FOR 2K4- ON LINE

TEST 14
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on the answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in
the following questions. 
Question 1. Their team performed excellent at the elimination tournament. They didn't win trophy.
A. Subsequent to their performance at the elimination tournament, they were afraid to win the trophy excellently.
B. Were it not for their excellent performance at the elimination tournament, they wouldn't have won the trophy.
C. Despite their excellent performance at the elimination tournament, they didn't win the trophy.
D. Because they didn't win the trophy, their performance at the elimination tournament was however excellent. 
Question 2. The boy lost several of his fingers because of firecrackers. The doctors are operating on him. 
A. The boy who lost several of his fingers because of firecrackers is being operating on.
B. The boy whom the doctors are operating on him lost several of his fingers because of firecrackers.
C. The boy was whom the doctors are operating on him lost several of his fingers because of firecrackers.
D. The doctors are operating on the boy who lost several of his fingers because of firecrackers. 

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to choose the word or phrase that
best fits each other numbered blanks. 
Library is a collection of books and other informational materials made available to people for reading, study, or
reference. The word library comes from liber, the Latin word for "book". (3) ________, library collections have almost
always contained a variety of materials. Contemporary libraries maintain collections that include not only printed
materials such as manuscripts, books, newspapers, and magazines, but also audio-visual and online databases. In addition
to maintaining collections within library buildings, modern libraries often feature telecommunications links that provide
users with access to information at remote sites. The central mission of a library is to collect, organize, preserve, and
provide access to knowledge and information. In fulfilling this mission, libraries preserve a valuable record of culture that
can be passed down to (4) ________ generations. Libraries are an essential link in this communication between the past,
present, and future. Whether the cultural record is contained books or in electronic formats, libraries ensure (5) ______ the
record is preserved and made available for later use. People use library resources to gain information about personal
interests or to obtain recreational materials such as films and novels. Students use libraries to supplement and enhance
their classroom experiences, to learn (6) _______ in locating sources of information, and to develop good reading and
study habits. Public officials use libraries to research legislation and public policy issues. One of the most valued of all
cultural institutions, the library (7) ________ information and services that are essential to learning and progress.
Question 3. A. however B. therefore  C. instead  D. despite 
Question 4. A. success B. succeeding succesive C. successful D. succeed 
Question 5. A. what  B. who  C. that  D. which 
Question 6. A. talents  B. abilities  C. skills  D. capacities
Question 7. A. digests B. relates  C. supplies = provide D. applies 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word
in each of the following questions. 
Question 8. By being thrifty and shopping wisely, housewives in the city can feed an entire family on as little as #
A. sensible  B. economical # economic(adj) C. miserable D. luxurious 
Question 9. For environmental safety, we need to find ways to reduce emission of fumes and smoke of factories.
A. leak  B. release  C. pollutant D. poison 

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
each of the questions. 
The green building movement, started in the 1970s as a way to reduce environmental destruction, is changing the way
buildings are constructed. In the early years, green builders were a small minority, and their goals of reducing the
environmental impact of buildings were considered unrealistic. Now, however, the movement is growing, as builders have
been able to take advantage of new technology.
Green builders try to make use of recycled materials, which means less waste in dumps. Also, they reduce
environmental impact by reducing the energy requirements of a building. One way is to provide an alternative, non-
polluting source of energy. First, with solar panels, it is possible to produce electricity from the rays of the sun. Once
installed, they provide energy at no they cost and with no pollution. 
Another solution is to reduce the amount of energy required in a building. It is possible to cut electricity use
noticeably by improving natural lighting and installing low-energy light bulbs. To reduce the amount of fuel needed for
heating or cooling, builders also add insulation to the walls so that the building stays warmer in winter and cooler in
summer. 

1
 One example of this advanced design is the Genzyme Center of Cambridge, the most environmentally responsible
office building in America. Every aspect of the design and building had to consider two things: the need for a safe and
pleasant workplace for employees and the need to lessen the negative environmental impact. 75 percent of the building
materials were recycled materials, and the energy use has been reduced by 43 percent and water use by 32 percent,
compared with other buildings of the same size. 
In other parts of the world, several large-scale projects have recently been developed according to green building
principles. One of these is in Vauban, Germany, in an area that was once the site of army housing. The site has been
completely rebuilt with houses requiring 30 percent less energy than conventional ones. These houses, heated by special
non-polluting systems, are also equipped with solar panels. 
A larger project is under way in China. The first phase of this project will include houses for 400 families built with
solar power, non-polluting bricks, and recycled wall insulation. In a second phase, entire neighborhoods in six cities will
be built. If all goes well, the Chinese government plans to copy these ideas in new neighborhoods across China. 
Green building ideas, on a small or large scale, are spreading. Individuals, companies, and governments are beginning
to see their benefits. Not only are they environmentally friendly, green buildings improve living and working conditions
and also save money in the long run. 
(Adapted from "Advanced Reading Power" by Beatrice S. Mikulecky and Linda Jeffries)
Question 10. What is one common characteristic shared by the Genzyme Center of Cambridge and the project in Vauban,
Germany?
A. Both took advantage of new insulation technology, which cuts down on construction costs
B. Both were built based on green building principles, which reduces energy use considerably
C. Both are housing complexes with special, non-polluting heating systems
D. Both were built out of entirely recycled materials instead of conventional ones 
Question 11. The word "insulation" in paragraph 3 mostly means _________.
A. materials that prevent heat loss and absorption B. systems that protect buildings from the sun's rays
C. devices that monitor changes in temperature D. panels that convert solar energy into electricity 
Question 12. According to paragraph 1, the environmental goals set by green builders were initially considered unrealistic
presumably because __________.
A. the problems of environment destruction were not prevalent at the time
B. there was a lack of green builders at the beginning of the 20th century
C. there was an abundance of natural materials for the construction of conventional buildings
D. the potential applications of technology to constructing green buildings were not recognised then 
Question 13. According to the passage, which of the following statements about green buildings is TRUE?
A. They are gaining in popularity in different parts of the world
B. They are more economical and produce no pollution
C. They have only been built in technologically developed countries
D. They are environmentally responsible constructions with gardens 
Question 14. The phrase "under way" in paragraph 6 mostly means __________.
A. being certified B. being inspected C. being launched D. being notified 
Question 15. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in paragraph 7 as a merit of green buildings?
A. Improving living conditions B. Proving more economical eventually
C. Being friendly to the environment D. Increasing work productivity 
Question 16. Which of the following does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Economic benefits of environmentally responsible buildings
B. New technologies applied to constructing office buildings
C. Successful green building projects all over the world
D. An environmentally friendly approach to constructing buildings 
Question 17. The word "they” in paragraph 2 refers to __________.
A. solar panels B. rays of the sun C. green builders D. recycled materials 

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on you answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each
of the questions. 
REALITY TELEVISION
Reality television is genre of television programming which, it is claimed), presents unscripted dramatic or humorous
situation, documents actual events, and features ordinary rather than professional actors. It could be described as a form of
artificial or "heightened” documentary. Although the genre has existed in some form or another since the early years of
television, the current explosion of popularity dates from around 2000. 
Reality television covers a wide range of television programming formats, from game or quiz shows which resemble
the frantic, often demeaning programmes produced in Japan in the 1980s and 1990s (a modern example is Gaki no
Tsukai), to surveillance- or voyeurism- focused productions such as Big Brother. 
2
 Critics say that the term “reality television” is somewhat of a misnomer and that such shows frequently portray a
modifies and highly influenced form of reality, with participants put in exotic location or abnormal situations, sometimes
coached to act in certain ways by off-screen handlers, and with events on screen manipulated through editing and other
post-production techniques. 
Part of reality television's appeal is due to its ability to place ordinary people in extraordinary situations. For example,
on the ABC show, The Bachelor, an eligible male dates a dozen women simultaneously, traveling on extraordinary dates
to scenic locales. Reality television also has the potential to turn its participants into national celebrities, outwardly in
talent and performance programs such as Pop Idol, though frequently Survivor and Big Brother participants also reach
some degree of celebrity. 
Some commentators have said that the name “reality television" is an inaccurate description for several styles of
program included in the genre. In competition-based programs such as Big Brother and Survivor, and other special-living-
environment shows like The Real World, the producers design the format of the show and control the day-to-day activities
and the environment, creating a completely fabricated world in which the competition plays out. Producers specifically
select the participants, and use carefully designed scenarios, challenges, events, and settings to encourage particular
behaviours and conflicts. Mark Burnett, creator of Survivor and other reality shows, has agreed with this assessment, and
avoids the word “reality" to describe his shows; he has said, "I tell good stories. It really is not reality TV. It really is
unscripted drama."
Question 18. In the first line, the writer says “it is claimed” because __________.
A. be totally disagrees with the statement. B. everybody except the writer agrees with the statement.
C. he wants to emphasize that it is his own claim. D. he wants to distance himself from the statement. 
Question 19. The word "demeaning" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ___________.
A. valueless B. despising C. diminishing D. humiliating 
Question 20. According to the passage, the program "Pop Idol" __________.
A. turns all participants into celebrities. B. is a dating show.
C. is more likely to turn its participants into celebrities than Big Brother.
D. is less likely to turn participants into celebrities than Big Brother. 
Question 21. The word “fabricated” in paragraph 5 is closest in tending to ________.
A. real  B. imaginary C. isolated  D. imaginative 
Question 22. Which of the following it NOT TRUE according to the passage?
A. Shows like Survivor have good-narratives. B. Reality television has been popular since well before 2000.
C. Mark Burnett thinks the term "reality television" is inaccurate.
D. Japan has produced demeaning TV shows copied elsewhere. 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes the following
exchanges.
Question 23. John: "Do you think that people should protect their cultural identities in the age of globalization?"
Jane: “_____________”
A. There is no doubt about it  B. Of course not, you bet!
C. Well, that's very surprising D. Yes, it's an absorbed idea. 
Question 24. Jenny and Jimmy are talking about university education.
Jenny: "I think having a university degree is the only way to succeed in life."
Jimmy: "___________. There were successful people without a degree."
A. That's all right B. That's life C. I don't quite agree D. I can't agree more 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the three in pronunciation in
each of the following questions.
Question 25. A. bosses  B. boxes  C. clothes  D. couches 
Question 26. A. expressed B. wicked C. reduced  D. influenced 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheer to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the
following questions.
Question 27. What we know about certain diseases are still not sufficient to prevent them from spreading easily among
the population.
A. What we know about  B. are = > is
C. from spreading  D. among 

27b . we know about certain diseases is still not sufficient to prevent them from spreading easily among the population.
A.we know about  B. is
C. from spreading  D. among 
3
THAT/ WH- +S + v…..+V (singular)

What we don’t know much about certain diseases is still not sufficient to prevent them from spreading easily
among the population.

How much this shirt costs is unknown

That this shirt costs 1000USD makes us surprised

Question 28. For thousand of years, man has used rocks as main materials for building houses, made fences, pavements
or even roofs for houses. 
A. man B. rocks  C. made => making D. roofs 
Question 29. They rarely are at work after 5 p.m every Saturday.
A. rarely are B. at  C. after  D. Saturday 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined
word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 30. Jose had a hard time comparing the iPhone to the Samsung phone because to him they were apples and
oranges. 
A. completely different  B. containing too many technical details
C. very complicated  D. very similar 
Question 31. Urbanization is the shift of people from rural to urban areas, and the result is the growth of cities.
A. transposition B. maintenance C. variation D. movement 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the
following questions.
Question 32. You must never take the helmet off when your drive.
A. Helmets must be taken around with you when you drive.
B. Wearing helmets is never taken into consideration when driving
C. Helmets must be worn at all times when driving.
D. Helmets are an optional part of you when you drive. 

Question 33. We might stop here if you don't change your way of speaking.
A. We might stop here unless you don't change your way of speaking.
B. We might stop here if you change your way of speaking.
C. We might stop here unless you change your way of speaking.
D. We might stop here if not you change your way of speaking. 
Question 34. Meaningful silence is always better than meaningless words.
A. Meaningful silence is the best among meaningful words.
B. Silence is always less meaningful than words are.
C. Words are always meaningless, and so is silence.
D. Meaningless words are not so good as meaningful silence. 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress
in each of the following questions.
Question 35. A. immigrate B. advocate  C. emigrate  D. inhabit 
Question 36. A. justice  B. struggle  C. wildlife  D. neglect 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 37. I don't suppose there is anyone there, __________?
A. is there  B. isn't there C. don't  D. do I 

Question 38. The monk insisted that the tourists _________ the temple until they had removed their shoes.
A. not enter  B. not entering C. didn't enter D. don't enter 
Question 39. Vietnam needs to __________ its urbanization opportunities to become a middle income country.
A. exploit  B. seize  C. make use  D. get 
Question 40. I agree __________ one point with Chris: it will be hard for us to walk 80km
A. on  B. for  C. in  D. of 
Question 41. John paid $20 for his meal, _________ he had thought it would cost.
4
 A. not so many as B. not much as C. not so much as D. less as 
Question 42. I have visited ________ Portugal but I have never been to _________ Netherlands.
A. the - the  B. a-a  C. Ø - the  D. a-the 
Question 43. All _________ to help people in the middle of Vietnam is a continuous supply of the basic necessities of
life.
A. that is needed B. what is needed C. the thing needed D. for our needs 
Question 44. Statistics __________ now compulsory for all students taking a course in engineering.
A. is  B. are  C. have been D. has been 
Question 45. Put all the toys away ___________ someone slips and falls on them.
A. so long as B. unless  C. provided that D. in case 
Question 46. The interviews with parents showed that the vast majority were ___________ of teachers.
A. supporting B. supporter C. support  D. supportive 
Question 47. True Blood is my favourite TV series, _________ I don't have much time to watch it often.
A. before  B. yet  C. if  D. although 
Question 48. There's a(n) ___________ in the paper about the Reality Television in Viet Nam.
A. essay  B. article  C. announcement D. feature 
Question 49. Making mistakes is all _________ of growing up.
A. part and parcel B. chalk and cheese C. top and bottom D. odds and ends 
Question 50. Tom denied __________ part in the fighting at school.
A. to taking B. to take  C. take  D. taking 

TEST 15
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined
word(s) in each of the following questions.
Câu 1 (TH): They dig deep in search of mineral deposits to replenish those extended in the last year of growth.
A. repeat B. empty C. remake D. refill
Câu 2 (VDC): Jim decided to set up his own business because he was tired of just being a cog in a machine.
A. a large piece of equipment B. a significant instrument
C. a small group of people D. an important person
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the three in pronunciation in
each of the following questions.
Câu 3 (NB): A. court B. pour C. course D. courage
Câu 4 (NB): A. distinguished B. developed C. damaged D. sacrificed
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word
in each of the following questions.
Câu 5 (VDC): I suppose she was the apple of your eye at the time.
A. your favorite fruit B. your favorite meal C. your favorite book D. your favorite person
Câu 6 (TH): Going to chaotic Black Friday sales requires patience and the ability to stay calm in tremendous crowds.
A. crowed B. planned C. disordered D. busy
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the
following questions.
Câu 7 (VD): The haircut, combined with her new style of clothing, made her look years younger.
A. Even though her clothes were modern, she had an old-fashioned hair style until recently.
B. After having her hair cut, she started to wear stylish clothes.
C. She looked well below her age after the change in both her hair and the way she dressed.
D. Had she insisted on wearing the same clothes, she would not seem so young now.
Câu 8 (VDC): Should you choose not to continue with your education, we will still support you.
A. If you don't carry on with your education, we'll be unable to help you.
B. We would be willing to support you if you needed help with your studies.
C. Even though you've stopped studying, we still have confidence in you.
D. We are prepared to stand by you even if you decide to give up your education.
Câu 9 (VDC): Regardless of Bob’s opinion in this matter, I think I’ve done the right thing.
A. I’m sure I have acted correctly in this instance, whatever Bob may think.
B. My opinion that Bob had done the wrong thing in this case turned out to be right.
C. I’ve thought about Bob’s views on this issue, but I think I’ll do as I want.
D. Until Bob told me I was wrong, I thought I was right about this issue.
5
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress
in each of the following questions.
Câu 10 (NB): A. employment B. happiness C. relation D. importance
Câu 11 (NB): A. promise B. discuss C. contain D. express
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Câu 12 (TH): University students _________ in linguistics may take courses including phonetics, semantics, and
pragmatics.
A. majoring B. majored C. to major D. major
Câu 13 (TH): Many companies now advertise their new products by distributing free ____ in public places.
A. deals B. instances C. examples D. samples
Câu 14 (NB): Michael rarely returns to his hometown, ___________?
A. does he B. doesn’t he C. has he D. hasn’t he
Câu 15 (TH): They offered to do it for her _________ she declined their help.
A. for B. or C. but D. when
Câu 16 (VD): I don't think the baby dropped it. I think she threw it to the ground _________ purpose in order to gain our
attention.
A. by B. against C. on D. with
Câu 17 (VD): _________ have a meeting tomorrow has not been decided.
A. Will wE B. Whether will we C. If we will D. Whether we will
Câu 18 (TH): If you slept under a mosquito net, you _________ bitten so often.
A. wouldn't be B. wouldn't have been C. won't be D. would be
Câu 19 (TH): The sick child must stay away from others because he has a _________ disease.
A. communicator B. communicate C. communication D. communicable # commmunicative
Câu 20 (VD): Eggs are generally good for your health __________, of course, you eat too much of them.
A. though B. unless C. providing D. if
Câu 21 (TH): Two thirds of the land in this rural area _________ used for community purposes recently.
A. has B. have C. is D. are

Tu chi so luong/ phan so + of + N(it/ k dem duoc) + V (it)

Câu 22 (TH): A. clever salesman can persuade you _________ things you don't really want.
A. buying B. to buy C. bought D. buy
Câu 23 (TH): By this time next summer all my friends _________ their studies and found a job.
A. will complete B. will have completed
C. will be completing D. are going to completed
Câu 24 (VDC): My father refused to eat meat that had been fried. He had _________ in his bonnet about it causing
cancer.
A. a bull B. a bug C. a bee D. an ant
Câu 25 (VD): I'll see you _________ when you leave. It's easy to get lost in this enormous building.
A. round B. out C. off D. away
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on the answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in
the following questions.
Câu 26 (VDC): Asia is home to 50 percent of the world's urban population. At the same time, Europe is home to 14
percent of the world's urban population.
A. Asia is home to 50 percent of the world's urban population whereas Europe is home to 14 percent of the world's
urban population.
B. Asia is home to 50 percent of the world's urban population although Europe is home to 14 percent of the world's
urban population.
C. Asia is home to 50 percent of the world's urban population, nevertheless, Europe is home to 14 percent of the
world's urban population.
D. Asia is home to 50 percent of the world's urban population due to Europe is home to 14 percent of the world's urban
population.
Câu 27 (VD): He bought her flowers and a diamond ring. This action made her fall in love with him.
A. He bought her flowers and a diamond ring which made her fall in love with him.
B. He bought her flowers and a diamond ring, that made her fall in love with him.
C. He bought her flowers and a diamond ring, which made her fall in love with him.

6
 D. He bought her flowers and a diamond ring, what made her fall in love with him.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes the following
exchanges.
Câu 28 (TH): Peter and Ben are talking about sports.
Peter: "What do you think of football?" - Ben: "_____________"
A. It's none of my business. B. Well, it's beyond my expectation.
C. I am crazy about it. D. Of course, football players are excellent.
Câu 29 (TH): It's Sunday today. Peter is coming over to Susan's house.
Peter: "Do you mind if I put the television on?" - Susan: "_____________."
A. It's no matter to me B. Yes, the television is on C. Not at all D. Not mention it

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions.
What is commonly called pepper in reality comes from two very different families of plants. Black and white pepper both
come from the fruit of the Piper nigrum, a vine with fruits called peppercorns. The peppercorns turn from green to red as
they ripen and finally blacken as they dry out. The dried-out peppercorns are ground to obtain black pepper. White
pepper, which has a more subtle flavour than black pepper, comes from the same peppercorns as black pepper. To obtain
white pepper, the outer hull of the peppercorn, the pericarp, is removed before the peppercorn is ground. Red and green
pepper, on the other hand, come from a completely different family from black and white pepper. Red and green peppers
are from the genus Capsicum. Plants of this type generally have tiny white flowers and fruit which can be any of a number
of colours, shapes and sizes. These peppers range in flavour from very mild and sweet to the most incredibly burning taste
imaginable. Bell peppers are the mildest, while habanros are the most burning.
Christopher Columbus is responsible for the present-day confusion over what pepper is. The Piper nigrum variety of
pepper was highly valued for centuries, and high demand for pepper by Europeans was a major cause of the fifteen-
century push to locate ocean routes to the spice-growing regions of Asia. When Columbus arrived in the New World in
1492, he was particularly interested in finding black pepper because of the high price it would command in Europe.
Columbus came across plants from the Capsicum family in use among people of the New World, and he incorrectly
identified them as relatives of black pepper. Columbus introduced the spicy Capsicum chili peppers to Europeans on his
return from the 1492 voyage, and traders later spread them to Asia and Africa. These Capsicum peppers have continued to
be called peppers in spite of the fact that they are not related to the black and white pepper of the Piper nigrum family.
Câu 30 (TH): The pronoun “them” refers to __________.
A. Europeans B. people C. plants D. relatives
Câu 31 (TH): The word “turn” could best be replaced by __________.
A. exchange B. revert C. veer D. change
Câu 32 (TH): What part of the Piper nigrum is the pericarp?
A. The pulp inside the vine B. The seed inside the fruit
C. The outer covering of the vine D. The outer covering of the fruit
Câu 33 (VD): It can be inferred from the passage that chili peppers originally came from __________.
A. Asia B. Africa C. America D. Europe
Câu 34 (TH): What usually does NOT vary in a Capsicum plant?
A. The colour of the fruit B. The colour of the flower
C. The shape of the fruit D. The size of the fruit
Câu 35 (TH): According to the passage, both black and white peppers __________.
A. have the same flavor B. come from different plants
C. are ground from dried-out peppercorns D. change colours after they are ground
Câu 36 (TH): The word “push” could best be replaced by __________.
A. shove B. strength C. hit D. drive
Câu 37 (VDC): The purpose of this passage is to __________.
A. explain why there is confusion today over peppers
B. provide the scientific classification of various types of peppers
C. classify the variety of sizes, shapes and colours of peppers
D. demonstrate that it was Columbus who brought peppers to Europe
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on you answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each
of the questions.
Teenage fiction

7
 Teenagers have their own TV channels, websites and magazines. So what about books?
Last year one publisher, Martins, started publishing a series called Waves. We spoke to the director Julia Smith. She
explained, “Teenage fiction has been published since the 1970s but publishers have never been particularly successful in
getting teenagers to buy and read books. Now they’re realizing that teenagers aren’t just older children but they’re not
adults either and often aren’t interested in adult fiction. For this series we’re looking for new writers who write especially
for teenagers.”
Athene Gorr’s novel was published in the series last year and is selling well. Its title is The Purple Ring. She says,
“The important thing is to persuade teenagers to pick up your book. I’m a new writer so, although I’ve got an unusual
name which people might remember, nobody knows it yet! But my book has a fantastic cover which makes people want
to look inside. Then they realize what a brilliant story it is!”
And what do teenagers themselves think about the series? We talked to Sophie Clarke, aged 15. She said, “I’ve read
a few books in the Waves series. They say they’re for 14-19 year olds and I agree with that. We’re not interested in the
same things as people in their twenties and thirties. I like them and I think they look really good too. The only thing is that
because bookshops put them in the children’s section, lots of teenagers won’t find them so they may not do very well.
And it’s a shame there’s no non-fiction in the series as I think lots of teenagers, especially boys, might buy that.”
Câu 38 (TH): What does Sophie Clarke say about the books in the Waves series?
A. She isn’t keen on the design. B. She would prefer to read adult fiction.
C. They will be bought by lots of teenagers. D. They shouldn’t be kept with children’s books.
Câu 39 (TH): Athne Gorr thinks teenagers were attracted to her book because of _________.
A. the story B. its cover C. her name D. its title
Câu 40 (TH): Julia Smith says publisher now recognize that teenagers _________.
A. are more interested in reading nowadays B. are neither children nor adults
C. can enjoy the same kind of stories as adults D. grow up more quickly nowadays
Câu 41 (VD): Which of these paragraphs could be used to advertise the Waves series?
A. “If you’re aged between 14 and 19, don’t miss the Waves series which has novels by new authors.”
B. “Choose a book from the Waves series. It includes both fiction and non-fiction and is aimed at teenagers aged 14+.”
C. “This series is for all teenagers and those who are nearly teenagers. Whether you’re 10 or 19, you’ll find something
here to please you.”
D. “The Waves series has been popular with teenagers since the 1970s. This year we have added 20 new writers to our
list.”
Câu 42 (VDC): What is the writer trying to do?
A. explain why teenager fiction is easier to write than adult fiction B. persuade authors to write more teenager fiction
C. compare different series of teenager fiction D. give information about a new series of books
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the
following questions.
Câu 43 (TH): John congratulated us to our excellent results although we didn't know each other very well.
A. to B. excellent C. although D. each other
Câu 44 (TH): The teacher asked him why hadn't he done his homework, but he said nothing.
A. asked B. hadn't he C. his D. but
Câu 45 (TH): Ripe fruit is often stored in a place who contains much carbon dioxide so that the fruit will not decay too
rapidly.
A. often B. in C. who D. too
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to choose the word or phrase that
best fits each other numbered blanks.
VEGETARIANISM
Until recently, vegetarianism was fairly uncommon in Britain, and it is still considered strange by some. But since the
1960s its popularity has increased greatly, to the (46) _______ that high street stores stock a huge variety of products for
vegetarians. The reasons people give for not eating meat are numerous. Perhaps (47) _______ vegetarians do it for moral
reasons, arguing that it is wrong to kill. The opposing point of view is that it is natural for us to kill for food, and that we
have evolved to do so. Still, there are societies where eating meat is not allowed because it is (48) _______ their religion.
There are other good reasons to give up meat, one of which is the inefficiency of livestock farming. A single field of soya
bean plants can actually produce 200 times as much protein as the number of cattle which could be raised on the same
area of land, so a vegetarian world might be a world without hunger. (49) _______ it is, in theory, cheaper to eat only
vegetables, vegetarianism is most popular in richer countries such as Germany and Britain, where many people exclude
meat for health reasons. In these countries, at least, it (50) _______ to be a matter of choice rather than necessity.

8
Câu 46 (TH): A. extent B. distance C. length D. measure
Câu 47 (TH): A. lots B. much C. almost D. most
Câu 48 (TH): A. opposite B. against C. beside D. across
Câu 49 (TH): A. Although B. Since C. Despite D. Therefore
Câu 50 (VD): A. finishes off B. goes through C. comes up D. turns out

TEST 16
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
Question 1. A. toured B. jumped C. solved D. rained
Question 2. A. hear B. dear C. pear D. clear

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position
of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. attract B. marry C. demand D. connect
Question 4. A. arrangement B. temperature C. victory D. envelope

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 5. There has been a great increase in retail sales, ?
A. isn't it B. Isn't there C. doesn't it D. hasn't there
Question 6. Gold_________in California in the 19th century
A. was discovered B. has been discovered C. was discover D. they discover
Question 7. The workers are strike for higher pay.
A. at B. on C. in D. of
Question 8. His health is getting and_______
A. good/ good B. better/ better C. bad/ bad D. well/ well
Question 9. That poor man used to live in a______house with two dogs and a cat.
A. big brick old B. big old brick C. brick old big D. brick big old
Question 10: I saw a terrible accident while I ______ on the beach.
A. am walking B. walked C. was walking D. had walked
Question 11: _________we had planned everything carefully, a lot of things went wrong.
A. Since B. Because of C. In spite of D. Although
Question 12: __________, he will get ready to go to work.
A. When he will have breakfast tomorrow B. Until he would have breakfast tomorrow
C. After he has breakfast tomorrow D. As soon as he has breakfast tomorrow
Question 13. We decided not to travel, ______ the terrible weather forecast.
A. having heard B. to have heard C. having been heard D. to have been heard
Question 14: You are old enough to take _____ for what you have done.
A. responsibly B. respond C. responsible D. responsibility
Question 15: The alarm should ________ automatically as soon as smoke is detected.
A. go away B. put off C. go off D. put away
Question 16: They _________ sacrifices so that their only child could have a good education.
A. did B. provided C. made D. lent
Question 17: Can the sales team meet its financial________?
A. purposes B. aims achieve+ C. goals meet+ D. objectives
Question 18: It’s obvious that she’s lying through her _____.
A. hat B. teeth C. head D. back
Tell a white lie # lie through one’s teeth with a view TO + Ving
Question 19: Viet Nam held phone talks with the US on Wednesday with a _____ to promoting agricultural cooperation
between the two countries.
A. look B. sight C. view D. scene
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSES T in meaning to the underlined
word (s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: Accumulations of sand can be formed by the action of waves on coastal beaches.
A. Acquisition B. Requirement C. Inquiry D. Acknowledgement
Question 21: The boy was let off lightly this morning due to not having done his homework.
A. punished B. promised C. commended D. persuaded

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
9
Question 22: Until 1986 most companies would not even allow women to take the exams, but such gender
discrimination is now disappearing.
A. unfairness B. injustice C. partiality D. equality
Question 23: I'm not an impulsive person, I don't generally do things on the spur of the moment.
A. quickly B. industriously C. intentionally D. attentively

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following
exchanges.
Question 24: Nam is talking to Lan about the environmental problem today.
Nam: “What are the main threats to the environment today?” Lan: “_____________.”
A. Threats are possible dangers to the environment B. Probably deforestation and global warming.
C. Environmental pollution is a big issue for our planet D. We need a clean environment to live in.
Question 25: Two friends are talking about the benefits of swimming .
Daisy: “As far as I know, swimming is a really helpful thing for everyone to improve their health .”
Mark: “_________________.”
A. That sounds great. B. I couldn't agree with you more.
C. Take part in this summer. D. That's fine for me.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase
that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
GOOD FRIENDS
Psychologists have long known that having a set of cherished companions is crucial to mental well-being. A recent
study by Australian investigators concluded that our friends even help to(26)_______our  lives.  The study concentrated
on the social environment, general health, and lifestyle of 1,477 persons older than 70 years. The participants were asked
how (27) ________ contact they had with friends, children, relatives and acquaintances.
Researchers were surprised to learn that friendships increased life (28)________ to a far greater extent than frequent
contact with children and other relatives. This benefit held true even after these friends had moved away to another city
and was independent of factors such as socio- economic status, health, and way of life. According to scientists, the ability
to have relationships with people to (29) _________one is important has a positive effect on physical and mental health.
Stress and tendency towards depression are reduced, and behaviours that are damaging to health, such as smoking and
drinking, occur less frequently. (30)__________, our support networks, in  times of calamity in particular, can raise our
moods and feelings of self-worth and offer helpful strategies for dealing with difficult personal challenges.
(Source: Academic Vocabulary in Use by Michael McCarthy and Felicity O’Dell)
Question 26: A. prolong B. lengthen C. stretch D. expand
Question 27: A. much B. many C. few D. lots of
Question 28: A. expectation B. insurance C. expectancy D. assurance
Question 29: A. who B. whom C. what D. that
Question 30: A. otherwise B. for example C. Moreover D.However

Read the follwing passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
each of the questions.
The rules of etiquette in American restaurants depend upon a number of factors the physical location of the
restaurant, eg., rural or urban; the type of restaurant, eg., informal or formal; and certain standards that are more universal.
In other words, some standards of etiquette vary significantly while other standards apply almost anywhere. Learning the
proper etiquette in a particular type of restaurant in a particular area may sometimes require instruction, but more
commonly it simply requires sensitivity and experience. For example, while it is acceptable to read a magazine in a coffee
shop, it is inappropriate to do the same in a more luxurious setting. And, if you are eating in a very rustic setting it may be
fine to tuck your napkin into your shirt, but if you are in a sophisticated urban restaurant this behavior would demonstrate
a lack of manners. It is safe to say, however, that in virtually every restaurant it is unacceptable to indiscriminately throw
your food on the floor. The conclusion we can most likely draw from the above is that while the types and locations of
restaurant determine etiquette appropriate to them, some rules apply to all restaurant.
Question 31: With what topic is this passage primarily concerned?
A. Rules of etiquette. B. Instruction in proper etiquette.
C. The importance of good manners. D. Variable and universal standards of etiquette.
Question 32: According to the passage, which of the following is a universal rule of etiquette?
A. Tucking a napkin in your shirt. B. Not throwing food on the floor.
C. Reading a magazine while eating. D. Eating in rustic settings.
Question 33: What does the word “it” in line 5 refer to?
A. learning the proper etiquette B. clear instruction
10
 C. knowing the type of restaurant D. sensitivity
Question 34: Which of the following words is most similar to the meaning of “rustic” in line 7?
A. agricultural B. ancient C. unsophisticated D. urban
Question 35: What is the author’s main purpose in this passage?
A. To assist people in learning sophisticated manners B. To describe variations in restaurant manners
C. To simplify rules of restaurant etiquette D. To compare sophisticated and rustic restaurants
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions.
More than 200 reindeer have died of starvation on the Norwegian archipelago of Svalbard, with scientists blaming their
deaths on climate change. The wild deer carcasses were found on the Arctic islands this summer by researchers from the
Norwegian Polar Institute (NPI), which said it had never logged so many deaths at once in 40 years of monitoring the
animals’ population level. “It’s scary to find so many dead animals,” project leader Ashild Onvik Pedersen told state
broadcaster NRK. “This is an example of how climate change affects nature. It is just sad.”
Svalbard’s capital Longyearbyen, the northernmost town on earth, is thought to be warming quicker than any other
settlement on the planet, climate scientists warned earlier this year. The milder temperatures in the region led to unusually
heavy rainfall in December, leaving a thick layer of ice when the precipitation froze. This meant the reindeer could not dig
through the hardened tundra to reach the vegetation they graze on in their usual pastures, the NPI said. Svalbard’s reindeer
have been observed eating seaweed and kelp when food is scarce, but these are less nutritious and cause them stomach
problems.
A relatively high number of calves born last year increased the death toll, as the youngest and weakest are often the first to
die in harsh conditions. “Some of the mortality is natural because there were so many calves last year. But the large
number we see now is due to heavy rain, which is due to global warming,” said Ms Onvik Pedersen.
A team of three scientists spent 10 weeks investigating population of the Svalbard reindeer earlier this year. Researchers
warned the decline of reindeer would cause unwanted plant species, currently kept in check by the animals’ grazing, to
spread across Arctic ecosystems in Europe, Asia and North America.
Arctic reindeer and caribou populations have declined 56 per cent in the last two decades, a report by the National
Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration said last year. The report said food security was partly to blame for falling herd
numbers, while warmer summers could also put the animals at greater risk of diseases spread by flies and parasites. The
average temperature in Longyearbyen has risen by 3.7C since 1900, more than three times the global average increase of
about 1C. In 2016, the entrance to the town’s “Doomsday” seed vault – which stores specimens of almost all the world’s
seeds – was flooded following heavy rainfall.
(Adapted from https://www.independent.co.uk/)
Câu 36. Which could best serve as the title of the passage?
A. Climate change – The main cause for the death of hundreds of reindeer.
B. Global warming – What are the effects on nature?
C. Reindeer – The most vulnerable animals on the Arctic islands.
D. Climate change – What are the reasons?
Câu 37. The word “logged” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______________.
A. cut down B. damaged C. recorded D. discovered
Câu 38. The following are true about capital Longyearbyen, EXCEPT ___________.
A. It is believed to be the most quickly warming settlement on earth.
B. People in Longyearbyen suffered unusually heavy rain at the end of the year.
C. It is the northernmost town on our planet.
D. The reindeer here couldn’t stand the low temperature when the precipitation froze.
Câu 39. The word “scarce” in paragraph 2 could be best replaced by __________.
A. inappropriate B. insufficient C. abundant D. unlimited
Câu 40. What does the word “these” in paragraph 2 refer to?
A. seaweed and kelp B. Svalbard’s reindeer C. their usual pastures D. milder temperatures
Câu 41. According to Ms. Onvik Pedersen, why is the death rate of reindeer so high this year?
A. Because of the high number of calves born. B. Because of heavy rain.
C. Because of natural selection. D. Because of the shortage of vegetation.
Câu 42. It can be inferred from the passage that ______________.
A. Arctic reindeer play the most important role in the Arctic ecosystems.
B. the Arctic ecosystems are altering worse because of the global warming.
C. the clearest effect of climate change is the limit of food chain in the nature.
D. the harsh weather in Arctic islands only damages the new-born calves.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the
following questions.
11
Question 43: When I was planning a vacation to a city nearby, a hurricane suddenly was hitting that city.

A B C D

Question 44: We admire Lucy for its intelligence, cheerful disposition and she is honesty
A B C D

Question 45: Germany, in companion with France, has now lifted the ban on the export of live
A B C
animals to Europe.
D

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the
following questions
Question 46: Peter started learning to play the piano two months ago.

A. Peter has learned to play the piano for two months. B. Peter is learning to play the piano at the moment.
C. Peter stopped learning to play the piano two months ago. D. Peter has never learned to play the piano.

Question 47: “Stop smoking or you’ll be ill,” the doctor told me.
A. The doctor advised me to give up smoking to avoid illness.
B. The doctor suggested smoking to treat illness.
C. I was ordered not to smoke to recover from illness. D. I was warned against smoking a lot of cigarettes.
Question 48: It's time for us to leave for the disco.
A. We may leave for the disco now. B. We needn't leave for the disco now.
C. We should leave for the disco now. D. We must have leave for the disco now

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences
in the following questions
Question 49: I didn’t get admitted to Harvard University. It would have been fantastic otherwise.
A. That I got admitted to Harvard University was fantastic. B. If only I gained admission to Harvard University.
C. I regretted having been admitted to Harvard University.
D. I wish I had gained admission to Harvard University.
Question 50: They finished one project. They started working on the next.
A. Had they finished one project, they would have started working on the next.
B. Only if they had they finished one project did they start working on the next.
C. Hardly had they finished one project when they started working on the next.
D. Not until they started working on the next project did they finish the previous one.

TEST 17
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from that of
the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Câu 1 (NB): A. areas B. states C. countries D. regions
Câu 2 (NB): A. meat B. bean C. sweat D. meaning
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Câu 3 (NB): A. support B. slogan C. icon D. motto
Câu 4 (NB): A. dominate B. disagree C. disrespect D. interfere
12
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of
the following questions.
Câu 5 (TH): Every (A) students (B) was sick last week, (C) so the professor (D) canceled the lecture.
A. students B. was C. so D. canceled the lecture
Câu 6 (TH): (A) The vineyards of Napa Valley (B) are at once (C) breathlessly vibrant, symmetrical, and (D) the green is
profound.
A. The B. are C. breathlessly D. the green is profound
Câu 7 (VD): Public speaking is (A) quite a (B) frightening experience for many people as it can produce a (C) status of
mind similar to (D) panic.
A. quite B. frightening C. status D. panic
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Câu 8 (NB): Nobody called me yesterday, ……………….?
A. didn't it B. do they C. didn't they D. did they
Câu 9 (TH): We're having problems ………...... the right material for your dress.
A. to find B. finding C. find D. found
Câu 10 (TH): If I ................. harder for the test, I would have gotten a better grade.
A. had studied B. will study C. did study D. would study
Câu 11 (VD): I have to ............ my notes once again to make sure I have learned all important details before the exam.
A. go over B. put up with C. take after D. pull down
Câu 12 (TH): My hairline is ............so rapidly that I need to shop for a wig right away.
A. mandating B. maligning C. marching D. receding
Câu 13 (TH): In order to access the building, she had to walk in the street with her walker and risk her safety ............
there were no accessible curb ramps.
A. because B. despite C. however D. although
Câu 14 (TH): Bill's mother won't let him go out with his friends …………………. .
A. after he had finished his homework B. once he finished his homework C. until he has finished his
homework D. when he finished his homework
Câu 15 (TH): In a blizzard, the ............ of very low temperatures, strong wind and suffocating snow often proves fatal.
A. endurance B. engagement C. consistence D. combination
Câu 16 (VD): My new colleague is a bit of a rough ………….. but I think I'm going to like him once I get used to him.
A. stone B. rock C. diamond D. pearl
Câu 17 (TH): They galloped on horseback …………. the length of the beautiful coastline.
A. along B. over C. through D. on
Câu 18 (TH): I think a teacher should be quite ………… so that the students who want to learn don't worry about other
students playing around.
A. strictly B. strict C. strictness D. strictest
Câu 19 (TH): The man ........... the books and pens is the new economics and mathematics teacher.
A. carried B. carry C. carrying D. having carried
Câu 20 (TH): Spain is one of ………………largest European countries.
A. an B. the C. a D. Ø (no article)
Câu 21 (TH): At last I have discovered how ……......... the door.
A. to be opened B. opening C. to open D. open
Câu 22 (TH): Her academic performance has greatly improved since she ……………. her study methods.
A. changed B. will change C. would change D. was changing
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined part in each of the followings.
Câu 23 (TH): His career in the illicit drug trade ended with the police raid this morning.
A. illegal B. irregular C. secret D. loyal
Câu 24 (VD): "I missed the deadline for cancelling the subject I hate.”
"Oh, well, I guess you'll have to tough it out then until the end of the semester."
A. to train to become tougher B. to deal with your own stupidity
C. to have no choice but to manage it D. to try to become stronger
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

13
Câu 25 (TH): Research suggests that children are more resilient than adults when it comes to getting over an illness.
A. making a quick recovery B. becoming healthy again
C. making a slow recovery D. becoming much stronger
Câu 26 (TH): There are one or two similarities between my country and the UK, but on the whole, they are so disparate
that it is difficult to find any common ground.
A. different B. identical C. distinct D. dissimilar
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions.
Under the city streets
While skyscraper offices and elegant apartment blocks remain the public face of most major cities, these cities also have a
mass of secret tunnels and .......(27)...... pipes below ground which keep everything working. This other world exists,
forgotten or neglected by all but a tiny number of engineers and historians.
For example, there are more than 150 kilometers of rivers under the streets of London. Most have been covered over and,
sadly, all that .......(28)...... is their names. Perhaps the greatest loss to the city is the River Fleet, a once great river which
previously had beautiful houses on its banks. It now goes underground in the north of the city and flows into the River
Thames by Blackfriars Bridge.
The London Underground has 1,000 kilometers of underground railway tracks winding under the capital and more than
100 stations .......(29)...... street level. Along some underground railway lines, commuters can sometimes catch a brief
glimpse of the platforms of more than 40 closed stations which have been left under the city. .......(30)...... some are used
as film sets, most lie forgotten. Some have had their entrances on the street turned into restaurants and shops, but most
entrances have been .....(31)...... down.
Câu 27 (TH): A. hide B. hiding C. hidden D. to hide
Câu 28 (TH): A. remains B. stops C. says D. keeps
Câu 29 (TH): A. above B. below C. on D. over
Câu 30 (TH): A. Despite B. Unless C. Although D. Since
Câu 31 (VD): A. cut B. broken C. brought D. pulled
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the
following exchanges.
Câu 32 (TH): Brian is in Marketing class at Bristol University.
Brian: “How come some marketing schemes feasible in Europe can never work in Asia, professor?”
The professor: “………………………………………!”
A. I'd love it. B. That's a good question.
C. You shouldn't have asked it. D. I can't wait to see.
Câu 33 (TH): Chris is a university student. He comes to visit his professor, Mr. Brown, during office hours.
Chris: “Excuse me. I don't want to interrupt you but...”
Mr. Brown: “………………………………..”
A. What can I do for you? B. Certainly, how dare you!
C. I quite agree. D. I have no idea.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions.
There are a number of natural disasters that can strike across the globe. Two that are frequently linked to one
another are earthquakes and tsunamis. Both of them can cause a great amount of devastation when they hit. However,
tsunamis are the direct result of earthquakes and cannot happen without them.
The Earth has three main parts. They are the crust, the mantle, and the core. The crust is the outer layer of the
Earth. It is not a single piece of land. Instead, it is comprised of a number of plates. There are a few enormous plates and
many smaller ones. These plates essentially rest upon the mantle, which is fluid. As a result, the plates are in constant - yet
slow – motion. The plates may move away from or towards other plates. In some cases, they collide violently with the
plates adjoining them. The movement of the plates causes tension in the rock. Over a long time, this tension may build up.
When it is released, an earthquake happens.
Tens of thousands of earthquakes happen every year. The vast majority are so small that only scientific instruments
can perceive them. Others are powerful enough that people can feel them, yet they cause little harm or damage. More
powerful earthquakes, however, can cause buildings, bridges, and other structures to collapse. They may additionally
injure and kill thousands of people and might even cause the land to change its appearance.
Since most of the Earth's surface is water, numerous earthquakes happen beneath the planet's oceans. Underwater
earthquakes cause the seafloor to move. This results in the displacement of water in the ocean. When this occurs, a

14
tsunami may form. This is a wave that forms on the surface and moves in all directions from the place where the
earthquake happened. A tsunami moves extremely quickly and can travel thousands of kilometers. As it approaches land,
the water near the coast gets sucked out to sea. This causes the tsunamis to increase in height. Minutes later, the tsunami
arrives. A large tsunami - once more than ten meters in height - can travel far inland. As it does that, it can flood the land,
destroy human settlements, and kill large numbers of people.
Câu 34 (NB): The word "it" in bold in paragraph 2 refers to..............
A. The mantle B. The crust C. The Earth D. The core
Câu 35 (TH): The word “perceive” in bold in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to………………..
A. locate B. comprehend C. prevent D. detect
Câu 36 (TH): Which of the following is NOT mentioned in paragraph 3 about earthquakes?
A. How many people they typically kill B. How often powerful ones take place
C. What kind of damage they can cause D. How severe the majority of them are
Câu 37 (TH): Based on the passage, what is probably TRUE about tsunamis?
A. They kill more people each year than earthquakes. B. They are able to move as fast as the speed of sound.
C. They can be deadly to people standing nearshore. D. They cannot damage ships sailing on the ocean.
Câu 38 (VD): What is the passage mainly about?
A. How earthquakes and tsunamis occur. B. What kind of damage natural disasters can cause.
C. Why tsunamis are deadlier than earthquakes. D. When earthquakes are the most likely to happen.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions.
Basic to any understanding of Canada in the 20 years after the Second World War is the country's impressive
population growth. For every three Canadians in 1945, there were over five in 1966. In September 1966 Canada's
population passed the 20 million mark. Most of these surging growth came from natural increase. The depression of the
1930s and the war had held back marriages, and the catching-up process began after 1945. The baby boom continued
through the decade of the 1950s, producing a been exceeded only once before in Canada's history, in the decade before
1911, when the prairies were population increase of nearly fifteen percent in the five years from 1951 to 1956. This rate of
increase had been settled. Undoubtedly, the good economic conditions of the 1950s supported a growth in the population,
but the expansion also derived from a trend toward earlier marriages and an increase in the average size of families. In
1957 the Canadian birth rate stood at 28 per thousand, one of the highest in the world.
After the peak year of 1957, the birth rate in Canada began to decline. It continued falling until 1966 it stood at the
lowest level in 25 years. Partly this decline reflected the low level of births during the depression and the war, but it was
also caused by changes in Canadian society. Young people were staying at school longer; more women were working;
young married couples were buying automobiles or houses before starting families; rising living standards were cutting
down the size of families.
It appeared that Canada was once more falling in step with the trend toward smaller families that had occurred all
through the Western world since the time of the Industrial Revolution. Although the growth in Canada's population had
slowed down by 1966 (the increase in the first half of the 1960s was only nine percent), another large population wave
was coming over the horizon. It would be composed of the children of the children who were born during the period of
the high birth rate prior to 1957.
Câu 39 (VD): What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Educational changes in Canadian society B. Canada during the Second World War
C. Population trends in postwar Canada D. Standards of living in Canada
Câu 40 (TH): According to the passage, when did Canada's baby boom begin?
A. In the decade after 1911 B. After 1945
C. During the depression of the 1930's D. In 1966
Câu 41 (TH): The word "surging" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to…………………
A. new B. extra C. accelerating D. surprising
Câu 42 (TH): The word "trend" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to...........
A. tendency B. aim C. growth D. directive
Câu 43 (VD): The author mentions all of the following as causes of declines in population growth after 1957 EXCEPT
………….
A. people being better educated B. people getting married earlier
C. better standards of living D. couples buying houses
Câu 44 (VDC): It can be inferred from the passage that before the Industrial Revolution …………..
A. families were larger B. population statistics were unreliable

15
 C. the population grew steadily D. economic conditions were bad
Câu 45 (TH): The word "It" in the last paragraph refers to…………….
A. horizon B. population wave C. nine percent D. first half
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the
following questions.
Câu 46 (VD): We won't get married until I have graduated from college.
A. We won't be married although I have graduated from college.
B. We are getting married because I have graduated from college.
C. We will get married when I graduate from college.
D. We won't get married even when I have graduated from college.
Câu 47 (VD): But for him, I wouldn't have been able to finish my work.
A. He stopped me from being able to finish my work. B. I tried my best to finish my work for him.
C. If he hadn't helped me, I couldn't have finished my work. D. I couldn't finish my work because of him.
Câu 48 (VDC): "I'm sorry I forgot your birthday," he told me.
A. He complained that I forgot his birthday. B. He refused to go to my birthday party.
C. He begged me to forget my birthday. D. He apologized for forgetting my birthday.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Câu 49 (VDC): New York is described as the world's cultural centre. It is situated on the bank of Hudson River.
A. As long as New York is described as the world's cultural centre, it is situated on the bank of Hudson River.
B. In spite of the fact that it is situated on the bank of Hudson River, New York is described as the world's cultural
centre.
C. Because it is situated on the bank of Hudson River, New York is described as the world's cultural centre.
D. New York, which is situated on the bank of Hudson River, is described as the world's cultural centre.
Câu 50 (VDC): Sunbathing is still a popular activity. People do it even though they know it can cause cancer.
A. Despite the fact that sunbathing can cause cancer, it is still a popular activity.
B. Because sunbathing is still a popular activity, it can cause cancer.
C. Sunbathing is still a popular activity as long as it can cause cancer.
D. Unless it can cause cancer, sunbathing is still a popular activity.

TEST 18
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the three in
pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. mindset B. application C. discrimination D. disposal
Question 2. A. interviewed B. remembered C. established D. claimed

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of
the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. achievement B. anonymous C. community D. bronchi
Question 4. A. biomass B. geothermal C. perseverance D. Generosity

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 5. I saw a terrible accident while I _________ on the beach.
A. am walking B. was walking C. walked D. were walking
Question 6. The Japanese market _________ 35 per cent of the company's revenue.
A. lets in B. accounts for C. cares for D. takes in
Question 7. The biggest fear is that humans might _________ control over robots.
A. lose B. take C. keep D. gain
Question 8. They had sold out all the tickets _________. 
A. until we were arriving at the theater B. when we arrived at the theater 
C. because we have arrived at the theater D. in case we had arrived at the theater
Question 9. The customer said she'd like this coat if it was _________ nicer colour.
A. the B. Ø (no article) C. a D. an 
Question 10. The talks were meant to break down _________ between the two groups.
A. gates B. walls C. barriers D. fences 
16
Question 11. _________ are that stock price will go up in the coming months. 
A. Chances B. Opportunities C. Possibilities D. Conditions
Question 12. We didn’t go anywhere yesterday _________ the rain. 
A. because B. in spite of C. because of D. though 
Question 13. The boy insisted on _________ a break after lunch. 
A. have B. having C. to have D. had
Question 14. You couldn't help me with my homework, _________? 
A. couldn't you B. will you C. won’t you D. could you
Question 15. It was such a _________ victory then even Smith’s fans couldn’t believe it.
A. surprisingly B. surprise C. surprising D. surprised
Question 16. Columbus discovered America _________ the 15th century. 
A. in B. to C. at D. on 
Question 17. I really enjoy being with my father. He has got a really good _________ of humour.
A. sense B. way C. mood D. feeling
Question 18. You will get a good seat if you _________ first. 
A. will come B. would come C. came D. come

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word in each of the following questions. 
Question 19. Every time he opens his mouth, he immediately regrets what he said. He’s always putting  his
foot in his mouth. 
A. making a mistake B. doing things in the wrong order 
C. saying embarrassing things D. speaking indirectly 
Question 20. In the Navajo household, grandparents and other relatives play indispensable roles in raising the
children. 
A. demanding B. outstanding C. dominant D. essential

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to  the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 
Question 21. I must have a watch since punctuality is imperative in my new job.
A. being late B. being efficient C. being cheerful D. being courteous 
Question 22. He’ll give Joe a red rose and a lovey- dovey poem he wrote. 
A. lovesick B. wild C. tragic D. romantic

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes the following
exchanges. 
Question 23. - Mike: “My first English test was not as good as I expected.” 
- Thomas: “__________________” 
A. Never mind, better job next time! B. Good Heavens! 
C. That’s brilliant enough! D. It’s okay, don’t worry.
Question 24. - John: “Do you think that we should use public transportation to protect our environment?” 
 - Linda: “___________________” 
A. Well, that’s very surprising B. Yes, it’s an absurd idea 
C. Of course not. You bet D. There is no doubt about it

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to choose the word or
phrase that best fits each other numbered blanks. 
  Wind is a clean source of renewable energy that produces no air or water pollution. And since the wind is
free, operational costs are nearly zero (25) _______ a turbine is erected. Mass production and technology
advances are making turbines cheaper, and (26) _______ governments offer tax incentives to spur wind-energy
development. Drawbacks include complaints from (27) _______ that wind turbines are ugly and noisy. The
slowly rotating blades can also kill birds and bats, but not nearly as many as cars, power lines, and high-rise
buildings do. The wind is also variable: If it's not blowing, there's no electricity generated. Nevertheless, the
wind energy industry is (28) _______. Thanks to global efforts to combat climate change, such as the Paris
17
Agreement, renewable energy is seeing a boom in growth, in (29) _______ wind energy has led the way. From
2000 to 2015, cumulative wind capacity around the world increased from 17,000 megawatts to more than
430,000 megawatts. In 2015, China also surpassed the EU in the number of installed wind turbines and
continues to lead installation efforts. 
(Adapted from https://www.nationalgeographic.com/) 
Question 25. A. therefore B. once C. though D. so that
Question 26. A. few B. many C. a little D. much
Question 27. A. locals B. foreigners C. master D. levels
Question 28. A. relating B. worrying C. booming D. informing 
Question 29. A. when B. which C. why D. who

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on you answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions. 
 Stella McCartney was born in 1972, the daughter of pop star Sir Paul McCartney. She is the youngest of
three sisters. One sister is a potter and the other sister does the same job as their mother used to do - she works
as a photographer. Stella's brother, James, is a musician. Stella first hit the newspaper headlines in 1995 when
she graduated in fashion design from art college. At her final show, her clothes were modeled by her friends,
Naomi Campbell and Kate Moss, both well-known models. Unsurprisingly, the student show became front-page
news around the world. Stella hadn't been in the news before as a fashion designer but she had spent time
working in the fashion world since she was fifteen. In March 1997, Stella went to work for the fashion house
Chloe. People said the famous fashion house had given her the job because of her surname and her famous
parents but Stella soon showed how good she was. She designs clothes which she would like to wear herself,
although she's not a model, and many famous models and actors choose to wear them. In 2001 Stella started her
own fashion house and has since opened stores around the world and won many prizes. A lifelong vegetarian,
McCartney does not use any leather or fur in her design. Instead, she uses silk, wool and other animal-derived
fabrics. 
(Source: Adapted from Objective PET)
Question 30. Which of the following is NOT true about Stella’s family? 
A. She is the youngest. B. Her father is a famous singer. 
C. One of her sisters is a photographer. D. She has three sisters. 
Question 31. Stella, Naomi Campbell and Kate Moss__________. 
A. had been friends before 1995 B. are very famous fashion models 
C. all performed at the final show in 1995 D. met for the first time at her fashion show
Question 32. Which of the following is TRUE about the show? 
A. There was no one famous appearing in the show. 
B. Everyone was surprised when Stella’s show was successful. 
C. The show was the last show of Stella. 
D. The models performed clothes designed by Stella. 
Question 33. The word “them” in the passage refers to _________. 
A. clothes B. models C. prizes D. actors 
Question 34. The word “lifelong” in the passage is closest in meaning to _________.
A. permanent B. changing C. temporary D. inconstant

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions. 
  An air pollutant is defined as a compound added directly or indirectly by humans to the atmosphere in such
quantities as to affect humans, animals, vegetation, or materials adversely. Air pollution requires a very flexible
definition that permits continuous changes. When the first air pollution laws were established in England in the
fourteenth century, air pollutants were limited to compounds that could be seen or smelled- a far cry from the
extensive list of harmful substances known today. As technology has developed and knowledge of health
aspects of various chemicals has increased, the list of air pollutants has lengthened. In the future, even water
vapor might be considered an air pollutant under certain conditions. 
  Many of more important air pollutants, such as sulfur oxides, carbon monoxides and nitrogen oxides are
found in nature. As the Earth developed, the concentration of these pollutants was altered by various chemical
18
reactions; they became components in biogeochemical cycles. These serve as an air purification scheme by
allowing the compounds to move from the air to the water or soil. On a global basis, nature's output of these
compounds dwarfs that resulting from human activities. 
  However, human production usually occurs in a localized area, such as a city. In such region, human output
may be dominant and may temporarily overload the natural purification scheme of the cycles. The result is an
concentration of noxious chemicals in the air. The concentrations at which the adverse effects appear will be
greater than the concentrations that the pollutants would have in the absence of human activities. The actual
concentration need not be large for a substance to be a pollutant; in fact, the numerical value tells us little until
we know how much of an increase this represents over the concentration that would occur naturally in the area.
For example, sulfur dioxide has detectable health effects at 0. 08 parts per million (ppm), which is about 400
times its natural level. Carbon monoxide, however has a natural level of 0. 1 ppm and is not usually a pollutant
until its level reaches about 15 ppm. 
Question 35. What does the passage mainly discuss? 
A. How much harm air pollutants can cause. 
B. The effects of compounds added to the atmosphere. 
C. What constitutes an air pollutant? 
D. The economic impact of air pollution. 
Question 36. The word “adversely” in the first paragraph in closest in meaning to __________.
A. negatively B. quickly C. admittedly D. considerably
Question 37. The word “These” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to __________.
A. the compounds moved to the water or soil 
B. the components in biogeochemical cycles 
C. the pollutants from the developing Earth 
D. the various chemical reactions 
Question 38. For which of the following reasons can natural pollutants play an important role in controlling air
pollution? 
A. They have existed since the Earth developed. 
B. They occur in greater quantities than other pollutants. 
C. They are less harmful to living beings than other pollutants. 
D. They function as part of a purification process. 
Question 39. According to the passage, human-generated air pollution in localized regions __________.
A. can overwhelm the natural system that removes pollutants 
B. can be dwarfed by nature’s output of pollutants 
C. will damage areas outside of the localized regions 
D. will react harmfully with natural pollutants 
Question 40. According to the passage, the numerical value of the concentration level of a substance is only
useful if __________. 
A. it is in a localized area B. the other substances in the area are known
C. it can be calculated quickly D. the natural level is also known 
Question 41. The word “detectable” in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to ________.
A. beneficial B. separable C. special D. measurable 
Question 42. Which of the following is best supported by the passage? 
A. One of the most important steps in preserving natural lands is to better enforce air pollution laws. 
B. Human activities have been effective in reducing air pollution. 
C. To effectively control pollution, local government should regularly review their air pollution laws. 
D. Scientists should be consulted in order to establish uniform limits for all air pollutants.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheer to indicate the underlined part that needs  correction in
each of the following questions. 
Question 43. Helen Killer, who was both blind and deafness, overcame her inabilitites with the help of her
teacher, Ann Sulivan 
A. inabilities B. deafness C. who D. blind
Question 44. Fertilizer, which added to the soil to replace or increase plant nutrients, include animal and green
manure, fish and bone meal and compost. 
19
 A. include B. which C. increase D. compost
Question 45. The world is becoming more industrialized and the number of animal species that has become
extinction has increased. 
A. extinction B. industrialized C. species D. has

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each
of the following questions. 
Question 46. He took the food eagerly because he had eaten nothing since dawn.
A. He had eaten nothing since dawn although he took the food eagerly. 
B. Having eaten nothing since dawn, he took the food eagerly. 
C. The food was taken at dawn and he had nothing to eat then. 
D. He had eaten something before but he took the food eagerly.
Question 47. However old and worn his clothes were, they looked clean and of good quality.
A. He was fond of wearing such old and worn clothes because they were of good quality.
B. No matter what good quality his clothes had, they looked old and worn. 
C. His clothes, though old and worn, looked clean and of good quality. 
D. His clothes looked clean and of good quality because they were old and worn.
Question 48. The children ran to the yard to see the dragon, but it was no longer there.
A. The dragon had gone after the children ran to the yard. 
B. The dragon had gone by the time the children ran to the yard. 
C. When the children ran to the yard, the dragon was going. 
D. The dragon went by the time the children ran to the yard.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on the answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions. 
Question 49. The house is very beautiful. Its gate was painted blue. 
A. The house, the gate of whom was painted blue, is very beautiful. 
B. The house, which is very beautiful, was painted blue. 
C. The house, the gate of that was painted blue, is very beautiful. 
D. The house, the gate of which was painted blue, is very beautiful. 
Question 50. Most of the classmates couldn’t come. He invited them to the birthday party.
A. Most of the classmates he was invited to the birthday party couldn’t come. 
B. Most of the classmates which he invited to the birthday party couldn’t come. 
C. Most of the classmates he invited to the birthday party couldn’t come. 
D. Most of the classmates that he invited them to the birthday party couldn’t come.
-----------HẾT-----------

20