Question 1

Which of the following places should be considered when selecting improvement team members?

I. Where the sources of causes of the problem may be found

II. Among those with special knowledge, information of skills.

III. In areas that can be helpful in developing remedies

IV. Among those who reach consensus easily

1 / 1 point

I, II, and III only

I, II, and IV only

II, III, and IV only

I, and III only

Correct
Correct: All are valid except IV. Team leaders should never look to those who agree to easily and
are not prepared to challenge perceptions and embrace change

2.
Question 2
A key characteristic of an individual team member is:

1 / 1 point

They have extensive knowledge of the organization

They are able to work schedules to accommodate team activities

They believe in the value of the team process

They are fully aware of all the elements of the problem

Correct
Correct: Team members are not required to work off schedules. This is sometimes necessary. They
also do not need to possess and full knowledge of the organization or understand all elements of the
problem. A fresh set of eyes can be very valuable to the team. Much in the way the MBB serves the
team. The primary characteristic is their belief in the power of the team and its potential to leverage
abilities and adjust to changes with greater speed and efficiency.

3.
Question 3
What is the typical length of training for a black belt?

1 / 1 point

Six Weeks

Six Months

Six nonconsecutive months

Six days

Correct
Correct: The length of black belt training typically varies. Clearly, a training regiment over six days
would hardly be effective. A nonconsecutive program is highly desirable that a project can be
pursued in parallel with the training to best apply and gain confidence in using the tools.

4.
Question 4
Which of the following are black belt roles?

I. Facilitating meetings
 II. Scheduling the next meeting

III. Acting as a representative to report to management

IV. Distributing meeting minutes

1 / 1 point

II and IV only

I, II, and III only

I and II only

I, II, and IV only

Correct
Correct: The team recorder or secretary will normally draft and distribute the meeting minutes

5.
Question 5
Identify the incorrect statement about black belts from below:

1 / 1 point

The black belt should have training in improvement techniques

The black belt is not always the boss

The level of engagement between the black belt and the master black belt stays the same
throughout the duration of the project

Each team member, not the black belt, Is responsible for completing assignments between
meetings.
Correct
Correct: The black belt is not always the boss. It is a collaborative effort with shared leadership.
Individuals are always empowered to complete their own tasks. Black belts should have training in
improvement techniques. This is part of the six sigma methodology. B is not correct. As the project
progresses, the MBB backs off so that the BB can take a more engaged direct leadership role.

6.
Question 6
What is the best reason for upper management to not provide black belt assistance to an
improvement team?

1 / 1 point

It may not be required

It forces the team to develop their own skills

Black belt resources may be tight

It requires the team to ask for help

Correct
Correct: Several of the answers can be applicable, but the most practical reason to withhold black
belt resources is if it is not required.

7.
Question 7
The individual with the most technical training and knowledge in six sigma principles resides with
which role?

1 / 1 point

Master Black Belts

Black Belts

Green Belts
Sponsors

Correct
Correct: The increasing knowledge flow in six sigma goes from green belt, to black belt to master
black belt. A sponsor typically has training at the yellow belt level, if at all. However, some sponsors
can be master black belts.

8.
Question 8
Which of the following would be considered an advantage of training managers in six sigma over line
workers?

I. Managers have more time for training

II. Managers must lead the deployment of six sigma

III. Managers must have a command of the terminology and methodology to gain support and advance the object
the project

IV. Managers validate the impact of the training

1 / 1 point

II and III only

I, II and III only

II, III, and IV only

I, III, and IV only

Correct
Correct: Managers must lead the effort and validate training. They also must understand the
fundamentals of six sigma to be effective. Managers typically have as much or more demands on
their time.
9.
Question 9
Which group is most likely to receive the equivalent of fundamental six sigma basics training?

1 / 1 point

Green belt candidates

Senior management

Black belt candidates

Master Black Belt candidates

Correct
Correct: Senior management would typically fill the role of champion, sponsor, or process owner and
would typical require the equivalent of yellow belt training which is the most fundamental of all the
trainings. The answer is A.

10.
Question 10
Which six sigma role is tasked with defining the objectives for a project improvement team?

1 / 1 point

Sponsor

Master Black belt

Individual Contributor

Black Belt

Correct
Correct: Although the Master Black belt and Black belt can assist in defining the objectives, the
Sponsor is typically the role that defines and crafts the objectives for a project improvement team
Question 1
One of Dr. Deming’s 14 points states “Cease dependence upon inspection as a way to achieve
quality” What is the meaning of this statement?

1 / 1 point

Operators should be required to inspect their product to eliminate the need for inspection

The product should be designed well enough so that quality is evident and there is no need to
inspect quality in.

Inspection operations are not as robust as we need and typically miss 10-20% of defects

The cost of an inspector is overhead and adds too much cost to the problem

Correct
Correct: This answer explains the statement best. If a product is designed well enough, there is no
need for inspection. We only inspect for things that can fail. Not for things that cannot fail. Inspecting
quality into a product is ineffective and costly.

2.
Question 2
At the end of a lean six sigma project, who should be the primary beneficiary of the project results?

1 / 1 point

Employees

Top Management

Sponsors

Customer

Correct
All of the choices are considered stakeholders and are impacted by the lean six sigma project. The
customer; however, is the reason we choose to drive down variation and reduce waste. The
customer is the answer

3.
Question 3
Which of the following is not one of Harry’s original six sigma methodology phases?

1 / 1 point

Improve

Define

Control

Measure

Correct
Correct! Harry’s initial process included Measure, Analyze, Improve and Control. Define was added
later.

4.
Question 4
The prime objective associated with lean is:

1 / 1 point

Reducing Takt time

Eliminating Waste

Improving quality

Producing more efficiently

Correct
Correct: All answers are definitely important to any production operation. Outcomes from lean can
include any of these choices; however, the underlying tenet of lean is to eliminate any of the eight
wastes.

5.
Question 5
Why has six sigma been embraced and sustained by so many organizations?

I. End results are enhanced

II. +/- 1.5 sigma shift between short term and long term variation

III. Use of a disciplined approach

IV. Sound statistical principals are involved

1 / 1 point

II, III, and IV only

I, II and IV only

I, III, and IV only

I, II, and III only

Correct
Correct: II can be eliminated. The +/- 1.5 sigma shift is a consequence of process variation and must
accounted for in process improvement measures. It is hardly justification for embracing six sigma. I,
III, IV are far more relevant.

6.
Question 6
Six Sigma project benefits include:

1 / 1 point

Improved process capability

Increased rework

Increased setup time

No change in profit

Correct
Correct: Some project benefits can be expressed in dollars. This is ideal. Some examples include
increased sales, increased profits, reduced defects, reduced scrap, lowered warranty claims,
improved process capability, increased up time, reduced spare part inventories, fewer customer
cancellations or returned products. Other project benefits are worthwhile but harder to quantify such
as employee morale, increased skill levels, lower employee turnover, increased customer
satisfaction, more aesthetically appealing product, enhanced organizational reputation. Increased
set up time, no change in profit and increased rework would not be considered a project benefit.

7.
Question 7
Which of the following would be considered a strategic quality goal?

1 / 1 point

Commitment to the customer

Training 10 green belts in statistical techniques this year

Reducing the scrap rate in the painting department by 2%

Improved performance inspection checks on the product testing area

Correct
Correct: Strategic goals tend to be more broad in scope. Tactical goals are more detailed. Reducing
the scrap rate, improved performance inspection checks, and training 10 green belts in statistical
techniques are tactical and a is strategic.

8.
Question 8
Using the DMAIC approach to six sigma improvement, at what step would the root cause of the
determined and validated?

1 / 1 point

Define

Control

Measure

Analyze

Correct
Correct: According the slide presentation, this would be in the Analyze phase

9.
Question 9
Increasing performance in a six sigma corporation from 4 sigma to 5 sigma would reduce defects per
million by a factor of _________.

1 / 1 point

27

287

Correct
Correct: 4 sigma produces a PPM of 6210. 5 sigma produces a 233 ppm. 6210/233 ~ 27

10.
Question 10
Defect levels, as reported by Motorola in their six sigma program, are higher than one might expect
from use of a standard normal table or traditional capability calculations. Why is this true?

1 / 1 point

Motorola allowed for 1.5 sigma shift in the mean

Motorola found that six sigma efforts increased process variation

Motorola found their processes followed the exponential distribution

Motorola allowed for failure on one tail only

Correct
Correct: The central limit theorem tells us that all processes will follow a normal behavior for a high
enough data set. The normal curve is symmetrical, therefore a two tail scenario is the only
applicable. Six Sigma efforts will not increase process variation. The 1.5 sigma shift is the only
plausible explanation.

Question 1
The ideal number of team members is:

1 / 1 point

10-15

7-10

5-7

3-5

Correct
Correct!
2.
Question 2
Challenges related to team building, technology, physical distance, language, and cultural
differences are common in:

1 / 1 point

Natural Work Teams

Cross Functional Teams

Virtual Teams

Self-Managed Teams

Correct
Correct!

3.
Question 3
A group of team members who plan and direct themselves toward a common goal is called a:

1 / 1 point

Continuous Improvement Team

Self-Managed Team

Virtual Team

Cross-Functional Team

Correct
Correct!

4.
Question 4
Negative behavior such as excessive arguing is likely in which stage of team development?

1 / 1 point

Norming

Forming

Adjourning

Storming

Performing

Correct
Correct!

5.
Question 5
A time for reflection and celebrations occurs in which stage of team development?

1 / 1 point

Forming

Norming

Adjourning

Storming

Performing

Correct
Correct!

6.
Question 6
Members get oriented towards team goals, and team leadership is directive in which stage of team
development?

1 / 1 point

Norming

Performing

Adjourning

Forming

Storming

Correct
Correct!

7.
Question 7
Team members begin to be more constructive and to work out differences, while the leader
becomes less directive, in which stage of team development?

1 / 1 point

Storming

Norming

Performing

Forming
Adjourning

Correct
Correct!

8.
Question 8
The team members realize interdependence, and leadership tends to delegate in which stage of
team development?

1 / 1 point

Storming

Norming

Forming

Adjourning

Performing

Correct
Correct!

9.
Question 9
Team Leaders should exhibit the same consistent style of leadership throughout team development.

1 / 1 point

True

False

Correct
Correct!
10.
Question 10
Persistent negative team dynamics usually results from:

1 / 1 point

Organizational Culture

Team Leadership Behaviors

Differences in personality types

Personalities of team members

Correct
Correct!

What is the fundamental purpose of Lean?

1 / 1 point

To cut costs and increase value to shareholders

To reduce waste in the value stream an provide maximum value to customers

To make sure we have plenty of inventory for any eventuality

To increase production to improve profitability

Correct
Correct!
2.
Question 2
The most difficult step in 5S is:

1 / 1 point

Sort

Set in Order

Shine

Standardize

Sustain

Correct
Correct!

3.
Question 3
What Value Stream Mapping Symbol represents a step in the process?

1 / 1 point

Symbol:

Symbol:
Symbol:

Symbol:

Correct
Correct!

4.
Question 4
What Value Stream Mapping Symbol represents transportation?

1 / 1 point

Symbol:

Symbol:
Symbol:

Symbol:

Correct
Correct!

5.
Question 5
What Value Stream Mapping Symbol represents a supplier or customer?

1 / 1 point

Symbol:
Symbol:

Symbol:

Symbol:

Correct
Correct!

6.
Question 6
What Value Stream Mapping Symbol represents information flow?

1 / 1 point

Symbol:
Symbol:

Symbol:

Symbol:

Correct
Correct!

7.
Question 7
The Value Stream primarily focuses on activities within your facility.

1 / 1 point

True

False

Correct
Correct!
8.
Question 8
JIT is:

1 / 1 point

A change over strategy

An inventory strategy

A visual signal

A communication strategy

Correct
Correct!

9.
Question 9
Kan Ban is:

1 / 1 point

A communication strategy

An inventory strategy

A change over strategy

A visual signal

Correct
Correct!

10.
Question 10
The wastes (Muda) most closely associated with excessive Work in Process (WIP) are:
1 / 1 point

Motion and Waiting

Defects and Creativity

Transportation and Over Processing

Overproduction and Inventory

Correct
Correct!
Question 1
Which is not a good way to get the Voice of the Customer?

1 / 1 point

Don’t interject your own instinct or opinions

Get the customer to talk

Completely ignore your customers

Determine how satisfied the customers are

Correct
Correct! We should always listen to our customer.

2.
Question 2
Which is certainly true about Critical to Satisfactions (CTS’s)?

1 / 1 point

CTS’s do not allow you to focus on any quality improvement

CTS’s are typically an inefficient exercise that serves no useful purpose

CTS’s is like putting an aquarium in a lobby, nice to look at but does not benefit the customer

CTS’s are the basic elements used in driving process measure, improvement and control

Correct
Correct! CTS’s are the building blocks to be used in driving process measurement, improvement and
control.)

3.
Question 3
What is the intention of Benchmarking?

1 / 1 point

To sound very professional

To identify and compare best practices

To create busy work

Benchmarking has no place in quality improvement

Correct
Correct! Benchmarking is used to identify and compare best practices.

4.
Question 4
SWOT stands for Strengths, Weaknesses, Opposition, and Threats

1 / 1 point

True

False

Correct
Correct!

5.
Question 5
In Stakeholder Analysis, it is the ______________ of the process that determines who the customer
is.

1 / 1 point

Boundary

Beginning
Elimination

Grouping

Correct
Correct! The boundary of process is determined by the identity of the customer.

6.
Question 6
Which is not true regarding a robust quality program?

1 / 1 point

Quality is measured by satisfying and exceeding customer needs and expectations

Quality is a state of mind only

Quality is achieved through the prevention of problems, and not creating them

Quality is defined by the customer

Correct
Correct! Remember quality is measured by exceeding customer needs. These needs are defined by
the customer. We always want to prevent problems as opposed to detecting them. This is a valuable
trait in any robust quality program.

7.
Question 7
The purpose of Business Process Management is to understand, control, and improve business
processes to create a value for all stakeholders.

1 / 1 point

True

False
Correct
Correct! The purpose of Business Process Management is to understand, control, and improve
business processes to create a value for all stakeholders

8.
Question 8
What does SIPOC not do?

1 / 1 point

Identifies customers and suppliers of a process

Identifies your neighbor’s dog

Identify project boundaries

Identifies inputs and outputs

Correct
Correct! The S.I.P.O.C. will not help you identify your dog.

9.
Question 9
In the SIPOC, the P stands for:

1 / 1 point

Productivity

Process

Planning

Practically anything

Correct
Correct! The P stands for Process.
10.
Question 10
Processes exists to:

1 / 1 point

Accomplish work and tasks

Create busy work

Help management understand the business

Job security

Correct
Correct! Processes exist to accomplish work and tasks.

11.
Question 11
There is only one type of critical to satisfaction measure

1 / 1 point

True

False

Correct
Correct! There are many types of critical to satisfaction measures.

In a Prioritization Matrix Chart, which machine would be likely chosen?

1 / 1 point

Machine D with a score of 1.90

Machine B with a score of 3.30

Machine A with a score of 2.70

Machine C with a score of 3.70

Correct
Correct! The machine with the highest overall score is the likely choice.

2.
Question 2
What is the best characteristic of an Activity Network Diagram?

1 / 1 point

Consists of no dates

Consists of a sequence of activities with start and end dates

Looks like an organization chart

Looks like a tree diagram

Correct
Correct! An activity network diagram consists of a sequence of activities with start and end dates.

3.
Question 3
Which of the following is not considered a benefit or goal of a project?

1 / 1 point

Improve company reputation or image

Save time and/or money

Ignore quality concerns

Improve customer satisfaction

Correct
Correct! Ignoring quality concerns is not a benefit.

4.
Question 4
When is a good time to mention at a meeting any new obstacles that could delay the project?

1 / 1 point

Six Sigma Phase Review – Status Reporting

Six Sigma Initial Phase Review

Six Sigma Phase Review – Lessons Learned

Six Sigma Phase Review - Forecasting

Correct
Correct! This is the ideal time in a meeting to mention a perceived obstacle that could jeopardize the
success of the project.

5.
Question 5
Why would anyone use a Relationship Chart?

1 / 1 point

When you want to explore cause-and-effect

None of these

To find your long lost cousin

To compare mutually exclusive machines

Correct
Correct! A relationship chart is used to explore the cause-and-effect of a particular problem.

6.
Question 6
Which of the following is not true? Brainstorming sessions are conducted to:

1 / 1 point

To identify any or all conceivable ways the problem became a problem

To identify areas that should be investigated

Not invite anyone. You can do it yourself

There are no stupid ideas or suggestions

Correct
Correct! This is certainly not helping your project.

7.
Question 7
What is the importance of having measurable milestones in your project?

1 / 1 point

Collect data but ignore it

To show the progress of your project

Milestones serve no purpose in a project

What are milestones?

Correct
Correct! Milestones indicate checkpoints that were reached.

8.
Question 8
The Project Charter consists of the following:

1 / 1 point

Problem Statement, Purpose, Benefactors, Scope and Redefinition

Problem Statement, Purpose, Benefits, Scope and Results

Problem Statement, Stakeholders, Benefits, Scope and Results

Problem Statutes, Stakeholders, Benefactors, Matrix Charts and Results

Correct
Correct! These are the 5 components of the project charter.

9.
Question 9
Which of the following is not a good reason to create a Tree Diagram:

1 / 1 point

To show relationships of a production process

To develop elements for a new product

I like trees

To create new ideas in problem solving

Correct
Correct! I like trees too, but not a good reason to create a tree diagram.
10.
Question 10
Which of the following are characteristics of Information Processing?

1 / 1 point

There are no characteristics of information processing

Gather facts, interview workers, and involve stakeholders

Negotiate the facts for your project

Attend project review meetings

Correct
Correct! Go on a fact finding tour with everyone involved.

For this dataset, answer the following:

2.5, 5.1, 4.4, 6.3, 3.1, 8.5, 4.5, 7.7, 2.5

Calculate the mean.

1 / 1 point

8.75

5.28

3.56

4.96

Correct
Correct! You have correctly calculated the correct mean.
2.
Question 2
For this dataset, answer the following:

2.5, 5.1, 4.4, 6.3, 3.1, 8.5, 4.5, 7.7, 2.5

Indicate the median.

1 / 1 point

6.3

7.7

4.5

2.5

Correct
Correct! You have correctly calculated the median.

3.
Question 3
For this dataset, answer the following:

2.5, 5.1, 4.4, 6.3, 3.1, 8.5, 4.5, 7.7, 2.5

Indicate the mode.

1 / 1 point

6.3

2.5

7.7
4.5

Correct
Correct! You have correctly calculated the mode.

4.
Question 4
For this dataset, answer the following:

2.5, 5.1, 4.4, 6.3, 3.1, 8.5, 4.5, 7.7, 2.5

Indicate the range.

1 / 1 point

3.8

5.4

5.2

Correct
Correct! 8.5 minus 2.5.

5.
Question 5
For this dataset, answer the following:

2.5, 5.1, 4.4, 6.3, 3.1, 8.5, 4.5, 7.7, 2.5

Calculate the sample standard deviation.

1 / 1 point

2.65

1.13
2.18

3.97

Correct
Correct! You have correctly calculated the standard deviation.

6.
Question 6
For this dataset, answer the following:

2.5, 5.1, 4.4, 6.3, 3.1, 8.5, 4.5, 7.7, 2.5

Calculate the sample variance.

1 / 1 point

4.75

1.28

7.02

15.76

Correct
Correct! You have correctly calculated the sample variance.

7.
Question 7
What can we do to distinguish separate datasets if they have the same mean, median, and mode?

1 / 1 point

Indicate the mode again

Use measures of variability

Calculate the mean again

No more knowledge can be gained

Correct
Correct! Using the measures of variability will help further distinguish between datasets.

8.
Question 8
Which is not the range?

1 / 1 point

Subtract the Min from the Max value

The highest value minus the lowest value

The difference between the maximum and the minimum observances of data

The variation from the mean

Correct
Correct! The mean and the range are not the same.

9.
Question 9
Can the mean be also called the average?

1 / 1 point

No

Yes

Correct
Correct! The mean or the arithmetic mean can also be referred to as the average.
10.
Question 10
A .473 batting average is better than a .305.

1 / 1 point

False

True

Correct
Correct! In baseball, the higher the batting average, the better.

Question 1
Descriptive Statistics is a method for drawing a conclusion about a population based on its sample.

1 / 1 point

True

False

Correct
Correct! Descriptive Statistics consists of methods for organizing and summarizing information.

2.
Question 2
Which is not a sampling type?

1 / 1 point

Difficult Random Sample

Systematic Sample

Cluster Sample
Simple Random Sample

Correct
Correct! Difficult random sampling is not a valid sampling technique.

3.
Question 3
Which statement is not a characteristic of a Measurement System?

1 / 1 point

Measurement systems are not considered in quality analysis

Is the measurement system stable over time?

Does the data reflect what is happening?

Can the measurement system be improved in the future?

Correct
Correct! Measurement systems are not considered in quality analysis.

4.
Question 4
What is a Variable?

1 / 1 point

A value that cannot vary over time

A characteristic that varies from one point of the assessment to the other

A characteristic that remains static during the assessment

A qualitative value that has no meaning in a quality assessment

Correct
Correct! A variable is a characteristic that varies from one point of the assessment to the other.

5.
Question 5
Which of the following is not a characteristics of Operational Measurements?

1 / 1 point

Measurable using numbers

Go out and count all the red cars you see in the next hour

Aligned and integrated with higher levels

Have an official status

Correct
Correct! An example of a non-operationally defined measurement would be: Go out and count the
number of red cars you see in the next hour.

6.
Question 6
Which is not a step in the Data Collection Plan?

1 / 1 point

Develop a sampling plan

Define the critical to satisfaction metrics

Do not execute any plans

Identify the right mechanism for the data collection

Correct
Correct! This is not a part of the data collection plan.
7.
Question 7
What is the purpose of measuring something?

1 / 1 point

To gain feedback and early warnings

To quantify performance

To motivate people and prioritize opportunities

All of these

Correct
Correct! To gain feedback and early warnings, quantify performance, and motivate people and
prioritize opportunities are all reasons to measure something.

8.
Question 8
What is one thing we do not wish to learn from the customer?

1 / 1 point

Their needs

Their demographic data

What is not valuable to them

Their likes

Correct
Correct! Demographic data is not shared by the customer.

9.
Question 9
An advantage of using the telephone as a survey tool is that it is convenient.

1 / 1 point

True

False

Correct
Correct! The advantage of using a telephone is that it is less expensive and easier to monitor for
quality control.

10.
Question 10
When developing a data collection technique, which step would not be possibly repeated multiple
times.

1 / 1 point

Item Analysis

Pilot

Construction

None of the above

Correct
Correct! We only construct the data collection technique once.
Question 1
Which statement is not a characteristic of a Measurement System?

1 / 1 point

Do we really need a measurement system?

Can we detect any changes in the process?

Can we identify the source of the measurement error?

Are we capturing the correct data?

Correct
Correct! Measurement systems are very much needed to quantify your quality analysis.

2.
Question 2
Calibration:

1 / 1 point

Does not check the precision of the measuring device

Checks the variation of the measuring device

Does not check the accuracy of the measuring device

Matches the output of a measuring device to a known standard

Correct
Correct! Calibration is applied to match the output of a measuring device to that of a known
standard.

3.
Question 3
Only the Measurement System Variability form the Total Observed Variation distribution.

1 / 1 point

False

True

Correct
Correct! Measurement errors AND process variability sum together to form the Total Observed
Variation distribution.

4.
Question 4
Gage Bias is defined as:

1 / 1 point

The (directional) difference between the observed mean of measurements and a known standard

A preference of using a gage as opposed to using other measuring devices

The observed average of measurements from a gage

The closeness of repeated readings to the standard

Correct
Correct! Gage bias has direction (+-) and is the difference between the observed mean of the
measurements and a known standard.

5.
Question 5
Which is not a source of variation?

1 / 1 point

The operator conducting the measurements

Other sources such as environmental

The mean drift of the measuring device.

The measuring device itself

Correct
Correct! Mean shifting is not the same as variation from the mean.

6.
Question 6
Accuracy is how close the agreement is between the mean of one or more measured results to that
of a reference or standard value

1 / 1 point

True

False

Correct
Correct! Accuracy is how close the agreement is between the mean of one or more measured
results to that of a reference or standard value.

7.
Question 7
In a measurement system, what is Reproducibility precision?

1 / 1 point

Has nothing to do with variation

Has nothing to do with the gage operator

The variation in measurement means when the same gage is used by the same operator

The variation in measurement averages when the same gage is used by different operators
Correct
Correct! The variation in measurement averages when the same gage is used by different operators

8.
Question 8
Accuracy and Precision are the same thing.

1 / 1 point

True

False

Correct
Correct! They are not the same.

9.
Question 9
What is the basis for Gage Repeatability and Reproducibility?

1 / 1 point

Variation in the observed measurements due to the operators only

Variation in the observed measurements due to the part-to-part variability

Variation in the observed measurements due to the equipment only

Variation in the observed measurements due to the operators and the equipment

Correct
Correct!

10.
Question 10
Linearity is the accuracy of measurements at various points along the measuring range of the
equipment.

1 / 1 point
True

False

Correct
Correct! Linearity is the accuracy of measurements at various points along the measuring range of
the equipment.

Quality Tools designated for the Analyze phase of the DMAIC model cannot be used in other
phases.

1 / 1 point

True

False

Correct
Correct!

2.
Question 2
How much of the time that product is in a factory is non-value added?

1 / 1 point

65-80%

35-50%

80-95%

50-65%

Correct
Correct!

3.
Question 3
If it is determined that a step in the process is non-value added, it can automatically be removed.

1 / 1 point

True

False

Correct
Correct!

4.
Question 4
Some companies add a sixth S to the 5S process. This extra S is for:

1 / 1 point

Standardize

Shine

Sustain

Sort

Set in order

Safety

Correct
Correct!

5.
Question 5
Which 5S step is most difficult to accomplish?

1 / 1 point

Standardize

Sustain

Sort

Set in Order

Shine

Correct
Correct!

6.
Question 6
Which 5S step tells us that we should have a place for everything and everything in its place?

1 / 1 point

Set in Order

Sort

Shine

Standardize

Sustain
Correct
Correct!

7.
Question 7
When analyzing a process to eliminate waste, the first question to ask is:

1 / 1 point

Does the customer care?

Does management care?

Will the process fail?

Do we have control?

Correct
Correct!

8.
Question 8
If a process step is non-value added, we might still need to keep it if:

1 / 1 point

The process will fail, or we do not have control

The customer does not care or we do not have control

The customer does not care or the process will fail

All of the above

Correct
Correct!
9.
Question 9
When implementing 5S, items that are not used every day are typically:

1 / 1 point

Stored nearby

Discarded

Carefully stored in designated and marked space

Returned to the vendor

Correct
Correct!

10.
Question 10
In which work environment is 5S an effective tool?

1 / 1 point

Manufacturing

Service

Healthcare

All of the above

Correct
Correct!

When using the 5 whys tool, it is important to ask why exactly 5 times.
1 / 1 point

True

False

Correct
Correct!

2.
Question 2
5 Whys is best used by:

1 / 1 point

The process owner to determine root cause

An expert to determine root cause

Management to determine root cause

A team to determine root cause

Correct
Correct!

3.
Question 3
Which of the 8 wastes is made most visible by a Spaghetti Diagram?

1 / 1 point

Overproduction and Overprocessing

Transportation and Motion

Inventory and Waiting

Waiting and Defects

Correct
Correct!

4.
Question 4
When creating a process map, using all of the available symbols is not important.

1 / 1 point

True

False

Correct
Correct!

5.
Question 5
Which type of tool will best help you identify process handoffs?

1 / 1 point

Swim Lane Diagram

Spaghetti Diagram

Measles Diagram

Flow Chart

Correct
6.
Question 6
Process Mapping is often the first step in process improvement.

1 / 1 point
True

False

Correct
Correct!

7.
Question 7
When applied to an existing process, a process map should represent the process as:

1 / 1 point

The process owner wants it to operate

It was designed to operate

It actually operates

Company standards dictate

Correct
Correct!

8.
Question 8
Who will know the most about how a process actually operates?

1 / 1 point

The process owner

The engineer that designed it

Frontline employees who use it every day

The area supervisor

Correct
Correct!

9.
Question 9
Force Field Analysis requires careful and accurate data collection.

1 / 1 point

True

False

Correct
Correct!

10.
Question 10
When performing a Force Field Analysis:

1 / 1 point

A state of equilibrium is described

Sometimes you might identify forces that belong on both sides of the chart

It is a good idea to pair driving and restraining forces

All of the above

Correct
Correct!

Question 1
Which of the images below is right-skewed?

1 / 1 point

.
Correct
Correct!

2.
Question 2
Which of the images below is bimodal?

1 / 1 point

.
.

Correct
Correct!

3.
Question 3
Suppose heights of children in a youth baseball league are normally distributed with a mean of 48
inches and a standard deviation of 2 inches. Estimate the percentage of children in the league that
are shorter than 45 inches.

1 / 1 point

93.3%

56.7%

43.3%
6.7%

Correct
Correct!

4.
Question 4
Suppose heights of children in a youth baseball league are normally distributed with a mean of 48
inches and a standard deviation of 2 inches. Estimate the percentage of children in the league that
are taller than 44 inches.

1 / 1 point

97.7%

2.3%

47.7%

52.3%

Correct
Correct!

5.
Question 5
Suppose heights of children in a youth baseball league are normally distributed with a mean of 48
inches and a standard deviation of 2 inches. Estimate the percentage of children in the league that
are between 43 and 45 inches.

1 / 1 point

6.1%

93.9%

6.7%
93.3%

Correct
Correct!

6.
Question 6
Which of the following is NOT a requirement to model with the binomial distribution?

1 / 1 point

A constant probability of success between trials

Exactly two possible states for the random variable

A predetermined number of trials

A continuous random variable

Correct
7.
Question 7
Which of the following COULD be modeled using the binomial distribution?

1 / 1 point

The probability of getting exactly 3 questions correct when randomly guessing on a 10 question
true/false test.

The number of each letter in the alphabet found in the next 10 license plates that pass <this does not
have two states

The probability of exactly 2 defects when taking a sample of size 20 from a lot of size 100 that is
known to be 8% defective.
The number of green lights you go through before you encounter a red light <this does not have a
set number of trials

Correct
Correct! x is discrete and equal to 3, your two states are correct and incorrect answers, there are 10
trials, and the probability of guessing correctly remains constant at 1/2.

8.
Question 8
Suppose that a sample of size 12 is randomly chosen from a batch of size 800 that is known to be
5% defective. What is the probability that there is exactly one defective item in your sample?

1 / 1 point

.070

.659

.099

.341

Correct
Correct!

9.
Question 9
Which of the following is true about variation:

1 / 1 point

Common cause variation can exist in a process that is in statistical control

Common cause variation is also called assignable cause variation

Special cause variation can exist in a process that is in statistical control

Special cause variation is also called surge variation

Correct
Correct!

10.
Question 10
The impact of temperature fluctuations within the plant on the variability in a process would be
characterized as what type of variation?

1 / 1 point

Common cause

Bivariate

Unimodal

Special cause

Correct
Correct!

11.
Question 11
A control chart signals that the mean of your process has increased and after investigating it is
determined that an operator incorrectly adjusted the equipment. The variation due to the operator’s
incorrect adjustment is an example of what type of variation?

1 / 1 point

Common cause

Special cause

Unimodal
Bivariate

Correct
Correct!

If you are studying the relationship between the number of hours of overtime assigned at your facility
and the number of defects in your product, what would the INDEPENDENT variable be?

1 / 1 point

Number of defects in your product

Both the hours of overtime assigned and the number of defects in your product

Hours of overtime assigned

Neither the hours of overtime assigned nor the number of defects in your product

Correct
Correct answer: You are studying what happens when hours of overtime assigned varies

2.
Question 2
A scatter plot in which the plotted points are clustered approximately into a straight line from the
bottom left to the top right of the graph is displaying which of the following:

1 / 1 point

Positive correlation

Negative correlation

No correlation

Bimodal correlation
Correct
Correct answer: With a positive slope from left to right we have positive correlation

3.
Question 3
If a scatter diagram is created plotting vegetable garden square footage vs. crop yield, what would
you expect the shape of the resulting plot to show?

1 / 1 point

Positive correlation

No correlation

Negative correlation

Circular correlation

Correct
Correct answer: we would expect that the crop yield would increase as the square footage available
increases

4.
Question 4
Which of the following statements are true about correlation?

1 / 1 point

The correlation coefficient can only range from 0 to +1

The lower the correlation coefficient is, the weaker the correlation is

A positive correlation coefficient means that as the independent variable decreases, the dependent
variable increases

r can range from -1 to 1

Correct
Correct answer: correlation can be either positive or negative, but the absolute value can’t be greater
than 1

5.
Question 5
In the equation for basic linear regression, what does the term “a” represent?

1 / 1 point

The y intercept

The x intercept

The slope of the line

The error

6.
Question 6
In statistical analysis, the equation y=a+bx is most commonly used for what?

1 / 1 point

The binomial distribution

Descriptive statistics

The linear regression equation

The normal distribution

Correct
Correct answer: This is the standard form for the linear regression equation.

7.
Question 7
What is the method used to find the equation of the regression line called?

1 / 1 point

Least squares method

Perfect square method

Statistical analysis method

Normal distribution method

Question 8
You collect sample data to calculate the relationship between overtime hours assigned at your
facility and the number of defects in your product. Using data ranging from 50 hours of overtime to
200 hours of overtime, you obtain the regression equation for defects of 0.75 + 0.02x with a high
correlation coefficient. How many defects would you predict if 100 hours of overtime are assigned?
(Round to the nearest 100th of a defect)

1 / 1 point

75.02

2.00

2.75

You cannot use this regression equation to answer the question

Correct
Correct answer: This comes from substituting 100 for x in the regression equation. 0.75 + 0.02*(100)
= 2.75

9.
Question 9
You collect sample data to calculate the relationship between overtime hours assigned at your
facility and the number of defects in your product. Using data ranging from 50 hours of overtime to
200 hours of overtime, you obtain the regression equation for defects of 0.75 + 0.02x with a high
correlation coefficient. How many defects would you predict if 10,000 hours of overtime are
assigned? (Round to the nearest 100th of a defect)

1 / 1 point

200.75

You cannot use this regression equation to answer the question

275.00

2.75

Correct
Correct answer: Since data collected was only from 50 to 200 hours of overtime, we cannot assume
that the same relationship holds for a huge 10,000 hours of overtime.

10.
Question 10
In which phase is regression analysis LEAST likely to be used?

1 / 1 point

Analyze

Define

Improve

Measure

Correct
Correct answer: To find out more about why this is correct review page 149 in the Yellow Belt
Handbook or the Regression for Six Sigma video.
If you want to test the claim that the mean time between failures of a particular piece of equipment
has increased from 207.1 operating hours, what would your alternative hypothesis be?

1 / 1 point

Correct
Correct answer: The claim we are making should be written as the alternative hypothesis.

2.
Question 2
If you want to test the claim that the mean time between failures of a particular piece of equipment
has increased from 207.1 operating hours, what would your null hypothesis be?

1 / 1 point

.
.

Correct
Correct! Our claim,

would be the alternative hypothesis and the opposite is the null.

3.
Question 3
If the null hypothesis is true and one fails to reject it,

1 / 1 point

A type II error has been made

A type I error has been made

Another test should be done

No error has been made

Correct
Correct answer: If the null hypothesis is true, then the correct answer would be not to reject it.

4.
Question 4
Suppose you want to test the claim that the mean time between failures of a particular piece of
equipment has increased from 207.1 operating hours. Your sample data leads you to reject H0. The
actual mean is 207.0. What type of error, if any, have you made?

1 / 1 point

Another test should be done

No error has been made

A type I error has been made

A type II error has been made

Correct
Correct: Since the mean is 207.1, the null hypothesis is true. Therefore rejecting it is a type I error.

5.
Question 5
If a small difference truly does exist between two processes, but the sample taken is too small to
determine that difference, what type of error would likely result?

1 / 1 point

Both Type I and Type II

Type II

Type I

No error

Correct
Correct answer: If there is a difference, then the correct answer would be to reject the null
hypothesis. If your sample is too small, you will fail to reject, which is a type II error in that situation.

6.
Question 6
What is the opposite of the alpha risk?

1 / 1 point

Type I error

Producer’s risk

Beta risk

None of the above

Correct
Correct: For more information on why this is correct you can review page 151 in the Yellow Belt
Handbook, or the Types of Errors video.

7.
Question 7
Why would one choose to set

as opposed to 0.10?

1 / 1 point

One is more willing to risk a Type II error

will result in rejecting H0 more often

One is not willing to risk either type of error

One is more willing to risk a Type I error

Correct
Correct answer: A lower alpha means that that probability of type I error has been reduced. With no
other changes, the probability of type II error would then increase.

8.
Question 8
If your hypothesis test is:

what type of test will you need to do?

1 / 1 point

Binomial

Right-tailed

Two-tailed

Left-tailed

Correct
Correct answer: Whenever our alternative hypothesis is “not equal to”, we have a 2-tailed test.

9.
Question 9
The output from Minitab software is a p-value of 0.12. If the desired level of significance is 0.05 then
the conclusion is:

1 / 1 point

Reject the null hypothesis because there is a statistical difference.

Fail to reject the null hypothesis because there is no statistical difference.

Reject the null hypothesis because there is no statistical difference.

Fail to reject the null hypothesis because there is a statistical difference.

Correct
Correct: When the p-value is greater than alpha, we fail to reject the null hypothesis.

10.
Question 10
While performing a hypothesis test, you calculate a p-value of 0.005. If the desired level of
significance is 0.01 then the conclusion is:

1 / 1 point

Reject the null hypothesis because there is a statistical difference.

Reject the null hypothesis because there is no statistical difference.

Fail to reject the null hypothesis because there is no statistical difference.

Fail to reject the null hypothesis because there is a statistical difference.

Correct
Correct answer: When the p-value is less than alpha, we reject the null hypothesis.

Optimizing individual or departmental performance will always hurt the performance of the
organization

1 / 1 point

True

False

Correct
Correct. Sometimes optimizing individual or departmental performance will hurt organizational
performance. As a result, it is necessary to adopt a systems view, and see how individual or
departmental performance affects the performance of the system as a whole. Our obligation should
be to optimize the system.
2.
Question 2
Kaizen is focused on dramatic rapid improvements

1 / 1 point

True

False

Correct
Correct. Kaizen means improvement through small incremental steps.

3.
Question 3
In Kaizen, employees are empowered to change anything in the process that they think is
appropriate.

1 / 1 point

True

False

Correct
Correct. Changes are proposed by employees, and reviewed by process owners.

4.
Question 4
Kaizen blitz, or kaizen events are often spontaneous.

1 / 1 point

True

False

Correct
Correct. Kaizen events are usually carefully planned weeks in advance.

5.
Question 5
Team members are trained at the beginning of a Kaizen Blitz or Kaizen event.

1 / 1 point

True

False

Correct
Correct. By training employees at the beginning of the event, the knowledge is fresh, and since they
immediately apply their new knowledge and skills it is more likely to be retained.

6.
Question 6
In which step of the PDCA model would you evaluate the results, and check the effects of your
improvement?

1 / 1 point

Plan

Act

Check

Do

Correct
Correct. The check step is the appropriate place to evaluate solutions. Ishikawa added that this is
where you check the effects of implementation.

7.
Question 7
In which step of the PDCA model would performance predictions be made?

1 / 1 point

Plan
Check

Act

Do

Correct
Correct. In the plan step, you would define the problem, hypothesize solutions, determine targets
and goals, and make performance predictions.

8.
Question 8
In which step of the PDCA model would you document and standardize successful parts of your
solution?

1 / 1 point

Plan

Do

Check

Act

Correct
Correct. You would document and standardize in the act step, after you have implemented the
solution and evaluated the results.

9.
Question 9
In which step would you actually implement your improvements?

1 / 1 point

Act
Check

Do

Plan

Correct
Correct. Implementation happens in the Do step of the model.

10.
Question 10
The PDCA model and the DMAIC model of six sigma are incompatible.

1 / 1 point

True

False

Correct
Correct. They are not in conflict at all. In fact, you can easily map the DMAIC model or other
improvement models against PDCA.

From an ISO perspective, how can we show that our QMS is functioning?

1 / 1 point

Telling the auditor

Writing a procedure

Training employees

Producing records
Correct
Correct, From an ISO perspective, we must be able to show that our processes are suitable,
adequate and effective. Records help us, in part, satisfy this.

2.
Question 2
What is the difference between a job aid and an SOP?

1 / 1 point

Job Aids outline step by step instructions

SOP’s are procedures, job aids are not

There is no difference

An SOP is longer than a job aid

Correct
Correct, job aid is a shortened version of the SOP

3.
Question 3
We use control charts to establish process capability.

1 / 1 point

True

False

Correct
Correct, we do use control charts to establish process capability.

4.
Question 4
A means of maintaining gains on a control plan include all except:

1 / 1 point
Training

Process mapping

Procedures

Internal Auditing

Correct
Correct, internal auditing is a tool used after the process is in place. We need tools that are proactive
and real time.

5.
Question 5
A gage control plan does not include:

1 / 1 point

Calibration

Maintenance

Purchasing

Proper Handing

Correct
Correct, gage control plan includes maintenance, calibration, proper handling.

6.
Question 6
A document is only a paper copy of a quality manual, procedure, work instruction, or record.

1 / 1 point

True
False

Correct
Correct, A document can either be electronic media or a paper hardcopy.

7.
Question 7
Documents are superior to verbal instructions for all the reasons below except:

1 / 1 point

Verbal instructions are more convenient than documents

Verbal instructions are not heard

Verbal instructions flow down to the operator from the customer

Verbal instructions are quickly forgotten

Correct
Correct, this is not true, verbal instructions flow are often not heard, misunderstood, quickly
forgotten, difficult to follow

8.
Question 8
A component of document management is distribution.

1 / 1 point

True

False

Correct
Correct, component of document management is distribution

9.
Question 9
A dynamic control plan consists of all the following except:

1 / 1 point

SOP’s

Control plans

The quality manual

FMEA’s

Correct
Correct, DCP’s are SOP’s, control plans, FMEAs, gage control plans and quality planning sheets

10.
Question 10
Common cause variations can only be solved by management.

1 / 1 point

True

False

Correct
Correct, Common cause variations can only be solved by management
Six Sigma Foundations and Principles Quiz
TOTAL POINTS 5
Question 1
What can be said about the culture of services

I. Processes are invisible

II. Processes are well defined

III. More scientific

IV. Not well defined or documented

I, II, and III only

I, II, and IV only

II, III, and IV only

All of the above

Question 2
In summation, six sigma is considered:

1 point

A focus on critical customer items

An intense focus on business outputs

A business improvement approach

An purging of mistakes and defects

Question 3
Six Sigma Projects emphasize all the following EXCEPT:
The cost savings

Support from the highest levels of Management

Areas that are of high importance to the organization

Quantifying the Results

Question 4
Who created the initial problem solving framework that would later become DMAIC?

Michel Harry and Bill Smith

Forrest Breyfogle and Michel Harry

George Michael and Bill Smith

Robert Gavin and Michel Harry

Question 5
Using the six sigma methodology, a company with a short term sigma level of 3.5 sigma would
see a 1.5 sigma shift to 2 sigma long term. What would be the long term failure rate.

233

308770

36510

Somewhere between 6210 and 66810

Six Sigma Roles and Responsibilities Quiz
TOTAL POINTS 5
Question 1
Before joining a team, an individual contributor should

Be familiar with group dynamics

Possess knowledge of the team’s intended purpose and ensure an alignment exists with
interests and skill set

Completed a team motivation seminar

Be trained in problem solving techniques

Question 2
Some experts challenge the value of training and using employees in yellow belt roles. What
would be the best explanation for this perspective:

Yellow Belts tend to have less training and are less involved in six sigma and can only effectively
support the logistical aspects of the project team.

It creates excessive communication issues

It is too costly

It creates a conflict of interest between the yellow belt and green belt

Question 3
If a black belt uncovers a conflict and wishes to take an assertive stance, which position should
he adopt above all else?

Collaborating

Avoiding
Accommodating

Compromising

Question 4
The function of the coach in a six sigma organization is most likely to be filled by:

Green belt

Process Owner

Master Black Belt

Champion

Question 5
Process owners can also be referred to as:

Sponsors or Master Black Belts

Champions or sponsors

Black Belts or Champions

Master Black Belt

Quality Tools and Six Sigma Metrics Quiz
TOTAL POINTS 7
Question 1
A scatter diagram with points creating a nearly straight line from the upper left to the lower right
would indicate:

No correlation

A negative correlation

A positive correlation

A curvilinear relationship

Question 2
The 80/20 rule is associated with which quality tool

Process Map

Cause and Effect Diagram

Checksheet

Pareto Chart

Question 3
Which of the following tools is a structured form of brainstorming?

Cause and Effect Diagram

Pareto Chart

Checksheet
Histogram

Question 4
In measuring Cost of Poor Quality, as the cost of Appraisal goes up, what would you expect to go
down?

None of these costs would go down

The cost of External Failures

The cost of Prevention

The cost of Internal Failures

Question 5
When calculating Defects Per Million Opportunities, it is necessary to determine the number of
ways a defect or error could occur.

True

False

Question 6
If you have a process with three steps, and each step produces 99% good quality, what is the
rolled throughput yield?

97%

98%

99.5%

99%

Question 7
Cycle Time is defined as:

Only the time that the product is actually being processed.

The time for your supplier to deliver material or components.

How fast the process is running.

The time from the beginning to the end of a process including wait time and other delays.
Team Basics Graded Quiz
TOTAL POINTS 6
Question 1
In Brainstorming, ideas should be evaluated as they are created.

True

False

Question 2
When generating ideas in a Brainstorming session, it is most important to generate a large
number of ideas, and not worry about the quality of those ideas.

True

False

Question 3
Which technique is done silently?

Multivoting

Prioritization Matrix

Affinity Diagram

Nominal Group Technique

Question 4
It is usually possible to greatly reduce a brainstorm list, by grouping similar ideas together.

True

False
Question 5
Specific meeting items should be identified in advance, and time allotted for each one.

True

False

Question 6
By using a carefully prepared agenda, meeting minutes can be created almost instantly.

True

False
Lean Foundations and Principles Graded Quiz
TOTAL POINTS 5
Question 1
An activity that does not change the form or function of a product or service is:

Value Added

Required

Non-Value Added

Unnecessary

Question 2
If an activity is non-value added, it must be eliminated.

True

False

Question 3
A three prong electrical plug is an example of:

Poka Yoke

Kan Ban

Standard Work

Muda
Question 4
Value is defined by customers based on their perceptions.

True

False

Question 5
Two Types of Poka Yoke devices are:

Prevention and Detection

Service and manufacturing

Operator and customer

Proactive and Reactive

Project Identification Graded Quiz
TOTAL POINTS 10
Question 1
What ways can you get the Voice of the Customer?

Surveys

Focus Groups

Face-to-face interviews

All of these

Question 2
An example of a Strength and Weakness is all except:

Organizational history

Financial resources

Workforce

Capital

Question 3
An advantage of benchmarking is all except:

Engine for the generation of new ideas and techniques

Increases workforce knowledge

Showcases the features of the company’s product over others

Drives continuous improvement

Question 4
Which is not a component of Stakeholder Analysis?

They comprise of upstream and downstream management

Promotes communication in an effort to attain buy-in

Helps us identify and abate resistance to change

To create barriers and obstacles

Question 5
The SWOT analysis is a means toward:

Making profit

Assessing positives and negatives in the organization

Exiting a project that is failing

Managing a business crisis

Question 6
Our journey for developing CTS's begins with the _______.

Product

Management

VOC
Affinity Diagrams

Question 7
In a QFD, the CTS's are the ____________.

How's

Who's

What's

When's

Question 8
The project team will consist of all except:

Black Belts

Master Black Belts

Customers

Executive Supporters

Question 9
Customers can exist only externally.

True

False

Question 10
When creating SIPOCS, we may discover __________________ we never knew we had.

Suppliers and customers

Profit

Waste

Defects

Project Management Basics Graded Quiz

TOTAL POINTS 10
Question 1
What is the term that describes the Purpose (or sometimes referred to as the Business Case) of
a project?

The purpose or business case of the project is to create boundaries only.

The purpose or business case of the project is to identify the goal or end result.

The purpose or business case of the project is to get committed resources.

The purpose or business case of the project is to solve all problems.

Question 2
What may happen if you don’t negotiate resources and secure commitments from team
members?

None of the above

Project could be delayed slightly

Project could proceed as normal

Project would likely fail

Question 3
An Activity Network Diagram will allow you to:

Sequence activities with start and end dates.

Omit dates.

Precedence is not considered.

Rank according to importance.

Question 4
What is usually the first question your stakeholders will likely ask?

Do we really have time to correct this problem?

Why do we want to resolve this problem?

They will have no questions.

How long will this project take?

Question 5
What is the purpose of using sticky notes and broad markers when brainstorming?

Sticky notes for portability and broad marker for visibility

Broad marker directly onto the whiteboard is best.

Sticky notes for no apparent reason

Question 6
A Priority Matrix Chart (Type L) is good for what?

Ability to discover cause-and-effect.

Ability to weigh or quantify attributes to items based on importance.

Ability to look like a tree diagram.

Ability to include a precedence diagram.

Question 7
Tree Diagrams are useful for what?

To capture new ideas

Explore possible problem areas

To indicate relationships among the elements

Illustrating the affinities as branches of other affinities

Question 8
The Six Sigma Phase Review is useful for what purpose?

To communicate the status of completion of the project and introduce any obstacles that could
jeopardize the project's success.

The six sigma phase review serves no particular purpose

To inform only internal project team members

To brainstorm and start a new project, forget the old project.

Question 9
What is a good reason to use a Relationship Chart?

When you want to explore the cause-and-effect between elements

When you need to sequence activities with start and end dates.

When there are no definable actions to take.

When you want to compare mutually exclusive alternatives.

Question 10
What event would status reporting, forecasting, and lessons learned be a part of?

A six sigma phase review

When developing a project plan

A brainstorming session

When defining a project charter

Basic Statistics Graded Quiz
TOTAL POINTS 10
Question 1
Which answer describes what a mean is?

The center of the dataset

The sample variance

The sum of the observations divided by the number of observations

The mode of a dataset

Question 2
What is the method for measuring the reliability of conclusions about a population based on
information obtained from a sample of the population?

A sample standard deviation

Inferential statistics

The mode

Descriptive statistics

Question 3
What is the range?

The variation from the mean

The square of the variance

The square root of the median

The difference between the maximum and the minimum observances of data.

Question 4
Which is true about sample standard deviation?

It is the square of the variation

It is the square root of the variation

Same as sample variance

Has no value at all

Question 5
Which explanation below best answers the question, what is statistics?

A set of numbers that are used to calculate averages

The gathering of facts or data that can present significant information about a given subject

Facts or data that is compiled to show the growth trends for a company

Data that is calculated and placed into a table that can be used for a specific purpose.

Question 6
For this dataset:

110, 125, 245, 165, 201, 147

Calculate the mean.

165.5

143.4
216.1

93.3

Question 7
For this dataset:

110, 125, 245, 165, 201, 147

Indicate the Range.

37

91

135

120

Question 8
For this dataset:

110, 125, 245, 165, 201, 147

Indicate the Median.

179

99

156

113

Question 9
For this dataset:

110, 125, 245, 165, 201, 147

Indicate the Standard Deviation.

50.29

40.29

30.29

60.29

Question 10
For this dataset:

110, 125, 245, 165, 201, 147

Indicate the Variance.

2898.08

2528.08

2240.08

2634.08
Data Collection Graded Quiz
TOTAL POINTS 10
Question 1
What is a Continuous Variable?

A quantitative variable that can assume an infinite number of possible values

A quantitative variable that has a finite number of possible values

A qualitative variable that can assume an infinite number of possible values

A qualitative variable that has a finite number of possible values

Question 2
What is the relationship between a Population and a Sample?

A population is a subset of a sample

A sample is a subset of the population

Question 3
An Observational Study is:

When a researcher imposes treatments to the sample of participants

When a researcher uses a control group

When a researcher imposes conditions to the sample of participants

When a researcher observes characteristics and takes measurements

Question 4
Which is not a collection mechanism?
Wild guess

Focus groups

Test marketing

Customer surveys

Question 5
Which is not a technique for insuring accuracy and integrity?

Collecting the multiple points of data entry

Document and train

Emotional Bias

Writing characters so that they are not confused with other similar looking characters

Question 6
Determination of the sample size is based on the __________ we seek to maintain.

probability

risk

level of confidence

success rate

Question 7
Random sampling is the desired type of sampling but ____________.
typically the hardest to attain in real world applications

it is very costly

it is sometimes misleading

it cannot be applied to real world situations

Question 8
The objective of surveys is:

Ascertaining the meaning of productivity

Determining the activities of your customers

Uncovering a competitive edge

Defining which quality performance measures we will use

Question 9
The selection of a focus group should be between _______ people with ________
characteristics.

10 or more, common

7 and 10, common

7 and 10, diverse

10 or more, diverse

Question 10
Focus group results can be obtained ______ and at low cost and tend to have high face
_________.

Quickly, reliability

Quickly, validity

Slowly, reliability

Slowly, validity

Measurement System Analysis Practice Graded Quiz

TOTAL POINTS 8
Question 1
What does Calibration really accomplish?

The closeness of repeated readings to the standard

A preference of using a gage as opposed to using other measuring devices

Helps align the true value with the observed value within the process.

The observed average of measurements from a gage

Question 2
An Observed Variation has two sources: Actual and Measurement

True

False

Question 3
Gage Stability is the drift in the absolute output of a measurement device over time.
False

True

Question 4
What is not a source of variation?

Checking for the mean drift is the same as variation

Other sources such as environmental

The operator conducting the measurements

The measuring device itself

Question 5
Accuracy is how close the agreement is between the mean of one or more measured results to
that of a reference or standard value

True

False

Question 6
If you see a tolerance of plus or minus 5 thousandths of an inch in a drawing, what is this
referring to?

Accuracy

Precision
Question 7
Repeatability and Reproducibility are a part of.....

Operator variability

Gage variability

Actual variability

Question 8
Total variability is the sum of the part-to-part variability (or actual variability) and the
measurement variability.

True

False

Process Analysis Tools

TOTAL POINTS 4
Question 1
Failure Mode and Effects Analysis is a relatively new quality tool.

True

False

Question 2
Risk Management is a critical part of:

ISO 9000/2015

The Malcolm Baldrige Framework for Performance

Any Quality System

All of the above

Question 3
FMEA is typically done by an individual expert working alone.

True

False

Question 4
Why do we need to talk to our customers when doing FMEA?

To determine if they are satisfied

To determine their needs and wants

To determine if they are engaged

To learn how they intend to use our product

Root Cause Analysis Graded Quiz

TOTAL POINTS 5
Question 1
A Prioritization Matrix may be used by a team to decide among options.

True

False

Question 2
The use of the Prioritization Matrix can be described as
A qualitative exercise that may feel quantitative.

An exercise that is neither qualitative nor quantitative.

A quantitative exercise that may feel qualitative.

An exercise that is both qualitative and quantitative

Question 3
When using a Prioritization Matrix a decision is reached:

Through a series of team discussions, guided by the score.

By selecting the option with the lowest score

By selecting the option with the highest score

All of the above

Question 4
In a Prioritization Matrix, the criteria are determined:

By the team

By external standards

By company policy

All of the above

Question 5
A priority Matrix should have:
Four options and four criteria

The number of options and criteria that suit the problem

Three options and four criteria

Four options and three criteria

Data Analysis Graded Quiz

TOTAL POINTS 8
Question 1
Which of the images below is left-skewed?

.
.

Question 2
Suppose the time to answer calls by a customer service center are normally distributed with a
mean of 2 minutes and a standard deviation of 0.5 minutes. Estimate the percentage of calls that
will take longer than 3.5 minutes to answer.

0.14%

50.14%

49.9%

99.9%
Question 3
Suppose the time to answer calls by a customer service center are normally distributed with a
mean of 2 minutes and a standard deviation of 0.5 minutes. Estimate the percentage of calls that
will take between 2.5 and 3.0 minutes to answer.

86.5%

97.7%

84.1%

13.5%

Question 4
Which of the following is NOT a requirement to model with the binomial distribution?

Less than 25 trials

Exactly two possible states for the random variable

A constant probability of success between

A discrete random variable

Question 5
Which of the following COULD be modeled using the binomial distribution?

The number of times you flip a fair coin before getting 3 heads <this does not have a set number
of trials

The probability of getting exactly 12 odd numbers when rolling a fair die 20 times.

The probability of exactly 1 defect when taking a sample of size 4 from a lot of size 40 that is
known to be 5% defective. <the population size is less than 50
The number of each type of value meal at McDonalds ordered from the first 100 cars <this does
not have two states

Question 6
Suppose that a sample of size 10 is randomly chosen from a batch of size 100 that is known to
be 8% defective. What is the probability that there is exactly two defective items in your sample?

.009

.102

.378

.148

Question 7
Which of the following is true about variation:

Control charts are used to recognize special cause variation when it occurs so that appropriate
action is taken

Special cause variation can exist in a process that is in statistical control

Common cause variation are events that can be controlled if made aware of

Special cause variation is inherent to the process and cannot be controlled

Question 8
The impact of a defective batch of raw material on the variability in a process would be
characterized as what type of variation?

Unimodal

Special cause

Bivariate

Common cause

Correlation and Regression Graded Quiz

TOTAL POINTS 8
Question 1
If you are studying the relationship between the age of the manufacturing equipment at your
facility and the hours of downtime of that equipment, what would the DEPENDENT variable be?

Neither the age of the manufacturing equipment and the hours of downtime of the equipment

Both the age of the manufacturing equipment and the hours of downtime of the equipment

Hours of downtime of the equipment

Age of the manufacturing equipment

Question 2
A scatter plot in which the plotted points are clustered approximately into a straight line from the
top left to the bottom right of the graph is displaying which of the following:

Negative correlation
Positive correlation

Bimodal correlation

No correlation

Question 3
If the pass rate of exams increases with study time, then the correlation coefficient for the study
time versus exams would be:

Equal to 1

Greater than 1

Between 0 and +1

Between 0 and -1

Question 4
Which of the following statements are true about correlation?

The lower the correlation coefficient is, the weaker the correlation is

A negative correlation coefficient means that there is not a strong relationship between the
variables

r can only range from 0 to 1

The correlation coefficient can range from -1 to +1

Question 5
In the equation for basic linear regression, what does the term “b” represent?
The error

The y intercept

The slope of the line

The x intercept

Question 6
The least squares method is used for what?

Determining the regression equation

Simplifying algebraic equations

Calculating the correlation coefficient

The central limit theorem

Question 7
You collect sample data to calculate the relationship between age of the manufacturing
equipment at your facility and the hours of downtime of that equipment. Using data ranging from
0.5 years old to 20 years old for the equipment, you obtain the regression equation for annual
hours of downtime of y=10+0.5x with a high correlation coefficient. How many hours of downtime
would you predict for equipment that is 8 years old? (Round to the nearest 10th of a year)

You cannot use this regression equation to answer the question

8.0

14.0

4.0
Question 8
Where is regression analysis most often used by six sigma professionals?

In the analyze phase for statistical sampling

In the define phase for the is-is not analysis

In the control phase for the process behavior chart

In the improve phase to estimate gains after the projected improvement

Hypothesis Testing Graded Quiz

TOTAL POINTS 5
Question 1
If you want to test the claim that the mean length of widgets has changed from 4.3 meters, what
would your null hypothesis be?

Question 2
A null hypothesis states that a process has not changed over time. If a type II error is made,

One has failed to reject the null hypothesis when it was false
One has rejected the null hypothesis when it was false

One has rejected the null hypothesis when it was true

One has failed to reject the null hypothesis when it was true

Question 3
Suppose you want to test the claim that the mean length of process time has decreased from
12.3 minutes. Your sample data leads you to fail to reject H0. The actual mean length is 12.0
minutes. What type of error, if any, have you made?

A type II error has been made

Another test should be done

No error has been made

A type I error has been made

Question 4
If your hypothesis test is:

what type of test will you need to do?

Left-tailed

Binomial

Two-tailed

Right-tailed
Question 5
While performing a hypothesis test, you calculate a p-value of 0.05. If the desired level of
significance is 0.01 then the conclusion is:

Reject the null hypothesis because there is no statistical difference.

Reject the null hypothesis because there is a statistical difference.

Fail to reject the null hypothesis because there is no statistical difference.

Fail to reject the null hypothesis because there is a statistical difference.

Improvement Techniques Graded Quiz

TOTAL POINTS 10
Question 1
Maximizing the performance of one machine or one department could have a negative effect on
another machine or department, and subsequently on the organization as a whole. This is an
example of:

Over-optimization

Productivity optimization

Alternate optimization

Sub-optimization

Question 2
Employee empowerment is a key element of Kaizen.

True

False
Question 3
Improvements through both Kaizen and Kaizen Blitz must be carefully managed.

True

False

Question 4
Deming’s version of the model is Plan, Do, Study, Act. He changed check to study because he
wanted it to be a plan for management, and he wanted them to use this step to compare results
with predictions.

True

False

Question 5
The PDCA model is complex, and you should have an expert to lead the team.

True

False

Question 6
Which of these statements best describes net present value?

A way to compare present costs with future costs.

A way to determine the value of future investments.

The sum of present values of incoming and outgoing cash flows over a period of time.

A way to determine the value of future benefits.

Question 7
Payback Period is usually
12 months.

18 months.

24 months.

It depends.

Question 8
Internal rate of return usually reflects the anticipated inflation rate.

True

False

Question 9
When an organization first starts to address quality issues, external failures are likely to go down,
while both appraisal costs and internal failures will go up.

True

False

Question 10
Generally the cost of quality will be lowest with a strong focus on:

Internal failures

External Failures

Prevention

Appraisal
Control Tools and Documentation Graded Quiz
TOTAL POINTS 10
Question 1
An example of special cause variation would not include:

No preventive maintenance

No training

No documentation

Lack of supervision skills

Question 2
Control charts for averages behave like what distribution?

Poisson

Normal

Weibull

Euler Phi

Question 3
In order to have a rational sample, we seek to have all of the following except:

Desired differences between samples minimized

Sub group size

Desired differences within samples minimized

Desired differences between samples maximized

Question 4
If we want to detect a large shift, we need a smaller sample size

True

False

Question 5
Control is the process employed to meet customer expectations

True

False

Question 6
A pitfall of document control would not include:

Use of electronic media

Lack of stakeholder involvement

High Distribution

Old Revisions in use

Question 7
One of focus areas in the P-D-C-A process is:

How do we plan it

How do we control it
What are our goals

How do we do it

Question 8
Control charting is only for monitoring

True

False

Question 9
Document management includes all processes except:

Creation

Deletion

Distribution

All of the above

Question 10
After you assign causes and eliminate problems, you need to remove the _____________.

centerline

out of control points

upper and lower limits

points on the centerline