2021 LE Mock 10 @CLAT - Exam

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MOCK COMMON LAW ADMISSION TEST 2021
MOCK CLAT #10

Candidate Name : _________________
Duration : 120 Minutes
Batch : _________________
Max. Marks : 150
Contact No. : _________________
Centre Name : __________
Date of Exam : _________________
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
1. No clarification on the question paper can be sought. Answer the questions as they are.
2. There are 150multiple choice objective type questions.
3. Each question carries ONE mark. Total marks are 150.
4. There is a negative marking of 0.25 marks for every incorrect answer.
5. Candidates have to indicate the correct answer by darkening one of the four responses provided, with
a BALL PEN (BLUE OR BLACK) in the OMR Answer Sheet.
Example: For the question, "Where is the TajMahal located?", the correct answer is (b).
The candidate has to darken the corresponding circle as indicated below :
(a) Kolkata (b) Agra (c) Bhopal (d) Delhi
Right Method Wrong Methods
6. Answering the questions by any method other than the method indicated above shall be considered
incorrect and no marks will be awarded for the same.
7. More than one response to a question shall be counted as wrong.
8. The candidate shall not write anything on the OMR Answer Sheet other than the details required and
in the spaces provided for.
9. After the Test is over, the candidate has to return the OMR Answer Sheet to the invigilator. The
candidate should take the Test Paper along with them.
10. The use of any unfair means by any candidate shall result in the cancellation of his/her candidature.
11. Impersonation is an offence and the candidate, apart from disqualification, may have to face criminal
prosecution.
12. Electronic gadgets like mobile phones, pagers or calculators are strictly not permitted inside the Test
Centre/Hall.
13. The candidates shall not leave the hall before the Test is over.
MOCK CLAT #10
SECTION-A : ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Directions (Q.1-Q.29): Read the passage carefully and answer the questions.
(Passage Q.1-Q.5): There are certain moments in history created by unique circumstances that have
to be seized upfront. Such moments, if utilised properly, provide huge potential for progress, harmony
and justice. But if such moments are lost, the unique opportunities they could have provided rarely
return, leaving behind a trail of deep regret for missing out on the possibilities of great achievements for
the betterment of humanity.
Such a moment in India’s history came in when three of the country’s bravest – Bhagat Singh, Sukhdev
Thapar and Shivaram Rajguru – were sentenced to death by the highly arbitrary, contrived and
manipulated justice system of the colonial regime. Violations of the principles of justice during the course
of the trial were widely recognised, such that there was even a campaign in Britain to take back the
death sentence. In India, people across the country were vociferous in their demand for the death
sentence to be withdrawn.
This was just the right time for the Congress-led mainstream freedom movement to launch a huge
national level campaign demanding the death sentence be taken back, perhaps going so far as to say
that a prison sentence would be accepted.
In early 1931, the nation was ready for such a mass movement. It is well kn own that the Bhagat Singh
Appeal Committees had been set up in all districts of Punjab and people, including students, had come
out in huge numbers on the streets, braving police attacks, to demand the commutation of Bhagat Singh,
Sukhdev and Rajguru’s death sentences. What may not be known is that at the other end of the country,
the Tamil Nadu Congress Committee had insisted that commuting this death sentence was an essential
condition for peace.
While Sukhdev and Rajguru were extremely brave and capable persons, Bhagat Singh should
be singled out as someone who in due course would have emerged as a stalwart of the global socialist
movement, in addition to his significant national role. Even a cursory look at his achievements in his
young life is enough to convince anyone of the man’s potential.
The great sacrifices that Bhagat Singh and his close colleagues like Jatindra Nath Das made in jail,
including fasting for over 60 days and enduring torture and beatings, inspired a great number of people
to join and support the freedom movement. Several thousand people gathered at various places to pay
homage to Das when he died after a 63-day fast. Given this nation-wide sentiment, it is safe to assume
that had a national movement been launched seeking the withdrawal of the death sentences, many
people would have been inspired to join the larger freedom movement.
1. In the context of the passage, which of the following is the lost opportunity which the author is talking
about in the first paragraph?
(a) The greater role that Bhagat Singh and his Comrades could have played if they were the part of the
Indian National Congress.
(b) The mass campaign which the Congress could have led to commute Bhagat Singh and his
Comrades death sentence.
(c) The role which the leaders such as Subhash Chandra Bose and Ganesh Shankar Vidyarthi could
have played if the Congress had allowed them.
(d) The greater role which the Gandhi could played in getting us early freedom from the British.
2. Which of the following cannot be inferred from the passage?

(a) Jatindra Nath Das died following the harsh beating that he received in the British jail.
(b) Bhagat Singh Appeal Committees had been set up in all districts of Punjab.
(c) Tamil Nadu Congress Committee had insisted that commuting the death sentence of Bhagat S ingh
is only condition for peace.
(d) Such demand as envisaged by the author would have been within the principles of Gandhi’s non -
violence.
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MOCK CLAT #10
3. Which of the following reason is given by the author to convince that a movement should have been
launched with immediate aim of saving their lives?
(a) That a large number of Children and Women felt emotionally attached to Bhagat Singh.
(b) That the Popularity of Bhagat Singh was far more than any other leader of the world as protest were
happening for him even in Britain.
(c) That Bhagat Singh’s achievement at such a young age was enough to convince that he was soon
to be a global socialist leader.
(d) All of the above.
4. Which of the following terms from the passage means ‘loud and vehement opinions’?
(a) Stalwart (b) Vociferous (c) Defiance (d) Contrived
5. The word ‘launch’ is used in bold in the above passage. Choose the correct part of the speech from the
following.
(a) Adverb (b) Adjective (c) Verb (d) Pronoun
(Passage Q.6-Q.9): Recently I’ve begun to question the bond my mother and I share. We are poles
apart, by personality and experience. She married at 20, and a year later, I “forced myself out” (her
words, not mine.) My only focus at that age was to try everything – good or bad – that life could offer.
By 25, she was saddled with two colicky children; the 25-year-old me was living alone, working as a
bartender, getting sick on Patron shots, psychedelics, and backpacking across Europe. Despite these
differences, we’ve always maintained a wholesome, jocular relationship.
A close member of the family physically assaulted me recently. When my mother found out, her first
words were: sounds like someone finally gave it back to you. I stood in front of her with bruises across
my body, and scratches on my neck, still gasping for air from my attacker’s petrifying chokehold and my
own rage at being physically attacked.
In that moment this woman – whom I’d shared countless jokes with and supported every day of my life
without question – suddenly became a stranger. Her failure to stand by me will forever hurt harder than
my assailant’s punches. Yet, eventually, I will let her back in –– she’s my mother, after all.
Serendipitously, What We Carry, Maya Shahbag Lang’s memoir about her relationship with her
psychiatrist mother came to me at the same time.
The book begins with a conversation between mother and daughter. “Mayudi, I want to tell you a story,”
says Lang’s mother. She proceeds to tell her depressed daughter a story of a woman crossing a river
with a toddler in tow – a son. This woman is holding the baby in her arms, desperate to keep her head
above water. Eventually, the mother is faced with a choice any parent would consider a nightmare:
either she can save her baby boy or her own life.
This is a parable for motherhood – a lifelong struggle between a woman’s wellbeing and desires, and
the safety and security of her child(ren). As a beginning, this is beautiful in its simplicity, and, for the
same reason, immensely moving.
We live in a society where mothers are regularly shamed for not doing enough for their offspring.
Mothers, not fathers, are expected to give up worldly pleasures for an unborn baby’s health. Becoming
pregnant is almost always the beginning of the end of a woman’s career. Abortion is considered
shameful – even in India, where it has been legal for decades. The game is rigged, and mothers cannot
win. Too much care and they’re spoiling the child; pursue careers, passions and desires with baby in
tow, and people will brand you the “bad mom.”
6. Which of the following does the word ‘Serendipitously’ mean?

(a) When someone intentionally discovers something.
(b) When someone accidently finds something.
(c) When some accepts something unwillingly.
(d) When someone tries to resist the knowledge of something.

MOCK CLAT #10
7. What does the author mean when she says that the game is rigged?
(a) That her mother was not happy with her and condemned her for her actions irrespective of
consequences.
(b) That it is fixed that the women has to save the child at the cost of herself.
(c) That a woman has no choice and will be condemned for her action irrespective of consequences.
(d) All of the above are the examples of a rigged game.
8. “In that moment this woman – whom I’d shared countless jokes with and supported every day of my life
without question – suddenly became a stranger.” Read the sentence carefully and choose the correct
tone of the author?
(a) Condescending (b) Melancholic (c) Whimsical (d) Idyllic
9. What is the central theme of the passage?

(a) The passage is a memoir of the author.
(b) The passage revolves around the relation of mother-daughter.
(c) The passage revolves around motherhood.
(d) The passage is commentary on position of women.
(Passage Q.10-Q.14): Over 37 million Myanmar citizens, including 5 million first-time voters, will go to
the polls on November 8. The election represents a litmus test for the popularity of National League for
Democracy leader Aung San Suu Kyi, who was placed under a house arrest by the military for about 15
years intermittently between 1989 and 2010.
Much is at stake in this election, but the role of the military still looms large in Myanmar politics. The
constitutional change needed to further democratise Myanmar is impossible without the military’s
consent, so achieving major political transformation through the election alone seems unlikely.
In 2011, after about five decades of military rule, the military nominally handed power to the government
of President Thein Sein and his Union Solidarity and Development Party. Soon after, in the 2015
election, Suu Kyi’s National League for Democracy party won a landslide victory. She is now Myanmar’s
incumbent state counsellor (equivalent to prime minister) but her international standing has taken a hit
in recent years.
Critics accuse her of allowing widespread abuse of minority Rohingyas. Many Rohingya villages were
burned down during a military crackdown in 2016 and 2017. Meanwhile, armed conflicts between ethnic
armed organisations and the military continue, especially in the Rakhine state and the northern
borderlands, and Myanmar’s transition to democracy is faltering.
The election campaign will bring to light complex issues around Myanmar’s rich ethnic diversity: the
continuation of armed conflict, demand from ethnic minorities for federalism, devolution of state power
and better economic opportunities. Despite the National League for Democracy’s promise of greater
freedom and civil liberties, Suu Kyi’s government has prosecuted more journalists, social media users
and human rights activists than the previous government. Myanmar’s economic and infrastructure
development has been limited and, as my research argues, has been manipulated for political gain by
powerful interest groups. This has helped radicalise a section of Buddhist extremists. The middle class
and rural poor have not benefited greatly from development policies. More than 24% of people still live
below the national poverty line.
Deep reforms for a federal system and equitable economic development policies are needed to bring
real progress toward peace between ethnic armed groups and the government. The way land
ownership and natural resources are managed would need to be overhauled. Such reforms, however,
are constrained by provisions in Myanmar’s constitution that ensure state power is shared with the
military. Constitution allows military to occupy 25% of parliamentary seats. Only serving military officers
can lead three most powerful ministries – defence, home affairs and border affairs. This makes the
military a very powerful political institution, which effectively controls the peace process and the direction
of the transition.
10. Why does it seems implausible to achieve a major constitutional change to further democratise
Myanmar by achieving major political transformation?
(a) Because the change is not possible without Aung San Suu Kyi and her is declining.

MOCK CLAT #10
(b) Because the change is not possible without a special majority in the parliament.
(c) Because the change is not possible without the military’s consent.
(d) Because the opposition party is strong and does not want to further democratise Myanmar.
11. Why has the international standing of Aung San Suu Kyi taking hit?
(a) Her international standing has taking hit due to the fact that in Myanmar women are seen as inferior
than men.
(b) Her international standing has taken hit due to allegations of allows atrocities against the Rohingyas.
(c) Her international standing has taken hit due not allowing the immigrants into Myanmar.
(d) Her international standing has taken hit due her smooth and favouring behaviour towards
Rohingyas.
12. Which of the following issues will not be brought-forth by the election?
(a) The continuation of the armed conflict.
(b) Devolution of State Powers
(c) Better Economic opportunities.
(d) The domination of the Military Might.
13. Which of the following is needed to greater peace and progress in the Myanmar:
I. Equitable Economic development.
II. Reforms in federal structure.
III. The Overhaul in the role of Military in Politics.
(a) Only I (b) Only II and III (c) Only I and II (d) All of the above.
14. In the underlined line, the articles have been removed. In how many places will the definite article ‘the’
should be present, which would not alter the meaning of the statement?
(a) One (b) Two (c) Three (d) Four
(Passage Q.15-Q.19): Social historian Daniel Boorstin, writing in the 1960s, called advertising “the most
characteristic and remunerative form of American literature”. Writing around the same time, Marshall
McLuhan ranked advertising among the 20th century’s greatest art forms.
As it has played out, neither man was exaggerating. The ‘persuasion industry’ is well entrenched today,
and it is hardly surprising that the 45-second commercial created by jewellery brand Tanishq should have
taken up so much mind space these past few weeks.
We are no strangers to religious controversy nor has fanaticism been the preserve of any one community.
From the exile of M.F. Husain to the blacklisting of Taslima Nasreen to regular book burnings and film bans,
the fanatics excel at outrage. But this time they outdid themselves. The ad that was viciously trolled showed
a Muslim mother-in-law celebrating her Hindu daughter-in-law’s pregnancy with Hindu rituals. In other
words, they were offended not by intolerance but by tolerance.
Through the 20th century, as advertising took upon itself the role of shaping the aspirations and desires of
entire societies, its function expanded vastly beyond the mere selling of products to selling a way of life.
The streaming images — beautiful woman, muscular man, uniformed chauffeur — point not just to a car
but to mindsets and life choices that can make that car come true. That’s why Roland Barthes called
advertising supreme mythmaker of our age and ads closest modern approximation to ancient
myths. When Nike uses Serena Williams to relate the story of women in sports, it isn’t just selling sports
shoes, it is selling the myth of women’s empowerment — the social condition that lets women play sports
and buy sports shoes.
By ‘selling’ at this subliminal level, advertising insinuates itself into everyday customs and practices, and
becomes popular culture. It defines social constructs, such as ‘modernity’ or ‘success’ — ‘modern’ men
load washing machines; ‘successful’ women use food delivery apps. And via these definitions, advertising
is able to construct new social mores — where men aren’t ridiculed for washing clothes, nor women for not
MOCK CLAT #10
cooking. The motive might be commercial, but that advertising is constantly moulding and reflecting society
is indubitable.
15. What is the idea that the author is trying to convey through this passage?
(a) That how fanatics can create an outrage over trivial issues.
(b) That how modern advertisement industry is lucrative for the producers & the sellers.
(c) That how the advertisement industry is responsible for shaping the mindset of the people in today’s
world.
(d) That how the advertisements are promoting gender equality.
16. What is the antonym of the word ‘subliminal’?

(a) Subconscious (b) Unconscious (c) Hidden (d) Explicit
17. What is the meaning of the word ‘indubitable’?

(a) Unquestionable (b) Compelling (c) Emphatic (d) Patent
18. What is the theme of the passage?

(a) That the outrage caused by the fans on the Tanishq advertisement was unnecessary.
(b) That the advertisement industry in the modern times is shaping the minds of individuals. It is breaking
all the pre conceived notions that exist in the society. The problem, however, lies with intolerance of
the fan base.
(c) That the advertisement industry is promoting a modern outlook in the society.
(d) That advertisement industry is positively effecting societal issues like women empowerment.
19. In the bold sentence the articles have been removed. In how many places will the definite article ‘the’ should
be present, so as to not alter the meaning of the sentence?
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3
(Passage Q.20-Q.24): Abracadabra! In the second century AD, Serenus Sammonicus, a sage and
physician to the Roman emperor, wrote in Liber Medicinalis that wearing an amulet of parched paper with
a triangular encryption of this word at the top and just an ‘A’ at the bottom tip would drive away lethal
diseases. It was widely practised to ward off malaria at that time. Even during the Great Plague of the 17th
century, many Londoners pasted the amulet on their doorways to ward off evil and illnesses. With
improvements in hygiene and scientific understanding, abracadabra got relegated from its supposed role
in preventing diseases to a loud utterance by magicians while pulling out rabbits from hats.
The relentless march of COVID-19, despite significant knowledge about the mode of its spread, makes
one wonder whether the amulet of yore has to be revisited. Proper use of a simple cloth mask that covers
the nose and mouth, along with physical distancing, is the most effective means to stall the spread of the
virus. Instead, the mask is often worn round the neck, like a necklace. The reasons for such a strange
adornment varies from excuses such as “can’t breathe” to reassurances such as “nothing will happen and
don’t be scared”. Psychiatrists have an explanation for this behaviour — denial.
In 1969, Elizabeth Ross, a Swiss-American psychiatrist, described five stages of response to the stress of
grief — denial, anger, bargaining, depression and acceptance, or DABDA. While dealing with heart attacks,
doctors try to navigate quickly from the first stage of denial to the fifth of acceptance and get an “informed
consent” to start treatment. Staying far too long in denial with statements like “Doctor, are you sure?” and
“No, it can’t be, let’s wait for more relatives to come” will cause more damage to heart muscles with each
minute of delay. Most doctors are sensitive to the DABDA responses, while some patients wish for a quick
magical solution, akin to abracadabra.
Extrapolating the stage of denial to the current pandemic, non-compliance with effective measures of
prevention such as masking and social distancing is letting the virus spread far and wide. The high recovery
rate is reassuring, but the virus wreaks havoc on the elderly and those with co-morbidities. The pandemic
has strained healthcare facilities and prevented appropriate treatment of other illnesses.
MOCK CLAT #10
While breaking bad news, the doctor is able to communicate effectively when the patient reaches the stage
of acceptance. Applying the same coping mechanism to the COVID-19 pandemic, the sooner we accept
the proven preventive measures and prepare for the “new normal”, the better it is for everyone. It is high
time we all said, “exit abracadabra”, and moved forward collectively from “denial” to “acceptance”.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/open-page/only-mask-no-magic/article32820019.ece
20. What is the theme of the passage?

(a) That ‘Abracadabra’ amulet can cure lethal diseases.
(b) That if the patient and his relatives go through all the DABDA stages, he/she will be healthy in no time.
(c) That Covid-19 virus can be tackled by wearing a mask.
(d) That there is no miracle that can address the issues of the current pandemic. The solution lies in simpler
things that people need to follow religiously and resort to superstitions.
21. What does the author try convey by the phrase the ‘new normal’?
(a) Believing in the miracles is the solution.
(b) Acceptance of the fact that the Covid-19 pandemic is not temporary is the new normal.
(c) Wearing a mask & practicing social distancing is the new way of life
(d) Both (b) & (c)
22. What is the meaning of the term amulet?

(a) A locket
(b) An instrument used by the magicians
(c) An object that brings good luck
(d) A mascot
23. What is the author trying to convey through ‘amulet of yore’?

(a) Revisiting an object that was made of a particular yarn.
(b) Revisiting the thought of resorting to superstitions like abracadabra amulet used long time ago to cure
Covid-19.
(c) Using an instrument that is used to wade away evil & unhappiness.
(d) Wearing an amulet of parched paper with a triangular encryption of this word at the top and just an ‘A’
at the bottom tip.
24. In which form of part of speech has the term ‘extrapolating’ been used?
(a) Verb (b) Adverb (c) Adjective (d) Noun
(Passage Q.25-Q.29): In the last two columns of 2017, I would like to examine some of the words used in
common parlance with disturbing consequences. It is important for journalists to realise that in the past
three decades, many of our earlier assumptions have proved to be wrong. We were certain that some ideas
seemed incendiary but did not represent the mainstream view. We felt that the gap between the periphery
and the centre would be guarded by a sense of collective egalitarianism. However, history has proved the
fallibility of journalists in a cruel manner; dangerous fringe groups have galloped to occupy the core of our
public narrative. The fundamental nature of flawed words is that the perpetrators of violence, intolerance
and bigotry create them. The core principle of journalism is to use words that are descriptive, not use loaded
terms that colour our perception. By reproducing the words used by those who shun inclusivity and
diversity, journalism in a way contributes to further escalating the crisis rather than defusing it.
In this first instalment, let me examine a term that has gained currency over the last decade: ‘honour killing’.
In 2008, Pakistani journalist Beena Sarwar wrote a powerful edit page lead article titled “There is no ‘honour’
in killing”. One of her arguments, which essentially dealt with specific cases in Pakistan, applies to India
too. She wrote: “Some would prefer not to discuss such issues because this ‘brings a bad name to the
country’… They need to ask themselves who is responsible: those who perpetuate the violence, or those
who are its victims? What would make us a better, stronger nation: dealing with the issue, or burying it in
the sand?”

MOCK CLAT #10
Dexter Dias and Charlotte Proudman, legal researchers at Harvard University and practising barristers,
wrote about how linguistic labels matter: “The term ‘honour killing’ not only cedes too much power to the
perpetrator, but is offensive to survivors and women. Instead, we need to see the crime through the eyes
of those attacked, because these acts of gender violence attack something more than women’s bodies,
something precarious and precious: the challenge by thousands of courageous young women around the
world to oppressive patriarchy and stultifying social convention. In this sense, they are an attack on us all.”
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/Readers-Editor/cloak-and-dagger-words/article21827520.ece
25. What is the meaning of the term ‘incendiary’ in the passage?

(a) Flammable (b) subversive (c) stirring (d) provocative
26. What idea is the author trying to convey in the first paragraph?
(a) Journalism plays a crucial role in nation building as they have the power to influence the common
masses through responsible reporting.
(b) It is the duty of the journalists to give meaning to the words that have disturbing consequences.
(c) The perpetrators of violence & bigotry colour the meaning of the words by their intolerance.
27. What is the theme that Dexter Dias & Charlotte Proudman trying to convey?
(a) That honour killing is a crime against women.
(b) That honour killing gives too much power to the perpetrator.
(c) Honour killing is an attack freedom of choices of a women. It is a symbol of oppressive patriarchy &
therefore has to be dealt in a more strict fashion.
(d) None of the above.
28. In which form of part of speech has the term ‘galloped’ been used?
(a) Verb (b) Adverb (c) Adjective (d) Noun
29. What will be the most appropriate title for this passage?
(a) India’s own pandemic of casteist patriarchy.
(b) Honour killing: A major offence in India.
(c) ‘Honour’ crimes: An assault on women’s autonomy.
(d) Socio-Legal Dimensions of Honour Killing in India.
USE FOR ROUGH WORK

MOCK CLAT #10
SECTION-B : GENERAL KNOWLEDGE/CURRENT AFFAIRS
Directions (Q.30–Q.68): Read the information given below and answer the questions based on it.
Passage (Q.30-Q.34): STARS project worth Rs 5718 crore has got an approval from the Union Cabinet of
PM Narendra Modi. The STARS project will get the financial support from the World Bank amounting to
US $ 500 million (approximately Rs. 3700 crore).
The overall focus and components of the STARS project are aligned with the objectives of (1).The STARS
project seeks to support the states in developing, implementing, evaluating, and improving interventions
with direct linkages to improved education outcomes and school to work transition strategies for improved
labour market outcomes. This project will cover six states.
Some of the measurable outcomes of the project are Increase in students achieving minimum proficiency
in grade 3 language in selected states, improvement in secondary school completion rate, improvement in
governance index scores, strengthened learning assessment systems, partnerships developed to facilitate
cross-learning between states, and improvement in the state level service delivery such as strengthening
planning and management capacities for decentralized management by training of BRCs and CRCs,
strengthened school management by training of Head Teachers and Principals for improved education
service delivery.
Source: India Today
30. What is the full form of STARS?

(a) Scheme for Translational and Advanced Research in Science
(b) Strengthening Teaching-Learning and Results for States
(c) Standard Terminal Automation Replacement System
(d) Satellite Tracking and Ranging System
31. Which policy’s name has been replaced with (1) in the above passage?
(a) SWAYAM (Study Webs of Active learning for Young Aspiring Minds)
(b) Unnat Bharat Abhiyan
(c) New Education Policy 2020
(d) Global Initiative of Academic Networks
32. The project targets six states currently. Which of the following states is not covered under this programme?
(a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Uttar Pradesh (c) Rajasthan (d) Himachal Pradesh
33. Which department of the Ministry of Education will implement this project?
(a) Department of School Education & Literacy
(b) Department of Higher Education
(c) Department of Expenditure on Education
(d) Both (a) & (c)
34. The project envisages the establishment of a National Assessment Center for student assessment and
evaluation for all recognized school boards, including state boards, over which the Centre has thus far
exercised no control. What is the name of this center?
(a) DIKSHA (b) SHIKSHA (c) SHAGUN (d) PARAKH
Passage (Q.35-Q.38): India’s first indigenous (1) missile, Rudram, developed for the Indian Air Force, was
successfully flight-tested from a (2) jet off the east coast. These missiles are designed to detect, track and
neutralise the adversary’s radar, communication assets and other radio frequency sources, which are
generally part of their air defence systems. Such a missile’s navigation mechanism comprises an inertial
navigation system — a computerised mechanism that uses changes in the object’s own position — coupled
with GPS, which is satellite-based.
For guidance, it has a “passive homing head” — a system that can detect, classify and engage targets
(radio frequency sources in this case) over a wide band of frequencies as programmed. Officials said once

MOCK CLAT #10
the Rudram missile locks on the target, it is capable of striking accurately even if the radiation source
switches off in between.
Scientists said modern-day warfare is more and more network-centric, which means it comprises elaborate
detection, surveillance and communication systems that are integrated with the weapons systems.
Source: The Indian Express
35. What type of missile has been referred to in the above passage?
(a) Anti-tank Missile (b) Surface to surface Missile
(c) Anti- Radiation Missile (d) Cruise Missile
36. Which fighter aircraft’s name has been replaced with (2) in the above passage?
(a) Sukhoi-30 MKI (b) Mirage 2000 (c) MiG- 29 (d) MiG- 21 Bison
37. What is the maximum flight altitude range of Rudram?

(a) 100m to 10km (b) 500m to 10km (c) 100m to 15km (d) 500m to 15km
38. Who are the producers of Rudram in India?

(a) Bharat Dynamics Limited (b) Bharat Electronics Limited
(c) Bharat Earth Movers (d) Both (a) & (b)
Passage (Q.39-Q.44): Paul R. Milgrom and Robert B. Wilson were awarded the Nobel Prize in Economics
for "improvements to auction theory and inventions of new auction formats.”
Auctions are everywhere and affect our everyday lives, said the Nobel committee in its statement, adding,
"this year’s Economic Sciences Laureates, Paul Milgrom and Robert Wilson, have improved auction theory
and invented new auction formats, benefitting sellers, buyers and taxpayers around the world."
The award caps a week of Nobel Prizes and is technically known as the Sveriges Riksbank Prize in
Economic Sciences in Memory of Alfred Nobel. Since its establishment in 1969, it has been awarded 52
times and is now widely considered one of the Nobel prizes.
Source: Times of India
39. How many Indians have received a Noble Prize?

(a) 11 (b) 10 (c) 9 (d) 8
40. All the Nobel Prizes are presented in Stockholm except one. Which category of the Nobel Prize is awarded
in Oslo?
(a) Economics (b) Medicine (c) Literature (d) Peace
41. Who was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize in 2020?

(a) World Food Programme (b) Freedom from Hunger
(c) Food Bank of New York city (d) Feeding America
42. Drs. Harvey J. Alter, Michael Houghton and Charles M. Rice received the Nobel Prize for Medicine for
discovering which virus?
(a) Measles (b) Smallpox (c) Covid-19 (d) Hepatitis C
.
43. Malala Yousafzai is the youngest Nobel Laureates who got the Peace Prize in 2014. What was her age
when she received the prize?
(a) 21 years (b) 18 years (c) 17 years (d) 16 years
.
44. Who selects the Noble Laureate in Literature?
(a) Norwegian Parliament (b) Swedish Academy
(c) Karolinska Institute (d) King of Oslo

MOCK CLAT #10
Passage (Q.45-Q.49): Scientists at the (1) in West Bengal have installed a ‘solar tree’ that is likely to be
the largest of its kind in the world. A solar tree is a metal structure resembling a tree that has solar panels
fitted on the branches. The solar panels connected through metal branches produces solar power. It can
produce around 12,000–14,000 units of clean and green power in a year, the solar tree has the potential
to save 10–12 tons of CO2 from being released into the atmosphere every year.
“Solar trees because of their design use less space and hence can produce more power per unit area. But
one of the major hurdles of solar tree is its capital investment. This pushes up the cost of one unit of
electricity produced. The cost is almost double than that of solar roof top panels which takes around Rs 3.5
to produce one unit,” said SP Gon Choudhury, renewable energy expert and a Green Oscar awardee. This
solar tree is a quantum leap towards making an energy reliant and carbon negative India.
Source: The Hindustan Times
45. Which institute’s name has been replaced by (1) in the above passage?
(a) Central Mechanical Engineering Research Institute
(b) National Institute of Technology
(c) Council of Mechanical Research
(d) IIT-Kanpur
46. Where is this solar tree installed?

(a) Kolkata (b) Durgapur (c) Hoogly (d) Darjeeling
47. What is the estimated production capacity of the world’s largest solar tree?
(a) 12000 watts (b) 11000 watts (c) 11500 watts (d) 8600 watts
48. India has targeted to produce _______ of solar energy by the year 2022?
(a) 75 GW (b) 100 GW (c) 125 GW (d) 175 GW
49. Where is the world’s second largest solar tree located?

(a) London (b) New York (c) Washington (d) Sri Lanka
Passage (Q.50-Q.54): Prime Minister Narendra Modi today inaugurated six sewage treatment plants worth
over ₹ 500 crore in Uttarakhand under the 'Namami Gange' mission, saying with the projects' completion
the sewage treatment capacity of the state has gone up nearly four-fold in six years.
The six sewage treatment plants or STPs were inaugurated at six different places via video conference.
Describing Ganga as a symbol of the country's cultural glory and faith, PM Modi said that from the point of
the river's origin at Gaumukh in Uttarakhand to where it merged with the sea in West Bengal, the mighty
river enriched the lives of half of the country's population.
The six projects are a big step towards ensuring the cleanliness of the river. The Prime Minister said the
Namami Gange mission is not confined to just cleaning the Ganga but has been expanded into the
country's biggest river conservation programme.
Source: NDTV India
50. Which of the following is not a location for the above mentioned newly inaugurated six sewage treatment
plants?
(a) Haridwar (b) Badrinath (c) Rishikesh (d) Kedarnath
51. Along with the inauguration of these six treatment plants, a museum of Ganga that is dedicated to
showcase the biodiversity, rejuvenation and culture in Ganga river was also inaugurated. What is the name
of the museum?
(a) Ganga Avalokam (b) Ganga Sparsh
(c) Ganga Nirakshan (d) Ganga Parikshan
52. Where is this museum located in Uttarakhand?

(a) Badrinath (b) Kedarnath (c) Haridwar (d) Dehradun

MOCK CLAT #10
53. What was the name of the book which was launched on the same day and is co-published by National
Mission for Clean Ganga and Wildlife Institute of India?
(a) River of life, River of death
(b) Rowing Down the Ganges
(c) Ganges: The Many pasts of an Indian River
(d) A Walk along the Ganges
54. The Prime Minister also released a logo of Jal Jeevan Mission on the same day. Jal Jeevan Mission, is
envisioned to provide safe and adequate drinking water through individual household tap connections to
all rural households by which year?
(a) 2020 (b) 2022 (c) 2023 (d) 2024
Passage (Q.55-Q.58): Five Rafale fighter jets were formally inducted into the Indian Air Force on Thursday
at a glittering ceremony in the Ambala air base, in a major boost to India's air power capability at a time the
country is engaged in a tense border row with China in eastern Ladakh. Defence Minister Rajnath Singh,
his French counterpart Florence Parly, Chief of Defence Staff Gen Bipin Rawat and Air Chief Marshal RKS
Bhadauria were among the dignitaries who attended the ceremony.
The multi-role Rafale jets, built by French aerospace major (1), are known for air-superiority and precision
strikes.
A fleet of indigenously-developed combat jet Tejas and Sarang helicopter aerobatic team of the IAF too
displayed a range of aerial manoeuvres demonstrating their agility at the ceremony which was attended by
India's top military brass and executives of several French defence firms involved in the Rafale programme.
Source: The Economic Times
55. Rafale is the second major acquisition of fighter planes by India. Which fighter planes were acquired first
by India from Russia?
(a) Sukhoi (b) Mirage (c) MiG (d) Jaguar
56. Which French producer’s name has been replaced by (1) is the above mentioned passage?
(a) Lockheed Martin (b) Dassault Aviation (c) Super Hornet (d) Strike Eagle
57. How many Rafale Jets has India inked to procure from France for Rs 59,000 crore?
(a) 28 (b) 30 (c) 32 (d) 36
58. What kind of missiles come along with Rafale jets?

(a) SCRAMBLE (b) SKULL (c) SCALP (d) SCOOP
Passage (Q.59-Q.62): The Administration asked authorities to remain alert against a possible spread of
the Congo fever in the Maharashtra district. The district administration said in the wake of the outbreak of
COVID-19, this is a matter of concern for cattle- breeders, meat-sellers and animal husbandry officials, and
it is necessary to take timely precautions as there is no specific and useful treatment for the CCHF. The
animal husbandry department's deputy commissioner Dr Prashant D Kamble in a circular said the CCHF
has been found in some districts of Gujarat, and is likely to spread to border districts of Maharashtra. "If
the disease is not diagnosed and treated in time, 30 per cent of patients die," it said. The CCHF is a
widespread disease caused by a tick- borne virus. The virus causes severe viral haemorrhagic fever
outbreaks, with a case fatality rate of 10 to 40 per cent, as per the World Health Organisation (WHO). There
is no vaccine available for either people or animals against the disease, it said.
Source: NDTV India
59. Where was the Congo Fever was first discovered in the world?
(a) Russia (b) China (c) Crimea (d) Congo
60. Where did the virus first originate in India?

(a) Valasad (b) Palghar (c) Chandrapur (d) Amravati

MOCK CLAT #10
61. How is this viral fever transmitted?

(a) Mosquitos (b) Flies (c) Fruit Bats (d) Ticks
62. What is the name of the virus that causes Congo Fever?
(a) Nairovirus (b) Marburg (c) SARS- COV (d) MERS-COV
Passage (Q.63-Q.68): It is Election day in the United States of America and millions have already cast
their votes to either choose a new President in Joe Biden or stick with Donald Trump for his second term.
President Donald Trump and Democratic presidential nominee Joe Biden have gone on full-scale attack
on each other as the D-Day nears. Voting will also be different this time as the coronavirus pandemic
grapples with the whole world - the most affected country being US with over 9 million infections.
Americans have voted in large numbers, already casting a record 93 million ballots, about two-thirds of the
overall 2016 vote count of 138.8 million. Some 239 million people are eligible to vote this year.
The mail-in ballots could take days or weeks to be counted in some states - meaning a winner might not
be declared in the hours after polls close on Tuesday. The figure of 93 million includes 33 million in-person
votes and 58 million mail-in ballots.
Donald Trump, 74, toured five battleground states of Michigan, Iowa, North Carolina, Georgia and Florida
while his 77-year-old rival Joe Biden spoke at a campaign event in Pennsylvania, where the race also looks
tight.
In all but two of the country's 50 states, either President Trump or Mr Biden will win all the electors from
each state by winning the popular vote there, with the most populous states holding the most electors.
Source: NDTV India
63. The year 2020 witnessed which edition of the U.S. Presidential Elections?
(a) 56th (b) 57th (c) 58th (d) 59th
64. Every fourth year, the Presidency Elections happen on which day of the week?
(a) Monday (b) Tuesday (c) Wednesday (d) Thursday
65. As per the U.S. Constitution, how many times can a President be re-elected?
(a) Once (b) Twice (c) No limit (d) Not even once
66. Who is the running mate of Joe Biden?

(a) Mike Pence (b) Hilary Clinton (c) Kamala Harris (d) Jeff Colby
67. What is the total number of members in the U.S. Electoral College?
(a) 270 (b) 538 (c) 540 (d) 542
68. The presidency candidate shall be a resident of US for how many years before contesting for the elections?
(a) 10 years (b) 7 years (c) 5 years (d) 14 years
USE FOR ROUGH WORK

MOCK CLAT #10
SECTION – C :LEGAL REASONING
Directions (Q.69 – Q.104): Read the comprehension carefully and answer the questions based on it.
Passage (Q.69-Q.73): Privacy includes at its core the preservation of personal intimacies, the sanctity of
family life, marriage, procreation, the home and sexual orientation. Privacy also connotes a right to be left
alone. Privacy safeguards individual autonomy and recognises the ability of the individual to control vital
aspects of his or her life. Personal choices governing a way of life are intrinsic to privacy. Privacy protects
heterogeneity and recognises the plurality and diversity of our culture. While the legitimate expectation of
privacy may vary from the intimate zone to the private zone and from the private to the public arenas, it is
important to underscore that privacy is not lost or surrendered merely because the individual is in a public
place. Privacy attaches to the person since it is an essential facet of the dignity of the human being. -KS
Puttaswamy v UoI
69. The government in the wake of the 2011 bomb plantings, issued a directive mandating the set-up of CC
TV cameras inside the bathrooms of public malls. The cameras were to installed outside the toilet stalls
but within the bathroom compound to keep a check on who enters and monitor the activities of the janitors.
(a) This shall amount to an invasion of the right to privacy of the janitors.
(b) This is an invasion to the privacy of individuals who enter the restroom
(c) This is an accepted practice; as long as the cameras are installed outside the cubicles there is no
privacy concern
(d) None of the above
70. The parliament proposed a Bill which sought to create a provision in the IPC that in cases of murder
suspects the police will have unrestricted access to search a person's body, house, his personal belongings
including his electronic equipment and any communication he has had with anyone without a warrant of
any sort. Strictly based on the above passage, would such a bill be constitutional?
(a) The bill is unconstitutional
(b) The bill is constitutional as it is based on the reasonable classification of a ‘murder suspect’
(c) The bill is unconstitutional inasmuch it talks about an ‘unrestricted’ access.
71. The parliament proposed a new law which stated that when a person is sent to prison for the offence of
being involved in terrorist activities or sedition then after the person has completed his prison sentence,
once released, that person would have a GPS chip implanted near his ankle (permanently) which if tried
to tamper with would alert the authorities immediately. This process would take place under expert medical
supervision and safety. Decide the constitutionality of the law.
(a) This law is constitutional
(b) This law is unconstitutional and likely to be struck down
(c) This law is constitutional inasmuch it makes a classification between ordinary convicts and those
involved in terrorists’ activities.
72. Based on the understanding of the passage choose the best statement that follows:
(a) An individual’s privacy is limited to the individual’s private auspices. The moment the individual
becomes a part of a public gathering, his privacy is naturally compromised.
(b) An individual’s reproductive choices are covered under his right to privacy.
(c) Privacy pertains to the individual’s choices that conform to the societal standards. As long as the
conformity is maintained, the individual choices are protected under privacy.
73. A new order proposed after an attack on the Delhi High Court by the members of Jaesh was to make it
mandatory for any individual to reveal his name, nationality, age and gender before entering any Court in
India Decide the constitutionality of the law proposed: -

MOCK CLAT #10
(a) Constitutional (b) Unconstitutional

(c) partially Constitutional (d) none of the above
Passage (Q.74-Q.78): A cheque is defined as a bill of exchange drawn on a specified banker and not
expressed to be payable otherwise than on demand There are three essential parties to a cheque: The
Drawer of a cheque, the drawee of a cheque and the payee of a cheque. On Section 138 negotiable
instruments act Supreme Court judgments have time and again highlighted various important provisions.
Every year holiday under negotiable instruments act is declared and a cheque cannot be presented on a
holiday. Section 139 of Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 talks about the liability of a person who is issuing
a cheque which has been dishonoured Such a person is presumed to be guilty until and unless he proves
his innocence. When an offense under section 138 is constituted, there is a set of admitted facts and
situations where it is presumed that the person is guilty.
In Krishi Vikas Kendra v Mukund, the amount due was paid partly by the accuse(d) This amounts to a
transaction made and the court held that the burden of proof is on the accused to prove his innocence with
respect to dishonoured cheque. Under section 139 there is a presumption that a cheque presented is for a
discharge of the liability of debt either partially or wholly. And until and unless the respondent purposes any
purpose other than the discharge of liability, it shall be presumed under section 138. Such purpose may be
through conduct or express words. The accused person cannot merely escape by saying it was only given
as security and the day cheque was issued there was no liability towards the person.
Once the presumption of liability is rebutted, the burden of proof shifts to the complainant to prove that the
same cheque was issued for discharge of liability. In the case of Rangappa v. Sri Mohan, it was held that
if to any fact the accused has not replied in the statutory notice (notice under section 138) proves to be a
merit for the complainant side. This presumption is governed by the rule of evidence which is dealt by in
section 118(a) of chapter XIII. Section 140 talks about the possible grounds which may not be allowed as
a ground of defence for prosecution under section 138. It is a presumption only with regard to existing
debts. So, if the amount on the cheque exceeds the amount which is due to the person, then section 138
and section 139 shall not be attracted, this was held in the case of Angu Parameswara Textiles P Lt(d) v.
Sri Rajan and co.
[Source: https://legodesk.com/legopedia/section-139-ni-act/]
74. A and B enter into a contract for supply of cotton. When A delivers the cotton to B, B gave him a cheque
dated 20/2/2019. On 21/2/2019, when B went to the bank to present it, the cheque could not be processed
for the cheque was dishonoured. Which of the following is not a correct statement to be made?
(a) B is entitled to a legally enforceable debt against A in pursuance of the contract
(b) There is a presumption of liability against B under Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act
(c) The burden of proof to prove that the cheque was issued to discharge the liability of cotton is on B.
(d) The presumption of liability as per Kisan Vikas Kendra case comes after proving liability.
75. When the cheque was dishonoured, A filed a complaint in the court of law. Which of the following is a
correct statement regarding the next step to be taken?
(a) In line with the burden of proof in such cases, A has to show that he innocent.
(b) In line with the burden of proof in such cases, B must show that A is guilty.
(c) A must break the link between the cheque and the debt in question.
(d) B must link the cheque to the debt in question.
76. B issued the cheque as payment for the contract. However, at the same time, B had also to pay off for the
transportation charges which were supposed to be paid by him as per the contract however, were paid in
cash by A. B claims that he intended to pay off for the transport and not for the contract.
(a) B is liable for payment for the transport is also part of the contract
(b) B is not liable for the contract is only for cotton and transport payment is separate
(c) B must show that he intended to only pay for the transport
(d) B may not show anything as his conduct reflects his claim
77. Ashish is a dealer in alcohol. He often gets Razzak to sell him cheap alcohol which is smuggled from
Indonesia Ashish then uses the liquor in his stores making 200% profit on every bottle sold Razzak

MOCK CLAT #10
however, asks for the money in advance before he goes to Indonesia When Ashish issued a cheque to
Razzak to get his alcohol from Indonesia, the cheque bounced Decide
(a) Ashish is not liable for the bouncing of the cheque. The cheque was given as security.
(b) Ashish is liable for the bouncing of the cheque. The cheque may have been given prior to the delivery,
but forms part of the same transaction.
(c) Ashish is not liable for the bouncing of the cheque as there is illegal supply of alcohol in question. There
did not exist a legally enforceable debt.
(d) Ashish is liable for the bouncing of the cheque as the moment he placed an order, the terms of the
order placed a legally enforceable onto him.
78. Aftab is an oil trader. Vishnu purchased a few barrels from him which Aftab was supposed to deliver at his
door. Aftab was to get paid extra for delivery of the oil. Vishnu issued him a cheque which bounced Which
of the following is the best defence that Vishnu can possibly take?
(a) Vishnu issued the cheque for discharging the liability for transport expenses
(b) The contract amount was less than the amount in the cheque.
(c) The cheque was issued as security to Aftab for his further transactions.
(d) Vishnu had asked Aftab to wait for a couple days before putting the cheque in the bank so that he could
organize enough balance.
Passage (Q.79-Q.84): Consideration is an essential element to make a contract. It must be provided for a
contract to be legally binding. In contract law, it is said that "consideration must move from the promisee".
Drawing out the subtlety of this statement, it seems that if there is "a promisee", there must already be a
promisor; The promisor has already made a promise to the promisee, which is sufficient to form a contract
(but it's not formed at this point); The promisee must give something back to the promisor - a promise;
When the promisee promises to do something - gives consideration (and it doesn't have to be given to the
promisor - a legally binding contract is formed, provided the other elements have been satisfied
The first element is (i) Consideration must move at the desire of the promisor: Consideration can be offered
by the promisee or a third-party only at the request or desire of the promisor. It is important to note that
there can be a stranger to consideration but not a stranger to the contract. Thus, consideration may move
to a person who is not the other party to the contract.
When contracting parties are already contracted with one another, a promise to do something that they
have already contracted to do can't be "fresh" consideration. It's consideration which has been provided in
the past, and not at the time of formation of the contract. It is important to note that past consideration is
not considered for a new promise since it is not been given in lieu of the promise. According to Indian law,
‘past considerations’ is ‘good consideration’ if it was given at the desire of the promisor. Consideration is
able to be minimal.
Contracts supported by small consideration are enforceable, because Courts will look for consideration for
a promise, rather than examine the commercial merits of the contract. Courts are reluctant to interfere with
contracts which are freely made between contracting parties. If the promises to be performed at a later
date or at the time the contract is made, it is sufficient. The law looks for some value in an economic sense
- even minuscule.
Further, the same should be over and above the promisor’s existing obligations. If the promisor is already
obligated either by his promise or law to perform or abstain from a certain act, then it is not a good
consideration for a promise. Finally, a consideration cannot be unlawful.
[Source: https://hallellis.co.uk/contractual-consideration/]
79. A, due to his admiration for the U.P. Chief Minister, builds a stage on a ground owned by him so that the
CM can hold his rally. After the elections, the stage is used by a drama company for staging plays. They
promise to pay him. Later, the drama company doesn't pay him.
(a) There is no contract between A and the drama company due to invalid consideration.
(b) There is no contract between A and the drama company.
(c) There is a contract between A and the drama company not for using the stage but for using the ground
on which the stage exists.
(d) There is a contract between A and the drama company for using the stage.

MOCK CLAT #10
80. Abhishek was chased by a group of thugs near the police station. The inspector, Mr. Navedia happened to
be Abhishek’s neighbour. went to Mr. Navedia’s house later in the evening and narrated his misery. He
requested Mr. Navedia to look into the matter and said he would help him in the investigation. Mr. Navedia
promised to nab the culprits at the earliest and make the area more secure.
(a) The promise between Abhishek and Mr. Navedia is a promise with consideration
(b) The promise between Abhishek and Mr. Navedia is a promise without consideration
(c) The promise between Abhishek and Mr. Navedia is a contract
(d) It cannot be determined from the facts given
81. Pawan was asked by Rohan to buy her some goods as he returned from office. She persuaded him by
saying she'd keep hot tea and halwa ready for him when he got home. Pawan, while buying the goods
slapped the shopkeeper. The shopkeeper seeks to hold Rohan liable. Can he do so?
(a) No, since Pawan had not been authorised to slap the shopkeeper.
(b) No, since there is no contract of agency.
(c) Yes, since Pawan was authorised to buy the goods.
(d) No, since Pawan acted without authority.
82. Please refer to the facts above. What would the answer be if Rohan had asked Pawan that he would
withhold Pawan’s share of monthly profits if he did not oblige?
(a) Yes, since there is a valid contract of agency.
(b) No, since there is no contract of agency.
(c) Yes, since Pawan was authorised to buy the goods.
(d) No, since Pawan acted without authority.
83. Asur and Rohan are partners in a firm. Asur asked Rohan to enter into a contract of agency with him. Asur
said that he would give his share of monthly profits in advance if he obliged.
(a) Yes, there is a valid contract of agency.
(b) No, there is no contract of agency.
(c) Yes, Rohan is authorised to buy goods.
(d) No, since Rohan is stupid.
84. A husband promises his wife a monthly maintenance if she agrees to live separately, since their marriage
is on the rocks. He also signs a document to the affect. Is the contract valid?
(a) Yes, since the agreement is a written one.
(b) No, since there is no natural love and affection.
(c) No, since there is no consideration.
(d) No, since any agreement in restraint of marriage is void ab initio.
Passage (Q.85-Q.89): After the sub-prime crisis, speedy recovery of debts became the prime concern of
banks and financial institutions world over. To this end, they incorporated split or hybrid arbitration
agreements in their facility agreements.
“Split” or “hybrid” arbitration agreements allow one or both parties the right to elect either litigation (by way
of civil suits) or arbitration once the dispute has arisen.
Split arbitration agreements are of two types: “sole option,” where one party has the right of election, and
“mutual option,” where both parties have the right of election.
Since the Indian courts have not specifically adjudicated on this issue, the above arbitration agreement is
susceptible to two views:
VIEW 1: The arbitration agreement is not enforceable.
At the time of signing the arbitration agreement, it gave the option to either party or a sole party to, “in its
discretion”, trigger the arbitration agreement or pursue litigation. Thus, since the words used in the
arbitration agreement are “The Lender (either party) may”, it does not reflect the absolute intention of the
parties to adjudicate disputes by way of arbitration alone, especially at the time of signing the arbitration
agreement.
Thus, the principle of interpretation in good faith could be applied, i.e. the parties' intention at the time of
signing the agreement, to state that the absolute intention of the parties was not to solely arbitrate.

MOCK CLAT #10
Arbitration agreement being uncertain, causes hopeless confusion by giving an option to the parties to
either pursue litigation or arbitration, thus the arbitration agreement is not enforceable.
View II: Such an arbitration agreement is valid and enforceable.
As per the principle of effective interpretation, where a clause can be interpreted in two different ways, the
interpretation enabling the clause to be effective should be adopted in preference to that which prevents
the clause from being effective.
It could therefore be argued that the presumption always lies in favour of the validity of the arbitration
agreement and the choice of the parties rather than against it.
85. Palak wanted to buy a house with modern interior and modern furniture. Palak really liked the house owned
by Mehak situated in Neeti Bagh, Delhi. Mehak had put the house on sale. On visiting the house, Palak did
not like the interior of the house which was unlike her expectations. The price of the house in the market
was Rs. 4 crores. Palak agreed to buy Mehak’s house situated in Neeti Bagh, Delhi for Rs. 6 crores
provided Mehak renovates the house with modern interior decoration and modern furniture. Is this contract
enforceable?
(a) Yes, because the contract has been entered in good faith.
(b) No, because the contract has not been entered into good faith.
(c) Yes, because the terms of the contract are clear and certain without any ambiguity.
(d) No, because the terms of the contract are uncertain.
86. Rohit and Prachi are friends from their school time. Rohit ran a business of selling different types of
materials and fabrics to various designers and people directly. Prachi planned to start her own business of
designer saris and suits. She asked for help from Rohit to arrange for fabric for her designer clothes and
Rohit agreed to sell fabrics to Prachi at cheaper rates. Rohit and Prachi entered into an agreement where
Rohit agreed to sell 100 meters of silk fabric to Prachi every month. A clause in the contract stated that “in
case of any dispute, parties may refer to arbitration. Is such an arbitration agreement enforceable?
(a) Yes, because the contract was performed with the intention to sell and but the fabric at cheaper rate.
(b) No, because the parties do not have absolute intention to refer the dispute to arbitration.
(c) Yes, because the parties have discretion to decide if they want to refer the dispute to arbitration.
(d) No, because Prachi is taking advantage of friendship with Rohit and such a contract is not in good faith.
87. Willows owns a poultry processing plant from which considerable amount of waste organs, blood, feathers
and other residues were produces as a by-product. Therefore, Willows entered into an agreement with
Marquest, according to which Marquest at its own expense would erect a system at Willows plant, for the
disposal of the by-product. Such system would become the property of Willows in return of which Willow
agreed to sell all of its by-products to Marquest at Rs. 1000 per month for five years. Clause 10 of the
agreement stated that “In the event Willows becomes insolvent within 2 years or change management or
ownership in any way, new management or owner must honour this agreement until expiration or reimburse
Marquest to the full amount.” The management and ownership were transferred to Can poultry in a year
and Can poultry send notice of termination of the agreement to Marquest. Marquest claimed that Clause
10 is uncertain as the term “full amount” and “reimburse” are unclear as to what amount. Thus, Marquest
claimed that Can poultry have to oblige by the agreement. Which of the following is true as per the principle
of effectiveness?
(a) Clause 10 is enforceable as it can be made certain by interpreting “reimburse the full amount” to mean
reimburse the expenditures already incurred in erecting the system.
(b) Clause 10 is unenforceable because it is impossible to render it effective by any way of interpretation.
(c) Clause 10 is enforceable because the sole purpose of the clause was to allow the new management
or owners to be empowered to terminate the contract with Marquest.
(d) Clause 10 is unenforceable because it is uncertain whether “full amount” means mere expenditure
incurred by Marquest or the by-products it was to receive for 5 years.
88. Amrita agreed to sell 100 tons of oils to Neelam for a consideration of Rs. 10,000. When Amrita delivered
the oil, Neelam found that it is mustard oil, whereas she wanted to buy Groundnut oil. Neelam refused to
pay and claimed that the agreement is uncertain and therefore unenforceable. Which of the following is
true as per the principle of effective interpretation?

MOCK CLAT #10
(a) The contract is enforceable because it can be interpreted to mean that Neelam agreed to but any kind
of oil, to make it effective.
(b) The contract is unenforceable because the contract is uncertain as to what kind of oil.
(c) The contract is enforceable because Neelam cannot at the end moment refuse to pay.
(d) The contract is unenforceable because the parties did not agree to the same thing in same sense.
89. The basic principle of an arbitration agreement is party autonomy and flexibility. Does hybrid or split
agreement adhere to this principle?
(a) Yes, it allows the party to decide if they want to refer the dispute to arbitration or not.
(b) No, as it gives more autonomy to one of the parties to the agreement.
(c) Yes, it allows the lender to recover debt as per a procedure which would make it easier.
(d) No, as hybrid or split arbitration agreement cannot be called an agreement to refer the dispute to
arbitration.
Passage (Q.90-Q.94): Criminal liability stands on the basic rule i.e. an act is wrongful only when it is done
with a wrongful state of mind However, a corporation neither has a mind which can possess knowledge or
intention, nor does it have hands to carry out its intentions. To address this issue, the original application
of criminal liability to corporate entities were derived from the common law tort doctrine which says masters
had “vicarious” liability for the wrongful actions of their servants. As a result, the courts were soon willing
to hold corporations criminally liable for almost all wrongs except rape, murder, bigamy, and other crimes
of malicious intent.
In the United Kingdom, in case of Tesco v. Nattrass held that an employee was not a part of the ‘directing
mind’ of the corporation and, therefore, his conduct was not attributable to the act of corporation. However,
in Meridian Global case the Privy Council ruled that a company can be held liable for the crimes of its senior
personnel, committed without the knowledge of the company. The identification theory imposes vicarious
liability of an organisation for the acts committed by agents of the organisation and was identified in the
above two judgments.
Both vicarious liability and Respondent Superior employ the ‘identification’ approach pioneered in England
Respondent Superior provides that a corporation may be held criminally liable for the acts of any of its
agents [who] (1) commits a crime, (2) within the scope of employment, (3) with the intent to benefit the
corporation. This standard is quite broad, permitting organisational liability for the act of any agent, even
the lowest level employee.
The special vicarious liability doctrine adopted in India emanates from the common law principle which
enables the courts to hold the directing minds responsible for the actions and affairs of the company. In the
landmark case of Iridium the Supreme Court observed that corporate houses can no longer claim immunity
from criminal prosecution on the ground that they are not capable of possessing mens rea.
[Source (edited): Cyril Amarchandas Mangaldas, Corporations-Legal Fiction or an Unborn Predator, SCC
Online, (July 13, 2020), available at https://ezproxy.nujs.a(c)in:2053/blog/post/2020/07/13/corporations-
legal-fiction-or-an-unborn-predator/.
90. Bigamy is a criminal offence in India Mr. and Mrs. Mukherjee got married in 2015. Mrs. Mukherjee wanted
to go on a one-month cruise that would start in January 2016. Mr. Mukherjee clearly refused for the cruise
because he did not have time. In December 2015, Mrs Mukherjee deserted Mr. Mukherjee. Mr. Mukherjee
made all possible enquiries about his wife but could not find her. He got the information that Mrs. Mukherjee
was purchasing the ticket for the cruise which was set to sail in January 2016. On 20th January, he received
the information that the cruise has been destroyed and majority of the people on the cruise have died He
still could not find Mrs. Mukherjee and assumed that might have died with cruise destruction. In March
2017, he remarried another woman. In December 2017, Mrs. Mukherjee returned after being stranded in a
different country for several years. She was shocked to find Mukherjee being married with another woman
and filed the case of Bigamy. Will she succeed?
(a) Yes, because Mr. Mukherjee intentionally married another woman while being in a marriage with Mrs.
Mukherjee.
(b) No, because Mr. Mukherjee believed that Mrs. Mukherjee is dead and thereafter married another
woman.

MOCK CLAT #10
(c) Yes, because Mr. Mukherjee was wrong in assuming that Mrs. Mukherjee would have been on the
cruise that was destroyed.
(d) No, because Mr. Mukherjee made all possible enquiries to find her but remarried on being unable to
find Mrs. Mukherjee.
91. Prashant works as a pump attendant at Morrisson Petrol Pump. Prashant had personal enmity with Mihir
from their college times. Mihir once arrived at Morrissons Petrol Pump and bought fuel for his car. After
getting the fuel, Mihir stopped at the forecourt of the petrol pump to buy some snacks when Prashant saw
him. Prashant was angry from his last interaction with Mihir where Mihir had physically assaulted him.
Therefore, when Prashant saw Mihir, he went and started punching and kicking Mihir, resulting into severe
back injury to Mihir. Mihir brought a claim against Prashant and Morrisson Petrol Pump for the injuries he
suffered as a result of assault by Prashant. Will he succeed against Morrisson Petrol Pump?
(a) Yes, because Prashant wasa acting as the servant of Morrisson Petrol pump and therefore Morrisson
is vicariously liable for Prashant’s actions.
(b) No, because when Prashant assaulted Mihir, he was not acting as Morrisson’s servant but acting out
of personal enmity between Prashant and Mihir.
(c) Yes, because the assault had been committed on Morrisson’s premises and the supervisors at
Morrisson didn’t do anything to stop Prashant.
(d) No, because the assault had not been committed at any of the pumps but at the forecourt and therefore
Prashant cannot be said to be acting as Morrisson’s servant.
92. Motorala Inc floated a private placement memorandum (PPM) to obtain funds/investments to finance the
Iridium project. The project was “represented as being the world’s first commercial system designed to
provide global digital hand-held telephone data and it was intended to be a wireless communication system
through a constellation of 66 satellites in low orbit to provide digital service to mobile phones and other
subscriber equipment locally.” Such representations were drafted by Sakshi, the director and the manager
of Motorola Inc Several financial institutions invested in the project based on the information contained in
the PPM including Gonsola Corporation. However, Gonsola found that the representations made by
Motorola Inc were false and that the project turned out to the commercially unviable resulting in significant
loss to Gonsola Corporation. Therefore, Gonsola filed a criminal complaint for cheating under Section 420
of IPC read with conspiracy under Section 120B of IPC. Motoral Inc claimed that the corporation is
incapable of cheating as it has no mind of its own and therefore a criminal complaint against it would not
succeed Will Gonsola Corporation succeed against Motorola Inc under Indian law?
(a) Yes, because a company is capable of having mens rea for the offence of cheating as it has mind of
its own.
(b) No, because a company is incapable of having mens rea for the offence of cheating as it has no mind
of its own.
(c) Yes, because Sakshi is the directing mind of the Motorola Inc who can be held responsible for the
actions of company.
(d) No, because Sakshi is merely an employee of the company whose actions cannot hold a company
criminally liable.
93. Michael is employed as a security guard at Artolia Antique Items Shop. It is a large, and very busy shop.
Michael has been employed to walk around the shop so as to creating a presence to reduce theft. Jack is
a customer who was looking around and touching every item. Michael grew suspicious of him and politely
asked him to refrain from touching every item. Jack took it as an insult and started an argument with Steve.
Jack as then ushered out the door by another security guard Michael, however, became very angry and
followed Jack out into the parking lot, and punched him so as to establish that nobody can cause mischief
in Artolia Antique Items Shop. Jack therefore filed a small claims lawsuit seeking payment for medical bills,
as well as for pain and suffering against the owner of Artolia Antique Items Shop. Will the owner be liable
as per the principle of Respondent Superior?
(a) Yes, because Michael committed the crime within the scope of employment so as to benefit the Shop
owner.
(b) No, because Michael did not commit any crime when he was acting under self defence to protect the
items of the shop.

MOCK CLAT #10
(c) Yes, because though Michael chased Jack out of the shop and punched him, was acting for the benefit
of the shopowner so as to establish that no harm can be done.
(d) No, because when Michael got angry and went out to punch Jack, he cannot be said to act in the course
of employment.
94. What is the Identification theory recognised in the two cases of United Kingdom?
(a) It holds a corporation criminally liable for the acts committed by its employees.
(b) It is a vicarious liability theory which hold a corporation liable for the acts of its servants.
(c) It is a principle which identifies the directing mind of the corporation to hold the corporation criminally
liable for their actions.
(d) It is a principle to impose the criminal liability on the employees of a corporation instead of the
corporation.
Passage (Q.95-Q.99): A victim is defined u/s.2(wa) of the CrPC as a person who has suffered any loss or
injury caused by reason of the act or omission for which the accused person has been charged and the
expression 'victim' includes his or her guardian or legal heir. Despite introduction of a victim in the CrPC
and his/her rights to prefer an appeal u/s.372 Proviso, these rights suffer from vital deficiency in case of
Appeal against the inadequate sentence/s.
This has been demonstrated in case of Parvinder Kansal where court held that Appeal filed by Victim
seeking enhancement of sentence is not maintainable.
The proviso u/s.372 of the CrPC is restricted only to three eventualities: i. acquittal of the accused; ii.
Conviction of the accused for lesser offence; iii. for imposing inadequate compensation.
The 2nd eventuality 'convicting for a lesser offence' does not give any right to victim to prefer an appeal for
enhancement of sentence. The simple reading of these words means, conviction is imposed, but it is in
respect of lesser offence. It does not include 'less quantum of punishment - either in a form of sentence for
imprisonment or fine'.
There are cases, in which sentences were not awarded properly i.e. in proportionate to crime or as per the
victim's expectation, but then, 'victim' has no statutory remedy under the law to prefer an appeal to the
higher forum against it.
Criminal Law clearly differentiates between the conviction and sentence. Conviction is 'the act or process
of judicially finding someone guilty of a crime; the state of having been proved guilty, whereas the Sentence
is the (actual) punishment imposed on a criminal wrongdoer. The difficulty is: the proviso of S.372 CrPC
does not specify the word 'sentence'.
Undoubtedly, u/s.377 of the CrPC an Appeal by the State Government against the quantum of sentence
on the ground of its inadequacy is maintainable, but then, only State can challenge the quantum of sentence
and not the victim.
[Source (edited): Kashyap Joshi, “Why Victim cannot seek enhancement of sentence U/s. 372 of The
CrPC”, LiveLaw, (Sept 1, 2020), available at https://www.livelaw.in/columns/why-victim-cannot-seek-
enhancement-of-sentence-us372-of-the-crpc-162242].
95. Rashi was raped by Amit. An FIR was filed against him and court proceedings also began. At the end of
the court proceedings, court imposed a sentence of 5 years imprisonment and directed him to pay Rs.
1000 every month to Rashi. Rashi’s mother sought to file an appeal under Section 372 of CrPC against the
sentence given by the court. Which of the following is most appropriate?
(a) Only state can file appeal against the sentence because a crime is an offence against humanity and
not an individual.
(b) Rashi’s mother has rights of a victim because she is the legal guardian of her daughter.
(c) Only Rashi can file appeal against the sentence because she has suffered injuries due to the act
committed by Amit.
96. Mahesh has been charged with the offence of murder under Section 302 of IPC for committing the murder
of Ramesh. The trial court conducted its proceeding and at the end found Mahesh guilty of culpable
homicide not amounting to murder under Section 304 of IPC. Ramesh’s father filed appeal against the trial
court’s order under the power granted under Section 372 proviso of CrPC. Will he succeed?

MOCK CLAT #10
(a) Yes, since S. 372 provides the power to file appeal against conviction for lesser offence.
(b) Yes, since S. 372 provides the power to victim to appeal for enhancing the punishment.
(c) No, since S. 372 does not provide the power to file against trial court’s conviction.
(d) No, since Ramesh’s father doesn’t have locus standi.
97. Rakesh Sharma is an IPS officer. His daughter is getting married the next month. Rakesh Sharma had kept
around Rs. 10 lakhs cash in his cupboard for his daughter’s wedding. Rakshit worked as the peon of
Rakesh Sharm(a) He closely assisted Rakesh Sharma in his work and had knowledge about Rs. 10 lakhs.
One night, he entered Rakesh Sharma’s house and stole Rs. 7 lakh and some jewelleries that were kept
in Rakesh’s cupboar(d) While leaving, Rakesh Sharma caught Rakshit and threatened him with his gun.
Rakshit had no option and therefore used a glass vase and smashed it on Rakesh Sharma’s head, leaving
him unconscious. Rakshit ran with the money and jewelleries. Raskhit was charged with the offence of
theft. The trial court on analysing the facts of the case held him guilty of robbery and awarded him 3 years
of imprisonment instead of 10 years which is prescribed by the law. Can Rakesh Sharma file an appeal to
enhance the punishment to 10 years?
(a) Yes, Rakesh can appeal under Section 377.
(b) Yes, since the law prescribes 10 years of imprisonment if held guilty for the offence of robbery.
(c) No, since Section 372 does not envisage the right to appeal for enhancement of sentence.
(d) No, since the trial court has already convicted him for the offence of robbery instead of theft when he
had no intention to commit robbery.
98. The proviso to Section 372 had been added with the objective that “A victim-oriented approach to certain
aspects of criminal procedure was advocated in the Law Commission of India's 154th Report, 1996, which
noted that "increasingly, the attention of criminologists, penologists and reformers of criminal justice system
has been directed to victimology, control of victimization and protection of the victims of crimes…victims
are the worst sufferers in a crime and they don’t have much role in the court proceedings. They need to be
given certain rights and compensation, so that there is no distortion of criminal justice system.” Is the
judgement of Parvinder Kansal in consonance with the objective of the addition of the proviso as per the
author?
(a) Yes, the Parvinder Kansal case categorized the right of victim to appeal against the acquittal of
accused, conviction for lessor offence and for inadequate compensation.
(b) Yes, the judgement has tried to provide the rights to the victim so as to maintain the criminal justice
system.
(c) No, the judgement fails to provide the very basic right to the victims to appeal for enhancement of a
sentence.
(d) No, the judgement goes against the statutory remedy provided by the proviso under Section 372 of
CrPC.
99. Radhika was returning from a party thrown by her friend She was intoxicated but was in conscious state of
mind She was driving back to her home when she met an accident with Rahul’s car. Rahul was driving
rashly and negligently at a very fast speed Rahul suffered injuries on head whereas Radhika suffered minor
cracks. Rahul filed case against Radhika in court alleging negligent driving. The court held that Radhika is
guilty of “drunk driving” and imposed a fine of Rs. 5000. Radhika challenged the conviction before the court.
Which of the following is true?
(a) Radhika can challenge appeal against the conviction under Section 372 of CrPC.
(b) Radhika can challenge the imposition of fine of Rs. 5000 to reduce it.
(c) Rahul can challenge the conviction under Section 372 of CrPC.
(d) Rahul can challenge the imposition of fine of Rs. 5000 to increase it.
Passage (Q.100-Q.104): Section 112 of the Indian Evidence Act provides:

“the fact that any person was born during the continuance of a valid marriage between his mother and any
man, or within two hundred and eighty days after its dissolution, the mother remaining unmarried shall be
conclusive proof that he is the legitimate son of that man unless it can be shown that the parties to the
marriage had no access to each other at any time when he could have been begotten”.

MOCK CLAT #10
For refuting the presumption of the legitimacy of such a child, it would have to be proved that during the
subsistence of a valid marriage, the parents of the child did not have access to each other.
In Morris v. Davies it was held that the burden to prove ‘non-access’, or lack of an opportunity of sexual
intercourse between the parties, lies on the party contesting so.
However, of late, the exponential growth in science and technology has questioned this provision. As per
studies, comparing genetic profiles of a man and a child can ascertain the paternity of that child with laser-
like precision. This makes the DNA test scientifically accurate and irrefutable.
Although DNA tests are not explicitly mentioned as an exception to the conclusive proof of Section 112.
Indian courts have, in some instances, allowed parties to conduct the same to ascertain paternity. However,
this practice is not uniform or regulated
In Nandlal Wasudev case the Supreme Court stated, “when there is a conflict between a conclusive proof
envisaged under the law and a proof based on scientific advancement accepted by the world community
to be correct, the latter must prevail over the former.”
[Source (edited): Ansh Singh Luthra, “Indian Evidence Act and Society Dynamics: A Call for a Review”,
Bar and Bench, (June 11, 2020), available at https://www.barandbench.com/columns/indian-evidence-act-
and-society-dynamics-a-call-for-a-review].
100. Ritika was married to Amit for five years. Recently Amit had started drinking and beating Ritika Therefore,
Ritika divorced Amit by law. After the end of their marriage, Amit visited Ritika several times to accept him
as her husband and remarry but Ritika refused After 200 days of the dissolution of their marriage, Ritika
married Soham, her childhood best friend After a month of their marriage, Ritika gave birth to a daughter
Riya Whose legitimate daughter is Riya as per Section 112 of the Evidence Act?
(a) Riya is the legitimate daughter of Soham because Ritika is married to Soham now.
(b) Riya is the legitimate daughter of Soham because Ritika and Amit did not have access to each other.
(c) Riya is the legitimate daughter of Amit because Ritika had only been married for a month to Soham.
(d) Riya is the legitimate daughter of Amit because Riya was begotten within 280 days of dissolution of
Amit and Ritika’s marriage.
101. Naina and Aman have been married but got divorced in January because Naina was cheating on Aman.
Naina got into relationship with Ritwik after the divorce. Naina conceived a baby on 15th June. Naina
remained unmarried after the divorce. Naina claimed that her baby is the legitimate child of Aman. Aman
refuted being the father of the baby. He proved that he didn’t have access to Naina from 13th June till 20th
June because he was in Singapore for a business trip. Is it true that the Aman is successful in proving that
the baby is not the legitimate child of Aman?
(a) Yes, since he did not have access to Naina on 15th June, i.e. when the baby was conceived.
(b) Yes, since Naina was in a relationship with Ritwik at the time when the baby was conceived.
(c) No, since Aman should be able to prove that he did not have access to Naina at any time the baby
could have been begotten.
(d) No, since the relationship with Ritwik is of no importance in deciding the legitimacy of the baby.
102. Rahul and Tina have been validly married for ten years. They had been trying for a baby for several years
but could not have one. Later, Rahul got distant from Tina and started an extra-marital affair with Anjali. He
left his house to live with Anjali. He had been living with Anjali for almost a year. He was planning to divorce
Tina when he heard the news that Tina conceived a baby. Tina claims that Rahul is the father of her baby.
But Rahul wants to divorce Tina and marry Anjali and therefore refuted the fact that he is the father of the
baby. Rahul proved that he had been living with Anjali for almost a year and did not have access to Tina
Which of the following is correct?
(a) The baby will be considered the legitimate child of Rahul because Rahul and Tina have been validly
married throughout.
(b) The baby will be considered the legitimate child of Rahul because Tina was not in any extra marital
relationship at the time of conceiving the baby.
(c) The baby will not be considered the legitimate child of Rahul because Rahul was involved in an extra
marital affair with Anjali.
(d) The baby will not be considered the legitimate child of Rahul because Rahul had been living separately
from Tina and did not have access to her at the time.

MOCK CLAT #10
103. Veer and Zaara are validly married Zaara gave birth to a baby girl named Viza Veer alleged that Viza is
not his legitimate daughter but he could not prove that he and Zaara did not have access to each other
during the time when Viza could have been begotten. Veer got a DNA test done. The results of DNA test
said that the DNA of Viza and Veer does not match. Which of the following is correct as per the case of
Nandlal Wasudev?
(a) Viza is not the legitimate child of Veer because Veer did not have knowledge of her birth.
(b) Viza is not the legitimate child of Veer because the DNA of both of them did not match as per the result
of the DNA test.
(c) Viza is the legitimate child of Veer because he failed to prove that he did not have access to Zaara at
the time when Viza could have been begotten.
(d) Viza is the legitimate child of Veer because Veer and Zaara are in a valid marriage.
104. Which of the following arguments weakens the decision of the Nandlal Wasudev case?
(a) The practice of conducting DNA test to assess paternity is not uniform and unregulated
(b) The conclusive proof as envisaged by law is based on child welfare so as to prevent child from being
bastardised and face social stigma
(c) DNA tests are 99.9% accurate and rarely used to assess paternity test.
(d) Scientific innovation would lead to changes in the law and allow reading of scientific advancement
under laws.
USE FOR ROUGH WORK

MOCK CLAT #10
SECTION - D : LOGICAL REASONING
Directions (Q.105-Q.133): Read and analyse the passage and answer the questions:-
(Passage Q.105-Q.109): From childhood you look up to your parents when you are in doubt or are faced
with a challenge. You tend to do so when you become parents yourselves. You deem them the best person
to turn to for parenting advice. After all, they are the ones who brought you up. However, sometimes parents
do not agree with your parenting style or do not heed to the instructions you give them when they are with
their grandchildren.
Most of the times, children are left home with their grandparents when their parents are out for work. In
such a case, if their parents and grandparents are not on the same page when it comes to parenting, it
takes a toll on the child.
It is important to set boundaries in such a case. Boundaries help you protect your relationship with your
child and your parents. However, it can get difficult to set such harsh boundaries with your parents. You
tend to feel awkward when you must assert such power over the people who raised you. You are scared
that you will be disrespectful to them. However, it is important that you set these boundaries for the sake
of your children.
The next step is to remind them that they too took their time at perfecting the art of parenting. It is alright
to tell them that you, too, need your time and space to make mistakes and understand the intricacies of
parenthood. Tell them that you do not expect them to be you; however, some fundamental rules need to
be followed. Tell them that you would appreciate their love and support while you embark on the journey
of parenthood.
105. Which of the following is similar to the reason the author gives for setting boundaries?
(a) Parenting is emotionally and intellectually draining, and it often requires professional sacrifice and
serious financial hardship.
(b) Experienced parents give new parents a ton of advice – ultimately you decide what works best for your
family.
(c) Parental happiness is a psychological defence –a fiction we imagine to make all the hardships
acceptable.
(d) Parents all feel the weight of parenthood at some time or another – some more than others.
106. If the statements in the given passage are true, then which of the following would also be true?
(a) More and more mothers have been speaking up about postpartum depression, and today most people
see it as a normal physiological response experienced by some new mothers.
(b) Studies have shown that when parents are fatigued, this can affect their overall wellbeing, as well as
their ability to respond to their children with sensitivity and confidence.
(c) Research suggests that communicating with your family regarding your decisions about raising your
children helps them see you as independent and capable.
107. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

(a) Joyful parenting is a myth.
(b) Exhaustion is integral to parenting.
(c) Parenting is a learning process.
(d) Parenting is expensive.
108. Why does the author say that setting boundaries is hard?
(a) Because it may seem uncomfortable.
(b) Because it may be too sentimental.
(c) Because it may not be good for your mental health.
(d) Because it may make you seem overconfident.

MOCK CLAT #10
109. Which of the following best represents the main point of the given passage?
(a) We must not rely on our parents for parenting advice.
(b) We must consult other parents in the community before bringing a child into this world.
(c) We must set boundaries when our parents do not agree with our parenting style.
(d) Our parents were experts and instinctively knew what was right for us.
(Passage Q.110-Q.113): Because of the unstructured nature of the group, the major problem faced by the
participants is how they are going to use their time together - whether it be eighteen hours of a week-end
or forty or more hours in a one-week group. Often there is consternation, anxiety, and irritation at first -
particularly because of the lack of structure. Only gradually does it become evident that the major aim of
nearly every member is to find ways of relating to other members of the group and to himself. Then as they
gradually, tentatively, and fearfully explore their feelings and attitudes towards one another and towards
themselves, it becomes increasingly evident that what they have first presented are façades, masks. Only
cautiously do the real feelings and real persons emerge. The contrast between the outer shell and the inner
person becomes more and more apparent as the hours go by. Little by little, a sense of genuine
communication builds up, and the person who has been thoroughly walled off from others comes out with
some small segment of his actual feelings. Usually his attitude has been that his real feelings will be quite
unacceptable to other members of the group. To his astonishment, he finds that he is more accepted the
more real that he becomes. Negative feelings are often especially feared, since it seems certain to each
individual that his angry or jealous feelings cannot possibly be accepted by another. Thus one of the most
common developments is that a sense of trust slowly begins to build, and also a sense of warmth and liking
for other members of the group. A woman says on Sunday afternoon, 'If anybody had told me Friday
evening that by today I would be loving every member of this group I would have told him that he belonged
in the nut house.' Participants feel a closeness and intimacy which they have not felt even with their spouses
or members of their own family, because they have revealed themselves here more deeply and more fully
than to those in their own family circle.
Thus, in such a group the individual comes to know himself and each of the others more completely than
is possible in the usual social or working relationships. He becomes deeply acquainted with the other
members and with his own inner self, the self that otherwise tends to be hidden behind his façade. Hence
he relates better to others, both in the group and later in the everyday life situation.
110. Which of the following best describes the attitude of the author towards Encounter Groups?
(a) Philosophical but unsure (b) Modest appreciation
(c) Dissatisfied (d) Optimism
111. The author develops his idea by

(a) comparison and contrast.
(b) comparing opinions and facts.
(c) explaining a chronology of events.
(d) providing illustrations to support his theory.
112. The author is most likely to discuss which of the following in the paragraph that would immediately follow
the last paragraph above?
(a) Challenges faced by participants in Encounter Groups
(b) Describing experiences of people who benefitted from Encounter Groups
(c) Advocating Encounter Groups as a part of psychotherapy.
(d) Benefits of psychoanalysis in improving effectiveness of Encounter Groups
113. Why does the author refer to the woman’s example in first paragraph?
(a) To highlight the rapidness with which people become comfortable in Encounter Groups
(b) To explain that initial reluctance to open up is very short lived
(c) To highlight that even women are comfortable in Encounter Groups
(d) All of the above

MOCK CLAT #10
(Passage Q.114-Q.117): Are you worried? Do you have many “what if” thoughts? You are identified with
your mind, which is projecting itself into an imaginary future situation and creating fear. You can stop this
health- and life-corroding insanity simply by acknowledging the present moment. All that you ever have to
deal with, cope with, in real life is this moment. Ask yourself what “problem” you have right now, not next
year, tomorrow, or five minutes from now. What is wrong with this moment? You can always cope with the
Now, but you can never cope with the future – nor do you have to. The answer, the strength, the right action
or the resource will be there when you need it, not before, not after. Are you a habitual “waiter”? How much
of your life do you spend waiting? What I call “small-scale waiting” is waiting in line at the post office, in a
traffic jam, at the airport, or waiting for someone to arrive, to finish work, and so on. “Large-scale waiting”
is waiting for the next vacation, for a better job, for the children to grow up, for a truly meaningful
relationship, for success, to make money, to be important, to become enlightened. It is not uncommon for
people to spend their whole life waiting to start living. There is nothing wrong with striving to improve your
life situation. You can improve your life situation, but you cannot improve your life. Life is primary. Life is
your deepest inner Being. It is already whole, complete, perfect.
Your life situation consists of your circumstances and your experiences. If you are dissatisfied with what
you have got, or even frustrated or angry about your present lack, that may motivate you to become rich,
but even if you do make millions, you will continue to experience the inner condition of lack, and deep down
you will continue to feel unfulfilled. You may have many exciting experiences that money can buy, but they
will come and go and always leave you with an empty feeling and the need for further physical or
psychological gratification. So give up waiting as a state. When you catch yourself slipping into waiting …
snap out of it. Come into the present moment. Just be, and enjoy being. If you are present, there is never
any need for you to wait for anything. So next time somebody says, “Sorry to have kept you waiting,” you
can reply, “That's all right, I wasn't waiting. I was just standing here enjoying myself – in joy in my self.”
114. The primary purpose of the passage is to propose that

(a) the present moment is its own death.
(b) the self is based on mind identification.
(c) we practise monitoring our inner mental-emotional state.
(d) we awake out of waiting into the present.
115. According to the author, the future

(a) is a mental phantom.
(b) is an imaginary mind projection.
(c) will always seem better.
(d) accelerates ageing by accumulating the past in your psyche.
116. According to the passage, habitual waiting

(a) is reducing the present moment to a means to an end.
(b) is a perfect recipe for permanent dissatisfaction and non-fulfillment.
(c) greatly reduces the quality of your life by making you lose the present.
(d) unconsciously creates inner conflict between your now and your projected future.
117. According to the author, true prosperity

(a) is keeping us trapped in time.
(b) does not abide in Being.
(c) is the fullness of life now.
(d) is the background static of perpetual discontent.
118. Passage: To build a house, you need both money and labour. Labour is missing. Therefore, the house
cannot be constructed.
Which of the following most closely follows the logic of this statement?
(a) You can cook food on a stove. You do not have a stove. Therefore you cannot cook food.
(b) You should have a black pen to write the paper. You can’t write the paper. Therefore, you don’t have a
black pen.

MOCK CLAT #10
(c) One should have a good work experience to be able to handle HR responsibilities. He is unable to
handle the HR role. Therefore, he does not have any work experience.
(d) For an organization to exist there is a need of excellent staff. Absence of excellent staff is a setback.
Therefore the organization cannot exist.
119. Passage: It’s that time of year when the ministry of finance begins to receive demands for grants from their
counterparts, and allocation for defence has always been a point of debate. Despite substantial increase
in budget allocation, military spend as a percentage of GDP has been declining in India. This trend has
been the subject of much criticism because India would always have to contend with the possibility of a
two-front war scenario with China and Pakistan.
Which of the following is the most plausible course of action that can be taken?
(a) To demand an escalation in the defence budget
(b) To increase integrated planning on procurement amongst the armed forces
(c) To ponder why budget allocation is biased
(d) To demand equal distribution of funds among different sectors of economy, so as to fight powers like
China and Pakistan
120. Passage: India, with a population of over 1.2 billion, has seen tremendous growth in the past two decades.
Its gross domestic product has increased 4.5 times and per capita consumption has increased threefold.
Similarly, food grain production has nearly doubled. However, despite the phenomenal industrial and
economic growth and while India produces sufficient food to feed its population, the nation is unable to
provide access to food to a large number of people, especially women and children.
With reference to the above passage, which of the following is logically consistent?
(a) When it comes to treatment, women and children in India are maltreated.
(b) Majority of women in India are anemic.
(c) India accounts for a quarter of undernourished population in the world.
(d) An alarming number of people in India are dying of starvation every year
121. Passage: In 2015 the rate of inflation was 5 percent, but for the year 2016 it has been 9 percent. Brinda
Karat has therefore averred that inflation is on the rise and the rate will increase the next year.
Which of the following will most weaken the claim of Brinda Karat?
(a) Government interference cannot affect the rate of inflation.
(b) Increase in the pay of some workers is linked to the level of inflation; these pay outs raise the level of
inflation.
(c) The inflation figures were computed on the basis of a representative sample of economic data rather
than all of the available data.
(d) A fall in oil prices brought inflation temporarily below its recent stable annual level.
(Passage Q.122-Q.126): Aflatoxin was flagged as a potential carcinogen as far back as 2000 by the MP
Pollution Control Board (PCB), yet use of the chemical has grown exponentially since, with the chemical
giant Dow Chemical Company dominating the market. Numerous reports have covered the internal
company documents showing how Dow’s influence over the PCB succeeded in suppressing health
concerns.
In fact, rather than restricting the use of Aflatoxin, the PCB has raised the legal threshold for residues on
some foods up to 300-fold above levels deemed safe in the 1990s. And unlike with other commonly used
pesticides, the government has turned a blind eye for decades when it comes to monitoring Aflatoxin –
failing to test for it on food and in our bodies.
122. Which of the following can be inferred about some foods?

(a) the maximum permissible limit of Aflatoxin in 1990 was lower than it is now.
(b) the maximum permissible limit of Aflatoxin in 1990 was higher than it is now.
(c) the maximum permissible limit of Aflatoxin in 1990 was similar to what it is now.
(d) the maximum permissible limit of Aflatoxin in 1990 was first reduced but then finally increased.

MOCK CLAT #10
123. Which of the following is the logical corollary to the last sentence of the given passage?
(a) “I would love to get those pesticides out of my body and my family’s bodies,” said B.S. Jamod of Bhopal,
a participant and father of two.
(b) So it’s no surprise that Roundup – the world’s most widely used weed killer – shows up in our bodies.
(c) the agency's slipshod regulation has led to a dramatic increase in exposure.
(d) Switching to an organic diet decreased levels of Aflatoxin, by 70% in just six days.
124. Which of the following most accurately represents the author's main point in the passage?
(a) The MP government strictly monitors the use of pesticides.
(b) Aflatoxin is a pesticide that has been allowed to be used by the PCB
(c) C. Aflatoxin is a less harmful pesticides than other pesticides.
(d) pesticides are found in abundance in foods these days.
125. Which of the following is LEAST consistent with the author's reasoning in the passage?
(a) the MP PCB labelled Aflatoxin as a chemical that causes cancer.
(b) the use of Aflatoxin has grown in an unprecedented manner.
(c) Dow's internal documents point to the fact that it has influence over the PCB.
(d) the use of Aflatoxin is now monitored, and the level of its presence has decreased considerably.
126. What can be inferred about the MP government and the MP PCB from the given passage?
(a) they are considering disallowing the use of Aflatoxin
(b) they monitor the use of Aflatoxin
(c) they are prone to influence from external agencies
(d) they work alongside each other to ban the use of pesticides.
(Passage Q.127-Q.131): Las Vegas, Graveyard Time scans the plush interiors of the Desert Inn and
Caesar's Palace casinos - places designed to make people spend and lose money. Chips are stacked, the
roulette wheel spins, but there's no background noise - no commotion, no real motion. Just the sound of
the roulette wheel. Eerie.
Then there's an abrupt cut to the interior of the Hoover Dam which supplies water to Las Vegas. Juxtaposed
are the power of money - the casinos - and their dependence on a different kind of power provided by the
Hoover Dam. This film is the latest in a series by the Wilsons centred around architecture and power.
But it is My Bed which has grabbed the media's attention. This installation by Tracey Emin, based on bed-
ridden days of depression and physical illness, has provoked shock and derision. The viewer is compelled
to examine crumpled sheets, torn pillows, blood-stained knickers, screwed-up tissues, empty vodka bottles
and cigarette packets, a pair of slippers. It's personal. We've all been there. Oh, I almost forgot to mention
the suitcases in chains. There's anger and alienation. It screams out. Emotion. Betrayal. A series of pen
and ink drawings and words sprawl across another wall. In the next room, a number of short films give
further insights into Emin's life and attitudes.
It is all uncompromising, explicit and loud. Evidently, some sections of the 'art establishment' have grown
bored of Emin's use of personal trauma and pain. But this sounds more like contrived outrage to an
assertive, aggressive woman. This is no comfort zone. This art will move you whether you like it or not.
But, if Tracey Emin manages to deal with some of the symptoms of class society, Jane and Louise Wilson
hit a higher level. The Wilsons' works are broad and general. They make you consider the superstructure
of society, wealth and control. Ultimately, there is a questioning of the nature of society itself. They come
nearer to identifying the disease.
Steven Pippin's work is a mix of engineering and imagination: photographs of a horse and rider, and of
himself walking and running. The photographs are the same size as the front of washing machines - he
adapted machines in a New Jersey laundromat into cameras, chemicals in the powder dispenser, the lot.
Called Laundromat-Locomotion, the result is a load of large, unclear photographs taken by the machines.
The machine becomes the watcher - a cleaner version of Big Brother? There's a play between people
watching washing and watching TV.

MOCK CLAT #10
127. Las Vegas, Graveyard Time is in reality

(a) a movie depicting an eerie place where a person would get entrapped and lose his money.
(b) an actual place that has casinos and pleasure activities, designed for people to lose their money and
themselves.
(c) a movie that runs over two different themes of architecture and power, shot in an eerie style, mixing
the two themes.
(d) a movie that runs over two different themes of architecture and power, shot in a unique style, mixing
two perspectives of the subject together.
128. 'My Bed' has captured the media's attention because

(a) of the compelling visual imagery that depicts crumpled bed sheets, torn pillows, bloodstained knickers
etc.
(b) it is based on bed-ridden days of depression and physical illness, has provoked shock and derision,
and this attracts the media.
(c) the visual imagery is very personal, and relates to the personal experience of suffering of every
individual. This makes it very compelling.
(d) the compelling imagery arouses sentiments of shock and derision in the mind of the viewer and thus
has a strong impact.
129. The passage speaks of the impact and probable future of Emin's art in light of the evident boredom of
others in the art community with her style. According to the passage:
(a) this form of art is on its way out as the consistent use of personal tragedy as a medium of expression
has lost its novelty.
(b) whether one likes it or not it makes a strong impact and moves the viewer.
(c) there is anger and alienation in the art community for using such powerful imagery.
(d) it questions the superstructure of society, wealth and control and is thus anti establishment.
Consequently, it may not survive
130. Laundromat - Locomotion is about

(a) washing machine as the subjects and a cleaner Big Brother as the viewer.
(b) Watching TV while washing in the washing machines by people.
(c) washing machines as the viewer and a cleaner Big Brother as the subject.
(d) washing machines as the viewer with a subtle allusion to the cleansing of the society.
.
131. The aim of the passage seems to be
(a) an appraisal of the prevalent styles of art.
(b) a critical analysis of artists and their art forms
(c) it is unclear although it seems that an effort has been made to provide objective views on the artists
and their art forms.
132. If white is called blue, blue is called red, red is called yellow, yellow is called green, green is called black,
black is called violet and violet is called orange, what would be the colour of human blood?
(a) Red (b) Green (c) Yellow (d) Violet
Direction: (Q.133): The question consists of two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have
to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the
statements and give answer
(a) if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone
are not sufficient in answer the question.
(b) if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone
are not sufficient to answer the question.
(c) if the data in both statement I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
(d) if the data in both statement I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

MOCK CLAT #10
133. V, W, X, Y, Z and A are sitting in a straight line facing north. Who sits on the immediate left of V?
I. Only two persons sit on the right of Z. Only one person sits between Z and A.
II. Z sits second to the left of V, who sits at the extreme end of the line, X sits third to the right of A.
USE FOR ROUGH WORK

MOCK CLAT #10
SECTION - E :QUANTITATIVE TECHNIQUES
Directions (Q.134-Q.150): Refer to the line graph below and answer the questions that follow
Directions: (Q.134-Q.138): Study the following pie - charts carefully and answer the questions given
below:
Percentage breaks up of the number of children in five different villages and break up of children
attending school from those villages
134. What is the total number of children not attending school from village V₂and V₃together?
(a) 528 (b) 508 (c) 518 (d) 618
135. The number of children attending school from village V₁is approximate, what percent of the number of
children from that village?
(a) 54% (b) 56% (c) 60% (d) 58%
136. What is the approximate average number of children not attending school from village V₂, V₃and
V₄together?
(a) 269 (b) 258 (c) 264 (d) 270
137. The number of children not attending school from village V₄ and V₅ is approximately what percent of the
total number of children from village V₄ and V₅ together?
(a) 43.65% (b) 42.5% (c) 48% (d) 46%
138. What is the ratio of the total number of children from village V₄ to the number for children attending
school from the same village?
(a) 22:21 (b) 29:28 (c) 29:21 (d) 29:27

MOCK CLAT #10
Directions: (Q.139-Q.143): The following data shows the working hours for three employees (Shashi,
Neha, and Ashok) in six days to complete a task. The working hours also indicates the time taken by them
to complete the same task alone.
139. What is the difference between the average of working hours of Shashi on Day 1 and Day 6 together and
the average of working hours of Neha on Day 5 and Day 6 together?
(a) 4.5 (b) 2 (c) 4 (d) 0
140. On Day 2, If Shashi takes half the working hour time to complete a work while Neha takes equal time as
Shashi, and Ashok takes 50% more time to complete the same work alone. What will be the ratio of their
working efficiency to complete a work?
(a) 12: 18: 7 (b) 18: 18: 7 (c) 9: 9: 7 (d) 12: 12: 7
141. Working hours on Day 5 by Shashi, Neha, and Ashok are the time taken by them to complete a work
alone. How much time will they take to complete thrice the same work working together?
8 9 7
(a) 413 hours (b) 313 hours (c) 413 hours (d) None of these
142. On Day 4, Shashi was supposed to complete the task on time. Due to health issues, he stopped when
only one-third of the task was completed. Half of the remaining work was completed by Neha alone and
the rest by Ashok alone. What is the total time taken by them to complete the task?
1 1
(a) 7 hours (b) 73 hours (c) 62 hours (d) 8 hours
143. What is the ratio of total working hours of Shashi and Ashok together throughout the period of six days to
that of Neha’s throughout the period of six days?
(a) 71: 33 (b) 77: 34 (c) 74: 33 (d) None of these
USE FOR ROUGH WORK

MOCK CLAT #10
Direction: (Q.144-Q.148): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given
beside.
A father divided his property between two sons A and B and one daughter C. The person has Rs. 80000
in cash, Rs. 5 lakhs as land and Rs. 6 lakhs as gold. He gave half of the gold to his daughter and remaining
gold divided between sons in equal proportion. He gave only 20% of total land to his daughter and divided
the remaining land between sons A and B in the ratio of 3 : 1 respectively on the condition that the child
who received highest share of land will give Rs. 2500 per month to his father. He gave 75% of the total
cash amount to his daughter and remaining cash amount was divided between sons in equal proportion.
144. How much total property (in cash, land and Gold together) did C get?
(a) Rs. 4.9 lakhs (b) Rs. 4.6 lakhs (c) Rs. 4.7 lakhs (d) Rs. 4.8 lakhs
145. The share of son A in total property was how much more than that of son B in total property?
(a) Rs. 2 lakhs (b) Rs. 2.1 lakhs (c) Rs. 1.9 lakhs (d) Rs. 2.2 lakhs
146. After dividing the property, the father had lived for another 10 years, then the son who had received the
highest share of land was left with how much total property after 10years ?
(a) Rs. 2.6 lakhs (b) Rs. 1.4 lakhs (c) Rs. 1.65 lakhs (d) Rs. 1.6 lakhs
147. The share of land received by Son A was how much percentage more than that by daughter C?
(a) 300% (b) 200% (c) 150% (d) 100%
148. What was the respective ratio of the total property received by son A and that by son B?
(a) 21 : 11 (b) 2 : 1 (c) 25 : 13 (d) 23 : 13
Direction: (Q.149 and Q.150): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given
beside.
In city A and B there are four types of people living i.e. Writer, Painter, Singer, and Dancer. Writer of city B
is 20% more than the writer of A. Ratio of painter in city A and B is 7:5. Dancer at A is 14 less than painter
at Band
Dancer at B is 28 less than the painter at A. Total dancer is 78. Difference of singer A and B is12. Ratio of
singer of A and B is 17:13. Writer at B is 48.
149. Find Ratio of total people of A with total people of B?

(a) 191:167 (b) 193:197 (c) 193:199 (d) 197:179
150. Total painters in both A and B is how much percent more or less than the total singer?
(a) 29% (b) 33.33% (c) 12.2% (d) 25%
USE FOR ROUGH WORK

MOCK CLAT #10
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MOCK CLAT #10
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LEGALEDGE TEST SERIES

MOCK COMMON LAW ADMISSION TEST 2021

MOCK CLAT #10

SECTION-A : ENGLISH LANGUAGE

2. Which of the following cannot be inferred from the passage?

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6. Which of the following does the word ‘Serendipitously’ mean?

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9. What is the central theme of the passage?

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16. What is the antonym of the word ‘subliminal’?

17. What is the meaning of the word ‘indubitable’?

18. What is the theme of the passage?

20. What is the theme of the passage?

22. What is the meaning of the term amulet?

23. What is the author trying to convey through ‘amulet of yore’?

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25. What is the meaning of the term ‘incendiary’ in the passage?

USE FOR ROUGH WORK

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SECTION-B : GENERAL KNOWLEDGE/CURRENT AFFAIRS

30. What is the full form of STARS?

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37. What is the maximum flight altitude range of Rudram?

38. Who are the producers of Rudram in India?

39. How many Indians have received a Noble Prize?

41. Who was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize in 2020?

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46. Where is this solar tree installed?

49. Where is the world’s second largest solar tree located?

52. Where is this museum located in Uttarakhand?

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58. What kind of missiles come along with Rafale jets?

60. Where did the virus first originate in India?

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61. How is this viral fever transmitted?

66. Who is the running mate of Joe Biden?

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SECTION – C :LEGAL REASONING

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(a) Constitutional (b) Unconstitutional

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Passage (Q.100-Q.104): Section 112 of the Indian Evidence Act provides:

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USE FOR ROUGH WORK

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SECTION - D : LOGICAL REASONING

107. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

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