1350 Questions in Est Answer Key

1 1300 QUESTIONS IN EST
CONTENTS
BLAKE MCQ – 105
NEETS CH 11 – 25
FOROUZAN
CH 1– 31
CH 2– 48
CH 3– 34
CH 4– 48
CH 5- 34
CH 6- 25
CH 7- 28
CH 8- 30
CH 9- 31
CH 10- 34
CH 11- 46
CH 12- 38
CH 13- 42
CH 14- 41
CH 15- 38
CH 16- 38
CH 17- 39
CH 18- 34
CH 19- 54
CH 20- 22
CH 21- 34
CH 22- 67
CH 23- 77
CH 24- 45
CH 25- 27
CH 26- 53
CH 27- 30
CH 28- 32
CH 29- 34
CH 30- 31
CH 31- 29
CH 32- 34
TOTAL: 1359 QUESTIONS
PREPARED BY: ENGR. PAOLO STEVEN DM POLINTAN 🐧 1

BLAKE MCQ (105 ITEMS) a. loop gain equal to unity

b. phase shift around loop equal to 0 degrees
c. both a and b, but at just one frequency *
1. The baseband bandwidth for a voice-grade (telephone) d. none of the above
signal is:
a. approximately 3 kHz * 11. If two signals, Va at) and Vb bt), are fed
b. at least 5 kHz to a mixer, the output:
c. 20 Hz to 15,000 Hz a b a– b *
d. none of the above a b b a
a b)/2
2. Distortion is caused by: d. none of the above
a. creation of harmonics of baseband frequencies
b. baseband frequencies "mixing" with each other 12. In a balanced mixer, the output:
c. shift in phase relationships between baseband a. contains equal (balanced) amounts of all input
frequencies frequencies
d. all of the above * b. contains the input frequencies
c. does not contain the input frequencies *
3. A complete communication system must include: d. is a linear mixture of the input signals
a. a transmitter and receiver
b. a transmitter, a receiver, and a channel * 13. A "frequency synthesizer" is:
c. a transmitter, a receiver, and a spectrum analyzer a. a VCO phase-locked to a reference frequency *
d. a multiplexer, a demultiplexer, and a channel b. a VFO with selectable crystals to change frequency
c. a fixed-frequency RF generator
4. The bandwidth required for a modulated carrier depends d. same as a mixer
on:
a. the carrier frequency 14. The "envelope" of an AM signal is due to:
b. the signal-plus-noise to noise ratio a. the baseband signal
c. the signal-to-noise ratio b. the amplitude signal *
d. the baseband frequency range * c. the carrier signal
d. none of the above
5. The power density of "flicker" noise is:
a. the same at all frequencies 15. If the audio Va at) modulates the carrier Vc
b. greater at low frequencies * ct), then the modulation index, m, is:
c. greater at high frequencies a. m a c
d. the same as "white" noise b. m = (Va / Vc)2
c. m = Va / Vc *
6. Signal-to-Noise ratio is calculated as: d. m = Va a
a. signal voltage divided by noise voltage
b. signal power divided by noise power * 16. The equation for full-carrier AM is:
c. first add the signal power to the noise power, then divide a. v(t) = (Ec + Em ct)
by noise power b. v(t) = (Ec Em mt ct)
d. none of the above c. v(t) = (Ec + Em mt ct)
d. v(t) = (Ec + Em mt ct) *
7. Noise Figure is a measure of:
a. how much noise is in a communications system 17. The peak voltage of an AM signal goes from Emax to
b. how much noise is in the channel Emin. The modulation index, m, is:
c. how much noise an amplifier adds to a signal * a. m = Emin / Emax
d. signal-to-noise ratio in dB b. m = (Emax – Emin) / (Emax + Emin) *
c. m = Emax / Emin
8. Neutralization cancels unwanted feedback by: d. m = (Emax + Emin) / (Emax – Emin)
a. adding feedback out of phase with the unwanted feedback
* 18. As compared to plain AM, SSB AM:
b. bypassing the feedback to the "neutral" or ground plane a. is more efficient
c. decoupling it b. requires a more complex demodulator circuit
d. none of the above c. requires less bandwidth
d. all of the above *
9. For a "frequency multiplier" to work, it requires:
a. a nonlinear circuit * 19. Music on AM radio stations is "low-fidelity" because:
b. a linear amplifier a. AM is susceptible to noise
c. a signal containing harmonics b. commercial AM stations use low power
d. an input signal that is an integer multiple of the desired c. commercial AM stations have a narrow bandwidth *
frequency d. all of the above
10. A sinusoidal oscillation from an amplifier requires: 20. The FM modulation index:

a. increases with both deviation and modulation frequency b. varies the phase of the carrier oscillator *
b. increases with deviation and decreases with modulation c. both a and b
frequency * d. none of the above
c. decreases with deviation and increases with modulation
frequency 30. With mixing:
d. is equal to twice the deviation a. the carrier frequency can be raised
b. the carrier frequency can be lowered
21. One way to derive FM from PM is: c. the carrier frequency can be changed to any required
a. integrate the modulating signal before applying to the PM value *
oscillator * d. the deviation is altered
b. integrate the signal out of the PM oscillator
c. differentiate the modulating signal before applying to the 31. The two basic specifications for a receiver are:
PM oscillator a. the sensitivity and the selectivity *
d. differentiate the signal out of the PM oscillator b. the number of converters and the number of IFs
c. the spurious response and the tracking
22. The bandwidth of an FM signal is considered to be d. the signal and the noise
limited because:
a. there can only be a finite number of sidebands 32. "Skin effect" refers to:
b. it is equal to the frequency deviation a. the way radio signals travel across a flat surface
c. it is band-limited at the receiver b. the tissue-burning effect of a strong RF signal
d. the power in the outer sidebands is negligible * c. the increase of wire resistance with frequency *
23. Pre-emphasis is used to:
a. increase the signal to noise ratio for higher audio 33. The frequency of the local oscillator:
frequencies * a. is above the RF frequency
b. increase the signal to noise ratio for lower audio b. is below the RF frequency
frequencies c. can be either above of below the RF frequency *
c. increase the signal to noise ratio for all audio frequencies d. is fixed, typically at 455 kHz.
d. allow stereo audio to be carried by FM stations
34. The local oscillator and mixer are combined in one
24. A pre- device because:
a. the time it takes for the circuit to work a. it gives a greater reduction of spurious responses
b. the "dead time" before de-emphasis occurs b. it increases sensitivity
c. the time delay between the L and R channels c. it increases selectivity
d. the time-constant of the filter circuits used * d. it is cheaper *
25. The modulation index of an FM signal can be 35. Basically, sensitivity measures:
determined readily: a. the weakest signal that can be usefully received *
a. using measurements at points where J0 equals one b. the highest-frequency signal that can be usefully received
b. using measurements at points where J0 equals zero * c. the dynamic range of the audio amplifier
c. using measurements at points where the deviation equals d. none of the above
zero
d. only by using Bessel functions 36. Basically, selectivity measures:
a. the range of frequencies that the receiver can select
26. Baseband compression produces: b. with two signals close in frequency, the ability to receive
a. a smaller range of frequencies from low to high one and reject the other *
b. a smaller range of amplitude from soft to loud * c. how well adjacent frequencies are separated by the
c. a smaller number of signals demodulator
d. none of the above d. how well the adjacent frequencies are separated in the
mixer
27. In an AM transmitter with 100% modulation, the voltage
of the final RF stage will be: 37. Image frequencies occur when two signals:
a. approximately half the DC supply voltage a. are transmitted on the same frequency
b. approximately twice the DC supply voltage b. enter the mixer, with one being a reflected signal equal to
c. approximately four times the DC supply voltage * the IF frequency
d. none of the above c. enter the mixer, one below and one above the local
oscillator by a difference equal to the
28. A direct FM modulator: IF *
a. varies the frequency of the carrier oscillator * d. enter the mixer, and the difference between the two
b. integrates the modulating signal signals is equal to twice the IF
c. both a and b
d. none of the above 38. Image frequency problems would be reduced by:
a. having an IF amplifier with the proper shape factor
29. An indirect FM modulator: b. having a wideband RF amplifier after the mixer
a. requires a varactor in the carrier oscillator c. having a narrowband RF amplifier before the mixer *

d. none of the above d. maximize the useable bandwidth in digital transmission
39. Germanium diodes are used in AM detectors because: 49. Manchester coding:
a. they are faster than silicon diodes a. is a biphase code
b. they are cheaper than silicon diodes b. has a level transition in the middle of every bit period
c. they minimize distortion from nonlinearity * c. provides strong timing information
d. all of the above d. all of the above *
40. To demodulate both SSB and DSBSC, you need to: 50. A vocoder implements compression by:
a. use a Foster-Seeley discriminator a. constructing a model of the transmission medium
b. reinject the carrier * b. constructing a model of the human vocal system *
c. use double conversion c. finding redundancies in the digitized data
d. use one diode for SSB and two diodes for DSBSC d. using lossless techniques
41. The function of AFC is: 51. Call blocking:

a. maintain a constant IF frequency a. cannot occur in the public telephone network
b. match the local oscillator to the received signal * b. occurs on the local loop when there is an electrical power
c. lock the discriminator to the IF frequency failure
d. none of the above c. occurs only on long-distance cables
d. occurs when the central office capacity is exceeded *
42. The main function of the AGC is to:
a. keep the gain of the receiver constant 52. Loading coils were used to:
b. keep the gain of the IF amplifiers constant a. increase the speed of the local loop for digital data
c. keep the input to the detector at a constant amplitude * b. reduce the attenuation of voice signals *
d. all of the above c. reduce crosstalk
d. provide C-type conditioning to a local loop
43. SINAD stands for:
a. Sinusoidal Amplitude Distortion 53. ASCII stands for:
b. Signal and Noise Amplitude Distortion a. American Standard Character-set 2
c. Signal-plus-Noise-to-Noise Ratio b. American Standard Code for Information Interchange *
d. Signal-plus-Noise and Distortion-to-Noise and Distortion c. American Standard Code 2
Ratio * d. Alphanumeric Standard Code for Information Interchange
44. The Shannon Limit is given by: 54. In asynchronous transmission, the transmitter and
a. I = ktB receiver are:
b. C = B log2(1 + S/N) * a. frame-by-frame synchronized using the data bits
c. C = 2B log2M b. frame-by-frame synchronized using a common clock
d. SR = 2fmax c. frame-by-frame synchronized using the start and stop bits
*
45. Which is true about aliasing and foldover distortion? d. not synchronized at all, hence the name "asynchronous"
a. They are two types of sampling error.
b. You can have one or the other, but not both. 55. In synchronous transmission, the frames are:
c. Aliasing is a technique to prevent foldover distortion. a. about the same length as ten asynchronous frames
d. They are the same thing. * b. much longer than asynchronous frames *
c. 128 bytes long
46. Quantizing noise (quantization noise): d. 1024 bytes long
a. decreases as the sample rate increases
b. decreases as the sample rate decreases 56. Synchronous transmission is used because:
c. decreases as the bits per sample increases * a. no start and stop bits means higher efficiency *
d. decreases as the bits per sample decreases b. it is cheaper than asynchronous since no UARTS are
required
47. The dynamic range of a system is the ratio of: c. it is easier to implement than asynchronous
a. the strongest transmittable signal to the weakest d. all of the above
discernible signal *
b. the maximum rate of conversion to the minimum rate of 57. To maintain synchronization in synchronous
conversion transmission:
c. the maximum bits per sample to the minimum bits per a. long strings of 1s and 0s must not be allowed *
sample b. transmission must stop periodically for resynchronization
d. none of the above c. the clock circuits must be precisely adjusted
d. the channel must be noise-free
48. Companding is used to:
a. compress the range of base-band frequencies 58. Huffman codes:
b. reduce dynamic range at higher bit-rates a. allow errors to be detected but not corrected
c. preserve dynamic range while keeping bit-rate low * b. allow errors to be detected and corrected
c. allow alphanumeric data to be corrected

d. allow alphanumeric data to be compressed * b. prevent multiple users from looking at a document
simultaneously
59. Dumb terminals are still used: c. prevent one user from reading a record that another user
a. in token-passing networks is writing to *
b. in networks requiring central monitoring * d. none of the above
c. in networks that cannot provide central monitoring
d. none of the above 69. A bridge:
a. separates a network into "collision domains"
60. In a circuit-switched network: b. looks at the address of each packet
a. communication is half-duplex only c. operate at the data-link level
b. each channel carries only one data stream * d. all of the above *
c. connection is usually done using a bus topology
d. all of the above 70. The "lifetime" of a packet in an IP network:
a. is essentially forever
61. The word "Base" in 10BaseT means: b. depends on elapsed time since transmission
a. the cable carries baseband signals * c. depends on number of "hops" between nodes *
b. the cable has a base speed of 10 Mbps d. is approximately 200 milliseconds
c. it can be used as the base for a backbone cable system
d. none of the above 71. FTP is used to:
a. transfer files between a server on the network and a user
62. The reason a CSMA/CD network has a minimum length *
for packets is: b. test files to see if their data has been "corrupted"
a. to increase the data rate c. transport packets at maximum speed through the network
b. to prevent packets from reaching all other nodes during d. none of the above
transmission
c. to make sure all other nodes hear a collision in progress * 72. A DNS:
d. all of the above a. has become obsolete on the Internet
b. translates words to numbers *
63. The reason a CSMA/CD network has a maximum length c. stores all domain addresses
for cables is: d. describes the Internet address-naming procedure
a. to increase the data rate
b. to prevent packets from reaching all other nodes during 73. In the equation C = 2Blog2M, M is the:
transmission a. margin of noise
c. to make sure all other nodes hear a collision in progress * b. number of possible states per symbol *
d. all of the above c. modulation index
d. maximum number of symbols per second
64. A hub:
a. sends incoming packets out to all other terminals 74. An "eye pattern" shows a good channel when:
connected to it * a. the eye is maximally open *
b. sends incoming packets out to specific ports b. the eye is half open
c. cannot be used in an Ethernet-type network c. the eye is maximally closed
d. are more common in token-passing networks d. the eye alternately opens and closes
65. A switch: 75. To reduce the need for lin

a. sends incoming packets out to all other terminals a. angles of 0, 90, 180, and 270 degrees
connected to it
b. sends incoming packets out to specific ports * c. angles of 45, 135, 225, and 315 degrees *
c. cannot be used in an Ethernet-type network d. double phase-shift angles
d. are more common in token-passing networks
76. For QAM, a "constellation diagram" shows:
66. An advantage of using a switch instead of a hub is: a. location of symbols in "symbol space"
a. it is cheaper when used in large networks b. effects of noise on symbols
b. it is faster when used in large networks c. separation of symbols in "symbol space"
c. it reduces the number of collisions in large networks * d. all of the above *
d. all of the above
77. High-speed modems equalize the line to compensate
67. Broadband LANs: for:
a. modulate the data onto a carrier a. noise and interference
b. use coaxial cables b. uneven phase and frequency response *
c. are provided by cable TV companies for Internet access c. low SNR
d. all of the above * d. inconsistent bit rates at either end of channel
68. Record locking is used to: 78. In a CATV system, CMTS stands for:
a. store records securely on a server a. Cable Modem Terminal Server *

b. Cable Modem Terminal System d. the decrease in energy per square meter due to
c. Cable Modem Transmission System absorption of the wavefront
d. Cable Modem Transmission Server
88. A "repeater" is used to:
79. TDMA is used instead of TDM when: a. send a message multiple times over a channel
a. all the signals come from the same source b. send a message over multiple channels at the same time
b. the signals come from different sources * c. extend the range of a radio communications system *
c. TDM is used in RF communications d. cancel the effects of fading
d. they mean the same thing
89. The real part of an antenna's input impedance is due to:
80. CDMA: a. the radiated signal *
a. cannot be used with frequency-hopping spread-spectrum b. the SWR
b. cannot be used with direct-sequence spread-spectrum c. the reflected signal
c. cannot be used on an RF channel d. all of the above
d. allows many transmitters to use a band simultaneously *
90. "Ground Effects" refers to the effects on an antenna's
81. An example of an unbalanced line is: radiation pattern caused by:
a. a coaxial cable * a. radio signals reflecting off the ground *
b. an open-wire-line cable b. buildings and other structures on the ground
c. 300-ohm twin-lead TV cable c. fading
d. all of the above d. faulty connection of the feed cable ground
82. The characteristic impedance of a cable depends on: 91. The characteristic impedance of a waveguide:
a. the resistance per foot of the wire used a. is fixed
b. the resistance per foot and the inductance per foot b. depends on the frequency it carries
c. the resistance per foot and the capacitance per foot c. depends on the longer dimension of its cross section
d. the inductance per foot and the capacitance per foot * d. both b and c *
83. A positive voltage pulse sent down a transmission line 92. The dominant mode of a waveguide depends on:
terminated in a short-circuit: a. the shape of the waveguide *
a. would reflect as a positive pulse b. the point of signal injection
b. would reflect as a negative pulse * c. the power level of the signal
c. would reflect as a positive pulse followed by a negative d. none of the above
pulse
d. would not reflect at all 93. The characteristic impedance of a waveguide:
a. is fixed
84. A positive voltage pulse sent down a transmission line b. depends on the frequency it carries
terminated with its characteristic impedance: c. depends on the longer dimension of its cross section
a. would reflect as a positive pulse d. both b and c *
b. would reflect as a negative pulse
c. would reflect as a positive pulse followed by a negative 94. An "isolator" is a device that:
pulse a. isolates frequencies in a waveguide
d. would not reflect at all * b. allows a signal to pass in one direction only *
c. separates signals among various ports
85. A positive voltage-pulse sent down a transmission line d. prevents microwaves from leaking out of a waveguide
terminated in an open-circuit:
a. would reflect as a positive pulse *
b. would reflect as a negative pulse 95. A "circulator" is a device that:
c. would reflect as a positive pulse followed by a negative a. rotates signal polarity in a waveguide
pulse b. allows a signal to pass in one direction only
d. would not reflect at all c. separates signals among various ports *
d. prevents microwaves from being "trapped" in a waveguide
86. EIRP stands for:
a. the E and I fields of the Radiated Power 96. The maximum effective range for pulsed radar:
b. the Effective Isotropic Radiated Power * a. increases with increasing repetition rate
c. the Effective Internal Reflected Power b. decreases with increasing pulse period
d. the Electric-field Intensity of the Radiated Power c. decreases with increasing repetition rate *
87. The "attenuation of free space" is due to:
a. losses in the characteristic impedance of free space 97. Satisfactory performance of an analog microwave
b. losses due to absorption in the upper atmosphere system is defined as:
c. the decrease in energy per square meter due to a. a carrier-to-noise ratio that exceeds a given value *
expansion of the wavefront * b. an ERP level that exceeds a given value
c. an energy-per-hertz level that exceeds a given value

d. none of the above 1. The kinetic energy of an electron is directly

proportional to what property?
98. Satisfactory performance of a digital microwave system a. Velocity *
requires a: b. Speed
a. low level of transmitted power c. Mass
b. high level of ERP d. Volume
c. good energy per bit per transmitted Watt ratio
d. good energy per bit per noise density ratio * 2. Which dielectric material has a much lower
dielectric loss than conventional insulating
99. LMDS stands for: materials and is used In waveguides?
a. Local Microwave Distribution System
a. Air *
b. Local Multipoint Distribution System *
b. Glass
c. Local Multichannel Distribution System
d. Low-power Microwave Distribution System c. Polyethylene
d. Polystyrene
100. When measured in lines, horizontal resolution:
a. is greater than vertical resolution 3. If the frequency of a signal is decreased so much
b. is about the same as vertical resolution * that ______ quarter-wavelengths are longer than
c. is less than vertical resolution the wide dimension of a waveguide, energy will no
d. horizontal resolution is not measured in lines longer pass through the waveguide.
a. One
100. IMSI stands for: b. Two *
a. Integrated Mobile Subscriber Identification c. Three
b. International Mobile Subscriber Identification * d. Four
c. Interim Mobile Subscriber Identification
d. Intermodulation System Interference 4. Compared to the velocity of propagation of waves
in air, what is the velocity of waves in waveguides?
101. In CDMA: a. Slower *
a. all frequencies are used in all cells * b. Faster
b. each cell uses half the available frequencies c. Equal
c. each cell is assigned a frequency by the base
d. Depends on the dielectric material
d. the frequency is selected by the mobile phone
5. The travel of energy down a waveguide compared
102. A Bluetooth "piconet" has:
a. 2 nodes to the travel of electromagnetic waves in free
b. 2 to 8 nodes * space is _______.
c. 2 to 4 nodes a. similar and identical
d. 2 to 16 nodes b. similar but not identical *
c. different
103. Fiber-optic cable cannot be used: d. incomparable
a. in an explosive environment
b. to connect a transmitter to an antenna * 6. In a waveguide, what is a frequency that would
c. to isolate a medical patient from a shock hazard cause angles of incidence and reflection to be zero
d. none of the above degrees?
a. Maximum usable frequency
104. The loss in single-mode fiber-optic cable due to a b. Optimum working frequency
connector is about: c. Critical frequency *
a. 0.02 dB d. Resonant frequency
b. 1 dB
c. 0.2 dB * 7. At what frequency compared to the cutoff
d. 3 dB frequency of a waveguide will the wavefronts be
reflected back and forth across the guide (setting
105. DWDM stands for: up standing waves) and no energy will be
a. Digital Wavelength-Division Modulation
conducted down the waveguide?
b. Dense Wavelength-Division Modulation
a. Equal to the cutoff frequency
c. Double Wavelength-Division Modulation
d. Dense Wavelength-Division Multiplexing * b. Above the cutoff frequency
c. Below the cutoff frequency *
d. Twice the cutoff frequency
8. The waveguide yields an electric field configuration

known as the half-sine electric distribution. This
NEETS MODULE 11 (25 ITEMS) configuration is known as:
a. Mode of operation *

b. Cutoff operation a. the impedance of a waveguide does not

c. Resonance match the impedance of space *
d. Total internal refrlection b. the impedance of a waveguide is equal to the
impedance of space
9. What is the term used when the peak H lines and c. the impedance of a waveguide is infinite
peak E lines occur at the same instant in time? d. the impedance of a waveguide is zero
a. Peak phase
b. Time phase * 16. A waveguide may also be terminated in a resistive
c. Wave phase load that is matched to the characteristic
d. Velocity phase impedance of the waveguide. The resistive load is
most often called a ______.
10. Of the possible modes of operation available for a a. Matching resistor
given waveguide, which has the lowest cutoff b. Terminating resistor
frequency? c. Reflective resistor
a. TM mode d. Dummy resistor *
b. TE mode
c. TEM mode 17. The size, shape, and dielectric material of a
d. Dominant mode * waveguide must be constant throughout its length
for energy to move from one end to the other
11. In microwave systems, what is known as a mode without reflections. What could be the effect in any
at which it is perpendicular to the length of the abrupt change in its size or shape?
waveguide (direction of energy travel) and part of a. Reflections only
the magnetic field is parallel to the length axis? b. Increase in efficiency
a. TM mode c. Reflections and a loss in overall efficiency *
b. TE mode * d. Improvement of signal
c. TEM mode
d. Dominant mode 18. Which is/are example/s of waveguide joints
I. PERMANENT
12. A mode where the entire magnetic field is in the II. SEMI-PERMANENT
transverse plane and has no portion parallel to the III. ROTATING JOINTS
length axis. IV. NATURAL
a. TM mode * a. I and ll
b. TE mode b. l, ll, lV
c. TEM mode c. I, II, III *
d. Dominant mode d. I, II, III, IV
13. In rectangular waveguides, as the probe of the 19. What is a device that provides a method of
probe coupler increases in diameter, the sampling energy from within a waveguide for
bandwidth: measurement or use in another circuit?
a. Increases * a. Cavity resonator
b. Decreases b. Hybrid junction
c. Does not change c. Directional coupler *
d. Is reduced to zero d. Bend
14. For the most efficient coupling to the waveguide: 20. In changing the frequency of a cavity, what is
a. the loop is inserted at one of several points accomplished by placing a nonmagnetic slug in the
where the magnetic field will be of greatest area of maximum H lines?
strength. * a. Inductive coupling *
b. the loop is inserted at one of several points b. Capacitive coupling
where the electric field will be of greatest c. Magnetic coupling
strength d. Electric coupling
c. the loop is inserted at one of several points
where the magnetic field will be of least 21. In changing the frequency of a cavity, an
strength adjustable slug or screw is placed in the area of
d. the loop is inserted at one of several points maximum E lines. The distance d represents the
where the electric field will be of least strength distance between two capacitor plates. As the slug
is moved in, the distance between the two plates
15. Electromagnetic energy is often passed through a becomes smaller and the capacitance increases.
waveguide to transfer the energy from a source The increase in capacitance causes a decrease in
into space. Which statement is TRUE? the resonant frequency. This is known as:
a. Inductive coupling

b. Capacitive coupling * A) Performance

c. Magnetic coupling B) Reliability *
d. Electric coupling C) Security
D) Feasibility
22. What device can be constructed to attenuate a
particular microwave frequency and allow all others 4. An unauthorized user is a network _______ issue.
to pass unaffected? A) Performance
a. Variable modulator B) Reliability
b. Ferrite Phase shifter C) Security *
c. Ferrite Isolator D) All the above
d. Ferrite attenuator *
5. Which topology requires a central controller or hub?
23. What device can be constructed to allow A) Mesh
microwave energy to pass in one direction but B) Star *
blocks energy in the other direction in a C) Bus
waveguide? D) Ring
a. Variable modulator
b. Ferrite Phase shifter 6. Which topology requires a multipoint connection?
c. Ferrite Isolator * A) Mesh
d. Ferrite attenuator B) Star
C) Bus *
24. When microwave energy is passed through a piece D) Ring
of ferrite in a magnetic field, another effect occurs.
If the frequency of the microwave energy is much 7. Communication between a computer and a keyboard
greater than the electron wobble frequency, the involves ______________ transmission.
plane of polarization of the wavefront is rotated. A) simplex *
This is known as: B) half-duplex
a. Lenz’s law C) full-duplex
b. Faraday rotation effect * D) automatic
c. Flywheel effect
d. Faraday’s Law 8. A television broadcast is an example of _______
transmission.
25. What travels down a waveguide by reflecting from A) simplex *
the side walls in a zigzag pattern? B) half-duplex
a. Light C) full-duplex
b. Wavefronts * D)automatic
c. Electric field
d. Magnetic field 9. A _______ connection provides a dedicated link between
two devices.
A) point-to-point *
FOROUZAN MCQ B) multipoint
C) primary
CHAPTER 1 (31 ITEMS) D) secondary
1. The _______ is the physical path over which a message 10. In a _______ connection, more than two devices can
travels. share a single link.
A) Protocol A) point-to-point
B) Medium * B) multipoint *
C) Signal C) primary
D) All the above D) secondary
2. The information to be communicated in a data 11. In _______ transmission, the channel capacity is shared
communications system is the by both communicating devices at all times.
_______. A) simplex
A) Medium B) half-duplex
B) Protocol C) full-duplex *
C) Message * D) half-simplex
D) Transmission
12. In the original ARPANET, _______ were directly
3. Frequency of failure and network recovery time after a connected together.
failure are measures of the _______ of a network. A) IMPs *

B) host computers 21. Data flow between two devices can occur in a _______
C) networks way.
D) routers A) simplex
B) half-duplex
13. This was the first network. C) full-duplex
A) CSNET D) all of the above *
B) NSFNET
C) ANSNET 22. In a ______ connection, two and only two devices are
D) ARPANET * connected by a dedicated link.
A) multipoint
14. Which organization has authority over interstate and B) point-to-point *
international commerce in the communications field? C) (a) and (b)
A) ITU-T D) none of the above
B) IEEE
C) FCC * 23. In a ________ connection, three or more devices share
D) ISOC a link.
A) multipoint *
15. _______ are special-interest groups that quickly test, B) point-to-point
evaluate, and standardize new technologies. C) (a) and (b)
A) Forums * D) none of the above
B) Regulatory agencies
C) Standards organizations 24. ______ refers to the physical or logical arrangement of a
D) All of the above network.
A) Data flow
16. Which agency developed standards for physical B) Mode of operation
connection interfaces and electronic signaling C) Topology *
specifications? D) None of the above
A) EIA *
B) ITU-T 25. Devices may be arranged in a _____ topology.
C) ANSI A) mesh
D) ISO B) ring
C) bus
17. _______ is the protocol suite for the current Internet. D) all of the above *
A) TCP/IP *
B) NCP 26. A _______ is a data communication system within a
C) UNIX building, plant, or campus, or between nearby buildings.
D) ACM A) MAN
B) LAN *
18. _______ refers to the structure or format of the data, C) WAN
meaning the order in which they are presented. D) none of the above
A) Semantics *
B) Syntax 27. A ______ is a data communication system spanning
C) Timing states, countries, or the whole world.
D) All of the above A) MAN
B) LAN
19. ________ defines how a particular pattern to be C) WAN *
interpreted, and what action is to be taken based on that D) none of the above
interpretation.
A) Semantics 28. ________ is a collection of many separate networks.
B) Syntax * A) A WAN
C) Timing B) An internet *
D) None of the above C) a LAN
D) None of the above
20. _______ refers to two characteristics: when data should
be sent and how fast it can be sent. 29. There are ______________ Internet service providers.
A) Semantics A) local
B) Syntax B) regional
C) Timing * C) national and international
D) none of the above D) all of the above *

30. A ________ is a set of rules that governs data A) Network *

communication. B) Data link
A) forum C) Transport
B) protocol * D) None of the above
C) standard
D) none of the above 8. When data are transmitted from device A to device B, the
header from A's layer 4 is read by B's _______ layer.
31. ________ is an idea or concept that is a precursor to an A) Physical
Internet standard. B) Transport *
A) RCF C) Application
B) RFC * D) None of the above
C) ID
D) none of the above 9. The _______ layer changes bits into electromagnetic
signals.
CHAPTER 2 (48 ITEMS) A) Physical *
B) Data link
1. The Internet model consists of C) Transport
_______ layers. D) None of the above
A) Three
B) Five * 10. Which of the following is an application layer service?
C) Seven A) Remote log-in
D) Eight B) File transfer and access
C) Mail service
2. The process-to-process delivery of the entire message is D) All the above *
the responsibility of the _______ layer.
A) Network 11. Why was the OSI model developed?
B) Transport * A) Manufacturers disliked the TCP/IP protocol suite.
C) Application B) The rate of data transfer was increasing exponentially
D) Physical C) Standards were needed to allow any two systems to
communicate *
3. The _______ layer is the layer closest to the transmission D) None of the above
medium.
A) Physical * 12. The _______ model shows how the network functions of
B) Data link a computer ought to be organized.
C) Network A) CCITT
D) Transport B) OSI *
C) ISO
4. Mail services are available to network users through the D) ANSI
_______ layer.
A) Data link 13. The physical layer is concerned with the movement of
B) Physical _______ over the physical medium.
C) Transport A) programs
D) Application * B) dialogs
C) protocols
5. As the data packet moves from the upper to the lower D) bits *
layers, headers are
_______. 14. The OSI model consists of _______
A) Added * layers.
B) Removed A) three
C) Rearranged B) five
D) Modified C) seven *
D) eight
6. The _______ layer lies between the network layer and the
application layer. 15. In the OSI model, as a data packet moves from the lower
A) Physical to the upper layers, headers are _______.
B) Data link A) added
C) Transport * B) removed *
D) None of the above C) rearranged
D) modified
7. Layer 2 lies between the physical layer and the _______
layer.

16. In the OSI model, when data is transmitted from device D) none of the above
A to device B, the header from A's layer 5 is read by B's
_______ layer. 25. The_________ layer is responsible for the delivery of a
A) physical message from one process to another.
B) transport A) physical
C) session * B) transport *
D) presentation C) network
D) none of the above
17. In the OSI model, what is the main function of the
transport layer? 26. The Internetworking Protocol (IP) is a ________
A) node-to-node delivery protocol.
B) process-to-process message delivery * A) reliable
C) synchronization B) connection-oriented
D) updating and maintenance of routing Tables C) both a and b
D) none of the above *
18. In the OSI model, encryption and decryption are
functions of the ________ layer. 27. _______ is a process-to-process protocol that adds only
A) transport port addresses, checksum error control, and length
B) session information to the data from the upper layer.
C) presentation * A) TCP
D) application B) UDP *
C) IP
19. When a host on network A sends a message to a host D) none of the above
on network B, which address does the router look at?
A) port 28. __________ provides full transport layer services to
B) logical * applications.
C) physical A) TCP *
D) none of the above B) UDP
C) ARP
20. To deliver a message to the correct application program D)none of the above
running on a host, the _______ address must be consulted.
A) port * 29. The ________ address, also known as the link address,
B) IP is the address of a node as defined by its LAN or WAN.
C) physical A) port
D) none of the above B) physical *
C) logical
21. IPv6 has _______ -bit addresses. D) none of the above
A) 32
B) 64 30. Ethernet uses a ______ physical address that is
C) 128 * imprinted on the network interface card (NIC).
D) variable A) 32-bit
B) 64-bit
22. ICMPv6 includes _______. C) 6-byte *
A) IGMP D) none of the above
B) ARP
C) RARP 31. A port address in TCP/IP is ______ bits long.
D) a and b * A) 32
B) 48
23. The ______ layer is responsible for moving frames from C) 16 *
one hop (node) to the next. D) none of the above
A) physical
B) data link * 32. The ____ created a model called the Open Systems
C) transport Interconnection, which allows diverse systems to
D) none of the above communicate.
A) OSI
24. The ______ layer adds a header to the packet coming B) ISO *
from the upper layer that includes the logical addresses of C) IEEE
the sender and receiver. D) none of the above
A) physical
B) data link 33. The seven-layer _____ model provides guidelines for the
C) network * development of universally compatible networking protocols.

A) OSI * D) physical
B) ISO
C) IEEE 42. The _______ layer ensures interoperability between
D) none of the above communicating devices through transformation of data into a
mutually agreed upon format.
34. The physical, data link, and network layers are the A) transport
______ support layers. B) network
A) user C) data link
B) network * D) presentation *
C) both (a) and (b) 43. The _________ layer enables the users to access the
D) neither (a) nor (b) network.
A) transport
35. The session, presentation, and application layers are the B) application *
____ support layers. C) data link
A) user * D) physical
B) network
C) both (a) and (b) 44. TCP/IP is a ______ hierarchical protocol suite developed
D) neither (a) nor (b) ____ the OSI model.
A) seven-layer; before
36. The _______ layer links the network support layers and B) five-layer; before *
the user support layers. C) six-layer; before
A) transport * D) five-layer; after
B) network
C) data link 45. The TCP/IP _______ layer is equivalent to the combined
D) session session, presentation, and application layers of the OSI
model.
37. The _______ layer coordinates the functions required to A) application *
transmit a bit stream over a physical medium. B) network
A) transport C) data link
B) network D) physical
C) data link
D) physical * 46. The ________ address, also known as the link address,
is the address of a node as defined by its LAN or WAN.
38. The _______ layer is responsible for delivering data A) physical *
units from one station to the next without errors. B) IP
A) transport C) port
B) network D) specific
C) data link *
D) physical 47. The ____ address uniquely defines a host on the
Internet.
39. The ______ layer is responsible for the source-to- A) physical *
destination delivery of a packet across multiple network B) IP
links. C) port
A) transport D) specific
B) network *
C) data link 48. The_____ address identifies a process on a host.
D) physical A) physical
B) IP
40. The ________ layer is responsible for the process-to- C) port *
process delivery of the entire message. D) specific
A) transport *
B) network CHAPTER 3 (34 ITEMS)
C) data link 1. Before data can be transmitted, they must be transformed
D) physical to ________.
A) periodic signals
41. The ______ layer establishes, maintains, and B) electromagnetic signals *
synchronizes the interactions between communicating C) aperiodic signals
devices. D) low-frequency sine waves
A) transport
B) network 2. A periodic signal completes one cycle in 0.001 s. What is
C) session * the frequency?

A) 1 Hz 11. A signal is measured at two different points. The power

B) 100 Hz is P1 at the first point and P2 at the second point. The dB is
C) 1 KHz * 0. This means ________.
D) 1 MHz A) P2 is zero
B) P2 equals P1 *
3. In a frequency-domain plot, the horizontal axis measures C) P2 is much larger than P1
the ________. D) P2 is much smaller than P1
A) peak amplitude
B) frequency * 12. ________ is a type of transmission impairment in which
C) phase the signal loses strength due to the resistance of the
D) slope transmission medium.
A) Attenuation *
4. In a time-domain plot, the horizontal axis is a measure of B) Distortion
________. C) Noise
A) signal amplitude D) Decibel
B) frequency
C) phase 13. ________ is a type of transmission impairment in which
D) time * the signal loses strength due to the different propagation
speeds of each frequency that makes up the signal.
5. If the bandwidth of a signal is 5 KHz and the lowest A) Attenuation
frequency is 52 KHz, what is the highest frequency? B) Distortion *
A) 5 KHz C) Noise
B) 10 KHz D) Decibel
C) 47 KHz
D) 57 KHz * 14. ________ is a type of transmission impairment in which
an outside source such as crosstalk corrupts a signal.
6. What is the bandwidth of a signal that ranges from 1 MHz A) Attenuation
to 4 MHz? B) Distortion
A) 4 MHz C) Noise *
B) 1 KHz D) Decibel
C) 3 MHz *
D) none of the above 15. When propagation speed is multiplied by propagation
time, we get the ________.
7. As frequency increases, the period ________. A) throughput
A) decreases * B) wavelength of the signal
B) increases C) distortion factor
C) remains the same D) distance a signal or bit has traveled *
D) doubles
16. Data can be ________.
8. Given two sine waves A and B, if the frequency of A is A) analog
twice that of B, then the period of B is ________ that of A. B) digital
A) one-half C) (a) or (b) *
B) twice * D) none of the above
C) the same as
D) indeterminate from 17. _______ data are continuous and take continuous
values.
9. A sine wave is ________. A) analog *
A) periodic and continuous * B) digital
B) aperiodic and continuous C) (a) or (b)
C) periodic and discrete D) none of the above
D) aperiodic and discrete
18 _______ data have discrete states and take discrete
10. If the maximum amplitude of a sine wave is 2 V, the values.
minimum amplitude is ________ V. A) Analog
A) 2 B) Digital *
B) 1 C) (a) or (b)
C) -2 * D) None of the above
D) between -2 and 2
19. Signals can be ________.
A) analog
B) digital

C) either (a) or (b) * B) analog

D) neither (a) nor (b) C) either (a) or (b)
D) neither (a) nor (b)
20. _____ signals can have an infinite number of values in a
range. 29. Baseband transmission of a digital signal is possible only
A) Analog * if we have a ____ channel.
B) Digital A) low-pass *
C) (a) or (b) B) bandpass
D) None of the above C) low rate
D) high rate
21. _______ signals can have only a limited number of
values. 30. If the available channel is a ____ channel, we cannot
A) Analog send a digital signal directly to the channel.
B) Digital * A) low-pass
C) (a) or (b) B) bandpass *
D) None of the above C) low rate
D) high rate
22. Frequency and period are ______.
A) inverse of each other * 31. For a ______ channel, the Nyquist bit rate formula
B) proportional to each other defines the theoretical maximum bit rate.
C) the same A) noisy *
D) none of the above B) noiseless
C) bandpass
23. ________is the rate of change with respect to time. D) low-pass
A) Amplitude
B) Time 32. For a ______ channel, we need to use the Shannon
C) Frequency * capacity to find the maximum bit rate.
D) Voltage A) noisy *
B) noiseless
24. _______ describes the position of the waveform relative C) bandpass
to time 0. D) low-pass
A) Frequency
B) Phase * 33. _________ can impair a signal.
C) Amplitude A) Attenuation
D) Voltage B) Distortion
C) Noise
25. A sine wave in the ______ domain can be represented D) All of the above *
by one single spike in the _____ domain.
A) time; frequency * 34. The _________ product defines the number of bits that
B) frequency; time can fill the link.
C) time; phase A) bandwidth-period
D) phase; time B) frequency-amplitude
C) bandwidth-delay *
26. A _________ sine wave is not useful in data D) delay-amplitude
communications; we need to send a _______ signal.
A) composite; single-frequency CHAPTER 4 (48 ITEMS)
B) single-frequency; composite *
C) single-frequency; double-frequency 1. Unipolar, bipolar, and polar encoding are types of
D) none of the above _______ encoding.
A) line *
27. The _____ of a composite signal is the difference B) block
between the highest and the lowest frequencies contained in C) NRZ
that signal. D) Manchester
A) frequency
B) period 2. _______ encoding has a transition at the middle of each
C) bandwidth * bit.
D) amplitude A) RZ
B) Manchester
28. A(n)_________ signal is a composite analog signal with C) Differential Manchester
an infinite bandwidth. D) All the above *
A) digital *

3. _______ encoding has a transition at the beginning of 12. In _______ transmission, bits are transmitted over a
each 0 bit. single wire, one at a time.
A) RZ A) asynchronous serial
B) Manchester B) synchronous serial
C) Differential Manchester * C) parallel
D) All the above D) (a) and (b) *
4. PCM is an example of _______ conversion. 13. In _______ transmission, a start bit and a stop bit frame
A) digital-to-digital a character byte.
B) digital-to-analog A) asynchronous serial *
C) analog-to-analog B) synchronous serial
D) analog-to-digital * C) parallel
D) (a) and (b)
5. If the frequency spectrum of a signal has a bandwidth of
500 Hz with the highest frequency at 600 Hz, what should be 14. In asynchronous transmission, the gap time between
the sampling rate, according to the Nyquist theorem? bytes is _______.
A) 200 samples/s A) fixed
B) 500 samples/s B) variable *
C) 1000 samples/s C) a function of the data rate
D) 1200 samples/s * D) zero
6. The Nyquist theorem specifies the minimum sampling rate 15. ___________ conversion involves three techniques: line
to be_______. coding, block coding, and scrambling.
A) equal to the lowest frequency of a signal A) Analog-to-digital
B) equal to the highest frequency of a signal B) Digital-to-analog
C) twice the bandwidth of a signal C) Analog-to-analog
D) twice the highest frequency of a signal * D) Digital-to-digital *
7. Which of the following encoding methods does not 16. ________ is the process of converting digital data to a
provide for synchronization? digital signal.
A) NRZ-L * A) Block coding
B) RZ B) Line coding *
C) NRZ-I C) Scrambling
D) Manchester D) None of the above
8. Which encoding method uses alternating positive and
negative values for 1s? 17. _______ provides redundancy to ensure synchronization
A) NRZ-I and inherent error detection.
B) RZ A) Block coding *
C) Manchester B) Line coding
D) AMI * C) Scrambling
9. Which quantization level results in a more faithful
reproduction of the signal? 18. ________ is normally referred to as mB/nB coding; it
A) 2 replaces each m-bit group with an n-bit group.
B) 8 A) Block coding *
C) 16 B) Line coding
D) 32 * C) Scrambling
10. Block coding can help in _______ at the receiver.
A) Synchronization 19. ________ provides synchronization without increasing
B) Error detection the number of bits.
C) Attenuation A) Scrambling *
D) (a) and (b) * B) Line coding
C) Block coding
11. In _______ transmission, bits are transmitted D) None of the above
simultaneously, each across its own wire.
A) Asynchronous serial 20. Two common scrambling techniques are ________.
B) Synchronous serial A) NRZ and RZ
C) Parallel * B) AMI and NRZ
D) (a) and (b) C) B8ZS and HDB3 *
D) Manchester and differential Manchester

A) self-synchronizing *
21. The most common technique to change an analog signal B) self-modulated
to digital data is called __________. C) self-transmitted
A) PAL D) none of the above
B) PCM *
C) sampling 30. In decoding a digital signal, the receiver calculates a
D) none of the above running average of the received signal power, called the
_______.
22. The first step in PCM is ________. A) baseline *
A) quantization B) base
B) modulation C) line
C) sampling * D) none of the above
31. The ________ rate defines the number of data elements
23. There are three sampling methods: sent in 1s; the ______ rate is the number of signal elements
__________. sent in 1s.
A) quantized, sampled, and ideal A) data; signal *
B) ideal, sampled, and flat-top B) signal; data
C) ideal, natural, and flat-top * C) baud; bit
D) none of the above D) none of the above
24. ______ finds the value of the signal amplitude for each 32. The signal rate is sometimes called the ____ rate.
sample; ____ finds the change from the previous sample. A) baud *
A) DM; PCM B) bit
B) PCM; DM * C) signal
C) DM; CM D) none of the above
33. The data rate is sometimes called the ___ rate.
25. While there is (are) only _____ way(s) to send parallel A) baud
data, there is (are) three subclass(es) of serial transmission. B) bit *
A) one; two C) signal
B) two; three D) none of the above
C) one; three *
D) none of the above 34. In a _____ scheme, all the signal levels are on one side
of the time axis, either above or below.
26. In ______ transmission, we send 1 start bit (0) at the A) polar
beginning and 1 or more stop bits (1s) at the end of each B) bipolar
byte. C) unipolar *
A) synchronous D) all of the above
B) asynchronous *
C) isochronous 35. In ______ schemes, the voltages are on the both sides
D) none of the above of the time axis. For example, the voltage level for 0 can be
positive and the voltage level for 1 can be negative.
27. In _________ transmission, we send bits one after A) polar *
another without start or stop bits or gaps. It is the B) bipolar
responsibility of the receiver to group the bits. C) unipolar
A) synchronous * D) all of the above
B) asynchronous
C) isochronous 36. In _____, the level of the voltage determines the value of
D) none of the above the bit.
A) NRZ-I
28. The ________ mode provides synchronization for the B) NRZ-L *
entire stream of bits must. In other words, it guarantees that C) both (a) and (b)
the data arrive at a fixed rate. D) neither (a) nor (b)
A) synchronous
B) asynchronous 37. In ______, the change or lack of change in the level of
C) isochronous * the voltage determines the value of the bit.
D) none of the above A) NRZ-I *
B) NRZ-L
29. A _________ digital signal includes timing information in C) both (a) and (b)
the data being transmitted. D) neither (a) nor (b)

B) twice *
38. The idea of RZ and the idea of NRZL are combined into C) thrice
the ________ scheme. D) none of the above
A) Manchester *
B) differential Manchester 44. In _______encoding, we use three levels: positive, zero,
C) both (a) and (b) and negative.
D) neither (a) nor (b) A) unipolar
B) bipolar *
39. The idea of RZ and the idea of NRZI are combined into C) polar
the ________ scheme. D) none of the above
A) Manchester
B) differential Manchester * 45. The _____ scheme uses data patterns of size 2 and
C) both (a) and (b) encodes the 2-bit patterns as one signal element belonging
D) neither (a) nor (b) to a four-level signal.
A) 4B5B
40. In _______ encoding, the duration of the bit is divided B) 2B1Q *
into two halves. The voltage remains at one level during the C) MLT-3
first half and moves to the other level in the second half. The D) none of the above
transition at the middle of the bit provides synchronization.
A) Manchester 46. The ______ scheme uses three levels (+V, 0, and -V)
B) differential Manchester and three transition rules to move between the levels.
C) both (a) and (b) * A) 4B5B
D) neither (a) nor (b) B) 2B1Q
C) MLT-3 *
41. In ___________ there is always a transition at the D) none of the above
middle of the bit, but the bit values are determined at the
beginning of the bit. If the next bit is 0, there is a transition; if 47. ______ substitutes eight consecutive zeros with
the next bit is 1, there is none. 000VB0VB.
A) Manchester A) B4B8
B) differential Manchester * B) HDB3
C) both (a) and (b) C) B8ZS *
D) neither (a) nor (b) D) none of the above
42. In Manchester and differential Manchester encoding, the 48. ______ substitutes four consecutive zeros with 000V or
transition at the middle of the bit is used for __________. B00V
A) bit transfer A) B4B8
B) baud transfer B) HDB3 *
C) synchronization * C) B8ZSf
43. The minimum bandwidth of Manchester and differential

Manchester is ____ that of NRZ.
A) the same as
CHAPTER 5 (34 ITEMS) B) digital-to-analog
C) analog-to-analog *
1. ASK, PSK, FSK, and QAM are examples of ________ D) analog-to-digital
conversion.
A) digital-to-digital 3. In QAM, both ________ of a carrier frequency are varied.
B) digital-to-analog * A) frequency and amplitude
C) analog-to-analog B) phase and frequency
D) analog-to-digital C) amplitude and phase *
2. AM and FM are examples of ________ conversion.
A) digital-to-digital
4. If the baud rate is 400 for a QPSK signal, the bit rate is A) 300
________ bps. B) 400
A) 100 C) 600
B) 400 D) 1200 *
C) 800 *
D) 1600 6. If the bit rate for an FSK signal is 1200 bps, the baud rate
is ________.
5. If the bit rate for an ASK signal is 1200 bps, the baud rate A) 300
is ________. B) 400

C) 600 15. A constellation diagram shows us the __________ of a

D) 1200 * signal element, particularly when we are using two carriers
(one in-phase and one quadrature).
7. If the bit rate for a 16-QAM signal is 4000 bps, what is the A) amplitude and phase *
baud rate? B) amplitude and frequency
A) 300 C) frequency and phase
B) 400 D) none of the above
C) 1000 *
D) 1200 16. Quadrature amplitude modulation (QAM) is a
combination of ___________.
8. If the baud rate for a 64-QAM signal is 2000, what is the A) ASK and FSK
bit rate? B) ASK and PSK *
A) 300 C) PSK and FSK
C) 1000
D) 12000 * 17. ________ uses two carriers, one in-phase and the other
quadrature.
9. Given an AM radio signal with a bandwidth of 10 KHz and A) ASK
the highest-frequency component at 705 KHz, what is the B) PSK
frequency of the carrier signal? C) FSK
A) 700 KHz * D) QAM *
B) 705 KHz
C) 710 KHz 18. _________ conversion is the representation of analog
D) Cannot be determined from given information information by an analog signal.
A) Digital-to-analog
10. _______ conversion is the process of changing one of B) Analog-to-analog *
the characteristics of an analog signal based on the C) Analog-to-digital
information in the digital data. D) Digital-to-digital
A) Digital-to-analog *
B) Analog-to-analog 19. Analog-to-analog conversion is needed if the available
C) Analog-to-digital bandwidth is _______.
D) Digital-to-digital A) low-pass
B) band-pass *
11. Which of the following is not a digital-to-analog C) either (a) or (b)
conversion? D) neither (a) nor (b)
A) ASK
B) PSK 20. Which of the following is not an analog-to-analog
C) FSK conversion?
D) AM * A) AM
B) PM
12. In ________, the amplitude of the carrier signal is varied C) FM
to create signal elements. Both frequency and phase remain D) QAM *
constant.
A) ASK * 21. In _____ transmission, the carrier signal is modulated so
B) PSK that its amplitude varies with the changing amplitudes of the
C) FSK modulating signal.
D) QAM A) AM *
B) PM
13. In _________, the frequency of the carrier signal is C) FM
varied to represent data. Both peak amplitude and phase D) none of the above
remain constant.
A) ASK 22. In _____ transmission, the frequency of the carrier signal
B) PSK is modulated to follow the changing voltage level (amplitude)
C) FSK * of the modulating signal. The peak amplitude and phase of
D) QAM the carrier signal remain constant, but as the amplitude of
the information signal changes, the frequency of the carrier
14. In ________, the phase of the carrier is varied to changes correspondingly.
represent two or more different signal elements. Both peak A) AM
amplitude and frequency remain constant. B) PM
A) ASK C) FM *
B) PSK * D) none of the above
C) FSK
D) QAM 23. In _____ transmission, the phase of the carrier signal is
modulated to follow the changing voltage level (amplitude) of
the modulating signal.
A) AM

B) PM *
C) FM
24. In _______, the peak amplitude of one signal level is 0;

the other is the same as the amplitude of the carrier
frequency.
A) PSK
B) OOK *
C) FSK
25. How many carrier frequencies are used in BASK?

A) 2
B) 1 *
C) 0
26. How many carrier frequencies are used in BFSK?

A) 2 * A) FDM
B) 1 B) TDM
C) 0 C) WDM
D) none of the above D) (a) and (c) *
27. How many carrier frequencies are used in BPSK? 3. Which multiplexing technique transmits digital signals?
A) 2 A) FDM
B) 1 * B) TDM *
C) 0 C) WDM
D) none of the above D) None of the above
28. How many carrier frequencies are used in QPSK? 4. Which multiplexing technique shifts each signal to a
A) 2 * different carrier frequency?
B) 1 A) FDM
C) 0 B) TDM
D) none of the above C) Both (a) and (b) *
29. The constellation diagram of BASK has ______ dots.
A) 2 * 5. In synchronous TDM, for n signal sources of the same
B) 1 data rate, each frame contains _______ slots.
C) 0 A) n *
D) none of the above B) n + 1
C) n - 1
30. The constellation diagram of BPSK has ______ dots. D) 0 to n
A) 2 *
B) 1 6. In TDM, the transmission rate of the multiplexed path
C) 0 is usually _______ the sum of the transmission rates of
D) none of the above the signal sources.
A) greater than *
31. The constellation diagram of QPSK has ______ dots. B) less than
A) 2 C) equal to
B) 1 D) not related to
C) 4 *
D) none of the above 7. Which multiplexing technique involves signals
composed of light beams?
32. The constellation diagram of 16-QAM has ______ A) FDM
dots. B) TDM
A) 4 C) WDM *
B) 16 * D) none of the above
C) 8
D) none of the above 8. _________ utilization is the use of available bandwidth
to achieve specific goals.
33. The Federal Communications Commission (FCC) A) Frequency
allows ______kHz for each AM station. B) Bandwidth *
A) 5 C) Amplitude
B) 10 * D) None of the above
C) 20
D) none of the above 9. ________ can be achieved by using multiplexing;
______ can be achieved by using spreading.
34. The Federal Communications Commission (FCC) A) Efficiency; privacy and antijamming *
allows ______ kHz for each FM station. B) Privacy and antijamming; efficiency
A) 20 C) Privacy and efficiency; antijamming
B) 100 * D) Efficiency and antijamming; privacy
C) 200
D) none of the above 10. ________ is the set of techniques that allows the
simultaneous transmission of multiple signals across a
CHAPTER 6 (25 ITEMS) single data link.
A) Demodulating
1. The sharing of a medium and its link by two or more B) Multiplexing *
devices is called _______. C) Compressing
A) modulation D) None of the above
B) encoding
C) line discipline 11. In a multiplexed system, __ lines share the bandwidth
D) multiplexing * of ____ link.
A) 1; n
2.Which multiplexing technique transmits analog signals? B) 1; 1

C) n; 1 *
D) n; n 21. In ________ TDM, slots are dynamically allocated to
improve bandwidth efficiency.
12. The word ______ refers to the portion of a _______ A) synchronous
that carries a transmission. B) statistical *
A) channel; link * C) isochronous
B) link; channel D) none of the above
C) line; channel
D) line; link 22. In ________, we combine signals from different
sources to fit into a larger bandwidth.
13. ______ can be applied when the bandwidth of a link A) spread spectrum *
(in hertz) is greater than the combined bandwidths of the B) line coding
signals to be transmitted. C) block coding
A) TDM D) none of the above
B) FDM *
C) Both (a) or (b) 23. _______ is designed to be used in wireless
D) Neither (a) or (b) applications in which stations must be able to share the
medium without interception by an eavesdropper and
14. FSM is an _________technique. without being subject to jamming from a malicious
A) analog * intruder.
B) digital A) Spread spectrum *
C) either (a) or (b) B) Multiplexing
D) none of the above C) Modulation
D) None of the above.
15. ____ is designed to use the high bandwidth capability
of fiber-optic cable. 24. The _______ technique uses M different carrier
A) FDM frequencies that are modulated by the source signal. At
B) TDM one moment, the sign modulates one carrier frequency;
C) WDM * at the next moment, the signal modulates another carrier
D) None of the above frequency.
A) FDM
16. ______ is an analog multiplexing technique to B) DSSS
combine optical signals. C) FHSS *
A) FDM D) TDM
B) TDM
C) WDM * 25. The ______ technique expands the bandwidth of a
D) None of the above signal by replacing each data bit with n bits.
A) FDM
17. _____ is a digital process that allows several B) DSSS *
connections to share the high bandwidth of a link. C) FHSS
A) FDM D) TDM
B) TDM *
C) WDM
D) None of the above CHAPTER 7 (28 ITEMS)
18. _____ is a digital multiplexing technique for 1. Transmission media are usually categorized as
combining several low-rate channels into one high-rate _______.
one. A) fixed or unfixed
A) FDM B) guided or unguided *
B) TDM * C) determinate or indeterminate
C) WDM D) metallic or nonmetallic
2. Transmission media lie below the _______ layer.
19. We can divide ____ into two different schemes: A) physical *
synchronous or statistical. B) network
A) FDM C) transport
B) TDM * D) application
C) WDM
D) none of the above 3. _______ cable consists of an inner copper core and a
second conducting outer sheath.
20. In ________ TDM, each input connection has an A) Twisted-pair
allotment in the output even if it is not sending data. B) Coaxial *
A) synchronous * C) Fiber-optic
B) statistical D) Shielded twisted-pair
C) isochronous

4. In fiber optics, the signal is _______ waves. C) line-of-sight

A) light * D) none of the above
B) radio
C) infrared 14. Signals with a frequency above 30 MHz use
D) very low-frequency _______propagation.
A) ground
5. Which of the following primarily uses guided media? B) sky
A) cellular telephone system C) line-of-sight *
B) local telephone system * D) none of the above
C) satellite communications
D) radio broadcasting 15. A parabolic dish antenna is a(n) _______ antenna.
A) omnidirectional
6. Which of the following is not a guided medium? B) bidirectional
A) twisted-pair cable C) unidirectional *
B) coaxial cable D) horn
C) fiber-optic cable
D) atmosphere * 16. A(n) _____ medium provides a physical conduit from
one device to another.
7. What is the major factor that makes coaxial cable less A) guided *
susceptible to noise than twisted-pair cable? B) unguided
A) inner conductor C) either (a) or (b)
B) diameter of cable D) none of the above
C) outer conductor *
D) insulating material 17. ________ cable consists of two insulated copper
wires twisted together.
8. In an optical fiber, the inner core is _______ the A) Coaxial
cladding. B) Fiber-optic
A) denser than C) Twisted-pair *
B) less dense than * D) none of the above
C) the same density as
D) another name for 18. _______ cable is used for voice and data
communications.
9. The inner core of an optical fiber is _______ in A) Coaxial
composition. B) Fiber-optic
A) glass or plastic * C) Twisted-pair *
B) copper D) none of the above
C) bimetallic
D) liquid 19. __________ consists of a central conductor and a
shield.
10. When a beam of light travels through media of two A) Coaxial *
different densities, if the angle of incidence is greater B) Fiber-optic
than the critical angle, _______ occurs. C) Twisted-pair
A) reflection * D) none of the above
B) refraction
C) incidence 20. _____ cable can carry signals of higher frequency
D) criticism ranges than _____ cable.
A) Twisted-pair; fiber-optic
11. When the angle of incidence is _______ the critical B) Coaxial; fiber-optic
angle, the light beam bends along the interface. C) Coaxial; twisted-pair *
A) more than D) none of the above
B) less than
C) equal to * 21. ______ cables are composed of a glass or plastic
D) none of the above inner core surrounded by
cladding, all encased in an outside jacket.
12. Signals with a frequency below 2 MHz use _______ A) Coaxial
propagation. B) Fiber-optic *
A) ground * C) Twisted-pair
B) sky D) none of the above
C) line-of-sight
D) none of the above 22. ______ cables carry data signals in the form of light.
A) Coaxial
13. Signals with a frequency between 2 MHz and 30 MHz B) Fiber-optic *
use ______ propagation. C) Twisted-pair
A) ground D) none of the above
B) sky *

23. In a fiber-optic cable, the signal is propagated along 4. A ________ network is made of a set of switches
the inner core by _______. connected by physical links, in which each link is divided
A) reflection * into n channels.
B) refraction A) line-switched
C) modulation B) frame-switched
D) none of the above C) circuit-switched *
24. _________ media transport electromagnetic waves
without the use of a physical conductor. 5. Circuit switching takes place at the ________ layer.
A) Guided A) data line
B) Unguided * B) physical *
C) Either (a) or (b) C) network
D) None of the above D) transport
25. Radio waves are _________. 6. In _______, the resources need to be reserved during
A) omnidirectional * the setup phase; the resources remain dedicated for the
B) unidirectional entire duration of data transfer phase until the teardown
C) bidirectional phase.
D) none of the above A) datagram switching
B) circuit switching *
26. Microwaves are _________. C) frame switching
A) omnidirectional D) none of the above
B) unidirectional *
C) bidirectional 7. In _________, there is no resource allocation for a
D) none of the above packet.
A) datagram switching *
27. _______ are used for cellular phone, satellite, and B) circuit switching
wireless LAN communications. C) frame switching
A) Radio waves D) none of the above
B) Microwaves *
C) Infrared waves 8. In _________, resources are allocated on demand.
D) none of the above A) datagram switching *
B) circuit switching
28. ________ are used for short-range communications C) frame switching
such as those between a PC and a peripheral device. D) none of the above
A) Radio waves
B) Microwaves 9. In __________, each packet is treated independently
C) Infrared waves * of all others.
D) none of the above A) datagram switching *
B) circuit switching
CHAPTER 8 (30 ITEMS) C) frame switching
1. Traditionally, _____ methods of switching have been
important. 10. In _______ there are no setup or teardown phases.
A) four A) datagram switching *
B) three * B) circuit switching
C) five C) frame switching
D) six D) none of the above
2. We can divide today's networks into ____ broad 11. A _________ network is a cross between a circuit-
categories. switched network and a datagram network. It has some
A) four characteristics of both.
B) three * A) virtual-circuit *
C) five B) packet-switched
D) two C) frame-switched
3. Packet-switched networks can also be divided into
______subcategories: virtual-circuit networks and 12. We can say that a packet switch has _______ types
datagram networks of components.
A) four A) two
B) three B) three
C) two * C) four *
D) five D) none of the above
13. The simplest type of switching fabric is the ______

switch.

A) crosspoint A) 10,000
B) crossbar * B) 20,000
C) TSI C) 40,000 *
D) STS D) 30,000
14. A ________ switch is a multistage switch with 23. In a three-stage space division switch, if N = 200, the
microswitches at each stage that route the packets number of crosspoints is ______.
based on the output port represented as a binary string. A) 40,000
A) crossbar B) greater than 40,000
B) TSI C) less than 40,000 *
C) banyan * D) greater than 100,000
24. A ________ switch combines crossbar switches in
15. In a banyan switch, for 8 inputs and 8 outputs, we several (normally three) stages.
have _____ stages. A) multistage *
A) 8 B) multiple crossbar
B) 4 C) multiple path
C) 3 * D) none of the above
D) 2
25. In _______ switching, the paths in the circuit are
16. In a banyan switch, for 8 inputs and 8 outputs, we separated from one another spatially.
have _____ microswitches at each stage. A) time-division
A) 8 B) space-division *
B) 4 * C) two-dimensional
C) 3 D) three-dimensional
D) 2
26. A switched WAN is normally implemented as a
17. A ________ switch combines space-division and _______ network.
time-division technologies to take advantage of the best A) virtual-circuit *
of both. B) datagram
A) TST * C) circuit-switched
B) SSS D) none of the above
C) TTT
D) none of the above 27. In a ________ network, two types of addressing are
involved: global and local.
18. The most popular technology in time-division A) virtual-circuit *
switching is called the _________. B) datagram
A) STI C) circuit-switched
B) ITS D) none of the above
C) TSI *
D) none of the above 28. The network layer in the Internet is designed as a
__________ network.
19. Based on the Clos criteria, if N = 200, then n must be A) virtual-circuit
equal to or greater than ____. B) datagram *
A) 10 * C) circuit-switched
C) 30
D) 40 29. A switch in a datagram network uses a routing table
that is based on the ______ address.
20. Based on the Clos criteria, if N = 200, then k must be A) source
equal to or greater than ____. B) destination *
A) 21 C) local
C) 31
D) 41 30.The _______ address in the header of a packet in a
datagram network normally remains the same during the
21. Based on the Clos criteria, if N = 200, then the entire journey of the packet.
minimum number of crosspoints is greater than or equal A) source
to _______. B) destination *
A) 15,200 * C) local
B) 18,000 D) none of the above
C) 42,000
D) 20,000 CHAPTER 9 (31 ITEMS)
22. In a one-stage space division switch, if N = 200, the

number of crosspoints is ______.

1. A local telephone network is an example of a _______

network. 11. In an HFC network, the downstream data are
A) packet-switched modulated using the _______ modulation technique.
B) circuit-switched * A) PSK
C) message-switched B) QAM *
D) none of the above C) PCM
D) ASK
2. The local loop has _______ cable that connects the
subscriber telephone to the nearest end office. 12. In an HFC network, the upstream data are modulated
A) twisted-pair * using the _______ modulation technique.
B) coaxial A) QAM
C) fiber-optic B) QPSK *
D) none of the above C) PCM
D) ASK
3. Data from a computer are _______; the local loop
handles _______ signals. 13. The standard for data transmission over an HFC
A) analog; analog network is called _______.
B) analog; digital A) MCNS
C) digital; digital B) DOCSIS *
D) digital; analog * C) CMTS
D) ADSL
4. _______ is suitable for businesses that require
comparable upstream and downstream data rates. 14. The original telephone network, which is referred to
A) VDSL as the plain old telephone system (POTS), was an
B) ADSL ________ system.
C) SDSL * A) digital
D) (a) and (b) B) analog *
C) digital as well as analog
5. DMT is a modulation technique that combines D) none of the above
elements of _______ and _______.
A) FDM; TDM 15. The modern telephone network is now ________.
B) QDM; QAM A) digital
C) FDM; QAM * B) analog
D) PSK; FSK C) digital as well as analog *
6. The largest portion of the bandwidth for ADSL carries
_______. 16. The telephone network is made of ______ major
A) voice communication components.
B) upstream data A) 2
C) downstream data * B) 3 *
D) control data C) 4
7. _______ was designed as an alternative to the T-1
line. 17. The United States is divided into many _______.
A) VDSL A) LECs
B) ADSL B) LATAs *
C) SDSL C) IXCs
D) HDSL * D) none of the above
8. HDSL encodes data using _______. 18. The carrier that handles intra-LATA services is called
A) 4B/5B a(n) _____ .
B) 2B1Q * A) POP
C) 1B2Q B) IXC
D) 6B/8T C) LEC *
9. Another name for the cable TV office is the _______. D) none of the above
A) splitter
B) fiber node 19. The carrier that handles inter-LATA services is called
C) combiner a(n) _______.
D) head end * A) POP
B) IXC *
10. A traditional cable TV network transmits signals C) LEC
______. D) none of the above
A) upstream
B) downstream * 20. In ______signaling, the same circuit is used for both
C) upstream and downstream signaling and data.
D) none of the above A) in-band *

B) out-of-band B) HCF
C) mixed C) CFH
21. In ________signaling, a portion of the bandwidth is 30. The HFC network uses _______ cable.
used for signaling and another portion for data. A) twisted-pair
A) in-band B) coaxial
B) out-of-band * C) fiber-optic
C) mixed D) a combination of (b) and (c) *
31. To use a cable network for data transmission, we
22. The protocol that is used for signaling in the need two key devices: a ______ and a _________
telephone network is called ______. A) CM; CMS
A) POP B) CT; CMTS
B) SSS C) CM; CMTS *
C) SS7 * D) none of the above
D) none of the above CHAPTER 10 (34 ITEMS)
23. Telephone companies provide two types of analog 1. Which error detection method uses one's complement
services: analog _______ services and analog arithmetic?
_____services. A) Simple parity check
A) switched; in-band B) Two-dimensional parity check
B) out-of-band; in-band C) CRC
C) switched; leased * D) Checksum *
D) leased; out-of-band
2. Which error detection method consists of just one
24. The two most common digital services are ________ redundant bit per data unit?
service and ______. A) Simple parity check *
A) switched/56; switched/64 B) Two-dimensional parity check
B) switched/56; DDS * C) CRC
C) DDS; swiched 64 D) Checksum
D) leased; out-of-band
3. In cyclic redundancy checking, what is the CRC?
25. The term modem is a composite word that refers to A) The divisor
the two functional entities that make up the device: a B) The quotient
signal _______ and a signal _______. C) The dividend
A) modulator; demodulator * D) The remainder *
B) demodulator; modulator
C) modern; demo 4. In cyclic redundancy checking, the divisor is _______
D) none of the above the CRC.
A) The same size as
26. Most popular modems available are based on the B) one bit less than
________standards. C) one bit more than *
A) V-series * D) none of the above
B) X-series
C) VX-series 5. A burst error means that two or more bits in the data
D) none of the above unit have changed.
A) double-bit
27. ______technology is a set of technologies developed B) burst *
by the telephone companies to provide high data rate C) single-bit
transmission. D) none of the above
A) ASL
B) DSL * 6. In ________ error correction, the receiver corrects
C) LDS errors without requesting retransmission.
D) none of the above A) backward
B) onward
28. The traditional cable TV system used ________cable C) forward *
end to end. D) none of the above
A) twisted-pair
B) coaxial * 7. In ________ error correction, the receiver asks the
C) fiber-optic sender to send the data again.
D) none of the above A) backward
B) retransmission *
29. The second generation of cable networks is called C) forward
a(n) _________ network. D) none of the above
A) HFC *

8. We can divide coding schemes into two broad 17. A simple parity-check code can detect __________
categories: ________ and ______coding. errors.
A) block; linear A) an even-number of
B) linear; nonlinear B) two
C) block; convolution * C) no errors
D) none of the above D) an odd-number of *
9. In modulo-2 arithmetic, __________ give the same 18. _______codes are special linear block codes with
results. one extra property. If a codeword is rotated, the result is
A) addition and multiplication another codeword.
B) addition and division A) Non-linear
C) addition and subtraction * B) Convolution
D) none of the above C) Cyclic *
10. In modulo-2 arithmetic, we use the ______ operation
for both addition and subtraction. 19. The _____of errors is more difficult than the ______.
A) XOR * A) correction; detection *
B) OR B) detection; correction
C) AND C) creation; correction
D) none of the above D) creation; detection
11. In _____ coding, we divide our message into blocks, 20. In modulo-11 arithmetic, we use only the integers in
each of k bits, called ___. the range ______, inclusive.
A) block; blockwords A) 1 to 10
B) linear; datawords B) 1 to 11
C) block; datawords * C) 0 to 10 *
12. We add r redundant bits to each block to make the 21. In modulo-2 arithmetic, we use only ______.
length n = k + r. The resulting n-bit blocks are called A) 1 and 2
_________. B) 0 and 2
A) datawords C) 0 and 1 *
B) blockwords D) none of the above
C) codewords *
D) none of the above 22. Adding 1 and 1 in modulo-2 arithmetic results in
_________.
13. The ________ between two words is the number of A) 1
differences between corresponding bits. B) 2
A) Hamming code C) 0 *
B) Hamming distance * D) none of the above
C) Hamming rule
D) none of the above 23. In block coding, if k =2 and n =3, we have _______
invalid codewords.
14. To guarantee the detection of up to 5 errors in all A) 8
cases, the minimum Hamming distance in a block code B) 4 *
must be _______. C) 2
A) 5 D) none of the above
B) 6 *
C) 11 24. The Hamming distance between equal codewords is
D) none of the above _________.
A) 1
15. To guarantee correction of up to 5 errors in all cases, B) n
the minimum Hamming distance in a block code must be C) 0 *
________. D) none of the above
A) 5
B) 6 25. The Hamming distance between 100 and 001 is
C) 11 * ________.
D) none of the above A) 2 *
B) 0
16. In a linear block code, the _______ of any two valid C) 1
codewords creates another valid codeword. D) none of the above
A) XORing *
B) ORing 26. In block coding, if n = 5, the maximum Hamming
C) ANDing distance between two codewords is ________.
D) none of the above A) 2
B) 3

C) 5 *
D) none of the above 2. In Go-Back-N ARQ, if frames 4, 5, and 6 are received
successfully, the receiver may send an ACK _______ to
27. If the Hamming distance between a dataword and the the sender.
corresponding codeword is three, there are _____ bits in A) 5
error. B) 6
A) 3 * C) 7 *
B) 4 D) any of the above
C) 5
D) none of the above 3. ARQ stands for _______.
A) Automatic repeat quantization
28. The _______ of a polynomial is the highest power in B) Automatic repeat request *
the polynomial. C) Automatic retransmission request
A) range D) Acknowledge repeat request
B) degree *
C) power 4. For Stop-and-Wait ARQ, for 10 data packets sent,
D) none of the above _______ acknowledgments are needed.
A) exactly 10 *
29. The divisor in a cyclic code is normally called the B) less than 10
_________. C) more than 10
A) degree D) none of the above
B) generator *
C) redundancy 5. HDLC is an acronym for _______.
D) none of the above A) High-duplex line communication
B) High-level data link control *
30. A generator that contains a factor of ____ can detect C) Half-duplex digital link combination
all odd-numbered errors. D) Host double-level circuit
A) x
B) x + 1 * 6. Data link control deals with the design and procedures
C) 1 for ______ communication.
D) none of the above A) node-to-node *
B) host-to-host
31. Checksums use _________ arithmetic. C) process-to-process
A) two's complement arithmetic D) none of the above
B) one's complement arithmetic *
C) either (a) or (b) 7. _______ in the data link layer separates a message
D) none of the above from one source to a destination, or from other messages
going from other sources to other destinations.
32. In one's complement arithmetic, if positive 7 is 0111, A) Digitizing
then negative 7 is ________. B) Controlling
A) 1111 C) Framing *
C) 1000 *
D) none of the above 8. In _______ framing, there is no need for defining the
boundaries of frames.
33. The checksum of 1111 and 1111 is _________. A) fixed-size *
A) 1111 B) variable-size
B) 0000 * C) standard
C) 1110 D) none of the above
D) 0111
9. In ________ framing, we need a delimiter (flag) to
34. The checksum of 0000 and 0000 is __________. define the boundary of two frames.
A) 1111 * A) fixed-size
B) 0000 B) variable-size *
C) 1110 C) standard
D) 0111 D) none of the above
CHAPTER 11 (46 ITEMS) 10. _________framing uses two categories of protocols:

character-oriented and bit-oriented.
1. In a Go-Back-N ARQ, if the window size is 63, what is A) Fixed-size
the range of sequence numbers? B) Variable-size *
A) 0 to 63 * C) Standard
B) 0 to 64 D) None of the above
C) 1 to 63
D) 1 to 64 11. In a ________ protocol, the data section of a frame is
a sequence of characters.

A) bit-oriented C) either (a) or (b)

B) character-oriented * D) neither (a) nor (b)
C) either (a) or (b)
D) none of the above 21. The ____ Protocol has neither flow nor error control.
A) Stop-and-Wait
12. In a _________ protocol, the data section of a frame B) Simplest *
is a sequence of bits. C) Go-Back-N ARQ
A) byte-oriented D) Selective-Repeat ARQ
B) bit-oriented *
C) either (a) or (b) 22. The _______Protocol has flow control, but not error
D) none of the above control.
A) Stop-and-Wait *
13. In _________ protocols, we use ________. B) Simplest
A) character-oriented; byte stuffing * C) Go-Back-N ARQ
B) character-oriented; bit stuffing D) Selective-Repeat ARQ
C) bit-oriented; character stuffing
D) none of the above 23. The _______Protocol has both flow control and error
control.
14. Byte stuffing means adding a special byte to the data A) Stop-and-Wait
section of the frame when there is a character with the B) Go-Back-N ARQ
same pattern as the ______. C) Selective-Repeat ARQ
A) header D) both (b) and (c) *
B) trailer
C) flag * 24. In the _____ Protocol, the sender sends its frames
D) none of the above one after another with no regard to the receiver.
A) Stop-and-Wait
15. In ________ protocols, we use ________. B) Simplest *
A) byte-oriented; bit stuffing C) Go-Back-N ARQ
B) character-oriented; bit stuffing D) Selective-Repeat ARQ
C) bit-oriented; bit stuffing *
D) none of the above 25. In the _____ Protocol, the sender sends one frame,
stops until it receives confirmation from the receiver, and
16. Bit stuffing means adding an extra 0 to the data then sends the next frame.
section of the frame when there is a sequence of bits A) Stop-and-Wait *
with the same pattern as the ________. B) Simplest
A) header C) Go-Back-N ARQ
B) trailer D) Selective-Repeat ARQ
C) flag *
D) none of the above 26. The _________Protocol, adds a simple error control
mechanism to the _______Protocol.
17. _______ control refers to a set of procedures used to A) Stop-and-Wait ARQ; Stop-and-Wait *
restrict the amount of data that the sender can send B) Go-Back-N ARQ; Stop-and-Wait
before waiting for acknowledgment. C) Selective Repeat ARQ; Go-Back-N ARQ
A) Flow * D) none of the above
B) Error
C) Transmission 27. In the _________Protocol, if no acknowledgment for
D) none of the above a frame has arrived, we resend all outstanding frames.
A) Stop-and-Wait ARQ
18. ______ control refers to methods of error detection B) Go-Back-N ARQ *
and correction. C) Selective-Repeat ARQ
A) Flow D) none of the above
B) Error *
C) Transmission 28. In the _________ protocol we avoid unnecessary
D) none of the above transmission by sending only frames that are corrupted.
A) Stop-and-Wait ARQ
19. The Simplest Protocol and the Stop-and-Wait B) Go-Back-N ARQ
Protocol are for ______ channels. C) Selective-Repeat ARQ *
A) noisy D) none of the above
B) noiseless *
C) either (a) or (b) 29. Both Go-Back-N and Selective-Repeat Protocols use
D) neither (a) nor (b) a _________.
A) sliding frame
20. The Stop-And-Wait ARQ, Go-Back-N ARQ, and the B) sliding window *
Selective Repeat ARQ are for ______ channels. C) sliding packet
A) noisy * D) none of the above
B) noiseless

30. In Go-Back-N ARQ, if 5 is the number of bits for the 38. In Stop-and-Wait ARQ, we use sequence numbers to
sequence number, number the frames. The sequence numbers are based
then the maximum size of the send window must be on __________arithmetic.
_____ A) modulo-2 *
A) 15 B) modulo-4
B) 16 C) modulo-m
D) 1
39. In Stop-and-Wait ARQ, the acknowledgment number
31. In Go-Back-N ARQ, if 5 is the number of bits for the always announces in ______ arithmetic the sequence
sequence number, then the maximum size of the receive number of the next frame expected.
window must be _____ A) modulo-2 *
A) 15 B) modulo-4
B) 16 C) modulo-m
D) 1 *
40. In the Go-Back-N Protocol, if the size of the
32. In Selective Repeat ARQ, if 5 is the number of bits for sequence number field is 8, the sequence numbers are
the sequence number, then the maximum size of the in ________ arithmetic,
send window must be _____ A) modulo-2
A) 15 B) modulo- 8
B) 16 * C) modulo-256 *
D) 1
41. Stop-and-Wait ARQ is a special case of Go-Back-N
33. In Selective Repeat ARQ, if 5 is the number of bits for ARQ in which the size of the send window is 1.
the sequence number, then the maximum size of the A) 2
receive window must be _____ B) 1 *
A) 15 C) 8
C) 31
D) 1 42. In _________, the station configuration is
unbalanced. We have one primary station and multiple
34. High-level Data Link Control (HDLC) is a _______ secondary stations.
protocol for communication over point-to-point and A) ABM
multipoint links. B) NRM *
A) bit-oriented * C) ARM
B) byte-oriented D) NBM
C) character-oriented
D) none of the above 43. In _________, the configuration is balanced. The link
is point-to-point, and each station can function as a
35. The most common protocol for point-to-point access primary and a secondary.
is the Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP), which is a A) ABM *
_________protocol. B) NRM
A) bit-oriented C) ARM
B) byte-oriented * D) NBM
C) character-oriented
D) none of the above 44. In PPP, the ________ is responsible for establishing,
maintaining, configuring, and terminating links.
36. _______ control refers to a set of procedures used to A) NCP
restrict the amount of data that the sender can send B) LCP *
before waiting for acknowledgment. C) CHAP
A) Flow * D) PAP
B) Error
C) Transmission 45. In PPP, ________ is a simple authentication
D) none of the above procedure with a two-step process:
A) NCP
37. _________control in the data link layer is based on B) LCP
automatic repeat C) CHAP
request, which is the retransmission of data. D) PAP *
A) Flow
B) Error * 46. In PPP, _______ is a three-way hand-shaking
C) Transmission authentication protocol in which the password is kept
D) none of the above secret; it is never sent online.
A) NCP
B) LCP

C) CHAP * immediately. If the line is not idle, it waits a random

D) PAP amount of time and then senses the line again.
A) nonpersistent *
CHAPTER 12 (38 ITEMS) B) 1-persistent
C) p-persistent
1. In ________ each station sends a frame whenever it D) none of the above
has a frame to send.
A) pure ALOHA * 10. In the _______method, after the station finds the line
B) slotted ALOHA idle it sends or refrain from sending based on the
C) both (a) and (b) outcome of a random number generator. If the line is
D) neither (a) nor (b) busy, it tries again.
A) nonpersistent
2. In pure ALOHA, the vulnerable time is ______ the B) 1-persistent
frame transmission time. C) p-persistent *
A) the same as D) none of the above
B) two times *
C) three times 11. We have categorized access methods into _______
D) none of the above groups.
A) two
3. The maximum throughput for pure ALOHA is B) three *
________ per cent. C) four
A) 12.2 D) five
B) 18.4 *
C) 36.8 12. In ___________ methods, no station is superior to
D) none of the above another station and none is assigned the control over
another.
4. In __________, each station is forced to send only at A) random access *
the beginning of the time slot. B) controlled access
A) pure ALOHA C) channelization
B) slotted ALOHA * D) none of the above
C) both (a) and (b)
D) neither (a) nor (b) 13. In ______, the chance of collision can be reduced if a
station senses the medium before trying to use it.
5. In slotted ALOHA, the vulnerable time is ______ the A) MA
frame transmission time. B) CSMA *
A) the same as * C) FDMA
B) two times D) CDMA
C) three times
D) none of the above 14. ________ requires that each station first listen to the
medium before sending.
6. The maximum throughput for pure ALOHA is A) MA
________ per cent. B) CSMA *
A) 12.2 C) FDMA
B) 18.4 D) CDMA
C) 36.8 *
D) none of the above 15. __________ augments the CSMA algorithm to detect
collision.
7. The vulnerable time for CSMA is the A) CSMA/CA
________propagation time. B) CSMA/CD *
A) the same as * C) either (a) or (b)
B) two times D) both (a) and (b)
C) three times
D) none of the above 16. In ________, a station monitors the medium after it
sends a frame to see if the transmission was successful.
8. In the _________ method, after the station finds the If so, the station is finished. If, however, there is a
line idle, it sends its frame immediately. If the line is not collision, the frame is sent again.
idle, it continuously senses the line until it finds it idle. A) CSMA/CA
A) nonpersistent B) CSMA/CD *
B) 1-persistent * C) either (a) or (b)
C) p-persistent D) both (a) and (b)
17. To avoid collisions on wireless networks,
9. In the ________method, a station that has a frame to ________was invented.
send senses the line. If the line is idle, it sends A) CSMA/CA *
B) CSMA/CD

D) both (a) and (b) C) token passing *

18. In _______, collisions are avoided through the use of
three strategies: the interframe space, the contention 27. In the _______ method, each station has a
window, and acknowledgments. predecessor and a successor.
A) CSMA/CA * A) reservation
B) CSMA/CD B) polling
C) either (a) or (b) C) token passing *
D) both (a) and (b) D) none of the above
19. In _______ methods, the stations consult one 28. In the _________ method, a special packet called a
another to find which station has the right to send. ______ circulates through the ring.
A) random access A) reservation: control frame
B) controlled access * B) polling: poll request
C) channelization C) token passing: token *
20. In _______ methods, a station cannot send unless it 29. _________ is a multiple-access method in which the
has been authorized by other stations. available bandwidth of a link is shared in time, frequency,
A) random access or through code, between different stations.
B) controlled access * A) Random access
C) channelization B) Controlled access
D) none of the above C) Channelization *
21. We discussed ______ popular controlled-access
methods. 30. We discussed ________ channelization protocols.
A) two A) two
B) three * B) three *
C) four C) four
22. In the ________ method, a station needs to make a 31. In ________, the available bandwidth is divided into
reservation before sending data. Time is divided into frequency bands.
intervals. A) FDMA *
A) reservation * B) TDMA
B) polling C) CDMA
C) token passing D) none of the above
32. In ______, each station is allocated a band to send
23. In the _____ method, time is divided into intervals. In its data. In other words, each band is reserved for a
each interval, a reservation frame precedes the data specific station, and it belongs to the station all the time.
frames sent in that interval. A) FDMA *
A) reservation * B) TDMA
B) polling C) CDMA
33. In _______, the stations share the bandwidth of the
24. In the ______ method, all data exchanges must be channel in time.
made through the primary device even when the ultimate A) FDMA
destination is a secondary device. B) TDMA *
A) reservation C) CDMA
B) polling * D) none of the above
C) token passing
D) none of the above 34. In _____, each station is allocated a time slot during
which it can send data. Each station transmits its data in
25. In the _______ method, the primary device controls its assigned time slot.
the link; the secondary devices follow its instructions. A) FDMA
A) reservation B) TDMA *
B) polling * C) CDMA
35. In _____, each station transmits its data in its
26. In the _______ method, the stations in a network are assigned time slot.
organized in a logical ring. A) FDMA
A) reservation B) TDMA *
B) polling C) CDMA

D) none of the above C) Ethernet *

36. In ______, the stations use different codes to achieve
multiple access. 7. The IEEE 802.3 Standard defines _________
A) FDMA CSMA/CD as the access method for first-generation 10-
B) TDMA Mbps Ethernet.
C) CDMA * A) 1-persistent *
D) none of the above B) p-persistent
C) non-persistent
37. _______ is based on coding theory and uses D) none of the above
sequences of numbers called chips.
A) FDMA 8. The _______ layer of Ethernet consists of the LLC
B) TDMA sublayer and the MAC sublayer.
C) CDMA * A) data link *
D) none of the above B) physical
C) network
38. In _______, the sequences are generated using D) none of the above
orthogonal codes such the Walsh tables.
A) FDMA 9. The _____ sublayer is responsible for the operation of
B) TDMA the CSMA/CD access method and framing.
C) CDMA * A) LLC
D) none of the above B) MII
C) MAC *
CHAPTER 13 (42 ITEMS) D) none of the above
10. Each station on an Ethernet network has a unique

1. What is the hexadecimal equivalent of the Ethernet
_______ address imprinted on its network interface card
address 01011010 00010001 01010101 00011000
(NIC).
10101010 00001111?
A) 5-byte
A) 5A:88:AA:18:55:F0
B) 32-bit
B) 5A:81:BA:81:AA:0F
C) 48-bit *
C) 5A:18:5A:18:55:0F
D) 5A:11:55:18:AA:0F *
11. The minimum frame length for 10-Mbps Ethernet is
2. If an Ethernet destination address is
_______bytes.
07:01:02:03:04:05, then this is a ______ address.
A) 32
A) unicast
B) 80
B) multicast
C) 128
C) broadcast
D) any of the above *
12. The maximum frame length for 10-Mbps Ethernet is
3. If an Ethernet destination address is
________ bytes.
08:07:06:05:44:33, then this is a ______ address.
A) 1518 *
A) unicast *
B) 1500
B) multicast
C) 1200
C) broadcast
D) any of the above
13. _________ uses thick coaxial cable.
4. Which of the following could not be an Ethernet
A) 10Base5 *
unicast destination?
B) 10Base2
A) 43:7B:6C:DE:10:00 *
C) 10Base-T
B) 44:AA:C1:23:45:32
D) 10Base-F
C) 46:56:21:1A:DE:F4
D) 48:32:21:21:4D:34
14. __________ uses thin coaxial cable.
5. Which of the following could not be an Ethernet A) 10Base5
multicast destination? B) 10Base2 *
A) B7:7B:6C:DE:10:00 C) 10Base-T
B) 7B:AA:C1:23:45:32 D) 10Base-F
C) 7C:56:21:1A:DE:F4 *
D) 83:32:21:21:4D:34 15. _________ uses four twisted-pair cables that connect
each station to a common hub.
6. _______ is the most widely used local area network A) 10Base5
protocol. B) 10Base2
A) Token Ring C) 10Base-T *
B) Token Bus D) 10Base-F
16. ________ uses fiber-optic cable.

A) 10Base5 B) 1000Base-LX
B) 10Base2 C) 1000Base-T *
C) 10Base-T D) none of the above
D) 10Base-F *
27. ________ uses short-wave 850-nm multimode fiber.
17. Fast Ethernet has a data rate of ________Mbps. A) 10GBase-S *
A) 10 B) 10GBase-L
B) 100 * C) 10GBase-E
D) 10,000
28. ________uses long-wave 1310-nm single mode
18. In _________, autonegotiation allows two devices to fiber.
negotiate the mode or data rate of operation. A) 10GBase-S
A) Standard B) 10GBase-L *
B) Fast Ethernet * C) 10GBase-E
C) Gigabit Ethernet D) none of the above
D) Ten-Gigabit Ethernet
29. ________ uses 1550-mm single mode fiber.
19. __________ uses two pairs of twisted-pair cable. A) 10GBase-S
A) 100Base-TX * B) 10GBase-L
B) 100Base-FX C) 10GBase-E *
C) 100Base-T4 D) none of the above
30. In Ethernet addressing, if the least significant bit of
20. _________ uses two fiber-optic cables. the first byte is 0, the address is _________.
A) 100Base-TX A) unicast *
B) 100Base-FX * B) multicast
C) 100Base-T4 C) broadcast
21. _________ uses four pairs of voice-grade, or higher, 31. In Ethernet addressing, if the least significant bit of
twisted-pair cable. the first byte is 1, the address is _________.
A) 100Base-TX A) unicast
B) 100Base-FX B) multicast *
C) 100Base-T4 * C) broadcast
22. Gigabit Ethernet has a data rate of ________Mbps. 32. In Ethernet addressing, if all the bits are 1s, the
A) 10 address is _________.
B) 100 A) unicast
C) 1000 * B) multicast
D) 10,000 C) broadcast *
23. Gigabit Ethernet access methods include _______
mode. 33. ______defines a protocol data unit (PDU) that is
A) half-duplex somewhat similar to that of HDLC.
B) full-duplex A) MAC
C) both (a) and (b) * B) LLC *
D) neither (a) nor (b) C) LLU
24. __________ uses two optical fibers and a short-wave
laser source, 34. The purpose of the _______ is to provide flow and
A) 1000Base-SX * error control for the upper-layer protocols that actually
B) 1000Base-LX demand these services
C) 1000Base-T A) MAC
D) none of the above B) LLC *
C) LLU
25. __________uses two optical fibers and a long-wave D) none of the above
laser source.
A) 1000Base-SX 35. In the Ethernet, the _______field is actually added at
B) 1000Base-LX * the physical layer and is not (formally) part of the frame.
C) 1000Base-T A) CRC
D) none of the above B) preamble *
C) address
26. __________ uses four twisted pairs. D) none of the above
A) 1000Base-SX

36. In the Ethernet frame, the _______ field contains 3. In IEEE 802.11, a BSS without an AP is called an
error detection information. _________.
A) CRC * A) an ad hoc architecture *
B) preamble B) an infrastructure network
C) address C) either (a) or (b)
D) none of the above D) neither (a) nor (b)
37. Standard Ethernet (10-Mbps) uses _______ 4. In IEEE 802.11, a BSS with an AP is sometimes
encoding referred to as ____________.
A) NRZ A) an ad hoc architecture
B) AMI B) an infrastructure network *
C) Manchester * C) either (a) or (b)
D) differential Manchester D) neither (a) nor (b)
38. 100Base-TX uses _________ block coding and 5. In IEEE 802.11, communication between two stations
________ line coding. in two different BSSs usually occurs via two ________.
A) 4B/5B; NRZ A) BSSs
B) 8B/10B; NRZ B) ESSs
C) 4B/5B; MLT-3 * C) APs *
D) 8B/10B; NRZ D) none of the above
39. 100Base-FX uses _________ block coding and 6. In IEEE 802.11, a station with ________ mobility is
________ line coding. either stationary (not moving) or moving only inside a
A) 4B/5B; NRZ-I * BSS.
B) 8B/10B; NRZ A) no-transition *
C) 4B/5B; MLT-3 B) BSS-transition
D) 8B/10B; NRZ C) ESS-transition
40. 100Base-T4 uses ________ line coding.
A) NRZ 7. In IEEE 802.11, a station with ________mobility can
B) 8B6T * move from one BSS to another, but the movement is
C) MLT-3 confined inside one ESS.
D) Manchester A) no-transition
B) BSS-transition *
41. 1000Base-SX, 1000Base-LX, and 1000Base-CX use C) ESS-transition
_________ block coding and ________ line coding. D) none of the above
A) 4B/5B; NRZ
B) 8B/10B; NRZ * 8. In IEEE 802.11, a station with ________ mobility can
C) 4B/5B; MLT-3 move from one ESS to another.
D) 8B/10B; NRZ A) no-transition
B) BSS-transition
42. 1000Base-T uses ________ line coding. C) ESS-transition *
A) 4D-PAM5 * D) none of the above
B) 8B6T
C) MLT-3 9. In IEEE 802.11, _______ is an optional access
D) Manchester1 method that can be implemented in an infrastructure
network (not in an ad hoc network).
CHAPTER 14 (41 ITEMS) A) DCF
B) PCF *
1. IEEE has defined the specifications for a wireless C) either (a) or (b)
LAN, called _______, which covers the physical and data D) neither (a) nor (b)
link layers.
A) IEEE 802.3 10. In IEEE 802.11, when a frame is going from one
B) IEEE 802.5 station in a BSS to another without passing through the
C) IEEE 802.11 * distribution system, the address flag is _____
D) IEEE 802.2 A) 00 *
B) 01
2. In IEEE 802.11, a ___ is made of stationary or mobile C) 10
wireless stations and an optional central base station, D) 11
known as the access point (AP).
A) ESS 11. In IEEE 802.11, when a frame is coming from an AP
B) BSS * and going to a station, the address flag is _______.
C) CSS A) 00
D) none of the above B) 01 *
C) 10
D) 11

B) DSSS
12. In IEEE 802.11, when a frame is going from a station C) OFDM *
to an AP, the address flag is _____. D) either (a) or (b)
A) 00
B) 01 22. The IEEE 802.11b, uses _________.
C) 10 * A) FHSS
D) 11 B) DSSS *
C) OFDM
13. In IEEE 802.11, when a frame is going from one AP D) either (a) or (b)
to another AP in a wireless distribution system, the
address flag is _____ 23. The IEEE 802.11g, uses _________.
A) 00 A) FHSS
B) 01 B) DSSS
C) 10 C) OFDM *
D) 11 * D) either (a) or (b)
14. The IEEE 802.11 standard for wireless LANs defines 24. The original IEEE 802.11, has a data rate of
two services: ______ and _______. _____Mbps.
A) BSS; ASS A) 1 *
B) ESS; SSS B) 6
C) BSS; ESS * C) 11
D) BSS; DCF D) 22
15. In IEEE 802.11, the access method used in the DCF 25. IEEE 802.11a, has a data rate of _____Mbps.
sublayer is _________. A) 1
A) ALOHA B) 2
B) CSMA/CA * C) 6 *
C) CSMA/CD D) none of the above
26. IEEE 802.11b, has a data rate of _____Mbps.
16. In IEEE 802.11, the access method used in the PCF A) 1
sublayer is ______. B) 2
A) contention C) 5.5 *
B) controlled D) none of the above
C) polling *
D) none of the above 27. IEEE 802.11g, has a data rate of _____Mbps.
A) 1
17. In IEEE 802.11, the ______ is a timer used for B) 2
collision avoidance. C) 11
A) NAV * D) 22 *
B) BSS
C) ESS 28. The IEEE 802.11 wireless LANs use ________ types
D) none of the above of frames.
A) four
18. In IEEE 802.11, the MAC layer frame has ______ B) five
fields. C) six
A) four D) none of the above *
B) five
C) six 29. Bluetooth is a _______ technology that connects
D) none of the above * devices (called gadgets) in a small area.
A) wired LAN
19. In IEEE 802.11, the addressing mechanism can B) wireless LAN *
include up to ______addresses. C) VLAN
A) four * D) none of the above
B) five
C) six 30. A Bluetooth network is called a ________.
D) none of the above A) piconet *
B) scatternet
20. The original IEEE 802.11, uses _________. C) bluenet
A) FHSS D) none of the above
B) DSSS
C) OFDM 31. In Bluetooth, multiple ________ form a network
D) either (a) or (b) * called a _________.
A) scatternet; piconets
21. The IEEE 802.11a, uses _________. B) piconets: scatternet *
A) FHSS C) piconets: bluenet

D) bluenet; scatternet 41. Bluetooth uses ______method in the physical layer to

avoid interference from other devices or other networks.
32. A Bluetooth network consists of _____ primary A) DSSS
device(s) and up to ____ secondary devices. B) FHSS *
A) one; five C) FDMA
B) five; three D) none of the above
C) two; six
D) one; seven * CHAPTER 15 (38 ITEMS)
33. The RTS and CTS frames in CSMA/CA ____ solve 1. A repeater is a connecting device that operates in the
the hidden station problem. The RTS and CTS frames in _______ layer of the Internet model.
CSMA/CA ____ solve the exposed station problem. A) physical *
A) can; cannot * B) data link
B) cannot; can C) network
C) can; can D) all of the above
D) cannot; cannot
2. A _______ regenerates a signal, connects segments
34. In Bluetooth, the current data rate is ____Mbps of a LAN, and has no filtering capability.
A) 2 A) repeater *
B) 5 B) bridge
C) 11 C) router
D) none of the above * D) none of the above
35. In Bluetooth, the _______ layer is roughly equivalent
3. A _______ is a connecting device that operates in the
to the physical layer of the Internet model.
physical and data link layers of the Internet model.
A) radio *
A) repeater
B) baseband
B) bridge *
C) L2CAP
C) router
36. In Bluetooth, the _____layer is roughly equivalent to
4. A ________ bridge can forward and filter frames and
the MAC sublayer in LANs.
automatically build its forwarding table.
A) radio
A) simple
B) baseband *
B) dual
C) L2CAP
C) transparent *
37. In Bluetooth, the L2CAP sublayer, is roughly 5. A bridge can use the _________ algorithm to create a
equivalent to the LLC sublayer in LANs. loopless topology.
A) radio A) binary tree
B) baseband B) spanning tree *
C) L2CAP * C) multiway tree
38. The access method in Bluetooth is ________. 6. A _______ LAN allows several LANs to be connected.
A) FDMA A) backbone *
B) TDD-TDMA * B) wireless
C) CDMA C) wired
39. In Bluetooth, the _____ link is used when avoiding 7. A backbone is usually a ______.
latency (delay in data delivery) is more important than A) bus
integrity (error-free delivery). B) star
A) SCO * C) either (a) or (b) *
B) ACL D) neither (a) nor (b)
C) ACO
D) SCL 8. A virtual local area network (VLAN) is configured by
_________.
40. In Bluetooth, the _____ link is used when data A) software *
integrity is more important than avoiding latency. B) physical wiring
A) SCO C) hardware
B) ACL * D) none of the above
C) ACO
D) SCL 9. Membership in a VLAN can be based on _________.
A) port numbers

B) MAC addresses D) router

C) IP addresses
D) all of the above * 19. A _______ can check the MAC addresses contained
in the frame.
10. VLANs can_________. A) passive hub
A) reduce network traffic B) repeater
B) provide an extra measure of security C) bridge *
C) either (a) or (b) D) router
D) both (a) and (b) *
20. A ______ has a table used in filtering decisions.
11. _________ is just a connector. A) passive hub
A) An active hub B) repeater
B) A passive hub * C) bridge *
C) either (a) or (b) D) none of the above
21. A ________ is a device in which the stations are
12. In a star-topology Ethernet LAN, _______ is just a completely unaware of its existence.
point where the signals coming from different stations A) passive hub
collide; it is the collision point. B) repeater
A) An active hub C) simple bridge
B) A passive hub * D) transparent bridge *
D) neither (a) nor (b) 22. IEEE 802.1d specification, defines _________ criteria
for a transparent bridges.
13. ________ is part of the media; its location in the A) two
Internet model is below the physical layer. B) three *
A) An active hub C) four
B) A passive hub * D) none of the above
D) neither (a) nor (b) 23. A spanning tree is a graph in which there is no
_____.
14. A _______ is a device that operates only in the A) node
physical layer. B) branch
A) passive hub C) loop *
B) repeater * D) arc
C) bridge
D) router 24. In a bridged LAN, the _______ algorithm creates a
topology in which each LAN can be reached from any
15. A ________receives a signal and, before it becomes other LAN through one path only.
too weak or corrupted, regenerates the original bit A) spanning tree *
pattern. It then sends the refreshed signal. B) binary tree
A) passive hub C) unary tree
B) repeater * D) none of the above
C) bridge
D) router 25. A three-layer switch is a kind of ________.
A) repeater
16. A __________ forwards every frame; it has no B) bridge
filtering capability. C) router *
A) passive hub D) none of the above
B) repeater *
C) bridge 26. A two-layer switch is a ______.
D) router A) repeater
B) bridge *
17. ________ is actually a multiport repeater. It is C) router
normally used to create connections between stations in D) none of the above
a physical star topology.
A) An active hub * 27. Some new two-layer switches, called _______
B) A passive hub switches, have been designed to forward the frame as
C) either (a) or (b) soon as they check the MAC addresses in the header of
D) neither (a) nor (b) the frame.
A) cut-through *
18. A ________ operates in both the physical and the B) go-through
data link layer. C) come-through
A) passive hub D) none of the above
B) repeater
C) bridge *

28 A _______ is a three-layer device that handles 37. In a(n) _____ configuration, the stations are
packets based on their logical addresses. automatically connected or disconnected from a VLAN
A) repeater using criteria defined by the administrator.
B) bridge A) manual
C) router * B) automatic *
D) none of the above C) semiautomatic
29. A ______ normally connects LANs and WANs in the
Internet and has a table that is used for making decisions 38. In a(n) ______ configuration, the initializing is done
about the route. manually, with migrations done automatically.
A) repeater A) manual
B) bridge B) automatic
C) router * C) semiautomatic *
CHAPTER 16 (38 ITEMS)
30. A ______ switch is a faster and more sophisticated
router. 1. _______ is a first-generation cellular phone system.
A) two-layer A) AMPS *
B) three-layer * B) D-AMPS
C) four-layer C) GSM
31. A ________ is normally a computer that operates in 2. __________ is a second-generation cellular phone
all five layers of the Internet model or seven layers of OSI system.
model. A) AMPS
A) repeater B) D-AMPS *
B) bridge C) GSM
C) router
D) gateway * D) none of the above
3. ____________ is a digital version of AMPS.
32. A _____ can be used as a connecting device A) GSM
between two internetworks that use different models. B) D-AMPS *
A) repeater C) IS-95
B) bridge D) none of the above
C) router
D) gateway * 4. ___________ is a second-generation cellular phone
system used in Europe.
33. In a _____ backbone, the backbone is just one A) GSM *
switch. B) D-AMPS
A) bus C) IS-95
B) ring D) none of the above
C) star *
D) none of the above 5. ________ is a second-generation cellular phone
system based on CDMA and DSSS.
34. A ________ link acts as a LAN in a remote backbone A) GSM
connected by remote bridges. B) D-AMPS
A) point-to-point * C) IS-95 *
B) multipoint D) none of the above
C) multidrop
D) none of the above 6. The __________ cellular phone system will provide
universal personal communication.
35. VLANs create _________ domains. A) first-generation
A) unicast B) second-generation
B) multicast C) third-generation *
C) broadcast * D) none of the above
7. In a ______ handoff, a mobile station only
36. In a(n) _______ configuration, the administrator types communicates with one base station.
the port numbers, the IP addresses, or other A) hard *
characteristics, using the VLAN software. B) soft
A) manual * C) medium
B) automatic D) none of the above
C) semiautomatic
D) none of the above 8. In a ______ handoff, a mobile station can
communicate with two base stations at the same time.

A) hard C) 1900-MHz
B) soft * D) either (a) or (c) *
C) medium
D) none of the above 19. IS-95 uses the _______ satellite system for
synchronization.
9. _______ is an analog cellular phone system using A) GPS *
FDMA. B) Teledesic
A) AMPS * C) Iridium
B) D-AMPS D) none of the above
C) GSM
D) none of the above 20. In an IS-95 system, the frequency-reuse factor is
normally _____.
10. AMPS operates in the ISM _____ band. A) 1 *
A) 800-MHz * B) 3
B) 900-MHz C) 5
C) 1800-MHz D) 7
21. In the third generation of cellular phones, _______
11. In AMPS, each band is divided into ______ channels. uses W-CDMA.
A) 800 A) IMT-DS *
B) 900 B) IMT-MC
C) 1000 C) IMT-TC
D) none of the above * D) IMT-SC
12. AMPS has a frequency reuse factor of _______. 22. In the third generation of cellular phones, ________
A) 1 uses CDMA2000.
B) 3 A) IMT-DS
C) 5 B) IMT-MC *
D) 7 * C) IMT-TC
D) IMT-SC
13. AMPS uses ______ to divide each 25-MHz band into
channels. 23. In the third generation of cellular phones, ______
A) FDMA * uses a combination of W-CDMA and TDMA.
B) TDMA A) IMT-DS
C) CDMA B) IMT-MC
D) none of the above C) IMT-TC *
D) IMT-SC
14. D-AMPS uses ______ to divide each 25-MHz band
into channels. 24. In the third generation of cellular phones, _______
A) FDMA uses TDMA.
B) TDMA A) IMT-DS
C) CDMA B) IMT-MC
D) both (a) and (b) * C) IMT-TC
D) IMT-SC *
15. GSM allows a reuse factor of _______.
A) 1 25. The period of a satellite, the time required for a
B) 3 * satellite to make a complete trip around the Earth, is
C) 5 determined by _________ law.
D) 7 A) Kepler's *
B) Newton's
16. GSM is a digital cellular phone system using C) Ohm's
A) FDMA
B) TDMA 26. The signal from a satellite is normally aimed at a
C) CDMA specific area called the _________.
D) both (a) and (b) * A) path
B) effect
17. IS-95 is based on ____________. C) footprint *
A) FDMA D) none of the above
B) CDMA
C) DSSS 27. There is (are) _____ orbit(s) for a GEO satellite.
D) all of the above * A) one *
B) two
18. IS-95 uses the ISM _______band. C) many
A) 800-MHz D) none of the above
B) 900-MHz

28. MEO satellites are located at altitudes between km. A) GPS

A) 3000 and 5000 B) Iridium
B) 5000 and 10,000 C) Teledesic *
C) 5000 and 15,000 * D) none of the above
29. LEO satellites are normally below an altitude of
________ km. 1. _______ is a standard developed by ANSI for fiber-
A) 1000 optic networks.
B) 2000 * A) SONET *
C) 3000 B) SDH
D) none of the above C) either (a) or (b)
30. ______ is based on a principle called trilateration. D) neither (a) nor (b)
A) GPS * 2. _______ is a standard developed by ITU-T.
B) Teledesic A) SONET
C) Iridium B) SDH *
D) none of the above C) either (a) or (b)
31. Low-Earth-orbit (LEO) satellites have _____ orbits.
A) equatorial 3. SONET has defined a hierarchy of signals called
B) polar * ________.
C) inclined A) STSs *
D) none of the above B) STMs
32. A GEO is at the ________ orbit and revolves in D) neither (a) nor (b)
phase with Earth.
A) equatorial * 4. SDH has defined a hierarchy of signals called
B) polar ________.
C) inclined A) STSs
D) none of the above B) STMs *
33. GPS satellites are ________ satellites. D) neither (a) nor (b)
A) GEO
B) MEO * 5. An ______ signal is the optical modulation of an STS-
C) LEO n (or STM-n) signal.
D) none of the above A) OC-n *
B) TDM-n
34. ________ satellites provide time and location C) FDM-n
information for vehicles and ships. D) none of the above
A) GPS *
B) Iridium 6. SONET defines _______ layers.
C) Teledesic A) two
D) none of the above B) three
C) four *
35. Iridium satellites are ________satellites. D) five
A) GEO
B) MEO 7. SONET is a _______ TDM system.
C) LEO * A) asynchronous
D) none of the above B) synchronous *
C) statistical
36. ________ satellites can provide direct universal voice D) none of the above
and data communications for handheld terminals.
A) GPS 8. A SONET system can use _________.
B) Iridium * A) STS multiplexers
C) Teledesic B) regenerators
D) none of the above C) add/drop multiplexers
D) all of the above *
37. Teledesic satellites are _________satellites.
A) GEO 9. SONET sends ________ frames per second
B) MEO A) 1000
C) LEO * B) 2000
D) none of the above C) 4000
D) 8000 *
38. ________ satellites will provide universal broadband
Internet access.

10. In SONET each frame lasts _______ microseconds.

A) 20 21. A _______ is the optical link connecting two neighbor
B) 64 devices.
C) 128 A) section *
D) none of the above * B) line
C) path
11. An STS-1 frame is made of ________ rows D) none of the above
A) 1
B) 9 * 22. A ______ is the portion of the network between two
C) 90 multiplexers.
D) none of the above A) section
B) line *
12. An STS-1 frame is made ______columns C) path
B) 9
C) 90 * 23. A ______is the end-to-end portion of the network
D) none of the above between two STS multiplexers.
A) section
13. An STS-3 frame is made of ______ rows. B) line
A) 1 C) path *
C) 27
D) none of the above 24. The ______ layer is responsible for the movement of
a signal from its optical source to its optical destination.
14. An STS-3 frame is made of ________ columns. A) section
A) 9 B) line
B) 90 C) path *
C) 270 * D) photonic
25. The ____ layer is responsible for the movement of a
15. SONET network topologies can be __________. signal across a physical line.
A) linear A) section
B) ring B) line *
C) mesh C) path
D) all of the above * D) photonic
16. A linear SONET network can be __________. 26. The ______ layer is responsible for the movement of
A) point-to-point a signal across a physical section.
B) multipoint A) section *
C) either (a) or (b) * B) line
D) neither (a) nor (b) C) path
D) photonic
17. A ring SONET network can be _________.
A) unidirectional 27. The _______ layer corresponds to the physical layer
B) bidirectional. of the OSI model.
C) either (a) or (b) * A) section
D) neither (a) nor (b) B) line
C) path
18. To make SONET backward-compatible with the D) photonic *
current hierarchy, its frame design includes a system of.
A) OCs 28. An STS multiplexer is a ______ device.
B) STMs A) one-layer
C) STSs B) two-layer
D) VTs * C) three-layer
D) four-layer *
19. A ________ is a repeater.
A) regenerator * 29. An add/drop multiplexer is a ______ device.
B) ADM A) one-layer
C) STS multiplexer/demultiplexer B) two-layer
D) none of the above C) three-layer *
D) four-layer
20. __________ allow insertion and extraction of signals.
A) regenerators 30. A regenerator is a ________ device.
B) ADMs * A) one-layer
C) STS multiplexer/demultiplexers B) two-layer *
D) none of the above C) three-layer

D) four-layer CHAPTER 18 (34 ITEMS)
31. In SONET, for each frame, the bytes are transmitted 1. ________ is a virtual-circuit wide-area network that
__________. was designed in response to demands for a new type of
A) from left to the right, top to bottom * WAN in the late 1980s and early 1990s.
B) from right to the left, bottom to top A) X.25
C) from left to the right, bottom to top B) Frame Relay *
D) from right to the left, top to bottom C) ATM
32. In SONET, for each byte, the bits are transmitted
____________. 2. Frame Relay provides ________.
A) from least significant to the most significant A) PVCs
B) from most significant to the least significant * B) SVCs
C) two at a time C) either (a) or (b) *
D) three at a time D) neither (a) nor (b)
33. Each ________in a SONET frame can carry a 3. VCIs in Frame Relay are called ______.
digitized voice channel. A) PVC
A) bit B) SVC
B) byte * C) DLCIs *
C) frame D) none of the above
D) none of the above 4. In Frame Relay, when a _____ is selected, the
corresponding table entry is recorded for all switches by
34. The section overhead consists of ______octets. the administrator
A) 1 A) PVC *
B) 6 B) SVC
C) 9 * C) either (a) or (b)
D) 18 D) neither (a) nor (b)
35. Line overhead consists of ________ bytes. 5. In Frame Relay, when. ______ is selected, it requires
A) 1 establishing and terminating phases
B) 6 A) a PVC
C) 9 B) an SVC *
D) 18 * C) either (a) or (b)
36. The path overhead consists of ______ bytes.
A) 1 6. Frame Relay has _______.
B) 6 A) only the physical layer
C) 9 * B) only the data link
D) 18 C) the physical and data link layers *
D) the physical, data link, and network layers
37. In ________ APS, there are normally two lines: one
working line and one protection line. Both lines are active 7. At the data link layer, Frame Relay uses a protocol
all the time. that supports _____control.
A) one-plus-one * A) flow
B) one-to-one B) error
C) one-to-many C) either (a) or (b)
D) none of the above D) neither (a) nor (b) *
38. In ______ APS, there is one working line and one 8. In Frame Relay, an address can be ________ bytes.
protection line. The data are normally sent on the A) only 2
working line until it fails. B) 2 to 3
A) one-plus-one C) 2 to 4 *
B) one-to-one * D) none of the above
C) one-to-many
D) none of the above 9. In Frame Relay, the EA field defines the number of
bytes; it is _____ in the last byte of the address.
39. In ________APS, there is only one protection line for A) 0
many working lines. When a failure occurs in one of the B) 1 *
working lines, the protection line takes control until the C) 2
failed line is repaired. D) 3
A) one-plus-one
B) one-to-one 10. To handle frames arriving from other protocols,
C) one-to-many * Frame Relay uses a device called a _________.
D) none of the above A) VOFR

B) FRAD * A) UNI *
C) MUX B) NNI
D) none of the above C) NNN
11. Frame Relay networks offer an option called
______________ that sends voice through the network. 21. _________ is the interface between two ATM
A) VOFR * switches.
B) FRAD A) UNI
C) MUX B) NNI *
D) none of the above C) NNN
12. ________ is the cell relay protocol designed by the
corresponding Forum and adopted by the ITU-T. 22. In ATM, connection between two endpoints is
A) X.25 accomplished through _______.
B) Frame Relay A) TPs
C) ATM * B) VPs
D) none of the above C) VCs
13. A _______ is defined as a small, fixed-size block of
information. 23. In ATM, the _______layer accepts transmissions
A) frame from upper-layer services and maps them into ATM cells.
B) packet A) physical
C) cell * B) ATM
D) none of the above C) AAL *
14. In ATM, a virtual connection is defined by
_________. 24. In ATM, the ______ layer provides routing, traffic
A) VPI management, switching, and multiplexing services.
B) VCI A) physical
C) DLCI B) ATM *
D) a combination of (a) and (b) * C) AAL
15. The ATM standard defines ______ layers.
A) two 25. In ATM, the _____ layer defines the transmission
B) three * medium, bit transmission, encoding, and electrical-to-
C) four optical transformation.
D) five A) physical *
B) ATM layer
16. The VPI of a UNI is _______ bits in length. C) AAL
A) 8 * D) none of the above
B) 12
C) 16 26. The AAL is divided into _______ sublayers.
D) 24 A) two *
B) three
17. The VPI of an NNI is _______ bits in length. C) four
B) 12 *
C) 16 27. In ATM, ______ is for constant-bit-rate data.
D) 24 A) AAL1 *
B) AAL2
18. The ATM data packet is a cell composed of ______ C) AAL3/4
bytes. D) AAL5
A) 40
B) 50 28. In ATM, _______is for short packets.
C) 52 A) AAL1
D) 53 * B) AAL2 *
C) AAL3/4
19. ______ eliminates the varying delay times associated D) AAL5
with different-size packets.
A) X.25 29. In ATM, _____ is for conventional packet switching
B) Frame Relay (virtual-circuit approach or datagram approach).
C) ATM * A) AAL1
D) all of the above B) AAL2
C) AAL3/4 *
20. A(n) ______ is the interface between a user and an D) AAL5
ATM switch.

30. In ATM, ______ is for packets requiring no 5. Identify the class of the following IPv4 address:
sequencing and no error control mechanism. 191.1.2.3.
A) AAL1 A) A
B) AAL2 B) B *
C) AAL3/4 C) C
D) AAL5 * D) none of the above
31. ________ technology can be adapted for use in a 6. What is the result of ANDing 255 and 15?
LAN (ATM LAN). A) 255
A) X.25 B) 15 *
B) Frame Relay C) 0
C) ATM * D) none of the above
7. What is the result of ANDing 0 and 15?
32. In a _____ ATM LAN, an ATM switch connects A) 255
stations. B) 15
A) pure * C) 0 *
B) legacy D) none of the above
C) mixed architecture
D) none of the above 8. What is the result of ANDing 254 and 15?
A) 254
33. In a _______ ATM LAN, the backbone that connects B) 14 *
traditional LANs uses ATM technology. C) 0
A) pure D) none of the above
B) legacy *
C) mixed architecture 9. What is the result of ANDing 192 and 65?
D) none of the above A) 192
B) 65
34. A _______ ATM LAN combines features of a pure C) 64 *
ATM LAN and a legacy ATM LAN. D) none of the above
A) pure
B) legacy 10. Which one is not a contiguous mask?
C) mixed architecture * A) 255.255.255.254
D) none of the above B) 255.255.224.0
C) 255.148.0.0 *
CHAPTER 19 (54 ITEMS) D) all are
1. An IPv4 address consists of _______ bits. 11. The number of addresses in a class C block is
A) 4 _______.
B) 8 A) 65,534
C) 32 * B) 16,777,216
D) 64 C) 256 *
2. In IPv4, class _______ has the greatest number of
addresses in each block. 12. The number of addresses in a class B block is
A) A * _______.
B) B A) 65,536 *
C) C B) 16,777,216
D) D C) 256
3. Identify the class of the following IPv4 address:
4.5.6.7. 13. The number of addresses in a class A block is
A) A * _______.
B) B A) 65,534
C) C B) 16,777,216 *
4. Identify the class of the following IPv4 address:
229.1.2.3. 14. The number of addresses assigned to an
A) A organization in classless addressing _______.
B) B A) can be any number
C) D * B) must be a multiple of 256
D) none of the above C) must be a power of 2 *

15. The first address assigned to an organization in A) 12.2.2.16

classless addressing _______. B) 12.2.2.112
A) must be a power of 4 C) 12.2.2.127 *
B) must be evenly divisible by the number of addresses D) none of the above
*
C) must belong to one of the A, B, or C classes 25. What is the last address of a block of classless
D) none of the above addresses if one of the addresses is 12.2.2.6/30?
A) 12.2.2.2
16. Which address could be the beginning address of a B) 12.2.2.6
block of 32 classless addresses? C) 12.2.2.7 *
A) 2.4.6.5 D) none of the above
B) 2.4.6.16
C) 2.4.6.64 * 26. An organization is granted a block; one address is
D) none of the above 2.2.2.64/20. The organization needs 10 subnets. What is
the subnet prefix length?
17. Which address could be the beginning address of a A) /20
block of 16 classless addresses? B) /24 *
A) 2.4.6.5 C) /25
B) 2.4.6.15 D) none of the above
C) 2.4.6.62
D) none of the above * 27. An organization is granted a block; one address is
2.2.2.64/25. If the subnet prefix length is /28, what is the
18. Which address could be the beginning address of a maximum number of subnets?
block of 256 classless addresses? A) 2
A) 2.4.6.5 B) 4
B) 2.4.6.15 C) 8 *
C) 2.4.6.0 * D) none of the above
28. An organization is granted a block of classless
19. What is the first address of a block of classless addresses with the starting address 199.34.76.64/28.
addresses if one of the addresses is 12.2.2.76/27? How many addresses are granted?
A) 12.2.2.0 A) 8
B) 12.2.2.32 B) 16 *
C) 12.2.2.64 * C) 32
20. What is the first address of a block of classless 29. An organization is granted a block of classless
addresses if one of the addresses is 12.2.2.76/10? addresses with the starting address 199.34.76.128/29.
A) 12.0.0.0 * How many addresses are granted?
B) 12.2.0.0 A) 8 *
C) 12.2.2.2 B) 16
21. What is the first address of a block of classless
addresses if one of the addresses is 12.2.2.127/28? 30. An organization is granted a block of classless
A) 12.2.2.0 addresses with the starting address 199.34.32.0/27. How
B) 12.2.2.96 many addresses are granted?
C) 12.2.2.112 * A) 8
D) none of the above B) 16
C) 32 *
22. Find the number of addresses in a block of classless D) none of the above
addresses if one of the addresses is 12.2.2.7/24.
A) 32 31. What is the default mask for class A in CIDR
B) 64 notation?
C) 256 * A) /9
D) none of the above B) /8 *
C) /16
23. Find the number of addresses in a block of classless D) none of the above
addresses if one of the addresses is 12.2.2.7/30.
A) 2 32. What is the default mask for class B in CIDR
B) 4 * notation?
C) 8 A) /9
D) none of the above B) /8
C) /16 *
24. What is the last address of a block of classless D) none of the above
addresses if one of the addresses is 12.2.2.127/28?

33. What is the default mask for class C in CIDR 43. In hexadecimal colon notation, a 128-bit address is
notation? divided into _______ sections, each _____ hexadecimal
A) /24 * digits in length.
B) /8 A) 8: 2
C) /16 B) 8: 3
D) none of the above C) 8: 4 *
34. In classless addressing, the ______ is another name
for the common part of the address range. 44. An IPv6 address can have up to __________ colons.
A) suffix A) 8
B) prefix * B) 7 *
C) netid C) 4
35. In classless addressing, the _______ is the varying 45. An IPv6 address can have up to __________
part (similar to the hostid). hexadecimal digits.
A) suffix * A) 16
B) prefix B) 32 *
C) hostid C) 8
36. In classless addressing, the prefix length defines the 46. In IPv6, _______ address defines a single computer.
_____________. A) a unicast *
A) netid B) a multicast
B) hostid C) an anycast
C) mask * D) none of the above
47. In IPv6, ____ address defines a group of computers
37. In a block, the prefix length is /24; what is the mask? with addresses that have the same prefix.
A) 255.255.255.0 * A) a unicast
B) 255.255.242.0 B) a multicast
C) 255.255.0.0 C) an anycast *
38. In a block, the prefix length is /15; what is the mask? 48. In IPv6, _________ address defines a group of
A) 255.254.0.0 computers.
B) 255.255.255.0 * A) a unicast
C) 255.255.255.128 B) a multicast *
D) none of the above C) an anycast
39. In a block, the mask is 255.255.192.0; what is the
prefix length? 49. In IPv6, the ________ prefix defines the purpose of
A) /20 the address.
B) /28 A) type *
C) /18 * B) purpose
D) none of the above C) both a and b
40. An IPv6 address is _________ bits long.
A) 32 50. In IPv6, the___________ address is generally used
B) 64 by a normal host as a unicast address.
C) 128 * A) provider-based unicast *
D) none of the above B) link local
C) site local
41. An IPv6 address consists of ________ bytes (octets); D) none of the above
A) 4
B) 8 51. In IPv6, a _________address comprises 80 bits of
C) 16 * zero, followed by 16 bits of one, followed by the 32-bit
D) none of the above IPv4 address.
A) link local
42. To make addresses more readable, IPv6 specifies B) site local
____________notation. C) mapped *
A) dotted decimal D) none of the above
B) hexadecimal colon *
C) both a and b 52. In IPv6, a ___________ address is an address of 96
D) none of the above bits of zero followed by 32 bits of IPv4 address.

A) link local B) the datagram is 100 bytes in size

B) site local C) the first byte of the datagram is byte 100
C) mapped D) the first byte of the datagram is byte 800 *
7. In IPv4, what is needed to determine the number of
53. In IPv6, a _______ address is used if a LAN uses the the last byte of a fragment?
Internet protocols but is not connected to the Internet for A) Identification number
security reasons. B) Offset number
A) link local * C) Total length
B) site local D) (b) and (c) *
C) mapped
D) none of the above 8. The IPv4 header size _______.
A) is 20 to 60 bytes long *
54. In IPv6, a ______address is used if a site with B) is always 20 bytes long
several networks uses the Internet protocols but is not C) is always 60 bytes long
connected to the Internet for security reasons. D) depends on the MTU
A) link local *
B) site local 9. Which of the following is a necessary part of the IPv6
C) mapped datagram?
D) none of the above A) Base header *
B) Extension header
CHAPTER 20 (22 ITEMS) C) Data packet from the upper layer
D) (a) and (c)
1. A best-effort delivery service such as IPv4 includes
_______. 10. In IPv6, the _______ field in the base header restricts
A) error checking the lifetime of a datagram.
B) error correction A) version
C) datagram acknowledgment B) next-header
D) none of the above * C) hop limit *
D) neighbor-advertisement
2. In IPv4 header, an HLEN value of decimal 10 means
_______. 11. The ________ protocol is the transmission
A) there are 10 bytes of options mechanism used by the TCP/IP suite.
B) there are 40 bytes of options A) ARP
C) there are 10 bytes in the header B) IP *
D) there are 40 bytes in the header * C) RARP
3. In IPv4, what is the value of the total length field in
bytes if the header is 28 bytes and the data field is 400 12. IP is _________ datagram protocol.
bytes? A) an unreliable
A) 428 * B) a connectionless
B) 407 C) both a and b *
D) 427
13. The term ________ means that IP provides no error
4. In IPv4, what is the length of the data field given an checking or tracking. IP assumes the unreliability of the
HLEN value of 12 and total length value of 40,000? underlying layers and does its best to get a transmission
A) 39,988 through to its destination, but with no guarantees.
B) 40,012 A) reliable delivery
C) 40,048 B) connection-oriented delivery
D) 39,952 * C) best-effort delivery *
5. An IPv4 datagram is fragmented into three smaller
datagrams. Which of the following is true? 14. In IPv4, an HLEN value of decimal 10 means
A) The do not fragment bit is set to 1 for all three _______.
datagrams. A) there are 10 bytes of options
B) The more fragment bit is set to 0 for all three B) there are 40 bytes of options
datagrams. C) there are 40 bytes in the header *
C) The identification field is the same for all three D) none of the above
datagrams. *
D) The offset field is the same for all three datagrams. 15. In IPv4, which field or bit value unambiguously
identifies the datagram as a fragment?
6. In IPv4, if the fragment offset has a value of 100, it A) Do not fragment bit ? 0
means that _______. B) More Fragment bit ? 0
A) the datagram has not been fragmented C) Fragment offset = 1000 *


16. The IPv4 header size _______.
A) is 20 to 60 bytes long * 3. A ________ is a local address. Its jurisdiction is over a
B) is 20 bytes long local network.
C) is 60 bytes long A) physical *
D) none of the above B) logical
C) a and b
17. In IPv4, when a datagram is encapsulated in a frame, D) none of the above
the total size of the datagram must be less than the
_______. 4. If the sender is a host and wants to send a packet to
A) MUT another host on the same network, the logical address
B) MAT that must be mapped to a physical address is ______.
C) MTU * A) the destination IP address in the datagram header *
D) none of the above B) the IP address of the router found in the routing table
C) either a or b
18. The IPv4 header field formerly known as the service D) none of the above
type field is now called the _______ field.
A) IETF 5. If the sender is a host and wants to send a packet to
B) checksum another host on another network, the logical address that
C) differentiated services * must be mapped to a physical address is ______.
D) none of the above A) the destination IP address in the datagram header
B) the IP address of the router found in the routing table
19. In IPv6, options are inserted between the _________ *
and the ___________ data. C) either a or b
A) base header; extension header D) none of the above
B) base header; upper-layer data *
C) base header; frame header 6. The sender is a router that has received a datagram
D) none of the above destined for a host on another network. The logical
address that must be mapped to a physical address is
20. IPv6 allows _________ security provisions than IPv4. ______.
A) more * A) the destination IP address in the datagram header
B) less B) the IP address of the router found in the routing table
C) the same level *
D) none of the above C) either a or b
21. In IPv6, when a datagram needs to be discarded in a
congested network, the decision is based on the 7. The sender is a router that has received a datagram
_______ field in the base header. destined for a host on the same network. The logical
A) hop limit address that must be mapped to a physical address is
B) priority * ______.
C) next header A) the destination IP address in the datagram header *
D) none of the above B) the IP address of the router found in the routing table
C) either a or b
22. In IPv6, the _______ field in the base header and the D) none of the above
sender IP address combine to indicate a unique path
identifier for a specific flow of data. 8. In _______, a table associating a logical address with
A) flow label * a physical address is updated manually.
B) next header A) static mapping *
C) hop limit B) dynamic mapping
D) destination IP address C) physical mapping
9. _______ is a dynamic mapping protocol in which a
1. A _______ address is an internetwork address with physical address is found for a given logical address.
universal jurisdiction. A) ARP *
A) physical B) RARP
B) logical * C) both a and b
C) a and b D) none of the above
10. The target hardware address on an Ethernet is
2. The logical addresses in the Internet are called _______ in an ARP request.
_______ addresses. A) 0x000000000000 *
A) port B) 0.0.0.0
B) IP * C) variable
C) Email D) class dependent

A) UDP
11. An ARP reply is normally _______. B) TCP
A) broadcast C) ICM
B) multicast D) none of the above *
C) unicast *
D) none of the above 21. IGMP is _______ protocol.
A) an error reporting
12. An ARP request is normally _______. B) a group management *
A) broadcast * C) a transmission
B) multicast D) none of the above
C) unicast
D) none of the above 22. IGMP helps a ________ router create and update a
list of loyal members related to each router interface.
13. A technique called ______ is used to create a A) broadcast
subnetting effect. B) unicast
A) ARP C) multicast *
B) RARP D) none of the above
C) proxy ARP *
D) none of the above 23. IGMP operates __________.
A) locally *
14. A _______ is an ARP that acts on behalf of a set of B) globally
hosts. C) both a and b
A) ARP D) none of the above
B) RARP
C) proxy ARP * 24. An IGMP query is sent from a _______ to a _______.
D) none of the above A) host; host
B) host; router
15. ICMP is a _________ layer protocol. C) router; host or router *
A) data link D) none of the above
B) transport
C) network * 25. The _______ is used by a router in response to a
D) none of the above received leave report.
A) general query message
16. ICMP messages are divided into two broad B) special query message *
categories: _____________. C) membership report
A) query and error reporting messages * D) none of the above
B) request and response messages
C) request and reply messages 26. The least significant 23 bits in a 48-bit Ethernet
D) none of the above address identify a ________.
A) multicast router
17. An ICMP message has _____ header and a variable- B) host
size data section. C) multicast group *
A) a 16-byte D) none of the above
B) a 32-byte
C) an 8-byte * 27. The _______ field of the IGMP message is all zeros
D) none of the above in a query message.
A) version
18. Which of the following is true about ICMP messages? B) type
A) An ICMP error message may be generated for an C) group address
ICMP error message. D) none of the above
B) An ICMP error message may be generated for each
fragment. 28. A multicast message is sent from _______ to
C) An ICMP error message may be generated for a _______.
multicast datagram. A) one source; one destination
D) none is true * B) one source; multiple destinations *
C) multiple sources; one destination
19. Which of the following is true about ICMP messages? D) none of the above
A) An ICMP error message may be generated for an
ICMP error message. 29. In networks that do not support physical multicast
B) An ICMP error message may be generated only for addressing, multicasting can be accomplished through
the first fragment. * _______.
C) An ICMP error message may be generated for a A) mapping
multicast datagram. B) queries
D) none is true C) tunneling *
20. IGMP is a companion to the ______ protocol.

30. If four hosts on a network belong to the same group, 5. In _______ forwarding, the destination address is a
a total of _______ sent in response to a general query network address in the routing table.
message. A) next-hop
A) one membership report is B) network-specific *
B) two membership reports are * C) host-specific
C) three membership reports are D) default
6. In _______ forwarding, the routing table holds the
31. In IGMP, a membership report is sent _______. address of just the next hop instead of complete route
A) once information.
B) twice * A) next-hop *
C) three times B) network-specific
D) none of the above C) host-specific
D) default
32. In IGMP, the general query message
___________________ group. 7. The idea of address aggregation was designed to
A) does not define a particular * alleviate the increase in routing table entries when using
B) explicitly defines a ________.
C) can define more than one A) classful addressing
D) none of the above B) classless addressing *
C) both a and b
33. An IGMP packet is carried in an __________ packet. D) none of the above
A) UDP
B) IP * 8. The principle of ________ states that the routing table
C) Ethernet frame is sorted from the longest mask to the shortest mask.
D) none of the above A) first mask matching
B) shortest mask matching
34. The IP packet that carries an IGMP packet has a C) longest mask matching *
value of _______ in its protocol field. D) none of the above
A) 3
B) 2 * 9. The use of hierarchy in routing tables can ________
C) 1 the size of the routing tables.
D) none of the above A) reduce *
B) increase
CHAPTER 22 (67 ITEMS) C) both a and b
1. In _______ delivery, both the deliverer of the IP packet
and the destination are on the same network. 10. _______ deals with the issues of creating and
A) a connectionless maintaining routing tables.
B) a direct * A) Forwarding
C) an indirect B) Routing *
D) none of the above C) Directing
2. In _______ delivery, the deliverer of the IP packet and
the destination are on different networks. 11. A _______ routing table contains information entered
A) a connection-oriented manually.
B) a direct A) static *
C) an indirect * B) dynamic
D) none of the above C) hierarchical
3. In _______ forwarding, the full IP address of a
destination is given in the routing table. 12. A _______ routing table is updated periodically using
A) next-hop one of the dynamic routing protocols.
B) network-specific A) static
C) host-specific * B) dynamic *
D) default C) hierarchical
4. In _______ forwarding, the mask and destination
addresses are both 0.0.0.0 in the routing table. 13. The input and output ports of a router perform the
A) next-hop ________ layer functions of the router.
B) network-specific A) physical and data link *
C) host-specific B) network
D) default * C) transport

14. The routing processor of a router performs the C) link state

________ layer functions of the router. D) none of the above
A) physical and data link
B) network * 24. In distance vector routing, each node periodically
C) transport shares its routing table with _________ and whenever
D) none of the above there is a change.
A) every other node
15. The task of moving the packet from the input queue B) its immediate neighbors *
to the output queue in a router is done by _________. C) one neighbor
A) input and output ports D) none of the above
B) routing processor
C) switching fabrics * 25. The Routing Information Protocol (RIP) is an
D) none of the above intradomain routing based on _________ routing.
A) distance vector *
16. A static table is one _______. B) link state
A) with manual entries * C) path vector
B) which is updated automatically D) none of the above
C) either a or b
D) none of the above 26. The metric used by _______ is the hop count.
A) OSPF
17. A dynamic table is one _______. B) RIP *
A) with manual entries C) BGP
B) which is updated automatically * D) none of the above
C) either a or b
D) none of the above 27. The _________ routing uses the Dijkstra algorithm to
build a routing table.
18. For purposes of routing, the Internet is divided into A) distance vector
___________. B) link state *
A) wide area networks C) path vector
B) autonomous networks D) none of the above
C) autonomous systems *
D) none of the above 28. The Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) protocol is an
intradomain routing protocol based on _______ routing.
19. ____________ is a group of networks and routers A) distance vector
under the authority of a single administration. B) link state *
A) An autonomous system * C) path vector
B) An area D) none of the above
C) a and b
D) none of the above 29. The _______ protocol allows the administrator to
assign a cost, called the metric, to each route.
20. Routing inside an autonomous system is referred to A) OSPF *
as _______________. B) RIP
A) interdomain routing C) BGP
B) intradomain routing * D) none of the above
C) both a and b
D) none of the above 30. In OSPF, a ________ link connects two routers
without any other host or router in between.
21. Routing between autonomous systems is referred to A) point-to-point *
as ____________. B) transient
A) interdomain routing * C) stub
B) intradomain routing D) none of the above
C) both a and b
D) none of the above 31. In OSPF, a _______ link is a network with several
routers attached to it.
22. In _______ routing, the least cost route between any A) point-to-point
two nodes is the route with the minimum distance. B) transient *
A) path vector C) stub
B) distance vector * D) none of the above
C) link state
D) none of the above 32. In OSPF, a ________ link is a network is connected
to only one router.
23. In ________, each node maintains a vector (table) of A) point-to-point
minimum distances to every node. B) transient
A) path vector C) stub *
B) distance vector * D) none of the above

33. In OSPF, when the link between two routers is D) none of the above
broken, the administration may create a _________ link
between them using a longer path that probably goes 42. In _______, the router may forward the received
through several routers. packet through several of its interfaces.
A) point-to-point A) unicasting
B) transient B) multicasting *
C) stub C) broadcasting
34. In ________ routing, we assume that there is one 43. Emulation of ________ through ___________ is not
node (or more) in each autonomous system that acts on efficient and may create long delays.
behalf of the entire autonomous system. A) unicasting; multiple unicasting
A) distant vector B) multicasting; multiple unicasting *
B) path vector * C) broadcasting; multicasting
C) link state D) none of the above
44. In unicast routing, each router in the domain has a
35. ___________ is an interdomain routing protocol table that defines a ______ path tree to possible
using path vector routing. destinations.
A) BGP * A) average
B) RIP B) longest
C) OSPF C) shortest *
36. To create a neighborhood relationship, a router 45. In multicast routing, each involved router needs to
running BGP sends an ________ message. construct a ________ path tree for each group.
A) open * A) average
B) update B) longest
C) keepalive C) shortest *
37. An area is _______. 46. In the _______ tree approach, each router needs to
A) part of an AS * have one shortest path tree for each group.
B) composed of at least two ASs A) group-shared
C) another term for an AS B) source-based *
D) none of the above C) a or b
38. A one-to-all communication between one source and
all hosts on a network is classified as a _______ 47. In the group-shared tree approach, _________
communication. involved in multicasting.
A) unicast A) only the core router is *
B) multicast B) all routers are
C) broadcast * C) only some routers are
39. A one-to-many communication between one source 48. Multicast link state routing uses the _______ tree
and a specific group of hosts is classified as a _______ approach.
communication. A) source-based *
A) unicast B) group-shared
B) multicast * C) a or b
C) broadcast D) none of the above
49. The Multicast Open Shortest Path First (MOSPF)
40. A one-to-one communication between one source protocol is an extension of the OSPF protocol that uses
and one destination is classified as a _______ multicast routing to create source-based trees. The
communication. protocol is based on _______ routing.
A) unicast * A) distance vector
B) multicast B) link state *
C) broadcast C) path vector
41. In ______, the router forwards the received packet 50. MOSPF is a _______ protocol.
through only one of its interfaces. A) data-driven *
A) unicasting * B) command-driven
B) multicasting C) both a and b
C) broadcasting D) none of the above

60. DVMRP is a ________routing protocol, based on

51. _________ broadcasts packets, but creates loops in RIP.
the systems. A) source-based *
A) Forwarding B) group-shared
B) Flooding * C) both a and b
C) Backwarding D) none of the above
61. Pruning and grafting are strategies used in _______.
52. In RPF, a router forwards only the copy that has A) RPF
traveled the _______ path from the source to the router. B) RPB
A) shortest * C) RPM *
B) longest D) none of the above
C) average
D) none of the above 62. A _______ message tells an upstream router to stop
sending multicast messages for a specific group through
53. RPF eliminates the ________ in the flooding process. a specific router.
A) forwarding A) weed
B) backwarding B) graft
C) flooding C) prune *
54. RPF guarantees that each network receives only 63. A _______ message tells an upstream router to start
____ of the multicast packet. sending multicast messages for a specific group through
A) one copy a specific router.
B) two copies A) weed
B) graft *
C) a or b C) prune
55. RPB creates a shortest path _______ tree from the
source to each destination. 64. CBT is a ________ protocol that uses a core as the
A) unicast root of the tree.
B) multicast A) source-based
C) broadcast B) group-shared *
56. RPB guarantees that each destination receives
_________ of the packet. 65. PIM-DM is used in a _______ multicast environment,
A) one copy * such as a LAN.
B) no copies A) dense *
C) multiple copies B) sparse
57. In ________, the multicast packet must reach only
those networks that have active members for that 66. PIM-SM is used in a _______multicast environment
particular group. such as a WAN.
A) RPF A) dense
B) RPB B) sparse *
C) RPM * C) a or b
58. _______ adds pruning and grafting to _______ to 67. In _______, a logical tunnel is established by
create a multicast shortest path tree that supports encapsulating the multicast packet inside a unicast
dynamic membership changes. packet.
A) RPM; RPB * A) UNIBONE
B) RPB; RPM B) MULTBONE
C) RPF: RPM C) MBONE *
59. __________ is an implementation of multicast CHAPTER 23 (77 ITEMS)

distance vector routing. It is a source-based routing
protocol, based on RIP. 1. One of the responsibilities of the transport layer
A) MOSPF protocol is to create a ______ communication.
B) DVMRP * A) host-to-host
C) CBT B) process-to-process *
D) none of the above C) node-to-node

D) none of the above A) process-to-process communication *

B) host-to-host communication
2. UDP is called a ________________transport protocol. C) end-to-end reliable data delivery
A) connectionless, reliable D) none of the above
B) connection-oriented, unreliable
C) connectionless, unreliable * 12. When the IP layer of a receiving host receives a
D) none of the above datagram, _______.
A) delivery is complete
3. UDP does not add anything to the services of IP B) a transport layer protocol takes over *
except for providing _______ communication. C) a header is added
A) node-to-node D) none of the above
B) process-to-process *
C) host-to-host 13. UDP needs the _______ address to deliver the user
D) none of the above datagram to the correct application process.
A) port *
4. UDP is an acronym for _______. B) application
A) User Delivery Protocol C) internet
B) User Datagram Procedure D) none of the above
C) User Datagram Protocol *
D) none of the above 14. A port address in UDP is _______bits long.
A) 8
5. Although there are several ways to achieve process- B) 16 *
to-process communication, the most common is through C) 32
the __________ paradigm. D) any of the above
A) client-server *
B) client-client 15. Which of the following does UDP guarantee?
C) server-server A) flow control
D) none of the above B) connection-oriented delivery
C) flow control
6. The local host and the remote host are defined using D) none of the above *
IP addresses. To define the processes, we need second
identifiers called ____________. 16. The source port address on the UDP user datagram
A) UDP addresses header defines _______.
B) transport addresses A) the sending computer
C) port addresses * B) the receiving computer
D) none of the above C) the process running on the sending computer *
7. The ports ranging from 49,152 to 65,535 can be used
as temporary or private port numbers. They are called 17. The combination of an IP address and a port number
the ________ ports. is called a ____________.
A) well-known A) transport address
B) registered B) network address
C) dynamic * C) socket address *
8. In the sending computer, UDP receives a data unit 18. To use the services of UDP, we need ________
from the _______ layer. socket addresses.
A) application * A) four
B) transport B) two *
C) IP C) three
9. In the sending computer, UDP sends a data unit to the 19. UDP packets are called __________.
_______ layer. A) user datagrams *
A) application B) segments
B) transport C) frames
C) IP * D) none of the above
20. UDP packets have a fixed-size header of _______
10. UDP and TCP are both _______ layer protocols. bytes.
A) data link A) 16
B) network B) 8 *
C) transport * C) 40
11. Which of the following functions does UDP perform? 21. UDP packets are encapsulated in ___________.

A) an Ethernet frame D) none of the above

B) an TCP segment
C) an IP datagram * 31. The bytes of data being transferred in each
D) none of the above connection are numbered by TCP. The numbering starts
with a __________________.
22. UDP uses ________ to handle outgoing user A) 0
datagrams from multiple processes on one host. B) 1
A) flow control C) randomly generated number *
B) multiplexing * D) none of the above
C) demultiplexing
D) none of the above 32. TCP assigns a sequence number to each segment
that is being sent. The sequence number for each
23. UDP uses _______ to handle incoming user segment is the number of the _______ byte carried in
datagrams that go to different processes on the same that segment.
host. A) first *
A) flow control B) last
B) multiplexing C) middle
C) demultiplexing * D) none of the above
D) none of the above 33. Communication in TCP is ___________.

24. TCP is a __________protocol. A) simplex
A) stream-oriented * B) half-duplex
B) message-oriented C) full-duplex *
C) block-oriented
34. The value of the acknowledgment field in a segment
25. TCP allows the sending process to deliver data as a defines the number of the ______byte a party expects to
_______of bytes and allows the receiving process to receive.
obtain data as a _________ of bytes. A) first
A) message; message B) last
B) stream; stream * C) next *
C) block; block D) none of the above
35. The acknowledgment number is ________.
26. Because the sending and the receiving processes A) independent
may not write or read data at the same speed, TCP B) randomly generated
________. C) cumulative *
A) speeds up the slower process D) none of the above
B) slows down the faster process
C) uses buffers * 36. The value of the window size is determined by
D) none of the above _________.
A) the sender
27. TCP groups a number of bytes together into a packet B) the receiver *
called a ___________. C) both the sender and receiver
A) user datagram D) none of the above
B) segment *
C) datagram 37. The inclusion of the checksum in the TCP segment is
D) none of the above ________.
A) optional
28. TCP is a ___________ protocol. B) mandatory *
A) connection-oriented * C) at the discretion of the application program
B) connectionless D) none of the above
C) both a and b
D) none of the above 38. A TCP segment is encapsulated in __________.
A) an IP datagram *
29. TCP is a(n) _______ transport protocol. B) an Ethernet frame
A) unreliable C) a UDP user datagram
B) best-effort delivery D) none of the above
C) reliable *
D) none of the above 39. Connection establishment in TCP is called
__________ handshaking.
30. TCP uses _________________ to check the safe A) two-way
and sound arrival of data. B) four-way
A) an acknowledgment mechanism * C) one-way
B) out-of-band signalling D) none of the above *
C) the services of another protocol

40. A SYN segment cannot carry data; it consumes 49. __________ control regulates the amount of data a
_____ sequence number(s). source can send before receiving an acknowledgment
A) no from the destination.
B) one * A) Error
C) two B) Flow *
D) none of the above C) Congestion
41. A SYN + ACK segment cannot carry data; it
consumes _____ sequence number(s). 50. To accomplish flow control, TCP uses a
A) no ___________ window protocol.
B) three A) limited-size
C) two B) sliding *
D) none of the above * C) fixed-size
42. An ACK segment, if carrying no data, consumes
______ sequence number(s). 59. If the ACK value is 200, then byte _______ has been
A) no * received successfully.
B) one A) 199 *
C) two B) 200
43. The connection establishment procedure in TCP is
susceptible to a 60. Stream Control Transmission Protocol (SCTP) is a
serious security problem called the _________ attack. new _____________protocol.
A) ACK flooding A) reliable, character-oriented
B) FIN flooding B) reliable, message-oriented *
C) SYN flooding * C) unreliable, message-oriented
44. The SYN flooding attack belongs to a group of 61. SCTP allows __________ service in each
security attacks known as a _____ attack. association.
A) denial of service * A) single stream
B) replay B) multistream *
C) man-in-the middle C) double stream
45. The FIN segment consumes ____ sequence 62. SCTP association allows _____________ for each
numbers if it does not carry data. end.
A) two * A) only one IP address
B) three B) multiple IP addresses *
C) no C) only two IP address
46. The FIN + ACK segment consumes _____ sequence 63. In SCTP, a data chunk is numbered using ________.
number(s) if it does not carry data. A) a TSN *
A) two B) an SI
B) three C) an SSN
C) one * D) none of the above
64. To distinguish between different streams, SCTP uses
47. In TCP, one end can stop sending data while still ___________.
receiving data. This is called a ______. A) a TSN
A) half-close * B) an SI *
B) half-open C) an SSN
C) one-way termination D) none of the above
65. To distinguish between different data chunks
48. A(n) _________ machine is a machine that goes belonging to the same stream, SCTP uses
through a limited number of states. ___________.
A) infinite state * A) TSNs
B) finite state B) SIs
C) both a and b C) SSNs *
66. TCP has ____________; SCTP has ____________.

A) packets; segments

B) segments; packets * 76. In SCTP, ___________ can be carried in a packet

C) segments; frames that carries an INIT chunk.
D) none of the above A) only data chunks
B) only control chunks
67. The control information in SCTP is included in the C) no other chunk *
A) header control field
B) control chunks * 77. A connection in SCTP is called an ____________.
C) data chunks A) negotiation
D) none of the above B) association *
C) transmission
68. An SCTP packet can carry __________. D) none of the above
A) only one data chunk
B) several data chunks * CHAPTER 24 (45 ITEMS)
C) no data chunks
D) none of the above 1. In ________ we try to avoid traffic congestion.
A) congestion control *
69. In SCTP, the acknowledgment number and window B) quality of service
size are part of each ________. C) either (a) or (b)
A) data chunk D) both (a) and (b)
B) control chunk *
C) a or b 2. In _________, we try to create an appropriate
D) none of the above environment for the traffic.
A) congestion control
70. There is no need for a header length field in SCTP B) quality of service *
because ________________. C) either (a) or (b)
A) there are no options in the general header D) both (a) and (b)
B) the size of the header is fixed
C) both a and b * 3. Traffic ______ are qualitative values that represent a
D) none of the above data flow.
A) controls
71. The checksum in SCTP is ________ bits. B) descriptors *
A) 16 C) values
C) 64
D) none of the above 4. The _______ defines the maximum data rate of the
traffic.
72. The association identifier in SCTP is A) peak data rate *
__________________. B) maximum burst size
A) a unique verification tag * C) effective bandwidth
B) a combination of logical and port addresses D) none of the above
C) either a or b
D) none of the above 5. The________ normally refers to the maximum length
of time the traffic is generated at the peak rate.
73. In SCTP, control information and data information are A) peak data rate
carried in _______ chunks. B) maximum burst size *
A) the same chunk C) effective bandwidth
B) different chunks * D) none of the above
C) either a or b
D) none of the above 6. The ________ is a function of three values: average
data rate, peak data rate, and maximum burst size.
74. In SCTP, acknowledgment numbers are used to A) peak data rate
acknowledge _____________. B) maximum burst size
A) both data chunks and control chunks C) effective bandwidth *
B) only control chunks D) none of the above
C) only data chunks *
D) none of the above 7. A _________ traffic model has a data rate that does
not change.
75. In an SCTP packet, control chunks come A) constant bit rate *
___________ data chunks. B) variable bit rate
A) after C) bursty
B) before * D) none of the above
C) a or b

8. In the ________ traffic model, the rate of the data flow A) open-loop
changes in time, with the changes smooth instead of B) closed-loop *
sudden and sharp. C) either (a) or (b)
A) constant bit rate D) neither (a) nor (b)
B) variable bit rate *
C) bursty 18. The technique of ________refers to a congestion
D) none of the above control mechanism in which a congested node stops
receiving data from the immediate upstream node or
9. In the ______ traffic model, the data rate changes nodes.
suddenly in a very short time. A) backpressure *
A) constant bit rate B) choke packet
B) variable bit rate C) implicit signaling
C) bursty * D) explicit signaling
19. A ___________ is a packet sent by a node to the
10. _______ happens in any system that involves source to inform it of congestion.
waiting. A) backpressure
A) Congestion * B) choke packet *
B) Jamming C) implicit signaling
C) Error D) explicit signaling
20. In __________, there is no communication between
11. Congestion in a network or internetwork occurs the congested node or nodes and the source. The source
because routers and switches have _______. guesses that there is a congestion somewhere in the
A) tables network from other symptoms.
B) queues * A) backpressure
C) crosspoints B) choke packet
D) none of the above C) implicit signaling *
D) explicit signaling
12. In a network, when the load is much less than the
capacity of the network, the delay is _________. 21. In the __________ method, the signal is included in
A) at a maximum the packets that carry data.
B) at a minimum * A) backpressure
C) constant B) choke packet
D) none of the above C) implicit signaling
D) explicit signaling *
13. In a network, when the load reaches the network
capacity, the delay _______. 22. In the ________ algorithm of TCP, the size of the
A) increases sharply * congestion window increases exponentially until it
B) decreases sharply reaches a threshold.
C) remains constant A) slow-start *
D) cannot be predicted B) congestion avoidance
C) congestion detection
14. In a network, when the load is below the capacity of D) none of the above
the network, the throughput ______________.
A) increases sharply 23. In the _________ algorithm of TCP, the size of the
B) increases proportionally with the load * congestion window increases additively until congestion
C) declines sharply is detected.
D) declines proportionally with the load A) slow-start
B) congestion avoidance *
15. In a network, after the load reaches the capacity, C) congestion detection
throughput _______. D) none of the above
A) increases sharply
B) increases proportionally with the load 24. In the ___________ algorithm of TCP, the size of the
C) declines sharply * threshold is dropped to one-half, a multiplicative
D) declines proportionally with the load decrease.
A) slow-start
16. In ________ congestion control, policies are applied B) congestion avoidance
to prevent congestion before it happens. C) congestion detection *
A) open-loop * D) none of the above
B) closed-loop
C) either (a) or (b) 25. In Frame Relay, the ________ bit warns the sender
D) neither (a) nor (b) of congestion in the network.
A) BECN *
17. In _______ congestion control, mechanisms are used B) FECN
to alleviate congestion after it happens. C) either (a) or (b)

D) neither (a) nor (b) 34. In the ______ bucket algorithm, bursty chunks are
stored in the bucket and sent out at an average rate.
26. In Frame Relay, the ________ bit is used to warn the A) leaky *
receiver of congestion in the network. B) token
A) BECN C) either (a) or (b)
B) FECN * D) neither (a) nor (b)
D) neither (a) nor (b) 35. The _______ bucket algorithm allows idle hosts to
accumulate credit for the future in the form of tokens.
27. Traditionally, ________types of characteristics are A) leaky
attributed to a flow. B) token *
A) two C) either (a) or (b)
B) three D) neither (a) nor (b)
C) four *
D) five 36. In _________, when a source makes a reservation, it
needs to define a flow specification.
28. _________ is a characteristic that a flow needs. Lack A) Integrated Services *
of it means losing a packet or acknowledgment, which B) Differentiated Services
entails retransmission. C) Connectionless
A) Reliability * D) Connection-Oriented
B) Delay
C) Jitter 37. _________ is a class-based QoS model designed for
D) Bandwidth IP.
A) Integrated Services
29. _______ is a flow characteristic that applications can B) Differentiated Services *
tolerate in different degrees. C) Connectionless
A) Reliability D) Connection-Oriented
B) Delay
C) Jitter 38. In Frame Relay, the user can never exceed
D) Bandwidth the_________.
A) access rate *
30. ________ is the variation in delay for packets B) committed burst size
belonging to the same flow. C) committed information rate
A) Reliability D) excess burst size
B) Delay
C) Jitter * 39. In Frame Relay, a ___________ is the maximum
D) Bandwidth number of bits in a predefined time that the network is
committed to transfer without discarding any frame or
31. In ________, queuing packets wait in a buffer setting the DE bit.
(queue) until the node (router or switch) is ready to A) access rate
process them. B) committed burst size *
A) FIFO * C) committed information rate
B) priority D) excess burst size
C) weighted fair
D) none of the above 40. In Frame Relay, the _____________ defines an
average rate in bits per second.
32. In ________ queuing, packets are first assigned to a A) access rate
priority class. Each class has its own queue. B) committed burst size
A) FIFO C) committed information rate *
B) priority * D) excess burst size
C) weighted fair
D) none of the above 41. In Frame Relay, the ___________ is the maximum
number of bits in excess of Bc that a user can send
33. In _________ queuing, the packets are assigned to during a predefined time.
different classes and admitted to different queues. The A) access rate
queues, however, are weighted based on the priority of B) committed burst size
the queues; higher priority means a higher weight. The C) committed information rate
system processes packets in each queue in a round- D) excess burst size *
robin fashion with the number of packets selected from
each queue based on the corresponding weight. 42. In ATM, the _________ class is designed for
A) FIFO customers who need real-time audio or video services.
B) priority The service is similar to that provided by a dedicated line
C) weighted fair * such as a T line.
D) none of the above A) CBR *
B) VBR
C) ABR

D) UBR B) name; 255

C) label; 63 *
43. In ATM, the _________ class is divided into two
subclasses: real-time (VBR-RT) and non-real-time (VBR- D) none of the above
NRT). VBR-RT is designed for those users who need 6. The root of the DNS tree is _______.
real-time services (such as voice and video transmission) A) a string of characters
and use compression techniques to create a variable bit B) a string of 63 characters
rate. VBR-NRT is designed for those users who do not C) an empty string *
need real-time services but use compression techniques D) none of the above
to create a variable bit rate.
A) CBR 7. A full domain name is a sequence of labels separated
B) VBR * by ________.
C) ABR A) semicolons
D) UBR B) dots *
C) colons
44. In ATM, the _________ class delivers cells at a D) none of the above
minimum rate. If more network capacity is available, this
minimum rate can be exceeded. 8. If a label is terminated by a null string, it is called a
A) CBR __________.
B) VBR A) PQDN
C) ABR * B) FQDN *
D) UBR C) SQDN
45. In ATM, the _________ class is a best-effort delivery
service that does not guarantee anything. 9. If a label is not terminated by a null string, it is called a
A) CBR __________.
B) VBR A) PQDN *
C) ABR B) FQDN
D) UBR * C) SQDN
CHAPTER 25 (27 ITEMS) 10. A _________ is a subtree of the domain name space.
A) label
B) name
1. In a _______ name space, a name is assigned to an
C) domain *
address. A name in this space is a sequence of
characters without structure.
A) flat *
11. What a server is responsible for or has authority over
B) hierarchical
is called a _________.
C) organized
A) domain
B) label
C) zone *
2. In a _________name space, each name is made of
several parts.
A) flat
12. A _______ is a server whose zone consists of the
B) hierarchical *
whole tree.
C) organized
A) domain server
B) zone server
C) root server *
3. To have a hierarchical name space, a
______________ was designed.
A) domain space
13. A ________ server loads all information from the disk
B) domain name
file.
C) domain name space *
A) primary *
B) secondary
C) zone
4. In the DNS, the names are defined in ___________
structure.
A) a linear list
14. A ________ server loads all information from the
B) an inverted-tree *
primary server.
C) a graph
A) primary
B) secondary *
D) none of the above C) zone
5. Each node in the tree has a _______, which is a string D) none of the above
with a maximum of ___ characters.
A) label; 127

15. When the secondary downloads information from the B) atc

primary, it is called ______ transfer. C) fhda
A) domain D) none of the above
B) zone *
C) label 25. A host with the domain name pit.arc.nasa.gov. is on
D) none of the above the _______ level of the DNS hierarchical tree. (The root
is level one.)
16. In the Internet, the domain name space (tree) is A) third
divided into _______ different sections: B) fourth
A) three * C) fifth *
B) two D) none of the above
C) four
D) none of the above 26. A pointer query involves the _______ domain.
A) inverse *
17. The _______ domains define registered hosts B) reverse
according to their generic behavior. C) root
A) generic * D) none of the above
B) country
C) inverse 27. DNS can use the services of ________ using the
D) none of the above well-known port 53.
A) UDP
18. The first level in the generic domains section allows B) TCP
______ possible labels. C) either (a) or (b) *
B) 2
C) 16 CHAPTER 26 (53 ITEMS)
1. TELNET is an abbreviation for ____________.
19. The ____________ domain section uses two- A) terminal network *
character country abbreviations. B) telephone network
A) generic C) telecommunication network
B) country * D) none of the above
C) inverse
2. TELNET is a ________ client-server application
program.
20. The _________ domain is used to map an address to
A) specific-purpose
a name.
B) general-purpose *
A) generic
C) both a and b
B) country
C) inverse *
3. When a user logs into a local time-sharing system, it is
called ________ login.
21. In __________ resolution, the resolver expects the
A) local *
server to supply the final answer.
B) remote
A) iterative
C) temporary
B) recursive *
C) straight
D) none of the above 4. When a user wants to access an application program
or utility located on a remote machine, he or she
22. In __________ resolution, the server returns the IP performs ___________ login.
address of the server that it thinks can resolve the query. A) local
A) iterative * B) remote *
B) recursive C) temporary
C) straight D) none of the above
5. NVT uses two sets of characters, one for _____and
23. In the domain name chal.atc.fhda.edu, _______ is one for __________.
the least specific label. A) sending; receiving
A) chal B) request; reply
B) atc C) data; control *
C) edu * D) none of the above
6. For data, NVT uses US ASCII characters with the
24. In the domain name chal.atc.fhda.edu, _______ is highest order bit set to ______.
the most specific label. A) 1
A) chal *

B) 0 * C) TELNET server *
C) a or b D) none of the above
16. If the sender wants to disable an option, it sends a
7. For control, NVT uses US ASCII characters with the _______ command.
highest order bit set to ______. A) WILL
A) 1 * B) DO
B) 0 C) WONT *
C) a or b D) none of the above
17. If the sender wants to enable an option, it sends a
8. TELNET uses only one TCP connection. The server _______ command.
uses ________ port and the client uses ________ port. A) WILL *
A) a well-known; another well-known B) DO
B) an ephemeral; another ephemeral C) WONT
C) a well-known; an ephemeral * D) none of the above
18. If the sender wants an option disabled by the
9. To distinguish data from control characters, each receiver, it sends a _______ command.
sequence of control characters is preceded by a special A) WILL
control character called ________. B) DO
A) ICA C) DONT *
B) IAC * D) none of the above
C) AIC
D) none of the above 19. If the sender wants an option enabled by the
receiver, it sends a _______ command.
10. In the _______ mode, the echoing is done by the A) WILL
client. B) DO *
A) default * C) WONT
B) character D) none of the above
C) line
D) none of the above 20. _______ is the standard mechanism provided by
TCP/IP for copying a file from one host to another.
11. In the _______ mode, each character typed is sent A) TELNET
by the client to the server. B) SMTP
A) default C) TFTP
B) character * D) none of the above *
C) line
D) none of the above 21. FTP uses the services of ________.
A) UDP
12. In the ____ mode, line editing (echoing, character B) IP
erasing, line erasing, and so on) is done by the client. C) TCP *
A) default D) none of the above
B) character
C) line * 22. In FTP, the well-known port ____ is used for the
D) none of the above control connection and the well-known port ________ for
the data connection.
13. The _______ is software residing on the remote A) 21; 22
system that allows the remote system to receive B) 21; 20 *
characters from a TELNET server. C) 20; 21
A) terminal driver D) none of the above
B) pseudoterminal driver *
C) TELNET client 23. In FTP, _______ is the service type used by the IP
D) none of the above protocol because this is an interactive connection
between a user (human) and a server.
14. The _______ translates local characters into NVT A) maximize throughput
form. B) minimize delay *
A) terminal driver C) minimize error
B) TELNET client * D) none of the above
C) TELNET server
D) none of the above 24. For the control connection, FTP uses the
__________ character set
15. The _______ translates NVT characters into a form A) regular ASCII
acceptable by the remote operating system. B) EBCDIC
A) terminal driver C) NVT ASCII *
B) TELNET client D) none of the above

34. When the sender and the receiver of an email are on

25. During an FTP session the control connection is different systems, we need only _____________.
opened _______. A) one MTA
A) exactly once * B) two UAs
B) exactly twice C) two UAs and one pair of MTAs *
C) as many times as necessary D) none of the above
35. When the sender is connected to the mail server via
26. During an FTP session the data connection is a LAN or a WAN, we need ______________.
opened _______. A) two MTA
A) exactly once B) two UAs and two pairs of MTAs *
B) exactly twice C) two UAs and a pair of MTAs
C) as many times as necessary * D) none of the above
36. When both sender and receiver are connected to a
27. In FTP, a file can be organized into records, pages, mail server via a LAN or a WAN, we need
or a stream of bytes. These are types of an attribute ___________________.
called _______. A) two UAs, two pairs of MTAs, and a pair of MAAs *
A) file types B) two UAs, and two pairs of MTAs
B) data structures * C) two UAs, two pairs of MTAs, and two pairs of MAAs
C) transmission modes D) none of the above
37. ________ provides service to the user to make the
28. In FTP, there are three types of _______: stream, process of sending and receiving a message easier.
block, and compressed. A) An MTA
A) file types B) An MAA
B) data structures C) A UA *
C) transmission modes * D) none of the above
38. Which of the following services is not provided by a
29. In FTP, ASCII, EBCDIC, and image define an UA?
attribute called _______. A) composing messages
A) file type * B) reading messages
B) data structure C) replying messages
C) transmission mode D) all are *
39. There are two types of user agents: _________ and
30. In FTP, when we _______, it is copied from the ___________.
server to the client. A) command-driven; data-driven
A) retrieve a file B) command-driven; GUI-based *
B) retrieve a list C) command-based and data-based
C) a and c * D) none of the above
40. The ________ usually contains the sender address,
31. In FTP, when we _______, it is copied from the client the receiver address, and other information.
to the server. A) message
A) retrieve a file B) envelope *
B) store a file * C) both a and b
C) retrieve a list D) none of the above
41. The message contains the ________ and the
32. ________ is part of a local hard drive, a special file __________.
with permission restrictions. A) header; envelop
A) A message B) header; body *
B) A response C) envelop; body
C) An agent D) none of the above
D) None of the above *
42. In the Internet, the email address consists of two
33. When the sender and the receiver of an email are on parts: a _______ and a _______.
the same system, we need only ___________. A) local part; domain name *
A) one UA B) global part; domain name
B) two UAs * C) label; domain name
C) one UA and one MTA D) none of the above
43. _________ is a supplementary protocol that allows
non-ASCII data to be sent through email.

A) JPEG
B) MPEG 53. _______ is more powerful and complex than
C) MIME * _______.
D) none of the above A) POP3; IMAP4
B) IMAP4; POP3 *
44. The actual mail transfer is done through C) SMTP; POP3
____________. D) none of the above
A) UAs
B) MTAs CHAPTER 27 (30 ITEMS)
C) MAAs
D) none of the above 1. _________ is a repository of information linked
together from points all over the world.
45. The formal protocol that defines the MTA client and A) The WWW *
server in the Internet is called ___________. B) HTTP
A) SMTP * C) HTML
B) SNMP D) none of the above
C) TELNET
D) none of the above 2. The WWW today is a _______ client-server service, in
which a client using a browser can access a service
46. The process of transferring a mail message occurs in using a server.
________ phases. A) limited
A) two B) vast
B) four C) distributed *
C) five D) none of the above
3. The _________ is a standard for specifying any kind of
47. SMTP is a __________protocol. information on the Internet.
A) pull A) URL *
B) push * B) ULR
C) both a and b C) RLU
48. The third stage in an email transfer needs a 4. In a URL, the _______ is the client-server program
________ protocol. used to retrieve the document.
A) pull * A) path
B) push B) protocol *
C) both a and b C) host
49. The third stage in an email transfer uses a(n) 5. In a URL, the ______ is the computer on which the
________ protocol. information is located.
A) UA A) path
B) MTA B) protocol
C) MAA * C) host *
50. Currently two message access protocols are 6. In a URL, an optional ________ can be inserted
available: _______ and _________. between the host and the path, and it is separated from
A) POP3; IMAP2 the host by a colon.
B) POP4; IMAP1 A) path
C) POP3; IMAP4 * B) protocol
D) none of the above C) host
51. Which part of the mail created by the UA contains the
sender and receiver names? 7. In a URL, the _______ is the full name of the file
A) envelope where the information is located.
B) address A) path *
C) header * B) protocol
D) none of the above C) host
52. The MIME _______ header uses text to describe the
type of data in the body of the message. 8. A cookie is made by the ________ and eaten by the
A) content-type _________.
B) content-transfer-encoding A) client; client
C) content-description * B) client; server

C) server; server * D) none of the above

18. HTTP uses the services of _________ on well-known
9. The documents in the WWW can be grouped into port 80.
______ broad categories. A) UDP
A) two B) IP
B) three * C) TCP *
C) four D) none of the above
19. In HTTP, the first line in a request message is called
10. A _______ document is a fixed-content document a _______ line; the first line in the response message is
that is created and stored in a server. The client can get called the ________ line.
a copy of the document only. A) request; response
A) static * B) response; request
B) dynamic C) response; status
C) active D) none of the above *
20. In a ___________ connection, one TCP connection
11. _____________ is a language for creating Web is made for each request/response.
pages. A) persistent
A) HTTP B) nonpersistent *
B) HTML * C) both a and b
C) FTTP D) none of the above
21. In a ___________connection, the server leaves the
12. A _______ document is created by a Web server connection open for more requests after sending a
whenever a browser requests the document. response.
A) static A) persistent *
B) dynamic * B) nonpersistent
C) active C) both a and b
13. ___________ is a technology that creates and 22. HTTP version 1.1 specifies a _________connection
handles dynamic documents. by default.
A) GIC A) persistent *
B) CGI * B) nonpersistent
C) GCI C) both a and b
14. Dynamic documents are sometimes referred to as 23. In HTTP, a _______ server is a computer that keeps
_________ dynamic documents. copies of responses to recent requests.
A) client-site A) regular
B) server-site * B) proxy *
C) both a and b C) both a and b
15. For many applications, we need a program or a script 24. An HTTP request message always contains
to be run at the client site. These are called _______.
_______________ documents. A) a header and a body
A) static B) a request line and a header *
B) dynamic C) a status line, a header, and a body
C) active * D) none of the above
25. Which of the following is present in both an HTTP
16. One way to create an active document is to use request line and a status line?
__________. A) HTTP version number *
A) CGI B) URL
B) Java stand-alone programs C) status code
C) Java applets * D) none of the above
26. The HTTP request line contains a _______ method
17. Active documents are sometimes referred to as to request a document from the server.
_________ dynamic documents. A) GET *
A) client-site * B) POST
B) server-site C) COPY
C) both a and b D) none of the above

27. A user needs to send the server some information. 6. We can compare the task of network management to
The request line method is _______. the task of writing a program. Both tasks need rules. In
A) OPTION network management this is handled by ___________.
B) PATCH A) SMNP
C) POST * B) MIB
D) none of the above C) SMI *
28. The HTTP request line contains a _______ method
to get information 7. We can compare the task of network management to
about a document without retrieving the document itself. the task of writing a program. Both tasks need variable
A) HEAD * declarations. In network management this is handled by
B) POST _________.
C) COPY A) SMNP
D) none of the above B) MIB *
C) SMI
29. A response message always contains _______. D) none of the above
A) a header and a body
B) a request line and a header 8. We can compare the task of network management to
C) a status line and a header * the task of writing a program. Both tasks have actions
D) none of the above performed by statements. In network management this is
handled by _______.
30. An applet is _______ document application program. A) SMNP *
A) a static B) MIB
B) an active * C) SMI
C) a passive D) none of the above
D) a dynamic
9. SMI emphasizes three attributes to handle an object:
CHAPTER 28 (32 ITEMS) _____, ________, and _________.
A) name; data type; size
1. SNMP defines the ___________________ to be sent B) name; size; encoding method
from a manager to an agent and vice versa. C) name; data type; encoding method *
A) format of the packets * D) none of the above
B) encoding of the packets
C) number of packets 10. To name objects globally, SMI uses an object
D) none of the above identifier, which is a hierarchical identifier based on a
_______ structure
2. A manager is a host that runs the SNMP _______ A) linear
process. B) tree *
A) client * C) graph
B) server D) none of the above
C) both a and b
D) none of the above 11. All objects managed by SNMP are given an object
identifier. The object identifier always starts with
3. An agent is a host or computer that runs the SNMP _______.
_______ process. A) 1.3.6.1.2.1 *
A) client B) 1.3.6.1.2.2
B) server * C) 1.3.6.1.2.3
12. To define the data type, SMI uses fundamental
4. SNMP uses two other protocols: ________ and _______ definitions and adds some new definitions.
_________. A) AMS.1
A) MIB; SMTP B) ASN.1 *
B) SMI; MIB * C) ASN.2
C) FTP; SMI D) none of the above
13. SMI has two broad categories of data type: _______
5. ________ defines the general rules for naming and _______.
objects, defining object types, and showing how to A) simple; complex
encode objects and values. B) simple; structured *
A) MIB C) structured; unstructured
B) BER D) none of the above
C) SMI *
D) none of the above 14. The _______ data types are atomic data types.
A) structure

B) simple * C) ASN.1 *
24. Which of the following could be a legitimate MIB
15. SMI defines two structured data types: ________ and object identifier?
_________. A) 1.3.6.1.2.1.1 *
A) sequence; atomic B) 1.3.6.1.2.2.1
B) sequence; sequence of * C) 2.3.6.1.2.1.2
C) a sequence of; array D) none of the above
25. Which is a manager duty?
16. SMI uses another standard, ___________, to encode A) Retrieve the value of an object defined in an agent.
data to be transmitted over the network. B) Store the value of an object defined in an agent.
A) MIB C) a and b *
B) ANS.1 D) none of the above
C) BER *
D) none of the above 26. For a 1-byte length field, what is the maximum value
for the data length?
17. The _________ ordering enables a manager to A) 127 *
access a set of variables one after another by defining B) 128
the first variable. C) 255
A) lexicographic * D) none of the above
B) linear
C) non-linear 27. An object id defines a _______. Add a zero suffix to
D) none of the above define the _______.
A) variable; table
18. The GetRequest PDU is sent from the _______ to B) table; variable
the __________ to retrieve the value of a variable or a C) variable; variable contents *
set of variables. D) none of the above
A) client; server *
B) server; client 28. An SNMP agent can send _______ messages.
C) server; network A) GetRequest
D) none of the above B) SetRequest
C) Trap *
19. The Response PDU is sent from the ______ to the D) none of the above
______ in response to GetRequest or GetNextRequest.
A) server; client * 29. An SNMP agent can send _______ messages.
B) client; server A) Response *
C) network; host B) GetRequest
D) none of the above C) SetRequest
20. The Trap PDU is sent from the ______ to the
_______ to report an event. 30. The _______ field in the SNMP PDU is an offset that
A) server; client * points to the variable in error.
B) client; server A) community
C) network; host B) enterprise
D) none of the above C) error index *
21. SNMP uses the services of UDP on two well-known
ports, _______ and _______. 31. The _______ field in the SNMP PDU reports an error
A) 161; 162 * in a response message.
B) 160; 161 A) community
C) 160; 162 B) enterprise
D) none of the above C) error status *
22. _______ runs the SNMP client program; _______
runs the SNMP server program. 32. The _______ field in the SNMP PDU consists of a
A) A manager; a manager sequence of variables and their corresponding values.
B) An agent; an agent A) version
C) A manager; an agent * B) community
D) An agent; a manager C) VarBindList *
23. INTEGER, OCTET STRING, and ObjectIdentifier are
_______ definitions used by SMI. CHAPTER 29 (34 ITEMS)
A) MIB
B) SNMP

1. We can divide audio and video services into _______ C) data compression
broad categories. D) none of the above
A) three *
B) two 11. The second phase of JPEG is ___________.
C) four A) DCT transformation
D) none of the above B) quantization *
C) data compression
2. ________ audio/video refers to on-demand requests D) none of the above
for compressed audio/video files.
A) Streaming live 12. The third phase of JPEG is ___________.
B) Streaming stored * A) DCT transformation
C) Interactive B) quantization
D) none of the above C) data compression *
3. ___________ audio/video refers to the broadcasting of
radio and TV programs through the Internet. 13. Jitter is introduced in real-time data by the
A) Interactive _______________.
B) Streaming live * A) error caused during transmission
C) Streaming stored B) delay between packets *
4. _________ audio/video refers to the use of the
Internet for interactive audio/video applications. 14. To prevent _________, we can timestamp the
A) Interactive * packets and separate the arrival time from the playback
B) Streaming live time.
C) Streaming stored A) error
D) none of the above B) jitter *
C) either a or b
5. According to the Nyquist theorem, we need to sample D) none of the above
an analog signal ________times the highest frequency.
A) three 15. A ________buffer is required for real-time traffic.
B) two * A) playback *
C) four B) reordering
D) none of the above C) sorting
6. In ________ encoding, the differences between the
samples are encoded instead of encoding all the 16. A __________on each packet is required for real-
sampled values. time traffic.
A) predictive * A) timestamp
B) perceptual B) sequence number
C) both a and b C) both a and b *
7. __________ encoding is based on the science of 17. Real-time traffic needs the support of ____________.
psychoacoustics, which is the study of how people A) broadcasting
perceive sound. B) multicasting *
A) Predictive C) both a and b
B) Perceptual * D) none of the above
C) both a and b
D) none of the above 18. __________ means changing the encoding of a
payload to a lower quality to match the bandwidth of the
8. ____________ is used to compress images. receiving network.
A) MPEG A) Translation *
B) JPEG * B) Mixing
C) either a or b C) both a and b
9. ____________ is used to compress video. 19. __________ means combining several streams of
A) MPEG * traffic into one stream.
B) JPEG A) Translation
C) either a or b B) Mixing *
10. The first phase of JPEG is ___________.
A) DCT transformation * 20. _________ is not suitable for interactive multimedia
B) quantization traffic because it retransmits packets in case of errors.

A) UDP A) Timestamps
B) TCP * B) Playback buffers
C) both a and b C) Sequence numbers *
21. __________ is the protocol designed to handle real- 30. In a real-time video conference, data from the server
time traffic on the Internet. is _______ to the client sites.
A) TCP A) unicast
B) UDP B) multicast *
C) RTP * C) broadcast
22. RTP uses a temporary even-numbered _______ port. 31. A _______ adds signals from different sources to
A) UDP * create a single signal.
B) TCP A) timestamp
C) both a and b B) sequence number
D) none of the above C) mixer *
23. ___________ is a protocol for controlling the flow and
quality of data. 32. A _______ changes the format of a high-bandwidth
A) RTP video signal to a lower quality narrow-bandwidth signal.
B) RTCP * A) timestamp
C) UDP B) sequence number
D) none of the above C) translator *
24. RTCP uses an odd-numbered _______ port number
that follows the port number selected for RTP. 33. An RTP packet is encapsulated in _______.
A) UDP * A) a UDP user datagram *
B) TCP B) a TCP segment
C) both a and b C) an IP datagram
25. ___________ is an application protocol that 34. When there is more than one source, the _______
establishes, manages, and terminates a multimedia identifier defines the mixer.
session A) synchronization source *
A) RIP B) contributor
B) SIP * C) timestamp
C) DIP D) none of the above
26. _______ is a standard to allow telephones on the
public telephone network to talk to computers connected 1. ________ is the science and art of transforming
to the Internet. messages to make them secure and immune to attacks.
A) SIP A) Cryptography *
B) H.323 * B) Cryptoanalysis
C) Q.991 C) either (a) or (b)
D) none of the above D) neither (a) nor (b)
27. A real-time video performance lasts 10 min. If there is 2. The ________is the original message before
jitter in the system, the viewer spends _______ minutes transformation.
watching the performance. A) ciphertext
A) less than 10 B) plaintext *
B) more than 10 * C) secret-text
C) exactly 10 D) none of the above
3. The ________ is the message after transformation.
28. A _______ shows the time a packet was produced A) ciphertext *
relative to the first or previous packet. B) plaintext
A) timestamp * C) secret-text
B) playback buffer D) none of the above
C) sequence number
D) none of the above 4. A(n) _______ algorithm transforms plaintext to
ciphertext
29. _______ are used to number the packets of a real- A) encryption *
time transmission. B) decryption

C) either (a) or (b) A) Substitution *

D) neither (a) nor (b) B) Transposition
5. A(n) ______ algorithm transforms ciphertext to D) neither (a) nor (b)
plaintext.
A) encryption 15. The _______ cipher is the simplest monoalphabetic
B) decryption * cipher. It uses modular arithmetic with a modulus of 26.
C) either (a) or (b) A) transposition
D) neither (a) nor (b) B) additive
C) shift *
6. A combination of an encryption algorithm and a D) none of the above
decryption algorithm is called a ________.
A) cipher * 16. The Caesar cipher is a _______cipher that has a key
B) secret of 3.
C) key A) transposition
D) none of the above B) additive
C) shift *
7. The _______ is a number or a set of numbers on D) none of the above
which the cipher operates.
A) cipher 17. The ________ cipher reorders the plaintext
B) secret characters to create a ciphertext.
C) key * A) substitution
D) none of the above B) transposition *
8. In a(n) ________ cipher, the same key is used by both D) neither (a) nor (b)
the sender and receiver.
A) symmetric-key * 18. A(n) ______ is a keyless substitution cipher with N
B) asymmetric-key inputs and M outputs that uses a formula to define the
C) either (a) or (b) relationship between the input stream and the output
D) neither (a) nor (b) stream.
A) S-box *
9. In a(n) ________, the key is called the secret key. B) P-box
A) symmetric-key * C) T-box
B) asymmetric-key D) none of the above
D) neither (a) nor (b) 19. A(n) _______is a keyless transposition cipher with N
inputs and M
10. In a(n) ________ cipher, a pair of keys is used. outputs that uses a table to define the relationship
A) symmetric-key between the input stream and the output stream.
B) asymmetric-key * A) S-box
C) either (a) or (b) B) P-box *
D) neither (a) nor (b) C) T-box
11. In an asymmetric-key cipher, the sender uses
the__________ key. 20. A modern cipher is usually a complex _____cipher
A) private made of a combination of different simple ciphers.
B) public * A) round *
C) either (a) or (b) B) circle
D) neither (a) nor (b) C) square
12. In an asymmetric-key cipher, the receiver uses the
______ key. 21. DES is a(n) ________ method adopted by the U.S.
A) private * government.
B) public A) symmetric-key *
C) either (a) or (b) B) asymmetric-key
D) neither (a) nor (b) C) either (a) or (b)
13. A ________ cipher replaces one character with
another character. 22. DES has an initial and final permutation block and
A) substitution * _________ rounds.
B) transposition A) 14
C) either (a) or (b) B) 15
D) neither (a) nor (b) C) 16 *
14. _________ ciphers can be categorized into two
broad categories: monoalphabetic and polyalphabetic. 23. The DES function has _______ components.

A) 2 B) integrity
B) 3 C) authentication
D) 5
2. Message_____ means that the data must arrive at the
24. DES uses a key generator to generate sixteen receiver exactly as sent.
_______ round keys. A) confidentiality
A) 32-bit B) integrity *
B) 48-bit * C) authentication
C) 54-bit D) none of the above
D) 42-bit
3. Message _______ means that the receiver is ensured
25. ________ DES was designed to increase the size of that the message is coming from the intended sender,
the DES key not an imposter.
A) Double A) confidentiality
B) Triple * B) integrity
C) Quadruple C) authentication *
26. _______ is a round cipher based on the Rijndael 4. _________ means that a sender must not be able to
algorithm that uses a 128-bit block of data. deny sending a message that he sent.
A) AEE A) Confidentiality
B) AED B) Integrity
C) AER C) Authentication
D) AES * D) Nonrepudiation *
27. AES has _____ different configurations 5. ________ means to prove the identity of the entity that
A) two tries to access the system's resources.
B) three * A) Message authentication
C) four B) Entity authentication *
D) five C) Message confidentiality
28. ECB and CBC are ________ ciphers.
A) block * 6. A(n) _________ can be used to preserve the integrity
B) stream of a document or a message.
C) field A) message digest *
D) none of the above B) message summary
C) encrypted message
29. One commonly used public-key cryptography method D) none of the above
is the ______ algorithm.
A) RSS 7. A(n) ________function creates a message digest out
B) RAS of a message.
C) RSA * A) encryption
D) RAA B) decryption
C) hash *
30. The ________ method provides a one-time session D) none of the above
key for two parties.
A) Diffie-Hellman * 8. A hash function must meet ________ criteria.
B) RSA A) two
C) DES B) three *
D) AES C) four
31. The _________ attack can endanger the security of
the Diffie-Hellman method if two parties are not 9. A _______ message digest is used as an MDC.
authenticated to each other. A) keyless *
A) man-in-the-middle * B) keyed
B) ciphertext attack C) either (a) or (b)
C) plaintext attack D) neither (a) nor (b)
10. To authenticate the data origin, one needs a(n)
CHAPTER 31 (29 ITEMS) _______.
A) MDC
1. Message ________ means that the sender and the B) MAC *
receiver expect privacy. C) either (a) or (b)
A) confidentiality * D) neither (a) nor (b)

11. A ________ signature is included in the document; a D) all of the above *

_______ signature is a separate entity.
A) conventional; digital * 21. A(n) _____ is a trusted third party that assigns a
B) digital; digital symmetric key to two parties.
C) either (a) or (b) A) KDC *
D) neither (a) nor (b) B) CA
C) KDD
12. Digital signature provides ________. D) none of the above
A) authentication
B) nonrepudiation 22. A(n)______ creates a secret key only between a
C) both (a) and (b) * member and the center.
D) neither (a) nor (b) A) CA
B) KDC *
13. Digital signature cannot provide ________ for the C) KDD
message. D) none of the above
A) integrity
B) confidentiality * 23. The secret key between members needs to be
C) nonrepudiation created as a ______ key when two members contact
D) authentication KDC.
A) public
14. If _________ is needed, a cryptosystem must be B) session *
applied over the scheme. C) complimentary
A) integrity D) none of the above
B) confidentiality *
C) nonrepudiation 24. __________ is a popular session key creator protocol
D) authentication that requires an authentication server and a ticket-
granting server.
15. A digital signature needs a(n)_________ system. A) KDC
A) symmetric-key B) Kerberos *
B) asymmetric-key * C) CA
25. A(n) ________is a federal or state organization that
16. A witness used in entity authentication is binds a public key to an entity and issues a certificate.
____________. A) KDC
A) something known B) Kerberos
B) something possessed C) CA *
C) something inherent D) none of the above
26. A(n) ______ is a hierarchical system that answers
17. In _______, a claimant proves her identity to the queries about key certification.
verifier by using one of the three kinds of witnesses. A) KDC
A) message authentication B) PKI
B) entity authentication * C) CA *
C) message confidentiality D) none of the above
D) message integrity
27. The _______ criterion states that it must be
18. Password-based authentication can be divided into extremely difficult or impossible to create the message if
two broad categories: _______ and _______. the message digest is given.
A) fixed; variable A) one-wayness *
B) time-stamped; fixed B) weak-collision-resistance
C) fixed; one-time * C) strong-collision-resistance
19. In ________ authentication, the claimant proves that 28. The ________ criterion ensures that a message
she knows a secret without actually sending it. cannot easily be forged.
A) password-based A) one-wayness
B) challenge-response * B) weak-collision-resistance *
C) either (a) or (b) C) strong-collision-resistance
D) neither (a) nor (b) D) none of the above
20. Challenge-response authentication can be done 29. The _______criterion ensures that we cannot find
using ________. two messages that hash to the same digest.
A) symmetric-key ciphers A) one-wayness
B) asymmetric-key ciphers B) weak-collision-resistance
C) keyed-hash functions C) strong-collision-resistance *


10. IPSec uses a set of SAs called the ________.
CHAPTER 32 (34 ITEMS) A) SAD
B) SAB
1. _________ is a collection of protocols designed by the C) SADB *
IETF (Internet Engineering Task Force) to provide D) none of the above
security for a packet at the network level.
A) IPSec * 11. ______ is the protocol designed to create security
B) SSL associations, both inbound and outbound.
C) PGP A) SA
D) none of the above B) CA
C) KDC
2. _________ operates in the transport mode or the D) IKE *
tunnel mode.
A) IPSec * 12. IKE creates SAs for _____.
B) SSL A) SSL
C) PGP B) PGP
D) none of the above C) IPSec *
D) VP
3. In the ______ mode, IPSec protects information
delivered from the transport layer to the network layer. 13. IKE is a complex protocol based on ______ other
A) transport * protocols.
B) tunnel A) two
C) either (a) or (b) B) three *
D) neither (a) nor (b) C) four
D) five
4. IPSec in the ______ mode does not protect the IP
header. 14. IKE uses _______.
A) transport * A) Oakley
B) tunnel B) SKEME
C) either (a) or (b) C) ISAKMP
D) neither (a) nor (b) D) all of the above *
5. The _______ mode is normally used when we need 15. A _______network is used inside an organization.
host-to-host (end-to-end) protection of data. A) private *
A) transport * B) public
B) tunnel C) semi-private
C) either (a) or (b) D) semi-public
16. An ________ is a private network that uses the
6. In the _______ mode, IPSec protects the whole IP Internet model.
packet, including the original IP header. A) intranet *
A) transport B) internet
B) tunnel * C) extranet
17. An _________ is a network that allows authorized
7. IPSec defines two protocols: _______ and ________. access from outside users.
A) AH; SSL A) intranet
B) PGP; ESP B) internet
C) AH; ESP * C) extranet *
8. ______ provides authentication at the IP level. 18. The Internet authorities have reserved addresses for
A) AH * _______.
B) ESP A) intranets
C) PGP B) internets
D) SSL C) extranets
9. ______ provides either authentication or encryption, or
both, for packets at the IP level. 19. A ______ provides privacy for LANs that must
A) AH communicate through the global Internet.
B) ESP * A) VPP
C) PGP B) VNP
D) SSL C) VNN
D) VPN *

C) PGP *
20. A _______ layer security protocol provides end-to- D) none of the above
end security services for applications.
A) data link 30. ________ provides privacy, integrity, and
B) network authentication in e-mail.
C) transport * A) IPSec
D) none of the above B) SSL
C) PGP *
21. ______ is actually an IETF version of _____ D) none of the above
A) TLS; TSS
B) SSL; TLS 31. In PGP, to exchange e-mail messages, a user needs
C) TLS; SSL * a ring of _______ keys.
D) SSL; SLT A) secret
B) public *
22. _______ provide security at the transport layer. C) either (a) or (b)
A) SSL D) both (a) and (b)
B) TLS
C) either (a) or (b) 32. In ______, there is a single path from the fully trusted
D) both (a) and (b) * authority to any certificate.
A) X509 *
23. ______ is designed to provide security and B) PGP
compression services to C) KDC
data generated from the application layer. D) none of the above
A) SSL
B) TLS 33. In _____, there can be multiple paths from fully or
C) either (a) or (b) partially trusted authorities.
D) both (a) and (b) * A) X509
B) PGP *
24. Typically, ______ can receive application data from C) KDC
any application layer protocol, but the protocol is D) none of the above
normally HTTP.
A) SSL 34._______ uses the idea of certificate trust levels.
B) TLS A) X509
C) either (a) or (b) B) PGP *
D) both (a) and (b) * C) KDC
25. SSL provides _________. D) none of the above
A) message integrity
B) confidentiality
C) compression
26. The combination of key exchange, hash, and

encryption algorithms defines a ________ for each SSL
session.
A) list of protocols
B) cipher suite *
C) list of keys
27. In _______, the cryptographic algorithms and secrets

are sent with the message.
A) IPSec
B) SSL
C) TLS
D) PGP *
28. One security protocol for the e-mail system is

_________.
A) IPSec
B) SSL
C) PGP *
29. ______ was invented by Phil Zimmerman.

A) IPSec
B) SSL

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1 1300 QUESTIONS IN EST

BLAKE MCQ – 105

TOTAL: 1359 QUESTIONS

PREPARED BY: ENGR. PAOLO STEVEN DM POLINTAN 🐧 1

BLAKE MCQ (105 ITEMS) a. loop gain equal to unity

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d. none of the above d. maximize the useable bandwidth in digital transmission

41. The function of AFC is: 51. Call blocking:

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65. A switch: 75. To reduce the need for lin

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d. none of the above 1. The kinetic energy of an electron is directly

8. The waveguide yields an electric field configuration

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b. Cutoff operation a. the impedance of a waveguide does not

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b. Capacitive coupling * A) Performance

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30. A ________ is a set of rules that governs data A) Network *

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A) 1 Hz 11. A signal is measured at two different points. The power

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C) either (a) or (b) * B) analog

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43. The minimum bandwidth of Manchester and differential

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C) 600 15. A constellation diagram shows us the __________ of a

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24. In _______, the peak amplitude of one signal level is 0;

25. How many carrier frequencies are used in BASK?

26. How many carrier frequencies are used in BFSK?

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4. In fiber optics, the signal is _______ waves. C) line-of-sight

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13. The simplest type of switching fabric is the ______

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22. In a one-stage space division switch, if N = 200, the

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1. A local telephone network is an example of a _______

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CHAPTER 11 (46 ITEMS) 10. _________framing uses two categories of protocols:

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A) bit-oriented C) either (a) or (b)

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C) CHAP * immediately. If the line is not idle, it waits a random

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D) both (a) and (b) C) token passing *

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D) none of the above C) Ethernet *

10. Each station on an Ethernet network has a unique

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66. TCP has ; SCTP has .