CHE 2024

KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA ERNAKULAM REGION

PRACTICE TEST 1 (2020-21)
CHEMISTRY
MM: 70 Time: 3 Hours
General Instructions:
Read the following instructions carefully.
a) There are 33 questions in this question paper. All questions are compulsory.
b) Section A: Q. No. 1 to 16 are objective type questions. Q. No. 1 and 2 are passage-based questions
carrying 4 marks each while Q. No. 3 to 16 carry 1 mark each.
c) Section B: Q. No. 17 to 25 are short answer questions and carry 2 marks each.
d) Section C: Q. No. 26 to 30 are short answer questions and carry 3 marks each.
e) Section D: Q. No. 31 to 33 are long answer questions carrying 5 marks each.
f) There is no overall choice. However, internal choices have been provided.
g) Use of calculators and log tables is not permitted.

SECTION A (OBJECTIVE TYPE)

1. Read the passage given below and answer the following questions: (1x4=4)

The Wacker process, olefin oxidation with PdCl2 catalysts, and related processes have been a staple for
organic and organometallic chemistry for half a century. The overall process (Scheme of equations
below) was discovered by Smidt and co-workers in the late 1950s at the Consortium für
electrochemische Industrie, a subsidiary of and the research organization for Wacker Chemie.

The oxidation reaction [first equation above], has been known for more than a century, has received
most of the mechanistic interest, and is the main focus of this review. Smidt and co-workers discovered
that the formed Pd0 could be regenerated by cupric chloride in situ [second equation], thus making the
reaction a commercial success. The final step [third equation], oxidation of CuCl to CuCl2, is one of the
fastest reactions in inorganic chemistry. These three reactions add up to the simple air oxidation of
ethene to ethanal. The Wacker process is important not only in its own right, but because it also opened
up the field of catalytic palladium chemistry, which proved to be very rich in both potential industrial
processes and new transformations for synthetic organic chemistry.

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(Reference: The Mechanism of the Wacker Reaction: A Tale of Two Hydroxypalladations; John A. Keith
and Patrick M. Henry; Minireviews in Wiley Interscience; Oct. 2009)

The following questions are multiple choice questions. Choose the most appropriate answer:

(i) The Carbonyl compound produced in Wacker process is obtained by the ozonolysis of
which of the following Alkene?
(a) H2C═CH2 (b) CH3— CH2CH═ CH2
(c) CH3— CH═ CH— CH3 (d) CH3—C═C—CH3
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CH3 CH3
(ii) When water is added to an alkyne A in presence of H2SO4 and HgSO4 a carbonyl
compound B is formed. B gives positive iodoform test but does not give positive Tollens
Test. A and B are:
(a) Ethyne and Ethanal (b) Propyne and Propanal
(c) Propyne and Propanone (d) Propyne and Ethanal
OR
An organic compound with molecular formula C8H8O forms 2, 4-DNP derivative,
reduces Tollen’s reagent and undergoes Cannizzaro reaction. On vigorous oxidation it
gives 1, 2-benzenedicarboxylic acid. The organic compound is:
(a) 2-methylbenzaldehyde (b) 2-ethylbenzaldehyde
(c) Acetophenone (d) 3-methylbenzaldehyde
(iii) CH3CHO and C6H5CH2CHO can be distinguished chemically by:
(a) Benedict’s Test (b) Tollen’s reagent
(c) Fehling’s reagent Test (d) Iodoform Test
(iv) CH3CH2C≡N X CH3CH2CHO. The reagent ‘X’ is:
(a) SnCl2/HCl, H2O/Boil (b) H2/Pd-BaSO4
(c) LiAlH4/Ether (d) NaBH4 / Ether, H3O+

2. Read the passage given below and answer the following questions: (1x4=4)

CO2 capture using physical sorbents

CO2
capture
using

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physical sorbents and inorganic porous materials (e.g. carbonaceous materials and zeolites respectively)
consumes lesser energy when compared with CCS with chemical sorbents. This is because no new bond
is formed between the sorbate and sorbent, therefore much lesser energy is required for CO2 regeneration.
Nevertheless, some well-known materials (e.g. activated carbon), have the disadvantage of poor CO2/N2
selectivity. Zeolites show much higher selectivity, but, they also have a disadvantage of lower CO2
loading and their efficiency is reduced in the presence of water. Furthermore, molecular sieve
membranes have great potentials, however, traditional molecular sieves (e.g. zeolites) have restricted
use in CO2/N2 separation because of similar kinetic diameters of N2 and CO2. In all, development of
advanced physical adsorbents with high CO2 capacity and selectivity is crucial. Good stability, CO2
affinity, scalability and additional required energy are major concerns in carbon capture research.
(Reference: Carbon capture by physical adsorption: Materials, experimental investigations and
numerical modeling and simulations – A review; R. Ben-Mansour, M.A. Habib; Elsevier Applied Energy
Journal; Oct 2015)

In Q. No. 2 (i) – (iv) a statement of assertion followed by a statement of reason is given. Choose
the correct answer out of the following choices.
(a) Assertion and reason both are correct statements and reason is correct explanation for assertion.
(b) Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is not correct explanation for assertion.
(c) Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrong statement.
(d) Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correct statement.
2. (i) Assertion: Adsorption is an exothermic process.
Reason: During adsorption there is decrease in Surface energy.
(ii) Assertion: No activation energy is required for Chemisorption.
Reason: Covalent bond is formed between adsorbent and adsorbate.
(iii) Assertion: CO2 and N2 are separated from blue gas by adsorption Carbon Capture process.
Reason: CO2 and N2 have different adsorption properties on an adsorption bed.
(iv) Assertion: Zeolite have restricted use in CO2/N2 separation.
Reason: Zeolites have large surface area.
OR
Assertion: Entropy is decreased after adsorption.
Reason: ΔG is negative for adsorption

(Following questions (No. 3 – 11) are multiple choice questions carrying 1 mark each)
3. The ὰ—helical structure of protein is stabilised by:
(a) Peptide bonds (b) Hydrogen bonds
(c) Disulphide bonds (d) Vander wals forces
OR
Which of the following base is not present in DNA?
(a) Adenine (b) Thymine
(c) Cytosine (d) Uracil

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4. Which of the following compound is oxidised to Methyl ethyl ketone?
(a) 2-Propanol (b) 1-Butanol
(c) 2-Butanol (d) tert. Butyl alcohol
5. A 5% solution of Cane Sugar (molecular mass = 342 gmol-1) is isotonic with 1% solution of
substance X. The molecular mass of X is:
(a) 34.2 (b) 171.2
(c) 68.4 (d) 136.8
6. Generally transition metals form coloured salts due to the presence of unpaired electrons. Which of
the following compound will be coloured in solid state?
(a) Ag2SO4 (b) CuF2
(c) ZnF2 (d) Cu2Cl2
OR
The magnetic moment of an electron is associated with its spin angular momentum and orbital angular
momentum. Spin only magnetic moment value of Cr3+ ion is:
(a) 2.87 BM (b) 3.87 BM
(c) 3.47 BM (d) 3.57 BM
7. An organic compound ‘A’ on treatment with NH3 gives ‘B’ which on heating gives ‘C’. ‘C’ when
treated with Br2 in presence of KOH produces Ethylamine. Compound ‘A’ is:
(a) CH3CH2CH2COOH (b) CH3COOH
(c) CH3—CH—COOH (d) CH3CH2COOH
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CH3
OR
In the following reaction:
A Reduction B HNO2 CH3CH2OH
The compound A is:
(a) Propane nitrile (b) Ethane nitrile
(c) Propanamine (d) Nitro ethane
8. Aqueous solution of which complex will be possessing high conductance?
(a) Hexaaminecobalt (III) chloride
(b) Tetraaminedichloridecobalt III) chloride
(c) Pentaaminechloridecobalt (III) chloride
(d) Triaminetrichloridocobalt (III)

OR
In which of the following Octahedral complex of Co (At.No.27) will the magnitude of Δ0 be the highest?
(a) [Co(NH3)6]3+ (b) [Co(CN)6]3-
(c) [Co(C2O4)3]3- (d) [Co(H2O)6]3+
9. In aqueous solution, Cr2+ is stronger reducing agent than Fe2+. This is because:
(a) Cr2+ ion is more stable than Fe2+.
(b) Cr3+ ion with d3 configuration has favourable crystal field stabilisation energy.
(c) Fe3+ in aqueous solution is more stable than Cr3+
(d) Fe3+ has half-filled electronic configuration
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10. Observe the unit cells a, b & c.

The no. of atoms per unit cell in a, b & c respectively are:

(a) 1, 2 & 4 (b) 2, 3 & 6
(c) 4, 2 & 6 (d) 2, 4 & 1
11. Arrange the compounds (i), (ii) & (iii) in the increasing order of rate of reaction towards nucleophilic
substitution:

(a) (iii) < (i) < (ii) (b) (iii) < (ii) < (i)
(c) (i) < (ii) < (iii) (d) (i) < (iii) < (ii)
In the following questions (Q. No. 12 – 16) a statement of assertion followed by a statement of
reason is given. Choose the correct answer out of the following choices.
(a) Assertion and reason both are correct statements and reason is correct explanation for assertion.
(b) Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is not correct explanation for assertion.
(c) Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrong statement.
(d) Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correct statement.
12. Assertion: A mixture of 2-Nitrophenol and 4-Nitrophenol can be separated by steam
distillation.
Reason: 2-Nitrophenol is associated with intra-molecular hydrogen bonds while
4-Nitrophenol is associated with inter-molecular hydrogen bonds.

13. Assertion: Tert. Butyl Methyl ether on treatment with HI at 373K gives a mixture of
Methyl Iodide and Tert. Butyl alcohol.
Reason: The reaction occurs by SN 1 mechanism.
14. Assertion: The two Oxygen-Oxygen bond length in the Ozone molecules are identical.
Reason: Ozone molecule is thermodynamically unstable.

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15. Assertion: When NaCl is added to water a depression in freezing point is observed.
Reason: The lowering of vapour pressure of the solution causes depression in the freezing
point.
OR
Assertion: The vapour pressure of a liquid decreases if some non-volatile solute is dissolved in it.
Reason: The relative lowering of vapour pressure containing non-volatile solution is equal to
the mole fraction of solute in the solution.

16. Assertion: During denaturation of proteins 20 and 30 structures are destroyed.

Reason: The hydrogen bonds are not disturbed during denaturation.

SECTION B
Following questions are short answer type and carry 2 marks each.
17. Carryout the following conversions in not more than two steps:
(i) Aniline to Phenol
(ii) Ethanoic acid to Ethanal
OR
Account for the following:
(i) Cl-CH2COOH is stronger acid than CH3COOH.
(ii) Carboxylic acids do not give reactions of Carbonyl group.
18. Boiling point of water at 750mm Hg is 99.630C. How much sucrose is to be added to 500g
of water such that it boils at 1000C? (Kb for water = 0.52 Kkgmol-1)

19. (i) Using IUPAC norms, write the formula of the following coordination complex:
Potassium trioxalatochromate (III)
(ii) [Fe(CN)6]4- and [Fe(H2O)6]2+ are of different colours in dilute solutions. Why?
OR
When a coordination compound PtCl4.6NH3 is mixed with AgNO3, 4 moles of AgCl are precipitated
per mole of the compound.
Write:
(i) Structural formula of the complex.
(ii) IUPAC name of the complex.
20. Observe following diagram and answer the questions given below:

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 (i) Identify the type of defect shown in the figure.
(ii) What type of solids exhibit this type of defect?
(iii) Explain the formation of this type of defect with one example.
21. The decomposition of N2O5 in Carbon tetrachloride solution has been found to be first order
with respect to N2O5 with rate constant k = 6.2x10-4 s-1

N2O5→ 2NO2 + ½ O2(g)

(i) Calculate the rate of reaction when [N2O5]=2.50mol L-1
(ii) What concentration of N2O5 would give rate of 4.2x10-3mol L-1s-1?
22. An amorphous solid ‘X’ burns in air to form a Gas ‘Y’ which turns lime water milky similar
to the reaction of CO2. This gas decolourises acidified KMnO4 solution and also reduces
Fe3+ to Fe2+. Identify ‘X’ and ‘Y’ and write the reaction of Gas ‘Y’ with acidified aq.
KMnO4 solution.

23. Three-fourth of a reaction is completed in 32 minutes. What is the half-life of the reaction?
OR
(i) The conversion of molecule X to Y follows second order kinetics. If concentration of X is
increased to three times, how will it affect the formation of Y?
(ii) What is the unit of rate constant for second order reaction?
24. Which among the following undergoes SN1 reaction faster?
Benzylchloride or Cyclohexylmethylchloride.
Explain the reason for the answer.
25. Write the mechanism of acid catalysed dehydration of Ethanol to yield Ethene.

SECTION C
(Q No. 26-30 are Short Answer Type carrying 3 mark each)
26. Based on graph given below answer the following questions:

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 (i) Which element has highest melting point among transition metals? Write a reason for its highest
melting point.
(ii) Generally in the transition series melting point of metals first increases, reaches a maximum and
then decreases. Suggest a reason for the observation.
(iii) Name two elements in the d block which are not considered as transition metals.
OR
Give reasons for the following:
(i) Eø of Cu is +0.34V while that of Zn is -0.76V
(ii) Transition metal exhibited highest oxidation states in oxoanions of a metal.
(iii) Transition metals form coloured ions.
27. (i) Why the order of boiling points of isomeric amines is primary > secondary > tertiary?
(ii) Give a chemical test to distinguish between ethanamine and N-Methyl ethanamine.
(iii) Arrange methanamine, N, N-dimethyl methanamine and N-methyl methanamine in the
increasing order of basic strength in aqueous phase.
OR
(i) How will you convert Aniline to Sulphanilic acid?
(ii) Why is Aniline less basic than Ethylamine?
(iii) Identify A & B in the following reaction:

28. Calculate the number of atoms present in 2 gram of crystal which have face-centred cubic (fcc)
crystal lattice having edge length of 100 pm and density 10 g cm-3.
29. Account for the following:
(i) Nitrogen does not form pentahalide.
(ii) SF6 is inert while SF4 is highly reactive towards hydrolysis.
(iii) Halogens are strong oxidising agents.
30. (i) How do you explain the presence of aldehyde group in glucose (write chemical equation).
(ii) Write the name and structure of naturally occurring amino acid which is optically inactive.
(iii) What is a peptide bond?

SECTION D
Q. No. 31 to 33 are long answer type carrying 5 marks each
31. (i) Arrange the following in the increasing order of bond dissociation enthalpy:
F2, Cl2, Br2, I2
(ii) Draw the shape of XeF2
(iii) X2 is a greenish yellow gas with pungent offensive smell used in purification of water. It
partially dissolves in water to give a solution which turns blue litmus red. When X2 is
passed through NaBr solution, Br2 is obtained.
(a) Identify X2, name the group to which it belongs.
(b) Why an aqueous solution of X2 act as a bleaching agent?
(c) What happens when X2 react with hot and conc. NaOH? Write equation.

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 OR
(i) Assign reasons for the following:
(a) Of the noble gases, only Xenon is known to form well established chemical compounds.
(b) When passed through water, Ammonia dissolves whereas Phosphine bubbles out.

(ii) What is aqua regia? Write the formula of the complex formed when Gold dissolves in aqua
regia.
(iii) Draw the shape of XeO3.
(iv) Arrange the following in the increasing order of thermal stability.
H2O, H2S, H2Se, H2Te
32. (i) Two moles of organic compound ‘A’ on treatment with strong base gives two compounds
‘B’ and ‘C’. Compound ‘B’ on dehydrogenation with Cu give ‘A’ while acidification of
‘C’ yields Carboxylic acid ‘D’ with molecular formula CH2CO2. Identify the compounds
A, B, C & D.
(ii) Arrange the following compounds in the increasing order of their boiling points:
CH3CHO, CH3CH2OH, CH3OCH3, CH3COOH.

(iii) What happens when Anisole is treated with HI (Write balanced chemical equation).
(iv) Write the chemical equation of Kolbe’s reaction.
OR
(i) Write the IUPAC name of the compound:
(CH3)2C═CHCOOH
(ii) Complete the following equations:

(a)
(b)

(c)

(iii) Arrange the following in the increasing order of acid strength:

CH3CH2CH(Br)COOH, CH3CH(Br)CH2COOH, (CH3)2CHCOOH, CH3CH2CH2COOH.

33. (i) Answer the following questions based on the graph given below:

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 (a) What can you say about the nature of the electrolytes X and Y?
(b) How do you account for the increase in Molar Conductivity for the electrolytes X and
Y with dilution?
(c) How can you determine Limiting Molar Conductivity for these electrolytes?

(ii) The Molar Conductivity of a 1.5M solution of an electrolyte is found to be 138.9scm2

mol-1 . Calculate conductivity of the solution.

OR
(i) If E0 for Copper electrode is +0.34 V, calculate e.m.f value when the solution in contact with
it is 0.1M in Copper ions? How does e.m.f for Copper electrode change when concentration
of Cu2+ ion in the solution is decreased?
(ii) Why is alternating current used for measuring resistance of an electrolytic solution?

(iii) State Kohlrausch’s law of independent migration of ions.

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