ENDODONTICS-PERIODONTICS REVALIDA 2 5. .

The most important route of bacteria

into the dental pulp is from:

1. Gingivectomy is indicated in the following, A. General circulation via anachoresis.

except:
A. Leukemic gingival enlargement
B. Idiopathic fibromatosis of the gingiva
C. Dilantin gingival enlargement
D. Nifedipine gingival enlargement
2. The following are true regarding shaping
procedures, except:
A. Shaping is performed after cleaning of
the apical one third of the canal to ensure
patency.
B. Shaping facilitates placement of
instruments to the working length by
increasing the coronal taper.
C. Shaping permits a more accurate
assessment of the apical, cross-sectional
canal diameter.
D. Shaping is a necessary procedure
because calcification occurs from the
coronal portion of the canal to the apex.
B. Exposure to the oral cavity via
caries.
C. The gingival sulcus.
D. None of these.
6. Which of the following should be FIRST in the
sequence of treatment?
A. Resolution of the lesions associated with
the mandibular left first molar
B. Correction of marginal ridge discrepancy
between mandibular right second premolar
and first molar
C. Removal of overhanging restoration on the
maxillary left first molar
D. Endodontic therapy on the first maxillary left
lateral incisor
E. Scaling and root planing of all teeth, except
the mandibular left first molar
7. All of the following are clinical signs of bruxism.
Except?

3. With a mechanically exposed pulp, the A. Cracked teeth of fillings

BEST prognosis is offered by: B. Wear facets on teeth
C. Muscle soreness
A. Direct pulp cap D. Periodontal pocket formation
B. Indirect pulp cap E. TMJ symptoms
C. Resection
D. Pulpotomy 8. Based on clinical and radiographic examinations,
E. Pulpectomy and root canal which of the following teeth has the POOREST
obturation long-term prognosis

4. In cases involving conventional endodontics, A. Maxillary left canine

the MOST frequent cause of failure is: B. Maxillary right second molar
C. Mandibular left second molar
A. Incomplete obliteration of the main canal D. Maxillary right second premolar
B. External root resorption E. Mandibular right second premolar
C. Apical overfilling of the canal
D. The presence of coexistent periodontal 9. Which of the following is an indication for RCT of
lesion primary teeth?
E. Inadequate filling of accessory canals
A. Radiographic evidence of internal root
resorption
1
 B. Periapical lesion
C. Mechanical or carious perforation of the
chamber floor
D. Dentigerous cysts
10. The most reliable factor that will help determine
if the canal is ready for obturation is:
I. tooth is asymptomatic and functional
II. negative culture test result
III. no foul odor
IV. all of the choices
11. Radiographically, which of the following
statements regarding canals that appear calcified
are accurate?
A. They are seldom able to be
instrumented.
B. They have a different appearance than
the surrounding dentin.
C. They should be opened up with rotary
rather than ultrasonic instruments.
D. All of the above.
12. In the older patient, the exit of the canal is:
A. Closer to the radiographic apex.
B. easier to detect tactilely
C. Closer to the true apex
D. More variable because of cementum
formation
13. Which of the following teeth is most likely to
exhibit C Shaped morphology?
A. Maxillary first premolar
B. Mandibular first premolar
C. Maxillary first molar
D. Mandibular first molar
14. A patient complains of intermittent and
spontaneous pain on a tooth that was previously
pulp capped. Radiographs disclose no periapical
pathology. The tooth is not sensitive to percussion.
Both cold and heat stimulate a severe and lasting
pain. The most probable diagnosis is:
2
A. reversible pulpitis.
B. Irreversible pulpitis
C. Cracked tooth syndrome
D. Acute apical periodontitis
E. Chronic apical periodontitis
15. Elective endodontic treatment is contraindicated
in which of the following?
A. Patient is a borderline diabetic.
B. Patient has had a heart attack within the
last 6 months.
C. Patients have had numerous
opportunistic infections secondary to HIV
infection
D. Patient has an implanted pacemaker
16. The literature suggests that the majority of
vertical root fractures of endodontically treated
teeth result from:
A. traumatic occlusion
B. condensation forces during gutta-
percha fill
C. locking temporaries into prepared
teeth
D. cementing the cast post and core
E. permanent cementing crown
17. Pulpal and periradicular pathosis results
primarily from:
A. Traumatic injury caused by heat during
cavity preparation.
B. Bacterial invasion.
C. Toxicity of dental materials.
D. Immunologic reactions
18. Microorganisms that colonize periodontal
abscess have been reported to be primarily:
A. Gram-positive anaerobic cocci
B. Gram-negative anaerobic rods
C. Gram-positive aerobic cocci
D. Gram-negative aerobic rods
19. Which cells of the immune system possess
receptors for the complement component C3q by
which they participate in immediate inflammation?
A. Monocytes
B. Natural killer(NK) cells
C. Peripheral dendritic cells
D. Dermal dendrocytes (histiocytes)
20. Moderate extrusion of obturating materials
beyond the apex is undesirable because of which
of the following?
A. There is more likelihood of postoperative
discomfort.
B. Sealer and gutta-percha cause a severe,
inflammatory reaction in periradicular tissue.
C. The prognosis is poorer.
D. All of the above
21. The patient with rheumatic heart disease should
be of special concern to a dentist during endodontic
treatment because
A. Under Instrumentation during treatment of
vital cases results in bacteremias
B. Over instrumentation during treatment of
infected cases results in bacteremias
C. Endodontic infections are caused by the
etiologic agent responsible for streptococcal
sore throat
D. Bacteremias occur during and following the
cutting of enamel or dentin with high-speed
instruments
E. All of the above
22. Which of the following regarding gauging and
tuning is correct?
A. Gauging is performed in the coronal portion
of the canal to confirm if the coronal
enlargement is complete
B. Tuning identifies the most apical, cross-
sectional diameter of the canal.
C. Gauging and tuning verify the completed
shaping of the apical portion of the canal.
D. Gauging and tuning produces a uniform,
cylindric diameter to the canal in the apical
3
2 to 3mm that enhances obturation and
sealing.
23. Based on clinical and radiographic
examinations, the MOST appropriate treatment for
the mandibular left first molar is:
A. Hemisection of e mesial root and
subsequent restoration
B. An autogenous bone graft
C. Hemisection of the distal root and
subsequent restoration
D. None of the above
E. Extraction and subsequent replacement
with a suitable prosthesis
24. The MOST probable reason for root canal;
therapy of a mandibular incisor having a relatively
high failure rate is the:
A. Common distal curvature of the root
B. High incidence of accessory canals
C. High incidence of pulpal calcific
degeneration
D. Narrow mesiodistal dimension of the root
canal
E. High incidence of the two canals
25. In which of the following is one-visit root canal
treatment not recommended?
A. The pulp is necrotic and not symptomatic
B. The pulp is necrotic and symptomatic.
C. The pulp is necrotic and there is a draining
sinus tract.
D. The pulp is vital and symptomatic.
E. None of the above.
26. Which of the following statements regarding
sodium hypochlorite used as a root canal irrigating
solution is accurate?
A. It is buffered to a pH of 12 to 13, which
increases toxicity.
B. It exhibits a chelating action on dentin.
C. It should be used in higher
concentrations because of the increased
free chlorine available.
 D. It is a good wetting agent that permits the
solution to flow into canal irregularities.
E. All of the above statements are accurate.
27. A patient complains of thermal sensitivity in her
front teeth. Pulp tests indicate a vital tooth but the
radiograph shows a radiolucency in the middle of
the root of the maxillary left central incisor. The
MOST probable diagnosis and treatment are
A. Questionable diagnosis- observe
and take radiograph in 6-12 months
B. Internal resorption- check vitality and
take a radiograph in 6-12 months
C. Internal resorption-extract the tooth
D. Internal resorption- institute root
canal therapy
E. Questionable diagnosis- place a root
canal filling and perform surgery to
repair the defect
28. Post operative pain after obturation occur when:
A. there is excess cement
B. there is excessive force applied during
lateral condensation
C. patient failed to take analgesic after
treatment.
29. Which of the following are considerations in
coronal pretreatment of an endodontic case?
1. removing caries 2. removing occlusal contacts 3.
preventing leakage during therapy 4. providing for
secure position of the rubber-dam clamp
A. 1, 2 & 3
B. 1, 2 & 4
C. 1, 3 & 4
D. 2 & 3 only
E. 2, 3 & 4
30. Which of the following is the MOST difficult
pulpal or periapical pathosis to diagnose
A. Chronic pulpitis
B. Necrotic pulp
4
C. Internal resorption
D. Chronic suppurative apical periodontitis
E. Acute apical abscess
31. Blood at the tip of the paper point removed from
the root canal indicates:
A. possible hematoma
B. possible incomplete instrumentation
C. possible incomplete irrigation
D. possible root perforation
32. The smear layer on dentin walls acts to
prevent pulpal injury for which of the
following?
A. It reduces diffusion of toxic substances
through the tubules.
B. It resists the effects of acid etching of the
dentin.
C. It eliminates the need for a cavity liner or
base.
D. Its bactericidal activity acts against oral
microorganisms.
33. The diagnosis of early necrotizing
ulcerative gingivitis is BEST made on the
basis of
A. Low grade fever
B. Exfoliative cytology
C. Ulceration of the interdental papilla
D. Bacteriologic examination (smear)
E. Biopsy
34. A barbed broach is most useful for:
A. Coronal-orifice enlargement before
establishing the correct working
length
B. Removal of cotton, paper points and
other objects from the canal
C. Removal of vital tissue from the fine
canals
D. Initial planing of the canal walls
35. One objective of root canal obturation is
to develop a fluid tight seal. Another
objective is to create a favorable biologic B. Failure to ressect the apex.
environment for the process of tissue C. An unobturated accessory canal
healing. D. Incomplete removal of the apical
cyst.
A. Both statements are TRUE. E. Leakage from a poorly debrided
B. Both statements are FALSE and obturated canal.
C. The first statement is TRUE, the
second is FALSE 39. Percolation can cause periapical
D. The first statement is FALSE, the irritation because of:
second is TRUE
A. dead spaces
36. The main objective of occlusal B. unclean canal
equilibration in natural dentition is: C. excess cement
D. egress of degraded tissue fluid
A. Increase shearing action in into the periapex
mastication E. all of them
B. Prevent myofascial pain
syndrome 40. Instruments used for pulp canal therapy
C. Prevent TMJ pain syndrome are sterilized reliably by using
D. Achieve a more favorable
distribution of forces to the A. Cold sterilization
periodontal ligament B. Hot oil
C. An autoclave
37. In periapical radiographic examination of D. A glass bead sterilizer
a person in good general health, a E. Boiling water
radiolucent area is found around the apex of
a mandibular lateral incisor. There are no 41. When is an application of heater-
restorations in the tooth, and there is no injected gutta-percha potentially beneficial?
history of pain. The tooth is vital. Reactions
to hot and cold are normal. The electric pulp A. When there is an open apex
tester gives a normal response. The B. The clinician cannot master
radiolucent area is PROBABLY a lateral condensation
C. When the canal is curved
A. Film artifact and small after preparation.
B. Cyst D. When there are aberrations
C. Periapical osteofibrosis or irregularities of the canal
D. Any of the above
E. Granuloma 42. Prevotella intermedia was formerly
known as:
38. A periapical lesion was discovered 1 ½
years after RCT on a maxillary central A. Bacteroides melaninogenicus
incisor. Apical curettage and biopsy showed B. Bacteroides gingivalis
the lesion to be an apical cyst. Two years C. Wolinella intermedius
later, the lesion is larger than it was before D. Bacteroides intermedius
surgery. Which of the following is the most
likely cause of continued failure? 43. Which of the following perforations has
the poorest prognosis?
A. Actinomycotic infection
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 A. Perforation near the apex
B. Perforation into the furca
C. Perforation through the crown
D. Perforation at the DEJ
E. perforation at the CEJ
44. The mandibular, 2nd molar should be
restored with crown after RCT for which of
the following reasons?
A. The pulp chamber is relatively
large in comparison to the crown,
making the tooth susceptible to
fracture.
B. The tooth is close to the insertion
of the muscle of mastication, and the
percentage of preexisting fractures
is high.
C. There is a tendency for the buccal
cusps to shear off under occlusal
loading. D. Providing a post can be
placed in the distal root to
strengthen the root.
45. In recurrent necrotizing ulcerative
gingivitis, exacerbations and remissions
which occur are based to a significant
extent upon
A. Excessive smoking
B. Stressful episodes
C. The amount of suppuration
present excessive smoking
D. An increase in the types of
causative organisms
46. Gutta-percha cones are BEST
disinfected by immersing them for 20
minutes in
A. Eugenol
B. Alcohol
C. Xylol
D. Eucalyptol
E. Quaternary ammonium
compounds
6
47. Which of the following may be used to
disinfect gutta-percha points?
A. Dry heat sterilization
B. Flame sterilization
C. Boiling
D. Chemical solutions
E. Autoclave
48. Perforation on the mesial in the cervical
third of the root of a maxillary first premolar
is a common error in performing an
endodontic procedure because:
A. the crown tipped distally.
B. The root tends to curve distally
C. The entire tooth tends to tip
distally
D. The bur tends to be directed
mesially
E. concavity on the mesial root
frequently exists.
49. The rationale for placing a ZOE cement
base over the gutta-percha filling before
bleaching is that
A. All of the above
B. The whitish color of ZOE will
act synergistically with the
bleaching agent to restore
the cervical portion of the
crown to its original shade
C. Chloroform may soften the
gutta-percha and affect the
integrity of the root canal
filling
D. Superoxol may penetrate the
periapex and cause
excruciating pain
50. Alveolar bone loss may be a feature of
the following conditions, except:
A. Hyperparathyroidism
B. eosinophilic granuloma
C. Hypophosphatasia
D. erosive lichen planus
 A. Localized Aggressive
51. Which of the following terms refers to Periodontitis
reshaping the bone without removing tooth- B. Generalized Aggressive
supporting bone? Periodontitis
C. Chronic periodontitis
A. Osteoplasty D. Necrotizing Ulcerative Gingivitis
B. Negative architecture E. Necrotizing Ulcerative
C. Positive architecture Periodontitis
D. Ostectomy
57. Frequent brushing helps to prevent
52. A variation of the laterally positioned flap calculus formation by:
is called:
A.Neutralizing local acidity
A. A free gingival flap B. Removing Ca/P ions that attach
B. A coronally positioned flap to tooth surfaces
C. A modified Widman flap C. Breaking up the matrix of plaque
D. A double papilla flap D. Removing food particles on teeth
and interproximal areas
53. All corners of a periodontal flap should E. All of the above
be:
58. Which of the following root surfaces is
A. No answer text provided the most likely to be strip-perforated during
B. It doesn’t matter whether the canal instrumentation of the mesial root of a
corners of a periodontal flap mandibular first molar?
are sharp or rounded
C. rounded A. facial
D. Sharp B. lingual
C. mesial
54. After gingival curettage, the expected D. distal
result would be:
59. In gingivectomy, the incision must follow
A. Increase tooth mobility the bleeding points because they refer to
B. Deeper gingival sulcus the bottom of the pockets.
C. Increased edema
D. Shallower gingival sulcus A. The statement and reason is
related.
55. What instrument will you use in B. The statement and reason is
debridement of an edematous gingival: correct but is not related.
C. The statement is correct but the
A. subgingival curette reason is incorrect.
B. hoe D. The statement is incorrect but the
C. scaler reason is correct
D. ultrasonic scaler
60. Prevotella intermedia was formerly
56. Host factors influence the pathogenesis known as:
and progression of disease:
A. Bacteroides melaninogenicus
B. Bacteroides intermedius
7
 C. Wolinella intermedius
D. Bacteroides gingivalis
61. How should a periodontal probe be
adapted in an interproximal area?
A. it should be parallel to the long
axis of the tooth at the point angle
B. it should be parallel to the long
axis of the tooth at the contact area
C. it should touch the contact area
and the tip should angle slightly
beneath and beyond the contact
area
D. it should be perpendicular to the
long axis of the tooth in front of the
contact area
62. Although the exact mechanism of
formation of calculus is not understood, it is
known that the organic matrix of calculus in
humans includes:
65. In a clinically healthy periodontium, the
microbial flora is largely composed of:
A. Gram-positive obligate
microorganisms
B. Gram-positive facultative
C. Gram-negative obligate
microorganisms
D. Gram-negative facultative
66. The key etiologic agent in the initiation
of gingivitis and PD is:
A. calculus
B. plaque
C. toothbrush abrasion
D. saliva
67. Tobacco smoking is thought to be a
predisposing or a contributing factor in
which of the following conditions?

A. no living microorganisms A. Cyclic neutropenia

B. an abundance of microorganisms B. Gingivitis-periodontitis
C. a fusospirochetal complex C. Chediak-Higashi syndrome
D. only by-products of bacterial D. Juvenile periodontitis
metabolism E. Necrotizing ulcerative
gingivitis
63. Gingival changes evident during
pregnancy probably result from the effect of: 68. Responsible for remodeling and
degradation of matrix components:
A. Estrogen
B. Progesterone A. proteinases
C. Histamine B. Matrix Metalloproteinases
D. Vit. Deficiency C. cytokines
D. LipoTeichoicAcid
64. In recurrent necrotizing ulcerative E.LipoPolySaccharide
gingivitis, exacerbations and remissions
which occur are based to a significant 69. The main cells involved in chronic
extent upon infection are lymphocytes and:

A. An increase in the types of A. Macrophages

causative organisms B. Plasma cells
B. Stressful episodes C. Mast cells
C. Excessive smoking D. Neutrophils
D. The amount of suppuration
present
8
70. A postoperative problem that has been
reported to occur with use of fresh hip
marrow bone autografts is:
A. Inflammation in the
periodontium
B. Root resorption
C. Bone overgrowth to the
extent that esthetic problems
result
D. Loss of graft and involved
teeth due to a massive
immune rejection response
E. Severe infection, resulting in
loss of the entire alveolus
71. Curettage refers to:
A. Scaling and/or planning of
the root surface
B. Removal of dental plaque
from the coronal surfaces of
teeth
C. Soft tissue debridement of
the gingival wall of a
periodontal socket
D. Removal of calcified deposits
from the gingival sulcus
and/or periodontal pocket
72. Which of the following is/are necessary
for osseointegration to be successful:
A. Limited micromotion during
healing
B. Minimization of surgical
trauma
C. Primary stability of the
implant
D. All of the above
E. Uncontaminated implant
surfaces
73. Generalized interproximal attachment
loss affecting at least 3 permanent teeth
other than first molars and incisors :
9
A. Localized Aggressive
Periodontitis
B. Generalized Aggressive
Periodontitis
C. Chronic periodontitis
D. Necrotizing Ulcerative Gingivitis
E.Necrotizing Ulcerative
Periodontitis
74. The periodontal ligament is vital to the
tooth, except:
A. contains nerves and vascular
elements
B. provides the cellular elements of
bone and cementum
C. furnishes an elastic sling for
holding the tooth
D. allows for physiologic movement
of the teeth
75. The most important plaque retentive
factor is:
A. overhanging margins of
restorations
B. calculus
C. crowded teeth
D. furcations
76. Chronic apical periodontitis is best
differentiated from acute apical periodontitis
by which of the following?
A. Pulp testing and radiographic
appearance.
B. Pulp testing and nature of
symptoms
C. Radiographic appearance and
nature of symptoms.
D. Pulp testing, radiographic
appearance and nature of symptoms
77. Which cells of the immune system
possess receptors for the complement
component C3q by which they participate in
immediate inflammation?
 A. Dermal dendrocytes
(histiocytes)
B. Natural killer (NK) cells
C. Monocytes
D. Peripheral dendritic cells
78. Osseointegration can fail due to:
B. Bone loss only.
C. Ulceration of lamina propria.
D. Loss of circular epithelium
83. Which of the following cells participate in
the early phase of inflammation (early lesion
of gingivitis)?

A. Micromotion during healing A. Eosinophils

B. All of the above B. kupffer’s cells
C. Excessive cantilevering of C. Mast cells
the prosthesis D. Epithelioid
D. Occlusal overload
E. Bacterial plaque 84. The bacterial flora in periodontal
pockets associated with aggressive
79. . Products of subgingival periodontitis is predominantly
microorganisms that activate chemical
mediators of inflammation: A. Negative aerobic cocci
B. Positive aerobic cocci
A. proteinases C. Negative anaerobic rods
B. Matrix Metalloproteinases D. Positive anaerobic cocci
C. cytokines E. Negative anaerobic cocci
D. LipoTeichoicAcid
E. LipoPolySaccharide 85. Stimulates bone resorption

80. When using the periodontal probe to A. cytokines

measure pocket depth, the measurement is
taken from the :
A. Base of the pocket to the CEJ
B. free gingival margin to the CEJ
C. Junctional epithelium to the
margin of the free gingiva
D. base of the pocket to the
mucogingival junction
81. Gingival changes evident during
pregnancy probably result from the effect of:
A. Estrogen
B. Progesterone
C. Histamine
D Vit. Deficiency
82. Pathologic pockets are deepened sulci
characterized by:
A. Bone loss and migration of
junctional epithelium
10
B. interleukins
C. LipoPolySaccharide
D. LipoTeichoicAcid
E. Matrix Metalloproteinases
86. Pseudopockets are most likely to be
seen in a patient with:
A. acute gingivitis
B. advanced periodontitis
C. inflammatory gingival
enlargement
D. NUG
87.The cribriform plate (alveolar bone
proper) reveals minute openings which
represent:
A. areas of osteoclastic activity.
B. Regions of hematopoietic activity.
C. Resorption sites of the spongiosa.
 D. Attachment sites of Sharpey’s 92. Products of Subgingival microorganisms
fibers. that activate chemical mediators of
E. Regions for passage of vascular inflammation:
and nerve elements.
a. proteinases
88. Inadequate margins of restorations b. Matrix Metalloproteinases
should be corrected PRIMARILY because c. cytokines
they d. LipoTeichoicAcid
e. LipoPolySaccharide
A. Interfere with plaque removal
B. Cause mechanical irritation 93. A tissue graft between individuals of the
C. Interfere with mastication same species but with non-identical genes:
D. Retain food debris
E. Cause occlusal disharmony A. graft
B. allograft
89. The collagen found in the gingival: C. Alloplast

A. Type 1 94. The alveolar bone proper usually consist

B. biochemically similar to the of:
collagen found elsewhere
C. accounts for 90% of the gingival A. woven bone
protein B. lamellar bone only
D. has turn over rate as rapid as in C. bundle bone only
the PDL D. bundle bone and lamellar bone.

90. The purposes of periodontal dressings 95. . Which of the following regarding acute
(packs) include all of the following Except: apical periodontitis is/are accurate?

A.improve patient comfort A. It is limited to the periodontal

B. prevent mechanical injury to ligament (histologically).
healing tissues B. It is detectable radiographically.
C. Maintain the sutured position of C. It may heal if induced by an
the flaps infectious agent.
D. Stop persistent bleeding D. All of the above statements are
accurate.
91. In assessing the severity or extent of
periodontitis in epidemiologic studies of a 96. Gingiva which is free from significant
large population one would MOST likely use accumulation of inflammatory cells:
the _____ index.
A. Normal
A. Periodontal (PI) B. clinically healthy
B. PMA C. pristine
C. Gingival (GI) D. free gingival
D. Plaque (PL I)
E. Sulcus bleeding (SBI) 97. Which of these virulence factors of
A.Actinomycetemcomitans is responsible for
the killing of PMNs resulting in the
destruction of the periodontal disease?
11
 A. Leukotoxins
B. Endotoxins
C. Enzymes
D. Polyclonal
E. lymphocytes activation
98. Which of the following is/are necessary
for osseointegration to be successful:
A. Minimization of surgical
trauma
B. Primary stability of the
implant
C. Limited micromotion during
healing
D. All of the above
E. Uncontaminated implant
surfaces
99. Which of these is not a diagnostic
feature of occlusal trauma?
A. Widening of periodontal surface
B. Loss of alveolar bone
C. Periodontal pocket formation
D. Increased in tooth mobility
100. Which of the following is not a
“principal” collagenous fiber group of the
periodontal ligament?
A. Apical
B. horizontal
C. Oblique
D. Gingivodental
E. none
ENDO-PERIO (4 TH
TAKE) 9-16-2021
1. A radicular cyst is always associated with a. Vital
tooth or teeth (rudman’s) b. Non vital tooth or teeth
c. Deep cavity d. Pericoronal infection e. None of
the above
2. A good master cone will have a snug fit at the
apical third by: A. minimum of 4mm B. 5mm C. 0.5
to 1mm D. no specific length E. 2 mm.
12
3.Which of the following should be in first in the
sequence of treatment? a. removal of overhanging
restoration on the maxillary left first molar b. scaling
and root planning of all teeth, except the
mandibular left first molar c. endodontic therapy on
the maxillary left lateral incisor d. resolution of the
lesions associated with the mandibular left first
molar e. correction of marginal ridge discrepancy
between mandibular right second premolar and first
molar
4. A patient has a dull pain in tooth #10…. A
periapical radiograph shows a 3 mm radiolucency
at the apex of tooth #10. A. OPEN THE TOOTH
AND ESTABLISH DRAINAGE. B. prescribe an
analgesic for the patient C. extract the tooth D.
adjust the occlusion and observe E. prescribe
antibiotics for the patient
5. Which cells of the immune system possess
receptors for the complement component C3q by
which they participate in immediate inflammation?
a. Dermal dendrocytes (histiocytes) b. Peripheral
dendritic cells c. Natural killer (NK) cells d.
Monocytes
6. when two canals are detected in the same root ,
the most frequent and reliable method for
determining the apical termination of each is by
a. a tactile sensation
b. varying the vertical angulation to separate the
canals radiographically
c. varying the horizontal angulation to separate the
canals radiographically
d. all of the above
e. none of the above
7. More than one main canal occurs a significant
percent of the time in the a. Only maxillary first
molar distobuccal root and maxillary first molar
lingual root b. Maxillary first molar distobuccal root
c. Maxillary first molar lingual root d. All of the
above e. Mandibular central incisor (RUDMAN’S)
8. on a radiograph, the difference between a
healthy pulp and one which is necrotic is that the
____ pulp appears ___.
a. necrotic: darker
b. necrotic: lighter
c. healthy: darker
d. healthy :lighter
e. none of the above
9. removal of occlusal prematurity is indicated
a. before surgery for gross correction with fine
adjustment after surgery
b. immediate after inflammation appears
c. before the start of instrumentation
d. after tissue healing from surgery
10. The access preparation for root canal treatment
should be: a. as small as possible to conserve tooth
structure b. confined to the area where carious
destruction occurs c. extended to the full periphery
of the pulp chamber to remove the overhanging
enamel and dentin d. all of the these
11. A 30-year-old male complains of throbbing pain
in the upper right quadrant. The pain is
spontaneous and usually lasts several hours. All
test are within normal limits except radiographs,
which show a large carious lesion in the maxillary
first premolar. After evacuation of all caries, a 2mm
exposure is produced. The most probable
diagnosis is:
a. Hyperplastic pulpitis b. Irreversible pulpitis
(RUDMAN’S) c. Reversible pulpitis d. Necrosis
12. The most reliable factor that will help determine
if the canal is ready for obturation is: I. tooth is
asymptomatic and functional II. negative culture
test result III. no foul odor IV. all of the choice
13. Once the root canal is obturated, what usually
happens to the organisms that had previously
entered periapical tissues from the canal? A. They
persist and stimulate formulation of a granuloma. B.
They are eliminated by the natural defenses of the
body. C. They re-enter and reinfect the sterile canal
unless periapical surgery is performed. D. They will
have been eliminated by various medicaments that
were used in the root canal.
14. Which of the following teeth is most likely to
exhibit C-shaped morphology? A. Maxillary first
13
premolar B. Mandibular first premolar C. Maxillary
first molar D. Mandibular first molar.
15. The action used for placing K-type file into a
canal should resemble: A. an up-and-down motion
B. a straight apical pressure C. complete rotation of
the instrument with pressure directed apically. D. a
clockwise-counterclockwise motion with pressure
directed apically
16. Which of the following is characteristic of
sensory fibers of the pulp? A. They can selectively
differentiate thermal stimuli B. They have special
neuronal endings that are specific for
proprioception C. They are non-selective to all
stimuli indicating only pain when the threshold has
been exceeded. D. None of the above.
17. Based on clinical and radiographic
examinations, which of the following teeth has the
POOREST long-term prognosis A. Maxillary left
canine B. Maxillary right second molar C.
Mandibular left second molar D. Maxillary right
second premolar E. Mandibular right second
premolar
18. The precursor of the dental pulp during tooth
formation is known as the: a) Golgi zone b) Dental
lamina c) Outer enamel epithelium d) Dental papilla
(RUDMAN’S) e) Hertwig’s sheath
19. EDTA stands for: a. ethylaminotetracycline acid
c. ethyldiaminotetracycline acid b.
ethyldiaminotetraacetic acid d. all of the choices
20. In cases involving conventional endodontics,
the most frequent cause of failure is a. Apical
overfilling of the canal b. Inadequate filling of
accessory canals c. External root resorption d. The
presence of coexistent periodontal lesion e.
Incomplete obliteration of the main canal
(rudman’s)
21. Which of the ff perforations has the poorest
prognosis? a. Perforation near the apex b.
Perforation into the furca c. Perforation at the CEJ
d. Peroration through the crown
22. Gutta-percha cones are BEST disinfected by
immersing them for 20 minutes in a. Eugenol b.
Xylol c. Eucalyptol d. Alcohol e. Quaternary
ammonium compounds (RUDMAN’S)
23. In the pulp myelinated nerves function to
transmit impulses interpreted as: 1. Pain 2. Cold 3.
Proprioception a) All of them b) 1 and 3 c) 2 and 3
d) 1 only e) 1 and 2
24. Most useful in differentiating between an acute
apical abscess and an acute periodontal abscess is
a. Percussion test b. Anesthetic test c. Radiographs
d. Palpation e. Pulp vitality test (rudman’s)
25. Based on clinical and radiographic
examinations, the MOST appropriate treatment for
the mandibular left first molar is: A. Hemisection of
e mesial root and subsequent restoration B. An
autogenous bone graft C. Hemisection of the distal
root and subsequent restoration D. None of the
above E. Extraction and subsequent replacement
with a suitable prosthesis
26. The term “odontalgia” means a. Toothache b.
more than the normal complement of teeth c. less
than normal complement of teeth d. removal of a
vital pulp e. pulp atrophy
27. Histologically, the normal dental pulp most
closely resembles: A. nervous tissue D. loose
connective tissue B. endothelial tissue E. dense
connective tissue C. granulomatous tissue
28. Which of the following are indications for
surgical endodontic intervention? 13. a non-
negotiable canal with periapical pathosis 14. a
sinus tract that persists after repeated treatment 15.
periapical pathosis in a tooth with a post and core
retained crown. A. 1 & 2 B. 1 & 3 C. 2 & 3 D. 1,2 &
3 E. 3 only
29. Metallic salts are included in root canal sealers
to make the sealers: A. set hard D. antibacterial B.
radiopaque E. set more rapidly C. better tolerated
by periapical tissues
14
30. Aging of the pulp is evidenced by an increase
in: A. Vascularity B. fibrous elements C.cellular
elements D. pulp stones
31. In pulps undergoing repair, odontoblasts may
be derived from a. Histiocytes b. Macrophages c.
Plasma cells d. Undifferentiated mesenchymal cells
e. All of the above
32. The ___ has emerged as a unique immune cell
that could be activated by many non-immune
processes, including acute stress and could
participate in a variety of inflammatory diseases in
the nervous system, skin, joints, as well as
cardiopulmonary, intestinal and urinary systems. a.
Mast cell b. Epithelioid cell c. Eosinophil d.
Neutrophil
33. .Initially the first group of cells to arrive at the
site of injury are neutrophils. Later, ___ become
more numerous. In certain parasitic infections, ___
predominate. In viral infection ___ rather than
neutrophils usually predominate. a. Macrophages,
lymphocytes, basophils b. Macrophages,
eosinophils, lymphocytes c. Lymphocytes,
macrophages, eosinophils d. Plasma cells,
basophils, eosinophils
34. During a stepback enlargement of the canal
space, one reason for recapitulation after each
increase in instrument size to: a) Clean the apical
segment of dentin fillings that are not removed by
irrigation b) Maintain coronal curvature of the canal
c) Create a coronal funnel to facilitate filling with
gutta-percha d) Maintain the apical stop for filling
with gutta-percha
35. Appropriate time for obturation is: A. when the
canal is free from hemorrhage B. when the tooth is
symptomatic C. when the canal has eased to exude
tissue fluid D. before post cementation
36. Sodium hypochlorite may be used effectively
as: 1. an antimicrobial agent 2. a tissue solvent 3. a
chelating agent 4. an anodyne dressing A. 1, 2 & 3
B. 1 & 2 C. 2, 3 & 4 D. 2 & 3 E. 1 & 3
37. Which of the ff is the MOST difficult pulpal or
periapical pathosis to diagnose a) Chronic pulpitis
(RUDMAN’S) b) Chronic suppurtaive apical
periodontitis c) Necrotic pulp d) Acute apical
abscess e) Internal resorption
38. Autoclaving instruments depend on: II A
TEMPERATURE OF 248F (120 C) FOR 15
MINUTES AND III DIRECT CONTACT BETWEEN
SATURATED STEAM AND ITEMS TO BE
STERILIZED
39. The efferent nerves found in the dental pulp are
a. Somatic motor fibers b. Sympathetic
postganglionic fibers (RUDMAN’S) c. Epicritic fibers
d. Parasympathetic postganglionic fibers e. Both
somatic motor and autonomic postganglionic fibers
40. A patient complains of thermal sensitivity in her
front teeth. Pulp tests indicate a vital tooth, but the
radiograph shows a radiolucency in the middle of
the root of the maxillary left central incisor. The
most probable diagnosis and treatment are a.
Internal resorption – check vitality and take a
radiograph in 6-12 months b. Questionable
diagnosis – place a root canal filling and perform
surgery to repair the defect c. Questionable
diagnosis – observe and take a radiograph in 6-12
months d. Internal resorption – extract the tooth e.
Internal resorption – institute root canal therapy
(RUDMAN’S)
41. The endodontic cavity preparation for anterior
teeth is ALWAYS made on the a) Labial b) Lingual
(rudman’s) c) Incisal d) Buccal
42. Pulpal inflammation is most commonly caused
by: a. Bacteria b. traumatic occlusion c. accidental
trauma d. irritants in dental materials e. cavity
preparation
43. A patient complains of intermittent and
spontaneous pain on a tooth that was previously
pulp capped. Radiographs disclose no periapical
pathology. The tooth is not sensitive to percussion.
Both cold and heat stimulate a severe and lasting
pain. The most probable diagnosis is: A. reversible
pulpitis. B. Irreversible pulpitis C. Cracked tooth
15
syndrome D. Acute apical periodontitis E. Chronic
apical periodontitis
44. With a mechanically exposed pulp, the BEST
prognosis is offered by: A. Direct pulp cap B.
Indirect pulp cap C. Resection D. Pulpotomy E.
Pulpectomy and root canal obturation
45. Defense cells of the pulp include: a. Kupfer’s
cell b. Fibroblasts c. Polycytes d. All of the above e.
Histiocytes (RUDMAN’S)
46. When root canal instruments (files and
reamers)are sterilized in a glass bead sterilzer are
450֯f, they should be placed in the sterilizer for a) 2
secs b) 10 secs (RUDMAN’S) c) 20 secs d) 30 secs
e) 5 secs
47. The spreader reach is : a. 2mm short of the
working length b. Refers to the force exerted by the
spreader during compaction c. The depth the
spreader has penetrated during compaction d. All
of them
48. Which of the following is characteristic of
sensory fibers of the pulp? a. They can selectively
differentiate thermal stimuli b. They have special
neuronal endings that are specific for
proprioception c. They are non-selective to all
stimuli indicating only pain when the threshold has
been exceeded. (RUDMAN’S) d. None of the
above.
49. Direct pulp capping is recommended for
primary teeth which of the ff? a) All of these b)
Carious exposure c) Mechanical exposures d)
Calcification in the pulp chamber
50. . Blood at the tip of the paper point removes
from the root canal indicates: a) Possible
incomplete irrigation b) Possible hematoma c)
Possible incomplete instrumentation d) Possible
root perforation
51. The calcified bodies sometimes found in the
periodontal ligament are best described as which of
the following? A. Cementicles B. bone C. Denticles
D. enamel pearls E. mineralized interstitial tissue.
52. Which of the following statements best describe
retrograde periodontitis? A. Inflammation from the
periodontal sulcus migrates apically, causing pulp
inflammation and eventually pulp necrosis. B. Pulp
necrosis occurs, and the toxic irritants cause
inflammation that migrates to the gingival margin,
creating a periodontal pocket. C. Irritants gain
access to the periodontal tissues at the site of a
vertical-root fracture producing tissue destruction
that mimics periodontitis. D. Pulp necrosis results in
the formation of an apical ,radioluscent lesion
characterized by the loss of the apical lamina dura.
53. Radiopaque irregularities associated with the
roots of mandibular central incisors MOST likely
represents a) Hyperplastic cementum b) Root
caries c) A cementoma (periapical cemental
dysplasia) d) Subgingival calculus e) Sugingival
pellicle
54. The main cells involved in chronic infection are
lymphocytes and: a) Neutrophils b) Plasma cells c)
Macrophages d) Mast cells
55. In assessing the severity or extent of
periodontitis in epidemiologic studies of a large
population one would MOST likely use the
___index a) PMA b) Gingival (GI) c) Plaque (Pl.I) d)
Sulcus bleeding (SBI) e) Periodontal (PI)
(RUDMAN’S)
56. A variation of the laterally positioned flap is
called: a. A coronally positioned flap b. A modified
Widman flap c. A free gingival flap d. A double
papilla flap
57. Tobacco smoking is thought to be a
predisposing factor in which of the ff conditions a.
Juvenile perio b. Chediak-Higashi syndrome c.
Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis d. Cyclic
neutropenia (RUDMANS) e. Gingivitis –
periodontitis
58. he role of microbial plaque is MOST obscure in
which of the ff diseases: a) Necrotizing ulcerative
gingivitis b) Periodontitis c) Desquamative gingivitis
(RUDMAN’S) d) Juvenile gingivitis
16
59. The ___ has emerged as a unique immune cell
that could be activated by many non-immune
processes, including acute stress and could
participate in a variety of inflammatory diseases in
the nervous system, skin, joints, as well as
cardiopulmonary, intestinal and urinary systems. a.
Mast cell b. Epithelioid cell c. Eosinophil d.
Neutrophil
60. Which of the ffng is MOST likely to occur in the
facial aspect of mandibular right premolars
subsequent to a periodontal flap procedures that
includes these teeth? a. Loss of attachment b. Gain
attachment c. Decrease in probing depth from the
cementoenamel junctions d. Increase in probing
depth from the cementoenamel junctions e.
Improvement in crown-root ratio
61. All corners of a periodontal flap should be: A.
No answer text provided B. It doesn’t matter
whether the corners of a periodontal flap are sharp
or rounded C. rounded D. Sharp
62. Risk factors for gingivitis, except a. plaque b.
hormones c. drugs d. occlusal trauma
63. Osseointegration can fail due to: A.
Micromotion during healing B. All of the above C.
Excessive cantilevering of the prosthesis D.
Occlusal overload
64. In a clinically healthy periodontium, the
microbial flora is largely composed of a. Gram
negative obligate microorganisms b. Gram negative
facultative microorganisms c. Gram positive
obligate microorganisms d. Gram positive
facultative microorganisms
65. “Site development” for implants include all of
the ff techniques except: a) Orthodontic tooth
movement b) Guided tissue regeneration c) Socket
grafting d) Bone grafting with cow bone e)
Bisphosphate supplementation for bone density
66. Acts as messenger molecules transmitting
signals to other cells: A. cytokines C. interleukins B.
LipoPolySaccharide D. LipoTeichoicAcid e.
MatrixMetalloproteinase
67. Which cells of the immune system possess
receptors for the complement component C3q by
which they participate in immediate inflammation?
a. Dermal dendrocytes (histiocytes) b. Peripheral
dendritic cells c. Natural killer (NK) cells d.
Monocytes
68. Which of the following organisms is least likely
to be found among normal anaerobic flora of the
gingival sulcus? A. Treponema C. Actinobacillus B.
Bacteroides D. Fusobacterium E. Mycobacteria
69. Localized aggressive periodontitis is confined in
a. incisor and canine area b. premolars c. first
molar and incisor d. molar area
70. Correction of a marked prematurity on a
periodontally involved tooth results in a clinically
observable reduction in a. Periodontal pocket depth
b. Facial clefts c. Gingival inflammation d. Mobility
RUDMANS e. All of the above
71. Deep periodontal pockets are often treated by
access flap. Successful cases result in reduction of
pocket depth, even if there is no change in the
position of gingival margins. In these cases, the
reduced pocket depth mostly likely results from a)
Formation of new collagen fibers that attach the
gingiva to root surface b) Formation of a long,
junctional epithelium (RUDMAN’S) c) Formation of
new bone, cement and periodontal ligament d)
Adequate dosage of the appropriate antibiotic e)
Keratinization of pocket epithelium
72. . If a patient is able to prevent plaque
accumulation of his teeth, how often is a
prophylaxis required? a) Never b) Every 3 months
c) Every 12 months d) Every 6 months e) Every 2
years
73. Blood vessels in interdental papillae
anastomose freely with: A. periodontal vessels only
C. both periodontal and interalveolar vessels B.
interalveolar vessels only D. none of these.
17
74. The purpose of periodontal dressings (packs)
include all of the ff except: a) Stop persistent
bleeding b) Improve patient comfort c) Maintain the
sutured position of the flaps d) Prevents
mechanical injury to healing tissues
75. Frequent brushing helps to prevent calculus
formation by a. Neutralizing local acidity b.
Removing Ca/P ions that attach to tooth surfaces c.
Removing food particles on teeth and interproximal
areas d. All of the above e. Breaking up the matrix
of plaque (RUDMAN’S
76. Which of the following species of streptococci is
usually not found in human dental plaque? A. S.
mutans B. S. sanguis C. S. pyogenes D. S.
salivarius E. S. mitior (S. mitis)
77. Which of the ff terms refers to reshaping the
bone without removing tooth supporting bone? a)
Positive architecture b) Osteoplasty c) Negative
architecture d) Ostectomy
78. . The most common osseous defects are: a.
One wall intrabony defects b. Two-wall intrabony
defects (osseous craters) c. Through-and-through
furcation defects d. Three-wall intrabony defects
79. All of the following are clinical signs of bruxism
except: a. TMJ symptoms b. Muscle soreness c.
Periodontal pocket formation d. wear facets on
teeth e. widened PDL space on radiograph
80. Circumpubertal onset a. Necrotizing ulcerative
periodontitis b. Chronic perio c. Necrotizing
ulcerative gingivitis d. Localized aggressive perio e.
Generalized aggressive perio
81. A 6 year old boy complains that his mouth has
hurt for four days. 3 days before the onset of local
symptoms he had palpable, tender, submandibular
lymph nodes and oral temperature of 101.2 oral
examination reveals generalized inflammation of
the attached gingiva alveolar mucosa, loose white
debris covers free gingival margins and fills
interproximal embrasures. Discrete areas of
ulceration within rings of intense inflammations are
noted on the facial mucosa and palate interdental
papillae are intact. Salivary flow is heavy viscous.
There are no lesion on the extremities. The MOST
probable diagnosis is a. Leukemia b. Necrotizing
ulcerative gingivitis c. Candidiasis d. Acute herpetic
gingivostomatitis (RUDMAN’S) e. Erythema
multiforme
82. The bacterial flora in periodontal pockets
associated with aggressive periodontitis is
predominantly A. Negative aerobic cocci B. Positive
aerobic cocci C. Negative anaerobic rods D.
Positive anaerobic cocci E. Negative anaerobic
cocci
83. Leukotoxin is a product of which bacteria a. P.
gingivalis b. B.forsythus c A.
actinomycetemcomitans d. P. intermedia
84. A soft tissue graft that is rotated or otherwise
repositioned to correct an adjacent defect is called
a a. Connective tissue graft b. Free gingival graft c.
Pedicle graft d. Frenectomy
85. Daily cleaning of a root surface by the patient
has been shown to
A. stimulate the epithelial attachment B.. corrode
the enamel C. cause root resorption D. allow
remineralization of root surface E. Cause root
sensitivity
86. Apical migration of the epithelial attachment
with corresponding recession of the marginal
gingival results in A. a shallow sulcus C. infrabony
pocket formation B. gingival pocket formation D.
periodontal pocket formation
87. Which of the following regarding chronic, apical
periodontitis is/are accurate? A. It is a neutrophil-
dominated lesion encapsulated in a collagenous
connective tissue. B. It may contain epithelial
arcardes or rings. C. It represents a continuous,
slow process that is asymptomatic. D. It has a
predominance of B-cells over T-cells
88. Microorganisms that colonize periodontal
abscess have been reported to be primarily: A.
Gram-positive anaerobic cocci B. Gram-negative
18
anaerobic rods C. Gram-positive aerobic cocci D.
Gram-negative aerobic rod
89. Normal alveolar crest on bite-wing radiographs
is usually
A. 1-2mm apical to the cementoenamel junction B.
not visible C. 5-6mm apical to the cementoenamel
junction D. at the cementoenamel junction E. 3-
4mm apical to the cementoenamel junction
90. Which of the following is/are necessary for
osseointegration to be successful: A. Limited
micromotion during healing B. Minimization of
surgical trauma C. Primary stability of the implant
D. All of the above E. Uncontaminated implant
surface
91. Which of the following would you consider in
the treatment plan of a patient with NUG
(Necrotizing Ulceration Gingivitis)? A. Radiograph
B. Case history and clinical experiences. C. Oral
prophylaxis & sublingual curettage and root planing
D. All of the above
92. What is guided tissue regeneration? a.
Placement of an autograph to treat a bony defect b.
Placement of non resorbable or resorbable
membranes and barriers over a bony defect c. A
free gingival graft used to increase the amount of
attached gingiva d. A soft tissue graft used to
correct mucogingival junction involvement
93. Prevotella intermedia was formerly known as: a.
Bacteroides gingivalis b. Bacteriodes
melaninogenicus c. Bacteroides intermedius d.
Wolinella intermedius
94. The main cells involved in chronic infection are
lymphocytes and: a. Neutrophils b. Mast cells c.
Plasma cells d. Macrophages
95. Loss of periodontal attachment is determined
by measuring the distance between the: A. gingival
margin and the CEJ B. gingival margin and the
bottom of the periodontal pocket C. CEJ and the
bottom of the periodontal pocket D. Gingival margin
and the most coronal portion of the connective
tissue attachment

96. The purpose of periodontal dressings (packs)

include all of the ff except: a) Stop persistent
bleeding b) Improve patient comfort c) Maintain the
sutured position of the flaps d) Prevents
mechanical injury to healing tissue

97. In recurrent necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis,

exacerbations and remissions which occur are
based to a significant extent upon a. The amount of
suppuration present b. Stressful episodes c.
Excessive smoking d. An increase in the types of
causative organisms

98. Initially the first group to arrive at the site of

injury are neutrophils. Later, ____ become more
numerous. In certain parasitic infections, ___
predominate. In viral infection ____ rather than
neutrophils usually predominate a) Macrophage,
eosinophils, lymphocytes b) Plasma cells,
basophils, eosinophils c) Macrophage, lymphocyte,
basophils d) Lymphocytes, macrophage,
eosinophils

99. Curettage refers to: a. Removal of calcified

deposits from the gingival sulcus and /or
periodontal pocket b. Removal of dental plaque
from the coronal surfaces of teeth c. Scaling and/or
planning of the root surface d. Soft tissue
debridement of the gingival wall pf periodontal
socket

100. The main cells involved in chronic infection are

lymphocytes and: a) Neutrophils b) Plasma cells c)
Macrophages d) Mast cells

19