PHARMACOLOGY SET 1

1. The driving force for passive absorption of a B. The driving force for passive absorption of a
drug is the: drug is the concentration gradient across the
a. specific carrier proteins and shows saturation membrane separating the body compartment that
kinetics is the drug moves from a region of high
b. concentration gradient across a membrane concentration to one lower concentration
separating a body
c. both
d. none
2. Physical factors influencing absorption: D
a. total surface area available for absorption
b. contact time at the absorption surface
c. blood flow to the aborption site
d. all
e. none
3. Clinical effectiveness often depends on: A. Clinical effectiveness often depends both on
a. maximum serum drug concentration maximum serum drug concentration and the time
b. minimum serum drug concentration after the administration required to reach peack
c. time after concentration required to reach onset
concentration
of concentration
d. all
e. none
A4. Process by which drugs find their way into the A
urine EXCEPT:
a. active glomerular filtration
b. active tubular secretion
c. passive tubular secretion
d. passive glomerular filtration
e. none
5. A drug which has no effect enhances the effect B
of a second drug:
a. antagonism
b. potentiation
c. synergism
d. summative
e. additive
6. Parameters used to evaluate time response E
relationship EXCEPT:
a. duration of action
b. latency
c. peak time
d. onset of action
e. none
7. When the dose of the drug is gradually B
increased and the first noticeable offect is
observed, the dose that produces this effect is
called:
a. quantal dose
 PHARMACOLOGY SET 1

b. threshold dose
c. lethal dose
d. a and b
e. b and c
8.Regulates and directs sensory impulses traveling A. Thalamus is the relay station for sensory
to the cortex: impulses passing upward to the sensory cortex.
a. thalamus The pons is associated with the control of
b. pons breathing, the medulla regulates visceral organs
c. medulla and the hypothalamus plays an important role in
d. hypothalamus the regulation of body temperature, water balnce
and metabolism
9 Inhaled anesthetics are relatively insoluble In A
blood and arc eliminated at faster rate the more
soluble anesthetics:
a. True
b. False
10. Coordinate body movement and posture to C
help maintain body The cerebellum provides precise timing for skeletal
a. cerebrum muscle activity and controls balance and
b. brainstem equilibrium
c. cerebellum
d. none
11. Treatment of neuroses: D
a. psychotherapy
b. anxiolytic
c. anti depressant
d. all
e. none
12. Used prophylactically in treating manic B
depressive patients and in the treatment of manic It is currently prophosed that lithium acts by
episodes: altering the cellular concentration of the second
a. anti- psychotics messenger inoistol triphosphate.
b. sodium salts
c. anxiolytic drugs
d. all
13. Used in treating complex partial seizure: C.
a. Phenytoin Phenytoin and carbamazepine are highly effective
b. Carbmazepine for all partial seizures ( simple and complex) Both
c. both are 1st line
d. none
14. Generalized tonic- clonic drug D
a. Phenobarbital Valproic acid is Ist line for GTC
b. Phenytoin
c. Diazepam
d. Valproic Acid
15. The most important criterion in determining C Regular respiration and relaxation of the skeletal
whether surgical anesthesia has been achieved is: muscles occur in stage III or surgical anesthesia.
 PHARMACOLOGY SET 1

a. papiliary dilation Eye reflexes decrease progressively until the eye

b. respiratory lagging movements cease and the pupil is fixed
c. absence of eye motion
d. vomiting
16. The branch of pharmacology that deals with B
the study of the action of drug on functions of the
body
a. Toxicology
b. Pharmacodynamics
c. Pharmacokinetics
d. none
17. Drug of choice in the treatment of status C
epiliptecus: Clonazepam is useful in the chronic treatment of
a. Phenobarbital epilepsy, where as diazepam the Doc in
b. Dispenylhydantoin terminating grand mal epileptic seizures and stauts
c. Diazepam epilepticus.
d. all
18. An anti platelet drug A Dipyrridamole is a platelet aggregation inhibitor
a. Dipyridamole that increases intracellular levels of cyclim AMP by
b. Urokinase inhibiting cyclic nucleoisidephosphodiesterase.
c. Heparin
d. all
19. The branch of pharmacology that deals with B
disposition and fate of the drug is:
a. Pharmacodynamics
b. Pharmacokinetics
c. both
d none
20. Causes mydriasis by blocking the A Atropine blocks all cholinergic activity on te eye
parasympathetic impulses to the sphincter muscle resulting in mydriasis (dilation of the pupil)
of the iris:
a. Atropine
b. Lidocaine
c. Cocaine
d. all
21. Drug of choice for Tularemia: A Streptomycin is effective in treating Tularemia, a
a. Streptomycin rare lymphoid disease caused by Francisella
b. Amphotericin turalensis.
b. Griseofulvin
d. all
22. The ff condition are prone to thrombus C. Thrombocytopenia ispredisposes to bleeding
formation except:
a. Arrhythmia
b. Thrombocytopenia
c. varicose vein
d. none
23. Can improve the CO of CHF patient: A
 PHARMACOLOGY SET 1

a. Dobutamine
b. Reserpine
c. all
d. none
24. Effective for the management of acute gouty D Colchine together with NSAID and
arthritis: gucocorticoids are useful in acue gout .
a. Probenecid Alloupuirinol and Probenecid are used only I
b. Aspirin ch0nic gout and must be overlapped with
c. Allopurinol Colchicine.
d. Colchicine
25. Decrease the probability of second MI: B Asprin is currently employed in the prophylactic
a. Heparin treatment of transent cerebral ischemia to reduce
b Aspirin the incidence of recurrent mycocardial infaction
c. Streptokinase and to decrease mortality in post MI patients
d. none
26. Inhibits warfarin metabolism and causes B. Cimetidine inhibits cytochoro,e
potentiation of anticoagulant: And can slow metabolism of several drugs such as
a. Rifampin warfarin diazepam, phenytoin, quinidine
b. Cimetidine carbamezepine, theophylline and imipramine,
c. Disulfram sometimes resulting in serious adverse effects.
d. all
27. Histamine Hi receptor blockers are usefulin the C Antihistamines are the DOC in controlling the
treatment of : symptoms of allergic rhinitis and urticaria
a. allergic rhinitis
b. urticaria
c. all
d. none
28. It is the treatment of choice for influenza D
infection: Oseltamivir or Zanimivir zidovuune is presently
a. Vidarabine employed HIV infections. Vidarabine is used in the
b. Zidovudine treatment of Herpse Virus infection
c. Amantadine
d. Oceltamivir
29. It can lead to discoloration of teeth is given to B
children: Tetracyclines deposit in the bones and primary
a. Aminoglycoside dentition during calcification in glowing children .
b. Tetracyline This causes discoloration and hypoplasia of the
c. Penicillin teeth and a temporary stunting of growtj
d. Lincomycin
30. Which of the ff. agents shows cytotoxicity that D.
is cell cycle phase specific: Phase specific
a. Bleomycin Antimetabolites, Taxols, Vincas, Estramutine
b. Dactinomoycin
c. Lomustine
d. none

31. During times of stress, the adrenal gland D

 PHARMACOLOGY SET 1

releases __ into the blood , D Adrenaline = epinephrine

a. epinephrine
b. adrenaline
c. acetylcholine
d. a and b.
e. b and c
32. acetylcholine transmit all paraymphathetic C Cardiac glycosides( digoxin )
signals to end organs by binding to: Blockae of the Na-K- Atpase of the cardiac cell
a. receptor site membrance leading to an increase in the
b. Cholinegc nervous system intracellular Na conc. Which abolishes the Na
c. Streptokinase gradient necessary for the Na – CA exchanger
d. all
e. none
33. Draw water into the urine, without interfering C Osmotic Diuretics
with ion secretion or absorption in the kidney: Loop diuretics inhibit te Na/K/Cl cotransport in the
a. Loop diuretics ascending lim of Loop oh henle
b. Thiazide diuretics Thiazide diuretics- decrease the Na reabsorption
c. Osmotic diuretics by inhibition of Na/Cl cotransporter in the distal
d. potassium sparing diuretics convoluted tubule
e. all K-sparring diuretics inhibit Na reabsorption K
secretion and H secrtion at the collecting duct
Carbonic anhydraze in the proximal convoluted
tubule
34. Arrhythmia occurs because one or more D
regions of the heart/is are:
a. Beating to fast
b. beating to slowly
c. beating automatically without regard for
impulses originating from SA mode
d. all
e. none
35. Clinically useful agents which enhance C. Ganglionic blockers specifically act on te
neurotransmission include the ff, EXCEPT: nicotinc receptors, probably by blocking the ion
a. receptor agonist channels of the autonomic ganglia
b. drugs which prevent transmitter degradation
c. ganglionic blockers
d. agents which induce neurotransmitter release
e. none
36. Responsible for reducing the release of NE D
from symphatetic nerves: Alpha 2 PRESYNAPTIC adrenergic receptor inhibits
a. Beta 1 postsynaptic adrenergic receptor norepinephrine release
b. Beta 2 postsynaptic adrenergic receptor
c. Alpha 1 postsynaotic adrenergic receptor
d. Alpha 2 prestsynaptic adrenergic receptor
e. Alpha 2 postsynaptic adrenergic receptor
37.Produces competitive antagonism of B. Phentolamine produces a competitive block of
catecholamine by blockade if alpha 1 inspectors: alpha 1 & 2 receptors. Phenoxybenzamine ins
 PHARMACOLOGY SET 1

a. Phenoxybenzamine none competitive blocker

b. Phentotalamine
c. Ephedrine
d. all
e. nome
39. This may occur when the electrical conduction C
pathways malfunction:
a. chest pain
b. hypertension
c. arrhythmias
d. MI
40. Placebo may be given: D
a. as a control of specific evaluation of drugs
b. to benefit/ please a patient not by any
pharmacological actions but by psychological
means
c. all of these
e.
e. none
41. A branch of pharmacology deals with the study B
of doses:
a. Pharmacy
b. Posology
c. Toxicology
d. Pharmacognosy
42. It refers to the fate of the drug during its A
sojourn through the body:
a. Pharmacokinetics
b. Pharmacodynamics
c. Pharmacoginetics
d. Pharmacotherpeutics
43. Drugs administered by inhalation are absorbed C
in the :
a. small intestine
b. nasal mucosa
c. lungs
d. stomach
44. Weak acids re reabsorbed into the C
bloodstream when: Acidic PH
a. the urinary pH is high When the urinary pH is high (alkaline)
b. the urine is made alkaline Excretion is favored. HA- H+ + A-
c. the urinary pH is low
d. all situations apply
45. All of the ff are cathecholamines, EXCEPT: A. The catecholamines include epinephrine
a. Acetylcholine Norepinephrine and dopamine.
b. Norepinephrine
c. Adrenalin
 PHARMACOLOGY SET 1

d. Dopamine
46. Which of the following is an inhibitory amino C
acid? Stimulation of inhibitory neurons releases neuro
a. Glutamate transmitter molecules such at gamma
b.Aspartate aminobuytric acid (GABA) or glycine
c. GABA
d. NOTA
47.The following situations give rise to excitatory D. The influx pf C: and efflux ok K cause
postsynaptic potential (ESPP) EXCEPT: hyperpolarization pr inhibitory postsynaptic
a/ Na+ conductance channel potential that moves the postsynaptic away form
b. depolarization of the membrane channel its firing threshold
c. opening of Ca+ ion
d. opening Cl- ion
48. The response characterized by increasing A
magnitude with greater concentration of unbound
drug at the receptor site:
a. “Graded”
b. quantal
c. all or none
d. margin of safety
49 It refers to the relative concentration required C Potency ( or effective dose conc)is a measure of
to produc a given magnitude of effect: how much drug is required tp elicit a given
a. affinity response
b. potency
c. efficacy
d. none of these
50. Interaction of two drugs whose opposing C Physiological or functional antagonism occurs
actions in the body to tend to cancel each each when 2 agonists act independently hot cause
others effect: opposite effects.
a. noncompetitive
b. chemical
c. physiologica
d. pharmacokinetic
51.The period from the drug administration to the A
first visible effect is:
a. onset of action
b. duration of action
c. ceiling effect
d. peak time
52. Parkinsons disease is due to: D Parkinsonism is a progressive neurological
a. excessive cholinergic activity disorder of muscle movements characterized by
b. damage to the basal ganglia tremors, muscular rigidity, bradykinesis and
c. deficiency of dopemine level in the brain postural/ gait abnormalities. It is correlated with a
d. all of these reduction in the activity inhibitory dopaminegic
neurons in the substantia nigra and corpus
stirulum
53. When MAOi is taken with tyramine containing D . Tyramine is normally oxidized byMAO, but if a
 PHARMACOLOGY SET 1

food it can result to serious consequences such as: patientis taking MAO inhibiters it can precipitate
a. hypertensive crisis serious vasopressor episodes, such as headaches,
b. cerebral stroke tachycardia, arrhytnuas and stroke
c,. insomnia
d. a and b only
e. all
54. Medicine is used to prevnt nausea and C
vomiting due to:
a. vertigo
b. motion sickness
c. either a and b only
d. neither a nor b
55. Antipsychotic agents reduce hallucination and B All of the neuroleptic drug
agitation by:
a. blocking the reuptake of NE and SE
b. blocking the dopamine receptors
c. either a or b
.d. neither a npr b
56. antihistamines can be used clinically as: D
a. antimetic
c. anti allergy
b. sedative
d. all
57. A drug used to treat chronic alcoholism: D Disulfram blocks the oxidation of acetaldehyde
a. Diazepam to acetic acid by inhibiting aldehyde dehydrogens
b. Flumazenil in the blood resulting to flushing, tachycardia
c. Zolpdem Hyperventilation and nausea
d. Disulfram
58. The following are pharmacological action of C benzziodiazephines are indicated for anxiety
benziodiazepines except: disorders, muscular disorders ( muscle spasms)
a. reduction of anxiety seizures (status epilepticus) and sleep disorders
b. anti- emetics
c. sedation
d. anticonvulsants
59. Alcohol can produce the following peripheral C (central and not peripheral effect)
effects EXCEPT:
a. dieresis
b. dilation of the blood vessel in the skin
c. loss of memory
d. stimulates secretions of gastric juices
60. All of the ff. statements about the D
extrapyramidal effects of antipsychotic are correct, Haloperidol causes Parkinsons like effect
EXCEPT: Or extrapyramidal effects.
a. these are caused by the blockade of the
dopamine receptors on the basal ganglia
b. can be counteracted by the adiminstration of
anticholinergic
 PHARMACOLOGY SET 1

c. if therapy is stopped, tardive dyskinesia occurs

d. baloperidol does not cause extrapyramidal
effect
61. Pharmacological effects brought about by A. most neuroleptic drugs
dopamine receptor blockade, EXCEPT:
a. stimulation of the vomiting center
b. development of parkinsonian signs
c. reduce schizophrenic symptoms
d. decrease stimulation of the CTZ
62. Which of the ff statements is correct about A. Loperamide is an antimotility agen used t
loperamide? control diarrhea
a. It is used to control diarrhea
b. it has analgesic property
c. it enter the brain
d. it is NSAID
63. Which of the ff statements is NOT True about D. Aspirin given during viral infection in children
paracetamol has been associated Reye’s syndrome an often
a. it lacks anti inflammatory property fatal fulminating hepatitis with cerebral edema.
b. preferred drug to lower elevated body
temperature
c. ovderdose cn lead to hepatic injury
d. associated with Reye’s syndrome in children
64. A dissociative anesthetic agent: C Ketamine Is ashort acting nonbarbiturates
a. Thiopental anesthetic that induces a dissociated state in
b. Innovar which the patient appears awake but is
c. ketamine unconscious and does not feel pain.
d. halothane
e Propofol
65. A drug useful in febrile seizure C In febrile seizures in children, Phenobarbital is
a. Diazepam the preferred drug and primidone is an alterntive
b. Trimethadione drug
c. Phenobarbital
d. Valproic acid
66. A drug that reverses the effects of morphine D
and heroin by competitively blocking the opioid
receptors:
a. methadone
b. nalbhupine
c. butorphanol
d. naloxone
67. It refers ti change of one or more of the C
pharmacokinetic processes with increasing dose
size:
a. disposition
b. clinical pharmacokinetics
c. dose dependency
d. depot phase
 PHARMACOLOGY SET 1

68. cleaning out of stomach by repeated infusion A

of water using rubber tube:
a. gastric lavage
b. emesis
c. anaphylaxis
d. hydration
69. The process with the slowest rate constant in B
a system of simultaneously kinetic process:
a. lag time
b. rate limiting step
c. bioequivalence
d. accumulation
70. The measured preparation devised to make B
possible the administration of medications in
prescribed or measured amounts.
a. dose size
b. dosage form
c. dosage regimen
d. drug
71. The sum of all body regions in which the drug D
concentration is an instantaneous equilibrium with
that in blood or plasma:
a. clearance
b. accumulation
c. depot phase
d. central compartment
72. Loss of drug from the central compartment C Endocytosis is a cellular transport process
due to transfer to another compartment.
a. apparent partition coefficient
b. billiary recycling
c. distribution
d, creatinine clearance
73. The extent of protein in binding is determined A. Phase I Reaction
in vitro by the ff mechanisms, EXCEPT: Oxidation (ex. Oxidative deamination Soxidation N-
a. ultracentrifugation hyrdoxylation) Reduction and Hydrosis.
b. dialysis
c. endocytosis
d. electrophoresis
74. A phase 1 biotransformation EXCEPT: B Phase II reactions: Conjugation with glucuronic
a. methylaation acid, sulfate, glycine, glutamine, or other amino
b. reduction acids , Acetylation, methylation
c. acetylation
d. conjugation
75. Non – irritating t the larynx and produces A
bronchiolar dilation:
a. balothane
b. nitrous oxide
 PHARMACOLOGY SET 1

c. desflurance
d. isoflurance
76. Commonly used spinal anesthetic tht is 10 C
times more potent that procaine:
a. cocaine
b. lidocaine
c. tertracaine
d. procaine
78. it is potent utra short acting non barbiturates B Etomidate is a hypnotic substance
Hypnotic agents without analgesic prop. Non barbiturates without analgesic property
a. diazepam That can cause uncontrolled muscular act.
b. etomidate
c. morphine
d. cocaine
79. It is an important autonomic nervous sysyem A.
wherein play a role in the regulation of body temp.
water balance, and metabolism
a. hypothalamus
b. diencephalons
c. thalamus
d. broca’s area
80. It triggers the ovuation of the egg from the
female ovary and causesthe ruptured follicle to be B. LH
converted to a corpus luteum.
.a. thyrotopic hormone
b. lutenizing hormone
c. prolactin
d. follicle stimulating hormone
81 . The standard of comparison for potency of A. the potency of inhaled anesthetic is detined
general anesthetic agent in: quantitatively as the minimum avlleolar
a. minimum alveolar concentration concentration which is the concentraton of
b. solubility anesthetic gas needed to eliminate movement
c. partition coefficient\ among 50% of patient challenged by standardized
d MAXIMUM VAPOR CONC. skin lesion
82. Benziodiazephines are used therapeutically fpr B
for all of the ff indications
A panic dis.
b. schizophrenia
c. status epilepticus
d. insomnia
83. Which of the following effects is produced by
morphine EXCEPT: C
a. Relief of dyspnea accomp. Pulmonary edema
b. Decreased sensitivity of the respiratory center
to CO2
c. Mydriasis that can be blocked by atropine
d. Vasodilation of cerebral blood vessels
 PHARMACOLOGY SET 1

84. Benziodizephines differ from barbiturates in D Benziodiazephines are the most widely used
that benzio: anxiolytic drugs. They have largely replaced
a. facilitate the action of GABA on neuronal barbiturates since they are more effective and
chloride channels safer.
b. have anticonvulsant activity
c. may induce physical dependence
d. have a higher margin of a safety than
barbiturates
85 Classified as an amide type local anesthetic D procaine is an ester type of local anesthetic
EXCEPT
A. prilocaine
b. lidocaine
c. bupivocaine
d. procaine
86. This drug has both local aneshtehic and D
antiarrhythmic properties: Lidocaine is a Class B – anti arrhtymic agent
a. halothane
b. lidocaine
c. bupivacaine
d. procaine
87, This drug produces rapid analgesia and A
amnesia while maintaining laryngeal reflexes:
a. dissociative anesthesia
b. neuroleptanesia
c. balanced anesthesia
d. local anesthesia
88. Contraindicted to patients with seizure A
disorders:
a. isoflurance
b. enflurance
c.cocaine
d. desflurance
89. Leukopenia has been repprted with chronic D
abuse of :
a. dethyl ether
b. droperidol
c. bupivacaine
d. nitrous oxide
90. This drug producestolerance, abuse, A
hyperyexia and anorexia:
a. cocaine
b. tetracaine
c. procaine
d. lidocaine
91. Postulates that the lcal anesthetic displaces Ca A
+ + from a asite near the NA+ channel and blocks
te adjacent Na++ channel
 PHARMACOLOGY SET 1

a. specific receptor theory

b. lock and key theory
c. membrane expansion theory
d. lidocaine
92, The most serious adverse effect of locan B
anesthetics
a. respiratory faiure
b. seizures
c. hypotension
d. allergc reaction
93. The agent which has a parasymphathetic effect D
THAT CAN caused bradycardia and hypotension :
A droperidol
b. fentanyl
c. alfentanil
d. morphine
94. Which of the ff agenst may be considered the D
drug of choice for the treatment of absence
seizures
a. phenytoin
b. Phenobarbital
c. carbazepine
d. ethoduximide
95. Softening of the bones caused by a deficiency C. Osteoporosis decrease in bone d ensity
of vitamins d either from a poor diet or lack of Osteoathritis – inflammation of bone joints
sunshine or both Osteomyelitis inflammation of bone tissue
a. osteoporosis
b. osteoarthritis
c. osteomalacia
d. osteomyelitis
96. A stage of anesthesia where there is loss of A
consciousness and its characterized by irregular
respiration and involuntary activity:
a. delirum
b. analgesia
c. surgical
d. medullary paralysis
97. If a drug stimulates its own metabolism the A
phenomenon is called:
a. auto induction
b. cross induction
c. foreign induction
d enzyme induction
98. The protein binding of a dug is defined by B
a. the absorption constant
b. the affinity constant
c. the distribution equilibrium
 PHARMACOLOGY SET 1

d. all of the choices

99. Which of the ff. agents is the primary drug for C
treatment of major motor seizures and partial Carbamazepine is highly effective for al partial
seizures seizures and is often the drug of choice.
a. clonzepam
b. ethosuximde
c. carbamazepine
d. trimethadione
100. A tricyclic anti depressant which is effective C
in multiple selerosis patients with pseudobulbar
palsy:
a. doxepin
b. amitriptyline
c. despiramine
d. nortiptyline
101. It potentials the action of biogenic amines, B
presumably by blocking the inactivating reuptake Phenytoin is notorious for gingival hyperplasia
of the amines aftr release from the presyna[toc which causes the gums to grow over the teen
drugs? particular in children
a. MAO inhibitors
b. phenothiazines
c. tricyclic antidepressant
d. local anesthetics
102. Granulocytopenia irritation gingival A
hyperplasia and facial hirsutism are all possible
siede effects of which of the following anti
covalent drugs?
a. Phenobarbital
b. Phenytoin
c. valproate
d. dantrolene
103. Symptoms of migraine Except: C
a. diplopia
b. phonopobia
c. protophobia
d. nausea and vomiting
104. Barbiturates are being replaced by D
benziodiazepines for use s sedative hypnotic
agents because of the shortcoming of the
barbiturates therapy, which include all of the
following except:
a. a narrow therapeutic index
b. suppression of rapid eye movement sleep
c. induction of seizures
d. high potential for physical dependence
105. Chemically it is a trimethylated monocyclic A
phenylaminoketone used for the treatment of
 PHARMACOLOGY SET 1

major depression
a. venlaxine
b. fluoxetine
c. amphetamine
d. bupropion
106. The brain stem center affected most strongly D an example of thiopental
by barbiturates are:
a. the respiratory center
b. the cardioinhibory centers
c. the vasomotors center
d. NOTA
107. Ultra short acting barbiturates are used AAmitriptyline os a tricyclic anti depressant
primarily as :
a. sedative
b. ant parkinsonian agents
c. hypnotic
d. preanesthetic agents
108. Amitriptyline is used to treat symptoms of: D
a. depression
b. petit mal epilepsy
c. gout
d. parkinosims
109. Enclorine and metabolic effects of A oral administration of epinephrine is effective
antipsycholic drugs of the ff. since just like the other catecholamine it is
.a. lyperprolcatinemia inactivated by intestinal enzymes.
b. galactorrhea
c. weight gain
d. hypotension
110. This diuretic competitively antagonizes B
aldosterone
A ethacrynic acid
b. spiralnolatone
c. chlorothiazide
112. This antacid likely to produce depression in C toxic possibilities in the presence of deficient
patient with poor renal function: kidney function should be kept in mind for oral use
a. sodium bicarbonate of magnesium salts.
b. calcium carbonate
c. magnesium trisilicate
d. aluminum hydroxide
113. This antacid produces cathartic action: B in large doses Mg trisilicate induces diarrhea
a. sodium bicarbonate because of the Mg chlorideformed with HCl in the
b. calcium carbonate stomach
c. magnesium trisilicate
d. aluminum hydroxide
114. A laxative considered as a surface active A. phenolphthalein irritant laxative
agent and has an action of easing defecation by
softening stool:
 PHARMACOLOGY SET 1

a. dioctyl sodium sulfossucinate

b. phenolphthalein
c. urticria
d. docusate
115. The most common adverse effect associated A
with the use of antihistamines is:
a. sedation
b. hypotension
c. urticaria
d. tinnitus
116. Which of the ff is NOT a stimulant laxative? E Docusate surface active laxative
a. cascara sagrada
b. senna
c. castor oil
d. bisactydol
e. docusate
117.all of the ff. statements concerning antacids E
true except : Magnesium base antacids are NOT preferred
a.sodium bicarbonate is very effective in because of the possible toxicities of magnesium
neutranalizing stomach acid but its use is not salts for oral use in the presence of renal
recommended because of the potential for dysfunction
systematic alkalosis and fluid retention
b. antacids only neutralize stomach acids and have
no effect on the secretion of pepsin
c. a common side effect of magnesium based
antacids is diarrhea while aluminum base antacis
tend to cause constipation
d. both a and b
e. magnesium base antacid rather than alumnum
base antacids are preferred for the treatment of
patients with renal dysfunction
118, The mechanismof action of the anti coagulant D Coumarin anticoagulants block the gamma
effect of coumarin derivatives involves : carboxylation of glutamyl
a. a reduction in levels of factor VII, IX and X
b. an action taking place in the bloodstream
c. no effect on vitamin K
d. an action that blocks the release performed
prothrombin by the liver
119. Regarding the therapeutic uses of iron A
a. oral ferrous sulfate is the treatment of choice
for iron deficiency
b. ferrous and ferric salts differ
c. enteric coated tablets are better absorbed than
immediate release tablets
d. medicinal iron preparations are relatively
nontoxic for children
120.Antihistamines are useful in treating certain A
 PHARMACOLOGY SET 1

allergic disorders and the mechanisms almost

likely the result of:
a. inhibition of histamine release
b. depletion of histamine stores
c. metabolic inactivation of histamines
d. chelation of histamines
121. Histamine stock is associated with all of ff. E
except:
a. redouced venous
b. decrease effect blood volume
c. increase capillary
d engorged large blood
e. hemoconcentration
122. Which of the ff agents can produce hearing A
loss and renal impairment:
a. cisplatin
b. mercaptopurine
c. melphalan
d. vinbastine
123.Which of the following is not a selective beta 1 B
blocker?a
a. betaxolol
b. atenolol
c. timolol
d. metoprolol
124. Beta blocker given thru IV used for D
emergency hypertension
a. practolol
b. propanolol
c. betaxolol
d. melphalan
125. Which of the ff drugs is used to prevent s A
postpartum hemorrhage in patient with blood
pressure of 180/100 mmHg?
a. oxytocin
b. ritodine
c methylergonovine
d. methysergine
126. Drug of choice for myasthenia gravis: D. Neostigmine is a reversible anticholinesterase
a. tropicamide used in the symptomatic treatment of myasthenia
b. atropine Gravis, an autoiimune disorder caused by
c. cycloentholate antibodies to the nicotinic receptor that bind to
d. neostigmine the acetylcholine receptors of neuromuscular
junction
127. It is a CNS neurotransmitter with greater C
inotpic effect less chronotopic effect and used is
primarily for congerstive heart failure
 PHARMACOLOGY SET 1

a. amphetamine
b. atropine
c. dopamine
d. norepinephrine
128. Neurotransmiter at adrenergic receptors: D
a. propanolol
b. acetylcoholic
c. phentolamine
d. norepinephrine
129. Neurotransmitter at cholinergic receptors: B
a. propanolol
b. acetylcoholic
c. phentolamine
d. norepinephrine
130. Antagonist at alph adrenergic receptors: C
a. propanolol
b. acetylcoholic
c. phentolamine
d. norepinephrine
131. Antagonist at muscarinic receptors: A
a. atropine
b. acetylcholic
c. phentolamine
d. norepinephrine
132. Antagonist at nicotinic receptor: C
a. propanolol
b. acetylcholine
c. curare
d. norepinerphine
133. Preanesthetic agent to prevent delayed A
hypersensitivity reaction:
a. promethazine
b. diazepam
c. atropine
d. morphine
134. Enzymes which break down the D
neurotransmitter of the symphatetic nerve:
a. catechol o metyl transferase
b. monoamine oxidase
c. acetylcholine esterases
d. a and b
135.Enzyme which break down the C
neurotransmitter of the parasympathetic nerve: Acetylcholinestearse is an enzyme that specifically
a. catechol o metyl transferase cleaves acetylcholine to acetate and choline
b. monoamine oxidase
c. acetylcholine esterases
d. a and b
 PHARMACOLOGY SET 1

136. Drug of choice for Parkinsons disease: B

a. diazepam
b. levodapa
c. enthosuximide
d. naltrexone
136. Drug of choice for Parkinson’s disease: B levodapa is a metabolic precursor of deoapmine
a. diazepam
b. ethosuximide levodapa
d. naltrexone
137. long acting barbiturate: A. long acting Phenobarbital
a. phebarbital Short acting; pento, secto & amobarbital,
b. pentobarbital ultrashort acting: Thiopental
c. amobarbital
d. cocaine
138. Opiod used for intractable dry itchy cough: A
a. codeine
b. morphine
c. dextrometorphan
d. cocaine
139. Antidote for physostigmine poisoning: C atropine is used for the treatment of overdose of
a. epinephrine organophosphate and some types of mushroom
b. atropine poisoning
c. NH4Cl
d. codeine
140. Dopamine: B
a. cholinergic agonist
b. adrenergic agonist
c. antacetylcholicnesterase agent
d. anticholinergic agent
141. Edrophonium: C
a. cholinergic agonist
b. adrenergic agonist
c. antacetylcholicnesterase agent
d. anticholinergic agent
142. Antidote for warfarin toxicity: B
a. protamine sulfate
b vitamin K
c. heparin
d. aminocaproic acid
143. Antihypertensive agent used as hair grower in C Minoxidil is a vasolidator that also causes
alopecia: hypertrichosis (growth of body hair.)
a. Hydralazine
b. verapamil
c. minoxidil
d. captopril
144. Nifedipine: B
a. ACE inhibitor
 PHARMACOLOGY SET 1

b. calcium channel blocker

c. cardiac gylcosiedes
d. alpha blocker
145. Nitrogycerin : B
a. anti arrhythmic agent
b. anti angina agent
c. antihypertensive agent
d. all of the above
146. Used to induce the ovulation: B
a. ketoconazoe
b. metronidazole
c. metyrapone
d. clomiphene
147. Aldosterone: D Clomiphene increases thesecretion of
a. glucocorticoid gonadotropin-releasing hormone and
b. mineralcocorticoid gonadtropins leading to stimulation of ovulation
c. anti estrogen
d. anti androgen
148. two drugs have the same pharmacological B
effects but when given together produced a
greather effect than if each drug was givn
individually:
a. additive
b. potentiation
c. synergism
d. antagonism
149. Measures the safety and usefulness of the C Therapeutic index is the ratio of the toxic dose
drugs over the effective ones
a. half life
c. therapeutic index
b. volume of distribution
d total body clearance
150.,Most significant side effect of D
aminoglycosides :
a. ototocity and nephrotoxicity
b. yellowish teeth discoloration
c. pseudomembranous colitis
d. aplastic anemia
151. Most significant side effect of A
aminoglycosides:
a. ototocity and nephrotoxicity
b. yellowish teeth discoloration
c. pseudomembranous colitis
d. aplastic anemia
152. Most significant side effect of clindamycin: C
a. ototocity and nephrotoxicity
b. yellowish teeth discoloration
 PHARMACOLOGY SET 1

c. pseudomembranous colitis
d. aplastic anemia
153. Most significant side effect of rifampicin B
a. hypersensitivity reaction
b, orange discoloration of urine
c. hepatotoxicity
d. blood dyscrasia
154. Where can you find kernicterus as its side C in newborn because sulfonamides displace
effect? bilirubin from protein binding or serum albumin
a. tetracycline leading to kernicterus
b. sulfonamide
b. clindamycia
d. chloramphenicl
155. Drug of choice for typhoid fever: D
A clindamycin
b. cephalosporin
c. erythromycin
d. chlorampenicol
156. Drug of choice of pseudomembranous colitis: C
a. tetracycline
b. vancomycin
c. sulfonamide
d. peniciin
157. Drug of choice for herpes zoster infection: D
a. amantidine
b. methisoprinol
c. mehthisazole
d. acyclovir
158. Drug of choice fpr trichomoniasis: A Metronidaozole is the DOC for infection caused
a. metronidazole by Trichomanas vaginalis in both males and
b. methisazole females.
c. chloroquin
d. nystatin
159. This anti infective agent has disulfram like A
effect when taken with alcoholic beverages
a. metronizade
b. griseofulvin
c. nstatin
d. amphotericin B
160. This drug can be used for both PTB and D. Rifampicin is bacteriridal for both intracellular
leprosy: and extracellular
a. pyrazinamide
b. ethambutol
c. isoniazid
d. rifampicn
161. Vitamin given to treat complication of
pernicious anemia A
 PHARMACOLOGY SET 1

A cobalamine
b. ferrous sulfate
c. folic acid
d. thiamine
162. Antiviral agent also used for leukemia: B
a. amantidine
b. vidarabine
c. acyclovir
d. ribavirin
163. Vitamin which has an antisterilty effect: B
a. vit a
.b.vit E
c. B
d. C
164. mechanisms of action of aminoglycerides C
a. inhibit the synthesis of bacterial cell war
b. prevent PABA to form folic acid
c. inhibit protein synthesis
d. alter cell membrane permeability
165. Mechanism of action of sulfonamides B
a. inhibit the synthesis of bacterial cell war
b. prevent PABA to form folic acid
c. inhibit protein synthesis
d. alter cell membrane permeability
166. Mechanism of action of penicillin: A
a. inhibit the synthesis of bacterial cell war
b. prevent PABA to form folic acid
c. inhibit protein synthesis
d. alter cell membrane permeability
167. Mechanismm of action of erythromycin: C
a. inhibit the synthesis of bacterial cell war
b. prevent PABA to form folic acid
c. inhibit protein synthesis
d. alter cell membrane permeability
168. Mechanism action of nystati: C
a. paralyze adult worms
b. inhibit mycolic acid
c. inhibit ergosterol
d. inhibit viral plymerse
169. Mechanism of action of isoniazid: B Inh target the enzymes responsible for assembly
a. paralyze adult worms of mycolic acids into the outer layer of the
b. inhibit mycolic acid myctobacteria
c. inhibit ergosterol
d. inhibit viral plymerse
170. Niclosamide: B niclosamide is the DOC for most cestode
a. antibiotic infection
b. anthlimintc agent
 PHARMACOLOGY SET 1

c. antilerprotic agent
d. antiprotozoal agent
171. Quinine: C
a. antituberculotic agent
b. antileprotic agent
c. antimalarial agent
d, antiprotozoal
172.A patient is being treated with nighttime D
sedative. Which alteration in wafradin dosage is
indicated.
a. a decrease because its metabolism has been
inhibited
b. a decrease because its excretion has been
reduced
c. an increase because its GIT absorption has been
impaired
d. an increase because its metabolism has been
stiumalated
173. Displacement of a drug from plasma binding B
sites would usually be expected to :
a. decrease tissue level of drug
b. increase tissue level of drug
c. decrease the volume of distribution of the drug
d. decrease the metabolism of the drug
174. Widely used in cancer management that are C
classified as steroid hormone
a. prednisolone
b. prednisone
c. bot
d nota
175the ff .are the eff of morphine: D
a. respiratory depression
b. analgesia
. pin point pupil
d. AOTA
176. Long acting anti diabetic agents: C
a. protamine zin insulin suspension
b. extended zinc insulin ‘’
c. both
d none
177.The ff. are antidotes for morphine poisoning C
a. naloxene
b. natrexone
c. a and b
d. NOTA
178. The ff are non narcotic analgesics D
a. acetylsalicylic acid
 PHARMACOLOGY SET 1

c. dyprone
b. paracetamol
d. AOTA
179. Types of epilepsy which involves the spread C
of electrical firing in asingle hemisphere of the
brain:
a. partial.
b. general
c. none of th above
d. a and b
180. Richest source of Vitamin A
a. grapes
b. fish liver oil
c. meats
d. NOTA
181. Which of the following effects of histamines D
are mediated thoruh H2 receptors EXCEPT:
a. uterine relaxation
b. caridiac stimulation
c. increase of gastric secretion
d. relese of cathecholamines from adrenal medulla
182. Drug used to treat amoebiasis can be A
categorized as the following EXCEPT:
a. luminal
b. peripheral
c. amantidine
d. NOTA
183. An antiviral drug used for parkinosims which B
releases dopamime from storage vesicles
a. chlorpromazine
b. amantidine
c. amantdine
d. NOTA
184, Drug of choice for mania
a. lithium carbonate D release of catecholamines is media by
b. amitriptyline adrenergic receptors
c. deprenyl
d. NOTA
185. Vitamin K deficiency satate:
A alopecia B examples of abtuaniebuasis drugs
b. hemorrhage Luminal diloxanide, furoate paramomyc.
c. scurvy Systematic- chloroquine emetine
d. NOTA Dehroemetine
Mixed metronidazole
186. Type of general seizure which involves the C
abnormal movement of muscles: Myclonic seizures consist of short episodes of
.a. gand mal muscles contractions that may be reoccur for
 PHARMACOLOGY SET 1

b. petit mal several minutes

c myoclonic seizures
d. status epilepticus
187. _ is effective in the management of gastric C
acid hypersecretion and symptoms relief with
ZollingerEllison syndrome:
a. misoprostol
b. niclosanide
c. omeprazole
.d thiabendazole
188. Oral hypoglemic drugs Except: B
a. tolbutmade
b/ ultraente insulin
c. tolazamide
d. glipzide
189. isoniazid may produce peripheral neurpathy C
and can be prevented by administration of : Pyridoxine is the other name of vitamin B6
a. vit b6
b. pyridoxine
c. both
d. nome
190. Most potent member of the general A
anesthetics:
a. methoxyflurane
b. halothane
c. isoflurance
d. enflurance
191. A Phenobarbital derivative which is used in B primidone is often used with carbamazepine and
combination therapy for tyes of epilepsy phenytoin allowing smaller doses of these agents
a. valproic acid to be used
b. primidone
c. benziodiazepine
d.enthosuximide
192. Precusor of Vitamin D3: A
a. cholesterol
b. ergosterol
c. ergotamine
d. NOTA
193. Responsible for calcification of bone and renal B
phosphate clearance:
a. alpha tocopherol
b. folic acid
c. folic acid
d. niacin
194. Not to be administered to neopates: B
a. amoxiciliin
b. sulfonamide
 PHARMACOLOGY SET 1

c. cephalosporin
d. erythromycin
195. THE H2 histamine receptor lockers are great C Zollinger elison syndrome s rare condition in
value in writing patientswith which a gastrin producing tumor causes
a. H hypersection of HCl with H2 blockers, the
b. CHF hypersecretion can be kept at safe levels
c. Zollinger Ellison syndrome
d. oral ulcers
196. Thyroid function is controlled by tropic B TSH is a glycoprotein synthesized
hormone
A t3
b. thyrotropin stimulating hormone
c t4
d. a and c
197. A painful sensation associated with complex
biochemical mechanisms:
a. inflammation
b. cancer
c. infection
d. NOTA
198. Which of the following penicillin is/are A
resistant?
a. methicillim
b. cloxacilli
c. exacillin
d. AOTA
199. Agent that facilitates the expulsion of gases D The penicillinase resistant enicillins
from GIT
A laxative
b. adsorbents
c. anti flatulents
d. stomachies
200, First line drug against all common intestinal C
nematodes:
a. mebendazole
b. niclosamide
c. piperazine
d. pyrantel palmoete
201.The ff effects of morphineLL A Mebendazole binds to interferses with the
A coma nematodes microtubules and also decreases
B niclosamide glucose uptake
c. emesis
d. AOTA
202.It inhibits the DNA dependant RNA D
polymerase of Mycobacteria:
a. isoniazid
b. rifampicin
 PHARMACOLOGY SET 1

c. ethambutol
d. pyrazinamide
202. It inhibits the DNA dependant RNA B
polymerase of Mycobacteria:
a. isionazid
b. rifampicin
c. ethambutol
d. pyrazinamide
203. Therapy choice for diarrhea: A
a. oral rehydration salts
b.adsorbents
c. astringents
d. tannins
204. Xanthine alkaloid used as bronchodilator: C
a. ephedrine
b, atropine
c. theophylline
d epinephrine
205. slow acting antimalarial agents: BC
a. quinine
b. fluroquine
c. mefloquine
d. pyrimethamine
206.The ff general anesthetics: D
a. nitrous oxide
b. isoflurance
c. halothane
d. AOTA
207. For the treatment of postoperative retention C
of urine that the patient is likely to benefit with
drug/ possessing which of the ff property
a. diuretic property
b. antidiuretic property
c. smooth muscle stimulant property
d. smooth muscle relaxant property
208. The ff are antipsychotic drugs: A. Chorpmaine and trifluoperazine belong to the
a. chlorpromazine phenothiazine class of antipsychotics while
b. trifluoperazine thiothixine is a thixanthene antypsychotic
c. thiothixine
d. AOTA
209. Inhibition of carbomic anyhardase enzyme D
may be therapeutically useful for which of the ff.
purposes EXCEPT:
a. to produce dieresis
b to reduce intraocular pressure
c. to prevent acute mountain sickness
d. to counter the effects of vasopressin on the
 PHARMACOLOGY SET 1

kidney
210. Androgens can cause fluid retention , leading A
to:
a. edema
b. hirstism
c, migraine
d unconsciousness
211. Drug of choice for status epilepticys in A
children:
a. Phenobarbital
b. diazepam
c. a and b
d. NOTA
212. The ff drugs are systematic anti fungals A, Clotrimazole together with miconazole
except: aretopically active drugs and are only rarely
a. clotrimazole administered parenterally because of their severe
b. amphoterion toxicity
c. ketoconazole
d. fluconazole
213. Which of the following are the main D
advantages of ranitidine over cimetidine?
A higher potency
b. lack of an antiandrogenic activity
c. fewer side eff.
d. AOTA
214. Among the ff. which is the primary action of C
herapin responsible for its anticoagulant effect?
a. decreased prothrombing formation in the liver
b. decreased formation of fibrinogen
c. activation of plasma antithrombin III
d. decreased aggregation of platelets
215. The following are uricosuric agents: C Probenecid and sulfinpyrazole both block the
a. probenecid proximal tubular reabsorption of uric acid
b. sulfinpyrazole
c. both a and b
d. NOTA
216. The ff effects of histamine is are meditated
through HI receptors EXCEPT:
a. bronchoconstriction
b. stimulation of intestinal smooth muscles
c. uterine contraction
d. increased gastric secretion
217.The following are non narcotic analgesics: D
a. naproxen
b ibupfrofen
c. piroxicam
d. AOTA
 PHARMACOLOGY SET 1

218. Which of the ff. drug primarily act on the D

proximal tubule to produce list/their diuretic
effect
a. mannitol
b.acetazolamide
c. furosemide
d. glycerol;
219.also known as absence seizures: B
a. grand mal Proximal tubule – carbonic anhydase inhibitors
b pentit mal
c. myoclomic seizures
d. status epilepticus
e. NOTA
220. Agents that facilitate the easy removal of B
compacted fecal mutter:
a. astringent
b. styotics
c. adsorbents
d. cathartics
221. Vit. B12 deficiency state: D
a. sterility Stypstics are used to control bleeding
b. permicous anemia
c. hepatitis
d. NOTA
222. The non systematic antacids arepreferred B
because of the safety as well as
a. shorter duration of action
b. longer duration of action
c no action
d. NOTA
223. Bactericidal drugs that areapplied to non B
living material:
a. antiseptic
b. disinfectants
c. germicides
d. ALL
224. An anti-inflammatory drug also used for B
malaria:
a. gold salts
b. methotrexate
c. chloroquine
d. penicillamine
225/. Drugs affecting thyroid: C
a. thyroxine
b. iodine
c. methimazole
d. all of the above
 PHARMACOLOGY SET 1

226. An anti psychotic drug possessing D

antihistaminic and anti emetic properties:
a. promethzine
b amitryptylinne
c. Scopolamine
d. morphine
e NOTA
227. Which of the ff tends to cause black tarry A Promethazine is a phenothiazine anti psychotic
stools: used to control nausea due to motion sickness
a. magnesium sulfate
b. magnesium hydroxide
c. calcium bicarbonate
d. ferrous sufate
e. NOTA
228. Fecal softener: D
a. anthraquinone glycosides
b. docusates
c. fleet enema
d, mineral oil
229. Both oxytocin and vasopressin increase: B/D Other examples of fecal softebers include
a. constriction of uterine blood vessels mineral oil and glycerin suppositories
b. constriction of coronary blood vessels thereby
reducing cardiac output
c. water reabsorption with equal effectiveness in
diabetes inspidus
d. uterine contractility
230. Carbonic anyhdrase inhibitor: D
a. spironolactone
b. acetazolamide
c. aldosterone
d. AOTA
231. Anti TB drug which causes optic neurons: B
a. PZA
b. ethambutol
c. rifampicin
d. streptomycin
e NOTA
232. An antidote for heparin overdosage: B
a. dicumarol
b. calcium salt
c. protamine sulfate
d. atropine
233. Potassium ion hydrogen Atphase dependant C protamine sulfate antagonize the anticoagulant
pump inhibito: effects of heparin
a. misoprostol
b. comeprazole
c.cimetidine
 PHARMACOLOGY SET 1

d. AOTA
e NOTA
234. A non selective beta antagonist it blocks both B
beta 1 and beta 2 receptors:
a. atenolo
b. propranolol
c. metropolol
d. atropine
235. Which of the following drugs could be used D
effiently to alleviate postpartum breast
engorgement in patients who are breastfeeding
their infants.