MULTIPLE CHOICE SOLVED QUESTIONS

ENGLISH LITERATURE
MULTIPLE CHOICE SOLVED QUESTIONS ENGLISH LITERATURE
This is a set of 60 Questions on English Literature
Very useful for
UGC NET Exam
PGT Teachers exam
UPSC Civil Services Exam
and any other exam which contains multiple Choice Objective type Questions on English Literature

1. The epigraph of   The Waste Land is borrowed from?

(A) Virgil

(B) Fetronius

(C) Seneca

(D) Homer

2. Who called ‘The Waste Land ‘a music of ideas’?

(A) Allen Tate

(B) J. C. Ransom

(C) I. A. Richards

(D) F. R Leavis

3. T. S. Eliot has borrowed the term ‘Unreal City’ in the  first and third

sections from?

(A) Baudelaire

(B) Irving Babbit

(C) Dante

(D) Laforgue

4. Which of the following myths does not figure in The Waste

Land?

(A) Oedipus

(B) Grail Legend of Fisher King

(C) Philomela
(D) Sysyphus

5. Joe   Gargery is Pip’s?

(A) brother

(B) brother-in-Jaw

(C) guardian

(D) cousin

6. Estella is the daughter of?

(A) Joe Gargery

(B) Abel Magwitch       .

(C) Miss Havisham

(D) Bentley Drumnile

7. Which book of John Ruskin influenced Mahatma Gandhi?

(A) Sesame and Lilies

(B) The Seven Lamps of Architecture

(C) Unto This Last

(D) Fors Clavigera

8. Graham Greene’s novels are marked by?

(A) Catholicism

(B) Protestantism

(C) Paganism

(D) Buddhism

9. One important feature of Jane Austen’s style is?

(A) boisterous humour

(B) humour and pathos

(C) subtlety of irony

(D) stream of consciousness

10. The title of the poem ‘The Second Coming’ is taken from?
(A) The Bible

(B) The Irish mythology

(C) The German mythology

(D) The Greek mythology

11. The main character in Paradise Lost Book I and Book II is?

(A  God

(B) Satan

(C) Adam

(D) Eve

12. In Sons and Lovers, Paul Morel’s mother’s name is?

(A)Susan

(B)Jane

(C)Gertrude

(D) Emily

13. The twins in Lord   of the Flies are?

(A)Ralph and Jack

(B) Simon and Eric

(C) Ralph and Eric

(D) Simon and Jack

14.Mr. Jaggers, in Great Expectations, is a

(A) lawyer

(B) postman

(C)Judge

(D) School teacher

15. What does ‘I’ stand for in the following line?

‘To       Carthage then I came’

(A) Buddha
(B) Tiresias

(C)  Smyrna Merchant

(D) Augustine

16. The following lines are an example……… of image.

‘The river sweats

Oil and tar’

(A) visual

(B) kinetic

(C) erotic

(D) sensual

17. Which of the following novels has the sub-title ‘A Novel Without a Hero’?

(A) Vanity Fair

(B) Middlemarch

(C) Wuthering Heights

(D) Oliver Twist

18. In ‘Leda and the Swan’, who wooes Leda in guise of a swan?

(A) Mars

(B) Hercules

(C) Zeus

(D) Bacchus

19. Who invented the term ‘Sprung rhythm’?

(A)Hopkins

(B)Tennyson

(C)Browning

(D)Wordsworth

20.Who wrote the poem ‘Defence of Lucknow’?

(A) Browning
(B) Tennyson

(C) Swinburne

(D) Rossetti

21.Which of the following plays of Shakespeare has an epilogue?

(A)  The Tempest

(B) Henry IV, Pt I

(C) Hamlet

(D) Twelfth Night

22. Hamlet’s famous speech ‘To be,or not to be; that is the question’

occurs in?

(A) Act II, Scene I

(B) Act III, Scene III

(C) Act IV, Scene III

(D) Act III, Scene I

23. Identify the character in The Tempest who is referred to as an honest old counselor

(A) Alonso

(B) Ariel

(C) Gonzalo

(D) Stephano

24. What is the sub-title of the play Twelfth Night?

(A) Or, What is you Will

(B) Or, What you Will

(C) Or, What you Like It

(D) Or, What you Think

25. Which of the following plays of Shakespeare, according to T. S.

Eliot, is ‘artistic failure’?

(A) The Tempest

(B) Hamlet

(C) Henry IV, Pt I

(D) Twelfth Night

26. Who is Thomas Percy in Henry IV, Pt I?

(A) Earl of Northumberland

(B) Earl of March

(C) Earl of Douglas

(D) Earl of Worcester

27. Paradise Lost was originally written in?

(A) ten books

(B) eleven books

(C) nine books

(D) eight books

28. In Pride and Prejudice, Lydia elopes with?

(A) Darcy

(B) Wickham

(C) William Collins

(D) Charles Bingley

29. Who coined the phrase ‘Egotistical Sublime’?

(A) William Wordsworth

(B) P.B.Shelley

(C) S. T. Coleridge

(D) John Keats

30. Who is commonly known as ‘Pip’ in Great Expectations?

(A) Philip Pirrip

(B) Filip Pirip

(C)Philip Pip
(D) Philips Pirip

31. The novel The Power and the Glory is set in?

(A)Mexico

(B) Italy

(C)France

(D) Germany

32. Which of the following is Golding’s first novel?

(A) The Inheritors

(B) Lord of the Flies

(C) Pincher Martin

(D) Pyramid

33.Identify the character who is a supporter of Women’s Rights in Sons and Lovers?

(A) Mrs. Morel

(B) Annie

(C) Miriam

(D) Clara Dawes

34. Vanity Fair is a novel by?

(A) Jane Austen

(B) Charles Dickens

(C) W. M. Thackeray

(D) Thomas Hardy

35. Shelley’s Adonais is an elegy on the death of?

(A) Milton

(B) Coleridge

(C) Keats

(D) Johnson

36. Which of the following is the first novel of D. H. Lawrence?

(A) The White Peacock

(B) The Trespasser

(C) Sons and Lovers

(D) Women in Love

37. In the poem ‘Tintern Abbey’, ‘dearest friend’ refers to?

(A) Nature

(B) Dorothy

(C) Coleridge

(D) Wye

38. Who, among the following, is not the second generation of British

Romantics?

(A) Keats

(B) Wordsworth

(C) Shelley

(D) Byron

39. Which of the following poems of Coleridge is a ballad?

(A) Work Without Hope

(B) Frost at Midnight

(C) The Rime of the Ancient

Mariner

(D) Youth and Age

40. Identify the writer who was expelled from Oxford for circulating a pamphlet—

(A) P. B. Shelley

(B) Charles Lamb

(C) Hazlitt

(D) Coleridge

41. Keats’s Endymion is dedicated to?

(A) Leigh Hunt

(B) Milton

(C) Shakespeare

(D) Thomas Chatterton

42. The second series of Essays of Elia by Charles Lamb was published in?

(A) 1823

(B) 1826

(C) 1834

(D) 1833

43. Which of the following poets does not belong to the ‘Lake School’?

(A) Keats

(B) Coleridge

(C) Southey

(D) Wordsworth

44.Who, among the following writers, was not educated at Christ’s Hospital School,

London?

(A) Charles Lamb

(B) William Wordsworth

(C) Leigh Hunt

(D) S. T. Coleridge

45. Who derided Hazlitt as one of the members of the ‘Cockney School of Poetry’?

(A) Tennyson

(8) Charles Lamb

(C) Lockhart

(D) T. S. Eliot

46. Tennyson’s poem ‘In Memoriam’was written in memory of?

(A) A. H. Hallam
(B) Edward King

(C) Wellington

(D) P. B. Shelley

47. Who, among the following, is not connected with the Oxford Movement?

(A) Robert Browning

(B) John Keble

(C) E. B. Pusey

(D) J. H. Newman

48. Identify the work by Swinburne which begins “when the hounds of spring are on winter’s traces..”?

(A) Chastelard

(B) A Song of Italy

(C) Atalanta in Calydon

(D) Songs before Sunrise

49. Carlyle’s work On Heroes, HeroWorship and the Heroic in History is a course of?

(A) six lectures

(B) five lectures

(C) four lectures

(D) seven lectures

50. Who is praised as a hero by Carlyle in his lecture on the ‘Hero as King’?

(A) Johnson

(B) Cromwell

(C) Shakespeare

(D) Luther

51. Identify the work by Ruskin which began as a defence of contemporary landscape artist especially
Turner?

(A) The Stones of Venice

(B) The Two Paths

(C) The Seven Lamps of Architecture

(D) Modem Painters

52. The term ‘the Palliser Novels’ is used to describe the political novels of?

(A) Charles Dickens

(B) Anthony Trollope

(C) W. H. White

(D) B. Disraeli

53. Identify the poet, whom Queen Victoria, regarded as the perfect poet of ‘love and loss’—

(A) Tennyson

(B) Browning

(C) Swinburne

(D) D. G. Rossetti

54. A verse form using stanza of eight lines, each with eleven syllables, is known as?

(A) Spenserian Stanza

(B) Ballad

(C) OttavaRima

(D) Rhyme Royal

55. Identify the writer who first used blank verse in English poetry?

(A) Sir Thomas Wyatt

(B) William Shakespeare

(C) Earl of Surrey

(D) Milton

56. The Aesthetic Movement which blossomed during the 1880s was  not influenced by?

(A) The Pre-Raphaelites

(B) Ruskin

(C) Pater

(D) Matthew Arnold

57. Identify the rhetorical figure used in the following line of Tennyson “Faith un-faithful kept him
falsely true.”
(A) Oxymoron

(B) Metaphor

(C) Simile

(D) Synecdoche

58. W. B. Yeats used the phrase ‘the artifice of eternity’ in his poem?

(A) Sailing to Byzantium

(B) Byzantium

(C) The Second Coming

(D) Leda and the Swan

59. Who is Pip’s friend in London?

(A) Pumblechook

(B) Herbert Pocket

(C) Bentley Drummle

(D) Jaggers

60. Who is Mr. Tench in The Power and the Glory?

(A) A teacher

(B) A clerk

(C) A thief

(D) A dentist

ANSWERS:

1 D

2 A

3 C

4 D

5 C
6 A

7 C

8 A

9 B

10 A

11 B

12 C

13 A

14 A

15 D

16 C

17 A

18 D

19 A

20 C

21 A

22 D

23 C

24 B
25 B

26 A

27 D

28 B

29 C

30 C

31 A

32 B

33 A

34 C

35 C

36 A

37 B

38 B

39 C

40 A

41 A

42 D

43 A
 44 A

45 D

46 A

47 A

48 C

49 B

50 B

51 D

52 D

53 D

54 C

55 C

56 D

57 A

58 A

59 D

60 C

Other
Bank of India Clerk Exam Solved Paper Solved
Question paper 2008 : English Language : Held on 22-
6-2008
इस पष्ृ ठ का हिन्दी अनुवाद
By morgan ⋅ December 26, 2008 ⋅ Post a comment

Directions(Q. 1to15) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain
words/phrases are printed in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.

The King of Kanchi set off to conquer Karnat. He was victorious in batttle. The elephants were laden with
sandalwood, ivory, gold and precious stones taken from the conquered kingdom of Karnat. They would be a part of
the victory parade for his subjects. On his way back home he stopped at a temple, finished his prayers to the
goddess and turned to leave. Around his neck was a garland of scarlet hibiscus and as was the custom for all, his
forehead was anointed with red sandal paste. His Minister and the court jester were his only companions. At one
spot, in a mango grove by the wayside, they spied some children play. The King said, “Let me go and see what
they are playing.

The children had lined up two rows of clay dolls and were playing warriors and battles. The King asked, “Who is
fighting whom ?” They said, “Karnat is at battle with Kanchi.” The King asked, “Who is winning and who is the
loser ?” The children puffed their chests up and said, “Karnat will win and Kanchi will lose.” The Minister froze in
disbelief, the King was furious and the jester burst into laughter.

The King was soon joined by his troops and the children were still immersed in their game. The King commanded,
“Cane them hard.” The children’s parents came running from the nearby village and said, “They are naive, it was
just a game, please grant them pardon.” The King called his commander and ordered, “Teach these children and the
village a lesson so that they never forget the King of Kanchi.” He went back to his camp.

That evening the Commander stood before the King. He bowed low in shame and said, “Your Majesty, with the
exception of hyenas and vultures, all lie silent in the village.” The Minister said, “His Majesty’s honour has been
saved.” The priest said, “The goddess has blessed our King.” The jester said, “Your Highness, please grant me leave
to go now.” The King asked, ‘But why ?” The jester said, “I cannot kill, I cannot maim, I can only laugh at God’s gift
of life.” Trembling in the face of the king’s anger he bravely continued, “If I stay in your Majesty’s court, I shall
become like you and I shall forget how to laugh.”

1. Why were the elephants carrying loads of gold and other valuables ?
(A) This was what the king had looted from Karnat to distribute among his soldiers as a reward
(B) This was the king’s offering to the deity out of gratitude for making him victorious
(C) It was what the king had plundered from Karnat to display to the people of his kingdom as a sign of victory
(D) So that the people of the kingdom of Karnat acknowledged him as their new ruler
(E) None of these

2. Why did the king anoint his head with red sandal paste ?
(A) As a mark of celebration to show he had been victorious
(B) It was the usual practice for all devotees at the temple
(C) To show other devotees that he was king
(D) The priest requested him to do so
(E) To show his soldiers that he had visited the temple

3. Which of the following cannot be said about the jester ?

1. He was not a loyal subject of the king.
2. He was afraid of the king’s temper.
3. He did not support the king’s war against Karnat.
(A) Both 1 and 3
(B) Only 1
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these

4. What excuse was given for the childrens’ behaviour ?

(A) They were disobedient to their parent’s wishes
(B) They were unaware of the true facts of the battle
(C) They were upset that their army had lost
(D) They were in the habit of lying
(E) None of these

5. Why did the jester laugh at the children’s reply to the king ?
1. They correctly predicted the outcome of the battle.
2. Their reply was cheeky because they knew he was the king.
3. He wanted to show that their reply was a joke to save them from being punished by the king.
(A) Only 1
(B) Both 1 and 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 2 and 3
(E) None of these

6. Which of the following is true in the context of the passage ?

(A) The king stopped at the temple to see what else could be plundered
(B) The people of the village to which the children belonged developed great respect for the king
(C) The Commander was ashamed at having obeyed the king’s orders to cane the children
(D) The jester was unhappy that the king had defeated the army of Karnat
(E) The children had shown disrespect to the goddess by playing so close to the temple

7. Why did the jester resign from his post ?

(A) He felt that the king was too influenced by the Minister
(B) To show that he disapproved of the king’s action of punishing the children
(C) He did not want to accompany the king on his war campaign
(D) He was no longer able to make the king laugh
(E) None of these

8. Which of the following describes the Minister ?

1. He was jealous of the jester.
2. He was the king’s most valuable advisor.
3. He did not have a good sense of humour.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 3
(C) Both 1 and 3
(D) Both 1 and 2
(E) None of these

9. Which of the following was/were the outcome(s) of the soldiers beating the children ?
1. The animals began to howl and wanted to attack the soldiers.
2. The children’s parents went to the king to beg for mercy.
3. The priest offered prayers to the goddess of the temple.
(A) Only 1
(B) All 1, 2 and 3
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Only 2
(E) None of these

10. Why was the king angry with the children ?

(A) Because the game they were playing was dangerous
(B) They had lied to him
(C) They did not recognize him as king
(D) They had unknowingly insulted him
(E) They were rude to him
Directions(Q. 11 -13) Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word printed in bold as
used in the passage.

11. froze
(A) cold
(B) numb
(C) shivered
(D) stood still
(E) chill

12. leave
(A) holiday
(B) transfer
(C) exit
(D) permission
(E) farewell

13. spied
(A) noticed
(B) keep watch
(C) followed
(D) spot
(E) caught

Directions(Q. 14 – 15) Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning of the word printed in bold as used in
the passage.

14. immersed in
(A) safe from
(B) distracted from
(C) boring
(D) drowning in
(E) entertained by

15. pardon
(A) punishment
(B) excuse
(C) convict
(D) intolerance
(E) imprison

Directions(Q. 16 – 20) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below should replace the phrase given in bold
in the following sentence to make the sentence grammatically meaningful and correct. If the sentence is correct as it
is and No correction is required, mark (E) as the answer.

16. Your bonus will dependent the quality of your work.

(A) is dependable
(B) depends on
(C) being dependent
(D) going to depend
(E) No correction required

17. He did not ask for a raise since he had fear to lose his job.
(A) was fearful of
(B) was feared to
(C) was afraid to
(D) had been afraid to
(E) No correction required
18. The organizers agreed to shift the conference at some place convenience to all participants.
(A) any of the place convenient
(B) at places convenient
(C) from a place of convenience
(D) to a place convenient
(E) No correction required

19. As compared to last year there has been a sharp rise in interest rates.
(A) sharper rise of
(B) as sharp a rise
(C) sharp rises in
(D) sharply rising
(E) No correction required

20. In the 1970s banks required to submit their detailed plans of expansion to RBI.
(A) were required to submit
(B) required for submission
(C) are required to submit
(D) requirement of submitting
(E) No correction required

Directions(Q. 21 – 25) Rearrange the following Six sentences (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) and (6) in the proper sequence to
form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them—

1. I had paid a lot of attention during training and could easily answer the questions till I came to the last one. What is
the name of the lady who cleans your floor ?

2. “Yes”, he replied. “In your career you will meet many people all of whom are significant even if all you do is greet
them.”

3. I thought the question was a joke. I had seen her but how would I know her name ?

4. During my internship we were given a quiz to see how much we had learnt.

5. I have never forgotten this lesson.

6. I submitted my paper leaving the last question blank and asked the manager if it would count for assessment.

21. Which of the following will be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5

22. Which of the following will be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 6
(E) 5

23. Which of the following will be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
24. Which of the following will be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5

25. Which of the following will be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5

Directions(Q. 26 – 30) In each sentence below four words have been printed in bold which are lettered (A), (B), (C)
and (D). One of these words may be wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the
wrongly spelt or inappropriate word. The letter of that word is the answer. If all the words are correctly spelt and are
appropriate the answer is (E), i.e. ‘All correct’.

26. My gole (A) is to acquire (B) a position (C) of authority (D) and respect within the organization. All correct (E)

27. The refusal (A) of the Ministry to clear pending (B) dues is a course (C) for concern (D) . All correct (E)

28. He was convinced (A) that discipline (B) and hard work would result (C) in dividents (D) in the long run. All correct
(E)

29. This is a company which believes (A) in transparency (B) and appointment is done strictly (C) on merit (D). All
correct (E)

30. There will be a decline (A) in the probability (B) of oil companies because of the hike (C) in oil prices (D). All
correct (E)

Directions(Q. 31 – 40) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it.The error, if any,
will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E) i.e. No
error. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.)

31. The revised government’s (A) /guidelines have reduced (B)/ the number of mergers (C) / taking place among
banks. (D) No error (E)

32. I do not know (A) / who of the (B) /new trainees should (C) / be confirmed. (D) No error (E)

33. To promote India as (A) / a tourist destination (B)/ the government has organized (C) / many cultural programmes.
(D) No error (E)

34. Banks in India (A) / cannot open ATMs (B)/ except obtaining (C) / approval from RBI. (D) No error (E)

35. Today the success of (A) / companies depends on the (B)/ quality of their products and(C) /efficient managing
staff. (D) No error (E)

36. Ashok has managed to (A) / achieve his sales targets (B)/ for the quarter very easily (C) / than we expected. (D)
No error (E)

37. He did not grant (A) / their request for a loan (B)/ although it would (C) / displease his boss. (D) No error (E)

38. At present oil companies (A) / are making a loss of (B)/ rupees five on all (C) / litre of petrol that they sell. (D) No
error (E)
39. The manager’s belief that (A) / Ramesh is (B)/ incompetent is not (C) / necessary true. (D) No error (E)

40. Since I was doing (A) / my MBA I initially (B)/ chose to specialize (C) / in marketing management. (D) No error (E)

Directions(Q. 41 – 50) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers
are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately.
Find out the appropriate word in each case.
He was a charismatic leader, an entrepreneur and a highly effective manager all rolled into one. As a leader, he ¦(41)¦
the company’s growth plan in a dedicated manner and he never ¦(42)¦ focus. The cement industry in those days was
doing badly. ¦(43)¦ to everyone’s expectations he sanctioned an additional plant in ¦(44)¦ time. He was ¦(45)¦ that since
the cement industry was cyclic in nature, by the time the plant was ¦(46)¦ the market would have improved. It did
happen and the decision brought rich ¦(47)¦ when the plant was commissioned.

Not only was he a great entrepreneur but he also …(48)… all his senior people to be ‘practising
entrepreneurs’. I have seen a similar example at the Asian Institute of Management, which allows its professors
to …(49)… their own business. This made their lectures more practical and less theoretical. It is the …(50)… of
the Institute’s success.

41. (A) achieved

(B) implemented
(C) visualised
(D) persevered
(E) aimed

42. (A) moved

(B) shifts
(C) missed
(D) changes
(E) lost

43. (A) Contrary

(B) Opposite
(C) Yet
(D) Obedient
(E) Different

44. (A) any

(B) mean
(C) short
(D) no
(E) less

45. (A) known

(B) calculating
(C) certain
(D) dreamt
(E) surely

46. (A) operational

(B) install
(C) use
(D) produced
(E) new

47. (A) supply

(B) diversity
(C) rewards
(D) pay
(E) knowledge
48. (A) thought
(B) tried
(C) wished
(D) encourage
(E) wanted

49. (A) expand

(B) function
(C) chose
(D) run
(E) risk

50. (A) responsibility

(B) secret
(C) guarantee
(D) prize
(E) value

Answers with Hints:-

1. (C) 2. (B) 3. (B) 4. (B) 5. (E) 6. (C) 7. (E) 8. (B) 9. (D) 10. (D)
11. (B) 12. (D) 13. (B) 14. (B) 15. (A) 16. (B) 17. (C) 18. (D) 19. (E) 20. (A)
21. (A) 22. (E) 23. (B) 24. (D) 25. (C)
26. (A) Correct spelling is “goal”.
27. (C) Correct spelling is”cause”.
28. (D) Correct spelling is “dividends”.
29. (E) 30. (B)
31. (A) Write “the government’s revised”.
32. (B) Write “which of the”.
33. (C) Write “the government is organizing”.
34. (C) Write “without obtaining”.
35. (D) Write “efficient managerial staff”.
36. (C) Change “very easily”to “more easily”.
37. (C) Write “even though it would”.
38. (C) Write “each” in place of “all”.
39. (D) Write “necessarily true”.
40. (B) Delete “my”.
41. (B) 42. (C) 43. (A) 44. (D) 45. (B) 46. (A) 47. (C) 48. (E) 49. (D) 50. (B)

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English model Quiz For LIC of India Recruitment 2010 Assistant Administrative Officer (AAO)

MCQ English For LIC jobs

In the following question, find the right meaning of  word from the given alternatives.

1. Handy—

(a) Small

(b) Popular
(c) Portable

(d) Convenient

Ans. (d)

Directions (Q. 2—6): Pick out the word opposite or nearly so in the meaning of the given
words.

2. Latent—

(a) Hidden

(b) Forbidding

(c) Obvious

(d) Artificial

Ans. (c)

3. Morose—

(a) Healthy

(b) Gloomy

(c) Haggard

(d) Cheerful

Ans. (d)

4. Brazen—

(a) Bold

(b) Made of brass

(c) Made of copper

(d) Shy

Ans. (b)

5. Debonair—

(a) Awkward
(b) Windy

(c) Balmy

(d) Sportive

Ans. (d)

6. Exhume—

(a) Decipher

(b) Dig

(c) Integrate

(d) Admit

Ans. (d)

Directions (Q. 7-11): Choose the exact meaning of the bold idioms/phrases in the following
questions.

7. She exhibited remarkable sang froid during the crisis.

(a) Temper

(b) Irritation

(c) Composure

(d) Anger

Ans. (c)

8. The company has been handed over to new masters, lock, stock and barrel.

(a) Completely

(b) Financially

(c) Administratively

(d) Partially

Ans. (a)

9. Believe me, I am all at sea.

(a) Out of reach

(b) Very happy

(c) Puzzled

(d) Drowning

Ans. (c)

10. His dealings are all above board.

(a) Simple

(b) Decent

(c) Open

(d) Friendly

Ans. (c)

11. I saw him make a wry face.

(a) Abuse

(b) Feel sick

(c) Cry with pain

(d) Show disappointment

Ans. (d)

Directions (Q. 12-16): In the following questions produce the correct sentence.

12. P: expresses itself in many diverse art forms

Q: ancient is origin

R: the essence of the spirit of Bulgaria

S: of great creativity

(a) PQRS

(b) RQPS
(c) QPSR

(d) PSRQ

Ans. (b)

13. P: through the long, hot summer

Q: if you plan to train hard

R: continually

S: you will need to acclimatize yourself

(a) QRPS

(b) SRPQ

(c) QRSP

(d) PQRS

Ans. (c)

14. P: when a chemical substance

Q: the food poisoning occurred

R: in the food preparations

S: was mistaken for salt and used

(a) RQPS

(b) SRQP

(c) QPSR

(d) PSRQ

Ans. (c)

15. P: four degrees below normal

Q: icy winds lashed Srinagar

R: with minimum temperature registering

S: which was already in the grip of grueling cold-wave conditions

(a) QSRP

(b) SRPQ

(c) RPQS

(d) SRPQ

Ans. (a)

16. P: environment and psychological stress and strain

Q: he said that

R: the development of positive attitudes to cope with

S: what the world needed today was

(a) PQSR

(b) RPQS

(c) QSRP

(d) SRPQ

Ans. (c)

Directions (Q. 17-21): Fill up the blanks—

17. She is proud…. her beauty.

(a) at

(b) on

(c) of

(d) about

Ans. (c)

18. The man killed ….. road accident was a stranger.

(a) of
(b) by

(c) in

(d) on

Ans. (c)

19. An appeal has been admitted ….. the Supreme Court.

(a) by

(b) into

(c) with

(d) in

Ans. (a)

20. He is good….. chess.

(a) for

(b) at

(c) on

(d) with

Ans. (b)

21. The train reached …. the station right time.

(a) to

(b) by

(c) on

(d) no preposition is required

Ans. (d)

22. Pick up the passive voice of the sentence “Who did this?”

(a) To whom this was done?

(b) By whom this was done?

(c) By whom was this done?

(d) To whom was this done?

Ans:-c

23. Pick out the sentence, which has the correct usage of article

(a)  A honest man met me

(b) The horse is a noble animal.

(c) He can play a flute.

(d) The bird in hand is worth  two in the bush

Ans:-b

24. How many parts of speech are normally used in English language?

(a) Five

(b) Eight

(c) Six

(d) Nine

Ans:-b

25. Animals which feed on grass are called:

(a) Herbivorous

(b) Cannibals

(c) Omnivorous

(d) Carnivorous

Ans:-a
ind out the appropriate meaning of the given word from the choices given below it:

1. Chattel

(a) Barrister’s Wig

(b) Movable Personal Possession

(c) Obligation

(d) Piece of land

2. Intestate

(a) Without heirs

(b) Without leaving a will

(c) Bankrupt

(d) Of natural causes

3. Subpoena

(a) Punishment

(b) Summons

(b) Delay

(d) Ban

4. Treason

(a) Insult to the ruler

(b) Betrayal of country

(c) Campaign of Republic

(d) Desecrating the flag

5. Bivouac

(a) Tree house

(b) Valve

(c) Powdery substance

(d) Encampment

6. Pullulate

(a) To travel in style

(b) Make dirty

(c) Defeat thoroughly

(d) Swarm

7. Empathy

(a) Tranquillity

(b) Understanding

(c) Ire

(d) Opposition

8. Thesaurus

(a) Flush eating Dinosaur

(b) Book of Synonyms

(c) Argument

(d) Road map

9. Perjure

(a) To confess

(b) To deny
(c) To hide

(d) To Lie

10. Recidivist

(a) Defendant

(b) Hermit

(c) Long term prisoner

(d) Frequent law breaker

Answers

1. b, 2. b, 3. b, 4. b, 5. d, 6. d, 7. b, 8. b, 9. d, 10. d

ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Qs. 1-15. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain
words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate hem while answering some of the
questions.

For a business still in a burgeoning state of development the performance of the gem and jewelry
sector in exports s gratifying. On top of an over 50 per cent growth during 2004-05, these exports
are poised to grow at a similar rate during the current year, if the trend in the irst half of the year
is an indication. Data released by the Gems and Jewelry Export Promotion Council show that
Gems exports at Rs 2,363 crores during April- eptember 2005 were 51 per cent higher than
during the corresponding period of 2004. Since there is a greater acceleration in the tempo of
exports in the econd half of the year, it appears that the target of Gems and Jewelry exports,
pegged at Rs 5,000 crore is well within reach. Even more heartening is the fact that the xport
flow has been broad based, though the pace has been set by better showing in both Jewelry and
Gem exports.

This successful incursion is the outcome of a conscious strategy to build export infrastructure
which includes the setting up of Gems and Jewelry export zones, echnology missions and a
liberal policy under which virtually the entire industry is thrown open to foreign direct
investment. Some incentives like access to omestic market for these export-oriented units, based
on the net value addition, also have helped the export drive. Besides, the industry had made
efforts to apture new markets, laid stress on quality of the product and became alive to customer
needs.

However, in the case of jewelry exports, the actual performance is behind the potential. With its
endowment in terms of jewelry designers, low costs and high roductivity, India can emerge as a
major force in global jewelry exports by emphasizing on customizing jewelry rather than relying
on standard products. At the ame time, gems exports should not suffer by default. The recent
data given lie to the claim that we have a leeway in jewelry designing. Over a period, this uccess
on global marketing of our gems should facilitate system integration, and to exports of value-
added gems with jewelry. As of now, what is significant is that we ave carved a small niche in
the global market in an industry that is the cutting edge of designing.

1. Which of the following are responsible for substantial growth n exports in Gems and jewelry
sector?

(A) Conscious strategy to build export infrastructure

(B) Liberal policy
(C) Government subsidy
(1) All (A), (B) and (C) (2) Only (B) and (C) (3) Only (A) and (C) (4) Only (A) and (B) (5) None
of these

2. Setting up of gems and jewelry exports zones has resulted into which of the following?
(1) Production of gems has increased
(2) Increase in gems exports
(3) Increase in jewelry exports
(4) Abundance of gems and jewelry in the domestic market
(5) None of these

3. Which of the following words has the SAME meaning as the word ‘heartening’ as used in the
passage?
(1) Saddening (2) Encouraging (3) Illuminating
(4) Satisfying (5) Worsening

4. Which of the following have helped in the growth of exports in gem and jewelry sector?
(A) Value addition
(B) Quality control
(C) Customer friendly
(D) Access to domestic market

(1) All (A), (B), (C) and (D) (2) Only (A), (B) and (C)
(3) Only (B), (C) and (D) (4) Only (A), (C) and (D) (5) None of these

5. Which of the following statements is true in the context of the passage?

(1) The growth in exports in gems and jewelry sector is expected to be 100 per cent during 2005-
2006 to that of 2004-05.
(2) The growth in exports in gems and jewelry sector in 2005-2006 is expected to be more than
that in 2004- 05.
(3) The growth in exports in gems and jewelry sector is expected to be 50 per cent in 2005-2006.
(4) The growth in exports in gems and jewelry sector is expected to be 25 per cent in 2005-2006.
(5) None of these

6. Which of the following factors have not helped in the export promotion?
(A) Building an infrastructure for export
(B) Encouraging foreign direct investment
(1) Only (A) (2) Only (B) (3) Either (A) or (B)
(4) Both (A) and (B) (5) None of these

7. How much export was realized in the first half of the year 2005-2006?
(1) Less than half the targeted amount.
(2) More than half the targeted amount.
(3) Almost half of the amount projected for the purpose.
(4) The exact amount is not mentioned.
(5) None of these

8. Which of the following words/group of words has the SAME meaning as the word
‘customizing’ as used in the passage?
(1) Need based (2) Supportive (3) Appropriate
(4) Quality (5) Traditional

9. Which of the following words has the SAME meaning as the word ‘alive’ as used in the
passage?
(1) Awake (2) Open (3) Conducive
(4) Active (5) Brisk

10. Which of the following statements is not true according to the passage?
(1) India’s performance in exports of jewelry is better than that of gems.
(2) India’s performance in export of gems is better than that of jewelry.
(3) India’s performance in value added exports has grown in the recent past.
(4) India has made considerable effort in exporting value added products in the international
market.
(5) Performance in global marketing has helped in developing an edge in designing.

11. What according to the passage, is the basis for the expectation of the exports in Gem and
jewelry sector reaching the targeted amount?
(1) Growth in exports in the earlier year.
(2) Domestic demand in the sector.
(3) India’s performance in jewelry designing.
(4) Trend observed during the first half of the year.
(5) None of these

Qs. 12-13. Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word printed in bold used in
the passage. 12. Emerge
(1) Drawn (2) Evolve (3) Shine
(4) Grow (5) Submerge

13. Conscious
(1) Desirable (2) Deliberate (3) Planned
(4) Unconscious (5) Wanted
Qs. 14-15. Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning of the word printed in bold as
used in the passage.
14. Virtually
(1) Artificially (2) Lately (3) Really
(4) Imaginary (5) Realistically

15. Burgeoning
(1) Emerging (2) Established (3) Dying
(4) Sneaking (5) Middle

Qs. 16-20. Rearrange the following six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper
sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the eustions given below them.

(A) The Central government is weighing several options to involve the States in the process of
boosting the country’s exports.
(B) These governments hitherto felt that exports are the Centre’s responsibility, which was a
wrong approach.
(C) The States will now realize that they should themselves encourage export-oriented units.
(D) This move by the Centre is also necessitated to eradicate the misunderstanding that prevails
among most of
the States.

(E) It is a welcome move to instill into governments the feeling of belongingness.

(F) Exports help flourish a country’s economic situation.

16. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?
(1) B (2) C (3) D (4) E (5) F

17. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?
(1) B (2) C (3) D (4) E (5) F

18. Which of the following should be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence after rearrangement?
(1) B (2) C (3) D (4) E (5) F

19. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?
(1) B (2) C (3) D (4) E (5) F

20. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?
(1) B (2) C (3) D (4) E (5) F

Qs. 21-30. Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error,
if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no
error, the answer is (5) i.e. ‘No Error’. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).

21. The number of students(1) competing in the event(2) has been fallen(3) because of want of
incentive.(4) No error.(5)

22. I am grateful to you(1) and all your friends(2) by extending required help(3) in my hour of
need.(4) No error.(5)
23. Ramesh has been both(1) an intelligent(2) and hardworking chap(3) since his childhood.(4)
No error.(5)

24. A small piece(1) of bread is(2) certainly better than(3) being nothing to eat.(4) No error.(5)

25. It was clear from the way(1) they were moving(2) that everyone possessed(3) the required
experience.(4) No error.(5)

26. The fact that he(1) can not be able to sing(2) is known only(3) to very few people.(4) No
error.(5)

27. That boy has(1) three precious objects,(2) and he would not(3) part for any one of them.(4)
No error.(5)

28. When he used to walk(1) along the road(2) a wild and ferocious dog(3) knocked him down.
(4) No error.(5)

29. Though he was(1) not relating to me,(2) I helped him by(3) giving money and a profitable
advice.(4) No error.(5)

30. People who are(1) fortunate enough to own(2) a house in the city(3) are very few.(4) No
error.(5)

Qs. 31-40. Which of the phrases (1), (2), (3) and (4) given below should replace the phrase given
in bold in the following sentence to make the sentence rammatically correct. If the sentence is
correct as it is and no correction is required, mark(5) as the answer.

31. When do you intend to return back home?

(1) intend to return
(2) intention of returning to back
(3) intend to turn back for (4) intend for a return of
(5) No Correction Required

32. I would have been in your place, I would not have accepted his suggestion.
(1) If I had in (2) Had I been with
(3) I had been with (4) Had I been in
(5) No Correction Required

33. He firmly beliefs that a radical change in the structure of our various departments is
necessary.
(1) is believing that (2) firmly believes that
(3) firmly belief that (4) that firmly believes in
(5) No Correction Required

34. Mahatma Phule’s life was a saga of dedicating in the cause of social reforms in India.
(1) of dedicated the (2) of having dedicated in the
(3) of dedication to the (4) for dedication at the
(5) No Correction Required

35. No sooner did we reach the station than it started raining.

(1) then it started raining (2) then it starts to rain
(3) than it starts to rain (4) when it started raining
(5) No Correction Required

36. I met him yesterday but forgot to mention this point.

(1) had been forgotten to (2) was forgot to
(3) have forgotten to (4) forgot at
(5) No Correction Required

37. Every activity can be classified by two groups, namely mental and physical.
(1) will be classified by (2) can be classified into
(3) will be classified between (4) can classify into
(5) No Correction Required

38. The issues discussed had been so that critical they could hardly be resolved in such a limited
time.
(1) were so critically that (2) had so critical that
(3) were being so critical as that
(4) were so critical that (5) No Correction Required

39. The Conference is to be starting at 9.30 a.m. with the introductory speech by the Minister.
(1) is to start for (2) has been started by
(3) is to start at (4) will be started by
(5) No Correction Required

40. The unskilled class of workers is the most exploited of class under the present labour contract
system.
(1) most exploited class (2) mostly exploiting class
(3) most exploiting class (4) mostly the exploit class
(5) No Correction Required

Qs. 41-50. In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These
numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five ords are suggested, one of which
fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

The traditional method of managing credit risk is (41) diversification. Although (42) credit risk
through diversification is effective, institutions are often onstrained y (43) of diversification (44)
on account of limited area of (45). During the last few years, managing credit risk through selling
assets by way of securitisation has (46) in popularity. The market for securitised assets has
grown (47) in the last few years and is expected to grow further in the (48) years. This mode of
credit isk mitigation is most (49) to loans with standardized payment schedules and similar credit
risk characteristics such as housing loans, auto loans, credit card eceivables, etc.
Further, shedding loans through securitisation might (50) client relationship. In this context,
credit derivatives provide a new technique for managing credit risk.

41. (1) by (2) onto (3) for (4) at (5) through

42. (1) watching (2) mitigating (3) taking (4) affording (5) seeing

43. (1) lack (2) supply (3) scarcity (4) void (5) want

44. (1) luck (2) fortune (3) activities (4) opportunities (5) chance

45. (1) place (2) transaction (3) operations (4) dealing (5) work

46. (1) gained (2) sold (3) valued (4) bought (5) profited

47. (1) gigantic (2) slowly (3) slightly (4) needlessly (5) impressively

48. (1) yester (2) futuristic (3) golden (4) coming (5) past

49. (1) desired (2) suited (3) wanted (4) suitable (5) popular

50. (1) kill (2) lynch (3) damage (4) promote (5) burn

ANSWERS:-

1. (4) 2. (2) 3. (2) 4 (1) 5. (2) 6. (5) 7. (3) 8. (1) 9. (2) 10. (1) 11. (4) 12. (4) 13. (3) 14. (1) 15. (1)
16. (3) 17. (5) 18. (2) 19. (4) 20. (1)

21. (3) ‘has fallen’ (4) ‘for want of incentive’

22. (3) ‘for extending’ 23. (1) “Romesh has been”
24. (4) ‘nothing to eat’ 25. (5) No error
26. (2) ‘is not able to sing’
27. (4) ‘part with any one of them’
28. (1) ‘When he was walking’
29. (2) ‘not related to me’ 30. (5) No error

31. (1) 32. (4) 33. (2) 34. (3) 35. (5) 36. (5) 37. (2) 38. (4) 39. (3) 40. (1) 41. (5) 42. (2) 43. (1)
44. (3) 45. (3) 46. (1) 47. (5) 48. (4) 49. (2) 50. (3)