Bộ 10 đề tổng ôn giai đoạn cuối (KYS)

TÀI LIỆU KYS | CHÍ CHÂU
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BỘ ĐỀ TỔNG ÔN GIAI ĐOẠN CUỐI

Dành cho học sinh mục tiêu đạt điểm cao kỳ thi THPT Quốc gia
Biên soạn: Đội ngữ Giáo viên và Mod môn Tiếng Anh – KYS
MỤC LỤC
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Đề số 9 ..................................................................................................................................... 59
Đề số 10 ................................................................................................................................... 66
BẢNG ĐÁP ÁN ..................................................................................................................... 73
Xem đầy đủ file giải chi tiết tại: https://bom.to/Bvapwa2OdWnJZ
Tài liệu KYS Education is the Key to Your Success 1

TRÍCH TỪ KHÓA LUYỆN ĐỀ NÂNG CAO – X4
MÔN: TIẾNG ANH – ĐỀ SỐ 1
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. washed B. formed C. turned D. boiled
Question 2. A. family B. famine C. famous D. fabricate
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. domination B. adventure C. grammatical D. emergency
Question 4. A. fantasy B. exposure C. leopard D. satisfy
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5. Little ________this store ________so crowded.
A. are/ get B. does/ get C. do/ get D. is/ getting
Question 6. Rooney would never forget ________ for his enormous contributions to ABC
Company.
A. to have rewarded B. rewarded C. to reward D. being rewarded
Question 7. Mike: "Your house looks luxurious. How long ________here?” – Long: “Ten years
until now.”
A. do you live B. have you been living
C. are you living D. did you live
Question 8. Tom always remembered the books and the writers ________interested him.
A. that B. who C. which D. whom
Question 9. Burns won a Best ________Actor Oscar for his performances.
A. Supporting B. Supportive C. Supportable D. Supported
Question 10. Tu didn't like her years at university ________she failed to make friends.
A. whereas B. but C. therefore D. as
Question 11. You can’t prevent Romeo from ________ Juliet.
A. loved B. to love C. love D. loving
Question 12. Messi is ________only player in the history of football to receive________Golden
Ball five times.
A. the / the B. Ø / Ø C. the / Ø D. Ø / the
Question 13. I don't think he will pass the exam, ________?
A. will he B. will I C. do I D. does he
Question 14. Thomas is the last person ________ the house.
A. to be left B. leaving C. to leave D. leaved
Question 15. Please contact us by phone as soon as you ________ in London.
Học Tiếng Anh cùng anh Chí Châu 2

A. arrive B. arrived C. will arrive D. is going to arrive
Question 16. The police are well aware ________ the situation.
A. by B. to C. of D. about
Question 17. He’s exhausted as he ________ late last night.
A. stayed up B. kept off C. put out D. brought up
Question 18. The building was ________ by fire last year and rebuilt within six months.
A. smashed B. destroyed C. spoiled D. desolated
Question 19. Jack has a desire to ________ his own business. He wants to build conspicuous
success from scratch.
A. drive B. accelerate C. run D. ruin
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 20. James holds ambivalent views on whether or not computer is a lucrative invention.
A. having negative opinion about something B. being certain about something
C. having concrete notion about something D. having mixed feeling about something
Question 21. More effort and money are needed to bolster the industry.
A. retract B. support C. lament D. commiserate
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is
OPPOSITE meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 22. There are one or two similarities between my country and the UK, but on the whole
they are so disparate that it is difficult to find any common ground.
A. different B. identical C. distinct D. dissimilar
Question 23. Nobody seemed to be interested in the news. It was greeted with a lack of
enthusiasm.
A. shortage B. scarcity C. abundance D. gap
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentences that best completes
each of the following exchanges.
Question 24. Mia and John are talking about Tom.
- Mia: "Do you think Tom will fail in the examination?"
- John: “No, ________.”
A. I hope so B. I don't think so C. I don't hope D. I think so
Question 25. Ben wants to invite Kim to go out with him.
- Ben: "Would you like to go to the coffee shop with me?"
- Kim: “________.”
A. Sorry, I would B. Certainly, I would be glad to
C. Of course, I shall not go with you D. Excuse me, I would not
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
word(s) that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
Freelancing is all a part of the future of remote work. If you're (26) ________ in being a
freelancer, here's what you need to know. Essentially, a freelance job is one (27) ________ a person

works for themselves, (28) ________ than for a company. While freelancers do take on contract
and work for companies and organizations, they are ultimately self-employed.
Freelancers are responsible for all sorts (29) ________ things that traditional employees are
not, such as setting their work hours, keeping track of time spent on different projects, billing
clients, and paying their own employment and (30) ________ taxes. Freelancers are not
considered "employees" by the companies they work for, but rather "contractors."
(Source: https://hivevine.com/what-is-freelance-work/)
Question 26. A. interested B. care C. obligatory D. young
Question 27. A. where B. when C. who D. whom
Question 28. A. other B. rather C. more D. prefer
Question 29. A. of B. in C. on D. and
Question 30. A. health B. business C. land D. entry
correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
The earliest newspapers in the United States were tied to political groups or parties. The
Federalist Papers, which urged the ratification of the Constitution, were first published in New
York newspapers. During George Washington's administration, the Gazette of the United States
represented Alexander Hamilton and the Federalists, while the National Gazette supported
Thomas Jefferson and the Democratic Republicans. The development of high-speed presses,
growing literacy rates, and the invention of the telegraph led to the rise of independent, mass-
circulation newspapers in the first half of the 19th century. Competition for readers and
advertisers became intense, so papers increasingly emphasized the sensational side of news in
the second half of that century. This style of reporting became known as yellow journalism, and
the most well-known practitioner was William Randolph Hearst in his New York Journal. Its
stories and reports on Cuba, particularly the explosion of the USS Maine in Havana Harbor,
helped build support for the war against Spain in 1898. Although there was a decided shift to
objective and balanced reporting in reaction to Hearst's style, this type of journalism continues in
the tabloid press, which includes some mainstream newspapers and the "supermarket papers"
such as National Enquirer and Star.
Weekly and monthly magazines like McClure's and Collier's published in-depth articles on
national issues and gained a large, middle-class audience by the late 19th century. They became
an outlet for the muckrakers, a group of writers whose exposés on political corruption in the cities
and on the practices of the Standard Oil Company were a factor in the political reforms of the
Progressive Era (1900-1920). The investigative reporting that brought the Watergate scandal to
the public's attention is part of the muckraking tradition in print journalism.
(Extracted from The Evolution of Mass Media, from cliffsnotes.com)
Question 31. Which can be inferred about the first newspapers in the United States in the 1 st
paragraph?
A. They did not openly support any parties and stayed neutral.
B. They were invented as a solution to the division among parties.
C. They were regarded as a weapon for parties to criticize each other.

D. They were used mainly as a tool to serve political purposes.
Question 32. What was the outcome of the newspapers' intense competition for readers and
advertisers?
A. Journalists switched the paper colour into yellow to make them more attractive.
B. Newspapers focused more on adding affective elements instead of being serious.
C. Hearst, who practiced yellow journalism, caused the war against Spain in 1898.
D. Newspapers removed all emotional factors and stayed as objective as possible.
Question 33. The word "decided" in the text is closest in meaning to ________.
A. certain B. ambiguous C. intentional D. tough
Question 34. The word "they" in the 2nd paragraph refers to ________.
A. Articles on national issues B. Weekly and monthly magazines
C. The middle-class audiences D. The outlet for muckrakers
Question 35. According to the text, what can we learn about the muckrakers?
A. They worked with corrupted politicians so that their scandals weren't exposed.
B. Their reports about corruption played a huge role in the political reform.
C. Their writings had caused severe political corruption in the country.
D. They had a tradition to write reports about scandals, most of which were untrue.
Nothing is sadder in the linguistic community than witnessing the death of a language and
not being able to do anything about it. Of course, not many people really know that a language
can "die" in the first place. I know the first time I ever heard a language being referred to as "dead"
was when I was pondering taking Latin in high school. I asked someone what it meant, for a
language to be dead, and they told me it meant that no one speaks it anymore. This,
unfortunately, is not what it takes for a language to be considered dead or almost there.
The true definition of a dead language is one that has no native speakers left. There are
several different ways that it can happen, but the bottom line is that if there is only one person
left who speaks the language as their native tongue and fluently, then the language has died. It
doesn't matter if there are still other members of the community that understand the language or
maybe speak a little bit of it. Even if there are elders in the community who refuse to teach their
native tongue to the younger generation, the language is doomed as it won't survive to be passed
on to a new generation as a native language.
Languages can die gradually, which is probably the most natural way for it to happen, but
many times there are outside influences involving the struggles of a minority community against
the majority society in which they live. The death of a language can start in the home, or it can
start in some areas as high up as the government or aristocracy. Probably the most common cause
of language death is when a community that previously only spoke one language starts to speak
another one. This is called "language shift." The community first becomes bilingual, not
discarding their native tongue, but soon they start to use the new language more and more, until
their native language is no longer used.
However, there are ways to keep a language from dying, or to revitalize a dead one. The
best example of this is probably what Israel did with Hebrew, taking it from a practically extinct
language to one that had a whole new generation of people who spoke it as their native language.
With the recovering or revitalization of a language comes the recovering and revitalization of a

culture and heritage, so it's wonderful that people are trying to do something to stop or at least
slow the deaths of many endangered languages.
Question 36. Why does the author mention Latin in the 1st paragraph?
A. The author implies that the language is ignored by students.
B. The author wants to give an example of a dead language.
C. The author feels sad each time the language is mentioned.
D. The author wishes the language was taught more widely in high schools.
Question 37. The word "pondering" in the 1st paragraph is closest in meaning to ________.
A. discarding B. researching C. considering D. observing
Question 38. Which of the following is NOT a case of a dead language?
A. A language that no one speaks anymore
B. A language that has no native speakers
C. A language that has only one native speaker left
D. A language that the elderly refuse to pass on to the young
Question 39. What is the most common cause of the death of a language?
A. The outside influences of a larger society on the minority community
B. Members in a family who refuse to speak their native tongue
C. The lack of effort to maintain a language from the government
D. The speakers' shift from their previous language to another one
Question 40. The word "bilingual" in the 3rd paragraph means ________.
A. mixing two languages into one
B. using and speaking two languages
C. mastering more than two languages
D. losing two languages at the same time
Question 41. What can be implied from the last paragraph about Hebrew?
A. Though the language was revived, its cultural values werewas lost.
B. It is now no longer an extinct language, but it is still considered "dead".
C. It once lost all of its speakers, including the non-native ones.
D. It has been the only language that people made an effort to revive.
Question 42. Which of the following can be the most suitable title for the text?
A. Solutions to the Death of Languages B. Language Death: An Overview
C. Revitalization of Dead Languages D. Reasons to the Death of Languages
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43. When the pandemic struck, schools shifted to a new method called "E-Learning".
By doing this, both teachers and students were able to follow the social distanced rules and keep
up with the curriculum.
A. struck B. follow C. social distanced D. keep up
Question 44. Many well-known universities like Harvard, Stanford are offering free courses for
students in many fields at YouTube, and I think it's a good way to learn a bit before choosing
your major.
A. well-known B. at C. and D. a bit

Question 45. Many readers think that books are a special means of transport because they help
them experiencing a different culture without actually paying a penny for the journey.
A. think B. a C. means D. experiencing
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 46. He runs faster than his older brother.
A. His brother runs as fast as he does.
B. He doesn't run as fast as his brother does.
C. His brother doesn't run as fast as he does.
D. He runs less faster than his older brother does.
Question 47. Students are required to take part in at least two activities in this school year.
A. Students have to take part in at least two activities in this school year.
B. Students needn't take part in at least two activities in this school year.
C. Students should take part in at least two activities in this school year.
D. Students can't take part in at least two activities in this school year.
Question 48. He donated two books and 100.000 dongs for the charity.
A. He gave two books and 100.000 dongs for the charity.
B. He received two books and 100.000 dongs from the charity.
C. He bought two books and 100.000 dongs from the charity.
D. He sold two books for 100.000 dongs to the charity.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences of the following questions.
Question 49. You should put on your traditional costume. The audiences will be more impressed.
A. You should put on your traditional costume so that the audiences will be more
impressed.
B. You should put on your traditional costume though the audiences will be more
impressed.
C. You should put on your traditional costume; however, the audiences will be more
impressed.
D. You should put on your traditional costume as a result of the audiences will be more
impressed.
Question 50. The lake is too cold. No fish can survive in it.
A. The lake is not cold enough for any fish to survive in it.
B. Although the lake is cold, no fish can survive in it.
C. The lake is too cold, but no fish can survive in it.
D. The lake is so cold that no fish can survive in it.
----------THE END--------
(Thí sinh không được phép sử dụng tài liệu. Giám thị coi thi không giải thích gì thêm)

Question 1. A. preference B. attraction C. advantage D. infinitive
Question 2. A. certificate B. appreciate C. apologize D. classify
Question 3. - "Thanks so much for helping me."
- "__________."
A. No worries B. You’re telling me C. I suppose so D. That sounds great
Question 4. Two people are talking to each other.
- A: "How are you doing?"
- B: "_________"
A. You’re telling me B. Never mind C. Can’t complain D. As much as
possible
OPPOSITE meaning to the underlined part in each of the following Questions.
Question 5. It would be callous to tell a person who was just hit by a motorbike to walk to the
nearest doctor alone to seek help.
A. redolent B. apprehensive C. distinct D. empathetic
Question 6. Many students were very resilient last month. Even though they had just taken the
final examination, they resumed work as quickly as possible.
A. fanatical B. exhausted C. strong D. tenacious
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the Questions from 7 to 11.
The United Nations Children's Fund is a United Nations agency responsible for providing
humanitarian and developmental aid to children around the world. It was established in 1946 as
the United Nations International Children's Emergency Fund (UNICEF) by the U.N. General
Assembly, at the behest of Polish physician Ludwik Rajchman, to provide immediate hunger
relief and healthcare to children and mothers in countries devastated by World War II. In 1950,

UNICEF's mandate was extended to address the long-term needs of children and women in
developing countries, and in 1953 it became a permanent part of the United Nations System. The
agency's name was subsequently changed to its current form, though it retains the original
acronym.
UNICEF relies entirely on contributions from governments and private donors. Its total
income as of 2018 was $5.2 billion, of which two-thirds came from governments; private groups
and individuals contribute the rest through national committees. It is governed by a 36-member
executive board that establishes policies, approves programs, and oversees administrative and
financial plans. The board is made up of government representatives elected by the United
Nations Economic and Social Council, usually for three-year terms.
UNICEF's programs emphasize developing community-level services to promote the health
and well-being of children. Most of its work is in the field, with a presence in 192 countries and
territories. Its network includes 150 country offices, headquarters and other offices, and 34
"national committees" that carry out its mission through programs developed with host
governments. Seven regional offices provide technical assistance to country offices as needed.
UNICEF's Supply Division is based in Copenhagen and New York, both serves as point of
distribution for such essential items as vaccines, antiretroviral medicines for children and
mothers with HIV, nutritional supplements, emergency shelters, family reunification, and
educational supplies. UNICEF was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize in 1965, the Indira Gandhi
Prize in 1989 and the Prince of Asturias Award of Concord in 2006.
Question 7. What is NOT TRUE according to the first paragraph?
A. UNICEF's first targets were countries seriously affected by conflicts.
B. UNICEF's objectives were extended after the end of World War II.
C. UNICEF is an independent organization founded by a Polish scientist.
D. The original abbreviation of the organization's name remains unchanged.
Question 8. Where does UNICEF get its income from?
A. Entirely from the United Nations and from charities
B. From countries which are its members
C. From private donations and governments' contribution
D. Annual compulsory payments from countries around the world
Question 9. The word "oversees" means
A. visions B. advises C. revises D. supervises
Question 10. What is TRUE about the program and the work of UNICEF?
A. UNICEF establishes national committees in some countries to realise its missions

B. UNICEF has only seven offices in some regions in the world
C. Health and well-being of children are currently not on the top priority
D. UNICEF's offices do not collaborate with countries' government to do its work
Question 11. What is NOT provided by UNICEF Supply Division?
A. Medicine for serious illnesses B. Transportations for children
C. Food and houses D. Disease prevention
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences of the following Questions.
Question 12. They were extremely exhausted. Nevertheless, they were determined to continue
their hiking.
A. Tired as might they be, they were determined to continue their hiking.
B. As result of their exhaustion, they were determined to continue their hiking.
C. Being extremely exhausted, they were determined to continue their hiking.
D. Exhausted though they might be, they resolved to continue their hiking.
Question 13. The burglars left the building. Then someone rang the alarm.
A. No sooner had the burglars left the building than someone rang the alarm.
B. Not until someone rang the alarm did the burglars left the building.
C. Someone had had rung the alarm so the burglars left the building.
D. The burglars left the building after someone had rung the alarm.
the correct answer to each of the Questions from 14 to 21.
HISTORY OF THE INTERNATIONAL MONETARY FUND (IMF)
The IMF was originally laid out as a part of the Bretton Woods system exchange agreement
in 1944. During the Great Depression, countries sharply raised barriers to trade in an attempt to
improve their failing economies. This led to the devaluation of national currencies and a decline
in world trade.
This breakdown in international monetary co-operation created a need for oversight. The
representatives of 45 governments met at the Bretton Woods Conference in the Mount
Washington Hotel in Bretton Woods, New Hampshire, in the United States, to discuss a
framework for postwar international economic co-operation and how to rebuild Europe.
There were two views on the role the IMF should assume as a global economic institution.
American delegate Harry Dexter White foresaw an IMF that functioned more like a bank, making
sure that borrowing states could repay their debts on time. Most of White's plan was incorporated
into the final acts adopted at Bretton Woods. British economist John Maynard Keynes, on the

other hand, imagined that the IMF would be a cooperative fund upon which member states could
draw to maintain economic activity and employment through periodic crises. This view
suggested an IMF that helped governments and to act as the United States government had
during the New Deal to the great recession of the 1930s.
The IMF formally came into existence on 27 December 1945, when the first 29
countries ratified its Articles of Agreement. By the end of 1946 the IMF had grown to 39
members. On 1 March 1947, the IMF began its financial operations, and on 8 May France became
the first country to borrow from it.
The IMF was one of the key organisations of the international economic system; its design
allowed the system to balance the rebuilding of international capitalism with the maximisation
of national economic sovereignty and human welfare, also known as embedded liberalism. The
IMF's influence in the global economy steadily increased as it accumulated more members. The
increase reflected in particular the attainment of political independence by many African
countries and more recently the 1991 dissolution of the Soviet Union because most countries in
the Soviet sphere of influence did not join the IMF.
The Bretton Woods exchange rate system prevailed until 1971, when the United States
government suspended the convertibility of the US$ (and dollar reserves held by other
governments) into gold. This is known as the Nixon Shock. The changes to the IMF articles of
agreement reflecting these changes were ratified by the 1976 Jamaica Accords. Later in the 1970s,
large commercial banks began lending to states because they were awash in cash deposited by
oil exporters. The lending of the so-called money center banks led to the IMF changing its role in
the 1980s after a world recession provoked a crisis that brought the IMF back into global financial
governance.
Question 14. What happened during the Great Depression?
A. Countries encouraged international trading to improve their failing economies.
В. Some countries built physical border barriers in order to block foreign traders from
entering.
С. Countries tried to limit trading with the others so as to improve their failing economies.
D. Countries raised the value of their currencies so that they would make more profit.
Question 15. The word "oversight" in paragraph 2 means
A. The fact of making a mistake because you are forgetful and careless
B. The act of observing something from a distance
C. The state of making positive and significant progress
D. The state of being in charge of something

Question 16. What was the purpose of Bretton Woods Conference?
A. To find a way for rebuilding Europe and establishing an international economic system
B. To come up with a system of economic co-operation between countries before the war
C. To construct an economic center in New Hampshire to prepare for the World War
D. To gather representatives of 45 countries to an annual discussion about war and
economy
Question 17. The word "recession" in paragraph 3 means:
A. Economic increase В. Economic research
С. Economic decline D. Economic advancement
Question 18. According to John Maynard Keynes, the role of IMF is to
A. Provide resources to other IMF members on behalf of the USA's government.
В. Support governments in periods of crisis by letting them draw upon the fund.
С. Lend governments the money they need and give them time to return it to IMF.
D. Control banking activities around the world to make sure crises are prevented.
Question 19. What did the IMF's design enable the system to do?
A. Attain the political independence in many African countries.
В. Attract countries in the Soviet sphere.
С. Balance the political dependence in Africa.
D. Balance the rebuilding of embedded liberalism.
Question 20. What is the Nixon Shock?
A. The suspension of the convertibility of the US dollars and dollar reserves into gold.
В. The allowance of the USA's government to convert US dollars into gold.
С. The changes to the IMF articles of agreement ratified by the 1976 Jamaica Accords.
D. The dominance of the Bretton Woods exchange rate system after 1971.
Question 21. What is TRUE according to the last paragraph?
A. Despite the world's economic depression, IMF's role remained the same.
В. Large commercial banks were forced to lend their money to states by IMF.
С. The activities of large commercial banks brought a change to IMF's position.
D. Large commercial banks continued to lend their money despite being in a crisis.
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following Questions.
Question 22. A. society B. agency C. social D. confidence
Question 23. A. profane B. static C. state D. volcano

following Questions.
Question 24. The story about UFOs caught the _______ of the whole class.
A. imagine B. imagination C. imaginatively D. imaginary
Question 25. I’d like to ________ a proposal for improving sales.
A. put over B. put on C. put aside D. put forward
Question 26. I asked him whose car _______ the previous night.
A. he had borrowed B. had he borrowed C. did he borrow D. he did borrow
Question 27. Vaccine supplies started to run dry as the flu outbreak reached ______ proportions.
A. deadly B. falling C. epidemic D. disaster
Question 28. Mary eats ______ she used to.
A. fewer meat and bananas than B. less and less meat and bananas than
C. less meat and fewer bananas than D. the least meat and fewest bananas than
Question 29. I don’t know why you are doing that now. You know it _______ finished yesterday.
A. must have been B. should have been C. ought to be D. needn’t have been
Question 30. Look! We aren’t allowed to park here. The car needs _______ on the right position-
on the right side of the stadium.
A. to park B. be parked C. parking D. being parked
Question 31. He was ______ from the championship after they discovered that he had been taking
drugs.
A. disqualified B. aimed C. lost D. defeated
Question 32. What the teacher said yesterday _______.
A. make us delighted B. gave us food for thought
C. helped us understood well D. make us to think seriously
Question 33. The concert didn’t come _______ our expectations.
A. up against B. up with C. up to D. round
Question 34. The bomb _______ went out this morning caused a lot of damage.
A. which B. that it C. when D. in which
Question 35. He fell down while _______.
A. he was running toward the church B. running toward the church
C. he ran to the church D. he had been running toward the church
Question 36. Learning English isn’t so difficult once you _______.
A. get on it B. get off it C. get down to it D. get away with it
Question 37. The local authority expressed regret as US drone strike has ______ killed innocent

hostages.
A. incongruously B. vehemently C. inadvertently D. graciously
underlined part in each of the following Questions.
Question 38. There was nothing Faisal could do to conciliate his girlfriend after she caught him
cheating on her.
A. integrate B. placate C. stipulate D. exasperate
Question 39. The government decided to pull down the old building after asking for the ideas
from the local resident.
A. renovate B. purchase C. maintain D. demolish
correction in each of the following Questions.
Question 40. Tea did not become popular in Europe until the mid- 17th century when it has been
first imported to England and Holland.
A. did not become B. it C. has been D. to
Question 41. When a person from a contact culture moves in closer, a person from a
noncontact culture may feel the needy to back off.
A. moves in closer B. noncontact C. needy D. off
Question 42. The book was published in it’s completed form in 1852 and remains to this day one
of the most useful reference books to any writer.
A. was published B. it’s completed C. remains D. books
the word(s) that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 43 to 47.
The World Health Organization (WHO) is a (43) ____________ agency of the United
Nations that is concerned with international public health. It was established on 7 April 1948,
and is headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland. The WHO is a member of the United Nations
Development Group. Its predecessor, the Health Organization, was an agency of the League
of Nations.
The WHO constitution was signed (44) ____________ 61 countries (all 51 member
countries and 10 others) on 22 July 1946, with the first meeting of the World Health
Assembly (45) _____________ on 24 July 1948. It incorporated L'Office International d'Hygiène
Publique and the League of Nations Health Organization. Since its establishment, it has played
a leading role in the (46) ______________ of smallpox. Its current priorities
include communicable diseases, in particular HIV/AIDS, Ebola, malaria and tuberculosis; the

mitigation of the effects of non-communicable diseases such as sexual and reproductive
health, development, and aging; nutrition, food security and healthy eating; occupational
health; substance abuse; and driving the development of reporting, publications, and
networking.
The WHO is responsible for the World Health Report, the worldwide World Health
Survey, and World Health Day. The current Director-General of the WHO, Tedros Adhanom,
also served as Ethiopian Health Minister from 2005 to 2012 and as Ethiopian Foreign Minister
from 2012 to 2016. Adhanom started his five-year (47) ___________ on 1 July 2017.
Question 43. A. specialized B. specializing C. specialist D. special
Question 44. A. in B. with C. by D. on
Question 45. A. concluded B. concluding C. conclude D. concludes
Question 46. A. development B. eradication C. erosion D. transportation
Question 47. A. term B. work C. delay D. project
meaning to each of the following Questions.
Question 48. Alison bought the big house because she wanted to open a hotel.
A. Alison bought the big house with a view to opening a hotel.
Β. Alison bought the big house so that she can open a hotel.
C. Alison bought so big a house that she could use it as a hotel.
D. Alison bought the big house in a view of opening a hotel.
Question 49. "Shall I carry the suitcase for you, Mary?" said John.
A. John offered Mary to carry the suitcase for Mary.
Β. John offered to carry the suitcase for Mary.
C. John offered carrying the suitcase for Mary.
D. John offered Mary if he should carry the suitcase for her.
Question 50. There was no alternative for them but to look for a new flat.
A. They couldn’t alter a new flat.
B. They didn’t need to look for a new flat because of other alternatives.
C. The only thing they could do was to look for a new flat.
D. They currently couldn’t look for a new flat.
----------THE END---------

Question 1. A. subscribed B. launched C. inspired D. welcomed
Question 2. A. campus B. plane C. game D. base
Question 3. A. committee B. community C. creative D. definite
Question 4. A. complicated B. demonstrate C. communism D. convenient
Question 5. If he _______ here now, I _______ my present to him directly.
A. were/would send B. was/would send
C. had been/ would have sent D. is/ will send
Question 6. She needn’t give it to me, _______?
A. doesn’t she B. does she C. need she D. needn’t she
Question 7. He's the _______ of a successful cartoon series in the late 19th century.
A. creativity B. creature C. creator D. creative
Question 8. Unless they are serious, most headaches can _______ with aspirin or some
alternative methods.
A. treating B. treat C. be treat D. be treated
Question 9. During our stay in Paris, my wife bought a _______ bottle.
A. glass lovely perfume B. lovely glass perfume
C. lovely perfume glass D. glass perfume lovely
Question 10. These apples are tastier, but they cost _______ as those ones over there.
A. twice as many B. as many C. twice as much D. so many
Question 11. Look, son! I don’t really mind if you_______ up late at night, but you _______ so
much noise recently that no one in the house could sleep at all.
A. stay/ have made B. stayed/ have been making
C. have stayed/ make D. stay/ were making
Question 12. The little boy was told to clean up his bedroom before lunchtime, or _______ he
would not be allowed to go out with his friends.
A. in fact B. else C. in case D. instead
Question 13. Can you give me some more information _______ to the new policies in your

company?
A. which were related B. that are relating C. that relate D. relating
Question 14. Excuse me, I ordered soft _______ eggs, not hard.
A. cooked B. steamed C. boiled D. watered
Question 15. I’m sure he _______ a reply the moment he _______ your invitation to the party.
A. will send/ sees B. sends/ sees C. is sending/ will see D. has sent/ is seeing
Question 16. The bomb went off, and everyone in the hall _______ the exit in panic.
A. turned up B. broke off C. turned in D. made for
Question 17. She was utterly unaware _______ the danger lurking in the forest.
A. in B. of C. about D. with
Question 18. It never _______ my mind that he is not honest to me.
A. crosses B. takes C. enters D. happens
Question 19. I’m not _______ arguing with him. It will be a waste of time because he never
listens to anyone’s opinion.
A. on account of B. on the point of C. in the sense of D. in favor of
Question 20. Atomic bombs largely wiped out the cities of Hiroshima and Nagasaki.
A. destroyed B. contributed C. dedicated D. supplied
Question 21. Halsey invited Suga to collaborate on the new record.
A. resist B. fight C. confront D. participate
Question 22. Please sign here to confirm your reservation.
A. assert B. deny C. recall D. avoid
Question 23. The primary cause of species extinction is the destruction of habitat by human
activities.
A. main B. supplementary C. original D. inferior
Question 24. Lisa is thanking Ben for his Christmas present.
Lisa: “Thanks for the book. I’ve been looking for it for months.”
Ben: “_______”
A. You can say that again. B. I’m glad you like it.
C. Thank you for looking for it. D. I like reading books.
Question 25. Daisy: “Listen, I am having a party next weekend. Do you want to come?”
Joe: “_______ What time does it start?”
A. I don’t like to party. B. Sorry. I’m busy then.
C. I can’t agree with you more. D. Sure, I’d love to.

Deserts are hot, dry places made up mostly of sand, rock, and mountains. In general,
deserts are defined as areas (26) _______ more water evaporates in the air than falls to the ground
as rain.
Even in these harsh and forbidding conditions, few deserts are completely barren. There
are plants and animals that have (27) _______ to survive in this habitat. Plants often have thin,
tough leaves or (28) _______ stems (like cactus) to store water, and some remain dormant during
dry times, only coming to life when one of the brief rainstorms comes along. Animals survive in
deserts by living underground or resting in burrows during the heat of the day. Some creatures
get the moisture they need from their food, (29) _______ they don’t need to drink much water, if
any. (30) _______ live along the edges of deserts, where there are more plants and shelter.
Question 26. A. where B. when C. which D. who
Question 27. A. adopted B. adapted C. learned D. made
Question 28. A. juicy B. delicious C. armed D. succulent
Question 29. A. because B. although C. so D. but
Question 30. A. Others B. Other C. Another D. The other
Scientists have looked at the relationship between violent films and children’s behaviour for
years. They are now studying the effect of computer games on children. Lyn Hender, senior
lecturer in educational psychology, focuses on how these games influence the way teenagers
think. She looked at thirteen and fourteen-year-old students playing fantasy games on computers.
She found that both weak and strong students clearly used complex thinking skills. “I think we
never really see the advantages of such games in education. Parents and teachers do not think of
these as being educationally useful,” Dr. Hender said. “I think we only see the aggression and
violence in them. Of course, some games are like that. But the majority are non-violent games that
are good for developing the mind.” The students played a game called “Get The Money,” in
which a group has to make money in various ways. For this game you need to think in almost the
same way that you would in a sports game. “This is not an easy game… actually; you have to use
logic as well as changing how you think.” Dr. Hender stated. Teachers were surprised to see that
teenagers whom they thought were weak students were as successful as their stronger classmates.
Sometimes they were even better. “One weaker student completed a complex card game in which
you had about nine different things to remember”, Dr. Hender said. “I discovered she did it very
easily, but some of the students I thought were strong had problems. I found that none of the
students had any problems concentrating for a long time. They were determined to understand

the game and get it right. Dr. Hender concluded that the games used the same sort of strategies
that were very valuable in classrooms. Teachers could try to make use of these games and design
tasks based on them for students in class. “Computers are not just a home leisure thing”, she said.
Question 31. According to the passage, which of the following is Dr. Lyn Hender mainly
interested in?
A. How films cause children to be violent.
B. How computer games affect the minds of the young.
C. How little research exists on computer games.
D. How to compare computer games and films.
Question 32. According to Dr. Hender, weaker students are _______.
A. just as good at the game B. able to concentrate better
C. good at card games D. able to keep in mind nine things at once
Question 33. The word “They” refers to _______.
A. scientists B. films C. children D. relationship
Question 34. According to the passage, “Get The Money”_______.
A. is sold as a sports game B. tells children that earning money is good
C. helps children understand the value of money D. helps children think in different ways
Question 35. Which best served as the title for the passage?
A. An Important Finding on Computer Games
B. Dr. Hender and Ways to Play Computer Games
C. The Relationship between Computer Games and Children
D. Weak Students Play Computer Games Better
Southern bluefin tuna is the most popular variety of tuna out of all the species available
on the market. It is in high demand for sashimi, particularly in Japan. Bluefin tunas sell for up to
hundreds of thousands of dollars for an individual fish, and the Australian southern bluefin tuna
industry worth over $100 million annually. With all of this in account, the pressure is on for this
critically endangered fish.
As the fish migrate vast distances, they swim into areas that are managed by a number of
different countries, of which Australia is one. As such, southern bluefin tuna are managed by a
collaboration of nations. As a result of their migration route, different countries pick off the fish
as they come within reach of a coastline. The Commission for the Conservation of Southern
Bluefin Tuna (CCSBT) allocates what each nation can take from the stock, and Australia currently
has access to around 4,200 tonnes of fish per year.
More than 95% of southern bluefin tuna are caught as juveniles in the Great Australian
Bight before being fattened up in sea cages and exported to Japan. Targeting large numbers of
juvenile, pre-spawning fish means it is extremely difficult to rebuild future stock.
Recreational fishers also target southern bluefin tuna. In 2012, the Victorian Government
published the first estimate of recreational take. They found that during a five-month period in

2011, around 19,700 fish were caught and retained, which is about 240 tonnes of fish. Technically,
this catch should be included in the total amount of fish the whole of Australia is allowed to
extract by CCSBT. However, it remains to be seen how Australia will justify catching over its
allocation.
Question 36. According to the passage, southern bluefin tuna _______.
A. is mainly used to make expensive sashimi in Japan
B. has lost its market value due to its critical condition
C. has become more common in Australia than in Japan
D. is endangered because of its high value in the market
Question 37. What does the word “annually” in the first paragraph mean?
A. every day B. every year C. every season D. every month
Question 38. The word “vast” in the 2nd paragraph is closest in meaning to _______.
A. enormous B. restricted C. random D. unpredictable
Question 39. What is the main function of the CCSBT?
A. It decides the amount of bluefin tuna a country in the migration route can take.
B. It redirects the migration route of bluefin tuna to limit the amount of fish caught.
C. It restricts certain countries from catching bluefin tuna in the migration route.
D. It helps bluefin tuna to reproduce more effectively in the wild environment.
Question 40. Which can be inferred from the 3rd paragraph?
A. Bluefin tuna can reproduce quickly if we stop catching the young ones on a large scale.
B. Catching young bluefin tuna is pointless because it brings no real economic benefits.
C. The number of bluefin tuna will decline in the future as a result of targeting young ones.
D. Young bluefin tuna will be consumed directly after being caught from the ocean.
Question 41. According to the last paragraph, in 2012 _______.
A. CCSBT had extended the limit of catching bluefin tuna for Australia
B. the amount of bluefin tuna caught for recreational purpose was released
C. a report revealed that Australia had caught more than the allowed amount
D. Catching bluefin tuna for recreational fishing was made illegal by CCSBT
Question 42. What is the primary focus of the passage?
A. The solution to the critical condition of southern bluefin tuna.
B. How southern bluefin tuna is threatened by human activities.
C. The reason why southern bluefin tuna is so expensive.
D. International movements to conserve southern bluefin tuna.
Question 43. I will give everyone in the class a pair of scissor for the crafting class.
A. everyone B. a pair C. scissor D. crafting
Question 44. You and I are going to took part in a game show called “Family Feud.”
A. are B. going C. took D. game show
Question 45. These days, it’s normal for students to take pictures of the lessons instead of write

them.
A. normal B. take pictures C. instead D. write
Question 46. We will organize a small party to congratulate you on your victory.
A. Your victory makes us celebrate a small party.
B. A small party will be held to congratulate you on your victory.
C. Although you have won the victory, the party for it will be small..
D. Since the victory is small, we will celebrate a party.
Question 47. Maths is easy and English is easy too.
A. Both Maths and English are not easy. B. Maths isn’t easy but English is easy.
C. English is easy and so is Maths. D. Maths is easier than English.
Question 48. My mom wants to cook for us because we will have a feast this evening.
A. Owning to our having a feast this evening, my mom wants to cook for us.
B. This evening we will have a feast so my mom wants to cook for us.
C. This evening we will have a feast so that my mom wants to cook for us.
D. For this feast, my mom doesn’t cook anything this evening.
Question 49. People will be able to work from home. They may still choose to go to work.
A. People will be able to work from home; therefore, they may still choose to go to work.
B. People will be able to work from home; however, they may still choose to go to work.
C. People will be able to work from home; so, they may still choose to go to work.
D. People will be able to work from home; although, they may still choose to go to work.
Question 50. Jack had better stop squandering his money. He’ll end up in debt.
A. Jack had better stop squandering his money, if he’ll end up in debt.
B. Jack had better stop squandering his money, in case he’ll end up in debt.
C. Jack had better stop squandering his money, unless he’ll end up in debt.
D. Jack had better stop squandering his money, otherwise he’ll end up in debt.
----------THE END---------

Question 1. A. pure B. burning C. cure D. durable
Question 2. A. agencies B. medicine C. species D. circle
Question 3. A. homesickness B. mosquito C. statesmanship D. weightlessness
Question 4. A. discourage B. contrary C. architect D. televise
Question 5. _______ she cause any problems, _______ me immediately.
A. If/contact B. If/ contacts C. If/ will contact D. Should/ contact
Question 6. You ought to listen to your father, _______?
A. ought you B. shouldn’t you C. should you D. oughtn’t you
Question 7. She had an undergraduate degree in _______.
A. psychologically B. psychologist C. psychological D. psychology
Question 8. His sister, Lilia, is _______ to have made a fortune by selling hand-made ornaments.
A. said B. saying C. be said D. to be said
Question 9. This is a picture of a _______ cab.
A. London common black B. London black common
C. black common London D. common black London
Question 10. The more you learn, _______.
A. the wiser you are B. the more wise you are
C. you are the wiser D. the wiser are you
Question 11. When Mrs. Mallard _______ home from her vacation, she found that somebody
_______ her precious antique vase.
A. had come/ stole B. came/ stole
C. had come/ had stolen D. came/ had stolen
Question 12. Fast food is very popular. _______, a diet consisting of burgers, pizzas, and fried
chicken is not very healthy.
A. Consequently B. Moreover C. Unfortunately D. On the contrary
Question 13. When we arrived at the cabin, we saw signs of someone _______ there before us.
A. was being B. had been C. was D. having been
Question 14. I usually go to school on foot, but on rainy days I _______ to traveling by bus.

A. would rather B. resort C. prefer D. opt
Question 15. While our house _______ tomorrow, I _______ to the city center to find some new
carpets.
A. will be repainted/ travel B. is being repainted/ will be travelling
C. has been repainted/ am traveling D. was repainted/ have been travelling
Question 16. Would you like to live _______ a remote island?
A. in B. at C. on D. over
Question 17. I was a little taken _______ at the directness of her question, as I didn’t know what
to say to her.
A. down B. on to C. aback D. in
Question 18. For a while, our business was on the _______. We couldn’t sell anything, and
many of our workers had left, too.
A. ropes B. strings C. horizon D. air
Question 19. We still have plenty of time, so there’s _______ to hurry.
A. no purpose B. no need C. unnecessary D. impossible
Question 20. There has been a significant increase in the number of crimes reported this year.
A. substantial B. arrogant C. hesitant D. necessary
Question 21. I checked the form carefully but didn’t notice the mistake.
A. attentively B. neglectfully C. tediously D. faultlessly
Question 22. Our meeting at the restaurant yesterday was inadvertent.
A. unplanned B. deliberate C. accidental D. unintentional
Question 23. Alice is very amused by Jack’s comments.
A. frightened B. saddened C. jolted D. astonished
Question 24. Bob is asking Carl about the company extension’s plans.
Bob: “Did Peter show you the plans for the company extension?”
Carl: “_______”
A. He wanted me to work more hours. B. He couldn’t extend the deadline.
C. He didn’t know what to do. D. He said they weren’t ready yet.
Question 25. Kim is telling her father about her plan.
Kim: “Dad, I’ll take part in the beauty contest.”
Dad: “No, you won’t. _______”
A. End of story. B. You’re not the worst one.
C. I’m terribly sorry about that contestant. D. Good luck!

Synchronised swimming or (26) _______ swimming used to be known as 'water ballet'.

This is because the routines are essentially a series of athletic movements choreographed to a
piece of chosen music, so synchronised swimming is like a staged ballet (27) _______ is in the
water.
Synchronised swimming is highly challenging, requiring ease of movements and the
ability to stay upside down in water.(28) _______ , it is said to be as hard to practice as it is
beautiful to watch. A test even for strong swimmers, the sport requires advanced water skills,
strength, flexibility, endurance, grace, precise timing, artistry and exceptional breath control.
There are a (29) _______ of competitive categories in synchronised swimming: solo, duet,
trio, team, combination and figures. There are two categories available to compete in the SEA
Games. The first one is duet and (30) _______ is team.
Question 26. A. contemporary B. artistic C. underwater D. stimulant
Question 27. A. who B. when C. which D. where
Question 28. A. Therefore B. However C. So D. Because
Question 29. A. various B. variety C. abundance D. minority
Question 30. A. others B. the other C. other D. another
Everybody likes to feel that she or he is special. Sadly, many of us grow up believing that
we're not special at all. We wish that we could be more attractive or better at sports. We wish we
had more money or more beautiful clothes. Like the Tin Man, the Scarecrow, or the Cowardly
Lion from The Wizard of Oz, we think we're not good enough just as we are. In the film, The Tin
Man wishes he had a heart. The Scarecrow wishes that he had a brain, and the Lion wants
courage. Eventually, each of them realizes that he already has what he wants.
Nearly all parents want us to be the best we can be. They occasionally attempt to encourage
us to do better by comparing us to others. They mean well, but the message we usually get is that
we're not good enough. We start to believe that the only way we can be special is by being better
than somebody else, but we are frequently disappointed. There will always be somebody out
there that is better than we are at something. There are a lot of people around who may not be as
intelligent as we are but are better at sports. Or they may not be as handsome, but they have more
money. It is unthinkable for us to be better than everybody else all the time. Like the Tin Man,
the Scarecrow, and the Cowardly Lion, we all need what we believe will make us better people.
What we don't understand is that we already have inside us the very things that we look for
in life. Our parents often forget to tell us that we are special, that we are good enough just as we
are. Perhaps no one told them when they were growing up, or maybe they just forgot. Either way,
it's up to us to remind them that each of us, in our own way, is special. What we are is enough!
Question 31. Which of the following is the writer's main aim in writing the text?
A. To talk about your family problems

B. To explain the importance of being yourself
C. To describe how intelligent we are
D. To suggest how people can change their way of life
Question 32. According to the passage, being special is _______.
A. being better than somebody else B. being handsome and rich at the same time
C. being intelligent and playing sports well D. being good enough just as we are
Question 33. The phrase “unthinkable” in the second paragraph mostly means _______.
A. implausible B. conceivable C. tenable D. unreasonable
Question 34. What does the writer say about our parents?
A. They always tell us that we are good enough.
B. They never forget to tell us that we are special.
C. They always tell us that we are special.
D. They frequently forget to tell us that we are special.
Question 35. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. We should try to be as good as other people to be special.
B. Comparing ourselves to others is always good.
C. We should learn to accept ourselves and find out our strengths.
D. If you are intelligent then you have to play sports well at the same time.
Despite the fact that Jules Verne had a clear idea of the story line and characters when he
started writing Twenty Thousand Leagues Under the Sea, there existed two quite different
manuscripts of the novel. Verne finished the first one in 1866 and the second – which has become
the definitive version – in 1870. There are marked differences between the two manuscripts, with
characters changed and whole passages altered. It is believed that Verne introduced many of the
changes based on suggestions (or some might say interference) from his publisher, Pierre-Jules
Hetzel. The first English translation of the novel appeared in 1873. However, the translator, Lewis
Page Mercier, introduced many errors, sometimes changing the meaning of the original. He also
cut the text by almost a quarter. Despite its faults, it remained the standard English translation
for more than 100 years.
Verne was fascinated by the sea and spent a lot of time on boats, where he found inspiration
for his novels. Verne was inspired not only by the sea but also by a visit to Scotland in 1859. As a
result, several Scottish landmarks found their way into the novel. For example, the underwater
mountain that Captain Nemo and Dr. Aronnax climb to get a view of the sunken Atlantis is said
to be modeled on Arthur’s Seat in Edinburgh. It was George Sand who planted the initial idea
for the novel, suggesting to Verne that the sea was the one area where his scientific knowledge
and imagination had yet been put to use. The novel also shows clears influences from Verne’s
predecessors and contemporaries, including James Fenimore Cooper, Théophile Gautier, Victor
Hugo and Herman Melville – as well as the ancients Homer and Plato.

When Verne handed the finished manuscript of Twenty Thousand Leagues Under the Sea
to his publisher, Hetzel was over the moon with it. Both critics and the public agreed that this
was the best work Verne had ever written. The first edition sold out within a week.
Twenty Thousand Leagues has had several screen adaptations and has also been turned
into an animated picture. Probably best-known is the Disney Studios version from 1954, a live-
action Technicolor film with James Mason and Kirk Douglas as the main characters. However,
most film adaptations diverged from the book in that they decided to give Captain Nemo a
defined nationality – either as a European or Indian – as well as a backstory that would explain
his hatred of humanity.
Question 36. Why did Jules Verne make a lot of changes to the first manuscript of the novel
“Twenty Thousand Leagues Under the Sea”?
A. He might have received some suggestions from his publisher.
B. He wanted to have more impression on the publisher.
C. He did not want his novel to be influenced by the publisher.
D. He had some argument with the publisher about the characters.
Question 37. What is TRUE about the first English translation of the novel?
A. It was much longer and more complicated than the original one.
B. It contained many errors because the translator didn’t understand it.
C. It had to be translated again to reduce the number of errors.
D. It contained too many errors compared to the original one.
Question 38. What was the result of Verne’s visit to Scotland in 1859?
A. He discovered many new structures that no one had seen before.
B. He drew a map of the places he had visited in his novels.
C. He put his version of some well-known locations from Scotland into the novel.
D. He used the name of the landmarks to create his characters.
Question 39. The word “initial” in the 2nd paragraph is closest in meaning to _______.
A. decisive B. original C. ultimate D. final
Question 40. What does the writer mean when he writes “Hetzel was over the moon with it”?
A. Hetzel found the finished manuscript interesting to read.
B. Hetzel was disappointed by the manuscript.
C. Hetzel had too much expectation about the finished manuscript.
D. Hetzel was very pleased with the finished manuscript.
Question 41. What can be inferred about the character Captain Nemo in the novel?
A. He was an Indian who lived in Europe.
B. He had a very deep backstory and a unique personality.
C. His hatred of humanity was not explained at all.
D. He was very afraid of humanity and tried to avoid it.
Question 42. What is the passage mainly about?
A. Criticisms and discussions about Jules Verne’s novel “Twenty Thousand Leagues Under the
Sea”

B. Why the ocean became Jules Verne’s inspiration to write the novel “Twenty Thousand Leagues
Under the Sea”
C. How Jules Verne’s famous novel “Twenty Thousand Leagues Under the Sea” was written
and published
D. The public opinions and feelings after reading Jules Verne’s novel “Twenty Thousand
Leagues Under the Sea”
Question 43. If you want to apply for a honours programme, at least you have to be in the top 3
of the class.
A. for B. a C. have D. top 3
Question 44. Physics, to me, is one of a hardest subjects in high school.
A. Physics B. to me C. is D. a
Question 45. During quarantine, I usually do physical activities to keep myself from being active.
A. quarantine B. physical C. from D. active
Question 46. Students borrow a lot of cram books during the exam week.
A. A lot of cram books are borrowed by students during the exam week.
B. Students have the tendency not to borrow any cram books during the exam week.
C. Books for cramming aren’t borrowed a lot by students during the exam week.
D. Students cram a lot but not during the exam week.
Question 47. “I will go to the supermarket in 5 minutes,” said Jane.
A. Jane said that she would have gone to the supermarket in 5 minutes.
B. Jane said that she would go to the supermarket in 5 minutes.
C. Jane said that she will go to the supermarket in 5 minutes.
D. Jane said that she would go to the supermarket in less than 5 minutes.
Question 48. In Germany, stores never open on Saturdays and Sundays.
A. Stores only opens on weekdays in Germany.
B. If you want to go shopping in Germany, you have to go on the weekends.
C. The German never shop on the weekdays.
D. In Germany, stores can open either on Saturdays or Sundays.
Question 49. Maggie is quitting her current job next month. She wants to devote more time to
writing her books.
A. Maggie is quitting her current job next month in case she can devote more time to writing her
books.
B. Maggie is quitting her current job next month until she can devote more time to writing her
books.

C. Maggie is quitting her current job next month in order that she can devote more time to writing
her books.
D. Maggie is quitting her current job next month whenever she can devote more time to writing
her books.
Question 50. Fred stayed in bed too long. He was late for school.
A. Fred stayed in bed too long and, as a result, was late for school.
B. Fred stayed in bed too long and, however, was late for school.
C. Fred stayed in bed too long and, in addition, was late for school.
D. Fred stayed in bed too long and, even though, was late for school.
----------THE END---------

Question 1. A. campus B. cupboard C. diploma D. therapy
Question 2. A. increase B. absent C. subside D. clumsy
Question 3. A. habitual B. approximate C. accommodate D. aspiration
Question 4. A. tenant B. fortunate C. interval D. kangaroo
Question 5. In most _______ developing countries in Asia, about 20% of _______ population has
difficulty entering higher education.
A. the-a B. the-Ø C. Ø-the D. Ø-Ø
Question 6. The government called for an update of the safety _______ for the new power plant.
A. regulate B. regulative C. regulatory D. regulations
Question 7. Last year, Carl’s company made a _______of two million dollars.
A. win B. gain C. salary D. profit
Question 8. _______, these cows were then used for meat.
A. Having first domesticated for milk production
B. Having been first domesticated for milk production
C. Because they had been first domesticated for milk production
D. Although they had first domesticated for milk production
Question 9. I’d rather she _______ her little boys come into my room.
A. won’t let B. didn’t let C. don’t let D. aren’t letting
Question 10. “Hello there. Can I ask where the _______ office of Hershey is located?”
A. leading B. chief C. head D. summit
Question 11. We are going to open a new gym so we have to import _______ from abroad.
A. a great deal of sports equipment B. many sports equipment
C. a sports equipment D. a few sports equipment
Question 12. Some archaeologists believe that the Great Flood could have _______ many
animals in the past.
A. laid off B. put aside C. taken down D. wiped out
Question 13. _______, the villa has an incredible view of the ocean.
A. Locating near the coast B. Despite location near the coast

C. Though located near the coast D. In spite having location near the coast
Question 14. Women no longer have to do stay at home to look after their families, _______?
A. are they B. aren’t they C. do they D. don’t they
Question 15. My friends at the new school were not very friendly towards me, in fact there was
a distinctly _______ atmosphere.
A. hostile B. offensive C. rude D. abrupt
Question 16. Is that the girl _______?
A. whom you lent the money B. whom did you lend the money
C. you lent the money D. you lent the money to
Question 17. _______ Kelly’s lack of experience, her success in winning the contract was
surprising.
A. By virtue of B. With regard to
C. With a view to D. In recognition of
Question 18. Not only _______ the exam but he was also the best student in his class.
A. he passes B. has he passed C. he has passed D. did he pass
Question 19. Kelsey is so _______ that he never breaks the rules of etiquette.
A. rough and ready B. high and dry C. prim and proper D. sick and tired
Question 20. I won’t have any milk, thanks. It will spoil my appetite.
A. ruin B. fix C. flood D. lose
Question 21. The increasing demand of security has put us all under surveillance.
A. test B. attack C. control D. examination
Question 22. The difference in performance between the two computers is negligible.
A. considerable B. minor C. scarce D. unimportant
Question 23. His rude behaviour towards the Asian girl yesterday at school was contemptible.
A. pitiful B. praiseworthy C. sincere D. artificial
Question 24.
Daniel: “Amazing! You have done a good job!”
Kenny: “_______”
A. I really don’t like your compliment.
B. Your compliment is so encouraging.
C. You will be disappointed!
D. Beautifully!
Question 25. Amy: “Don’t forget to do as I have told you.”
May: “_______”

A. Sure, I won’t. B. Yes, I will.
C. No, thanks. D. No, I will remember.
LANGUAGE
Language is the normal way humans communicate. Human language has syntax, a set
of rules for connecting words together to make statements and questions. Language can also be
changed, by adding new words, for example, to describe new things. Other animals may (26)
________ a set of calls which their predecessors have left. Language may be done by speech or by
writing or by moving the hands to make (27) ________. It follows that language is not just any
way of communicating. Even some human communication is not a language, like (28) _________
language for example.
Chinese is the language with the most native speakers in the world, but Chinese is not
really a language. It is a close family of dialects, some of (29) ________ are as different as Romance
languages are from one another. English is often called "the international language", or lingua
franca. It is the main second language of the world and the international language of science,
travel, technology, business, diplomacy, and entertainment. French had a similar (30) _________
until the 20th century, and other languages had it at other times.
Question 26. A. inherit B. achieve C. grant D. take over
Question 27. A. signs B. signalise C. signatures D. significances
Question 28. A. anti-verbal B. deverbalized C. ill-verbal D. non-verbal
Question 29. A. them B. that C. which D. those
Question 30. A. status B. character C. quality D. dignity
One way of training for your future occupation in Germany is by pursuing a dual vocational
training programme. Such programmes offer plenty of opportunity for on-the-job training and
work experience. Programmes usually last between two and three and a half years and comprise
theoretical as well as practical elements. You will spend one or two days a week, or several weeks
at once, at a vocational school where you will acquire the theoretical knowledge that you will
need in your future occupation. The rest of the time will be spent at a company. There you get to
apply your newly acquired knowledge in practice, for example by learning to operate machinery.
You will get to know what your company does, learn how it operates and find out if you can see
yourself working there after completing your training.
This combination of theory and practice gives you a real head start into your job: by the
time you have completed your training, you will not only have the required technical knowledge,
but you will also have hands-on experience in your job. There are around 350 officially recognised
training programmes in Germany, so chances are good that one of them will suit your interests

and talents. You can find out which one that might be by visiting one of the jobs and vocational
training fairs which are organised in many German cities at different times in the year.
Employment prospects for students who have completed a dual vocational training
programme are very good. This is one of the reasons why this kind of training is very popular
with young Germans: around two thirds of all students leaving school go on to start a vocational
training programme.
(Source: http://www.make-it-in-germany.com)
Question 31. The word “on-the-job” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.

A. training about the job B. learning about the job
C. learning and working at the same time D. happening while at work
Question 32. According to paragraph 2, what can you attain after a dual vocational training?
A. Practical experience B. Only technical knowledge
C. Only theoretical knowledge D. Any job that you want
Question 33. Which of the following is NOT true about training programmes in Germany?
A. You need to spend around two to three and a half years to complete a programme.
B. The programmes provide both theoretical and practical knowledge.
C. You will only spend several weeks at a company to apply your newly acquired theoretical
knowledge.
D. After the training, you can find out if you see yourself working at that company in the
future.
Question 34. The word “this” in paragraph 3 refers to _______.
A. theoretical knowledge B. on-the-job
C. dual vocational training D. technical knowledge
Question 35. What is one of the reasons why dual vocational training is very popular with
young Germans?
A. There are plenty of job opportunities for those who have finished training.
B. They can easily get accepted into the college they want after the training.
C. They can reduce their time spent at university.
D. There are allowances for those who participate in the training.
A useful definition of an air pollutant is a compound added directly or indirectly by
humans to the atmosphere in such quantities as to affect humans, animals, vegetation, or
materials adversely. Air pollution requires a very flexible definition that permits continuous
change. When the first air pollution laws were established in England in the fourteenth century,
air pollutants were limited to compounds that could be seen or smelled a far cry from the
extensive list of harmful substances known today. As technology has developed and knowledge
of the health aspects of various chemicals has increased, the list of air pollutants has lengthened.
In the future, even water vapor might be considered an air pollutant under certain conditions.

Many of the more important air pollutants, such as sulfur oxides, carbon monoxide, and
nitrogen oxides, are found in nature. As the Earth developed, the concentrations of these
pollutants were altered by various chemical reactions; they became components in
biogeochemical cycle. These serve as an air purification scheme by allowing the compounds to
move from the air to the water or soil on a global basis, nature's output of these compounds
dwarfs that resulting from human activities. However, human production usually occurs in a
localized area, such as a city.
In this localized regions, human output may be dominant and may temporarily overload
the natural purification scheme of the cycle. The result is an increased concentration of noxious
chemicals in the air. The concentrations at which the adverse effects appear will be greater than
the concentrations that the pollutants would have in the absence of human activities. The actual
concentration needn't be large for a substance to be a pollutant; in fact, the numerical value tells
us little until we know how much of an increase of this represents over the concentration that
would occur naturally in the area. For example, sulfur dioxide has detectable health effects at
0.08 parts per million (ppm), which is about 400 times its natural level. Carbon monoxide,
however, has a natural level of 0.1 ppm and is not usually a pollutant until its level reaches about
15 ppm.
Question 36. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The economic impact of air pollution
B. What constitutes an air pollutant
C. How much harm air pollutants can cause
D. The effects of compounds added to the atmosphere
Question 37. The word “adversely” in the 1st paragraph is closest in meaning to _______.
A. negatively B. quickly C. admittedly D. considerably
Question 38. What can be inferred from the first paragraph?
A. Water vapor is an air pollutant in localized areas.
B. Most air pollutants today can be seen or smelled.
C. The definition of air pollution will continue to change.
D. A substance only becomes an air pollutant in cities.
Question 39. Why can natural pollutants play an important role in controlling air pollution?
A. They function as a part of an air purification process.
B. They occur in greater quantities than other pollutants.
C. They are less harmful to living beings than other pollutants.
D. They have existed since the Earth developed.
Question 40. According to the passage, which of the following is true about human-generated air
pollution in localized regions?
A. It can be dwarfed by nature’s output of pollutants in the localized regions.
B. It can overwhelm the natural system that removes pollutants.
C. It will damage areas outside the localized regions.
D. It will react harmfully with naturally occurring pollutants.

Question 41. The word “noxious” in the 3rd paragraph is closest in meaning to _______.
A. harmful B. noticeable C. extensive D. weak
Question 42. According to the passage, when is the numerical value of the concentration level
of a substance useful?
A. Only if the other substances in the area are known
B. When it is in a localized area
C. Only when the naturally occurring level is also known
D. If it can be calculated quickly
Question 43. Like many other boys, James likes soccer, video games and eat.
A. other B. soccer C. games D. eat
Question 44. In the past, people use to send messages by taking advantage of pigeons’ natural
instincts.
A. use B. send C. messages D. natural instincts
Question 45. The Civil Rights Movement is based on the fundamental principle that no matter
who are you and where you are from, we need to have mutual respect.
A. principle B. are you C. you are D. mutual respect
Question 46. You would understand her feelings if you were her.
A. You should put yourself in her shoes to understand her feelings.
B. You should put your shirt on her feelings to understand.
C. You shouldn’t put yourself in her place to understand her feelings.
D. You should put your thinking cap on to understand her feelings.
Question 47. You can choose one of these two shirts in this sector
A. Neither of the shirts can be chosen in this sector.
B. You can choose both of the shirts in this sector.
C. You can choose every shirt in this sector.
D. Either of the two shirts in this sector can be chosen.
Question 48. Can you speak English well enough to work as an interpreter?
A. Is your English good enough in order for you to work as an interpreter?
B. Is your English so good that you can work as an interpreter?
C. Are you capable of speaking English well enough to work as an interpreter?
D. Do you have enough English to work as an interpreter?
Question 49. They had just moved in the house. They had the garage repaired soon after that.
A. Before they moved in the house, they had had the garage repaired.
B. They had no sooner moved in the house than they had the garage repaired.

C. No sooner they had moved in the house than they had the garage repaired.
D. They had to repair the garage soon after they had moved in the house.
Question 50. The training course is too expensive. I cannot afford it.
A. The training course is such expensive that I cannot afford it.
B. The training course is too expensive for me to attend.
C. It was such an expensive course that I couldn’t afford it.
D. The training course is not enough cheap for me to attend.
----------THE END---------

Question 1. A. coverage B. massage C. heritage D. message
Question 2. A. radar B. radiate C. radiant D. radical
Question 3. A. military B. marginalize C. ecology D. incubator
Question 4. A. vanish B. earache C. empty D. deceased
Question 5. I’m going to have a holiday for two weeks, so I’ll be leaving everything _______.
A. on your guards B. up to your eyes
C. in your capable hands D. under the care of you
Question 6. This morning I got the bus to work because I’m having my car _______ at the moment.
A. serviced B. to service C. to be serviced D. servicing
Question 7. Their service was terrible, but the scrumptious dishes _______ our disappointment.
A. came down with B. made up for C. got through to D. faced up to
Question 8. Rowling’s always wanted to get to the top of her writing career, _______?
A. isn’t she B. hasn’t her C. has she D. hasn’t she
Question 9. It is essential that Barbara _______Ford of the meeting tonight.
A. will remind B. remind C. reminds D. must remind
Question 10. The higher the sea level is, _______.
A. the most frequent natural disasters are B. the most frequently natural disasters occur
C. the more frequent are natural disasters D. the more frequently natural disasters
occur
Question 11. The storm causing flooding and landslides in Quang Binh prompted the government
to _______ hundreds of people from coastal towns.
A. evacuate B. demolish C. contribute D. evaporate
Question 12. Barry is so intelligent that he will have no _______ the high-level test.
A. difficulties to pass B. difficult to pass
C. difficulty passing D. difficulties of passing
Question 13. Ron was _______ for breath because the room was filled with smoke.
A. suffocating B. inhaling C. wheezing D. gasping
Question 14. You _______ so formally at the meeting yesterday. Everyone was casually dressed.

A. mustn’t have dressed B. needn’t have dressed
C. couldn’t have dressed D. didn’t need to dress
Question 15. Not until a dog is several weeks old _______ to hear clearly.
A. it begins B. and begin C. is it begin D. does it begin
Question 16. She doesn’t remember _______ any gift a few days before going on holiday.
A. to receive B. to have received C. received D. receiving
Question 17. Seeing that I didn’t pay attention to him, Ben asked me _______ I was looking at.
A. when B. what C. why D. whose
Question 18. To the best of my _______, that professor’s name was Huron Dash.
A. thinking B. mind C. remembrance D. recollection
Question 19. Garvin is boasting again. He is always saying that he is the best soccer player in this
city. He is _______.
A. holding his tongue B. biting my tongue
C. blowing his own trumpet D. pulling my leg
Question 20. The criminal performed 100 hours of community service work to atone for his
crime.
A. make out B. censure C. compensate D. sacrifice
Question 21. The fear of falling behind others provides the incentive to work harder.
A. purpose B. discouragement C. drawback D. encouragement
Question 22. Output consists of both exports and sales on the domestic market.
A. local B. international C. internal D. national
Question 23. I found her excuse very hard to swallow.
A. believable B. forgivable C. acceptable D. understandable
Question 24.
Monica: “This concert is so crowded! I can’t see the singer from here.”
Dennis: “_______”
A. Neither can’t I. B. So I do. C. Neither I can. D. I can’t, either.
Question 25.
Robin: ““I’m setting out on a long journey. Could you fill it up please?”
Brian: “_______”
A. Sure. Shall I check the oil as well? B. Not at all. I’ll fill the oil for you.
C. Certainly. My job is to fill in the application. D. Where? Of course not.

Mary Teresa Bojaxhiu (26 August 1910 – 5 September 1997), commonly known as Mother
Teresa and honoured in the Catholic Church as Saint Teresa of Calcutta, was an Albanian-
Indian Roman Catholic nun and missionary. She was born in Skopje (now the capital of North
Macedonia), then part of the Kosovo Vilayet of the Ottoman Empire. After living in Skopje for
eighteen years, she moved to Ireland and then to India, where she lived for most of her life.
In 1950, Teresa founded the Missionaries of Charity, a Roman Catholic religious
congregation that had over 4,500 nuns and was active in 133 countries in 2012. The congregation
manages homes for people who are dying of HIV/AIDS, leprosy and tuberculosis. It also
runs soup kitchens, dispensaries, mobile clinics, children's and family counselling programmes,
as well as orphanages and schools. Members take vows of chastity, poverty, and obedience, and
also profess a fourth vow – to give "wholehearted free service to the poorest of the poor."
Teresa received a number of honors, including the 1962 Ramon Magsaysay Peace Prize and
1979 Nobel Peace Prize. She was canonised on 4 September 2016, and the anniversary of her death
(5 September) is her feast day.
A controversial figure during her life and after her death, Teresa was admired by many for
her charitable work. She was praised and criticized on various counts, such as for her views on
abortion and contraception, and was criticized for poor conditions in her houses for the dying.
Her authorized biography was written by Navin Chawla and published in 1992, and she has been
the subject of films and other books. On 6 September 2017, Teresa and St. Francis Xavier were
named co-patrons of the Roman Catholic Archdiocese of Calcutta.
Question 26. Where did Mother Teresa spend most of her childhood?
A. Rome B. Skopje C. India D. Ireland
Question 27. How old was Mother Teresa when the Missionaries of Charity was founded?
A. 30 B. 40 C. 50 D. 60
Question 28. Which is NOT TRUE about the Missionaries of Charity?
A. Its members swear to keep their purity and lead a poor life.
B. It continued to carry out its mission after Mother Teresa had passed away.
C. It only supports people who are in critical health conditions.
D. The congregation provides the poor with healthcare and nutrition.
Question 29. The word "controversial" in the last paragraph means ___________.
A. encouraging love and care B. causing trouble and difficulty
C. encouraging hospitality and kindness D. causing disagreement and argument
Question 30. What can be inferred from the last paragraph?
A. Mother Teresa was criticised because the sick were not treated as they should be.
B. Her point of view about abortion and contraception did not face any criticism.
C. She was not praised until years later after her death and canonisation.
D. All of her work did not receive any negative feedbacks and opinions.

BIRTHDAY
Birthday is the day when a person was (31) _______. In many places, on a person's birthday,
he or she celebrates with friends and family at a party, where they eat cake or other food, and get
gifts. Many religions celebrate the birth of their founders or religious figures with special
holidays. In each country, (32) _______ there is a different version of the song call “Happy
Birthday”, they still share the same meaning as well as rhythm.
In many legal systems, the age of that newborn is 0 years old. But in Korea, they are already one
years old. This creates confusion to many people who work with Koreans because they can’t (33)
_______ the rules of calculating age. A person could be 16 in the US but 18 (34) _______ he or she
is Korean, despite being born in the same year. This is why Koreans usually tell their age by
saying the year they were born in instead of (35) _______ telling their age.
Question 31. A. bear B. bore C. bored D. born
Question 32. A. despite B. although C. because D. thereby
Question 33. A. break down B. break with C. break into D. break up
Question 34. A. when B. whether C. neither D. the fact that
Question 35. A. straight up B. downright C. open to D. frank
Ms. Nguyễn Dzoãn Cẩm Vân (born in 1954) is a famous Vietnamese culinary expert. She is
originally from Hà Nội, started her career in Hồ Chí Minh City, and currently lives in Bình Dương
Province.
Her family settled in Phú Bổn province in the Republic of Vietnam (Gia Lai province
nowadays) in the 1960s. Her father worked as a civil servant, went to work to support his wife
and children, and her mother took care of her children and bought things from the market to
cook. Later, her mother died from illness and from worrying about being poor all year round.
Born in a Buddhist family, in the 1960s and 1970s she was sent to Saigon to attend a boarding
school there. Then she became a literature teacher of Nguyễn Thượng Hiền High School, Hồ Chí
Minh City for 18 years. Because the salary of teachers is very low, she went home after teaching
at school to cook, bake, knit, sew,… to manage all jobs as long as she can earn money to support
the family.
In 1990, she took a break from her teaching to bring her youngest son to Australia to be
treated for heart disease. During her days in Australia, while caring for her child, she worked as
a tailor to earn money for her child for medical treatment, and for three years she worked at
dawn, came home late at night, and earned $6 a day.
When she returned home, she lost her job as a teacher, and her husband was unemployed;
there was a time in which she had to buy food from the market while being unable to pay for
anything, and the debt piled up because of the loan for her child's medical treatment. Thanks to
her skillful hands, she likes to do meticulous work, she taught herself to do supplementary
training, then started sewing, making cakes ... Then she asked to teach baking for the Tân Bình
Vocational Training Center. Here, she devoted herself to teaching cooking art. In 1993, Hồ Chí

Minh City Television needed an experienced teacher to teach cooking for the program "Khéo tay
hay làm" and the Center introduced her to join the program. At first, she intended not to accept
because she was very scared. Teaching to a small number of people was okay, but to teach
cooking for millions of viewers on TV would be extremely difficult. After being persuaded by
everyone, she agreed to try out a program. Unexpectedly that program has received positive
feedback from the audience.
She spent two years living and working in Beijing, China and regularly went to the United
States when she was invited to lecture by The Culinary Institute of America in California, USA.
The initial difficulty was that she was not good at English, so she taught it to herself to convey
more about Vietnamese culinary culture to foreigners. In March 2011, during the promotion of
Vietnamese cuisine in Malaysia, she conquered visitors when introducing a piece of Vietnamese
betel through the touching folk love story "The Betel and The Areca". As a promoter of
Vietnamese cuisine to the world, she always tries to help foreigners understand the subtleties in
terms of taste and cultural meaning of each Vietnamese dish. For example, in the presentation of
Vietnamese cuisine at The Culinary Institute of America in 2000, with a bottle of fish sauce, a
bottle of vinegar, a glass of lemon juice, some kumquats, onions, garlic, ginger, and some spices,...
she has turned them into 16 types of sauces to use for 16 different dishes.
Up to now, she has published about 90 cookbooks, including one in English and thousands
of hours of cooking on TV and in universities and restaurants across the country. She has also
published several memoirs and autobiography.
Question 36. The word "culinary" means ___________.
A. connected with cooking or food В. connected with teaching and training
С. connected with a society D. connected with doing different jobs
Question 37. What can be inferred about Ms. Cẩm Vân's literature teaching career?
A. She continued to work as a teacher in Australia while looking after her son.
B. In order to make ends meet, she had to take up additional work at home.
C. She went on to teach literature after she had returned home, but with lower income.
D. She stopped teaching literature because she had lost interest in the subject.
Question 38. The word "meticulous" in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to
A. fastidious В. practical С. unrealistic D. otherworldly
Question 39. According to the passage, what did Ms. Cẩm Vân do in Tân Bình Vocational
Training Center?
A. Open a small bakery В. Make cakes for trainers and students
С. Teach other people how to bake D. Do supplementary training
Question 40. Why did Ms. Cẩm Vân refuse to take part in "Khéo tay hay làm" at first?
A. She only wanted to give her tutorials to a few people
В. She thought that no one would watch the program
С. She didn't enjoy working on the television
D. She was afraid that she couldn't teach millions of TV viewers.
Question 41. What was Ms. Cẩm Vân's first challenge when she was working abroad?

A. The foreigners didn't like her
В. She couldn't teach herself an important language skill
С. She was not good at a certain language
D. She couldn't find good recipes
Question 42. What does Ms. Cẩm Vân always try to do as a promoter of Vietnamese cuisine?
A. To invent new types of sauces from different available ingredients
В. To introduce new recipes to viewers around the world and in Vietnam
С. To convey the beauty and meaning of Vietnamese cuisine to the world
D. To carry out more presentations to her foreign viewers.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of
the following questions.
Question 43. Online courses are becoming increasingly popular because of their flexibility nature
and lower costs.
A. increasingly B. because of C. flexibility D. lower
Question 44. Dũng said challenges still remained due to the impact of COVID-19 pandemic,
requiring strenuous efforts and suitable measurements from officials to achieve the highest
growth thatyear.
A. posted B. positive growth C. exports D. ensure
Question 45. E-books has become a popular means of reading, replacing the traditional ones.
A. has B. means C. replacing D. ones
Question 46. Sheila suggested going out for dinner.
A. Shelia said, “Why don’t we go out for dinner?”
B. Sheila said, “Do you want to go out for dinner?”
C. Sheila said, “Must we go out for dinner?”
D. Sheila said, “Will you go out for dinner?”
Question 47. John continued to smoke even though we advised him to quit it.
A. John ignored our advice and quitted smoking.
B. If we had advised John, he would have quitted smoking.
C. We advised him to stop smoking but he continued to do it.
D. Should he continue to smoke, contact us immediately.
Question 48. Mr. Brown bought his car 5 years ago.
A. Mr. Brown started to buy his car 5 years ago.
B. It is five years since Mr. Brown bought his car.
C. Mr. Brown has had his car for 5 years.
D. It has been 5 years when Mr. Brown bought his car.
Question 49. I didn’t finish a course on computer programming. I don’t have a good salary now.

A. If I had finished a course on computer programming, I would have a better salary now.
B. If I had finished a course on computer programming, I would have had a better salary
now.
C. If I hadn’t finished a course on computer programming, I wouldn’t have a better salary
now.
D. If I finished a course on computer programming, I would have had a better salary now.
Question 50. We’ll be late for class. Running won’t help.
A. We’ll be late for class even though we run.
B. We’ll be late for class even if we run.
C. We’ll be late for class even without we run.
D. We’ll be late for class even we run.
----------THE END---------

Question 1. A. climate B. parade C. rage D. danger
Question 2. A. inspiration B. husband C. whisper D. waste
Question 3. A. stomachache B. stationer C. typewriter D. adoration
Question 4. A. parody B. legacy C. lemonade D. quantity
Question 5. Dr. Hendricks is a person _______.
A. in that I don’t have much confidence B. whom I don’t have much confidence in
him
C. in whom I don’t have much confidence D. I don’t have much confidence
Question 6. It’s obvious that Charles has twice _______ computers.
A. more televisions than B. many as televisions as
C. as many televisions as D. as many as televisions
Question 7. Don’t spill your milkshake on the carpet, _______?
A. won’t you B. do you C. aren’t you D. will you
Question 8. Andrew was so _______ in the thriller novel that he forgot about his appointment.
A. absorbed B. attracted C. drawn D. obliged
Question 9. _______, everyone showed up on time at the year-end party last night.
A. Heavily as it rained B. As it rained heavily
C. Though it rains heavily D. In spite of it rained heavily
Question 10. The hotter the summer is, _______.
A. the most crowded the beaches get B. the most the beaches get crowded
C. the more crowded the beaches get D. the more the beaches get crowded
Question 11. It has been raining for days! I hope that when we _______ up tomorrow morning,
the sun _______.
A. wake/shines B. wake/has been shining
C. wake/will be shining D. will wake/will be shining
Question 12. There was such dense fog that Hannah couldn’t _______ the traffic.
A. break out B. make out C. keep out D. take out
Question 13. He couldn’t get a promotion due to his lack of _______ to pursue difficult tasks to

the very end.
A. obligation B. engagement C. commitment D. persuasion
Question 14. Brenda still hasn’t _______the loss of her boyfriend yet.
A. recovered B. got over C. cured D. treated
Question 15. You can find many _______ in the school’s library.
A. interesting Vietnamese old history books B. old Vietnamese interesting history books
C. interesting old Vietnamese history books D. Vietnamese interesting old history books
Question 16. Because there are so many soccer lovers, football is thought _______ in the world.
A. to have played the most popular sport B. to be the most popular sport
C. to play the most popular sport D. to have been the most popular sport
Question 17. _______ five minutes earlier, you would have got some pizza left to eat.
A. Had you arrived B. If you arrived
C. Were you arrived D. If you hadn’t arrived
Question 18. ________ your ability, we are convinced that you can work for us starting from
tomorrow.
A. On the contrary B. In regard of C. With respect to D. On behalf of
Question 19. When Bentley started that company, he really went _______. It might have been a
disaster.
A. out on a limb B. on and off
C. over the odds D. on the block
Question 20. The side effects from the injection are wearing off after 30 minutes.
A. diminishing B. increasing C. accelerating D. escalating
Question 21. Gender pay gap refers to the difference in earnings between women and men.
A. interest B. debt C. wage D. property
Question 22. Remember to always look on the bright side in any circumstance.
A. be optimistic B. be confident C. be smart D. be pessimistic
Question 23. Chi’s expertise is definitely not singing.
A. expertness B. incompetence C. skillfulness D. capability
Question 24. Brian: “I can’t call Ford. Can you reach him?”
Ben: “_______”
A. There’s no approval. B. No, the line is busy.
C. Yes, I’ve known him for years. D. It’s much too high.
Question 25. Gina: “We are buying Jim a birthday present.”

Cecilia: “_______”
A. She’s out of my league. B. Can you all be more down-to-earth?
C. I’m running out of money now. D. Could I chip in?
On the morning of April 12, 1912, the luxury liner the Titanic left England on a voyage to
New York. Four days later she lay at the bottom of the Atlantic Ocean. On Wednesday July 18,
1956, the ocean liner the Andrea Doria left Italy. The Andrea Doria was also (26) _______ to New
York. Eight days later this great ship also (27) _______ at the bottom of the Atlantic. Reports of
these two disasters (28) _______ the newspapers for days. When the Andrea Doria went down,
people compared her sinking with the sinking of the Titanic. There were similarities between the
two accidents.
First of all, both ships were passenger ocean liners. In addition, they were also both luxury
liners. They carried many of (29) _______ world’s famous and rich people. Today millions of
dollars worth of gold, silver, and cash may still remain locked inside these two sunken ships.
Another similarity was that as each ship was sinking, there were acts of heroism and acts of
villainy. Some people acted very bravely, even heroically. Some people even (30) _______ their
lives so that others could live.
Question 26. A. running B. flying C. cruising D. heading
Question 27. A. lied B. was lied C. lay D. was lay
Question 28. A. wrapped B. spread C. contained D. covered
Question 29. A. a B. Ø C. an D. the
Question 30. A. gave away B. handed in C. turned up D. broke out
For hundreds of years, giving flowers have been a social means of communication. In the
United States, flowers are often given during rites of passage, for commemorating special
occasions or as a heartfelt gift between loved ones and friends. Flower gifting also occurs in most
countries around the world. However, the meanings and traditions often vary.
While students traditionally gave their favorite teacher an apple in past years, in China,
teachers are given flowers. Peonies are by far the flower most often given in China. They are also
quite popularly used for weddings. Strangely, potted plants are not considered a pleasant gift
among Asian cultures. The people believe that like a plant confined by a pot, the gift symbolizes
a binding or restriction.
In Russia, in lieu of giving birthday presents, the guest of honor receives a single flower
or an unwrapped bouquet. Floral arrangements or baskets are not given. Russians celebrate a
holiday known as Woman's Day. Traditional gifts include red roses, hyacinths or tulips. When
there is a funeral or other occasion where someone wishes to express sympathy, carnations, lilies
or roses are given in circular configurations, which signify the transition of birth, life and death

to rebirth. In this instance, the color of choice is commonly yellow. For joyous occasions,
arrangements and bouquets generally contain an odd number of flowers.
In the times of ancient Rome, brides carried flowers to scare away evil spirits and
encourage fertility. The Dutch believed that flowers were food for the soul. When invited to
someone's home in Great Britain, it is tradition to bring a gift of flowers. All types are acceptable
except white lilies, which are usually seen at funerals. Unlike the United States, red roses are a
symbol of love. Flowers are generally gifted in odd numbered increments regardless of the
occasion. However, the British also have superstitions regarding the number 13, so the number
is avoided.
Question 31. According to paragraph 2, you shouldn’t give potted plants to Asian people
because _______.
A. potted plants should only be used in weddings
B. potted plants should be planted in the ground
C. they believe potted plants represent the limitation
D. they think potted plants are ideal gifts
Question 32. The phrase “in lieu of” in paragraph 3 can be best replaced by _______.
A. due to B. despite C. in case of D. instead of
Question 33. The word “which” in paragraph 3 refers to _______.
A. transition of birth B. circular configurations
C. lilies or roses D. funeral or other occasions
Question 34. Which of the following is the type of flower that you should not bring to
someone's home in Great Britain?
A. peonies B. lilies C. roses D. tulips
Question 35. According to the passage, which of the following statements is NOT true?
A. In the United States you can only give flowers to your lover.
B. Teachers usually receive flowers instead of apples in China.
C. People receive a single flower or an unwrapped bouquet as a birthday present in Russia.
D. The number of flowers given by British is never 13.
The regular daily and monthly rhythms of Earth’s only natural satellite, the Moon, have
guided timekeepers for thousands of years. Its influence on Earth’s cycles, notably tides, has been
charted by many cultures in many ages. The Moon moderates Earth’s wobble on its axis, leading
to a relatively stable climate over billions of years. From Earth, we always see the same face of
the Moon because the Moon is spinning on its axis at the same speed that it is going around Earth
(that is, it is in synchronous rotation with Earth).
The light areas of the Moon are known as the highlands. The dark features, called maria
(Latin for seas), are impact basins that were filled with lava between 4.2 and 1.2 billion years ago.
These light and dark areas represent rocks of different composition and ages, which provide
evidence for how the early crust may have crystallized from a lunar magma ocean. The craters

themselves, which have been preserved for billions of years, provide an impact history for the
Moon and other bodies in the inner solar system.
The leading theory of the Moon’s origin is that a Mars-sized body collided with Earth
approximately 4.5 billion years ago, and the resulting debris from both Earth and the impactor
accumulated to form our natural satellite. The newly formed Moon was in a molten state. Within
about 100 million years, most of the global “magma ocean” had crystallized, with less-dense
rocks floating upward and eventually forming the lunar crust.
The early Moon may have developed an internal dynamo, the mechanism for global
magnetic fields for terrestrial planets. Since the ancient time of volcanism, the arid, lifeless Moon
has remained nearly unchanged. With too sparse an atmosphere to impede impacts, a steady rain
of asteroids, meteoroids, and comets strikes the surface. Over billions of years, the surface has
been ground up into fragments ranging from huge boulders to powder. Nearly the entire Moon
is covered by a rubble pile of charcoal-gray, powdery dust and rocky debris called the lunar
regolith. Beneath is a region of fractured bedrock referred to as the megaregolith.
Question 36: What is the main purpose of the first paragraph?
A. To show how ancient people calculated time using the Moon
B. To introduce some relationships between the Moon and the Earth
C. To demonstrate how tides on the Earth are formed
D. To clarify the direction in which the Moon rotates
Question 37: The word “notably” in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to ________.
A. especially B. unfortunately C. clearly D. insignificantly
Question 38: Which feature of the Moon has been mentioned as a possible proof of how its early
crust was formed?
A. ancient seas on the surface B. the light and the dark areas on the surface
C. crystals found in a magma ocean D. impact craters on the surface
Question 39: The word “collided” in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to ________.
A. slided B. departed C. imploded D. crashed
Question 40: What is TRUE about the formation of the Moon 4.5 billion years ago?
A. The Earth did not play any role in the formation of the Moon.
B. A portion of the debris forming the early Moon came from the Earth.
C. The newly formed Moon was a completely solid planet created from hard rock.
D. A large portion of the crust of the early Moon was made from crystals and dense rock.
Question 41: What can be inferred about the Moon in the present day?
A. There used to be life on the Moon, but they have become extinct because of the asteroids.
B. The atmosphere of the Moon has prevented the surface from most of the external impacts.
C. The surface of the Moon consists of merely dust and powder from broken rocks.
D. The Moon remains almost the same conditions comparing to its stage in ancient times.
Question 42: According to the passage, what is lunar regolith?
A. The whole crust of the Moon which is under a rocky layer called megaregolith

B. The inner layer of the Moon’s surface consisting of rocky fragments and fractured
bedrock
C. The outer layer of the Moon’s surface consisting of rocky debris and gray dust
D. The entire surface of the Moon containing a rocky layer called megaregolith
correction in each of the following Questions.
Question 43. Dogs are known for their friendliness, intelligent and loyalty to their owners.
A. known B. friendliness C. intelligent D. loyalty
Question 44. Even if they take more time off, workaholics would still be unable to relax.
A. Even if B. take C. off D. workaholics
Question 45. For the very first time, after 19 years, the anime “Demon Slayer” has surpassed the
well-known “Spirited Away” with an unprecedented succession in the animation field.
A. surpassed B. well-known C. unprecedented D. succession
meaning to each of the following Questions.
Question 46. William runs faster than any boys in his class.
A. William is the quickest boy in his class.
B. William is running faster than anyone else in his class.
C. William runs the fastest in his school.
D. No boys in William’s class can run as fast as him.
Question 47. It’s a waste of time to try and explain anything to Tommy.
A. To save time, explain it to Tommy.
B. It’s well worth trying to explain things to Tommy.
C. Tommy should be giving explanations.
D. It’s not worth the time trying to explain anything to Tommy.
Question 48. He could escape from being hurt because he was wearing protective clothing.
A. Thanks to his protective clothing, he could escape from being hurt.
B. His protective clothing made him hurt.
C. Due to his protective clothing, he was hurt
D. His being hurt made him unable to wear protective clothing.
pair of sentences of the following Questions.
Question 49. His words were hurtful. They made her burst into tears.
A. Even though his words were hurtful, she burst into tears.
B. His hurtful words couldn’t make her burst into tears.
C. His words were too hurtful for her to burst into tears.
D. So hurtful were his words that she burst into tears.
Question 50. Drying food by means of solar energy is an ancient process. It is applied wherever
climatic conditions make it possible.
A. Drying food by means of solar energy is an ancient process applying wherever climatic
conditions make it possible.

B. Drying food by means of solar energy is an ancient process to applied wherever climatic
C. Drying food by means of solar energy is an ancient process applied wherever climatic
D. Drying food by means of solar energy is an ancient process which is applying wherever
climatic conditions make it possible.
----------THE END---------

Question 1. A. solidify B. miraculous C. intimacy D. appropriate
Question 2. A. survival B. successful C. forgiveness D. prominent
Question 3. - Sauron: “Would you like to eat out now?”
- Melkor: “_____________.”
A. I don’t like, because I’m not free B. Oh I’d better, however I’m in a hurry.
C. Well, I’d love to, but I’m busy D. I’d prefer, although I can’t go
Question 4. “I won’t go camping next year.”-“__________”
A. I won’t, too. B. I won’t either. C. I won’t neither. D. So I won’t.
Question 5. That seems a very elaborate way of recording the information – do you really need
all of those details?
A. complicated B. lengthy C. delicate D. straightforward
Question 6: By not giving kids the right to watch television, parents are at the risk of creating
tension within the family.
A. prevent B. not depriving C. concurring D. provoking
GREASE
'Greasy spoons' very rarely appear in guidebooks, but they are an essential part of life in the
UK, especially for people living in the bigger cities. These small restaurants are so common that
they often go unnoticed, but if they were removed, the country would be on its knees. In
London, the capital city of the greasy spoon, there are hundreds of them, fuelling the population
with bacon, egg and sausage. Greasy spoon cafes are so called because any cutlery that comes
into contact with the food they offer is immediately coated with a sticky, greasy layer of lard.

More calories can be found in a cup of tea in a good greasy spoon than in a whole meal at a
normal restaurant.
Greasy spoons are generally found slightly away from the main streets of most towns, they
usually have large glass windows, a plastic sign with the name of the cafe - usually containing
the name of the owner, e.g. Mario's, Bob's Place, Rita's Cafe - and a huge menu offering a wide
variety of delights. Inside they are generally clean and functional. You'll see old wooden seats,
tables covered with cracked linoleum and plain walls. Each table has on it a bottle of brown
sauce, tomato ketchup and vinegar, and pots of salt and pepper.
In a typical greasy spoon, you will find people from all walks of life. Poets, builders,
hurrying businessmen, students lazing around with huge mugs of tea. Some read novels, some
stare into space, and others catch up on the day's news. At weekends there will always be large
groups of friends, recovering from a night on the town. The meals here are dangerously
unhealthy, and absolutely delicious. All kinds of fried food can be bought for incredibly low
prices. The centrepiece is usually the traditional English breakfast. Although it's called a
breakfast, you have to be really brave to eat it first thing in the morning, because it is huge. At
least two pieces of bacon, two sizzling sausages, two fried eggs, fried mushrooms, baked beans
and bread soaked in hot oil and fried. The English breakfast is full of meat and fat. If you want
something less filling, there's still a lot to choose from; particular specialities are bacon or fried
egg sandwiches (or, of course, bacon and egg sandwiches). There is also often a range of
vegetarian sausages and burgers.
Greasy spoons have some devoted followers. Typing 'greasy spoon' into an internet search
engine will bring up hundreds of entries. With pictures, reviews, menus and stories, it's the next
best thing to going to a greasy spoon café yourself. But of course, nothing can beat going to the
real thing - especially on an empty stomach.
Question 7. These small restaurants are so common that they often go unnoticed, but if they
were removed, the country would be on its knees.
To be on one’s knees means _________.
A. to be very happy B. to be very difficult to noticed
C. to be nearly destroyed D. to be completely rehabilitated
Question 8. According to the article, greasy spoons are __________.
A. only found in big cities B. going to be removed from city centres
C. advertised as a tourist attraction D. important to many British people
Question 9. The word ‘fuelling’ in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. feeding B. driving C. poisoning D. petroling

Question 10. The characteristic feature of greasy spoons is that they __________.
A. use special type of cutlery. B. offer a lot of dishes to choose from.
C. are furnished in a sophisticated way. D. are not very clean.
Question 11. According to the passage, people who come to greasy spoons __________.
A. are often in a hurry. B. come from various backgrounds.
C. usually meet friends here. D. sometimes spend the night here.
Question 12. The traditional English breakfast is __________.
A. not very cheap. B. not very tasty.
C. served in huge portions. D. recommended for vegetarians.
Question 13. The author of the article __________
A. is a great fan of greasy spoons.
B. believes greasy spoons represent British tastes in food.
C. learned about greasy spoons on the Internet.
D. thinks they should be moved away from the main streets.
Question 14. John made all attempts to carry out the project. Finally, he completed it with
satisfactory result.
A. If it not had been for his attempts, the project could not have been completed with
satisfactory result.
B. If he had not attempted to carry out the project, it wouldn’t have been completed.
C. His attempts made the project barely complete.
D. But for his attempts, the project could not have been completed with satisfactory result.
Question 15. The scientist is presenting his new invention. It is said to be a new breakthrough in
the field of aviation.
A. The scientist is presenting his new invention, whose is said to be a new breakthrough in
B. The scientist is presenting his new invention, that is said to be a new breakthrough in the
field of aviation.
C. The scientist, whose new invention is being presented, is said to be a new breakthrough in
D. The scientist is presenting his new invention, which is said to be a new breakthrough in

THE TRUTH IS OUT THERE ON THE NET
Far from encouraging mass deceit, the web promotes honesty because we fear getting
caught, writes Clive Thompson.
Everyone tells a little white lie now and then, but Cornell University professor, Jeffrey
Hancock, recently claimed to have established the truth of a curious proposition: we fib less
frequently when we’re online than when talking in person. He asked thirty undergraduates to
record all their communications, and all their lies for a week. When he tallied the results, he found
the students had mishandled the truth in about one-quarter of all face-to-face conversations, and
in a whopping 37 percent of phone calls. But when they went into cyberspace, only 1 in 5 instant-
messaging chats contained a lie, and barely 14 per cent of email messages were dishonest.
Obviously you can’t make generalizations about society solely on the basis of college students’
behaviour, and there’s also something odd about asking people to be honest about how often
they lie. But still, Professor Hancock’s results were intriguing, not least because they upend some
of our primary expectations about life on the net.
Wasn’t cyberspace supposed to be the scary zone where you couldn’t trust anyone? Back
when the Internet first went mainstream, those pundits in the government, media and academia
worried that the digital age would open the floodgates of deception. Since anyone could hide
behind an anonymous hot mail address or chat-room nickname, net users, we were warned,
would be free to lie with impunity. Parents panicked and frantically supervised their children’s
use of cyberspace, under the assumption that anyone lurking out there in the unknown was a
threat until proved otherwise. And to a certain extent, you can see their reasoning: if we go along
with the basic introduction to any psychology course, we’re more likely to lie to people when
there’s distance between us. Eventually, though, many suspicions turned out to be unfounded.
What is it, then, about online life that makes us more truthful? It’s simple: we’re worried
about being exposed. In ‘real’ life, after all, it’s pretty easy to get away with deception. If you lie
to someone at a party, you can always claim you said no such thing. On the Internet, your words
often come back to haunt you. The digital age is tough on liars, as an endless parade of executives
are finding out. This isn’t a problem for only corporate barons. We read the headlines; we know
in cyberspace our words never die, because machines don’t forget. ‘It’s a cut-and-paste culture’,
as Professor Hancock put it, though he said that on the phone, so who knows if he really meant
it? And consider that many email programmes automatically ‘quote’ your words when someone
replies to your message. Every time I finish an email message, I pause for a few seconds to reread
it just to ensure I haven’t said something I’ll later regret.
Maybe this helps explain why television programmes like CSI: Crime Scene Investigation
have become so popular. They’re all about revealing the sneaking things people do. We watch
with fascination and unease as scientists inspect the tiniest of clues – a stray hair on a car seat, a

latent fingerprint on a CD-ROM. After you’ve seen high-tech cops rake over evidence from a
crime scene with ultra-violet light and luminal and genetic sequencers enough times, you get the
message: watch out – we’ve got files on you. Forensic science has become the central drama of
pop culture, and our fascination with it may well add to our anxieties about technology. So no
wonder we’re so careful to restrict our lying to low technology environments. We have begun to
be keenly suspicious of places that might be bugged, conducting all of our subterfuge in loud
restaurants and lonely parks.
Still, it’s not only the fear of electronic exposure that drives us to tell the truth. There’s
something about the Internet that encourages us to ‘tell all’, often in rather outrageous ways.
Psychologists have noticed for years that going online seems to have a catalytic effect on people’s
personalities. The most quiet and reserved people may become deranged loudmouths when they
sit behind the keyboard. Others stay up until dawn and conduct angry debates on discussion
boards with total strangers. You can usually spot the newcomers in any discussion group because
they’re the ones WRITING IN CAPITALS – they’re overwhelmed by the Internet’s heavy
combination of geographic distance and pseudo-invisibility.
Our impulse to confess via cyberspace inverts much of what we think about honesty. It
used to be if you wanted to really trust someone, you arranged a face-to-face meeting. Our culture
still obsesses over physical contact, the shaking of hands, that lubricating chitchat. Executives and
politicians spend hours flying across the country merely for a five-minute meeting, on the
assumption that even a few seconds of face time can cut through the prevarications of letters and
legal contracts. But perhaps the growing tendency towards online communication is gratifying
news. We could find ourselves living in an increasingly honest world. It will at least, inevitably,
be one in which there are increasingly severe penalties for deception. With its unforgiving
machine memory, the Internet might turn out to be the unlikely conscience of the world.
Question 16. What does the writer suggest about Professor Hancock’s findings?
A. they prove a higher than average level of dishonesty among students.
B. they are unreliable as students are not likely to have kept accurate records.
C. they only demonstrate what was already common knowledge to most people.
D. students are less likely to lie while chatting online than on the telephone.
Question 17. According to the information given in paragraph 3, what does the writer state
about the early days of Internet use?
A. There was no discernible change in the general level of honest behaviour.
B. The Internet provided people with new ways to commit crime.
C. Children were frequently not permitted any kind of access to the Internet.
D. There was some over-reaction to the perceived dangers of the Internet.

Question 18. What point is illustrated by the references to email record?
A. The corporate world has been forced to reassess its systems of communication.
B. People have developed a less trusting attitude towards others they deal with.
C. People are becoming more cautious with regard to the content of email.
D. Email and similar documentation has sometimes been used to manipulate the truth.
Question 19. According to the writer, television programmes on forensic science have
A. led to people becoming more frightened of being exposed.
B. encouraged people to adopt more sophisticated methods of deception.
C. overtaken other types of television drama in terms of popularity.
D. given people a false impression on what science can currently achieve.
Question 20. In the fifth paragraph, what are we told about the effect of Internet chat rooms on
people?
A. they have had a beneficial influence on some naturally shy people.
B. they have allowed certain people to express themselves more concisely.
C. they have led to a transformation in some people’s usual behaviour.
D. they have improved relations between people from different cultures.
Question 21. What does the writer state about the future impact of online communication?
A. people will ensure that emails are strictly accurate and honest.
B. instances of dishonesty will have more serious consequences.
C. people will feel the need for legal advice when preparing certain documents.
D. it will remove the need for face-to-face contact.
Question 22. The phrase “tells a little white lie” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to
A. tell a trivial lie B. tell a blatant lie.
C. tell a lie without remorse. D. lie like a tropper.
Question 23. A. trial B. tribunal C. criticize D. depict
Question 24. A. Islamic B. isle C. aisle D. island
Question 25. Often very annoying weeds, ________ and act as hosts to many insect pests.
A. that crowd out less hardy plants than goldenrods
B. crowding out less hardy plants by goldenrods
C. the goldenrod’s crowding out of less hardy plants

D. goldenrods crowd out less hardy plants
Question 26. The man was _______ on ten counts of animal cruelty.
A. accused B. prohibited C. indicted D. contraindicated
Question 27. The month is not a suitable unit of measure for determining the seasons ________
the seasons are a solar, not a lunar phenomenon.
A. in order that B. while C. since D. in view of
Question 28. Instructors from the same ecological and vocational background as illiterates are
more successful in ________ literacy classes than school teachers.
A. carrying out B. pulling out C. acting out D. calling out
Question 29. Declared an endangered species in United Sates, __________.
A. the ginseng root has been gathered almost to the point of extinction
B. gathering the ginseng root almost to the point of extinction
C. people have gathered the ginseng root almost to the point of extinction
D. the near extinction of the ginseng root to excessive gathering
Question 30. Round and round _______.
A. the wheels of the engine went B. did the wheels of the engine go
C. went the wheels of the engine D. going the wheels of the engine
Question 31. Before the invention of the Internet, people couldn’t ________ of such universal
access to information.
A. conceive B. contemplate C. reminisce D. envisage
Question 32. I would rather ________ my holiday in Egypt than in Turkey. I really couldn’t stand
the food.
A. take B. had taken C. to have taken D. have taken
Question 33. Everything looks very positive for the company, ________ the current investors do
not default on their agreements.
A. assuming that B. whether C. whereas D. as if
Question 34. _________, he remained optimistic.
A. Badly wounded as he was B. Though badly wounded he was
C. As he was badly wounded D. As badly wounded he was
Question 35. ________ as taste is really a composite sense made up of both taste and smell.
A. That we refer to B. What we refer to C. To which we refer D. What do we refer to
Question 36. I admired her for being confident _______ her age.
A. in B. on C. at D. of
Question 37. The lecturer’s monotone voice is really ___________.

A. soporific B. weary C. bored D. garrulous
Question 38. Ursula’s judgment was so astute that she was able to assess the teacher’s personality
after only a couple of minutes of conversation.
A. ingenious B. tantamount C. overwhelming D. irretrievable
Question 39. Ginger extract has curative properties that can assuage giddiness or motion
sickness.
B. churn out B. seek C. retrieve D. alleviate
Question 40. In a hot, sunny climate, man acclimatizes by eating less, drinking more liquids,
wearing lighter clothing and experiences a darkening of the skin.
A. In B. by eating C. more liquids D. experiences
Question 41. Unlike competitive running, race walkers must always keep some portion of the
feet in contact with the ground.
A. Unlike B. running C. race D. in
Question 42. The first recorded use of natural gas lighting street lamps was in the town of
Frederick New York, in 1825.
A. recorded B. lighting C. was D. the
A small side door led into the whitewashed corridor from which the three bedrooms opened.
We (43) __________ at once to the one in which Miss Stoner was now sleeping, and in which her
sister (44)____________ with her fate. It was a cosy little room, with a low ceiling and a gaping
fireplace, the style of old country houses. A brown chest of drawers stood in one corner, a narrow
bed in (45)___________, and a dressing table on the left-hand side of the window. These articles,
with two small wickerwork chairs, (46)__________ all the furniture in the room, save for a square
of Wilton carpet in the centre. Holmes drew one of the chairs into a corner and sat in (47)
_________, while his eyes travelled round and round and up and down, taking in every detail of
the apartment.
Question 43. A. proposed B. entered C. reached D. passed
Question 44. A. was met B. had met C. was meeting D. will meet
Question 45. A. others B. the second C. second D. another

Question 46. A. made up B. lined up C. put up D. took up
Question 47. A. silent B. silence C. silently D. quiet
Question 48. It is impossible to cross the road because of the traffic.
A. People usually find it difficult to cross the road in heavy traffic.
B. People cannot by any means cross the road because of the traffic.
C. People cannot allowed to cross the road because of the traffic.
D. The traffic makes it possible for people to cross the road.
Question 49. She always makes heavy weather of the report she is writing.
A. Not difficult as the report that she is writing, she always makes it look so complicated.
B. She spends a lot of time on writing a report that is incomprehensible and difficult.
C. Because the report she is writing is complicated, she spends a lot of time on it.
D. Due to simple report, she doesn’t need to spend time on it.
Question 50. I regret that I gave him the money.
A. I wish I didn’t give him the money.
B. Only if I hadn’t given him the money.
C. I would rather give him the money.
D. If only I hadn’t given him the money.
----------THE END--------
-

Question 1. A. language B. purpose C. nature D. exhaust
Question 2. A. infamous B. aquatic C. supportive D. essential
Question 3. - "Sorry, do I know you ?"
- "_______"
A. Yes, you don’t. B. I’ll be in touch.
C. We’ve met before, remember? D. All the best.
Question 4. Two people are talking to each other.
- “Hello, I’d like to speak with Mrs. Smith.”- "_______"
A. Sure. B. Who are you?
C. Of course you can. D. Hang on, please. I’ll put you through
Question 5. Helen’s mother castigates her for staying out three hours past her curfew.
A. lambastes B. censures C. admires D. praises
Question 6. Studing English will be very strenuous if you learn it passively and perfunctorily.
A. undemanding B. energetic C. laborious D. dilatory
the correct answer to each of the questions from 7 to 11.
The body of primitive man, a faraway and primitive man called Homo sapiens, so far as
we can reconstruct from the fragmentary evidence we have, was exactly like our own, and his
brain was as big as that of modem man and quite as complicated in structure. His intelligence
and his ability to learn were probably as great as that of the average man today, but he had a very
meager inheritance of knowledge.
The use of tools and weapons of a primitive sort was probably passed on from the
subhuman creatures, who had learned how to break stones and used the sharp-edged pieces for
cutting and scraping, and how to use a short, heavy stick for a chub and a long, pointed one for
a spear. The subhuman creatures knew how to make use of fire when they found it, but they
didn't know how to make it.

They had probably also discovered the advantages of social living: that several families
living together in a tribe could offer each other help and protection; and that hunters killed more
game if they banded together and had a leader to direct the hunt.
The discovery that social living increased the odds in favor of survival was, perhaps,
primitive man's greatest discovery - greater than either the discovery of fire or the invention of
the wheel.
Question 7. What we know of primitive man is based upon _______.
A. pieces of evidence B. a great deal of evidence
C. no evidence D. pictures in caves
Question 8. The first real man _______.
A. was way less intelligent than modern men
B. was incapable of learning for a long time
C. received very little knowledge from his ancestors
D. received a great store of knowledge from his ancestors
Question 9. The underlined words "it" in the 2nd paragraph refer to _______.
A. subhuman B. a spear C. fire D. a club
Question 10. According to the author, a man became a social being because _______.
A. co-operation was necessary for survival
B. in prehistorical times only the strongest survived
C. by nature he is a social being
D. they needed a family atmosphere
Question 11. The author believes that man’s discovery of the advantages of social living is
_______.
A. slightly significant B. insignificant
C. of great significance D. conventional
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences of the following questions.
Question 12. He was well-off. He felt so unhappy and lonely.
A. Despite of his wealth, he felt so unhappy and lonely.
B. Rich though was he, he felt so unhappy and lonely.
C. Affluent as he was, he felt so unhappy and lonely.
D. Despite he was so rich, he felt so unhappy and lonely.
Question 13. The man managed to build a fire to keep himself and the dog from freezing. He
could not keep the fire in flame because he ran out of matches.
A. The man managed to build a fire to keep himself and the dog from freezing but he could
keep the fire in flame.
B. The man managed to build a fire to keep himself and the dog from freezing and he could
not keep the fire in flame.
C. The man managed to build a fire to keep himself and the dog from freezing although he
could not keep the fire in flame.

D. The man managed to build a fire to keep himself and the dog from freezing; however, he
could not keep the fire in flame.
the correct answer to each of the questions from 14 to 21.
I am not a huge fan of social media myself. Yet here I am, using social media to let you hear
my opinion on social media. The benefits of social media are very hard to ignore. Businesses
across the globe can now amplify their brand message to a wider audience than they could ever
dream of before achieving success. In the old days, mass media ruled. A company had to pony
up thousands or even millions of dollars to be heard in most cases. And now? Well, even an
individual with a very brilliant idea coupled with excellent marketing abilities can achieve great
financial success on social media. Small companies are carving out a market for themselves
amongst people estimated to be connected on social media quite easily. Social media has moved
from a “nice to have” to a “must have” component or department of a company’s business
strategy.
In terms of social circles, social media has broken down barriers when it comes to
communicating and we are spoilt for choice when it comes to ways of getting in contact with
someone. Social media has also made it easier for us to express ourselves. Normal people now
have the capacity to make their opinion known on a massive scale. Before social media, you could
have an opinion but you could only tell a few people close to you, and now, the story is different.
Within a few minutes, thousands could know about your opinion.
But just like most things, there are drawbacks to the excessive use and reliance of social
media. A self-centered attitude and the need to be accepted and liked by virtual ‘friends’ on social
media has led people to create or lead a life that they feel will be accepted and liked by those they
may never meet in real life. And well most people attach their self-esteem to their social media
activity. Another thing that most people forget, is that, what they post on the net may come back
to haunt them and make them vulnerable to crimes like identity theft. Cyber bullying is also
becoming frequent. If you are not careful, unscrupulous people can target you for cyber bullying
and harassment on social sites.
Question 14. Which of the following best serves as the title for the article?
A. Social Networking - Advantages Surpass Disadvantages
B. Ways that Social Media has Changed our Life
C. The Dark Side of Social Media
D. Undeniable Benefits of Social Media
Question 15. The phrase “carving out” in paragraph 1 most probably means _______.
A. developing B. cornering C. losing D. controlling
Question 16. The word “unscrupulous” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. discourteous B. impatient C. dishonest D. unhelpful
Question 17. In business, social media helps to do all of these things EXCEPT _______.
A. making a business’s brand message known by more people
B. making businesses invest millions of dollars to be known

C. helping businesses get into a market quite easily
D. helping a person with good marketing strategies achieve success
Question 18. In terms of social relationships, social media _______.
A. builds barriers in communication
B. makes users become spoiled
C. limits who can hear one’s opinions
D. makes one’s opinions shared by a large number of people
Question 19. According to paragraph 3, which of the following is NOT TRUE about social media
users?
A. Senses of self and recognition promoted by online friends have changed their life.
B. They are likely to suffer online attacks.
C. All of them measure their self-worth by their online activities.
D. They are susceptible to cyber crimes such as identity theft.
Question 20. It is most likely that the author of the passage would agree with which one of the
following statements?
A. Social media might have its dark side, but the reality is we need it.
B. For privacy and security reasons, people should stop using social media.
C. Social media is of no value to him.
D. People have enjoyed enormous benefits from social networking services.
Question 21. A. plush B. glands C. calf D. splinter
Question 22. A. though B. enough C. tough D. rough
Question 23. “Don’t open the window, _______? It’s freezing.”
A. won’t you B. will you C. do you D. don’t you
Question 24. A new airport _______ now. They say one of its terminals _______next month.
A. is constructed – will be finished B. is being constructed – has been finished
C. is being constructed – will be finished D. will be constructed – to be built
Question 25. John seemed to be _______of remembering what I was saying to him.
A. unable B. unwilling C. inefficient D. incapable
Question 26. The more paper we recycle, _______.
A. the least trees we preserve B. the most trees we preserve
C. the fewer trees we preserve D. the more trees we preserve
Question 27. Darcy went to the party, wearing a _______ tie.
A. lovely red bow woolen B. red lovely woolen bow
C. woolen lovely red bow D. lovely red woolen bow
Question 28. They _______ running their own company in 1990.
A. started B. have started C. are starting D. start

Question 29. I love durian, _______ my friend can’t stand its smell.
A. even so B. therefore C. whereas D. in case
Question 30. He _______ off alone a month ago, and we _______ of him since.
A. set – haven’t heard B. sets – haven’t been heard
C. set – hadn’t heard D. has set – haven’t heard
Question 31. _______ in 2000, that house is one of the designs that Clark takes pride in the most.
A. Construct B. Have constructed C. Constructing D. Constructed
Question 32. _______ disliked the play because the story was weak and the acting was terrible.
A. Critiques B. Critics C. Criticism D. Criticize
Question 33. What my grandmother said years ago about my marriage _______ to be true.
A. turns out B. turns down C. turns in D. turns up
Question 34. That fabric is made of a material that _______ fire easily.
A. seizes B. follows C. catches D. grabs
Question 35. It was Dr. Watson who _______ us how to deal with this problem.
A. noted B. instructed C. explained D. interpreted
Question 36. One condition of this job is that you must be _______ to work at weekends.
A. acceptable B. available C. accessible D. capable
Question 37. Shylock demands that Nerissa be punished with a life sentence for not giving back
his money. He wants his pound of _______.
A. meat B. flesh C. bones D. skull
Question 38. The criminal performed 100 hours of community service work to atone for his
crime.
A. make out B. censure C. compensate D. sacrifice
Question 39. Meanwhile, California was now using up its entire entitlement and still growing
by leaps and bounds.
C. very slowly B. very quickly C. very suddenly D. very unexpectedly
Question 40. Women still do the major of the household chores, despite their increased
participation in the labor market.
A. Women B. major C. despite D. in
Question 41. Women spending nearly 3 hours a day on average on housework excluding
shopping and childcare.
A. spending B. nearly C. on average D. and
Question 42. To assure the safety of the workers who must handle radioactive material, the
employer should not leave them enter contaminated areas without protective clothing.
A. To assure B. who C. employer D. enter

the word(s) that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 43 to 47.
Helen Adams Keller (June 27, 1880 – June 1, 1968) was an American author, political
activist, and lecturer. She was the first deaf-blind person (43) _______earn a Bachelor of Arts
(44) _______. The story of Keller and her teacher, Anne Sullivan, was made famous by Keller's
autobiography, The Story of My Life, and its adaptations for film and stage, The Miracle Worker.
Her birthplace in West Tuscumbia, Alabama, is now a museum and sponsors an annual "Helen
Keller Day." Her June 27th birthday is commemorated as Helen Keller Day
in Pennsylvania and, in the centenary year of her birth, was recognized by a presidential
proclamation from US President Jimmy Carter.
As a (45) _______ author, Keller was well-traveled and outspoken in her convictions. As
a member of the Socialist Party of America and the Industrial Workers of the World, she (46)
_______ for women's suffrage, labor rights, socialism, antimilitarism, and other similar causes.
She was inducted into the Alabama Women's Hall of Fame in 1971 and was (47) _______of
twelve inaugural inductees to the Alabama Writers Hall of Fame on June 8, 2015.
Question 43. A. in B. to C. for D. with
Question 44. A. qualification B. certificate C. license D. degree
Question 45. A. prolific B. abundant C. exhausted D. soporific
Question 46. A. campaigned B. campaign C. campaigning D. campaigns
Question 47. A. that B. one C. who D. half
Question 48. “To Build a Fire”, which is a short story by Jack London, an American author, was
published in 1908.
A. Jack London, an American author, who wrote a short story “To Build a Fire” which
published in 1908.
B. The American author whose name was Jack London wrote a short story “To Build a Fire”
which was first published in 1908.
C. “To Build a Fire”, which is a short story was written by Jack London, an American author,
was published in 1908.
D. “To Build a Fire”, which is a short story was written by Jack London, he is an American
author, was published in 1908.
Question 49. There was a heat wave in California. Thousands of Californians went to open
beaches last Friday despite stay-at-home orders for people across the state.
A. Had it not been for the heat wave, thousands of Californians wouldn’t have gone to open
beaches last Friday despite stay-at-home orders for people across the state.
B. But for the heat wave, thousands of Californians didn’t go to open beaches last Friday
despite stay-at-home orders for people across the state.
C. Because of the heat wave, thousands of Californians didn’t go to open beaches last Friday
despite stay-at-home orders for people across the state.

D. The heat wave didn’t bring thousands of Californians to open beaches last Friday despite
stay-at-home orders for people across the state.
Question 50. CNA Insider reported on how the students had turned their fried beehoon business
into a project for good during Singapore’s extended “circuit breaker” period. Then, the
outpouring of public generosity came.
A. Hardly CNA Insider reported on how the students had turned their fried beehoon business
into a project for good during Singapore’s extended “circuit breaker” period when the
B. No sooner had CNA Insider reported on how the students had turned their fried beehoon
business into a project for good during Singapore’s extended “circuit breaker” period than the
C. As soon as CNA Insider reported on how the students had turned their fried beehoon
business into a project for good during Singapore’s extended “circuit breaker” period, the
outpouring of public generosity had come.
D. Scarcely did CNA Insider report on how the students had turned their fried beehoon
business into a project for good during Singapore’s extended “circuit breaker” period when the
----------THE END---------

Question 1. A. see B. seen C. sportsman D. sure
Question 2. A. technique B. question C. quick D. antiquary
Question 3. A. orchestra B. dinosaur C. ostracize D. personnel
Question 4. A. inequality B. characteristic C. representative D. popularity
Question 5. The girl _______ behind me kept chewing loudly during the lecture, _______ really
annoyed me.
A. having sat/that B. sitting/which C. to sit/what D. to be sitting/who
Question 6. Claire paid $7 for her lunch, _______ she had thought it would cost.
A. not so many B. not so much as C. less as D. not so many as
Question 7. Pierre would scarcely check his mail when he was on his holiday, _______?
A. wouldn’t he B. didn't he C. would he D. did he
Question 8. The company’s income this year has increased _______ about 5%, compared with
that of last year.
A. with B. at C. by D. on
Question 9. _______ that the cinema is always crowded.
A. Such the reputation of the film is B. The film is such reputation
C. The reputation of the film is so D. Such is the reputation of the film
Question 10. Having finished her homework, _______.
A. Zoey started to play computer games
B. it took Zoey 2 hours to solve the math problem
C. Zoey’s mom called her for dinner
D. her father took her out for a walk
Question 11. It is very essential that the children _______ as soon as there is any change in
timetable.
A. being notified B. be it notified C. be notified D. were notified
Question 12. Garry and John _______ each other quickly and became close friends.
A. took after B. held together C. took to D. let in

Question 13. An idea suddenly _______ to Ryan that he might try a new method to promote his
book.
A. happened B. occurred C. arose D. appeared
Question 14. There is only one _______ to the problem, but it costs a fortune.
A. solve B. solvability C. solvable D. solution
Question 15. I really like Sandy’s house; it is a _______.
A. lovely Italian-style small house B. lovely small Italian-style house
C. Italian-style lovely small house D. small lovely Italian-style house
Question 16. _______ where Warren tried to hide his bad report cards, his mother always
managed to find them out.
A. No matter B. Much as C. Even though D. However
Question 17. _______ is a fact many smokers choose to ignore.
A. That smoking is harmful to health B. It is harmful to health to smoke
C. To smoke is harmful to health D. Smoking is harmful to health
Question 18. Marianne’s project on water pollution looks promising, but it is still _______.
A. in advance B. under stress C. at first sight D. in the early stage
Question 19. Oliver is an extremely tidy man; his flat is always _______.
A. safe and sound B. spick and span
C. by and large D. leaps and bounds
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning
to the underlined part in the following sentences.
Question 20. She spoke very frankly about her experiences.
A. in a kind way B. in confidence
C. with patience D. in an honest and direct way
Question 21. Many plant and animal species become extinct each year before biologists can
identify them.
A. recognize B. look for C. introduce D. take care of
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning
to the underlined part in the following sentences.
Question 22. The museum is open daily except Monday.
A. apart from B. including C. besides D. short of
Question 23. The majority of people in the town strongly support the plans to build a by-pass.
A. minority B. larger number C. diversity D. greater part
Question 24.
- Jin: “I’m thirsty. Shall we stop for a drink?”
- Ari: “_______”
A. Long time no see. B. It’s very nice to see you there.
C. Sorry, we’ve got little time. D. I am hungry, too.

Question 25.
- Siv: “_______”
- Lux: “Alright, suit yourself.”
A. What is your favourite starter?
B. I haven’t been to such a nice place with you for a while.
C. Can you help me choose the main course?
D. I don’t want to eat anything. I’m on diet.
A computer keyboard is an input device (26) _______ allows a person to enter letters,
numbers, and other (27) _______ into a computer. It is one of the most used input devices for
computers. Using a keyboard to enter lots of data is called typing. Keyboard keys typically have
a set of characters engraved on them. While the main use is for typing, keyboards are capable of
executing commands by using a combination of keys to create (28) _______, such as copying and
pasting, deleting, etc.
When you enter the (29) _______ hole, you find that the world of keyboards is diverse. It can
be a traditional keyboard for basic uses or a mechanical keyboard that provides very satisfying
sounds and feelings whenever you type. A lot of keyboard (30) _______ customize their own
keyboards that could cost an arm and a leg. Having said that, the reason behind the price comes
down to the material, the switches and the keycaps. Next time when you see a keyboard, don’t
judge the way it looks but judge the way it feels and the experience it provides to the users.
Question 26. A. where B. which C. whose D. how
Question 27. A. trademarks B. paints C. metaphors D. symbols
Question 28. A. them B. it C. that D. some
Question 29. A. mole B. dog C. chicken D. rabbit
Question 30. A. enthusiasms B. enthusiasts C. enthusiastic D. enthuses
The benefits of music for academic learning are well documented, thanks to research
following young people’s progress as they learn an instrument. Evidence is also increasing that
studying music leads to actual physical changes in one’s brain development. Significantly,
learning and playing music alter the amount of activity in certain regions of the brain, as well as
the structure of specific areas.
One study at the University of Munster in Germany monitored the brain activity of two
groups of people between 20 and 30 years of age. One group consisted of 20 musicians who had
played music for at least 15 years. The other group consisted of 13 non-musicians. Each
participant listened to a recording of piano music as the researchers watched their brain
responses. While listening to the recording, the musicians showed 25% more activity in the area
of the brain that processes auditory signals. Although the music was from a piano, the response

level was higher for all musicians, whether they played the piano, violin, or another instrument.
A separate study at McMaster University in Canada followed the progress of 12 children for
a year. Six of the children were taught music using the Suzuki method, a popular teaching method
from Japan. The other six did not learn an instrument. Over the course of the study, the
researchers took regular measurements of certain brain regions. They found that the music
students had increased activity in the region of the brain responsible for focusing attention and
making sense of different sounds.
Question 31. Which is best served as the title for the passage?
A. The Benefits of Music B. How Music Benefits Children
C. Studies on Music and Brain D. Effects of Music on Our Brain
Question 32. The word “their” in paragraph 2 refers to _______.
A. one group B. the other group
C. the researchers D. the participants
Question 33. According to the German study, changes in the brains occurred _______.
A. with a higher response level if musicians listened to the piano
B. with musicians who started to play music when they were 15 years old
C. while non-musicians were listening to a recording of any instruments
D. only when participants listened to the music from a piano
Question 34. Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
A. The study involving the Suzuki method took place in Japan.
B. Learning and playing music change the structures of specific brain areas.
C. The McMaster study was conducted over a 12-month period.
D. The study in Germany consists of musicians and non-musicians.
Question 35. Which of the following is true according to the passage?
A. Learning and playing music alter the amount of activity in all regions of the brain.
B. In the German study, brain activity was measured as people listened to music.
C. Only if the musicians play the piano will the brain process auditory signals.
D. All participants in the study at Munster University were experienced in music.
At the end of Porthmeor Beach, Laura climbed the stone steps to the Island and took the
path that curved around the edge of it. There were benches dotted along it, and a red plastic box
containing a life-rope. Laura had her doubts that the rope would be effective in an emergency.
The current that surged up to the black rocks was so brutal that anyone unlucky enough to fall in
would be swept out to sea before they had time to draw breath. Laura felt the magnetic pull of
the ocean beneath the black cliffs, and goose bumps rose on her arms.
On the north side of the Island, the headland screened out both the town and the beaches.
Laura would stop there sometimes and gaze out to sea. If no one was around, she liked to pretend
she was alone on a desert island. Today, however, the path had an eerie feel. In the short time
since Laura had left the house, a sea mist had rolled in, obscuring everything except the grey

silhouette of the hill topped by St Nicholas's chapel with its twin crosses. The tide was in and
violent waves splattered the path. More than once, Laura had to leap to avoid a drenching.
She might have stepped on the bottle if she had not been skirting a puddle. It was an
ordinary glass bottle - the kind used for concentrated juice syrups, but the label had been removed
and it had been scrubbed clean. It was lying in the centre of the path, almost as if it had been
deliberately placed there. Even before she lifted it, Laura could see there was a note in it. She
almost didn't pick it up. The idea of finding a message in a bottle seemed ridiculous, like a joke
or something. But curiosity got the better of her. Before she picked it up, she took a good look
round in case the person who'd left it there was hanging around to have a laugh. But she was
alone.
She bent down and studied the rolled piece of paper through the glass. There was something
written on it. Before she removed the lid, she glanced up at the chapel. There was a sudden flash
of white, although whether it was someone's shirt or the wing of a gull Laura couldn't tell. For
two full minutes she stared upwards, but saw nothing else.
The lid twisted off easily. Retrieving the note was trickier. Laura managed it with the aid of
a stick. She unrolled the paper, a cream-coloured parchment. There was something old-fashioned
about the handwriting, as if the writer had a calligrapher's skills and had used the quill of a
feather and a pot of indigo ink. In long, artistic letters were the words: Can I trust you?
Laura looked around again. The path was unusually quiet for this time of the morning. Most
days it was teeming with dog walkers. She put down the note while she zipped up her coat and
pulled her scarf tighter. The mist had whited out the coastline. Clouds of it rolled across the sea,
muffling the sound of the waves.
If she had any sense, she'd toss the bottle into the nearest litter bin, hurry along and forget
she ever saw it. But what if? That's what the voice in her head was saying. What if the writer was
someone in real danger? What if she was their only lifeline and she ignored them and walked
away? Laura opened her bag and took out a pen. Beneath the question, 'Can I trust you?' she
wrote in bright red capitals: YES.
Question 36. When Laura reached the Island, she was struck by _______
A. the length of the life-rope. B. the colour of the rocks.
C. the power of the sea. D. the shape of the path.
Question 37. How was the headland on the north side of the Island described in the passage?
A. It was a place where Laura occasionally spent time looking at the ocean.
B. It was a desert island where Laura enjoyed spending time gazing at the sea.
C. It was always covered in a sea mist, which made it hard for Laura to see things.
D. It gave Laura a creepy feeling each time she reached it, because of the chapel.
Question 38. What does "a drenching" in the 2nd paragraph mean?
A. feeling sick B. getting wet C. being seen D. falling over
Question 39. When Laura saw the bottle on the path, she was _______
A. amused. B. annoyed. C. impressed. D. suspicious.
Question 40. After reading the note, Laura took time to _______

A. listen to the sea. B. admire the view.
C. keep out the cold. D. observe some dogs.
Question 41. What does the sentence "Most days it was teeming with dog walkers" means?
A. Dog walkers were banned from the path in most days.
B. Most dog walkers found the path attractive every day.
C. Most of the time the path was crowded with dog walkers.
D. Most of the path was quite dangerous to dog walkers.
Question 42. How did Laura's attitude change towards the end of the extract?
A. She started to fear for her own safety.
B. She pretended to trust the message writer.
C. She began to take the message more seriously.
D. She became irritated with herself for wasting her time.
Question 43. In many tanks, goldfish are not just ornamental; they are also benefit since they feed
on mosquito larvae.
A. not just B. benefit C. feed on D. larvae
Question 44. Even though weasels are among the smallest carnivores, they will attack animals
that are doubled their size.
A. even though B. the smallest C. that D. doubled
Question 45 Vietnam exports a lot of rice is grown mainly in the south of the country.
A. exports B. is grown C. in the south D. the country
Question 46. Section Six of the Health and Safety Act forbids smoking in restaurant kitchens.
A. Smoking is forbidden in restaurants except for the kitchens according to Section Six of the
Health and Safety Act.
B. According to Section Six of the Health and Safety Act, there should be no smoke in restaurant
kitchens.
C. Smoking in restaurant kitchens is against the Section Six of the Health and Safety Act.
D. Without Section Six of the Health and Safety Act, smoking would be forbidden in restaurant
kitchens.
Question 47. Slightly more than twenty-five percent of the students in the class come from
Spanish-speaking countries.
A. A considerable proportion of the students in the class are Spanish.
B. Seventy-five percent of the students speak Spanish.
C. About half of the students in class speak languages other than Spanish.
D. Just more than one-fourth of the students in the class are Hispanic.
Question 48. “Sasha has already cleaned this bedroom,” said mom.
A. Mom said that Sasha has already cleaned that bedroom.

B. Mom said that Sasha had already cleaned this bedroom.
C. Mom said that Sasha has already cleaned this bedroom.
D. Mom said that Sasha had already cleaned that bedroom.
Question 49. Elderly people require constant attention. Many of them are dependent on the
financial aid from the government.
A. Elderly people, a large number's depending on government financial aid, require constant
attention.
B. Elderly people, and many of them depend on the government to finance them, require constant
attention.
C. Elderly people, who are dependent many of them on the financing of the government, require
constant attention.
D. Elderly people, many of whom are financially dependent on the government, require constant
attention.
Question 50. My sister told me to pack some trousers and shirts for the trip. Most importantly,
she told me not to forget my toothbrush.
A. My sister told me to pack some trousers and shirts for the trip, but more or less, not to forget
my toothbrush.
B. My sister told me to pack some trousers and shirts for the trip, but above all, not to forget my
toothbrush.
C. My sister told me to pack some trousers and shirts for the trip, before long, not to forget my
toothbrush.
D. My sister told me to pack some trousers and shirts for the trip, after all, not to forget my
toothbrush.
----------THE END---------

BẢNG ĐÁP ÁN
ĐỀ 1
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
A C A B B D B A A D
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
D A A C A C A B C D
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
B B C B B A A B A B
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
D B A B B B C A D B
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
C B C B D C A A A D
ĐỀ 2
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
A D A C D B C C D A
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
B D A C D A C B D A
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
C C B B D A C C B C
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A B C A A C C B D C
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
C B A C B B A A B C
ĐỀ 3
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
B A D D A C C D B C
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A B D C A D B A D A
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
D B B B D A B D C A
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
B A A D C D B A A C
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
C B C C D B C B B D

ĐỀ 4
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
B C B A D B D A D A
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
D C D B B C C A B A
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
A B B D A B C A B B
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
B D A D C A D C B D
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
C C B D D A B A C A
ĐỀ 5
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
B D D D C D D B B C
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A D C C A D A D C A
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
C A B B A A A D C A
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
D A C C A B A C A B
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A B D A B A D C B B
ĐỀ 6
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
B D C D C A B D B D
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A C D B D D B D C C
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
D B A D A B B C D A
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
D B A A A A B A C D
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
C C C D A A C C A B

ĐỀ 7
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
A B D C C C D A A C
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
C B C B C B A C A A
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
C D B B D C C D D A
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
C D B B A B A B D B
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
D C C B D D D A D C
ĐỀ 8
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
C D C B D B C D A B
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
B C A D D D D C A C
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
B A D A D C C A A C
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A D A A B C A A D D
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
B B D B D A B B A D
ĐỀ 9
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
D A C D D A A C C A
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
C C D B A C B D C A
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
C A B C D D D A C A
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
D B A C B B B C B B
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A D B D A A B B A B

ĐỀ 10
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
D A D B B B C C D A
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
C C B D B A A D B D
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
A B A C D B D A D B
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
D D A A B C A B D C
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
C C B D B C D D D B

Bộ 10 đề tổng ôn giai đoạn cuối (KYS)

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TÀI LIỆU KYS | CHÍ CHÂU

BỘ ĐỀ TỔNG ÔN GIAI ĐOẠN CUỐI

BẢNG ĐÁP ÁN ..................................................................................................................... 73

Xem đầy đủ file giải chi tiết tại: https://bom.to/Bvapwa2OdWnJZ

Tài liệu KYS Education is the Key to Your Success 1

TRÍCH TỪ KHÓA LUYỆN ĐỀ NÂNG CAO – X4

MÔN: TIẾNG ANH – ĐỀ SỐ 1

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

Học Tiếng Anh cùng anh Chí Châu 2

Tài liệu KYS Education is the Key to Your Success 3

Học Tiếng Anh cùng anh Chí Châu 4

Tài liệu KYS Education is the Key to Your Success 5

Học Tiếng Anh cùng anh Chí Châu 6

Tài liệu KYS Education is the Key to Your Success 7

TRÍCH TỪ KHÓA LUYỆN ĐỀ NÂNG CAO – X4

MÔN: TIẾNG ANH – ĐỀ SỐ 2

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

Học Tiếng Anh cùng anh Chí Châu 8

Tài liệu KYS Education is the Key to Your Success 9

Học Tiếng Anh cùng anh Chí Châu 10

Tài liệu KYS Education is the Key to Your Success 11

Học Tiếng Anh cùng anh Chí Châu 12

Tài liệu KYS Education is the Key to Your Success 13

Học Tiếng Anh cùng anh Chí Châu 14

Tài liệu KYS Education is the Key to Your Success 15

TRÍCH TỪ KHÓA LUYỆN ĐỀ NÂNG CAO – X4

MÔN: TIẾNG ANH – ĐỀ SỐ 3

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

Học Tiếng Anh cùng anh Chí Châu 16

Tài liệu KYS Education is the Key to Your Success 17

Học Tiếng Anh cùng anh Chí Châu 18

Tài liệu KYS Education is the Key to Your Success 19

Học Tiếng Anh cùng anh Chí Châu 20

Tài liệu KYS Education is the Key to Your Success 21

TRÍCH TỪ KHÓA LUYỆN ĐỀ NÂNG CAO – X4

MÔN: TIẾNG ANH – ĐỀ SỐ 4

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

Học Tiếng Anh cùng anh Chí Châu 22

Tài liệu KYS Education is the Key to Your Success 23

Synchronised swimming or (26) _______ swimming used to be known as 'water ballet'.

Học Tiếng Anh cùng anh Chí Châu 24

Tài liệu KYS Education is the Key to Your Success 25

Học Tiếng Anh cùng anh Chí Châu 26

Tài liệu KYS Education is the Key to Your Success 27

Học Tiếng Anh cùng anh Chí Châu 28

TRÍCH TỪ KHÓA LUYỆN ĐỀ NÂNG CAO – X4

MÔN: TIẾNG ANH – ĐỀ SỐ 5

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

Tài liệu KYS Education is the Key to Your Success 29

Học Tiếng Anh cùng anh Chí Châu 30

Tài liệu KYS Education is the Key to Your Success 31

Question 31. The word “on-the-job” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.

Học Tiếng Anh cùng anh Chí Châu 32

Tài liệu KYS Education is the Key to Your Success 33

Học Tiếng Anh cùng anh Chí Châu 34

Tài liệu KYS Education is the Key to Your Success 35

TRÍCH TỪ KHÓA LUYỆN ĐỀ NÂNG CAO – X4

MÔN: TIẾNG ANH – ĐỀ SỐ 6

Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

Học Tiếng Anh cùng anh Chí Châu 36

Tài liệu KYS Education is the Key to Your Success 37

Học Tiếng Anh cùng anh Chí Châu 38