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ILearnCANA - February Vol 4
ILearnCANA - February Vol 4
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VOL4
Dear Aspirants
Team iLearn IAS is proud to present our weekly current affairs magazine.
Keeping in tune with the dynamic demands of the civil service examination, we
bring to aspirants on-going topics that are of relevance, particularly for the
mains exam.
We have also included all relevant Prelims topics from the past week.
We wish you all the very best and welcome you on board in our endeavors.
Happy Learning!
Team iLearn
TABLE OF CONTENTS
1. ELECTRIC MOBILITY IN INDIA......................................................................................... 4
INITIATIVES TAKEN
• The National Electric Mobility Mission Plan (NEMMP) 2013:
o It seeks to achieve national fuel security by promoting hybrid and electric
vehicles in the country.
o It sets an ambitious target to achieve 6-7 million sales of hybrid and electric
vehicles every year from 2020 onwards.
o The government has also announced the scheme named Faster Adoption
and Manufacturing of (Hybrid&) Electric Vehicles (FAME India) under
NEMMP
• Faster Adoption and Manufacturing of (Hybrid &) Electric Vehicles (FAME India)
o The scheme was launched in 2015
o It aims to promote early adoption and market creation of both hybrid and
electric vehicles in the country through upfront incentive on the purchase of
electric vehicles and also by way of establishing a necessary charging
Infrastructure for electric vehicles.
• Other initiatives:
o Taxation:
▪ Indirect tax: GST on EVs is reduced to 5% from the current rate of
12%.
▪ Direct taxation: The government has extended an additional income
tax deduction of Rs 1.5 Lakh on interest paid on loans to the buyers of
Electric Vehicle
o For charging infrastructure:
▪ Ministry of Power has allowed the sale of electricity as ‘service’ for
the charging of electric vehicles.
▪ This would serve as an incentive to attract investments into the
charging infrastructure.
o Green number plate:
▪ MoRTH has issued a notification for the Green Number plate for the
use of Electric Vehicles.
WAY FORWARD:
• Increasing R&D in EVs:
o Creating a vibrant battery research and development ecosystem
domestically to develop alternative technologies containing minerals with
low supply risks and battery recycling techniques to recover the raw
materials in the batteries.
• Increase demand:
o More focus should be given towards the creation of demand by making it
easy and cheap for consumers to switch to electric vehicles.
• Rationalize subsidies:
o The focus should also shift from subsidising vehicles to subsidizing batteries
as batteries take up 50% of EV costs.
o And more incentives should be given for electric two-wheelers and three-
wheeler segments than four-wheelers.
• Retrofitting:
o Retrofitting (addition of a new component/technology) existing small vehicles
can be considered for a nominal cost for consumers.
o Example: CNG fleet of Delhi’s auto-rickshaws can be turned into an all-
electric/hybrid fleet at a very low cost to owners. But it will require some
innovative finance on the part of the government.
• Sensitizing public:
o Breaking away the old norms and establishing a new consumer behaviour is
always a challenge.
o Thus, a lot of sensitisation and education is needed, in order to bust several
myths and promote EVs within the Indian market.
• Raw material:
o Acquiring lithium fields in Bolivia, Australia and Chile could become as
important as buying oil fields since India needs raw material to manufacture
batteries for EVs.
o India could also diversify the supply risk by including lithium in existing
Preferential Trade Agreements (PTAs) or creating new PTAs with other
lithium producing countries.
• Charging points:
o A wide network of charging stations is required for attracting investments.
o Tech Parks, public bus depots and Multiplexes are some of the potential
places to install charging points.
o Corporates shall invest in charging infrastructure under Corporate Social
Responsibility (CSR).
• Address the technical concerns:
o Address the technical concerns such as AC versus DC charging stations,
handling of peak demand, grid stability, etc. should be addressed promptly.
• Financial incentives:
o Government should provide a waiver of road tax and registration fees, GST
refunds and free parking spaces for EVs.
1.5. iTips:
• For prelims, questions can be asked on National Electric Mobility Mission Plan, FAME
India etc.
• For mains, questions can be asked on the prospects and challenges of electric
mobility in India, initiatives taken in this regard etc.
2. JUVENILE JUSTICE ACT, 2015
2.1 WHY IN NEWS?
The Union Cabinet ushered in some major amendments to the Juvenile Justice (Care
and Protection of Children) Act 2015.
2.2 SYLLABUS:
GS 2: Government policies and interventions for development in various sectors and issues
arising out of their design and implementation.
2.3 PRACTICE QUESTION:
Q. Enumerate the salient provisions of the Juvenile Justice Act, 2015. How far can the recent
amendments to the Act ensure the protection and rehabilitation of children in conflict with
law?
2.4 ANALYSIS:
CONSTITUTIONAL PROVISIONS FOR CHILD WELFARE:
• Article 15(3): empowers the state to make special provisions related to the
empowerment of women and children.
• Article 39 (e): directs the state to ensure that the health and strength of workers,
men and women, and the tender age of children are not abused and that citizens are
not forced by economic necessity to enter avocations unsuited to their age or
strength.
• Article 39 (f): directs the state to ensure that children are given opportunities and
facilities to develop in a healthy manner and in conditions of freedom and dignity
and that childhood and youth are protected against exploitation and against moral
and material abandonment
• Article 45: directs the state to ensure provisions for free and compulsory education
for children.
• Article 47: directs the State to raise the level of nutrition and the standard of living
and to improve public health as among its primary duties.
HISTORY OF JUVENILE JUSTICE IN INDIA:
• The first proper intervention by the government of India in justice for children was
via the National Children’s Act, 1960.
• This act was replaced later with Juvenile Justice Act, 1986.
• In 1992, India ratified the United Nations Convention on the Rights of the Child
(UNCRC). To adapt to the standards of the convention, the 1986 act was repealed
and the Juvenile Justice Act, 2000 was passed.
• The Juvenile Justice Act, 2000 dealt with two categories of children viz. ‘child in
conflict with law’ and ‘child in need of care and protection'.
• The involvement of a minor in the heinous crimes in ‘Nirbhaya case’ forced the
government to introduce a new law and thus the Juvenile Justice (Care and
Protection of Children) Act 2015 was introduced.
JUVENILE JUSTICE (CARE AND PROTECTION OF CHILDREN) ACT 2015:
• The Juvenile Justice Act, 2015 (JJ Act) defines the legal framework in which juveniles
(below 18 years old in India) can appear before a judge.
• The Act guarantees the security, the protection, the education and the well-being of
the children in need in India.
• The JJ Act recommends enquiries to determine if the situation of vulnerability of a
child requires a placement in a children’s home.
• Features:
o A juvenile is defined as anyone who has not completed the age of 18 years.
o It mandates setting up Juvenile Justice Boards and Child Welfare
Committees in every district. Both must have at least one-woman member
each.
o Offences committed by a juvenile are categorized into three:
▪ 'Heinous offence' is offence with minimum punishment of seven
years of imprisonment or more. Juveniles between the ages of 16-18
years will be tried as adults for heinous offences.
▪ 'Serious offence' are offences with three to seven years of
imprisonment. Any 16-18 years old, who commits a serious offence
may be tried as an adult. But this is only if he/she is detained after the
age of 21 years. and
▪ 'Petty offence' is with a less than three-year imprisonment.
o An entire chapter (Chapter IX) is devoted to deal with offenses against
children.
o Chapter VIII is devoted to the subject of adoption of children. The Central
Adoption Resource Authority (CARA) was granted the status of a statutory
body to enable it to perform its function more effectively.
2020 AMENDMENTS:
• The amendment empowers the District Magistrates (DM) to issue adoption orders as
well as monitor the implementation of the law.
• DMs along with additional district magistrates (ADMs) will monitor the functioning of
various agencies under the JJ Act in every district. This includes the Child Welfare
Committees, the Juvenile Justice Boards, the District Child Protection Units and the
Special juvenile Protection Units.
• The amendments also state that crimes committed by children, in which the
minimum sentence is less than seven years, will be categorized as “serious” and not
“heinous” offences.
RATIONALE BEHIND THE AMENDMENT:
• The additional powers to DM has been brought in based on a report filed by the
NCPCR in 2018-19 which found that of the 7,000 children’s homes surveyed:
o 1.5% do not conform to rules and regulations of the JJ Act
o 29% of them had major shortcomings in their management
o Not a single Child Care Institution in the country was found to be 100%
compliant to the provisions of the Act
• In January 2020, the Supreme Court had observed that offences that carried
maximum of more than seven years imprisonment, but with no minimum sentence
of fewer than seven years should be treated as ‘serious’ and not as ‘heinous’
offences.
CONCLUSION:
• While the amendments have been welcomed by most, the challenge perceived is
that of having given too many responsibilities to the DM.
• What is still missing is the proper implementation of the existing provisions of the JJ
Act, especially when it comes to childcare homes and juvenile protection.
2.5. iTips:
• For Prelims, questions on the constitutional provisions and major features of the Act
can be asked. Also, questions on other schemes and policy measures taken for child
welfare, especially in health, education and nutrition can be expected.
• For Mains, the content can be used in questions related to child welfare, protection
of vulnerable sections etc.
3. ECO-SENSITIVE ZONES
3.1 WHY IN NEWS?
Ministry of Forests and Environment issued a draft notification on January 2021 to
declare eco-sensitive zones around the Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary.
3.2 SYLLABUS:
GS 3: Conservation, Environmental Pollution and Degradation
3.3 PRACTICE QUESTION:
Q. Discuss the prospects and challenges of local community participation in the forest
conservation initiatives?
3.4 ANALYSIS:
WHAT ARE ECO-SENSITIVE ZONES?
• The National Wildlife Action Plan (2002–2016) of the Ministry of Environment,
Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) stipulated that state governments should
declare land falling within 10 km of the boundaries of national parks and wildlife
sanctuaries as eco fragile zones or ESZs under the Environmental (Protection) Act,
1986.
• The purpose of the ESZ was to provide more protection to the parks by acting as a
shock absorber or transition zone.
SIGNIFICANCE OF ESZs:
• To act as shock absorber for protected area:
o The purpose of declaring eco-sensitive zones around protected areas is for
creating some kind of a 'shock absorber' for the protected area.
o They also act as a transition zone from areas of high protection to areas
involving lesser protection.
• Helps in in-situ conservation
o EZSz deals with conservation of an endangered species in its natural habitat,
for example the conservation of the One-horned Rhino of Kaziranga National
Park, Assam.
• To reduce man-animal conflict:
o ESZs promotes a mechanism for wildlife-human co-existence >> where
conflicts between humans and animals are minimal and the movement of
animals is unhindered
• Beneficial local communities:
o It helps to ensure the environmental, economic, and social sustainability of
the region, by encouraging wise use of natural and human resources.
o Designation of ESZs attracts academic and government research activity that
addresses local issues and problems.
• Raise awareness:
o Designation of a ESZ can raise awareness among local people, citizens, and
government authorities on environmental and development issues.
• To minimize the impact of urbanization on ecology:
o When areas adjacent to protected areas are declared as ESZs >> it helps to
regulate the developmental activities in these areas
3.5. iTips:
• For prelims, questions can be asked as Environmental (Protection) Act, 1986,
National Wildlife Action Plan (2002–2016) etc.
• For mains, questions can be asked on the significance and challenges associated with
ESZs, threats to ESZs etc.
4. ANTI DEFECTION LAW
4.1 WHY IN NEWS?
The congress led government in Puducherry has collapsed on the floor following
large scale defection from the ruling party.
4.2 SYLLABUS:
GS 2: Parliament and State Legislatures - structure, functioning, conduct of business, powers
& privileges and issues arising out of these.
4.3 PRACTICE QUESTION:
Q. ‘What was designed as an insurance against violation of people’s mandate has become a
tool to silence dissent’. In this regard, discuss the successes and limitations associated with
anti-defection law?
4.4 ANALYSIS:
BACKGROUND:
With the framing of Constitution, India adopted the Westminster System of
representative democracy, where the leader who enjoys the majority support is chosen as
the head of the government. Here, the loyalty of the legislators to the constituency is given
primacy.
However, during late 1970s, the country witnessed nefarious floor crossing by
legislators. Legislators used to change parties frequently, bringing about chaos in the
legislatures. Aaya Ram Gaya Ram was a phrase that became popular in Indian politics after
a Haryana MLA Gaya Lal changed his party thrice within the same day in 1967.
Starting from private members’ efforts, various bills were brought in by the
governments at different times to counteract defections.
• The 32nd Constitution Amendment Bill was introduced for disqualifying defected
legislators from holding ministerial births. This Amendment Bill lapsed with the
dissolution of Lok Sabha.
• It was followed by the 48th Constitution Amendment Bill with the same tenor and
terms of the lapsed Bill.
• At last in 1985, when Rajiv Gandhi became Prime Minister with a large majority, the
Tenth Schedule was knitted into the Constitution along with the anti-defection law,
through the 52nd amendment.
FEATURES OF ANTI DEFECTION LAW:
The 52nd Amendment Act of 1985 provided for the disqualification of the members of
Parliament and the state legislatures on the ground of defection from one political party to
another. It made changes in four Articles of the Constitution and added a new Schedule (the
Tenth Schedule) to the Constitution.
• Disqualification:
Members of political party Independent members Nominated members
Becomes disqualified if he: Becomes disqualified if he Becomes disqualified if he
(a) Voluntarily gives up his joins any political party after joins any political party after
membership of such political being elected. the expiry of six months from
party; or the date on which he takes
his seat in the House.
(b) Votes or abstains from
voting in the House contrary This means that he may join
to any direction issued by his any political party within six
political party, without months of taking his seat in
obtaining prior permission the House without inviting
and such act has not been this disqualification.
condoned by the party
within 15 days
• Exceptions:
1. If a member goes out of his party as a result of a merger. A merger takes place
when two-thirds of the members of the party have agreed to such merger.
2. If a member, after being elected as the presiding officer of the House,
voluntarily gives up the membership of his party or rejoins it after he ceases to
hold that office.
(Note: The 91st amendment deleted the provision of the Tenth Schedule pertaining to
exemption from disqualification in case of split by one-third members of legislature party. It
means that the defectors have no more protection on grounds of splits.)
• Deciding authority: Any question regarding disqualification arising out of defection is
to be decided by the presiding officer of the House. Following the Kihoto Hollohan
case (1991), this decision has been made subject to judicial review.
• Rule-making power: The presiding officer of a House is empowered to make rules to
give effect to the provisions of the Tenth Schedule. All such rules must be placed
before the House for 30 days. The House may approve or modify or disapprove them
• Working: The presiding officer can take up a defection case only when he receives a
complaint from a member of the House. Before taking the final decision, he must
give the member, against whom the complaint has been made, a chance to submit
his explanation. He may also refer the matter to the committee of privileges for
inquiry.
• Position of speaker: Whips issued by parties are not applicable to speakers.
However, if a question arises on whether the chairman or speaker of a house has
become subject to disqualifications under the law, it shall be referred for the
decision of such member of the house as the house may elects in this behalf.
JUDICIAL INTERPRETATIONS ON ANTI DEFECTION LAW:
• Kihoto Hollohan vs Zachillhu and Others (1991): SC Constitution Bench declared that
the Speaker’s decision on defection was subject to judicial review.
• Ravi Naik vs Union of India: Supreme Court interpreted that there is a wider
meaning of the words “voluntarily giving up membership”. In the absence of a
formal resignation by the member, the giving up of membership can be inferred by
his conduct.
• G. Viswanathan Vs. The Hon’ble Speaker, Tamil Nadu: Members who have publicly
expressed opposition to their party or support for another party are deemed to have
resigned. Once a member is expelled, he is treated as unattached member in the
house but he continues to be a member of the old party as per the Tenth Schedule. If
he joins a new party after being expelled, he can be said to have voluntarily given up
membership of his old party.
• Other interpretations:
o The Speaker of a House does not have the power to review his own decisions
to disqualify a candidate.
o If the Speaker fails to act on a complaint, or accepts claims of splits or
mergers without making a finding, he fails to act as per the Tenth Schedule.
ISSUES:
The law has certainly been able to curb the evil of defection to a great extent. However,
over the years there have been several issues in relation to the working of this law which
need to be discussed.
• Discriminating features:
o It does not make a differentiation between dissent and defection. It curbs
the legislator’s right to dissent and freedom of conscience.
o It also discriminates disqualification between independent members and
nominated member and between individual defections and group
defections.
o It does not provide for the expulsion of a legislator from his party for his
activities outside the legislature.
• No time limit:
o Speakers are not legally bound to take a decision within a timeframe. While
the Speaker’s decision is subject to judicial review, the courts cannot
interfere in the process unless the speaker takes a decision.
o This discretion has helped ruling parties on various occasions. Eg: In recent
years, opposition MLAs in Andhra Pradesh and Telangana had broken away in
small groups gradually to join the ruling party. However, the speaker did not
take up the matter until more than 2/3rd of the opposition has defected to
the ruling party.
• “Voluntarily” resignation from a party: There is no clear definition of voluntary
resignation. According to a Supreme Court judgment, “voluntarily giving up the
membership of the party” is not synonymous with “resignation”. It has interpreted
that in the absence of a formal resignation by the member, the giving up of
membership can be inferred by his conduct. In other judgments, members who have
publicly expressed opposition to their party or support for another party were
deemed to have resigned.
• Discourages active democracy: Political parties issue whips to MPs on how to vote
on most issues, irrespective of the nature of the issue. It restricts a legislator from
voting in line with his conscience, judgement and interests of his electorate and
makes them mere numbers on paper. This encourages passivity among the elected
members, and breaks the link of accountability between the voter and the elected
representative.
• Questions over decisions of the presiding officer: Vesting of decision-making
authority in the Presiding officer is criticized on two grounds:
1. She/he may not exercise this authority in an impartial and objective manner
due to political exigencies
2. She/he lacks the legal knowledge and experience to adjudicate upon the
cases.
• Violation of provisions: The Court said that ignoring a petition for disqualification is
not merely an irregularity but a violation of constitutional duties. However, this has
been ignored by presiding officers on a number of occasions.
SHOULD THE LAW BE REPEALED?
YES:
• Failed to plug defections: Despite the law being in existence for over 3 decades, the
issue of political defections and horse trading continues to hamper Indian politics.
The recent debacles in Karnataka and Madhya Pradesh are examples.
• Hinders representative democracy: The law restricts a legislator from voting in line
with his conscience, judgement and interests of his electorate. Legislators can now
claim that they voted in a particular manner because their party required them to do
so.
• Weakens the systems of checks and balances: The law disturbs the balance of
power between the executive and the legislature, by constraining the ability of a
member to hold the government accountable.
• Absent in major democracies: Mature democracies, such as the US, UK and Canada,
do not have an anti-defection law. Among the 40 countries that have an anti-
defection law, only six countries have a law that mandates legislators to vote
according to party dictum. The remaining countries only disqualify legislators if they
are found to resign from their party or be expelled from it.
NO:
• Ensures stability for government and policies: It provides for greater stability in the
body politic by checking the propensity of legislators to change parties, by ensuring
that candidates remain loyal to the party as well the citizens voting for him.
• Recognition of party system: It gives, for the first time, a clear-cut constitutional
recognition to the existence of political parties. Also, it facilitates democratic
realignment of parties in the legislature by way of merger of parties and promotes
party discipline.
• Reduce corruption and horse trading: It reduces corruption at the political level as
well as non-developmental expenditure incurred on irregular elections. It also
provides for punitive measures against a member who defects from one party to
another, there by discouraging defection
• More concentration on governance is possible. Whips ensure that the government
can initiate policy measures and structural changes without fear of members voting
against them.
WAY FORWARD:
• The current form of the Anti-Defection Law has proven to be woefully ineffective in
achieving its key objective - preventing quid-pro-quo deals and political instability.
However, rather than complete abrogation of the law, it is ideal to bring forth
amendments to overcome the existing shortcoming.
• Some of the desired amendments can be:
o As pointed out by the report of the 170th Law Commission, the President or
the Governor, as the case may be, should be made the deciding authority for
question of disqualification based on an enquiry conducted by the Election
Commissioner.
o Make the law valid only for those votes that determine the stability of the
government, like passage of the annual budget or no-confidence motions.
Several commissions such as Dinesh Goswami Committee on electoral
reforms 1990 and Law Commission 170th report have suggested the same.
o Amend the law to include a time frame within which decisions on cases of
defections should be taken.
o The phrase “voluntarily giving up membership” needs comprehensive
definition.
o Remove the distinction between disqualification of elected, nominated and
independent members, as well as between individual and group defections.
o Those elected representatives who resign could be disqualified from
contesting elections for a certain period.
• Reforms outside the ambit of the law are also essential to prevent the menace of
defection. This could include:
o Amendments in the Representation of People Act to mandate intra party
democracy.
o Regulate the usage of whips so as to ensure the freedom of elected
representatives.
o The Constitution needs to be amended to insert a provision that only the
violation of whip issued by a political party following intra-party democracy
would entail disqualification of a legislator.
• There are no fool-proof remedies against defection. No degree of tightening of the
loopholes can prevent a willing legislator from switching sides. The only way to
prevent defection altogether is to get the voters to punish the defector through
ballot.
4.5. iTips:
• For Mains, questions on a critical evaluation of the Anti-defection law and the
reforms needed can be asked.
• For Prelims, questions on the features of Anti defection law, tenth schedule, 52nd
amendment and 91st amendment can be asked.
5. INTERNET SHUTDOWNS IN INDIA
5.1 WHY IN NEWS?
As per a recent report by UK-based privacy and security research firm, internet
shutdowns in 2020 cost India $2.8 billion, almost 70% of the total loss of $4 billion to the
world economy.
5.2 SYLLABUS:
GS 2: Indian Constitution - Historical Underpinnings, Evolution, Features, Amendments,
Significant Provisions and Basic Structure.
GS 2: Structure, organization and functioning of the Executive and the Judiciary
5.3 PRACTICE QUESTION:
Q. Democratic governments must find a way other than internet shutdowns to balance civil
liberties and security’. Comment
5.4 ANALYSIS:
CONCERNS:
• Increased frequency of such measures:
o India shuts down Internet services more than any other democracy in the
world. The past four years have seen over 400 such shutdowns
o Internet has been shut down in Kashmir for long period of 223 days - the
longest Internet shutdown across the world — since the abrogation of Article
370
• Vague provisions:
o Indian laws have vague provisions for suspending telecommunication
services, including the Internet, during times of public emergencies
• Curbing free speech:
o Constitutionalism envisages limited powers to the government in power.
Internet shutdowns may violate the citizen’s rights under Article 19 of the
Constitution.
o Also such shutdowns are against the Supreme Court’s verdict in Shreya
Singhal case, in which the Court recognised the internet as an essential
medium to further our constitutional right to freedom of speech and
expression.
• Economic losses:
o According to Software Freedom Law Centre (SFLC), there is a collective loss
of 16,000 hours to Internet shutdowns in India.
o This has led to a loss of $3 billion to the Indian economy.
o White-collar employment sectors, including IT, financial and consulting
services >> rely on internet >> shutdowns will freeze economic activity
• Criticism from rights groups:
o UN rights groups >> "shutdowns are a form of collective punishment for
people, and an overreach of governments on citizens’ rights and liberties"
• Affecting gig economy:
o Gig economy workers or freelancers (workers in Ola, Uber, Swiggy, Zomato
etc) are most affected because their nature of work is heavily relied on
internet connectivity as opposed to permanent jobs
• Increases inequality:
o Blanket bans on digital connectivity during the COVID-19 crisis may breed
deep-rooted societal difficulties. The most vulnerable among us may be cut
off from health and welfare alerts
• Breaks in vital digital services:
o Including health services
• Impact of education:
o Students may lose access to avenues of learning
• Affect free press:
o Journalists may find it impossible to do ground-reporting from already
volatile areas.
WAY FORWARD
• Identify best practices around the world:
o Governments should identify best practices in addressing issues at their
source, prioritizing alternative measures to Internet shutdowns.
• Proper impact assessment:
o Governments need to do a cost-benefit analysis of the impact of the cost of
Internet shutdowns before taking such action.
• Need for a comprehensive framework:
• Government needs to clearly lay down a comprehensive framework, stating
the conditions behind such Internet shutdowns.
• Data dissemination:
• Government should document the reasons, time, alternatives considered,
decision-making authorities and the rules under which the shutdowns were
imposed and release the documents for public scrutiny.
5.5. iTips:
• For prelims, question can be asked on the salient features of Information Technology
Act, 2000, Telegraph Act, 1885 etc.
• For mains, questions can be asked on need of internet shutdowns, concerns
associated with it, legal provisions related to internet curbs etc.
WEEKLY PRELIMS COMPILATION
IGNITE 2021
Places in news
LINE OF CONTROL (LOC)
Why in news?
o India and Pakistan have agreed to strictly observe all agreements on
ceasefire along the Line of Control (LoC) and other sectors.
About LoC:
o The Line of Control (LoC) is a military control line between the Indian and
Pakistani controlled parts of the former princely state of Jammu and
Kashmir.
o It separates Pak occupied Kashmir from Union territory of Jammu and
Kashmir.
o The line does not constitute a legally recognized international boundary,
but serves as the de facto border.
o Originally known as the Cease-fire Line, it was redesignated as the Line of
Control following the Shimla Agreement, which was signed on 3 July 1972.
o India has constructed a 550 km barrier along the 740 km Line of Control.
o The part of the former princely state that is under Indian control is divided
into the union territories of Jammu and Kashmir and Ladakh, while the
Pakistani-controlled part is divided into Azad Kashmir and Gilgit–Baltistan.
o The northernmost point of the Line of Control is known as NJ9842.
o The India–Pakistan border continues from the southernmost point on the
LoC.
PRELIMS QUESTION
Q. Consider the following statements with respect to Line of Control:
1. It was designated line of control after the Indo-Pak war of 1965.
2. It separates India from Pakistan in parts of Punjab as well as Jammu and
Kashmir.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: C
Polity
NATIONAL COMMISSION FOR SCs
Why in news?
o New chief for National Commission for SCs has been appointed.
Contact- ilearnias@gmail.com/8089166792 26
IGNITE 2021
About NCSC:
o The National Commission for Scheduled Castes is an constitutional body
established with a view to provide safeguards against the exploitation of
Scheduled Castes.
o Article 338 of the Indian constitution deals with National Commission for
Scheduled Castes
o The first Commission was constituted in 1992 and after Constitution (Eighty-
Ninth Amendment) Act, 2003 the erstwhile National Commission for
Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes was bifurcated as separate
commissions for SCs and STs.
Functions
o To investigate and monitor all matters relating to the safeguards provided
for the Scheduled Castes under this Constitution or under any other law for
the time being in force or under any order of the Government and to
evaluate the working of such safeguards.
o To inquire into specific complaints with respect to the deprivation of rights
and safeguards of the Scheduled Castes.
o To participate and advise on the planning process of socio-economic
development of the Scheduled Castes and to evaluate the progress of their
development under the Union and any State.
o To present to the President, annually and at such other times as the
Commission may deem fit, reports upon the working of those safeguards.
o To make in such reports recommendations as to the measures that should
be taken by the Union or any State for the effective implementation of
those safeguards and other measures for the protection, welfare and socio-
economic development of the Scheduled Castes.
PRELIMS QUESTION
Q. Consider the following statements with respect to National Commission for
Scheduled Castes:
1. It is a constitutional body under Article 338.
2. For matters relating to state government, president forwards the report to
the governor of the state concerned.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: C
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o This sanctuary is home to many wildlife species like tiger, leopard, sambar,
nilgai, barking deer, mouse deer, a wide variety of birds like green munia,
Great Eared-nightjar and various reptiles.
PRELIMS QUESTION
Q. Karlapat wildlife sanctuary is located in the state of:
(a) Madhya Pradesh
(b) Odisha
(c) Karnataka
(d) Uttarakhand
Answer: B
CITES
Why in News?
o Namibia is likely to violate CITES regulations while implementing a project
to export wild elephants to Global Zoos as CITES had ruled that elephants
must not be exported beyond their natural and historical range states.
What is CITES?
o It is a multilateral treaty to protect endangered plants and animals.
o It was drafted as a result of a resolution adopted in 1963 at a meeting of
members of the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN).
o The convention was opened for signature in 1973 and CITES entered into
force on 1 July 1975.
o Secretariat of CITES is administered by UNEP.
o Its aim is to ensure that international trade in specimens of wild animals
and plants does not threaten the survival of the species in the wild.
Legal Status of CITES
o Although CITES is legally binding on the Parties, it does not take the place
of national laws.
o Rather it provides a framework respected by each Party, which must adopt
their own domestic legislation to implement CITES at the national level.
Categories of protection under CITES:
o It has three appendices.
o Appendix I has species threatened with extinction. Trade in
specimens of these species is permitted only in exceptional
circumstances.
o Appendix II has species not necessarily threatened with extinction,
but in which trade must be controlled to avoid utilisation
incompatible with their survival.
o Appendix III contains species that are protected in at least one
country, which has asked other CITES parties for assistance in
controlling trade.
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PRELIMS QUESTION
Q. Consider the following statements regarding CITES:
1. Secretariat of CITES is administered by UNEP.
2. CITES is legally binding on state parties to the convention.
3. Appendix III species of CITES are species that are in danger of extinction.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: B
POINT CALIMERE BIRD AND WILDLIFE SANCTUARY
Why in News?
o The two-day annual synchronised bird census was carried out at Point
Calimere Bird and Wildlife Sanctuary.
Where is the sanctuary located?
o Point Calimere Wildlife and Bird Sanctuary (PCWBS) is a protected area
in Tamil Nadu, South India along the Palk Strait.
o The sanctuary was created in 1967 for conservation of the near threatened
blackbuck antelope, an endemic mammal species of India.
o It is the only Ramsar site in Tamil Nadu as of now.
What are the important flora and fauna?
o This site is a mix of salt swamps, mangroves, backwaters, mudflats,
grasslands and tropical dry evergreen forests.
o The flagship species of the sanctuary is the near threatened blackbuck
antelope, one of the four antelope species in India (Chinkara, Chausingha
and Nilgai being the other three).
o This site has recorded the second largest congregation of migratory
waterbirds in India including threatened species such as spot-billed pelican,
spoonbill sandpiper and black-necked stork.
o The shoreline beaches of the sanctuary are a regular nesting site of
the endangered olive ridley turtle.
What are the threats to ecological balance of the wet land?
o Loss of habitat for waterbirds,
o Soil and water salinisation by adjacent salt pans,
o Spread of the invasive Prosopis juliflora,
o Cattle grazing and scarcity of fresh water.
PRELIMS QUESTION
Q. Point Calimere bird sanctuary is located in:
(a) Tamil Nadu
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o The three farm-related acts at the centre of the storm in 1907 were
the Punjab Land Alienation Act 1900, the Punjab Land Colonisation Act
1906 and the Doab Bari Act.
o These acts would reduce farmers from owners to contractors of land, and
gave the British government the right to take back the allotted land if the
farmer even touched a tree in his field without permission.
o Amid resentment against the laws, Bhagat Singh’s father Kishan Singh and
uncle Ajit Singh, with their revolutionary friend Ghasita Ram, formed
Bharat Mata Society, aiming to mobilise this unrest into a revolt against the
British government.
o Working hard to prepare the ground for the agitation against the three
laws, they organised meetings in Lahore, addressed mostly by Kishan Singh
and Ghasita Ram.
o Activists were sent especially to Lyallpur district to explain the three laws
and their fallout to the public.
How the agitation got its name
o Ajit Singh persuaded Congress leader Lala Lajpat Rai to come on the stage
during a rally in Lyallpur in March 3, 1907 to protest against the laws.
o Initially, Lala ji was not willing to join the agitation due to his assumptions
that the movement was not limited to the farm agitation, which was true to
an extent, as Ajit Singh did want to use it to revolt against the British.
o “Lala was first hesitant in addressing the meeting but people shouted that
they were anxious to listen to him. Seeing the public enthusiasm, he made
one of his finest speeches, full of eloquence and spirit,” Ajit Singh wrote in
his biography.
o Immediately afterwards, Banke Dayal, Editor of Jhang Sayal, read the
historic song ‘Pagrhi sambhaal oh Jatta’, which became the anthem of the
agitation.
o The agitation couldn’t remain non-violent. Ajit Singh was booked for
sedition after his speech at a public meeting in Rawalpindi on April 21,
1921.
o Violence erupted soon afterwards and there were riots in Rawalpindi,
Gujranwala, Lahore, etc.
o British government repealed the three controversial laws in May 1907.
PRELIMS QUESTION
Q. Consider the following statements regarding Pagri Sambal Jatta movement:
1. It was led by Bal Gangadhara Tilak.
2. It was related to anti-farmer laws passed by British government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
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(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: B
KRISHNA DEVA RAYA
Why in news?
o The first-ever epigraphical reference to the date of death of Vijayanagar
king Krishna Devaraya has been discovered at Honnenahalli in Karnataka.
About Krishna Devaraya:
o Krishna Devaraya was the emperor of the Vijayanagara Empire during
1509–1529.
o He was the third ruler of the Tuluva Dynasty and is considered to be its
greatest ruler.
o He possessed the largest empire in India after the decline of the Delhi
Sultanate.
o He became the dominant ruler of the peninsula of India by defeating the
Sultans of Bijapur, Golconda, the Bahmani Sultanate and the Gajapatis of
Odisha.
o Portuguese travellers Domingo Paes and Fernao Nuniz also visited the
Vijayanagara Empire during his reign.
o Krishnadevaraya benefited from the able prime minister Timmarusu, who
was regarded by the emperor as a father figure.
o The rule of Krishna Deva Raya is known as golden age of Telugu literature
and he patronised Eight great Telugu poets known as Ashtadiggajas
including Allasani Peddana who is given the title of Andhra Kavita
Pitamaha (the father of Telugu poetry).
o Krishna Dev Raya himself composed an epic Telugu poem
Amuktamalyada and Sanskrit works Madalasa Charita, Satyavadu Parinaya
and Rasamanjari and Jambavati Kalyana.
PRELIMS QUESTION
Q. Consider the following statements regarding Krishna Devaraya:
1. He composed the Telugu work Amuktamalyada.
2. Domingo Paes, a Portuguese traveller visited Vijayanagar during his reign.
3. He belonged to Saluva dynasty.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: C
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International Relations
DEMOCRATIC REPUBLIC OF THE CONGO (DRC)
Why in news?
o Italian ambassador to DR Congo dies in attack on UN convoy
About DR Congo:
o The Democratic Republic of the Congo (DRC), historically known as Zaire, is
a country in Central Africa.
o It is, by area, the largest country in sub-Saharan Africa, the second-largest
in all of Africa (after Algeria), and the 11th-largest in the world.
o With a population of around 107 million, the Democratic Republic of the
Congo is the most-populous officially Francophone country in the world, as
well as the 3rd-most populous country in Africa (after Nigeria and
Ethiopia) the 14th-most populous country in the world.
o It is a member of the United Nations, Non-Aligned Movement, African
Union, and COMESA.
o Congo achieved independence from Belgium on 30 June 1960 under the
name Republic of the Congo.
o The Democratic Republic of the Congo is extremely rich in natural
resources but has suffered from political instability, a lack of infrastructure,
corruption, and centuries of both commercial and colonial extraction and
exploitation with little widespread development.
o Besides the capital Kinshasa, the two next largest cities, Lubumbashi and
Mbuji-Mayi are both mining communities.
o DR Congo's largest export is raw minerals, with China accepting over 50% of
DRC's exports in 2012.
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o The largest mines in the DRC are located in southern Katanga province
(formerly Shaba), and are highly mechanized, mainly of copper and cobalt
ore.
o The DRC is the second-largest diamond-producing nation in the world
o In 2016, DR Congo's level of human development was ranked 176th out of
187 countries by the Human Development Index.
o As of 2018, around 600,000 Congolese have fled to neighbouring countries
from conflicts in the centre and east of the DRC.
o Two million children risk starvation, and the fighting has displaced 4.5
million people.
PRELIMS QUESTION
Q. Consider the following statements regarding Democratic Republic of Congo:
1. Katanga plateau is located in the country.
2. It is the largest country in Africa.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: A
Miscellaneous
ACUTE ENCEPHALITIS SYNDROME (AES)
Why in news?
o First AES case of the year suspected in Muzaffarpur in Bihar
What is acute encephalitis syndrome (AES)?
o AES affects central nervous system, mostly in children and young adults.
o It starts with high fever, then hampers neurological functions causing
mental disorientation, seizure, confusion, delirium, coma. In recent
outbreaks, a sudden drop in the blood sugar levels has been a common
symptom.
o Mortality rates in kids is due to high malnutrition which leads to lack of
immunity.
o The disease outbreak is usually reported during monsoons (June-October).
But the incidence is also reported during April-June in Bihar.
What causes AES?
o This syndrome is very complex. It can be caused by virus, bacteria, fungi,
and a range of agents.
o Japanese encephalitis (JE) virus is the most common cause of AES in India.
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PRELIMS QUESTION
Q.Consider the following statements regarding Acute Encephalitis Syndrome:
1. It is caused by Japanese encephalitis (JE) virus only.
2. Children are more vulnerable to AES compared to adults.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: B
SWACHH TOURIST DESTINATIONS
Why in news?
o The central government has selected a total of 12 tourist sites spanning
across nine states and UTs under the initiative of Swachh Tourist
Destinations.
o The 12 sites have been selected under phase IV of Swachh Iconic Places
(SIP) project.
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