Rec - Fa

CHAPTER 1: LIFE THREATENING MEDICAL EMERGENCIES AND CPR
PHAN I
1. Steps of checking the head, back, abdomen, limbs … and vital signs observation
belong to
A. The scene survey
B. The primary survey
C. The secondary survey ( TRUE )
2. Basic life support flow chart will help the first aider to:
A. Outline the approach to an incident and the primary survey. ( TRUE )
B. Outline the approach to an incident and CPR.
C. Outline the approach to an incident and the secondary survey.
3. When you first arrive at the scene of a collapse or an accident, what is the first
thing you should do?
A. Shout for help
B. Check the victims response level
C. Assess the situation for danger ( TRUE )
D. Check the victim's breathing
4. An unconscious victim with spinal injury must be:

A. rolled into a recovery position.
B. maintained on his back.
C. rolled into a HAINES recovery position. ( TRUE )
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5. A woman in late pregnancy has special requirements for the delivery of CPR.
What is the best position for her?
A. Position the victim in recovery position
B. Position the victim on her back with sufficient padding under the right buttock to give an obvious
pelvic tilt to the left. ( TRUE )
C. Position the victim on her back with her shoulders flat
6. What should you NOT do when arriving at the scene of a collapse?

A. Reposition the victim in the recovery position
B. Check for pulse
C. Clear the airway
D. Sprinkle water on the victim’s face. ( TRUE )
7. Your FIRST action at an emergency is to :

A. Send for help and AED
B. Assess for danger to yourself, bystanders and the patient. ( TRUE )
C. Check the airway and clear it if necessary
D. Check for breathing and pulse
8. What does the ‘A’ stand for in the acronym DRSABCD?

A. Accident
B. Airway. ( TRUE )
C. Ambulance
D. Allergy
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9. Which of the following conditions has first priority?
A. A young patient with a suspected fracture
B. An elderly patient with chest pain
C. A middle-aged patient with a deep cut to her arm
D. An unconscious patient lying on his back. ( TRUE )
10. When managing a victim you must:

A. Be culturally aware and sensitive
B. Communicate gently and in a respectful manner
C. Be understanding, calm and reassuring
D. All choices are correct. ( TRUE )
11. Which of the following questions should you be prepared to answer when
reporting to the PIC or Chief Purser?
A. What is the exact location of the emergency?
B. What is the number of the victims?
C. Is the victim conscious? Is the victim breathing?
12. What information about victims may be helpful to paramedics and included
in a report?
A. What happened to them, their vital signs and symptoms
B. First aid given and how they responded to first aid treatment
C. Injuries or illnesses identified, types and quantity of medications taken
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13. In relation to an adult victim’s rights when receiving first aid treatment, which
of the following is true?
A. If conscious and responsive, you must gain their consent before commencing any treatment.
( TRUE )
B. A first aid certificate gives you automatic right to treat anyone
C. There is no need to communicate as it just slows down treatment
D. A victim has no rights and must comply with a first aider’s instructions
14. Depending on the situation, which of the following are ‘standard precautions’
when providing first aid?
A. Washing your hands
B. Using gloves and masks
C. Appropriate handling and disposal of sharps
15. What is the best method for assessing a victim?

A. Start with a primary survey, followed by a secondary survey, if the person is conscious, use
verbal questioning and observation. ( TRUE )
B. Follow the basic life flow chart, if the person is conscious, ask them to sit up and
move their limbs slowly to assess their reaction
C. Place them carefully onto their stomach and feel your way all over their body
D. Start with a primary survey, manually bend and rotate each of the limbs to check
on fractures or quadriplegia
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16. How do you check for a response to determine whether someone is
unconscious?
A. Use verbal questioning like ‘Can you hear me?’ and ‘Can you squeeze my hand?’
B. Whisper in their ear and assess response
C. Talk to the victim and slightly slap his/her cheeks to try to get a response
D. Shake them firmly, it is important to try to wake them up. ( TRUE )
17. How can you describe an unconscious person?

A. They look like they are asleep
B. They cannot be woken
C. You cannot obtain a purposeful response from them
18. How can a first aider obtain the history of an accident or an illness?
A. From the surroundings
B. From bystanders
C. From the victim
19. Which of the following should a first aider do while waiting for medical
assistance?
A. Care for the airway, breathing and circulation of the victim
B. Control any bleeding and manage other injuries.
C. Record the patient’s vital signs and any first aid management undertaken.
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20. Which procedure is used to assist a first aider in providing a quick and accurate
handover to receiving emergency personnel?
A. IMIST (Introduce patient – Mechanism of injury – Injury identified – Vital Signs Treatment).
( TRUE )
B. RICE (Rest - Immobilization – Compression bandage - Elevate)
C. FAST (Facial weakness - Arm weakness – Speech difficulty – Time to act fast)
D. All choices are correct
21. To end up with a fair assessment of an illness or injury, a first aider should
combine the three following categories of evidence:
A. History of the accident or illness, signs and symptoms. ( TRUE )
B. Signs, types of medications taken and relevant past injury or illness.
C. Information from bystanders, medications taken and types of food and drink last
had
D. Symptoms, allergies identified and treatment provided
22. What is the purpose of the primary survey?

A. To identify life-threatening problems and deal with them before medical assistance arrives.
( TRUE )
B. To conduct a systematic check of the victim from ‘nose to toes’ to identify if there
are any abnormalities.
C. To provide information related to a victim for emergency personnel
23. What should be the first action when you approach an accident?
A. Check if how many victims are there
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B. Check if the scene is dangerous. ( TRUE )
C. Check if there is anyone to help
D. Check if there is anyone unconscious
24. Aims of first aid do NOT include:

A. Providing substitutes for medical care. ( TRUE )
B. Preventing the condition worsening
C. Preserving life of the patients
D. Seeking medical assistance
25. What are the effects of reassurance?

A. Easing pain levels and increasing pulse rate
B. Easing anxiety and increasing pulse rate
C. Increasing the conscious state and slowing down blood loss
D. Easing anxiety and slowing down shock process. ( TRUE )
26. What are evidences the first aider can use to recognize the illness or injury?
A. What the first aider can hear or see
B. What the patient feels and tells the first aider
C. The story of the accident obtained from surroundings, patients or bystanders
27. After checking conscious state, if the patient responds, the first aider should
A. Turn the patient on side
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B. Move the patient to a spacious place
C. Give the patient a sugar drink
D. Seek for the consent of the patient. ( TRUE )
28. If you recognize a patient is unresponsive, you will immediately

A. Call for help and check the patient’s airway. ( TRUE )
B. Call for help and raise the patient’s legs
C. Call for help and perform CPR on the patient
D. Call for help and roll the patient into the recovery position
29. The secondary survey on an unconscious breathing patient should be

conducted
A. While the patient is on his or her back
B. While the patient is in the recovery position. ( TRUE )
C. While the patient is sitting comfortably
D. While the patient is lying down and legs slightly raised
30. Conscious injured patients should be treated as being spinal injured if

A. They cannot push the wrist back
B. They cannot straighten their knees
C. They have pain in their neck or back
D. All are correct. ( TRUE )
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31. What is the appropriate position for an unconscious breathing patient with
severe injury on his back and/or his head?
A. Lateral recovery position
B. Lying on his back
C. Haines recovery position. ( TRUE )
D. Half sitting
32. What is the best place on the body to feel/take a pulse?

A. At the neck and wrist. ( TRUE )
B. At the neck and ankle
C. At the wrist and ankle
D. At the wrist and elbow
33. What is the normal breathing rate for adults?

A. 16-20 per min. ( TRUE )
B. 16-25 per min
C. 25-30 per min
D. 30-45 per min
34. What is the purpose of checking sensation?

A. To check the possible spinal injury of the victim. ( TRUE )
B. To check the response of the victim
C. To check the breathing of the victim
D. To check the conscious state of the victim
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35. What is the purpose of the primary survey?
A. To identify life-threatening problems and deal with them first. ( TRUE )
B. To identify any abnormalities that are not immediately obvious to the first aider
C. To check for bleeding or not
D. To check for fracture or not
36. What is the purpose of the secondary survey?

A. To identify life-threatening problems and deal with them first
B. To identify any abnormalities that are not immediately obvious to the first aider. ( TRUE )
C. To check for bleeding or not
D. To check for fracture or not.
37. What is an INCORRECT action when you check the pelvic region?
A. To check it for any incontinence of urine.
B. To look for any outward rotation of the legs
C. To check it for any outward rotation of the legs by “springing the pelvis”. ( TRUE )
38. What is the purpose of checking danger of the scene?

A. To keep the first aider, the victim and other people safe. ( TRUE )
B. To keep the first aider safe
C. To keep the victim safe
D. To keep other people safe
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39. How can you clear a foreign object if it is in an unconscious victim’s mouth
and visible?
A. Turn the victim to one side, use hands with gloves and take the foreign object out. ( TRUE )
B. Turn the victim to one side and press his/her stomach vigorously to push the
foreign object out
C. Use bare hands to take the foreign object out immediately as it may block the
airway
40. When can you clear a foreign object?

A. When it is in the mouth and visible. ( TRUE )
B. When it is in the airway and visible
C. When it is in the airway and invisible
D. All choices are incorrect
41. You are doing CPR. What would you do when the aircraft is landing?
A. Stop performing CPR, take the victim to the seat and secure him/her with a seatbelt. ( TRUE )
B. Stop doing CPR, keep the victim on the floor and secure him.
C. Continue performing CPR.
D. All choices are incorrect.
42. Can you perform CPR if the patient gets total airway obstruction and becomes
unconscious?
A. Yes. ( TRUE )
B. No
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C. It depends on the foreign object
43. When can you perform CPR again after the aircraft lands?
A. When the aircraft is on the taxiway. ( TRUE )
B. When the aircraft is on the runway
C. When the aircraft has come to a complete stop
44. What does the acronym “HAINES” stand for in the phrase “HAINES recovery
position”?
A. High Arm In Endangered Spine recovery position. ( TRUE )
B. High Arm In Endangered Sternum recovery position.
C. High Armpit In Endangered Spine recovery position.
45. Which technique can you apply when you are performing rescue breaths to
an infant?
A. Mouth to mouth.
B. Mouth to nose.
C. Mouth to nose and mouth. ( TRUE )
46. You are doing CRP on a child, when giving rescue breaths, you must remember
A. To tilt the child’s head fully backwards
B. Not to tilt the head, but support the jaw
C. Not to tilt the head or support the jaw
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D. To tilt the child’s head, which increases with the age. ( TRUE )
47. What would you do after giving the first rescue breath and the patient’s
stomach has been distended with air?
A. Stop giving the second rescue breath and continue chest compression
B. Give the second rescue breath but more slightly and not as strong as the first one and continue
chest compression. ( TRUE )
C. Stop CPR and turn the patient to one side as he may have vomiting
D. Chest compression only
48. When can you change over between two first aiders during CPR?
A. After 2 rescue breaths or 30 chest compressions. ( TRUE )
B. At anytime when the first aider feels tired
C. Cannot change the role during CPR
D. All choices are incorrect
49. What would you do for the patient after doing CPR and his normal breathing
returns?
A. Stop CPR and place the patient into a recovery position for performing the secondary survey.
( TRUE )
B. Keep doing CPR until medical personnel arrives
C. Carry out a “head to nose” check immediately
D. Check and record his pulse rate.
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50. A passenger slammed his back into the seat armrest and he complained about
his back pain? What would you do?
A. Apply the HAINES recovery position.
B. Apply the recovery position.
C. Help him to lie on his back. ( TRUE )
D. Help him to take his seat.
51. When performing infant CPR, what kind of rescue breaths should you give to
avoid forcing air into the infant’s stomach?
A. Hard and fast
B. Smooth and fast
C. Slowly and gently. ( TRUE )
D. Long and hard
52. Where would you check the pulse on a 12-year-old boy?

A. On the inside of the arm between the elbow and shoulder
B. At the side of the neck. ( TRUE )
C. On the middle of the sternum a bit towards to the left
53. When must you move a victim?

A. When you need to care for another victim
B. When the victim is in danger. ( TRUE )
C. When it would be easier to care for the victim
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54. When do cabin attendants stop doing CPR for the victim?
A. If the patient responds or begins breathing normally
B. If ambulance or medical assistance arrives and takes over
C. If you are physically or emotionally unable to continue
55. A first aid responder should move a victim when….

A. It would make it easier to administer first aid.
B. The victim is in a dangerous position.
C. The victim says he feels uncomfortable in his current position.
56. You approach a victim that is unconscious and wearing a medical alert tag
indicating a diabetic condition. You would:
A. Begin rescue breathing
B. Begin CPR
C. Inject the victim with insulin
D. Check victim for breathing & pulse. ( TRUE )
57. What could you do to help reduce the risk of infection when performing CPR?
A. Use a resuscitation mask to deliver rescue breaths
B. Consider compressions only CPR if a mask is not available
C. Both choices are correct. ( TRUE )
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58. How can you tell if a person is unconscious?
A. They look like they are asleep
B. They cannot be woken
C. You cannot obtain a purposeful response from them
D. All of the above. ( TRUE )
59. When providing first aid to an unconscious breathing victim, how would you
position them?
A. Keep them on their back and raise their legs
B. Turn the victim carefully onto his/her side, keep the airway open. ( TRUE )
C. Leave them exactly where you found them
D. Gently roll the victim onto his/her stomach with their head to one side
60. Once you have started CPR, when would you make a decision to stop?
A. After 6 sequences
B. When either the victim recovers, you’re too exhausted to continue or you’re
directed to stop by a health care professional
C. Never! You have to continue no matter what
D. After 5 minutes without any improvement. ( TRUE )
61. You attempt to deliver a rescue breath to an unconscious adult. The breath
does not go in. What is the next step in managing this case?
A. Perform abdominal thrusts
B. Begin CPR
C. Repeat the head tilt/chin lift maneuver and attempt the breath again. ( TRUE )
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62. You are first on scene and the victim is unresponsive, pulseless and has
vomited. You do not feel comfortable performing mouth-to-mouth ventilation.
What is the best approach?
A. Wipe off the face or cover with a shirt
B. Compression only CPR. ( TRUE )
C. Go and get help
D. Do not initiate resuscitation
63. You come upon an unconscious victim. He does not appear to be breathing.
You perform CPR but are unable to deliver the first breath. What is the next step?
A. Compression only CPR
B. Repeat the head tilt/chin lift maneuver and attempt the breath again. ( TRUE )
C. Abdominal thrusts
D. Heimlich maneuver
64. What is first aid?

A. Emergency care given to an injured or patient before medical assistance arrives. ( TRUE )
B. First response to natural disasters
C. How to use a first aid kit
D. Medical treatment of an injured person
65. What is the first step in managing a first aid situation?

A. Move the casualty out of the airplane
B. Ask the casualty if they are in pain
C. Sit the casualty up
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D. Check for danger by using all your senses. ( TRUE )
66. How do you assist someone to be calm in a medical emergency?

A. Offer them a cup of tea
B. Listen, assist and reassure them. ( TRUE )
C. Ignore them and hope they will settle down soon
D. Take them to a doctor
67. When approaching the scene of a collapse or an accident, the first aider must
follow the DRS ABCD priorities in which DRS ABC stand for: Danger, R…………….,
Send for help, Airway, Breathing and Compression.
A. Response. ( TRUE )
B. Resuscitation
C. Respiration
D. Rest
68. Why is the unconscious breathing casualty placed in the recovery position?
A. To make them comfortable
B. To help maintain their airway open. ( TRUE )
C. To improve their circulation
D. To make them easier to manage
69. What is the normal average pulse rate of an adult at rest?

A. 40 to 60 beats per minute
B. 60 to 80 beats per minute. ( TRUE )
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C. 80 to 100 beats per minute
D. 100 to 120 beats per minute
70. A child’s pulse in comparison to an adult’s is

A. The same
B. Slower
C. Faster. ( TRUE )
71. Which of the following is the most important in management of an

unconscious person?
A. Bleeding
B. Airway. ( TRUE )
C. Fractures
D. Spinal injuries
72. How do you check for breathing?

A. Count the number of breaths
B. Check pulses
C. Look, listen and feel for breaths. ( TRUE )
D. Check skin colours
73. What should you do after you check an unconscious person who has no
breathing and no pulse?
A. Call for help
B. Perform CPR. ( TRUE )
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C. Give defibrillation
D. Give ventilations
74. What does the B stand for in the ABC check? Airway, B…………, Circulation?
A. Bleeding
B. Breathing. ( TRUE )
C. Breaks (Fractures)
D. Bones
75. What is the ratio of chest compressions to rescue breaths when performing
CPR on an unconscious casualty?
A. 15 compressions to 2 breaths
B. 15 compressions to 4 breaths
C. 30 compressions to 2 breaths. ( TRUE )
D. 30 compressions to 4 breaths
76. When should you stop doing CPR?

A. When the lips go blue - Cyanosis
B. After 10 cycles
C. After 15 minutes
D. Only when assistance has arrived. ( TRUE )
77. What is the rate that you should be aiming for when performing chest
compressions on an adult?
A. 10 per minute
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B. 30 per minute
C. 100 per minute. ( TRUE )
D. 120 per minute
78. How would you check a person’s consciousness level?

A. By talking and touching. ( TRUE )
B. By looking, listening and feeling.
C. By shouting and shaking.
79. What is the chest compression - rescue breath ratio for a two-rescuer CPR on
a child or an infant?
A. 15:1
B. 30:2 => ( TRUE )
C. 15:2
80. When would you stop performing resuscitation on a victim?

A. When the victim’s heart starts beating again but he/she still has no breathing.
B. When the victim becomes cyanosis.
C. When the aircraft is landing. ( TRUE )
81. Can you perform chest compressions only while doing CPR?
A. Yes, if you are unwilling or unable to do rescue breathing. ( TRUE )
B. No, CPR always combines chest compressions and rescue breaths.
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82. Why is a recovery position used?
A. To prevent from spinal injury.
B. To prevent the airway from being obstructed by the tongue, mucus, or vomitus. ( TRUE )
C. To help the victim more comfortable.
83. What compression method should you use for an adult?

A. Heel of one hand, other hand on top. ( TRUE )
B. Heel of one hand only.
C. 2 fingers of both hands.
84. An infant is defined as a baby

A. Under two years old.
B. From 1 to 6 months old.
C. Under one year old. ( TRUE )
85. What does CPR stand for?

A. Call, Plan, Respond
B. Cardio-Pulmonary Resuscitation. ( TRUE )
C. Coronary Pathogen Revival
86. What is the recommended chest compression to rescue breath ratio?

A. 15:1
B. 60:2
C. 30:2 => ( TRUE )
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87. When you deliver the first rescue breath, if the victim’s chest does not rise,
what should you do?
A. Give another breath
B. Perform the head tilt-chin lift. ( TRUE )
C. Stop performing CPR
88. What type of breath should be given when you are performing rescue breaths
to adults?
A. Shallow breath
B. Normal breath (until the victim’s chest rises). ( TRUE )
C. Deep breath
89. Where is the chest compression position on an adult?

A. In the center of the chest. ( TRUE )
B. Below the sternum
C. Below the nipple line
90. How should chest compressions be performed on an infant?

A. With the heel of one hand
B. With fingertips of both hands
C. With 2 fingers of one hand. ( TRUE )
91. What is the highly effective time for performing CPR?

A. CPR is highly effective when it is started immediately after a victim collapses and has no sign of
breathing. ( TRUE )
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B. CPR is highly effective when the victim’s heart beats slowly and weakly.
C. CPR is highly effective when the victim has been unconscious for 10 minutes.
92. CPR should only be performed on:

A. A person who asks for help.
B. A severe bleeding person.
C. An unresponsive person who is not breathing. ( TRUE )
93. CPR can save lives.

A. True. => ( TRUE )
B. False.
94. Who can perform CPR?

A. Anyone who is CPR certified or has received CPR training. ( TRUE )
B. Doctors only.
C. Emergency medical personnel only.
95. The purpose of CPR is to:

A. Help the victim stay warm.
B. Prevent the victim from going into shock.
C. Provide oxygen and blood circulation to the victim. ( TRUE )
96. To check if the victim is breathing, you should:

A. Listen for exhaled air.
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B. Look at his/her chest to check the chest rise and fall.
C. Feel for exhaled air.
D. All mentioned situations. ( TRUE )
97. Which is INCORRECT CPR technique for an infant victim:

A. Tilt his/her head back a bit to open the airway. ( TRUE )
B. Make a good seal around the victim’s mouth and nose.
C. Use 2 fingers on the sternum.
D. Give 2 small puffs of air from your cheeks.
98. When should you stop CPR?

A. When you are no longer able to continue.
B. When the victim can breathe normally on his/her own.
C. When the scene is unsafe.
99. When giving rescue breaths to an unconscious adult, you should

A. Tilt the head back and block the victim’s nose by your cheek. ( TRUE )
B. Make a good seal around the victim’s mouth and nose.
C. Not block the victim’s nose.
100. What are the benefits of putting a victim into the recovery position?
A. Free flow of fluids
B. Maintain an open airway
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C. All mentioned situations. ( TRUE )
101. What should you do first when you encounter a person in need of medical
assistance?
A. Check for danger. ( TRUE )
B. Commence CPR
C. Determine responsiveness.
D. Check airway immediately.
102. Someone who has ‘no signs of life’ means he/she:

A. Cannot move on his/her own
B. Is unconscious and has cyanosis
C. Is unconscious and not breathing normally. ( TRUE )
103. When you commence CPR, following 30 chest compressions, how many
rescue breaths would you give?
A. 2 => ( TRUE )
B. 3
C. 1
D. 4
104. Which of these terms means ‘CPR’?

A. The technique of chest compressions combined with rescue breaths. ( TRUE )
B. Basic life support flow chart.
C. The technique of doing emergency action principles.
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105. You should begin CPR on an unconscious victim if:
A. You are advised to do so by bystanders who saw the victim collapse.
B. The victim has signs of breathing and circulation.
C. There is no response and no breathing. ( TRUE )
D. The victim stops breathing for 5 minutes.
106. The purpose of performing CPR is to:

A. Keep the victim’s airway open.
B. Identify any immediate threats to life.
C. Supply the vital organs with oxygen-rich blood. ( TRUE )
D. All mentioned situations.
107. When would you stop performing resuscitation on a casualty?

A. When you are told by bystanders that the casualty was not breathing for 5
minutes before you began resuscitation.
B. When you hear a rib break.
C. When you are too physically exhausted to continue. ( TRUE )
108. How deep should you press down on an adult’s chest while giving chest
compressions?
A. About 1/3 the depth of chest. ( TRUE )
B. About 2/3 the depth of chest.
C. About 1/2 the depth of chest.
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109. When would you stop doing CPR?
A. When the victim’s ribs are broken.
B. After 20 minutes doing CPR but the victim has no sign of life.
C. When a doctor pronounces life extinct. ( TRUE )
D. All mentioned situations
110. You are called to care for an unconscious passenger, when checking the
airway you find a foreign object in his mouth. You should immediately
A. Check breathing.
B. Clear the airway without turning him on side.
C. Turn him on side and clear the airway. ( TRUE )
111. If a passenger is found lying on the floor, first, you check the scene to make
sure it is safe to enter, and then you would
A. Check for his response. ( TRUE )
B. Try to pull him back to his seat.
C. Report to the Purser/Captain immediately.
112. Should you check breathing when performing CPR?

A. Yes, every minute.
B. Yes, every 2 minutes.
C. No, we should not. ( TRUE )
113. How do you check the consciousness of a victim?

A. Talk to him.
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B. Talk and touch on his/her cheeks
114. If an infant is not breathing, blow air gently into the infant’s nose and mouth,
and remember
A. to tilt the infant’s head fully backwards
B. not to tilt the head, but support the jaw. ( TRUE )
C. to tilt the infant’s head slightly backwards.
115. If you have to perform CPR in flight, during landing period you will
A. Call for medical assistance
B. Stop CPR. ( TRUE )
C. Move victim to the back galley and continue CPR
116. A two-rescuer CPR means

A. One performs chest compressions, the other gives rescue breaths. ( TRUE )
B. One performs chest compressions and gives rescue breaths, the other counts
aloud.
C. One performs chest compressions and gives rescue breaths, the other informs
the Purser/Captain.
117. A bystander tells you that a person is unconscious and not breathing. You
would
A. immediately begin CPR
B. put the victim on the recovery position and report to the Purser.
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C. follow the basic life support flow chart. ( TRUE )
118. What is the first thing you would do when you arrive at the scene of an
accident?
A. Control any bleeding.
B. Check breathing and pulse.
C. Assess the situation whether there is any danger. ( TRUE )
119. When would you stop performing resuscitation on a victim?

A. When the victim’s heart starts beating again but he/she still has no breathing.
B. When the victim becomes cyanosis.
C. When it is physically impossible to continue. ( TRUE )
120. While performing CPR, you accidently break the victim’s ribs. What should
you do?
A. Stop CPR immediately to prevent the victim from further damage.
B. Recheck hand position and continue doing CPR. ( TRUE )
C. Keep doing CPR.
121. What should you do if you determine that the scene is in danger?
A. Help anyway, this is an emergency – but, be careful.
B. Get as close as you think is safe, try to see what happened, and then call for help.
C. Do not approach; call for help and report to the Purser/ Captain immediately. ( TRUE )
D. Do not approach; wait for someone else to take action.
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122. How would you check for the level of consciousness?
A. By talking and touching. ( TRUE )
B. By looking, listening and feeling.
C. By looking and shaking.
D. By checking the pulse rate.
123. Steps of checking the head, back, abdomen, limbs … and vital signs
observation belong to
A. The scene survey
B. The primary survey
C. The secondary survey. ( TRUE )
124. Basic life support flow chart will help the first aider to:
A. Outline the approach to an incident and the primary survey. ( TRUE )
B. Outline the approach to an incident and CPR.
C. Outline the approach to an incident and the secondary survey.
PHAN II.
1. According to priorities of first aid, which of the first aid action should have your
highest priority as a cabin crew member?
A. Check for danger. ( TRUE )
B. Reassure the passenger
C. Look for professional help
D. Check the passenger’s life-threatening conditions
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2. What is the very first thing you should do when you arrive at an incident scene?
A. Assess a victim’s breathing and a pulse
B. Identify, assess and manage immediate hazards. ( TRUE )
C. Provide first aid as quickly as possible to save a victim’ life as time is precious
D. Immediately move victims out of the hazardous scene to provide first aid.
3. When providing first aid to an unconscious breathing victim, how would you
position them?
A. Keep them on their back and raise their legs
B. Turn the victim carefully onto his/her side and keep the airway open. ( TRUE )
C. Leave them exactly where you found them
D. Gently roll the victim onto his/her stomach with their head to one side
4. The secondary survey includes the following steps:

A. Check from ‘head to toes’, check for sensations and medical identification and conduct vital sign
observations. ( TRUE )
B. Check on vital organs of the body such as head, lungs and heart and then check
conscious state and skin state.
C. Check from ‘head to toes’, check pulse and breaths to see if they are regular or
irregular and end with skin state check.
D. Check to detect life-threatening conditions and perform vital sign observations
5. If accidents involve more than one patient, the first aider should
A. Manage the nearest patient first
B. Manage the old patient first
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C. Manage the unresponsive patient first. ( TRUE )
D. Manage the patient who is bleeding first.
6. What is the best position for an unconscious patient with a spinal injury?
A. HAINES recovery position. ( TRUE )
B. Lying on the back in a straight line
C. Recovery position
7. How often do you make vital sign observations?

A. Every 5 minutes
B. Every 15 minutes. ( TRUE )
C. Every 30 minutes
D. Every 45 minutes
8. A passenger is unconscious and is breathing. You should position him:

A. On his back
B. On his side (recovery position). => ( TRUE )
C. On his back with the legs raised
D. On his back with the head turned to the side
9. What is the best method for assessing a victim?

A. Start with a primary survey (DRSABCD), followed by a secondary survey, if the person is
conscious, including verbal questioning and observation. ( TRUE )
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B. Placing them carefully onto their stomach and feeling your way all over their
body
C. Manually bending and rotating each of the limbs
D. Asking them to stand up and run to assess their reaction times
10. Which technique can help you manage an adult victim’s airway while doing
rescue breaths?
A. Pressure Immobilisation Technique
B. Head tilt and chin lift. ( TRUE )
C. The recovery position
D. Holding the tongue
11. Where should you place your hands for chest compressions?
A. On the upper half of the casualty’s chest
B. In the middle of the casualty’s chest. ( TRUE )
C. On the lower half of the casualty’s chest
D. Two fingers from the base of the sternum
12. What is the rhythm of CPR?

A. 15 compressions and 2 breaths at the rate of 100 compressions per minute
B. 15 compressions and 2 breaths (5 cycles every 2 minutes)
C. 30 compressions and 2 breaths at the rate of 100 compressions per minute. ( TRUE )
D. 30 compressions and 2 breaths (5 cycles every 2 minutes)
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13. How deep should you do compressions with CPR?
A. 1/3 the depth of the chest with each compression. ( TRUE )
B. 1/2 the depth of the chest with each compression.
C. 5cm the depth of the chest with each compression.
14. If your rescue breaths do not make the chest rise as in normal breathing, then
you should:
A. Recheck that there is adequate head tilt and chin lift. ( TRUE )
B. Stop giving rescue breaths, do chest compressions only.
C. Not attempt more than two breaths each time before returning to chest
compressions.
15. There are 2 steps in priorities of first aid. They are:

A. Survey the scene and conduct the primary survey
B. Conduct the primary survey and secondary survey. ( TRUE )
C. Survey the scene and conduct the secondary survey
16. What is the speed of the chest compressions?

A. 80 per minute
B. 60 per minute
C. 120 per minute
D. 100 per minute. ( TRUE )
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CHAPTER 2 – MANAGEMENT OF ILLNESSES
PHAN I.
1. What is the correct management of total obstruction choking for a conscious
adult?
A. Chest thrusts only
B. Black blows only
C. 5 chest thrusts followed by 5 back blows
D. 5 back blows followed by 5 chest thrusts. ( TRUE )
2. The recognition of shock includes

A. Slow, deep breathes
B. Slow, strong pulse
C. Pale, clammy skin. ( TRUE )
D. Flushed, dry skin
3. The management of shock includes

A. Heat the casualty
B. Keep the casualty upright
C. Lay them down with the head raised
D. Lay them down with the legs raised. ( TRUE )
4. Someone suffering from a heart attack would likely have

A. Flushed and dry skin
B. Pale and cold sweaty skin. ( TRUE )
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C. Pale and dry skin
5. A casualty suffering from a heart attack will complain of pain

A. In the jaw, back and shoulders
B. In the centre of the chest
C. Down the arm/arms
6. Your colleague is complaining of breathlessness and a tight pain in the chest.

You suspect him to have a heart attack. What should you do?
A. Get him to lay down flat
B. Get him to sit down with the legs raised
C. Encourage him to stand up and move around slowly
D. Sit him in a comfortable position. ( TRUE )
7. Management of a casualty with a suspected heart attack or angina includes

A. Walking around to encourage circulation
B. Treating for shock, lying down with legs raised
C. Lying in a recovery position
D. Resting and positioning in a comfortable posture (sitting upright). ( TRUE )
8. How do you help someone who is choking and cannot breathe?

A. Ask them to drink a glass of water
B. Ask them to do a handstand
C. Hit them firmly on the back between the shoulder blades. ( TRUE )
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D. Encourage them to breathe through their nose
9. If someone is suffering from hypoglycemia, what would you give them?

A. A sugar free drink
B. A yogurt or a diary snack
C. A sugary drink or snack. ( TRUE )
D. Put them to bed to sleep it off
10. A person suffering from shock should normally be

A. Placed half sitting
B. Placed on their back with the head raised
C. Walked to aid poor circulation
D. Placed on their back with the legs raised. ( TRUE )
11. What should you do to help someone who’s having an asthma attack?
A. Help the person sit in a comfortable position and take medication. ( TRUE )
B. Help the person sit in a comfortable position and breathe into a paper bag
C. Advise the person to do some stretches and run around the block
D. Advise the person to lie down and take a rest
12. If someone is having a diabetic emergency, what should you do?

A. Give them a low-calorie drink like diet coke.
B. Follow Basic life support flow chart. ( TRUE )
C. Give them bread or pasta.
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D. Assist him to inject insulin.
13. Where would a person having a heart attack most likely feel pain?
A. In their chest. ( TRUE )
B. In their lower abdomen
C. In their legs
D. In their head
14. How can you help someone who is having a seizure?

A. Tie them tightly
B. Put something in their mouth
C. Restrain them
D. Keep them safe from injury. ( TRUE )
15. If you think someone is having a stroke, you must use the F.A.S.T. system.
What do the letters in F.A.S.T. stand for?
A. Fingers Arms Speech Time
B. Face Arms Speech Time. ( TRUE )
C. Feet Arms Speech Time
D. Fingers Armpits Speech Talk
16. Which of the following is correct in the recognition of a faint?

A. An abnormal pulse
B. A fast pulse
C. A slow pulse. ( TRUE )
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D. A normal pulse.
17. How can you help a passenger who is choking on some food and can’t speak,
breathe or cough it up?
A. Put your fingers down his/her throat to try to dislodge the obstruction
B. Do CPR immediately
C. Ask him/her to drink water and perform abdominal thrusts
D. Give him/her up to five back slaps between his/her shoulder blades. ( TRUE )
18. What is the management of a conscious casualty who has diabetes and low
blood sugar?
A. Give water
B. Give sugar. ( TRUE )
C. Give insulin
D. Give nothing
19. What will you do first if you notice a passenger choking on a piece of steak?
A. Grab the person from behind, clasp your hands in front of his/her chest and
squeeze hard
B. Sit the person down and firmly push on his/her chest
C. Encourage the person to lean forward and try to cough up the steak. ( TRUE )
D. Rub the person’s back and offer him/her a drink of alcohol
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20. Which of the following are the indications of an anaphylaxis (severe allergic
attack)?
A. Swollen feet
B. Earache
C. Sensations around the tongue and lips, swelling and difficulty breathing. ( TRUE )
D. Hiccups
21. After giving back slaps and chest thrusts to a conscious choking victim and the
foreign object hasn’t come out, you should:
A. Ask the victim to cough.
B. Keep repeating back slaps and chest thrusts. ( TRUE )
C. Start CPR immediately.
22. A man was sitting quietly for a long time. He suddenly stood up and collapsed
on the aisle. He felt nausea and had numbness in his fingers, his skin was pale,
cool and moist. What would you do?
A. Lie him down and elevate his legs. ( TRUE )
B. Help him get back to his seat.
C. Turn him onto a lateral recovery position.
23. A passenger had choking due to eating hurriedly, his face became red and he
coughed continuously. What would you do?
A. encourage the victim to cough in an attempt to expel the foreign object. ( TRUE )
B. give the victim up to 5 sharp back slaps.
C. give the victim up to 5 chest thrusts.
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24. What is the most prominent symptom of a heart attack?
A. Profuse sweating.
B. Pale skin.
C. Chest pain. ( TRUE )
D. Difficulty in breathing.
25. A passenger has diabetes. He also suffered a stroke a year ago. You find him
lying on the floor and unconscious. What should you do?
A. Report to the Purser to have urgent advice.
B. Lift up his head and try to give him a sugary drink.
C. Follow the basic life support flow chart. ( TRUE )
D. Inject him with insulin by yourself.
26. What would you do to care for the victim of seizure?

A. Move any objects that might cause injury. ( TRUE )
B. Try to hold the person still.
C. Place a spoon between the person’s teeth.
D. Try to keep the person upright.
27. A passenger fell from a chair when he tried to take something from the
overhead locker. You found him to have a weak, rapid pulse and cool, pale skin.
What would you do?
A. Rub the victim’s hands and feet to assist circulation.
B. Offer the passenger a cup of hot, sweet tea.
C. Lie him down, elevate his legs and maintain body temperature. ( TRUE )
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D. Sit him upright while reassuring him.
28. A student fainted in a first aid class. She was pale and cold but conscious.
What would be your immediate action?
A. Place the student in a recovery position and monitor ABC.
B. Take her out of the room to get some fresh air.
C. Offer her a hot drink.
D. Lie her down and elevate her legs. ( TRUE )
29. How should you assist an asthma victim to use his puffer (asthma
medication)?
A. Give 4 puffs of aerosol, ask victim to breathe in and out 4 times after each puff. ( TRUE )
B. Give 4 puffs of aerosol without delay.
C. Give 4 puffs of aerosol, 4 back slaps between his shoulder blades after each puff.
D. Give 4 puffs of aerosol, 4 chest thrusts after each puff.
30. A seven-year-old girl was chocking on a piece of Lego. She could no longer
cough and was now gasping for air. What would be your immediate action?
A. Grab her around the lower ribs and squeeze her.
B. Tell her to lie down and slap her on the back.
C. Perform sharp back slaps, and then chest thrusts. ( TRUE )
D. Do CPR.
31. Which of the following statements is true?

A. All asthma victims wheeze.
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B. When you care for a seizure, do not try to place anything between the person’s teeth. ( TRUE )
C. You should give rescue breaths to a conscious casualty who is choking.
D. A person who is hyperventilating should breathe in and out of a paper bag.
32. A person sitting in a chair looks pale and complains about severe chest pain.
What would you do?
A. Rest the person on the side and report to the captain.
B. Make sure the person is resting in a comfortable position and call for medical assistance then
report to the captain. ( TRUE )
C. Offer the victim some of your indigestion tablets.
D. Position the victim for CPR.
33. You are called to assist a person having a seizure. What should you do first?
A. Protect the victim from injury and, as soon as possible after seizures, place on the side to manage
the airway. ( TRUE )
B. Hold the victim firmly, as you can slow down or stop a seizure from occurring.
C. Place a soft object between his teeth to prevent biting the tongue.
D. Ask another passenger to hold the victim’s limbs while you are squeezing a
lemon into his mouth.
34. A woman was having heavy bleeding. She looked pale and complained about
her thirst. She asked for a glass of water. What would you do?
A. Bring her a cup of hot tea.
B. Not give her anything to eat or drink. ( TRUE )
C. Give her a can of Coke.
D. Give her something to eat instead.
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35. You are called to provide first aid for a passenger. He is unable to explain his
problem and is pale and shaky. You notice he is wearing an SOS medallion which
states that he is a diabetic patient. What should you do?
A. Follow the basic life support flow chart. ( TRUE )
B. Search his bag for his insulin.
C. Place him in a recovery position.
D. Bring him a glass of diet Coke.
36. How do you manage the airway of a seizure victim?

A. Place a thick object, such as a rolled blanket, under the victim’s head.
B. Position the victim on the side as soon as possible after seizure. ( TRUE )
C. Move the victim to a sitting position.
D. Splash the person with water.
37. How can people prevent anaphylaxis happened?

A. Avoid areas where insects may be suspected
B. Avoid taking drugs or foods which are known to cause anaphylaxis
C. Avoid perfume, lotions… that attract insects
38. A passenger’s face, lips, tongue and hands are beginning to swell up after
eating peanuts. His pulse is rapid, weak and he complains of chest tightness. You
find that he is wearing a medical alert bracelet of allergy. What will you do?
A. Look for his adrenaline auto-injector.
B. Help him in the sitting position if he has difficulty breathing.
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C. Assist him to self-administer his adrenaline auto-injector.
39. While you are checking the cabin, a passenger collapses nearby, then begins
to convulse. What will you do?
A. Promptly turn the casualty onto his side
B. Tell bystanders to move out of the way while you are protecting the casualty from injury. ( TRUE)
C. Restrain the casualty’s limbs to avoid injury.
40. What is seizure?

A. A disturbance of the electrical activity within the brain. ( TRUE )
B. A disturbance of the electrical activity within the heart.
C. A disturbance of the electrical activity within the nerves.
D. None of them are correct
41. Epilepsy is a common brain disorder characterized by recurrent seizures.

A. True => ( TRUE )
B. False
42. Which of the following is the correct management of seizure?

A. Restrain victim from moving
B. Place objects into their mouth to prevent the victim biting their tongue
C. Protect the victim from injury by removing all surrounding obstacles. ( TRUE )
D. Remove their outer clothing.
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43. How do you help a person who has a seizure after their jerking movements
have stopped?
A. Turn the victim into a recovery position and regularly check ABCs until consciousness returns.
( TRUE )
B. Let them lie on their back position and give gentle reassurance.
C. Help the victim regain their memory by telling them what had happened to them
earlier.
D. Ask them to take medicine for seizure.
44. Which are common causes of an asthma attack?

A. Changes in the weather, allergies or nervous tension. ( TRUE )
B. Allergies, chest pain or stomachache
C. Infections, overdose or heart failure
D. Blood loss, earache or too much exercise
45. Which of the following is NOT allowed to apply in the management of heart
attack?
A. Leave the victim unattended. ( TRUE )
B. Loosen any constricting clothing around the neck, chest and waist.
C. Rest the victim and give reassurance.
D. Be prepared for possible sudden unconsciousness.
46. Which of the following is the correct recognition of a heart attack?

A. A 'sudden' onset of tight pain or discomfort across the chest. ( TRUE )
B. A ‘slow’ onset of pain across the chest
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C. Swollen legs and ankles
47. What are common signs and symptoms of heart failure?

A. Shortness of breath or trouble breathing
B. Fatigue and rapid pulse
C. Swollen legs and ankles
48. Which of the following are signs and symptoms of stroke?

A. Sudden weakness in the face, arm, or leg, especially on one side of the body
B. Sudden confusion, trouble speaking, or difficulty understanding speech
C. Sudden severe headache with no known causes
49. Which of the following should be used to assess a stroke?

A. FAST system. ( TRUE )
B. Pay-off principle
C. RICE principle
50. Which of the following signs and symptoms are most likely to indicate the
victim is having shock?
A. Cold, pale and sweaty skin
B. Rapid, weak pulse and shallow breathing
C. Complaint of thirst and dizziness
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51. Which of the following is the correct management of a shock victim?
A. Lie the victim down and elevate the legs. ( TRUE )
B. Give the victim some food or drink
C. Overheat the victim with a blanket
52. Which of the following is NOT the correct management of a fainting victim?
A. Assist victim to lie down, raise the legs and keep the head and upper body flat
B. Loosen any tight clothing
C. Give reassurance and comfort to victim as they recover
D. Give victim food or drink. ( TRUE )
53. What can cause anaphylaxis?

A. Bee sting venom. ( TRUE )
B. Mosquito bites
C. Pressure
D. Head injury
54. What position would you put someone in if they felt faint?
A. The recovery position
B. The prone position
C. Lying on their back position with their legs raised. ( TRUE )
D. The half sitting position
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55. Which of the following is the correct management of partial obstruction
choking for adults?
A. Slap them on their back
B. Encourage them to cough the obstruction out themselves. ( TRUE )
C. Give them up to 5 back-slaps
D. Give them up to 5 chest thrusts
56. What is the common recognition of partial obstruction choking?

A. Coughing spasms. ( TRUE )
B. Unable to breathe, speak or cry out.
C. Gripping of throat.
D. Agitation.
57. Which of the following is the correct position to give back slap for an infant?
A. Sit down and hold the infant across your upper legs in the face-down position
with their head at the same level of their bottom.
B. Sit down and hold the infant upright with the head facing you.
C. Lay the infant down on the floor.
D. Sit down and hold the infant across your upper legs in the face-down position with their head
lower than their bottom. ( TRUE )
58. Which of the following may indicate a baby is chocking totally?

A. They are coughing and crying.
B. They are red-faced and making gurgling sounds.
C. They have a pale face and their breathing is slow.
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D. They are struggling to breathe and not making any sound. ( TRUE )
59. Which of the following may help to force a blockage out of the airway?
A. Encourage them to take a deep breath.
B. Give back slaps. ( TRUE )
C. Give them sips of water
D. Give them medicine
60. During the back slap, why is it ideal to hold the baby in the face-down position
with their head lower than their bottom?
A. It is the safest position for carrying out the technique.
B. In this position, gravity may help to force the object out. ( TRUE )
C. This position helps to keep the brain supplied with blood.
61. What is anaphylaxis?

A. A type of cancer. ( TRUE )
B. A severe allergic reaction
C. A kind of virus
D. A dead tissue
62. Where are auto-injectors placed to inject Adrenaline into?

A. The muscle of the mid outer thigh. ( TRUE )
B. A vein of the forearm
C. The buttocks
D. The upper arms
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63. When someone has an anaphylaxis reaction, what should you do right away?
A. Inject them with adrenaline which in the EMK
B. Give them a sugar drink
C. Assist the victim to self-administer his/her medication and call for medical help. ( TRUE )
64. What can you do to prevent anaphylaxis reactions?

A. Eating all kinds of food to get familiar with allergies
B. Taking a small amount of adrenalin everyday
C. Avoiding all foods that you are allergic to. ( TRUE )
D. Taking in a lot of fluids daily
65. Which of the following factors may cause shock?

A. A sudden change in posture
B. A clot blocking the blood to an area of the brain
C. Emotional upset
D. Serious bleeding. ( TRUE )
66. Which of the following management should NOT be used for fainting?
A. Giving reassurance and keep the victim warm
B. Positioning the victim ‘bent down’ with head between their knees. ( TRUE )
C. Lying the victim down, raise the legs and keep the head and upper body flat
D. Checking any bleeding injuries
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67. The management of shock includes
A. Giving the victim food or drink
B. Laying the victim down with the head raised
C. Checking and controlling any bleeding injuries. ( TRUE )
D. Giving the victim a spoon of honey
68. What is common recognition of shock?

A. Slow and deep breathes
B. Rapid and, weak pulse. ( TRUE )
C. Pale and dry skin
D. Limb weakness
69. How do you help someone who is choking and cannot breathe normally?
A. Ask them to drink a glass of water
B. Ask them to do a handstand
C. Hit them firmly on the back between the shoulder blades. ( TRUE )
D. Encourage them to breathe through their nose
70. What should you do when a child is screaming and coughing forcefully due to
a blockage in her airway?
A. Give abdominal thrusts
B. Slap her on the back until she coughs up the object
C. Encourage her to continue coughing. ( TRUE )
D. Lower him to the floor, check for and remove an object if it is visible at the back
of the throat
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71. What should you do when a child is conscious but unable to cough, talk or
breath due to a blockage in her airway?
A. Encourage her to cough and talk by slapping on her back
B. Check the scene, breathing and pulse
C. Give 5 quick, upward abdominal thrusts
D. Lean the person forward and give 5 back slaps with the heel of your hand. ( TRUE )
72. If you suspect that your choking baby’s airway is closed off because her throat
has swollen shut, what should you do right now?
A. Give her 5 back slap and 5 chest thrusts. ( TRUE )
B. Inform the captain immediately
C. Encourage her to try to dislodge the object
D. Do CPR
73. Arrange in the correct order of the procedure for managing a conscious infant
who is choking and cannot cry, cough or breathe?
1. Carefully position the infant face-down on your forearm
2. Give 5 chest thrusts by two fingers
3. Carefully position the infant face-up on your forearm
4. Give 5 back slaps between the infant’s shoulder blades with the heel of your
hand
A. 1 4 3 2 => ( TRUE )
B. 3 2 1 4
C. 1 2 3 4
D. 3 4 1 2
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74. What can cause anaphylaxis?
A. Some kinds of foods
B. Insect stings and bites
C. Certain medications
75. It is advisable to inject the Epinephrine into .........?

A. Forearm
B. Abdomen
C. Vein
D. Thigh. ( TRUE )
76. Signs and symptoms of a heart attack may include

A. Heavy pain in the chest
B. Fatigue / Dizziness
C. Nausea / Vomiting
77. An eight-year-old child is unconscious and the airway is blocked but you
cannot remove the foreign bodies by hand. You should
A. Give abdominal thrusts
B. Begin CPR. ( TRUE )
C. Clear the airway by giving a strong and full breath
D. All of the above
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78. A stroke (cerebro-vascular accident) occurs when the blood supply is
disrupted to the
A. Brain. ( TRUE )
B. Heart
C. Lungs
79. A child is hot and convulsing. You should NOT

A. Over cool the child
B. Put anything into his mouth
C. Forcibly restrain the child
80. If a person has a seizure, your first priority is to

A. Protect the person from any danger. ( TRUE )
B. Place the person in the recovery position
C. Time the seizure
D. Forcibly restrain the person from moving
81. A seizure may continue for several minutes. When it stops, you should
A. Sit the victim upright, leaning forward
B. Keep the victim conscious to ensure the airway is open and clear
C. Place the victim in the Recovery Position. ( TRUE )
D. All choices are correct.
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82. Diabetic hypoglycemia or low blood sugar is often caused by
A. Over eating
B. Administering too much sugar
C. Drinking too much water
D. Missing a meal or over exercising. ( TRUE )
83. Some of the signs and symptoms of hyperglycemic or high blood sugar are
A. Hot, dry skin
B. Complaining of extreme thirst
C. Fruity odor smell on their breath
84. When you care for a choking infant, what position is the infant held in?
A. Upside down by the ankles and shoulders
B. Face up on a flat surface
C. Face down on your forearm with head lower than the body. ( TRUE )
D. Face down on your knee, with head lower than the body
85. A victim goes into diabetic shock, what would you do?
A. Give him a diet drink of any kind
B. Ask him where his insulin is and give him a shot
C. Do not give him any food or drink
D. Make him comfortable; give him a non-diet drink or something with sugar in it ( TRUE )
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86. A man is having a heart attack, he has medication with him, what should you
do?
A. Give the medicine to him placing it under the tongue
B. Assist him with the medicine, call for help and reassure him. ( TRUE )
C. Call for help, place medicine in mouth and begin CPR
D. Have the victim lay down and call for help
87. A victim has lost a lot of blood through a deep cut in his leg. He is breathing
fast and seems pale and restless. He is probably….
A. Having a stroke
B. Having a heart attack
C. In shock. ( TRUE )
D. Choking
88. Which would you do when caring for a seizure victim?

A. Remove nearby objects that might cause injury. ( TRUE )
B. Place a small object, such as a rolled up piece of cloth, between the victim’s teeth
C. Try to hold the person still
89. Where is the carotid artery located?

A. Inside the wrist just above the hand
B. On the neck to the right or left of the windpipe. ( TRUE )
C. Behind the kneecap
D. Inside the arm between the elbow and shoulder
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90. When helping an unconscious choking victim, you would give an adult ____
back blows and ____ chest thrusts. For an infant you would give ____ back blows
and ____ chest thrusts.
A. 3,3,3,3
B. 5,5,3,3
C. 5,5,5,5 => ( TRUE )
D. 3,5,5,3
91. Which is NOT a symptom of shock?

A. Strong thirst, nausea, or vomiting
B. Chest or abdominal pain, breathing difficulty. ( TRUE )
C. Restless or irritability
D. Rapid breathing or rapid pulse
92. A middle-aged man suddenly becomes distressed. He appears to be choking

and points to his throat. He cannot speak and his face is turning blue.
A. Reassure him and offer him a glass of water
B. Encourage him to cough to help dislodge the obstruction
C. Begin CPR
D. Lean him forward and give up to 5 back blows between the shoulder blades. ( TRUE )
93. For a partial choking episode you

A. Encourage the victim to cough to help force the obstruction out. ( TRUE )
B. Apply sharp back blows to help dislodge the obstruction
C. Apply abdominal thrusts to help dislodge the obstruction
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94. A man with a history of angina has chest pain. He has taken two doses of his
medication however after 10 minutes of rest, the pain persists. What should you
do?
A. Closely monitor his progress
B. Reassure the victim
C. Call for medical assistance
95. A victim with asthma should be managed

A. Sitting upright, leaning forward to assist with breathing. ( TRUE )
B. In the recovery position
C. On their back
96. The first aid management of anaphylaxis includes

A. Calling for help and reassuring the victim
B. Assisting the patient to self-administer their adrenaline auto-injector
C. Being prepared to commence CPR if victim stops breathing
97. Which of the following is associated an anaphylactic reaction?

A. Nausea / vomiting
B. Skin redness / itchiness
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C. Breathing difficulty / chest tightness
98. What are some of the signs and symptoms of shock?

A. Cold, pale sweaty skin. Rapid breathing
B. Anxiety, restlessness and confusion
C. Drowsiness and possible unconsciousness
99. What is the best position for a conscious victim suffering from shock?
A. Sitting up
B. In the recovery position
C. Standing up
D. In a position of comfort, ideally lying down. ( TRUE )
100. What should you do for someone with a mild allergic reaction?
A. Monitor them in case anaphylaxis develops. ( TRUE )
B. Wash the affected skin area and apply cream
C. Douse the area in vinegar
D. Bandage over the affected skin area
101. Which of the following are true in relation to a severe anaphylaxis?

A. It can involve more than one body system
B. It may have a rapid onset
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C. It is potentially life-threatening
102. What should you do if someone feels unwell, has a constant heavy pain in
the center of the chest, is dizzy and short of breath?
A. Wait an hour to see if the pain goes away
B. Suspect a heart attack and call for medical help immediately. ( TRUE )
C. Assume they have bad indigestion and give them milk
D. Encourage them to lie down with legs elevated
103. What should you do if a victim is in shock?

A. Keep them warm and monitor closely. ( TRUE )
B. No treatment is required
C. Sit them up so their heart rate returns to normal
D. Remove the victim’s clothing and fan them
104. What is the first aid treatment for someone having a convulsive seizure?
A. Place any hard item across their mouth immediately
B. Place victim in recovery position when jerking stops. Do not restrain or put anything in their
mouth. ( TRUE )
C. Restrain the victim to stop them moving
105. A man has sudden weakness down one side and slurred speech. What should
you do?
A. Immediately seek medical assistance, comfort and monitor him closely. ( TRUE )
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B. Lie them down and seek medical assistance if the symptoms don’t go away
C. Place them on their front and clear the airway
D. Raise their arms above their head and check their vision
106. You notice that a person has experienced a significant amount of blood loss,
has pale skin color, and is becoming confused. What is most likely the cause?
A. Seizure
B. Stroke
C. Low blood sugar
D. Shock. ( TRUE )
PHAN II.
1. During a heart attack, the casualty will usually experience a pain
A. In the centre of the chest. ( TRUE )
B. In the back of the hand
C. Down the left leg
D. In the abdomen
2. If someone has a seizure, how can you best assist them?

A. Restrain them from moving or ‘fitting’
B. Remove all objects around them to avoid injury. ( TRUE )
C. Sit next to them and calmly reassure them
D. Pour some cold water on their face to make them aware you are nearby
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3. What is the correct management of a choking infant (under 12 months)?
A. Alternate back blows with abdominal thrusts
B. Give him/her up to 5 back slaps with up to 5 chest thrusts. ( TRUE )
C. Give him/her chest thrusts only
D. Give him/her back blows only
4. How should you treat a child who is having a faint?

A. Give them a glass of cold water or milk
B. Put them in a recovery position and call for an ambulance
C. Sit them down for 5 minutes
D. Lay them down with their legs raised. ( TRUE )
5. While eating dinner, a passenger suddenly started to cough and make high-
pitched noises. What would you do?
A. Give the passenger back slaps immediately.
B. Give the passenger chest thrusts immediately.
C. Encourage the passenger to continue coughing to try to dislodge the object.
D. Help the passenger to lie down. ( TRUE )
6. A woman collapsed on the aisle. She appeared confused, had difficulty

speaking and she could not raise her right arm. What would be your immediate
action?
A. Reassure and rest her in a position with head and shoulders raised and call for medical
assistance. ( TRUE )
B. Lie her down and raise her legs.
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C. Put her into a recovery position and cover her with a blanket.
D. Check her consciousness.
7. A man was having an asthma attack. He had difficulty breathing and got very
anxious. While reassuring the casualty, you would:
A. Give him firm back slaps to assist his breathing.
B. Leave him alone and go to report to the captain.
C. Place him in a recovery position, loosen tight clothing to assist breathing.
D. Sit him upright and assist him to take his own prescribed asthma medication if available. ( TRUE)
8. A passenger is suffering from hypoglycaemia (low sugar level). He has weak,

rapid pulse and develops cold, pale and moist skin. What should you do?
A. Give him a glass of water.
B. Give him a sugary drink or chocolate. ( TRUE )
C. Give him an insulin inject.
D. Give him reassurance only.
9. What is the correct recognition of a diabetic with low sugar levels?

A. Cold, pale and moist skin. ( TRUE )
B. Increase in urine output
C. Drowsiness
D. Thirst and dry skin
10. What is the correct recognition of a diabetic with high sugar levels?
A. Cold, pale, moist skin.
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B. Dry skin. ( TRUE )
C. Rapid pulse.
D. Mental confusion.
11. What should you do for management of shock?

A. Give reassurance
B. Control bleeding injuries
C. Lay them down with legs raised
12. To manage a suspected heart attack, the best position for the victim is
A. In the recovery position
B. In a position of comfort, generally sitting upright, supported and leaning forward. ( TRUE )
C. Walk around to help reduce the pain
D. Lie on their back
13. The F.A.S.T. is an easy way to remember the most common signs of stroke.
FAST stands for
A. First Aid, Airway, Send for Help, Tongue
B. Face, Arm, Speech, Time. ( TRUE )
C. Faint, Allergy, Shock, Transient Ischaemic Attack
14. To correctly and effectively administer Asthma reliever medication you

A. Give 2 separate puffs followed by 2 breaths and wait 2 minutes
B. Give 2 separate puffs followed by 4 breaths and wait 4 minutes
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C. Give 4 separate puffs followed by 4 breaths and wait 4 minutes. ( TRUE )
D. Give 1 separate puff followed by 1 breath and wait 4 minutes
CHAPTER 3 – MANAGEMENT OF INJURIES

PHAN I.
1. What is assessment of burns based on?
A. The total surface of burn areas
B. The depth of burn areas
C. All choices are correct. ( TRUE )
2. How to recognize a superficial burn?

A. Reddened area
B. Blisters
C. Swelling and pain
3. What is a correct action of managing burns?

A. Immediately cool the affected areas with cold running water for up to 20 minutes. ( TRUE )
B. Apply any ointments, butter or powders
C. Do not cover the affected area
D. Remove anything sticking to the skin
4. What is the “Rule of nines” on assessing the surface of burn areas?

A. Dividing the body into surface areas of 9%. ( TRUE )
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B. Dividing the body into surface areas of 18% for an adult
C. Dividing the burn areas into 9%
D. Dividing deep burn parts of the body into 9%
5. How to extinguish a fire on a passenger body?

A. Ask the victim to remain in the seat and pour water over him to put out the fire
B. Ask the victim to “Stop, drop and roll” if there is spacious or use wet blanket to cover the body
from the neck downwards. ( TRUE )
C. Run as fast as possible
D. Hold the patient firmly
6. What is an immediate action for caring a chemical burn to eye?

A. Immediately irrigate the eye with cold running water for at least 30 minutes. ( TRUE )
B. Close your eye for a few minute
C. Rub the affected eye immediately
7. What is the important warning before managing any patient of electric shock?
A. Remember to switch off the power source first. ( TRUE )
B. Firstly, stay at least 6 metres away from live wires in dry conditions
C. Stay at least 9 metres away in wet or damp conditions
D. Keep bystanders clear of the incident
8. In which ways, may poisons enter into your body?

A. Digestion and injection only
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B. Digestion, inhalation, absorption and injection. ( TRUE )
C. Inhalation and absorption only
9. What is your response in case a child reports to you he has been bitten by a
snake?
A. Believe him as the site may not always be obvious to the human eye. ( TRUE )
B. Apply a tourniquet for a snake bite
C. No need to response the situation
D. Ask if he can walk
10. What actions are NOT allowed in managing a snake bite?

A. Wash the venom off the bitten area. ( TRUE )
B. Immediately rest, calm and reassure the victim
C. Apply a firm broad elasticized (10-15cm) or crepe bandage over the area of the
bite
D. Apply bandages and mark the area of the bite site with either a pen/marker or
with a small snip of the bandage.
11. What is a preferable action in managing snake bites?

A. Walk the patient.
B. Bandage 'upwards' from below the bite. ( TRUE )
C. Remove the bandage at any stage
D. Apply a tourniquet
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12. Which of the following insects can lead to allergic reactions?
A. Bees
B. Ants
C. Wasps
13. What is a poison?

A. Any substance enters into the body
B. Any food or drink causing allergies
C. Any substance can harm or threaten life. ( TRUE )
14. Which statement is correct while you care for cold burns?
A. Quickly heat the affected area by using direct heat from heating pads, radiator
or fires
B. Apply cream or ointment to any areas with blisters
C. Immediately rewarm the affected area by skin to skin heat transfer: place a frozen hand against
the face or in the armpit. ( TRUE )
D. Rub or massage the affected area then apply dry and sterile dressings
15. How to manage the amputated part?

A. Place the amputated part into a clean plastic bag, seal that bag and float it in a container of icy
water. ( TRUE )
B. Wash the amputated part, place it into a clean plastic bag and seal it
C. Place the amputated part directly into ice
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16. A corrosive chemical has spilled on a passenger and you find his/her lower
arm and hand red and swollen. You should first:
A. Remove the chemical by lemon.
B. Put a sterile dressing over the burn site.
C. Flush the burn with cold running water for at least 20-30 minutes. ( TRUE )
D. Have the victim remove contaminated clothes.
17. What can you do if there is a particle on the white section of the eye?
A. Only use irrigation to remove the object
B. Gently lift the particle off using a moistened cotton bud or the corner of a clean
moistened
18. Victims with internal bleeding injuries should NOT be given any food or drink
because
A. They may vomit and their airway may be blocked by their own vomit.
B. They may need urgent surgery
C. Food and drink may cause choking hazard
19. What can you do if the patient is bleeding from inside the ear?
A. Plug the ear with cotton pad.
B. Apply ointments or eardrops into the ear.
C. Lightly cover affected side with a sterile/clean dressing. ( TRUE )
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20. What is the key principle to good fracture management?
A. Immobilise the fracture bones by a splint
B. Stop movement of the fracture bone
C. Check circulation of the affected area.
21. What kind of sling can you apply for rib/collarbone/shoulder blade fracture?
A. An arm sling
B. An elevation sling. ( TRUE )
C. All choices are correct.
22. What kind of sling you apply for forearm fracture?

A. An arm sling. ( TRUE )
B. An elevation sling
C. All choices are correct
23. What would you do if the patient gets jaw fractures?

A. Assist the patient to support their own jaw with one or two hands. ( TRUE )
B. Assist them into a recovery position if the patient develops severe nausea or
vomiting
C. Apply compression bandages
24. When managing a person who has inhaled a poison. You should
A. Give water to help dilute the poison
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B. Carefully assess for dangers to ensure that you are not also affected. ( TRUE )
C. Encourage him/her to vomit
25. When the spinal cord is damaged, there may be

A. Loss of sensation or tingling and burning feelings
B. Loss of bladder or bowel control
C. Loss of control or weakness of the limbs and all movement may be absent
26. Which of the following are signs of a head injury?

A. Loss of memory
B. Blurred, double vision and headache
C. Drowsiness, confusion, agitation, irritability, seizures
27. In general, a splint should be….

A. Loose so that the victim can still move the injured limb
B. Fitting closely but not so tight that it slows circulation. ( TRUE )
C. Tied with wide strips over the injured area
28. A 15-year-old boy has just splashed a chemical on his face. After sending for
help, you would….
A. Cover the burned area loosely
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B. Have the victim stay calm until medical assistance arrives
C. Flush the burned area with large amounts of cool water. ( TRUE )
D. Immediately wash the victim’s face with soap and water
29. A victim has a large piece of glass sticking out of her leg. You should….
A. Leave the glass in her leg and control the bleeding. ( TRUE )
B. Remove the glass and then control the bleeding
C. Leave the glass in her leg and closely observe if he/she is in shock
D. Reassure the victim to ease anxiety and decrease the pulse rate
30. What is the correct method when you care for an amputated body part?
A. Place the amputated part directly into ice
B. Place the amputated part directly in chilled water
C. Keep the amputated part in a clean plastic bag, seal the bag, place it in cool water and add ice if
possible. ( TRUE )
D. Place the amputated part in a refrigerator
31. A passenger is holding his arm and you notice a piece of metal embedded.
You need to
A. Apply pressure bandage on the object
B. Build up padding around the object. ( TRUE )
C. Use tweezers to remove the object
D. Flush the wound with water and bandage it
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32. When giving care for external bleeding, what should you do first?
A. Elevate the injury
B. Apply direct pressure. ( TRUE )
C. Apply a loose dressing
33. A victim has clothing stuck to her burnt skin. You should
A. Carefully pull it away from the burnt area
B. Carefully cut around the stuck clothing. ( TRUE )
C. Soak the burn in water until clothing is removed
34. A victim has sustained a severe burn. You should FIRST

A. Apply ice to help rapidly cool the area
B. Cool the burn with running water for at least 20 minutes. ( TRUE )
C. Apply burn cream to help reduce the pain
D. Elevate the burn and apply a loose bandage
35. What is the immediate management for a chemical burn to the eye?
A. Open eyelids and flush with warm water for 20 minutes
B. Keep eyelids closed and flush with warm water for 20 minutes
C. Open eyelids and flush with cool running water for at least 20 minutes. ( TRUE )
D. Open eyelids and flush with cool running water for less than10 minutes
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36. For a large embedded object in the eye, you should first
A. Flush the eye gently with water to help remove the object
B. Cover the injury with a light pad and bandage
C. Remove the object to prevent further damage
D. Leave the object in place; gently placing padding around it. ( TRUE )
37. What should you do when caring for a victim who has an object impaled in
their hand?
A. Remove the object, flush with cool water and control bleeding
B. Immobilize the object by placing several dressings around it. ( TRUE )
C. Break object off where it sticks out, and bandage injury
38. When caring for a victim with a bloody nose, you would…
A. Have the victim lie down and apply an ice pack to the forehead
B. Have the victim sit up and let the blood out at least 10 minutes
C. Have the victim sit with head tilted slightly backward while pinching the nostrils
together
D. Have the victim sit with head tilted slightly forward while pinching the nostrils together. ( TRUE )
39. When caring for a victim who has a large burn on their forearm, you should…
A. Use large amounts of cool water to cool the burn. ( TRUE )
B. Use ice or ice water to cool the burn
C. Remove any cloth that has stuck to the burn and apply burn cream
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40. A dislocated finger should be
A. Quickly relocated back into place
B. Provided with RICE technique and Immobilized the finger. ( TRUE )
C. Pressure Immobilized
41. Sprains / Strains / Dislocations are best managed by

A. Application of the RICE technique. ( TRUE )
B. Application of heat
C. Cold running water
42. You may suspect that a victim has been poisoned if they….
A. Are experiencing nausea, vomiting or diarrhea
B. Have chest or abdominal pain, breathing difficulty
C. Burns around the lips, tongue, or on the skin
43. Which should be part of your care for a severely bleeding open wound?
A. Allowing the wound to bleed for a while in order to minimize infection
B. Applying direct pressure and elevating the injured area
C. Using a tourniquet to stop all blood flow
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44. Which is the first step when you care for bleeding wounds?
A. Apply direct pressure with a clean or sterile dressing. ( TRUE )
B. Apply pressure at the pressure points
C. Add bulky dressings to reinforce blood soaked bandages
D. Elevate the wound
45. You have tried to control a victim's bleeding with direct pressure and
elevation, but the bleeding cannot stop. What should you do next?
A. Use a tourniquet to stop blood flow immediately
B. Apply as many bandages as possible to stop bleeding
C. Apply pressure at the pressure point at most 10 minutes. ( TRUE )
46. Dressing and bandages are used for….

A. Reducing the victim's pain
B. Reducing internal bleeding
C. Helping control bleeding and preventing infection. ( TRUE )
D. Making it easier to take the victim to the hospital
47. Which symptoms would indicate internal bleeding?

A. Rapid weak pulse, excessive thirst
B. Skin that feels cool or moist or looks pale or bluish
C. Tender, swollen, bruised, or hard areas of his body, such as the abdomen
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48. What would you do if a victim had a body part torn or cut off?
A. Wrap severed body part in sterile gauze
B. Place severed body part in a clean plastic bag
C. Put the plastic bag with severed body part in icy water
49. Soft tissue wounds should be cared for by

A. Applying heat and elastic bandages
B. Applying ice and elevation. ( TRUE )
C. Using a splint and keep the wounds from movement.
50. What do you do for a chemical burn?

A. Flush with water, dry it, and cover it carefully and loosely
B. Flush with large amounts of water up to 10 minutes and bandage it tightly
C. Flush with large amounts of warm water to remove materials sticking on it
D. Flush with large amounts of cool water at least 20-30 minutes. ( TRUE )
51. Signals of head and spine injuries are

A. Blood or other fluids in the ears or nose
B. Weakness, incoordination or loss control in any part of your body
C. Numbness or loss of sensation in your hands, fingers, feet or toes
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52. A girl indicates that she has been bitten by a snake, what should you do?
A. Apply ice to the wound and take the blood in the injured area out
B. Immobilize the victim, keep injured area lower than the heart and apply a pressure bandage over
the bite. ( TRUE )
C. Suck the poison out, immobilize the affected area and apply ice
D. Elevate injured area and apply ice and a pressure bandage
53. Snakebites can be very serious. When caring for a snakebite victim, what
should you do?
A. Wash the wound and attempt to remove the venom
B. Apply ice directly on the snakebite
C. Remain bitten part still and below the heart level to keep venom from spreading. ( TRUE )
D. Use a tourniquet to stop all blood flow from the snakebite to the heart
54. When treating a sprain or strain, the RICE method stands for:
A. Rest, Ice, Compression, Examine
B. Rest, Ice, Compression, Elevation. ( TRUE )
C. Review, Isolate, Cover, Elevate
D. Relax, Ice, Cover, Elevate
55. What is the best way to stop external blood loss?

A. Apply direct pressure over the wound. ( TRUE )
B. Use the Pressure Immobilization Technique
C. Use lots of band aids
D. Wrap the wound in plastic
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56. What should you do if a known diabetic becomes confused, sweaty, light
headed and dizzy, but is conscious?
A. Restrain them from moving
B. Give them some high energy foods, sugar or honey if they can safely swallow. ( TRUE )
C. Wait 9 minutes before commencing treatment
D. Ignore them, it will pass
57. If a victim suffers a significant or severe burn, what should you do?
A. Immediately cover the burnt area with butter cream
B. Cool the burn with water for at least 20 minutes, cover the burn and seek medical assistance.
( TRUE )
C. Encourage the victim to walk around to take their mind off the pain
58. If you saw someone holding their hands to their throat, turning blue in the
face and unable to speak, what do you suspect?
A. They are choking and possibly have a life-threatening airway obstruction. ( TRUE )
B. They are really cold and trying to get warm
C. They ate something hot that took their breath away
D. They were stung on the neck by a wasp
59. How do you treat someone who is choking and can’t talk or breathe?
A. Apply the Pressure Immobilization Technique
B. Provide 5 back blows, no chest thrusts
C. Give no back blows but 5 chest thrusts
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D. Conduct 5 back blows followed by 5 chest thrusts alternatively until object is forced out. ( TRUE)
60. If an object is embedded in the eye, it should

A. Be removed immediately
B. Be flushed with water
C. Only be removed by a medical professional. ( TRUE )
D. Have eye ointment applied
61. How do you treat someone you suspect has a neck or spinal injury?
A. Handle extremely carefully and try to maintain spinal alignment at all times. ( TRUE )
B. Rotate the head to assess where the pain is
C. Bandage from the forehead to the chest to immobilize
D. Elevate the feet
62. Your check of the scene suggests that a victim has suffered an electrical shock.
The first thing to do is…
A. To cover all burns with a dry loose dressing
B. To ask a bystander to help you move the victim
C. To place the victim on one side with the head down
D. To make sure the power is turned off. ( TRUE )
63. What should be your first concern at the scene where a person has been
seriously burned?
A. Checking the scene for safety. ( TRUE )
B. Checking the victims breathing and pulse
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C. Calling for medical care
D. Cooling the burned area
64. What is the first thing you should do for someone you suspect has an electrical
burn?
A. Check for breathing and a pulse
B. Check to see if electricity is turned off. ( TRUE )
C. Check for severe bleeding
D. Check for shock
65. One of your friends has cut his arm and is bleeding severely. How do you treat
his injury?
A. Put the injured limb in cold water
B. Apply direct pressure over the wound. ( TRUE )
C. Give him an aspirin
D. Leave the injury open until it stops bleeding
66. In case of frostbite, what water temperature is suitable to soak the injured
parts?
A. Very cold water
B. Water from cold water tap
C. Warm water (under 42°C) => ( TRUE )
D. Running water
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67. What first aid management should be provided for a snake bite?
A. Apply a tourniquet
B. Cut the wound with a sterile knife and encourage bleeding
C. Suck out the venom
D. None of the mentioned situations. ( TRUE )
68. What should be done for an embedded foreign object in a wound?

A. Remove it as soon as possible
B. Leave it in place and build up dressing around it. ( TRUE )
C. Remove it after 10 minutes
D. Remove it when the wound stop bleeding
69. For a casualty with a chemical burn to one eye, how should a sterile dressing
be applied?
A. Never use a dressing on eye injuries
B. Lightly pad an injured eye. ( TRUE )
C. Cover both eyes
70. Someone has suffered an electric shock from a power tool. You are unable to
isolate the electricity at the mains, which of the following should be used to move
the power tool away?
A. Your bare foot
B. A metal object
C. A wet piece of wood
D. A dry broom handle. ( TRUE )
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71. If a dressing cannot control the bleeding, what should you do?
A. Take it off and try again
B. Apply as many dressings as you have
C. Leave the first pad in place, apply another pad and bandage over the first. ( TRUE )
72. After being cooled, a burn should be treated by

A. Covering with a loose dressing. ( TRUE )
B. Covering with a tight dressing
C. Leaving uncovered
D. Covering with an antiseptic cream then dressed
73. If you are unable to control bleeding using direct pressure and elevation, you
could
A. Apply pressure to a pressure point. ( TRUE )
B. Apply a tourniquet
C. Apply as many dressings as you have
74. The treatment for both sprains and strains includes:

A. Raise, immobilise, conforming bandage, examine
B. Rest, ice, compression bandage, elevate. ( TRUE )
C. Rest, immobilise, comfort, elevate
D. Raise, ice, comfort, examine
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75. Which of the following is INCORRECT for managing a dislocation?
A. Reassure the casualty
B. Reset the dislocation. ( TRUE )
C. Seek medical help
D. Support and immobilise the injury
76. Which of the following is INCORRECT for managing a fracture?

A. Reassure the casualty
B. Treat for shock
C. Move limbs to their natural position. ( TRUE )
D. Dress the wounds
77. If someone has a suspected collar bone dislocation, what should you do?
A. Ask them to raise their hands above their head
B. Support and immobilise the shoulder in the most comfortable position for them. ( TRUE )
C. Leave it for 24 hours and see if the pain reduces
D. Support their shoulder by putting their hands in their pockets
78. How can you provide assistance to someone who has been burnt with boiling
water?
A. Run the burn under cold running water. ( TRUE )
B. Wipe the burn with alcohol wipes
C. Wrap the burn in cling wrap or a clean plastic bag
D. Apply cream or ointment to the burn
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79. Which item is the best to apply to head injury with swelling?
A. Cold running water
B. Heat pack
C. Band-aid
D. An ice pack. ( TRUE )
80. How should you treat a child that has swallowed a corrosive substance?
A. Give him/her sips of milk, water or spoonfuls of ice cream. ( TRUE )
B. Make him/her vomit as soon as possible
C. Sit him/her down, report to the Purser and send for medical assistance
D. Make him/her walk around to keep him/her awake and make an announcement
for medical assistance
81. How should you treat a child who appears to have a broken arm?
A. Flood the arm in cold water to reduce swelling
B. Tightly bandage the arm to reduce swelling and call for medical assistance
C. Support and immobilize the arm, reassure the child and call for medical assistance. ( TRUE )
D. Wait for 30 minutes to see if pain subsides – it may only be a sprain
82. Which of the following should you apply to a dislocated finger?

A. Rest it for a few days to allow healing
B. Put it back "in place" by yourself as soon as possible
C. Put it back "in place" by yourself after a few days
D. Use the R.I.C.E. principles and immobilize it. ( TRUE )
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83. How can you stop external bleeding?
A. Apply RICE – Rest, Ice, Compression and Elevation
B. Apply direct or indirect pressure to the wound. ( TRUE )
C. Run the wound under water
D. Immobilize the wound
84. If someone is bleeding from a wound, what can you do to help them?
A. Let the blood drain out
B. Put pressure on the injury. ( TRUE )
C. Tie a tourniquet above the injury
D. Put some salt on it to stop bleeding
85. What should you do if you think someone has a broken leg?
A. Ask them to lean on their leg to check if it is painful
B. Help them support and immobilise their leg using a blanket or some clothing. ( TRUE )
C. Leave it for a while to see if the pain gets better
D. Help them to put a pressure bandage on the broken leg
86. What is the most important thing you should do to help someone who has a
burn?
A. Wrap the burn in cling film or a clean plastic bag
B. Apply some ointment on the burn
C. Wipe the burn with antiseptic wipes
D. Cool the burn under cold running water. ( TRUE )
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87. Which item below would be the best thing to apply to a head injury to reduce
swelling?
A. A bag of ice wrapped in cloth. ( TRUE )
B. A wet cloth
C. A can of soft drink
D. All of the three above
88. What information should you gather if you think a person has swallowed
poison or taken a harmful substance?
A. What they have taken, when and why
B. What they have taken, when and where
C. What they have taken, when and how much. ( TRUE )
D. What they have taken, where and why
89. Which of the following is the management for nose bleeding?

A. Tilt head forward. ( TRUE )
B. Tilt head backward
C. Tilt head on the left side
D. Tilt head on the right side
90. What can you do with the injury to reduce swelling and pain?
A. Wrap ice in a towel and apply it to the injury
B. Elevate the swelling part
C. Never place ice directly on the skin because it’s too cold
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91. How would you manage a deep, bleeding cut on the palm of the hand?
A. Hold the injured hand under running water
B. Apply direct pressure to the cut, elevate the arm, then bandage the entire hand. ( TRUE )
C. Apply a pressure immobilisation bandage to the arm
D. Apply a tourniquet bandage to the arm
92. Management of the external bleeding includes:

A. Apply (direct or indirect) pressure
B. Elevate the injured part and apply a pressure bandage
C. Immobilise the injured part (using a sling).
93. In a long flight, you see a passenger having a nose bleeding. You would:
A. Sit him upright with head slightly forward.
B. Ask him to pinch the soft part of the nose for 10 minutes.
C. Apply cold packs to back of his neck and to his forehead.
94. A man fell from his seat while climbing up to take something from the
overhead locker. You found his ear bleeding. What would you do?
A. Assist the patient to sit or lie in a position with the head tilted towards the injured side and lightly
cover the injured ear with a sterile dressing. ( TRUE )
B. Apply pressure bandage to the affected ear to stop bleeding.
C. DO NOT plug the ear as this may allow pressure to build up within the skull and
let the blood drain freely.
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D. Apply an ice compress to the affected ear.
95. Management of the scald burn includes:

A. Breaking blisters.
B. Applying an ice compress.
C. Cooling the area with cold running water. ( TRUE )
D. Applying some ointment, butter or powders.
96. Some corrosive chemical splashes into a passenger’s eye. You should
immediately
A. Irrigate his affected eye with cold running water. ( TRUE )
B. Instruct the passenger to rub his eyes.
C. Cover both eyes.
D. Check the name of the corrosive chemical.
97. You are called to assist a person who has an electrical burn but is still
conscious. You should:
A. Immobilise the affected areas.
B. Cool the burnt areas with cold running water. ( TRUE )
C. Apply some ointment to the burnt areas.
D. Cool the burnt areas with an ice pad.
98. How would you manage a frostbite?

A. Rewarm the affected areas by skin to skin heat transfer or use warm water under 42°C. ( TRUE)
B. Rub or massage the affected areas.
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C. Rewarm the affected areas by dry or radiant heat.
D. Let the patient with a defrosted foot walk.
99. A passenger has had diarrhea due to contaminated food. While monitoring
his airway and breathing, you would:
A. Advise him to take as much water as he can.
B. Give him a sip of water to wash out his mouth. ( TRUE )
C. Give him something to eat.
D. Not give him anything to eat or drink.
100. You are called to assist a person who has accidently drunk a burning
substance. You will:
A. Dilute the substance with small regular sips of milk, water or spoonful of ice cream. ( TRUE )
B. Induce the victim to vomit.
C. Advise him to take as much water as he can.
D. Don’t do anything, wait for medical assistance.
101. During survival at sea, many passengers get sunburned. Cabin attendants
should:
A. Cool burnt areas with cold running water only.
B. Give frequent small drinks of clear fluids.
C. NOT apply any ointments, oils, toothpaste, etc. on the affected areas
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102. A passenger fell down on the cabin aisle, you found that he had teeth
misalignment and jaw dislocation. You would:
A. Ask the patient to support his jaw with one or two hands. ( TRUE )
B. Use the ‘pressure immobilization technique’ to support the jaw.
C. Lie the patient in the recovery position.
D. Assist the patient to sit up and lean forwards to drain any blood.
103. The care for electrical burns includes:

A. Cover the burnt areas
B. Follow the basic life support flow chart.
C. Cool the burnt areas with cold running water for 20 minutes
104. You should suspect a fracture or a dislocation if:

A. You saw severe swelling and discoloration.
B. The area was significantly deformed.
C. The victim is difficulty/impossible to move the injured part.
105. You are not sure whether an injury is a fracture or a sprain. How would you
manage such a situation?
A. Immobilise as if it is a fracture and call for medical assistance. ( TRUE )
B. Apply a cold pressure and a compression bandage.
C. Apply a warm pressure and a compression bandage.
D. Encorage the victim to move the injured part in order to identify a fracture
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106. On a long-haul flight, you saw a passenger having nose bleeding. You would:
A. Sit him with his head forward to allow the blood to drain and apply cold packs to
the back of neck.
B. Sit him down with his head well forward and pinch the soft part of the nose for 10 minutes.
( TRUE)
C. Sit him down with his head back and pinch the soft part of the nose for 10
minutes.
D. Give him a cold drink.
107. The aircraft experienced severe turbulence, a victim with blood seeping from
his ear has been found, you should:
A. Loosely cover the ear with a sterile dressing. ( TRUE )
B. Do nothing; this is a normal finding in a head injury.
C. Collect the fluid in a sterile container for analysis.
D. Pack the ear with sterile dressing to prevent further fluid loss.
108. In caring for the victim of inhaled poison, you should:

A. Be sure the area is safe for you to enter.
B. Remove the victim from the source of the poison if it is safe to do so.
C. Give oxygen as soon as possible.
109. If a bleeding wound has a piece of glass embedded in it, you would:
A. Carefully remove the glass to avoid further damage.
B. Apply pressure around the glass to control bleeding. ( TRUE )
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C. Apply pressure on top of the wound to control bleeding.
D. Carefully remove the glass to avoid further damage and apply pressure on top
of the wound to control bleeding.
110. How do you care for the unconscious victim with a spinal injury?
A. Leave the victim on the position which he is found.
B. Turn the victim onto the HAINES recovery position carefully to maintain the airway opened.
( TRUE )
C. Keep the victim on his back.
D. Turn the victim onto the recovery position carefully to maintain the airway
opened.
111. How do you care for the wound?

A. Stop it from bleeding.
B. Bandage it.
C. Elevate it.
112. Your fingers have touched dry ice by accident and you’ve had a cold burn.
You will:
A. cool those fingers.
B. use your body temperature to warm those fingers. ( TRUE )
C. use fire to warm the cold burned area.
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113. The passenger’s hand gets burned from hot tea. What do you care for the
burn?
A. Apply ice to the burned area.
B. Apply toothpaste to the burned area.
C. Cool the burned area with cold running water. ( TRUE )
114. Your friend has fallen over during the time for a football match, he has
intense pain and a swelling on his right ankle. You should
A. Massage that area by using medicated oil.
B. Bandage it and apply a hot water pack.
C. Give a compression-bandage and apply an ice compress. ( TRUE )
115. If you are alone and your clothing catches fire, you will
A. Follow the simple guide to “Stop, Drop and Roll”. ( TRUE )
B. Run quickly to the nearest water tap.
C. Try to take off the clothes.
116. What will you do in order to care for the victim whose eye is burned by a
chemical?
A. Keep the cold running water flushing the effected eye. ( TRUE )
B. Cover the effected eye immediately.
C. Do not touch the victim until a doctor comes.
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117. You are called to care for the man who has a snake bite on his left leg, you
would immediately
A. Use the “pressure immobilization technique”. ( TRUE )
B. Tie at the upper area of the bite site to stop the venom’s movement.
C. Help him lie down and wait for the professional care.
118. How do you care for the sunburn?

A. Use water to cool the burn and protect the burned area from further damage by staying out of
the sun. ( TRUE )
B. Use oil or ointment to cover the burned area.
C. Apply ice to the burned area.
119. In caring for an electrical burn injury, you must first:

A. Remove the victim from the power source.
B. Conduct a primary survey.
C. Make sure the power source is turned off. ( TRUE )
D. Look for two burn sites.
120. When caring for an injury with an embedded object, you should:
A. Remove the object.
B. Allow the area to bleed freely.
C. Build up dressing around the embedded object to give an indirect pressure. ( TRUE )
D. Allow the area to bleed freely and stabilize the object in the position you find it.
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121. Signs and symptoms of a fracture include
A. Intense pain at the injury site
B. Deformity, loss of power, numbness and tingling sensations.
C. Tenderness, bruising, swelling, discoloration over or around the affected area
PHAN II.
1. What types of burns are considered serious?
A. Any deep burns, any superficial burn involving 9% for an adult and 5% for infants and children.
Burns to the hands and feet, armpits, genitalia, airway. ( TRUE )
B. Any deep burns, any superficial burn involving 9% for an adult and 1% for infants
and children. Burns to the hands and feet, armpits, genitalia, airway
C. Any deep burns, any superficial burn involving 9% for infants and children and
5% for an adult. Burns to the hands and feet, armpits, genitalia, airway
2. What is a WRONG action of managing scalds?

A. Call medical assistance unless the burn is very slight
B. Cover the affected area with a sterile dressing
C. Apply ice cubes over the scalds. ( TRUE )
D. If possible, remove constricting rings, bracelets etc. before swelling
3. What are the correct managements of electrical burns for a conscious patient?
A. After dangers have been controlled, cool the burnt area with cold running water for 20 minutes.
( TRUE )
B. Immediately perform CPR
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C. Use ointments or other topical medications
D. Remove all materials sticking on the burnt area.
4. What are the correct managements of cold burns (frostbite)?

A. Rub or massage the affected areas
B. Use water at no more than 42°C to rewarm an affected area. ( TRUE )
C. Use ointments or other topical medications.
D. Re-warm by dry or radiant heat.
5. Why should you cover burns with a clean or sterile dressing?

A. To prevent infection. ( TRUE )
B. To cool burned area
C. To keep the burned area warm
6. A hot water burn is managed immediately by

A. Applying cool running water for at least 20 minutes. ( TRUE )
B. Applying ice packs on the affected area about 20 minutes
C. Applying antiseptic cream on the affected area
7. How can you reduce the risk of disease transmission when caring for open and
bleeding wounds?
A. Wash your hands immediately after giving care
B. Avoid direct contact with blood
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C. Use protective barriers such as gloves or plastic wrap
8. For all cases of swallowing corrosive poison, you should

A. Dilute the substance with small regular sips of water. ( TRUE )
B. Suck the poison out
C. Induce vomiting
9. To control bleeding, what should you do?

A. Elevate the wound and apply a firm dressing. ( TRUE )
B. Raise the wound and apply a loose dressing
C. Keep the wound low for accessibility and dress the wound
D. Wash the injured part and apply a dressing
10. Treatment of a fracture includes

A. Leave the wound open so as not to put pressure on the injury
B. Straighten any leg fracture
C. Apply “pressure immobilisation technique”
D. Immobilise. ( TRUE )
11. If someone has been bitten by a snake, what can you do to assist him/her?
A. Apply the “pressure immobilisation technique”. ( TRUE )
B. Wash the wound with warm water
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C. Elevate the person’s limb
D. Put person into a recovery position
12. What first aid management should be provided for a person suffering from a
nose bleeding?
A. Ask the victim to sit with the head forward and nose pinched, apply cold packs to back of neck
and to the forehead if necessary. ( TRUE )
B. Ask the victim to sit with the nose plugged to avoid unnecessary blood loss
C. Ask the victim to sit with head back and nose pinched
D. Ask the victim to lie down with head tilted on one side
13. The managements of inhaled poisons include:

A. Remove the patient from the contaminated environment and give oxygen, if the patient is not
breathing, do CPR. ( TRUE )
B. Turn the patient onto the recovery position.
C. Lie the patient on his back and raise his legs.
D. Assist the patient to sit up and give water.
14. A victim has been saved from a fire. His eyes become red and irritated from
the smoke. You should:
A. Instruct the victim to rub his eyes.
B. Irrigate his eyes with either ‘eye stream’, sterile water or tap water. ( TRUE )
C. Close his eyes until they are no longer irritated
D. Help victim to wear sunglasses.
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15. A man has fallen from his seat while climbing to take something from the
overhead locker. You find he has an intense pain and a swelling in his left ankle.
You think it may be a sprain but you are not sure. What should you do?
A. Gently realign the left ankle.
B. Stop movement and immobilise the left ankle. ( TRUE )
C. Apply an ice compress as long as possible.
D. DO NOT attempt to immobilise or splint the injured ankle.
16. What are the meanings of R.I.C.E. in caring for soft tissue injuries?
A. Rest; Ice; Compression; Elevation. ( TRUE )
B. Response; Ice; Compression; Elevation.
C. Rest; Ice; Circulation; Elevation.
17. A finger has been amputated in an accident. The finger has been found,
bleeding is controlled and the victim is treated for shock. While waiting for an
ambulance you would:
A. Place the finger directly on ice.
B. Place the finger in a sealed bag surrounded by iced water and make sure the finger is transported
with the victim. ( TRUE )
C. Wash the finger thoroughly with soap and water.
CHAPTER 4: TYPICAL FLIGHT RELATED SICKNESS

PHAN I.
1. When caring for someone who is suffering from frostbite, you should NOT….
A. Soak effected part in warm water at no more than 42 degrees
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B. Rub firmly until skin appears red and feels warm. ( TRUE )
C. Handle area gently
D. Avoid breaking blisters
2. A boy has frostbite on his feet, what should you do?

A. Rub his feet firmly until feeling and color return
B. Apply hot moist towels to feet and message gently
C. Soak feet in warm water not more than 42 degrees Celsius, bandage with dry sterile dressing.
(TRUE )
D. Soak feet in cool water; rub feet gently until feeling and color return, then wrap
with sterile dressing
3. If a victim is dehydrated, you should:

A. Increase fluid intake. ( TRUE )
B. Give them aspirin
C. Induce vomiting
D. Apply a heat pack
4. What should you do if you recognise someone suffering from severe

hyperthermia (heat stroke)?
A. Call for medical help and cool the victim by the use of fanning, mist sprays and icepacks. ( TRUE)
B. Encourage them to have a sweet fizzy drink
C. Plunge them into an ice bath for an hour
D. Call for medical help and cover with a thermal blanket
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5. When you hyperventilate, you breathe:
A. too slowly and too shallowly.
B. too rapidly and too deeply.
C. too rapidly and too shallow. ( TRUE )
6. Which of the following is not proper first aid care for a victim with
hyperventilation?
A. Remain calm and assuring
B. Have the victim breathe into a paper bag. ( TRUE )
C. Transport the victim to an emergency room
D. Talk the victim into slowing the breathing rate
7. Hyperventilation may be identified by which of the following symptoms?

A. Light headed, short of breath, tingling lips and severe anxiety. ( TRUE )
B. Extremely high temperature and dehydration
C. Unable to move both legs
D. Extremely cold body temperature
8. How could you relieve ear pain resulting from pressure changes?
A. Encourage the person to swallow, drink water or yawn.
B. Blow the nose while pinching the nostrils shut and keeping the mouth closed.
9. To prevent from dehydration, you should

A. Drink plenty of fluids. ( TRUE )
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B. Drink alcohol when flying.
C. Drink coffee as much as you can.
10. If a newborn is not crying after being born, you should:

A. Wipe the baby with a towel to dry it, this action should stimulate the baby to cry. ( TRUE )
B. Slap it on its buttocks.
C. Start CPR immediately.
D. Flick the soles of its feet with your finger and start CPR immediately.
11. When providing care to a passenger who has airsickness, you would
A. Instruct the passenger to loosen tight clothing, remain still and quiet, apply a
cold pack on the neck and open the air vent
B. Instruct the passenger to loosen tight clothing, remain still and quiet, apply a
warm pack to the forehead
C. Instruct the passenger to loosen tight clothing, remain still and quiet, apply a cold pack to the
forehead and open the air vent. ( TRUE )
12. During descent, a passenger complains that her ears are very painful, you will
suggest her
A. Swallow, drink water or yawn
B. Blow the nose while pinching the nostrils shut and keeping the mouth closed.
C. Hold a hot water bottle wrapped in cloth or a heating pad against her ears.
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13. If the baby does not cry after being wiped off with a towel, you will
A. Wipe any mucous from the mouth and nose. ( TRUE )
B. Slap the baby on the back
C. Perform CPR
14. During descent, to assist a mother with a baby screaming because of ear pain,
you should suggest the mother
A. Feed the baby with milk or water. ( TRUE )
B. Put some wads of cotton wool in his/her ears
C. All are correct
15. Causes of airsickness may include:

A. Turbulence and/or fear
B. Too much eating or drinking.
C. Altitude.
16. The umbilical cord must be cut….

A. In case the aircraft may not landing soon, and the placenta has been delivered
for 20 to 30 minutes
B. In case the placenta has not been delivered by 30 minutes after the childbirth
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PHAN II.
1. Which of the following is a correct action to take when you cut the umbilical
cord?
A. Check to see that pulsation in the cord has stop.
B. Tie the cord firmly enough to stop blood flow through it.
C. Tie the cord in three places approximately 10 cm, 15cm and 25cm and cut
between the ties, leaving two ties on the baby’s side.
D. All mentions are correct. ( TRUE )
2. To assist a passenger suffering from hyperventilation, you should

A. Leave him alone, he will get well soon.
B. Provide him with a bag and instruct him to breath in and out with the bag cover
his mouth and nose.
C. Stay with the passenger, reassure and instruct him to breathe slowly. ( TRUE )
3. Which factor should be used to quickly assess the baby after delivered:
A. Skin colour (normal/blue/pale).
B. Cry (strong/weak).
C. Movement (strong/poor).
CHAPTER 5: GUIDANCE
PHAN I.
1. Concerning the dead passenger on board, what statement is FALSE?
A. List and keep all passenger’s belongings with the witnesses of the PIC. ( TRUE )
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B. Do not make announcement if unnecessary
C. Fill the form “ Passenger’s Health irregularity Report”
D. Move other passengers around him/her to other seats.
2. Concerning the dead passenger onboard, what actions the crew should take
A. After the flight, cabin crew will submit all relating documents to VNA Representative. ( TRUE )
B. After the flight, cabin crew must clean and sterile the cabin
C. After landing, the dead passenger should be the first one disembarked the
aircraft
D. After the flight, cabin crew will keep the passenger’s belongings and hand over
to Cabin Crew Division.
3. SERIOUS injuries or illnesses that happen on board may include

A. Nose bleeding
B. Laceration which causes muscle, nerve or tendon damage. ( TRUE )
C. Superficial burns affecting approximately 5 percent of adult body surface
D. Deep vein thrombosis
4. Where can you store sharps such as needles, surgical instruments, etc. after
use?
A. In a plastic bag.
B. In a container of medical waste.
C. In a needle disposal box in the emergency medical kit. ( TRUE )
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5. As regards in-flight emergency, which statement is FALSE?
A. Immediate access to advance medical care is limited
B. Cabin attendant are qualified to deal with all potential situations. ( TRUE )
C. If available, the medical professional will be asked to assess the patient and to
advise the crew
D. Cabin attendants are trained to provide first aid.
6. Who can assert that a passenger is dead on board?

A. The captain
B. The purser
C. A medical doctor or a nurse. ( TRUE )
7. The best location for a dead passenger during landing (period) is

A. A galley
B. A lavatory
C. A seat. ( TRUE )
8. When treating medical waste, CAs should NOT use the following items:
A. Needle disposal boxes
B. Water strength paper bags
C. Clearly labeled and heavy-duty plastic bags
D. Heat-resistant cooking gloves. ( TRUE )
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9. When choosing a diversion airfield, what must the PIC take into
considerations?
A. Commercial aspect
B. Medical aspect
C. Operational aspect
D. All of the mentioned aspects. ( TRUE )
10. When making diversion decision due to medical emergency on board, flight
crew should NOT
A. Obtain more information before making decision
B. Use time between first notification and the end of assessment to consider
diversion options
C. Make immediate decision upon receiving first notification from cabin crew. ( TRUE )
D. Consult with company operations.
11. A passenger is considered dead when:

A. A bystander tells you that the passenger is unconscious and not breathing.
B. A passenger’s sudden collapse is caused by a cardiac arrest.
C. A medical doctor or a nurse asserts that the passenger is dead. ( TRUE )
12. How should you deal with special cases such as deaths on board?
A. Make an announcement to all the passengers.
B. Leave the dead passenger in the nearest galley.
C. Leave the dead passenger in the nearest lavatory.
D. Place the dead passenger in a seat and keep his/her seat belt fastened. ( TRUE )
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PHAN II.
1. Passenger is considered dead when
A. A medical doctor or nurse states that he is dead. ( TRUE )
B. A first aider states that he is dead
C. The passenger is unconscious and has no breathing
D. The passenger has no sign of life
2. How to handle and store medical waste?

A. Place medical waste together with normal waste into the waste disposal bin.
B. Place all kinds of medical waste and surgical instruments into a plastic bag.
C. Place medical waste into suitable disposal boxes or bags, place them into containers of medical
waste and store them in a secure location. ( TRUE )
3. SERIOUS injuries or illnesses that happen on board may include

A. Fractures of fingers
B. Hyperventilation
C. Air sickness
D. Any burns affecting approximately 5% for children or 9% for adults of the body surface. ( TRUE)
CHAPTER 6: APPENDIX
PHAN I.
1. Which items can be found in the EMK?
A. Burn cream (Panthenol cream), face masks, gloves, steri-strips (equivalent
adhesive strip).
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B. Paracetamols, anti – diarrhea medication.
C. Bronchial dilators, mouth to mouth masks. ( TRUE )
D. Hand cleanser, thermometers, needle disposal boxes.
2. In which kits can a Bronchial dilator (Inhaler) for asthma attack be found?
A. FAKs.
B. The EMK. ( TRUE )
C. Both FAKs and the EMK.
D. None of them are correct.
3. In which kits can mouth to mouth resuscitation masks with a one-way valve be
found?
A. FAKs.
B. The EMK. ( TRUE )
C. Both FAKs and the EMK.
4. In which kits can burn cream be found?

A. No burn cream is supplied on board.
B. Any FAKs. => ( TRUE )
C. Only in the EMK.
D. Both in FAKs and the EMK.
5. When can Cabin Crew open and use medications or medical items in the EMK?
A. Ony when a doctor is present onboard
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B. When the captain allows them to do it. ( TRUE )
C. When the Purser allows them to do it
D. Any Cabin Crew can open it if necessary
6. Who will make a decision on opening and using the EMK?

A. The Captain. ( TRUE )
B. The Purser.
C. The doctor.
D. Any Cabin Crew members.
7. Who can make a decision on using the UPK?

A. The Captain.
B. The Purser. ( TRUE )
C. Any Cabin Crew members.
D. Both the Captain and the Purser.
8. Items in the UPK is used for:

A. Protecting the Cabin Crew members who directly contact suspected communicable diseases.
( TRUE )
B. All passengers and Cabin Crew onboard.
C. Protecting passengers from the other infectious diseases.
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9. What should cabin attendants concern when opening and using FAKs?
A. Only open the new FAK when there are not enough medications or medical items
in the used kit
B. Leave the rest of the strip with the expiry date so that it can be checked or
replaced when necessary
10. What should cabin attendants concern when opening and using the EMK?
A. Only open the EMK with the captain’s consent
B. Leave the rest of the strip with the expiry date so that it can be checked or
replaced when necessary
C. For special medication (Seduxen), collect empty tubes after use and return them
to the correct position.
11.What should cabin attendants concern when opening and using the UPK?
A. Only open the UPK with the Purser’s consent
B. Only open the new UPK when there are not enough items in the used kit
C. Use the UPK to clean up any potentially infectious body contents and to protect
the cabin crew from suspected communicable disease
12. How do the cabin crew check the FAKs and EMK before flight?
A. Check that the kits are in their correct locations
B. Ensure the kit seals if they are intact and blue
C. Replace the kits securely in their stowage
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13. How do the cabin crew check the UPK(s) before flight?
A. Ensure the lead seals if it is not broken
B. Check the kit seals if they are intact and blue
C. Open the kit to check the quantity of all items
14. After analyzing, what does an AED identify?

A. The injuries the victim has received
B. Whether to provide a shock to the victim or not. ( TRUE )
C. The victim’s blood pressure
D. Amount of oxygen in the victim’s blood
15. Why should a person in cardiac arrest be treated with an AED as soon as
possible?
A. It gives the victim the best chance of survival. ( TRUE )
B. It is least dangerous
C. It is the simplest thing to do
D. Using the AED is better than doing CPR
16. What does the AED Stand for?

A. Automated External Defibrillator. ( TRUE )
B. Automated Easy Defibrillator
C. Action for External Defibrillator
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D. Action for Easy Defibrillator.
17. What should the electronic pads of an AED be applied to?

A. On top of thin underwear
B. Very hairy skin
C. Dry skin. ( TRUE )
D. Moist skin
18. When applying the electronic pads of an AED to a victim, what should you do
if a victim’s chest is bathed in sweat?
A. Nothing special
B. Let his clothing remain on his chest
C. Put paper on chest and glue pads on top
D. Wipe the skin dry where you wish to place pads and skin area between the pads. ( TRUE )
19. When an AED is about to apply a shock, what should you do?
A. Hold the victim’s hand to reassure him
B. Keep the head tilt on with one hand
C. Stand clear from the victim. ( TRUE )
D. Call for medical help
20. You are treating a pediatric cardiac arrest patient. Where do you place the
AED adult pads on an infant?
A. Chest and back. ( TRUE )
B. Do not use an AED on an infant
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C. Upper chest and mid abdomen
D. Wherever they fit
21. Can cabin crew use the pocket mask in EMK with the captain’s consent and
there is not a doctor in the flight?
A. Yes. => ( TRUE )
B. No.
C. It depends on the flight time
22. Can cabin crew use the pocket mask in EMK if there is not a doctor in the
flight?
A. Yes, but with the captain’s consent. ( TRUE )
B. Yes, but with the chief purser’ consent.
C. No, only doctors or nurses are allowed to use items in the EMK.
D. All choices are incorrect.
23. How many emergency medical kits are installed on each aircraft?
A. 1 => ( TRUE )
B. 2
C. 3
24. Is it possible if the purser and his/her crew use medicine or medical articles in
the first aid kit to care for passengers without any medical assistance on board?
A. No
B. Yes => ( TRUE )
117
TEAM 5.03
25. Disposal gloves should be used by cabin crew members who are assisting
cases of suspected communicable diseases and can be found in:
A. The Emergency Medical Kit (EMK)
B. The Universal Precaution Kit (UPK)
C. The First Aid Kit (FAK)
26. Can you continue doing CPR while the AED is analyzing the heart rhythm?
A. Yes
B. No => ( TRUE )
27. What does AED stand for?

A. Anti-Epileptic Drug
B. Automated External Defibrillator. ( TRUE )
C. Automated Electronic Device
28. When using an AED to rescue a 5-year-old child who is unresponsive and not
breathing, what will you do if pediatric pads are not available?
A. Use only one pad as the child’s chest and torso are small.
B. Will not use the AED
C. Use adult pads for the child. ( TRUE )
29. While waiting for someone to get an AED, what should you do to help the
patient who is unconscious and not breathing?
A. Perform CPR => ( TRUE )
118
TEAM 5.03
B. Call for medical assistance
C. Dry the patient’s chest and shave excessive hair if necessary
30. While performing CPR, you hear the AED prompt: “DO NOT TOUCH PATIENT,
ANALYZING HEART RHYTHM” you should:
A. put your hands off the patient and wait for the next prompt. ( TRUE )
B. stop chest compression and start rescue breath
C. continue doing CPR
31. How is an AED checked before a flight to make sure it is in operation

conditions?
A. Check the rescue ready status indicator is green
B. Check the pad expiry date is valid
C. All are correct. ( TRUE )
32. When the patient becomes conscious and breathing normally, the AED
reminds you to stop doing CPR, you should:
A. remove the pads and reassure the patient
B. leave the pads on the patient’s chest connected to the AED. ( TRUE )
C. leave the pads on the patient’s chest but disconnect the pad connectors from
the AED
33. When the AED prompts: “SHOCK WILL BE DELIVERED IN THREE, TWO, ONE”,
you should:
A. Hold the patient tightly to protect him/her from injury.
B. ensure that no one is touching the patient. ( TRUE )
119
TEAM 5.03
C. check patient’s pulse rate
34. If the AED battery is installed properly and the AED is ready to use,
A. the rescue ready status indicator is green. ( TRUE )
B. the rescue ready status indicator flashes green
C. the rescue ready status indicator is yellow
PHAN II.
1. After using the FAK/EMK/UPK/AED, what shall purser do?
A. Record the red seal code in the logbook and sign the logbook
B. Seal the FAK/EMK/UPK/AED with the red seal.
C. State used or unused kits, quantity of medicines or medical items used in the
cabin defect log and sign it
2. Who makes a decision about using medicine or medical articles in the

emergency medical kit to care for passengers on board?
A. The captain => ( TRUE )
B. The purser
C. A medical doctor or a nurse
D. Any cabin crew members
3. Where should the AED pads be attached?

A. Both between the nipples
B. One on the chest and one on the back
120
TEAM 5.03
C. One under right collar bone and one on left side of chest, below the armpit. ( TRUE )
D. One on chest and one on the abdomen
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
DGR QUESTION BANK FOR CABIN CREW

1. Division 4.3 is
a. Dangerous When Wet => ( TRUE )
b. Combustible Material
c. Non-toxic gas
d. Toxic gas
2. Division 5.2 is
a. Organic Peroxide => ( TRUE )
b. Oxidizer
c. Toxic Substance
d. Dangers When Wet
3. Class 3 is
a. Flammable Solid
b. Flammable Air
c. Flammable Liquid => ( TRUE )
d. Flammable Gas
4. Class 2 refers to something as

a. Gas => ( TRUE )
121
TEAM 5.03
b. Liquid
c. Solid
d. Gel
5. Radioactive Material belongs to

a. Class 5
b. Class 6
c. Class 7 => ( TRUE )
d. Class 8
6. Substances that have corrosive components may belong to

a. Class 9
b. Class 6
c. Class 7
d. Class 8 => ( TRUE )
7. There are 3 Divisions in Class 4, they are

a. Gases, Toxic and Infectious substances
b. Flammable Liquid, Flammable Solid and Corrosives
c. Flammable Solid, Spontaneously combustible and Dangerous when wet ( TRUE )
d. Explosives, Gases, Flammable Solid

a. Flammable Solid, Spontaneous Combustible and Dangerous when wet
122
TEAM 5.03
b. Flammable gas, Non-flammable non-toxic gas and toxic gas ( TRUE )
c. Flammable gas, Flammable Liquid and Flammable Solid
d. Flammable gas, Toxic substance and Infectious substance

a. Oxidizer and Organic Peroxide ( TRUE )
b. Toxic Substance and Infectious substance
c. Dangerous when wet, Spontaneous Combustible
d. Oxidizer and Infectious substance
10.There are 2 Divisions in Class 6, they are

a. Oxidizer and Organic Peroxide
b. Organic Peroxide and Infectious substance
c. Oxidizer and Toxic substance
d. Toxic substance and Infectious substance ( TRUE )
11.List of DGR contains articles or substances that are approved by

a. International Civil Aviation Organization
b. International Aviation Transportation Association
c. United Nations ( TRUE )
d. United States of American
123
TEAM 5.03
12.Why are DGR still carried on the aircraft even though they are very dangerous?
It is due to some following reasons
a. commercial
b. time transport
c. distance
d. all mentioned ( TRUE )
13.Which of the following items are NOT permitted in or as carry on baggage?

Refer Table 2.3.A
a. Portable electronic devices
b. Hair curlers containing hydrocarbon gas
c. Ammunition, securely packaged (in Div. 1.4S, UN 0012 or UN 0014 only), in quantities not
exceeding 5 kg gross weight per person for that person's own use. ( TRUE )
d. Alcoholic beverages
14.Which of the following items are NOT permitted in or as carry on baggage?

Refer Table 2.3.A
a. Non-flammable, non-toxic gas cylinder
b. Mercury barometer or thermometer
c. Electro shock weapons ( TRUE )
d. Heat producing articles
15.Which of the following items are NOT permitted in or as carry-on baggage?

Refer Table 2.3.A
a. Carbon dioxide, solid (dry ice)
b. Insulated packagings containing refrigerated liquid nitrogen (dry shipper)
124
TEAM 5.03
c. Security-type attaché cases, cash box, cash bags ( TRUE )
d. Non-radioactive medicinal or toilet articles
16.Which of the following items need the approval of the operator? Refer Table
2.3.A
a. Ammunition, camping stoves. ( TRUE )
b. Alcoholic beverages under 70% alcohol and net quantity per person under 5L.
c. Non-radioactive medicinal or toilet articles.
d. Safety matches on one’s person.
2.3.A
a. Non-flammable, non-toxic aerosols in Division 2.2 with no subsidiary risk, for
sporting or home use.
b. Chemical Agent Monitoring Equipment, when carried by staff members of the Organization for
the Prohibition of Chemical Weapons on official travel. ( TRUE )
c. Non-radioactive medicinal or toilet articles.
d. Radioisotopic cardiac pacemakers for medical treatment.
2.3.A
a. Non toxic Aerosol in Division 2.2.
b. Clinical thermometer contains mercury.
c. Spare lithium metal or lithium ion cells for consumer electronic devices such as
cameras, cell phones…
125
TEAM 5.03
d. Mercury barometer or thermometer, carried by a representative of a government weather
bureau or similar official agency. ( TRUE )
19.Which of the following items need not the approval of the operator? Refer
Table 2.3.A
a. Thermometer, medical or clinical, which contains mercury, one (1) per person for personal use,
when in its protective case. ( TRUE )
b. Chemical Agent Monitoring Equipment.
c. Dry ice (carbon dioxide, solid), in quantities not exceeding 2.5 kg per person
when used to pack perishables.
d. None is correct.
Table 2.3.A
a. Heat producing articles such as underwater torches.
b. Lithium battery-powered electronic devices. Lithium ion batteries for portable
(including medical) electronic devices, a Wh rating exceeding 100 Wh but not
exceeding 160 Wh.
c. Safety matches or a cigarette lighter that does not contain unabsorbed liquid fuel. ( TRUE )
d. Camping stoves and fuel containers that contain a flammable liquid fuel.
Table 2.3.A
a. Dry ice (carbon dioxide, solid), in quantities not exceeding 2.5 kg per person
when used to pack perishables.
b. Heat producing article.such as underwater torches (diving lamps) and soldering
irons
126
TEAM 5.03
c. Ammunition (cartridges for weapons) not more than 5 kg.
d. Fuel cell systems powering portable electronic devices such as cameras, cell phones, laptop
computer… ( TRUE )
22.Which of the following items need not to be informed of their locations to PIC?
Refer Table 2.3.A
a. Consumer electronic devices containing lithium metal or lithium ion cells such as cameras,
laptop computer, camcorder… ( TRUE )
b. Oxygen or air, gaseous, cylinders required for medical use. The cylinder must not
exceed 5 kg gross weight.
c. Wheelchairs with spillable batteries.
d. Mercury barometer or thermometer. mercury filled carried by a representative
of a government weather bureau or similar official agency
23.Which the following items need not to be informed of their locations to PIC?
Refer Table 2.3.A
a. Wheel chairs with spillable batteries.
b. Security-type attaché cases, cash boxes, cash bags.
c. Dry ice (carbon dioxide, solid), in quantities not exceeding 2.5 kg per person when used to pack
perishables. provided the baggage (package) permits the release of carbon dioxide gas. ( TRUE )
d. All mentioned.
24.Which of the following items need to be informed of their locations to PIC?

Refer Table 2.3.A
a. Thermometer or barometer, mercury filled carried by a representative of a government
weather bureau or similar official agency. ( TRUE )
b. Non-radioactive medicinal or toilet articles.
127
TEAM 5.03
c. Alcoholic beverages.
d. Hair curlers containing hydrocarbon gas.
25.Which of the following items need to be informed of their locations to PIC?

Refer Table 2.3.A
a. Thermometer, medical or clinical, which contains mercury, one per person for
personal use, when in its protective case.
b. Safety matches or a cigarette lighter that does not contain unabsorbed liquid
fuel gas.
c. Wheelchairs with spillable batteries. ( TRUE )
d. Non-flammable, non-toxic aerosols in Division 2.2, with no subsidiary risk, for
26.Which of the following items are permitted on one’s person? Refer Table 2.3.A
a. Internal combustion or fuel cell engines,
b. Lithium Batteries: Security-type equipment containing lithium batteries
c. Matches, safety (one small packet). ( TRUE )
d. Ammunition, securely packaged
a. Security attaché cases, cash boxes, cash bags.
b. Camping stoves and fuel containers that have contained a flammable liquid fuel
c. Internal combustion or fuel cell engines.
d. Radioisotopic cardiac pace makers. ( TRUE )
128
TEAM 5.03
28.Which the following items are permitted on one’s person? Refer 2.3.A
a. Permeation devices.
b. Camping stoves and fuel containers that have contained a flammable liquid fuel
c. Thermometer, medical or clinical, which contains mercury, one (1) per person
for personal use, when in its protective case
d. None of the above. ( TRUE )
a. Internal combustion or fuel cell engines
b. Battery-powered wheelchairs or other similar mobility devices
c. Disabling devices
d. Safety matches, 1 small packet. ( TRUE )
30.Which of the following items are permitted on one’s person?

a. Small cigarette lighter that does not contain unabsorbed liquid fuel, other than liquefied gas,
intended for use by an individual. Lighter fuel and lighter refills are not permitted on one's person
or in checked or carry-on baggage. ( TRUE )
b. Thermometer, medical or clinical, which contains mercury, one (1) per person
for personal use, when in its protective case.
c. Security-type attaché cases, cash boxes, cash bags,
d. Baggage with installed lithium batteries non-removable batteries
31.Which of the following items are permitted in or as checked baggage? Refer

Table 2.3.A
a. Oxygen or air, gaseous, cylinders required for medical use. The cylinder must not
exceed 5 kg gross weight. (a)
129
TEAM 5.03
b. Aerosols in Division 2.2. (b)
c. (a) and (b) are correct. ( TRUE )
d. (a) and (b) are not correct.

Table 2.3.A
a. Avalanche rescue backpack, one (1) per person, containing a cartridge of
compressed gas in Div. 2.2.
b. Heat producing articles.
c. Ammunition (cartridges for weapons), securely packaged (in Div. 1.4S, UN 0012
or UN 0014 only), in quantities not exceeding 5 kg gross weight per person for that
person's own use.
d. All mentioned. ( TRUE )

Table 2.3.A
a. Lamp, Energy efficient light bulbs for personal or home use. ( TRUE )
b. Lithium batteries, spare/loose, including power banks.
c. Disabling devices.
d. Security-type attaché cases, cash box, cash bags.
34.Which of the following items are permitted in or as carry-on baggage? Refer

Table 2.3.A
a. Ammunition, securely packaged
b. Disabling devices.
c. Oxygen or air, gaseous, cylinders not exceed 5kg Gross weight for medical use. ( TRUE )
130
TEAM 5.03
d. Internal combustion or fuel cell engines.

Table 2.3.A
a. Thermometer or barometer, mercury filled carried by a representative of a
government weather bureau or similar official agency
b. All spare batteries, including lithium metal or lithium ion cells.
c. Alcoholic beverages, when in retail packagings, containing more than 24% but
not more than 70% alcohol by volume, in receptacles not exceeding 5 L, with a
total net quantity per person of 5 L.
d. All mentioned. ( TRUE )

Table 2.3.A
a. Camping stoves and fuel containers that have contained a flammable liquid fuel.
b. Lithium Batteries: Security-type equipment containing lithium batteries.
c. Portable electronic devices (PED) containing lithium metal or lithium ion cells or batteries
( TRUE )
d. Battery-powered wheelchairs or other similar mobility devices with non spillable
wet batteries
37.Which the following items are NOT permitted in or as carry-on baggage? Refer
Table 2.3.A
a. Non-flammable, non-toxic aerosols in Division 2.2, with no subsidiary risk, for
b. Avalanche rescue backpack, one (1) per person, containing a cartridge of
compressed gas in Div. 2.2.
131
TEAM 5.03
c. Chemical Agent Monitoring Equipment.
d. None is correct. ( TRUE )

Refer Table 2.3.A
a. Non-radioactive medicinal or toiletry articles.
b. Mercury barometer or thermometer.
c. Internal combustion or fuel cell engines ( TRUE )
d. Heat producing articles.

Refer Table 2.3.A
a. E-cigarettes (including e-cigars, e-pipes, other personal vaporizers) containing
batteries must be individually protected to prevent accidental activation.
b. Insulated packagings containing refrigerated liquid nitrogen (dry shipper), fully
absorbed in a porous material containing only non-dangerous goods.
c. Security-type attaché cases, cash box, cash bags. ( TRUE )
d. Non-radioactive medicinal or toilet articles.
40.A substance of class 3 may be

a. Corrosives
b. Explosives
c. Flammable liquids ( TRUE )
d. Radioactive material
132
TEAM 5.03
a. Flammable solids
b. Substances liable to spontaneous combustion
c. Substances which in contact with water emit flammable gases
d. All mentioned ( TRUE )

a. Toxic and infectious substances ( TRUE )
b. Gases
c. Oxidizing substances and organic peroxides
d. Corrosives

a. Explosives
b. Corrosives ( TRUE )
c. Miscellaneous dangerous goods
d. Radioactive material

a. Oxidizing substances (A)
b. Organic peroxides (B)
c. (A) and (B) are correct => ( TRUE )
d. (A) and (B) are NOT correct
133
TEAM 5.03
45.Cabin crew action after landing in case of DGR emergency response
a. Advise ground staff of DGR items
b. Advise where DGR are stowed
c. Make the appropriate entry in the maintenance log
46.How do cabin crew treat the seat cushions/cover absorbed DG items?

a. Cover seat cushions/covers with blanket and use the seat again
b. Just move the passenger to the available seat
c. Treat it in the same manner as dangerous goods item ( TRUE )
d. Do not remove seat cushions/covers, just make a sign to indicate that seat
occupied.
47.During dealing with the leakage of DG items, if the contents come in contact
with your body or clothes, what do you do?
a. wash off body with plenty of water
b. remove contaminated clothing
c. do not eat or smoke
d. all mentioned ( TRUE )
48.How many classes of DG are there?

a) 8
b) 9 => ( TRUE )
c) 7
d) 10
134
TEAM 5.03
49.How many types of DG Variations are there?
a) 2 and they are county variation and airline variation.
b) 2 and they are city variation and airline variation.
c) 2 and they are state variation and operator variation. ( TRUE )
d) 2 and they are country variation and shipping variation.
50.List of DG contains articles or substances that are approved by

a) International Civil Aviation Organization.
b) International Aviation Transportation Association.
c) United Nations. ( TRUE )
d) United States of America.
51.Why are DG still carried on the aircraft even though they are dangerous? It is
due to some following reasons
a) Commerce.
b) Transportation time.
c) Distance.
d) All mentioned. ( TRUE )
52.DG is only accepted to be carried by air when

a) it is CLASSIFIED, PACKED, LABELLED, and DOCUMENTED. => ( TRUE )
b) It is CLASSIFIED, PACKED, LABELLED.
c) It is CLASSIFIED, PACKED, LABELLED and INSTRUCTION MANUAL attached.
d) It is CLASSIFIED, PACKED, LABELLED and CATALOGUE attached.
135
TEAM 5.03
53.How is the passenger informed of the DG regulations?
a) notices at ticketing office.
b) notices at checking area.
c) notices at aircraft boarding and baggage claim areas.
d) all mentioned. ( TRUE )
54.According to VNA policy:

a) Each passenger is limited to a maximum of 15 PED for lithium ion batteries the
Watt-hour rating must not exceed 100 Wh, only in checked baggage.
b) Each passenger is limited to a maximum of 15 PED for lithium ion batteries the
Watt-hour rating must not exceed 100 Wh, only in carry-on baggage.
c) Each passenger is limited to a maximum of 15 PED for lithium ion batteries the
Watt-hour rating must not exceed 100 Wh, only with the approval of the VNA.
d) Each passenger is limited to a maximum of 15 PED for lithium ion batteries the Watt-hour rating
must not exceed 100 Wh, either in checked baggage or carry on baggage, no the approval required.
( TRUE )
55.State the VNA regulation for Lithium batteries, spare/loose with a Watt-hour
rating exceeding 100 Wh but not exceeding 160 Wh, when carried by one
passenger:
a) Maximum of 02 spare batteries in carry-on baggage only. ( TRUE )
b) Maximum of 02 spare batteries in checked baggage only.
c) Maximum of 10 spare batteries in carry-on baggage only.
d) Maximum of 02 spare batteries in carry-on or checked baggage.
136
TEAM 5.03
56.On VNA flight, When carrying battery-powered wheelchairs or other similar
mobility devices with lithium ion batteries (collapsible):
a) Lithium-ion battery must be removed and carried in the cabin and the pilot-in command must be
informed of the location. ( TRUE )
b) Lithium-ion battery must be removed and carried in the cabin without informing
of the location to the pilot-in-command.
c) The battery-powered wheelchairs is accepted in the cargo hold, no need to
remove the battery.
d) The battery-powered wheelchairs is accepted in the cabin, but the battery
removed and load in the cargo compartment.
57.On VNA flight, Mobility Aids: Battery-powered wheelchairs or other similar

mobility devices with non-spillable wet batteries:
a) Are permitted in or as carry-on baggage.
b) Are permitted in or as checked baggage and with the approval of the operator. ( TRUE )
c) Are permitted in or as checked baggage and without the approval of the
operator.
d) Are not accepted.
58.On VNA flight, Mobility Aids: Battery-powered wheelchairs or other similar

mobility devices with spillable batteries:
a) Are permitted in or as carry-on baggage and the PIC must be informed of the
location.
b) Are permitted in or as checked baggage, only with the approval of the operator, and the PIC
must be informed of the location. ( TRUE )
c) Are permitted in or as checked baggage and without the approval of the
operator. d) Are not accepted.
137
TEAM 5.03
THESE ANSWER MUST BE RIGHT – DGR
1. Which of the following classes have Divisions?
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1, 2 and 4
c. 1, 2, 4, 5 and 7
d. 1, 2, 4, 5 and 6 => ( TRUE )
2. According to VNA DGR training requirement, recurrent training is required

within…
a. 12 months => ( TRUE )
b. 24 months
c. 36 months
d. 6 months
3. How is the passenger informed of the DGR regulations?

a. Notices at ticketing office
b. Notices at checking area
c. Notices at aircraft boarding and baggage claim areas
4. Which of the following items are NOT permitted in or as carry on baggage?

Refer Table 2.3.A
a. Disabling devices ( TRUE )
b. Avalanche rescue backpack
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TEAM 5.03
c. Chemical Agent Monitoring Equipment
d. None is correct
5. Which of the following items need the approval of the operator? Refer Table
2.3.A
a. Fuel cell cartridges, spare for portable electronic devices.
b. E-cigarettes (including e-cigars, e-pipes, other personal vaporizers) containing
batteries must be individually protected to prevent accidental activation.
c. Lithium ion batteries with a Watt-hour rating exceeding 100 Wh but not more than 160 Wh for
electronic consumer devices. ( TRUE )
d. Gas cylinders, non-flammable, non-toxic worn for the operation of mechanical
limbs.
6. Which of the following items are permitted on one’s person? Refer Table 2.3.A
a. Ammunition (cartridges for weapon).
b. Camping stoves and fuel containers that contain a flammable liquid fuel.
c. Permeation devices.
d. Radioisotopic cardiac pacemakers or other devices, including those powered by lithium
batteries, implanted into a person or fitted externally ( TRUE )
7. Which of the following items are permitted in or as checked baggage? Refer

Table 2.3.A
a. Hair curlers containing hydrocarbon gas. ( TRUE )
b. All spare batteries, including lithium metal or lithium ion cells.
c. Safety matches or a cigarette lighter.
139
TEAM 5.03
d. Thermometer or barometer, mercury filled carried by a representative of a
government weather bureau or similar official agency
8. Dangerous goods in operator’s property may be

a. Slide/raft
b. First aid kit
c. Flares
9. Dangerous goods in operator’s property may be…

a. perfumes, alcoholic beverages carried for use or sale on board during flight (A)
b. emergency escape slide/raft (B)
c. (A) and (B) are correct => ( TRUE )
d. (A) and (B) are NOT correct
10.If an in-flight emergency happens, the initial action of cabin crew is…
a. to try to deal with the incident
b. to notify PIC => ( TRUE )
c. to cover the article or substance with blanket
d. to notify Chief Purser
11.If an in-flight emergency happen and there is fire, cabin crew will…
a. use standard procedure (A)
b. check use of water (B)
140
TEAM 5.03
c. (A) and (B) are CORRECT ( TRUE )
d. (A) and (B) are INCORRECT
12.In case of spillage or leakage of DGR during flight, which of the following step
cabin crew must do?
a. Protect themselves first by putting on rubber gloves, wearing smoke hood…. ( TRUE )
b. Collect the substance with bare hands
c. Use standard procedures for in-flight fire
d. Check use of water
13.During dealing with the leakage of DG items, if the contents contact your body,
one of thing you have to do is…
a. try to clean body with sterile clothing
b. keep hands away from eyes, mouth and nose ( TRUE )
c. drink a lot of water
d. try to eat or drink in order to avoid shock
14.DG is an article or a substance that may pose a risk to…

a) safety, health, property.
b) safety, health.
c) health, property, environment.
d) safety, health, property, environment. ( TRUE )
141
TEAM 5.03
15.On VNA flight, each passenger is limited to a maximum of:
a) 15 PED for lithium ion batteries the Watt-hour rating must not exceed 100 Wh, either in checked
baggage or carry-on baggage, no approval required. ( TRUE )
b) 10 PED for lithium ion batteries the Watt-hour rating must not exceed 100 Wh,
either in checked baggage or carry-on baggage, no approval required.
c) 20 PED for lithium ion batteries the Watt-hour rating must not exceed 100 Wh,
d) 02 PED for lithium ion batteries the Watt-hour rating must not exceed 100 Wh,
16.On VNA flight, small Lithium Battery Power Vehicles:

a) Are not accepted for carrying on VNA flight. ( TRUE )
b) Are only accepted in checked baggage with the approval of the operator.
c) Are accepted either in checked baggage or carry-on baggage.
d) Are only accepted in carry-on baggage.
142
TEAM 5.03

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CHAPTER 1: LIFE THREATENING MEDICAL EMERGENCIES AND CPR

4. An unconscious victim with spinal injury must be:

6. What should you NOT do when arriving at the scene of a collapse?

7. Your FIRST action at an emergency is to :

8. What does the ‘A’ stand for in the acronym DRSABCD?

10. When managing a victim you must:

15. What is the best method for assessing a victim?

17. How can you describe an unconscious person?

22. What is the purpose of the primary survey?

24. Aims of first aid do NOT include:

25. What are the effects of reassurance?

28. If you recognize a patient is unresponsive, you will immediately

29. The secondary survey on an unconscious breathing patient should be

30. Conscious injured patients should be treated as being spinal injured if

32. What is the best place on the body to feel/take a pulse?

33. What is the normal breathing rate for adults?

34. What is the purpose of checking sensation?

36. What is the purpose of the secondary survey?

38. What is the purpose of checking danger of the scene?

40. When can you clear a foreign object?

52. Where would you check the pulse on a 12-year-old boy?

53. When must you move a victim?

55. A first aid responder should move a victim when….

64. What is first aid?

65. What is the first step in managing a first aid situation?

66. How do you assist someone to be calm in a medical emergency?

69. What is the normal average pulse rate of an adult at rest?

70. A child’s pulse in comparison to an adult’s is

71. Which of the following is the most important in management of an

72. How do you check for breathing?

76. When should you stop doing CPR?

78. How would you check a person’s consciousness level?

80. When would you stop performing resuscitation on a victim?

83. What compression method should you use for an adult?

84. An infant is defined as a baby

85. What does CPR stand for?

86. What is the recommended chest compression to rescue breath ratio?

89. Where is the chest compression position on an adult?

90. How should chest compressions be performed on an infant?

91. What is the highly effective time for performing CPR?

92. CPR should only be performed on:

93. CPR can save lives.

94. Who can perform CPR?

95. The purpose of CPR is to:

96. To check if the victim is breathing, you should:

97. Which is INCORRECT CPR technique for an infant victim:

98. When should you stop CPR?

99. When giving rescue breaths to an unconscious adult, you should

102. Someone who has ‘no signs of life’ means he/she:

104. Which of these terms means ‘CPR’?

106. The purpose of performing CPR is to:

107. When would you stop performing resuscitation on a casualty?

112. Should you check breathing when performing CPR?

113. How do you check the consciousness of a victim?

116. A two-rescuer CPR means

119. When would you stop performing resuscitation on a victim?

4. The secondary survey includes the following steps:

7. How often do you make vital sign observations?

8. A passenger is unconscious and is breathing. You should position him:

9. What is the best method for assessing a victim?

12. What is the rhythm of CPR?

15. There are 2 steps in priorities of first aid. They are: