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Provisional Answer Key: Agm (Mech)
Provisional Answer Key: Agm (Mech)
Provisional Answer Key: Agm (Mech)
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(૧) ઉમેદવાર� વાંધા-� ૂચનો ર�ૂ કરવા વેબસાઇટ પર પ્રિસધ્ધ થયેલ િનયત ન� ૂનાનો ઉપયોગ કરવો.
(૨) ઉમેદવારોએ પોતાને પર�ક્ષામાં મળે લ સીર�ઝની પ્ર���ુ સ્તકામાં છપાયેલ પ્ર� ક્રમાંક �જ
ુ બ વાંધા-� ૂચનો
ર�ૂ ન કરતા તમામ વાંધા-� ૂચનો વેબસાઇટ પર પ્રિસધ્ધ થયેલ પ્રોિવઝનલ આન્સર ક�ના પ્ર� ક્રમાંક
ુ બ અને તે સંદભર્માં ર�ૂ કરવા
�જ
(૩) ઉમેદવારોએ ઉક્ત � ૂચના� ંુ અ� ૂક પાલન કર� ંુ અન્યથા વાંધા-� ૂચનો �ગે કર� લ ર�ૂઆતો ધ્યાને
લેવાશે નહ�.
M
PART – A
GENERAL STUDIES
001. [íkwÚko çkkiØ Ãkrh»kË Mkt˼uo Lke[uLkk Ãkife fÞwt rðÄkLk Mkk[wt Au ?
(A) íku Ãkrh»kË Ãkkxr÷Ãkwºk{kt ÞkuòE níke. (B) íku yòíkþºkwLke MknkÞÚke hksøk]n{kt ÞkuòE níke.
(C) íku frLk»fLke MknkÞÚke fkÂ~{h{kt ÞkuòE níke. (D) íku yòíkþºkwLke MknkÞÚke fkÂ~{h{kt ÞkuòE níke.
002. øktÄkh yLku {Úkwhk þi÷eLke f¤k Lke[uLkk Ãkife fkuLkk Þwøk{kt þY ÚkE níke ?
003. MkÞkShkð økkÞfðkz ík]ríkÞLkk Mkt˼o{kt Lke[uLkk Ãkife fÞwt / fÞkt rðÄkLk / rðÄkLkku Mkk[wt / Mkk[kt Au ?
004. MkhËkh ðÕ÷¼¼kE Ãkxu÷Lkk Mkt˼uo Lke[uLkk Ãkife fÞwt / fÞkt rðÄkLk / rðÄkLkku Mkk[wt / Mkk[kt Au ?
1. þkr÷¼ÿ f]ík ¼híkuïh çkknwçkr÷ økwshkíke MkkrníÞLke «Úk{ rðrþü f]rík Au.
2. Lkh®Mkn {nuíkkyu økwshkík{kt ði»ýð ¼Âõík yktËku÷LkLkwt «ríkrLkrÄíð fÞwO.
3.
«u {kLktË ¼è íku{Lke MkkrníÞ f]rík{kt rð»kÞ yLku MðYÃkLkk ðirðæÞLku fkhýu økwshkíke MkkrníÞLkk Mkðofkr÷Lk MkkiÚke
{nkLk frð Au.
(A) Võík 2 (B) Võík 1 yLku 2 (C) Võík 2 yLku 3 (D) 1, 2, yLku 3
009. .......... Lkk «&™u økku¤{uS Ãkrh»kËLkwt çkeswt Mkºk ¼ktøke Ãkzâwt.
(A) økktÄeSLkk yk{hý WÃkðkMk
(B) ÷½w{íke {kxu y÷øk {íkËkh-{tz¤
(C) hkòLkk «ríkrLkrÄyku Mk{kLk økktÄeSLke økýíkhe fhðk{kt ykðe Lk níke
(D) ík{k{ hksfeÞ fuËeykuLku {wõík fhðkLke MkhfkhLke yrLkåAk
010. «k[eLk MktMf]ík økútÚkku{kt ‘ÞðLkr«Þ’ þçË fkuLkk {kxu «Þkusðk{kt ykÔÞku Au ?
(C) 1 yLku 2 çktLku Mkk[kt Au. (D) 1 yLku 2 çktLku ¾kuxkt Au.
014. Lke[uLkk Ãkife fÞku rMkæÄktík siLkkuLkk híLkºkÞ (rºkhíLk) MktçktrÄík LkÚke ?
(A) MkBÞf ËþoLk (B) MkBÞf ¿kkLk (C) MkBÞf [rhºk (D) MkBÞf íkÃk
015. Lke[uLkk Ãkife fÞk Mkku÷tfe hkòyu Mkku{LkkÚk Þkºkk¤wykuLkku fh {kV fÞkuo níkku ?
(A) {æÞ Þwøk (B) ÞwhkurÃkÞLk Mk{Þ (C) {wøk÷ Mk{Þ (D) {hkXk Mk{Þ
019. “òu MktMf]ík ¼økðkLk îkhk f]ík Au, íkku þwt «kf]ík [kuhku yLku Äqíkkuo îkhk rLkŠ{ík Au ?” yk rðÄkLk fkuLkwt Au ?
020.
Lke[uLkk Ãkife fÞk MÚk¤u {kxefk{ WÃkh Ãkqðo nzÃÃkLk, nzÃÃkLk y™u ÃkAeLkk nzÃÃkLk ÞwøkLke MktMf]ríkLkk «¼kðLkku
Ãkwhkðku {¤u Au ?
(A) fkÞÚkk (B) {k÷ðk (C) yhý (D) òuðo
021. Lke[uLke Ãkife fE ykf]rík nzÃÃkLk {kxefk{Lke MkÃkkxe WÃkh Ëþkoðkíke Lk níke ?
025. ¼khíkeÞ LÞkÞíktºk ÃkkMku fkÞËkLku økuhçktÄkhýeÞ ònuh fhðkLke Mk¥kk Au, òu .....
(B) ÷kufMk¼k{kt ÃkMkkh fÞko ÃkAe, íkuLku hkßÞMk¼k{kt ÃkMkkh fhðk{kt ykðþu.
(C) hkßÞMk¼k íkuLke ¼÷k{ýku MkkÚku íkuLku ºkeMk rËðMkLkk Mk{Þøkk¤k{kt Ãkhík fhþu.
(D) òu ÷kufMk¼k hkßÞMk¼kLke fkuE ¼÷k{ýku Mðefkhu Lknª, íkku Lkkýk rðÄuÞf ÃkMkkh ÚkÞu÷wt økýkþu.
027. ¼khíkLkk hk»xÙÃkríkLke [qtxýe «r¢Þk Mkt˼uo Lke[uLkk Ãkife fÞwt Mkk[wt LkÚke ?
(C) yÄo LÞkrÞf MktMÚkk (D) MktMÚkk ð¤íkh [qfððk hkßÞLku rLkËuoþ ykÃke þfu.
030. hkßÞ ÃkwLkøkoXLk yrÄrLkÞ{ (LkðuBçkh 1956) Mkt˼uo Lke[uLkk Ãkife fÞwt rðÄkLk Mkk[wt LkÚke ?
(A) fåA yLku Mkkihk»xÙ hkßÞkuLkku Mk{kðuþ fheLku çkkuBçku hkßÞLkwt rðMík]íkefhý.
(B) niËhkçkkËLkk {hkXe çkku÷íkk rðMíkkhkuLkku Ãký çkkuBçku hkßÞ{kt Mk{kðuþ.
(C) niËhkçkkËLkku íku÷tøkkýk rðMíkkh yktÄú{kt MÚkkçkkt¥kh ÚkÞku.
(D) {ÿkMkLkk fLLkz çkku÷íkk rðMíkkhkuLkku niËhkçkkË{kt Mk{kðuþ.
031. rçkúxeþ Mk{Þ ËhBÞkLk fÞk yrÄrLkÞ{ îkhk ¼khík{kt MktMkËeÞ «Úkk þY ÚkE ?
(C) økðLko{uLx ykìV ELzeÞk yuõx, 1919 (D) økðLko{uLx ykìV ELzeÞk yuõx, 1935
032. ÷kufMk¼k{kt þqLÞfk¤ (Zero hour)Lke {n¥k{ yðrÄ .......... nkuE þfu.
(A) 30 r{rLkx (B) yrLkŠËü (C) yuf f÷kf (D) çku f÷kf
033. ¼khíkLkk ÷kufþkne rðfuLÿefhýLkk fuLÿ íkhefu økk{zkykuLku ÷uðk çkkçkíkLkk MkkiÚke økt¼eh xefkfkh Lke[uLkk Ãkife fkuý níkk ?
034.
LkkøkrhfkuLke VrhÞkËkuLkk rLkðkhý {kxu ‘÷kufÃkk÷’ yLku ‘÷kufkÞwõík’ suðe ¾kMk yrÄf]íkíkkLke MÚkkÃkLkkLke ¼÷k{ý
fkuýu fhe ?
(A) «Úk{ ðneðxe MkqÄkhýk ykÞkuøk (B) MkktÚk{T Mkr{rík - ¼úük[kh rLkðkhý
(C) rîríkÞ ðneðxe MkqÄkhýk ykÞkuøk (D) ¼úük[kh rðYØ Mðíktºk ykÞkuøk
1.
r{þLk ELÿÄLkw»k yuðk ík{k{ çkk¤fkuLku ykðhe ÷u Au fu suykuLku yktrþf heíku hMke ykÃkðk{kt ykðe Au yÚkðk hMke
ykÃkðk{kt ykðe LkÚke.
2.
hk»xÙeÞ þnuhe ykSrðfk r{þLk yLku hk»xÙeÞ økúk{eý ykSrðfk r{þLkLku yufef]ík fhe íkuLkwt rËLkËÞk÷ ytíÞkuËÞ
ÞkusLkk íkhefu Lkk{kr¼ÄkLk fhðk{kt ykÔÞwt Au.
3. «ÄkLk{tºke MðkMÚÞ Mkwhûkk ÞkusLkkLkku nuíkw ykhkuøÞ MkuðkykuLke WÃk÷çÄíkk{kt «kËurþf yMktíkw÷LkLku MkwÄkhðkLkku Au.
(A) Võík 1, 2 yLku 3 (B) Võík 1 yLku 2 (C) Võík 2 yLku 3 (D) Võík 3
(A) çkÄk Ä{kuoLkku ykËh yLku hûký. (B) hkßÞ çkÄk Ä{kuoÚke Mk{kLk ytíkh Ähkðu Au.
(C) Ä{oLkk ykÄkhu fkuELke Mkk{u ¼u˼kð Lknª. (D) WÃkhkuõík{ktÚke fkuE Lknª
(A) «kuxku ykMxÙu÷kìRzTMk - {æÞ yLku Ërûký ¼khíkLkk {kuxk¼køkLkk ykrËòríkLkk ÷kufkuLkku Mk{kðuþ ÚkkÞ Au.
(B) {kUøkku÷kìRzTMk - íkuyku ¼khíkLkk W¥kh ÃkqðeoÞ ¼køkku{kt ÃkðoíkeÞ rðMíkkh{kt ðMkðkx fhu Au.
040. økwshkíkLke ykrËðkMke ðMíke Mkt˼uo Lke[uLkk Ãkife fÞwt / fÞkt rðÄkLk / rðÄkLkku Mkk[wt / Mkk[kt Au ?
¼khík{kt MkkûkhíkkLke xfkðkhe çkkçkíku ðMíke økýíkhe 2011 yLkwMkkh Lke[uLkk Ãkife fÞwt / fÞkt rðÄkLk / rðÄkLkku Mkk[wt /
041.
Mkk[kt Au ?
1. økúk{eý fhíkk þnuhe rðMíkkhku{kt Lke[e
2. ÃkwY»kku{kt Mºke yku fhíkkt ðÄkhu
(A) 1 yLku 2 çktLku (B) Võík 1
043. Lke[uLkk Ãkife fÞk «fkhLkk støk÷ku{kt MkkiÚke ðÄw òríkykuLkwt ðiirðæÞ òuðk {¤u Au ?
044.
økwshkíkLkk {uËkLk yLku Ãknkze ¾uík-ykçkkunðeÞ WÃkûkuºk (Gujarat Plain and Hill Agro-Climatic Zone) Mk{økú
økwshkíkLku ykðhe ÷u Au. íkuLkk fux÷k Ãkuxk ykçkkunðk WÃkûkuºk (Sub-Climatic Zone) Au ?
(A) 5 WÃkûkuºk (Sub Zone) (B) 8 WÃkûkuºk (Sub Zone)
(A) økuz Ãkðoík (B) þu»k Ãkðoík (C) ¾tzÃkqðoík Ãkðoík (D) fk¤k Ãkðoík
1. ¼khík{kt ¾heV {kuMk{ Ëhr{ÞkLk {kuxk ¼køku ðhMkkËe ÂMÚkrík nuX¤ {økV¤eLkku Ãkkf Wøkkzðk{kt ykðu Au.
2. ¼khík{kt ík{kfw Võík fk¤k fÃkkMkLke s{eLk{kt s Wøkkzðk{ktt ykðu Au.
(A) Võík 1 (B) Võík 2
048. ¼khík{kt MkkiÚke {kuxw yçkh¾ (Mica) WíÃkkËLk fhíkw hkßÞ .......... Au.
049.
Þw.yuMk.yu. yLku òÃkkLkLkk ði¿kkrLkfkuLku r[rfíMkk rð¿kkLk{kt (Medicine) .......... Lkk W{Ëk MktþkuÄLk {kxu 2018 Lkwt
Lkkuçku÷ Ãkkrhíkkur»kf yuLkkÞík ÚkÞu÷ Au.
(A) AIDS WÃk[kh (B) fìLMkh WÃk[kh
051. Lke[uLkk Ãkife fÞk WíÃkkËLkku ¼khíkLkk ¼kiøkkur÷f Mktfuík (Geographical Indication) Ähkðu Au ?
1. ËkŠs®÷øk [k 2. {nkçk¤uïh MxÙkuçkuhe
3. sÞÃkwhLke ç÷q Ãkkìxhe 4. rðsÞðkzkLkk ÷kzw
(A) Võík 1 yLku 2 (B) Võík 2 yLku 4
(C) Võík 1, 2 yLku 3 (D) 1, 2, 3 yLku 4
052.
¼khík{kt rþûkf rËLk 5th MkÃxuBçkhu {Lkkððk{kt ykðu Au, yktíkhhk»xÙeÞ rþûkf rËLk .......... Lkk hkus {Lkkððk{kt
ykðu Au.
(A) ykuõxkuçkh 5th (B) LkðuBçkh 5th (C) rzMkuBçkh 5th (D) sqLk 5th
053. nk÷{kt RBI yu Lkðe çkUfLke MÚkkÃkLkk {kxu hkßÞ MkhfkhLku {tsqhe ykÃke Au, íku çkUf .......... Au.
(A) yktÄúk çkUf (B) íku÷tøkkýk çkUf (C) økwshkík çkUf (D) fuh¤ çkUf
054. ¼khík-òÃkkLk rîÃkûkeÞ ËrhÞkE fðkÞíkLkwt ºkeswt MktMfhý JIMEX-18 .......... {kt ÞkuòÞwt níkwt.
(A) fkur[Lk (B) rðþk¾kÃkèLk{ (C) ftz÷k (D) {wtçkE
055. ¼khík MkhfkhLkk ÃkÞkoðhý {tºkk÷ÞLkwt «Úk{ hk»xÙeÞ ÃkÞkoðhý Mkðuoûký .......... {kt þY ÚkLkkh Au.
(A) òLÞwykhe, 2019 (B) {k[o, 2019 (C) òLÞwykhe, 2020 (D) {k[o, 2020
056. Lke[uLkk Ãkife fÞk Mk{wËkÞLke MºkeykuLku rî[¢eÞ ðknLk [÷kðíke ð¾íku nu÷{ux Ãknuhðk{ktÚke {wÂõík Au ?
(A) rnLËw Mºkeyku (B) {wÂM÷{ Mºkeyku (C) þe¾ Mºkeyku (D) WÃkhkuõík ík{k{
057. økehLkk støk÷ rðMíkkh{kt ®MknkuLkk {]íÞw {kxu Lke[uLkk Ãkife fÞk ðkÞhMk / çkuõxuheÞk sðkçkËkh níkk ?
(A) yUÚkúkõMk (Anthrax)
(B) H7N9 ðkÞhMk (H7N9 virus)
(C) fuLkkELk rzMxUÃkh ðkÞhMk (Canine distemper virus)
(D) fu÷ux MxeBÃkh ðkÞhMk (Kalet Stimper virus)
nk÷{kt ¼khík UN {kLkð yrÄfkh fkWLMke÷{kt MkkiÚke ðÄw {íkÚke [qtxkÞwt, Lke[uLkk Ãkife fÞk Ëuþku UNHCR Lkk çkeò
058.
MkÇÞku Au ?
1. çkktø÷kËuþ 2. ¤unrhLk
3. VeS 4. rVr÷rÃkLMk
(A) Võík 1, 2 yLku 3 (B) Võík 2, 3 yLku 4
(C) Võík 1, 3 yLku 4 (D) 1, 2, 3 yLku 4
060. Lke[uLkk Ãkife fÞk yr¼Lkuíkkyu ¼khíkLke rVÕ{ yLku xur÷rðÍLk MktMÚkk (FTII){ktÚke hkSLkk{wt ykÃÞwt Au ?
(A) LkkLkk Ãkkxufh (B) yLkwÃk{ ¾uh (C) Ãkhuþ hkð÷ (D) rð¢{ rËðkMk
061. ¼khíkeÞ MkuLkkLke MkŠsf÷ MxÙkEfLke çkeS sÞtíke .......... íkhefu {Lkkððk{kt ykðe.
(A) rð¢{ Ãkðo (B) Ãkhk¢{ Ãkðo (C) rðsÞ rËðMk (D) rð¢{ rËðMk
062.
ykŠÚkf Mkðuoûký 2017-18 yLkwMkkh {k÷ yLku MkuðkykuLkku yktíkrhf ðuÃkkh (Internal trade in goods and services)
GDP Lkk .......... xfk Au.
(A) 35 (B) 45 (C) 55 (D) 60
068. KYC (Know your customer) rLkÞ{Lk LkkýktfeÞ ÔÞðnkhku{kt .......... rðrLkÞ{ nuX¤ þY fhðk{kt ykÔÞwt Au.
(B) sL{ Ëh ðÄu Au, ßÞkhu {]íÞw Ëh{kt ½xkzku ÚkkÞ Au.
(C) sL{ Ëh ½xu Au, ßÞkhu {]íÞw Ëh{kt ðÄkhku ÚkkÞ Au.
072.
ßÞkhu Lkkufhe çkË÷ðkLku ÷eÄu fux÷kf fk{Ëkhku ntøkk{e Äkuhýu çkuhkusøkkh ÚkkÞ Au íÞkhu íkuLku .......... çkuhkusøkkhe
fnuðkÞ Au.
(A) [¢eÞ (B) «ríkhkuòí{f (C) {kiMk{e (D) EÂåAík
074.
rðï Ãkkur÷Þku rËðMk Mk{økú rðï{kt 24 ykuõxkuçkhu {Lkkððk{kt ykðu Au, Lke[uLkk Ãkife fÞku ðkÞhMk Ãkkur÷ÞkuLke çke{khe
{kxu sðkçkËkh Au ?
(A) Ãkkur÷Þku{uÞr÷rxMk (B) Ãkkur÷ÞkurMkÞr÷rxMk
075. rðxk{eLk D .......... {kt UV «fkþ îkhk yuøkkuoMxhku÷ (ergosterol) Mkr¢Þ fheLku WíÃkkrËík fhðk{kt ykðu Au.
076. ÓËÞ{kt hõík ÃkwhðXku Ãkqhku Ãkkzu íkuLku .......... fnuðkÞ Au.
(A) 600 rf÷ku{exh (B) 300 rf÷ku{exh (C) 150 rf÷ku{exh (D) 190 rf÷ku{exh
078. ¢qz íku÷Lku ½ýeðkh {eXwt (økéÞwt) fnuðk{kt ykðu Au fkhý fu .....
079.
MkkiÚke LkkLkk yLku MkkiÚke ðÄw ËrhÞkE ykur÷ð huzT÷e fk[çkkLkk MktðLkLk yLku {k¤kLkk MÚk¤Lkk rðïLkk 50% .........
ykðu÷ Au.
(A) økkuðk Mk{wÿ rfLkkhu (B) ykurzþk Mk{wÿ rfLkkhu
081. ðMíkwLke ðkMíkrðf Açke {u¤ððk {kxu fÞk «fkhLkk yheMkkLkku WÃkÞkuøk ÚkkÞ Au ?
082. rfhýkuíMkøkeo Ãkh{kýw VuhVkhku Ëhr{ÞkLk Lke[uLkk Ãkife fÞk íkhtøkku / rfhýku WíÃkLLk ÚkkÞ Au ?
ytíkheûk ykÄkrhík ¼khíkeÞ MktðÄoLk ÃkØrík (Space based augmentation system) GAGAN Lkku {wÏÞíðu Lke[uLkk
083.
Ãkife fE çkkçkíkLkk LkurðøkuþLkLkku Au ?
(A) WÃkøkún (B) rð{kLk (C) xÙuLkku (D) xÙfku
(A) ðkÞ {ìõMk (Wi Max) - {krníke y™u Mkt[kh xufLkkì÷kuS (Information and Communication
Technology)
(A)
34 (B)
36
(C)
38 (D)
WÃkhkuõík Ãkife fkuE Lknª
087. yuf ÔÞrõŒ Yk. 5,000 {kt yuf xu… hufkuzoh ¾heË fhu Au. íÞkhƒkË Œu Œu™k he…uhª„ …h fux÷kuf ¾[o fhu Au. Úkkuzk rËð‚
ƒkË Œu yk xu… Yk. 6,440 {kt ðu[u Au. sku Œu™u …zŒh ®f{Œ …h 15% ™Vku ÚkÞku nkuÞ Œku Œuýu he…uhª„ …h fux÷ku ¾[o
fÞkuo nþu ?
(A)
Yk. 540 (B) Yk. 600
Á 640
(C) (D) WÃkhkuõík Ãkife fkuE Lknª
088.
yuf y…qýkOf™k ytþ y™u AuË ™ku ‚hðk¤ku 15 Au. òu Œu™k AuË{kt 1 W{uhðk{kt ykðu y™u ytþ{ktÚke 1 ƒkË fhðk{kt
ykðu Œku ™ðk y…qýkOf™e ®f{Œ 2 ÚkkÞ Au. Œku Œu y…qýkOf fÞku nþu ?
3
8 7
(A) (B)
7 8
4
(C) (D) WÃkhkuõík Ãkife fkuE Lknª
11
089. ™e[u …ife fÞku rðfÕ… ƒkfe™k rðfÕ…ku ‚kÚku ƒtÄ ƒu‚Œku ™Úke ?
(A)
…krý™e (B) ¼kMfhk[kÞo (C) hk{k™ws (D) ykÞo¼x
(A)
ðŒwo¤™k ûkuºkV¤ y™u Œu™k …rh½ ™ku „wýku¥kh Œu™k ÔÞk‚ sux÷ku nkuÞ Au.
(B)
hu¾k 2x + 7y = –2 yu ®ƒËw (–1, 0) {ktÚke …‚kh ÚkkÞ Au.
(C) yu ‚t{uÞ ‚tÏÞk Au.
091.
40 r÷xh™k yuf «ðkne h‚kÞý{ktÚke 4 r÷xh h‚kÞý fkZe Œu™u MÚkk™u 4 r÷xh …kýe W{uhðk{kt ykðu Au. íÞkhƒkË Œu
r{©ý{ktÚke …w™: 4 r÷xh «ðkne fkZe Œu™u MÚkk™u 4 r÷xh ƒeswt …kýe W{uhðk{kt ykðu Au. Œku nðu Œu r{©ý{kt fux÷k
r÷xh h‚kÞý hÌkwt nþu ?
(A) 32 r÷xh (B) 32.4 r÷xh
092 yuf [kuh‚™wt ûkuºkV¤ 400 [ku{e Au. Œu™e Ëhuf ƒksw™k {æÞ®ƒËwyku™u òuzðkÚke ƒ™Œk [kuh‚™wt ûkuºkV¤ fux÷wt nþu ?
094. yuf nkus™e ÷tƒkE 10 {exh, …nku¤kE 6 {exh y™u ôzkE 1.5 {exh nkuÞ Œku Œu{kt fux÷wt …kýe ‚{kþu ?
(A)
XYZ (B)
ZYA
096. òu fkuE „ý P = {1, 2, 3} nkuÞ Œku ™e[u …ife fÞku „ý Œu™ku W…„ý Au ?
(A)
{0} (B)
{0, 1}
(C)
{1, 2} (D)
WÃkhkuõík Ãkife fkuE Lknª
097.
yuf 500 {exh ÷ktƒe xÙu™™u Œu™e ÷tƒkE sux÷e s ÷ktƒe x™÷™u …‚kh fhŒkt 90 ‚uftz sux÷ku ‚{Þ ÷k„u Au. Œku Œu™e
Íz… fux÷e nþu ?
(A) 36 rfr{/f÷kf (B) 40 rfr{/f÷kf
(A)
36 (B)
144
(C)
108 (D)
WÃkhkuõík Ãkife fkuE Lknª
(A) 4 : 5 : 7 (B) 20 : 35 : 49
101. Nitrogen at 25 atm and 37°C is contained in a cylinder of volume 10 m3. The cylinder is placed
in a large container of 150 times the cylinder volume. The container is perfectly evacuated
and insulated. The nitrogen gas is allowed to discharge and fill the container. Calculate the
final pressure after the system has reached equilibrium.
(A)
0.267 atm (B) 0.322 atm (C) 0.259 atm (D) 0.167 atm
102. Determine the final stored energy of a mass of water that has an initial stored energy,
E= 200kJ, and then undergo a process during which 10kJ of work is done on the water and
3kJ of heat is removed from it.
(A)
33 kJ (B) 45 kJ (C) 27 kJ (D) 60 kJ
103. Compute the power required to drive a reversible refrigerator if 100kJ/min is absorbed from
the cold region and the isothermal process occurs at 40°C and -5°C.
(A)
17 kJ/min (B) 35kJ/min (C) 51kJ/min (D) 25kJ/min
104. A new temperature scale say °M, the boiling and freezing point of water at 1 atm are 100°M
and 300°M respectively. Correlate this scale with Centigrade scale. The reading of 0°M on
centigrade scale is
(A)
0°C (B) 50°C (C) 100°C (D) 150°C
105. An ideal gas at 27°C is heated at constant pressure till the volume becomes three times. The
temperature of the gas will then be
(A)
81°C (B) 900°C (C) 627°C (D) 927°C
106. During steady flow compression process of a gas with mass flow rate of 2 kg/s, increase in
specific enthalpy is 15kJ/kg and decrease in kinetic energy is 2kJ/kg. The rate of heat rejection
to the environment is 3 kW. The power needed to drive the compressor is
(A)
23kW (B) 26kW (C) 29kW (D) 37kW
107. For steady flow through an insulated horizontal constant diameter pipe, which property
remains constant?
(A)
Enthalpy (B) Internal energy (C) Entropy (D) Volume
108. For a heat engine operating on the Carnot cycle, the work output is ¼ of the heat transferred
to the sink. The efficiency of the engine is
(A)
20% (B) 33. 3% (C) 40% (D) 50%
700
300
S (kJ/K)
1 3 5
(A) 0.6 (B) 0.5 (C) 0.4 (D) 0.3
111. Starting from the same initial conditions, an ideal gas expands from volume V1 to V2 in three
different ways, the work done by the gas is W1 if the process is purely isothermal, W2 if
purely isobaric and W3 if purely adiabatic, then
W2 > W1 > W3
(A) (B) W2> W3> W1
(C)
W1 > W2 > W3 (D) W1 > W3 > W2
112. A house refrigerator with its door open is switched on in a closed room. The air in the room is
(A)
Cooled
(B)
Remains at same temperature
(C)
Heated
(D)
Heated or cooled depending on atmospheric pressure
113. A steel ball of mass 1 Kg and specific heat 0.4 KJ/Kg is at a temperature of 60°C. It is dropped
into 1 Kg water at 20°C. The final steady state temperature of water is
(A)
23.5°C (B) 30°C
(C) 35°C (D) 40°C
115. The difference between two specific heats Cp-Cv=R/J. This relation is valid for
(A)
Any gas (B) Perfect gas (C) Ideal gas (D) Pure gas
116. Three metal walls of the same cross sectional area having thermal conductivities in the ratio
1:2:4 transfer heat at the rate of 6000KJ/hr. For the same wall thickness, the temperature drops
will be in the ratio
(A)
1:2:4 (B) 1:1/2:1/4 (C) 1/4 :1/2:1 (D) 1:1:1
118. A flat plate of length 1 m and width 50 cm is placed in an air stream at 30°C is blowing
parallel to it. The convective heat transfer coefficient is 30 W/(m2K). The heat transfer if the
plate is maintained at a temperature of 400°C is__________
(A)
5.55 kW (B) 4.05 kW (C) 55.5 kW (D) 6 kW
119. It is required to insulate a kitchen oven with cork board (K=0.043 W/(mK) so that the heat
losses from the oven does not exceed 400 W/m2 when the inner surface of the oven is at 225°C
and the outer surface of the oven is at 40 °C. The thickness of insulation required is nearly
(A)
1cm (B) 2cm (C) 3cm (D) 4cm
120. A furnace is made of a red brick wall of thickness 0.5 m and conductivity 0.7 W/mK. For
the same heat loss and temperature drop, this can be replaced by a layer of diatomite earth of
conductivity 0.14W/mK and thickness
(A)
0.05m (B) 0.1m (C) 0.2m (D) 0.5m
122. Which one of the following expresses the thermal diffusivity of a substance in terms of thermal
conductivity (k), mass density (ρ) and specific heat (c)?
(A)
k2ρc (B) 1/ρkc (C) k/ρc (D) ρc/k2
123. A solid sphere and a hollow sphere of the same material and size are heated to the same
temperature and allowed to cool in the same surroundings. If the temperature difference
between the body and that of the surroundings is T, then
(A)
Both spheres will cool at the same rate for small values of T
(B)
Both spheres will cool at the same rate for high values of T
(C)
The hollow sphere will cool at a faster rate for all the values of T
(D)
The solid sphere will cool at a faster rate for all the values of T
124. A steel steam pipe 10 cm inner diameter and 11 cm outer diameter is covered with insulation
having the thermal conductivity of 1 W/mK. If the convective heat transfer coefficient
between the surface of insulation and the surrounding air is 8 W / m2 K, then critical radius of
insulation is
(A)
10 cm (B) 11 cm (C) 12.5 cm (D) 15 cm
126. The flash chamber in a single stage simple vapour compression system
increases the refrigerating effect
(A)
decreases the refrigerating effect
(B)
increases the work of compression
(C)
has no effect on refrigerating effects
(D)
130. In VCRS plant, the refrigerant leaves the compressor and evaporator with enthalpy of 205kJ/
kg and 177kJ/kg respectively. Enthalpy of leaving the condenser is 105kJ/kg . If the mass flow
rate of the refrigerant is 0.2kg/sec, then the refrigerant effect will be
(A)
12.2kW (B) 14.4kW (C) 16.4kW (D) 20.2kW
132. Maximum possible COP of a solar absorption refrigeration system with generator temperature
of 360K, absorber temperature of 300K, condenser temperature of 300K and evaporator
temperature of 270K is
(A)
9 (B) 6 (C) 3 (D) 1.5
133. Two air streams with mass flow rates of 36 kg/min and 14 kg/min with respective enthalpies
of 36 kJ/kg and 50kJ/kg are mixed. The enthalpy of mixture is nearly
(A)
64kJ/kg (B) 55kJ/kg (C) 46kJ/kg (D) 40kJ/kg
137. Which of the non-dimensional number relates the thermal boundary layer and hydrodynamic
boundary layer?
(A)
Rayleigh number (B) Peclet number
(C)
Grashoff number (D) Prandtl number
138. In two stage gas turbine plants, with intercooling and reheating
(A)
Both work ratio and thermal efficiency increase
Work ratio increases but thermal efficiency decreases
(B)
(C)
Thermal efficiency increases but work ratio decreases
(D)
Both work ratio and thermal efficiency decrease
139. The maximum net specific work obtained in an ideal Brayton cycle for max temperature 900
K and minimum temperature 400 K is given by
(A)
100Cp (B) 500Cp (C) 800Cp (D) 700Cp
140. An open cycle pressure gas turbine uses a fuel of calorific value 40000kJ/kg with air fuel ratio
of 80:1 and develops a net output of 80kJ/kg of air. The thermal efficiency of cycle is
(A)
12% (B) 16% (C) 20% (D) 18%
141. The surface imperfection which separates crystal of different orientation in a poly crystalline
aggregate is called
(A)
Edge dislocation (B) Stacking fault
(C)
Grain boundary (D) Screw dislocation
150. The process of reheating the martensitic steel to reduce its brittleness without any significant
loss in its hardness is
(A)
normalizing (B) annealing
(C) quenching (D) tempering
153. Increasing the number of reheating stages in a gas turbine to infinity, makes the expansion
tending
(A)
Reversible adiabatic (B) Isothermal
(C)
Isobaric (D) Isochoric
156. The number of degrees of freedom of "five link mechanism" having five revolute pairs in the
given figure
4 3
5 2
1
(A)
3 (B) 4 (C) 2 (D) 1
(A)
3.00 (B) 3.14 (C) 3.25 (D) 4.00
158. As shown in the figure a mass of 100kg is held between two springs. The natural frequency of
vibration of the system in cycle is
20kN/m
100 kg
20kN/m
1/2π
(A) (B) 5/π (C) 10/π (D) 20/π
159. The natural frequency of a spring mass system on earth is ω the natural frequency of this
system on the moon (gmoon =gearth /6) is
(A)
ω (B) 0.408ω
(C) 0.204ω (D) 0.167ω
k 4k
m m
Fig.1 Fig.2
(A)
4 (B) 2 (C) 0.5 (D) 0.25
162. A system of masses rotating in different parallel planes is in dynamic balance if the resultant
(A)
force is equal to zero
(B) couple is equal to zero
(C)
force and resultant couple are zero
(D) f orce is numerically equal to the resultant couple but neither of them need necessarily
be zero
163. Assertion (A): A dynamically balanced system of multiple rotors on a shaft can rotate smoothly
at the critical speeds of the system.
Reason (R): Dynamic balancing eliminates all the unbalanced forces and couples from the
system
(A)
Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) R is true but A is false
167. Which one of the following is the correct expression for the Merchant's machinability
constant?
(A)
2φ +γ −α (B) 2φ −γ +α (C) 2φ+ γ- α (D) φ +γ −α
(Where φ = shear angle, γ = friction angle and α = rake angle)
168. If n = 0.5 and C= 300 for the cutting speed and the tool life relation, when cutting speed is
reduced by 30%, the tool life is increased by
(A)
95% (B) 104% (C) 78% (D) 50%
169. In a machining test, a cutting speed of 100 m/min indicated the tool life as 16 min and a
cutting speed of 200 m/min indicated the tool life as 4 min. The values of n and C are
(A)
0.5 and 200 (B) 0.25 and 200 (C) 0.5 and 400 (D) 0.25 and 400
170. Which one of the following instruments is widely used to check and calibrate geometric
features of machine tools during their assembly?
(A)
Ultrasonic probe (B) Coordinate Measuring Machine (CMM)
(C) Laser interferometer (D) Vernier calipers
172. Which one of the following metal forming processes is not a high energy rate forming process?
Electro-mechanical forming
(A) (B) Roll-forming
(C)
Explosive forming (D) Electro-hydraulic forming
175. Arrange the processes in the increasing order of their maximum material removal rate
Electrochemical Machining (ECM)
Ultrasonic Machining (USM)
Electron Beam Machining (EBM)
Laser Beam Machining (LBM) and
Electric Discharge Machining (EDM)
(A)
USM, LBM, EBM, EDM, ECM (B) EBM, LBM, USM, ECM, EDM
(C)
LBM, EBM, USM, ECM, EDM (D) LBM, EBM, USM, EDM, ECM
176. Which of the following processes has very high material removal rate efficiency?
Electron beam machining
(A) (B) Electrochemical machining
(C) Electro discharge machining (D) Plasma arc machining
178. When 3-2-1 principle is used to support and locate a three dimensional work-piece during
machining, the number of degrees of freedom that are restricted is
(A)
7 (B) 9
(C) 10 (D) 8
Y
X
(A)
bending moment, shear force and axial force
(B)
bending moment and axial force only
(C)
bending moment and shear force only
(D)
axial force only
181. A rod of length L and diameter D is subjected to a tensile load P. Which of the following is
sufficient to calculate the resulting change in diameter?
Young's modulus
(A)
(B) Shear modulus
(C) Poisson's ratio
(D) Both Young's modulus and Shear modulus
185. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I (Property) List II (Testing Machine)
A. Tensile strength 1. Rotating Bending Machine
B. Impact strength 2. Three-Point Loading Machine
C. Bending strength 3. Universal Testing Machine
D. Fatigue strength 4. Izod Testing Machine
Codes: A B C D
(A)
4 3 2 1 (B) 3 2 1 4 (C) 2 1 4 3 (D) 3 4 2 1
186. Assertion (A): Poisson's ratio of a material is a measure of its ductility. Reason (R): For every
linear strain in the direction of force, Poisson's ratio of the material gives the lateral strain in
directions perpendicular to the direction of force.
Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(A)
Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(B)
A is true but R is false
(C)
A is false but R is true
(D)
M M
L L L
The beam is possibly under the action of following loads
(A)
Couples of M at C and 2M at D
(B)
Couples of 2M at C and M at D
Concentrated loads of M/L at C and 2M/L at D
(C)
Concentrated loads of M/L at C and couple of 2M at D
(D)
189. If the shear force acting at every section of a beam is of the same magnitude and of the same
direction then it represents a
Simply supported beam with a concentrated load at the centre.
(A)
Overhung beam having equal overhang at both supports and carrying equal concentrated
(B)
loads acting in the same direction at the free ends.
Cantilever subjected to concentrated load at the free end.
(C)
Simply supported beam having concentrated loads of equal magnitude and in the same
(D)
direction acting at equal distances from the supports.
190. A uniformly distributed load (UDL)(in kN/m) is acting over the entire length of a 3 m long
cantilever beam. If the shear force at the midpoint of cantilever is 6 kN, what is the value of
UDL(in kN/m)?
(A)
2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5
191. A cantilever beam having 5 m length is so loaded that it develops a shearing force of 20T and
a bending moment of 20 T-m at a section 2m from the free end. Maximum shearing force and
maximum bending moment developed in the beam under this load are respectively 50 T and
125 T-m. The load on the beam is:
25 T concentrated load at free end
(A)
20T concentrated load at free end
(B)
(C)
5T concentrated load at free end and 2 T/m load over entire length
(D)
10 T/m uniformly distributed load over entire length
193. For the shear force to be uniform throughout the span of a simply supported beam, it should
carry which one of the following loadings?
A concentrated load at mid-span
(A)
(B)
UDL over the entire span
A couple anywhere within its span
(C)
Two concentrated loads equal in magnitude and placed at equal distance from
(D)
each support
194. If the wire diameter of a closed coil helical spring subjected to compressive load is increased
from 1 cm to 2 cm, other parameters remaining same, then deflection will decrease by a
factor of:
(A)
16 (B) 8 (C) 4 (D) 2
195. The spring constant of a helical compression spring DOES NOT depend on
(A)
Coil diameter (B) Material strength
(C)
Number of active turns (D) Wire diameter
196. If both the mean coil diameter and wire diameter of a helical compression or tension spring
be doubled, then the deflection of the spring close coiled under same applied load will
(A)
be doubled (B) be halved
(C)
increase four times (D) get reduced to one-fourth
197. A body having weight of 1000 N is dropped from a height of 10 cm over a closed coiled
helical spring of stiffness 200 N/cm. The resulting deflection of spring is nearly
(A)
5 cm (B) 16 cm (C) 35 cm (D) 100 cm
199. For a product, the forecast and the actual sales for December 2002 were 25 and 20 respectively.
If the exponential smoothing constant (α) is taken as 0.2, then forecast sales for January, 2003
would be:
(A)
21 (B) 23 (C) 24 (D) 27
200. If the annual demand of an item becomes half, ordering cost double, holding cost one-fourth
and the unit cost twice, then what is the ratio of the new EOQ and the earlier EOQ?
(A)
1/2 (B) 1/√2
(C) √2 (D) 2
202. Which one of the following conditions should be satisfied for the application of optimality test
on an initial solution of transportation model?
Number of allocations should be less than m + n – 1
(A)
(B)
Number of allocations should be equal to m + n – 1
(C)
Number of allocations should be equal to m + n
Number of allocations should be more than m + n
(D)
205. In an axial flow impulse turbine, energy transfer takes place due to
Change in relative kinetic energy
(A)
(B) Change in absolute kinetic energy
(C) Change in pressure energy
(D) Change in energy because of centrifugal force
207. The given figure represents pressure and velocity variation for a
PRESSURE VARIATION
CURVE
VELOCITY
VARIATION CURVE
P.V
STAGES
209. Which one of the following cycles has the highest thermal efficiency for given maximum and
minimum cycle temperatures?
(A)
Brayton cycle (B) Otto cycle (C) Diesel cycle (D) Stirling cycle
210. The air standard efficiency of Diesel cycle will be less than that of Otto cycle in the case of
Same compression ratio and same heat input
(A)
Same maximum pressure and same heat input
(B)
(C) Same maximum pressure and same heat output
(D)
Same maximum pressure and same maximum temperature
211. Assertion (A): In SI engines, as the engine speed increases, spark is required to be advanced.
Reason (R): As the engine speed increases, flame velocity increases.
Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(A)
(B) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(C)
A is true but R is false
A is false but R is true
(D)
212. At the time of starting, idling and low speed operation, the carburettor supplies a mixture
which can be termed as
(A)
Lean slightly leaner than stoichiometric
(B)
(C) stoichiometric rich
(D)
213. Assertion (A): The carburettor in a petrol engine is categorized as a closed loop control system.
Reason (R): There is no method by which the air-fuel ratio is measured in the carburettor.
Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(A)
(B) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
A is true but R is false
(C)
A is false but R is true
(D)
216. In a SI Engine, which one of the following is the correct order of the fuels with increasing
detonation tendency?
(A)
Paraffins, Olefins, Naphthenes, Aromatics
(B) Aromatics, Naphthenes, Paraffins, Olefins
(C)
Naphthenes, Olefins, Aromatics, Paraffins
Aromatics, Naphthenes, Olefins, Paraffins
(D)
217. In a variable speed S.I. engine, the maximum torque occurs at the maximum
(A)
Speed (B) brake power
(C) Indicated power (D) volumetric efficiency
218. In a Morse test for a 2-cylinder, 2-stroke, spark ignition engine, the brake power was 9
kW whereas the brake powers of individual cylinders with spark cut off were 4.25 kW and
3.75 kW respectively. The mechanical efficiency of the engine is
(A)
90% (B) 80%
(C) 45.5% (D) 52.5%
220. Which one of the following set of materials is most commonly used in catalytic converters for
CI engines?
(A)
Platinum, palladium and rhodium (B) Palladium, rhodium and ruthenium
(C) Rhodium, ruthenium and platinum (D) Ruthenium, platinum and palladium
221. The three way catalytic converter cannot control which one of the following?
(A)
HC emission (B) CO emission (C) NOx emission (D) PM emission
222. The Vahan and Sarathi are conceptualized to capture the functionality as mandated by
which Act :
(A)
Central Motor Vehicle Act, 1988 (B) Central Motor Vehicle Act, 1999
Central Motor Vehicle Act, 1989
(C) (D) None of the above
223. Which rule has been amended to standardise the form and the manner in which registration
numbers are displayed in the country:
Central Motor Vehicle rule, 1988
(A) (B) Central Motor Vehicle rule, 1999
(C) Central Motor Vehicle rule, 1989 (D) None of the above
224. Which Logic circuit would you use for addressing memory?
(A)
Full adder (B) Multiplexer
(C) Decoder (D) Direct memory access circuit
227. The communication between central system and the outside environment is done by:
(A)
Control system (B) Logic system (C) Memory system (D) I/O subsystem
230. The lengths of the links of a 4-bar linkage with revolute pairs only are p, q, r and s units. Given
that p < q < r < s. Which of these links should be the fixed one, for obtaining a ‘double crank’
mechanism?
link of length p (B) link of length q (C) link of length r
(A) (D) link of length s
232. A planar mechanism has 8 links and 10 rotary joints. The number of degrees of freedom of the
mechanism using Gruebler’s criterion, is
(A)
0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3
233. There are two points P and Q on a planar rigid body. The relative velocity between the
two points
(A)
should always be along PQ
(B) can be oriented along any direction
(C)
should always be perpendicular to PQ
(D) should be along QP when the body undergoes pure translation
236. The speed of an engine varies from 210 rad/s to 190 rad/s. During a cycle, the change in
kinetic energy is found to be 400 Nm. The inertia of the flywheel in kg·m2 is
(A)
0.10 (B) 0.20 (C) 0.30 (D) 0.40
239. A concentrated load of P acts on a simply supported beam of span L at a distance L/3 from the
left support. The bending moment at the point of application of the load is given by
(A)
PL/3 (B) 2PL/3 (C) PL/9 (D) 2PL/9
240. A simply supported laterally loaded beam was found to deflect more than a specified value.
Which of the following measures will reduce the deflection?
(A)
Increase the area moment of inertia
(B)
Increase the span of the beam
(C)
Select a different material having lesser modulus of elasticity
(D)
Magnitude of the load to be increased
241. In terms of Poisson’s ratio (ν), the ratio of Young’s modulus (E) to Shear modulus (G) of
elastic materials is
(A)
2(1+ν) (B) 2(1−ν) (C) (1+ν)/2 (D) (1−ν)/2
242. If the principal stresses in a plane stress problem are σ1 = 100 MPa, σ2 = 40 MPa, the magnitude
of the maximum shear stress (in MPa) will be
(A)
60 (B) 50 (C) 30 (D) 20
244. For a long slender column of uniform cross-section, the ratio of critical buckling load for the
case with both ends clamped to the case with both ends hinged is
(A)
1 (B) 2 (C) 4 (D) 8
245. A long thin-walled cylindrical shell, closed at both ends, is subjected to an internal pressure.
The ratio of the hoop stress (circumferential stress) to longitudinal stress developed in the
shell is
(A)
0.5 (B) 1.0 (C) 2.0 (D) 4.0
246. A thin cylinder of inner radius 500 mm and thickness 10 mm is subjected to an internal
pressure of 5 MPa. The average circumferential (hoop) stress in MPa is
(A)
100 (B) 250 (C) 500 (D) 1000
247. A planar closed kinematic chain is formed with rigid links PQ= 2.0 m, QR= 3.0 m,
RS= 2.5 m and SP= 2.7 m with all revolute joints. The link to be fixed to obtain a double rocker
(rocker–rocker) mechanism is
(A)
PQ (B) QR (C) RS (D) SP
248. The element with the lowest density and smallest atomic weight is which one of the following?
(A)
aluminum (B) argon (C) helium (D) hydrogen
249. The predominant phase in the iron-carbon alloy system for a composition with 99% Fe at
room temperature is which of the following?
(A)
austenite (B) cementite (C) delta (D) ferrite
250. Plain carbon steels are designated in the AISI code system by which of the following?
(A)
01XX (B) 10XX (C) 11XX (D) 12XX
256. Increased cooling rate in the heat treatment of mild steel results into
(A)
Coarse pearlite
(B) Fine pearlite
(C)
Heat treatment does not affect the pearlite morphology
(D)
Mixture of fine and coarse pearlite
257. During heat treatment of steel, the hardness of various structures in increasing order is
(A)
martensite, fine pearlite, coarse pearlite, spheroidite
fine pearlite, coarse pearlite, spheroidite, martensite
(B)
martensite, coarse pearlite, fine pearlite, spheroidite
(C)
(D)
spheroidite, coarse pearlite, fine pearlite, martensite
258. Tool geometry of a single point cutting tool is specified by the following elements:
1. Back rake angle (αb) 2. Side rake angle (αs)
3. End cutting edge angle (φ) 4. Side cutting edge angle (ψ)
5. Side relief angle (cs) 6. End relief angle (cb)
7. Nose radius (r)
The correct sequence of these tool elements used for correctly specifying tool geometry is
(A)
1, 2, 3, 6, 5, 4, 7 (B) 1, 2, 6, 5, 3, 4, 7
(C) 1, 2, 5, 6, 3, 4, 7 (D) 1, 2, 6, 3, 5, 4, 7
263. A metal disc of 20 mm diameter is to be punched from a sheet of 2 mm thickness. The punch
and the die clearance is 3%. The required punch diameter is
(A)
19.88 mm (B) 19.94 mm
(C) 20.06 mm (D) 20.12 mm
266. The word kanban is most closely associated with which one of the following?
(A)
capacity planning (B) economic order quantity
(C)
just-in-time production (D) master production schedule
267. A standard machine tool and an automatic machine tool are being compared for the production
of a component. The following data refers to the two machines. Setup time, machining time
and machine rate for standard machine tool are: 30 min, 22 min, and Rs. 200 per hour, and
those for automatic machine tool are 2 hours, 5 min and Rs. 800 per hour, respectively. The
break-even production batch size above which the automatic machine tool will be economical
to use, will be
(A)
4 (B) 5 (C) 24 (D) 225
268. In a time study exercise, the time observed for an activity was 54 s. The operator had a
performance rating of 120. A personal time allowance of 10% is given. The standard time for
the activity, in seconds, is
(A)
54 (B) 60.8 (C) 72 (D) 58.32
269. Six sigma process has defect level below ______ defects per million opportunities.
(A)
3.4 (B) 4.5 (C) 5.6 (D) 6.7
270. The percent of the sample means will have values that are within ±3. Standard deviations of
the distribution mean is
(A)
95.5 (B) 96.7 (C) 97.6 (D) 99.7
276. In a control chart, the upper control limit is set equal to which one of the following?
(A)
process mean
(B)
process mean plus three standard deviations
(C)
upper design tolerance limit
upper value of the maximum range R.
(D)
277. Which one of the following best describes the situations for which the c chart is most suited?
control of defective parts
(A)
mean value of part characteristic of interest
(B)
(C)
number of defects in a sample
(D)
proportion of defects in a sample
279. An irreversible heat engine extracts heat from a high temperature source at a rate of 100 kW
and rejects heat to a sink at a rate of 50 kW. The entire work output of the heat engine is
used to drive a reversible heat pump operating between a set of independent isothermal heat
reservoirs at 17°C and 75°C. The rate (in kW) at which the heat pump delivers heat to its high
temperature sink is
(A)
50 (B) 250 (C) 300 (D) 360
281. A pump handling a liquid raises its pressure from 1 bar to 30 bar. Take the density of the liquid
as 990 kg /m3. The isentropic specific work done by the pump in kJ/kg is
(A)
0.10 (B) 0.30 (C) 2.50 (D) 2.93
283. A diesel engine is usually more efficient than a spark ignition engine because
(A)
diesel being a heavier hydrocarbon, releases more heat per kg than gasoline
(B)
the air standard efficiency of diesel cycle is higher than the Otto cycle, at a fixed
compression ratio
the compression ratio of a diesel engine is higher than that of an SI engine
(C)
self-ignition temperature of diesel is higher than that of gasoline
(D)
284. In an air standard Otto cycle, r is the volume compression ratio and γ is an adiabatic index
(cp/cv), the air standard efficiency is given by
η = 1−1/(rγ−1)
(A) (B) η = 1−1/ rγ (C) η = 1−1/r(γ−1) (D) η = 1−1/r2γ−1
285. The air–fuel ratio for idling speed of an automobile petrol engine is closer to
(A)
10:1 (B) 15:1 (C) 17:1 (D) 21:1
287. For an opaque surface, the absorptivity (α), transitivity (τ), and reflectivity (ρ) are related by
the equation
(A)
α+ρ = τ (B) α+ρ+τ = 0
(C) α+ρ = 1 (D) α+ρ = 0
288. The color of the flame of halide torch, in case of leakage of Freon refrigerant, will change to
(A)
bright green (B) yellow
(C) red (D) orange
290. In a vapor compression refrigeration plant, the refrigerant leaves the evaporator at 195 kJ/kg
and the condenser at 65 kJ/kg. For every kg of refrigerant, the plant can supply per second a
cooling load of
(A)
70 kW (B) 100 kW (C) 130 kW (D) 160 kW
291. Evaporative regulation of body temperature fails when the body temperature is
more than wet bulb temperature but less than dry bulb temperature
(A)
more than dew point temperature but less than wet bulb temperature
(B)
(C)
more than dew point temperature but less than dry bulb temperature
(D)
less than dew point temperature
294. In a steam nozzle, inlet pressure of superheated steam is 10 bar. The exit pressure is decreased
from 3 bar to 1 bar. The discharge rate will
(A)
remain constant
(B)
decrease
(C)
increase slightly
increase or decrease depending on whether the nozzle is convergent or convergent-
(D)
divergent
295. In a steam nozzle, to increase the velocity of steam above sonic velocity by expanding steam
below critical pressure
a vacuum pump is added
(A)
(B)
ring diffusers are used
divergent portion of the nozzle is necessary
(C)
(D)
abrupt change in cross-section is needed
296. In a steam condenser, the partial pressure of steam and air are 0.06 bar and 0.007 bar,
respectively. The condenser pressure is
(A)
0.067 bar (B) 0.06 bar
(C) 0.053 bar (D) 0.007 bar
298. The maximum blade efficiency of single stage impulse turbine in terms of nozzle angle α
under ideal conditions is proportional to
(A)
cos α (B) sin α
(C) sin2 α (D) cos2 α