR conductors
(d) copper
Ans: b
41. ______ is an example of piezoelectric material.

(a) Glass
(b) Quartz
(c) Corrundum
(d) Neoprene
Ans: b
42. _____ is the main constituent of glass

(a) Fe203
(b) Si02
(c) AI2O3
(d) B2O3
Ans: b
43. A good electric contact material should have all of the

following properties except
(a) high resistivity
(b) high resistance to corrosion
(c) good thermal conductivity
(d) high melting point
Ans: a
44. Most of the common metals have _____ structure.

(a) linear
(b) hexagonal
(c) orthorhombic
(d) cubic
Ans: d
45. Which of the following affect greatly the resistivity of

electrical conductors ?
(a) Composition
(b) Pressure
(c) Size
(d) Temperature
Ans: a
46. Thermonic emission occurs in

(a) vacuum tubes
(b) copper conductors
(c) ferrite cores
(d) transistors
Ans: a
47. _____ is a hard solder.

(a) Tin-lead
(6) Tin-silver-lead
(c) Copper-zinc
Ans: c
48. Addition of 0.3 to 4.5% silicon to iron _____ the

electrical resistivity of iron.
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) does not change
Ans: a
49. Super conductivity can be destroyed by

(a) adding impurities
(b) reducing temperatures
(c) application of magnetic field

Ans: c
50. Non-linear resistors

(a) produce harmonic distortion
(b) follows Ohm’s law at low temperatures only
(c) result in non-uniform heating
Ans: a
51. A carbon resistor contains

(a) carbon crystals
(b) solid carbon granules
(c) pulverized coal
(d) finely divided carbon black.
Ans: d
52. Which of the following materials does not have covalent

bonds ?
(a) Organic polymers
(b) Silicon
(c) Metals
Ans: c
53. In graphite, bonding is

(a) covalent
(b) metallic
(c) Vander Waals
(d) Vander Waals and covalent
Ans: d
54. Total number of crystal systems is

(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 7
(d) 12
Ans: c
55. The number of atoms per unit cell in B.C.C. structure is

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 4
(d) 8
Ans: b
56. The conductivity of a metal is determined by

(a) the electronic concentration and the mobility of the free electrons
(6) the number of valence electrons per atom
Ans: a
57. The resistivity of a metal is a function of temperature

because
(a) the amplitude of vibration of the atoms varies with temperature
(b) the electron density varies with temperature
(c) the electron gas density varies with temperature
Ans: a
58. In a crystal, an atom vibrates at a frequency determined

by
(a) the heat content of the crystal
(b) the temperature of the crystal
(c) the stiffness of the bonds it makes with neighbors
Ans: c
59. Due to which of the following reasons aluminium does

not corrode in atmosphere ?
(a) Aluminium is a noble metal
(b) Atmospheric oxygen can only diffuse very slowly through the oxide
layer which is formed on the surface of aluminium
(c) No reaction with oxygen occurs ft Any of the above
Ans: b
60. The impurity atoms is semiconductors

(a) inject more charge carriers
(6) reduce the energy gap
(c) increase the kinetic energy of valence electrons

Ans: b
61. Which of the following material is not a semiconductor ?

(a) Silica
(b) Germanium
(c) Selenium
(d) Gallium-arsenide
Ans: a
62. Carbon resistors are used extensively because they are

(a) easy to make
(b) compact
(c) inexpensive
(d) all of the above reasons
Ans: d
63. Carbon rods are used in wet and dry cells because
(a) carbon rod serves as conductor
(b) carbon can resist the attack of battery acid
Ans: c
64. Due to which of the following factors the brush wear

rate is altered ?
(a) Speed of the machine
(b) Contact pressure
(c) Surface conditions of brush and commutator
(d) Excessive sparking
Ans: e
65. Which of the following are non-conductors of

electricity?
(a) Non-metal solids except carbon
(b) Air and most other gases
(c) Pure water and liquids in general except mercury

Ans: d
66. Carbon bearings are used under which of the following

conditions ?
(a) Where lubrication is difficult or im-possible
(b) Where corrosive chemical action exists
(c) Where high temperature exists
Ans: d
67. Which of the following high resistance materials has the

highest operating temperature ?
(a) Kanthal
(b) Manganin
(c) Nichrome
(d) Eureka
Ans: a
68. Steel wire is used as

(a) overhead telephone wire
(b) earth wire
(c) core wire of ACSR
Ans: d
69. Low resistivity materials are used in

(a) transformer, motor and generator windings
(b) transmission and distribution lines
(c) house wiring
(d) all above applications
Ans: d
70. Platinum is used in

(a) electrical contacts
(b) thermocouple
(c) heating element in high temperature furnace
(d) grids of special purpose vacuum tubes

Ans: e
71. Which of the following is an advantage of stranded

conductor over equivalent single conductor ?
(a) Less liability to kink
(b) Greater flexibility
(c) Less liability to break
Ans: d
72. Due to which of the following reasons copper and

aluminium are not used for heating elements ?
(a) Both have great tendency for oxidation
(b) Both have low melting point
(c) Very large length of wires will be required
Ans: d
73. Copper, even though costly, finds use in the windings of

electrical machines because
(a) copper points offer low contact resistance
(b) copper can be easily soldered and welded
(e) copper windings are less bulky and the machines become compact
Ans: d
74. Which of the following materials is used for making

coils of standard resistances ?
(a) Copper
(b) Nichrome
(c) Platinum
(d) Manganin
Ans: d
75. Substances whose specific resistance abruptly decreases

at very low temperature are called
(a) insulators
(b) conductors
(c) semiconductors
(d) superconductors
Ans: d
76. Which of the following materials is the best conductor

of electricity ?
(a) Tungsten
(b) Aluminium
(c) Copper
(d) Carbon
Ans: c
77. is the property of absorbing moisture from atmosphere.

(a) Solubility
(b) Viscosity
(c) Porosity
(d) Hygroscopicity
Ans: d
78. Thermocouples are mainly used for the measurement of

(a) temperature
(b) resistance
(c) eddy currents
(d) coupling co-efficient
Ans: a
79. Due to which of the following fact, in India, aluminium

is replacing copper ?
(a) Aluminium is more ductile and malleable than copper
(6) Aluminium is available in plenty, cheaper and lighter than copper
(c) Aluminium has lower resistivity than that of copper
(d) Aluminium has less temperature co-efficient than copper
Ans: b
80. The conduction of electricity, in semiconductors, takes

place due to movement of
(a) positive ions only
(b) negative ions only
(c) positive and negative ions
(d) electrons and holes

Ans: d
81. Which of the following is a semiconductor material ?

(a) Phosphorous
(b) Rubber
(c) Silicon
(d) Aluminium
Ans: c
82. Selenium is _____ semiconductor.

(a) extrnisic
(b) intmisic
(c) N-type
(d) P-type
Ans: b
83. ________ has the best damping properties.

(a) Diamond
(b) High speed steel
(c) Mild steel
(d) Cast iron
Ans: d
84. The photo-electric effect occurs only when the incident

light has more than a certain critical
(a) intensity
(b) speed
(c) frequency
(d) wave length
Ans: c
85. If the resistance of a conductor does not vary in

accordance with Ohm’s law it is known as
(a) non-linear conductor
(b) reverse conductor
(c) bad-conductor
(d) non-conductor
Ans: a
86. Spark plug makes use of which of the following

materials for insulation ?
(a) Porcelain
(b) Slate
(c) Asbestos
(d) Glass
Ans: a
87. The forbidden gap in an insulator is

(a) large
(b) small
(c) nil
Ans: a
88. Which of the following factors affect resistivity of

metals ?
(a) Age hardening
(b) Alloying
(c) Temperature
(d) Cold work
Ans: e
89. Effect of moisture on the insulating materials is to

(a) decrease dielectric constant
(b) decrease dielectric strength
(c) decrease insulation resistance
(d) increase dielectric loss
Ans: e
90. Surface resistance of an insulating material is reduced

due to the
(a) smoky and dirty atmosphere
(b) humidity in the atmosphere
Ans: c
91. Superconducting metal in super conducting state has

relative permeability of
(a) zero
(b) one
(c) negative
(d) more than one
Ans: a
92. In conductors conduction of electricity takes place due

to movement of
(a) electrons only
(b) positive ions only
(c) negative ions only
(d) positive and negative ions
Ans: a
93. The carbon percentage is least in

(a) low carbon steel
(b) wrought iron
(c) cast iron
(d) malleable iron
Ans: b
94. For a particular material the Hall coefficient was found

to be zero. The material is
(a) insulator
(6) metal
(c) intrinsic semiconductor
Ans: b
95. The conductivity of an extrinsic semiconductor with

temperature
(a) decreases
(b) increases
Ans: c
96. The current due to electron flow in conduction band is

the hole current in valence band.
(a) equal to
(b) less than
(c) greater than
Ans: c
97. For a hole which of the following statements is incorrect

?
(a) Holes can exist in certain semiconductors only
(b) Holes can exist in any material including conductors
(c) Holes may constitute an electric current
(d) Holes can be considered as a net positive charge
Ans: b
98. is an element used in semiconductors whose atoms

have three valence electrons.
(a) An acceptor
(b) A donor
(c) Germanium
(d) Silicon
Ans: a
99. The minority carrier concentration is largely a function

of
(a) forward biasing voltage
(b) reverse biasing voltage
(c) temperature
(d) the amount of doping
Ans: c
100. For germanium the forbidden energy gap is

(a) 0.15 eV
(b) 0.25 eV
(C) 0.5eV
(d) 0.7eV
Ans: d
6/6/2019 300+ TOP Electrical Machine Design Objective Questions and Answers Pdf

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Electrical Machine Design Objective Type Questions and
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300+ TOP Electrical Machine

Design Objective Type Questions Like Page
Electrical Machine Design Multiple Choice

Questions :-
1. Which of the following is the major consideration to
evolve a good design ?
(a) Cost
(b) Durability
(c) Compliance with performance criteria as laid down in
specifications
Ans: d
2 impose limitation on design.

(a) Saturation
(b) Temperature rise
(c) Efficiency
(d) Power factor
https://engineeringinterviewquestions.com/electrical-machine-design-electrical-engineering-objective-type-questions-and-answers/ 1/23
(e) All above

Ans: e
3. The efficiency of a machine should be as ______ as

possible to reduce the operating cost.
(a) high
(b) low
Ans: a
4. If an insulating material is operated beyond the

maximum allowable temperature, its life is
(a) drastically increased
(b) drastically reduced
(c) unaffected
Ans: b
5. The design of mechanical parts is particularly important

in case of _____ speed machines.
(a) low
(b) medium
(c) high
Ans: c
6. In induction motors, the length of air gap in kept as small

as mechanically possible is order to have
(a) low power factor
(b) high power factor
(c) high over load capacity
Ans: b
7. In ______ machines, the size of the shaft is decided by

the critical speed which depends on the deflection of the
shaft.
(a) small
(b) medium
(c) large
(d) any of the above.
Ans: c
8. The length cf air gap to be provided in ______ is

primarily determined by power factor consideration.
(a) d.c. series motor .
(b) d.c. shunt motor
(c) induction motor
(d) synchronous motor
Ans: c
9. Electrical machines having a power output up to about

750 W may be called_______machines.
(a) small size
(b) medium size
(c) large size
Ans: a
10. Electrical machines having power outputs ranging from

a few kW up to approximately 250 kW may be classified as
(a) small size machines
(b) medium size machines
(c) large size machines
Ans: b
11. Commercial available medium size machines have a

speed range of ______ .
(a) 200 to 400 r.p.m.
(b) 600 to 1000 r.p.m.
(c) 1000 to 1500 r.p.m.
(d) 2000 to 2500 r.p.m.
Ans: d
12. The action of electromagnetic machines can be related

to which of the following basic principles ?
(a) Induction
(b) Interaction
(c) Alignment
Ans: d
13. The change in flux linkages can be caused in which of

the following ways ?
(a) The flux is constant with respect to time and is stationary and the
coil moves through it
(b) The coil is stationary with respect to flux and the flux varies in
magnitude with respect to time
(c) Both the changes mentioned above occur together, i.e., the coil
moves through a time varying field
Ans: d
14 is universally used for windings of electrical machines

because it is easily workable without any possibility of
fracture.
(a) Silver
(b) Steel
(c) Aluminium
(d) Copper
Ans: d
15. Aluminium when adopted as a conductor material in

______ transformers, decreases the overall cost of the
transformer
(a) small size
(b) medium size
(c) large size
(d) any of the above size
Ans: a
16. Which of the following materials is used in the

manufacture of resistance grids to be used in the starters of
large motors ?
(a) Copper
(b) Aluminium
(c) Steel
(d) Cast-iron
Ans: d
17. Materials exhibiting zero value of resistivity are known

as ______ .
(a) conductors
(b) semiconductors
(c) insulators
(d) superconductors
Ans: d
18. ________ has a lowrelative permeability and is used

principally in field frames when cost is of primary
importance and extra weight is not objectionable.
(a) Cast steel
(b) Aluminium
(c) Soft steel
(d) Cast iron
Ans: d
19 ______is extensively used for those portions of

magnetic circuit which carry steady flux and need superior
mechanical properties ?
(a) Grey cast-iron
(b) Cast steel
(c) High carbon steel
(d) Stainless steel
Ans: b
20. Hot rolled sheets have ______ value of permeability

(a) zero
(b) low
(c) high
Ans: b
21. The heated parts of an electrical machine dissipate heat

into their surroundings by which of the following modes of
heat dissipation ?
(a) Conduction
(b) Convection
(c) Radiation
Ans: d
22. The heat dissipated by from a surface depends upon its

temperature and its characteristics like colour, roughness
etc.
(a) conduction
(b) convection
(c) radiation
Ans: c
23. The mcrease in heat dissipation by air blasts is due to

increase in
(a) conduction
(b) convection
(e) radiation
(d) any ofthe above
Ans: b
24. On which of the following variables heat convected

depends ?
(a) Power density
(b) Temperature difference between heated surface and coolant
(c) Thermal resistivity, density, specific heat
(d) Gravitational constant
Ans: e
25. Which of the following methods is used for air cooling

of turbo-alternators ?
(a) One sided axial ventilation
(b) Two sided axial ventilation
(c) Multiple inlet system

Ans: d
26. Multiple inlet system of air cooling of turbo-alternators

can be used for machines of rating upto
(a) 10 MW
(b) 30 MW
(c) 60 MW
(d) 150 MW
Ans: c
27. Which of the following is an advantage of hydrogen

cooling ?
(a) Increase in efficiency
(b) Increase in ratings
(c) Increase in life
(d) Smaller size of coolers
Ans: e
28. The density of hydrogen is _____ times the density of

air.
(a) 0.07
(b) 1.5
(c) 2.5
(d) 3.5
Ans: a
29. Hydrogen has a heat transfer co-efficient _____ times

that of air
(a) 1.5
(b) 2.5
(c) 3.5
(d) 4.5
Ans: a
30. The thermal conductivity of hydrogen is ______ times

that of air
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 5
(d) 7
Ans: d
31. With conventional hydrogen cooling it is possible to

increase the rating of a single unit to
(a) 50 MW
(b) 100 MW
(c) 200 MW
Ans: c
32. The noise produced by a ______ cooled machine is less

as the rotor moves in a medium of smaller density.
(a) air
(b) hydrogen
Ans: b
33. cooling is the process of dissipating the armature and

field winding losses to a cooling medium circulating within
the winding insulation wall
(a) Direct
(b) Indirect
(c) Conventional
Ans: a
34. Machines cooled by direct cooling method may be called

(a) “supercharged”
(b) “inner cooled”
(c) “conductor cooled”
Ans: d
35. In direct cooled system using hydrogen both stator and

rotor conductors are made
(a) solid
(b) hollow
(c) perforated
(d) any ofthe above
Ans: b
36. With direct water cooling it is possible to have ratings of

about
(a) 200 MW
(b) 300 MW
(c) 400 MW
(d) 600 MW
Ans: d
37. The resistivity of water should not be less than

(a) 10 Q m
(b) 100 Q m
(c) 1000 Q m
(d) 2000 Q m
Ans: d
38. Direct water cooling of rotor winding presents

(a) no mechanical difficulties
(b) lesser mechanical difficulties
(c) greater mechanical difficulties
Ans: c
39. The time taken by the machine to attain 0.632 of its final
steady temperature rise is called
(a) heating time constant
(b) cooling time constant
Ans: a
40. In self cooled motors the cooling time constant is about

______ than the heating time constant because cooling
conditions are worse at standstill.
(a) 2 to 3 times greater
(b) 3 to 4 times greater
(c) 4 to 5 times greater
Ans: a
41. By which of the following methods motor rating for

variable load drives can be determined ?
(a) Method of average losses
(b) Equivalent current method
(c) Equivalent torque method
(d) Equivalent power method
(e) All of the above.
Ans: e
42. Which of the following methods does not take into

account the maximum temperature rise under variable
load conditions ?
(a) Equivalent power method
(b) Equivalent current method
(c) Method of average losses
(d) Equivalent torque method
Ans: c
43. Which of the following methods is most accurate ?

(a) Equivalent current method
(b) Equivalent power method
(c) Equivalent torque method
(d) Method of average losses
Ans: a
44. By which of the following methods the temperature rise

of windings and other parts may be determined ?
(a) Thermometer method
(6) Resistance method
(c) Embedded temperature detector method

Ans: d
45. The slot leakage can be calculated by making which of

the following assumptions ?
(a) The current in the slot conductors is uniformly distributed over
their cross-section
(b) The leakage path is straight across the slot and around the iron at
the bottom
(c) The permanence of air paths is only considered. The reluctance of
iron paths is assumed as zero
Ans: d
46. The value of exciting or magnetizing current depends

upon which of the following factors ?
(a) Total m.m.f. required
(b) The number of turns in the exciting winding
(c) The way in which the winding is distributed
Ans: d
47. Tractive magnets are operated from

(a) a.c. supply
(b) d.c. supply
(c) either a.c. or d.c. supply
Ans: c
48. electromagnets generally function as holding magnets.

(a) Tractive
(b) Portative
Ans: b
49. Which of the following is the commonly used type of

electromagnets ?
(a) Flat-faced armature type
(b) Horse shoe type

(c) Flat-faced plunger type
Ans: d
50. are used for construction of core of electromagnets.

(a) Soft magnetic materials
(b) Hard magnetic materials
(c) Either (a) or (b)
Ans: a
51. The design of electromagnets is based upon which of the

following fundamental equations ?
(a) Force equation
(b) Magnetic circuit equation
(c) Heating equation
(d) Voltage equation
Ans: e
52. When the two coil sides forming a coil are spaced
exactly one pole pitch apart they are said to be of
(a) short pitch
(b) full pitch
Ans: b
53. are always double layer type.

(a) Closed windings
(b) Open windings
Ans: a
54. The distance between the starts of two consecutive coils

measured in terms of coil sides is called
(a) front pitch
(b) winding pitch

(c) commutator pitch
(d) back pitch
Ans: b
55. The winding where dummy coils are used is sometimes

called
(a) duplex winding
(b) triplex winding
(c) forced winding
Ans: c
Electrical Machine Design Questions and Answers ::

56. Dummy coil should not be used in
(a) small machines
(b) large machines
Ans: b
57. Power transformers have rating

(a) equal to 50 kVA
(6) equal to 100 kVA
(c) above 200 kVA
Ans: c
58. Power transformers should be designed to have maximum

efficiency
(a) at one-fourth load
(b) at one-half load
(c) at or near full load
Ans: c
59. In transformers using hot rolled steel, the cross-section of the yoke
is made about _____ greater than that of the core
(a) 5 percent
(b) 10 percent
(c) 15 percent
(d) 30 percent
Ans: c
60. Yokes with rectangular cross-section are used for

(a) small capacity transformers
(b) medium capacity transformers
(c) large capacity transformers
Ans: a
61. The cold rolled grain oriented steel has ______ permeability in
the direction of the grain orientation.
(a) minimum
(b) maximum
(c) nil
Ans: b
62. Cylindrical windings using circular conductors, employed in

transformers, are
(a) single layered
(b) double layered
(c) multi-layered
Ans: c
63. Helical windings are used in

(a) distribution transformers
(b) power transformers
(c) shell type transformers
Ans: b
64. Multi-layer helical windings are commonly used in the

transformers as high voltage windings
(a) upto 20 kV
(b) upto 50 kV
(c) upto 80 kV
(d) for 110 kV and above
Ans: d
65. Disc windings are primarily used in

(a) short capacity transformers
(b) medium capacity transformers
(c) high capacity transformers
Ans: c
66. The heat dissipating capability of transformers of ratings higher

than 30 kVA in increased by providing which of
the following ?
(a) Corrugations
(b) Fins
(c) Tubes
(d) Radiator tanks
Ans: e
67. Transformers with a capacity of up to _____ have a cooling

radiator system with natural cooling
(a) 2 MVA
(b) 5 MVA
(c) 7.5 MVA
(d) 10 MVA
Ans: d
68. The forced oil and air circulation method is usual one for
transformers of capacities
(a) upto 5 MVA
(b) upto 10 MVA
(c) upto 20 MVA
(d) 30 MVA upwards
Ans: d
69. The flash point of transformer oil should be higher than

(a) 40°C
(b) 60°C
(c) 80°C
(d) 104°C
Ans: d
70. The voltage control in electric supply networks in required on

account of which of the following reasons ?
(a) Adjustment of voltage at consumers premises within statutory
limits
(b) Control of active and reactive power
(c) Adjustment of short period daily and seasonal voltage variations in
accordance with variations of load
Ans: d
71. D.C. windings are

(a) sometimes 2-layer type
(b) never 2-layer type
(c) always 2-layer type
Ans: c
72. The usual values of maximum flux densities for distribution

transformers using hot rolled silicon steel are
(a) 0.5 to 0.8 Wb/m2
(b) 0.8 to 1.0 Wb/m2
(c) 1.1 to 1.35 Wb/m2
(d) 1.4 to 1.8 Wb/m2
Ans: c
73. For 275 kV transformers, using cold rolled grain oriented steel,
which of the following values of flux density may be used?
(a) 1.0 Wb/m2
(b) 1.1 Wb/m2
(c) 1.3 Wb/m2
(d) 1.6 Wb/m2

Ans: d
74. For large power transformers, self oil cooled type or air blast type
which of the following values of current density may be used ?
(a) 1.0 to 1.2 A/mm2
(b) 1.5 to 2.0 A/mm2
(c) 2.2 to 3.2 A/mm2
(d) 3.2 to 4.2 A/mm2
Ans: c
75. A current density of _____ is ilsed for large power transformers

with forced circulation of oil or with water cooling coils
(a) 1.5 to 2.5 A/mm2
(b) 3.5 to 4.5 A/mm2
(c) 4.0 to 5.0 A/mm2
(d) 5.4 to 6.2 A/mm2
Ans: d
76. The high voltage winding is usually which of the following type ?
(a) Cylindrical winding with circular conductors
(b) Cross-over winding with either circular or small rectangular
conductors
(c) Continuous disc type winding with rectangular conductors
(d) All of the above types
Ans: d
77. Which of the following is the basic consideration in the design of

insulation ?
(a) Electrical considerations
(b) Mechanical considerations
(c) Thermal considerations
Ans: d
78. A practical formula for determining the thickness of insulation

between low voltage and high voltage windings is
(a) 1 + 0.2 kVmm
(6) 2 + 0.5 kVmm
(c) 4 + 0.7 kV mm
(d) 5 + 0.9 kV mm
Ans: d
79. The insulation between windings and grounded core and the
insulation between the windings of the same phase is
called
(a) minor insulation
(b) major insulation
Ans: b
80. The cylindrical windings using circular conductors are used for
current rating of
(a) upto 20 A
(b) upto 40 A
(c) upto 60 A
(d) upto 80 A
Ans: d
81. The surge phenomenon is particularly important in case of

(a) low voltage transformers
(b) medium voltage transformers
(c) high voltage transformers
Ans: c
82. Which of the following in an application of D.C. motors?

(a) Traction
(b) Drives for process industry
(c) Battery driven vehicles
(d) Automatic control
Ans: e
83. D.C. servomotors are used in

(a) purely D.C. control systems
(6) purely AC. control systems
(c) both D.C. and AC. control systems

Ans: a
84. The stator of a D.C. machine comprises of

(a) main poles
(6) interpoles
(c) frame
Ans: d
85. The laminations of the armature of a D.C. machine are usually

_____ thick.
(a) 0.1 to 0.2 mm
(b) 0.2 to 0.3 mm
(c) 0.3 to 0.4 mm
(d) 0.4 to 0.5 mm
Ans: d
86. is usually used for brush rockers

(a) Mild steel
(b) Copper
(c) Aluminium
(d) Cast-iron
Ans: d
87. ______ brushes are fragile and cause excessive wear of

commutator,
(a) Natural graphite
(b) Hard carbon
(c) Electro graphitic
(d) Metal graphite
Ans: a
88. Which of the following brushes can be used for high values of
current density ?
(a) Metal graphite brushes
(b) Hard carbon brushes
(c) Electro-graphitic brushes
(d) Natural graphite brushes

Ans: a
89. ________ is the common method of applying brushes to the

commntator.
(a) Radial
(b) Trailing
(c) Reaction
Ans: d
90. Which of the following problem arises in D.C. motors which are
fed from thyristor bridge circuits ?
(a) Increased I R losses
(b) Increased core losses
(c) Poor commutation
(d) Change in motor parameters
Ans: e
91. The weight of copper of both armature and field windings

decreases with _____ in number of poles.
(a) increase
(b) decrease
Ans: a
92. In a D.C. machine the number of brush arms is _____ the

number of poles.
(a) less than
(b) equal to
(c) greater than
Ans: b
93. In a D.C. machine the current per brush arm should not be more
than
(a) 100 A
(6) 200 A
(e) 300 A
(d) 400 A
Ans: d
94. In a D.C. machine, the value of peripheral speed should not,

normally, exceed
(a) 10 m/s
(b) 20 m/s
(c) 30 m/s
(d) 40 m/s
Ans: c
95. In D.C. machines the width of the duct is usually

(a) 4 mm
(b) 6 mm
(c) 8 mm
(d) 10 mm
Ans: d
96. D.C. machines designed with a large value of air gap length have
(a) worst, ventilation
(b) poor ventilation
(c) better ventilation
Ans: c
97. In D.C. machines, ir order to prevent excessive distortion of field

form by the armature reaction, the field mmf must be made
(a) equal to that of armature mmf
(b) less in comparison with the armature mmf
(c) large in comparison with the armature mmf
Ans: c
98. In D.C. machines, the ____ in field mmf results in increase in size
and cost of machines.
(a) increase
(b) decrease

Ans: a
99. The operation of a D.C. machine with large air gap lengths is
comparatively
(a) quiet
(b) noisy
Ans: a
100. Which of the following methods may be adopted to reduce the

effects of armature reaction ?
(a) Increase in length of air gap at pole tips
(b) Increasing reluctance of pole tips
(c) Compensating windings
(d) Interpoles
Ans: e
101. In D.C. machines the usual limit of slot pitch is

(a) between 5 to 10 mm
(b) between 10 to 15 mm
(c) between 15 to 20 mm
(d) between 25 to 35 mm
Ans: d
110. In D.C. machines the number of slots per pole usually lies
(a) between 2 to 4
(b) between 6 to 8
(c) between 9 to 16
(d) between 20 to 30
Ans: c
Electrical Machine Design Mcqs Pdf ::

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6/6/2019 300+ TOP Measurement & Instrumentation Objective Type Questions and Answers


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TOP Measurement & Instrumentation Objective Type
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Measurement & Instrumentation Objective Type

Questions :-
1. The use of _____ instruments is merely confined within
laboratories as standardizing instruments.
(a) absolute
(b) indicating
(c) recording
(d) integrating
Ans: a
2. Which of the following instruments indicate the

instantaneous value of the electrical quantity being
measured at the time at which it is being measured ?
(a) Absolute instruments
(b) Indicating instruments
(c) Recording instruments
https://engineeringinterviewquestions.com/measurement-and-instrumentation-electrical-engineering-objective-type-questions-and-answers/ 1/31
(d) Integrating instruments

Ans: b
3. _____ instruments are those which measure the total

quantity of electricity delivered in a particular time.
(a) Absolute
(b) Indicating
(c) Recording
(d) Integrating
Ans: d
4. Which of the following are integrating instruments ?

(a) Ammeters
(b) Voltmeters
(c) Wattmeters
(d) Ampere-hour and watt-hour meters
Ans: d
5. Resistances can be measured with the help of

(a) wattmeters
(b) voltmeters
(c) ammeters
(d) ohmmeters and resistance bridges
Ans: d
6 According to application, instruments are classified as

(a) switch board
(b) portable
(d) moving coil
(e) moving iron
(f) both (d) and (e)
Ans: c
7. Which of the following essential features is possessed by

an indicating instrument ?
(a) Deflecting device
(b) Controlling device
(c) Damping device

Ans: d
8. A _____ device prevents the oscillation of the moving

system and enables the latter to reach its final position
quickly
(a) deflecting
(b) controlling
(c) damping
Ans: c
9. The spring material used in a spring control device

should have the following property.
(a) Should be non-magnetic
(b) Most be of low temperature co-efficient
(c) Should have low specific resistance
(d) Should not be subjected to fatigue
Ans: e
10. Which of the following properties a damping oil must

possess ?
(a) Must be a good insulator
(b) Should be non-evaporating
(c) Should not have corrosive action upon the metal of the vane
(d) The viscosity of the oil should not change with the temperature
Ans: e
11. A moving-coil permanent-magnet instrument can be

used as _____ by using a low resistance shunt.
(a) ammeter
(b) voltmeter
(c) flux-meter
(d) ballistic galvanometer
Ans: a
12. A moving-coil permanent-magnet instrument can be

used as flux-meter
(a) by using a low resistance shunt
(b) by using a high series resistance
(c) by eliminating the control springs
(d) by making control springs of large moment of inertia
Ans: c
13. Which of the following devices may be used for

extending the range of instruments ?
(a) Shunts
(b) Multipliers
(c) Current transformers
(d) Potential transformers
Ans: e
14. An induction meter can handle current up to

(a) 10 A
(b) 30 A
(c) 60 A
(d) 100 A
Ans: d
15. For handling greater currents induction wattmeters are

used in conjunction with
(a) potential transformers
(b) current transformers
(c) power transformers
(d) either of the above
Ans: b
16. Induction type single phase energy meters measure

electric energy in
(a) kW
(b) Wh
(c) kWh
(d) VAR

Ans: c
17. Most common form of A.C. meters met with in every day
domestic and industrial installations are
(a) mercury motor meters
(b) commutator motor meters
(c) induction type single phase energy meters
Ans: c
18. Which of the following meters are not used on D.C.

circuits
(a) Mercury motor meters
(b) Commutator motor meters
(c) Induction meters
Ans: c
19. Which of the following is an essential part of a motor

meter ?
(a) An operating torque system
(b) A braking device
(c) Revolution registering device
Ans: d
20. A potentiometer may be used for

(a) measurement of resistance
(b) measurement of current
(c) calibration of ammeter
(d) calibration of voltmeter
Ans: e
21 is an instrument which measures the insulation

resistance of an electric circuit relative to earth and one
another,
(a) Tangent galvanometer
(b) Meggar
(c) Current transformer
Ans: b
22. The household energy meter is

(a) an indicating instrument
(b) a recording instrument
(c) an integrating instrument
Ans: c
23. The pointer of an indicating instrument should be

(a) very light
(b) very heavy
Ans: a
24. The chemical effect of current is used in

(a) D.C. ammeter hour meter
(b) D.C. ammeter
(c) D.C. energy meter
Ans: a
25. In majority of instruments damping is provided by

(a) fluid friction
(b) spring
(c) eddy currents
Ans: c
26. An ammeter is a
(a) secondary instrument
(b) absolute instrument
(c) recording instrument
(d) integrating instrument
Ans: a
27. In a portable instrument, the controlling torque is

provided by
(a) spring
(b) gravity
(c) eddy currents
Ans: a
28. The disc of an instrument using eddy current damping

should be of
(a) conducting and magnetic material
(b) non-conducting and magnetic material
(c) conducting and non-magnetic material
Ans: c
29. The switch board instruments

(a) should be mounted in vertical position
(6) should be mounted in horizontal position
Ans: a
30. The function of shunt in an ammeter is to

(a) by pass the current
(b) increase the sensitivity of the ammeter
(c) increase the resistance of ammeter
Ans: a
31. The multiplier and the meter coil in a voltmeter are in

(a) series
(b) parallel
(c) series-parallel
Ans: a
32. A moving iron instrument can be used for

(a) D.C. only
(b) A.C. only

(c) both D.C. and A.C.
Ans: c
33. The scale of a rectifier instrument is

(a) linear
(b) non-linear
Ans: a
34. For measuring current at high frequency we should use

(a) moving iron instrument
(b) electrostatic instrument
(c) thermocouple instrument
Ans: c
35. The resistance in the circuit of the moving coil of a

dynamometer wattmeter should be
(a) almost zero
(b) low
(c) high
Ans: c
36. A dynamometer wattmeter can be used for

(a) both D.C. and A.C.
(b) D.C. only
(c) A.C. only
Ans: a
37. An induction wattmeter can be used for

(a) both D.C. and A.C.
(6) D.C. only
(c) A.C. only
Ans: b
38. The pressure coil of a wattmeter should be connected

on the supply side of the current coil when
(a) load impedance is high
(b) load impedance is low
(c) supply voltage is low
Ans: a
39. In a low power factor wattmeter the pressure coil is

connected
(a) to the supply side of the current coil
(b) to the load side of the current coil
(c) in any of the two meters at connection
Ans: b
40. In a low power factor wattmeter the compensating coil

is connected
(a) in series with current coil
(b) in parallel with current coil
(c) in series with pressure coil
(d) in parallel with pressure coil
Ans: c
41. In a 3-phase power measurement by two wattmeter

method, both the watt meters had identical readings. The
power factor of the load was
(a) unity
(6) 0.8 lagging
(c) 0.8 leading
(d) zero
Ans: a
42. In a 3-phase power measurement by two wattmeter

method the reading of one of the wattmeter was zero. The
power factor of the load must be
(a) unity
(b) 0.5
(c) 0.3
(d) zero
Ans: b
43. The adjustment of position of shading bands, in an

energy meter is done to provide
(a) friction compensation
(b) creep compensation
(c) braking torque
Ans: a
44. An ohmmeter is a
(a) moving iron instrument
(b) moving coil instrument
(c) dynamometer instrument
Ans: b
45. When a capacitor was connected to the terminal of

ohmmeter, the pointer indicated a low resistance initially
and then slowly came to infinity position. This shows that
capacitor is
(a) short-circuited
(b) all right
(c) faulty
Ans: b
46. For measuring a very high resistance we should use

(a) Kelvin’s double bridge
(b) Wheat stone bridge
(c) Meggar
Ans: c
47. The electrical power to a meggar is provided by

(a) battery
(b) permanent magnet D.C. generator
(c) AC. generator

Ans: b
48. In a meggar controlling torque is provided by

(a) spring
(b) gravity
(c) coil
(d) eddy current
Ans: c
49. The operating voltage of a meggar is about

(a) 6 V
(b) 12 V
(c) 40 V
(d) 100 V
Ans: d
50. Murray loop test can be used for location of

(a) ground fault on a cable
(b) short circuit fault on a cable
(c) both the ground fault and the short-circuit fault
Ans: c
51. Which of the following devices should be used for accurate

measurement of low D.C. voltage ?
(a) Small range moving coil voltmeter
(b) D.C. potentiometer
(c) Small range thermocouple voltmeter
Ans: b
52. It is required to measure the true open circuit e.m.f. of a battery.

The best device is
(a) D.C. voltmeter
(b) Ammeter and a known resistance
(c) D.C. potentiometer
Ans: c
53. A voltage of about 200 V can be measured

(a) directly by a D.C. potentiometer
(b) a D.C. potentiometer in conjunction with a volt ratio box
(c) a D.C. potentiometer in conjunction with a known resistance
Ans: b
54. A direct current can be measured by

(a) a D.C. potentiometer directly
(b) a D.C. potentiometer in conjunction with a standard resistance
(c) a D.C. potentiometer in conjunction with a volt ratio box
Ans: b
55. To measure a resistance with the help of a potentiometer it is

(a) necessary to standardise the potentiometer
(b) not necessary to standardise the potentiometer
(c) necessary to use a volt ratio box in conjunction with the
potentiometer
Ans: b
56. A phase shifting transformer is used in conjunction with

(a) D.C. potentiometer
(b) Drysdale potentiometer
(c) A.C. co-ordinate potentiometer
(d) Crompton potentiometer
Ans: b
57. Basically a potentiometer is a device for

(a) comparing two voltages
(b) measuring a current
(c) comparing two currents
(d) measuring a voltage
Ans: a
58. In order to achieve high accuracy, the slide wire of a potentiometer

should be
(a) as long as possible

(b) as short as possible
(c) neither too small not too large
(d) very thick
Ans: a
59. To measure an A. C. voltage by using an A.C. potentiometer, it is

desirable that the supply for the potentiometer in taken
(a) from a source which is not the same as the unknown voltage
(b) from a battery
(c) from the same source as the unknown voltage
Ans: c
60. The stator of phase shifting transformer for use in conjunction

with an A.C. potentiometer usually has a
(a) single-phase winding
(b) two-phase winding
(c) three-phase winding
Ans: b
61. In an AC. co-ordinate potentiometer, the currents in the phase and

quadrature potentiometer are adjusted to be
(a) out of phase by 90°
(6) out of phase by 60°
(c) out of phase by 30°
(d) out of phase by 0°
(e) out of phase by 180°
Ans: a
62. A universal RLC bridge uses

(a) Maxwell bridge configuration for measurement of inductance and
De Santas bridge for measurement of capacitance
(b) Maxwell Wein bridge for measurement of inductance and
modified De Santy’s bridge for measurement of capacitance
(c) Maxwell Wein bridge for measurement of inductance and Wein
bridge for measurement of capacitance
(d) Any of the above.

Ans: b
63. For measurements on high voltage capacitors, the suitable bridge

is
(a) Wein bridge
(b) Modified De Santy’s bridge
(c) Schering bridge
Ans: c
64. In an Anderson bridge, the unknown inductance is measured in

terms of
(a) known inductance and resistance
(b) known capacitance and resistance
(c) known resistance
(d) known inductance
Ans: b
65. Wagner earthing device is used to eliminate errors due to

(a) electrostatic coupling
(b) electromagnetic coupling
Ans: a
66. For measurement of mutual inductance we can use

(a) Anderson bridge
(b) Maxwell’s bridge
(c) Heaviside bridge
Ans: c
67. For measurement of inductance having high value, we should use

(a) Maxwell’s bridge
(b) Maxwell Wein bridge
(c) Hay’s bridge

Ans: c
68. If the current in a capacitor leads the voltage by 80°, the loss angle
of the capacitor is
(a) 10°
(b) 80°
(c) 120°
(d) 170°
Ans: a
69. In a Schering bridge the potential of the detector above earth

potential is
(a) a few volts only
(6) 1 kV
(c) 5 kV
(d) 10 kV
Ans: a
70. To avoid the effect of stray magnetic field in A.C. bridges we can
use
(a) magnetic screening
(b) Wagner earthing device
(c) wave filters
Ans: a
71. If an inductance is connected in one arm of bridge and resistances

in the remaining three arms
(a) the bridge can always be balanced
(b) the bridge cannot be balanced
(c) the bridge can be balanced if the resistances have some specific
values
Ans: b
72. A power factor meter has

(a) one current circuit and two pressure circuits
(b) one current circuit and one pressure circuit
(c) two current circuits and one pres¬sure circuit

Ans: a
73. The two pressure coils of a single phase power factor meter have
(a) the same dimensions and the same number of turns
(b) the same dimension but different number of turns
(c) the same number of turns but different dimensions
Ans: a
74. In a single phase power factor meter the phase difference between
the currents in the two pressure coils is
(a) exactly 0°
(b) approximately 0°
(c) exactly 90°
(d) approximately 90°
Ans: c
75. In a dynamometer 3-phase power factor meter, the planes of the

two moving coils are at
(a) 0°
(b) 60°
(c) 90°
(d) 120°
Ans: d
76. In a vibrating reed frequency meter the natural frequencies of two

adjacent reeds have a difference of
(a) 0.1 Hz
(b) 0.25 Hz
(c) 0.5 Hz
(d) 1.5 Hz
Ans: c
77. In a Weston frequency meter, the magnetic axes of the two fixed
coils are
(a) parallel
(b) perpendicular
(c) inclined at 60°
(d) inclined at 120°

Ans: b
78. A Weston frequency meter is

(a) moving coil instrument
(b) moving iron instrument
Ans: b
79. A Weston synchronoscope is a

(a) moving coil instrument
(b) moving iron instrument
Ans: c
80. In a Weston synchronoscope, the fixed coils are connected across

(a) bus-bars
(b) incoming alternator
(c) a lamp
Ans: b
81. In Weston synchronoscope the moving coil is connected across

(a) bus-bars
(b) incoming alternator
(c) fixed coils
Ans: a
82. The power factor of a single phase load can be calculated if the
instruments available are
(a) one voltmeter and one ammeter
(b) one voltmeter, one ammeter and one wattmeter
(c) one voltmeter, one ammeter and one energy meter
Ans: b
83. The desirable static characteristics of a measuring system are

(a) accuracy and reproducibility
(b) accuracy, sensitivity and reproducibility
(c) drift and dead zone
(d) static error
Ans: b
84. The ratio of maximum displacement deviation to full scale

deviation of the instrument is called
(a) static sensitivity
(b) dynamic deviation
(c) linearity
(d) precision or accuracy
Ans: c
85. Systematic errors are

(a) instrumental errors
(b) environmental errors
(c) observational errors
Ans: d
86. Standard resistor is made from

(a) platinum
(b) maganin
(c) silver
(d) nichrome
Ans: b
87. Commonly used standard capacitor is

(a) spherical type
(b) concentric cylindrical type
(c) electrostatic type
(d) multilayer parallel plate type
Ans: b
88. Operating torques in analogue instruments are

(a) deflecting and control
(b) deflecting and damping
(c) deflecting, control and damping

(d) vibration and balancing
Ans: c
89. Commonly used instruments in power system measurement are

(a) induction
(b) moving coil or iron
(c) rectifier
(d) electrostatic
Ans: a
90. Damping of the Ballistic galvanometer is made small to

(a) get first deflection large
(b) make the system oscillatory
(c) make the system critically damped
(d) get minimum overshoot
Ans: a
91. If an instrument has cramped scale for larger values, then it

follows
(a) square law
(b) logarithmic law
(c) uniform law
Ans: b
92. Volt box is a component to

(a) extend voltage range
(6) measure voltage
(c) compare voltage in a box
Ans: a
93. E.m.f. of a Weston cell is accurately measured by

(a) electrostatic voltmeter
(b) hot wire voltmeter
(c) isothermal voltmeter
(d) electrodynamic voltmeter
Ans: a
94. The gravity controlled instrument has crowded scale because

current is proportional to
(a) balancing weight
(b) deflection angle
(c) sine of deflection angle
Ans: c
95. A sensitive galvanometer produces large deflection for a

(a) small value of current
(b) large value of current
(c) large value of power
(d) large value of voltage
Ans: a
96. A multirangq instrument has

(a) multiple shunt or series resistances inside the meter
(b) multicoii arrangement
(c) variable turns of coil
(d) multi range meters inside the measurement system
Ans: a
97. The rectifier instrument is not free from

(a) temperature error
(b) wave shape error
(c) frequency error
Ans: c
98. Alternating current is measured by

(a) induction ammeter
(b) permanent magnet type ammeter
(c) electrostatic ammeter
(d) moving iron repulsion type voltmeter
Ans: a
99. Most sensitive galvanometer is

(a) elastic galvanometer
(b) vibration galvanometer

(c) Duddlb galvanometer
(d) spot ballistic galvanometer
Ans: d
100. Instrument transformers are

(a) potential transformers
(b) current transformers
(d) power transformers
Ans: c
101. An instrument transformer is used to extend the range of

(a) induction instrument
(b) electrostatic instrument
(c) moving coil instrument
Ans: a
102. Wattmeter cannot be designed on the principle of

(a) electrostatic instrument
(b) thermocouple instrument
(c) moving iron instrument
(d) electrodynamic instrument
Ans: c
103. In an energy meter braking torque is produced to

(a) safe guard it against creep
(b) brake the instrument
(c) bring energy meter to stand still
(d) maintain steady speed and equal to driving torque
Ans: d
104. Various adjustments in an energy meter include

(a) light load or friction
(b) lag and creep
(c) overload and voltage compensation
(d) temperature compensation

Ans: e
105. The power of a n-phase circuit can be measured by using a

minimum of
(a) (n – 1) wattmeter elements
(b) n wattmeter elements
(c) (n + 1) wattmeter elements
(d) 2n wattmeter elements
Ans: a
106. Two holes in the disc of energy meter are drilled at the opposite
sides of the spindle to
(a) improve its ventilation
(b) eliminate creeping at no load
(c) increase its deflecting torque
(d) increase its braking torque
Ans: b
107. Which of the following is measured by using a vector voltmeter ?

(a) Amplifier gain and phase shift
(b) Filler transfer functions
(c) Complex insersion loss
Ans: d
108. The principle on which vector voltmeter is based is

(a) that it works on the principle of complex variation
(b) that it measures the response of linear ramp voltage
(c) same as digital meter
(d) that it measures the amplitude of a single at two points and at the
same time measures their phase difference
Ans: d
110. To measure radio frequency, the suitable frequency meter is

(a) Weston frequency meter
(b) reed vibrator frequency meter
(c) heterodoxy frequency meter
(d) electrical resonance frequency meter

Ans: c

38 THOUGHTS ON “300+ TOP MEASUREMENT &

INSTRUMENTATION OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS”
Manindra
Q.37
Correct ans.c
REPLY
pankaj singh
v.v.I question
REPLY
Ved Manu
Could you please send the pdf of the all electrical

questions and answers. Its helpful for competitive exams.
REPLY
VINAY
JANUARY 28, 2017 AT 4:46 PM
Pls send questions n answers in PDF format…..it will be

great help sir
6/6/2019 110 TOP CONTROL SYSTEMS Objective Questions and Answers Pdf

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CONTROL SYSTEMS Objective Questions with

Answers :-
1. In an open loop control system
(a) Output is independent of control input
(b) Output is dependent on control input
(c) Only system parameters have effect on the control output
Ans: a
2. For open control system which of the following

statements is incorrect ?
(a) Less expensive
(b) Recalibration is not required for maintaining the required quality
of the output
(c) Construction is simple and maintenance easy
(d) Errors are caused by disturbances
Ans: b
https://engineeringinterviewquestions.com/control-systems-electrical-engineering-objective-type-questions-and-answers/ 1/24
3. A control system in which the control action is somehow

dependent on the output is known as
(a) Closed loop system
(b) Semiclosed loop system
(c) Open system
Ans: a
4. In closed loop control system, with positive value of

feedback gain the overall gain of the system will
(a) decrease
(b) increase
(c) be unaffected
Ans: a
5. Which of the following is an open loop control system ?

(a) Field controlled D.C. motor
(b) Ward leonard control
(c) Metadyne
(d) Stroboscope
Ans: a
6. Which of the following statements is not necessarily

correct for open control system ?
(a) Input command is the sole factor responsible for providing the
control action
(b) Presence of non-linearities causes malfunctioning
(c) Less expensive
(d) Generally free from problems of non-linearities
Ans: b
7. In open loop system

(a) the control action depends on the size of the system
(b) the control action depends on system variables
(c) the control action depends on the input signal
(d) the control action is independent of the output
Ans: d
8. has tendency to oscillate.

(a) Open loop system
(b) Closed loop system
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
Ans: b
9. A good control system has all the following features

except
(a) good stability
(b) slow response
(c) good accuracy
(d) sufficient power handling capacity
Ans: b
10. A car is raining at a constant speed of 50 km/h, which of

the following is the feedback element for the driver ?
(a) Clutch
(b) Eyes
(c) Needle of the speedometer
(d) Steering wheel
Ans: c
11. The initial response when tne output is not equal to input is called
(a) Transient response
(b) Error response
(c) Dynamic response
(d) Either of the above
Ans: a
12. A control system working under unknown random actions is called

(a) computer control system
(b) digital data system
(c) stochastic control system
(d) adaptive control system
Ans: c
13. An automatic toaster is a ______ loop control system.

(a) open
(b) closed
(c) partially closed
Ans: a
14. Any externally introduced signal affecting the controlled output is

called a
(a) feedback
(b) stimulus
(c) signal
(d) gain control
Ans: b
15. A closed loop system is distinguished from open loop system by

which of the following ?
(a) Servomechanism
(b) Feedback
(c) Output pattern
(d) Input pattern
Ans: b
16 is a part of the human temperature control system.

(a) Digestive system
(b) Perspiration system
(c) Ear
(d) Leg movement
Ans: b
17. By which of the following the control action is determined when a

man walks along a path ?
(a) Brain
(b) Hands
(c) Legs
(d) Eyes
Ans: d
18 is a closed loop system.

(a) Auto-pilot for an aircraft
(6) Direct current generator
(c) Car starter
(d) Electric switch
Ans: a
19. Which of the following devices are commonly used as error

detectors in instruments ?
(a) Vernistats
(b) Microsyns
(c) Resolvers
Ans: d
20. Which of the following should be done to make an unstable system

stable ?
(a) The gain of the system should be decreased
(b) The gain of the system should be increased
(c) The number of poles to the loop transfer function should be
increased
(d) The number of zeros to the loop transfer function should be
increased
Ans: b
21 increases the steady state accuracy.

(a) Integrator
(b) Differentiator
(c) Phase lead compensator
(d) Phase lag compensator
Ans: a
22. A.C. servomotor resembles

(a) two phase induction motor
(b) Three phase induction motor
(c) direct current series motor
(d) universal motor
Ans: a
23. As a result of introduction of negative feedback which of the

following will not decrease ?
(a) Band width
(b) Overall gain
(c) Distortion
(d) Instability
Ans: a
24. Regenerative feedback implies feedback with

(a) oscillations
(b) step input
(c) negative sign
(d) positive sign
Ans: d
25. The output of a feedback control system must be a function of

(a) reference and output
(b) reference and input
(e) input and feedback signal
(d) output and feedback signal
Ans: a
26 is an open loop control system.

(a) Ward Leonard control
(b) Field controlled D.C. motor
(c) Stroboscope
(d) Metadyne
Ans: b
27. A control system with excessive noise, is likely to suffer from

(a) saturation in amplifying stages
(b) loss of gain
(c) vibrations
(d) oscillations
Ans: a
28. Zero initial condition for a system means

(a) input reference signal is zero
(b) zero stored energy
(c) ne initial movement of moving parts

(d) system is at rest and no energy is stored in any of its components
Ans: d
29. Transfer function of a system is used to calculate which of the

following ?
(a) The order of the system
(b) The time constant
(c) The output for any given input
(d) The steady state gain
Ans: c
30. The band width, in a feedback amplifier.

(a) remains unaffected
(b) decreases by the same amount as the gain increase
(c) increases by the sane saaaajajt as the gain decrease
(d) decreases by the same amount as the gain decrease
Ans: c
31. On which of the following factors does the sensitivity of a closed

loop system to gain changes and
load disturbances depend ?
(a) Frequency
(b) Loop gain
(c) Forward gain
Ans: d
32. The transient response, with feedback system,

(a) rises slowly
(b) rises quickly
(c) decays slowly
(d) decays quickly
Ans: d
33. The second derivative input signals modify which of the following
?
(a) The time constant of the system
(b) Damping of the system
(c) The gain of the system

(d) The time constant and suppress the oscillations
Ans: d
34. Which of the following statements is correct for any closed loop
system ?
(a) All the co-efficients can have zero value
(6) All the co-efficients are always non-zero
(c) Only one of the static error co-efficients has a finite non-zero value
Ans: c
35. Which of the following statements is correct for a system with gain
margin close to unity or a phase margin close to zero ?
(a) The system is relatively stable
(b) The system is highly stable
(c) The system is highly oscillatory
Ans: c
36. Due to which of the following reasons excessive bond width in

control systems should be avoided ?
(a) It leads to slow speed of response
(b) It leads to low relative stability
(c) Noise is proportional to band width
Ans: c
37. In a stable control system backlash can cause which of the

following ?
(a) Underdamping
(b) Overdamping
(c) Poor stability at reduced values of open loop gain
(d) Low-level oscillations
Ans: d
38. In an automatic control system which of the following elements is

not used ?
(a) Error detector

(b) Final control element
(c) Sensor
(d) Oscillator
Ans: d
39. In a control system the output of the controller is given to

(a) final control element
(b) amplifier
(c) comparator
(d) sensor
Ans: a
40. A controller, essentially, is a

(a) sensor
(b) clipper
(c) comparator
(d) amplifier
Ans: c
41. Which of the following is the input to a controller ?

(a) Servo signal
(b) Desired variable value
(c) Error signal
(d) Sensed signal
Ans:
42. The on-off controller is a _____ system.

(a) digital
(b) linear
(c) non-linear
(d) discontinuous
Ans:
43. The capacitance, in force-current analogy, is analogous to

(a) momentum
(b) velocity
(c) displacement
(d) mass
Ans: d
44. The temperature, under thermal and electrical system analogy, is

considered analogous to
(a) voltage
(b) current
(c) capacitance
(d) charge
Ans: a
45. In electrical-pneumatic system analogy the current is considered

analogous to
(a) velocity
(b) pressure
(c) air flow
(d) air flow rate
Ans: d
46. In liquid level and electrical system analogy, voltage is considered

analogous to
(a) head
(b) liquid flow
(c) liquid flow rate
Ans: a
47. The viscous friction co-efficient, in force-voltage analogy, is

analogous to
(a) charge
(b) resistance
(c) reciprocal of inductance
(d) reciprocal of conductance
Ans: b
48. In force-voltage analogy, velocity is analogous to

(a) current
(b) charge
(c) inductance
(d) capacitance
Ans: a
49. In thermal-electrical analogy charge is considered analogous to

(a) heat flow
(b) reciprocal of heat flow
(c) reciprocal of temperature
(d) temperature
Ans: d
50. Mass, in force-voltage analogy, is analogous to

(a) charge
(b) current
(c) inductance
(d) resistance
Ans: c
51. The transient response of a system is mainly due to

(a) inertia forces
(b) internal forces
(c) stored energy
(d) friction
Ans: c
52 signal will become zero when the feedback signal and reference
signs are equal.
(a) Input
(b) Actuating
(c) Feedback
(d) Reference
Ans: b
53. A signal other than the reference input that tends to affect the
value of controlled variable is known
as
(a) disturbance
(b) command
(c) control element
(d) reference input
Ans: a
54. The transfer function is applicable to which of the following ?

(a) Linear and time-in variant systems
(b) Linear and time-variant systems
(c) Linear systems
(d) Non-linear systems
Ans: a
55. From which of the following transfer function can be obtained ?

(a) Signal flow graph
(b) Analogous table
(c) Output-input ratio
(d) Standard block system
Ans: a
56 is the reference input minus the primary feedback.

(a) Manipulated variable
(b) Zero sequence
(c) Actuating signal
(d) Primary feedback
Ans: c
57. The term backlash is associated with

(a) servomotors
(b) induction relays
(c) gear trains
Ans:
58. With feedback _____ increases.

(a) system stability
(b) sensitivity
(c) gain
(d) effects of disturbing signals

Ans: a
59. By which of the following the system response can be tested better
?
(a) Ramp input signal
(b) Sinusoidal input signal
(c) Unit impulse input signal
(d) Exponentially decaying signal
Ans: c
60. In a system zero initial condition means that

(a) The system is at rest and no energy is stored in any of its
components
(b) The system is working with zero stored energy
(c) The system is working with zero reference signal
Ans: a
61. In a system low friction co-efficient facilitates

(a) reduced velocity lag error
(b) increased velocity lag error
(c) increased speed of response
(d) reduced time constant of the system
Ans: a
62. Hydraulic torque transmission system is analog of

(a) amplidyneset
(b) resistance-capacitance parallel circuit
(c) motor-generator set
Ans:
63. Spring constant in force-voltage analogy is analogous to

(a) capacitance
(b) reciprocal of capacitance
(c) current
(d) resistance
Ans: b
64. The frequency and time domain are related through which of the
following?
(a) Laplace Transform and Fourier Integral
(b) Laplace Transform
(c) Fourier Integral
(d) Either (b) or (c)
Ans: a
65. An increase in gain, in most systems, leads to

(a) smaller damping ratio
(b) larger damping ratio
(c) constant damping ratio
Ans: a
66. Static error coefficients are used as a measure of the effectiveness

of closed loop systems for
specified ________ input signal.
(a) acceleration
(b) velocity
(c) position
Ans: d
67. A conditionally stable system exhibits poor stability at

(a) low frequencies
(b) reduced values of open loop gain
(c) increased values of open loop gain
Ans: b
68. The type 0 system has ______ at the origin.

(a) no pole
(b) net pole
(c) simple pole
(d) two poles
Ans: a

(a) no pole
(b) net pole
(c) simple pole
(d) two poles
Ans: c

(a) no net pole
(b) net pole
(c) simple pole
(d) two poles
Ans: d
71. The position and velocity errors of a type-2 system are

(a) constant, constant
(b) constant, infinity
(c) zero, constant
(d) zero, zero
Ans: c
72. Velocity error constant of a system is measured when the input to

the system is unit _______ function.
(a) parabolic
(b) ramp
(c) impulse
(d) step
Ans: b
73. In case of type-1 system steady state acceleration is

(a) unity
(b) infinity
(c) zero
(d) 10
Ans: b
74. If a step function is applied to the input of a system and the output
remains below a certain level for all the time, the system is
(a) not necessarily stable
(b) stable
(c) unstable
(d) always unstable
Ans: a
75. Which of the following is the best method for determining the
stability and transient response ?
(a) Root locus
(b) Bode plot
(c) Nyquist plot
Ans: a
76. Phase margin of a system is used to specify which of the following

?
(a) Frequency response
(b) Absolute stability
(c) Relative stability
(d) Time response
Ans: c
77. Addition of zeros in transfer function causes which of the following

?
(a) Lead-compensation
(b) Lag-compensation
(c) Lead-lag compensation
Ans: b
78. technique is not applicable to nonlinear system ?

(a) Nyquist Criterion
(b) Quasi linearization
(c) Functional analysis
(d) Phase-plane representation
Ans: a
79. In order to increase the damping of a badly underdamped system

which of following compensators may be used ?
(a) Phase-lead
(b) Phase-lag
(d) Either (a) and (b)
Ans: a
80. The phase lag produced by transportation relays

(a) is independent of frequency
(b) is inverseh’proportional to frequency
(c) increases linearly with frequency
(d) decreases linearly with frequency
Ans: c
81. In a stable control system saturation can cause which of the

following ?
(a) Low-level oscillations
(b) High-level oscillations
(c) Conditional stability
(d) Overdamping
Ans:
82. Which of the following can be measured by the use of a

tachogenerator ?
(a) Acceleration
(b) Speed
(c) Speed and acceleration
(d) Displacement
Ans: b
83 is not a final control element.

(a) Control valve
(b) Potentiometer
(c) Electropneumatic converter
(d) Servomotor
Ans: b
84. Which of the following is the definition of proportional band of a

controller ?
(a) The range of air output as measured variable varies from
maximum to minimum
(b) The range of measured variables from set value
(c) The range of measured variables through which the air output
changes from maximum to minimum
Ans: c
85. In pneumatic control systems the control valve used as final

control element converts
(a) pressure signal to electric signal
(b) pressure signal to position change
(c) electric signal to pressure signal
(d) position change to pressure signal
Ans: b
86. Pressure error can be measured by which of the following ?

(a) Differential bellows and straingauge
(b) Selsyn
(c) Strain gauge
(d) Strain gauge and potentiometer
Ans: a
87. Which of the following devices is used for conversion of co-

ordinates ?
(a) Microsyn
(b) Selsyn
(c) Synchro-resolver
(d) Synchro-transformer
Ans: c
88. The effect of error damping is to

(a) provide larger settling lime
(b) delay the response
(c) reduce steady state error

Ans: c
89 technique gives quick transient and stability response

(a) Root locus
(b) Bode
(c) Nyquist
(d) Nichols
Ans: a
90. A phase lag lead network introduces in the output

(a) lag at all frequencies
(b) lag at high frequencies and lead at low frequencies
(c) lag at low frequencies and lead at high frequencies
Ans: c
91. Which of the following is the non-linearity caused by servomotor ?

(a) Static friction
(b) Backlash
(c) Saturation
Ans: c
92 can be extended to systems which are time-varying ?

(a) Bode-Nyquist stability methods
(b) Transfer functions
(c) Root locus design
(d) State model representatives
Ans: d
93. When the initial conditions of a system are specified to be zero it

implies that the system is
(a) at rest without any energy stored in it
(b) working normally with reference input
(c) working normally with zero reference input
(d) at rest but stores energy
Ans: d
94. Which of the following is an electromagnetically device ?

(a) Induction relay
(b) Thermocouple
(c) LVDT
Ans: c
95. A differentiator is usually not a part of a control system because it

(a) reduces damping
(b) reduces the gain margin
(c) increases input noise
(d) increases error
Ans: c
96. If the gain of the critical damped system is increased it will behave
as
(a) oscillatory
(b) critically damped
(c) overdamped
(d) underdamped
Ans: d
97. In a control system integral error compensation _______ steady

state error
(a) increases
(b) minimizes
(c) does not have any effect on
Ans: b
98. With feed back _____ reduces.

(a) system stability
(6) system gain
(c) system stability and gain
Ans: b
99. An amplidyne can give which of the following characteristics ?

(a) Constant current
(b) Constant voltage
(c) Constant current as well as constant voltage
(d) Constant current, constant voltage and constant power
Ans: d
100. Which of the following can be measured by LVDT?

(a) Displacement
(b) Velocity
(c) Acceleration
Ans: d
101 directly converts temperature into voltage.

(a) Thermocouple
(b) Potentiometer
(c) Gear train
(d) LVDT
Ans: a
102. The transfer function technique is considered as inadequate

under which of the following
conditions ?
(a) Systems having complexities and non-linearities
(b) Systems having stability problems
(c) Systems having multiple input disturbances
Ans: d
103. Which of the following is the output of a thermocouple ?

(a) Alternating current
(b) Direct current
(c) A.C. voltage
(d) D.C. voltage
Ans: d
104. A.C. servomotor is basically a

(a) universal motor
(b) single phase induction motor
(c) two phase induction motor
(d) three phase induction motor
Ans: c
109. The first order control system, which is well designed, has a
(a) small bandwidth
(b) negative time constant
(c) large negative transfer function pole
Ans: c
110. Which of the following is exhibited by Root locus diagrams ?

(a) The poles of the transfer function for a set of parameter values
(b) The bandwidth of the system
(c) The response of a system to a step input
(d) The frequency response of a system
Ans: a

2 THOUGHTS ON “110 TOP CONTROL SYSTEMS OBJECTIVE

QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS PDF”
anshul soni
AUGUST 2, 2016 AT 11:57 AM
Answer of 71 is option D
REPLY
kuldeep
6/6/2019 80 TOP MOST ELECTRIC TRACTION - Electrical Engineering Objective Type Questions and Answers Electrical Engineering Multiple Ch…


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TOP MOST ELECTRIC TRACTION – Electrical Engineering
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80 TOP MOST ELECTRIC

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1. Which of the following is an advantage of electric traction over other
methods of traction ?
(a) Faster acceleration
(b) No pollution problems
(c) Better braking action
Ans: a
2. Which of the following is the voltage for single phase A.C. system ?
(a) 22 V
(b) 440 V
(c) 5 kV
(d) 15 kV
Ans: a
https://engineeringinterviewquestions.com/electric-traction-electrical-engineering-objective-type-questions-and-answers/ 1/18
3. Long distance railways use which of the following ?

(a) 200 V D.C.
(b) 25 kV single phase A.C.
(c) 25 kV two phase A.C.
(d) 25 kV three phase A.C.
Ans: b
4. The speed of a locomotive is controlled by

(a) flywheel
(b) gear box
(c) applying brakes 11.
(d) regulating steam flow to engine
Ans:
5. Main traction systems used in India are, those using

(a) electric locomotives
(b) diesel engine locomotives
(c) steam engine locomotives
(d) diesel electric locomotives
Ans: e
6, in India diesel locomotives are manufactured at

(a) Ajmer
(b) Varanasi
(c) Bangalore
(d) Jamalpur
Ans: b
7. For diesel locomotives the range of horsepower is

(a) 50 to 200
(b) 500 to 1000
(c) 1500 to 2500
(d) 3000 to 5000
Ans: c
8. _______ locomotive has the highest operational availability.

(a) Electric
(b) Diesel
(c) Steam
Ans: a
9. The horsepower of steam locomotives is

(a) up to 1500
(b) 1500 to 2000
(c) 2000 to 3000
(d) 3000 to 4000
Ans: a
10. The overall efficiency of steam locomotive is around

(a) 5 to 10 percent
(b) 15 to 20 percent
(c) 25 to 35 percent
(d) 35 to 45 percent
Ans: a
11. In tramways which of the following motors is used ?

(c) A.C. three phase motor
(d) AC. single phase capacitor start motor
Ans: b
12. In a steam locomotive electric power is provided through

(a) overhead wire
(b) battery system
(c) small turbo-generator
(d) diesel engine generator
Ans: c
13. Which of the following drives is suitable for mines where explosive
gas exists ?
(a) Steam engine
(b) Diesel engine
(c) Battery locomotive
Ans: c
14. In case of locomotives the tractive power is provided by

(a) single cylinder double acting steam engine
(b) double cylinder, single acting steam engine
(c) double cylinder, double acting steam engine
(d) single stage steam turbine
Ans: c
15. Overload capacity of diesel engines is usually restricted to

(a) 2 percent
(b) 10 percent
(c) 20 percent
(d) 40 percent
Ans: a
16. In case of steam engines the steam pressure is

(a) 1 to 4 kgf/cm2
(b) 5 to 8 kgf/cm2
(c) 10 to 15 kgf/cm2
(d) 25 to 35 kgf/cm2
Ans: c
17.. The steam engine provided on steam locomotives is

(a) single acting condensing type
(b) single acting non-condensing type
(e) double acting condensing type
(d) double acting non-condensing type
Ans: b
18. Electric locomotives in India are manufactured at

(a) Jamalpur
(b) Bangalore
(c) Chittranjan
(d) Gorakhpur
Ans: c
19. The wheels of a train, engine as well as bogies, are slightly tapered
to
(a) reduce friction
(b) increase friction
(c) facilitate braking

(d) facilitate in taking turns
Ans: d
20. Automatic signalling is used for which of the following trains ?

(a) Mail and express trains
(b) Superfast trains
(c) Suburban and Urban electric trains
(d) All trains
Ans: b
21. The efficiency of diesel locomotives is nearly

(a) 20 to 25 percent
(b) 30 to 40 percent
(c) 45 to 55 percent
(d) 60 to 70 percent
Ans: a
22. The speed of a superfast train is

(a) 60 kmph
(b) 75 kmph
(c) 100 kmph
(d) more than 100 kmph
Ans: d
23. The number of passenger coaches that can be attached to a diesel

engine locomotive on broad gauge is usually restricted to
(a) 5
(b) 10
(c) 14
(d) 17
Ans: b
24. Which of the following state capitals is not on broad gauge track ?
(a) Lucknow
(b) Bhopal
(c) Jaipur
(d) Chandigarh
Ans: c
25. Which of the following is the advantage of electric braking ?

(a) It avoids wear of track
(b) Motor continues to remain loaded during braking
(c) It is instantaneous
(d) More heat is generated during braking
Ans: a
Which of the following braking systems on the locomotives is costly ?

(a) Regenerative braking on electric locomotives
(b) Vacuum braking on diesel locomotives
(c) Vacuum braking on steam locomotives
(d) All braking systems are equally costly
Ans: a
27. Tractive effort is required to

(a) overcome the gravity component of train mass
(b) overcome friction, windage and curve resistance
(c) accelerate the train mass
(d) do all of the above
Ans: d
28. For given maximum axle load tractive efforts of AC. locomotive
will be
(a) less than that of D.C. locomotive
(b) more than that of D.C. locomotive
(c) equal to that of D.C. locomotive
Ans: b
29. Co-efficient of adhesion reduces due to the presence of which of

the following ?
(a) Sand on rails
(b) Dew on rails
(c) Oil on the rails
Ans: d
30. Due to which of the following co-efficient of adhesion improves ?

(a) Rust on the rails
(b) Dust on the rails

(c) Sand on the rails
Ans: d
31. Quadrilateral speed-time curve pertains to which of the following

services ?
(a) Main line service
(b) Urban service
(c) Sub-urban service
(d) Urban and sub-urban service
Ans: d
32. Which of the following is the disadvantage of electric traction over

other systems of traction ?
(a) Corrosion problems in the under-ground pipe work
(b) Short time power failure interrupts traffic for hours
(c) High capital outlay in fixed installations beside route limitation
(d) Interference with communication lines
(c) All of the above
Ans: c
33. Co-efficient of adhesion is

(a) high in case of D.C. traction than in the case of AC. traction
(b) low in case of D.C. traction than in the case of AC. traction
(c) equal in both AC. and D.C. traction
Ans: b
34. Speed-time curve of main line service differs from those of urban
and suburban services on following account
(a) it has longer free running period
(b) it has longer coasting period
(c) accelerating and braking periods are comparatively smaller
Ans: d
35. The rate of acceleration on suburban orurban services is restricted

by the consideration of
(a) Engine power

(b) Track curves
(c) Passenger Discomfort
(d) Track size
Ans: c
36. The specific energy consumption of a train depends on which of

the following ?
(a) Acceleration and retardation
(b) Gradient
(c) Distance covered
Ans: d
37. The friction at the track is proportional to

(a) 1/speed
(b) l/(speed)2
(c) speed
Ans: c
38. The air resistance to the movement of the train is proportional to

(a) speed
(b) (speed)
(c) (speed)
(d) 1/speed
Ans: b
39. The normal value of adhesion friction is

(a) 0.12
(b) 0.25
(c) 0.40
(d) 0.75
Ans: b
40. The pulsating torque exerted by steam locomotives causes which

of the following?
(a) Jolting and skidding
(b) Hammer blow
(c) Pitching
Ans: a
41. Which of the following braking systems is used on steam

locomotives ?
(a) Hydraulic system
(b) Pneumatic system
(c) Vacuum system
Ans: c
42. Vacuum is created by which of the following?

(a) Vacuum pump
(b) Ejector
(c) Any of the above
Ans: c
43. The resistance encountered by a train in motion is on account of

(a) resistance offered by air
(b) friction at the track
(c) friction at various parts of the rolling stock
Ans: d
44. Battery operated trucks are used in

(a) steel mills
(b) power stations
(c) narrow gauge traction
(d) factories for material transportation
Ans: d
45 method can bring the locomotive to dead stop.

(a) Plugging braking
(b) Rheostatic braking
(c) Regenerative braking
Ans: a
46. The value of co-efficient of adhesion will be high when rails are
(a) greased
(b) wet
(c) sprayed with oil
(d) cleaned with sand
Ans: d
47. The voltage used for suburban trains in D.C. system is usually
(a) 12 V
(b) 24 V
(c) 220 V
(d) 600 to 750 V
Ans: d
48. For three-phase induction motors which of the following is the

least efficient method of speed control ?
(a) Cascade control
(b) Pole changing
(c) Rheostat control
(d) Combination of cascade and pole changing
Ans: c
49. Specific energy consumption becomes

(a) more on steeper gradient
(b) more with high train resistance
(c) less if distance between stops is more
Ans: d
50. In main line service as compared to urban and suburban service

(a) distance between the stops is more
(b) maximum speed reached is high
(c) acceleration and retardation rates are low
Ans: d
51. Locomotive having monomotor bogies

(a) has better coefficient of adhesion
(b) are suited both for passanger as well as freight service
(c) has better riding qualities due to the reduction of lateral forces
(d) has all above qualities
Ans: d
52. Series motor is not suited for traction duty due to which of the
following account ?
(a) Less current drain on the heavy load torque
(b) Current surges after temporary switching off supply
(c) Self relieving property
(d) Commutating property at heavy load
Ans: b
53. When a bogie negotiates a curve, reduction in adhesion occurs

resulting in sliding. Thus sliding is acute when
(a) wheel base of axles is more
(b) degree of curvature is more
Ans: c
54. Energy consumption in propelling the train is required for which

of the following?
(a) Work against the resistance to motion
(b) Work against gravity while moving up the gradient
(c) Acceleration
Ans: d
55. An ideal traction system should have

(a) easy speed control
(b) high starting tractive effort
(c) equipment capable of with standing large temporary loads
Ans: d
56 have maximum unbalanced forces

(a) Diesel shunters
(b) Steam locomotives
(c) Electric locomotives
(d) Diesel locomotives

Ans: b
57. Specific energy consumption is affected by which of the following

factors ?
(a) Retardation and acceleration values
(b) Gradient
(c) Distance between stops
Ans: d
58. In case of ________ free running and coasting periods are

generally long.
(a) main-line service
(b) urban service
(c) sub-urban service
Ans: a
59. Overhead lines for power supply to tramcars are at a minimum

height of
(a) 3 m
(b) 6 m
(c) 10 m
(d) 15 m
Ans: c
60. The return circuit for tramcars is through

(a) neutral wire
(b) rails
(c) cables
(d) common earthing
Ans: b
61. Specific energy consumption is least in _______ service.

(a) main line
(b) urban
(c) suburban
Ans: a
62. Locomotives with monometer bogies have

(a) uneven distribution of tractive effect
(b) suitability for passanger as well as freight service
(c) lot of skidding
(d) low co-efficient of adhesion
Ans: b
63 _______ was the first city in India to adopt electric traction.

(a) Delhi
(b) Madras
(c) Calcutta
(d) Bombay
Ans: d
64 _______ frequency is not common in low frequency traction

system
(a) 40 Hz
(b) 25 Hz
(c) 16 Hz
Ans: a
65. For 25 kV single phase system power supply frequency is

(a) 60 Hz
(b) 50 Hz
(c) 25 Hz
(d) 16 Hz
Ans: b
66. Power for lighting in passanger coach, in a long distance electric

train, is provided
(a) directly through overhead electric line
(b) through individual generator of bogie and batteries
(c) through rails
(d) through locomotive
Ans: b
67. In India, electrification of railway track was done for the first time
in which of the following years ?
(a) 1820—1825
(b) 1880—1885
(c) 1925—1932
(d) 1947—1954
Ans: c
68. Suri transmission is

(a) electrical-pneumatic
(b) mechanical-electrical
(c) hydro-mechanical
(d) hydro-pneumatic
Ans: c
69. In case of a steam engine an average coal consumption per km is

nearly
(a) 150 to 175 kg
(b) 100 to 120 kg
(c) 60 to 80 kg
(d) 28 to 30 kg
Ans: d
70. Which of the following happens in Kando system ?

(a) Three phase A.C. is converted into D.C.
(b) Single phase A.C. is converted into D.C.
(c) Single phase supply is converted into three phase system
Ans: c
71. For which of the following locomotives the maintenance

requirements are the least?
(a) Steam locomotives
(b) Diesel locomotives
(c) Electric locomotives
(d) Equal in all of the above
Ans: b
72. Which of the following methods is used to control speed of 25 kV,

50 Hz single phase traction ?
(a) Reduced current method
(b) Tap changing control of transformer
(c) Series parallel operation of motors

Ans: b
73. If the co-efficient of adhesion on dry rails is 0.26, which of the

following could be the value for wet rails ?
(a) 0.3
(b) 0.26
(c) 0.225
(d) 0.16
Ans: d
74 watt-hours per tonne km is usually the specific energy

consumption for suburban services.
(a) 15—20
(b) 50—75
(c) 120—150
(d) 160—200
Ans: b
75. The braking retardation is usually in the range

(a) 0.15 to 0.30 km phps
(b) 0.30 to 0.6 km phps
(c) 0.6 to 2.4 km phps
(d) 3 to 5 km phps
(e) 10 to 15 km phps
Ans: d
79. The rate of acceleration on suburban orurban service is in the

range
(a) 0.2 to 0.5 km phps
(b) 1.6 to 4.0 km phps
(c) 5 to 10 km phps
(d) 15 to 25 km phps
Ans: b
80. The coasting retardation is around

(a) 0.16 km phps
(b) 1.6 km phps
(c) 16 km phps
(d) 40 km phps
Ans: a

6 THOUGHTS ON “80 TOP MOST ELECTRIC TRACTION –

ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS”
Manindra
Q.2 ans is 220v not 22v
REPLY
Manindra
I think Q.52 is something wrong.

Because DC series motor is used for traction purpose.
REPLY
ankur
MARCH 15, 2017 AT 8:37 AM
many answer are wrong plz correct it mainly efficiency

related
REPLY
Subhendu
DECEMBER 26, 2016 AT 10:11 AM
Vrry nice sir

6/6/2019 300+ TOP INDUSTRIAL DRIVES Objective Questions and Answers INDUSTRIAL DRIVES MCQs

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INDUSTRIAL DRIVES Objective Questions and Answers
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INDUSTRIAL DRIVES Objective Questions :- Be the first of your friends to

1. The selection of an electric motor for any application
depends on which of the following factors ?
(a) Electrical characteristics
(b) Mechanical characteristics
(c) Size and rating of motors
(d) Cost
Answer: e
2. For a particular application the type of electric-and

control gear are determined by which of the following
considerations ?
(a) Starting torque
(b) Conditions of environment
(c) Limitation on starting current
(d) Speed control range and its nature
Answer: e
https://engineeringinterviewquestions.com/industrial-drives-electrical-engineering-objective-type-questions-and-answers/ 1/17
3. Which of the following motors is preferred for traction

work ?
(a) Universal motor
(d) Three-phase induction motor
Answer: c
4 Which of the following motors always starts on load ?

(a) Conveyor motor
(b) Floor mill motor
(c) Fan motor
Answer: d
5. is preferred for automatic drives.

(a) Squirrel cage induction motor
(b) Synchronous motors
(c) Ward-Leonard controlled D.C. motors
Answer: c
INDUSTRIAL DRIVES Objective Questions
6. When the load is above _____ a synchronous motor is

found to be more economical.
(a) 2 kW
(b) 20 kW
(c) 50 kW
(d) 100 kW
Answer: d
7. The load cycle for a motor driving a power press will be

(a) variable load
(b) continuous
(c) continuous but periodical
(d) intermittent and variable load
Answer: d
8. Light duty cranes are used in which of the following ?

(a) Power houses
(b) Pumping stations
(c) Automobile workshops
Answer: d
9. While selecting an electric motor for a floor mill, which

electrical characteristics will be of least significance ?
(a) Running characteristics
(b) Starting characteristics
(c) Efficiency
(d) Braking
Answer: d
10. Which of the following motors are pre-ferred for

overhead travelling cranes ?
(a) Slow speed motors
(b) Continuous duty motors
(c) Short time rated motors
Answer: c
11. is preferred for synthetic fibre mills.

(c) Series motor
(d) Shunt motor
Answer: b
12. Ward-Leonard controlled D.C. drives are generally used

for ______ excavators.
(a) Light duty
(b) Medium duty
(c) Heavy duty

Answer: c
13. Which of the following motors is used for elevators ?

(a) Induction motor
(c) Capacitor start single phase motor
Answer: a
14. Which part of a motor needs maximum attention for

maintenance ?
(a) Frame
(b) Rearing
(c) Stator winding
(d) Rotor winding
Answer: b
15. need frequent starting and stopping of electric motors,

(a) Paper mills
(b) Grinding mills
(c) Air-conditioners
(d) Lifts and hoists
Answer: d
16. Which feature, while selecting a.motor for centrifugal

pump, will be of least significance ?
(a) Starting characteristics
(b) Operating speed
(c) Horse power
(d) Speed control
Answer: d
17. _______ motor is a constant speed motor.

(b) Schrage motor
(c) Induction motor
(d) Universal motor

Answer: a
18. The starting torque in case of centrifugal pumps is

generally
(a) less than running torque
(b) same as running torque
(c) slightly more than running torque
(d) double the running torque
Answer: a
19. Which of the following motors are best for the rolling
mills ?
(a) Single phase motors
(b) Squirrel cage induction motors
(c) Slip ring induction motors
(d) D.C. motors
Answer: d
20. is not a part of ball bearing ?

(a) Inner race
(b) Outer race
(c) Cage
(d) Bush
Answer: d
21. The starting torque of a D.C. motor is independent of

which of the following?
(a) Flux
(b) Armature current
(c) Flux and armature current
(d) Speed
Answer: d
22. Rotor of a motor is usually supported on _______

bearings.
(a) ball or roller
(b) needle
(c) bush
(d) thrust
Answer: a
23. For which of the following applications D.C. motors are

still preferred ?
(a) High efficiency operation
(b) Reversibility
(c) Variable speed drive
(d) High starting torque
Answer: c
24. In a paper mill where constant speed is required

(a) synchronous motors are preferred
(b) A.C. motors are preferred
(c) individual drive is preferred
(d) group drive is preferred
Answer: c
25. A reluctance motor

(a) is provided with slip rings
(b) requires starting gear
(c) has high cost
(d) is compact
Answer: d
26. The size of an excavator is usually expressed in terms of

(a) ‘crowd’ motion
(b) angle of swing
(c) cubic metres
(d) travel in metres
Answer: c
27. For blowers which of the following motor is preferred ?

(d) Wound rotor induction motor
Answer: b
28. Belted slip ring induction motor is almost invariably

used for
(a) water pumps
(b) jaw crushers
(c) centrifugal blowers
Answer: b
29. Which of the following is essentially needed while

selecting a motor ?
(a) Pulley
(b) Starter
(c) Foundation pedal
(d) Bearings
Answer: b
30. Reluctance motor is a

(a) variable torque motor
(b) low torque variable speed motor
(c) self starting type synchronous motor
(d) low noise, slow speed motor
Answer: c
31. method of starting a three phase induction motor needs

six terminals.
(a) Star-delta
(b) Resistance starting
(c) Auto-transformer
Answer: a
32. In ______ method of staging three phase induction

motors the starting voltage is not reduced.
(a) auto-transformer
(b) star-delta
(c) slip ring
Answer: c
33. In jaw crushers a motor has to often start against

______ load.
(a) heavy
(b) medium
(c) normal
(d) low
Answer: a
34. For a motor-generator set which of the following

motors will be preferred ?
(b) Slip ring induction motor
(c) Pole changing induction motor
(d) Squirrel cage induction motor
Answer: a
35. Which of the following motors is usually preferred for

kiln drives ?
(a) Cascade controlled A.C. motor
(b) Slip ring induction motor
(c) Three phase shunt wound com-mutator motor
Answer: d
INDUSTRIAL DRIVES Mcqs Pdf ::

36. Heat control switches are used in
(a) transformers
(b) cooling ranges
(c) three phase induction motors
(d) single phase
Answer: b
37. has relatively wider range of speed control.

(6) Ship ring induction motor
(d) D.C. shunt motor
Answer: d
38. In squirrel cage induction motors which of the

following methods of starting cannot be used ?
(a) Resistance in rotor circuit
(b) Resistance in stator circuit
(c) Auto-transformer starting
(d) Star-delta starting
Answer: a
39. In which of the following applications the load on motor

changes in cyclic order ?
(a) Electric shovels
(b) Cranes
(c) Rolling mills
Answer: d
40. Flame proof motors are used in

(a) paper mills
(b) steel mills
(c) moist atmospheres
(d) explosive atmospheres
Answer: d
41. Which of the following machines has heavy fluctuation

of load ?
(a) Printing machine
(b) Punching machine
(c) Planer
(d) Lathe
Answer: b
42. For derries and winches which of the following drives

can be used ?
(a) Pole changing squirrel cage motors
(b) D.C. motors with Ward-leonard con-trol
(c) A.C. slip ring motors with variable resistance
Answer: d
43. Battery operated scooter for braking uses

(a) plugging
(b) mechanical braking
(c) regenerative braking
(d) rheostatic braking
Answer: b
44. has least range of speed control.

(a) Slip ring induction motor
(d) Schrage motor
Answer: b
45. has the least value of starting torque to full load torque
ratio.
(d) Slip ring induction motor
Answer: c
46. In case of _______ speed control by injecting e.m.f. in

the rotor circuit is possible,
(a) d.c. shunt motor
(b) schrage motor
(c) synchronous motor
(d) slip ring induction motor
Answer: d
47. A pony motor is used for the starting which of the

following motors ?
(a) Squirel cage induction motor
(b) Schrage motor
Answer: c
48. In ________ the speed can be varied by changing the

position of brushes.
(a) slip ring motor
(b) schrage motor
(c) induction motor
(d) repulsion motor
Answer: b
49. In which of the following applications variable speed

operation is preferred ?
(a) Exhaust fan
(b) Ceiling fan
(c) Refrigerator
(d) Water pump
Answer: b
50. Heavy duty cranes are used in

(a) ore handling plants
(b) steel plants
(c) heavy engineering workshops
Answer: d
51. The travelling speed of cranes varies from

(a) 20 to 30 m/s
(b) 10 to 15 m/s
(c) 5 to 10 m/s
(d) 1 to 2.5 m/s
Answer: d
52. Besides a constant speed a synchronous rotor possesses

which of the following advantages ?
(a) Lower cost
(b) Better efficiency
(c) High power factor
Answer: c
53. By the use of which of the following m D.C. can be

obtained from AC. ?
(a) Silicon diodes
(b) Mercury arc rectifier
(c) Motor generator set
Answer: d
54. Which of the following motors is preferred when quick

speed reversal is the main consideration ?
(a) Squirrel cage induction motor
(b) Wound rotor induction motor
(e) Synchronous motor
(d) D.C. motor
Answer: d
55. Which of the following motors is preferred when

smooth and precise speed control over a wide range is
desired ?
(a) D.C. motor
(b) Squirrel cage induction motor
(c) Wound rotor induction motor
Answer: a
56. For crane travel which of the following motors is

normally used ?
(b) D.C. differentially compound motor
(c) Ward-Leonard controlled D.C. shunt motor
(d) AC. slip ring motor
Answer: d
57. The capacity of a crane is expressed in terms of

(a) type of drive
(b) span
(c) tonnes
Answer: c
58. The characteristics of drive for crane hoisting and

lowering are which of the following ?
(a) Precise control
(b) Smooth movement
(c) Fast speed control
Answer: d
59. Which of the following motors is preferred for boom

hoist of a travelling crane ?
(a) Single phase motor
(c) A.C. slip ring motor
(d) Ward-Leonard controlled D.C. shunt motor
Answer: c
60. A wound rotor induction motor is preferred, as

compared to squirrel cage induction motor, when major
consideration is
(a) slop speed operation
(b) high starting torque
(c) low windage losses
Answer: b
61. Which of the following motors has series characteristics

?
(a) Shaded pole motor
(b) Repulsion motor
Answer: b
62. Which of the following happens when star-delta starter

is used ?
(a) Starting voltage is reduced
(b) Starting current is reduced

Answer: c
63. For a D.C. shunt motor which of the following is

incorrect ?
(a) Unsuitable for heavy duty starting
(b) Torque varies as armature current
(c) Torque-armature current is a straight line
(d) Torque is zero for zero armature current
Answer: a
64. For which of the following applications motor has to

start with high acceleration?
(a) Oil expeller
(b) Floor mill
(c) Lifts and hoists
(d) Centrifugal pump
Answer: c
65. Which of the following types of motor enclosure is

safest ?
(a) Totally enclosed
(b) Totally enclosed fan cooled
(c) Open type
(d) Semi closed
Answer: b
66. While selecting motor for an air conditioner which of

the following characteristics is of great importance ?
(a) Type of bearings
(b) Type of enclosure
(c) Noise
(d) Arrangement for power transmis¬sion
Answer: c
67. The diameter of the rotor shaft for an electric motor

depends on which of the following ?
(a) r.p.m. only
(b) Horse power only

(c) Horse power and r.p.m.
(d) Horse power, r.p.m. and power factor
Answer: c
68. Which of the following alternatives will be cheaper ?

(a) A 100 H.P. AC. three phase motor
(b) Four motors of 25 H.P. each
(c) Five motors of 20 H.P. each
(d) Ten motors of 10 H.P. each
Answer: a
69. The cost of an induction motor will increase as

(a) horsepower rating increases but r.p.m. decreases
(b) horsepower rating decreases but r.p.m. increases
(c) horsepower rating and operating speed increases
(d) horsepower rating and operating speed decreases
Answer: a
70. In series motor which of the following methods can be

used for changing the flux per pole ?
(a) Tapped field control
(b) Diverter field control
(c) Series-parallel control
Answer: d
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4 THOUGHTS ON “300+ TOP INDUSTRIAL DRIVES OBJECTIVE

Manindra
SEPTEMBER 11, 2017 AT 12:54 PM
6/6/2019 300+ TOP HEATING & WELDING Objective Questions and Answers HEATING & WELDING MCQs

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Questions :-
1. Which of the following is an advantage of heating by
electricity ?
(a) Quicker operation
(b) Higher efficiency
(c) Absence of flue gases
Ans: d
2. ________ has the highest value of thermal

conductivity.
(a) Copper
(b) Aluminium
(c) Brass
(d) Steel
Ans: a
3. Which of the following heating methods has maximum

power factor ?
https://engineeringinterviewquestions.com/heating-and-welding-electrical-engineering-objective-type-questions-and-answers/ 1/14
(a) Arc heating

(b) Dielectric heating
(c) Induction heating
(d) Resistance heating
Ans: d
4. method has leading power factor

(a) Resistance heating
(c) Arc heating
(d) Induction heating
Ans: b
5. is used for heating non-conducting materials.

(a) Eddy current heating
(b) Arc heating
(c) Induction heating
(d) Dielectric heating
Ans: d
6. Which of the following methods of heating is not

dependent on the frequency of supply ?
(a) Induction heating
(c) Electric resistance heating
Ans: c
7. When a body reflects entire radiation incident on it, then

it is known as
(a) white body
(b) grey body
(c) black body
(d) transparent body
Ans: a
8. For the transmission of heat from one body to another

(a) temperature of the two bodies must be different
(b) both bodies must be solids
(c) both bodies must be in contact

(d) at least one of the bodies must have some source of heating
Ans: a
9. Heat transfer by condition will not occur when

(a) bodies are kept in vacuum
(b) bodies are immersed in water
(c) bodies are exposed to thermal radiations
(d) temperatures of the two bodies are identical
Ans: d
10. A perfect black body is one that

(a) transmits all incident radiations
(b) absorbs all incident radiations
(c) reflects all incident radiations
(d) absorbs, reflects and transmits all incident radiations
Ans: b
11. Heat is transferred simultaneously by condition,

convection and radiation
(a) inside boiler furnaces
(b) during melting of ice
(c) through the surface of the insulted pipe carrying steam
(d) from refrigerator coils to freezer of a refrigerator
Ans: a
12. The process of heat transfer during the reentry of

satellites and missiles, at very high speeds, into earth’s
atmosphere is known as
(a) ablation
(b) radiation
(c) viscous dissipation
(d) irradiation
Ans: a
13. Which of the following has the highest value of thermal

conductivity ?
(a) Water
(b) Steam
(c) Solid ice

(d) Melting ice
Ans: c
14. Induction heating process is based on which of the

following principles ?
(a) Thermal ion release principle
(b) Nucleate heating principle
(c) Resistance heating principle
(d) Electro-magnetic induction princi¬ple
Ans: d
15. Which of the following insulating materials was suitable

for low temperature applications ?
(a) Asbestos paper
(b) Diatomaceous earth
(c) 80 percent magnesia
(d) Cork
Ans: b
16. A non-dimensional number generally associated with

natural convection heat transfer is
(a) Prandtl number
(b) Grashoff number
(c) Pecelet number
(d) Nusselt number
Ans: b
17. The temperature inside a furnace is usually measured by

which of the following ?
(a) Optical pyrometer
(b) Mercury thermometer
(c) Alcohol thermometer
Ans: a
18. Which of the following will happen if the thickness of

refractory wall of furnace is increased ?
(a) Heat loss through furnace wall will increase
(b) Temperature inside the furnace will fall

(c) Temperature on the outer surface of furnace walls will drop
(d) Energy consumption will increase
Ans: c
19. The material of the heating element for a furnace should

have
(a) lower melting point
(b) higher temperature coefficient
(c) high specific resistance
Ans: c
20. In a resistance furnace the atmosphere is

(a) oxidizing
(b) deoxidising
(c) reducing
(d) neutral
Ans: a
21. By which of the following methods the temperature

inside arc nace can be varied ?
(a) By disconnecting some of the heating elements
(b) By varying the operating voltage
(c) By varying the current through heating elements
(d) By any of the above method
Ans: d
22. In induction heating ______ is abnormally high.

(a) phase angle
(b) frequency
(c) current
(d) voltage
Ans: b
23. By the use of which of the following, high frequency

power supply for induction furnaces can be obtained ?
(a) Coreless transformers
(b) Current transformers
(c) Motor-generator set

(d) Multi-phase transformer
Ans: c
24. Induction furnaces are employed for which of the

following ?
(a) Heat treatment of castings
(b) Heating of insulators
(c) Melting aluminium
Ans: a
25. In an electric room heat convector the method of

heating used is
(a) arc heating
(b) resistance heating
(c) induction heating
(d) dielectric heating
Ans: b
HEATING and WELDING Questions with Answers Pdf ::

26. In a domestic cake baking oven the temperature is
controlled by
(a) voltage variation
(b) thermostat
(c) auto-transformer
(d) series-parallel operation
Ans: d
27. In an electric press mica is used

(a) as an insulator
(b) as a device for power factor improvement
(c) for dielectric heating
(d) for induction heating
Ans: a
28. Induction heating takes place it which of the following ?

(a) Insulating materials
(b) Conducting materials which are magnetic
(c) Conducting materials which are non-magnetic

(d) Conducting materials which may or may not be magnetic
Ans: d
29. For heating element high resistivity material is chosen

to
(a) reduce the length of heating element
(b) increase the life of the heating element
(c) reduce the effect of oxidation
(d) produce large amount of heat
Ans: a
30. In resistance heating highest working temperature is

obtained from heating elements made of
(a) nickel copper
(b) nichrome
(c) silicon carbide
(d) silver
Ans: c
31. For intermittent work which of the following furnaces is

suitable ?
(a) Indirect arc furnace
(b) Core less furnace
Ans: a
32. Due to which of the following reasons it is desirable to

have short arc length ?
(a) To achieve better heating
(b) To increase the life of roof refractory
(c) To have better stirring action
(d) To reduce problem of oxidation
Ans: e
33. In the indirect resistance heating method, maximum

heat-transfer takes place by
(a) radiation
(b) convection
(c) conduction
Ans: a
34. Properly of low temperature co-eflficient of heating

element is desired due to which of the following reasons ?
(a) To avoid initial rush of current
(b) To avoid change in kW rating with temperature
(d) Either (a) or (b)
Ans: c
35. Which of the following methods is used to control

temperature in resistance furnaces ?
(a) Variation of resistance
(b) Variation of voltage
(c) Periodical switching on and off of the supply
(d) All of the above methods
Ans: d
36. It is desirable to operate the arc furnaces at power

factor of
(a) zero
(b) 0.707 lagging
(c) unity
(d) 0.707 leading
Ans: b
37. Radiations from a black body are proportional to

(a) T1
(b) T2
(c) T3
(d) T*
Ans: d
38. In arc furnace the function of choke is

(a) to stabilize the arc
(b) to imprpve, power factor

(c) to reduce severity of the surge
Ans: a
39. Ajax Wyatt furnace is started when

(a) it is filled below core level
(b) it is filled above core level
(c) it is fully empty
Ans: b
40. In electric press, mica is used because it is _______

conductor of heat but/and ________ conductor of
electricity.
(a) bad, good
(b) bad, bad
(c) good, bad
(d) good, good
Ans:
41. Resistance variation method of temperature control is

done by connecting resistance elements in
(a) series
(b) parallel
(c) series-parallel connections
(d) star-delta connections
(e) all of the above ways
Ans: e
42. Hysteresis loss and eddy current loss are used in

(a) induction heating of steel
(b) dielectric heating
(c) induction heating of brass
(d) resistance heating
Ans: a
43. In heating the ferromagnetic material by induction

heating, heat is produced due to
(a) induced current flow through the charge

(b) hysteresis loss taking place below curie temperature
(c) due to hysteresis loss as well as eddy current loss takingplace in
the charge
(d) none of the above factors
Ans: c
44. Radiant heating is used for which of the following ?

(a) Annealing of metals
(b) Melting of ferrous metals
(c) Heating of liquids in electric kettle
(d) Drying of paints and varnishes
Ans: d
45. Which of the following devices is necessarily required

for automatic temperature control in a furnace ?
(a) Thermostat
(b) Thermocouple
(c) Auto-transformer
(d) Heating elements of variable resis-tance material
Ans: b
46. For radiant heating around 2250°C, the heating

elements are made of
(a) copper alloy
(b) carbon
(c) tungsten alloy
(d) stainless steel alloy
Ans: c
47. Which of the following is an advantage of eddy current

heating ?
(a) The amount of heat generated can be controlled accurately
(b) Heat at very high rate can be gene-rated
(c) The area of the surface over which heat is produced can be
accurately controlled
Ans: d
48. The electrode of a direct arc furnace is made of

(a) tungsten
(b) graphite
(c) silver
(d) copper
Ans: b
49. Direct arc furnaces have which of the following power

factors ?
(a) Unity
(b) Low, lagging
(c) Low, leading
Ans: b
50. In direct arc furnace, which of the following has high

value ?
(a) Current
(b) Voltage
(c) Power factor
Ans: a
HEATING & WELDING Mcqs Download ::


7 THOUGHTS ON “300+ TOP HEATING & WELDING OBJECTIVE

Manindra
SEPTEMBER 11, 2017 AT 2:01 PM
30.B
33.B
I think…is it sir
6/6/2019 300+ TOP DIGITAL ELECTRONICS Questions and Answers Pdf DIGITAL ELECTRONICS Questions

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300+ TOP DIGITAL 5,665 likes
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DIGITAL ELECTRONICS Questions :-

1.In which of the following base systems is 123 not a valid
number?
(a) Base 10
(b) Base 16
(c)Base8
(d) Base 3
Ans:d
2. Storage of 1 KB means the following number of bytes

(a) 1000
(b)964
(c)1024
(d) 1064
Ans:c
3. What is the octal equivalent of the binary number:

10111101
https://engineeringinterviewquestions.com/digital-electronics-questions-and-answers-pdf/ 1/15
(a)675
(b)275
(c) 572
(d) 573.
Ans:b
4. Pick out the CORRECT statement:

(a) In a positional number system, each symbol represents the same
value irrespective of its position
(b) The highest symbol in a position number system as a value equal
to the number of symbols in the system
(c) It is not always possible to find the exact binary
(d) Each hexadecimal digit can be represented as a sequence of three
binary symbols.
Ans:c
5.The binary code of (21.125)10 is

(a) 10101.001
(b) 10100.001
(c) 10101.010
(d) 10100.111.
Ans:a
DIGITAL
ELECTRONICS
Questions
6.A NAND gate is called a universal logic element because

(a) it is used by everybody
(b) any logic function can be realized by NAND gates alone
(c) all the minization techniques are applicable for optimum NAND
gate realization
(d) many digital computers use NAND gates.
Ans:b
7. Digital computers are more widely used as compared to

analog computers, because they are
(a) less expensive
(b) always more accurate and faster
(c) useful over wider ranges of problem types
(d) easier to maintain.
Ans:c
8. Most of the digital computers do not have floating point

hardware because
(a) floating point hardware is costly
(b) it is slower than software
(c) it is not possible to perform floating point addition by hardware
(d) of no specific reason.
Ans:a
9. The number 1000 would appear just immediately after

(a) FFFF (hex)
(b) 1111 (binary)
(c) 7777 (octal)
(d) All of the above.
Ans:d
10. (1(10101)2 is
(a) (37)10
(b) ( 69)10
(c) (41 )10
(d) — (5)10
Ans:a
11. The number of Boolean functions that can be generated

by n variables is equal to
(a) 2n
(b) 22 n
(c) 2n-1
(d) — 2n
Ans:b
12. Consider the representation of six-bit numbers by two’s

complement, one’s complement, or by sign and magnitude:
In which representation is there overflow from the addition
of the integers 011000 and 011000?
(a) Two’s complement only
(b) Sign and magnitude and one’s complement only
(c) Two’s complement and one’s complement only
(d) All three representations.
Ans:d
13. A hexadecimal odometer displays F 52 F. The next

reading will be
(a)F52E
(b)G52F
(c)F53F
(d)F53O.
Ans:d
14. Positive logic in a logic circuit is one in which

(a) logic 0 and 1 are represented by 0 and positive voltage respectively
(b) logic 0 and, -1 are represented by negative and positive voltages
respectively
(c) logic 0 voltage level is higher than logic 1 voltage level
(d) logic 0 voltage level is lower than logic 1 voltage level.
Ans:d
15. Which of the following gate is a two-level logic gate

(a) OR gate
(b) NAND gate
(c) EXCLUSIVE OR gate
(d) NOT gate.
Ans:c
DIGITAL ELECTRONICS Interview Questions ::

16. Among the logic families, the family which can be used
at very high frequency greater than 100 MHz in a 4
bit synchronous counter is

(a) TTLAS
(b) CMOS
(c)ECL
(d)TTLLS
Ans:c
17. An AND gate will function as OR if

(a) all the inputs to the gates are “1”
(b) all the inputs are ‘0’
(c) either of the inputs is “1”
(d) all the inputs and outputs are complemented.
Ans:d
18. An OR gate has 6 inputs. The number of input words in

its truth table are
(a)6
(b)32
(c) 64
(d) 128
Ans:c
19. A debouncing circuit is

(a) an astable MV
(b) a bistable MV
(c) a latch
(d) a monostable MV.
Ans:c
20. NAND. gates are preferred over others because these

(a) have lower fabrication area
(b) can be used to make any gate
(c) consume least electronic power
(d) provide maximum density in a chip.
Ans:b
21. In case of OR gate, no matter what the number of inputs,

a
(a) 1 at any input causes the output to be at logic 1
(b) 1 at any input causes the output to be at logic 0

(c) 0 any input causes the output to be at logic 0
(d) 0 at any input causes the output to be at logic 1.
Ans:a
22. The fan put of a 7400 NAND gate is

(a)2TTL
(b)5TTL
(c)8TTL
(d)10TTL
Ans:d
23. Excess-3 code is known as

(a) Weighted code
(b) Cyclic redundancy code
(c) Self-complementing code
(d) Algebraic code.
Ans:c
24. Assuming 8 bits for data, 1 bit for parity, I start bit and 2
stop bits, the number of characters that 1200 BPS
communication line can transmit is
(a)10 CPS
(b)120 CPS
(c) 12CPS
(d) None of the above.
Ans:c
25. Indicate which of the following three binary additions

are correct?
1.1011 + 1010 = 10101
II. 1010 + 1101 = 10111
III. 1010 + 1101 = 11111
(a) I and II
(b) II and III
(c) III only
(d) II and III
Ans:d
26. Which is the correct order of sequence for representing

the input values in K-map?
a. (00, 01, 10, 11)
b. (00, 10, 01, 11)
c. (00, 01, 11, 10)
d. (00, 10, 11, 01)
ANSWER:a
27. The binary number 10101 is equivalent to decimal

number …………..
a.19
b.12
c.27
d.21
Answer : d
28. The universal gate is ………………
a.NAND gate
b.OR gate
c.AND gate
d.None of the above
Answer : a
29. The inverter is ……………
a.NOT gate
b.OR gate
c.AND gate
d.None of the above
Answer : a
30. The inputs of a NAND gate are connected together. The

resulting circuit is ………….
a.OR gate
b.AND gate
c.NOT gate
d.None of the above
Answer : c
31. The NOR gate is OR gate followed by ………………
a.AND gate
b.NAND gate
c.NOT gate
d.None of the above
Answer : c
32. The NAND gate is AND gate followed by …………………
a.NOT gate
b.OR gate
c.AND gate
d.None of the above
Answer : a
33. Digital circuit can be made by the repeated use of

………………
a.OR gates
b.NOT gates
c.NAND gates
d.None of the above
Answer : c
34. The only function of NOT gate is to ……………..
a.Stop signal
b.Invert input signal
c.Act as a universal gate
d.None of the above
Answer : b
35. When an input signal 1 is applied to a NOT gate, the

output is ………………
a.0
b.1
c.Either 0 & 1
d.None of the above
Answer : a
36. In Boolean algebra, the bar sign (-) indicates

………………..
a.OR operation
b.AND operation
c.NOT operation
d.None of the above
Answer : c
37. What would happen, if smaller logic modules are

utilized for performing logical functions associated with
FPGA?
A. Propagation delay will increase

B. FPGA area will increase
C. Wastage of logic modules will not be prevented
D. Number of interconnected paths in device will decrease
a. A & B
b. C & D
c. A & D
d. B & C
ANSWER:a
38. What is/are the configurable functions of each and

every IOBs connected around the FPGA device from the
operational point of view?
a. Input operation
b. Tristate output operation
c. Bi-directional I/O pin access
d. All of the above
ANSWER:d
39. Which type of CPLD packaging can provide maximum

number of pins on the package due to small size of the pins?
a. PLCC
b. QFP
c. PGA
d. BGA
ANSWER:d
40. Which mechanism allocates the binary value to the

states in order to reduce the cost of the combinational
circuits?
a. State Reduction
b. State Minimization
c. State Assignment
d. State Evaluation
ANSWER:c
DIGITAL ELECTRONICS multiple choice Questions and Answers

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22 THOUGHTS ON “300+ TOP DIGITAL ELECTRONICS QUESTIONS

AND ANSWERS PDF”
swathi
JUNE 24, 2017 AT 5:54 AM
any one explain 24th question
REPLY
sravan
Sir,Please could you send a pdf file of above questions and

answers.
6/6/2019 50 TOP OPAMP Circuits Questions and Answers pdf OPAMP Circuits Questions and Answers

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OPAMP Circuits Questions :- Be the first of your friends to

1. A non inverting closed loop op amp circuit generally has a
gain factor
A. Less than one
B. Greater than one
C. Of zero
D. Equal to one
Answer :- B. For non inverting amplifier the gain is A = 1 + (Rf/Rin)).

So it will be always more than one
2. If ground is applied to the (+) terminal of an inverting

op-amp, the (–) terminal will
A. Not need an input resistor
B. Be virtual ground
C. Have high reverse current
D. Not invert the signal
Answer :- B. Other options are not suitable.
https://engineeringinterviewquestions.com/opamp-circuits-questions-and-answers-pdf/ 1/11
3. The closed-loop voltage gain of an inverting amplifier

equal to
A. The ratio of the input resistance to feedback resistance
B. The open-loop voltage gain
C. The feedback resistance divided by the input resistance
D. The input resistance
Answer :- C
4. When a number of stages are connected in parallel, the

overall gain is the product of the individual stage gains
A. True
B. False
Answer :- B
5. An ideal OP-AMP is an ideal

a) Current controlled Current source
b) Current controlled voltage source
c) Voltage controlled voltage source
d) voltage controlled current source
Answer :- C. The ideal Opamp output voltage is maintained constant.

It is controlled by input voltage.
6. The ideal OP-AMP has the following characteristics.

a) Ri=∞ ,A=∞ ,R0=0
b) Ri=0 ,A=∞ ,R0=0
c) Ri=∞ ,A=∞ ,R0=∞
d) Ri=0 ,A=∞ ,R0=∞
Answer :- A.
7. Calculate the cutoff frequency of a first-order low-pass

filter for R1 = 2.5kΩ and C1 = 0.05μF
A. 1.273kHz
B. 12.73kHz
C. 127.3 kHz
D. 127.3 Hz
Answer :- A.
Hint: low pass filter cut off frequency f = 1/(2πRC)
8. How many op-amps are required to implement this

equation
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 1
Answer :-D. The output voltage of inverting amplifier is Vout = (-

Rf/Rin)Vin. By keeping 1 inverting amplifier and three no of sources
(V1, V2, V3) in series corresponding input resistors(R1, R2, R3), we
can get this equation.
9. How many op-amps are required to implement this

equation Vo = V1
A. 4
B. 3
C. 2
D. 1
Answer :- D. The voltage follower which has one opamp has the
output of Vo = Vin
10. An OPAMP has a slew rate of 5 V/μ S .The largest sine

wave O/P voltage possible at a frequency of 1 MHZ is
A. 10 volts
B. 5 volts
C. 5/ volts
D. 5/2 volts
Answer :- D
Hint: Slew rate is defined as the max. rate of change of output voltage.
Its unit is V/μS.
Time period = 1/f = 1/1MHz = 1μS

V= Vm. sin(ωt) = Vm. sin(2πf.t)
slew rate = dV/dt = d(Vm. sin(2πf.t)/ dt=Vm. 2πf. cost…
OPAMP Circuits Multiple Choice Questions and Answers pdf ::

11) An ideal OP-AMP is an ideal
A. Current controlled Current source
B. Current controlled Voltage source
C. Voltage controlled Voltage source
D. Voltage controlled Current source
Answer :- C
12) A 741-Type OP-AMP has a gain-bandwith product of

1MHz. A non-inverting amplifier using this opamp & having
a voltage gain of 20db will exhibit -3db bandwidth of
A. 50KHz
B. 100KHz
C. 1000/17KHz
D. 1000/7.07KHz
Answer :- A
13) An amplifier using an opamp with slew rate SR=1v/sec

has a gain of 40db.If this amplifier has to faithfully amplify
sinusoidal signals from dc to 20KHz without introducing
any slew-rate induced distortion, then the input signal level
exceed
A. 795mV
B. 395mV
C. 795mV
D. 39.5mV
Answer :- C
14) The ideal OP-AMP has the following characteristics

A. Ri=∞,A=∞,R0=0
B. Ri=0,A=∞,R0=0
C. Ri=∞,A=∞,R0=∞
D. Ri=0,A=∞,R0=∞
Answer :- A
15) The approximate input impedance of the opamp circuit

which has Ri=10k, Rf=100k, RL=10k
A. ∞
B. 120k
C. 110k
D. 10k
Answer :- C
16) An opamp has a slew rate of 5V/ S. the largest sine wave
o/p voltage possible at a frequency of 1MHz is
A. 10 V
B. 5 V
C. 5V
D. 5/2 V
Answer :- A
17) Assume that the op-amp of the fig. is ideal. If Vi is a

triangular wave, then V0 will be
A. Square wave
B. Triangular wave
C. Parabolic wave
D. Sine wave
Answer :- D
18) A differential amplifier is invariably used in the i/p

stage of all op-amps. This is done basically to provide the
op-amps with a very high
A. CMMR
B. Bandwidth
C. Slew rate
D. Open-loop gain
Answer :- C
19) A differential amplifier has a differential gain of

20,000. CMMR=80dB. The common mode gain is given by
A. 2
B. 1
C. 1/2
D. 0
Answer :- A
20) In the differential voltage gain & the common mode

voltage gain of a differential amplifier are 48db & 2db
respectively, then its common mode rejection ratio is
A. 23dB
B. 25dB
C. 46dB
D. 50dB
Answer :- C
21) Which of the following amplifier is used in a digital to

analog converter?
(a) Non inverter
(b) Voltage follower
(c) Summer
(d) Difference amplifier
Answer :- C
22) Differential amplifiers are used in

(a) Instrumentation amplifiers
(b) Voltage followers
(c) Voltage regulators
(d) Buffers
Answer :-A
23) For an ideal op-amp, which of the following is true?

(a) The differential voltage across the input terminals is zero
(b) The current into the input terminals is zero
(c) The current from output terminal is zero
(d) The output resistance is zero
Answer :- C
24) The two input terminals of an opamp are labeled as

a) High and low
b) Positive and negative
c) Inverting and non inverting
d) Differential ans non differential
Answer :-C
25) When a step-input is given to an op-amp integrator, the

output will be
(a) A ramp.
(b) A sinusoidal wave.
(c) A rectangular wave.
(d) A triangular wave with dc bias
Answer :- A
26) For an op-amp having differential gain Av and common-

mode gain Ac the CMRR is given by
A. Av + Ac
B. Av / Ac
C. 1 + Av / Ac)
D. Ac / Av
Answer :-B
27) Hysteresis is desirable in Schmitt-trigger, because

A. Energy is to be stored/discharged in parasitic capacitances.
B. Effects of temperature would be compensated.
C. Devices in the circuit should be allowed time for saturation and
desaturation.
D. It would prevent noise from causing false triggering.
Answer :- C
28) The output voltage Vo of the above circuit is

(a) -6V
(b) -5V
(c) -1.2V
(d) -0.2V
Answer :- B
29) In the above circuit the current ix is

(a) 0.6A
(b) 0.5A
(c) 0.2A
(d) 1/12A
Answer :- B
30) Op-amp circuits may be cascaded without changing

their input output relationships
(a) True
(b) False
Answer :- A
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ANSWERS PDF”
shanaya khan
NOVEMBER 12, 2016 AT 4:14 PM
its very useful for gate preperation engineering students
6/6/2019 300+ TOP ANALOG ELECTRONICS Questions and Answers pdf ANALOG ELECTRONICS Questions

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ANALOG ELECTRONICS Questions :-

1. The early effect in a bipolar junction transistor is caused
by
A. fast turn-on
B.fast turn-off
C. large collector-base reverse bias
D. large emitter-base forward bias
2. MOSFET can be used as a

A. current controlled capacitor
B. voltage controlled capacitor
C. current controlled inductor
D. voltage controlled inductors
3. Thermal runaway is not possible in FET because as the

temperature of FET increases
A. the mobility decreases
B. the transconductance increases
https://engineeringinterviewquestions.com/analog-electronics-questions-answers-pdf/ 1/14
C. the drain current increases

D. none of the above
4. A source follower using an FET usually has a voltage gain

which is
A. greater than +100
B. slightly less than unity but positive
C. exactly unity but negative
D. about -10
5. A differential amplifier has a differential gain of 20,000 .

CMRR=80 dB. The common mode
gain is given by
A. 2
B. 1
C. 1/2
D. 0
6. The approximate input impedance of the OPAMP circuit

which has
Ri=10k,Rf=100k,RL=10k
A. ∞
B.120k
C.110k
D.10k
7. An OPAMP has a slew rate of 5 V/µ S .The largest sine

wave O/P voltage possible at a
frequency of 1MHZ is
A. 10 volts
B. 5 volts C. 5/ volts
D.5/2 volts
8. A change in the value of the emitter resistance Re in a

differential amplifier
A. affects the difference mode gain Ad
B. affects the common mode gain Ac
C.affects both Ad and Ac
D. does not effect either Ad and Ac

OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS IN ANALOG ELECTRONICS
9. A differential amplifier is invariably used in the i/p stage

of all OP-AMPs.This is dome
basically to provide the OP-AMPs with a very high
A.CMRR
B.bandwidth
C. slew rate
D.open-loop gain
10. The effective channel length of a MOSFET in a

saturation decreases with increase in
A. gate voltage
B.drain voltage
C.source voltage
D.body voltage
11. Which of the following is not associated with a p-n

junction
A. junction capacitance
B.charge storage capacitance
C.depletion capacitance
D.channel length modulation
12. In a p-n junction diode under reverse bias , the

magnitude of electric field is maximum at
A. the edge of the depletion region on the p-side
B. the edge of the depletion region on the n-side
C. the p-n junction
D. the center of the depletion region on the n-side
13. An n- channel JFET has IDSS=2mA,and Vp=-4v.Its

transconductance gm=in mA/V)for an
applied gate to source voltage VGS=-2v is
A.0.25
B.0.5
C.0.75
D.1
14. In a common emitter, unbypassed resister provides

A.voltage shunt feedback
B.current series feedback
C.negative voltage feedback
D.positive current feedback
15. A constant current signal across a parallel RLC circuits

gives an o/p of 1.4v at the signal
frequency of 3.89KHZ and 4.1KHZ .At the frequency of
4KHZ,the o/p voltage will be
A.1 v
B. 2v
C.1.4v
D.2.8v
16. Class AB operation is often used in power large signal)

amplifiers in order to
A. get maximum efficiency
B.remove even harmonics
C. overcome a crossover distortion
D.reducing collector dissipation
17. The bandwidth of an RF tuned amplifier is dependent on

A. Q –factor of the tuned o/p circuit
B. Q –factor of the tuned i/p circuit
C. Quiescent operating point
D. Q-factor of the o/p and i/p circuits as well as quiescent operating
point
18. If =0.98 ,Ico=6µA and Iβ=100µA for a transistor,then

the value of Ic will be
A.2.3mA
B.3.2mA
C.4.6 mA
D.5.2mA
19.The MOSFET switch in its on-state may be considered

equivalent to
A.resistor
B.inductor
C.capacitor
D.battery
20. Most of the linear ICs are based on the two-transistor

differential amplifier because of its
A. input voltage dependent linear transfer characteristic
B. high voltage gain
C. high input resistance
D. high CMRR
21. Negative feedback in an amplifier

A. Reduces gain
B. Increase frequency &phase distortion
C. Reduces bandwidth
D. Increases noise
22. A dc power supply has no-load voltage of 30v,and a full-

load voltage of 25v at full-load
current of 1A.Its output resistance & load regulation
,respectively are
A. 5 Ω & 20 %
B. 25 Ω & 20 %
C. 5 Ω & 16.7 %
D. 25 Ω & 16.7 %
23. The current gain of a bipolar transistor drops at high

frequencies because of
A. Transistor capacitances
B. High current effects in the base
C. Parasitic inductive elements
D. The early effect
24. The ideal OP-AMP has the following characteristics.

A. Ri=∞ ,A=∞ ,R0=0
B. Ri=0 ,A=∞ ,R0=0
C. Ri=∞ ,A=∞ ,R0=∞
D. Ri=0 ,A=∞ ,R0=∞
25. An npn BJT has gm=38mA/v, cµ =10¯14 F, cπ =10¯13F

and DC current gain β0=90.For this
transistor fT & fβ are
A. fT =1.64 x 108 Hz & fβ = 1.47 x 1010 Hz.
B. fT =1.47 x 1010 Hz & fβ = 1.64 x 108 Hz
C. fT =1.33 x 1012 Hz & fβ = 1.47 x 1010 Hz
D. fT =1.47 x 1010 Hz & fβ = 1.33 x 1012 Hz
ANALOG ELECTRONICS Questions and Answers pdf ::

26. A 741-type OP-AMP has a gain-bandwidth product of
1MHz.A non-inverting amplifier
using this opamp & having a voltage gain of 20db will
exhibit -3db bandwidth of
A. 50 KHz
B. 100KHz
C. 1000/17 KHz
D. 1000/7.07 KHz
27.An amplifier using an opamp with slew rate SR=1v/µsec

has a gain of 40db.if this amplifier
has to faithfully amplify sinusoidal signals from dc to 20
KHz without introducing any slew-rate
induced distortion, then the input signal level must not
exceed
A. 795mV
B. 395mV
C. 795 mV
D. 39.5mV
28. In the differential voltage gain & the common mode

voltage gain of a differential amplifier
are 48db &2db respectively, then its common mode
rejection ratio is
A.23dB
B.25dB
C. 46dB
D. 50dB
29. Generally, the gain of a transistor amplifier falls at high

frequencies due to the
A. Internal Capacitance of the device
B. Coupling capacitor at the input
C. Skin effect
D. Coupling capacitor at the output
30. An amplifier without feedback has a voltage gain of

50,input resistance os 1 KΩ & Output
resistance of 2.5KΩ.The input resistance of the current-
shunt negative feedback amplifier using
the above amplifier with a feedbacik factor of 0.2 is
A. 1/11KΩ
B. 1/5KΩ
C. 5KΩ
D. 11KΩ
31. The action of JFET in its equivalent circuit can best be

represented as a
B. Current controlled voltage source
C. Voltage controlled voltage source
D. voltage controlled current source
32. Three identical amplifiers with each one having a

voltage gain of 50,input resistance of 1KΩ
& output resistance of 250 ,are cascaded.The open circuit
voltage gain of combined amplifier is
A. 49dB
B. 51dB
C. 98dB
D. 102dB
33. An ideal OP-AMP is an ideal

B. Current controlled voltage source
C. Voltage controlled voltage source
D. voltage controlled current source
34. In a full-wave rectifier using two ideal diodes,Vdc & Vm

are the dc & peak values of the
voltage respectively across a resistive load. If PIV is the
peak inverse voltage of the diode, then
the appropriate relationships for this rectifier is.
A. Vdc = Vm/π, PIV=2Vm
B. Vdc = 2Vm/π, PIV=2vm
C. Vdc = 2Vm/π, PIV=Vm
D. Vdc = Vm/π, PIV=Vm
35. The cascade amplifier is a multistage configuration of

A. CC-CB .
B. CE-CB
C. CB-CC
D. CE-CC
36. The current gain of a BJT is

A. gm r0
B. gm / r0
C. gm rπ
D. gm /rπ
37. The most commonly used amplifier in sample & hold

circuits is
A. A unity gain non-inverting amplifier
B. A unity gain inverting amplifier
C. An inverting amplifier with a gain of 10
D. An inverting amplifiers with a gain of 100
38. To prevent a DC return between source and load, it is

necessary to use
A. resistor between source and load

B. inductor between source and load
C. capacitor between source and load
D. either A. or B.
39. Introducing a resistor in the emitter of a common

amplifier stabilizes the dc operating point
against variations in
A. Only the temperature
B. only the β of the transistor
C. Both Temperature & β
D. None of the above
40. Voltage Series feedback also called series-shunt

feedback) results in
A. Increase in both input & output impedances
B. Decreases in both input & output impedances
C. Increase in input impedance & decreases in output impedance
D. Decrease in input impedance & increase in output impedance
41. The encapsulation of transistor is necessary for
A. preventing radio interference

B. preventing photo-emission effects
C. avoiding loss of free electrons
D. mechanical ruggedness
Answer: D
42. In a transistor leakage current mainly depends on
A. doping of base
B. size of emitter
C. rating of transistor
D. temperature
Answer: D
43. In a CB amplifier the maximum efficiency could be
A. 99%
B. 85%
C. 50%
D. 25%
Answer: D
44. When a transistor is connected in common emitter

mode, it with have
A. negligible input resistance and high output resistance

B. high input resistance and low output resistance
C. medium input resistance and high output resistance
D. low input resistance as well as output resistance
Answer: C
45. In all base driver amplifiers
A. ac collector voltage is 180° out of phase with ac base voltage

B. ac emitter voltage is 180° out of phase with ac base voltage
C. ac collector voltage is in phase with ac base voltage
D. none of the above
Answer: A
46. The horizontal intercept of dc load line is the same as

ideal
A. cut off point

B. saturation point
C. operating point
D. quasi saturation point
Answer: A
47. In deriving ac equivalent circuit for an amplifier circuit

we short circuit
A. all resistors
B. all transistors
C. all inductors
D. all capacitors
Answer: D
48. Which of the following statements is false?
A. Push pull signals are equal and opposite in phase

B. Class AB operation cannot be used for a push pull audio power
output phase
C. A push pull output transformer has a centre-tapped primary
D. All of the above
Answer: B
49. Which of the following amplifier circuit using junction

transistor has the best gain?
A. Common base
B. Common emitter
C. Common collector
D. All have the same gain
Answer: B
50. In an op-amp differentiator
A. the amplitude of output is proportional to rate of change of input

B. the amplitude of output is proportional to input
C. output occurs when input is finite and constant
D. polarity of input and output is the same
Answer: A
Answers:- 1. C 2. B 3. A 4. A 5. A 6. D 7. D 8. B 9. A 10. B 11. D 12. C

13. B 14. C 15. B 16. C 17. A 18. D 19. C 20. D 21. A 22. B 23. A
24. A 25. B 26. B 27. C 28. C 29. A 30. A 31. D 32. C 33. B
34. B 35. B 36. C 37. B 38. C 39. C 40. C.
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6/6/2019 40 TOP SEMICONDUCTOR THEORY Questions and Answers pdf | MCQs SEMICONDUCTOR THEORY Questions

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SEMICONDUCTOR THEORY Questions and

Answers pdf :-
1. A semiconductor is formed by ……… bonds.
A. Covalent
B. Electrovalent
C. Co-ordinate
D. None of the above
ANS:- A
2. A semiconductor has ………… temperature coefficient of

resistance.
Positive
Zero
Negative
https://engineeringinterviewquestions.com/semiconductor-theory-questions-answers-pdf-mcqs/ 1/11
None of the above

ANS:- C
3. The most commonly used semiconductor is ………..
Germanium
Silicon
Carbon
Sulphur
ANS:- B
SEMICONDUCTOR THEORY Questions and

Answers pdf
4. A semiconductor has generally ……………… valence

electrons.
2
3
6
4
ANS:- D
5. The resistivity of pure germanium under standard

conditions is about ……….
6 x 104
O cm
60
O cm
3 x 106
O cm
6 x 10-4
O cm
ANS:- B
6. The resistivity of a pure silicon is about ……………
100 O cm
6000 O cm
3 x 105 O m
6 x 10-8 O cm
ANS:- B
7. When a pure semiconductor is heated, its resistance

…………..
Goes up
Goes down
Remains the same
Can’t say
ANS:- B
8. The strength of a semiconductor crystal comes from ……..
Forces between nuclei

Forces between protons
Electron-pair bonds
None of the above
ANS:- C
9. When a pentavalent impurity is added to a pure

semiconductor, it becomes ………
An insulator
An intrinsic semiconductor
p-type semiconductor
n-type semiconductor
ANS:- D
10. Addition of pentavalent impurity to a semiconductor

creates many ……..
Free electrons
Holes
Valence electrons
Bound electrons
ANS:- A
11. A pentavalent impurity has ………. Valence electrons
3
5
4
6
ANS:- B
12. An n-type semiconductor is ………
Positively charged
Negatively charged
Electrically neutral
None of the above
ANS:- C
13. A trivalent impurity has ….. valence electrons
4
5
6
3
ANS:- D
14. Addition of trivalent impurity to a semiconductor

creates many ……..
Holes
Free electrons
Valence electrons
Bound electrons
ANS:- A
15. A hole in a semiconductor is defined as …………….
A free electron
The incomplete part of an electron pair bond
A free proton
A free neutron
ANS:- B
16. The impurity level in an extrinsic semiconductor is

about ….. of pure semiconductor.
10 atoms for 108 atoms

1 atom for 108 atoms
ANS:- B
17. As the doping to a pure semiconductor increases, the

bulk resistance of the semiconductor ………..
Remains the same

Increases
Decreases
None of the above
ANS:- C
18. A hole and electron in close proximity would tend to

……….
Repel each other

Attract each other
Have no effect on each other
None of the above

ANS:- B
19. In a semiconductor, current conduction is due to ……..
Only holes
Only free electrons
Holes and free electrons
None of the above
ANS:- C
20. The random motion of holes and free electrons due to

thermal agitation is called ……….
Diffusion
Pressure
Ionisation
None of the above
ANS:- A
21. A forward biased pn junction diode has a resistance of

the order of
O
kO
MO
None of the above
ANS:- A
22. The battery connections required to forward bias a pn

junction are ……
+ve terminal to p and –ve terminal to n

-ve terminal to p and +ve terminal to n
-ve terminal to p and –ve terminal to n
None of the above
ANS:- A
23. The barrier voltage at a pn junction for germanium is

about ………
5V
3V
Zero
3V
ANS:- D
24. In the depletion region of a pn junction, there is a

shortage of ……..
Acceptor ions
Holes and electrons
Donor ions
None of the above
ANS:- B
25. A reverse bias pn junction has …………
Very narrow depletion layer

Almost no current
Very low resistance
Large current flow
ANS:- B
26. A pn junction acts as a ……….
Controlled switch
Bidirectional switch
Unidirectional switch
None of the above
ANS:- C
27. A reverse biased pn junction has resistance of the order

of
O
kO
MO
None of the above
ANS:- C
28. The leakage current across a pn junction is due to

…………..
Minority carriers
Majority carriers
Junction capacitance
None of the above
ANS:- A
29. When the temperature of an extrinsic semiconductor is

increased, the pronounced effect is on……
Junction capacitance
Minority carriers
Majority carriers
None of the above
ANS:- B
30. With forward bias to a pn junction , the width of

depletion layer ………
Decreases
Increases
Remains the same
None of the above
ANS:- A
31. The leakage current in a pn junction is of the order of
Aa
mA
kA
µA
ANS:- D
32. In an intrinsic semiconductor, the number of free

electrons ………
Equals the number of holes

Is greater than the number of holes
Is less than the number of holes
None of the above
ANS:- A
33. At room temperature, an intrinsic semiconductor has

……….
Many holes only

A few free electrons and holes
Many free electrons only
No holes or free electrons
ANS:- B
34. At absolute temperature, an intrinsic semiconductor

has ……….
A few free electrons

Many holes
Many free electrons
No holes or free electrons
ANS:- D
35. At room temperature, an intrinsic silicon crystal acts

approximately as ……
A battery
A conductor
An insulator
A piece of copper wire
ANS:- C
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6/6/2019 300+TOP CURRENT ELECTRICITY Multiple Choice Questions & Answers

Engineering interview questions,Mcqs,Objective Questions,Class Notes,Seminor

Home » Electrical Engineering Multiple Choice Questions » 300+

300+ TOP MOST CURRENT

Engineering Multiple Choice Be the first of your friends to

Questions and Answers

2. Electric pressure is also called

3. The substances which have a large number of free

4. Out of the following which is not a poor conductor ?

5. Out of the following which is an insulating material ?

6. The property of a conductor due to which it passes

8. The resistance of a conductor varies inversely as

(6) area of cross-section

9. With rise in temperature the resistance of pure metals

10. With rise in temperature the resistance of semi-

11. The resistance of a copper wire 200 m long is 21 Q. If its

12. Three resistances of 10 ohms, 15 ohms and 30 ohms are

13. An instrument which detects electric current is known

14. In a circuit a 33 Q resistor carries a current of 2 A. The

15. A light bulb draws 300 mA when the voltage across it is

16. The resistance of a parallel circuit consisting of two

17. Four wires of same material, the same cross-sectional

18. A current of 16 amperes divides between two branches

19. Current velocity through a copper conductor is

20. Which of the following material has nearly zero

21. You have to replace 1500 Q resistor in radio. You have

22. Two resistors are said to be connected in series when

(b) both carry the same value of current

23. Which of the following statement is true both for a

24. Which of the following materials has a negative

25. Ohm’s law is not applicable to

26. Which is the best conductor of electricity ?

28. All of the following are equivalent to watt except

29. A resistance having rating 10 ohms, 10 W is likely to be a

31. Varistors are

32. Insulating materials have the function of

33. The rating of a fuse wire is always expressed in

34. The minimum charge on an ion is

35. In a series circuit with unequal resistances

36. The filament of an electric bulb is made of

37. A 3 Q resistor having 2 A current will dissipate the power of

38. Which of the following statement is true?

(d) A galvanometer with high resistance in series is an ammeter

39. The resistance of a few meters of wire conductor in closed

40. If a parallel circuit is opened in the main line, the current

41. If a wire conductor of 0.2 ohm resistance is doubled in length, its

(d) None of the above

44. Two resistances Rl and Ri are connected in series across the

46. A closed switch has a resistance of

48. Heat in a conductor is produced on the passage of electric current

49. The insulation on a current carrying conductor is provided

50. The thickness of insulation provided on the conductor depends on

52. A 40 W bulb is connected in series with a room heater. If now 40

53. In an electric kettle water boils in 10 m minutes. It is required to

(d) none of the above

54. An electric filament bulb can be worked from

55. Resistance of a tungsten lamp as applied voltage increases

56. Electric current passing through the circuit produces