Unit- I

Q.1. Which of the jurists propounded the theory of Pure theory of Law?

a) Holland
b) Salmond
c) Austin
d) Hans Kelson

Q.2. Which of the following jurists opined the “Law is not universal in its
nature; like language it varies with people and age.”?

a) Jeremy Bentham
b) John Austin
c) Von Savigny
d) Montesquieu

Q.3. Which of the following jurists opined “Law grows with the growth, and
strengthen with the strength of the people and finally dies away as the nation
loses its nationality”?

a) Jeremy Bentham
b) John Austin
c) Von Savigny
d) Prof H.L. Hart

Q.4. Who defined a law as "a rule laid down for the guidance of an intelligence
being by an intelligence being having power over him”?

a) Bentham
b) Austin
c) Salmond
d) Prof H.L. Hart
Q.5. Which of the following jurists wrote “The Concept of Law”?

a) Jeremy Bentham
b) John Austin
c) Von Savigny
d) Prof H.L. Hart

Q.6. Who said that "The function of laws should be the promotion of the greatest
happiness of the greatest number"?

a) John Austin
b) Jeremy Bentham
c) Von Savigny
d) Prof H.L.Hart

Q.7. Whose work was published under the title “The Province of Jurisprudence
Determined”?

a) John Austin
b) Jeremy Bentham
c) Von Savigny
d) John Rawls

Q.8. The origin of law lies in the popular spirit of the people which Savigny
termed as

a) Social welfare
b) Volkgeist
c) Jus gentium
d) Jus naturale
Q.9 The concept of law under Hindu jurisprudence is based on

a) Personal law
b) Custom
c) Dharma
d) None of the above

Q.10. Prof H.L Hart has excluded …. morality from the concept of law-

a) Excluded
b) Isolated
c) Included
d) Distinguished

Q.11. Which jurists authored the book ‘Limits of Jurisprudence defined’?

a) John Austin
b) Hans Kelsen
c) Jeremy Bentham
d) None of the above

Q.12. Which of the following jurists defined law ‘As an assemblage of signs,
declarative of volition, conceived or adopted by the sovereign in a state,
concerning the conduct to be observed in a certain case by a certain person or a
class of persons, who in the case in question are or are supposed to be subject to
his power.’?

a) Jeremy Bentham

b) John Austin

c) Von Savigny

d) Prof H.L. Hart

Q.13. Which of the following jurists said “Law is command of Sovereign backed
by sanction”?

a) Jeremy Bentham
b) John Austin
c) Von Savigny
d) Prof H.L. Hart

Q.14. Which of the following jurists observed that “Legal system is combination
of Union of Primary rules and Secondary Rules.”?

a) Jeremy Bentham
b) John Austin
c) Von Savigny
d) Prof H.L. Hart

Q.15. Which of the following jurists said “That the movement of progressive
societies has hitherto been a movement from status to contract.”?

a) Jeremy Bentham
b) John Austin
c) Von Savigny
d) Henry Maine

Q.16. What is the difference between private law and public law?

a. Private law refers to the relationship between individual citizens.

Public law refers to the relationship between individual citizens and
the state.

b. Public law refers to the relationship between individual citizens. Private

law refers to the relationship between individual citizens and the state.
 c. Private law relates to crimes committed inside the home. Public law relates
to crimes committed in public places.

d. Private law relates to court hearings conducted in private. Public law

relates to court hearings conducted in public.

Q.17. Which of the following accurately reflects the distinction between substantive and
procedural law?
a. Substantive law reflects the rules on procedure and evidence. Procedural law reflects
the elements or conditions for the law to apply
b. Procedural law reflects the rules on procedure and evidence. Substantive law
reflects the elements or conditions for the law to apply
c. Substantive law and procedural law are synonymous
d. None of the options given are correct

Q.18. Which of the following is the most accurate description of civil law?
a. Civil law is an aspect of public law
b. Civil law relates to controlling conduct or wrong-doing of which it disapproves
c. Civil law relates to the enforcement of particular forms of behaviour
d. Civil law is a form of private law and involves the relationships between
individuals

Q.19. The term 'private law' refers to?

a. The body of laws that derive from the deciding of cases.
b. The body of laws that seeks to regulate the relationship between
individuals.
c. The legal principle that states that a person has the right to privacy.
d. The body of laws that seeks to regulate the relationship between the State and
its citizens.
Q.20.Which one of the following is regarded as a private law topic?
a. Criminal law
b. Contract law
c. The law relating to human rights
d. Administrative law

Q.21. Which of the following countries does not have a common law legal system?
a. England
b. Australia
c. United States of America
d. France

Q.22. The phrase 'civil law' can refer to those legal systems whose laws are based on
Roman law. It can also refer to?
a. Laws created by judges.
b. The body of laws that does not relate to criminal offences.
c. The supplementary system of law that is based on fairness and equality, and
seeks to mitigate the harshness of the common law.
d. The body of laws that establish what conduct is criminal and the punishments
for engaging in such conduct

Q.23. Statute law refers to?

a. Laws created by the judges through the deciding of cases.
b. The doctrine that seeks to mitigate the harshness of the common law by deciding
cases based on fairness and equality.
c. The body of law that regulates the relationship between the State and its citizens.
d. The body of laws created by Parliament in the form of legislation.
 UNIT II

Q.1. Legislation means

a) The process of making law

b) The enacted law
c) The legal system
d) Both (a) and (b)

Q.2 Which of the following is not a domestic source of law?

a. Legislation
b. Case law
c. Hansard
d. Custom

Q.3. Which of the following statements best describes the function of a legal system?
a. Protection of individual rights and liberties

b. Maintenance of public order

c. Conferral of obligations

d. All of the options given are correct

Q.4. Which of the following statements best describes a "legal personality"?

a. Natural persons only
b. Artificial persons only
c. Both natural and artificial persons
d. None of the options given are correct
Q.5 Doctrine of Locus Standi means
a. Writ can be filed by any person

b. Power of courts for judicial review

c. Right of petitioner to file the writ petition

d. Discretion of administrative authority

Q.6. An Act of Parliament that takes all existing law and sets it out in a new statute is
known as?
a. An original Act of Parliament.
b. A codifying Act of Parliament.
c. A consolidating Act of Parliament.
d. An amending Act of Parliament.

Q.7. When interpreting statute, the judges may apply certain presumptions in order to
determine the intention of Parliament. Which one of the following is not a valid
presumption?

a. Presumption against legislation having retrospective effect.

b. Presumption that legislation will apply.

c. Presumption against the ousting of the court's jurisdiction.

d. Presumption against alteration of the common law.

Q.8. The sources of law have been divided into two classes. These are:

a. Divine sources and human sources

b. Formal sources and material sources

c. Natural sources and universal sources

d. (A) and (B) both of the above

Q.9. According to whose theory, “Law is not universal in its nature; like language it
varies with people and age”?

a. Bentham’s theory

b. Austin’s theory

c. Savigny’s theory

d. Montesquieu’s theory

Q.10.Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

a. Law properly so-called (in regard to notion of law): Which is distinct from morals?

b. Law improperly so-called (in regard to notion of law): Other laws.

c. Audi alteram partem: Rule of natural justice.

d. Conspectus of justice: Justice denied.

Q. 11.“It is likely that free India may be federal India, though in any event there would
be a great deal of Unitary Control.” This statement was made by

a. Sir Alladi Krishna Swami Iyyer

b. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

c. Pt. Jawahar Lal Nehru

d. Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel

Q.12. Which is the oldest Code of Law in India?

a. Naradasmriti
b. Manusmriti
c. Vedasmnti
d. Prasarsmriti
Q. 13. Which Article provides for the validity of “customs” in India
a. Article 14
b. Article 15
c. Article 13
d. Article 21

Q.14 which of the following is not included under delegated legislations.

a. Colonial legislation
b. Executive legislation
c. Autonomous legislation
d. None of the above

Q.15. Which word define the term legislation- the process of making law.

a. Jus Naturale
b. Legis Latum
c. corpus juris
d. stare decisis

Q.16. What are the essentials of customs?

a. Continuity
b. Antiquity
c. Uniformity
d. All of the above

Q.17. Which school support customs as source of law.

a. Analytical school
b. Historical school
c. Natural school
d. Realistic School
Q.18. Legislation is understood in how many senses.
a. Strict sense
b. Loose sense
c. Both
d. None

Q.19. When is horizontal flow applied in application of precedents in India?

a. From one high court to another high court
b. From supreme court to high courts
c. None
d. Both

Q.20. What is vertical flow of precedents in India?

a. When cases decided by one high court are binding on another high court
b. When cases decided by supreme court of India are binding on all the courts in
India
c. None
d. Both

Q.21. How many types of legislations are there?

a. Two
b. Three
c. Four
d. Five

Q.22. What are the kinds of legislations?

a. Subordinate and Supreme legislations
b. Delegated legislation
c. Conventional and Unconventional
d. Binding and Non-Binding
Q. 23. What are the kinds of customs?
a. Binding and Non-Binding
b. Subordinate and Supreme legislations
c. Delegated legislation
d. Conventional and Unconventional

Q. 24. What do you understand by customs?

a. Bundle of rights
b. Usages, practices followed continuously from time immemorial
c. Methods of laying down laws.
d. Procedure for pronouncement of judgments

Q. 25. What are the types of precedents?

a. Binding and Non-Binding
b. Subordinate and Supreme legislations
c. Authoritative and persuasive
d. Conventional and Unconventional

Q.26. Supreme Legislation is the law which is –

a) Enacted by the Parliament

b) Enacted by the State Legislature
c) Made by anybody except Parliament and State Legislature
d) Both a and b

Q.27 Which Article lays down that the laws declared by the Supreme Court would be
binding on all Courts in India?

a) Article 131
b) Article 141
c) Article 142
d) Article 143
 Unit-III

Q. 1. The Constitution of India was adopted by the Constituent assembly on:

a) 26 Janu
b) ary 1950
c) 26 November 1948
d) 26 November 1949
e) 26 January 1949

Q.2. 26th November is celebrated as which of the following day in India?

a) Day of Equality
b) Law Day
c) Constitution Day
d) Day of unity

Q.3.Via which of the following amendments, the term “Socialist” was inserted in
Preamble of Indian constitution?

a) 38th Amendment Act

b) 42nd Amendment Act, 1976
c) 49th Amendment Act
d) 52nd Amendment Act

Q.4. Writ of Habeas corpus means

a) You may have the body

b) Make arrest of a person
c) Do certain public duty
d) Refrain from doing some act
Q. 5The Constitution of India came into force on

a) 9th, Dec ember, 1946

b) 26th November, 1949
c) 15th August, 1957
d) 26th Janaury,1950

Q.6. The Preamble to our Constitution proclaims that “We, the People of India have
established –

a) Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic, Socialist, Republic

b) Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Socialist, Republic
c) Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic, Republic
d) Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic, Republic

Q.7. The Concept of Directive Principles of State policy is borrowed from which of the
following country?

a) Germany
b) France
c) Ireland
d) Canada

Q.8 The Concept of Directive Principles of State policy is borrowed from which of the
following country?

a) UK
b) USA
c) Canada
d) Ireland
 Q.9 The concept of “Rule of Law” denotes-

a) Rule of nature
b) Pervasiveness of the Spirit of Law
c) Natural Law
d) Positive law

Q.10 According to Prof. A.V. Dicey,” Rule of Law” means-

a) Absence of arbitrary power

b) Equality before law
c) Protection of individual Liberties
d) All of above

Q.11 The rules of natural justice applies in which of the following proceedings-

a) Judicial proceedings
b) Quasi – judicial Proceedings
c) Administrative proceedings
d) All of the above

Q.12 Doctrine of Separation of Powers is ascribed to

a) Aristotle
b) John Locke
c) Montesquieu
d) John Bodin

Q.13 A writ of mandamus may be issued on the ground of-

a) Disregard of public duty

b) Breach of natural justice
c) No jurisdiction
d) Error apparent on the face of record
Q.14 The writ of prohibition can be issued on the following ground-

a) Absence of excess of jurisdiction

b) Violation of natural justice
c) Infringement of fundamental rights
d) All of the above

Q.15 Writ of certiorari may be issued on the following ground-

a) Violation of natural justice

b) Error apparent on the face of record
c) Error of jurisdiction
d) Any of the above

Q.16 Natural justice embraces following fundamental rules-

a) Audi alteram partem i.e., nobody can be condemned without hearing
b) Nemo debit esse judex in propria causa i.e., no man shall be a judge in his
own cause
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of the above

Q. 17. Article 227 of the Indian Constitution envisages

a) The high Court’s power of superintendence

b) Judicial review
c) The powers of the Speaker
d) The election of Vice President

Q.18. Which article is considered as ‘Heart and soul’ of the Constitution of India?

a) Article 32
b) Article 34
c) Article 33
d) Article 35
Q.19. Which Article of the Indian Constitution envisages the Original Jurisdiction of
the Supreme Court of India?
a) Article 131
b) Article 134
c) Article 132
d) Article 133

Q.20 Which Article of the Indian Constitution envisages the appellate jurisdiction of
Supreme Court in appeals from High Courts in regard to civil matters?

a) Article 131
b) Article 134
c) Article 132
d) Article 133

Q.21 Which Article of the Indian Constitution envisages the appellate jurisdiction of
Supreme Court in appeals from High Courts in regard to criminal matters?

a) Article 131
b) Article 134
c) Article 132
d) Article 133

Q.22 The doctrine of post-decisional hearing was enunciated by the Supreme Court of
India in which of the following cases:

a) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (AIR 1978 SC 597)

b) ADM Jabalpur v. Shivkant Shukla, (AIR 1976 SC 1207)
c) H. L. Trehan v. Union of India, AIR 1989 SC 568 20
d) A.K.Kripak v Union of India, AIR 1970 SC 150
Q.23 ‘Nemo debet esse judex in propria causa’ means

a) No man shall be a judge in his own cause,

b) or no man can act as both at the one and the same time- a party or a suitor as a
judge,

c) or the deciding authority must be impartial and without bias

d) All of the above

e) None of the above

Q.24 Which of the following provisions of the Indian Constitution envisages the powers
of High courts to issue writs.

a) Article 227
b) Article 226
c) Article 225
d) Article 22

Q.25. Which of the following is the most accurate description for the Rule of Law?
a) An idealistic concept of how the legal system should function to further civilized
society

b) The law must be made up of strict rules with punishment for breach of those rules

c) A rule made by Parliament

d) Guidance on how rules should be applied

Q.26. Which one of the following features does not support the federal character of
Indian Constitution?
a) Distribution of powers between Centre and States

b) Authority of Courts

c) Supremacy of the Constitution

d) Single citizenship

Q.27. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
List – I List – II

I. Law declared by the Supreme Court to be binding on all courts a) Article 141

II. Advisory jurisdiction of Supreme Court b) Article 143

III. Power of Supreme Court to review its own judgement c) Article 137

IV. Appeal by Special Leave d) Article 136

Codes:

I II III IV

(A) (a) (b) (c) (d)

(B) (b) (a) (c) (d)

(C) (a) (c) (d) (b)

(D) (b) (c) (a) (d)

Q.28. Doctrine of Separation of Powers was systematically formulated by

a) Plato

b) Montesquieu
c) Dicey

d) Aristotle

Q.29. ‘Rule of Law’ means

(i) Supremacy of Judiciary

(ii) Supremacy of Law

(iii) Equality before Law

(iv) Supremacy of Parliament

Codes:
(A) (i) and (iii)
(B) (iii) and (iv)
(C) (ii) and (iv)
(D) (ii) and (iii)

Q.30. Judicial Review in the Constitution of India is based on

a) Precedents and conventions

b) Rule of law

c) Due process of law

d) Procedure established by law

Q.31. The Constitution of India embodies the parliamentary form of government

because:

a) The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha.

b) The Council of Ministers is responsible to Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.

c) The President, the head of the executive, is answerable to Parliament.

d) The Prime Minister, the Head of the Cabinet, is accountable to Parliament.

Q.32. Name one branch or part of the government. Choose one:

a) State government

b) Legislative

c) Parliament

d) United Nations

Q.33. What stops one branch of government from becoming too powerful? Choose one:

a) The President

b) Checks and balances

c) The people

d) Freedom of speech

Q.34. The idea of self-government is in the first three words of the Constitution. What
are these words? Choose one:

a) We the People

b) Congress shall make

c) We the British

d) We the Colonists

Q.35. What is the highest court in the United States? Choose one:

a) Federal Appeals Court

b) Supreme Court
c) High Court

d) International Court of Justice

Q.36. What does the Constitution do? Choose one:

a) Defines the government

b) Sets up the government

c) Protects basic rights of Americans

d) All of these answers

Q.37.How old do citizens have to be to vote? Choose one:

a) Thirty-five (35) or older

b) Sixteen (16) or older

c) Twenty-one (21) or older

d) Eighteen (18) or older

Q.38. What does the judicial branch do? Choose one:

a) Decides if a law goes against the Constitution

b) Reviews laws

c) Resolves disputes

d) All of the above

Q.39. What is an amendment? Choose one:

a) An addition (to the Constitution)

b) The Preamble to the Constitution

c) An introduction

d) The beginning of the Declaration of Independence

Q.40. What is the supreme law of the land? Choose one:

a) The Articles of Confederation

b) The Constitution

c) The Emancipation Proclamation

d) The Declaration of Independence

Q.41. Result of successful prosecution is

a) acquittal
b) discharge
c) conviction
d) charge sheeting

Q.42. Which Parliamentary Committee is described as ‘Watch-dog’ and guardian of the

people against official negligence of corruption?
a) Committee on Estimates
b) Public Accounts Committee
c) Committee on Public Undertaking
d) Committee on ‘Consolidated fund of India’

Q. 43. Which kinds of justice have been mentioned in Article 38 in Part IV of the Indian
Constitution?
a) Social
b) Economic
c) Political
d) All of them
Q.44. Which of the following statements regarding ‘Right to education is/are found to
be correct?
I. The duty of the State, under this directive is not only to establish educational
institutions but also to effectively secure the right to education, by admitting students to
the seats available at such institutions, by admitting candidates found eligible according
to some rational principle.

II. Even though this right is not a Fundamental Right and is judicially enforceable as
such, once the State, by legislative or administrative actions, provide facilities for
education, its action must conform to the standards of equality and rationality
underlying Article 14 of the Indian Constitution.

a) Only I
b) Only II
c) Both I and II
d) None

Q.45 ‘Uniform Civil code for the citizens’ is mentioned in which of the following
Articles of the Indian Constitution?

a) Article 43
b) Article 43A
c) Article 44
d) Article 45

Q.46. Which of the following statements regarding Executive Power of the Union is/are
found to be correct?

I. The executive power of the union shall be vested in the President and shall be
exercised by him either directly or through officer’s subordinate to him in accordance
with the constitution.
II. Without prejudice to the generality of the foregoing provision, the supreme
command of the Defence Forces of the union shall be vested in the President and the
exercise thereof shall be regulated by law.

a) I and II
b) Neither I nor II
c) Only I
d) Only II

Q.48. The Police Power of the State cannot be__________

a) Absolute
b) Arbitrary
c) Oppressive
d) All of them

Q.49. The text of the Preamble of the Constitution of India aims to secure:

a) fundamental rights to all individuals

b) fundamental duties to citizen of India
c) dignity of the individual and unity and integrity of the nation
d) security of service to Government Servant

Q.50.The Preamble to the Constitution of India secures “Justice, Liberty, Equality and
Fraternity” to:
a) all persons
b) those who reside within the territory of India
c) all citizens
d) those citizens who reside within the territory of India
Q.51. What is the 'ratio decidendi' of a case?

a) The central core of reasoning

b) Cases referred to in a judgment
c) Statements made in passing
d) Persuasive but not binding parts of a judgment

Q.52. Which court cannot set precedent?

a) The Supreme Court

b) The Magistrates' Court
c) The Session Court
d) The High Court

Q.53. Which of the following is a source of international law?

a) national laws reviewed by the World Court

b) international custom
c) decisions by national courts upheld by the World Court
d) All of the above

Q.54.A private dispute between individuals or organizations will most likely be tried in
which type of court?

a) criminal
b) civil
c) both civil and criminal
d) neither civil not criminal

Q.55. A person who claims that the police violated her/his legal rights must likely have
her/his case tried in which type of court?
a) civil
b) criminal
c) both civil and criminal
d) neither civil nor criminal

Q.56. Stare Decisis is the doctrine that requires lower courts to adhere to existing case
law in their decisions.

a) True
b) False

Q.57. Which of the following terms means procedural fairness?

a) Due Process
b) Adversarial Process
c) Trust the Process
d) Right

Q.58. The assumption that criminal acts injure not just individuals, but society as a
whole is fundamental to which of the following laws?

a) Criminal Law
b) Administrative Law
c) Procedural Law
d) Statutory Law

Q.59.. When a higher court publishes its opinion on a case, that opinion may state new
rules to be used in deciding the case and others like it. This is known as
a) procedural law
b) case law
c) criminal law
d) high court law

Q.60. The term 'common law' has three different meanings. Which of the following is
not a meaning of the term 'common law'?

a) The body of law as made by judges through the determination of cases

b) A legal system that is based on that of England
c) Laws created by Parliament
d) The system of law that emerged following the Norman Conquest in 1066

Q.61. Regarding the system of equity, which one of the following statements is untrue?

a) If the common law and equity conflict, the common law prevails.
b) Equity refers to the supplementary system of law that originally derived from the decisions
of the Court of Chancery.
c) The rules of equity are more concerned with fairness than the rules of the common law.
d) The administration of the common law and equity is fused, so any court may apply
common law or equitable principles.

Q. 62. Which Article upheld the principle of “rule of law”

a. Article 32
b. Article 226
c. Article 13
d. Article 21

Q.63. ‘Reasoned Decision’ is a part of which principle.

a. Separation of power
b. Principles of natural justice
c. Rule of equity
d. Rule of law

Q.64. Which Article provides for application of principle of natural justice

a. Article 13
 b. Article 16
c. Article 21
d. Article 25

Unit IV

Q.1. What is a statute?

a. An act of parliament
b. A Legislative document
c. A formal written enactment
d. All of the above

Q.2. which of the following does not form part of statute?

a. Preamble
b. Chapters
c. Comments
d. illustrations

Q.3. An Act is a statute. True or false?

a. True
b. False

Q.4. What is an Act?

a. Specific word
b. A Particular Law Dealing in A particular area
c. An Act is a Statue
d. All of the above

Q.5. which of the following is the secondary sources of legal research?

a. An Act
b. A Bill
c. Committee reports
d. None of the above
Q.6. How many categories of sources are there?
a. Two
b. Three
c. One
d. Four

Q.7. which of the following is not the source of legal research?

a. Manuals
b. Digest
c. Commentaries
d. None of the above

Q.8. which of the following are the tools of non-doctrinal research?

a. Interview
b. Textbooks
c. Legal Dictionaries
d. News papers

Q.9. which of the following are the tools of doctrinal research?

a. Acts
b. Interview
c. Observation
d. Schedule

Q.10. which type of research study the analysis of judgments and legal provisions.
a. Doctrinal research
b. Non- doctrinal research

Q. 11. In which type of research does the research tries to establish a relationship
between theory and practice.

a. Doctrinal research
b. Non- doctrinal research

Q.12. Which of the following are the elements of research?

a. Systematic investigation
b. Process identifying facts and problems
 c. Both
d. None

Q.13. Which of the following statement defines legal research?

a. systematic search of legal materials, statutory, subsidiary and judicial
pronouncements.
b. systematic approach to the ‘understanding’ of ‘law’ and its ‘operational facets’.
c. A systematic investigation into these aspects of law.
d. All of the above

Q.14. which of the following are the “research objectives”?

a. To gain familiarity with a phenomenon or to achieve new insights into it.
b. To portray accurately the characteristics of a particular individual, situation or a
group.
c. To determine the frequency with which something occurs or with which it is
associated.
d. All of the above

Q.15. which of the following are the basic types of research?

a. Descriptive and Analytical Research,
b. Applied and Fundamental Research,
c. Quantitative and Qualitative
d. All of the above

Q.16. what are the importance of legal research.

a. for ascertainment of law on a given topic or subject,
b. to highlight ambiguities and inbuilt weaknesses of law,
c. to critically examine legal provisions, principles or doctrines with a view to see
consistency, coherence and stability of law and its underlying policy
d. all of the above

Q.17. who does the legal research?

a. Judges
b. Engineers
c. Doctors
d. Teachers

Q.18. What is the correct arrangement of steps involved in legal research.

(a) Identification and Formulation of a Research Problem, (b) Review of Literature,
(c) Formulation of a Hypothesis (where feasible), (d). Research Design

a. (a), (c), (d), (b)

b. (a), (b), (c), (d)
c. (b), (d), (c), (a)
 d. (c), (a), (b), (d)

Q.19. Is the view that research is much concerned with proper collection of facts,
analysis and evaluation thereof, is true or false

a. True
b. False

Q. 20. Is legal research important for law students and teachers?

a. Yes
b. No

Q.21. What are essential features of doctrinal research

a. systematic exposition,
b. analysis and critical evaluation of legal rules, doctrines or concepts, their conceptual
bases, and inter-relationship.
c. Both
d. neither

Q.22. What are the essential features of non-doctrinal research?

a. involves study of ‘social impact’ of law (existing or proposed)

b. involves study of ‘social-auditing of law’.
c. endeavours to look into ‘social face or dimension’ of law and ‘gap’, if any, between
‘legal idealism’ and ‘social reality’.
d. All of the above

Q.23. which of the following are the advantages of Doctrinal research?

a. Less time consuming and expensive
b. highlights the existing gaps between legislative intent and social reality and thus
emphasise on what should be law-in-action.
c. provides advices and feedback to the policy-makers, Legislature, and Judges for
better formulation, enforcement and interpretation of the law.
d. Helps in evaluation of theories

Q.24. which of the following are the advantages of Non-Doctrinal research?

a. highlights the existing gaps between legislative intent and social reality and thus
emphasise on what should be law-in-action.
b. provides advices and feedback to the policy-makers, Legislature, and Judges for
better formulation, enforcement and interpretation of the law.
c. Both
d. None
Q.25. which of the following are the dis-advantages of Doctrinal research?
a. extremely time consuming and costly
b. does not involve a study of the factors that lie outside law or legal system
c. the basic tools of data collection, namely interview, questionnaire, schedule and
observation, are not simple to employ.
d. public opinion influences contents and framework of law.

Q. 26. which of the following are the dis- advantages of Non- Doctrinal research?
a. extremely time consuming and costly
b. legal principle, doctrine under inquiry are subjective in nature
c. does not involve a study of the factors that lie outside law or legal system
d. the ‘inquiry’ into a legal principle or concept or law, therefore, does not get any
support from social facts or values.

Q.27. Is the following statement true or false “Doctrinal legal research is defined as
research into legal doctrines through analysis of statutory provisions and cases by the
application of power of reasoning. It gives emphasis on analysis of legal rules, principles
or doctrines. While non-doctrinal legal research is defined as research into relationship
of law with other behavioral sciences.”
a. True
b. False

Q.28. Doctrinal legal research is:

a. ‘research in law’
b. ‘research about law’.
c. Both
d. None

Q. 29. Non-doctrinal legal research is

a. ‘research in law’
b. ‘research about law’.
c. Both
d. None

Q. 30. What is the other name given to doctrinal legal research?

a. ‘arm-chair research’,
b. ‘basic or fundamental research’.
c. Both
d. None

Q.31. Is the statement true or false “non-doctrinal legal research is that which gets its
data primarily from sources other than law [i.e. society] and focuses on ‘social reality of
law’ rather than on ‘law’ itself”.
a. True
b. False
Q. 32. Non -Doctrinal Research is also known as:
a. ‘empirical research’,
b. ‘socio-legal research’,
c. ‘sociology of law’ or ‘non-library research’.
d. All of the above

Q. 33 which of the following is the aim of doctrinal study

a. aims to study case law and statutory law, with a view to find law,
b. aims at consistency and certainty of law,
c. (to some extent) looks into the purpose and policy of law that exists, and
d. aims to study legal institutions.
e. All of the above