MCU-FDT MEDICAL FOUNDATION

COLLEGE OF MEDICINE
DEPARTMENT OF BIOCHEMISTRY

NAME: DATE:  

MULTIPLE CHOICE: Choose the letter of the BEST answer

1.The protein enzymes are inactive without the co-enzyme. What is the function of co-
enzyme in a chemical reaction?
A. Alter the equilibrium constant
B. Increase the rate of the
reaction C. Maintain the pH of
the reaction D. Transfer activated
group
Reference: Harper’s Illustrated Biochemistry by: Murray, et al. pp. 50 MPL 0.5

2.Michaelis- Menten constant (Km ) can be determined more accurately by using the:
A. Lineweaver-Burk plot C. Hill equation
B. Michaelis- Menten graph D. Eadie-Hofstee plot
Reference: p p. 6 6 MPL 0.5

3.Which of the following plots / graph facilitate the evaluation of inhibitors?

A. Double reciprocal plots C. Michaelis Menten graph
B. Eadie Hofstee plot D. Sigmoidal graph
Reference: p p. 6 8 MPL 0.33

4.Assay of plasma enzymes aids diagnosis and prognosis of diseases. Harry has an
episode of chest pain, assay of which of the following enzymes is of help in the
diagnosis?
A. Alkaline phosphatase C. Lactate dehydrogenase
B. Acid phosphatase D. Amylase
Reference: p p. 5 7 MPL 1.0

5.Which of the following properties is TRUE with reversible enzyme inhibitors?

A. They bind to the active site of the enzyme
B.They form enzyme substrate-inhibitor complexes [ESI complexes]
C. Their effects can be reversed by increasing the concentration of the
substrate in the reaction
D. The principal mode of enzyme-inhibitor interaction is covalent in nature
Reference: p p. 7 1 MPL 0.33

6.Proenzymes are catalytically important because:

A. Compared to other catalytic molecules, their concentration is preferentially
regulated by transcription mechanisms
B.Inactive pools of precursors are activated by covalent modification of
R groups at or near the active site
C.Their activation and inactivation are rapid, providing a readily reversible
mechanism by which enzyme activity can be regulated
D. Their activation generally involves reaction on their peptide bonds producing
active catalyst from inactive precursor pool
Reference: p p. 7 6 MPL 0.25

7.This is an example of reversible enzymes regulation by covalent modification:

A. Proteolysis C. Presence of modulator  
B.Enzyme induction D. Phosphorylation-dephosphorylation
Reference: p p. 7 8 MPL 0.33
8.What is Michaelis- Menten constant (Km )?
A. When the substrate concentration equals the enzyme concentration
B. Is the dissociation constant of the reaction
C. Is the substrate concentration that results in a half maximal reaction rate
D. Is the equilibrium constant of the reaction
Reference: p p. 6 5 MPL 0.5

9.How can a non-spontaneous endergonic cellular reaction be driven to completion?

By:
A. Coupling with an exergonic reaction
B. Synthesis of ATP
C. Addition of heat
D. Increase enzyme concentration
Reference: p p. 8 1 MPL 0.5

10. The second law of thermodynamics states that in an isolated system:

A. The total entropy change in a spontaneous process is always negative
B.The entropy tends to decrease with time
C.Any spontaneous process increases the entropy of the universe
D. Enthalpy increases as the process proceed
Reference: p p. 8 0 MPL 0.33

11. Which of the following enzymes protects our tissues from oxygen toxicity caused
by the superoxide free radical?
A. Oxidoreductases C. Superoxide dismutase
B. Oxygenases D. Hydroperoxidases
Reference: p p. 9 1 MPL 0.5

12. Juana, 65 year old has been taking vitamin E as an antioxidant to keep herself stay
“young” looking. What is the action of vitamin E?
A. Act as scavengers of free radicals and reduce the toxicity of oxygen.
B.Act as nutrients for the skin
C.Prevent radiation from the sun
D. Keep the integrity of the mucosa intact
Reference: p p. 9 1 MPL 0.5

13. What do you mean by uncoupling of oxidative phosphorylation?

A. Separating high from low energy compounds
B.Synthesizing ATP without oxidizing substrate
C.Oxidizing substrate completely
D. Oxidizing substrate without synthesis of ATP
Reference: p p. 6 6 MPL 0.33

14. This molecule accepts the electrons from cytochrome aa3 found in complex IV:
A. CO C. O2
B. CO2 D. H2O
Reference: p p. 9 4 MPL 0.5

15. Marie took two scoops of ice cream, a plate of pancit Malabon, and 2 slices of garlic
bread. The carbohydrates content in her food has to be converted to which of the
following for metabolism?
A. Glucose C. Mannose
B. Galactose D. Lactose
Reference: p p. 1 10 MPL 1.0
 16. Roman, after doing his anaerobic exercise in the morning,.what is the end product in
his exercising muscle?
A. Lactate C. CO2 and water 
B. Pyruvate D. Acetyl CoA
Reference: p p. 1 43 MPL 1 .0

17. Pyruvate dehydrogenase reaction is being biologically irreversible. What will be

the effect?
A. It is inactivated by phosphorylation
B. The reaction is highly endergonic
C. It is not possible to make pyruvate from acetyl CoA
D. The protein kinase is present in the inactive form
Reference: p p. 1 40 MPL 0.33

18. Which of the following enzymes provides a link between glycolysis and CAC?
A. Acetyl CoA carbooxylase C. Pyruvate decarboxylase
B.Pyruvate carboxylase D. Pyruvate dehydrogenase
Reference: p p. 1 40 MPL 0.5

19. Mang David, was admitted to the hospital because of hypoglycemia, lactic acidemia,
ketosis and hyperlipemia, liver biopsy done and was diagnosed to have Von
Gierke’s disease. His signs and symptoms are due to the deficiency / absence of
which of the following enzymes?
A. Liver phosphorylase C. Glucose 6-
phosphatase B. Liver phosphorylase kinase D. Debranching
enzyme
Reference: p p. 1 52 MPL 0.33

20. How is free glucose formed during glycogenolysis? From:

A. Glucose 1-phosphate hydrolysis
B. Glucose residues in 1,6 linkage to the main chain
C. Glucose residues in 1,4. linkage to the main
chain D. Breakdown of uridine diphosphate glucose
Reference: p p. 1 48 MPL 0.25

21. Alex is under cortisol therapy, later he develops hyperglycemia, this is due to
increase:
A. Oxidation of free fatty acids in the
liver B. Glycogenesis
C. Peripheral utilization of glucose
D. Hepatic production of glucose by gluconeogenesis
Reference: p p. 1 61 MPL 0.33

22. Carlos is diagnosed as having a genetic defect specifically in the enzyme pyruvate
carboxylase. Other biotin containing enzymes are functioning normally. Which of
the following substances can be used as a substrate for gluconeogenesis by Carlos?
A. Alanine C. L actate
B. Glycerol D. Pyruvate
Reference: p p. 1 59 MPL 0.33

23. Which of the following reactions is unique to gluconeogenesis?

A. Glucose 6-phosphate  fructose 6-phosphate
B. Oxaloacetate  phosphoenolpyruvate
C. Lactate  pyruvate
D. Phosphoenolpyruvate  pyruvate
Reference: p p. 1 53 MPL 0.33
24. Which of the following metabolic pathways can account for the complete oxidation
of glucose producing NADPH and CO2 but not ATP?
A. Uronic acid pathway C. Glycolysis
B. Pentose phosphate pathway D. Gluconeogenesis
Reference: p p. 1 72 MPL 0.33

25. Helen is diagnosed to have Galactosemia, which of the following enzymes is

involved in producing needed galactose in cases if diet is restricted from
containing galactose or lactose?
A. UDP–hexose epimerase C. Galactosyl transferase
B. Galactokinase D. Galactose 1-phosphate uridyl
transferase Reference: p p. 1 72 MPL 0.25

26. Elena is diagnosed to have familial fructokinase deficiency, but she does not present
any symptoms. This is because:
A. Excess fructose spills into the bowel and eliminated in the feces
B. Hexokinase can phosphorylate fructose
C. Liver fructose 1-phosphate aldolase is still active
D. Most tissues utilizes fructose
Reference: p p. 1 67 MPL 0.33

27. Respiratory distress syndrome seen in premature infants is due to the absence
of which of the following lipids?
A. Phosphatidylglycerol C. Phosphatidyl ethanolamine
B. Galactosyl ceramide D. Dipalmitoylphosphatidylcholine
Reference: p p. 1 15,202 MPL 1.0

28. An increased in which of the following hormones will increase fatty acid synthesis:
A. Glucagon C. Epinephrine
B. Insulin D. Protein kinase
Reference: p p. 1 78 MPL 0.33

29. Leon, after taking a fatty meal, the fatty acids can be converted to energy by the β -
oxidation. What are the end products of  β - oxidation?
A. Acetoacetates C. Malonyl CoAs
B. Acetyl CoAs D. Propionyl CoAs
Reference: p p. 1 81 MPL 0.5

30. Liver cannot use ketone bodies as a source of energy primarily because they
lack which of the following enzymes?
A. Acetoacetate succinyl-CoA transferase
B. β -hydroxybutyrate dehydrogenase
C. Hydroxy-methyglutaryl-CoA lyase
D. Hydroxy-methyglutaryl-CoA synthase
Reference: p p. 1 86 MPL 0.25

31. Alex is diagnosed to have coronary heart disease. Which of the following diet
would you recommend to him? A diet:
A. Consists purely of saturated fatty acids
B. Consists purely of unsaturated fatty
acids
C. Which has a high ratio of polyunsaturated fatty acids to saturated fatty acids
D. Which has a high ratio of saturated fatty acids to polyunsaturated fatty acids
Reference: p p. 1 90 MPL 0.5
32. Which of the following statements best described essential fatty acids?
A. Cannot be degraded by the body
B. Are the only fatty acids important in the body
C. Cannot be synthesized by the body
D. Are not important in the diet
Reference: p p.190 MPL 1.0

33. Juan, after a high caloric diet consisting of fats and carbohydrates the excess calories
is stored as triacylglycerols in the adipose tissue. Which of the following statements
is NOT true for the synthesis of triacylglycerols in adipose tissues?
A. Coenzyme A is required
B. Fatty acids are obtained from chylomicrons and VLDL
C. Glycerol 3-phosphate is derived from glucose
D. A 2-monoglyceride is an intermediate
Reference: p p. 1 99 MPL 0.25

34. Anita was diagnosed to have multiple sclerosis, this is a demyelinating disease due to
a loss of which of the following lipids?
A. Plasmalogen and sphingolipids
B. Cephalin and sphingolipids
C. Neuraminic acid and lysolecithin
D. Sialic acid and ceramide
Reference: p p. 2 32 MPL 0.25

35. Henry has a genetic defect resulting in a deficiency of lipoprotein lipase. After eating
a fatty meal, one would expect to see elevation of which of the following in the
plasma?
A. H DLs C. V LDLs
B. LDLs D. Chylomicrons
Reference: p p. 2 07 MPL 1.0

36. Which of the following apoprotein is found exclusively associated with

chylomicrons?
A. Apo E C. Apo B-48
B. A po -100 D. poA-I
B A
Reference: p p. 2 06 MPL 0.5

37. Joseph took two pieces of fried eggs with bacon for his breakfast. How is
the cholesterol in the eggs and bacons be excreted from his body? As:
A. B ile C. ile p igments
B
B. Bilirubin D. Bile acids
Reference: p p.229 MPL 0.5

38. Ana, a vegetarian, the cholesterol needed by her in the synthesis of all other steroids
in the body can be provided by which of the following substrates?
A. Acetyl CoA C. Glycine
B. Alanine D. Succinyl CoA
Reference: p p. 2 29 MPL 1.0

39. Andy is resting after an overnight fast, which of the following events is true?
A. Fatty acids are stored in the adipose triacylglycerol
B. Liver gluconeogenesis is an important process for maintaining blood glucose
C. Liver glycogen stores are completely depleted
D. Muscle glycogen stores are used to maintain blood glucose
Reference: p p. 2 34 MPL 0.5
40. Which of the following substances is being exported by the skeletal muscle in
the post prandial state?
A. Alanine C. Ketone bodies
B. G lycerol D. lucose
G
Reference: p p. 1 34 MPL 0.5

41. Which of the following substances is released by the adipose tissue and converted to
pyruvate by the liver in the fasting state?
A. Fatty acids C. Ketone bodies
B.Glycerol D. Lactate
Reference: p p. 2 34 MPL 0.5

42. Liza has just taken her lunch, which of the following events is NOT true?
A. The brain oxidizes glucose to carbon dioxide and water 
B. Red blood cells oxidize glucose to carbon dioxide and water 
C. Liver glycogen stores increase
D. Adipose triacylglycerol stores increase
Reference: p p. 2 32 MPL 0.5

43. Compared to his state after an overnight fast, a person who has fasted for one
week will have:
A. Higher levels of blood ketone bodies
B. Higher levels of blood glucose
C. More adipose tissue
D. More muscle protein
Reference: p p. 2 36 MPL 0.5

44. At neutral pH, a mixture of amino acids in solution would be predominantly:

A. Dipolar ions C. Negative and monovalent
B. Hydrophobic molecules D. Positive and monovalent
Reference: p p. 1 6 MPL 0.5

45. In scurvy, posttranslational modification of proteins fails to result in the formation:

A. Glycoproteins C. Histidine
B. Hydroxyproline D. Lipoproteins
Reference: p p. 3 8-39 MPL 1.0

46. The non-essential amino acids synthesized from nutritionally essential amino acids
are:
A. Cysteine and proline C. Tyrosine and cysteine
B. Proline and tyrosine D. Cysteine and serine
Reference: p p.238-239 MPL 0.5

47. Severe phenylketonuria and shortened lifespan is a result of:

A. Deficiency in tetrahydrofolate
B. Deficient or missing dihydrobiopterin
C. Excess dietary phenylalanine
D. Excess dietary tyrosine
Reference: p p. 2 55 MPL 1.0

48. Depletion of α -ketoglutarate during hyperammonemia leads to the formation of:
A. Arginine C. Histidine
B. Glutamine D. Proline
Reference: p p. 2 44 MPL 0.5
49. Genetic deficiency of any of the urea cycle enzymes usually results in the elevated
levels of:
A. Arginine C. NH4+
B. Citrulline D. Ornithine
Reference: p p. 2 47 MPL 1.0

50. Glutamate γ  -semialdehyde is a branch point metabolite in the catabolism of:

A. Proline
B. Proline and ornithine
C. Proline, ornithine, and arginine
D. Proline, ornithine, arginuine, and hydroxyproline
Reference: p p. 2 49-250 MPL 0.33

51. A test dose of this amino acid provides a diagnostic test for folic acid deficiency:
A. Histidine C. Serine
B. G lycine D. Glutamate
Reference: p p. 2 50 MPL 0.5

52. The rate-limiting step in catecholamine biosynthesis is:

A. Formation of dopamine C. Hydroxylation of phenylalanine
B. Hydroxylation of tyrosine D. Reduction of dihydrobiopterin
Reference: p p. 2 67 MPL 1.0

53. The following specialized products are derived from glycine, EXCEPT:
A. Creatine C. Histamine
B. Heme D. Purine
Reference: p p. 2 64 MPL 1.0

54. The normal brown-red color of feces results from the presence of 
A. Bilirubin C. Urobilinogen
B. Biliverdin D. Urobilins
Reference: p p. 2 81 MPL 1.0

55. Catabolism of heme produces bilirubin which is metabolized primarily in the:

A. Blood C. Kidney
B. Intestine D. Liver 
Reference: p p. 2 78-280 MPL 1.0

56. Sunshine is fond of drinking coffee, what methylated purine is found in coffee?
A. H ydroxyurea C. Caffeine
B. Fluorouracil D. Thiouracils
Reference: p p. 2 89 MPL 1.0

57. What is the first nucleotide moiety that is synthesized by de novo purine synthesis?
A. Adenosine monophosphate (AMP)
B. Cystidine monophosphate (CMP)
C. Guanosine monophosphate (GMP)
D. Insosine monophosphate (IMP)
Reference: p p. 2 95 MPL 0.5

58. The hereditary x-linked recessive condition known as the Lesch-Nyhan syndrome is
due to a severe, or complete deficiency of which of following enzymes activity?
A. Ribonucleotide reductase
B. PRPP synthetase
C. Hypoxanthine guanine phosphoribosyltransferase
D. Adenine phosphoriboxyltransferase
Reference: p p. 3 00 MPL 0.5
59. Which of the following statements is NOT true about what xanthine can be?
A. A direct precursor of guanine
B. A product of the enzyme xanthine oxidase
C. A substrate of the enzyme xanthine oxidase
D. Oxidized to form uric acid
Reference: p p. 2 99 MPL 0.5

60. Which of the following mutations is most likely to be lethal?

A. Deletion of three nucleotides
B. Insertion of one nucleotide
C. Substitution of adenine for cytosine
D. Substitution of cytosine for guanine
Reference: p p. 3 62-363 MPL 0.33

61. If the guanine content of double-helical DNA is 30% of the total bases, the thymine
content would be:
A. 1 0% C. 3 0%
B. 20% D. 40%
Reference: p p. 3 03 MPL 1.0

62. Ultraviolet light causes DNA damage by:

A. Activation of DNA photolyase C. Formation of pyrimidine dimers
B. Activation of photoreacting enzymes D. Methylation of purines
Reference: p p. 3 35 MPL 0.33

63. Sickle cell anemia is the clinical manifestation of homozygous genes for an abnormal
hemoglobin molecule. The mutational event responsible for the mutation in theβ -
chain is:
A. Deletion C. Nondisjunction
B.Inserion D. Point mutation
Reference: p p. 3 63 MPL 0.5

64. One form of β -thalassemia has been shown to result from which defect in the β -
globin gene?
A. Loss of the transcriptional initiation sequences
B. Loss of the transcriptional termination sequences
C. Loss of the ribosome recognition sequences
D. Loss of the splicing consensus sequences within one introns
Reference: p p. 3 54 MPL 0.25

65. The mushroom poison amanitin is an inhibitor of the synthesis of:

A. DNA C. Messenger RNA
B. Glycoprotein D. Protein
Reference: p p. 3 43 MPL 0.33

66. Tetracycline prevents synthesis of polypeptides by:

A. Blocking mRNA formation from DNA
B. Competing with mRNA for ribosomal binding sites
C. Inhibiting tRNA binding to mRNA
D. Releasing peptides from mRNA-tRNA complexes
Reference: p p. 3 72 MPL 0.5
67. Diphtheria toxin is often lethal in unimmunized persons because it:
A. Blocks elongation of proteins by inactivating elongation factor 2
B. Causes deletions of amino acids by speeding up the movement
of peptidyl- tRNA from the A site to the P site
C. Inhibits initiation of protein synthesis by preventing the binding of GTP
to the 40S ribosomal subunit
D. Shuts off signal peptidase
Reference: p p. 3 72 MPL 0.33

68. A system of contiguous structural genes and controlling elements for the synthesis
of various enzymes in a metabolic pathway is best described as a/an:
A. Cistron C. Genome
B. Codon D. Operon
Reference: p p. 3 75-376 MPL 0.5

69. Which of the following is most responsible for regulating the level of eukaryotic
mRNA gene products?
A. Chromatin structure C. Transcriptional initiation
B. Transcript transport D. Translational initiation
Reference: p p. 3 91 MPL 0.33

70. The key structure in biologic membranes is the:

A. Lipid bilayer  C. Ribosomes
B. Membrane proteins D. Oligosaccharides
Reference: p p. 4 18 MPL 1.0

71. This type of ion channels in the cells that opens in response to a change in membrane
potential:
A. External ligand – gated C. Voltage - gated
B. Internal ligand – gated D. Mechanically gated
Reference: p p. 4 24 MPL 0.5

72. What is the direct effect of cAMP in the protein kinase pathway in hormone actions?
A. Activate adenylate cyclase
B. Dissociate regulatory subunits from protein kinase
C. Phosphorylate protein kinase
D. Release hormones from target tissues
Reference: p p. 4 60 MPL 0.33

73. Progesterone is a precursor of which of the following hormones?

A. Hydrocortisone, pregnenolone and estriol
B. Cholesterol, cortisone and cholic acid
C. Aldosterone, cortisol, and corticosterone
D. Aldosterone, deoxycholic acid and pregnenolone
Reference: p p. 4 41 MPL 0.5

74. Synthesis and secretion of which of the following hormones is stimulated by

Angiotensin II and III, but NOT by Angiotensin I?
A. Aldosterone C. Cortisol
B.Androgen D. Estrogen
Reference: p p. 4 51 MPL 0.5

75. Which of the following hormones is derived most completely from tyrosine?
A. Endorphins C. Insulin
B. Glucagons D. Thyroxine
Reference: p p. 4 47 MPL 1 .0
76. Hormonal stimulation of the formation of the second messenger inositol 1,4,5-
triphosphate (IP3) quickly leads to the release of which other intracellular
messenger?
A. Calcium C. Prostaglandin
B. cAMP D. Thromboxane
Reference: p p. 4 63 MPL 0.33

77. Niacin is not strictly a vitamin since it can be synthesized in the body from this
essential amino acid:
A. P roline C. T hreonine
B. Valine D. Tryptophan
Reference: p p. 4 90 MPL 1.0

78. Deficiency of this vitamin causes functional folate deficiency or the so-called “folate
trap”:
A. Pyredoxine C. Cobalamin
B. Riboflavin D. Biotin
Reference: p p. 4 94 MPL 1.0

79. This vitamin is the major lipid-soluble anti-oxidant in cell membranes and
plasma lipoproteins:
A. A C. E
B. D D. K  
Reference: p p. 4 86 MPL 1.0

80. This is an intermediate in the synthesis of cholesterol that accumulates in the skin:
A. 7 - dehydrocholesterol C. Calcidiol
B. Cholecalciferol D. Calcitriol
Reference: p p. 4 84 MPL 0.5

81. Digestion of proteins differ from that of carbohydrates and fats in

that: A. Proteins are initially digested in the small intestines
B. Digestion of proteins is completed in the stomach
C. Most proteolytic enzymes are secreted in their zymogen forms
D. The optimum pH in all phases of digestion is in the acidic range
Reference: p p. 4 77 MPL 0.5

82. Nene took a piece of cake that contains flour, milk, and sucrose as its primary
ingredients, after digestion which of the following in NOT a carbohydrate
products that enter the bloodstream?
A. Ribose C. Galactose
B. Fructose D. Glucose
Reference: p p. 4 74 MPL 0.5

83. Jose after eating a piece of fried chicken, the first enzyme to digest the protein of
the chicken meat is:
A. Amylase C. Chymotrypsin
B. Pepsin D. Trypsin
Reference: p p. 4 77 MPL 1.0

84. Muscle is comprised of this major protein:

A. A ctin C. T ropomyosin
B. Myosin D. Troponin
Reference: p p.560 MPL 1.0
85. The largest protein in the body:
A. Nebulin C. Titin
B. D esmin D. Calcineurin
Reference: p p. 5 66 MPL 0.5.

86. What is the major protein responsible for 75-80% of the osmotic pressure of human
plasma?
A. α -Globulin C. Fibrinogen
B. β -Globulin D. Albumin
Reference: p p. 5 84 MPL 1.0

87. Which immunoglobulin is actively transported across the placenta?

A. IgA C. IgG
B. I gD D. I gM
Reference: p p. 5 94 MPL 1.0

88. Warfarin is useful as an anticoagulant because it inhibits activation of:

A. Factor X C. Platelet activation
B. Factor XII D. Thrombin
Reference: p p. 6 04 MPL 1.0
.
89. Red thrombus can be distinguished from white thrombus by the presence of:
A. Endothelial cells C. Leukocytes
B. Erythrocytes D. Platelets
Reference: p p. 5 98 MPL 1.0

90. The flexibility of the RBC membrane is due to the presence of:
A. Lipids C. Integral protein
B. Peripheral proteins D. Carbohydrates
Reference: p p. 6 16 MPL 0.5

91. The entry of glucose into the red blood cell is by:
A. Simple diffusion C. Primary active transport
B. Facilitated diffusion D. Secondary active transport
Reference: p p. 6 11 MPL 1.0

92. The respiratory burst that occurs during phagocytosis is due to the action of:
A. Catalase C. NADPH oxidase
B. Myeloperoxidase D. Superoxide dismutase
Reference: p p. 6 22 MPL 0.33

93. The enzyme present in neutrophils which is responsible for the green color of the pus
and whose deficiency causes recurrent infections:
A. Defensins C. Myeloperoxidase
B. Integrins D. NADPH oxidase
Reference: p p. 6 23 MPL 0.33

94. The major reaction involved in Phase I xenobiotic metabolism is:

A. Conjugation C. Methylation
B. Hydroxylation D. Sulfation
Reference: p p. 6 26 MPL 0.5

95. This is involved in the reaction mechanism of cytochrome P450:

A. NADPH C. FAD
B. N ADH D. F ADH2
Reference: p p. 6 27 MPL 0.5
96. A commonly used way/method of expressing relative obesity to height is:
A. Basal metabolic rate C. Specific dynamic action
B. Body mass index D. Body weight
Reference: p p. 4 78 MPL 1.0

97. Zeny, five months pregnant, her nitrogen balance is expected to be:
A. At equilibrium C. Negative
B. Positive D. Variable
Reference: p p. 4 79 MPL 1.0

98. Joel for the past years always have excess caloric intake. Which of the following
diseases is NOT associated with overnutirtion?
A. Cancer  C. Marasmus
B. Hypertension D. Type 2 diabetes mellitus
Reference: p p. 4 80 MPL 1.0

99. Vitamin D is required for the intestinal absorption of which of the following
minerals?
A. Calcium C. Iron
B. Magnesium D. Copper  
Reference: p p. 4 77 MPL 1.0

100. Alicia always maintain a balanced diet, which substances in her diet is NOT an
energy source?
A. Carbohydrate C. Fibers
B. Lipid D. Lipid
Reference: p p. 4 80 MPL 1.0

Total MPL = 51.75