Chapter 1 Orientation And Fire Service

History Flashcards Preview
1. The majority (23,000) of fire organizations are.... >Volunteer
2. 1608. First recorded major fire in the New World. >Jamestown
3. 1678. First ever paid fire company. >Boston
4. 1647. First fire organization in America. >New Amsterdam. Surveyors of buildings.
5. Philadelphia fire society formed in 1735. A year later they formed....................... with the
guidance of .........................>Union Volunteer Fire Company. Benjamin Franklin.
6. 1700's. Fire protection was being driven by. >Advancements in technology.
7. Further advancements in technology. Such as wood being replaced by iron and steel. >1900's
Industrial Revolution.
8. Steel increased fire risk dues to. >Large numbers of people in tall buildings with combustible
materials, interior finishes, and limited egress.
9. NFPA formed in. >1896
10. First NFPA standard.>NFPA regulation of the design and installation of fire protection
sprinklers systems in structures.
11
Code that followed NFPA formation. Written in 1897.
National Electric Code.
12
Required panic hardware on exit doors, and required they swing outwards. Regulations of
combustible materials in a place of assembly.
Iroquois Theater Fire, Chicago 1903
13
Fire resulted in the NFPA 101, Life Safety Code. Established requirements for means of egress.
Triangle Shirtwaist Fire. New York. 1911
14
Led to stricter fire and life safety requirements for assembly type occupies.
Cocoanut Grove Nightclub Fire. Boston. 1942
15
Resulted in the development of life safety standards to regulate the manufacture and use of tents for
public occupancy.
Ringling Brothers and Barnum and Bailey Circus fire. Hartford, Connecticut 1944
16
Brought attention to the need for improvements in design of school buildings, requirements for fire
detection and alarm systems, and the need for enclosed stairwells. Also required schools to perform
fire evacuation drills.
Our Lady of the Angles School Fire. Chicago 1958
17
Local laws enacted to require all medium and high rise buildings to install sprinkler systems.
MGM grand fire. Las Vegas 1980
18
Changes made to NFPA standards for fire sprinkler and crowd management requirements for
nightclubs and other assembly occupies.
Station Night Club Fire, West Warwick, Rhode Island, 2003
19
Increased emphasis on structural collapse, confined space, and search and rescue training and
equipment.
Murrah Building Bombing, OKC 1995
20
Forced the fire service to improve its ability to communicate with other agencies during major
disasters, which is referred to as interoperability.
WTC and Pentagon attacks. 2001
21
Obsolete term for resistance to fire.
Fire Proof
22
Emphasized the need for public fire and life safety education and prevention programs.
America Burning 1973
23
National Fallen firefighter foundation, Everyone goes home.
16 firefighter life safety initiatives.
24
The Superfund amendments and re authorization Act of 1986 (SARA Title III) and OSHA 1910.120
regulate...
haz mat transport, transport vehicle design, and emergency responder training.
25
Community based programs have three steps.
Research, Education, and Implementation.
26
Trends of fire service change in the 20th century.
Fire prevention and public safety education, Firefighter Safety, EMS, Haz-mat, Terrorism, Natural
disaster (all hazard) mitigation, Professionalization of the fire service. Community based fire
protection.
27
Interoperabiltiy
Ability of two or more systems or components to exchange information and use the information that
has been exchanged.
28
Culture
The shared assumptions, beliefs, and values of a group or organization.
29
Cultural Strengths
Integrity, Moral Character, Work Ethic, Pride, Courage, Loyalty, Respect, Compassion
30
Integrity
Doing the right thing because it is right, not because it is required. Doing the right thing even when
no one is watching.
31
Moral Character
right and just behavior with a emphasis on trust.
32
Work Ethic
valuing the virtues of hard work and thoroughness. Being prompt, reliable, and willing to take the
initiative.
33
Courage
ability to confront fear, pain, danger or uncertainty
34
Authority having jurisdiction AHJ
Determines what services are needed to protect its citizens and establishes the fire service to meet
those needs.
35
Fire and emergency organizations can either be .....or.....
Public, Private
36
Most communities in the US and Canada are protected by
Volunteer organizations
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Line Personel
Provide services to external customers.
38
Staff Personel
Provide support to internal customers in areas such as finance, maintenance, and training.
39
External Customers
Citizens of the service area protected by the organization.
40
Internal Customers
Employees and membership of the organization.
41
Company
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Basic unit of fire fighting operations
42
Multiple company's within a response area.
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Battalion or district
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Engine Company
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fire suppression at structures, vehicles, wild land, and other types of fires. Provide water supply and
advance attack lines.
44
Truck (Ladder) Company
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Forcible entry, search and rescue, ventilation, salvage and overhaul, utilities, provide access to upper
levels of a structure.
45
Rescue/Squad Company
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Search for and remove victims from areas of danger or entrapment and may perform technical
rescues.
46
Brush Company
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Protect the wild land / urban interface
47
Haz mat Company
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Mitigate Haz mat incidents
48
Emergency Medical / ambulance company
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provide EMS and / or transport to patients
49
Special rescue company
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Perform technical rescues, including RIT
50
Aircraft rescue and fire fighter company
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Performs rescue and fire suppression involving aircraft accidents.
51
NFPA 1001
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Standard for Fire fighter professional qualifications
52
NFPA 1582
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Standard on Comprehensive Occupational Medical Program for Fire Departments
53
Uniformed Personnel
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have received basic training and may perform line and staff functions
54
Nonuniform Personnel
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civilians, not trained in hazards, do not participate in hazard mitigation.
55
NFPA 472
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Standard on competence of responders to hazardous materials/weapons of mass destruction
incidents.
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Fire fighter I
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fire suppression, search and rescue, extrication, ventilation, salvage and overhaul, EMS,
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Fire fighter II
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Incident reports, extinguishing liquid fires, controlling flammable gas fires, cause and orgin, pre
incident surveys, pub eds, fire hose testing, maintaining power equipment.
58
NFPA 1002
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Standard for fire apparatus driver/operator professional qualifications.
59
NFPA 1003
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Standard for Airport Fire fighter Professional Qualifications.
 60
NFPA 1003
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Standard for technical rescuer professional qualifications.
61
NFPA 1051
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Standard on Wildland Fire fighter professional qualifications.
62
NFPA 1521
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Standard for Fire Department Safety Officer
63
Incident Command System (ICS)
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Standardized approach to incident management that facilitates interaction between cooperating
agencies, adaptable to incidents of any size or type.
64
NFPA 1021
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Standard for fire officer professional qualifications.
65
NFPA 1021 and 1037
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Standard for professional qualifications for fire marshal.
66
Emergency Medical Responders (EMR's)
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Provide immediate life saving care to critical patients while awaiting additional EMS assistance.
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Emergency Medical Technician
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Provide basic emergency medical care and transport for critical and emergent patients. Treatment
provided through basic medical equipment.
68
Advanced Emergency Medical Tecnician
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Provide basic and limited advanced emergency medical care and transport for critical and emergent
patients.
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Paramedics
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Provide advanced emergency medical care for critical and emergent patients.
70
Fire Prevention officer / inspector
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perform inspections, enforce building and fire code.
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NFPA 1031
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Standard for professional qualifications for fire inspector and plan examiner.
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Plan Examiner
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review architectural and fire protection system plans.
73
Fire and arson investigator
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Uniformed personnel who investigate fires and explosions to determine their origin and cause.
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NFPA 1033
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Standard for professional qualifications for Fire Investigator
75
Fire and life safety educators
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inform public about fire and life safety hazards, fire cause, and precautions or actions to take during
a fire.
76
NFPA 1035
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Standard for professional qualifications for fire and life safety educator, public information officer,
and juvenile fire setter intervention specialist.
77
Fire protection engineer/specialist
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Check architectural and fire protection system plans for proposed buildings.
78
Staff functions
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Fire dept health and safety officer, Telecommunicators, Fire alarm maintenance personnel,
Apparatus and equipment maintenance personnel, Information system personnel, Clerical staff,
Instructors, Training officer/chief of training.
79
Fire dept health and safety officer (HSO)
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oversees the dept's occupatinal health and safety program
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NFPA 1500
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Standard for fire dept occupational safety and health program.
81
NFPA 1521
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Standard for fire dept safety officer
82
Telecommunicators
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receive emergency and non emergency calls, dispatch units, maintain communications with
companies, complete incident reports.
83
NFPA 1061
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Standard for professional qualification for public safety telecommunicator.
 84
Fire Alarm maintenance personnel
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maintain municipal fire alarm systemsN
85
NFPA 72
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National fire alarm and signaling code
86
Apparatus and equipment maintenance personnel
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maintain apparatus, vehicles, and equipment
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NFPA 1071
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Standard on emergency vehicle technician professional qulaifications
88
Information systems personnel
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manage electronic data bases used for fire reporting
89
Clerical Staff
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Personnel who provide secretarial, administrative, and record keeping support.
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NFPA 1041
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Standard for fire service instructor professional qualifications
91
Organizational principles
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Chain of command, Unity of command, Span of control, Division of labor.
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Chain of command
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formal line of authority, responsibly, and communication within the organization.
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unity of command
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each person reports to just one supervisor
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Span of control
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3-7. 5 is optimum
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Division of labor is necessary in the fire service becuase
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assign responsibility, prevent duplication of effort, assign specific task.
96
Discipline
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administered through rules, regulations, and policies that define acceptable performance and
expected outcomes.
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Policy
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Guide to decision making within an organization. Address things such as work hours, emergency
response guidelines, and chain of command.
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Procedures
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detailed written plans that list specific steps for approaching a problem or situation
99
Standard
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a set of principles, protocols, or procedures that is developed by committees through concensus
100
Code
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a collection of rules and regulations that has been enacted by law in a particular jurisdiction
101
Public works assist the FD by providing
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Heavy equipment for confined space rescue, Earth moving equipment, Flood control
equipment, Sand for containing spills, Barriers and signs to divert traffic, Facility
maintenance and repair, Civil/structural engineers.

Chapter 2 Firefighter Safety And

Health Flashcards Preview
1
NFPA and USFA numbers on fatalities and injuries per year
100 deaths. 80,000 injuries.
2
Leading types of injuries.
Strains and sprains. (nearly 50%)
3
Leading cause of death.
Stress and overexertion. (heart attack and stroke).
4
Injuries can be prevented by
training, discipline and accountability, safety SOP's, using PPE, physical fitness, risk management
guidelines, rehab at incidents.
5
Cardiovascular disease accounts for .......line of duty deaths.
45%, the highest factor.
6
Mitigate
To make less harsh or intense; to alleviate.
7
Hazard
Condition, substance, or device that can directly cause injury or loss; the source of a risk.
8
Percent of firefighters who are overweight.
40%
9
NFPA 1582
Standard on comprehensive occupational medical program for fire departments.
10
Stressor
Any agent, condition, or experience that causes stress.
11
Employee Assistance program
Program to help employees and their families with work or personal problems.
12
NFPA 1971
Standard on protective ensembles for structural fire fighting and proximity fire fighting.
13
NFPA 1975
Standard on station/work uniforms for emergency services.
14
NFPA 1977
Standard on protective clothing and equipment for wildland fire fighting.
15
NFPA 1403
Standard on live fire training evolution's.
16
NFPA 1404
Standard for fire service respiratory protection training.
17
NFPA 1407
Standard for training fire service rapid intervention crews.
18
NFPA 1410
Standard on training for initial emergency scene operations.
19
NFPA 1451
Standard for fire service vehicle operations training program.
20
NFPA 1851
Standard on selection, care, and ,maintenance of protective ensembles for structural fire fighting and
proximity fire fighting.
21
NFPA 1981
Standard on open circuit self contained breathing apparatus (SCBA) for emergency services.
22
NFPA 1581
Standard on fire department infection control programs.
23
NFPA 1582
Standard on comprehensive occupational medical program for fire departments.
24
NFPA 1584
Standard on the rehabilitation process for members during emergency operations and training
exercises.
25
NFPA 1500
Standard on fire department occupational safety and health program.
26
Basic concept of NFPA 1500 is to
promote safety throughout the fire service.
27
Departmental safety and health programs must address ..
all anticipated hazards to which the members might be exposed.
28
NFPA 1500 requires personnel not be assigned to firefighting duties until the have meet the
requirements of
NFPA 1000 series of professional qualification (ProQual) standards.
29
Risk Management Plan
Written plan that analyzes the exposure to hazards, implements appropriate risk management
techniques, and establishes criteria for monitoring their effectiveness.
30
NFPA 101
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Life safety code
31
Faculties must have a space and means for cleaning, disinfecting and storing.....
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infection control devices.
32
Goal of a critical incident stress management program
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provide counseling for personnel involved in highly stressful incidents.
33
Topics covered in NFPA 1500
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Safety and health related policies and procedures, Training and education, Fire apparatus,
equipment, and driver/operators, PPE, Emergency operations, Facilty safety, Medical and physical
requirements, Member assistance and wellness programs, Critical incident stress management
program.
34
OSHA's code of federal regulations title 29 are designed to
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ensure work places are free from hazards that can cause death or serious injury.
35
OSHA regulations applies to
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federal and and private sector employees.
36
How many states have adopted OSHA regulations?
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25
37
Everyone goes home is also known as
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16 firefighter life safety initiatives (pg61)
38
What NFPA standard requires all organizations implement a risk management plan?
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NFPA 1500
39
NFPA requires departments implement a firefighter safety and health program that meats these
three goals.
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1.Prevent human suffering, fatalities, injuries, and exposures to hazardous atmospheres and
contagious diseases.
2. Prevent damage to or loss of equipment.
3. Reduce accidents and hazardous exposures, and their severity.
40
Second leading cause of firefighter deaths
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Motor Vehicle Accidents
41
Five basic causes of fire apparatus collisions
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Improper Backing, Excessive Speed, Lack of skill and experience, Reckless driving by the public,
Poor design and maintenance.
42
Situational Awarness
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Perception of the surrounding environment, and the ability to anticipate future events.
43
Who sets rules dealing with how responses are to be made in emergency vehicles.
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States
44
Multiple emergency vehicles should travel at least ............feet apart.
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300-500
45
Driver reaction distance
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Distance travel from recognition of needing to stop to foot being applied to the brake.
46
Braking distance
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distance apparatus travel from when driver presses brake to when the apparatus has stopped.
47
Total stopping distance
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Driving reaction distance + Braking distance
48
Internal Baffles
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Prevent water from shifting the center of gravity of the apparatus.
49
Exception to never allowing a person to ride on the outside of a apparatus.
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slow speed (less than 5 mph) hose loading operations. Must be moving forward.
50
The most expensive workers compensation claims are due to
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back strains
51
Standard establishes safety requirements for all use of tools and equipment.
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NFPA 1500
52
The most common tool type?
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Un-powered (hand) tools.
53
Any electrical tool not marked "double insulated" should have a
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three prong plug
54
According to NFPA,....................firefighters died in training related incidents between 1996 and 2005.
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100
55
Minimize your exposure to risk by
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Follow orders, Wear PPE, Work as a team, Follow SOP's, Maintain communications with team and
command, Do a risk/benefit analysis for every action, Employ safe and effective tactics, Never
operate alone or without supervision, Perform an initial assessment and maintain situational
awareness.
56
Apply these basic techniques in fire fighting operations.
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Scan the outside of the building to locate entrance and egress, Wear PPE, Manage air supply, Bring
appropriate tools and equipment, Stay in physical, vocal, or visual contact with other members of
your team, Maintain radio contact with command.
57
DOT regulations require all personnel working on a roadway to wear
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high visibility vest.
58
Flood lights should be directed
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high enough to be directed to the scene without being in personals eyes.
59
Apparatus should be place at angle with the front wheels facing ......from the scene.
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turned away
 60
To protect the pump operator the pump panel should be faced
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on the protected side away from traffic
61
Any apparatus not used to form a initial or secondary(10-200 feet away) barrier should be moved to
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the shoulder of the road
62
Signs and traffic cones can be used to
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detour trafic
63
4 guidelines for maintain situational awareness at accident scenes
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1. look before you move
2. keep a eye on moving traffic
3. walk facing oncoming traffic
4. follow SOP's
64
A firefighter or other responsible person should stay with..............and /or ........... during a incident
until the patient has been removed from the scene.
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friends and/or family
65
The best way to control a scene is to establish
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control zones
66
Establish a collapse zone under these three conditions.
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1. prolonged heat or fire that has weaken the structure.
2. defensive strategy has been adopted.
3. Interior operations cannot be justified.
67
The safest place for defensive operations is
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at the corners of a building
68
Accountability systems are used to track personnel both in and out of the
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hot zone
69
3 types of accountability systems.
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1. passports
2. SCBA tags
3. computer based electronic
70
Passport (tag) system
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Passport given to command or accountability officer upon entering hot zone, given back when exiting
hot zone.
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SCBA tag sytems
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time within hot zone is determine upon lowest air pressure reading.
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Computer based electronic systems
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radio/radar based tracking attached to ppe.
73
Should only be used as a supplemental tracking system
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Computer based electronic accountability systems.

Chapter 3 Fire Department

Communications Flashcards Preview
1
Fire department communications can be divided into two groups.
Internal and External
2
Internal Communications
consist primarily of radio transmissions between units and individuals during emergency operations.
3
External Communications
request from the public for both emergency and non emergency assistance.
4
Two broad categories of telecommunication systems.
Emergency service specific telecommunications center, Public Safety answering point (PSAP).
5
Emergency Service Specific Telecommunications Center
Separate telecommunications or dispatch centers that the fire department, EMS, or police operates.
6
Public Safety Answering Point (PSAP)
Central location that takes all emergency calls and routes the call to the fire, EMS, or police
dispatcher.
7
NFPA 1221
Standard for the installation, maintenance, and use of emergency services communications systems.
8
Information that should be gather upon receiving a emergency call.
The type of emergency, The location of he emergency, The number and location of people involved,
The name and location of the caller, The callers call back number, The cross street, building name,
neighborhood, area of city/county, or any nearby landmarks.
9
Over 96% of the U.S. has access to
Enhanced 911
10
Enhanced 911
combines telephones and CAD to provide dispatch with instant information such as phone #, address,
and directions to the address.
11
What is a public alerting system?
Any system that the public can use to report an emergency.
12
Types of public alert systems
Telephones, two-way radios, wired telegraph circuit boxes, telephone fire alarm boxes, and radio
alarm boxes.
13
Wired telegraph box
Very reliable. Only transmit the location and not the nature of the emergency. Notorious for false
alarms.
14
Telephone alarm box
equipment with a telephone to allow direct voice contact with a telecommunicator. Some systems
incorporate a wired telegraph and telephone alarm together.
15
Radio Transmitter box
Contain a independent radio transmitter and a battery or solar panel.
16
Most common forms of alarm notification in small towns?
Sirens, Whistles, and air horns.
17
Information broadcast to responders should include ...
information received from the caller and information from the pre-incident plan developed for the
specific address or similar facility.
18
Radio systems require you to have a knowledge of
Radio systems and how hey work, Limitations of radio communications, Fixed,mobile, and portable
radios assigned to you.
19
Radio systems can be classified in three ways.
By there location and size, By the type of signal used, By the transmission signal.
20
Base station radios
Fixed, non mobile, radio at a central location.
21
Base stations have
stable, powerful transmitters and interference resistant receivers that provide better performance
than mobile or portable radios.
22
Base station equipment includes a
receiver, transmitter, antenna, microphone, and speakers.
23
Mobile radios are mounted in ..............and are powered by the
apparatus, vehicles. Vehicles electrical system.
24
Mobile radios have better performance than portable radios but are not
as powerful as fixed location radios.
25
Portable radios are ................devices
hand held
26
Portable radios that are used in a hazardous atmosphere must be
intrinsically safe
27
Intrinsically safe equipment
Equipment designed and approved for use in flammable atmospheres that is incapable of releasing
sufficient electrical energy to cause the ignition of a flammable atmospheric mixture.
28
Radio signals travel between the transmitter and receiver in either of these formats.
analog or digital
29
Analog and digital signals travel over either of these two formats.
Amplitude Modulation (AM) (also known as medium wave signal), or Frequency Modulation (FM).
30
This does a better job of canceling naturally occurring noise by filtering frequencies that are not the
human voice.
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Frequency Modulation (FM)
31
A digital transmitter converts the voice in to these which are then broadcast to the receiver.
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Digital data packets
32
Refers to the straight line travel of radio signals between the antenna connected to the transmitter
and the antenna connected to the receiver.
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Direct communication
33
When one radio transmits and another receives, the type of communication is callled
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Simplex System
34
Used to increase the range of radio systems and to send signals over tall barriers.
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Repeaters
35
A repeater use two radio frequencies for communication.
Receiving a communication on one signal and then sending that communication to another receiver
on a separate signal.
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Half duplex system
36
Allows for communication in both directions simultaneously. Give a example.
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Full duplex system. Land line telephone.
37
Radio systems can be either of these two things.
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Conventional or Trunked
38
Conventional radio system
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Frequency is dedicated to one use, such as operations.
39
Trunked radio systems
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Improve efficiency by assigning transmissions to available frequencies. This allows high volumes of
traffic to be handled on multiple channels.
40
A term used to describe a failure tone
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Bonk
41
Used to to distinguish among physical frequencies or channels in a conventional radio system.
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Talkgroup
42
Features of trunked radio systems.
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Mutigroup call, Private call, Dynamic regrouping
43
Mutigroup call
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Used to transmit calls to two or more talk groups. When a connection is made the talk groups can
talk to each other.
44
Private call
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Permits one radio to call another radio like a telephone.
45
Dynamic regrouping
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Emergency alert signal that when activated sends a signal to the agency dispatch center.
46
Use of plain language, including certain standard words and phrases, in radio communications.
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Clear Text
47
4 main limitations or barriers to radio transmissions.
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Distance, Physical Barriers, Interference, Ambient Noise.
48
An indication that the receiver is near the limit of its range.
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Static and broken up messages
49
To overcome physical barriers when transmitting a radio signal do these three things.
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Turn your body 90 degrees, lift the portable radio higher, raise the antenna up straight.
 50
To improve transmissions while inside buildings consider
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moving to a outside wall, roof, window, or doorway.
51
Sources of interference.
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Another powerful radio signal, Vehicle Ignitions, Electric Motors, High Voltage Transmission Lines,
Computers, Equipment that has microprocessors, Cell phone towers or transmitters, High power
radio sites such as tv and radio systems.
52
Overcoming ambient noise is the responsibly of who?
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The personal using the radio.
53
Ways to overcome ambient noise.
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Turn off apparatus warning devices when they are no longer needed. Move away from noise emitting
equipment, Follow radio procedures at all times, Move to a location that blocks wind, Use your body
or PPE to create a wind barrier.
54
Six elements of generally accepted communication model.
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Senders idea, Idea encoded and transmitted, Message decoded to receiver, Receiver idea, Idea
encoded and transmitted, Decoded and received by original sender.
55
Sender
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The person who initiates the message either verbally or non verbally.
56
Message
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The content of the senders message. May include multiple human senses.
57
Receiver
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Who the sender is attempting to communicate with. May be one receiver or multiple.
58
Feedback to the sender
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Reaction of the message and its tone by the receiver. The receiver then becomes the sender.
59
Interference
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Anything that prevents the receiver from understanding the message.
60
Two rules to follow with all radio transmission.
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Units or individuals should identify themselves in every radio transmission, Receiver should repeat
the essence of the message from the sender.
61
ABCs of good radio communication
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Accurate, Brief, Concise
62
If you cannot be understood while transmitting while wearing a SCBA you should.
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Hold the microphone to your throat
63
Time checks have two important functions.
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Used to remind interior crews to check their air supply, Used to assist command to gauge if the
strategies are effective.
64
When giving a tactical progrees report you should check your
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air aupply
65
CARA report
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Conditions, Actions, Resources, AIr
66
A mobile communication center can
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monitor the tactical channel, monitor radios used by other agency's that are not on the same channel,
provide radios to personnel, maintain contact with the communications center.
67
Personnel Accountability Report (PAR)
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A systematic method of confirming status of units operating at a incident.
68
One limitations of a PAR
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it uses a considerable amount of radio time, espicially at larger incidents.
69
PAR can be requested at any time or at the following times.
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Regular interval times. Incident is declared under control, Change in strategy, Sudden catastrophic
even, Emergency evacuation, Firefighter is missing or in distress, Primary search has been
completed, Safety Officer request it.
70
A incident report is a
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legal document.
71
Incident reports gather information that is used for
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Assessing dept needs, Budgeting, Determining trends in types of resources, Determining trends in
firefighter injuries, Providing info for national fire safety data base, Determining trends in fire cause,
Determining requirements for fire and life safety education programs, Providing info to insurance
agency's.
72
There is a direct connection between fire ground safety and
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fire ground communication.
73
All fifty states participate in this, but not all departments do.
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NFIRS

Chapter 4 Building Construction Flashcards

Preview
1
All trusses constructed prior to the late 1960's have a common code deficiency.
The bottom cord members have inadequate tensile strength to support roof loads allowed by the
current existing code.
2
Common building materials include
Wood, Masonry, Metals, Reinforced Concrete, Gypsum, Lath and Plaster, Glass/Fiberglass, Plastic,
Composite materials.
3
The most common building material in north america
Wood
4
Two factors that affect how wood react to fire.
Size and moisture content
5
Lumber of small dimensions needs to be protected by.......to increase its resistance or heat and fire.
gypsum or other insulation
6
Wood may be ..........to reduce the speed at which it ignites and burns.
pressure treated with fire-retardant chemicals
7
Green Wood
Wood with high moisture content
8
Pressure treating wood can weaken the woods strength by as much as
25%
9
Roofs, decks, walls, and sub floors are all commonly made of
OSB
10
Includes bricks,stones, and concrete blocks
Masonary
11
These may crack, but they usually retain most of their strength and basic structural stability.
Concrete Blocks
12
Veneer Wall
Walls with a surface layer of attractive material laid over a base of common material.
13
In masonry walls this may become degraded by heat and may show signs of weakening.
Mortar
14
Spalling
Expansion of excess moisture within masonry materials due to exposure to heat of a fire, resulting in
tensile forces within the material, and causing it to break apart. May cause explosive pitting or
chipping of the materials surface.
15
Metal building materials commonly include
cast iron, steel, aluminum, other metals.
16
Metal building materials are used for
structural support, decorative coverings, stairs, door and window frames, duct work, pipes, and
fasteners.
17
The effects of heat and fire on metal materials is dependent on....
Metal type, whether it is exposed or not.
18
Two types of Iron that can be found in North America
Wrought Iron, Cast Iron
19
Commonly used metal in construction in the 1900's.
Cast Iron.
20
With stands heat and fire but may crack if rapidly cooled.
Cast Iron
21
Metal used in construction in the 1800's.
Wrought Iron
22
Used today as decoration on gates, fences, and railings.
Wrought Iron
23
Rivet or welded
Wrought Iron
24
Bolted or screwed
Cast Iron
25
Primary material used for structural support in large modern buildings.
Steel
26
When heated to 1000 degrees a 50 foot steel beam can elongate how many inches?
4
27
Failure of steel members should be expected at how many degrees?
1000
28
Reduces the effect of heat on steel structural members
Spray on concrete or insulation
 29
Fire fighter can use ...............to cool steel and prevent or slow down its elongation.
water
30
Curtain wall
A non-load bearing wall, often glass or steel, fixed to the outside of a building and serving especially
as cladding.
31
Can create entanglement hazards for firefighters.
Drop down ceiling framing and support wires.
32
Will be affected by heat more rapidly then steel
Aluminum
33
Provides the compression strength of concrete and the tensile strength of steel.
Reinforced concrete
34
Also known as drywall or sheetrock, also a inorganic product.
Gypsum
35
Gypsum provides a excellent heat and fire resistance due to
Its high water content.
36
Commonly used to insulate steel and structural members.
Gypsum
37
A process rather then a single material
Lath and Plaster
38
Generally found in buildings built prior to 1950
Lath and Plaster
39
May replace the lath for ceilings in some homes
Wire Mesh
40
Not used in structural supports. Used in sheets for doors and windows. Used in block form for non
load bearing walls.
Glass
41
This type of glass may provide some thermal protection.
wire reinforced glass
42
Used as a insulating material
Fiberglass
43
A mineral fiber used as insulation before the 1970's
Asbestos
44
Used in the 1970's to insulate walls, caused high levels of formaldehyde emissions.
Urea Formaldehyde Foam Insulation (UFFI)
45
Most common insulation material prior to 1960's.
Mineral wool
46
80% recycled newspaper
cellulose
47
Used in the exterior walls of hybrid or natural (green) construction.
Straw
48
Used as siding, pipes, decorative moldings, wall coverings, mantel pieces.
Plastics
49
Manufactured by combining two or more different materials. Results in lightweight, high structural
strength, chemical resistant, corrosion resistant, and heat resistant material.
Composite Materials
50
Composite material examples
Finger jointed timber, Laminated Timber, Medium density fiber board, Particle board, Synthetic
wood.
51
Used in particle board, it can off gas causing a health risk.
Urea Formaldyhyde
52
The type of building construction is determined by
the materials used and how well those materials resist fire.
53
NFPA 5000
Building construction and Safety code.
54
The two most recognized building codes in the U.S.
NFPA 5000 and International Code Council International Building codes.
55
Factory built homes are usually regulated by the .......and not local building codes.
Department of housing and urban development.
56
These buildings may be exempt from local building codes.
Federal and/or state government buildings.
57
Every building is composed of these three building elements.
Structural frame, Floor construction, Roof construction
58
Also known as fire-resistive construction.
Type I
59
Provides the highest level of protection from fire, spread, and collapse. All structural materials are
limited or noncombustible materials. Structural components must resist fire for 3-4 hours.
Type I
 60
Also known as noncombustible or limited combustible construction.
Type II
61
Are composed of materials that will not add to the fire potential. Fire resistance rating is usually half
of Type I. More prone to collapse because of lighter weight materials. Usually used when fire risk is
low or sprinkler installed can meet the fire load of the contents.
Type II
62
Fire resistance rating
Rating assigned to a material or assembly after a standardized testing by an independent testing
organization. identifies the amount of time a material or assembly will resist a typical fire, as
measured on a standard time-temperature curve.
63
Also known as Ordinary Construction
Type III
64
Exterior walls and structural members are made of noncombustible materials and interior walls,
columns, beams, floors, and roofs, are completely or partially wood.
Type III
65
May contain voids that will contribute to rapid fire spread unless fire stops have been put in place.
May also carry a larger load then for what is was designed due to renovations or occupancy type
change
Type III
66
Also known as heavy timber/ mill construction.
Type IV
67
Characterized by the used of lumber greater then 8 inches as structural members. Very low collapse
risk. The lumbers own char provides insulating effect reducing heat from penetrating into the core of
a structural member.Non combustible exterior walls. No void spaces.
Type IV
68
Type of beam that may fail when exposed to fire because the glue holding it together may fail.
GluLam beams
69
Also known as wood frame or stick frame construction.
Type V
70
Exterior load bearing walls are composed of wood. Veneer over wood exterior provides little to no
protection. Most single family homes but also may be found in muti story structures.
Type V
71
Most structure built in the northern climates mandate 6 inch ..........for increased insulation.
exterior wall cavities.
72
Current estimates indicate that 25% of homes are ......
manufactured homes
 73
Manufacturer home built before 1976 have less..........then those of current construction.
fire resistance
74
May provide a additional oxygen source in manufactured homes.
open crawl space
75
Types of Factory built homes.
Manufactured, Modular, Panelized,Pre-cut, Hybrid.
76
Most common type of factory built home and cheapest.
Manufactured
77
Sections can be attached horizontal and vertically to make a home. Must conform to local building
codes.
Modular homes
78
Made of panels of foam sandwiched between sheets of plywood. Normally 8 feet wide by up to 40 feet
long. Self supporting so no framing members needed.
Panelized Homes
79
Come in varieties such as pole houses, post an beam, log homes, A-frame, and geodesic domes.
Individual parts that assembled on site.
Pre-cut Homes
80
Includes elements of both the modular design and panelized design.
Hybrid modular homes
81
Structures may also be classified according to their intended use or.......
occupancy
82
Structures are divided into two types of occupancies which are ?
Single use or Separated Use.
83
If a structure contains multiple types of use it is classified according to .....
its primary use.
84
These structures contain multiple occupancies or use groups, each must meet the requirements for its
own specific use. Occupancies are separated by a firewall. Example= strip mall
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Separated Use
85
Building components that serve a function and can contribute to or prevent fire growth.
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Foundations, Floors/Ceilings, Walls, Roofs, Stairs, Doors, Windows.
86
Used to make up deep foundations.
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piers or pilings, drilled shafts, caissons, helical piles, and earth stabilized columns.
87
In this type of corridor the ceiling will have the same fire restive rating as the walls.
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Exit or Egress
88
Define the perimeter of a building and divide the contents into compartments or rooms.
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Walls
89
Most difficult walls to penetrate to gain accesses or egress.
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Exterior walls and fire walls.
90
Walls, usually interior, that only support their own weight.
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Non-load bearing walls
91
Interior, non-load bearing wall that separates a space into rooms.
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Partition walls
92
Fire rated wall, built of fire restive material, usually extending from the foundation through the roof.
Design to limit the spread of fire in a structure.
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Fire Wall
93
A load bearing wall shared by two adjacent structures.
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Party Wall
94
The primary function of this is to protect the structure and its contents from the effects of weather.
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Roof
95
The shape and construction of the roof is intended to
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provide drainage, support snow, resist wind, insulate the interior from the exterior.
96
Indications of the general arrangements within a building. Can be useful in accomplishing vertical
ventilation.
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Penetrations and openings in a roof.
97
Roof shapes commonly found in North America.
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Pitched, Flat, Arched
98
Generally has a slight slope to the outer edge to facilitate drainage.
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Flat Roof
99
Portion of the exterior wall of a building that extends above the roof.
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Parapet
 100
The horizontal line at the junction of the top edges of two sloping roof surfaces.
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Ridge
101
The edge of a pitched roof that overhangs an outside wall.
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Eaves
102
Constructed in the late 1800's to 1900's. Design depends on the exterior walls to support the weight of
the roof.
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Arched Roof
103
Four types of arched roofs
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Bowstring, Ribbed, Diagonal grid (Lamella), Pleated Barrel
104
The three main components that make up a roof.
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supporting structure, deck or sheathing, roof covering
105
The two general types of roof supports use in residential and commercial construction.
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Beam and Truss Assembly
106
Gusset plates are also called ...........
They only penetrate the wood .......
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Gang nails, about 3/8"
107
Types of Truss assemblys
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Parallel cord, pitched chords, arched tuss
108
Incline beam that supports the roof. Runs parallel to the slope of the roof, and to which the roof
decking is attached.
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Rafter
109
Gusset Plate
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Wood or metal plates used to connect and strengthen the connection of two or more separate
components.
110
Horizontal structural members used to support a ceiling or floor.
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Joist
111
Box beam and I beam trusses are also called.
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Wide Flange
 112
Constructed of 2x3 or 2x4 or 2x6 lumber connected by gusset plates made of wood or metal.
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Light Weight Wood Trusses
113
The portion of the roof between the roof supports and the the roof covering.
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Roof deck
114
Components of a roof deck
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Sheathing, roof planks or slabs, purlins.
115
Types of roof decking in North America.
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Plywood sheathing, OSB, Wood tongue and groove, Corrugated Metal, Sprayable concrete
encapsulated polystyrene, Reinforced concrete, Double tee preformed concrete.
116
Horizontal member between trusses that support the roof.
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Purlin
117
The two types of concrete roofs in North America
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Pre-cast and poured in place
118
The part of a roof exposed to weather.
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Roof covering
119
Concealed space between the top floor and the roof of a structure.
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Cockloft
120
Weight of structure, structural members, building components, and any other feature permanently
attached to the building that are constant and immobile.
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Dead Load
121
This system of roof can create significant difficulty for firefighters during vertical ventilation.
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Cold Roof
122
This panels can be laid on a roof or embedded into it.
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Photovoltaic Cells
123
Can continue to produce electricity as long as the sunlight is present, even if fire damaged.
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Photovoltaic Roofs
124
A second roof constructed over an existing roof.
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Rain Roof.
125
Can conceal fire that may burn undetected causing truss failure, also may conceal HVAC units or
other dead loads.
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Rain roof
126
4 reasons you should not enter the void area of a rain roof during fire operations.
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You can become trapped, You can become overcome by heat and smoke, You can fall through a
weakened original roof, You can be caught in extreme fire conditions as heated gas mix with fresh
air.
127
Permitted is submitted and construction is inspected.
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Permitted structural modifications.
128
Unapproved and hazardous modifications.
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Nonpermitted modifications.
129
Items within a building that are movable but are not included as a permanent part of the structure;
or force placed upon a structure by the addition of people, object, or weather.
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Live Load
130
Stairs that are built to resist the spread of fire and smoke.
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Protected or Enclosed Stairs.
131
Stairs that are not required to be part of the means of egress system and typically connect no more
than two levels are called?
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Access or Convenience Stairs
132
These are no longer allowed as a required means of egress from a normal occupied space.
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Fire escapes, Escalators, and Fixed Ladders
133
Protected stairs typically have a ..........hour fire rating.
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1-2
134
Enclosed exterior stairs must conform to the same standards as those required for......
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Interior Stairs.
135
Fire escapes are attached to the outside of a building. The ......... in which they are anchored may not
be adequate for the expected load.
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Mortar
 136
Stair enclosures using either active or passive smoke control may be defined as....
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Smokeproof
137
Doors may be classified according to how they....
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operate
138
Five types of doors
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Swinging, Sliding, Folding, Vertical (overhead), Revolving
139
A door that rotates around a vertical axis by means of hinges attached to the side jam.
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Swinging door
140
A door suspended from a overhead track with nylon or steel rollers.
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Sliding door
141
Three types of sliding doors.
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Surface sliding, Pocket sliding, Bypass Sliding
142
Sliding doors are never allowed as part of a ............. because they slow people down.
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means of egress
143
A door that is hung from a overhead track and incorporates rollers or glides similar to a sliding door.
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Folding door.
144
May be bifolding or mutifolding.
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Folding door
145
A door that opens in a ........ plane and is also known as a overhead door.
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Vertical
146
A vertical door usually incorporates some type of ..........to help overcome the weight of the door.
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Counterbalance. (weights or a spring).
147
A door constructed with three or four sections or wings designed to rotate in a circular pattern. Used
to minimize the flow of air into and out of a building.
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Revolving door
148
Many revolving doors allow the wings to open into a book fold position when pressure is applied to....
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The wings in opposite directions
149
2 metal types used most often in door construction.
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Aluminum and carbon steel.
150
A door that consist of vertical and horizontal members that frame a rectangular area. Panels of
wood, glass, or louvers are placed within the rectangular area.
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Wood Panel Door
151
Also called a slab door.
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Flush door
152
Consist of a interior core made of laminated blocks of wood, particle board, or mineral composite.
The core is covered with two or three layers of thin material. For exterior applications they may be
covered in metal.
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Solid core door
153
Consist of spacers between the face panel to provide lateral support. Spacers may be honeycomb of
wood, plastic, or fiber board.
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Hollow core door
154
Doors that can be either framed or frame less. Typically found in office and mercantile businesses.
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Glass door
155
Glass doors are required to be built of .............to resist breaking.
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Tempered Glass.
156
A metal door may contain............... inside its interior.
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sound deading material, hard board in a honeycomb pattern, styrofoam.
157
A door that protects openings in fire rated walls.
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Fire door
158
To qualify as a fire rated door, the entire assembly, including the door, hardware, door seal, and
frame must pass a test by a ........
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Third party testing agency.
159
Rated fire doors are identified with a label indicating these three things.
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Door type, Hourly Rating, Testing Lab.
160
A door that is typically constructed of interlocking steel slats, releasing device, governors,
counterbalance, and wall guides. May be activated by a fusible link.
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Rolling steel fire door
161
Often found in old industrial buildings, usually held open by a fusible link, slide along a track either
by gravity or a counterweight.
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Horizontal sliding fire door
162
Fire doors made with terneplate (a metal of tin and lead) are usually called.
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Tin-clad Doors
163
A fire door that is usually used in stairwells enclosures or corridors that require a fire door.
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Swinging fire door
164
A fusible link depends on heat to activate therefore it may be slower then other devices that activate
based on....
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smoke or the rate of temp rise
165
Consist of a frame, one or more sashes, and all necessary hardware.
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Window
166
Refers to a framed unit that may be included within the window frame, it may be fixed or movable.
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Sash
167
Composed of a sill, side jamb, and head jam.
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Window Frame
168
2 broad classifications of windows.
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Fixed (nonoperable) and Movable (operable)
169
A window that consist of a frame ad a glazed stationary sash. Also called display window, picture
widow, and deadlights.
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Fixed Window
170
Eight types of movable windows.
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Double hung, Single hung, Casement, Horizontal sliding, Awning, Jalousie, Projecting, Pivoting.
171
Consist of two sashes that move past each other in a vertical plane.
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Double hung window
172
Consist of one moveable sash.
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Single hung Window
173
Has a side hinge that usually swings outward with the operation of a crank or by pushing.
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Casement Window
174
Has one or more sashes that move horizontal in a window frame.
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Horizontal sliding.
175
Has one or more top hinged, outward swing sashes. Design permits it to be open during rain.
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Awning Window
176
Includes man narrow overlapping pieces of glass, approx 4 inches in width. Same operation as a
awning window.
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Jalousie Window
177
Swings outward at the top or bottom and slides upward or downward in grooves. Usually operated
by a push bar that holds the window in the desired place.
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Projecting Window
178
Has a sash that pivots horizontally or vertically about a central axis. Parts swing inward and other
parts swing outward.
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Pivoting Window
179
When interior operations begin, ..............must be removed to ensure firefighter safety and in case a
rapid egress is required.
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security bars and grilles on windows.
180
Knowing the types of roofs, roof supports and coverings will allow you to judge the ............. of a roof
prior to accessing it. It will also allow you to select the right type of ......................... tactic to use based
on the roof construction.
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Safety, Vertical Ventalation
181
List seven things to look for in a building when doing a size up.
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Age of building, Construction material, Roof type, Renovations or modifications, Dead loads,
Number of stories, Windows.
182
Two primary types of dangerous conditions that are posed by a building.
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Conditions that contribute to the spread and intensity of a fire. Conditions that make the building
susceptible to collapse.
183
The maximum heat that can be produce if all the combustible materials, both contents and building
materials, in a given area burn.
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Fuel Load
184
The presence of large amounts of combustible materials in a area of a building.
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Heavy Fuel Load
185
The arrangements of materials in a building directly affects..............
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fire development and severity.
186
Engineered steel and wooden trusses can fail in a fire in .......
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5-10 minutes
187
Metal gussets in wooden trusses can warp and fail unless they are
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corner nailed
188
In bowstring truss construction the compression forces within the top cord act to force the load
bearing walls....
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outward and downward.
189
All trusses constructed prior to the late 1960's have a common code deficiency.
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The bottom cord members may have inadequate tensile strength to support the roof loads.
190
Two factors that increase the risk of a fire in building that is being constructed, demolished, or
renovated.
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Additional fuels loads and ignitions sources.
191
Factors to consider when determining potential collapse.
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Construction Type, Length of time fire burns, Stage of fire, Contents, Amount of water used for
extinguishment.
192
Church steeples, water tanks, chimneys, and false facades that extend above the structure must be
view as potential.........even if the structure is not.
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collapse hazards.
193
These can occur well after the fire has been extinguished.
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Structural collapse.
194
Both steel bar joist support and wood joist supports are subject to
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very rapid collapse.
 195
When checking the ceiling of a potential building fire, you should check the ceiling at what points.
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When you enter and then every 20'.
196
The contents of a building can add to collapse potential in three ways.
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Generating higher temps due to combustion, Added dead weight, Water retention adding weight.
197
Many contents of a structure are visible during preincident surveys. However, ..........and...........are
not.
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Concealed spaces and attics
198
A gallon of water adds .........lbs to a structure. 250 gallons of water adds approx........of weight to a
structure.
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8.33, 1 ton
199
Water may cause floors to ........
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pancake down or push walls out.
200
3 steps to take when a collapse is imminent.
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1. Inform command and all others in the building. 2. Establish collapse zones, only enter to
cautiously set up un-maned master streams. 3. PAR.
201
Collapse zone considerations with Type I.
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Take into account wind direction to avoid blowing glass. Collapse will be localized.
202
Collapse zone considerations with Type II
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Noncombustible supports will expand when heated and retract when cooled. Out/In movement
placed on building.
203
Collapse zone considerations with Type III
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Need at least 1 1/2 times the building height. Masonry walls may collapse in pieces or stay in one
piece. May cause the collapse or damage of nearby buildings.
204
Collapse zone considerations with Type IV
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Least likely collapse. Consider collapse zone if the structure has had repeated fires over time.
205
Collapse zone considerations with Type V.
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Type of collapse depends on construction type. Platform frame = inward collapse. Balloon frame =
outward collapse. Brick and masonry veneer = curtain collapse.
Lightweight trusses will fail with in 5 minutes when exposed to direct heat.
206
Establish a collapse zone when
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Indications that the structure has been weaken by prolong exposure to heat or fire. Defensive
strategy. Interior operations can not be justified.
207
The size of the collapse zone should take these three things into consideration.
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Type of building construction. Other exposures. Safest location for apparatus and personnel.
208
The safest location for defensive operations is at
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the corners of the building.

Chapter 5 Fire Behavior Flashcards Preview

1
Physical science is the study of ...... and ...... and includes chemistry and physics.
matter and energy
2
Anything that occupies space and has mass.
Matter
3
What type of change occurs when a substance changes in size, shape or appearance, but the
chemically stays the same?
Physical Change Ex: Water freezing, Water boiling
4
What type of change occurs when a substance changes from one type of matter to another?
Chemical change
5
When two or more substances combine they form a?
Compound
6
A chemical reaction involving the combination of a oxidizer, with another material.
Oxidation
7
The capacity to perform work.
Energy
8
Stored energy possessed by an object that can be released in the future to to perform work once
released.
Potential Energy
9
The energy possessed by a body because of its motion.
Kinetic Energy
10
List seven types of energy.
chemical, thermal, electrical, mechanical, light, nuclear, sound
11
Can all energy change from one type to another?
Yes
 12
In terms of a fire, the potential chemical energy of a fuel is converted to thermal energy and released
as?
Heat
13
Name the measure of energy in the International System of Units (SI) and also for the customary
system.
SI = Joules (J) Customary = Btu
14
How many joules does it take to change the temperature of one gram of water by one degree Celsius?
4.2 joules
15
The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 pound of water 1 degree Fahrenheit.
Btu
16
How many joules = 1 Btu?
1055J
17
Reactions that emit energy are called?
Exothermic ex: fire
18
Reactions that absorb energy are called?
Endothermic ex: converting water to steam.
19
A chemical process of oxidation that occurs at a rate fast enough to produce heat and usually light in
the form of either a glow or a flame?
Combustion
20
A rapid oxidation process, which is a chemical reaction resulting in the evolution of light and heat in
varying intensities?
Fire
21
A form of energy characterized by vibration of molecules and capable of initiating and supporting
chemical changes and change of state.
Heat
22
Measure of a materials ability to transfer heat energy to other objects.
Temperature.
23
A material that will maintain combustion under specific environmental conditions.
Fuel
24
Any material that readily yields oxygen or other oxidizing gas, or that readily reacts to promote or
initiate combustion of combustible materials.
Oxidizer
25
Name two forms of ignition.
Piloted and auto (nonpiloted)
26
The most common type of ignition. Occurs when a mixture of fuel and oxygen encounter an external
heat source with sufficient heat or thermal energy to start the combustion process.
Piloted Iginition
27
Occurs with out any external flame or spark to ignite the fuel gases and vapors.
Auto Ignition
28
The auto ignition temperature of a substance is always higher then its ............
Piloted ignition temperature
29
The chemical decomposition of a solid material by heating. Often precedes combustion.
Pyrolysis
30
Physical process that changes a liquid into a gaseous state; the rate depends on the substance
involved, heat, pressure, and exposed surface area.
Vaporization
31
The process of initiating self sustained combustion.
Ignition
32
Pyrolysis occurs in what type of fuel
solids
33
Vaporization occurs in what type of fuel?
Liquids
34
The lowest temperature at which a combustible material ignites in air without a spark or a flame.
Autoignition Temprature (AIT)
35
True or False Combustion is a chemical reaction while fire is possible result of combustion.
True
36
Name two modes of combustion.
Flaming and nonflaming
37
Occurs slowly, lower temps, produces a smoldering glow.
Nonflamming combustion
38
Produces a visible flame above the materials surface.
Flaming combustion
39
Name the two models that are used to describe the element of fire and how to extinguish it.
Fire Triangle, Fire Tetrahedron
40
Materials that absorb heat but do not participate actively in the combustion process. Given a
example.
Passive Agents. ex: Gypsum/Humidity
41
Smoke is a product of incomplete combustion. It is a aerosol comprised of what?
gases, vapor, and solid particulates
42
Materials produced and released during burning.
Products of combustion.
43
A toxic and flammable product of incomplete combustion of organic materials. The most common
product of combustion encountered in structure fires. Chemical asphyxiant that binds with
hemoglobin preventing O2 from binding with it.
Carbon Monoxide (CO)
44
Toxic, flammable, produced in the combustion of materials containing nitrogen. Chemical
asphyxiant that prevents the body from using O2 at the cellular level.
Hydrogen Cyanide (HCN)
45
Product of complete combustion of organic material, acts as a simple asphyxiant by displacing O2,
also stimulates respiratory system causing increase in resp rate,
Carbon Dioxide (CO2)
46
Substances that cause breathing discomfort. Inflammation of the eyes, resp tract, and skin.
Irritants
47
How many irritants have test shown are in smoke? Give three examples.
20. hydrogen chloride, formaldehyde, acrolein
48
True or False. Flame is also considered to be a product of combustion?
True
49
The kinetic energy associated with the random motions of the molecules of a material or object.
Thermal Energy. aka: heat and heat energy
50
the measurement of heat.
Temperature
51
Equation. Celsius to Fahrenheit
F = (C x 1.8) + 32
52
Equation: Fahrenheit to Celsius
C = (F -32) / 1.8
53
Name six sources of thermal energy.
Chemical, Mechanical, Electrical, Light, Nuclear, Sound
54
The most common source of heat energy in combustion.
Chemical
55
The result of exothermic reactions, occurring spontaneously in some materials under certain
conditions, whereby heat is generated at a rate sufficient to raise the temperature of the material.
Self-Heating
56
Initiation of combustion of a material by an internal chemical or biological reaction that has
produced sufficient heat to ignite the material.
Spontaneous Ignition
57
Name three things that must happen for spontaneous ignition to take place.
heat can not dissipate faster then it is produced, materials temp must reach its auto ignition temp,
available air must be able to support combustion.
58
Name four ways that electrical heating can occur.
Resistance, Overcurrent / overload, Arcing, Sparking
59
Type of energy generated by friction or compression.
Mechanical Energy
60
True or false. Some appliance are designed to make use of resistance heating?
True
61
What is unintended resistance heating?
Overload or Overcurrent
62
What is a high temp luminous discharge across a gap or through a medium?
Arc
63
What is the spatter that make be produced from a arc?
Spark
64
True or false? Heat is transferred from warmer to cooler objects. Materials at the same temp can not
transfer heat?
True
65
The measure of the rate of heat transfer to a surface, expressed as kilowatts per meter squared
(KW/m2)
heat flux
66
Name three ways heat con be transferred.
Conduction, Convection, Radiation.
67
Transfer of heat through or between solids that are in direct contact.
Conduction
68
Heat transfer by circulation within a medium such as gas or liquid.
Convection
69
Heat transfer by way of electromagnetic energy.
Radiation
70
What is believed to be the weakest part of a PPE ensemble.
SCBA facepiece.
71
Name three factors that effect radiant heat transfer.
Nature of the exposed surface, Distance, Temp difference between the source and the exposed
surface.
72
As the temperature of the heat source increases, the radiant energy increases by a factor of?
Four
73
Can hot smoke in the upper layers radiate heat?
Yes
74
The fuel that is being oxidized or burned during combustion.
Reducing Agent
75
Total amount of thermal energy that could be generated by the combustion reaction if a fuel were
completely burned.
Heat of combustion
76
Total amount of heat released per unit of time.
Heat release rate
77
The rate at which energy is being transferred over time.
Power
78
A unit of measure of power or rate of work equal to one joule per second.
Watt
79
Heat release rate is dependent on what three things?
type, quantity, and orientation of the fuel.
80
T or F? Gaseous fuels are already in their physical state required for ignition?
True
81
Weight of a given volume of pure vapor or gas compared to the weight of an equal volume of dry air
at the same temp and pressure. Less than 1 = rise. Greater than 1 = sink.
Vapor Density
82
Mass of a substance compared to the mass of an equal volume of water at a given temp. Less than 1 =
float Greater than 1 = sink.
Specific Density
83
What is the vapor pressure of air at sea level?
14.7 psi
84
Measure of the tendency of a substance to evaporate.
Vapor Pressure. Liquids with a higher tendency to evaporate will have a higher vapor pressure.
85
Any liquid having a flash point below 100 F and a vapor pressure not above 40 psi absolute.
Flammable liquid
86
The ease with which a liquid gives off vapor.
Volatility
87
The minimum temperature at which a liquid gives off sufficient vapor to ignite, but not sustain
combustion.
Flash Point
88
The temperature at which sufficient vapors are being generated to sustain combustion.
Fire point. Must exceed 5 seconds of burning duration.
89
A increase in surface area decreases the extent at which a liquid will give off vapor. T or F?
False
90
The degree to which a solid, liquid, or gas will mix / dissolve with water.
Solubilty
91
Materials that will mix with water in any proportion
Misicible
92
A liquid with an attraction to water.
Polar Solvents
93
Liquid having a flash point at or above 100 f and below 200 f.
Combustible Liquid.
94
Chemical decomposition of a material through the action of heat.
Pyrolysis.
95
Matter with a definite shape and size?
Solid
96
Surface to mass ratio. As the ratio increases the fuel particles become smaller. T or F?
True
97
Proximity and orientation of a solid fuel affect the way it burns. T or F?
True
98
Oxidizers are not combustible but will support and enhance combustion. T or F?
True
99
At normal ambient temps (68F) materials can ignite and burn at O2 levels as low as?
14%
100
Percentage of O2 that equals a deficient atmosphere and the percent that equals a enriched
atmosphere.
<23.5%
101
Can variations in temp and pressure cause the flammable range of a gas or vapor to be vary?
Yes
 102
The range between the LFL and UFL in which a substance can ignite.
Flammable (Explosive) range
103
Upper limit at which a gas or vapor will ignite. Above the limit the vapor is to rich to burn.
Upper Flammable Limit (UFL)
104
Lower limit at which a gas or vapor will ignite and support combustion. Below the limit the fuel is
said to be to lean to burn.
Lower Flammable Limit (LFL)
105
Molecular fragments that are highly reactive.
Free Radicals
106
Because of the release of free radicals during the combustion of methane, the production of CO and
formaldehyde could be formed. T or F?
True
107
Extinguishment of a fire by interruption of the chemical chain reaction
Chemical chain Inhibition.
108
List the four stages of fire development.
Incipient, Growth, Fully Developed, Decay
109
List seven things that influence fire development within a compartment.
Fuel Type, Availably and location of additional fuels, Compartment volume and ceiling height,
Ventilation, Thermal properties of the compartment, Ambient Conditions, Fuel Load.
110
List four factors that influence the availability and location of additional fuels.
Building Configuration, Construction Materials, Contents, Proximity of the initial fire to expose fuel
sources.
111
A fire in a larger compartment will develop more slowly then one in a small compartment. T or F?
Why?
True. Radiant heat has to travel farther to heat a larger area. Will maintain longer due to increased
air source.
112
Name the two forms that room or compartment fires take.
Fuel or Ventilation controlled.
113
A fire with adequate oxygen in which the heat release rate and growth rate are determined by the
characteristics of the fuel, such as quantity and geometry.
Fuel Controlled
114
A fire with limited ventilation in which the heat release rate or growth is limited by the amount of
oxygen available to the fire.
Ventilation Controlled
115
The total quantity of combustible contents of a building, space, or fire area, including interior
finishes and trim, expressed in heat units of the equivalent weight of wood.
Fuel Load
116
Stage of fire that starts with the ignition of a fuel. Typically a fuel controlled fire. Radiant heat begins
to warm additional fuels. Hot gas begins to mix with cooler air in the room. Temps in the room are
not much above ambient temps.
Incipient Stage
117
Stage of fire where the location of the fire in the room effects the amount of air entrained and thus
the amount of cooling that is taking place. A higher plume is more rapidly increasing the temps at the
upper level of the room. Heat is radiated back to the fire by surfaces in the room.
Growth Stage
118
Tendency of gases to form into layers according to temp.
Thermal Layering. aka: heat stratification, thermal balance.
119
The area where the pressure of hot gas exiting a room and cooler gas exiting a room are equal.
Thermal Plane
120
Rapid transition from growth to fully developed?
Flashover
121
Typically flash over occurs in what stage of fire?
Growth. May occur in the fully developed stage.
122
Most fires that grow beyond the incipient stage will become ventilation or fuel controlled?
Ventilation controlled
123
Stage of fire where all combustible materials in a compartment are burning, burning fuels are
releasing the max amount of heat possible, large volumes of fire gas, ventilation controlled, fire may
extent to other compartments.
Fully Developed Stage
124
Stage of fire where all fuel is consumed or where o2 levels are to low to sustain combustion.
Decay Stage
125
In a limited ventilation decay fire the temp may decrease but what is still taking place?
Pyrolysis
126
Name three types of rapid fire development.
Flashover, Backdraft, Smoke Explosion
127
Flash over occurs when the environment changes from two layers to one untenable layer. T or F?
True
128
List four common elements of flashover.
Transition in fire development, Rapidity, Compartment, Ignition of all exposed surfaces.
129
Flashover typically occurs at what temp?
1100F
130
List smoke indicators of flashover.
rapidly increasing volume, turbulence, darkening color, optical density, lowering of the hot gad
layer.
131
List a heat indicator of flash over.
darkening windows
132
List a flame indicator of flashover.
Isolated flames in the hot gas layer or at the ceiling.
133
An increase in low level ventilation before upper level ventilation can result in what?
Back draft
134
List smoke indicators of potential back draft.
Optically dense smoke, light colored or black becoming dense gray-yellow. neutral plane rising and
lowering (breathing movement).
135
List heat indicators of potential back draft.
high heat, smoke stained windows.
136
List a flame indicator of potential back draft.
little or no visible flame.
137
Will a back draft always occur after a opening has been made into the compartment?
No, it may take some time for the proper air to fuel mixture to occur.
138
This may occur before or after the decay stage. If smoke that is within its flammable range finds a
Smoke Explosion
139
List five ways that firefighters influence fire behavior.
Temp reduction, Fuel removal, O2 exclusion, Chemical Flame inhibition, Ventilation and fire
behavior.
140
Cooling with water cannot sufficiently reduce vapor production to extinguish fires involving low
flash point flammable liquids and gases. T or F?
True
141
When water is converted to steam at 212 F it expands by how many times?
1700
142
Chemical flame inhibition is effective on gas and liquid fuels because they must flame to burn. T or
F?
True. They are ineffective to non flaming fires.
143
The planned, systematic, and coordinated introduction of air and removal of hot gases and smoke
from a building.
Tactical Ventilation
144
Give a example of unplanned ventilation.
Wind, doors being left open.

Chapter 6 PPE Flashcards Preview

1
Standard on Fire Department Occupational Safety and Health Program.
NFPA 1500
2
Standard on open circuit self contained breathing apparatus for emergency services.
(SCBA)
NFPA 1981
3
Standard on personal alert safety system. (PASS)
NFPA 1982
4
Standard on protective ensemble for structural fire fighting and proximity fire fighting.
NFPA 1971
5
NFPA 1971 requires that all PPE components include a permanent label that shows what?
Manufactures name, identification, or designation. Manufactures address. Country of
manufacture. Manufactures identification, lot, or serial number. Month and year of
manufacture. Model name, number, or design. Size or size range. Principle material of
construction. Footwear size and width. Cleaning precautions.
6
PPE components must be compatible with each other. Each component is designed to
protect you from a specific..........
Hazard.
7
What three things may happen if PPE is altered?
Void warranty, Affect workers comp claims, Endanger your life.
8
Due to body heat being keep in while wearing PPE what health risk may a user have?
Increased resp rate, heart rate, skin temp, core temp, and physiological stress.
9
Prevents hot water and embers from reaching the ears and neck. Protects the head from
impacts. Provides protection from the cold and heat. Can help in identifying personnel.
Helmet
10
Type of eye protection that is intended to be used in combination with a primary type of
eye protection.
Face shield
11
Requires that goggles or other appropriate eye protection be worn when participating in
operations where protection from flying particles and chemical splashes is necessary.
NFPA 1500
12
Safety glasses and goggles protect against approximately what percent of eye injuries?
85%
13
What must meet the ANSI Standard Z87.1, Occupational and educational personal eye and
face protection devices.
Prescription safety glasses.
14
Fabric covering that protects the ears, neck, and face from exposure to heat, embers, and
debris.
Protective Hood
15
What three components does NFPA 1971 require all protective coats used for structural
firefighting be made with?
Outer shell, Moisture barrier, Thermal barrier
16
The three barriers in a protective coat protect from heat transfer from the fire to your body.
What else do they provide limited protection to you from?
direct flame contact, hot water, steam, cold temps, other environmental hazards.
17
List 5 design features of a protective structural firefighting coat that is required by NFPA
1971.
Retroreflective trim, Wristlets, Collars, Closure system (fasteners that secure the front of
the coat), Drag Rescue Device (DRD).
18
Where are protective structural firefighting coats typically reinforced?
High compression areas such as the shoulders and areas prone to wear, like the elbows.
19
Protect hands and wrist from heat, steam, or cold penetration, and resist cuts, punctures,
and liquid absorption.
Gloves
20
Properly worn, the gloves cover the wristlets of the protective coat to form a ..........
Complete Seal.
21
Protect the foot, ankle, and lower leg from punctures, crushing wounds, hot water or other
contaminated liquids, burns from embers and debris.
Boots
22
Boots have a ......... inner sole and a ........ or reinforced toecap and must be high enough to
protect the lower leg.
steel, steel
23
Three barriers required in a structural fire fighting boot.
Thermal, Physical, and moisture
24
Hearing protection is not required by NFPA 1971 but are required by.......
NFPA 1500
25
Hearing protection is required when a max of how many decibels is reach? When else is it
required?
90 decibels. operation of power tools, generators, apparatus pump, and when testing a
PASS device.
26
Name two ways a PASS device can be activated.
Motionless fire fighter for 30 seconds. Manually by pressing activation button. Some
models also allow it to be activated above a preset temp.
27
A pass device must be at least 95 decibels and must run continual for at least........
1 hour
28
Most PASS devices have three settings. What are they?
Off, Alarm, Sensing
29
Standard on Protective Clothing and Equipment for Wildland Fire Fighting.
NFPA 1977
30
Because steel toes in ordinary safety boats absorb and retain heat, they are not
recommended for use in.......
Wildland Firefighting
31
A fire resistant aluminized fabric cover that protects firefighters from convected and
radiant heat. Required by NFPA 1500. Design must meet USDA forest service spec 5100-
600.
Fire Shelter
32
What was approved in 2011 for use in wild land firefighting to provided resp protection?
APR and PAPR
33
The best protection on a roadway incident is to......
be visible to other motorist and work behind a barrier formed by the apparatus.
34
Should safety vest be worn over turn outs if not performing fire suppression or hazardous
materials operations while on roadway incidents?
Yes
35
Standard on protective clothing for emergency medical operations.
NFPA 1999
36
Head protection that is designed to provide impact, penetration, and electrical insulation
protection. Must meet ANSI design requirements for type 1 hard hats.
Medical Helmet
37
Standard on protective ensembles for technical rescue incidents.
NFPA 1951
38
Must protect wearer from physical, thermal, and liquid hazards, as well as infectious
diseases.
Tech rescue clothing
39
CBRN stands for?
Chemical, Biological, Radiological, Nuclear.
40
Standard on protective ensembles for first responders to CBRN terrorism incidents.
NFPA 1994
41
Similar to structural PPE, includes a aluminized outershell on the coat, trousers, gloves,
and helmet shroud.
Proximity PPE
42
Station/work uniforms serve what two purposes?
Identify the wearer as a member of a organization, provide a layer of protection against
direct flame contact.
43
Standard on station/work uniforms for emergency services.
NFPA 1975
44
NFPA 1975 covers trousers, shirts, jackets, and coveralls. But does not cover what
garment?
Underwear. 100 percent cotton is recommended.
45
Are some station/work uniforms also certified as wild land uniforms?
Upgrade To Pro
Yes, they will be marked indicating if they are.
46
Standard on selection, care, and maintenance of protective ensembles for structural fire
fighting and proximity fire fighting.
Upgrade To Pro
NFPA 1851
47
Will hydrocarbon contamination reduce the fire resistance of your PPE?
Upgrade To Pro
YES
48
Can contaminants reduce the effectiveness of your retroreflective trim?
Upgrade To Pro
YES
49
When should PPE be inspected?
Upgrade To Pro
beginning of shift, after each use, after washing, repair, decon, and on a periodic basis.
(weekly or monthly).
A annual inspection should be made by a member of the dept.
50
What four types of cleaning for PPE is defined by NFPA 1851?
Upgrade To Pro
Routine, Advanced, Specialized, Contract
51
What is routine cleaning and what does it include?
Upgrade To Pro
Do not remove from service. Brush off loose debris with soft broom or brush. Gentle spray
of water to rinse off debris and soil.
52
What is advanced cleaning?
Upgrade To Pro
Should be done by Personal trained in advanced cleaning. Wash in dedicated washing
machine.
53
What is specialized cleaning?
Upgrade To Pro
Required when clothing is contaminated by hazardous materials or body fluids that cannot
be removed by routine or advanced cleaning. May be performed by trained personnel or
outside contractor.
54
What is contract cleaning?
Upgrade To Pro
Specialized cleaning performed by the manufacturer, its rep, or a certified vendor.
55
Can damaged PPE marked "training" be used in live fire exercises?
Upgrade To Pro
NO
56
The overlap between a coat and trouser should be a minimum of ....... when you bend at a
90 degree angle.
Upgrade To Pro
2 inches
57
Temp of skin to get a 1st degree burn.........., 2nd degree........, 3rd degree............?
Upgrade To Pro
1st= 118 F 2nd = 131 F 3rd= 152 F
58
Name five common respiratory hazards.
Upgrade To Pro
O2 deficiency, Elevated Temps, Particulate contaminants, Gases and Vapors, Airborne
pathogens.
59
What is the most common cause of O2 deficient atmospheres?
Upgrade To Pro
Combustion
60
At what 02 percent is needed to sustain a flame or human life?
Upgrade To Pro
16%
61
Particulates bigger then 1 micrometer are filtered by the nasal membranes. Those
particulates that are smaller then that can often be found in what four sources?
Upgrade To Pro
Vehicle emission exhaust, Chemical reactions, Heated metal or metal compounds,
Combustion.
62
APR's and PAPR's only protect against?
Upgrade To Pro
Particulate
63
Gases exist at........................., while vapors result from ....................changes that affect a
solid or liquid.
Upgrade To Pro
standard temp and pressure, temp and pressure.
64
Name 10 common fire gases and vapors.
Upgrade To Pro
Carbon Monoxide, Carbon Dioxide, Hydrogen Cyanide, Hydrogen Chloride, Hydrogen
Sulfide, Nitrous Gas, Phosgene, Sulfur Dioxide, Ammonia, Formaldehyde.

CO and HCN are responsible for the most fire related deaths.
65
Name three routes that gases and vapors can enter the body.
Upgrade To Pro
inhaled, ingested, absorbed
66
CO binds with hemoglobin ...........times more effectively than O2.
Upgrade To Pro
200
67
HCN is made from the incomplete combustion of products containing ..... and ...... Name
four examples.
Also released during off gassing of a heated product.
Upgrade To Pro
nitrogen, carbon. Natural fibers, Resins, Synthetic polymers, Synthetic rubber.
68
HCN is .......times more toxic than CO. It kills the red blood cells.
Upgrade To Pro
35
69
Disease causing microorganism (virus, bacteria, fungi) that are suspended in the air.
Upgrade To Pro
Airborne Pathogen
70
N95,N99, and N100 designations indicate what?
Upgrade To Pro
The percentage of airborne particles that the mask removes.
71
Name the two main categories of respiratory protection equipment.
Upgrade To Pro
Atmosphere supplying respirators (ASR's). Air Purifying respirators (APR's).
72
Name two types of ASR's.
Upgrade To Pro
SCBA or supplied air respirators (SAR's)
73
When would a SAR be used.
Upgrade To Pro
When work in the hazardous area will take a long time and there is no chance of fire to
damage the hose.
74
Name two types of SCBA's.
Upgrade To Pro
Open circuit (use compressed air, vent to outside). Closed Circuit (use compressed O2,
exhaled air stays in the system).
75
Name the four components of a SCBA
Upgrade To Pro
Backplate and harness assembly, Air cylinder assembly, Regulator assembly, Facepiece
assembly.
76
The regulator reduces the high pressure of the cylinder air to slightly above..........
Upgrade To Pro
atmospheric pressure.
77
NFPA 1981 requires all face pieces be equipped with what ?
Upgrade To Pro
HUD
78
Name two types of fit test that are acceptable.
Upgrade To Pro
Qualitative (QLFT) can the wearer sense the test agent?. Quantitative (QNFT) machines
measure the leakage.
79
NFPA 1500 prohibits what two things that may break the facepiece seal?
Upgrade To Pro
Facial hair, glasses if the frames pass through the sides.
80
Pressure readings are most accurate at the......
Upgrade To Pro
upper range of the gauge.
81
Low air alarms must have 2 warnings. Typically these include what?
Upgrade To Pro
A audible alarm and a flashing light or vibration.
82
What does N, R, and P stand for in APR filters?
Upgrade To Pro
N= not resistant to oil. R= resistant to oil. P= used when oil or non oil lubricants are
present.
83
APR's have a visual indicator to show that they are?
Upgrade To Pro
saturated and need to be changed.
84
List six wearer limitations of respiratory protection.
Upgrade To Pro
Lack of physical condition, Lack of agility, Inadequate pulmonary capacity, Weakened
cardiovascular ability, Psychological limitations, Unique facial features.
85
List six equipment limitations of respiratory protection.
Upgrade To Pro
Limited visibility, Decreased ability to communicate, Decreased endurance (typical weight
of SCBA is 25-35 pounds), Decreased mobility, Poor condition of apparatus, Low air
cylinder pressure.
86
If a SCBA is stored in the seat it must be done in a way that the firefighter does not have
to......
Upgrade To Pro
remove their seat belt.
87
NFPA 1852 recommends no less then what percent of cylinder capacity?
Upgrade To Pro
90%
88
NFPA 1901 standard for automotive fire apparatus requires that seat mounted SCBA's be
held in place by what?
Upgrade To Pro
A mechanical latching device.
89
Name a disadvantage of side or rear mounted SCBA's.
Upgrade To Pro
exposed to weather and other physical hazards.
90
List the procedure for tightening face piece straps.
Upgrade To Pro
pull opposing straps at the same time towards to rear. Lower straps first. Temple straps
next. Top straps last.
91
Inspections of SCBA's should not exceed...... Annual inspections and repairs should be
performed by?
Upgrade To Pro
one week. Qualified technician.
92
When inspecting a SCBA hose you should look for?
Upgrade To Pro
abrasions, bubbling, cuts, cracks, and heat and chemical induced damage.
93
When inspecting a SCBA pressure gauges you should ensure that the cylinder and remote
gauges are within?
Upgrade To Pro
the manufacturers recommended limits.
94
SCBA breathing cylinders should be stamped with what two dates?
Upgrade To Pro
Date of manufacture and date of last hydrostatic test.
95
Testing and life span of a steel or aluminum cylinder.
Upgrade To Pro
Test every 5 years. Indefinite life until they fail.
96
Testing and life span of a Hoop wrapped aluminum, fully wrapped fiberglass, and fully
wrapped kevlar cylinder.
Upgrade To Pro
Test every 3 years. Life span of 15 years.
97
Testing and life span of a fully wrapped carbon cylinder.
Upgrade To Pro
Test every 5 years. Life span of 15 years.
98
Name three breathing air sources that can be used to refill SCBA cylinders.
Upgrade To Pro
Stationary fill station, Mobile fill station, Firefighter Breathing Air Replacement Systems
(FBARS). All sources must provide Type 1 grade D quality air.
99
Filling a unshielded cylinder while a firefighter is wearing it is prohibited except when
a .............must be used.
Upgrade To Pro
RIC connection.
100
What two things are required to ensure the quality of breathing air from a filling station.
Upgrade To Pro
Must be tested by a third party, Testing must be documented.
101
Many municipalities require that buildings taller then .......install a FBARS system.
Upgrade To Pro
75 feet
102
A FBARS system consist of what components?
Upgrade To Pro
A FD air connection panel, containing connection fittings, control valves, and gauges,
located on the exterior of the structure. An emergency sir storage system. Remote air fill
panels, containing a certified rupture proof containment fill station, connections and
control valves, gauges, located in protected stairwells on designated floors.
Interconnected piping certified to carry breathing air through the system. Low air pressure
monitoring switches and alarms.
103
Empty, full and damaged air cylinders should be keep where?
Upgrade To Pro
separate from each other.
104
Name six things that can effect your air supply duration.
Upgrade To Pro
Cylinder size and beginning pressure. Your physical conditioning. The task being
performed. Your level of training. The operational environment. Your level of stress.
105
The IDLH atmosphere must be tested with properly calibrated instruments and be found
safe before you can do what?
Upgrade To Pro
Remove your SCBA.
106
Name 5 non-emergency exit indicators.
Upgrade To Pro
Situation is stabilized. Change in operational strategy. Necessary to replace air cylinder. IC
orders a non-emergency exit. Assignment is complete.
107
Name 11 Emergency exit indicators.
Upgrade To Pro
Low air alarm activation. SCBA failure. Withdrawal order by IC or safety. Presence of
APR/PAPR breakthrough symptoms. Activation of APR/PAPR end of service life
indicators. Change in concentration of respiratory hazards. Attaining or exceeding the
permissible exposure limit while wearing a APR/PAPR. Change in environmental
conditions. Change in O2 level. Changes in temp. Indications of new hazards.
108
Non emergency exit techniques are based on the ICS and the accountability requirements
of what?
Upgrade To Pro
NFPA 1500
109
The only time a firefighter may work alone is when?
Upgrade To Pro
In confined space where two firefighters will not fit.
110
When you exit a IDLH area, it is important to use the .........that you used to enter, if
possible.
Upgrade To Pro
same path
111
Name four non-emergency exit techniques.
Upgrade To Pro
Upgrade To Pro
Buddy system, Controlled breathing, Egress path, Accountability system.

Chapter 7 Portable Fire

Extinguishers Flashcards Preview
1
What stages of fire are portable fire extinguishers intended to be used?
incipient and growth
2
Standard for portable fire extinguishers.
NFPA 10
3
Portable fire extinguishers are designed by?
the type of fire they are intended to extinguish.
4
Class A fires
Ordinary combustibles. Wood, paper, textiles, plastic, rubber.
5
Class B fires
Flammable and combustible liquids and gases.
6
Class C fires
Involve energized electrical equipment.
7
Class D fires
Combustible metals and alloys. Ex: lithium, magnesium, potassium, and sodium. DRY POWDER
works best.
8
Class K fires
Combustible cooking oils.
9
Name the 4 extinguishing methods that fire extinguishers use.
Smothering, Cooling, Chain breaking, Saponification
10
Excluding O2 from the burning process.
Smothering
11
Reduce the burning material below its ignition temp.
Cooling
12
Interrupting the chemical chain reaction in the burning process.
Chain breaking
13
Forming a oxygen excluded soapy foam surface.
Saponification
14
T of F. Extinguishing agents that work by smothering are ineffective on materials that contain their
own oxidizing agent.
True
15
Water type extinguishers should be stored in temps above what?
40 F
16
All extinguishers expel their contents using one of three mechanisms. Name the three mechanism.
Manual Pump, Stored Pressure, Pressure Cartridge
17
List nine common types of portable fire extinguishers.
Pump-type water extinguishers. Stored-pressure water extinguishers. Water-mist stored- pressure
extinguisher. Wet Chemical Stored-Pressure Extinguisher. Aqueous Film Forming Foam (AFFF)
Extinguishers. Clean Agent Extinguisher. Carbon Dioxide (CO2) Extinguisher. Dry Chemical
Extinguisher. Dry Powder Extinguisher.
18
Extinguisher intended for ground fires and small class A fires. Worn on the back. Nozzles produce a
straight stream, for, or water mist.
Pump - Type Water Extingusher
19
Useful on all class A fires. Used to extinguish confined hot spots during overhaul. May contain a
wetting agent to help the water penetrate.
Store-Pressure Water Extingusher
20
Use deionized water, nozzle produces a very fine spray. The deionized water makes it safe to use on
electrical equipment. The fine spray enhances cooling and soaking characteristics of the water and
reduces scattering of burning material.
Water-Mist Stored-Pressure Extinguisher.
21
Intended for class K fires. Contains a special potassium-based, low ph agent formulated to operate on
the principle of saponification in which the agent combines with the oils to create a soapy foam
surface over the cooking appliance.
Wet Chemical Stored-Pressure Extinguishers
22
Intended to be used on class B fires. Some types can be used on class A fuels. Contains a specific
amount of AFFF with the water to produce a foam solution. It has a air aspirating foam nozzle that
aerates the foam solution. Creates a foam covering on the fuel. Not suitable for use on class C, D, or
K fuels. Also not to be used on flowing or pressurized fuel. Is corrosive.
Aqueous Film Forming Foam (AFFF) Extinguisher
23
Developed to replace halogen. Discharged as a rapidly evaporating liquid that leaves no residue. Cool
and smoother Class A and B fires and are nonconductive so they can be used on Class C fires.
Clean Agent Extingushers
24
Extinguishing agent that contains carbon and one or more halogens (fluorine, chlorine, bromine,
iodine).
Halogenated Extinguishing Agents
25
Found on both handheld and wheeled units. Most effective on Class B and C fires. Limited reach due
to being discharged as a gas. Displaces O2 and smothers the fire. No film formed and no cooling
action.
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Carbon Dioxide (CO2) Extinguishers
26
A wheeled CO2 extinguisher usually weighs how much?
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50-100 Pounds
27
Name two types of dry chem extinguishers.
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Regular B:C rated and Multipurpose or A:B:C rated
28
Name 5 types of chemicals commonly used in dry chem extinguishers.
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Sodium Bicarbonate, Potassium Bicarbonate, Urea-Potassium Bicarbonate, Potassium Chloride,
Monoammonium Phosphate.
29
Most dry chem extinguishers are mildly ......... to all surfaces.
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corrosive
30
Are dry powder and dry chemical extinguishers the same?
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NO. Dry powder are only for type D fires.
31
Name the two design for a handheld dry chem extinguisher.
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Cartridge and Stored pressure. Stored pressure is keep at approx 200 psi. In both types nitrogen or
CO2 are the gases used.
32
Wheeled dry chem extinguishers have two tanks, what do they store?
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One tank for the dry chem, the other tank has pressurized gas.
33
Can be a handheld or wheeled unit. Must be applied in sufficient amounts to create a smothering
blanket. Extinguishing agent is specific to the type of metal burning. Continual add until the fire is
out.
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Dry Powder Extingushers
34
Class A and B extinguishers are also rated according to their performance capability, which is
represented by what?
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A number
35
Class A fire extinguishers are rated from what through what?
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1-A through 40-A
36
If a 1-A extinguisher discharges 1 1/4 gallons of water, what does a 2-A discharge?
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2 1/2 gallons or double of the 1-A
37
Class B fire extinguishers are rated from what to what?
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1-B through 640-B
38
The class B extinguisher rating is based on what?
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The approximate area of a flammable liquid fire that a non-expert operator could extinguisher using
one full extinguisher. Each numerical rating = 1 square foot
39
A class C rating confirms what?
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That the extinguishing agent will not conduct electricity.
40
Class D ratings vary with each combustible metal. List the criteria tested.
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Reactions between the metal and the agent. Toxicity of the agent. Toxicity from the fumes produced
and the products of combustion. Time to allow metal to burn compared to time to extinguish the
metal.
41
If a class D rating is given to a extinguisher it will include application instructions on what part of the
extinguisher?
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The faceplate
42
Class K ratings are based on the ability to cause saponification, extinguishing a fire in a deep fryer
with cooking oils that has a surface area of what?
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2.25 square feet.
43
Name the three most common types of combination rating fire extinguishers.
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Class A-B-C, Class A-B, and Class B-C.
44
Portable fire extinguishers are identified in two ways, what are those ways?
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Use of geometric shapes, specific colors, and class letter. Pictographs of what type of fire the
extinguisher is used for.
45
Class A letter symbol
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A in green triangle
46
Class B letter symbol
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B in red square
47
Class C letter symbol
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C in blue circle

Chapter 8 Ropes, Webbing,

Knots Flashcards Preview
1
Name the two classifications that fire service rope has.
Life safety and Utility
2
Standard on Life Safety Rope and Equipment for Emergency Services.
NFPA 1983
3
NFPA 1983 establishes two other types of rope, name them.
Escape Rope and Water rescue throw line
4
NFPA requires that only rope of ........... be used as life safety rope.
Block Creel Construction
5
List the requirements of NFPA 1983 that must be meet to reuse life safety rope.
No abrasions or apparent damage. It has not been exposed to heat or flame. It has not been subjected
to a impact load. It has not been exposed to anything that can deteriorate the rope. It has passed
inspection by a qualified personnel.
6
Life safety rope that has been subjected to a impact load or doesn't pass inspection must be what?
Destroyed or marked as utility rope.
7
List three things that utility rope can be used for.
Hoist equipment. Secure unstable objects. Cordon off a area.
8
Synthetic fibers are used to make what type of rope. Natural fibers are used to make what kind of
rope?
Life safety and utility. Utility only
9
List things that are a detriment of natural fiber ropes.
Loose strength when they get wet. Rot rapidly. Prone to mold and mildew. Deteriorates when
exposed to chemicals. Burns when in contact with embers or flame.
10
List advantages of synthetic fiber rope.
Excellent resistance to water, mildew, mold, rotting, shrinkage, and UV light. Longer life span then
natural fiber. Strong and lightweight. Easy to maintain.
11
Name a disadvantage of synthetic fiber rope.
Melt when exposed to heat.
12
List advantages of natural fiber rope.
Resistant to sunlight. Does not melt when exposed to heat. It holds a knot firmly.
13
Name the four most common types of rope construction.
Kermantle, Laid, Braided, and Braid on Braid.
14
The only type of rope construction acceptable for life safety rope.
Kermantle
15
Rope that consist of a protective shield (mantle) over the load bearing core strands (kern).
Kermantle
16
What percentage of a Kermantle ropes strength is from the core (kern)?
75%
17
According to NFPA 1983 low stretch rope should not stretch more then .......percent when tested
under a load equal to .......percent of its breaking strength.
10,10
18
Rope constructed by twisting several groups of strands together. Used exclusively for utility rope.
Susceptible to abrasion and other physical damage. Damage immediately effects the ropes strength.
Laid (twisted) rope
19
Rope constructed by uniformly intertwining strands of rope together. Load bearing fibers are
vulnerable to abrasion and damage.
Braided Rope
20
Rope that consist of a braided core enclosed in a braided herringbone pattern sheath. Half its
strength is from the sheath the other half is from the core. Disadvantages are that it may not resist
abrasion and that the outer sheath may slide along the inner core.
Braid on Braid. (Also called Double braided rope.)
 21
When should all types of rope be inspected?
After each use and annually
22
True or False. Natural fiber laid rope deteriorates with age. When it reaches the end of its service life
period as determined by the manufacture it should be removed from service?
True
23
Will rot from one rope move to effect another rope if they are stored together?
Yes
24
If while inspecting a braid on braid rope you notice that the sheath slides on the core what should
you do?
Cut the end of the rope, pull off the excess material, then seal the end.
25
To ensure a rope remains in good condition follow manufactures guidelines and these 8 additional
guidelines.
Avoid abrasion and unnecessary wear. Avoid sharp angles and bends. Protect ends from damage.
Avoid sustained loads. Avoid rust. Prevent contact with chemicals. Reverse ends of the rope
periodically. Do not walk on rope.
26
How much of a ropes strength can be reduced from sharp angles, knots, and bends?
50%
27
A rope should never be loaded with a sustained load for more then how many days?
2
28
Remove a rope with rust stain if the rust penetrates how much of the rope?
1/2 the width
29
The first step in cleaning rope is to use a ............to remove loose surface debris and grime.
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stiff bristle brush
30
If a synthetic rope needs more cleaning then what is done with a stiff bristle brush, it should be
washed in ..........with a mild...........or ..........added.
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Luke warm to warm water, detergent, fabric softener.
31
List three methods for cleaning synthetic rope.
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Washing by hand, Rope-washing device, Washing machine.
32
If a washing machine is used to clean synthetic rope it should be one without a .........
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Center Agitator
33
Synthetic rope should be dried ASAP. Do not use these two drying methods.
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Heated dryer, Laying in direct sunlight
34
Cleaning natural fiber ropes is limited to what?
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Dry brushing
35
All life safety rope must have what during its entire service time?
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Rope Log
36
Record of all use, maintenance, and inspections throughout a ropes working life; also included the
product label and manufactures recommendations. Keep with rope in water proof pouch.
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Rope Log
37
Device used for creating anchors and lashings, or for packaging patients and rescuers; typically
constructed from the same materials as synthetic rope.
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Webbing
38
What width of webbing is most common in the fire service?
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1"
39
Name two types of webbing.
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Flat and tubular
40
Stiff webbing and difficult to tie knots. Mainly used for straps and harnesses.
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Flat webbing
41
More supple and easier to tie webbing.
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Tubular webbing
42
Name two types of tubular webbing and how they are made.
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Edge stitched: folding a piece of flat webbing lengthwise and sewing the edge.
Spiral Weave: also known as shuttle-loom construction, preferred for rescue work. The webbing is
weaved as a tube.
43
Name 4 ways that life safety webbing can be used.
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Rescue harness/Ladder belt, anchor systems, package and secure victims to a litter, fasten rescue
components together.
44
Seat harness. Fastens around waist and thighs or under buttocks. Intended to be used for emergency
escape with a load of up to 300lbs.
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Class I Harness
45
Same as a Class I harness except it is rated up to 600lbs.
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Class II Harness
46
Full body harness. Fastens around the waist, thighs, under buttock, over the shoulders. Rated for
loads up to 600lbs.
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Class III Harness.
47
Name 9 things that utility webbing can be used for.
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Securing hose rolls and bundles. Raising and lowering tools and equipment. Search line. Securing
doors and hatches open. Carrying hose, SCBA cylinders, and equipment. Controlling a inward
swinging door when it is being forced. Pulling a person out of a hot zone. Securing a vehicle roof
when it is being peeled back. Holding a door open as it is being spread open by spreaders.
48
Name the three parts a rope is divided into when tying a knot.
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Working end, Running part, Standing part.
49
Part of the rope used to tie the knot or hitch.
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Working end
50
Free end of a rope used for hoisting, pulling, or belaying.
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Running Part
51
Part of rope between the Working end and Running Part.
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Standing Part
52
To be suitable for use in the fire service a know must have this three things.
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easy to tie and untie, be secure under load, reduce the ropes strength as little as possible.
53
Name the three types of bends that a rope undergoes when a knot or hitch is tied.
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Bight, Loop, Round Turn
54
Formed by simply bending the rope back on itself while keeping the sides parallel.
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Bight
55
Crossing the side of a bight over the standing part of a rope.
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Loop
56
Further bending one side of a loop.
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Round Turn
57
List the eleven most common types of knots and hitches used in the fire service.
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Overhand safety, Bowline, Half-hitch, Clove-hitch, Handcuff, Figure-eight, Figure-eight bend,
Figure-eight on a bight, Figure-eight follow through, Becket Bend, Water Knot
58
A good knot that forms a single loop that will not constrict.
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Bowline
59
Useful for stabilizing long objects that are being hoisted, always used in conjunction with another
knot or hitch.
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Half-Hitch
60
A knot used primarily for utility applications, used to attaché a object to the rope, not to be used for
life safety.
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Clove-Hitch
61
The foundation knot for all of the figure eight family knots. Also used as a stopper knot.
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Figure-eight
62
Also called the Flemish Blend. Used to tie ropes of equal diameter together. Used primarily in life
safety applications.
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Figure-eight Bend
63
Mainly used for securing objects.
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Figure Eight follow through.
64
Used for joining two ropes of unequal diameters or joining a rope and chain together. Strong when
wet. Not used in safety applications.
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Becket Bend
65
Used to join two pieces of webbing, or the ends of one piece. Can slip easily so it must be dressed and
tied as flat as possible.
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Water knot
66
Name five main uses for rope and webbing at an emergency incident.
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Rescue operations. Hoisting tools and equipment. As a barrier to indicate the control zone. As a
search line during search operations. Stabilizing objects.
67
Name three ways that life safety rope can be used.
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Rappelling. Lifting victims and rescuers. Removing victims from ice and swift water situations.
68
T or F. Hoisting pressurized SCBA cylinders is prohibited by OSHA because it is unsafe.
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True
 69
A pulley is a simple device used to create a ?
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Mechanical Advantage
70
Most common types of rope hardware used in hoisting.
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Carabineers and pulleys
71
List ten safety guidelines for hoisting operations.
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Be physically balance and standing on firm ground. Use the hand over hand method. Use
a edge roller or padding. Use pulley systems for heavy objects. Work in teams when
working from heights. Make sure all personnel are clear of the hoisting area. Avoid
hoisting near electrical hazards. Secure the nozzle of any charged hoseline. Use a tag line
for control. Avoid hoisting tools and equipment if it is safer to hand carry them up stairs, a
ladder, or an aerial device.

Chapter 9 Structural Search, Victim Removal,

Firefighter Survival Flashcards Preview
1
Assessment of a facility or location made before an emergency occurs, in order to prepare for an
appropriate emergency response.
Preincident Survey
2
Any facility in which a fire, accident, or natural disaster could cause substantial casualties or
significant economic harm, through either property or infrastructure damage.
Target Hazard
3
What type of building is it important for firefighters to survey during initial construction, due to not
having access after it has been completed?
Residential Buildings
4
Ongoing evaluation of the influential factors at the scene of an incident.
Size Up
5
List the three questions that must be answered when doing a size up.
What has happened? What is happening? What is going to happen?
6
All personnel should ACTIVELY monitor conditions so that everyone stays informed. However, the
ultimate responsibility for an incident size up rest with who?
The officer in charge.
7
Escapes occupants should be questioned about what?
Who might still be in the building and their location. The location and extent of the fire.
8
If possible, fire attack and ventilation should be started simultaneously with what?
Any interior search.
 9
Name the two objectives of a structural search.
Searching for life and Assessing fire conditions.
10
Primary search should occur in these four areas in this order.
Most severely threatened. (area closet to the fire on the fire floor and the floor above. Also the top
floor in a multistory structure.).
Largest numbers (area with the most possible victims).
Remainder of Hazard Zone. (areas farthest away from the fire on the same level, upper floors, and
floors below the fire).
Exposure (interior and exterior).
11
Name three types of specialized search methods.
Oriented search, Wide area search, Thermal Imagers
12
To ensure a complete search always exit through the same what>
Door way you entered
13
On the fire floor a search should be started where>
As close to the fire as possible working back to the entrance door.
14
Egress should always be controlled during a search, list three ways to accomplish this.
Wedge doors open to prevent them from closing on you or on hose lines. Close doors adjacent to the
passageway after they have been searched. Position hose teams at intervals along the path to coll
accumulated gases.
15
What is the preferred method of moving if there is minimal smoke and heat?
Walking
16
Name three conditions that should be reported to the IC during a search.
If the fire has spread farther then was predicted. If trapped victims are found. If search has to be
terminated.
17
Search method where a team leader is anchored at a door, wall, hose line while other team members
spread through the room to complete the search.
Oriented Search
18
Search method typically using a 3/8" 200' rope. Rope is tied to a fixed object outside the search area
entrance. a minimum of three members enter the area to conduct the search.
Wide area search method
19
Each knot tied in the rope during a wide area search indicates what?
20' in on the search line.
20
What is located after a metal ring in a wide area search.
A knot or series of knots. knots toward fire, rings toward exit.
21
Tethers that can be attached to the rings of a wide area search line are made of 1/4" by what length?
20'
 22
What is located at the middle of a tether line?
A knot
23
Any time team members move off the wide area search line, they must stay in what with the
navigator?
Voice contact
24
During a wide area search what are three things the navigator should report to the IC.
Fire Conditions. What has been found. How many knots into the building they have progressed.
25
List some disadvantages if TIC's.
Can not detect people behind furniture or walls. Can not see through water or glass. Can not detect
fire on floors with carpet. Fragile and prone to mechanical failure.
26
When scanning with a TIC start at what part of the room?
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Floor working up.
27
List three methods of search marking a door.
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Chalk or crayon, Specially designed door markers, Latch strap over door knob.
28
Where should search markings be placed?
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Lower third of a door or wall, landing of adjacent stairs.
29
A single slash indicates the room is being search. A x indicates the search is complete. The search
unit is placed at what point? Time completed at what point? Hazards at what point? Victims and
their condition at what point?
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Left of X. Top of X. Right of X. Bottom of X
30
List three methods of separating victims from a hazard.
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Self-evacuation, Shelter in place, Rescue
31
Who are the only ones that can make the decision to have victims shelter in place?
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Supervisor or IC
32
List 5 cases where shelter in place may be used.
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The hazard is minor. It is safer to keep victims inside the structure. Victims can not be moved.
Limited staffing to assist with evacuation. Structure provides a protective barrier between the victim
and hazard.
33
Required when conditions prevent self evacuation and shelter in place, or when victims are directly
threatened.
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Rescue
 34
Injured victims should not be moved until they have been what? Unless they or you are in immediate
danger.
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they have been assessed and treated.
35
In extreme emergency's preserving the victims life is what?
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The first priority
36
Enables a rescuer to move a victim up or down a stairway or incline.
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Incline Drag
37
Rescuer pulls on a section of webbing that is wrapped around the victims body. Useful when heat and
smoke for you to stay low, or if the victim is a downed firefighter with a SCBA.
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Webbing Drag
38
Used to carry small adults and children that are conscious. Not practical in unconscious victims due
to difficulty in supporting head and neck.
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Cradle in Arms Lift/Carry
39
Enables two rescuers to carry a conscious or unconscious victim.
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Seat Lift/Carry or Extremities Carry
40
Internationally recognized distress signal.
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Mayday
41
Name five potential mayday emergency's.
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Air emergency, Lost/disoriented, Entanglement, Thermal emergencies, Collapse/trapped.
42
T or F You increase your chances of surviving if you immediately communicate that you are in
danger.
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True
43
What does LUNAR stand for?
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Location, Unit, Name, Assignment, Resources needed, Situation
44
Name three key points of air management.
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Always know how much air you have, Know your point of no return, Notify the IC if you must exit
the structure.
45
Point at which air in the SCBA will last only long enough to exit a hazardous atmosphere.
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Point of no return
46
Decisions to exit the structure are made by the supervisor or IC except in what two cases?
Upgrade To Pro
separated from the team, catastrophic event such as a collapse.
47
If a MAYDAY occurs what are your three options of action?
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remain in place, seek safe haven, escape
48
If you decided to remain in place do these things after calling a MAYDAY.
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Continue to communicate over radio. Activate PASS. Find a way to make noise. Shine flashlight or
hand overhead. Momentarily turn off PASS to listen for sounds that give clues to your location.
49
If you decided on seeking safe haven after a MAYDAY take these steps into consideration.
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Stay low to the floor. Use hose stream as protection. Close doors between you and the fire. Use tools
to shore up building materials. Filter toxic air (keep face piece on, crack bypass, use hood to filter).
50
List 5 circumstances when escape is the best option.
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Imminent threat of structural collapse. No safe place to shelter. Air supply is gone. Extreme fire
conditions. Orders to abandon building.
51
A male coupling with larger lugs is located toward what?
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The water source/exit.
52
When smoke is dense and low but you can see the floor you can use what type of walk?
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Duck Walk
53
If you must move your SCBA to breach through a wall what is the process?
Upgrade To Pro
Loosen right shoulder strap and waist belt, shift SCBA until it is tucked under your left arm.
54
What do studs need to spaced at to breach a wall with a SCBA on?
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16" (use a backward swimming motion)
55
Where should a pair of wire cutters be keep?
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In a pocket that you can access even if your movement is limited.
56
Requires that RIT be standing by whenever firefighters are in a hazard zone. Must be at least 2
people and same PPE as those in hazard zone.
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NFPA 1500
57
Mandatory RIT equipment can be remembered by using the word AWARE. What does AWARE
stand for?
Upgrade To Pro
A= Air, W= water A & R= A Radio E= Extrication
58
After a MAYDAY is transmitted the RITs first job is to try to do what?
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Establish radio communication with the downed firefighter.
59
Transceiver tracking devices operate on a 457 kHz and have a range of how long?
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100'
60
T or F Transceiver tracking devices use a low frequency radio signal. This allows them to not
interfere with radios and the signal is not blocked by walls, floors, or other large objects.
Upgrade To Pro
True
61
T or F Transceivers have a standby mode and a search mode. In search mode a display shows the
direction and distance to another transceiver or to a egress transceiver.
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True
62
In most cases, exiting the IDLH atmosphere takes priority over what?
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Stabilizing the firefighters injuries.
63
When a RIT team locates a down firefighter what should 3 things should be done first?
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Check air supply, Turn off PASS, Confirm Identity, Notify IC

Chapter 10 Scene Lighting, Rescue Tools,

Vehicle Extrication, And Tech
Rescue Flashcards Preview
1
When dealing with scene lighting equipment a firefighter I should be able to ..........and a fire fighter
II should be able too.........
Operate it, Maintain it.
2
The most common power source used by emergency service personal.
Generators
3
A portable generator typically has what type of outlets.
110 volt and 220 volt
4
A vehicle mounted generator can produce how much power?
More then 50 kW
5
Name disadvantages of vehicle mounted generators.
Noisy, make communication difficult, exhaust fumes can contaminate the scene.
6
If small amounts of power are needed what can be used in conjunction with the vehicles electrical
system?
Inverter
7
Name advantages and disadvantages of using a inverter.
Advantages: fuel efficient, minimal noise.
Disadvantage: exhaust, limited power, limited mobility.
8
Name the two categories of lighting equipment.
Portable and fixed
9
Name the watt range for a portable light.
300-1000 watts
10
Name the watt range for a fixed light.
500-1500 watts
11
What determines the number of fixed lights that can be placed on a apparatus.
the amount of power available from the vehicle mounted generator or vehicles power system.
12
What three criteria must a auxiliary electrical equipment have>
waterproof, intrinsically safe, designed for the amount of current.
13
Standard for electrical safety in the work place.
NFPA 70E
14
Who should repair generators?
Qualified personal or electrician.
15
Name the two ways that rescue tools can be classified.
Their power source or their use.
16
Name the two ways rescue tools can be classified if using there power source.
Manual or power operated.
17
Name the five ways that rescue tools can be classified if using there use.
Cutting, Stabilizing, Lifting, Pulling, Other Activities
18
Standard on power rescue tools.
NFPA 1936
19
Name advantages of electric power tools.
Electricity is readily available, lightweight tools, battery tools are portable.
20
Name a disadvantage of a portable battery powered tool.
Less powerful then other tools.
21
Most powered rescue tools are powered by what?
Hydraulic pumps
 22
Name three ways that a hydraulic pump may be operated.
hand, electric motor, gasoline engine
23
Name the four basic types of hydraulic and electric power rescue tools.
Spreaders, Cutters, Combination Spreaders/Cutter, Extension Ram
24
How many inches can a spreader typically open?
32"
25
How many inches can a cutter typically open?
7"
26
A rams force is strongest in which direction?
Opening force (pushing ) is twice the force as it closing (pulling) force.
27
What type of saw is ideal when cutting sheet metal body panels and structural components on a
vehicle.
Reciprocating saw
28
How many RPM's can a rotary saw spin up to?
6000
29
If a whizzer saw is run at 90psi from a SCBA bottle w/ a regulator, how long can it run?
3 minutes
30
Air chisels are used to cut medium to heavy gauge metal, remove rivets and bolts. What PSI range
are they ran at?
90-250psi
31
Name four types of stabilization tools.
Jacks, Buttress Tension Systems, Wheel Chocks, and Cribbing.
32
Jacks used in stabilization can also be used for what?
Lifting
33
Used for heavy lifting, when used in conjunction with cribbing they can also be used for stabilization.
Hydraulic Jacks
34
Name two types of non hydraulic jacks.
screw jack and ratchet lever jack.
35
Name two types of screw jacks.
bar screw and trench screw
36
Bar screw jacks typically are not use for what?
Lifting, just used for stabilizing.
37
What is the least stable of all types of jacks?
Ratchet lever jack (high lift jack)
38
A buttress tension system is used in what scenario?
A vehicle resting on its side or top.
39
What is the minimum amount of 4x4 post that should be used in a buttress tension systems?
Three
40
When placed against the downhill side of the rear tires of a vehicle, wheel chocks can hold a vehicle
in place at what grade?
10-15 percent
41
Standard on Automotive Fire Apparatus.
NFPA 1901
42
Standard for Wildland Fire Apparatus.
NFPA 1906
43
Wooden or plastic blocks used to stabilize a vehicle during vehicle extrication or debris following a
structural collapse; typically 4x4" or larger and between 16-26" long
Cribbing
44
Cribbing may have the ends painted to indicate what.
Length
45
Plastic cribbing is prone to slipping when what?
Wet
46
Name three uses for lifting tools.
Lower a rescuer, lift a object, lift a victim
47
Name the three types of lifting bags.
high pressure, medium pressure, low pressure
48
Deflated it lay about 1 inch thick. Surface area ranges from 6 x 6 to 36 x 36. Inflate up to 20". Loses
stability and raising power as it is raised.
High pressure lifting bag
49
Larger then high pressure bags and can inflate up to 6 feet. Most stable when fully inflated.
Low and Medium pressure lifting bags
50
when cribbing during a lifting bag exercise, how should it be used?
At least three pieces per layer and the top is solid.
51
Lifting bags should not contact materials hotter then what temp?
220F
52
What two rules should be followed when stacking lifting bags?
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inflate the bottom bag first, never stack more then two bags .
 53
Name three uses for pulling tools.
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Pull a vehicle apart, pull a object, stabilize a vehicle over a edge.
54
Name three typical pulling tools.
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Winches, Chains, and Come-Alongs
55
Compared to other pulling tools these are stronger, faster to deploy, have a greater travel or pulling
distance.
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Winches
56
Lighter and stronger then steel, floats on water, resist UV light, not affected by temp, does not recoil
or whip when it breaks.
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Synthetic Fiber Cable
57
Area on either side of the winch cable where the cable can whip around if it breaks.
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The danger zone
58
A winch should never be operated when there are less then how many wraps of cable around the
winch?
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5
59
In the event of a hook failure under a load, the broken hook will move in the direction of what?
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the back of the hook
60
Manually operated. Typically have a load capacity range of 1 to 10 tons.
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Come-along
61
What type of chain should be used in rescue situations and why?
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Alloy steel chain. Resist abrasion, corrosion, and effects of hazardous atmospheres.
62
Have a square drive onto which a socket is attached.
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Pneumatic impact tools and wrenches.
63
When should power tools be inspected?
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At the beginning of each work shift.
64
The first step pf an extrication is to
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Size up the scene (begins at dispatch, continues through the incident)
65
What is the primary hazard at any motor vehicle accident?
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Traffic
66
Wear your retroreflective vest at all times unless you are directly involved in what?
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Fire fighting or Extrication
67
How long can a airbag stay active even after the the battery has been disconnected?
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60 minutes
68
Additional hazards such as flammable adhesives, pressurized solvents, or flammable liquids are
common hazards that may be found in what part of the vehicle?
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Trunk or interior.
69
Name seven common areas that magnesium may be found in a car.
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Valve covers, Steering Columns, Mounting Brackets for ABS, Transmission Casing, Engine Blocks,
Frame Supports, Exterior Body.
70
On a MVA at least one hose line should be deployed and charged. What minimum size of hose line?
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1 1/2"
71
Electric an Hybrid vehicles have wiring that may be carrying how many volts?
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650 volts DC
72
most Electric vehicles have high voltage wiring that is orange, the 36 volt Saturn is what color?
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Blue
73
Victims who are not trapped should be removed from a vehicle when?
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First, providing more room for rescue of the trapped.
74
As each assessment is completed, crew members should report the information to who?
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The IC.
75
General wheel chock guidelines.
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Place chocks in front of and behind tires. Place chocks on the downhill side of a vehicle on a incline.
Place chocks on both sides of the tires if the ground is level or the direction of the grade is unknown.
Test and apply the parking brake before placing chocks. Center chocks against the tread of the tire.
76
To stabilize a vehicle using lifting bags what is required?
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Used in pairs at opposing sides of the vehicle. (must still use cribbing)
77
When using a buttress system the structs should be place at what degree.
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A 50 - 70 degree angle.
78
What should be done before shutting of a vehicles electrical system?
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Lower windows, Unlock doors, Move seats back (if it is safe to do so).
79
What battery cable is cut first?
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Negative (2 inches)
80
A electric vehicles electrical system should be considered unsafe for 10 minutes after the ignition has
been shut down, it may hold a charge for how long?
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24 hours
81
Name four other types of passenger safety systems other then seat belts.
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Supplemental Passenger Restraint Systems (SPRS), Side Impact Protection Systems (SIPS), Head
Protection Systems (HPS), Extendable Roll Over Protection Systems( ROPS).
82
The B-post may contain what.
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Pretensions and SIPS control modules.
83
Air bags and side curtain air bags can deploy at what speeds?
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up to 200mph
84
Vehicle protection systems can hold power and deploy for how long after the electrical system is off.
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2-60 minutes
85
What is the 5-10-12-18-20 rule?
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stay 5 inches away from side impact bags and knee bolsters. 10 inches from driver frontal bag, 12-18
inches away from side impact curtains, 20 inches away from frontal passenger bags.
86
You must cut the connection between the sensor and control unit of a SIPS restraint. Why?
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They are not connected to the electrical system. They are mechanical activated from pressure
sensors.
87
Name the two types of head protection systems (HPS).
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Window Curtains and Inflatable Tubes.
88
Which of the HPS need to be cut by a knife to be deflated.
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Inflatable Tubes.
89
Extendable Roll Over Protection Systems (ROPS) are designed to be deployed under what
conditions?
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The vehicle is approaching 62 degrees latterly or 72 degrees longitudinally. 3G acceleration.
Airborne for more then 80 milliseconds.
90
Two sheets of glass laminated to a sheet of plastic sandwiched between them.
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Safety glass
91
Treated glass that is stronger than plate glass or a single sheet of laminated glass, crumbles when it is
broken.
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Tempered Glass
92
The most effective tool for removing safety glass.
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Saw
93
Rear windows are what type of glass?
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Can be both. Tempered or Safety
94
Bolt on a vehicles door frame that the door latches onto in order to close.
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Nader Pin
95
Removing the doors and roof from a unibody construction vehicle can seriously compromise its
structural integrity. Always place what under the B post of these vehicles prior to removing the roof.
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Chock
96
When rolling a dash where should cribbing be place on a unibody car? On a full frame car?
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Under the A post, Between the frame and body.
97
Name two hazards that can result from cutting the steering wheel.
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Accidental air bag deployment, spring action of the wheel.
98
Standard for Technical Rescuer Professional Qualificaions
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NFPA 1006
99
Preventing the situation from getting worse. Involves blocking traffic, shutting off utilities,
suppressing fires.
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Stabilize the Situation
100
Who determines the location of the incidents outer perimeter?
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The IC.
 101
Personnel who enter the how zone must do these three things.
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Sign in to the personal accountability system. Wear PPE designed for the Hazard. Be trained to
manage the situation.
102
What should personnel in the warm zone be dressed in?
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Full PPE, ready to enter the Hot zone.
103
List the five critical task that first responders should do when reaching the scene.
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-Size up the situation - Communicate the information - Stabilized the situation - Stabilize the victim -
Establish Scene security.
104
Name the two categories that rope rescue can be divided into.
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high angle/structural and wilderness/mountain rescue.
105
Name the first three priorities in order during a structural collapse rescue operation.
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Get un-trapped victims to a safe area. Extricate victims who are lightly trapped. Tech rescue teams
rescue victims who are trapped deeper into the collapse.
106
Name the five patterns of structural collapse.
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Pancake, V-shape, Lean too, Cantilever, A-Frame
107
Collapse pattern where the exterior walls fail together, causing the roof and upper floors to collapse
onto each other. Least likely to have survivors or voids.
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Pancake Collapse
108
Collapse pattern occurs when the outer walls remain intact and the roof/upper floors collapse in the
middle. Voids and survivors against the exterior walls.
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V-shaped Collapse
109
Collapse that occurs when one outer wall collapses and the other stays intact. Triangular void
created where survivors may be.
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Lean- to Collapse
110
Collapse that occurs when a failure occurs to the floors and roof but not to a center wall. Creates
voids on each side of the center support wall.
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A-Frame Collapse
111
Floors remain intact by walls that remain intact. most vulnerable to secondary collapse.
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Cantilever Collapse
112
Name seven physical hazards associated with collapse.
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Sharp, jagged or unstable debris. Exposed wiring and Rebar. Broken Glass. Confined Spaces.
Unprotected Openings. Heights. Secondary Collapse.
113
Name eight environmental hazards associated with collapse.
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Fire. Noise. Darkness. Temp Extremes. Adverse Weather. Damaged and leaking Utilities.
Atmospheric Contamination. Haz Mat contamination.
114
How does OSHA define a confine space?
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Large enough to enter. Limited means of entry and egress. Not designed for continued occupancy.
115
What does OATH stand for?
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O=ok 1 tug. A=Advance 2 tugs. T= Take up 3 tugs. H= Help 4 tugs.
116
The first task in a size up of a water rescue is to determine what.
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Is this a rescue or a recovery.
117
Mandatory for all personnel in the water, on a boat, within 10' of the waters edge.
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PFD's
118
Low head water dams trapped what against the upstream face of the dam?
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Debris
119
Corden off 100' area in each direction of the trench. Eliminate vibration sources within 500' of the
trench. Place exit ladders not more then 50' apart, with one by the victim. Ladders should extended
3' above the trench.
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Trench rescue safety guidelines
120
During a machine rescue operation what should be done prior to shutting the machines power off?
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Stabilize the machine using cribbing, chains, or heavy duty nylon strapping. Use a lock out / tag out
device to secure the power source.
121
Slower, large access doors, manual or automatic controls, carry up to 3 tons, as large as 12 x 14 feet.
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Freight Elevator
122
Elevator used in structures less then 6 stories high. A mechanical room containing the power unit is
located within 100' of the elevator shaft.
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Hydraulic Elevator
123
T or F The majority of escalator rescues result from victims fingers and toes becoming caught
between the step treads and guard plates, or sandals becoming wedged between the treads. To
extricate the victim use hand pressure or a crank to move the tread backwards.
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True
124
Name hazards of caves.
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toxic gas, o2 deficiency, tight spaces, sharp rocks, potential for cave ins, lack of light, standing or
running water.
125
Name hazards of mines.
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Toxic gas, O2 deficiency, explosive atmosphere, cave ins, abandoned tools and equipment, lack of
light, standing water.
126
Name hazards of tunnels.
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Toxic gas, O2 deficiency, smoke, fire, tangled debris, electrified rails or wires, lack of light, standing
water or other fluids, biological waste in sewers.
127
What four things should you always do when responding to a situation involving electricity?
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Assume line is energized. Establish scene security and deny entry. Call for electric company. Stand
by until electric company arrives. Allow only electric company personal to cut wires.
128
Electrical field that radiates outward from where the current enters the ground; its intensity
dissipates rapidly as distance increases from the point of entry.
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Ground Gradient
129
How would you estimate a safe distance to be protected from ground gradient?
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Take the distance between two power poles and stay that distance away.

Chapter 11 Forcible Entry Flashcards

Preview
1
Techniques used by fire personnel to gain entry into buildings, vehicles, aircraft, or other areas of
confinement when normal means of entry are locked or blocked.
Forcible Entry
2
What two steps should be taken prior to forcing entry?
Try before you pry, Look for a lockbox.
3
All types of door latches, locks, and locking devices.
Locksets
4
Name the three traditional lock types.
Mortise, Cylindrical, Rim
5
Common as a commercial exterior door.
Mortise Lock
6
Most common type of lockset found in residents. Some of the easiest to pry open. Two types; key in
knob and tubular dead bolt.
Cylindrical Lock
7
Mounted on the inside of the door surface. Used as a supplemental lock for doors that may or may
not have another lock type.
Rim Lock
8
Name three types of Rim Lock
Night Latch (door locks when it closes), Dead Bolt, Vertical dead bolt (impossible to open by
spreading the door from the jamb).
9
Name three types of high security locks.
Multiple bolt locks (extends at least 2 dead bolts 1" long into jam), Electronic Keyless Locks (most
operated by battery power, used in areas with continuous security and controlled access),
Electromagnetic (Shutting off the power will release the door).
10
Name 5 locking devices.
Padlock, Drop Bar, Door Chain, Door Limiter, Surface Bolt, Internal Mounted Bolt.
11
Name two types of pad locks and their characteristics.
Standard ( shackles are 1/4' or less, not case hardened steel) Heavy Duty (case hardened steel
shackles longer then 1/4", Many have "toe and heel" locking).
12
Classic supplemental locking devices for residential doors.
Door Chain
13
Similar to a supplemental security lock found in a hotel room.
Door Limiter
14
Flush bolts are installed in the edge of one side of a set of double doors. Permits one side to remain
locked while the other door is used for entry or exit.
Internal Mounted Bolt
15
Name the four categories of forcible entry tools.
Cutting, Prying, Striking, Pushing/Pulling
16
Most common type of cutting tool for fire fighters.
Axe
17
Comes in a 6 or 8 lbs head. Used for cutting, prying, or digging.
Pick head Axe
18
Because of its versatility it can be used in both structural and ground cover fires.
Flat head Axe
19
Used to cut bolts, iron bars, pins, cables, hasp, chains, and some padlock shackles. Should not be used
to cut case hardened steel.
Bolt Cutters
20
May be needed to cut security bars, grilles, or gates that can not be easily cut using bolt cutters,
rebar cutters, or rotary saws.
Cutting Torch
21
Manually or powered hydraulic cutting tool. Used to cut rebar in concrete walls or security bars.
Rebar Cutters
22
Name four types of power saws used in the fire service.
Circular , Rotary, Reciprocating, Chain
23
Name three power sources for power saws.
Battery, Gasoline, Electric
24
T or F Never use a power saw in a flammable atmosphere. Its motor or sparks from cutting can
ignite the atmosphere.
True
25
Can cut wood, masonry, or metal. Depends on what blade is on it. Spins up to 6000rpm
Rotary Saw
26
When equipped with the proper blade, this saw is ideal for cutting sheet metal body panels,
structural components on cars, as well as metal doors and wall panels in structures.
Reciprocating Saw
27
Commonly used saw in forcible entry, ventilation, rescue, and overhaul. Powered by gasoline,
electricity, compressed air, or hydraulic power. Should be equipped with kick back protection , chain
brake, carbide tipped chain, and a depth gauge.
Chain Saw
28
Device consisting of a bar turning about a fixed point (fulcrum), using power of force applied at a
second point to lift or sustain an object at a third point.
Lever
29
Support or point on which a lever turns in raising or moving something.
Fulcrum
30
Constructed from a single piece of high carbon steel, 30-36" long, One end is beveled into a wedge or
fork. Opposite end may be a hook, pike tip, or adz (wedge at a right angle).
Manual Pry tools (includes rambars)
31
Hydraulic prying tools can be used in what three ways?
Prying, Pushing, Pulling
32
Good tool to use when more then one door must be forced.
Manually operated hydraulic door opener.
33
Pike poles and hooks (with the exception of the roofmans hook) should only be use for.........
pushing or pulling. (not prying)
34
Solid steel bar with handles, fork on one end, rounded on the other end. Weighs 30-40 lbs. Operated
by 1-4 firefighters.
Battering Ram
35
Rotating blades on a rotary saw will........even after the throttle has been released.
continue to spin
36
Should be carried with any pointed or sharp edge away from the body.
Prying tool
37
While carrying outside have the head down and close to the ground. When inside have the head up
and close to the body.
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Pike poles and hooks
38
If it is operating never carry it more then 10'. Carry with the blade forward and down.
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Power Tool
39
T or F Tools that are damaged or excessively worn should be removed from service, tagged, and sent
to the proper authority for repair or replacement.
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True
40
Weakens the cutting edge of a tool.
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Grinding (should be hand filled)
41
When oiling the metal surfaces of a tool you should not use oil with what?
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1-1-1 trichloroethane.
42
Should oil be applied to the striking surface of a tool?
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No
43
Inspected power tools periodically and ensure they will start .......
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Manually
44
Most conventional method of forcible entry used in the fire service.
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Forcing entry through doors
45
One of the fastest and least destructive ways of forcing a locked door.
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Breaking the door glass or sidelight next to it.
46
The most common type of door is one that
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swings 90 degrees to open and close.
47
Double acting swinging doors can swing up to how many degrees?
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180
48
If you can see the hinges of the door, it swings what direction?
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Towards you
49
A rotary saw can be used to force a door open by doing what?
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Cutting around the lock mechanism to separate the door from the lock.
50
Hydraulic spreading tool that is designed to open doors that swing inward.
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Rabbit Tool
51
On a outward swinging door (flush mount) if the hinges are solid so the pins can not be driven out
how can the hinges be broken off?
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With a rambar or halligan. Also can be cut with a rotary saw or cutting torch.
52
What can be used to cut a dead bolt?
Upgrade To Pro
A rotary saw with the proper blade, inserted into the space between the doors or door and jamb.
53
Name three ways that a drop bar can be removed.
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Lift it with a handsaw blade. Cut the exposed bolt heads to remove the stirrups. Insert a rotary blade
in between the two doors to cut the bar.
54
Type of glass specially treated to become harder and more than plate glass or a single sheet of
laminated glass. Resist heat. Break as a last resort. Strike at the bottom corner with a pick head axe.
Cover with a barrier or salvage cover to reduce chances of injury.
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Tempered Plate Glass
55
Name two techniques on forcing a sliding patio door.
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Break the glass, lifting the sliding panel up and out of the track.
56
How would a pocket door be forced open.
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The same way a swinging door is forced.
57
The preferred method for many commercial, residential, padlocks, and high security doors. Very
effective technique that does minimal damage to the door when performed correctly.
Upgrade To Pro
Through the lock forcible entry
58
Name 4 special tools that may be needed to complete through the lock forcible entry.
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K-tool, J-tool, A-tool, Shove Knife.
59
Only a 1/2" clearance is need between the lock and jam to use this tool for through the lock entry.
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K-tool
60
Developed to force entry on locks manufactured with collars or protective cone shaped covers over
them to prevent the lock cylinder from being unscrewed. Designed to cut behind the protective collar
and maintain a hold so the lock cylinder can be pried out.
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A-Tool
61
Designed to fit between a pair of double doors with panic hardware. Should be inserted far enough so
that it can rotate 90 degrees in each direction. Used to catch then pull on the panic hardware,
opening the door.
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J-Tool
62
Resembles a wide blade putty knife with a notch cut in one edge of the blade. Provides rapid accesses
to outward swinging latch type doors.
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Shove Knife
63
Name 5 tools designed for breaking padlocks.
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Duck billed lock breakers, Hammerhead pick, Locking Pliers and chain, Hockey puck lock breaker,
Bab-bam tool.
64
Case harden screw that is screwed into the key way. After it is set a few firm quick pulls on the
sliding hammer will pull the lock tumbler out. A screw driver can then be used to trigger the locking
mechanism.
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Bam-bam tools
65
What tool is best to use when forcing a overhead door and how high should it be used?
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Rotary saw, cut a square or rectangular opening about 6' tall.
66
What should be used to remove the wire in wire glass?
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A sharp tool, such as a axe.
67
Windows that should only be opened as a last resort.
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Fixed single pain windows.
68
T or F Forcible entry techniques for double hung (check rail) windows depends on how the window is
locked and the material the sash frame is made of.
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True
69
Casement windows are also called what?
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crank out windows
70
Consist of sections of glass about 1' high x the length of the window width. Hinged at the top rail,
bottom rail swings out. Forcible entry requires the glass to be removed or the frame to be pried out.
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Awning windows (hopper windows similar)
71
Consist of small sections about 4 inches high x the window width. Each glass pane is held in the
movable frame only on the ends. Operating crank and gear housing are at the bottom of the window.
It may be more useful to cut around the wall of the window and remove the window.
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Jalousie (louvered) window
72
What tool can be used to breach a hurricane window?
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An axe or the adz end of a halligan. Break it in a similar fashion as breaking a windshield.
73
How should hurricane shutters be removed?
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Cut them with a rotary saw with a aluminum oxide blade or break the lag bolts using a halligan.
74
Similar to hurricane windows, these windows have break resistant plastic panes instead of glass.
Lexan is 250 times stronger then safety glass. Will have a plastic sound when tapped, may appear
wavy or have distortions on the sides. Breach with a rotary saw or striking tool.
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High Security Windows
75
Name two tips to use if breaching a Lexan window with a rotary saw.
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Use a carbide 40 tooth blade. Make horizontal cuts first.
76
What are strong backs?
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Horizontal boards used to secure plywood in a HUD window covering.
77
Similar to HUD windows, these use metal parts and cables. Found on banks, mortgage companies,
and other buildings that owners want to prevent entry and vandalism to the vacant building.
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Vacant Protection System (VPS)
78
T or F If there are sufficient resources, all security bars should be removed to allow for emergency
egress to crews working inside a building.
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True
79
Name four ways to remove a security bars.
Upgrade To Pro
Remove bolts with a adz end of a halligan. Cut the bolt head with a rotary saw. Use the pick end of
the halligan to break the masonry out around the bolt. Cut the bar and or grill frame with rebar
cutters.
80
The act of creating a hole in a wall or floor to gain access to a structure or portion of a structure.
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Breaching
81
T or F Firefighters can cut wood framed walls with an axe or shatter them with a sledge hammer
before prying the wall open using a crow bar or halligan.
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True
82
T of F Using a battering ram to breach a masonry wall is only practical if a small hole is made
through which water can be applied to a fire on the other side of the wall.
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True
83
What tools are best for breaching brick and concrete walls.
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Power tools such as rotary saws with masonry blades or pneumatic or electric jack hammers.
84
Breaching concrete walls should be done when?
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Only as a absolutely last resort.
85
Looks identical to wall board but has a layer of Lexan behind the wall board.
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Reinforced Gypsum walls
86
Name three reasons a floor may need to be breached.
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Ventilation, Apply water to a fire, Rescue
87
Sub floor construction is limited to what two materials?
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Wood and concrete
88
The most efficient tool for breaching a concrete tool is what>
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Pneumatic or electric jack hammer
89
Rapidly using a jack hammer to cut a line of holes in a concrete floor.
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Stitch drill
90
A stitch drill technique can also be used for what type of nozzle application?
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Penetrating nozzle.
91
What type of fences are easier and faster to go over then through?
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Masonry and ornamental metal.
92
What methods may be used as a last resort to force open a gate?
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Prying the gate open or forcing it open with the apparatus bumper.

Chapter 12 Ground Ladders Flashcards

Preview
1
Fire service ladders have similar construction, shape, and design as those designed for private
industry and general use, but they are capable of what?
Supporting heavier loads
2
Standard for manufacturers design of fire department ground ladders.
NFPA 1931
3
This requires that folding ladders hold 300lbs. Single, roof, combination, and extension ladders
support 750lbs.
NFPA 1931
4
Standard on use, maintenance, and service testing of in service fire department ground ladders.
NFPA 1932
5
Label affixed to the inside of each beam of each section; a color change indicates the ladder has been
exposed to significant heat and should be tested before further us.
Heat-sensor label
6
Two other names for Pawls.
Dogs or Ladder logs
7
Wooden or metal pieces that prevent the fly section from being extended to far.
Stops
8
Most common ladder material in use in the fire service. Least expensive, Easy to repair. Can
suddenly fail when exposed to heat greater then 200 F.
Metal (aluminum heat treated) Ladders
9
Doug fir used for the beams. Hickory for the rungs. Red oak for the pulley block, slide glides, and
other misc parts. Do not conduct heat, Retain strength when exposed to heat, less bouncing when
climbing, very durable. Highest cost, Can be very heavy.
Wood Ladders
10
Least common ladder material in the fire service. Cost less then wood more then metal. Very strong.
Can suddenly crack and fail when overloaded, can burn when exposed to flame.
Fiberglass Ladders
11
Ladder length on each beam with in 12" of the butt plate. Manufacture name along with month and
year made. Electrical hazard warning. Ladder positioning (climbing angle and side of ladder is to be
away from the building), Heat sensor label on metal and fiberglass (placed on the inside rung of each
beam, below the second rung of the tip of the section, preset at 300 F, must have a expiration date)
Required NFPA 1931 ladder markings.
12
Name the five types of fire service ladders.
Single, Roof, Extension, Combination, Folding
13
Also called wall ladders or straight ladders. Fixed length. Some are of the trussed type, intended to
maximize their strength while reducing weight. Lengths vary from 6 - 32', most common lengths are
from 12-24'.
Single Ladders
14
Single ladder with folding hooks at the tip. Lengths of 12-24'.
Roof Ladders.
15
Single ladder with hinged rungs. Lengths from 8-16' most common is 10'. NFPA 1931 requires foot
pads on the bottom to prevent slipping.
Folding Ladders
16
Adjustable. Potential full length is the ladders length. Range from 12 -39'.
Extension Ladders
17
Can be A-frame, single, or extension ladder. Lengths of 8-14', most common 10'. May be equipped
with positive locking devices to hold the ladder in place.
Combination Ladders
18
Standard For Automotive Fire Apparatus.
NFPA 1901
19
One single (roof) ladder with roof hooks. One extension ladder. One folding Ladder.
Recommendation that a 35' extension be carried where no ladder truck is in service.
Required ladders on a pumper. NFPA 1901
20
Must carry a minimum of 115' of ground ladders. Ex: One folding ladder, Two single (roof) ladders
w/ hooks. Two extension ladders.
Required ladders on a Aerial Apparatus. NFPA 1901
21
Must carry a minimum of 85' of ground ladders. Types of ladders are the same as required for a
pumper.
Required ladders for a Quint. NFPA 1901
22
Requires ground ladders to be inspected after each use and monthly.
NFPA 1932
23
When inspecting a ladder without a heat sensor what should be looked for?
Heavy carbon (soot) deposits or blisters paint on the ladder tips. Discoloration on fiberglass ladders.
24
Requires all ground ladders be service tested before being put into use, annually while in service, and
after any expose to high heat or rough treatment.
NFPA 1932
25
Ladders should be cleaned when?
After every use.
26
Tools for cleaning a ladder?
Soft bristle brush and running water. Mild soap or safe solvents to get rid of tar, oil, or grease.
27
A ladder should always have what done when it gets wet?
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Wiped dry
28
Keeping something in a state of usefulness or readiness.
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Maintaince
29
To restore or replace that which is damaged or worn out.
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Repair
30
Any firefighters should be able to perform.......... on a ladder. A trained ladder technician should
perform all .........
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Maintenance, Repairs
31
Maintenance guidelines for ground ladders.
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Keep free of moisture, Do not store next to vehicle exhaust or engine heat, Do not store exposed to
weather, Do not paint except for the top and bottom 18" for identification. or visibility.
32
Wear a full body harness and safety line when training. Keep 10' away from electric lines. Secure the
tip and anchor the base . One firefighter every 10' or one per ladder section. Secure the foot of
unattended ladders to a stationary object using ropes.
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Ladder Safety Guildines
33
Residential story averages 10' high, w/ 3' from floor to window sill. Commercial story averages 12'
high w/ 4' from floor to windowsill.
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Ladder length placement estimations.
34
Building walls or parapets the extend more then how many feet above the rood may require the use
of a additional ladder.
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6'
35
NFPA 1931 requires single and roof ladders have a designated length equal to the measured length. a
extension ladders measured length can be up to how many inches less then the designated length?
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6" less
 36
For lengths of 35' or less, reach is approx 1' less then what?
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designated length.
37
For lengths above 35' , reach is approx 2' less then what?
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designated length.
38
T or F Lift with your knees bent, back straight, lifting with legs, NOT your back or arms?
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True
39
Command for lifting is given by who?
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Firefighter who can see the other team members.
40
Where are ground ladders typically carried on a pumper?
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Horizontal or Vertically on the right side or rear of the pumper. Also may be in a rack on top right
side.
41
Where are ground ladders typically carried on a aerial or quint?
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Vertically on the right or left side, or horizontally in the bed.
42
Where are ladders typically carried on specialized apparatus like a water tender or ARFF truck?
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Vertically on the outside.
43
Carry that one firefighter can use to carry single, roof, and 24' extension ladder. Ladder beam is
rested on the shoulder with a arm through two rungs grasping the lower opposite beam.
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One firefighter low shoulder carry
44
Hooks on roof ladders should not be open until when?
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You are ready to ascend to the roof.
45
Most commonly used ladder carry for 24, 28, and 35' extension ladders.
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Two firefighter low shoulder carry
46
Typically used on extension ladders up to 35'. Two firefighters are at each end of the ladder on the
same side. A third firefighter is in the middle on the opposite side. All lift and rotate placing the
ladder on there shoulder at the same time.
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Three firefighter flat shoulder carry
47
Ladder carry that begins with it on the ground, fly up. Same positions as a three firefighter flat
shoulder carry, except they start by facing the butt. Lift ladder with arm by rung and keep it at arms
length.
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Three firefighter flat arms length carry
48
Same technique as a three firefighter flat shoulder carry except a fourth firefighter is added which
places a firefighter at each corner of the ladder.
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Four fire fighter flat shoulder carry
49
Best for lightweight ladders. Fire fighters are placed on the bed side of the ladder, carrying it at arms
length.
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Two fire fighter arms length on edge carry
50
Can be carry butt or tip first. While ascending to the roof carry the roof ladder at 3-4 rungs from the
tip on your shoulder.
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Roof ladder carry
51
Usually, the firefighter nearest the butt decides the ladders exact placement. When there are two
firefighters at the butt the one on which side decides?
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The one on the right side
52
If a ladder is placed to far from a building it does what?
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Reduces load carrying capacity. Higher tendency to slip.
53
To determine the distance the butt should be away from the building, take the total working length
and divide it by what?
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4.
54
What 4 benefits does a 75 degree angle provide?
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Good stability. Less stress on the ladder. Optimum climbing angle. Easiest climbing position.
55
More then two firefighters should be used to raise ladders that are what length?
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35' or greater.
56
Pivot a ladder on what beam?
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The one closet to the structure.
57
One firefighter can safely shift up a ladder up to what length?
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20'
58
Name two ways a ladder can be secured.
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Tying in and heeling
59
When should a ladder be secured?
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Any time firefighters are working on them.
60
While climbing a ladder your arms and hands should not reach where?
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Above your head.
61
Whenever possible tools and hoses should be raised by means of what?
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Hoisting with a rope.
62
What two methods safely secured a firefighter to a ladder so that they can safely work with both
hands?
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Ladder belt or leg lock.
63
Standard on Life Safety rope and equipment for emergency services.
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NFPA 1983
64
According to NFPA 1983 this is considered a positioning devices and not a harness.
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Ladder belt
65
What is the minimum amount of firefighter needed to bring victims down a ladder?
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4
66
How can small children be brought down a ladder?
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Cradled in the rescuers arms.

Chapter 13 Tactical Ventilation Flashcards

Preview
1
Term that refers to the removal of heated air,smoke,and fire gases from a structure and replacing
them with cooler air.
Ventilation
2
The planned systematic and coordinated removal of heated air, smoke, gases or other airborne
contaminants from a structure, replacing them with cooler, fresher air to meet the three incident
priorities.
Tactical Ventilation
3
Controlling and extinguishing fire in stages is what?
Incident stabilization.
4
A houses foot print size for residential homes have increased ................between 1973 and 2008. In
addition the lot sizes have decreased ............,reducing firefighter access and increasing potential
exposure risk.
150 percent, 25 percent.
5
Name four fire behavior indicators that should be considered in a tactical ventilation.
Smoke, Air Flow, Heat, Flame
6
Name four smoke indicators that can paint a picture of interior fire conditions.
Volume of smoke. Location of smoke discharge. Smoke color,density, and pressure. Movement of
smoke
7
The movement of air toward burning fuel and the movement of smoke out of the compartment or
structure.
Air flow
8
Name four air flow indicators.
Velocity. Turbulence. Direction. Movement of the neutral plane.
9
Name two causes of air flow.
Pressure differentials between the outside and inside. Differences in density between the hot smoke
and cooler air.
10
The connection between the inlet and the outlet.
Flow path
11
Name three heat indicators.
Blistering paint. Bubbling roof tar. Crazed glass.
12
Name two primary considerations in determining if tactical ventilation should be used.
Stage of fire. Whether the fire is fuel or ventilation controlled.
13
Weather conditions such as wind, temp, atmospheric pressure, precipitation, and relative humidity
all can effect tactical ventilation. Which of these has the largest effect?
Wind
14
List tools that are used to complete tactical ventilation.
Forcible entry tools. Power Saws. Fans or Blowers. Smoke Ejectors. Flexible Duct, Stacking and
Hanging Devices. Support Systems. Electrical power cords. Generators/
15
T or F For vertical ventilation to be effective, a horizontal inlet opening at or below the level of the
fire is needed to provide a flow patch for fresh air to enter the structure.
True
16
Name two types of tactical ventilation.
Horizontal and Verical
17
Name the means of horizontal and/or vertical ventilation.
Natural, Mechanical, Hydraulic
 18
What means of ventilation should be chosen when a fire is burning below ground in a structure?
Mechanical or Hydraulic
19
Can horizontal ventilation be effective in buildings with daylight basements?
Yes
20
When performing natural ventilation should the outlet or inlet be opened first?
outlet on the leeward side.
21
Oldest type of mechanical ventilation. Smoke is pulled from the structure. Fresh air is drawn in. Fans
should be on the leeward side to work with the wind and not against it.
Negative pressure ventilation
22
The flow path should be keep as ..........as possible. Every corner causes turbulence and decreases
ventilation efficiency.
straight
23
The direction opposite from which the wind is blowing. The protected side.
Leeward side
24
The side or direction from which the wind is blowing.
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Windward side
25
The use of a fan to create a slightly higher pressure inside of a structure. Requires good fire ground
discipline, coordination, and tactics.
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Positive pressure ventialtion
26
To maintain the positive pressure inside a structure it is important to control location, number, and
size of what?
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Exterior openings
27
When using PPV to evacuate smoke from a multistory building, what floor should be first?
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The one with the most smoke.
28
PPV is equally effective with horizontal and vertical ventilation because it supplements what?
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Natural air flow currents
29
The main problem with using PPV in above ground operations is what?
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Coordinating the opening and closing of doors in the stairwell being used to ventilate the building.
30
Used to clear a room of smoke, heat, steam, and gases after a fire has been controlled.
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Hydraulic Ventilation
31
What percentage of the opening should be covered by the stream pattern and what minimum
distance away from the opening should you be when performing hydraulic ventilation?
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85-90%, 2 feet back (nozzle tip)
32
Intended to aid in reaching and extinguishing the fire.
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Offensive Vertical Ventilation
33
Meant to stop the spread of fire and contain it in one area of the structure.
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Defensive Vertical Ventilation
34
When cutting a roof you should work with the wind at your?
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back or side
35
While performing vertical ventilation remain aware of overhead obstructions within the reach of
what?
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Your swing.
36
Where should you walk whenever possible before and after performing vertical ventilation?
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Load bearing walls and strongest points of a structure.
37
Firefighters should always sound a roof, especially if the roof is what?
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Obstructed by smoke or damage.
38
Name four warning signs of possible unsafe roof conditions.
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Melting asphalt. Spongy roof. Smoke coming from the roof. Fire coming from the roof.
39
Used to help to determine the location and direction of travel of a fire in an attic or cockloft.
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Inspection hole
40
Name two inspection hole techniques.
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Kerf cut. Triangle "A" cut.
41
A disadvantage of a kerf cut is what?
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Heat from the fire can cause the tar or membrane to melt and seal up the cut.
42
A single cut the width of the saw blade in a roof to check for extension.
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Kerf cut
43
A inspection cut technique that provides the most reliable info of conditions beneath the roof.
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Triangle cut
 44
Offensive ventilation involves making an opening over the seat of the fire at or near the highest point
of the roof.
What are two critical points to remember when creating a exhaust opening?
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A square or rectangular cut is easier to repair. One large opening at least 4' x 8' is much better then
several small openings.
45
Rectangular exhaust opening cut in a roof, allowing a section of roof deck to be tilted, while still
connected to the center rafter.
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Louver Cut or Vent
46
Strips of wood attached to rafters.
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Battens
47
May be attached to solid sheathing or to battens.
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Slate or tile roofs
48
The curvature of this type of roof prevents a roof ladder from being secured to the roof. Make a
inspection cut as soon as you step on the rood to determine construction and fire location.
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Arched Roofs
49
Two other names for a trench cut.
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Trench or strip ventilation
50
Must be created at least 30' from the fire and only after a offensive vertical vent cut has been made.
Typically 3'-4' wide. Have a charged hose line ready. Cut small inspection holes on both sides of this
cut to determine fire location and spread. Assign a roof safety officer to observe.
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Trench cut
51
T of F When the IC determines that the main body of fire is too great to extinguish, they will decided
to take a defensive stance and abandon efforts to save the currently burning part of the building.
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True
52
Windowless buildings will require what type of ventilation?
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Mechanical
53
Personnel required for search and rescue and firefighting operations in high-rise buildings is often
how many times greater then is required for a fire in a typical low-rise building?
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4-6 times
54
Phenomenon of a strong air draft moving from the ground level to the roof level of a building.
Affected by building height, configuration, and temp differences between the inside and outside air.
Upgrade To Pro
Stack Effect
55
Tendency of heat, smoke, and other products of combustion to rise until the encounter a horizontal
obstruction. At this point they will spread laterally (ceiling jet) until they encounter a vertical
obstruction and begin to bank downward (hot gas layer development).
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Horizontal smoke spread
56
Heat and gas travel up until they reach the top of the building or they are cooled to the surrounding
air temp. When the temp is equally the stop rising and spread horizontally.
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Stratify (form layers).
57
What should be placed at the bottom floor of a stairwell used to evacuate occupants?
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A fan creating PPV
58
Smoke control systems should have a panel that indicates what two things?
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Where the alarm originated from. Which automatic closer where activated.

Chapter 14 Water Supply Flashcards Preview

1
Name the two types of water supply systems in North America.
Public and Private
2
Name four components of a water supply system.
Water supply source. Processing and treatment facility. Means of moving water. Water distribution
and storage systems.
3
How many times more saltier is the ocean then fresh water?
220 times
4
Name three methods of moving water.
Gravity, Pumping, Combination
5
How high does the water source need to be above the highest use point in a gravity system?
100'
6
Most direct pumping systems are found in what two areas?
Industrial and agricultural.
7
In a direct pumping system, what is necessary to ensure a reliable system?
Duplicate pumps and piping.
8
Many industrial facilities have their own elevated storage tanks making this kind of system possible.
Combination system.
9
Name the four system components of a water distribution system.
Piping. Storage tanks. Isolation and control valves. Hydrants
10
Generally made of cast iron, ductile iron, asbestos cement, steel, PVC, plastic, or cement.
Underground water mains.
11
Name the three types of water mains found in a water distribution grid.
Primary Feeders. Secondary Feeders. Distrubutors
12
Also know as arterial mains. Range from 16" to 72".
Primary Feeders
13
Interconnect with primary feeders to create a grid. 12" - 14" wide. Control Valves are used to isolate
each of these.
Secondary Feeders
14
6" - 8" wide. Serve individual fire hydrants.
Distributors
15
T or F To ensure a sufficient water supply, two or more primary feeders should run from the source
of supply to the high risk and industrial districts of the community along separate routes. Similarly,
secondary feeders should provide water from the primary feeders along two directions to any end
point.
True
16
Today, .....inch pipe is often the minimum size used, although some communities are allowing ......inch
pipes in residential subdivisions.
8", 6"
17
Elevated water storage tanks are usually constructed of what?
Concrete or steel.
18
What is the range of capacity for a elevated storage tank?
5000 to over a million gallons.
19
Most valves are constructed of what?
Brass, steel, or cast iron.
20
Name the two types of valves used in a water supply system.
Isolation and control valves.
21
Either gate valves or butterfly valves. Maximum length of valve spacing should be 500' in high value
districts and 800' in other areas. Should be tested (opened and closed) at least once a year. Non-
indicating type valves on municipal water supply systems. Private systems usually have indicating
valves. Typically found on secondary feeders.
Isolation valves
22
Name the two most common indicating valves.
OS&Y and Post Indicator Valve (PIV)
 23
What position is the OS&Y vale is you can see the stem?
Open
24
Name seven types of control valves.
Pressure reducing. Pressure sustaining. Pressure relief. Flow control. Throttling. Float. Check.
25
Located between public and private water supply systems.
Control Valves.
26
Two additional components that are installed between a public and private water supply system
besides control valves.
Flow Meter. Back Flow Preventer
27
Fire hydrants are usually connect to the water system by what size pipe?
6"
28
Fire hydrants should not be spaced more then ....... in high value districts. Hydrants should be
located at .........intersection. Additional hydrants may be needed where distances between
intersections exceeds 350 to 400 feet.
300', every other. (this place a hydrant within one block of a building).
29
Fire hydrant located on a dead end main that receives water from only one direction.
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Dead End Hydrant
30
Fire hydrant that is located on a secondary feeder or distributor main that receives water from two
directions.
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Circulating Hydrant
31
Fire hydrant that receives water from two or more directions.
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Circulating feed
32
Water Main arranged in a complete circuit so that water will be supplied to a given point from more
then one direction.
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Loop system
33
Can provide a constant volume of water at a constant pressure.
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Fire Hydrants
34
Fire hydrant bonnets, barrels, and foot pieces are made of what? Internal workings are made of
what? Valve facings are made of what?
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Cast iron. Bronze. Rubber, leather, or composite material.
35
Name the two main types of fire hydrants used in North America.
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Dry-barrel and Wet-Barrel
36
Hydrant discharges consist of what?"
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One 4 - 4/12" outlet. (Pumper outlet nozzle, Steamer connection) Two 2 1/2" outlets.
37
Hydrant specs require a ....... valve opening for standard three way hydrants and a ......connection to
the water main.
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5", 6"
38
Standard on Fire Hose Connections
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NFPA 1963
39
Hydrant colors vary by what?
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Jurisdiction
40
Recommended Practice for Fire Flow Testing and Marking of Hydrants
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NFPA 291
41
Factors that affect hydrant flow rate. SLIP
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S= size of main. L=length of the main. I=Internal condition of the main. P= Pressure within the main.
42
Class AA. 1500 gpm or greater. 20 psi.
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Light Blue
43
Class A. 1000-1499 gpm. 20psi.
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Green
44
Class B. 500-999 gpm. 20 psi.
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Orange
45
Class C. 500 gpm or less. 20 psi.
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Red
46
Hydrants must be inspected and operated how many times a year?
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Two
47
When a dry barrel stem nut is turned to open the hydrant it is pushing the valve what way?
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Down
48
Dry Barrel hydrants should be completely open or completely closed to prevent what?
Upgrade To Pro
Undermining
49
List some sources of alternate water supply's.
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Adjacent private water systems. Lakes,ponds, rivers, and the ocean. Swimming Pools. Farm stock
tanks. Rainwater collection cisterns and detention ponds.T
50
T of F. Almost any static water source can be used as a alternate water source if it is sufficient in
quantity and not contaminated to the point of creating a health hazard or damaging the fire pump.
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True
51
How many inches should be above and below a intake strainer?
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24"
52
How shallow of water can a floating strainer draft from?
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24"
53
Drafting hydrants are usually constructed of what? How many gpm do they supply as a minimum?
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Steel or PVC. 1000gpm
54
Areas that lack a public water supply system or that have inadequate volume and pressure,
frequently have to use what to get water for firefighting?
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Rural water supply operations. (Water shuttle, Relay Pumping)
55
Standard on Water Supplies for Suburban and Rural Fire Fighting.
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NFPA 1142
56
Water shuttle operations are recommended in what two case?
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Supply is greater then 1/2 mile away. Distance exceeds the available supply hose.
57
Should mobile water supply apparatus drivers remain in their vehicle during filling and dumping?
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Yes
58
What are the three components to a water shuttle operation?
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Dump site at the fire. Fill site at the water source. Mobile water supply apparatus to haul water from
fill site to dump site.
59
Portable tanks have capacity beginning at what?
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1000 gallons.
60
Name two types of portable water tanks.
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Square with a frame. Round frame less.
61
Multiple portable water tanks can be interconnected in what two ways?
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Through their drain valves. Through a jet siphon.
62
How do you calculate the volume of water being supplied in a water shuttle operation?
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Total gallons carried divided by the total time (fill time, travel time, dump time), this will give you a
gpm.
63
Name the four methods a mobile water supply apparatus can unload.
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Gravity dumping through 10-12" dump valves. Jet assist dump that increases flow rate. Apparatus
mounted pumps that off load the water. A combination of these methods
64
Standard for Automotive Fire Apparatus.
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NFPA 1901
65
NFPA requires that mobile water supply apparatus on level ground be capable of dumping or filling
at a rate of what?
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At least 1000 gpm (this rate requires adequate venting and and openings in tank baffles)
66
Both fill and dump sites should be arranged so that a minimum of what is required?
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Backing or maneuvering of apparatus.
67
What two factors should be considered when setting up a relay pumping operation?
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Is the water supply adequate for the duration of the incident? Can a relay be set up quick enough
that it is worthwhile?
68
The number of pumpers and the distance between pumpers in a relay operation is determined by
these 5 things.
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Required volume of water. Distance between source and fire. Size of supply hose available. Amount
of hose available. Pumper capacity.
69
In a relay pumping operation where should the pumper with the greatest pumping capacity be
located?
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At the water source.
70
Use of two or more pumpers to move water over a long distance by operating them in series.
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Relay Pumping
71
What is the best way to prepare for a relay operation?
Upgrade To Pro
Plan them in advance and practice them often.
 Chapter 15 Fire Hose Flashcards Preview
1
Standard on Fire Hose
NFPA 1961
2
A fire hoses measured diameter refers to what measurement?
The internal diameter.
3
What is the traditional length of fire hose in North America?
50'
4
Used to connect the pumper to a hydrant or other water source.
Suction hose (intake hose).
5
Standard on Automotive Fire Apparatus.
NFPA 1901
6
Large diameter hose, minimum of 15' long, used to connect a pumper to a pressurized source
(hydrant). Sizes range from 2 1/2" to 6". Has two female or non threaded couplings.
Soft Sleeve Hose
7
Non collapsible hose that operates under a vacuum. Used to draft water from a static water source.
Generally comes in 10' sections. Sizes 2 1/2" to 6". Two female or non threaded couplings.
Hard suction hose
8
Standard for Fire Hose Connections.
NFPA 1963
9
NFPA 1963 requires that all brands of fire hose coupling threads have what?
Compatabilty
10
What is the required thread type of fire hose called?
American National Fire Hose Connection Screw Threads. (National Hose)
11
What three types of alloys are used to make couplings?
Brass. Aluminum. Magnesium
12
Name three ways that couplings are manufactured.
Cast. Extruded. Drop Forged
13
Very weak. Only found on occupant type hose.
Cast
14
Lightweight and high strength. Usually made of aluminum. Stronger then cast couplings.
Extruded
15
Made of brass or other malleable metals. Strongest and most expensive couplings.
Drop Forged
16
A male coupling attached to a female coupling is called what?
A set (three piece coupling)
17
Name three types of coupling lugs.
Pin, Recessed, Rocker
18
Lug found on older fire hose. Not used anymore due to catching.
Pin
19
Lug found on booster hose. Enables hose to be wound up into a reel. Pin-lug spanner used to break
connection.
Recessed
20
Modern fire hose lug. Prevents hose from catching on objects.
Rounded Rocker
21
Located on swivels of large intake supply or suction hose.
Handles or extended lugs.
22
Connected with locks or cams and not screw threads. Some have male and female ends, most are
sexless.
Non threaded coupling
23
Name two types of sexless couplings.
Quarter turn. Stortz (turn 1/3)
24
T or F Can dirt become lodged into a sexless couplings grooves, giving the impression that it is a tight
seal when it may not be?
True
25
Name six causes of fire hose damage.
Mechanical, Thermal, Organic, Chemical, Corrosion, Age deterioration.
26
Special cold resistance hose is rated for temps down to what?
-65F
27
Name three methods of removing frozen fire hose.
Melt the ice with a steam generating device. Chop the hose out with an axe. Wait until it has thawed.
28
Should fire hose that was frozen be service tested prior to being put back into service?
Yes
29
What types of fire hose can be affected by mold and mildew?
Hose with a woven jacket of cotton or other natural fiber.
30
If a fire hose has no been removed in ............ remove it, inspect it, sweep it, reload it.
6 months
31
When should fire hose be tested?
Annually and after sustaining possible damage or freezing
32
What type of hose should be completely dry before storing or reloading?
Cotton or cotton blend
33
What can fire hose be cleaned with?
Mild soap or bleach solution (5 percent in water)
34
Can chemical damage cause a separation of the outer jacket and the inner lining of a fire hose?
Yes
35
What should fire hose that has been exposed to acids or other caustic chemicals be cleaned with?
A mixture of bicarbonate of soda and water.
36
Do aluminum couplings develop a layer of corrosion that seals and prevents further corrosion?
Yes
37
How often should hose loads be removed and reloaded to prevent age deterioration?
Every six months
38
Because hose loaded on edge wears more quickly, manufactures recommend loading hose as a what?
Flat load
39
What should be done if fire hose needs to remain in a hose drying tower for a long period of time.
Change the hose/peg contact point.
40
NFPA 1962 requires hose to be tested when?
Annually and with in 90 days of being put in service.
41
The most common type of hose washing machine will wash hose up to what size?
3"
42
How can couplings be prevented from swinging while hose is hanging in outside drying towers?
Lash or tie the ends.
43
When storing cotton fabric hose how should it be keep?
Packed loosely to facilitate air movement.
44
How can couplings be cleaned.
Female = twist in a bucket of water and soap. Male= wire brush, soap, water.
45
Used in large pump intakes and incorporates a flat baffle to turns 90 degrees.
Butterfly valve
46
Similar to a wye appliance. Incorporates a inlet and outlet of the same size along with multiple other
outlets of smaller sizes. This configuration allow water to be taken from the main supply line at
intervals in the line.
Water Thief Appliance. ( large diameter stortz manifold)
47
When a large volume of water is needed near the end of the main supply line, what can be used?
Consist of one large diameter inlet and three 2 1/2" outlets.
LDH manifold. (aka: portable hydrant, phantom pumpers, large -diameter distributors)
48
When are hydrant valves used?
When a forward lay is made from a low pressure hydrant.
49
Name four functions of a Hydrant Valve.
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Allow additional hose lines to be laid to the hydrant. Connect a supply pumper to the hydrant. Boost
the pressure in the original supply line with out interrupting water flow. Allow the original supply
line to be connect to the hydrant and charged before the arrival of another pumper.
50
Name the two main types of fittings.
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Adapters and reducers.
51
Used to connect hose of similar size and threads.
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Adapter
52
Provide support for intake for intake or discharge hose at the pump panel.
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Elbows
53
When can intake strainers be placed on the bottom of a water source?
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When the source is clean and hard, like a swimming pool.
54
How is a hose roller attached to a edge?
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With a clamp or rope.
55
What two sizes are hose jackets made in?
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2 1/2" and 3"
56
What other purpose can a hose jacket be used for beside going over ruptured hose?
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Connect hose with mismatched or damaged screw thread couplings.
57
Name three types of hose clamps.
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Screw down. Press down. Hydraulic press.
58
Apply at least 20' behind the apparatus. Apply approx 5' from the coupling on the supply side. Close
and open slowly.
Upgrade To Pro
Hose clamp
59
Name four other uses of a spanner wrench other then tightening and loosening couplings.
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Wedge for prying. Opening for gas utilities. Slot for pulling nails. Flat surface for hammering.
60
What two other uses can hose bridges be used for other then allowing vehicles to drive over lines?
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Get hose out of contaminants, chaffing block.
61
Name three materials that chaffing blocks are made from.
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Wood, Leather, Sections of old truck tires.
62
This hose load is used for transporting hose, storing hose, carrying spare sections of hose, and
making hose loads easier.
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Straight Roll
63
Hose roll used when hose will be deployed for use. Firefighter has control of both couplings. Hose
rolls out easier with fewer twist or kinks. Holding both couplings enables quicker connections to
other hose.
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Donut Roll
64
Can be used on up to 3" hose. Works best on 1 1/2' and 1 3/4' hose. Purpose of the hose roll is to
make a compact, easy to carry roll for situations like high rise packs /standpipes. Offset the couplings
about 1' so that they can be connected together when the roll is complete.
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Twin Donut Roll
65
A twin donut roll with a built in carrying loop.
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Self-locking twin donut roll
66
According to NFPA 1901 what is the minimum quantity of hose that must be carried on a pumper or
engine.
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800' of 2 1/2" or larger supply hose. 400' of 1 1/2' or 1 3/4' or 2' attack hose.
67
Hose in a split hose bed should be stored so that both beds may be what? When a long hose lay is
needed.
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Connected
68
Name the three most common types of supply hose lays.
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Flat. Accordion. Horse Shoe
69
Arrangement of hose usually placed on top of a hose load and connected to the end of the load.
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Finish
70
Easiest supply hose load. Sutable for any size hose. Best way to load LDH.
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Flat Load
71
How many inches from the front of the hose bed should be reserved for the couplings when loading
LDH as a flat load?
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12-18 inches
72
Name some advantages of a accordion hose load.
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Easy to load with only 2-3 firefighters. A firefighter can take several folds and place it on their
shoulder.
73
A supply hose load with the least amount of sharp bends. Does not work on LDH because the
remaining hose in the bed will lay flat as it is being deployed.
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Horseshoe Load
74
Used with split hose beds with threaded coupling hose. Load allows for a forward and/or reverse lay
to be made. Can be loaded as a flat,accordion, or horseshoe load. Gives fire officers the greatest
number of choices when deciding how to use limited resources. May be LDH on one side with smaller
hose on the other.
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Combination Load
75
Hose load that is added to the basic hose load to increase the versatility of the load. Normally provide
enough hose to connect to a hydrant or be used as a attack line.
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Finishes
76
Name two categories of hose load finishes.
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Those used for forward hose lays (straight finish). Those used for reverse hose lays ( reverse
horseshoe and skid load).
77
The last section of hose arranged loosely back and forth across the top of the hose load. Any
necessary appliances or tools are strapped at the female coupling.
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Straight Finish
78
Made of one or two 100' sections of hose, each connected to one side of a gated wye. Hose size of 1
1/2', 1 3/4', or 2 1/2'" used. A nozzle is attached to each line. Can be shouldered.
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Reverse horse shoe finish
79
Consist of folding the last three sections of 2 1/2" hose into a compact bundle on top of the rest of the
hose load. Begins by forming three or more loops then accordion folding the rest of the hose.
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Skid Load Finish
 80
Assembled in a way that provides enough attack hose for firefighters to operate from a standpipe, yet
light enough for one person to carry.
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High Rise Pack
81
What two purpose does a dutchman serve?
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It changes the direction of a coupling. It changes the location of the coupling.
82
Load all large diameter hose (3' or larger) couplings where?
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In the front of the hose bed.
83
Where are preconnects located?
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Anywhere but the main hose bed.
84
What range in length are preconnects usually?
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50-250'
85
A preconnect load that can be used for all sizes of attack hose but is mainly used for 2" and 2 1/2".
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Triple Layer Load
86
This preconnect load plays of the shoulder while the firefighter advances. Well suited for narrow
hose beds. Can be awkward to carry if a SCBA is worn.
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Minuteman Load
87
When laying supply hose what are two safety tips?
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Drive no faster then 10 mph. Lay hose to one side of the roadway.
88
What end of a threaded coupling should come off first in a forward lay?
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Female
89
What type of supply lay is best when a pumper needs to be at the water source to either draft it or
increase the pressure?
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Reverse Lay
90
What end of a threaded coupling should come off first when doing a reverse lay?
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Male
91
T or F It is more efficient to connect a 4 1/2" or larger intake hose to a hydrant with only 2 1/2"
outlets using the proper adapters?
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True
 92
Can hard intake hose marked "For Vacuum Use Only" be used for hydrant connects?
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No
93
Refers to any number of ways to lay multiple supply hose with a single engine.
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Combination Lay
94
What is the easiest way to advance a charged hoseline at ground level?
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The working line drag
95
Where should hose line be laid in a stairwell?
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To the outside.
96
In what case is it acceptable to connect to a standpipe on the same floor as the fire floor?
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If the standpipe connection is located in a enclosed stairwell.
97
In a multi story structure what can you learn from observing the floor below the fire floor?
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The layout.
98
If two hoseline are being deployed on the same fire floor, where should excess hose be placed?
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One up the stairs, the other down the stairs.
99
How many stories must a building be for most building codes to require a standpipe system?
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Three stories or greater.
100
Name two methods of improvised standpipes.
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Interior stairway stretch. Outside stretch.
101
A labor intensive task used in stairways that have an open shaft or stairwell in the center. A
uncharged hoseline is suspended in the middle of the stairs rather than laying it on the stairs and
around corners. Hose should be secured to handrails in intervals.
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Interior Stairway stretch.
102
Supply hose can be hoisted up to the desired floor via the exterior of the building with a rope.
Supports can be secured to interior objects then tied back to the supply line about every three stories.
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Outside Stretch
103
If a firefighter is to operate a nozzle off a aerial ladder, where does the aerial ladder tip need to be?
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Touching the window sill.
104
When might one firefighter be assigned to operate a handline alone?
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small ground cover fires, rubbish/trash fires, vehicle fire, small structure fire, overhaul.
105
What is the minimum amount of firefighters operating a handline on interior structure fires?
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Two
106
Stands 3' behind the nozzle operator. Responsible for keeping the hose straight behind the nozzle
operator.
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Back up firefighter
107
T or F When two firefighters are assigned to handle a large hoseline, they may need a means of
anchoring the hoseline to offset nozzle reaction.
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True
108
When using three firefighters to control a large attack line where are the two firefighters behind the
nozzle man located?
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One standing behind the nozzle man, the third kneeling on the line. OR. All three standing in a line
using a rope hose tool to offset the nozzle reaction.
109
What are two ways a single firefighter on a large attack line can reduce fatigue?
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Use a hose strap or rope hose tool, or reduce the nozzle flow if conditions permit it. Limited
maneuvering except for side to side motion.
110
What three things will be needed is a hoseline is going to be extended?
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A hose clamp, spanner wrench, and the necessary amount of hose required for the wanted distance.
111
The end of a charged hoseline that is flowing water without a nozzle or valve to control the flow.
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Open Butt
112
What is the safest way to control a loose hose line.
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Closing the a valve at the pump or hydrant.
113
Name two other options of controlling a loose hose line other then closing a valve.
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Hose clamp on a stationary section. Kink the hose at a point away from the break.
114
How many sections of hose are needed to replace any one ruptured section of hose?
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Two
115
Standard for Inspection, Care, and Use of Fire Hose, Couplings, and Nozzles and the Service Testing
of Fire Hose.
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NFPA 1962
116
When are service test of hose performed?
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Annually. When hose has been repaired, When hose has been ran over by a vehicle.`
117
Hose testing should be done in a paved area with enough room to lay hose without bends or kinks. A
slight grade is helpful for water drainage. If done at night the area should be what?
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Well Lighted.
118
When should the pumper being used to test hose have had its gauges certified?
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Within a year of the hose testing.
119
Has a 1/4" hole in the gate that permits pressurizing the hose but dose not allow water surge through
the hose if it fails.
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Hose Test Gate Valve.
120
What minimum PPE should be used when testing hose?:
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A helmet
121
What side of the pumper should hose be connected when service testing?
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The opposite side of the pump panel.
122
What is the max length of hose to services test?
Upgrade To Pro
300'

Chapter 16 Fire Streams Flashcards Preview

1
The primary way that water extinguishes fire is by absorbing heat which creates what?
A cooling effect
2
The amount of energy required to raise the temp of a specific unit mass of a material 1 degree in
temp.
Specific Heat
3
Quantity of heat absorbed by a substance at the point at which it changes from a liquid to a vapor.
Latent heat of vaporization.
4
How many more BTU's are required to convert water into steam after it has reached its 212F boiling
point?
970 BTU's
5
At 212 F water expands how many times to turn into steam?
1700
 6
Would a solid stream or fog stream nozzle cause water to convert into steam more quickly?
Fog stream. More surface area to absorb more heat.
7
When water turns to steam from striking a solid object (ceiling) that is 212 F, the steam will expand
pushing the smoke layer down. What happens if the water turns to steam while traveling through the
smoke layer?
The smoke layer will cool and contract.
8
T or F There is a practical limit to the velocity or speed at which water can travel through a hoseline.
If the velocity is increased beyond this limit, the friction becomes so great that the water in the
hoseline is agitated by the resistance.
True
9
Name ways that friction loss is reduced.
Increasing hose size. Adding additional parallel lines. Increasing pump pressure. Taking kinks or
sharp bends out of the hoseline.
10
At low flow pressure water hammer is minimal. At higher flow rates the effects of water hammer do
what?
Increase significantly.
11
What two ways are fire streams classified?
By their size and type.
12
What are the three sizes of fire streams?
Low-volume stream. Handline Stream. Master Stream.
13
Discharges less then 40gpm. Supplied by 3/4, 1 or 1 1/2" line.
Low Volume Stream
14
Supplied by 1 1/2" to 3" hose with flows from 40-350 gpm.
Handline Stream
15
Greater then 350gpm. Supplied by one or more 2 1/2" or 3" lines or LDH. Nozzle pressure of 80-100.
Master Stream
16
The minimum flow rate at which extinguishment can be achieved.
Critical Flow Rate
17
This indicates a specific pattern or shape the stream has as it leaves the nozzle.
The Type
18
Name the four types of fire streams.
Solid, Straight, Fog, Broken.
19
Stream as compact as possible. Has the ability to reach areas that other streams might not reach.
Ability to penetrate materials.
Solid Stream
 20
What two things determine the performance of a solid stream?
The velocity of the stream caused by the pump and the size of the nozzle orifice.
21
What nozzle psi can a solid stream handline be increased to when greater reach and volume are
needed?
65 psi
22
Exposes the max amount of water droplets to absorb heat. Performance is based on the amount of
heat the stream absorbs and the rate the water from the stream is converted into steam. Typically
has a nozzle pressure of 100 psi. Increases in nozzle pressure do not increase reach but may increase
flow.
Fog Stream
23
A semi solid stream that is produced by a fog nozzle.
Straight Stream
24
Stream of water that has been broken into coarsely divided drops.
Broken Stream
25
Name some characteristics of a broken stream.
Absorb more heat per gallon then a solid stream. Greater reach and penetration then a fog stream.
Effective on fires in confined spaces. May conduct electricity. Stream may not reach some fires.
26
Name five limiting factors of fire streams.
Gravity. Water Velocity. Fire stream pattern. Water droplet friction with air. Wind.
27
Effective forward velocity of the fire stream ranges from what to what? and at what range of nozzle
pressure?
60-120 feet per second. 25-100 nozzle pressure.
28
Under ideal circumstances what angel provides the max horizontal reach of a fire stream?
In actual operation what angle provides the max horizontal reach?
Ideal = 45 degrees. Actual = 30-34 degrees.
29
Standard for fire hose connections
NFPA 1963
30
What are the two categories of fire stream nozzles according to NFPA 1963 ?
Straight tip and Spray Nozzles
31
What are the three functions of any fire stream?
Controlling water flow. Creating reach. Shaping the fire stream.
32
The smooth bore nozzle tip should not be larger then what?
1/2 the diameter of the hose.
33
Can smooth bore nozzles be used to apply compressed-air foam?
Yes
 34
The length of a smooth bore nozzle is how many times bigger then its inside diameter?
1 to 1 1/2 times
35
The flow rate of a smooth bore nozzle depends on what two things?
The pressure at the tip and the size of opening at the tip.
36
What three patterns can fog nozzles be adjusted to?
Straight stream. Narrow angle fog. Wide angle fog.
37
Name the four types of fog nozzles used in the fire service.
Basic fog nozzle. Constant Gallonage fog nozzle. Constant Pressure (Automatic) fog nozzle.
Constant/Select gallonage fog nozzle.
38
A adjustable pattern fog nozzle in which the rate discharge is delivered at the designated nozzle
pressure and setting.
Basic Fog Nozzle
39
Discharges a constant discharge rate throughout the range of patterns from the straight stream to a
wide fog at a designated nozzle pressure.
Constant Gallonage Fog Nozzle.
40
The pressure remains relatively constant throughout a range of discharge rates.
Constant Pressure (Automatic) Fog Nozzle.
41
Allows manual adjustment of the orifice to effect a predetermined discharge rate while the nozzle is
flowing.
Typically allows adjustments from 10-250 gpm on handlines and 350-2500 gpm on master streams.
Also most have a flush setting.
Constant/Select Gallonage fog nozzle.
42
Automatic fog nozzles are designed for the following flow rates.
Low flow= 10 - 125 gpm
Mid-range flow = 70 - 200 gpm.
High Flows = 70 -350 gpm
Master streams = 350 - 1250 gpm.
43
Name three types of broken stream nozzles.
Piercing. Bresnan. Rockwood Cellar Pipes.
44
Used to access fires in concealed spaces. Can pierce stucco, block, wood, and lightweight steel.
Piercing Nozzle
45
Name two common cellar nozzles.
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Bresnan. Rockwood Cellar Pipe.
46
Name the three types of control valves found on a nozzle.
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Ball. Slide. Rotary Control
 47
Most common nozzle control valve. Provide effective nozzle control with minimal effort.
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Ball Valve.
48
T or F When a ball valve is used on a smooth bore nozzle, the turbulence caused by a partially open
valve may affect the quality of the solid stream?
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True
49
Seats a movable cylinder against a shaped cone to turn the flow of water off. As the handle is pulled
back the cylinder slides open permitting water to flow through the nozzle without creating
turbulence.
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Slide Valve
50
Found only on rotary control fog nozzles. This valve also controls the discharge pattern of the
stream. Commonly found in stand pipe cabinets attached to occupant hose. A exterior barrel is
rotated around a interior barrel to open flow and close flow. Think- garden hose attachment.
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Rotary Control Valve.
51
How often should nozzles be inspected?
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After each use and annually.
52
Up to what size of hoseline can one firefighter over come the nozzle reaction and maintain control?
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1 1/2"
53
Name four ways that firefigthing foam extinguishes and/or prevents ignition.
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Separating. Cooling. Smothering. Penetrating
54
Name two categories of flammable liquids that Class B foam is effective on.
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Hydrocarbons and Polar Solvents
55
Mixture of foam concentrate and water before air is added.
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Foam Solution
56
Complete foam product after air is introduced into the foam solution.
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Finished Foam
57
The increase in volume of foam when it is aerated.
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Foam Expansion
58
Name four factors that determine the foam expansion.
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Type of foam concentrate used. Accurate proportioning. Quality of foam concentrate. Method of
aeration.
59
Name the three classifications of foam based on there foam expansion.
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Low expansion (20-to 1 ratio). Medium expansion (20-to-1 to 200-to-1). High expansion (200-to-1 to
1000-to-1).
Ratio = finished foam-to-foam concentrate.
60
20-to-1 ratio. Effective in controlling and extingushing most class B fires. Effective for cooling and
penetrating class A fires.
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Low expansion foam
61
20-to-1 to 200-to-1 ratio. delivered through hydraulically operated nozzles. Used to suppress vapors
from haz mat at ratios of 30-to-1 and 55-to-1.
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Medium Expansion Foam
62
200-to-1 to 1000-to-1. Synthetic foaming agents created by high expansion foam generators. May be
used in confined spaces like ships, basements, mines, and aircraft hangers.
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High Expansion Foam
63
Contain surfactants that allow for water penetration. Can be applied using fog nozzles, air-aspirating
foam nozzles, medium and high expansion devices, and CAFS. Mildly corrosive. May insulate nearby
fuels preventing pyrolysis.
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Class A foam
64
Petro based combustible or flammable liquids that float on water. Examples: Crude oil, Fuel oil,
Gasoline, Benzene, Naptha, Jet Fuel, and Kerosene.
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Class B hydrocarbon fuels
65
Flammable liquids that mix readily with water. Examples: Alcohols, Acetone, Lacquer Thinner,
Ketones, Esters, and Acids.
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Class B Polar Solvent Fuels
66
Protein and fluoroprotien foams are festive as extinighushing agents and vapor suppressants on
hydrocarbon fuels. Why?
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Because they float on the surface of these fuels.
67
Alcohol Resistant foams are specially formulated for what?
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Polar Solvents.
68
Synthetic foam concentrate that, when combined with water, can form a complete barrier over fuel
spills and fires and is highly effective extingushing and blanketing agent on hydrocarbon fuels.
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Aqueous Film Forming Foam (AFFF)
69
Foam concentrate that combines the qualities of fluoroprotien foam with those of aqueous film
forming foam.
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Film Forming Fluoroprotien Foam (FFFP)
70
Minimum amount of foam that must be applied.
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Rate of application.
71
Name five variables that will affect class B foams rate of application.
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Type of concentrate used. If the fuel is on fire. Type of fuel involved (hydrocarbon/polar solvent).
Whether the fuel is spilled or contained in a tank. Whether the foam is applied via fixed or portable
equipment.
72
Having a thick sticky, adhesive consistency.
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Viscous
73
T or F Specialized foams are also for acids spills, pesticide fires, confined or enclosed space fires, and
deep seated class A fires. There are also foams designed specifically for un-ignited spills of hazardous
liquids.
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True
74
Mixing of the correct amount of water with foam concentrate to form a foam solution.
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Proportioning.
75
How much water is most firefighting foam intended to be mixed with?
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94-99.9%
76
What class of foam can be mixed in adjusted proportions to meet the intended needs of the foam.
Example: penetration or protection.
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Class A foam.
77
What percent are most class A foams mixed in?
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1% or less.
78
What are most class B foams mixed in?
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1% -6%
79
Some class B foams can be used on both hydrocarbon and polar solvents depending on the foam
concentrate. What are most class B foam proportioned at for hydrocarbon fuels? What are they
proportioned at for polar solvent fuels?
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Hydrocarbon = 3% Polar Solvent = 6%
80
Name five criteria for the selection of the foam proportioner equipment.
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Foam solution flow requirements. Available water pressure. Cost of the foam. Intended use for the
foam (truck, fixed, or portable). Foam agent to be used.
81
Are proportioners and delivery devices designed to work together?
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Yes
82
Name four ways that foam is proportioned.
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Eduction. Injection. Batch-mixing. Premixing.
83
What is the simplest method of mixing foam concentrate with water?
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Batch Mixing
84
What type of foam proportioning system is considered a one time use?
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Pre-mixing
85
Name three types of foam proportioning systems.
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Portable. Apparatus Mounted. Compressed Ai Foam Systems (CAFS).
86
What are the simplest and most commonly used proportioning devices in use today?
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Portable
87
Name two types of portable foam proportioning systems.
Upgrade To Pro
Inline foam Eductors and Foam Nozzle Eductors
88
What is the most common foam proportioner used in the fire service?
Upgrade To Pro
Inline foam eductor
89
The foam concentrate inlet to the educator should not be more then how many feet above the liquid
surface of the foam concentrate?
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6'
90
Eductor is built into the nozzle. Can compromise the safety of firefighters.
Upgrade To Pro
Foam nozzle eductor.
91
Name three types of apparatus mounted proportioners.
Upgrade To Pro
In-line eductors. Around the pump proportioners. Balanced Pressure Proportioners.
92
What is unique about a CAFS system?
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The hose line contains the finished foam.
93
Name some advantages of a CAFS system.
Upgrade To Pro
Stream reach is longer then with other foam systems. Hoselines are lighter. Foam produced is very
durable. Foam produced adheres well to vertical surfaces.
94
Name some disadvantages of a CAFS system.
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CAFS add expense and maintenance cost. Air pressure stored in the hoseline may cause a high nozzle
pressure when the nozzle is open. Additional training is required for firefighters and
driver/operators.
95
Limited as a foam nozzle to class A foam. Often used with CAFS.
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Smooth bore nozzles
96
Can be used with foam solution to produce a low expansion short acting foam. Best when used with
regular AFFF and class A foam. Can not be used with protein or fluorprotein foam. Can be used
with AFFF on hydrocarbon fuels but not polar solvent fuels.
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Fog Nozzle
97
Most effective appliance for the generation of low expansion foam. Inducts air into the foam solution
using the venturi principle. Designed to provide the aeration to make the highest quality of foam.
Must be used with protein and fluoroprotein foams. Also used with class A foam.
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Air-aspirating foam nozzle.
98
A foam concentrate cartridge is designed to equal how many gallons of foam concentrate? and treat
up to how many gallons of water?
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5 gallons concentrate. 660 gallons of water.
99
Name the two types of medium and high expansion foam generators.
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Water-aspirating type nozzle. Mechanical blower generator.
100
Similar to other foam nozzles except the back is open allowing air flow. Foam concentrate also hits a
screen or series of screens. Creates medium expansion foam.
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Water-aspirating type nozzle
101
Similar in appearance to a smoke ejector. A powered is fan is used to move air through the foam.
Associated with total flooding applications . Limited to high expansion foam.
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Mechanical Blower Generator
102
Name some reasons for failure to create a foam stream.
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Eductor and nozzle flow rating do not match. Air leaks at fittings. Improper cleaning causing clogs.
Nozzle is not fully open. Hose lay on the discharge side of the eductor is to long, creating excess back
pressure and causing reduced foam pick up from the eductor. Hose is kinked or restricted. Nozzle is
to far above the eductor. Different types of foam concentrate mixed in same tank causing a mixture
that is to viscous to pass through the eductor.
103
Name the three methods used to apply Class B foam to a liquid fuel fire or spill.
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Roll on. Bank Down. Rain Down
104
Foam application techniques used only on a pool of ignited or unignited liquid fuel on open ground.
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Roll On Method
105
Foam application method used primarily on fires contained in diked pools around storage tanks and
fires involving spills around damaged or overturned transport vehicles.
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Bank Down Method
106
Foam application method that is the primary technique used on above ground storage tank fires.
Small fires = sweep. Large fires = one area at a time.
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Rain Down Method
107
Why should caution be used in making sure foam doesn't enter bodies of water?
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Foam is broken down by environmental bacteria. Bacteria use the available O2. If the bacteria are
using the O2, the fish have none.
108
The less O2 used to degrade a particular foam means what?
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The more environmentally friendly the foam is.
109
Who approves class A foams for environmental suitability in the USA?
Upgrade To Pro
U.S. Dept of Agriculture Forest Service.
110
What type of class B foams are generally safer for the environment?
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Protein based foams.

Chapter 17 Fire Control Flashcards Preview

1
What three criteria help determine the tactics in a interior offensive fire strategy?
Value. Time. Size.
2
Is intended to isolate or stabilize an incident and keep it from spreading.
Defensive strategy
3
Name four conditions when a defensive strategy would be chosen on a structure fire.
Excessive Volume of Fire. Structural Deterioration. Risk Outweighs the Benefit. Unfavorable Wind
Conditions.
4
What strategy might be employed while waiting for more firefighters/resources to arrive?
Defensive to Offensive.
5
Employed when a situation rapidly changes. Follow with a PAR check.
Offensive to Defensive.
6
What type of withdrawal would involve leaving hose lines in place?
Emergency Evacuation ( if absolutely necessary)
7
Coordination between crews performing different tactics or task is what?
Crucial
8
Name three ways to maintain situational awareness.
Look, Listen, Communicate
9
Hoseline selection is depended on fire conditions and what other factors?
Fire load and material involved. Flow rate needed for extinguishment. Stream reach needed. Number
of firefighters needed to advance lines. Need for speed or mobility. Tactical requirements. Ease of
hoseline deployment. Potential Fire Spread. Size of Building. Size of Fire Area. Location of fire.
10
What is the minimum size hoseline that should be used on a interior fire attack?
1 1/2"
11
Name three functions of the back up hoseline.
Protect attack team from extreme fire behavior. Protect the means of egress for the attack team.
Provide additional fire suppression in the event the fire increases in volume.
12
What size, flow rate, and nozzle type should a back up line be?
At least the same size and flow rate as the attack line, with a fog nozzle for protection.
13
Hose of 3/4" to 2" in diameter. Used for firefighting.
Small Diameter Hose Line (SDH)
14
Name four criteria that will determine the nozzle and stream selection.
Fire Conditions. Available water supply. Number of firefighters available to safely operate the hose
line. Capabilities of the nozzle being used.
15
What nozzle is typically the most useful for a interior fire attack?
Fog nozzle.
16
If a fire attack is going to be made from the structures exterior, a solid stream nozzle may be the best
option. Why?
Because it delivers the greatest amount of water over the farthest distance.
17
Attack line are generally placed to protect firefighter, occupants, and property. Name some other
considerations to take when placing a attack line.
Wind Direction and Velocity. Building Construction. Initial Fire Location. Location of Occupants.
Exposures.
18
List pre-entry considerations for firefighter safety and effectiveness.
Read fire behavior indicators. Understand tactical assignment. Identify egress. Evaluate forcible
entry requirements. Identify hazards. Verify working radios and channel. Ensure SCBA is ready.
Ensure PASS is ready. Do a buddy check.
19
Name three ways you can check if a door is hot before entering it.
Back of hand. TIC. Spray water on it.
20
The following two factors have changed the fire services understanding of fire behavior in structure
fires.
Greater heat release rate of modern building materials and modern furnishings. Increased effect of
wind on fire expansion and development.
21
Where should the wind be when you attar a fire?
At your back.
22
Name three fire attack methods.
Direct, indirect, combination
23
Attack method that involves the discharge of water or foam onto the burning fuel.
Direct
24
Form of fire attack that involves directing a fog stream at the ceiling in order to generate large
amount of steam.
Indirect Attack
25
Attack method that extinguishes fire by using direct and indirect attack at the same time. Move
nozzle in a Z, T, or Rotational pattern.
Combination Attack
26
A fire that is located in a remote part of the structure or hidden from view by objects in the
compartment.
Shielded Fire
27
What type of fire is gas cooling effective with?
Shielded Fire
28
How should a fire be attacked in a muti story structure without stand pipes?
Through main entrance, up closet stairway to the fire location.
29
T or F Some departments allow elevators to transport personnel, equipment, and tools to the staging
area (usually 2 floors below the fire floor)?
True
30
In a unfinished basement the first floor joist will fail quicker due to what?
No protection from drywall.
 31
Factors that contribute to basement fires.
Fuel load, especially on the floor above. Age of exposed joist. Hidden fire paths in walls and ducts.
Use of lightweight construction materials that are susceptible to rapid collapse.
32
Test have shown that floor joist may fail before the fire burn through what?
The floor decking.
33
UL test indicated that sounding the floor and using a TIC were not good indicators of floor stability.
What must be inspected after the fire is out?
Visual inspection of floor joist.
34
If any exterior opening to the basement exist, use it to do what? Before entering.
Apply water and ventilate
35
Name three things that will influence firefighting tactics n a commercial basement fire.
Stand pipe connections. Ventilation and air flow paths. Amount of breathing air needed.
36
Name two forms of passive exposure protection.
Fire rated walls and doors
37
When performing exposure protection, the direct application of water is better then what?
A water curtain
38
What is the primary location for shutting power off?
The electric meter
39
Any voltage higher then 600 volts.
High Voltage
40
When these things are present removing the meter or shutting off the master switch may not turn the
power off entirely.
Alternative energy sources
41
Most solar panels have two shut off switches, where are they most likely located?
One on each side of the power inverter.
42
Pure form it is methane. Flammability range of 5-15%. Nontoxic. Lighter then air. May displace O2
in confined spaces, considered a asphyxiate.
Natural Gas
43
Name two gases that are considered Liquefied Petroleum Gas (LPG).
Butane and Propane
44
No odor of its own. Asphyxiate. One and half times heavier then air. Explosive in ranges of 1.5-10%.
A leak will produce a visible cloud of vapor that hugs the ground. A vapor cloud can be dissipated
with a fog nozzle of at least 100gpm. Valve located on the line entering the structure and on the
storage tank.
LPG Liquefied Petroleum Gas
 45
Why should caution be used when touching water pipes?
Ground wire may run on them.
46
What make a structure a protected structure?
Having some type of fire protection system.
47
Name four types of indicating valves that may be used on a sprinkler system.
OS&Y. Post Indicator Valve (PIV). Wall Post Indicator Valve (WPIV). Post Indicator Valve
Assembly (PIVA)
48
Threaded portion is visible when the valve is open.
OS&Y
49
Post that contains a movable plate with the words OPEN and SHUT.
Post Indicator Valve. PIV
50
Similar to a PIV except it extends horizontally through the wall.
Wall Post Indicator Valve
51
Uses a flat disk. When the valve is open the disk is perpendicular to the surrounding plate. When the
valve is closed the plate is inline with the plate surrendering it. Operated with a built in crank.
Post Indicator Valve Assembly (PIVA)
52
Name the four main uses of master streams.
Direct attack. Indirect attack. Supplement exterior handlines. Exposure protection.
53
Where should a master stream be placed?
In a location that allows the stream to cover the most surface area of a building, especially where
large volume of water or needed and limited master streams are available.
54
Except for apparatus deck guns, how many firefighters would it take to deploy a master stream and
the hose?
At least 2.
55
One firefighter should be placed at the master stream unless what?
It is placed in a hazardous area.
56
Any voltage greater then 40 volts is dangerous, however if water must be applied it should be done
how?
Upgrade To Pro
From a distance with a fog or spray stream.
57
When should a ground cover fire started by downed power lines be extinguished?
Upgrade To Pro
When the fire leaves the point of contact.
58
Where are polychlorinated biphenyls (PCB's) found and what are there dangers?
Upgrade To Pro
Older, oil field transformers. Flammable and carcinogenic.
 59
Even transformers marked as not containing PCB's can contain up to how much PCB's?
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Up to 49 ppm
60
How should fires in ground transformers be extinguished?
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With a dry chem or carbon dioxide extinguisher.
61
How far away should firefighters and personnel stay away from a underground transmission system
that has the potential to explode?
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300' and don't park apparatus on access covers.
62
When can firefighters enter a underground electrical utility vault?
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After a qualified person has shut off the power. All firefighting operations should take place outside
until then.
63
Should fog streams be used in high voltage energized equipment fires?
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No
64
When searching a room with high voltage equipment what must be worn?
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Full PPE, SCBA, and a tag line.
65
How should a room with high voltage equipment be searched?
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Clenched fist, using the back of the hand-this reduces a reflex action of grabbing.
66
Name six factors that affect the seriousness of a electrical shock.
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Path of electricity. Degree of skin resistance (wet = low, dry = high). Length of exposure. Available
current (AMPS). Available voltage. Frequency (AC or DC).
67
What is the first rule in dealing with electrical equipment.
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Assume it is live until proven otherwise.
68
Ground gradient is like what?
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A ripple of water. Step in one ripple and a separate one and you may get shocked.
69
Standard on Protective Ensembles for Structural Fire Fighting and Proximity Fire Fighting.
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NFPA 1971
70
What two problems are faced with Class D fires?
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They burn at extremely high temps, they react with water.
71
How hot are combustible metal fires?
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greater then 2000 degrees
72
The first act of after arriving on the scene of a vehicle accident is to do what?
Upgrade To Pro
Decide is traffic needs to be diverted and request assistance.
73
What is the minimum amount a gpm that should be used to attack a vehicle fire?
Upgrade To Pro
95 gpm
74
T or F A back up hose line should be deployed ASAP on vehicle fires?
Upgrade To Pro
True
75
Name four visual indicators that a vehicle uses alternative fuel.
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Vehicle Logo, Fuel-specific logo. Special fuel ports. Distinctive vehicle profiles.
76
Name four considerations for responding on alternative fuel vehicle accidents.
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Park 100' away. Use non sparking tools. Do not use flares. Select extinguishing agent for the specific
type of fuel.
77
How do you handle CNG vehicle accidents?
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No fire = Use gas detector to locate leaks. Shut off valves. Eliminate ignition sources. Stay clear of
vapor clouds.
Fire= allow fuel to burn itself out. Use water or foam to extinguish if necessary. Use fog stream to
disperse fog cloud. Avoid contact with releasing gas.
78
What temp is LNG stored at? What does front on the outside of storage tank indicate?
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-260 F, tank failure.
79
How do you handle LPG vehicle accidents?
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No fire= stabilize vehicle, turn off ignition, shut off gas cylinder valve.
Fire = Avoid contact. Stay clear of vapor clouds. Shut off ignition to stop the fuel flow to a leak or
fire. Use purple K dry-chem or high expansion foam on the surface of a LPG fire. Use sand and dirt
to prevent LPG from entering storm drains.
80
The third most common vehicle fuel after gas and diesel.
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LPG (propane) (safer then gas)
81
How fast does LPG expand when heated?
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1.5 times for every 10 degrees in temp.
82
How do you handle LPG vehicle accidents?
Upgrade To Pro
Allow fire to self extinguish. Use foam or water if extingushment must be performed. Direct streams
at the top of the LPG tank for cooling. Stay clear of vapor clouds
83
How do handle vehicle accidents in electric vehicles?
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No fire = secure vehicle, turn off ignition, remove key.
Fire = Full PPE and SCBA. Don't touch liquids. Do not approach if it is on fire or arching. Establish
scene security and protect exposures.
84
How long may it take for a electric vehicle to de-energize after being shut off?
Upgrade To Pro
up to 5 minutes
85
Gasoline blends. Burn with a bright blue, may be hard to see during the day. Use a TIC to locate
flames and fire. Use a Alcohol Resistant Class B foam to extinguish fire. Request a Haz-mat team
with fires and leaks.
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Ethanol/Methanol
86
Yellow in color. slightly lighter then water. Flash point of 266 F. If on fire use dry chem, CO2, water
fog spray, or foam to extinguish.
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Biodiesel
87
Self ignition of 550 F. Flammability range of 4-75%. Flame is invisible during the day so use a TIC.
Shut off ignition, isolate from ignition sources. chock wheels. Do not extinguish the fire. Protect
exposures and let fuel burn. Do not cut C post which contains vents.
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Hydrogen.
88
Name the three main influences on ground cover fires.
Upgrade To Pro
Fuel. Weather (most significant). Topography
89
Name the three basic types of ground cover fires.
Upgrade To Pro
Ground, Surface. Crown
90
Burn in the layer of dead organic matter (called humus. Slow moving. Can go undetected for months
before entering a flaming stage. Very difficult to extinguish.
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Ground Fire
91
Sometimes called a crawling fire. Most common type of ground cover fire. Burns low lying grass,
shrubs, and other vegitation.
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Surface Fire.
92
Wind driven high intensity fires that move through the tree tops. Caused by lighting or extension of
other ground fires. Ladder fires (may be a fourth type of ground cover fire) because it moves up
small trees, fallen timber, and vines.
Upgrade To Pro
Crown Fire
93
Roots, peat, other partially decomposed organic matter lies under the surface of he ground.
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Subsurface fuel
94
Needles, twigs, grass, brush up to 6', small trees.
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Surface fuels
95
Fuels physically separated from the ground enough to where air can circulate around them.
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Aerial fuels
96
Name five factors that affect the burning characteristics of ground cover fires.
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Fuel size. Compactness. Continuity. Volume. Fuel Moisture Content.
97
Name four weather factors that influence ground cover fires.
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Wind. Temperature (long term drying). Relative Humidity. Precipitation (mainly with live fuels).
98
Name three topography factors that effect ground cover fires.
Upgrade To Pro
Aspect ( compass direction a slope faces, determines the affects of solar heating). Local Terrain
Features (canyons, ridges, ravines, rock outcroppings may alter airflow causing turbulence or
eddies.) Drainage's (Cause a chimney effect with winds, rapid fire spread).
99
Standard on Protective Clothing and Equipment for Wildland Fire Fighting.
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NFPA 1977
100
What is the minimum equipment a firefighter should have for ground cover fires?
Upgrade To Pro
Helmet with eye protection and neck shroud. Flame retardant shirt and pants. Protective footwear
(no steel toe). Gloves. Fire Shelter (in crush restive case).
101
The methods to attack a ground cover fire revolve around what?
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Perimeter control
102
The direct and indirect attack are the two basic methods of attacking ground cover fires. Describe
each.
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Direct = action taken against the flames at the edge or parallel to it.
Indirect = Control line is constructed some distance from the edge of the main fire, and the fuel in
between the two lines is burned. Used on fires that are to hot, big, or fast.
103
The situational awareness acronym LCES stands for what?
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L= Lookouts C = Communications E= Escape Routes S= Safety Zone
 104
Where are lookouts placed.
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In areas that they can see the fire without being in front of it.
105
In ground cover fires what is a escape route?
Upgrade To Pro
A marked path that leads to a safety zone. Should be located in the burned area if it has cooled
enough.
106
In 957 the US dept of Agricultural Forest Service develop what?
Upgrade To Pro
The TEN STANDER FIRE FIGHTING ORDERS.
107
What are the 10 standard fire fighting orders?
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1. Keep informed on weather conditions. 2. Know what the fire is doing. 3. Base all actions on current
and expected fire behavior. 4. Identify and know escape routes and safety zones. 5. Post look outs
when there is possible danger. 6. Be alert, keep calm, think clearly, act decisively. 7. Maintain prompt
communication. 8. Give and understand instructions. 9. Maintain control of your forces. 10. Fight
fire aggressively, providing for safety first.
108
If you feel an indication that lighting is about to strike what should you do?
Upgrade To Pro
drop to your knees, bend forward putting your hands on your knees. Do not lay flat.
109
RECEO-VS
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Rescue. Exposures. Confinment. Extinguishment. Overhaul. Ventilation. Salvage
110
Name the four search priorities.
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The area most severely threatened. The area with the largest number of threatened. Remainder of
fire area. Exposures.
111
To aggressively attack a fire from the exterior with a large diameter (2 1/2" or larger) fire stream.
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Blitz Attack
112
A blitz attack must be coordinated with other operations to avoid what?
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Spreading the fire to other parts of the structure.
113
What equipment should a RIT team have?
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A radio. Full PPE and SCBA. Special rescue tools. A spare SCBA bottle.
114
Name some task the RIT team should perform.
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Stage equipment. Size up building for egress. Complete a 360. Remove egress barriers. Monitor radio
for distress calls. Clear windows. Place ladders. Open exits. Illuminate building.
115
When Nothing Showing (aka. Investigation mode) is announced upon arrival where should incoming
units stage?
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Predetermined portions or at the last intersection in there route of travel.
116
When the officer or firefighters direct involvement is necessary for the unit to take immediate action
to save a life or stabilize the situation.
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Fast Attack
117
A fast attack will continue until one of these three things happen.
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Incident is stabilized. Incident is not stabilized, crews withdraw, officer establishes formal command.
Command is transferred.
118
Involves the officer performing multiple task such as serving as IC, developing a IAP, and
performing active task. (advance hos line).
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Combat Command
119
Involves the officer remaining at the mobile radio in the apparatus, assigning task to unit personnel,
communicating with other responding units, and expanding the NIMS-ICS as needed.
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Formal Command
120
Name two ways command can be transferred.
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Face-to face. Over radio to on scene person.
121
The single most important factor in safely operating at underground space emergency's is what?
Upgrade To Pro
Recognizing the inherit hazards of confined spaces.
122
Name some atmospheric and physical hazards that are expected in underground spaces.
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O2 deficiencies. Flammable gas and vapor. Toxic Gas. Extreme Temps. Explosive Dust. Limited
means of entry/ egress. Cave ins or unstable supports. Standing water or other liquids. Utility
Hazards.
123
Firefighters must not be allowed to enter a underground space until what?
Upgrade To Pro
A IAP has been developed and communicated.
124
Flammable liquids can be ignited with out what?
Upgrade To Pro
Being preheated
125
What is the first action with dealing with flammable and combustible liquids and gases?
Upgrade To Pro
Determine the wind direction
126
Flammable/combustible liquid fires burning around relief valves and piping must not be
extinguished until what?
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The leak is controlled
127
What is a indication that a vessel is overheating and may rupture.
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A increase in intensity of sound from the relief valve.
128
For a BLEVE to occur the contents must be above what?
Upgrade To Pro
There boiling point.
129
What is the most common cause of a BLEVE?
Upgrade To Pro
When flames contact the tank shell above the liquid level and when insufficient water is applied to
keep it cool.
130
What must be worn when entering a area where a non water based suppression system has been
activated?
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SCBA
131
Name three uses of water on class C fires.
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Cooling Agent. Mechanical Tool. Crew Protection
132
NFPA requires how many gpm on a vessel that has flame impingement?
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At least 500 gpm at each flame impingement point.
133
What angle should a pressurized storage tank be approached from?
Upgrade To Pro
There is no known safe angle to approach from.
134
On vehicle fires what should be done to prevent run off entering storm drains?
Upgrade To Pro
They should be blocked.
135
What is the range of pressure in a natural gas systems?
Upgrade To Pro
From 1000 psi in the distribution network to 0.25 psi at the point of use.
136
What is the natural gas pressure normally in the local distribution piping?
Upgrade To Pro
below 50 psi
137
What is the the common cause of natural gas pipe breaks?
Upgrade To Pro
Excavation equipment.
138
If a broken gas line is burning should the flame be extinguished?
Upgrade To Pro
No, protect exposures.

Chapter 18 Loss Control Flashcards Preview

1
If not careful, fire suppression can cause more damage then what?
The initial fire.
2
Activities performed before, during, and after a fire has been extingushed to minimize loss to
property.
Loss Control
3
Consist of operations associated with firefighting that aid in the reducing of primary and secondary
damage.
Salvage.
4
Operations that involve searching and extinguishing hidden or remaining fire after the main body of
fire is extinigushed.
Overhaul
5
Loss control concerns to address in pre-incident plans include what?
Access. Evacuation. Location of vital records and how to protect them. When and how fire
suppression systems should be supported. How to protect building contents from smoke and water.
6
Special pre-incident plans should be developed for what?
Businesses with high value contents.
7
The most import aspect of fire dept loss control.
Salvage
8
How many salvage covers or needed per room on average if all contents are grouped together?
One
9
If salvage covers are limited it is a good idea to make what out of them? So that water can be directed
to the floor.
Chutes and catchalls.
10
Name five ways that large quantities of water can be removed.
Locate and clean clogged drains. Remove toilet fixtures. Create Scuppers (hole in wall to exterior),
Use existing sanitary piping system. Create chutes to route water to other areas.
11
Name two materials salvage covers are made from.
Vinyl and canvas.
12
How is a canvas salvage cover cleaned?
Water it down and scrub with a broom. If needed use a detergent and rinse off. Should be completely
dry prior to folding and storing.
13
Can synthetic salvage covers be folded when wet?
Yes, but it is best to let them dry so they do not mildew.
14
Name some typical tools and equipment used in salvage operations.
Electrical, mechanical, plumbing, and general carpentry tools. Mops, squeegees, and buckets.
15
Pumps used to remove water from basements, elevator shafts, and sumps.
Dewatering devices
16
Use in removing water quickly from area that are not deep enough for a pump. Back pack models
carry 4-5 gallons. Roller models carry up to 20 gallons.
Upgrade To Pro
Water Vaccum
17
Designed to be driven into walls or wooden framing to provide a strong point from which to hang
objects.
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J hook
18
Same use as J hooks but need a horizontal ledge to sit on.
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S hooks
19
A salvage cover rolled for a one firefighter spread may be carried how?
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On the shoulder or under the arm.
20
A salvage cover folded for a one firefighter spread is carried how?
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On the shoulder is most convenient, but and safe method is acceptable.
21
How should a two firefighter folded salvage cover be carried?
Upgrade To Pro
On the shoulder with the open edge facing the neck.
22
What is the most effective way to deploy a two fire fighter salvage cover?
Upgrade To Pro
Balloon throw.
23
One of the most practical ways of removing water that come through the ceiling from upper floors.
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Water chutes.
24
How much water can a properly constructed catchall hold?
Upgrade To Pro
Several hundred gallons.
25
What should be developed as soon as a catchall is constructed?
Upgrade To Pro
A plan to remove the water.
26
A opening in a floor should be made of what?
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Lumber or thick plywood that will support a persons weight.
27
Name the four activities that are included in overhaul.
Upgrade To Pro
Search for and extinguish hidden or remaining fire. Place building and contents in safe condition.
Determine fire cause. Recognize and preserve arson evidence.
28
Who should authorize the beginning of overhaul?
Upgrade To Pro
The IC and investigator.
29
During overhaul if a potential hazardous area is identified it should be what?
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Marked and barricaded.
30
If resources allow, firefighters who were not involved in rescue or fire control should do what?
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Overhaul
31
What four things can be used to detect hidden fires?
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Sight. Touch. Sounds. Electrical Sensors.
32
Where does overhaul typically begin.
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In the area with the most fire involvement.
33
If opening must be made in a structure, how should they be made?
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In a neat and planned manner that reduces the amount of repair work.
34
Some plaster ceilings have wire mesh. When removing this what should be remembered.
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It may come down in larger pieces.
35
When pulling ceiling where should you be positioned and what should you be wearing?
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Positioned between what your pulling and a door for exit. Wearing full PPE.
36
Standard on Thermal Imagers for the Fire Service.
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NFPA 1801
37
TI's may not provided quality images of items behind what?
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Reflective materials. (metal, mirrors, glass)
38
TI's can not see heat through what?
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A cooler object. (Insulation may cover a heat signature)
 Chapter 19 Fire Origin And Cause
Determination Flashcards Preview
1
Name three responsibilitys of every firefighter when dealing with fire cause.
recognize the area of origin. Note indicators of fire cause. Protect Physical evidence.
2
The ........is the general location where the fire began. It will contain the precise ........... where ignition
took place.
Area of Origin. Point of Origin.
3
All debris should remain in place until what?
There are orders to move it.
4
When a area of origin can not be found what should firefighters do?
Delay overhaul. Protect the scene. Establish scene security.
5
Name fire indicators to help determine the path of fire spread and area of origin.
Fire patterns. Melted metal and glass. Degree of damage to structure and contents.
6
Areas of heavily charred flooring indicate what?
That a fuel burned at that location.
7
Charring on vertical surfaces of walls, closed doors, and objects will face what direction?
Toward the area or point of origin.
8
When dealing with ground cover fires you should know how these three things affect fire behavior.
Wind. Topography. Natural fuels.
9
T or F On flat ground with a consistent fuel bed and no wind, a fire would burn equally in all
directions, and the point of origin would be in the center of the circular fire pattern.
True
10
With ground cover fires the area of origin may display evidence of what, when compared to the head
or leading edge of the fire.
slower and less intense fire growth.
11
What direction will grass fall when it burns?
Toward the area of origin.
12
Will have sufficient temp and energy and be in contact with the fuel long enough to raise it to its
ignition temp.
Competent Ignition Source
13
History of the fire, beginning when the ignition source and the first fuel ignited meet at the area of
origin, and proceeding through the entire duration of fire spread through the scene.
Ignition Sequence
14
Four cause can be these four types.
Accidental. Natural. Incendiary. Undetermined.
15
Fire cause that happens when humans are not involved in the ignition process.
Natural
16
Fire cause that is intentionally set under circumstances in which the responsible party knows that the
fire should not be ignited.
Incendiary
17
The most obvious sign of fire cause will be the what?
Ignition Source
18
A firefighter take note of these four things and report it to a investigator.
Time of Day. Weather and Natural Hazards. Man-made Barriers. People leaving the Scene.
19
Combustible material, such as rolled rags, blankets, newspapers, or flammable liquid, often used in
intentionally set fires in order to spread fire from one area to other points or areas.
Trailer
20
Most incendiary devices leave what?
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Evidence of their existence.
21
List several additional factors firefighters should note on a fire scene.
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Time of day and extent of fire. Wind direction and velocity. Doors and windows locked or unlocked.
Location of the fire. Containers or cans. Burglar tools. Familiar faces. Unusual odors. Abnormal fire
behavior when water is applied. Obstacles. Incendiary devices. Trailers. Structural alterations. Fire
patterns. Heat intensity. Availability of documents. Fire detection and protection systems. Intrusion
alarm. Location of fire (are there multiple?). Personal possessions. Household items. Equipment or
inventory. Business records.
22
Who is responsible for preserving evidence?
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All fire officers and fire fighters on scene.
23
What is the first step in establishing a chain of custody?
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Scene security.
24
What two things make a fire scene secure?
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A recognizable perimeter and a person to maintain that perimeter.
25
On incidents like a injury or fatality a police officer should be assigned to do what?
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Document who enters and exits the perimeter.
26
If a scene is considered criminal a investigator may institute what four things?
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Log all person who enter and exit. Permit access to authorized individuals only. Have firefighter
move outside the perimeter to a staging area after there task is completed. Ensure that those brought
into the area are escorted. Mark potential evidence so it is not disturbed.
27
What should be done if personnel are still operating and there is potential to damage evidence?
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A investigator or firefighter should be stationed by the evidence.
28
Nonessential overhaul operations should be delayed until when?
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Until the IC or investigator authorize it.
29
General term referring to anything that can taint physical evidence.
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Contamination
30
What is the final activity before securing a structure?
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Remove debris from the structure. (if local protocol allows it)
31
Term that refers to evidence that is destroyed, damaged, altered, or otherwise not present by
someone who has the responsibility for the evidence.
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Spoliation
32
Dumping debris on what, is easy to clean up, protects the driveway and yard, and is good for public
relations.
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Inexpensive plastic tarps.
33
Any means of proof that may be present to prove or disprove a certain hypothesis.
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Evidence
34
Name three types of evidence.
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Direct. Circumstantial. Physical.
35
Composed of fact to which a person can attest without further support. Found through the five
physical senses.
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Direct Evidence
36
Evidence that tends to prove a factual matter through inference by proving other events.
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Circumstantial Evidence.
37
Includes physical objects available for inspection.
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Physical evidence.
38
List some items of evidence and information that the investigator might find.
Upgrade To Pro
Separate Fires. Timing Devices. Trailers. Chemicals. Matches. Ignitable Liquids. Bottles. Rubber or
latex items. Containers. Glass. Lighters. Electrical sources. Modified Equipment. Items that should
not be present and items that should be present but are missing. Oily rags. Fire patterns.
39
In most jurisdictions who has the legal responsibility for determining the origin and cause of a fire?
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The fire chief. (he may delegate it to a officer or firefighter on scene).
40
Who is in the best position to observe unusual fire conditions that may indicate a incendiary fire?
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First arriving firefighters.
41
Who is responsible for conducting detailed investigations and analysis beyond the initial origin and
cause?
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Fire Marshall, Fire investigator, Fire inspector.
42
Name three cases where a firefighter may have to assist in a fire investigation.
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When fire cause can not be determined. When there is a fatality. When a incendiary fire is suspected.
43
What does a insurance adjuster do?
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Visit the incident site. Collect police and fire reports. Create Diagrams. Interview Witnesses. Take
photos of the scene.
44
Is it uncommon g for each investigation group to compare their findings and hypotheses of origin
and cause?
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No
45
Right of entry stating that the fire department does not require a warrant to enter a property to
suppress a fire, or to remain on the property for a reasonable amount of time afterward in order to
determine the origin and cause of the fire.
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Exigent Circumstances
46
What must be obtained to remove property from a fire scene?
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A warrant or consent by the owner.
47
If a individual is the focus of a criminal fire cause that person must have what done before taking
them into custody or interviewing them?
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Advised of their rights.
48
Name five legal issues of evidence preservation.
Upgrade To Pro
Right of entry. Search and seizure. Statements and the Miranda warning. Chain of custody
and continuity of evidence. Spoliation.
 Chapter 20 Fire Protection
Systems Flashcards Preview
1
Provide notification of an emergency condition to building occupants and in some cases the local
emergency response organization.
Fire alarm systems
2
System component that receives input from automatic and manual fire alarm devices and may
provide power to detection devices or communication devices.
Fire alarm control panel (FACP)
3
Either manually operated or automatic Automatic sense the products of combustion or other
hazardous conditions. Send a signal to the FACP.
Initiating devices
4
List six examples of local notification devices.
Bells. Horns. Recorded voice message. Strobe Light. Speakers. Buzzers.
5
Name the four categories that notification devices fall under.
Audible. Visual. Textual. Tactile. (all can be used in combination)
6
What items may be located in the Fire Command Center (FCS)?
Fire alarm control panel. Smoke control station. Fire pump status indicators. Emergency elevator
controls. Emergency communication systems. Spare sprinklers and fuses. Building plans and system
diagrams.
7
Alarm system that alerts and notifies only occupants on the premises of the existence of a fire so that
they can safely exit the building and call the fire dept. If a response by police or fire is needed, an
occupant must notify the wanted agency.
Protected premises system (local alarm system).
8
Name the three types of local alarm systems.
Noncoded. Zoned/annunciated. Addressable
9
The simplest type of local alarm. If one alarm goes off they all go off. Only practical in small
buildings.
Noncoded alarm.
10
A general location/ zone of what device was activated is given.
Zoned/annunciated alarm.
11
Displays the location of each initiating device. Can pinpoint the specific location of the initiating
device.
Addressable alarm system
12
Continuously monitors a remote location for the purpose of reporting a supervisory, trouble, or
alarm signal to the appropriate authorities. Predominant type of signal monitoring in the US.
Supervising Station Alarm Systems
 13
List the four types of supervising station systems.
Auxiliary alarm system. Central station system. Proprietary system. Remote receiving systems.
14
System that is connected to a municipal fire alarm system. Alarms are transmitted to the public fire
telecommunication center and appropriate agency is dispatched. Two types: Local energy System &
Shunt System.
Auxiliary alarm system.
15
Auxiliary fire alarm system that has its own power source. Served by the municipal fire alarm box
system.
Local Energy System
16
Auxiliary fire alarm system that is directly connected to the municipal alarm system. Alarms are
automatically initiated over the municipal system.
Shunt System
17
Used to protect large buildings or multiple buildings. Alarms go to a common receiving building that
is staffed with personnel who can take appropriate action when a alarm is sounded. Owned and
operated by the property owners.
Proprietary System
18
Monitored by a contract service. (Alarm company)
Central Station System
19
System in which alarm signals from the protected premises are transmitted over a leased telephone
line or by radio signal to a remote receiving station with a 24-hour staff; usually the fire depts alarm
communication center.
Remote Receiving System
20
Identify the presence of fire or products of combustion and send a signal to the alarm system. Can be
manual or automatic.
Alarm initiating device
21
A manual pull station is required to have what incorporated in its design?
It must be red with white lettering that species what the device is and how to use it.
22
Alarm initiating device that is designed to be responsive to a predetermined rate of temp or to
predetermined temp level.
Heat Detectors
23
Name the two types of heat detectors.
Fixed temp. Rate of rise
24
What detectors have the least false activation's and are also the slowest to activate?
Fixed temp heat detectors.
25
What is the common set temp for a fixed temp detector in living spaces? For attics or other areas
subject to elevated temps?
165 F. 200 F.
26
Name three types of fixed temp heat detectors mechanisms.
Expansion of heated material. Melting of heated material. Changes in resistance of heated material.
27
A fragile bulb contains liquid and a air bubble. When the liquid is heat what happens?
The air bubble is absorbed and the glass breaks.
28
What type of initiating device mechanism may still be in use but is no longer made.
Frangible bulb
29
Can detect heat over a linear area parallel to the detector.
Continuous line detector.
30
A continuous line detector that continuous of a inner core and sheath that are separated by a
electrically insulating semiconductor. When the temp increase the electrical flow increase causing a
alarm initiation. This device will...... when the temp decreases.
reset (tubing type continuous line detector)
31
A type of continuous line detector that has two wires each with insulation. When the insulation melts
the circuit is complete causing a what? Must be replaced to be reset.
Alarm initiation. (Wire-type continuous line detector)
32
Heat detector that uses two metals bonded together each having a different thermal expansion temp.
When one is heated it bends either making or breaking a circuit. Most will reset when cooled but
need to be inspected.
Bimetallic detector.
33
Temperature sensitive device that sounds an alarm when the temp changes at a preset value, such as
12 f to 15 f in one minute. Automatically reset if undamaged.
Rate of rise heat detector.
34
A rate of rise heat detector is reliable except when.
Installed next to a door in a AC building on a hot day.
35
Name four types of rate of rise heat detectors.
Pneumatic rate of rise line heat detector. Pneumatic rate of rise spot detector. Rate compensated
detector. Electronic spot type heat detector.
36
Used to monitor large areas of buildings. Tubing that contains air that can expand. Tubing contains
a diaphragm that will respond if the air expansion is greater then the preset relief vent. Tubing
should not be more then 1000' and should be in rows no more then 30' apart and 15' from walls.
Pneumatic rate of rise line heat detector.
37
Self contained single unit that monitors one specific location. Operates on same principle as
pneumatic rate of rise line heat detector.
Pneumatic rate of rise spot detector.
38
Designed for use in areas that have regular temp changes. Has a outer sleeve with two metallic bowed
struts inside. When heated at the right rate the outer sleeve expands, this cause the inner strips to
touch, initiating a alarm. If the rate of rise is slow such as 5 f to 6 f per minute the expansion is slow
and the inner struts can compensate. May have a predetermined temp that when reached will
activate a alarm no matter the rate of rise.
Rate compensated detector.
39
Consist of one or more temp sensitive wires called thermistors that produce a marked changed in
electrical resistance when heated. Greater temp change results in larger amounts of current flow.
Can be designed as rate of rise detectors or fixed temp. Designed to bleed small amounts of current.
Electronic spot type heat detector.
40
Usually installed in nonresidential and large multifamily residences. Only capable of detecting, must
send a signal to another alarm device.
Smoke detectors
41
Typically installed in single family and smaller multifamily residences. Can detect and alarm.
Smoke Alarms
42
Why is the smoke detector the preferred type of detector in many residences?
It will sense products of combustion much faster then a increase of temp happens.
43
Name two types of smoke detectors.
Photoelectric and Ionization.
44
Sometimes called visible products of combustion detectors. works well on all fire types. Responds
quicker to smoldering fires than ionization type detectors. Automatically reset when conditions
return to normal.
Photoelectric smoke detectors
45
Uses a beam of light that is focused across a monitored area onto a photoelectric cell. When smoke
interferes with the beam it causes a decrease in electrical current initiating a alarm.
Projected beam photoelectric smoke detector.
46
Uses a light emitting diode (LED) to project a beam. Pass through a small chamber away from from
the light source. The light normally doesn't strike the photocell. When smoke enters the chamber the
light reflects off the smoke striking the photo cell causing a alarm.
Refractory application or light scattering smoke detector.
47
When the particulate products of combustion (smoke) enter the chamber, they attach themselves to
electrically charged molecules of air (ions), making the air within the chamber less conductive. The
decrease in current flowing between the plates transmits a alarm. These respond faster to flaming
fires then smoldering ones. Automatically reset when atmosphere has cleared.
Ionization Smoke Detector
48
How often should smoke alarm batteries be tested and replaced?
Tested = monthly Changed = 2 x year
49
A lithium battery in a new smoke alarm last how long?
10 years
50
What are three things that flame detectors (light detectors) are designed to detect?
Light in ultraviolet wave spectrum (UV detectors)
Light in infrared wave spectrum (IR detectors)
Light in both UV and IR.
51
Are flame detectors the fastest to respond to fires?
Yes
52
What may cause a false alarm of a flame detector?
welding, sunlight, other bright light sources
53
A flame detector will not alarm if it is blocked by what?
A opaque object.
54
Some single band IR detectors are sensitive to sunlight. These may be installed where?
In enclosed spaces.
55
What is a built in design feature to reduce false alarms with a IR detector?
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Require flickering motion of a flame to alarm.
56
Ultraviolet detectors are virtually insensitive to sunlight, they are used in areas not suitable for IR
detectors. Where would a ultraviolet detector not be used>
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Areas with arc welding or where intense mercury vapor lamps are used.
57
Where are flame detectors generally used?
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In high hazard areas.
58
Device used to detect gases (CO and CO2 for general use) produced by a fire within a confined space.
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Fire gas detector
59
Will alarm faster then a heat detector but not as fast as a smoke detector. Can be designed to only be
sensitive and alarm to a specific gas and not those produced by a friendly fire.Used in refineries,
chemical plants, electronic factories. Few are in use compared to other detector types.
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Fire gas detector.
60
Name three examples of combination detectors.
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fixed temp/rate of rise. heat/smoke. smoke/fire gas.
61
What are the two types of sprinkler coverage?
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Partial and complete.
62
What is protected by a complete sprinkler system?
Upgrade To Pro
The entire building.
63
What is protected by a partial sprinkler system?
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high hazard areas, exit routes, place designated by codes or the AHJ.
64
Standard for the Installation of Sprinkler Systems.
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NFPA 13
65
Standard for the Installation of Sprinkler Systems in One and Two Family Dwellings and
Manufactured Homes.
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NFPA 13 D
66
Standard for the Installation of Sprinkler Systems in Residential Occupancies Up To and Including
Four Stories in Height.
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NFPA 13R
67
Do design of sprinklers in buildings account for all sprinklers activated at once?
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No, the design of the system is based on the assumption that only a portion of the sprinklers will
operate during a fire.
68
Name some reasons that a automatic sprinkler systems might fail. (rarely is is due to the actual
sprinkler).
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Partially or completely closed water main. Interruption to the city water supply. Damaged or painted
over sprinklers. Frozen or broken pipes. Excess debris or sediment in the pipes. Failure of a
secondary water supply. Tampering and vandalism. Sprinklers obstructed by objects stacked too
close.
69
The most reliable of all fire protection devices.
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Automatic Sprinklers
70
Automatic sprinklers activate when the fire is what?
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In is early growth stage.
71
Name some instances when sprinklers may not be effective.
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Fires are to small to activate sprinklers. Smoke reaches occupants before sprinklers activate.
Occupants are sleeping, handicapped, impaired, or incarcerated.
72
Early suppression fast response (ESFR) sprinklers are designed to react 5 -10 times faster then a
regular sprinkler. How can these be identified?
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They are larger then regular sprinklers.
73
Name three ways that sprinklers are rated and identified?
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Color coding the sprinkler frame arm. Color coding the liquid in frangible bulb type sprinklers.
Stamping the temp into the sprinkler itself.
74
Name three of the most commonly used release mechanisms to activate sprinklers.
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Fusible link. Frangible bulb. Chemical pellet.
75
This converters the standard 1/2" stream of water into water spray for more efficient
extinguishment. Create the discharge pattern of the sprinkler.
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Deflector
76
Consist of a bulb with alcohol or glycerin and a air bubble. The type of liquid and size of the bulb
regulates the breaking temp.
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Frangible Bulb Sprinkler
77
The sprinkler plunger is held in place by a solder pellet. The pellet melt activating the sprinkler.
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Chemical Pellet Sprinkler
78
Deflectors must be designed to direct the flow of water downward no matter the what?
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Sprinkler orientation.
79
Name seven different sprinkler orientation types.
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Upright. Pendant. Sidewall. Concealed. Flush. Recessed. In rack.
80
Sprinkler orientation typically used in dry systems.
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Upright
81
Used where it is unpractical or unsightly to use sprinklers in an upright position, such as below a
suspended ceiling.
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Pendant
82
Used when sprinkler is installed on the wall. Useful in areas such as corridors, offices, hotel rooms,
and residential occupancies.
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Sidewall
83
Hidden by a removable decorative cover that releases when exposed to a specific level of heat.
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Concealed.
84
Mounted with the body of the sprinkler above the plane of the ceiling.
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Flush
 85
Installed in a recessed housing.
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Recessed.
86
Typically used in storage facilities. Incorporate a protective disk that shields the heat sensing element
from water that is discharged from sprinklers above.
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In rack.
87
According to NFPA 13 and 13D what should a sprinkler storage cabinet hold?
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minimum of 6 sprinklers and a sprinkler wrench.
88
Where could a sprinkler cabinet be found?
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Near the riser/water control valve. In the fire command center.
89
Most main water control valves are of the ........ type.
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indicating
90
Name the various types of valves found on a automatic sprinkler system.
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Alarm test valve. Inspectors test valve. Main drain valve.
91
A minimum water supply has to deliver water to the highest sprinkler at what psi?
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15.
92
What determines the minimum water supply in a automatic sprinkler system?
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hazards to be protected. occupancy. building contents.
93
To ensure adequate water volume and pressure are maintained during high used periods, what may
be installed along with the automatic sprinkler system?
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A fire pump.
94
How are building fire pumps powered?
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Electric. Diesel, or Steam pump driver.
95
A FDC may consist of what?
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2 2/12" inlets with clapper valves. One large inlet with a clapper valve.
96
The water supply for sprinkler systems is designed to supply how many sprinklers?
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Only a portion of the sprinklers installed on the system.
97
A FDC should be supplied by pumpers rated at what?
Upgrade To Pro
at least 1000gpm
98
Name six types of sprinkler systems.
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Wet pipe. Dry pipe. Deluge. Preaction. Special Extinguishing systems. Residential.
99
Some times called straight stick. Used in areas that maintain temps above 40 f. Simplest type, low
maintenance. Contains water under pressure all the time. Extremely efficient and reliable. 99% of
fires in structures with these systems are controlled with less then 10 sprinklers.
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Wet Pipe Sprinkler System.
100
Used in areas where the temp drops below 40 f. All pipes are sloped to drain. Air or nitrogen is held
under pressure in pipes. Air escapes first then water is allowed to flow with the drop in air pressure.
Larger surface area on the dry side of the valve then the wet side. This allows small air pressure to
hold back large water pressure. Air pressure is 20 psi above trip pressure. Air pressure gauge will
read substantially lower then the water pressure gauge. If it reads the same water is in the dry part
of the system.
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Dry Pipe Systems
101
Large dry pipe systems that have a water capacity above 500 gallons should have what?
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A quick opening devices (accelerator, exhauster) be installed.
102
Similar to dry pipe systems except that all sprinklers are open all the time. Installed in high hazard
occupancy's such as aircraft hangers. Uses a deluge valve to control water flow.
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Deluge sprinkler system
103
These are dry type systems that also have a deluge type valve, fire detection devices, and closed
sprinklers. Used when it is important to prevent water damage. Fire detection devices activate a
switch that allows water to fill pipes. A specific head will then need to be triggered for water to exit
the head.
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Pre-action sprinkler system
104
Special extinguishing systems incorporate a extinguishing agent specific to the occupancies. Give
some examples.
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Wet chem. Dry chem. Clean agent. Carbon dioxide. Water mist and hybrid. Foam.
105
Designed to prevent flashover and improve the chance for occupants to escape or be evacuated.
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Residential sprinkler system.
106
Residential sprinkler systems are designed to act more quickly. This is done by having a fusible link
that activates at what ceiling temp?
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165 F
107
How are residential sprinklers designed to spray.
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Higher on the walls so the fire doesn't burn above the sprinklers. ( window coverings on fire)
108
How is the inadvertent closing of the sprinkler control valve fixed in a residential system?
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The valve for the sprinklers and home water is the same valve.
109
Name three sources of water for a residential sprinkler system.
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Connection to public water supply system. On site pressure tank. Storage tank with an automatic
pump.
110
Designed to provide a means for rapidly deploying fire hoses and operating fire streams at locations
that are remote from the fire apparatus.
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Standpipe and hose systems.
111
T of F Although standpipe systems are required in many buildings, they do not take the place of
automatic sprinkler systems, nor do they lesson the need for sprinklers. Automatic sprinklers
continue to be the most effective method of fire control.
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True
112
Name four components found in a standpipe system.
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Hose stations. Water supply. Waterflow control valve. Risers. Pressure regulating devices. Fire
department connections (FDC).
113
Standard for the Installation of Standpipe and Hose Systems.
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NFPA 14
114
NFPA 14 establishes how many classes of standpipe systems?
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3
115
Provides 2 1/2" hose connection, may have a reducer down to 1 1/2". Designed for use by firefighters
trained in using large hoselines.
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Class I hose system
116
Designed for use by trained building occupants or firefighters. Has 1 1/2" hose (single jacket) and
nozzle (lightweight twist type) on hose rack. Also called house lines.
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Class II hose system
117
Class I and II are combined. Has 1 1/2" hose and a 2 1/2" hose connection. Both must be able to be
used at the same time.
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Class III hose system
118
Within the three types of standpipe systems there are different types. Name the 5 different types.
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Automatic wet. Automatic dry. Semiautomatic dry. Manual wet. Manual dry.
119
Contains water at all times. The most desirable because water is always present. Not to be used in
cold environments.
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Automatic wet
120
Contains air under pressure to maintain integrity of piping. Water is brought in from a dry pipe
valve upon the opening of a hose valve. Have a permanently attached water supply.
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Automatic dry
121
Has its own water supply. Requires activation of a control device to provide water at hose
connections. Admits water into the system when a dry pipe valve is activated at the hose station.
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Semiautomatic dry
122
No permanent water supply. Designed to be supplied only by a FDC.
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Manual Dry
123
System is full of water but has no water supply. Water is used to identify leaks. Water supply is
supplied through FDC.
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Manual wet
124
System that limits the exposure of building occupants to smoke. May include a combination of
compartmentation, control of smoke migration from affected area, and a means of removing smoke
to the exterior of the building.
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Smoke Management System
125
Name the four functions of a smoke management system.
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Maintaining a tenable egress environment. Controlling and reducing smoke migration. Providing
favorable conditions to assist firefighters. Protection of life and reduction of property loss.
126
Refers to any effort to change the pressure in spaces adjacent to the fire area to compartmentalize or
exhaust smoke from the area of the fires origin.
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Smoke control
127
Name some smoke control strategies.
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Passive (including compartmentation). Pressurization. Zoned. Dilution. Exhaust. Opposed air flow.
128
Name some advantages of a dedicated smoke control system.
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Operation and control is simpler then other systems. Modification of control during maintenance of
other systems is less likely. Less likely to be affected by the modification or failure of other building
systems.
129
Advantages of non dedicated smoke control systems.
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Less chance for failure due to regular use and maintenance. Lower cost. Less space needed.
130
Name some disadvantages of a non dedicated smoke control system.
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Elaborate system control. Modification of other systems might effect the smoke control. All features
of the smoke control portion of the system may not be exercised day to day.
131
Smoke control barriers with sufficient fire endurance to provided against fire spread. Walls,
partitions, floors, and other barriers provide a level of protection. Smoke dampers in HVAC and
automatic doors might also be used,
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Passive Systems
132
Use mechanical fans and ventilation to create a pressure difference across a barrier such as a wall.
Both positive and negative pressure systems are used. Pressure has to be regulated so that doors can
still be opened.
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Pressurization systems
133
Designed to limit the movement of smoke from one compartment to another. Mechanical fans are
used to contain smoke in the zone of fire origin. Non fire areas will be pressurized during a fire.
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Zoned Smoke Control
134
Found in areas such as atrium's and highways tunnels. Fresh air is used to dilute the contaminants.
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Dilution
135
Uses mechanical ventilation to collect smoke at the top of a building. A properly designed system
should allow the smoke to be maintained at a level of 6-10 feet above the highest occupied floor.
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Exhaust Method
136
Used in large areas where smoke migration is limited by a opposed air flow. High velocity air aimed
at the area of fire origin keeps the smoke from migrating into unaffected areas. Used in subways,
railroads, and highways tunnels.
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Opposed Air Flow Method
137
Provides full monitoring and manual control of all smoke control systems and equipment.
Should have a building diagram that indicates the type and location of all smoke control
equipment and the buildings zones. A system status overview. Manual override switches
to restart or shutdown the smoke control system.
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Firefighters Smoke Control Station (FSCS).
 Chapter 21 Fire And Life Safety
Intiatives Flashcards Preview
1
Programs that primarily work to establish and develop the resources needed to counter hazards and
threats to safety through prevention, protection, mitigation, response, and recovery.
Fire and Life Safety Initiative Programs
2
Fire and Life Safety Initiative Programs may also be called what in other communities?
Community Risk Reduction Programs
3
What is the goal of a Fire and Life safety program?
TO encourage and empower citizens in your community to act in a safe manner to reduce the
potential for fires, accidents, or injuries.
4
The program helps firefighters prepare for threats beyond their control, make plans to reduce the
potential for injury or loss, and respond efficiently during the what?
Post incident period
5
Follows a five step process that communities can use to develop a risk reduction program.
Threat and Hazard Identification and Risk Assessment. (THIRA)
6
What are the five steps in a THIRA?
Identify the threat and hazard. Give the threat and hazard context. Examine the core capabilities.
Set Capability Targets. Apply the result.
7
Requires a review of historical data, trends, and statistical analysis.
Identifying the threat and hazard.
8
Threats and hazards are divided into these three categories.
Natural hazards. Technological hazards. Threats or human cause hazards.
9
Explanation of the conditions under which the threat or hazard might occur is developed. Includes a
possible time and location as well as the portion of the population that would be at the greatest risk.
Give the Threats Context
10
The effects of the threat or hazard are combined with the outcomes the community wants with in a
reasonable time. This is then compared to the capabilities of the community to see if it can be meet.
Mutual aid agreements and contingency plans are made to meet the need.
Examine Core Capabilities.
11
Set targets and goals that will result in the greatest benefit within the desired time frame.
Set Capability Targets
12
With assessment result jurisdictions can develop action plans, coordinate activities with other levels
of government, purchase materials, and educate the public.
Apply Results
13
A good model to deliver a fire prevention program is the five E's. What are they?
Education. Enforcement. Economic Incentives. Engineering. Emergency Response.
14
How do fire departments implement Enforcement?
Building, Fire, and Life Safety code enforcement.
15
While the Engineering portion is usually the responsibility of manufactures, designers, and
contractors, the installation and use are usually mandated by what?
Federal, State, or local laws and regulations.
16
Is designed to inform citizens about unsafe behaviors and provide information on how to change
those behaviors.
Fire and Life Safety Education.
17
What three things must you know to be effective in your fire and life safety education?
The hazard you want to prevent. The messages that apply. The audience for the message.
18
A condition that would increase the likely hood of a fire starting or contribute to the size/spread of a
fire.
Fire Hazard.
19
Unsafe behaviors or actions that can result in injury, death, or property damage not associated with
a fire.
Safety Hazard
20
What percent of accidents are caused by unsafe behavior? What percent of accidents are caused by
unsafe conditions?
Behavior = 96% Conditions = 4%
21
Name three categories of hazards that can benefit from fire and life safety education.
Unsafe Behaviors. Unsafe Conditions. Hazardous Processes.
22
May exist temporarily or as a constant function of an industrial or manufacturing site.
Hazardous Processess
23
How can hazardous processes be reduced?
Enforcement of codes, inspections, and education.
24
What are the four categories that fire and life safety messages can be broken into?
Prevent (fire and burns). Prepare ( for a fire emergency). Protect (yourself in a emergency).
Persuade (other to be safe).
25
What is the Danger Zone around a oven?
3'
26
Candles should be keep how far away from other combustibles?
12'
27
Space heaters should be keep how far away from combustibles?
3'
 28
Set water heaters to what temp?
120 f
29
Name the five age ranges that fire and life safety messages can be broken into.
Preschool. Elementary. Middle School. High School. Adults. Older Adults.
30
What is the youngest group that fire and life safety messages can be effectively taught?
Preschool 3-5 years
31
How do preschool children learn?
By seeing and doing.
32
Name six appropriate messages for preschool age children.
Match and lighter safety (positive message). Stop, drop, and roll. Home escape (in segments).
Firefighters as helpers. Bike Helmets. Poison Prevention.
33
What age do most poisonings take place?
5 and younger.
34
Name 4 examples of fire and life safety messages for elementary age children.
Smoke alarm response. Survival Skills. Use an misuse of fire. Home escape plan.
35
Name seven examples of fire and life safety messages for middle school age children.
Burn care and prevention. Fire Science. Health and safety (CPR). Cooking safety. Babysitting. Fire
setting and other risky activities. The importance of home exit drills.
36
How do you get a high school student to respond to a fire and life safety message?
Make it relevant to them.
37
Give five examples of fire and life safety messages for high school students.
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Safe driving. Smoke alarm safety. Fire careers. Preparation to live independently. College dormitory
fire safety.
38
What three things should a fire and life safety message include when being presented to adults.
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Solving problems. Completing tasks. or Handling lifestyle choices.
39
Give five examples of fire and life safety messages for Adults.
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Smoke alarms. Residential sprinklers. EDITH and fire drills. Disaster planning and preparedness.
Injury prevention.
40
Name three safety characteristics of older adults.
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One of three high risk groups. Twice as likely to die from fire. Greatest risk for injury due to fire,
trips, and falls.
41
What is the leading cause of fire deaths among older adults? What is the leading cause of fire injuries
among older adults?
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Death = Soaking materials. Injuries = cooking fires
42
What are four messages that can be given to older adults for a fire and life safety presentation?
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Safe Cooking. Careless smoking. Electrical appliances and equipment. Falls.
43
What are the two reasons structure surveys are performed by fire companies?
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To become familiar with public access structures and workplaces. Provide a public service to
homeowners and renters in their residences.
44
Name two opportunity's that come from conducting a fire survey.
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Learn about the community. Opportunity to distribute fire and life safety literature to the
community.
45
What are the three goals of a juvenile firesetter program?
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Identify at risk children. Assess the cause of their obsession. Intervene in their behavioral
development.
46
What percent of arson arrest are of children under the age of 18?
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54%
47
T or F Juvenile arson arrest are proportionally higher than any other type of crime?
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True
48
What was the average property value loss in 250,000 incidents of juvenile firesetting?
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$20,000
49
What is the second leading cause of fatalities in residential fires?
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Juvenile firesetting.
50
Name the four categories of juvenile firesetters.
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Curiosity/experimental. Troubled/crisis. Delinquent/criminal. Pathological/emotionally disturbed.
51
What should firefighters watch for in hopes of identifying juvenile firesetters?
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Trends in fires
52
What are four things that can be done to try to identify juveniles at risk of becoming firesetters?
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Include juvenile firesetters info in presentations. Look for indicators on calls. Be aware of actions of
family members and friends. Demonstrate fire safe behavior.
 53
What is the best tool to prevent firesetters?
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Education
54
What are three things children can be taught to help prevent firesetters?
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Fire is a tool not a toy. Use fire safely under adult supervision. How fire destroys when not properly
used.
55
What are four things adults can be taught to prevent firesetters?
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Categories of firesetters and indicators. Keeping lighters and matches out of children's reach.
Supervising children when fire is present. Making children aware of the danger of fire. Why only
trained babysitters should be hires.
56
Curiosity/experimental firesetter characteristics.
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2-10 age. Don't understand fire destruction. Access to fire or fire starters. Unsupervised. Hide when
lighting fires. Imitate actions of adults.
57
Troubled/ crisis firesetter characteristics.
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Mostly boys of all ages. Have set 2 or more simple fires. Use fire to express emotion. May not
understand consequences. Will most likely continue if not treated. "Cry for help".
58
Delinquent / criminal firesetter characteristics.
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Teens with a history of firesetting, truancy, antisocial, drug/alcohol abuse. Knows the danger of fire
and consequences. Act of vandalism intended to destroy. May involve peers. Has targets. Punishment
involves criminal prosecution.
59
Pathological/emotionally disturbed firesetter characteristics.
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Boys or girls with a life long fascination of fire. Set multiple fires that are very destructive and
sophisticated. Fires may be random, ritualized, or intended to destroy. Chronic emotional problems.
Requires a psychiatric diagnosis.
60
These are part of both the engineering and enforcement components of the fire and life safety
program.
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Codes and standards.
61
Regulate both construction materials and design and occupant behavior and processes.
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Fire and life safety codes.
62
A way for communities to standardize the adoption processes without having to rewrite codes
themselves.
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Model codes
63
What are the two model code organizations in the US?
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International Code Council (ICC). National Fire Protection Association (NFPA).
64
Fire code Handbook
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NFPA 1
65
Life safety code (occupancy classification).
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NFPA 101
66
Building construction and safety code.
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NFPA 5000
67
What code do buildings under the jurisdiction of the Department of Defense follow?
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Unified Facility Criteria (UFC)
68
When can a code be enforced?
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When the AHJ adopts them.
69
How often are most model codes revised?
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Every 3-5 years
70
What are the two main aspects of code enforcement?
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Inspection and Investigation
71
Standard for Professional Qualifications for Fire Inspector and Plan Examiner.
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NFPA 1031
72
How can information gathered from fire investigations be used?
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Develop and monitor effectiveness of the fire and life safety program. Determine responsibly and
bring justice. Make products, processes, and materials safer.
73
Must be treated as a educational opportunity and not as a enforcement tools.
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Home safety surveys.
74
What percent of fire deaths in 2010 occurred in residential structures?
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92%
75
List common causes of residential fires.
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Malfunctioning heaters and water heaters. Combustibles to close to heater or lamp. Unsafe cooking.
Smoking. Overloaded extension cords and multiple outlet devices. Exposed wiring. Defective
electrical appliances. Improper use of combustible/flammable liquids. Poor housekeeping/hoarding.
Unattended candles.
76
Name the five leading causes of residential accidents according to the home safety council.
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Falls. Poisoning. Fires. Airway Obstruction. Drowning
77
What are three main objectives when conducting a home safety survey?
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Preventing accidental fires. Improving life safety conditions. Helping the occupant understand how
to improve existing conditions.
78
What are two advantages of a increase in goodwill for conducting home safety surveys.
Support when annual budgets are being made. Support during community fund raising events.
79
List basic presentation skills.
Audience centered. Good development of ideas. Good organization of ideas. Best choice of words.
Good delivery skills. Good vocal characteristics. Conversational tone. Positive Attitude. Appropriate
use of humor. Personal style.
80
List 5 good vocal characteristics.
Pronunciation. Good grammar. Inflection. Variety. Enunciation. Projection.
81
List five demographic characteristics that audiences can be divided into.
Age. Education. Cultural Diversity. Socioeconomic level. Physical ability.
82
What are the three high risk groups?
Under 5 years of age. Over 65 years of age. People with disabilities or special needs.
83
What three things must a safety message be, to be effective?
Accurate. Positive. Specific to the target audience.
84
What are four generally accepted organizational sequences?
Known-to-unknown. Simple-to-complex. Whole-part-whole. Step-by-step.
85
The national association for education of young children defines "young children" as what?
Birth to 8 years old
86
For children presentations lasting ............ or less, are ideal.
15 minutes
87
Ideas to keep in mind when giving young children fire presentations.
Loud noises scare kids. Use short simple sentences. Children interpret what you say and what you do
very literally. Children are active learners, more involvement means more learning. Children need to
practice, practice, practice-one time is not enough for any message. Children learn best by using all 5
senses. Repeat and reinforce the message at every opportunity. Kids love repetition.
88
T or F When giving station tours, all groups should be keep together and if necessary, larger groups
should be divided into smaller groups with a fire fighter assigned to each group.
True
89
The ultimate purpose of fire survey documentation is to accomplish the following goals.
Become familiar with structures, there uses, and hazards. Recognize existing hazards. Visualize how
tactics may or may not apply. Develop new tactics. Determine if occupants have disabilities or
medical problems that will hinder self evacuation. Determine if there is a language barrier with
occupants.
90
When the survey of the exterior of a building is complete you should go where next?
To the roof or basement.
91
Each floor of a building should be looked in succession in a .................. way.
Systematically
92
What type of photos are the most effective for planning operational response?
Aerial photos.